ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY

INSTRUCTIONS: Read each questions carefully and choose the best answer among the given
choices. Shade your answers on the corresponding item number on your answer sheet. Avoid
erasures.

1. Decades ago, psychiatrists in what was then the Soviet Union announced the discovery
of a form of mental illness whose main symptoms included paranoid distrust of authority,
and continuing criticisms of the government. This case illustrates one problem in using
the criterion of __________ to define mental disorder.
a. personal distress c. adaptiveness
b. statistical criteria d. social deviance

2. Disorders involving the single psychotic symptom of false beliefs are called:
a. shared psychotic disorders c. delusional disorders
b. schizophreniform disorders d. factitious disorers

3. Which of the following is NOT a major criterion for distinguishing psychopathology from
normalcy?
a. whether or not the individual's behavior is socially undesirable or unacceptable
b. whether or not the individual is disturbed or distressed by his own behavior or think-
ing.
c. whether or not the individual deviates from the statistical norm with respect to some
aspect of
d. psychological functioning.
e. all of the above are major criteria for psychopathology.

4. Why is confidentiality important?

a. It is necessary in order for clients to feel comfortable disclosing intimate details about
themselves.
b. It is important for the clients to feel confident about improvement in their condition.
c. It is a courtesy that has been brought about by the traditions of secrecy in the confes-
sional.
d. Most clients are collecting medical benefits and fear that if their bosses find out that
they will lose the money.

5. For the past three months, Tom's speech has been gradually deteriorating and becoming
incoherent, and he has been exhibiting purposeless and stereotyped behaviors. His symp-
toms at this point are not extremely active. In what phase of schizophrenia might Tom be
at this point?
a. Residual phase c. Remission phase
b. Active phase d. Prodromal phase

6. Individuals with anterograde amnesia suffer memory loss:

 a. due to a traumatic emotional experience.
b. as a result of epilepsy.
c. for events prior to their amnesia.
d. for new events that take place after the amnesia.

7. Aphasia is defined as the loss of ability to:

a. use language. C. carry out verbal instructions.
b. recognize familiar objects. D. learn or remember events.

8. Researchers studying adults with ADHD have found that many experience:
a. other serious psychological disorders.
b. higher than average intelligence.
c. improved psychological adjustment.
d. lower cognitive distractibility.

9. If the correlation between severity of depression and age is -.05, it means that:
a. older people have more severe depression.
b. older people have less severe depression.
c. younger people have almost no depression.
d. there is no consistent relationship between age and severity of depression.

10. In role-playing situations, subjects with paranoid personality disorder generally interpret
ambiguous behavior as:
a. Angry c. confusing
b. Hostile d. contradictory

11. Although those with paranoid personality disorder often are deeply suspicious, their sus-
picions usually do not:
a. threaten their interpersonal relationships.
b. become delusional.
c. result in anger.
d. involve those with whom they work.

12. What type of panic attack is an essential element of the diagnosis of panic disorder?
a. Situationally bound
b. Situationally predisposed
c. Agoraphobic
d. Unexpected

13. In discussing the relationship between the host and the alters in DID we noted that:
a. the host is typically not aware of the existence of the alters.
b. many alters do not believe themselves to be in need of therapy.
 c. the host generally comes to therapy complaining of depression, anxiety, or general
unease and unhappiness.
d. all of the above

14. Which behavioral technique is often successful in the treatment of panic disorder with
agoraphobia?
a. Lactate therapy
b. Modeling
c. Relaxation training
d. Flooding

15. Which theoretical perspective views the causes of phobias to be based on the individual's
faulty inferences and generalizations?
a. Cognitive c. Existential
b. Humanistic d. Psychoanalytic

16. A cognitive-behavioral therapist would treat an individual with generalized anxiety disor-
der by:
a. teaching the client to recognize and change anxiety-producing thoughts.
b. using free association to illuminate unconscious conflicts.
c. actively and empathically listening to the client's concerns.
d. urging the client to develop an enhanced sense of self .

