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1. Financial statement users with a direct economic interest in a specific business include:
(a) financial advisers (c) stock markets
(b) regulatory bodies (d) suppliers D
5. The responsibility for the proper preparation of a company’s financial statements rests with its:
(a) management (c) internal auditors
(b) audit committee (d) external auditors A
7. Not every paragraph in an International Accounting Standard reflects the financial reporting
standard. The accounting standard paragraph can be identified because it is set in:
(a) light italic type (c) bold italic type
(b) bold roman type (d) light roman type C
8. The reformatted cover of an SFAS or an IAS, as currently published by the PICPA, displays the
following distinctive features:
Reference Number of the
Colour Accounting Standards
Left-half Right-half Left-half Right-half
of Cover of Cover of Cover of Cover
(a) Midnight blue Canary yellow IAS SFAS
(b) Canary yellow Midnight blue IAS SFAS
(c) Midnight blue Canary yellow SFAS IAS
(d) Canary yellow Midnight blue SFAS IAS C
9. In evaluating the reliability of accounting information, which of the following need not be
considered?
(a) neutrality (c) accessibility
(b) verifiability (d) representational faithfulness C
10. Recognized as the father of accounting was the 15th century Franciscan monk by the name of:
(a) Luca Pastrani (c) Luca Pacioli
(b) Luca Pascali (d) Luca Pavaroti C
11. Which accounting concept underscores that any fact having a significant propensity to influence
an economic decision must be adequately considered?
(a) materiality (c) reliability
(b) prudence (d) measurability A
12. The most general criticism to be leveled at financial statements in the present form is that they
are seriously:
(a) obsolete (c) imaginary
(b) complete (d) incomplete D
13. All of the activities undertaken by an enterprise to make a profit, taken collectively, are called:
(a) gross performance (c) research and development activities
(b) earnings process (d) peripheral activities B
14. A level of accounting theory that attempts to explain current accounting practice is referred to as:
(a) syntactical theory (c) pragmatic theory
(b) semantical theory (d) inductive theory A
15. What would be the consequence if a financial accounting standard cannot be applied literally?
(a) The accountant exercises his professional judgment.
(b) The accountant submits the issue to arbitration.
(c) The IASC imposes a sanction.
(d) The Supreme Court renders a decision, with finality. A
17. Decision makers vary widely in the types of decisions they make, the methods of decision making
they employ, the information they already possess or can be obtain from other sources, and their
ability to process information. Consequently, for information to be useful there must be a linkage
between these users and the decisions they make. This link is:
(a) relevance (c) understandability
(b) reliability (d) materiality C
19. The most useful information to investors in predicting future cash flows is:
(a) information about current cash flows.
(b) current earnings based on accrual basis of accounting.
(c) information regarding the accounting policies and principles used by management.
(d) information regarding the results obtained by using a wide variety of accounting policies and
principles. B
20. Which of the following concepts means that there should be no attempt on the part of the
preparers of financial reports to induce a predetermined outcome or a particular mode of
behavior?
(a) conservatism (c) representational faithfulness
(b) neutrality (d) consistency B
22. When information about two different enterprises has been prepared and presented in a similar
manner, the information exhibits the characteristics of:
(a) relevance (c) consistency
(b) reliability (d) none of these D
23. In classifying the elements of financial statements, the primary distinction between revenue and
gains is:
(a) the materiality of the amounts involved.
(b) the likelihood that the transactions involved will recur in the future.
(c) the nature of the activities that gave rise to the transactions involved.
(d) the costs versus the benefits of the alternative methods of disclosing the transactions
involved. C
26. “When products (goods or services), merchandise or other assets are exchanged for cash or
claims to cash” is a definition of:
(a) allocated (c) realizable
(b) realized (d) earned B
28. The conceptual framework classifies gains and losses based on whether they are related to an
entity’s major ongoing or central operations. These gains or losses may be classified as:
Nonoperating Operating Nonoperating Operating
(a) Yes Yes (c) No Yes
(b) Yes No (d) No No A
29. Earnings:
(a) is the same as comprehensive income.
