Aquaculture Genetics and Breeding MCQ

Aquaculture_1
1. A selection approach where the best individuals within a family are selected for breeding for the next
generation.
a. family selection b. within family selection
c. mass selection d. combined selection
2. An area of genetics, which focused on the measurable characteristics of a fish
a. Sex manipulation b. Qualitative genetics
c. Quantitative genetics d. Genetic engineering
3. A sterile fish
a. Tetraploids b. Triploids
c. Diploids d. Haploids
4. Fish of paternal inheritance
a. gynogenetic b. GMO
c. GMT d. Androgenetic
5. A selection method which aim to reduce variation within a population
a. Directional selection b. Stabilizing selection
c. Disruptive selection d. Random selection
6. A gene that is only expressed in homozygous state
a. Dominant b. Recessive
c. Heterozygous d. Hybrid
7. This locally available strain which is a product of within family selection approach
a. FaST strain b. GIFT strain
c. GENOMAR strain d. GET EXCEL strain
8. A gene effect that is exploited in selective breeding
a. additive b. dominant
c. recessive d. overdominance
9. A spontaneous process that produces a gene or chromosome set differing from the wild-type
a. Gene transfer b. Mutation
c. Cloning d. Genetic manipulation
10. A gene action where the genes involved contribute equally to the production of the phenotype
a. Dominant gene action b. Incomplete dominance gene action
c. Additive gene action d. none of the above
11. A nuclear division associated with sexual reproduction producing haploid cell
a. Mitosis b. Meiosis
c. Cytokenesis d. Diakenesis
12. The transfer of genetic material from one chromosome to the other
a. segregation b. Testcross
c. Crossing-over d. Independent assortment
13. Transfer of gene from one cell to the other
a. Chromosome manipulation b. Sex manipulation
c. Genetic manipulation d. Genetic marking
14. Crossing of individual from different species
a. Hybridization b. Interspecific hybridization
c. Intraspecific hybridization d. Out-crossing
15. Methods of investigating sex determining mechanisms by identifying genetic marker specific only to
either the X or Y chromosome
a. Karyotyping b. Progeny testing
c. Androgenesis d. Sex probe
16. Cryopreservation is the store freezing of sperm in liquid nitrogen to preserve the genes. The
preserve genes can be recovered through this method
a. gynogenesis b. Ploidy
c. Genetic manipulation d. Androgenesis
17. The position of the gene along a chromosome
a. Intron b. Locus
c. Exon d. Chiasma
18. Production of genetically identical individual
a. Inbreeding b. Selection
c. Cloning d. Purebreeding
19. The production of many DNA copies from one master region of DNA
a. VNTR b. RAPD
c. PCR d. RFLP
20. A basic law stating factors that ensures gene and genotypic frequencies of a population would be
constant from generation to generation
a. Mendel’s Law b. Newton’s Law
c. Hardy-Weinberg Law of Equilibrium d. none of the above
21. The mean performance of the progeny which deviate from the mean of the parental lines
a. General combining ability c. Heterosis
c. Specific combining ability d. Genetic compatibility
22. A selection approach where the best individuals within a population are selected for breeding for the
next generation
a. Family selection b. Mass selection
c. Within family selection d. combined selection
23. A technology developed to produce all- or nearly all-male progeny by combining sex reversal and
progeny testing
a. sex reversal b. manual sexing
c. YY male technology d. Hybridization
24. A cross of bighead carp and silver carp is an example of
a. Interspecific hybridization b. Intergeneric hybridization
c. Hybridization d. Crossbreeding
25. A group of individuals that encompasses all possible members of the group
a. sample b. random sample
c. population d. representative
26. A representative of population
a. Sample b. variable
c. individuals d. none of the above
27. A selection approach where the estimates for individual’s genetic worthies based, wholly or partially,
on the performance of its immediate family
c. Within family selection d. Combined selection
28. A selection approach most efficient in a condition where differences in growth among groups or
families being tested or evaluated is largely due to environment
c. Within family selection d. Combined selection
29. A form of inheritance where genetic information is passed from mother to eggs
a. Nuclear DNA b. Mitochondrial DNA
c. Cytoplasmic DNA d. Messenger DNA
30. A reduction in genetic variability as a result of mating closely related individuals
a. Bottleneck effect b. Inbreeding
c. Closed breeding d. Pure breeding
31. A reduction in genetic variability as a result of breeding limited number of individual
c. Closed breeding d. Pure breeding
32. A mating scheme where the selection of individual to be mated is based on a certain trait or
character
a. Random mating b. Assortative mating
c. Rotational mating d. none of the above
33. A change in allele frequency as a result of the genes appearing in the offspring is not a perfect
representative of the parental genes
a. Mutation b. Inbreeding
c. Genetic drift d. Intogression
34. A genetic approach with the aim of modifying the performance of one or more specific traits in a
population
a. Crossbreeding b. Sex manipulation
c. Artificial selection d. Hybridization
35. Product of introducing new gene to a fish
a. GMT b. GRO
c. GMO d. SRT
36. A technique of determining the sex by examining the entire chromosome complement of an
individual as seen during mitotic metaphase
a. Karyotyping b. Gene mapping
c. Fingerprinting d. Gene marking
37. The genetic value of an individual as judge by the average performance of its offspring
a. Average effect b. Breeding value
c. Heritability d. Heterosis
38. A function of a total number of breeding individual that are used to produce the next generation
a. Breeding size b. Breeding population
c. Effective population size d. Breeding capacity
39. The mixing of gene between species or strain
a. Genetic intogression b. Genetic drift
c. Mutation d. Gene flow
40. The reduction of the mean phenotypic value resulting from breeding of closely related individuals
a. Homozygosity b. Inbreeding depression
c. Genetic drift d. Genetic deviation
41. The fitness lost for breeding which tend to be restored on crossing inbred lines
a. Fast growth b. Productivity
c. Heterosis d. Fertility
42. A commonly used experimental design for crossing inbreed lines where each line is crossed with
every other lines
a. Rotational crossing b. Random crossing
c. Assortative crossing d. Diallel crossing
43. A technique in determining genetic diversity between and among individual or population by way of
separating particles with different electrical charge
a. Electrophoresis b. Gene mapping
c. Cloning d. Gene marking
44. A measure of the variation of individuals around the population mean
a. Variance b. Standard error
c. Coefficient of variation d. Standard deviation
45. A saline tolerant Tilapia developed through crossbreeding and backcrossing of Oreochromis niloticus
and Oreochromis mossambicus
a. Jewel tilapia b. Molobicus
c. Red tilapia d. Nilobicus
46. A saline tolerant tilapia developed through hybridization of Oreochromis mossambicus and
Oreochromis urolepis hornorum
a. Jewel tilapia b. Molobicus
c. Red tilapia d. Nilobicus
47. A tilapia strain developed by combining selection and DNA genotyping technology
a. GIFT strain b. FaST strain
c. GET EXCEL strain d. Genomar strain
48. The progeny of YY male crossed to normal female
a. YY male b. All-male tilapia
c. Genetically male tilapia d. Sex reversal tilapia
49. The measure of the degree to which the phenotype is genetically influenced and can be modified by
selection
a. Selection intensity b. Selection differential
c. Heritability d. Hereditary
50. A chart or diagram that describes the ancestral history of an individual, family or strain
a. Pedigree b. Life history
c. Family history d. Generation
51. A proportion of expressing the extent to which the individuals’ phenotypes are determined by the
genes transmitted from the parents
a. Narrow sense heritability b. Selection differential
c. Heritability d. Broad sense heritability
52. The result of starting new population with a low number of individuals
c. Closed breeding d. Founder effect
53. A mating of individuals where the choice of partners is not influenced by genotypes or phenotypes
a. Random mating b. Assortative mating
c. Rotational mating d. none of the above
54. The plasmid or phage chromosome used to carry the cloned DNA segment in cloning
a. Gene carrier b. Vector
c. Promoter d. Messenger RNA
55. Tetraploidy is an example of
a. Genetic manipulation b. Sex manipulation
c. Chromosome-set manipulation d. Genetic engineering
56. The environmental influence of the mother’s tissues on the phenotype of the offspring
a. environmental effect b. Parental effect
c. Paternal effect d. Maternal effect
57. An endonuclease that will recognize specific target nucleotide sequence in DNA and break the DNA
chain at those points
a. Receptor b. Transcriptor
c. Restriction enzyme d. DNA extractor
58. The production of offspring by a female with no genetic contribution from male
a. Parthenogenesis b. Gynogenesis
c. Hermaphrodite d. none of the above
59. A type of nuclear division that produces two daughter nuclei identical to the parent nucleus
a. Mitosis b. Meiosis
c. Cytokenesis d. Diakenesis
60. The process of keeping and maintaining a population in captivity to conform with cultured practices
a. Domestication b. Broodstock management
c. Genetic conservation d. Base population
61. A section of DNA that codes for a single amino acid
a. Complimentary DNA b. Codon
c. DNA segment d. DNA fragment
62. The entire compliment of genetic material in a chromosome set
a. Gene pool b. Genome
c. Gene family d. Genetic background
63. The mechanisms where the sex is determined by prevailing temperature during the development of
sex organ
a. Chromosomal sex determination b. Autosomal sex determination
c. Environmental sex determination d. none of the above
64. A mechanisms where the sex is determined by the combined effect of minor sex genes located
outside the sex chromosome
a. Chromosomal sex determination b. Autosomal sex determination
c. Environmental sex determination d. none of the above
65. A short sequence of DNA capable of being recognized by a restriction enzyme
a. Intron b. Codon
c. Restriction sites d. Locus
66. The process of reducing the number of individual with a population by removing the inferior one
a. Culling b. Elimination
c. Grading d. Sorting
67. A technique in determining genetic diversity cutting the non-coding repetitive DNA into short
fragments and sort the fragments using electrophoresis
a. PCR b. Gene mapping
c. Finger printing d. Gene marking
68. A proportion expressing the extent to which individuals’ phenotypes are determined by the
genotypes
a. Narrow sense heritability b. Selection differential
c. Heritability d. Broad sense heritability
69. Aquatic animals that consume oxygen at rate directly dependent upon ambient oxygen tensions are
referred to as
a. Poikilotherm b. regulators
c. conformers d. controllers
70. Is not a function of major minerals?
a. structural components b. metabolic fuel
c. cellular metabolism d. osmoregulation
71. Fatty acids are long-chain organic acids having the general formula of
a. CH2(CHxHy)COOH b. CH3(CxHy)COOH
c. CH3(CHxHy)COOH d. CH4(CH3)COOH
72. The conversion factor commonly used in the calculation of crude protein level of a protein source
with approximately 16% nitrogen is
a. 5.56 b. 6.38
c. 6.25 d. 5.88
73. Availability of nutrients to fish can be evaluated through
a. proximate analysis b. bomb calorimetry
c. Digestibility studies d. chemical analyses
74. The best widely available plant protein source is
a. corn meal b. soybean meal
c. copra meal d. rice bran
75. What group of plant ingredients commonly used in formulation of fish feed contain the most
number of anti-nutritional factors
a. legumes b. oil seeds
c. cereals d. algae
76. The nutritional value of a protein source is determined primarily by its
a. high level of crude protein b. relative amount of essential amino acids
c. stability d. palatability
77. The most commonly used marker for digestibility studies in finfish and crustaceans is
a. crude fiber b. cellulose
c. acid insoluble ash d. chromic oxide
78. Air dry basis of expressing feed composition assumes dry matter content of
a. 10% b. 50%
c. 90% d. 100%
79. Converts pepsinogen to pepsin
a. enterokinase b. HCI
c. trypsin d. galatic acid
80. Proteases that act at the end of protein molecules
a. exopeptidase b. enterokinase
c. endopeptidase d. peptides
81. Has a chain line structure with a methyl end and a carbocylic acid
a. protein b. carbohydrates
c. fatty acids d. peptides
82. It is the energy in food minus the energy in the feces
a. intake energy b. apparent digested energy
c. metabolizable energy d. retained energy
83. Which of the following is not a major constituent of total heat production among fishes?
a. heat increment b. heat activity
c. heat of thermal regulation d. specific depamic action
84. Collagen is an example of
a. contractile protein b. structural protein
c. enzyme d. transport protein
85. It involves feeding of predetermined ration size set below the maximum ration size
a. restricted feeding b. al libitum feeding
c. feeding to satiation d. excess feeding
86. Which of the following fatty acids has the lowest melting point?
a. 18:n – 9 b. 18:2n – 3
c. 18:0 d. 18:3n – 3
87. Precursor of sex and molting hormones among crustaceans
a. tocopherol b. chitin
c. cholesterol d. n – 3 fatty acids
88. Major structural component of plant
a. cellulose b. glycogen
c. starch d. sugar
89. Increase in heat production following consumption of food by an animal in a thermoneutral
environment is known as
a. basal metabolism b. metabolizable energy
c. specific dynamic action d. production energy
90. Which of the following will happen is feeding rate is increased from maintenance to optimum rate
a. growth will increase rapidly b. growth will remain constant
c. growth will decrease slowly d. growth will increase slowly
91. If a gram of protein can provide 19KJ of dietary energy, how much dietary energy will be available in
100 grams of diet containing 10% protein?