17. Panic disorder in women is associated with what early childhood experience?
a. Parental illness and substance abuse
b. Overachieving school performance
c. Overindulgence by parental figures
d. Supportive family environment

18. Johnny is a chronic alcoholic with dementia. He also has difficulties remembering past
events and forming new memories. He suffers from:
a. Type 1 alcoholism. C. Wernicke's disease.
b. Alzheimer's disease. D. Korsakoff's syndrome.

19. Which treatment program is heavily grounded in spirituality?

a. Alcoholics Anonymous c. Relapse prevention therapy
b. Cue exposure method d. Detoxification

20. Shelly experiences intense periods of fear and physical discomfort that interfere with her
daily living. Shelly may have a(n):
a. somatoform disorder. c. dissociative disorder
b. anxiety disorder. d. mood disorder
21. Researchers urge caution before diagnosing a conversion disorder because as many as
half of those diagnosed as having conversion disorder turn out years later to have had:
a. a true physical illness. c. hypochondriacal symptoms.
b. a true psychological disorder. d. dissociative symptoms

22. Which of the following questions would not be part of the dissociative disorders inter-
view?
a. Were you physically abused as a child or adolescent?
b. Do you feel physical pain that lacks a physical basis?
c. Do you ever speak about yourself as "we" or "us"?
d. Do you ever feel that there is another person or persons inside you?

23. People with depersonalization disorder:

a. have more than one personality.
b. feel as though they are not real.
c. forget details about personal identity.
d. fabricate disturbance to get secondary gain.

24. Disorders in which psychological conflicts are translated into physical complaints are the:
a. anxiety disorders. C. personality disorders.
b. dissociative disorders. D. somatoform disorders.

25. Mr. Wall has been seen by many physicians, complaining of difficulty swallowing, chest
pain, and blurred vision. Medical examination yields no basis for his claims. Mr. Wall
seems to have which somatoform disorder?
a. Factitious disorder c. Pain disorder
b. Psychalgia d. Somatization disorder

26. Which somatoform disorder is characterized by dissatisfaction and delusional preoccupa-

tion with the idea that some part of the body is ugly or defective?
a. Briquet's syndrome c. body dysmorphic disorder
b. Psychalgia d. Hypochondriasis

27. A man persistently views his mild headaches as an indication he has a brain tumor despite
lack of evidence in support of his claim. This individual may be suffering from:
a. conversion disorder. c. somatization disorder.
b. psychogenic pain disorder. d. hypochondriasis.

28. The central or core personality in dissociative identity disorder is referred to as the:
a. cardinal personality. C. alter ego
b. nuclear personality. D. host personality

29. Connie is relatively unconcerned about the fact that she has suddenly lost all sensation in
her left hand. This bizarre lack of concern is referred to as:
 a. Psychalgia. C. La belle indifference.
b. Hysteria. D. Briquet's syndrome.

30. A diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires:

a. the experience of a depressive episode.
b. the experience of a manic episode.
c. a family history of mood disorder.
d. normal premorbid personality.

31. Which of the following factors indicates that a suicide case should be viewed as high-risk?
a. An elaborate suicide plan
b. Low suicidal lethality
c. Low suicidal intention
d. Parasuicidal intent

32. People with cyclothymic disorder experience chronic:

a. episodes of depression.
b. episodes of mania.
c. alterations from dysphoria to hypomania.
d. unrelenting hypomania.

33. Dr. Martel is a cognitive-behavioral therapist. She is least likely to use which approach?
a. Cognitive restructuring c. Graded task assignments
b. Didactic work d. Aversive conditioning

34. Researchers have found that there is a sizeable percentage of individuals suffering from
depression who also have the symptoms of another psychological disorder. Which disor-
der is it?
a. Somatization disorder c. Anxiety disorder
b. Post-traumatic stress disorder d. Dissociative disorder

35. Researchers have proposed that the seasonal type of depression may be caused by alter-
ations in biological rhythms due to seasonal variations in:
a. caloric intake. c. norepinephrine production.
b. temperature. d. light.