(b) excludes certain gains and losses that are included in comprehensive income.
(c) includes certain gains and losses that are excluded in comprehensive income.
(d) includes certain losses that are excluded from comprehensive income. B
31. When the entity has substantially accomplished what it must do to be entitled to the benefits
represented by the revenues, revenues are:
(a) earned (c) recognized
(b) realized (d) all of these A
32. Which of the following is not a reason why revenue is recognized at time of sale?
(a) realization has occurred
(b) the sale is critical event
(c) title legally passes from seller to buyer
(d) all of these are reasons to recognize revenue at time of sale D
33. A sale should not be recognized as revenue by the seller at the time of sale if:
(a) payment was made by check
(b) the selling price is less than the normal selling price
(c) the buyer has a right to return the product and the amount of future returns cannot be
reasonably estimated
(d) none of the these C
34. If a company sells its product but gives the buyer the right to return the product, the revenue
form the sales transaction shall be recognized at the time of sale only if all of these conditions
have been met. Which of the following is not one of these six conditions?
(a) the amount of future returns can be reasonably estimated
(b) the seller’s price is substantially fixed or determinable at time of sale
(c) the buyer’s obligation to the seller would not be changed in the event of theft or damage of
the product
(d) the buyer is obligation to pay the seller upon resale of the product D
35. In selecting an accounting method for a newly contracted long-term construction project, the
principal factor to be considered should be:
(a) the terms of payment in the contract.
(b) the degree to which a reliable estimate of the costs to complete and extent of progress
toward the completion is practicable.
(c) the method commonly used by the contractor to account for other long-term construction
contracts.
(d) the inherent nature of the contractor’s technical facilities used in construction. B
36. The profession requires that the percentage of completion method be used when certain
conditions exist. Which of the following is not once of those necessary conditions?
(a) Estimates of progress toward completion, revenues, and costs are reasonably dependable.
(b) The contractor can be expected to perform the contractual obligation.
(c) The buyer can be expected to satisfy some of the obligations under the contract.
(d) The contract clearly specifies the enforceable rights of the parties, the consideration to be
exchange, and the manner and terms of settlement. C
37. The method commonly used to report defaults and repossessions is:
(a) provide no basis for the repossessed asset thereby recognizing a loss.
(b) record the repossessed merchandise at fair value, recording a gain or loss if appropriate.
(c) record the repossessed merchandise at book value, recording no gain or loss.
(d) none of these. B
39. A seller is properly using the cost recovery method for a sale. Interest will be earned on the
future payments. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) After all costs have been recovered, any additional cash collections are included in income.
(b) Interest revenue may be recognized before all costs have been recovered.
(c) The deferred gross profit is offset against the related receivable on the balance sheet.
(d) Subsequent income statement report the gross profit as a separate item of revenue when it is
recognized as earned. B
40. Incomplete accounting records using only a cash book is a characteristic of:
(a) cash basis (c) single entry system
(b) accrual basis (d) double entry system C
43. Under the concept of conservatism, uncertainties that surround the preparation of financial
statements are reflected in a general tendency toward early recognition of unfavorable events
and the minimization of the amounts of net assets and net income. Accordingly,
(a) a provision for a temporary decline in value of a security not listed in the stock exchange is
recognized.
(b) a liability is accrued for a guarantee of the indebtedness of others.
(c) losses on a long-term construction-type contract are recognized in full as soon as they
become evident.
(d) a peso-denominated note payable is adjusted for a peso devaluation that occurs after the
balance sheet date. C
49. External events are those that affect the enterprise and in which other entities participate. An
example of external event is:
(a) manufacture of a product out of raw materials.
(b) loss of property due to flood.
(c) issuance of a promissory note in settlement of an account.
(d) transfer of goods from one department to another. C
51. Financial accounting can be broadly defined as the area of accounting that prepares:
(a) general purpose financial statements to be used by parties internal to the business enterprise
only.
(b) financial statements to be used by investors only.
(c) general purpose financial statements to be used by parties both internal and external to the
business enterprise.