a. 570KJ/g dietary energy b. 670KJ/g dietary energy
c. 670KJ dietary energy d. 570KJ dietary energy
92. Nitrite accumulate when water
a. temperature and DO increase b. temperature and pH decrease
c. temperature and DO increase d. none of the above
93. Waterborne nitrite enters in the fish circulatory system through the gills. Uptake depends on fish
species and water pH. Nitrite toxicity in fish is called
a. blue-blood disease b. brown-blood disease
c. red-blood disease d. none of the above
94. The kind of blood produce when there is nitrite toxicity is
a. agglutin b. methemoglobin
c. hemoglobin d. none of the above
95. In measuring the concentration of gasses in the water, it is important to know the factors that
influence the solubility of gasses. These factors are
a. altitude, salinity and light b. pressure, temperature and altitude
c. altitude, salinity and temperature d. all of the above
96. The relationship of dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration in the water is
a. inversely proportional b. linear
c. directly proportional d. all of the above
97. Phytoplankton is a major producer and consumer of dissolved oxygen in
a. eutrophic bodies of water b. mesotrophic bodies of water
c. oligotrophic bodies of water d. none of the above
98. If there is thermal stratification, there is also dissolved oxygen stratification in the different layers of
waters
a. true b. false
c. partly true d. partly false
99. The carbon dioxide concentration and pH of the water are
a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional
c. all of the above d. none of the above
100. The major losses of DO in the pond can be due to
a. negative diffusion and respiration b. BOD
c. metabolism of benthic organism d. COD
Aquaculture_2
1. Metabolic reaction resulting in the synthesis of more complex compounds from simple precursor
a. Anabolism b. biosynthesis
c. Catabolism d. digestion
2. Complex proteinaceous substances that are produced by living cells and bring about or accelerate
reactions or processes in living cells
a. Hormones b. myosin
c. Steroids d. enzymes
3. Feed supplied to meet the nutrient requirement of fish for maintenance and growth when natural
food is inadequate
a. complete feed b. artificial feed
c. supplemental feed d. commercial feed
4. Type of feed suitable for bottom feeders like prawn
a. floating feed b. sinking feed
c. complete feed d. extruded feed
5. Organic compounds required in small amount for the maintenance of normal growth, health and
metabolic integrity
a. Minerals b. fats
c. Protein d. Vitamins
6. An ingredient or combination of ingredients, other than premix, added to basic feed or parts thereof
to fulfill specific needs
a. Attractants b. pigments
c. Additive d. antioxidant
7. A device usually electronically operated, that dispenses feed at pre-selected times
a. automatic feed b. demand feeder
c. mechanical feeder d. drop feeder
8. Mechanism of nutrient absorption found in fishes include
a. simple diffusion b. pinocytosis
c. active transport d. all of the above
9. A feed used with another to improve the nutrient balance and intended to be further diluted and
mixed to produce a supplement or complete feed
a. purified diet b. silage
c. concentrate d. premix
10. In fish, the deficiency of this vitamin causes lordosis, scoliosis and impaired collagen formation
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin E
11. A feed made out of refined ingredients with specific analysis
a. concentrate b. incorporated diet
c. complete diet d. purified diet
12. This is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate substrate
a. Glycolysis b. Glyconeogenesis
c. Glycogenolysis d. Glucosynthesis
13. The major digestive gland in crustaceans and mollusk
a. Hepatopancreas b. liver
c. Stomach d. midgut
14. Reduces gut pH which allows pepsinogen to act
a. Sulfuric acid b. ascorbic acid
c. hydrochloric acid d. acetic acid
15. High energy molecule which constitute the most common cellular energy currency
a. Glucose b. ATP
c. Lipids d. acetyl CoA
16. Vitamin that acts as antioxidant, particularly protecting PUFA
a. Tocopherol b. retinol
c. Vitamin C d. lecithin
17. Plant seeds contain considerable amount of phosphorus, however much of the phosphorus is not
available because it is stored as
a. Phosphate b. Phytate
c. Glycogen d. starch
18. Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
a. Chitin b. plant gums
c. Hemicellulose d. none of the above
19. A technique to facilitate caring of fish or crustaceans larvae on artificial feeds
a. Microencapsulation b. microcoating
c. microbinding d. all of the above
20. Which of the following is not a fatty acid of the n – 3 series?
a. Eicosapentanoic acid b. arachidonic acid
c. Docosahexanoic acid d. none of the above
21. Thiaminase, an anti-vitamin factor is found in
a. raw food b. raw seed
c. raw fish d. all of the above
22. Fatty acids that are very sensitive to preoxidation are
a. saturated fatty acids b. essential fatty acids
c. highly unsaturated fatty acids d. all of the above
23. The anti-nutritional factor found in the pigment glands of cotton seeds is
a. Tannin b. saponins
c. Gossypol d. alkaloids
24. Which of the following is a pancreatic enzyme?
a. Trypsin b. elastase
c. Collagenase d. all of the above
25. Are used to wean fish larvae from live food to an artificial diet or to replace a practical feed with
unconventional protein sources
a. Attractants b. Probiotics
c. Pigments d. additives
26. Which of the following inhibits fish appetite?
a. low dissolved oxygen b. extreme temperature fluctuation
c. unionized ammonia d. all of the above
27. These are lipid components of the brain and nerve a tissue
a. Steroids b. Sphingomyelins
c. Phopholipids d. Triglycerides
28. Which of the following is an antioxidant?
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin E d. none of the above
29. The number of times feed is given in a day is
a. feeding chart b. feeding frequency
c. feeding rate d. feeding sequence
30. The colloidal protein in milk is
a. Gliadin b. zein
c. Casein d. maltose
31. Which of the following is a gastric enzyme?
a. Trypsin b. Pepsin
c. Chymotrypsin d. all of the above
32. The enzyme responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates is
a. Proteases b. Glucosidases
c. Cellulases d. Carboxypeptidases
33. Common bacterial disease in marine fishes and shrimps
a. epizootic ulcerative syndrome b. streptococcosis
c. motile aeromonad septicemia d. Vibriosis
34. High stocking density with feeding in aquaculture is risky because it results to
a. high inorganic loading b. high productivity
c. high nitrogen wastes d. increase in plankton density
35. Exopthalmia in Nile tilapia may be caused by
a.aeromonads b. Streptococcus
c. all of the above d. isopods
36. A disease is known to be transferable from fish to human
a. epizootic b. enzoonotic
c. zoonotic d. zootic
37. Improper antibiotic treatments of fish infected with bacterial disease may lead to a problem like
a. resistance of fish to disease b. susceptibility of fish to disease
c. resistance of bacteria to the drugs d. susceptibility of bacteria to the drugs
38. Diagnosis and identification of bacterial disease based on gross sign is difficult because
a. diagnostic technique is not always available
b. gross signs of disease always change in fish
c. gross signs are the same for most bacterial diseases
d. expertise is not always available
39. Pathogenic bacteria that causes exopthalmia and imbalance in swimming because fish’ brain is
infected
a. Aeromonas hydrophila b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus iniae d. all of the above
40. Treating a viral disease faces difficulty because
a. viruses are too small to be affected by therapeutic drugs
b. viruses are well encapsulated
c. viruses are hidden inside the host cell
d. viruses easily escape by quickly infecting other host cells
41. Fungi are generally considered opportunistic pathogens because
a. they infect fish at any time
b. they cause secondary infection
c. they attack fish already harmed by predators
d. they infect fish whose health and immune system are compromised
42. Mass mortality of fish may be caused by
a. isopod parasite such as Alitropus b. Nutritional disease
c. Viral disease d. Fungal disease
43. Low alkalinity water is usually unproductive. They have low nutrient concentration, little plant
growth, large variation in pH and low fish yields. Liming is remedial measure to increase alkalinity.
Waters needing liming have alkalinity value of
a. 50ppm b. <20ppm
c. 10ppm d. none of the above
44. Increasing the hardness of water have the following consequences
a. stabilizes ammonia and pH; and decreases the toxicity of dissolved metals
b. decreases toxicity of low pH, ammonia and dissolved metals
c. increase pH and toxicity of ammonia and dissolved ions
d. none of the above
45. Liming is not a type of fertilization but as a remedial procedure. Liming to neutrality gives a
a. linear relationship between fish crop and total amount of phosphate added
b. inverse relationship between fish crop and phosphorus added
c. no relationship between fish crop and phosphorus added
46. Quicklime or slake lime use in large quantities causes the pH to increase to high levels causing
a. favorable response of fish
b. desirable response of plankton
c. damage to fine tissues coating the gills, leading to mortality
47. In ponds with low concentration of organic matter, the dissolution of liming material and the
stabilization of water quality can be hastened by the addition of
a. chemical fertilizer
b. readily decomposable organic matter at the time of liming
c. organic fertilizer
48. The concentration of unionized ammonia has a linear relationship with
a. temperature and pH b. temperature and dissolved oxygen
c. pH and alkalinity d. none of the above
49. The toxicity of ionized form of ammonia is manifested at
a. high pH b. low pH
c. neutral pH d. all of the above
50. The toxicity of unionized ammonia increases at
a. low sodium level b. high sodium level
c. moderate sodium level d. none of the above
51. The nutrient with biochemical cycle in which most transformation involve the biochemical reaction is
a. nitrogen b. phospohorus
c. carbon d. none of the above
52. The oxidation of nitrogen from ammonia through nitrite to nitrate is called
a. mineralization b. denitrification
c. nitrification d. none of the above
53. Fish farmers as businessmen are motivated by the objective of
a. maximizing output b. maximizing profit
c. generating employment d. protecting the environment
54. A perfectly competitive fish market is regulated by
a. the government b. sellers
c. buyers d. none of the above
55. Costs which are dependent on the volume of output
a. average cost b. production cost
c. variable cost d. total cost
56. Refers to the period when cost are considered to be fixed
a. production period b. short run period
c. long run period d. accounting period
57. Which of the following is not considered a fixed cost?
a. interest b. rent
c. tax d. wage
58. Feed cost is not a major expense item under this culture system
a. cage culture b. extensive culture
c. tank culture d. intensive culture
59. Out of the following management practices will not likely result to lower feed cost per unit of output
a. use of other brand of feed b. stocking better species
c. increasing survival rate d. practicing polyculture
60. The most likely effect of a subsidy on inputs in fish production is
a. increase in output price b. increase in demand
c. increase in production d. increase in profit
61. Economies of scale is said to be present when
a. The business is expanded b. output increases
c. input use is reduced d. average cost decreases
62. The break-even price of an output should be equal to
a. average production cost b. market price
c. equilibrium cost d. farm gate price
63. Equilibrium price is reached when
a. demand is equal to supply b. quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied
c. price is equal to production cost d. price is equal to ceiling price
64. Among the following variables, which is not a direct determinant of profit?
a. quantity of output b. output price
c. price of inputs d. price of competing output
65. The production function is also known as
a. production possibilities curve b. input-output relationship
c. cost and return analysis d. marginal rate of substitution
66. Which of the following is not correct under conditions of diminishing productivity?
a. output is decreasing b. average cost is increasing
c. output is increasing d. marginal cost is increasing
67. In marginal analysis, profit is maximized when
a. marginal cost equals price b. output is maximum
c. average cost is lowest d. price is maximum
68. In budgeting, depreciation cost is
a. an expense item b. is a non-cash expense item
c. not an expense item d. is a cash expense item
69. It is a farm record which records all cash transactions
a. cash flow budget b. balance sheet
c. income statement d. farm budget
70. The best measure of profitability of an investment is
a. net profit b. payback period
c. internal rate of return d. rate of return on investment
71. The project is considered profitable when the benefit-cost ratio is
a. <1 b. equal to 1
c. >1 d. equal to 0
72. An investment project requiring high initial capital outlay is preferred to have a
a. long payback period b. short gestation period
c. long gestation period d. short payback period
73. For a project to be profitable, the internal rate of return must
a. exceed the cost of capital b. equal to the cost of capital
c. be less than the cost of capital d. not consider the cost of capital
74. Increasing profit can be better achieved by
a. increasing output by increasing input b. reducing cost by reducing input
c. increasing output by using the same input d. increasing price
75. Which is not preferred in fish marketing?
a. direct selling b. less middlemen
c. long market channel d. indirect selling
76. At what marketing stage does a product change its form?
a. local assembly b. central assembly
c. processing d. distribution
77. Which is not a component of selling price?
a. production cost b. marketing cost
c. profit margin d. net income
78. Which is not a determinant of demand for fish?
a. price of fish b. income of buyers
c. cost of production d. number of consumers
79. Fish marketing in the Philippines is not characterized by
a. too many middlemen b. fluctuating price
c. variable supply d. excellent infrastructure
80. Fish demand is elastic when the
a. quantity is not responsive to price changes b. quantity is very responsive to price changes
c. quantity is not affected by price changes d. price is affected by changes in quantity
81. When the demand for tilapia increases, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. the price of galunggong will increase b. the price of chicken will decrease
c. the price of tilapia will increase d. the price of tilapia will decrease
82. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. interest is paid for borrowed money
b. interest can be charged against owned capital
c. the discounted value money is lower at higher interest rate
d. the compounded value of money is higher at lower interest rate
83. The negative logarithm of hydrogen ion activity is called pH. Most natural waters have pH values
ranging from
a. 6.5-9 b. 6-9
c. 8-9.5 d. none of the above
84. Photosynthesis of aquatic plants removes carbon dioxide from water during daylight and causes a
a. neutrality in pH b. decrease in pH
c. rise in pH d. none of the above
85. Measurement of pH is fundamental when assuring potential water supply for fish culture, or when
evaluating health problems that are environment related because extremes of pH are detrimental to
fish health. Most freshwater fishes are stressed, grow slowly and are prone to infectious disease when
pH falls outside the range of
a. 6-9 b. 6-8.5
c. 6.5-9.0 d. all of the above
86. Oxygen is a gas that fish, like all animals and human beings need inorder to breathe. Through the
process called respiration, fish and human beings take in oxygen and give off carbon dioxide. The three
factors that affect the solubility of oxygen in pure water are
a. temperature, altitude, salinity b. temperature, pressure, depth
c. temperature, pressure, salinity d. none of the above
87. The major source of dissolved oxygen in eutrophic water is from
a. diffusion b. photosynthesis
c. inlet water d. none of the above
88. Weather conditions preceding phytoplankton die off are
a. bright, sunny, calm and warm day b. bright, sunny and windy day
c. cloudy and rainy day d. none of the above
89. The process of the breakdown of humus with the help of microbes and their enzymes thereby
releasing nitrogen to the environment in the form of ammonia is called
a. Immobilization b. Nitrification
c. Mineralization d. none of the above
90. This form of nitrogen is generated by heterotrophic bacteria as the primary end product of organic
matter decomposition, either directly from proteins or from other nitrogenous organic compounds
a. ammonia b. nitrates
c. nitrite d. all of the above
91. The biological conversion of organic and inorganic nitrogen compounds from a reduced state is
mediated by bacteria. The mesophilic bacteria capable of oxidizing NH4 to NO2 is
a. Nitrobacter b. Nitrosomonase
c. Nitrosomonas d. all of the above
92. The overall nitrification reaction is
a. NH4 + 2O2 --- NO3+H2O +H b. NH4+½O2 ---NO2+H2O+H
c. NH4---NO2+NO3 d. all of the above
93. Organic matters that will decompose slowly and the nitrogen mineralized are those
a. low nitrogen content b. moderate nitrogen content
c. high nitrogen content d. none of the above
94. One way to reduce unionized ammonia is keeping a good level of bacteria called
a. zeolitic bacteria b. Probiotics
c. nitrifying bacteria d. none of the above
95. The rate of decomposition generally increases over the range of 5-35°C. A temperature increase of
10°C doubles the rate of decomposition. This is called
a. Q10 b. Q value
c. Q100 d. none of the above
96. Choose the hierarchy of decomposition rate in the following
a. sugar-lignin-cellulose b. sugar-cellulose-lignin
c. cellulose-sugar-lignin d. none of the above
97. Microbes are primary group of organisms that act on organic matter decomposition. They are mainly
composed of protein and large percentage of carbon and nitrogen. The percentage of the substrate
carbon converted to bacterial protoplasm is called
a. carbon assimilation efficiency b. carbon bacterial efficiency
c. carbon dissimilation efficiency d. none of the above
98. The group of algae that can fix atmospheric nitrogen in their body is
a. green algae b. brown algae
c. blue-green algae d. none of the above
99. These are specialized cells which are the sole site of nitrogen fixation in aerobically grown algae
a. Heterocystis b. Akimeters
c. cell sites d. none of the above
100. This is a heterotrophic nitrogen-fixing bacteria growing epiphytically in submerged aquatic
angiosperms and submersed portions of emergent macrophytes
a. Azotobacter b. Anabaena
c. Clostridium d. none of the above
Aquaculture_3
1. The commonly cultured species of American and Asian bullfrog are