36. Central to early psychodynamic explanations of depression is the notion of:

a. "loss" at an unconscious level.
b. disordered thinking patterns.
c. lack of positive reinforcement.
d. regression to an egoless state.

37. People with paranoid personality disorder tend to:

 a. become overly dependent on others.
b. engage in criminal acts.
c. be impulsive.
d. keep their distance from people.

38. Chris is a very shy 30-year-old woman who usually stays home and doesn't interact with
other people. At work she strays away from the other people in the office as if she were
afraid to talk to anyone. Chris might be diagnosed as suffering from:
a. avoidant personality disorder.
b. antisocial personality disorder.
c. dependent personality disorder.
d. passive-aggressive personality disorder.

39. Lorraine always needs to be the center of attention. She talks loudly, gesturing wildly in
hopes of gaining an audience. Everything in her life is, to hear her tell it, either far better
or far worse than events in the lives of her friends. Lorraine may be suffering from:
a. dependent personality disorder.
b. histrionic personality disorder.
c. borderline personality disorder.
d. schizoid personality disorder.

40. Psychodynamic explanations of paranoid personality disorder see the disorder as rooted
in the defense mechanism of:
a. rationalization. c. projection.
b. denial. D. reaction formation.

41. Compared to people with avoidant personality disorder, those with schizoid personality
disorder:
a. do not wish to have relationships.
b. wish to have relationships.
c. often suffer from a mood disorder.
d. often are diagnosed with an Axis I disorder.

42. Researchers studying narcissistic and histrionic personality disorders have reported that:
a. the disorders can be easily differentiated.
b. features of these two disorders overlap.
c. both are genetically determined.
d. they share the feature of hidden paranoia.

43. Cognitive theorists propose that people with obsessive compulsive personality disorder:
a. have a hidden wish to be sloppy and disorderly.
b. displace sexual energy into obsessional thinking and
c. struggle with seemingly uncontrollable aggressive impulses.
 d. have their self-worth depend on conforming to an ideal abstract of perfectionism.

44. A psychologist notes that a client's TAT stories are filled with themes of rage, intense feel-
ings, identity confusion, and fears of abandonment. These themes correspond to which
personality disorder?
a. Borderline c. Schizotypal
b. Antisocial d. Paranoid

45. Mike has found that he needs to drink four or five beers to achieve the level of relaxation
that he was able to achieve with only two beers a year ago. This phenomenon is called:
a. withdrawal. c. potentiation.
b. intoxication. D. tolerance.

46. Cross-cultural research on patterns of alcohol use and abuse has shown that:
a. rates of alcohol abuse are remarkably stable across cultures.
b. Asian societies discourage alcohol use among men.
c. prevalence rates are highest among the Amish in America.
d. cultural and social deprivations can contribute to high rates of abuse.

47. What is the term used for programs that are intended to minimize the physiological
changes associated with withdrawal from substances?
a. Milieu c. Alcoholics Anonymous
b. Therapeutic community d. Detoxification

48. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is considered to be an effective therapeutic treatment for

a. pervasive developmental disorders
b. gender identity disorders
c. panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder
d. communication disorders and tic disorders

49. Which of the following is the main feature of substance abuse?

a. Use of a substance in order to prevent withdrawal
b. Continued use of a drug despite risks or problems in living
c. Usage of increased amounts of a drug to achieve the same high
d. Subjective feeling of a need for the substance

50. Fetishism appears to develop in a way similar to exhibitionism in that:

a. most people with fetishism were sexually abused as children.
b. early life experiences result in a connection between sexual arousal and the behavior.
 c. brain damage early in life appears to cause certain paraphilias.
d. these paraphilias are commonly associated with sexual dysfunction.

51. An individual who has recurrent, intense sexual urges and sexually arousing fantasies of
rubbing against another person is referred to as a:
a. voyeur. C. frotteur.
b. sadist. D. fetishist.

52. The term that refers to the degree to which a person is erotically attracted to members
of the same or other sex is:
a. sexual orientation. C. gender role
b. gender identity. D. transexualism

53. Dyspareunia is a condition that involves:

a. psychological distress associated with a paraphilia.
b. depression that accompanies a sexual dysfunction.
c. involuntary spasms of the outer muscles of the vagina.
d. pain associated with sexual intercourse.