(d) financial statements to be used primarily by management. C
57. Information about different entities and about different periods of the same entity can be
prepared and presented in a similar manger. Comparability and consistency are related to which
of these objectives?
Comparability Consistency Comparability Consistency
(a) Entities Entities(c) Periods Entities
(b) Entities Periods(d) Periods PeriodsB
58. The assumption that a business enterprise will not be sold or liquidated in the near future is
known as the:
(a) economic entity assumption (c) conservatism assumption
(b) monetary unit assumption (d) none of these D
59. Valuing assets at their liquidation values rather than their cost is inconsistent with the:
(a) periodicity assumption (c) materiality constraint
(b) matching principle (d) historical cost principle D
62. Trade-offs between the characteristics that make information useful may be necessary or
beneficial. Issuance of interim financial statements is an example of a trade-off between:
(a) relevance and reliability (c) timeliness and materiality
(b) reliability and periodicity (d) understandability and timeliness A
63. The preparation of quarterly financial statements is an example of:
(a) predictive value (c) timeliness
(b) feedback value (d) understandability C
64. Which is not a source of substantial authoritative support for an accounting principle?
(a) Statement of Financial Accounting Standards by the Accounting Standards Council
(b) Statement by Professional Regulation Commission
(c) Statement by the Board of Accountancy
(d) Regulation and accounting pronouncements of the SEC B
67. Which statement is incorrect concerning users and their information needs?
(a) The providers of risk capital (investors) and their advisers are concerned with the risk
inherent in and return provided by their investments.
(b) Employees and their representative groups are interested in information about the stability
and profitability of their employers.
(c) Lenders are interested in information that enables them to determine whether their loans and
the interest attaching to them will be paid when due.
(d) Governments and their agencies have an interest in information about the continuance of an
enterprise, especially when they have a long-term involvement with or are dependent on the
enterprise. D
70. Fair presentation of financial statements requires (choose the incorrect one):
(a) selecting and applying accounting policies in accordance with all the requirements of each
applicable Statement of Financial Accounting Standards.
(b) presenting information, including accounting policies, in a manner which provides relevant,
reliable, comparable and understandable information.
(c) providing additional disclosures when the requirements in Statement of Financial Accounting
Standards are insufficient to enable users to understand the impact of particular transactions
or events on financial position and performance.
(d) rectifying inappropriate accounting treatments either by disclosure of the accounting policies
used or by notes or explanatory material. D
73. When a company makes a change in accounting principle, prior year statements are not generally
restated to reflect the change. This procedure would prevent a dilution of public confidence in
financial statements but that it would conflict with the accounting concept of:
(a) materiality (c) objectivity
(b) conservatism (d) comparability D
74. One of the following is not a condition for standard of fair presentation.
(a) Generally accepted accounting principles have been applied.
(b) Changes in GAAP have been appropriately disclosed.
(c) The information in the underlying records is properly reflected in the statements.
(d) All tax laws are followed. D
75. This feature of financial accounting considers that determination of periodic income and financial
position depends on measurement of economic resources and obligations and changes in them as
the changes occur rather than simply on recording receipts and payments of money.
(a) measurement of economic resources and obligations
(b) use of the accrual basis of accounting
(c) measurement in terms of money
(d) exchange price B
76. On December 31, 2005, F Corporation sued J, Inc. for breach of the contract of carriage in the
amount of P1 million. F’s financial statements should report the expected award of P1 million as
a:
(a) recoverable and revenue (c) receivable and deferred payments
(b) revenue (d) disclosures by footnotes only D
77. Which of the following statements pertaining to accounting policies is not recognized as valid?
(a) Information about the accounting policies adopted by a reporting enterprise is essential for
financial statement users.
(b) Disclosures by business enterprises commonly required with respect to accounting policies
include among other those relating to depreciation methods, inventory pricing and basis of
consolidation.
(c) Information about the accounting policies adopted and followed by not-for-profit enterprises
should be presented as an integral part of their financial statements.
