4K QNA COMPILATION Dio 1

CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
COMPILATION
WITH RATIONALIZATION
(DRAFT)
PREPARED BY:
JOHN MICHAEL D. DIONISIO
Registered Criminologist, Master of Science in Criminal Justice

6th Placer, October 2014 Criminologist Licensure Examination
OLFU BS Crim. Cl 2014 Cum Laude, Civil Service Eligible (PD 907)
Instructor, College of St. Catherine Quezon City
National Criminology Review Lecturer
October 2017
ILLEGAL DISTRIBUTION AND REPRODUCTION OF

THIS MATERIAL IS PUNISHABLE BY LAW
Case Situation:
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. Not knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned
the house that resulted also to the death of Esco.
• Bong is liable of what crime?

a. Arson b. Murder
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder
• However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house and his purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime
committed by Bong?
a. Arson b. Murder
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder
Case Situation:
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They mutually helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before
they shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear.
• What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit?

a. Homicide b. Murder
c. Homicide with Mutilation
d. Murder with serious physical injur
• What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, instead they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are did
they commit?
c. Homicide with Mutilation
d. Murder with serious
• What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes but they just saw the latter while walking and
intentionally they shoot which resulted to the death of Llanes. What crime did they commit?
c. Frustrated homicide d. Attempted murder
Case Situation:
Grace and Jomar begot a child named Manuel without being married. Grace and Jomar parted their ways. Grace
got married to Bong, however, they were not blessed to have a child of their own, and thus, they had legally adopted
Manuel. One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while the latter was sleeping.
• What crime committed by Manuel?
a. Parricide b. Homicide
c. Murder d. Infanticide
• What if Manuel killed Grace?

a. Parricide b. Homicide
c. Murder d. Infanticide
Case Situation:
Allan and Grace while walking towards home were approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed with a gun
declared hold-up while poking the said gun upon Allan. Lenie demanded for their wallet and gave the same to him for
fear of their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, employed intimidation in taking the personal property of Allan and Grace.
• What crime committed by Lenie?
a. Theft b. snatching
c. Robbery d. Grave Threat
Case Situation:
Manuel entered the house of Lenie by breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel with intent to
gain took the LCD Television.
• Manuel is liable of what crime?
a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. snatchig
• Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main door without breaking it since it was left unlocked and
thereafter took the LCD Television of Lenie.Manuel is liable of a crime of.
a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
• What if Manuel entered the house through the main door without breaking it since it was left opened and
thereafter took the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed to leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was
forced to pass at the back door which was locked by breaking it. Manuel is liable of what crime?
a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
• Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main door by opening it with the use of an ATM card to open
the door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took the LCD Television. Manuel is liable of a crime of?
a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. Robbery with Theft
Case Situation:
The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm of Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of the latter.
As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious, thus, he hacked the pig with a bolo. The pig dies as a result.
• What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
b. property damaged
c. malicious mischief
d. robbery
• Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and
cooked some. What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
b. property damaged
c. malicious mischief
d. robbery
• Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo crops of Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
a. theft
b. malicious mischief
c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
d. robbery
• Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and
cooked some, what crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
b. malicious mischief
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
d. robbery
• Validity of Search Warrant
a. when the judge sign
b. upon serve
c. from the date indicated therein
d. from the date receive by officer
• Quantum of proof required whether to file an information or complaint in court?
a. probable cause
b. personal knowledge
c.substancial
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
• If the search is illegal the things seized is?
a. competent
b. irrelevant
c. inadmissible
d. admissible
• t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause
of action?
a. Factum probandum
b. Evidence
c. factum probans
d. factum prubans
Case Situation:
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years from of being husband and wife, they were not blessed
with a child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a neighbor), who gave birth to child (C). Maine learned
about Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their illicit relation, Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate infant at
its 72 hours age.
• For what crime Alden can be charged?

a. homicide b. parricide
c. murder d. infanticide
• What if it is Maine who killed the infant?
• What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant?
• What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden?
Case Situation:
Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and B entered the bank and took all the money from the
teller while Lola C remains outside the bank and served as look-out.
• Lola A is liable for a crime as?

a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
d.principal
• Lola B is liable for a crime as?
d.principal
• Lola C is liable for a crime as?
d.principal
• What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all the money from the teller?
d.principal
• What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as look-out??
d.principal
Case Situation:
Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill Aldub who is living on an island far from the town, in
consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te owner of the only boat in the place agreed to transport Yaya
Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported them in a place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora agreed
despite knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas and Vice. Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the
hands of Aldub while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies. Viceremains as look-out.
• Alden is liable for a crime as?

d.principal
• Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as?
d.principal
• Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
d.principal
• Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime as?
d.principal
• What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola Dora is liable of a crime as?
a. principal
b.accessories
c. accomplice
d.principal by indispensable cooperation
• What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a
crime as?
a. principal
b.accessories
c. accomplice
d.principal by indispensable cooperation
26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of the frustration and anger people experience over
their inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
a. strain theory
b. psychological theories
c. differential association theory
d. labeling theory
• A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of
criminal law what is the term used for it?
• Conspiracy
• Proposal
• Entrapment
• Instigation
• In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how person may are included?
• 3
• 8
• 4
• 6
• What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case?

• Preponderance of evidence
• Proof beyond reasonable doubt
• Probable cause
• Substantial Evidence
• In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious destruction of property by means of fire is called.
• Arson
• Combustion
• Disposition
• Murder
• Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among citizens of
• Good repute and probity
• High educational level
• Good religious background
• High social standing
• Which of the following procedures should be observed in handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
1.They should be segrageted especially during the withdrawal period
2.They should be closely supervised to prevent attempts to commit suicide or
self-mutilation
3.They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a physician
4.They should be transferred to mental institution of proper psychiatric treatment
• 2, 3 and 4
• 3, 4 and 1
• 4, 1 and 2
• 1, 2 and 3
• Which of the following is not an element of malicious mischief?
• The damage was caused inadvertently

• The damage caused does not fall with the provisions of arson
• The offender has caused damage to the property of another
• The damage was caused deliberately
• In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven years. Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many
years?
• 1
• 2
• 7
• 8
• George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for
opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of cocaine were found in his bagpack. What offense would
you charge George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act)?
• Importation of dangerous drugs.
• Possession of dangerous drugs.
• Use and possession of dangerous drugs
• Use of dangerous drugs
• In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to
be highly
• Accepted
• Determinate
• Sensitive
• Unreliable
• In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk of
Court. In the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court may hear simple case of unjust vexation.
• Possible
• No
• It depends
• Yes
• Who among the following can apply for release under the Law on Recognizance?
• One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is three (3) years and above
• One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is Twelve (12) months and above
• One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is not morethan Six (6) months
• One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is Six (6) months and above
• A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to the cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can
leading question be asked?
• It depends
• No
• Partially
• Yes
• What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
• Inmates health
• Prison security
• Prison's Interpersonal relations
• Prison industry
• A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look for the latter. However, B was on vacation in the
province. In his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed that the door could be useful. So, he brought it
to his house. What crime was committed?
• Robbery
• Maliscious Mischief
• Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling
• Theft
• What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of Appeals?
• Sandiganbayan
• Court of first instance
• Supreme court
• Tanodbayan
• To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-
prisoner?
• Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
• Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
• Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
• Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
• Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal another crime? 2 CRIMES
• It depends
• No
• Partially
• Yes
• What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence investigation?
• To help the judge in selecting the appropriate sentence of the offender
• To exonerate the offender
• To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself
• To assist the judge in dismissing the case
• The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court EXCEPT:
• To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the issue
• Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him to a penaly of an offense
• To remain silent
• To be protected from irrelevant questions
• What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the latin word "probitio" and had historical roots in the
pratice of judicial repreive?
• Live with integrity
• Testing period
• Walk with faith
• Out of the institution
• In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between a felony and a crime?
• Crime and felony are the same
• Crime covers felonies
• No distinction whatsoever
• The source of felony is a RPC
• Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the two and identified himself as a mayor and attempted to
pacify them whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander came to aid of the Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the
mayor, A attacked C. What crime was committed by the one who attacked C?
• Direct assault
• Indirect assault
• None
• Physical injury
• Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every
corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed guards:
• Maximum security facility
• Medium security facility
• Super maximum security facility
• Minimum security facility
• Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses to testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena being
served on him. Can the court punish him for contempt?
• No, since no person can be compelled to be a witness against another.
• No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not testifying.
• Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their case.
• Yes, since public interest in justice requires his testimony.
• What documents are attached to the Release Document of the Parolee?
Prison record
Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer
Location of the Prison or Confinement
Order of Court
• 4 and 1
• 1 and 2
• 3 and 4
• 2 and 3
• We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago.
According to our criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance will you use to those who consfired in the
killing?
• Abused of Superior Strength
• Conspiracy
• Intimidation
• Treachery
• The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
However, control over the probationer and probation program is exercised by
• The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides
• The Parole and Probation Administrator
• The Secretary of Justice
• The Court who place him on probation
• According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result with an individuals bond to _____________ is weak
and broken.
• Behavior
• Police
• Law
• Society
• Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a persons other than (not) the offended party?
• Abduction
• Act of lasciviousness
• Seduction
• Falsification
• What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness who is unwilling to testify?
• Intelligent
• Leading
• Misleading
• Unresponsive
• Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its
anger toward and exact vengeance upon the criminal?
• Retribution
• Restoration
• Rehabilitation
• Deterrence
• The following are the elements of maliscious mischief:
• The offender deliberately caused damage to property
• Such act does not constitute arson or other crimes involving destruction
• Such acts also constitute other crimes involving destruction
• The act of damaging anothers property was committed merely for the sake of damaging it
• I, III, IV
• I, II, IV
• I, II, III
• II, III, IV
• Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?