a. Rana catesbiana and Rana tigrina, respectively
b. Rana tigrina and Rana catesbiana, respectively
c. Rana vitigira and Rana philippinensis, respectively
d. Rana mindorensis and Rana palawanensis, respectively
2. Which is true about male and female bullfrog?
a. females are usually small in size, brown skin with black stripes and a black or white throat. Males are
large size, length green skin and yellow colored throat
b. Male are larger than females. Females are green in color while males are brown. Males always make
sound while females are silent
c. Males are larger than females. Females guard their youngs while males makes nest
3. Which is one of the most commonly cultured species of saltwater turtle?
a. Laggerhead (Caretta caretta) b. Olive ridley (Lepidochelys olivacea)
c. Flatback (Natator depressus) d. Leatherback (Dermochelys coriacea)
4. A highly popular freshwater turtle in China and Japan is
a. Soft-shelled turtle (Trionyx sinensis) b. Freshwater turtle (Cyclemys dentate)
c. Freshwater turtle (Cuora ambonensis) d. none of the above
5. Which is true about turtle?
a. warmer temperatures produce more females and cooler temperature produce more males
b. warmer temperature produce males and cooler temperature produce females
c. Temperature affects on sex of turtle depends on dissolved oxygen
d. Sex differentiation as affected by temperature varies from one country to another
6. Stripped down biological entity composed solely of inner nucleic acid core and outer core constructed
largely of protein
a. virus b. parasite
c. bacteria d. fungi
7. Type of genetic recombination which involves interaction-presumably crossing over between an intact
genome fragment and the result is single recombinant cell
a. conjugation b. transformation
c. recombination d. transduction
8. A process in which a genetic material is transferred from one bacterium (donor or male) to another
(recipient or female) via physical connection between the two cells
9. A mode of genetic transfer in which a DNA fragment derived from one bacterial cell is taken up by
another and subsequently undergoes recombination
10. The transfer of bacterial genes from one bacterium to another by bacteriophage
c. transduction d. none of the above
11. A type of nutrition in protozoa where nutrients are obtained from dead and decaying plant/animal
matter in the form of compounds in solution
a. autotroph b. holozoic
c. saprozoic d. none of the above
12. Animal-type nutrition involving the ingestion of organisms or component of organisms
a. autotroph b. holozoic
c. saprozoic d. none of the above
13. A type of sexual reproduction where two cells with similar size and shaped are formed by division of
one cell
a. binary fission b. schizogony
c. budding d. none of the above
14. Homothetogenic binary fission is where there is transverse division or perkinetal, daughter cells are
not mirror images of one another although they may be similar or identical. This is exhibited in
a. ciliates b. amoebates
c. flagellates d. none of the above
15. In symmetragenic binary fission there is longitudinal division where daughter cells are mirror images
of one another. This is exhibited in
a. ciliates b. amoebates
c. flagellates d. none of the above
16. A type of asexual reproduction in sporozoan where nuclear division occurs several or numerous
times; then the original cell divides to form unnnucleate cells
a. binary fission b. syngamy
c. schizogony d. none of the above
17. A type of sexual reproduction where two gametes unite to form a zygote
a. syngamy b. autogamy
c. conjugation d. encystment
18. There is a pairing of organism and the subsequent fussion of gametes (nuclei) derived from their
protoplasts. This type of sexual reproduction is called
19. A type of sexual reproduction where series of nuclear events which include meiotic division and
subsequent formation of a zygote or syncaryom
20. A group of algae that commonly produce neurotoxin and paralytic poisoning
a. cyanophytes b. chlorophytes
c. dinoflagellates d. none of the above
21. A group of algae not much digestible by tilapia
c. dinoflagellates d. none of the above
22. A bird that can be intermediate host of Schistosome dermatitis
a. Anas platyrhynchos b. Anas philippinensis
c. Anas fumosa d. Anas mucota
23. A group of organism that can be of special concern in integrated livestock-fish culture
a. Platyhelminthys b. Crustacean
c. Annelida d. none of the above
24. It is a crustacean in the group of Isopoda which parasitizes on tilapia cultured in cages in Taal
a. Alithropus typus b. Alithropus philippinensis
c. Alithropus nilotica d. none of the above
25. One important function of carbon dioxide in water is it serves to resist abrupt changes in
a. alkalinity of water b. hardness of water
c. pH of water d. all of the above
26. Hard water has low pH, greater fluctuations of pH, less ability to store carbonated bicarbonate
a. true b. false
27. Sea water has ________________ of oxygen than freshwater because of the factor salinity
a. less concentration b. it depends
c. more concentration d. none of the above
28. Warm-water holds more DO than coldwater
a. true b. false
c. most likely true d. it depends
29. Better buffered water has high concentration of
a. alkalinity b. calcium carbonate
c. hydrogen ion d. all of the above
30. The addition and loss of CO2 in the aquatic ecosystem decreases and increases pH, respectively
a. true b. false
c. most likely true d. most likely false
31. The amount of unionized ammonia increases and that of ionized ammonia decreases
a. when pH increases and decreases, respectively
b. when pH decreases
c. when pH is neutral
32. Nitrite is toxic to fish but does not accumulate in water if
a. CO2 is high b. DO is low
c. DO is high d. CO2 is low
33. When NO2 is absorbed by fish, it reacts with hemoglobin to form
a. methemoglobin b. hemoglobin
c. hypermoglobin d. none of the above
34. The conversions of NH3 to NO2 and NO2 to NO3 are mediated by organisms which grow optimally at
pH near neutrality. These organisms are
a. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter respectively b. Aeromonas hydrophila
c. Ammoniacal bacteria d. none of the above
35. The toxic forms of nitrogen are
a. unionized ammonia and nitrite
b. ionized and unionized at low and high pH, respectively and nitrite
c. ammonium and nitrite
d. all of the above
36. One of the unpredictable blooms of phytoplankton is attributed to the levels of major nutrient. This
nutrient is important in regulating the phytoplankton productivity
a. nitrogen b. potassium
c. phosphorus d. none of the above
37. The direct influence of fertilization is to stimulate the productivity of
a. phytoplankton b. zooplankton
c. benthos d. none of the above
38. It is one of the environmental manipulations that results to the suppression of the growth of
submerged aquatic vegetation
a. feeding b. fertilization
c. liming d. none of the above
39. Problems with acid-base relationships in fish ponds can often be solved by the application of
a. aerators and fertilizers b. liming
c. fertilization d. none of the above
40. Primary productivity increases in the upper layers of the waters where favorable light condition
exists, but decreases in lower layers due to the shading effect by plankton
a. true b. false
41. Algal die-offs of natural algal blooms are related to photo-oxidation when there is a decline in the
activity of a certain enzyme which protects aerobic organisms against toxic effect of oxygen. This
enzyme is called
a. superoxide dismutase b. superoxidative trimutase
c. superoxidases enzyme d. none of the above
42. This law simply states that nutrients occurring in minimal quantities are those that limit biological
production. Hence, only those nutrients that are limiting production should be added to the ponds.
a. Shelford’s Law of Minimum b. Boyd’s Law of Minimum
c. Leibeg’s Law of Minimum d. none of the above
43. The acidity at pH 4.3-8.3 and pH below 4.3 is termed as
a. CO2 acidity and mineral acidity, respectively b. total alkalinity
c. alkalinity and mineral acidity d. none of the above
44. The most significant source of nitrogen utilized by aquatic plants is in the form of
a. ammonia b. nitrate
c. nitrite d. all of the above
45. The major source of ammonia in water is from
a. decomposition of organic matter b. fertilization
c. excretion of aquatic animals d. all of the above
46. It involves biochemical cycle in which most transformations involve biochemical reactions and most
of this nutrient in the pond ecosystem is bound in living organisms.
a. nitrogen cycle b. potassium cycle
c. phosphorus cycle d. none of the above
47. The pH concentration at which unionized ammonia concentration is ten fold
a. pH 7 b. pH 6
c. pH 8.3 d. none of the above
48. Nitrogen losses from the system is through volatilization and denitrification
a. true b. false
49. Nitrogen gain in the ecosystem is through fixation and mineralization
a. true b. false
50. A nutrient that gets easily fixed with the sediment
51. The nutrient cycle involve is a chemical cycle rather than biochemical cycle
52. Phosphorus becomes unavailable when water is strongly
a. acidic b. neutral
c. alkaline d. all of the above
53. The two acidic cations that bind phosphates are
a. Mg+ and Na+ b. elemental cations
c. Ca+ and K+ d. none of the above
54. The following are form of reactive phosphorus except
a. filterable phosphate b. total phosphate
c. orthophosphate d. all of the above
55. The maximum availability of orthophosphate is at
a. pH 8-9 b. pH 6
c. pH 7 d. none of the above
56. Common problem in coastal areas where soils are subjected to tidal fluctuations
a. acid sulfate soil b. alkaline soil
c. sandy soil d. all of the above
57. The group of organisms that absorbed phosphorus in great quantity is
a. fish b. macrophytes
c. phytoplankton d. zooplankton
58. Macrophytes absorbed phosphorus but on a slower rate compared with other organisms. These
plant exhibits
a. Luxury consumption b. Liebig’s Law of Minimum
c. Nutrients gluttony d. none of the above
59. One of the forms of phosphorus in the mud is AlPO4; the formation of this compound form
phosphate added to pond mud depends upon the concentration of aluminum ion which in turn is
regulated by
a. alkalinity b. pH
c. iron-ion concentration d. all of the above
60. The relationship of pH and aluminum ion concentration in solution to precipitate added P as AlPO4 is
a. linear b. inversely proportional
c. sigmoid d. none of the above
61. FePO4 in mud has low solubility in
a. aerobic condition b. hypothermic condition
c. anaerobic condition d. none of the above
62. Mud’s that are strongly ________________ absorbs P more readily
a. alkaline b. neutral
c. acidic d. all of the above
63. For eutrophic lakes, the total phosphorus concentration ranged from
a. 30-100µg/L b. 5-10µg/L
c. -5µg/L d. -100µg/L
64. Phosphorus is lost without the involvement of the mud when water is high in
a. aluminum b. calcium
c. iron d. none of the above
65. The Secchi disc visibility depth of a green tilapia fish pond is less than 15cm. This means that there is
a. high phytoplankton abundance b. insufficient phytoplankton
c. low phytoplankton abundance d. satisfactory phytoplankton
66. Phytoplankton production and fish production have been observed to increase as total alkalinity
increases in natural waters. The level of alkalinity where most productive ponds have been observed
ranged from
a. 50-200mg/L CaCO3 b. 20-200mg/L CaCO3
c. 100-500mg/L CaCO3 d. >25mg/L CaCO3
67. Fertilized fishpond having high phytoplankton productivity has
a. higher alkalinity b. medium alkalinity
c. lower alkalinity d. none of the above
68. In fertilized ponds containing 0-20mg/L total alkalinity, phytoplankton productivity tends to increase
with increasing alkalinity. This increase in phytoplankton productivity is
a. related to a larger supply of carbon for photosynthesis and to a greater availability of phosphate from
fertilizer
b. related to a larger supply of carbon for photosynthesis and a lower availability of phosphate from
fertilizer
c. related to a lower supply of carbon for photosynthesis and a lower availability of phosphate from
fertilizer
69. This is the measure of total soluble salts that are dissolved in water. These salts, usually calcium
(Ca++) and magnesium (Mg++), help the fish grow healthy bone and teeth. Also, the food the fish eat, like
the phytoplankton, need calcium and magnesium for growth. Water that contains high and low
concentrations of salts are
a. hard and soft, respectively b. soft and hard, respectively
c. soft only d. hard only
70. Alkalinity and hardness are related to pH. Which is more constant throughout the day?
a. alkalinity b. hardness
b. both d. it depends
71. Which among the fish species below is sensitive to water hardness particularly during egg hatching
and development?
a. tilapia b. bighead carp
c. grass carp d. gourami
72. Which among the liming materials has the fastest action of elevating the pH of water?
a. CaCO3 b. CaO
c. CaOH d. CaMg (CO3)
73. The best particle size of liming material in order to have high neutralizing value and the standard by
which other liming materials are measure is
a. -0.25mm b. 0.20mm
c. >0.25mm d. 0.10mm
74. Lime requirement increase with pH and clay contents of mud. That quantity of cations that is
absorbed on exchange sites of soil or mud is expressed as meq of cations/100g of dry soil or mud and is
termed as
a. cation exchange capacity b. ionic exchange capacity
c. cation concentration capacity d. metabolizable cations
75. The fraction of the total cation exchange capacity filled by acidic cations is termed as
a. base unsaturation b. base saturation
c. alkalinity unsaturation d. acid unsaturation
76. The higher the cation exchange capacity of the soil. The more quantity of acidic cations (Al3+, Fe3+)
a. true b. false
c. most likely true d. most likely false
77. Which one is the effect of liming?
a. total alkalinity increases after liming because of greater concentration of bicarbonate, carbonate and
hydroxide
b. reduces turbidity, Ca and Mg flocculate colloidal particles
c. mud pH rises and favors phosphate solubility which makes phosphorus available to plants
d. all of the above
78. In ponds with low concentration of organic matter, the addition of readily decomposable organic
matter at the time of liming will hasten the dissolution of liming materials and the stabilization of water
quality. This results because
a. CO2 released by decay or organic matter will react with CaCO3, CaO or Ca (OH)2 . Hence abundance of
CO2 prevents hydroxide or carbonate ions from occurring in the water in appreciable concentration
thereby lowering the pH.