(d) Disclosures of accounting policies are required even in special reports in which incomplete
financial preparations are made so long as the enterprise is operated for profit. D
78. The recognition and reporting in the time periods to which the effects of transactions and other
events on the assets and liabilities of a business enterprise relate rather than only when cash is
received or paid is known as:
(a) accrual (c) estimates and judgment
(b) summarization (d) verifiability A
79. Consistency is an important factor in comparability within a single enterprise. The consistency
standard of reporting requires that:
(a) some costs should be recognized as expenses on the basis of a presumed associations with
specific revenue.
(b) assets whose prices or utility are increased by external events other than transfer should be
retained in the accounting records at their recorded amounts until they are exchanged.
(c) historical cost should be the primary basis used in measuring inventory, and property, plant
and equipment.
(d) changes in circumstances or in the nature of the underlying transactions should be disclosed.
D
82. They represent the distillation of the effect of environment characteristics on the financial
accounting process and could also serve as a foundation for other accounting principles that are
based on the same environment characteristics.
(a) basic financial statements (c) basic elements of financial accounting
(b) basic features of financial accounting(d) objectives of financial accounting B
83. When the framework of the purposes of financial accounting and financial statements are the
general objectives which are characterized by one of the following statements. This statement is:
(a) They indicate the qualities that make financial accounting information useful.
(b) They imply that assets and liabilities ideally should include all resources and that all changes
in assets and liabilities ideally should be reported.
(c) They relate the content of the information to the underlying activities of the business
enterprises and to the interests and needs of users of the information.
(d) They aid in determining which resources and obligations and changes should be measured
and reported. C
84. Which among the following influences of the environment on accounting does not adversely
affect the attainment of the objectives of financial accounting?
(a) changes in financial accounting information
(b) changes in financial accounting practices
(c) change in corporate name
(d) inherent difficulties of measurement in terms of money C
85. Proceeds of a loan is not revenue under generally accepted accounting principles because:
(a) owner’s equity cannot change at the time of the loan.
(b) the loan does not increase assets.
(c) the loan has to be paid back at a future date.
(d) there is no sale of an asset. A
86. Non-cash resources and obligations of an enterprise change in time periods other than those in
which money is received or paid. This would relate to the essence of the of the basic feature of
financial accounting known as:
(a) substance over form (c) approximation
(b) accrual (d) materiality B
87. Actual accounting and reporting practices are important sources of detailed accounting principles
in areas not covered by PICPA and ASC pronouncements because:
(a) it is so provided by a Statement of Financial Accounting Standards.
(b) business experience has demonstrated that the practice produces dependable results for the
guidance of statement users.
(c) such a practice exists and has gained widespread acceptance among statement users.
(d) it has been demonstrated that the practice legally reduces the income taxes to be paid by
statement users. C
88. Robbers stole from X Corporation, 30 computers worth P300,000. The value of the loss should
be classified as:
(a) an exchange (c) a cost
(b) a casualty (d) a nonreciprocal transfer D
89. It is the body authorized by law to promulgate rules and regulations affecting the practice of
accountancy in the Philippines.
(a) PICPA (c) Board of Accountancy
(b) ASC (d) PRC C
90. The ASC will not issue any SFAS without the approval of at least:
(a) eight members (c) four members
(b) five members (d) three members B
91. The continuity, complexity, uncertainty and joint nature of results inherent in economic activity
often preclude definitive measurements and make estimates necessary.
(a) accrual (c) approximation
(b) exchange price (d) judgment C
92. The financial information is designed to serve the common needs of owners, creditors, managers,
and other users, with primary emphasis on the needs of present and potential owners and
creditors.
(a) general purpose financial information
(b) fundamentally related financial statements
(c) substance over form
(d) materiality A
94. To achieve a reasonably objective basis, financial forecast and projections should be prepared:
I. In accordance with GAAP.
II. Using information that is in accordance with the plans of the entity.
III. With due professional care.
(a) I and III (c) I, II and III
(b) II and III (d) I and II C
95. Which of the following is required to be disclosed regarding the risks and uncertainties that exist?
(a) Factors causing an estimate to be sensitive
(b) The potential impact of estimates about value of assets and liabilities when it is reasonably
possible.