• A sick prisoner, certified as such by government physician
• A prisoner who served as "bastonero"
• A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
• A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his probation conditions

• The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court within_________.
• 10-day period
• 30-day period
• 15-day period
• 60-day period
• Within how many days after the expiration of the period to execute the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it
was assigned for the execution shall make a report to the judge who issued the warrant?
• 10
• 15
• 20
• 30
• Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental Law of the State?
• Espionage
• Piracy
• Treason
• Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified trespass to dwelling
• The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail,
claiming they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim correct?
• No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight.
• No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction.
• Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving moral turpitude.
• Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan Trial Court before and after conviction.
• X went to the United States. While he was there, encountered Y an American. They eventually got married.
When X returned to the Philippines, his wife Z filed an action against him for violating their marriage. What is X
liable to?
• Adultery
• Bigamy
• Concubinage
• Polygamy
• Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or information before arraignment if the
amendment_______________.
• Downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher to a lower offense or excludes any accused
• Downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher to a lower offense and adds another accused
• Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a higher offense and excludes any of the accused
• Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a higher offense and adds another accused
• In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts- internal and external act. Which of the two acts is
indispensable for the act to be punishable as a crime?
• External act
• Intentional act
• Internal act
• Unintentional act
• In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct examination?
• Opponent
• PAO lawyer
• Proponent
• Prosecution
• The system of key control in a jail includes:
• An updated system of monitoring and control of keys
• A documented inventory of security personnel
• A collector of all padlocks and keys
• An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them
• The following are classified as crimes against chastity, EXCEPT:
• Simple Seduction
• Adultery
• White Slave Trade
• Sexual Harassment
• The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate, EXCEPT:
• Rendering service to fellow inmate
• Failing to stand at attention and give due respect when confronted by or reporting to any officer or
member of the custodial force
• Willful watse of food
• Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings
• The following are classified as crimes against honor, EXCEPT:
• Premature Marriage
• libel
• Incriminating innocent person
• Slander
• A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT:
• Offender
• The offender party
• Other public officers
• Any peace officers
• Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from criminal liability/

• It depends
• No
• Sometimes
• Yes
• X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on the food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of
dying, Y suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not committed because the material he mixed on the foods
is
• Impossible
• Inadequate
• Ineffectual
• Intentional
• The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based on the recommendation of:
• Board of Pardon and Parole
• Bureau of Correction
• Parole and Probation Administration
• Office of the Executive Secretary
• What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the philippines?
• R.A 7659
• R.A 7965
• R.A 8177
• R.A 9346
• For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it must be made at the place where the:
• Contraband was found
• Police station is located
• Arrest was effected
• Crime was forced
• Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence
without further proof of due execution or genuiness?
• Baptismal Certificates.
• Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in Hongkong
• Official record of the Philippines Embassy in Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with official seal
• Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985 signed by the promise, showing payment of a loan, found
among the well-kept file of the promissor.
• A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to serve his sentence by the court if he
• Becomes unruly and undicipline
• Commits another offense
• He is 21 years old
• Violates any of the conditions of the probation
• Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written agreement, there is the application of
the____________evidence rule.
• Documentary
• Best
• Written
• Parol
• X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she eat the food, moments later, she suffered excruciating
pain in the stomach. Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and administered an antidote. Thus, the wife did not
die. What crime was committed by X?
• Attempted Parricide
• Frustrated Parricide
• Serious Physical Injuries
• No crime
• Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of probation in the United States?
• Sir Walter crofton
• Alexander Maconochie
• John murry spear
• John Augustus
• A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ if
the crime committed by the petitioner is against national security.
• Secretary of foreign Affairs
• Secretary of Justice
• Secretary of National Defense
• Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
• All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be treated__________.
• Comprehensively
• Appopriately
• Confidentially
• Judiciously
• Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the
police. What are these studies called?
• Population Surveys
• Police surveys
• Victimization surveys
• Information surveys
• What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate court sends a case back to lower court for new trial?
• Trial by publicity
• Trial by jury
• Trial by default
• Trial de novo
• Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by reason of their office and of which they may properly take and
act without proof re called matters of:
• Priveleged communication
• Judicial notice
• Pleadings
• Judgment
• What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison sentence?
• Commutation of sentence
• Parole
• Absolute pardon
• Conditional pardon
• Which among the following is a requisite before an accused may be discharged to become a state witness?
• The accused does not appear to be guilty.

• The accused has not at any time been convicted of any offense.
• The testimony of the accused sought to be discharged can be substantially corroborated on all points.
• There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused hose discharge is requested.
• Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held liable for rape:
• When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the victims drink to enable her husband to have intercourse
with the victim's.
• When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it in the mouth of the victim's.
• When the rape is committed by two or more person's.
• With the use of force or intimidation.
• Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
• No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
• No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One (1) day
• Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One (1) day
• Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
• There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as follows: retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and
rehabilitation.
• Criminal intent
• Criminal mind
• Criminal sanction
• Criminal action
• The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries for stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted as
charged. A few days later, Terence died due to severe infection of his stab wounds. Can the prosecution file another
information against Ben for homicide?
• No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had already been convicted of the first offense.
• No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical injuries is necessarily included in the charged of
homicide.
• Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of crime the accused committed.
• Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the filing of the earlier charge against him.
• Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
• If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum penalty for the offense he may be found guilty of is
destierro
• If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
prision correccional
• If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
reclusion perpetua
• If he has been in jail for a period equal to or morethan the possible maximum term of punishment of the
offense he maybe found guilty of.
• A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of crime is known as:
• Forensic medicine
• Physical science
• Forensic science
• Criminalistic Technology
• To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT:
• Murder
• Treason
• Parricide
• Infanticide
• The following are crimes against national security and the law of nations EXCEPT one:
• Violation of neutrality
• Rebellion
• Treason
• Espionage
• Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed by public officers?
• Forgery
• Official breaking seal
• Malversation
• Refusal of assistance
• Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more care than the other inmates. Which of the following
should NOT be done by a jail officer?
• Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly
• Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed diet
• Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
• Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate
• The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT:
• Movement of the offender is restricted
• Cruelty
• Adding ignominy
• Taking advantage of superior strength
• When taking up arms against the government was undertaken by members of the military, what law was violated?
Republic Act________.
• 9165
• 7610
• 6506
• 6968
• The following properties may be taken by the officer effecting the arrest, EXCEPT those:
• That may be used for escaping
• Used in the commission of a crime
• That are within the immediate vicinity
• Which are means of committing violence
• Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum
imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with?
• Batas Pambansa 95
• An advantageous result in the integration of correctional agencies is:
• More physical facilities to maintain
• More prisoners to supervise
• Divided resources such as manpower and finances
• Better coordination of services and increased cost-efficiency
• It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of the
defense and prosecution to appeal.
• Inquisatorial
• mixed
• accusatorial
• fixed
• It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the
offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the defense and the accused presumed innocent.
• inquisitorial
• mixed
• accusatorial
• fixed
• That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC, MCTC.
a. R.A. 7691
b. R.A. 8493
c. BP 129
d. R.A. 1379
• In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:
• Extent of penalty
• Person accused
• territory
• subject matter
• Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of the prosecutor.
• Complaint
• Pleadings
• Information
• Affidavit
• Prescription of offense commence to run:
• Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or peace officers or their agent.
• Upon filing of cases in court.
• Upon escape of the accused.
• Upon re-appearance of the accused
• The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure, EXCEPT:

• Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
• Violation of traffic laws
• Violation of rental laws
• Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6) months imprisonment
• What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system and are commonly referred to as “uppers”?
• Amphetamines
• Naptha
• Barbiturates
• Diazepam
• The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
EXCEPT:
• Rape
• Abduction
• Seduction
• Adultery and Concubinage
• Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense. This is the rule on:
• Duplicity of offense
• Complex crime
• compound crime
• continuing crime
• In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates an arresting officer should inform the person to be
arrested of his rights?
• Art. III Sec. 12
• b.Miranda Doctrine
• R.A. 7438
• Rule 115
• It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for
Other Purposes.
• RA 9165
• RA 1956
• RA 9156
• RA 1965
• What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?
• Reclusion Perpetua
• Life Imprisonment
• Death
• Fine
109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ after plea and during the trial with leave of court and
without causing prejudice to the rights of the accused.
a. form
b. substance and form
c. substance
d. none of these
• A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be
filed:
• before the prosecution rests
• before arraignment
• before preliminary investigation
• before plea
• Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
• Prejudicial question
• inquest proceeding
• preliminary investigation
• custodial investigation
• Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that
a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
• preliminary investigation
• inquest proceeding
• prejudicial question
• Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