b. CO2 released by decay of organic matter will react with Ca++ and CO3+, hence, less of CO2 prevents
hydroxide or carbonate ions from occurring in the water in appreciable concentration thereby lowering
the pH.
c. CO2 released by decay of organic matter will be too much causing rise in pH and prevents hydroxide or
carbonate ions from occurring in the water in appreciable concentration thereby lowering the pH.
d. all of the above
79. What is the pH of rainwater?
a. alkaline b. acidic
c. neutral d. none of the above
80. Which one is an undesirable effect of liming?
a. Immediate solubility of lime while descends to the depth of the water may cause the phosphorus to
react to sinking lime and the phosphorus is lost from the solution
b. appreciable CO2 cannot exist in the water when pH rises
c. natural food will not occur
d. too much lime can cause caking of the water, thus water becomes white
81. Macrophytes do not commonly occur below 1.5m when the Secchi disc transparency is 1m or below
2.5m when the SD transparency is 2m
a. true b. false
82. If you have a fish pond with a problem of clay turbidity the most practical solution is
a. scatter certain amount of hay on the water surface but do not during sunny days in order that the hay
do not decompose quickly
b. apply alum
c. irrigate
d. plant vegetation
83. The amount of titrable bases in water is a measure of
a. total hardness b. acidity
c. total alkalinity d. none of the above
84. Photosynthesis of aquatic plants removes CO2 from water during daylight and causes
a. neutrality in pH b. decrease in pH
c. rise in pH d. none of the above
84. The present (2015) Chairperson of the Professional Regulatory Board for Fisheries is -
a. Atty. Asis Perez b. Dr. Rogelio O. Juliano
c. Dr. Cesario Pagdilao d. Dr. Westly Rivera Rosario
85. RA 10654 became a law on –
a. March 23, 2015 b. February 27, 2015
c. March 27, 2015 d. February 23, 2015
86. RA 10654 took effect on –
a. March 23, 2015 b. February 27, 2015
c. March 27, 2015 d. February 23, 2015
87. A multi--‐purpose production system that allows production of fish in a mangrove reforestation
project. It is a mangrove--‐friendly aquaculture technique of producing fish in a watered area
enclosed with net but does not allow cutting of any mangrove tree.
a. aquasilviculture b. extensive culture
c. closed system d. integrated fish culture
88. PNAP’s aquasilviculture design follows a mangrove to water canal area ratio of - 70:30
a. 80:20 b. 70:30
c. 60:40 d. 90:10
89. PNAP’s community--‐based multi--‐species hatchery (CBMH) has a facility holding cages for fish
or crustacean which may be land--‐based or holding cages. These holding cages for gravid, ready-
to-spawn crabs called –
a. “lying-in” b. emergency ward
c. maternity cage d. spawning cage
POST HARVEST
1. These are two valuable proteins in fish meat making fish nutritionally important
a. lysine and methionine b. actin and myosin
c. injusin and lysine d. methionine and actine
2. This is a type of microorganism which is a threat to fishery industry
a. psychrophiles b. osmophiles
c. thermopiles d. psychrotrophs
3. A spoilage test that could be used for either freshwater or marine species in determining the extent of
spoilage
a. TMA b. Total volatile acid
c. Hypoxanthine d. total volatile base
4. This is the common cause of weight loss during the fish handling and processing
a. slicing b. cooking
c. dressing d. drip
5. The test of spoilage that could be applied to very fresh fish
a. Hypoxanthine b. Thiobarbituric
c. Total volatile base d. peroxide
6. This is a chelating agent
a. ascorbic acid b. propyll galate
c. sodium tripolyphosphate d. lecithin
7. A type of fishing gear that will give fish best of quality after harvest
a. purse seine b. trawl net
c. long line d. seine
8. A tests of spoilage which suggests that shelf-life of the product and the handling procedure to be
done
a. pH test b. peroxide test
c. bacterial count d. total reducing substance
9. A synergist use to prevent oxidation during cold storage
a. N2 b. Ascorbyl palmitate
c. phosphates d. propyll gallate
10. Salting stage causing change in chemical and physico-chemical characteristic of a product
a. spices b. sweetener
c. herbs d. antioxidant
11. The term use for none edible fish part
a. waste b. refuge
c. non-consumable d. refuse
12. Market form of fish muscle is called
a. filet b. stick
c. dressed d. minced
13. An extract from fish entrails during fermentation
a. glycogen b. glycine
c. glycerol d. gluten
14. An aquatic processed product mostly exported
a. frozen b. value-added
c. canned d. cured
15. This is gut bacteria
a. Pseudomonas b. Salmonella
c. Vibrio cholerae d. Alteromonas
16. A compound that increase in concentration as fish reach putridity giving ammonification odor
a. NH3+ b. TMA
+
c. NH4 d. DMA
17. The duration of ice storage where bacterial count increases
a. 5 b. 7
c. 6 d. 4
18. This is a microorganism that creates problem in scombrid fish
a. Pseudomonas b. Alteromonas
c. Proteus d. Shemonella
19. A sweetening substance stable during baking but has bitter after taste at high concentration
a. acesulfame K b. aspartame
c. saccharin d. Nutra sweet
20. This is a drying method by cooking
a. oil drying b. fry drying
c. drying by cooking d. drying by boiling
21. It is a process that allows evaluation of ingredients and flavor performance towards a defined goal
a. product optimization b. high impact ingredient evaluation
c. ingredient screening d. food-graded evaluation
22. An ingredient that defines ethnic character of many food
a. herbs b. flavor enhancer
c. spices d. sweetener
23. It is a fishery product with shortest market chain
a. canned b. fresh
c. frozen d. smoked
24. This is the one responsible in the change of fish texture
a. myomere b. myofibrillar protein
c. myofilament d. myotome
25. A fish processing procedure which involves osmosis
a. salting b. drying
c. curing d. smoking
26. Commercially important fishery products in the Philippines are more or less
a. 500 species b. 570 species
c. 540 species d. 550 species
27. Spoilage pathogen responsible for the production of fruity odor during fish spoilage
a. Pseudomonas perfeinges b. Pseudomonas fragi
c. Morakella spp. d. Alteromonas
28. A fat soluble compound contained in an industrial waste that can contaminate fish
a. polychlorinated b. bi-phenyls
b. DDT d. petroleum hydrocarbon
29. The per capita waste production daily in the Philippines is
a. 0.6kg b. 0.65kg
c. 0.62kg d. 0.66kg
30. This is a regulation that calls for the National Solid Waste Management Program
a. R.A. 9003 of 2000 b. R.A. 9300 of 2000
c. R.A. 9030 of 2000 d. R.A. 9000 of 2000
31. Marketing of aquatic products revolves around in 3C’s such as
a. cost, consumers, company b. company, competition, cost
c. consumers, competition, cost d. company, competition, consumer
32. The highly unsaturated fatty acids content of fish leading rancidity are
a. clupanodomic, misinic, moroctic b. clupanodomic, nisinic, moroctic
c. misinic, moroctic, clupanodomic d. clupanodomic, morotic, nisinic
33. When packing the fish for transport these must be observed
a. pre-cooling, re-cooling, layering b. sorting, pre-cooling, layering
c. pre-cooling, layering, chilling d. re-cooling, sorting, layering
34. The other aquatic processed products in the country are?
a. dried alamang, spicy anchovies, shrimp kroepeck
b. spicy anchovies, shrimp kroepeck, seaweeds
c. shrimp kroepeck, shrimp cracker, seaweeds
d. seaweed, shrimp kroepeck, dried alamang
35. Premature rigor mortis occurs when fish struggle at harvest due to
a. lower lactic acid reserve b. lower glycogen content
c. lower lactic acid content d. lower glycogen reserve
36. When the fish is transported alive, the container to be used must be
a. metal can b. nestling metal can
c. metal tin can d. styrophore
37. This is the process where salt destroys the activity of microorganism
a. plasmolysis b. osmosis
c. diffusion d. extraction
38. The method of handling fish must be properly observed and practiced by
a. reducing bacterial load, maintain its quality
b. reducing bacterial load and temperature
c. reducing temperature, maintain its quality
d. maintain its quality, process it properly
39. A newly caught fish is said to be bacteriologically sterile because
a. free of bacterial load b. it is clean
c. its alive and its immune system is working d. microorganisms in it is dormant yet
40. The two contractile proteins in fish muscle making fish nutritionally important are
a. lactin and myosin b. actin and myosin
c. myocin and lecithin d. lactin and lecithin
41. The protein content of seasoned fish paste is
a. 10% b. 12.5%
c. 6% d. 6.15%
42. This a vitamin naturally rich in fish viscera
a. Vitamin B b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin E
43. The resulting product of fish fermentation is
a. ammonia, vitamins, fat b. vitamin, peptide, amino acid
c. peptide, amino acid, fats d. peptide, amino acid, ammonia
44. Generally the yield of shrimp after processing is
a. 50-45% b. 55-50%
c. 45-55% d. 40-50%
45. The edible portion of squid is about
a. 99% b. 96%
c. 97% d. 98%
46. The protein content of octopus is
a. 15.6% b. 12.5%
c. 14.6% d. 13.3%
47. This is a liquid mixture of water, starches and flour applied to food and meat products prior to
cooking
a. batter b. sauce
c. toppings d. dip
48. Protein content of kapiz
a. 23.3% b. 23.5%
c. 25.3% d. 24.3%
49. The right valve of kapiz is called
a. lacon b. landay
c. locan d. nalday
50. The best preservative for shells is
a. 80% ethyl alcohol b. 100% ethyl alcohol
c. 90% ethyl alcohol d. 70% ethyl alcohol
51. Roundscad silage has protein content of about
a. 17.3% b. 16.9%
c. 16.7% d. 15.1%
52. The types of carrageenan produced in the Philippines are
a. Kappa, Iota, Rho b. Kappa, Lambda, Rho
c. Iota, Lambda, Rho d. Lambda, Kappa, Iota
53. The protein content of processed jelly fish is about
a. 4-6% b. 5-6%
c. 4-5% d. 6-7%
54. The protein content of milkfish offal when dried is about
a. 42.4% b. 30.1%
c. 25% d. 48.9%
55. Mineral content of seaweed is about
a. 7-14% b. 7-34%
c. 7-24% d. 7-44%
56. Dried laver contains
a. 34-46% protein b. 34-36% protein
c. 34-38% protein d. 34-40% protein
57. Most fish contain high quantity protein ranging from
a. 16-22% b. 14-22%
c. 15-22% d. 17-22%
58. Among the Philippine fish fishes, this species has the highest moisture content
a. red snapper b. barramundi
c. Spanish mackerel d. spotted coral grouper
59. Among the Philippine fish fishes, this species has the highest edible portion
a. milkfish b. Indian mackerel
c. Fusilier d. roundscad
60. Among the aquatic foods, this species has the highest cholesterol content
a. sea urchin b. lobster
c. shrimp/prawn d. octopus
61. Among the aquatic foods, this species has the highest EPA & DHA omega-3 fatty acids
a. Spanish mackerel b. shrimps/prawn
c. barracuda d. mullet
62. This is a red tide toxin that poisons body system
a. Biotoxins b. ciguatoxin
c. saxitoxin d. brevotoxins
63. The edible fresh seaweeds that has the highest iron content
a. lato b. bal-balulang
c. kulot d. gayong-gayong
64. Generally, seaweeds contain this vitamin;
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin C
65. Round worms could be checked with this lethal temperature
a. -17°C for 24hours b. -20°C for 24hours
c. -17°C for 60hours d. -20°C for 60hours
66. Grade of fish sauce with 10% protein content
a. seasoned b. young
c. formed d. long
67. This is proteolytic molds responsible to hasten hydrolysis of fish flesh in buro making
a. Bacillus sp. b. Aspergillus sporogenous
c. Aspergillus oryzae d. Micrococcus sp.
68. The white fish offal silage contains
a. 0.5-2% b. 22%
c. 14.5-17% d. 25%
69. The protein content of fish meal is about
a. 65-70% b. 55-70%
c. 60-65% d. 55-65%
70. There are ____ principles of Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point Program
a. 5 b. 6
c. 7 d. 8
71. The action to eliminate the cause of a detected non-conformitory or other undesirable situation
a. critical limit b. corrective action
c. control measure d. control point
72. Defined as a mandatory regulatory activity of enforcement by national or local authorities to provide
consumer protection and to ensure that all foods during production, handling, storage, processing,
distribution and sale are safe, wholesome and fit for human consumption
a. food control b. regulations
c. Administrative order d. monitoring
73. System that enables the identification of product lots and their relations with batches of raw
materials
a. validation b. traceability
c. assessment d. food safety
74. It is the treatment to preserve the visual appeal of fish in market where bright color is often
associated with freshness
a. sulphite b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide d. bicarbonate
75. A criterion which separates acceptability from unacceptability
a. criteria b. critical limit
c. critical control d. regulation
76.