54. A sexual behavior is considered a psychological disorder if it:

a. is forbidden by state, local, or federal law.
b. is viewed as unacceptable by society or an individual's culture.
c. causes harm to others or distress to the individual.
d. involves unconventional sexual practices.

55. Which of the following is the key feature of paraphilias?

a. The object of desire must be an inanimate object.
b. They must involve abnormal physiological functioning.
c. They must be short-term conditions.
d. There must be a dependence on the sexual target for arousal.

56. Which disorder is characterized by a discrepancy between an individual's assigned sex

and his or her gender identity?
a. Sexual aversion disorder c. Homosexuality
b. Hypoactive desire disorder d. Gender identity disorder

57. A gradual deterioration of behavior occurs during late adolescence, suggesting that an
individual is experiencing:
a. prodromal signs of schizophrenia.
b. the residual phase of schizophrenia.
c. schizoaffective disorder.
d. a delusional disorder.
58. Joyce believes that her heart is being eaten away by worms, a delusion that fits into the
category called:
a. somatic. c. insertion.
b. persecutory. d. nihilistic.

59. Eleven-year-old Jonah's speech is characterized by poor use of grammar and vocabulary
relative to others of his age, although he is able to understand the speech of others. These
are signs that he has which communication disorder?
a. Stuttering c. Phonological disorder
b. Expressive language disorder d. Mixed receptive-expressive language dis-
order

60. In explaining the hypothesized causes of ADHD, experts currently believe that it:
a. develops as a result of inadequate intellectual stimulation.
b. is a genetically acquired trait.
c. develops primarily as a result of a disturbed family system.
d. is biologically based, triggered by certain stressful environmental conditions.

61. The term used to describe behavior in which an individual has bowel movements in
clothes or inappropriate places is:
a. encopresis. c. dyslexia.
b. enuresis. d. coprolalia.

62. Vancer generally has no difficulty sitting still, but cannot focus his attention on what the
teacher is saying for long periods of time. Vancer might be diagnosed as having:
a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, inattentive type.
b. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, hyperactive- impulsive type.
c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, combined type.
d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, overactive type.

63. Proponents of which theoretical model proposed that people with bulimia translate soci-
ety's attitudes toward thinness into extreme restraints and rigid rules about food?
a. Societal c. Family systems
b. Psychodynamic d. Cognitive-behavioral

64. In order to be considered mentally retarded, an individual's IQ must be:

a. between 100 and 120. c. between 75 and 80.
b. between 80 and 100. d. less than 70.

65. Children with _______________ mental retardation have very limited vocabularies, speak
in two- to three-word sentences, and have IQ scores between 20 and 35.
a. Mild c. severe
b. Moderate d. profound
66. All of the following are groups of deficits in autism except:
a. Activities and interests c. Social interactions
b. Communication d. Inattention

67. Dr. Block does not feel that she has the resources necessary to effectively treat Cindy's
condition so she gave Cindy the name and phone number of another clinician. Dr. Block
provided Cindy with:
a. informed consent. c. the right to refuse treatment.
b. a referral. d. a mandated report.

68. Informing the client about the potential risks and benefits of therapy, confidentiality and
its limits, and the expected length of therapy is necessary so that the client can:
a. understand his or her duty to warn.
b. choose the least restrictive alternative.
c. provide informed consent.
d. establish commitment to therapy.

69. Dr. Simmons is being pressured by the local police department for information on one of
his clients who is suspected of murder. Dr. Simmons must be careful to remember the
principle of:
a. mandated reporting. c. informed consent.
b. privileged communication. d. duty to warn.

70. The clinician's responsibility to notify a potential victim of a client's harmful intent toward
that individual is referred to as:
a. primary prevention. c. duty to warn.
b. notification of intent. d. legal commitment.