• at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day
• more than four years, two months and one day
• less than four years, two months and one day
• six years, one day and above
• The following persons are authorized to conduct preliminary investigation, EXCEPT:

• Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court
• Provincial and city prosecutors and their assistants
• Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
• National and Regional state prosecutors;
• a and c
• After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court without a preliminary investigation within how many days
an accused person upon knowing the filing of said complaint may ask for preliminary investigation?
• 5 days
• 15 days
• 10 days
• 30 days
• Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
• Arrest
• Warrant
• jurisdiction
• Seizure
• Validity of the warrant of arrest?
• no fixed duration
• 30 days
• 20 days
• 10 days
• Lifetime of search warrant?
a. 10 days
b. 20 days
c. 5 days
d. No fixed duration
• Within how many days upon the date of execution of a warrant of arrest the person charged with its execution
shall report to the court which issue such warrant when arrest was not been made?
• 10 days
• 30 days
• 20 days
• 5 days
• It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
• instigation
• investigation
• entrapment
• Entertainment
• In flagrante delicto means _____?
• caught in the act
• instigation
• caught after commission
• entrapment
• When arrest may be made?
• At any time of the day and night
• At day time
• At night time
• from sun dust till dawn
• When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the warrant of arrest in his possession?
• Need not have
• Should always have
• may sometime have
• need to have
• It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer after a person has been taken into custody.
• inquest
• interview
• interrogation
• Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a warrant?
• When the crime was committed in the presence of the arresting officer.
• When the crime was in fact been committed and there is personal knowledge based on probable cause
that the person to be arrested has committed it.
• When the person to be arrested is an escapees.
• All of the choices
• It is a security given for the temporary release of a person in custody of the law.
• Bail
• parole
• fine
• conditional pardon
• Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person failed to appear at the trial without justification and despite
due notice.
• In absentia
• in flagrante de licto
• on the merits
• none of these
• When Bail is a matter of right?
• Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan, Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court.
• Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court
• before conviction by the Regional Trial Court
• upon preliminary investigation
• Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:
• crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death
• crime punishable by life imprisonment
• crimes punishable by death
• crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong
• When bail is a discretionary?

• Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.
• Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years who is a recidivist.
• Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years when there is undue risk
that he may commit another crime during the pendency of the appeal.
• Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not more than 20 years who has previously escaped
from legal confinement.
• Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of its commission and at the time of the application for
admission to bail may be punished with death.
• capital offense
• less grave
• heinous crime
• grave felony
• The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
• Property Bond
• Cash Bond
• Corporate surety bond
• Recognizance
• None of the choices
• When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____
of preventive imprisonment.
• 30 days
• 20 days
• 15 days
• 60 days
• Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon:
• acquittal of the accused
• execution of the judgment of conviction
• dismissal of the case
• all of the choices
• It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and circumstances are capable of two or more
interpretation, one which is consistent with the innocence of the accused and the other consistent with his guilt,
or they are evenly balanced. The constitutional presumption of innocence should tilt the scale in favor of the
accused and he must be acquitted.
• Equipoise rule
• Presumption of guilt
• Hornbook doctrine
• due process of law
• Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute litigant?
• Counsel de officio
• counsel de parte
• Public Attorney’s Office
• National Prosecution Office
• It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or
documents under his control at the trial of an action.
• subpoena
• subpoena ducestecum
• subpoena ad testificandum
• d. warrant of arrest
• Unless shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held within
___ days from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused.
• 30 days
• 10 days
• 15 days
• 5 days
• If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be entered.
• Not guilty
• admission by silence
• guilty
• none
• When reception of evidence is necessary under the following circumstances:

• Plea of guilty to lesser offense
• plea of guilty to capital offense
• Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
• all of these
• When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint or
information and the details desired in order to enable him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is
known as:
• motion for bill of particular
• motion for clarification
• motion to dismiss
• motion for postponement
• Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be suspended on the following grounds:
• The accused appears to be suffering from unsound mental condition.
• There exist a prejudicial question.
• c. A petition for review of the resolution of the prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office of the
President .
• A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused is:
• Motion to quash
• nolleprosequi
• Motion to dismiss
• bill of particulars
• It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the commission of the offense.
• Prescription of crime
• acquisitive
• prescription of penalty
• extinctive
• It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the
second time.
• double jeopardy
• double trial
• double trouble
• double counter
• Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any amount or
both shall become permanent after ____.
• one year
• 2 years
• 5 years
• d. 4 years
• Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
• 30 days
• 15 days
• 20 days
• d. 60 days
• How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
• 15 days
• 20 days
• 30 days
• 180 days
• The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from receipt of the pre-trial order?
• 30 days
• 15 days
• 20 days
• 60 days
• The trial court have how many days from the first day of trial to terminate the same?
• 60 days
• 365 days
• 180 days
• 150 days
• The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the following circumstances:
• at the arraignment and plea
• during the trial whenever necessary for identification purposes
• at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light offense
• The order of trial is:
• Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
• Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
• Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
• Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
• Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative device to
assist him in testimony.
• Testimonial aids
• Emotional security items
• support
• none of these
• It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of examination of a child, if the same will further the
interest of justice.
• leading questions
• relevant
• misleading
• Narrative
• Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an accused to be state witness:
• there is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused.
• said accused does not appear to be the most guilty
• said accused has not been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude/
• After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person may move for the dismissal of the case on:
• on its own initiative after giving the prosecution an opportunity to be heard.
• Demurrer to evidence
• motion for reconsideration
• motion for new trial
• It is the judicial examination and determination of the issue in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal.
• pre-trial
• trial
• plea bargaining
• Judgment
• Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of
the proper penalty and civil liability.
• judgment
• rendition of judgment
• promulgation of judgment
• conviction
• It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the possibility of error, produces absolute certain. Moral
certainty only is required.
• acquittal
• clear and convincing
• preponderance of evidence
• It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the evidence does not show that his guilt is proof beyond
reasonable doubt.
• dismissal
• conviction
• acquittal
• judgment
• Judgment becomes final when?
• the period for perfecting an appeal lapse.
• when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied or served.
• when the accused waived in writing his right to appeal.
• when he appealed for probation
• Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of conviction becomes final.
• Motion for new trial
• Motion for reconsideration
• All of these
• Who represents the State in an action for appeal?
• prosecutor
• Secretary of DOJ
• appellant
• Solicitor General
• The party appealing the case shall be called?
• appellant
• accused
• Appellee
• Defendant
• It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where the power of the court is exercised and which is
jurisdictional in criminal case.
• Venue
• Jurisprudence
• jurisdiction
• court
• It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
• Original jurisdiction
• Exclusive jurisdiction
• concurrent jurisdiction
• appellate jurisdiction
• It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the others.
• It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of the
defense and prosecution to appeal.
• Inquisitorial
• mixed
• accusatorial
• fixed
• It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the
offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the defense and the accused is innocent.
• inquisitorial
• mixed
• accusatorial
• fixed
• In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, EXCEPT:
• Extent of penalty
• Person accused
• territory
• subject matter
• Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
• Complaint
• Pleadings Section
• Information
• Affidavit
• Prescription of offense commences to run:

• Upon filing of cases in court.
• Upon escape of the accused.
• Upon re-appearance of the accused
• When an appeal shall be taken?

• within 10 days
• within 30 days
• within 15 days
• within 5 days
• Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
• Subject of the offense
• Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
• Used or intended to be used as the means of committing an offense
• Firearm
• When search must be made?
• in the day time
• only during sunrise
• any time of the day and night
• in the presence of two witnesses
• In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the ____?