Aquatic Resources and Ecology_1
1. The groups of heterotrophs that consume other living organisms and feed on dead organic matter are
a. biophages and saprophages, respectively b. biophages and phagophages, respectively
c. biophages and autophages, respectively d. biophages and heterophages, respectively
2. These are basic unit of the water which is basic and organic compounds, such as water, carbon
dioxide, oxygen, calcium, nitrogen and phosphorus, salts, amino acids and humic acids.
a. abiotic substances b. aphotic substances
c. biotic substances d. photic substances
3. It is the means by which all of the higher plants and animals, and most of the Monerans and
Protistants as well, obtain their energy for maintenance and for the formation of cell material
a. aerobic respiration b. heterotroph respiration
c. anaerobic respiration d. fermentation process
4. A type of respiration but an organic compound is the electron receptor (oxidant). Yeasts are well
known fermentors. They are not only commercially important to man but are abundant in soils where
they can play a key role in decomposition of plant residues
a. aerobic respiration b. heterotroph respiration
c. anaerobic respiration d. fermentation process
5. The nutrient present in minimum amount would tend to limit productivity. This refers to
a. Law of thermodynamics b. Shelford’s Law of Minimum
c. Leibig’s Law of Minimum d. none of the above
6. The speed of chemical reactions doubles for each rise in temperature at 10°C
a. Van Hove’s Principle b. Van Hoff Principle
c. Van’t Haff Principle d. none of the above
7. Which one is true fact about photosynthesis and respiration?
a. Both are life processes. Photosynthesis is the production of oxygen while respiration is the production
of carbon dioxide
b. Both are life processes. Photosynthesis is the consumption of carbon dioxide while respiration is the
consumption of oxygen
c. Both are life processes. Photosynthesis is the production of simple sugar and is an anabolic process
while respiration is the breakdown of simple sugar and is a catabolic process.
d. all of the above
8. Which one is true fact about chlorophyll and phycoerythrin?
a. Both are plant pigments. Chlorophyll is green while phycoerythrin is red
b. Both are plant processes. Chlorophyll is responsible for photosynthesis while phycoerythrin is for
respiration
c. Both are plant food reserves. Chlorophyll if for green algae while phycoerythrin is for red algae
d. All of the above
9. Which one is true about the terms biotic and abiotic?
a. Both are component of aquatic environment. Biotic refers to animals while abiotic refers to soil and
water
b. Both are components of aquatic environment. Biotic refers to living things while abiotic refers to non-
living things
c. Both are component of aquatic environment. Biotic refers to plankton while abiotic refers to the
chemical properties of waters
d. All of the above
10. Which one is true fact about Stenohaline and Euryhaline?
a. Both refer to salinity tolerance of living organisms. Stenohaline refers to narrow tolerance while
euryhaline refers to wide range of tolerance
b. Both refer to salinity tolerance of living organisms. Stenohaline refers to wide range of tolerance
while euryhaline refers to narrow range
c. Both refer to pH tolerance of living organisms. Stenohaline refers to wide range of tolerance while
euryhaline refers to narrow tolerance
d. all of the above
11. Which one is true fact about phagotrophs and saprotrophs?
a. Both are group of consumers. Phagotrophs are microconsumers while saprotrophs are
macroorganisms
b. Both are group of consumers. Phagotrophs are macroconsumers while saprotrophs are
microconsumers
c. Both are group of producers. Phagotrophs are macroproducers while saprotrophs are microproducers
d. all of the above
12. Which one is true fact about benthos and periphyton?
a. Both are groups of organisms categorized according to their mode of life. Benthos are organisms that
live in the sediments and they can be filter or deposit feeders while periphyton attached themselves to
substances such as submerged aquatic vegetation
b. Both are group of organisms that live in the water. Benthos nourish by filtering the water while
periphyton by attaching themselves to substrates
c. Both are group of organisms that have mutualism with other organisms that live with the substrate.
Benthos compete with nutrients while periphyton compete with space.
d. all of the above
13. Which one is true fact about homeothermy and poikilotherm?
a. Both are groups of organisms based on their temperature adaptation. Homeotherms are warm-
blooded animals while poikilotherm is cold-blooded animals
b. Both are groups of organisms based on their temperature adaptation. Homeotherms are human while
poikilotherm is fishes
c. Both are groups of organisms based on their temperature adaptation. Homeotherms are those that
live in the equator while poikilotherm is those that live in north and south poles
d. all of the above
14. In ecology, it is the formulation that mimics the real-world phenomenon, and by means of which
predictions can made. They are verbal or graphic or statistical and mathematical
a. models b. integrative approach
c. biocoenosis d. all of the above
15. Limnology is the study of the functional relationships and productivity of freshwater biotic
communities as they are affected by the dynamics of
a. physical, chemical and biotic environmental parameters
b. physico-chemical parameters
c. physiological and biological parameters
d. physico-biota parameters
16. The substrate in which water-filled depression lies or form which it receives its soluble salts and
other nutrients is dependent in its geologic legacy. This heritage of nutrients available to the aquatic
habitat via the weathering of soil within its drainage area is the
a. biotic factor b. trophic factor
c. edaphic factor d. geologic factor
17. The trophic nature of water, referring basically to the soluble nutrients and resultant biotic
productivity, is the result of interaction of at least three factors; namely
a. edaphic factor, morphologic features and meteorologic-geographic matter
b. edaphic factor, biotic factor and geologic factor
c. edaphic factor, morpho-ecological features
18. Lake formation is entirely geologic in nature. Once formed, they are doomed. Because of the
concave nature of basins, there is a compulsory trend toward obliteration as they fill with sediments.
Old lakes are
a. deep b. wide
c. shallow d. clear
19. This is a term applied to wide-reaching tectonic events that raise large crystal blocks and sometimes
brings about the formation of enormous basin like the Caspian Sea
a. epeirogenesis b. tectonegenesis
b. genogenesis d. morphogenesis
20. It is the third longest river in the world with length of 6,300km
a. Nile River b. Yangtze River
c. Yellow River d. Cagayan River
21. Of the 14 longest rivers in the world, how many of these can be found in China?
a. 4 b. 5
c. 6 d. 7
22. The second largest river in the Philippines with drainage area of 23, 169km2
a. Mindanao River b. Agusan River
c. Cagayan River d. Pampanga River
23. The third largest river in the Philippines with drainage area of 10, 951km2
a. Mindanao River b. Agusan River
c. Cagayan River d. Pampanga River
24. The Pampanga River in Central Luzon, ranks among the major river basins in the Philippines
a. second b. third
c. fourth d. first
25. Of the Major basins in the Philippines, how many are found in Luzon?
a. 7 b. 8
c. 9 d. 10
26. How many major river basins are found in the Visayas?
a. 3 b. 4
c. 7 d. 8
27. In Minadanao, how many major river basins can be found?
a. 5 b. 6
c. 7 d. 8
28. The river which is the main outlet of Laguna Lake
a. Pansipit River b. Bulacan River
c. Pasig River d. Malabon River
29. Tall Lake main outlet is a river that runs through Lemery, Batangas
a. Pansipit River b. Bulacan River
c. Pasig River d. Malabon River
30. The world’s largest and deepest lake are
a. Lake Superior and Lake Winnepeg, respectively
b. Lake Superior and Lake Baikal, respectively
c. Lake Superior and Lake Huron, respectively
d. Laguna Lake and Lanao Lake, respectively
31. The third largest fresh water lake in Asia
a. Laguna lake b. Lake Baikal
c. Lake Nigeria d. Lake Biwa
32. The second largest lake in the world having a surface area of 68, 800km2 which can be found in
Africa is
a. Lake Nigeria b. Lake Tanganyika
c. Lake Nyasa d. Lake Victoria
33. Of the 10 largest freshwater lakes in the world, how many can be found in North America?
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
34. Laguna lake has the surface area of
a. 89, 076.3ha b. 82,350.6ha
c. 85, 500.0ha d. 80, 675.2ha
35. The fourth largest lake in the Philippines having an area of 17, 430.2ha which can be found in Surigao
del Norte and Agusan in Mindanao
a. Lake Lanao b. Lake Mainit
c. Agusan Lake d. Lake Buhi
36. This lake is a graben lake usually elongated and formed between faults and adjacent highlands
a. Lake Tanganyika b. Lake Tahoe
c. Lake Baikal d. none of the above
37. This is a glacial lake formed when water under pressure ascends through gaps in the permafrost,
freezes and lifts an ice dome that is covered with alluvium and tundra vegetation
a. Pingo lake b. Tundra lake
c. Periglacial lake d. none of the above
38. This lake is a result of epeirogenesis which is a term applied to wide-reaching tectonic events that
raise large crystal blocks and sometimes brings about the formation of enormous basin
a. Uplift Lake b. Tectonic Lake
c. Epeirogenetic Lake d. Morainic Lake
39. A crater lake occupies a caldera, a term that refers to collapsed volcanic crater formed when
underlying magma (molten rock) flows out. Which of these lakes in the Philippines is a crater lake?
a. Lake Lanao in Mindanao b. Lake Secovia in Zambales
c. Taal Lake in Batangas d. Lake Sta. Rita of Pampanga
40. A 24-ha newly-formed caldera lake recently formed from volcanic activity in Pampanga
a. Arayat Lake b. Pinatubo Lake
c. Apalit Lake d. Lake Paitan
41. Taal is a part of national park and is a major tourist attraction; it is best viewed form Tagaytay Ridge.
Taal volcano has erupted about 25 times since 1572, often taking lives and causing significant damage. It
last erupted in
a. 1977 b. 1978
c. 1979 d. 1985
42. These lakes are formed in arid regions where the erosive force of the wind has left its mark. There is
the damning of stream by drifting wind-blown sand. Depressions among dunes may contain water,
especially if the wind has scooped away sand to approach or expose the water table
a. solution lakes b. aeolian lakes
c. carbonate lakes d. coulee lakes
43. It is a lake formed by lava impoundment
44. These lakes are formed by dissolution and removal of material usually carbonates of calcium and to
a lesser extent, magnesium. CaCO3 is soluble in aqueous solution especially when the water is acidic.
This is also a lake caused by the corrosion or chemical erosion that requires acidity
45. It is a crescent-shaped lakes which is formed when a river cuts through the neck of one of its loops,
or meanders, thus establishing a shorter course and leaving the former loop as a lake separate from a
river
a. levee lake b. oxbow lake
c. solution lake d. lava lake
46. It is a part of lake that occurs between epilimnion and hypolimnion and at a depth where
photosynthetic processes are matched by respiratory events
a. hypolimnion b. mixomolimnion
c. minomolimnion d. eplimnion
47. This lake includes area of wet marshy ground, largely consisting of accumulated decomposing plant
material. It supports vegetation such as moss and may ultimately turn into peat. It contains excessive
humus in water, a condition in which pond or lake water is unable to support thriving animal or plant
life.
a. bog lake b. dystrophic lake
c. oligotrophic lake d. marsh lake
48. A device that measures shoreline length from a map
a. polar planimeter b. photometer
c. cartometer d. alidade
49. Shoreline Development Index (SDI) is a comparative figure relating the shoreline length to the
circumference of a circle that has the same area of the lake. An irregular pond has a mean shoreline
length of 350m and a surface area of 50ha, the SDI is
a. 0.081 b. 0.084
c. 0.082 d. 0.083
50. Solution basin, volcanic lakes in various craters, some deflection basin and the rare depressions
owing their origin to meteoritic impact and explosion have shoreline development indices of
a. nearly 1.0 b. less than 1
c. more than 1 d. it depends
51. The higher the value of shoreline development index, the more irregular a shoreline is which is
indications of
a. shallow productive part of the lake
b. nutrient poor lake
c. not so good lake because cage culture cannot be installed
d. it depends
52. This is the ratio of the maximum depth (m) to the average diameter of the lake surface (m2)
a. relative depth b. mean depth
c. maximum depth d. width
53. A solution lake has a maximum depth of 25m and an area of 15,000m2. The relative depth is
a. 18.085m b. 18.025m
c. 18.095m d. 18.020m
54. It is a reliable morphometric indicator of trophic condition because it is an important dimension in
determining what proportion of a lake’s volume is well lighted within the photosynthetic one
a. mean depth b. relative depth
c. surface depth d. maximum depth
55. Which of the following lake is an oligotrophic lake?
a. Lake A with 5m mean depth b. Lake B with 10m mean depth
c. Lake C with 18m mean depth d. Lake D with >18m mean depth
56. The area at each depth, its percentage of the total area, the volume of its stratum, and the
percentage of the volume contained in each stratum can be derived from
a. bathymetric map b. hypsographic curve
c. contour map d. isobaths map
57. This is energy of fundamental importance to the entire dynamics of the freshwater ecosystems.
Almost all of the energy that drives and controls the metabolism of lake is derived from
a. solar radiation b. light energy
c. plankton d. chemical energy
58. The instrument to measure solar radiation is
a. barometer b. anemometer
c. pyrheliometer d. pycnometer
59. Solar radiations can be expressed in terms of calories and langleys. 1 langley is equal to
a. 1cal cm-1 b. 2cal cm-1
-1
c. 3cal cm d. 4cal cm-1
60. The amount of solar energy that reaches the surface of a lake is dependent upon array of dynamic
factors. The amount of direct solar energy per unit of time from the sun, incident upon the surface
outside the atmosphere perpendicular to the rays of the sun at an average distance of the earth from
the sun, is referred to as the
a. solar constant b. solar energy
c. solar radiation d. solar light
61. Solar constant is difficult to measure but recent evidence from satellite instrumentation indicates a
value of
a. 1.00 cal cm-2 min1 b. 1.94 cal cm-2 min-1
c. 2.00 cal cm-2 min-1 d. 3.00 cal cm-2 min-1
62. A portion of light energy reaching the lake surface does not enter the water, but is immediately
reflected. Which of the following factors affect light penetration in the water?
a. latitude, season, angle of contact of light rays with surface
b. latitude, season, angle of contact of light rays with surface, time of day, intensity at surface, dissolved
materials
c. latitude, season, angle of contact of light rays with surface, time of day, intensity at surface, dissolved
and suspended materials, presence of snow cover
d. latitude, season, angle of contact of light rays with surface, time of day, intensity at surface, sunny
day, presence of cloud
63. At what time of the day where greater light penetrates in the water?
a. 6:00 hr b. 10:00 hr
c. 12:00 hr d. 15:00 hr
64. At what time of the day when greater amount of light reaching the water surface is reflected back to
the atmosphere?
a. 6:00 hr b. 19:00 hr
c. 10:00 hr d. 12:00 hr
65. What kind of water where light absorption is diminished?
a. hard water b. alkaline water
c. bog water d. acidic water
66. This wavelength is 90% absorbed in the first meter of the lake and only 1% is transmitted through
two meter of the lake
a. 750 nanometer b. 650 nanometer
c. 550 nanometer d. 450 nanometer
67. Generally, photosynthesis does not proceed at rates exceeding respiration at depths where light
intensity is less than
a. 1% of incident light b. 2% of incident light
c. 3% of incident light d. 4% of incident light
68. The stratum of the water receiving 1% or more of the incident radiation is called
a. euphotic zone b. aphotic zone
c. epilimnion d. hypolimnion
69. The Secchi disc visibility is useful as a means of comparing the visibility of different waters. Some
considerations when taking Secchi disc visibility are
a. clearness of the day, position of the sun, roughness of the water, eyesight of the observer
b. clearness of the day, position of the sun, roughness of the water
c. clearness of the day, position of the sun, roughness of the water, cloudiness
70. Three bodies of water have the following Secchi disc visibility depth; 1m, 2.3 and 33.5m. The
estimated light extinction coefficients of these three bodies of water are
a. 1.7, 0.74, and 0.49 b. 1.7, 0.73 and 0.49
c. 1.7, 0.71, and 0.47 d. 1.7, 0.71, and 0.46
71. A solar radiation penetrates and diffuses in the atmosphere of the earth, the energy of certain
wavelength is strongly absorbed and attenuated by scattering. The visible portion of the spectrum, with
energy in the green portion (480 nm) of the visible range is only a small portion of the total energy
radiated by the sun. The ultraviolet light energy is absorbed by
a. ozone and oxygen b. ozone and carbon dioxide
c. ozone and methane d. none of the above
72. The infrared energy is absorbed by
a. water vapor, ozone and carbon dioxide b. water vapor, carbon dioxide and methane
b. water vapor, oxygen and methane d. none of the above
73. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C is called
a. latent heat of fusion b. specific heat of water
c. heat of vaporation d. none of the above
74. This is the amount of heat to change 1 gram of ice to its liquid state when both are at 0°C. This
amount is 80 cal of heat.