(c) The potential impart of estimates about values of assets and liabilities when it is remotely
possible that the estimate will change in the near future.
(d) A description of the operations both within and outside of the home country. B
96. These determine the information that is included, how it is organized, measured, combined, and
adjusted, and finally how it is presented in the financial statements.
(a) GAAP (c) accounting postulates
(b) accounting objectives (d) accounting procedures A
97. The following are considered part of the environment of financial accounting except:
(a) the many uses and users which accounting serves
(b) the overall organization of economic activity in society
(c) the nature of economic activity in individual business enterprises
(d) the need to value assts at their fair market values. D
98. Statement 1 General objectives are broader or longer in range than those for
particular financial statements.
Statement 2 The basic purpose of financial accounting is to determine the
liquidity of a business.
A B C D
STATEMENT 1 TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE
STATEMENT 2 TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE B
100. Under the cost principle, assets are generally carried in the accounting records at the following
amount, except:
(a) acquisition price (c) historical cost
(b) input exchange price (d) output exchange price D
101. Modifying conventions are a means of substituting the collective judgment of the profession for
that of the individual accountant. These conventions include the following, except:
(a) timeliness (c) emphasis on income
(b) conservatism (d) application of judgment A
102. Statement 1 In exchanges in which neither money nor promises to pay money
are exchanged, the assets acquired are generally measured at the
fair value of the assets given up.
Statement 2 If the fair value of the assets received is more clearly evident that
the assets given up, it is used in recording the assets acquired.
A B C D
STATEMENT 1 TRUE TRUE FALSE FALSE
STATEMENT 2 TRUE FALSE FALSE TRUE A
104. The qualitative objective in accounting that information should be made available without delay
before decisions are to be made.
(a) relevance (c) completeness
(b) timeliness (d) understandability B
107. Fundamental assumptions related to the economic environment in which accounting operates
are called:
(a) accounting principles (c) accounting concepts
(b) accounting postulates (d) accounting theories B
109. In cases of any departure from conformity with GAAP, the CPA must indicate:
A B C D
Nature of departure Yes Yes No No
Approximate effects thereof No Yes No Yes B
110. The basis for valuing or recording transactions where cash is not involved:
(a) historical cost (c) selling price
(b) fair value (d) home consumption value B
111. The principles of accounting are to a considerable extent shaped and influenced by the
following except:
(a) the business environment
(b) the needs of the users
(c) the accounting records of the business enterprise
(d) the accounting systems used C
112. Authoritative support for accounting principles may come from the following except:
(a) PICPA (c) SEC
(b) ASPC (d) ASC B
124. The consistency principle has the most direct impact on whether to:
(a) use the periodic or the perpetual inventory system.
(b) include or exclude an item in the inventory.
(c) write down to a market value below cost.