• Plaintiff
• offended party
• defendant
• Respondent
• A complaint or information have the same legal content, however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who
subscribe an information?
• Accused
• Prosecutor
• Witness
• victim
• Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the following officers are authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation except?
• Provincial and City Prosecutor
• Judge MTC/MCTC
• Regional State Prosecutor
• Public Attorney’s office
• b and d
• An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained or under custodial investigation as well as
duties of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
• R.A. 7438
• R.A. 7348
• R.A. 7834
• d. R.A. 3478
• Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
principle also known as:
• rights against illegal arrest
• the right to presume innocent
• rights against self- incrimination
• right to live
• Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following pleading are prohibited except:
• motion to quash
• bill of particular
• answer
• demurred to evidence
• The following cases committed by public official with salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
• Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two of the
RPC
• Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 14-A.
• Crimes committed by public official in relation to their office.
• It is the law which classifies rape from crime against chastity to crimes against person, making crime
prosecutable even without a complaint filed the offender party?
• R.A. 8353
• R.A. 9283
• R.A. 8493
• d. R.A. 7055
• Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be
separated?
• When the offended party waives the civil action;
• When the offended party reserves his right to institute the civil action;
• When the institution of the civil action is made prior to the criminal action.
• What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions?
• It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict.
• Independent civil action instituted may be continued against the estate or legal representative of the
accused.
• If the accused dies before arraignment, the case shall be dismissed without prejudice to any civil action
the offended party may file against the estate of the deceased.
• Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee may be released on bail in the following manner, except:
• property bond
• performance bond
• corporate surety
• recognized
• Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case
• after arraignment
• after the defense has rested its case
• after trial
• after the prosecution had rested its case
• The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___ otherwise the said accused could no longer
questioned the same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as valid.
• before conviction
• before preliminary investigation
• before trial
• The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial conference except:
• examination of witnesses
• marking of evidence
• plea bargaining
• stipulation & simplification of issues
• The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action shall be made:
• before the pre-trial conference
• before the prosecution rest its case
• before the prosecution presents evidence
• Amendment without leave of court before the accused pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court under the
following instances EXCEPT:
• amendment as to substance
• amendment as to form
• amendment that reflect typographical error
• amendments to downgrades the nature of the crime
• One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may be discharged in order to be state witness is that
• Said accused does not appear to be the most guilty
• Said accused does not appear to be least guilty
• Said accused must not appear to be guilty
• Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
• P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of 1991. Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay
shall have authority to bring together the parties actually residing in the same city or municipality for amicable
settlement where the offense committed is punishable by imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement
is:
• absolutely true
• partly true
• absolutely false
• partly false
• In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:
• Office of the President
• Office of the Clerk of Court
• Office of the Prosecutor
• Office of the Ombudsman
• In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or information are the following, EXCEPT:
• It must be in writing
• It must be in the name of the People of the Philippines.
• It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
• It must be filed in court
• Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal action for adultery against his wife and the paramour.
The case may:
• No longer be prosecuted
• Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
• Still be prosecuted
• Be prosecuted by the State
• The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of incapacitated individual with no known parents,
grandparents or guardian is known as:
• Doctrine of parens patriae
• Doctrine of non-suability
• police power
• habeas corpus
• The modes of making an arrest are:

• by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested
• by the submission to the custody of the person making the arrest
• by using unreasonable force
• a and b only
• a and c only
• The following are crimes Against National Security and Law of Nations, EXCEPT.
• Treason
• Piracy and mutiny
• Espionage
• Rebellion
• Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
• treason
• espionage
• adherence to the enemy
• rebellion
• The degree of proof required to convict a person accused of treason.
• substantial evidence
• proof beyond reasonable doubt
• two witness rule
• preponderance of evidence
• The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:

• A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine waters;
• The offenders are not members of its complement or passengers of the vessel;
• That the offender resist to a superior officer;
• The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or seize the whole or part of the cargo of said vessel, its
equipment or personal belonging of its complement or passengers.
• Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of Piracy:
• Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on the high seas or in Philippine waters
• Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by boarding or firing upon the same.
• c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims without means of saving themselves.
• Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, homicide, physical injuries, or rape.
• Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway Robbery Law of 1974.
• Comm. Act No. 616
• P.D. 532
• P.D. 533
• R.A. 6235
• PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of his liberty is
liable for:
• illegal detention
• arbitrary detention
• unlawful arrest
• kidnapping
• The following are legal grounds for the detention of any person, EXCEPT:
• commission of a crime
• escape from prison / penal institution
• violent insanity or other ailment requiring the compulsory confinement
• a and c only
• a, b and c
• The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying release, EXCEPT:

• Delays the performance of a judicial or executive order for the release of a prisoner.
• Delays the service of the notice of such order to said prisoner.
• Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the liberation of such person.
• Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the detainee to the proper judicial authority.
• All of these
• Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms which is considered a low power gun. Considering that
the crime is punishable by correctional penalty, within how many hours should that a case be filed to the proper
judicial authority?
• 12 hours
• 18 hours
• 24 hours
• 36 hours
• It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a person to change his resident or otherwise expels him
from the Philippines.
• violation of domicile
• trespass to dwelling
• expulsion
• The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.

• Any public officer or employee who enters any dwelling against the will of the owner thereof.
• Any public officer or employee who searches any papers or other effects found therein without the
previous consent of the owner.
• Any public officer or employee who refuses to leave the premises, after having surreptitiously entered
said dwelling and after having been required to leave the premises.
• Any public officer or employee who searches domicile without witnesses.
• SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant, search the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having
discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1 Masinop took the same and includes the jewelry box filled
with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to be seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
• Liable for the crime of violation of
domicile
• Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
• May not be liable for violation of
domicile
• Liable for a crime but not on
violation of domicile
• The following are crimes against the fundamental law of the States. Which one can be committed by private
person?
• Arbitrary detention
• Violation of Domicile
• Interruption of religious worship
• Offending religious feelings
• Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful meetings
• The law which provides Human Security
• R.A. 9208
• R.A. 9745
• R.A. 9372
• R.A. 7438
• Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with the Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of
his Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was manning the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila.
Under the facts given, what crime was committed by the former and that of his Group?
• murder
• sedition
• rebellion
• homicide
• This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms against government to completely overthrow and
supersede said existing government.
• treason
• rebellion
• coup d’etat
• sedition
• A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities, public
utilities, military camps and installation with or without civilian support for the purpose of diminishing state power.
• treason
• rebellion
• coup d’etat
• sedition
• It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of communications or disturbances in the state outside of the
legal method.
• treason
• rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
• A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation
is liable for:
• crime against popular representation
• acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National Assembly
• violation of parliamentary immunity
• all of the foregoing
• The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the
poor laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group that would rise against the rich businessmen of their
city. For what crime can they be charged?
• Illegal assembly
• Illegal association
• coup d’etat
• rebellion
• Any association, organization, political party or group of persons organized for the purpose of overthrowing the
Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the purpose of removing the allegiance to said government
or its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, with the open or covert assistance or support of a foreign
power by force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a crime of:
• Rebellion
• Illegal Association
• Subversive Association or Organization
• Illegal Assembly
• Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the land
occupied by informal settlers for government projects and for their relocation. The residents oppose with the
plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor Ditas when the latter came near. One of the
close escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. For what crime
Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Grace?
• Sedition
• Slander by Deeds
• Direct Assault
• Rebellion
• The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
• The assault is committed with a weapon
• The offender is a public officer or employee
• The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
• The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in authority

• Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some court or
government corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
• Agent of a person in authority
• Judicial authority
• person in authority
• Public employee
• It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
person, while engaged in the performance of official functions.
• Direct assault
• Indirect Assault
• Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly
• Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or the agents of such person
• The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.
• Tumults and other disturbances of public order
• Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful utterances

• Alarms and scandals
• Delivering prisoners form Jails
• Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in the air to proclaim to the people that he is
celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
• illegal discharge of firearm
• alarm & scandals
• disturbances
• outcry
• The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of service of sentence.
• By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
• By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, violence or intimidation.
• Through connivance with other convicts or employees of the penal institution.
• Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before serving his sentence or while serving the same he
committed a crime of murder. What condition is said to have occurred?
• recidivism
• reiteration
• quasi-recidivism
• habitual delinquency
• It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any instrument payable to bearer or to order the
appearance of a true and genuine document. It is likewise committed by falsification through erasing,
substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means, the figures, letters, words or signs contained therein (Art.
169)
• Falsification of public document