c. heat of vaporation d. none of the above
75. Is the quantity of heat necessary to convert 1 gram of water at 100°C into steam without altering the
temperature of the latter
c. thermal conductivity d. heat of vaporation
76. It is the capability of water to absorbed heat from solar energy as light passes through the water.
This results to the warming up of water
c. thermal conductivity d. heat of vaporation
77. A lake with high surface temperature of 20-30°C, with small annual amplitude of variation, and a
small thermal gradient at any depth, though the density gradient maybe sufficient to impart
considerable stability. Circulation is irregular, but usually occurs only on the coldest time of the year.
a. tropical lake b. polar lake
b. subtropical lake d. temperate lake
78. A lake with surface temperature above 4°C in summer and below 4°C in winter, thermal gradient
large, seasonal variation large, two circulation periods in spring and late autumn
a. tropical lake b. polar lake
b. subtropical lake d. temperate lake
79. Temperature is one of the most important factors in the aquatic environment because of its many
profound influences which can be direct or indirect to the aquatic organisms. For poikilotherms
a. increased metabolism occurs at decreased temperature
b. increased metabolism occurs at increased temperature
c. no increase in any temperature change
80. Thermal stratification occurs when there is a great difference in the temperature of the upper and
lower layers of water brought about by difference in densities. A thermocline is developed during
thermal stratification. Thermocline is define as
a. the layer across which the temperature drops at a rate of at least 1°C/m
b. the layer across which the temperature drops at a rate of at least 10°C/m
c. the layer across which the temperature drops at a rate of at least 5°C/m
d. the layer across which the temperature drops at a rate of at least 100°C/m
81. Thermal stratification affects dissolved oxygen concentrations such as cold water holds
a. less DO than warm water b. more DO than warm water
c. relatively low Do than warm water d. it depends
82. This refer to many mixing periods or continuous circulation throughout the year and influenced
more by the changing diel fluctuation in temperature than by seasonal changes
a. amixis b. holomixis
c. monomixis d. polymixis
83. It is a region of meromictic lake that is permanently stagnant layer containing a markedly greater
concentration of dissolved substances than that found in the overlying water
a. minomolimnion b. mixolimnion
c. chemocline d. homolimnion
84. It is the upper layer of meromictic lake which is more dilute and mixed by the wind and show
seasonal changes
a. minomolimnion b. mixolimnion
c. chemocline d. homolimnion
85. The water molecule consists of an oxygen atom and two hydrogen atoms which are attached at
angle of 105°. The arrangement of the atoms accounts for the many unusual properties of water, such
as the fact that it expands when it freezes. This arrangement is
a. symmetrical b. asymmetrical
c. linear d. sigmoid
86. It is the force per unit area exerted by a liquid or gas on a body or surface, with force acting at right
angles to the surface uniformly in all directions
a. density b. surface films
c. pressure d. heat
87. One unit of atmosphere is defined as a pressure which can also be measured by a conventional
mercury barometer corresponding to
a. 760mm Hg b. 780m Hg
c. 765m Hg d. 775mm Hg
88. This law states that the pressure of the fluid is equal in all direction and in all parts of the medium
holding the water
a. Boyle’s Law b. Pascal’s Law
c. Boyd’s Law d. Lambert’s Law
89. The relationship of pressure to depth is
a. linear b. inversely proportional
c. no relationship d. none of the above
90. It is the ration of the mass of substance to its volume, and it can be calculated by dividing mass by
volume
a. pressure b. surface film
c. density d. none of the above
91. The density of substance can vary under different conditions. Which of the following conditions is
true?
a. Substances expand and contract as their temperature and density changes
b. Substances contract as their temperature changes resulting in changes in density
c. Substances get dissolved as their temperature changes resulting in density changes
92. It is the density of a substance divided by the density of another substance that is used as a standard
a. specific heat b. latent heat of fusion
c. specific gravity d. all of the above
93. Which of the following conditions is true?
a. density of freshwater is higher than seawater b. density of seawater is higher than freshwater
c. density of seawater and freshwater is similar d. density may differ but it depends
94. Buoyancy is a direct outcome of the density of water. The greater the density of water, the greater is
the buoyant force; the denser the water, the higher will a floating object ride in the water. Which of the
following conditions is true?
a. ship passing from freshwater into seawater will rise lower and the same ship with the same load will
ride higher in winter than in summer
b. ship passing from freshwater into seawater will rise higher and the same ship with the same load will
ride higher in winter than in summer
c. ship passing from freshwater into seawater will rise higher and the same ship with the same load will
ride lower in winter than in summer
d. ship passing from freshwater into seawater will rise lower and the same ship with the same load will
ride lower in winter than in summer
95. It is the property of liquid that tends to prevent it from flowing when subjected to an applied force
a. viscosity b. specific gravity
c. density d. buoyancy
96. Which of the following organisms below can impart red color to the water?
a. artemia, purple sulfur bacteria, Oscillatoria rubescens
b. Euglena, Ceratium, blue green algae
c. artemia, bacteria, Ceratium
d. Euglena, Ceratium, artemia
97. This physical property of water has a biological function for support and respiration of organisms
that live on the surface of water
a. viscosity b. surface film
c. pressure d. temperature
98. The pH concentration and pH of the water are
a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional
c. none of the above d. linear
99. The acidity at pH 4.3 and 8.3 and pH below 4.3 is termed as
a. CO2 acidity and mineral acidity, respectively
b. total alkalinity
c. alkalinity and mineral acidity, respectively
100. For eutrophic and ultra-oligotrophic lakes, the total phosphorus concentrations are
a. 30-100µg/l b. <5µg/l
c. 5-10µg/l d. >100µg/l
1. Phosphorus is lost without the involvement of the mud when water is high in
a. aluminum b. iron
c. calcium d. all of the above
2. This is the primary photosynthetic pigment of all oxygen-evolving photosynthetic organism and is
present in all algae
a. chlorophyll a b. chlorophyll b
c. chlorophyll c d. chlorophyll d
3. A pigment present only in green algae and euglenophytes
4. This is a pigment that functions as a light gathering pigment in which absorbed light energy is
transferred to chlorophyll a for primary photochemistry
5. This pigment is an accessory pigment to photosystem
6. It is the most widely distributed of the carotenes which is present in all groups of alga
a. carotenoids b. alpha-carotene
c. beta-carotene d. all of the above
7. It is a group of alga similar to bacteria
a. Chlorophyceae b. Xanthophyceae
c. Cyanophyceae d. Chrysophyseae
8. This group of green algae are most common and the species diversity is greatest in soft waters
draining granitic, igneous rock land reforms, and especially in waters with high content of dissolved
organic matter
a. desmids b. phosphorus-fixing bacteria
c. nitrogen-fixing bacteria d. none of the above
9. They often develop during the cold period of years under relatively low lights condition
a. dinoflagellates b. diatoms
c. cryptomonads d. blue-green algae
10. This group of algae exhibit seasonal polymorphism or cyclomorphosis
a. Euglenophyceae b. Cryptophyceae
c. Pyrrophyceae d. Cyanophyceae
11. This is characterized by sudden death of all or great portion of the phytoplankton due to
photooxidation followed by rapid decomposition of dead algae
a. phytoplankton die-off b. phytoplankton compensation
c. phytoplankton bloom d. none of the above
12. Which of the condition below can contribute to photooxidative death in phytoplankton?
a. high pH and DO b. CO2 depletion and high light intensity
13. Which of the following weather conditions could not precipitate phytoplankton die-off?
a. heavy scums at the surface
b. warm, clear and bright sunny day
c. high light intensity and water depth and green color of water
d. all of the above
14. A pigment present in certain red algae
15. Which is not a BGA that belongs to the family Chroococcaceae?
a. Microcystis b. Oscilatoria
c. Gomphosphaeria d. none of the above
16. Which is of the order Chlorococcales?
a. Sphagnum b. Scenedesmus
c. Chlamydomonas d. Eudorina
17. Which does not belong to the order Volvocales of the Chlorophyceae family?
a. Chlamydomonas b. Sphaerocystis
c. Volvox d. Ankistrodesmus
18. Which is not a filamentous BGA?
a. Oscillatoria b. Chorella
c. Nostoc d. Lyngbya
19. This is a family of algae that are unicellular, colonial and filamentous and also characterized by
conspicuous often excess amount of carotenoids over chlorophyll that result in their predominantly
yellow-green coloration. They are usually associated with the substrata and many are epiphytic on larger
aquatic plants.
a. Cyanophyceae b. Chrysophyceae
c. Xanthophyceae d. Bacillariophyceae
20. This family of algae is unicellular with pigments dominated with beta-carotene and xanthophylls that
give brown color. They are important component of phytoplankton
21. Which of the golden brown algae below exhibit luxury consumption?
a. Dinobryon b. Uroglena
c. all of the above d. Synura
22. A group of unicellular and colonial phytoplankters which are sessile and associated with the littoral
substrata, they have silicified cell walls
23. The centric forms of diatoms belong to the group
a. Centrales b. Pennales
c. Concentrinales d. all of the above
24. Which freshwater algae have been cited for groundwater contamination?
a. Anabaena flos-aquae & A. cylindrical b. Oscillatoria brevis & O. tenuis
25. What is the action of saxitoxin?
a. a nicotinic agonist, mimicking acetylcholine
b. inhibit acetylcholinesterase
c. inhibits the release of acetylcholine by blocking the flow of sodium ions across membrane channels,
thus disrupting neurons and muscle cells interaction
26. Which of the following is toxic red alga?
a. Analipus japonicus b. Jania sp.
c. Gracilariopsis chorda d. all of the above
27. The toxic present in Anabaena flos-aquae
a. onatoxin-A b. saxitoxin
c. peroxide d. domoic acid
28. The toxin found in Microcystis aeroginosa
a. ciguatoxin b. cyanoviridin
c. microcystin d. domoic acid
29. It is a measure of turn over at which describes a portion of the biomass that is renewed per unit of
time
a. primary productivity b. secondary productivity
c. P/B ration d. all of the above
30. The relationship of Brachionus wet weight and length is W=0.132x10-6 x L3. Supposing 10L water
sample contains 1,000 individual Brachionus with average length of 1µm, the total wet weight is
a. 1.32-4µg b. 1.32-6µg
-4
c. 1.30 µg d. 1.30-6µg
31. The total rate of photosynthesis, including the organic matter used up in respiratory utilization by
the plants during the period of measurement.
a. gross primary production b. net primary production
c. primary production d. secondary production
32. The rate of storage of organic matter in plant tissues in excess of the respiratory utilization by the
plant during the period of measurement.
a. gross primary production b. net primary production
c. primary production d. secondary production
33. The rate of storage of organic matter not used by heterotrophs
a. gross primary productivity b. net community productivity
c. net primary productivity d. primary productivity
34. The gross community photosynthesis is
a. 0.5mg/L/hr b. 0.375mg/L/hr
c. 1mg/L/hr d. 1.5mg/L/hr
35. Sponges have porous body consisting of a system of water canals through which water is pumped by
the action of special flagellated cells. These cells serve to create water current through the internal canal
system and also filter out tiny food particles from the water.
a. choanocytes b. pinacocytes
c. actinocytes d. none of the above
36. Sponges having a system of horizontal tubes that bear numerous upright branches which represent
individual sponges of the colony.
a. ascon body type b. leucon body type
c. sycon body type d. none of the above
37. The outer surface of the sponge is covered by a thin layer of flat cells called pinacocytes. This body
type is found in Scypha
a. ascon body type b. leucon body type
c. sycon body type d. none of the above
38. Cnidarian body consists fundamentally of two well-defined tissue layers with an intervening layer of
gelatinous material called
a. jelly b. gastrodermis
c. mesoglea d. none of the above
39. A freshwater hydrozoan that typifies the polyp form of cnidarians. It lives in freshwater streams,
lakes and ponds where it is usually attached to submerged sticks, stones or vegetation.
a. hydra b. jellyfish
c. gastrodermis d. none of the above
40. Stinging capsule which consists of an outer protein capsule and a long coiled tube often armed with
spines or barks. Toxins, enzyme and other chemicals are also contained within the capsules.