(d) change from one inventory method to another. D
126. As indicated in the framework for the preparation and presentation of financial statements, par.
76, gains are often reported:
(a) net of other revenue (c) net of contributions from equity participants
(b) net of related investments (d) net of related expenses D
127. According to SFAS 1/ IAS 1, par. 71, on the presentation of financial statements, the use of
different measurement bases for different classes of assets suggests for the presentation of these
assets as:
(a) aggregate line items
(b) additional disclosures in the notes to financial statements
(c) separate line items
(d) coordinate line items C
128. Under the framework for the preparation and presentation of financial statements, par. 62, an
obligation may also be extinguished by other means, such as:
(a) a change in petroleum prices
(b) a declaration of dividend by the Board of Directors
(c) a waiver by a creditor of its rights
(d) a resolution by the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas on a higher working-capital ratio can be
maintained by borrowers C
129. The amount by which a present obligation is discharged by cash-payment is the obligation’s:
(a) realizable value (c) nominal value
(b) present value (d) settlement value D
130. SFAS 1/ IAS 1, par. 37, on the presentation of financial statements, provides that gains (losses)
arising from a group of similar transactions are reported separately or on a:
(a) net basis (c) comparative basis
(b) gross basis (d) deferred basis A
131. Paragraph 8 of the framework for the presentation and presentation of financial statements
specifies that the framework applies to the financial statements of all commercial, industrial, and
business reporting-enterprises:
(a) in the private sector only (c) in the public or the private sectors
(b) in the public sector only (d) neither in the public nor the private sector
C
132. SFAS 1/ IAS 1, par. 84, on the presentation of financial statements, requires:
(a) the function-of-expense classification
(b) a choice between the nature-of-expense or the function-of expense classification
(c) the nature-of-expense classification
(d) a choice between the function-of-expense or the cost-of-sales classification B
133. The framework for the preparation and presentation of financial statements, par. 25, indicates
that information about complex matters that may be difficult for certain users to understand:
(a) should be excluded from the financial statements
(b) may either be included in or excluded from the financial statements
(c) should not be excluded from the financial statements
(d) should only be presented in the notes to financial statements C
134. To find the present value of the future cash flows, the variables needed are the future cash
flows, the discount rate, and the:
(a) time of exchange (c) time horizon
(b) price change (d) marginal utility C
135. As indicated in SFAS 1/ IAS 1 on the Presentation of Financial Statements, a financial asset that
represents a contractual right to exchange financial instruments with another enterprise is
presumed to exist under conditions that are potentially:
(a) favourable (c) prohibitive
(b) ambiguous (d) unfavourable A
136. As indicated in SFAS 1/ IAS 1 on the Presentation of Financial Statements, when assets and
liabilities are not classified into the current and noncurrent categories, they should be presented
broadly on the face of the balance sheet in the order of:
(a) recovery (c) maturity
(b) liquidity (d) complexity B
140. According to SFAS 1/ IAS 1 on the Presentation of Financial Statements, which is not an
accounting policy?
(a) convention (c) principle
(b) practice (d) cost-benefit relationship D
141. This body was created by PICPA in order to establish GAAP in the Philippines.
(a) ASC (b) IASC (c) IASB (d) FASB A
142. This was formed by the ASC in order to prepare interpretations of Philippine Financial Reporting
Standards and to provide timely guidance on financial reporting issues not specifically addressed
in the accounting standards.
(a) IC (b) SIC (c) IFRIC (d) ED A
145. Which one of these is not among the criteria for accountable events?
(a) It must affect an element of financial accounting.
(b) It must be a result of a past activity.
(c) Its cost can be measured reliably.
(d) It must involve an exchange between two parties. D
146. The ASC conceptual framework of accounting sets out two constraints when implementing
accounting procedures. What are they?
(a) cost-benefit and timeliness (c) comparability and consistency
(b) timeliness and materiality (d) cost-benefit and materiality A
148. The following statements are applications of the basic features of financial accounting, except:
(a) A parent corporation and its subsidiaries are treated as a single enterprise.
(b) Estimates used in accounting are based on informed judgment.
(c) Economic activities that can be quantified are emphasized in financial accounting.
(d) Financial information should be presented in a way that facilitates understanding and avoids
erroneous implications. D
149. The objectives of the ASC are (choose the incorrect one):
(a) to develop, in the public interest, a single set of high quality, understandable and enforceable
accounting standards
(b) to promote the use and required application of Philippine accounting standards
(c) to work the convergence of Philippine accounting standards with IFRS
(d) to promulgate rules and regulations affecting the practice of the accountancy D
150. The approach most companies will probably use to provide information related to the
components of other comprehensive income is a:
(a) second separate income statement
(b) combined income statement of comprehensive income
(c) separate column in the statement of changes in stockholders’ equity
(d) footnote disclosures C
153. Financial accounting can be broadly defined as the area of accounting that prepares:
(a) general-purpose reports financial statements to be used by parties internal to the business
enterprise only
(b) financial statements to be used by investors only
(c) general-purpose reports financial statements to be used by parties both internal and external
to the business enterprise only
(d) financial statements to be used primarily by management C
155. The quality of information that gives assurance that it is reasonably free of error and bias and is
a faithful representation is:
(a) relevance (c) verifiability
(b) reliability (d) neutrality B
156. When information about two different enterprises has been prepared and presented in a similar
manner, the information exhibits the characteristic of:
(a) relevance (c) consistency
(b) reliability (d) comparability D
159. The underlying assumption that assets purchased by a business are to be recorded at their
purchase price is called:
(a) Historical cost concept (c) Money measurement concept
(b) Business entity concept (d) Going concern concept A
160. Who among these accountants should be completely independent of the firm or organization
whose financial data is being examined?