• Forgery
• Falsification
• d.Fasification by public officer, employee or notary or ecclesiastical minister
• A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker and sell the same shall be liable for a crime of:
• Estafa through falsification of a public document
• Theft through falsification of a public document
• Falsification of public document
• Forgeries
• This crime is committed by any person without any distinction, by falsely representing himself as an officer and
performing under pretense of official position any act pertaining to such person.
• usurpation of authority
• estafa
• usurpation of official functions
• a&c
• Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself without authority of the law.
• alias
• A.K.A.
• fictitious names
• true name
• It is committed by a person, who being under oath are required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a
hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something contrary to it.
• forgery
• perjury
• falsification
• false testimony
• Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs, which having been committed publicly, have
given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness the same.
• immoral doctrines
• obscene publication and exhibition
• grave scandal
• libel
• Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and neglects to
apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
• bum
• vagrant
• prostitute
• destitute
• It is the improper performance of some acts which should have been lawfully be done.
• malfeasance
• misfeasance
• nonfeasance
• dereliction of duty
• It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an unjust order which decides some point or matter but
which however, is not a final decisions of the matter in issue:
• Knowingly rendering unjust judgment
• Judgment rendered through negligence
• Unjust interlocutory order
• Malicious delay in the administration of justice
• Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor – revelation of secrets
• This one is committed by public officers or employees who, in dereliction of the duties of his office, shall
maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution for the punishment of violators of law, or shall tolerate the
commission of offenses.
• Direct bribery
• Indirect bribery
• Qualified bribery
• Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in prosecution of offenses
• What crime is committed by any public officer or employee who shall agree to perform an act constituting a
crime, in connection with the performance of his official duties, in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or
present received by such officer, personally or through the mediation of another.
• Direct bribery
• Qualified bribery
• Indirect bribery
• Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in prosecution
• Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement who refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender
who has committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua and/or death in consideration of any offer, promise,
gift or present.
• bribery
• direct bribery
• qualified bribery
• indirect bribery
• It is a crime committed by any appointed public official who shall become interested in any transaction within his
territory, subject to his jurisdiction during his incumbency.
• Prohibited transaction
• Possession of prohibited interest by a public officer
• Fraud against public treasury
• Prevarication
• This is committed by an accountable public officer who, shall appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall
consent, or through abandonment or negligence shall permit another person to take public funds or property.
• Direct bribery
• Technical malversation
• Malversation of public funds
• Embezzelment
• The following are crimes classified under infidelity or public officers:
• Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
• Infidelity in the custody of documents
• Revelation of secrets
• all of these
• This is committed by any public officer or employee who shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a
prisoner or detention prisoner under his charge by the imposition of punishment not authorize by the regulations
or inflicting punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner.
• Police brutality
• Sadism
• Maltreament of prisoners
• Physical injures
• This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or make immoral advances to a woman under his custody
or to other women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative within the same degree by affinity of any person in the
custody of a warden or officer.
• Sexual harassment
• Abuses against chastity
• Acts of Lasciviousness
• Abuse of authority
• Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion attendant to quarrel among the several persons not
continuing a group and the perpetrators cannot be ascertained.
• homicide
• murder
• death caused by tumultuous affray
• riots
• Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing the death of their unborn child is guilty of:
• parricide
• abortion
• intentional abortion
• unintentional abortion
• A formal and regular combat previously concerted between two parties in the presence of two or more seconds
of lawful age on each side, who make the selection of arms and fix all other conditions.
• riot
• duel
• tumultuous affray
• mutilation
• It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of
the latter of its true.
• physical injury
• duel
• tumultuous affray
• mutilation
• What crime is committed by person who assaulted another, causing the latter to be absent from work for two
weeks?
• mutilation
• serious physical injury
• less serious physical injury
• slight physical injury
• Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a child less than 12 years old.
• rape
• acts of lasciviousness
• seduction
• abduction
• A private individual who detains another for the purpose of depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three
days is guilty of:
• serious illegal detention
• slight illegal detention
• A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted the latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the
jailer is guilty of what crime?
• illegal arrest
• unlawful arrest
• physical injuries
• Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens another with the infliction upon the person, honor or
property of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime.
• grave threat
• light threat
• grave coercion
• light coercion
• When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is made by another, what crime is committed?
• grave threat
• light threat
• graver coercion
• light coercion
• Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying
the same to the payment of a debt, is committing.
• grave threat b. light threat
c. light coercion d. graver coercion
• It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do something
against his will, whether right or wrong.
• grave threat
• light threat
• grave coercion
• light coercion
• It includes human conduct, which although not productive of some physical or material harm would annoy any
innocent person
• light threat
• light coercion
• unjust vexation
• grave coercion
• It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with intent to gain by means of violence against, or intimidations
upon things of any person, or using force upon anything.
• robbery
• theft
• brigandage
• estafa
• A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the owner, what crime was committed?
• a theft
• robbery
• possession of pick locks
• possession of false key
• A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors who form a band for the purpose of committing
robbery in the highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any other
purpose to be attained by means of force & violence.
• Robbery
• kidnapping
• brigandage
• d. theft
• Committed by any person who with intent to gain but without violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon
things shall take personal property of another without latter’s consent.
• robbery
• kidnapping
• brigandage
• theft
• A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away the furniture of her employer would be charged of what
crime?
• theft
• robbery
• qualified theft
• estafa
• Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the property would be large when surveyed is a crime of:
• estafa
• chattel mortgage
• usurpation
• altering boundaries or landmarks
• It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil
motive.
• swindling
• destruction of property
• malicious mischief
• chattel mortgage
• What crime was committed by a married woman having carnal knowledge with a man not her husband?
• adultery
• concubinage
• seduction
• A married man who allows his paramour to live in their conjugal dwelling is liable of what crime?
• adultery
• concubinage
• seduction
• Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not amounting to rape by using force or intimidation.
• adultery
• concubinage
• seduction
• A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his penis over the woman’s genital organ is liable for
what crime?
• rape
• seduction
• forcible seduction
• Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what crime
was committed?
• seduction
• abduction
• none of the foregoing
• Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces of jewelries to his Mother whom he had
misunderstanding. The latter however, pawned the said jewelries and misappropriated the same. What would be
the proper offense committed by Luz?
• swindling
• theft
• robbery
• Which of the following crimes does not operates as an absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption
against members of the family from criminal ability in crimes against properties.
• Robbery
• theft
• estafa
• It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and prosecution of person alleged to have committed a
crime.
• Criminal procedure
• Criminal jurisprudence
• rules of court
• rules of procedure
• It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
• Jurisdiction
• b. Jurisprudence
• Venue
• territory
• It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where the power of the court is exercised and which is
jurisdictional in criminal case.
• Venue
• Jurisprudence
• jurisdiction
• court
• It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
• concurrent
• It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the others.
• Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their
punishment?
• civil law
• procedural law
• criminal law
• substantive law
• The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT:
• Act 3815
• City and municipal ordinance
• Special penal laws
• constitution
• The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect on?
• January 1, 1923
• January 1, 1932
• December 8, 1930
• January 1, 1933
• The following are characteristics of classical theory of criminal law, EXCEPT:
• the basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of the penalty is retribution.
• Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolutely free will to choose between good and evil,
thereby placing more stress upon the effect or result of the felonious act than the man.
• there is scant regard to the human element.
• That man is subdued occasionally by strange and morbid phenomenon which constrains him to do
wrong, in spite of or contrary to his violation.
• Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are acts committed or omitted in violations of special
laws?
• felony
• offense
• misdemeanor
• in fractional law
• Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of criminal law. What characteristics of criminal law states
that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines?
• Generality
• Territoriality
• Prospective
• Retroactive
• The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality, EXCEPT:

• Those who are subject of treaty stipulation
• Those who are immune under the law of preferential application
• Those who are exempted under Public International law
• President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
• Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city ordinance
was passed punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of loitering?
• Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it

• Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of criminal law
• No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the law
• No, for a did not loiter again
• Under what characteristics of criminal law the above circumstance falls?
• Generality
• Territoriality
• Prospective
• Retroactive
• What legal maxims support the above scenario?
• Pro reo Principle

• Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
• Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea
• Actus me invitusfactus non
• Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot be criminal unless the mind is criminal”.
• Pro reo
• Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege
• Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
• Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
• A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a
judicial determination of guilt.
• Ex post facto law
• Bill of attainder
• Retroactive law
• Prospective
• The following persons are exempt from criminal liability under the principle of public international law, EXCEPT:
• Heads of states
• ambassador
• ministers of plenipotentiary
• charges d affaires
• Crimes committed within the territorial water of another country can either be triable in that country or in the
country where the vessel is registered. What rule provides that a crime committed on board vessel shall be NOT
tried in the court of the country having territorial jurisdiction, unless their commission affects the peace and
security of the territory or the safety of the state is endangered.
• French rule
• American Rule
• Spanish Rule
• English Rule
• Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in the external world.
• act
• Omission
• Dolo
• Culpa
• Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____.
• Deceit
• Fault
• Culpa
• Intent
• Things which are wrongful in their nature.

• evil
• mala in ce
• mala in se
• mala prohibita
• The moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
• intent
• motive
• deceit
• fault
• The following are crime committed by mistakes which does not operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
• Aberratio Ictus
• Error in Personae
• PreaterIntentionem
• Mistake in fact
• That cause, which, in the natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause,
produces the injury without which the result would not have occurred.
• Proximate cause
• Intervening cause
• Immediate cause
• Probable cause
• Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of physical injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT
• The victim at the time the physical injuries were inflicted was in normal heath.
• The death may be expected from the physical injuries inflicted.
• Death ensued within a reasonable time.
• The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of the victim.
• The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT:
• That the act performed would be an offense against persons or property.
• That the act was done with evil intent
• That its accomplishment is inherently impossible, or that the means employed is either inadequate or
ineffectual.
• That the act does not constitute a crime of negligence or imprudence.
• X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a
sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence. What X did he commit?
• Mistake in the blow
• No crime committed
• preaterintentionem
• impossible crime
• Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may deem proper to repress and which is not punishable
by law, it shall:
• Render the proper decision, and shall report to the Chief Executive, through the Department of Justice
• Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief Executive, through the Department of Justice.
• Render the proper decision, and shall report to the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
• Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
• This takes place when the offender commences that commission of a felony by overt acts, and does not perform
all the acts of execution which should produce the felony by reason of some cause or accident other than his
own spontaneous desistance.
• Consummated
• Frustrated
• Attempted
• Impossible crime
• A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the
injury, what crime is committed by A?
• Physical Injury
• Frustrated Homicide
• Attempted Homicide
• Less serious physical injury
• The following are the elements of frustrated felonious, EXCEPT:

• The offender performs all the acts of execution
• All the acts performed would produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not produced.
• By reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
• Due to some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
• Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of her husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the
stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and administer an antidote causing Mr. William to survive
but left in comatose. What was committed by Mrs. Lucila?
• Frustrated parricide
• b.attempted parricide
• serious physical injury
• less serious physical injury
• Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting from the point where the offender begins the
commission of the crime to that point where he has still control over his acts including their (acts) natural course.
• Subjective Phase
• Objective Phase
• Internal Act
• Act of Execution
• Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining stage of execution of felony?
• Nature of the offense
• Elements constituting the felony;
• Manner of committing the felony
• Intent in committing the crime
• A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the Banco de Oro. While having their meeting at their safe-
house, a group of PNP personnel arrested them. What crime was committed by A,B, and C?
• Illegal Assembly
• Conspiracy to commit robbery
• Attempted Robbery
• No crime
• A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in their secret safe house. While they are planning how
to commit the crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and arrested the group.
• What crime was committed by A,B and C?