a. cnidoblasts b. hypostome
c. nematocysts d. all of the above
41. The activator that actually causes the mouth of hydra to open is reduced form of
a. glutathione b. protein
c. nematocide d. none of the above
42. These are solitary or colonial animals with polyp stage only, medusa absent, pharynx or gullet
present, gastrovascular cavity partitioned by septa
a. scyphozoan b. hydrozoan
c. anthozoan d. all of the above
43. These are corals that are described as miniature sea anemones that lives in calcareous cups that they
themselves have secreted
a. alcyonarian b. octocorallian
c. zoantharian d. none of the above
44. These corals are in hues of yellow, red,, orange, purple and they have graceful beauty which create
the “submarine gardens” of the coral reefs
a. alcyonarian b. octocorallian
c. zoantharian d. none of the above
45. The alteration of the sessile polyp and free swimming medusa generations typical of the life cycle of
cnidarians is called
a. alternation of generation b. alternation of sexual generation
c. alternation of asexual generation d. none of the above
46. The milky substance excreted by sea cucumber is called
a. cuverian tubules b. ossicles
c. mesoglea d. none of the above
47. A unique organ system found only in the Phylum Echinodermata which functions in feeding,
attachment, locomotion, respiration and sensory perception
a. hemal system b. ambulacral andis
c. water vascular system d. none of the above
48. Most chitons are stay-at-homes organisms straying only very short distances for feeding. In feeding,
the radula projects from the mouth to scrape algae from the rocks. The radula is reinforced with iron-
containing mineral called
a. apatite b. iron
c. magnetite d. none of the above
49. Most gastropods have an opening which describes their shells as
a. sinistral b. dextral
c. both d. none of the above
50. A peculiar phenomenon that moves the mantle cavity to the forefront of the body, thus, twisting the
visceral organ as well through a 90-180 degree rotation. Only gastropods undergo this process
a. torsion b. coiling
c. spiral winding d. none of the above
51. A group of marine gastropods which is much studied for its toxin that has potential as drug
a. Conus b. Halictus
c. Palmices d. none of the above
52. A subclass of Class Gastropoda that have one pair of tentacles, breathe through gills and have an
operculum
a. Prosobranchia b. Opisthobranchia
c. Pulmonata d. none of the above
53. This snail has a shallower umbilicus compared to the golden apple snail
a. Pila conica b. Pomacea cananiculata
c. Vivipara costata d. none of the above
54. A development stage in gastropods when torsion occurs
a. larvae stage b. veliger stage
c. metacercaria stage d. none of the above
55. Phyla under this group have only one internal space, the digestive cavity, with the region between
the endoderm and ectoderm filled with mesoderm in the form of muscle fibers and mesenchyme
a. pseudocoelomate b. euceolomate
c. aceolomate d. none of the above
56. A phylum of soft, wormlike animals with flattened and elongated bodies. They have troploblastic
body construction and light sensory eyespots.
a. Nemathelminthes b. Gnathostomulid
c. Plathyhelminthes d. Nemertia
57. A group of free-living flatworms which are mainly carnivorous feeding largely on small crustaceans,
nematodes, rotifers and insects
a. turbellarians b. cestodes
c. trematodes d. none of the above
58. Which one is not a freshwater turbellarian?
a. Dugesia b. Leptoplana
c. Microstomum d. Stenostomum
59. Trematodes are all parasitic flukes and as adults, they are almost found as endoparasites on
vertebrates. They are chiefly leaf-like in form and are structurally similarin many respects to ectolecithal
turbellarians. The subclass or trematodes having many species of medical and economic importance is
a. Aspidogastrea b. Digenea
c. Didymozoides d. none of the above
60. The life cycle of flukes follow generally a sequence of stages
a. adult miracidium-egg-sporocyst-redia-metacercaria-cercaria
b. adult-sporocyst-redia-metacercaria
c. adult-eggs-miracidium-sporocyst-redia-metacercaria
61. A common and important human parasite in certain parts of the world particularly in the Orient,
which also infects cats, dogs and pigs. The worm vary in length 10-20mm. They have a complex life cycle
which involves different hosts; men and snail.
a. Chistosoma mansoni b. Paragminus westermani
c. Clunorhis sinensis d. Fasciola hepatica
62. A fluke that causes shcistosomiasis in eastern Asia
a. Schistosoma mansoni b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma haematobium d. Schistosoma asiatica
63. The fluke lives in the venules of the urinary bladder
a. Schistosoma mansoni b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma haematobium d. Schistosoma asiatica
64. Schistosoma mansoni lives in the
a. small intestine b. urinary bladder
c. large intestine d. liver
65. Of the various groups of flukes, which one does not have metacercarial stage?
a. Clonorchis sinensis b. Fasciola hepatica
c. Paragonimus westermani d. Schistosoma sp.
66. The cause of skin dermatitis when ducks are pastured in the rice fields
a. Schistosoma cercariae b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Paragonimus westermani d. Schistosoma asiatica
67. A common parasite of sheep and cattle, but it also occasionally infects human
a. Fasciola hepatica b. Fasciola buski
c. Paragonimus westermani d. Leucochloridium sp.
68. A digenetic trematode occurring in channel catfish
a. Alloglossidium sp. b. Nanophyetus salmincola
c. Crepidostomum farionis d. none of the above
69. A class of Platyhelminthes that are parasites, primarily gills and external surfaces of fish
a. Digenea b. Cestoda
c. Monogenea d. Nematoda
70. Monogenetic trematode occurring in common carp
a. Dactylogyrus anchoratus b. Dactylogyrus vastator
c. Dactylogyrus extensus d. all of the above
71. Monogenetic trematode of economic importance to fish culturists
a. Gyrodactylus b. Dactylogyrus
c. all of the above d. Polystoma
72. A reproductive body divisionof a tapeworm that each set contains a complete set of male and
female organs
a. proglottid b. scolex
c. strobila d. tegument
73. Cestode found in common carp
a. Bothriocephalus sp. b. Caryophyllaeus sp.
74. This group was first observed in 1978 in the Baltic but its description was not published. This are jaw
worms that live in interstitial spaces of very fine sandy coastal sediments and silt
a. Gnathostomulida b. Amphiporus sp.
c. Gnathostomula janneri d. Baseodiscus sp.
75. These are microscopic animals with ciliated crown or corona that are found primarily in freshwater
habitats. They range in length from 40µm-3mm, but most are between 100-500µm long. They are
important food for fish
a. rotifers b. copepods
c. cladocerans d. Cyclops
76. A process which involves variations in body form resulting from seasonal or nutritional changes
a. cyclomorphosis b. body morphosis
c. morphological change d. none of the above
77. In Philodina females, they produce diploid eggs that hatched into diploid females. These females
reach maturity in a few days. They exhibit
a. parthenogenesis b. cyclogenesis
c. genetic fertilization d. none of the above
78. These are parasitic roundworms that greatly infests crops, domestic animals and human
a. cestodes b. nematodes
c. trematodes d. none of the above
79. A large parasitic roundworms that ranges in length from about 6-16 inches which looks yellow to
pink in color
a. Necatur americanus b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Ancylostoma duodenale
80. Male specimens of Ascaris lumbricoides exhibit curve posterior end and a pair of copulatory spicules
extending from the anus. Female worms have a ventral genital pore about 1/3 of the distance from the
anterior end. Most species of nematodes are
a. onoecious b. hermaphroditic
c. dioecious d. none of the above
81. When the body cavity lacks a mesodermal layer around the gut, it is called
a. acoelomate b. eucoelomate
c. pseudocoelomate d. none of the above
82. A common helminth parasite in children. Adult parasites live in the large intestines and caecum.
Females are up to about 12mm in length; migrate to the anal region at night to lay their eggs
a. Enterpbius vermicularis b. Turbatrix aceti
c. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Trichinella spiralis
83. These worms are considered scourges of humanity. They live in the lymphatic system and females
are as long as 100mm long. The disease that it causes is called elephantiasis. The wom canbe
transmitted by mosquitoes to human.
a. Dirofilaria immitis b. Rhabditis maupasi
c. Wachenreria bancrofti d. Heterodera schactii
84. Annelids are worms whose bodies are divided into similar rings or segments, arranged in linear
series and externally marked by circular grooves called annuli. The cylindrical and elongated bodies of
annelids have segmentation called
a. metamerism b. somite
c. somitetation d. metamere
85. These are part of the body of annelid which represents the anterior and terminal portions of the
body. New metameres forms during development just in front of the terminal portion
a. prostomium and pygidium b. parapodia and peristomium
c. clitellum and somite d. none of the above
86. These worms have many lateral paired appendages called parapodia and they are euryhaline. They
are sedentary or free-moving that lives under the rocks, coral crevices, abandoned shells, mud or sand
a. oligochaete b. hirudinea
c. Polychaeta d. none of the above
87. This group includes earthworms. They are generally segmented with few setae, monoecious; with
permanent gonads. Mostly found in the soil and freshwater habitats
a. oligochaete b. hirudinea
c. Polychaeta d. none of the above
88. Earthworms are group in two, redworms or manure-processing type and the burrowing type. The
redworm of special interest to the vermiculturist is
a. Perionix excavates b. Eisenia foetida
c. Eudrilus euginae d. all of the above
89. Freshwater oligochaetes are usually smaller and have more conspicuous setae than earthworms.
They are mobile, benthic and better developed sense organs. They are important food for fishes. The
family of aquatic oligochaetes found to be parasite in crayfish is
a. Aeolosomatidae b. Naididae
c. Branchiobdellidae d. Tubificidae
90. The arthropods represent the largest and most successful of the animal phyla. Their body is covered
by
a. chitinous exoskeleton b. setae
c. chelicerate exoskeleton d. none of the above
91. The specialized pincer-like appendages modified for feeding in Chilicerata are called
a. trilobites b. madibulates
c. chelicerae d. none of the above
92. A substance in the blood of horse-shoe crab that is used to test bacterial endotoxins in
pharmaceuticals and for several bacterial diseases
a. limulus ameobocyte lysate b. limulus ameobocyte lycine
c. limulus lactic bacteria d. none of the above
93. A term that refers to a two-branched appendage characteristic of crustaceans and certain other
invertebrate groups
a. monoramous b. multiramous
c. biramous d. none of the above
94. This is an abrupt change from one form to another in the development history of an animal
a. cyclomorphosis b. life stages
c. metamorphosis d. none of the above
95. Respiratory organs consisting of many thin, highly vascularized whets of tissue found in the horse-
shoe crab Limulus
a. respiratory gills b. cephalathorax
c. book gills d. none of the above
96. Type of excretory organ found in the crayfish and many other crustaceans located near the base of
the antennae
a. hepatopancreas b. green glands
c. endopodite glands d. none of the above
97. Insects undergo metamorphosis. The first group follows a metamorphosis as: eggs-nymph-adult,
which can be found in Odonata, Plecoptera, Ephemeroptera, Orthoptera and Hemiptera. The second
goup follows a metamorphosis of: egg-larvae-pupa-adult, which is found in Trichoptera, Diptora, and
Coleoptera. These types of metamorphosis are called
a. hemimetabolous and holometabolous, respectively
b. hemetabolous and holotabolous, respectively
c. metabolous and holometabolous, respectively
98. Aquatic insects can served as biological indicators of pollution. The insect community will also
include sensitive species with very little tolerance for disturbance. The groups of insects which cannot
tolerate pollution and have great tolerance of pollution are
a. plecopterans and chironomids, respectively
b. ephemeropterans and odonates, respectively
c. odonata and coleopterans, respectively
99. A phylum characterized with bodies divided into segments, and the circular grooves are called annuli
a. Annelida b. Arthropoda
c. Rotifera d. Nematoda
100. It is a thickened glandular portion of certain mid-body segment of many oligochaetes and leeches.
It is formed seasonally by certain segments which secretes a cocoon into which eggs are deposited for
fertilization and later incubated. This occurs in sexually mature individuals
a. coelom b. clitellum
c. nephridium d. parapodium
1. This is a lateral appendage typical of polychaete worms that always occur in pairs on opposite side of
the body and with many setae arranged in bundles. They are used in crawling, swimming or anchoring in
tubes. They usually serve as the chief respiratory organ of polychaetes
a. coelom b. clitellum
c. nephridium d. parapodium
2. Which one is not a respiratory pigment of a polychaete?
a. hemoglobin b. epimethrin
c. chlorocruorin d. hemerythrin
3. A marine larval form of many polychaete worms and certain other invertebrate groups which is pear-
shaped with one or more bands of cilia around the body and a complete digestive tract. Similar larval
form can also be found in mollusks and other several invertebrates
a. trocophore b. monophore
c. trichopore d. atoke
4. The sexually immature and mature polychaetes are called
a. atokes and epitokes, respectively
b. trocophore and monophore, respectively
c. tricophore and polycophore, respectively
d. peristonium and prostomium, respectively
5. The Samoan palolo worm has a posterior segments make up the epitokal region, consisting of
segments packed with gametes. Each segment has an eye spot to the central side
a. Eunice viridis b. Eunice trividis
c. Eunice paravidis d. Nereis virens
6. A fireworms that feeds on gorgonians, stony corals and other cnidarians. It has many hollow and
brittle setae that contains poisonous secretions; when touched, the setae break off in the wound and
cause skin irritation
a. Hermodice carunculata b. Hermodice adventos
c. Hermodice furunculata d. Hesparone adventor
7. They are segmented organisms with clitellum but thick parapodia and a differentiated head region.
They are generally monoecious, have permanent gonads and development is direct. They are mostly
found in the soil and in freshwater habitats
a. oligochaetes b. biramous organisms
c. polychaetes d. annelids
8. These gland found in earthworms functions as excretory rather than digestive organs which serves to
regulate the level of calcium and carbonate ions and the pH of the blood
a. small intestine b. calcareous glands
c. calciferous glands d. liver
9. This is a specialized type of peritoneum that covers the outer surface of the intestines of earthworms.
The cells of this layer are believed to function like the vertebrate liver in intermediary metabolism in the
removal of waste product, and also in the synthesis of hemoglobin
a. chlorogogue b. chlorogogae
c. chlorogague d. citellium
10. Which earthworm is not of interest to vermiculturists?
a. Perionix excavates b. Eudrilus euginae
c. Pheretima asiatica d. Pontoscolex corethousus
11. Which earthworm is damaging to the rice terraces in Banaue?
12. This earthworm was introduced in 1982 by a German Professor, Otto Graff. This species measures 5-
12inches and is native of Western Africa and widely distributed in tropical and sub-tropical countries.