71. When a clinician is called on during court cases to provide specialized information not
commonly known by people outside the mental health profession, he/she is considered
to be a(n):
a. guardian ad litem. c. parens patriae.
b. expert witness. d. impartial party.

72. The legal principle that the state has the authority to protect those who are unable to
protect themselves is referred to as:
a. commitment. c. ad hominen.
b. guardian ad litem. d. parens patriae.

73. Which of the following legal "tests" of insanity is based on the idea that people should
not be judged guilty if a mental disorder prevents them from knowing the difference be-
tween right and wrong?
a. The M'Naghten rule c. The Durham rule
 b. The irresistible impulse test d. The ALI guidelines

74. Compared to other forms of schizophrenia, people with the _____________ subtype
show better cognitive and emotional functioning and are more likely to hold down a job.
a. Paranoid c. Undifferentiated
b. Catatonic d. Disorganized

75. When a patient no longer has the disorder, an appropriate specifier would be?
a. Full remission c. Recovered
b. Relapse d. Prodromal stage

76. A person who is so miserable that he or she can see no reason for living, BEST fits which
of the following definitions of abnormality?
a. Deviance c. dangerousness
b. Distress d. dysfunction

77. If a person experienced anxiety or depression following a significant natural disaster, we

would say that the person was:
a. suffering from a mental illness.
b. deviant but not dangerous.
c. exhibiting a typical reaction.
d. statistically deviant.

78. Developmental tasks are linked to psychopathology in that:

a. developmental task can adversely affect later coping capacities.
b. the genetic factors affecting the nature and timing of developmental tasks are also
influential in childhood disorders,
c. There is no evidence linking developmental tasks in childhood with psychopathology.
d. None of the above

79. Which of the following conduct disorder in children is MOST likely to "grow out" of his
disorder by the end of his teenage years?
a. Reggie, with a childhood onset at age 8
b. Mark, with a childhood onset at age 10
c. Alvin, with an adolescent onset at age 12
d. none of the above; this disorder virtually always leads to adult disorders

80. Of the following persons, who would meet DSM-IV criteria for mental retardation?
a. Dora, whose IQ is 64, lives at home and requires minor assistance with day-to-day
activities and works part-time in a laundry.
b. Reginald, whose IQ is 76, lives on the streets, is unable to hold a job and barely man-
ages to take care of his daily needs for food and shelter.
 c. Naum, whose IQ is 90, dropped out of school in ninth cannot hold a job, has never
married, and is unconcerned about his situation.
d. Ida, whose IQ is 68, lives in her own apartment, works full-time, and supports herself
and her child.

81. Mr. M has severe mental retardation. Which of the following most likely to apply to him?
a. Simple speech, unable to read, requires assistance in basic life skills
b. Vocational activity, unlikely to marry, some self-care assistance
c. Near-normal speech, third grade level, assume simple work
d. IQ of 25, neurological damage, custodial care

82. Of the following, which best explains why bipolar disorder may be mistaken for schizo-
phrenia?
a. Psychotic delusions of grandeur or other delusions can occur in both disorders
b. Both disorders are marked by episodes of major depression.
c. Functioning can become so impaired as to require psychiatric hospitalization
d. Such a mistake is unlikely; the two disorders are clearly different and have virtually no
symptom overlap.

83. People with somatization rarely seek out psychotherapy voluntarily because they:
a. lack the financial resources to pay for therapy.
b. fear that the clinician might detect their motive for feigning illness.
c. do not consider their physical difficulties to have an emotional cause.
d. are too embarrassed to talk about their physical problems.

84. Each of the following disorders involves unexplainable medical symptoms except:
a. hypochondriasis. c. somatoform pain disorder.
b. somatization disorder. d. conversion disorder.