• No crime was committed
• Under the facts no crime was committed as mere conspiracy to commit a crime is not punishable
• Attempted robbery
• Frustrated robbery
• Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the capital punishment or penalties which in any of their
periods are:
• light
• correctional
• afflictive
• reflective
• In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal laws, what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
• The RPC shall be observed

• The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
• The RPC will be supplementary to special law
• The Special Law shall be supplementary to the RPC

• It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a person as its author or owner. It implies that the act
committed has been freely and consciously done and may therefore be put down to the doer as his very own.
• Guilt
• Liability
• Responsibility
• Imputability
• Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so that such person is deemed not to have
transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability.
• justifying circumstances
• mitigating circumstances
• exempting circumstances
• aggravating circumstance
• The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT

• Unlawful aggression.
• Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it.
• Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself.
• Lack of intent on the part of the person defending himself.
• Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
• Justifying
• Mitigating
• Exempting
• Aggravating
• Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
• Liable for the crime of theft
• Liable for the crime of robbery
• Not liable for the crime of theft
• Not liable for the crime of robbery
• The following circumstances exempt a person from criminal liability though there is civil liability considering that
there is crime committed, EXCEPT:
• Minority
• Accident
• Imbecility/Insanity
• Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
• Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of an equal or greater injury.
• The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:
• Children 15 years of age below
• Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without discernment
• Insane persons or an imbecile persons
• Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with discernment.
• Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon commission of a crime?
• Those 15 years of age and below
• Those who are 18 years of age and above
• Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age
• Those who are 18 years of age
• Are those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty
imposed.
• Justifying circumstances
• Mitigating circumstances
• Absolutory cause
• Exempting circumstances
• X was charged before the court. During the pendency of his trial he died. What would be the effect of his death
on the case involved and on his criminal liability?
• The criminal case will be dismissed ad his criminal liability is extinguished.
• The criminal case will proceed and his criminal liability is not extinguished.
• The criminal case will be archived to wait for his resurrection.
• Actually there will be no effect at all because his relatives will be the one to face trial and punished in
case of his conviction.
• Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause.
• Spontaneous desistance
• Accessories who are exempt from criminal liability by reason of relationship
• Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical injuries under exceptional circumstances
• Person exempt from criminal liability for theft swindling and malicious mischief by relationship to the
offended party
• An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism.
• generic
• specific
• qualifying
• Inherent
• C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape
is committed aggravated by what circumstances?
• ignominy
• passion
• cruelty
• Craft
• Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for past offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a
single individual and is usually granted to certain classes of persons usually political offenders, who are subject
to trial but not yet convicted.
• Pardon
• Commutation
• Parole
• Amnesty
• The law which prohibits the imposition of the death penalty?
• RA 6981
• P.D. 968
• R.A. 9346
• R.A. 4103
• How do you call an offender who within a period of ten (10) years from the date of his release or last conviction
of the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification is found guilty of
any of the said crimes a third time or offener?
• Recidivist
• Quasi recidivist
• Reiteration
• habitual delinquent
• The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of alternative circumstances, except:
• Low degree education
• Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
• Relationship in crimes against property
• Relationship in crimes against persons
• Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
• principals
• accessories
• accomplice
• instigators
• A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is regarded as:
• principal by direct participation
• principal by indispensable cooperation
• principal by induction
• instigators
• The desire or wish in common thing
• intent
• motive
• conspire
• cooperate
• A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the murder of another person is liable as:
• principal
• accessory
• accomplice
• conspirator
• Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property to meet the fine.
• subsidiary penalty
• suspension
• penalty
• d.civil interdiction
• In cases where in the commission of an offense is necessary in the commission of another it is said the crime is:
• formal crime
• informal crime
• compound crime
• complex crime
• An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of penalties.
• degree
• period
• prescription
• duration
• A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined by law subject to the termination by the parole
board at any time after service of the sentence.
• Suspension
• indeterminate sentence
• prescription
• period of penalty
• The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall prescribe in how many years?
• 15 years
• 1year
• 10 years
• 5 years
• Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal shall prescribe in:
• 20 years
• 15 years
• 10 years
• 5 years
• Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe in how many years?
• 20 years
• 15 years
• 10 years
• 5 years
• Light offenses prescribe in:
• 12 months
• 6 months
• 4 months
• 2 months
• A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this week”. A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B
and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is concerned, the crime committed by A is:
• Attempted murder
• frustrated murder
• all of these
• In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is:
• frustrated homicide
• murder
• consummated homicide
• none of the above
• X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide (consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion Perpetua.
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. Determine his penalty.

• Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as the maximum
period of the indeterminate penalty.
• Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to Reclusion temporal (any period) as the maximum period of the
indeterminate penalty
• Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to reclusion perpetua as maximum
• Prision mayor
• X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated) punishable by prision correctional. There was one
aggravating circumstances in the commission of the crime let us say “with the aid of armed men”. Fix his penalty.
• Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to Prision correctional (maximum period) as maximum period of
the indeterminate penalty.
• Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to Prision correctional (any period) as maximum period of
the indeterminate penalty
• Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as maximum period
• None of the above
• Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

a.15-18 years old
b.18-70 years old
c.9 years old and below
d.between 9 and 15 years old
• Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
a.Accomplices
b.Suspects
c.principal actors
d.accessories
• The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time
fixed by law.
a.prescription of crime
b.prescription of prosecution
c.prescription of judgment
d.prescription of penalty
• A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.

a.Pardon
b.commutation
c.amnesty
d.reprieve
• Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the
society.
a.mala prohibita
b.mala in se
c.private crimes
d.public crimes
• Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime.
a.gang
b.conspiracy
c.band
d.piracy
• The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
a.Negligence
b.imprudence
c.omission
d.act
• Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of his
criminal plan.
a.Misfeasance
b.entrapment
c.inducement
d.instigation
• The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:

• Children 15 years of age below
• Insane persons or Imbecile persons
• Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with discernment
• Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without discernment
• Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
• Justifying
• Exempting
• Mitigating
• Aggravating
• When a public officer convinces a person to commit a felony and would arrest him or her after its commission he
is committing.
• instigation
• entrapment
• conspiracy
• proposal
• It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES depending upon what the law provides and cannot be
offset by any aggravating circumstances.
• Mitigating Circumstances
• Exempting circumstances
• Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
• Privilege Mitigating circumstances
• Crimes are classified in various categories. What classifications of crime is when a single act results to or more
serious or less serious offenses.
• Continuing Crime
• Complex crime or delito complejo
• Special complex crime
• Compound crime or delito compuesto
• Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan,
Mr. Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for vacation and the only way to reach the island is to
ride a boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton, the owner of the only boat that can be rented to reach
the island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher price.
Mr. Dellinger successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R. Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested
the service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s Pitts Body in exchange for thousand of pesos.
What was the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger?
• Homicide
• Murder
• Parricide
• Manslaughter
• What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton?
• Principal by direct participation
• Principal by induction
• Principal by indispensable cooperation
• Accomplice
• What about Mr. C. Goddard?
• Principal
• Accomplice
• Accessory
• What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?