(a) internal auditor (c) controller
(b) budget director (d) public accountant C
162. The accounting staff of a large company might perform all of the following tasks except:
(a) prepare and develop financial forecasts
(b) evaluate the company’s system of internal control
(c) prepare the company’s financial statements
(d) express and issue an independent auditor’s report pertaining to the fairness of the company’s
financial statements D
163. Advertising costs incurred are typically treated as expenses in the period in which incurred
under the:
(a) cash basis (c) accrual basis
(b) historical cost (d) materiality C
164. Which of the following does not have a representation to the ASC, the official source of
accounting principles?
(a) PICPA (b) BIR (c) BOA (d) SEC B
165. A single proprietor decided to use the same bank account for his personal affairs and that of his
business. What accounting concept is violated by this practice?
(a) accounting entity (c) going concern
(b) measuring unit (d) objectivity A
166. A corporation’s financial statements do not report centavos amounts. This is an example of the
application of which of the following concepts?
(a) business entity (c) consistency
(b) objectivity (d) materiality D
167. When assets are withdrawn from a business for the owner’s personal consumption and
recorded as a reduction in owner’s equity, which major underlying assumption of accounting is
applied?
(a) going concern (c) time periods
(b) entity (d) adequate disclosure B
168. Disregarding liquidation value in presenting assets and liabilities in the balance sheet is justified
by which of the following concept?
(a) matching (c) business entity
(b) time period (d) going concern D
169. A characteristic that requires disclosure of all significant information in a way that aids proper
understanding and does not mislead the user is called:
(a) completeness (c) objectivity
(b) consistency (d) materiality A
173. The accounting rule that defines a revenue as an inflow of assets in exchange for goods or
services and requires the revenue to be recognized at the time it is earned, and that all expenses
incurred in earning a revenue be deducted from revenue in determining net income is the:
(a) matching (c) going concern
(b) objectivity (d) materiality A
175. This is the field of accounting in which persons perform cost accounting, management
accounting, and internal auditing.
(a) private accounting (c) governmental accounting
(b) public accounting (d) none of these A
177. Among the governmental sector organization involved in establishing SFAS is the:
(a) FINEX (b) BSP (c) PICPA (d) ASC B
180. Under the accrual method of accounting, which of the following cash receipts of 2005 would
increase net income for 2005?
(a) cash received for interest earned in 2004
(b) cash received for services to be rendered in 2006
(c) cash received for services rendered in 2004
(d) cash received from the sale of land at more than cost D
181. The following statements relate to the principle of full disclosure. Which is false?
(a) requires providing the user with an assessment of management effectiveness
(b) requires disclosure of accounting methods used, such as for depreciation and bad debts
(c) requires disclosure of contingent liabilities
(d) can be satisfied by notes to the financial statements A
189. It is mandatory that the essential provisions of which of the following be clearly stated in the
notes to the financial statements?
(a) stock option plans (c) lease contracts
(b) pension obligations (d) all of these D
190. Which of the following post-balance sheet events would generally require disclosure, but no
adjustment of the financial statements?
(a) retirement of the company president
(b) settlement of litigation when the event that gave rise to the litigation occurred prior to the
balance sheet date
(c) employee strikes
(d) issue of a large amount of capital stock D
191. Which of the following subsequent events (post-balance sheet events) would require
adjustment of the accounts before issuance of the financial statements?
(a) loss of plant as a result of fire
(b) changes in quoted market prices of securities held as an investment
(c) loss on an uncollectible account receivable resulting from a customer’s major flood loss
(d) loss on a lawsuit, the outcome of which was deemed uncertain at year-end D
192.