This earthworm species is highly recommended for vermiculture in the tropic
13. Humus produced through the action of earthworm containing up to 8% N, 0.7%P and 1%K and trace
elements
a. vermicompost b. vermimeal
c. earthworm meal d. all of the above
14. A processed earthworm biomass which can replaced fishmeal in the diet of Nile tilapia at 15%
a. vermicompost b. vermimeal
c. earthworm meal d. all of the above
15. A freshwater oligochaete that is very important larval food for fishes
a. Tubifex b. Lymnodrilus
c. Polystoma d. none of the above
16. A family of aquatic oligochaetes that are ectoparasites in crayfish
a. Branchiobdellidae b. Naididae
c. Tubificidae d. Lumbriculidae
17. Which family of the aquatic oligochaetes is the largest and pink in color?
a. Naididae b. Lumbricullidae
c. Glossoscolecidae d. Haplotaxidae
18. Which of the aquatic oligochaetes have no eye?
a. Naididae b. Lumbricullidae
c. Tubificidae d. Haplotaxidae
19. Which of the following aquatic oligochaetes have not been reported in Philippine rice fields?
a. Tubifex tubifex b. Dero digitata
c. Aeolosoma sp. d. Limnodrilus hotfmeisteri
20. The number of segments found in the class Hirudinea is limited to
a. 34 b. 40
c. 45 d. 50
21. A large European leech used for the medical practice for bloodletting
a. Hirudo medicinalis b. Haementeria ghilani
c. Haemopis d. Placobdella
22. The world’s largest leech found in French Guiana, South America found by Dr. Roy K. Sawyer
a. Hirudo medicinalis b. Haementeria ghilani
c. Haemopis d. Placobdella
23. Which leech does not parasitize freshwater fishes?
a. Piscicola geometra b. Placobdella parasitica
c. Piscicola carpasitica d. Hemiclepsis maginata
24. Primitive marine arthropods with flattened and ovoid body divided into three regions
a. Trilobita b. Chilicerata
c. Pygnogonida d. Crustecea
25. A horse-shoe crab Limulus polyphehemus has a medical importance because of its blood is used to
test bacterial endotoxins and pharmaceuticals and for several bacterial diseases. The compound present
in the blood of horse-shoe crab is
a. Limulus amoebocyte lysate b. LAL
b. Limulus hemoglybocyte lysate d. Limulus amoebocyte lycine
26. Which is a sea spider?
a. Miranda b. Dolomedes triton
c. Pycnogonum d. Paninus emperator
27. Crayfish is a large aquatic arthropod belonging to the class Crustacea with hardened chitinous
skeleton and respire through the gills. The lateral flaps that cover the gills are called
a. branchiostegites b. antennae
c. maxillae d. podobranchs
28. The gills of crayfish are attached to the base of the appendages. The outer (foot gills) and inner gills
(joint gills) are called
a. podobranchs and arthrobranchs, respectively b. endodermis and hypodermis, respectively
29. The arthropods represent the largest and most successful of animal phyla. Their body is covered by
a. chitinous exoskeleton b. chelicerate exoskeleton
c. setae d. none of the above
30. The specialized pincer-like appendages modified for feeding in Chilecerata is called
a. trilobites b. mandibulates
c. chelicerae d. none of the above
31. A terms that refers to a two branched appendage characteristic of the crustaceans and certain other
invertebrate group
a. monoramous b. multiramous
c. biramous d. none of the above
32. Respiratory organs consisting of many thin, highly vascularized sheets of tissue found in the horse-
shoe crab Limulus
a. respiratory gills b. book gills
c. cephalothorax d. none of the above
33. Type of excretory organs found in the crayfish and many other crustaceans located near the base of
antennae
a. hepatopancreas b. endopodite glands
c. green glands d. none of the above
34. A freshwater microcrustacean belonging to Cladocera that is commonly found in the zooplankton of
freshwater in the Philippines.
a. Daphnia b. Bosmina
c. Moina d. Cyclop
35. The life history of cladocerans is described as
a. egg-juvenile-adolescent-adult
b. egg-larva-juvenile-adolescent-adult
c. egg-juvenile-instar-juvenile-adult
36. Cladocerans undergo a series of molts in which the carapace and other chitinous portions are lost
and the animal increases in size. The intermolt stage is called instar. The average lifespan of cladoceran
covers about
a. 17 instars b. 20 instars
c. 20 instars d. none of the above
37. These are intertidal crustacean that inhabit beaches and marshes throughout tropical and temperate
regions. They range in length from 2.5-3cm. The male has one large front claw while the other front claw
is smaller. They are gregarious, assembling in mudflats during low tide. The male uses their large claw to
court females and in territory-defining displays with other males. If one male loses its large claw, the
small claw enlarges and a new small claw regenerates in place of the lost one
a. Fiddler crab (Uca sp.)
b. mangrove hermit crab (Pagunus longicarpus)
c. Mudcrab (Scylla serrata)
38. Which is a non insect frequently encountered?
a. cladoceran b. ostracoda
c. isopod d. all of the above
39. Which one is not an order of aquatic insect?
a. Ephemereptera b. Odonata
c. Plecoptera d. Apistonata
40. Which type of metamorphosis is found in Trichoptera, Lepidoptera, Hymenoptera and Coleoptera?
a. holometabolous b. hemimetabolous
c. ametabolous d. none of the above
41. What type of metamorphosis is found in Collembula?
42. What type of metamorphosis is found in Odonata, Plecoptera, Ephemeroptera, Hemiptera?
43. Which group of insects has marine representatives?
a. Hemiptera b. Ephemeroptera
c. Plecoptera d. Odonata
44. The most widely distributed of carotenes is?
a. alpha carotene b. beta-carotene
c. sigma carotene d. none of the above
45. Which is a green algae and a component of phytoplankton?
a. Microcystis b. Oscillatoria
c. Cholrella d. Anabaena
46. Which is a cyanophyte
a. Microcystis b. Chlamydomonas
c. Volvox d. Scenedesmus
47. What group of phytoplankton is digestible to Nile tilapia?
a. green algae b. blue-green algae
c. yellow-green algae d. diatoms
48. The pigment present in chrysophytes that gives it golden brown color is
a. chlorophyll a b. beta-carotene
c. xanthophylls d. phycoerythrin
49. What group of phytoplankton contains silicified cell walls?
c. euglenoids d. conjugales
50. Which of the following chrysophytes have high phosphorus requirement?
a. Uroglena b. Dinobryon
c. Conjugales d. Chlorobotrys
51. Desmids are in the group of
a. Chlorophyta b. Cyanophyta
c. Euglenophyta d. Bacillariophyta
52. Which of the following algae groups have flagella?
a. Cyanophyceae b. Chlorophyceae
c. Euglenophyceae d. Xanthophyceae
53. The fossilized diatoms deposits which s extremely fine in texture and gray or white in color but it is
often mixed with clay or organic matter. This material is used extensively as abrasive, a filtering
material, an inert ingredient of explosives and an insulating material for boilers and steam pipes.
a. fossil b. cats clay
c. diatomaceous earth d. diatoms
54. The thickest known deposit of fossilized diatom with over 300m in depth is found in
a. Mindanao, Philippines b. Lompoc, California
c. Iloilo, Philippines d. Malawi, Africa
55. This group of algae often develops during the cold months under relatively low light conditions
a. cryptomonads b. dinoflagellates
c. euglenoids d. cyanophytes
56. Which group of algae is more tolerant to higher temperature?
57. Which group of algae exhibit polymorphism or cyclomorphism, a process of change in morphological
structure in response to the environment?
58. An algae that adapt to changing light intensity by changing the amount of pigment per cell
a. Scenedesmus b. Chlorella
c. Anabaena d.
59. An algae that adapts to changing temperature per given light intensity by increasing enzyme
concentration so that the same photosynthesis is achieved
a. Skelotonema b. Anabaena
c. Microcystis d. Euglena
60. Which phytoplankton is not dominant in slightly acidic water and very low salinity?
a. Desmids b. Staurodesmus
c. Dinobryon d. Anabaena
61. Which phytoplankton characterizes eutrophic tropical waters with high dissolved organic matter?
a. green b. blue-green algae
c. yellow green algae d. diatoms
62. The blue-green algae that often causes poor water quality and off-flavor taste in fish in Laguna de
Bay
a. Chlorella b. Oscillatoria
c. Microcystis d. Peridinium
63. The compound synthesized by blue-green algae that causes earthy-musty flavor and odors in fishes
a. heosmin b. geosmin
c. heteroxin d. all of the above
64. An environmental condition that can precipitate phytoplankton die-off
a. High light intensity, rapid rate of photosynthesis by algae in surface scums, high pH, low carbon
dioxide, supersaturation with dissolved oxygen
b. low light intensity, high photosynthesis rate, high pH and dissolved oxygen
c. calm, warm and sunny day, low carbon dioxide and dissolved oxygen, high pH
d. all of the above
65. Which of the following algae below do not possess paralytic and neurotoxins?
a. Dinobryon b. Pyrodinium
c. Gymnodinium d. Gonyaulax
66. The common cause of PSP in the Philippines
a. Pyrodinium bahamense var. compresita
b. Pyrodinium bahamense var. compressa
c. Protogonyaulax tamarensis
d. Protogonyaulax tamadonensis
67. The common cause of PSP in Thailand
a. Pyrodinium bahamense var. compresita
b. Pyrodinium bahamense var. compressa
c. Protogonyaulax tamarensis
d. Protogonyaulax tamadonensis
68. The dinoflagellates bloom in Bolinao, Pangasinan that cause massive mortality of milkfish in the first
year quarter of 2002.
a. Prorocentrum minimum b. Microcystis aeroginosa
c. Anabaena cylindrica d. Oscillatoria tenuis
69. The toxin found in Gracilariopsis chorda is
a. saxitoxin b. microcystin
c. cyanoviridin d. peroxide
70. The source of induced algal toxicity
a. pesticides b. heavy metals
c. all of the above d. natural toxins
71. Which one is not an angiosperm?
a. Pistia stratiotes b. Ipomea aquatic
c. Pine tree d. Lemna sp.
72. Which one is not dicotyledon?
a. Polygonum barbatum b. Limnocharis flava
c. Sesbania javanica d. Vallisneria gigantean
73. Generally, submersed aquatic plants will not grow to a depth of
a. 2-3 times the Secchi disc visibility depth
b. 5-6 times the Secchi disc visibility depth
c. 7-9 times the Secchi disc visibility depth
d. all of the above
74. The emergent plants have underground stems called
a. pycnozome b. tubers
c. rhizomes d. bulb
75. Which one is not a floating plant?
a. Pistia stratiotes b. Hydrilla verticillata
c. Eichornia crassipes d. Lemna sp.
76. Which is not a submerged plant?
a. Hydrilla verticillata b. Myriophyllum spicatum
c. Azolla microphylla d. Chondrus sp.
77. Largest seaweed that can reach 65m in length and has structures that superficially resemble leaves
and stems, as well as large air-filled bladders and strong holdfasts that anchor them against heavy surf.
a. Macrocystis sp. b. Fucus sp.
c. Sargassum sp. d. Porphyra sp.
78. The reserved food of brown algae
a. laminarin and manitol b. Floridean starch
c. cellulose d. all of the above
79. This is a compound in red algae that is consumed as a delicacy in Asia and is used in laboratory
medium for culturing microorganism
a. agar b. cellulose
c. alginic acid d. none of the above
80. It is a compound found in kelp that has industrial uses. It is made into silk-like thread or plastic
material which is used to make films, rubber and linoleum, and as a colloid cosmetics, car polishes and
paints.
a. agar b. cellulose
c. alginic acid d. none of the above
81. It is a source of kappa-caregeenan which is one of the mostly farmed seaweeds in the Philippines
a. Kappaphycus alvarezii b. Eucheuma denticulatum
c. Gracilaria verrucosa d. Porphyra crispata
82. It is a source of iota-carageenan and important seaweed mostly cultured in the Philippines because
of its export value.
a. Kappaphycus alvarezii b. Eucheuma denticulatum
c. Gracilaria verrucosa d. Porphyra crispata
83. Which is not a source of agar?
a. Gelidium sp. b. Porphyra crispata
c. Chondrus crispus d. Caulerpa racemosa
84. Which is not edible seaweed?
a. Kappaphycus alvarezii b. Caulerpa racemosa
c. Enteromorpha intestinalis d. Sargassum natans
85. Which algae can filter excess nutrients in recirculating water system with grouper and abalone and
can sequester heavy metals like cadmium, lead and zinc from the water.
a. Porphyra crispate b. Gracilaria verrucosa
c. Hydroclathrus clathratus d. Gracilariopsis bailinae
86. In 1918, Philippines had 450, 000ha of mangroves. In 1995, mangroves area in the Philippines based
on DENR statistics is
a. 117, 700 b. 117,000
c. 170,000 d. 175,000
87. This is a production sharing agreement entered into between a community and government to
develop, utilize, manage and conserve a specific portion of forest land like mangrove areas consistent
with the principles of sustainable development and pursuant to an approved management framework.
a. Community-based forest management agreement
b. Community-based marine protected area agreement
c. Community-based mangrove protection area agreement
d. Forest conservation agreement
88. A fishpond restoration strategy of integrating aquaculture into mangrove areas
a. Aquasilviculture b. Silviculture
c. Integrated farming system d. Forest-fish integrated system
89.A mangrove species locally known as “nilad”, a word where Maynila was formed
a. Nypa fruticans b. Scyphiphora hydophyllacea
c. Rhizophora mucronata d. Avicennia officinalis
90. A law prohibiting the cutting of mangrove trees
a. R.A. 7161 Section 4 b. R.A. 1678 Section 29
c. R.A. 8550 Section 49 d. R.A. 1678 Section 4
91. A law pertaining to reversion of all abandoned underdeveloped or underutilized fishponds
a. R.A. 7161 Section 4 b. R.A. 1678 Section 29
c. R.A. 8550 Section 49 d. R.A. 1678 Section 4
92. A seagrass named after the popular dugong animal
a. Thalassia hemprishii b. Enhalus acoroides
c. Halodule pinifolia d. Ruppia maritime
93. A tropical eelgrass among the seagrasses found in the Philippines
a. Thalassia hemprishii b. Enhalus acoroides
c. Halodule pinifolia d. Ruppia maritime
94. Number of crocodile species in the world
a. 27 b. 30
c. 35 d. 40
95. Which is true about crocodile attacking men?
a. active during warmer months and when they are in search of mates
b. active during cold months and when they are in search of mates
c. active only when they are in reproductive stage
d. aggressive only when I n search for food
96. Which is true about the start of the breeding period of crocodiles?
a. when it reaches the age of 7
b. when it becomes 8 yrs. old
c. when it becomes 9 yrs. old
d. when it becomes 10 yrs. old
97. Which is true about the fecundity of the crocodiles?
a. saltwater crocodiles lay 50-70 eggs while freshwater crocodiles lay 30-40 eggs
b. saltwater crocodiles lay 80-90 eggs while freshwater crocodiles lay 50-60 eggs
c. saltwater crocodiles lay 90-100 eggs while freshwater crocodile lay 60-100 eggs
98. Where do you find the crocodile farming institute in the Philippines which was established in August
20, 1987?
a. Northern Luzon b. UP Visayas
c. Manila Zoo d. Puerto Princesa, Palawan
99. The largest crocodile farm in the world with over 600, 000 crocs is
a. Samutprakan Croc Farm and Zoo, Thailand b. Patuntani Croc Farm and Zoo, Singapore
c. Pataya Croc Farm and Zoo, Indonesia d. Serdang Croc Farm and Zoo, Malaysia
100. The family of frogs for culture is
a. Ranidae b. Ranadae
c. Leophunidae d. none of the above

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