• Principal
• Accomplice
• Accessory
• The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT?
• Obedience to a lawful order
• Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or performance of duty
• A person who acts under compulsion of an irresistible force
• Avoidance of greater evil or injury
• The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
EXCEPT:
• Seduction
• Rape
• Abduction
• Acts of Lasciviousness
• What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal property belonging to another is committed with grave
abuse of confidence?
• Robbery
• Qualified Theft
• Theft
• Burglary
• What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of murder with the use of unlicensed firearm?
• Murder
• Illegal Possession of firearm
• Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
• Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
• If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a person in a manner that is determined and constant until
the lawful purpose is realize, the crime committed is:
• Threat
• Grave threat
• Coercions
• Light threat
• When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the offended party does not amount to a crime the designation of
the offense is called
• Threats
• Grave threats
• Light Threats
• Coercion
• A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved
the same is liable for:
• Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
• dissolution of peaceful meeting
• Interruption of peaceful meeting
• all of the choices.
• If a private person removes a person confined in jail or penal institution or helps in the escape of such person by
means of violence, intimidation, bribery or any other means, the crime committed is:
• Evasion of service of sentence
• Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
• Delivery of prison from jail
• corruption of public official
• Light offenses prescribe in:
• 12 months
• 4 months
• 6 months
• 2 months
• X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her, using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape
is committed aggravated by what circumstances?
• ignominy
• passion
• cruelty
• obstruction
• Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information relative to national defense with intent to be used to the
injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
• treason
• conspiracy to commit treason
• espionage
• misprision to treason
• To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in the
act of committing a felony punishable by penalties which are correctional in nature must be delivered to said
authorities within how many hours?
• 12
• 36
• 18
• 48
• Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads are allowed under the following circumstance.
• Amendments as to substance
• Amendments as to form
• Amendments that change the nature of the offense
• None of these
• The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not apply in the following instances, EXCEPT.
• When the offended party waives the civil action
• When the offended party reserves the right to institute separate civil action
• When the offended party institute the criminal action
• When the offended party institute the civil action prior to the criminal action.
• The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action shall be made:
• Before the arraignment
• During the pre-trial conference
• Before the prosecution rest
• Before the prosecution present evidence
• The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the criminal case, EXCEPT:
• Motion for postponement
• Counter affidavit
• Counterclaim
• Third party complaint
• The petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action
may be filed with the following, EXCEPT one:
• The court where the civil action is pending
• The court where the criminal action is pending
• Office of the prosecutor
• None of these
• Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required before the filing of a complaint or information where the
penalty for the offense is:
• At least 6 years and 1 day
• At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
• 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
• Exceeding 6 years and one day
• The following may be submitted by the respondent in a preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
• Counter-affidavit
• Witness counter affidavit
• supporting documents
• The following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary investigation on cases falling within their jurisdiction,
EXCEPT:
• Provincial prosecutor
• City prosecutor
• Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
• Judges of Municipal trial court
• An offense which under the law existing at the time of its commission and of the application for admission to bail
may be punish with death is called:
• Capital punishment
• Heinous crime
• Capital Offense
• Grave offense
• The court may dismiss the case on the ground of insufficiency of evidence:
• On the motion of the accused filed with prior leave of court
• By its own initiative after giving the prosecution an opportunity to be heard
• On motion of the accused thru counsel
• A and B only
• Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben which was snatched from him three days ago. He
confronted the latter and force to get back said cell phone against his will. For what crime or crimes may Manuel
be liable for, if he will go to force to get back the same?
• Coercion
• Robbery
• Threats
• Theft
• The following statement are false, EXCEPT:

• The accused may enter his plea by counsel
• The accused must personally enter his plea
• The accused must excused/waived arraignment
• The accused may be arraigned in a court other than where the case is assigned.
• Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense and the evidence of guilt is strong.
• Absolutely true
• Absolutely false
• Partly true
• Partly false
• Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under the custody of the law. It should be made at:
• Anytime of the day
• anytime of the day and night
• Anytime of the morning
• d. anytime of the night
• It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with kettles, his horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy:
• Charivari
• Grave scandal
• Alarm and Scandal
• Harana
• The application for search warrant may be filed with the following, EXCEPT:
• Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a crime was committed.
• Any court within the judicial region where the crime was committed
• Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
• Any Court Within judicial region where the warrant shall be enforced
• An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first level court shall be by:
• Notice of appeal
• by Petition for review
• Petition for review on certiorari
• Petition for certiorari
• After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be dismiss due to insufficiency of evidence by:
• The courts own initiative
• By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer to evidence
• By the prosecution on its own initiative
• a and b only
• Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the escape of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his
jail guard to leave the door unlocked so as to facilitate the escape of Mr. Chan. The guard leaves the door
unlocked and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime was committed by the Warden?
• Direct Bribery
• Delivery of prison from jail
• corruption of public official
• What Crime can be charged against the guard who connives with the prisoner?
• Conniving with or consenting to evasion
• Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
• Delivering prisoner from jail
• A and B
• A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral or indecent advances to a woman who is under his
custody or wife or daughter of the person under his custody shall be liable for:
• Acts of lasciviousness
• Abuses against Chastity
• Indirect Bribery
• infidelity in the custody of prisoners
• Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence which means that evidence must have such
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The other requisite is
____________?
• That is should not be excluded for by law.
• That it is material to the facts in issue
• That it is credible
• That it is the best evidence
• Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
• When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or improbability of the fact in issue.
• When it is competent
• When it is credible
• When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue based on other related evidence.
• Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a person will not be admissible in court. This is
anchored on what requisites of admissibility?
• materiality
• competency
• relevancy
• credibility
• It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the trier of facts because of its logical connection with the
issue. Evidence which has an effective influence or bearing to the question?
• material
• relevant
• competent
• credible
• The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become permanent
________ after issuance of the order without the case having been revived.
• One year
• six months
• Two years
• three years
• 30 days
• 20 days
• 15 days
• 60 days
• How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
• 15 days
• 30 days
• 20 days
• 180 days
• The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial Court is called?
• R.A. 7691
• R.A. 3019
• R.A. 8493
• B.P. 129
• Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of
• Complaint
• Information
• Pleadings
• Affidavit
• Prescription of offense commence to run:
• Upon filing of cases in court
• Upon escape of the accused
• Upon re-appearance of the accuse
• The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure EXCEPT:

• Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
• Violation of traffic laws
• Violation of rental laws
• Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6) months imprisonment
• Counsel de officio
• counsel de parte
• Public Attorney’s Office
• National Prosecution Office
• subpoena
• subpoena duces tecum
• subpoena ad testificandum
• warrant of arrest
• The order of trial is:
• Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
• Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross
• Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct
• Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal.
• Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative device to
assist him in testimony.
• Testimonial aids
• Emotional security items
• support item
• none of these
• It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of examination of a child, if the same will further the
interest of justice.
• leading questions
• misleading
• relevant
• narrative
• Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
• Matters of Public Knowledge
• The measure of time
• Law of nations
• Law of nature
• Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise of its discretion, EXCEPT.
• The geographical divisions
• Matter which are of public knowledge;
• Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
• Matter ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions.
• Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. These requisites are:
• The matter must be one of common and general knowledge.
• It must be well and authoritatively settled and not doubtful or uncertain
• It must be known to be within the limits of the jurisdiction of the court.
• Self incriminatory statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course of the
proceeding in the same case which does not require proof.
• Admission
• self serving statement
• declaration against interest
• confession
• When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
documents itself. This refers to the _____.
• Best Evidence Rule
• Secondary Evidence Rule
• Parol Evidence Rule
• Best Evidence
• What are secondary evidence?

• Certified true COPY of a document
• A recital of its contents in some authentic document
• Testimony of witnesses
• When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is considered as containing all the terms
agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties and their successors in interest, no evidence of such
terms other than the contents of the agreement.
• Parol evidence Rule