85. A depressed client being treated with cognitive therapy came to her weekly session.
While discussing her progress in classes that week, she mentioned that she had the high-
est grade in the class on the mid-term exam but insisted this was only a "fluke" and that
she's really "incompetent" in the course. Which of the following thinking errors is she
exhibiting?
a. Minimization c. arbitrary inference
b. Personalization d. overgeneralization

86. Mrs. YN was unwilling to attend her group therapy session because everyone there could
hear all her thoughts. She exhibits the delusion called________________.
a. thought broadcasting c. thought reference
b. thought insertion d. thought deletion

87. Mr. A has disorganized schizophrenia, Mr. B has major depression with psychotic features,
while Mr. C has schizoaffective disorder. Which of them will have a better prognosis?
 a. Mr. A c. Mr. B
b. Mr. C d. All have equally poor prognosis

88. Schizophrenia usually has an onset

a. in early childhood. c. in the early twenties.
b. at the beginning of puberty d. after age 30.

89. One similarity of those experiencing paranoid personality disorder and those experienc-
ing schizoid personality disorder is that they tend:
a. not to have close ties to others.
b. to distrust others.
c. to be described by others as arrogant and angry.
d. not to score well on typical intelligence tests.

90. The schizoid personality disorder differs from paranoid personality disorder in that:
a. those with schizoid personality disorder seek close affiliations with others, while those
with paranoid personality do not.
b. paranoid personality disorder is treatable only through drug therapy; schizoid person-
ality can be treated with psychotherapy.
c. women are more likely to have schizoid personality disorder than paranoid personal-
ity disorder; the opposite is true for men.
d. those with schizoid personality disorder desire to be alone; those with paranoid per-
sonality are alone because of suspiciousness.

91. Which anxiety disorder is most common in young children?

a. Separation anxiety disorder
b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. Generalized anxiety disorder
d. Panic disorder with agoraphobia

92. Jim's job involves taking an elevator to the 35th floor, but his claustrophobia is creating
serious problems. His therapist vividly describes people trapped in elevators, and asks Jim
to imagine the scenes, an approach called:
a. flooding. c. in vivo desensitization.
b. systematic desensitization. d. decompensation.

93. Mary told her therapist that since her rape she has been terrorized by experiences that
seem like hallucinations, similar to those she once had following LSD use. These experi-
ences are called:
a. flashbacks. c. delusions.
b. intrusions. d. obsessions.

94. Which neurotransmitter is activated when an individual is placed under stress or in a dan-
gerous situation?
 a. GABA c. serotonin
b. Norepinephrine d. acetylcholine

95. Every time that Jonathan sees a spider, he experiences extreme fear and anxiety. Jona-
than would be diagnosed as having:
a. generalized anxiety disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b. aversion disorder. d. a specific phobia.

96. A woman feels that she must scrub her hands for exactly ten minutes after eating any
food. This behavior is called:
a. an obsession. c. a delusion.
b. a compulsion. d. a specific phobia.
c.
97. The term "expressed emotion" as applied to schizophrenia refers to:
a. a family's over-involvement, criticism, and hostility toward a schizophrenic member.
b. a method used to help schizophrenic patients identify the feelings that are associated
with relapse.
c. a disturbance in emotional expression in which both positive and negative emotions
are grossly exaggerated.
d. a group counseling tool used to assist families of individuals with schizophrenia.

98. A psychometrician suspects that her client may be malingering and may not actually have
a true amnestic disorder despite reports of severe memory impairment. She might con-
sider each of the following to help her make the distinction EXCEPT:
a. performance on the Mini-Mental Status Exam.
b. inconsistent performance on systematic memory assessment.
c. presence or absence of a supporting medical condition.
d. presence of financial gain to the client as a result of the diagnosis.

99. Regarding personality disorders, its resistance to change may be explained by the follow-
ing except:
a. strong genetic component
b. comorbidity with other disorders such as depression
c. ego-syntonic tendencies
d. tendency to blame others regarding their problems

100. The diathesis-stress model of vulnerability to schizophrenia proposes that:

a. some people have a predisposition that places them at risk for developing a disorder
if exposed to certain stressful life experiences.
b. trauma or stress may affect a person's interaction with offspring in such a way as to
cause them to be vulnerable to developing a disorder.
c. a disorder can only develop in individuals who have been exposed to stress.
d. the closer the genetic relationship to a person with a disorder, the greater the likeli-
hood of developing that disorder.