• b. parol evidence
• Secondary Evidence
• As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving, can make known of their perception to others can be
witness and the following shall not be a ground for disqualification.
• Religious and political belief
• Interest in the outcome of the case
• conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided by law
• An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and Benefit program and for other purposes.
• R.A. 6981
• R.A. 6646
• P.D.749
• R.A. 6770
• No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct
descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
• Parental and filial privilege.
• declaration against pedigree
• declaration against common reputation
• res inter alois acta rule
•
• An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any liability and is not admissible in evidence against
the offeror on the following case, EXCEPT.
• In civil cases
• Those arising from criminal negligence
• An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other expenses occasioned by an injury.
• In criminal cases
• A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of a plea of guilty to a lesser offense is_____?
• not admissible in evidence against the accused who made the plea of offer.
• admissible in evidence against the accused who made the plea of offer
• shall not be considered an plea
• will be considered a plea of not guilty
• The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of another, except as provided by
the rules of court.
• Res inter alios acta rule
• admission by co-partner
• admission by co-conspirator
• admission by silence of a person for not doing or saying anything when an act or declaration is said
against him in his presence.
• The following are the requirements in determining child’s competency as a witness EXCEPT:
• capacity of Observation
• capacity of Recollection
• capacity of Communication
• capacity to Comprehend
• Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made by several person charged with the same offense and
without the possibility of collision among them, the fact that the statements are in all respects identical is
confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and are admissible against the other persons implicated
therein.
• interlocking confessions
• res inter alios acta rule
• admission by privies
• confession by co-defendant
• An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party who does or says
nothing when the act or declaration is such as to call for action or comment if not true, and when proper and
possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence against him.
• confession
• admission by co-conspirator
• admission by privies
• Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule?
• That a witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal knowledge; that ism which
are derived from his own perception.
• hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence in court
• Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the authority of another person.
• hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to facts of which the witness has no personal knowledge
because it is derived from the knowledge or perception of others who are not called to testify.
• The declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness of an impending death, may be received in
any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of
such death.
• Dying declaration
• res gestae
• declaration about pedigree
• Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by
the amount of evidence required by law.
• burden of evidence
• burden of proof
• proof of evidence
• cause of action
• A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia anchored at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national
was caught in possession of Cocaine. What rule provides that a crime committed while on board of the vessel.
• French rule
• American Rule
• Spanish Rule
• English Rule
• Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or guardianship.
• subsidiary penalty
• penalty
• suspension
• civil interdiction
• It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual relationship to a married man. This statement is?
a. True
b. false
c. It depends
d. Partly false
• The following are considered afflictive penalties, except:
• death by lethal injection
• reclusion perpetua
• reclusion temporal
• prison mayor
• It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual relationship to a married woman.
This statement is?
a. True
b. false
c. It depends
• Partly false
• A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
a.documentary evidence
b.testimonial evidence
c.material evidence
d.real evidence
• When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a.positive evidence
b.corroborative evidence
c.secondary evidence
d.negative evidence
• The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial.
a.ex post facto law
b.equal protection of the law
c.rule of law
d.due process of law
• It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended.
• Aberratio ictus
• Error in personae
• Dura Lex Sed lex
• Praeter Intentionem
• If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall be entered.
• Not guilty
• guilty
• none
• When reception of evidence is necessary under the following circumstances:
• Plea of guilty to lesser offense
• plea of guilty to capital offense
• Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
• all of these
• When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint or
information and the details desired in order to enable him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is
known as:
• motion for bill of particular
• motion for clarification
• motion to dismiss
• motion for postponement
• Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be suspended on the following grounds:
• The accused appears to be suffering from unsound mental condition.
• There exist a prejudicial question.
• c. A petition for review of the resolution of the prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office of the
President .
• A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused is:
• Motion to quash
• Nolle pro sequi
• bill of particulars
• It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the commission of the offense.
• Prescription of crime
• acquisitive
• prescription of penalty
• extinctive
• It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the
second time.
• double jeopardy
• double trial
• double trouble
• double counter
• Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any amount or
both shall become permanent after ____.
• one year
• 2 years
• 5 years
• 4 years
• 30 days
• 15 days
• 20 days
• 60 days
• How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
• 15 days
• 20 days
• 30 days
• 180 days
• Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the following officers are authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation except?
• Provincial and City Prosecutor
• Judge MTC/MCTC
• Regional State Prosecutor
• Public Attorney’s office
• b and d
• A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties
of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
• R.A. 7438
• R.A. 7348
• R.A. 7834
• R.A. 3478
• Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
principle also known as:
• rights against illegal arrest
• the right to presume innocent
• rights against self- incrimination
• right to live
• Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following pleading are prohibited except:
• motion to quash
• bill of particular
• answer
• demurred to evidence
• The following cases committed by public official with salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
• Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two of the
RPC
• Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 14-A.
• Crimes committed by public official in relation to their office.
• Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be
separated?
• When the offended party waives the civil action;
• When the offended party reserves his right to institute the civil action;
• When the institution of the civil action is made prior to the criminal action.
• Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were
surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for government projects and for their relocation. The residents
oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor Alden when the latter came
near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well.
For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Alden?
• Sedition
• Slander by Deeds
• Direct Assault
• Rebellion
• The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:

• The assault is committed with a weapon
• The offender is a public officer or employee

• The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
• The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in authority
• It should be noted that the assault should be mad without public uprising.
• Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some court or
government corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
• Agent of a person in authority
• Judicial authority
• person in authority
• Public employee
• It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
person, while engaged in the performance of official functions.
• Direct assault
• Indirect Assault
• Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly

• Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or the agents of such person
• The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.
• Tumults and other disturbances of public order
• Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful utterances
• Alarms and scandals
• Delivering prisoners form Jails
• Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in the air to proclaim to the people that he is
celebrating his birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
• alarm & scandals
• disturbances
• outcry
• Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced prisoner), gave 20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow the
escape of her brother is guilty of what crime?
• delivering prisoners from jail
• Bribery
• Corruption of public official
• The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of service of sentence.

• By means of unlawful entry
• By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
• By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, violence or intimidation.
• Through connivance with other convicts or employees of the penal institution.

• 30 days
• 20 days
• 15 days
• 60 days
• How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
• 15 days
• 30 days
• 20 days
• 180 days
• Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
a.Parents
b.Offended Spouse
c.Guardians
d.God father
• Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty
imposed.
a.impossible crimes
b.aggravating circumstances
c.absolutory causes
d.complex crimes
• An act which would be an offense against persons or property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its
accomplishment.
a.compound crime
b.impossible crime
c.complex crime
d.accidental crime
• The law which re-imposed the death penalty.
a.RA 5425
b.RA 8553
c.RA 7659
d.RA 9346
• The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author
a.responsibility
b.duty
c.guilt
d.imputability
• Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through some acts of our will,
lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
a.fortuitous event
b.fate
c.accident
d.destiny
• Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages and rules of action which are not
recognized in our country.
a.penal laws
b.special laws
c.common laws
d.statutory laws
• Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that would make
an act. Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability
a.Exempting
b.alternative
c.justifying
d.aggravating
• Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal
and civil liability.
a.exempting
b.alternative
c.justifying
d.aggravating
• When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
a.Ignominy
b.cruelty
c.treachery
d.masochism
• One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another
crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
a.Recidivism
b.habitual delinquency
c.reiteracion
d.quasi-recidivism
• Alevosia means
a. Craft
b. treachery
c. evident premeditation
d. cruelty
a. ex post facto law
b. equal protection of the law
c. rule of law
d. due process of law
• A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or
less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a
third time or oftener.
a. Recidivist
b. quasi-recidivist
c. habitual delinquent
d. hardened criminal
a. Aberratio ictus
b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
• It means mistake in the blow.

a. Aberratio Ictus
b. Error in Personae
c. Dura lex sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
• A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.
a. Attempted
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated
d. Accomplished
• An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
a. Absolutory Cause
b. Mistake of facts
c. Conspiracy
d. Felony
• It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of
fact?
• Evidence
• Facts
• Proof
• Burden of proof
• It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause
of action?
• Factum probandum
• Evidence
• factum probans
• proof
• The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as otherwise provided by law or these rules.
• the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
• not the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
• dependent on the type of case involved
• absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings
• Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence which means that evidence must have such
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The other requisite is ____?
• That it should not be excluded for by law
• That it is material to the facts in issue
• That it is credible
• That it is the best evidence
• Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
• When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or improbability of the fact in issue.
• When it is competent
• When it is credible
• When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue based on other related evidence
• Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a person will not be admissible in court. This is
anchored on what requisites of admissibility?
• a. materiality
• relevancy
• competency
• credibility
• Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or know of the factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
• negative
• affirmative
• positive
• Alibi
• An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove the same facts in issue. Evidence which are
supplementary to that already given and tending to strengthen or confirm it.
• Corroborative
• Associative
• Commulative
• Credible
• Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the logical and inevitable result of the evidence on
record, exclusive of any other consideration, of the moral certainty of the guilt of the accused or that degree of
proof which produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind.

• Clear and Convincing Evidence
• Substantial evidence
• It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to
establish the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions of innocence to warrant a conviction.
• Prima-facie evidence
• Rebuttal evidence
• Sur-rebuttal evidence
• Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
• Matters of Public Knowledge
• Law of nation
• The measure of time
• Law of nature
• Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of its discretion, EXCEPT:
• The geographical divisions
• Matter which are of public knowledge
• Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
• Matter ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions.
• When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request of a party, may take judicial notice of any matter and
allow the parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of a material issue in the case?
• after the trial
• before judgment
• on appeal
• Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course of the
proceeding in the same case which does not require proof.
• Admission
• self-serving statement
• Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the court.
• Real or Object
• Testimonial
• Documentary
• Direct
• When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
documents itself. This refers to the ___.
• Parole Evidence Rule
• Best Evidence
• What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
• When the original has been lost or destroyed orunder cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on
the part of the offeror;
• When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party against whom the evidence is
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after reasonable notice;
• When the original consist of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot be examined in court
without great loss of time and the fact sought to be established from them is only the general result of
the whole; and
• When the original is a public record in the custody of the public officer or is recorded in a public office.
• When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof
of its execution or existence and the cause of its unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its
contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents in some authentic document or by the testimony of witnesses in
the order stated.
• When secondary evidence is allowed?
• When the original has been lost, destroyed or cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on the part
of the offeror;
• When the original is under the custody or under the control of the party against whom the evidence is
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after reasonable notice;
• When the original consist of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot be examined in court
without great loss of time and the fact sought to be established from them is only the general result of
the whole; and
• When the original is a public record in the custody of a public officer or is recorded in a public office
• What are secondary evidence?
• A Certified True COPY of a document
• A recital of its contents in some authentic document
• Testimony of witnesses
• When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to writing, it is considered as containing all the terms
agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties and their successors in interest, no evidence of such
terms other than the contents of the agreement.
• Parol Evidence Rule
• Parol Evidence
• It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a party presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to
the terms of the written agreement.
• Parol Evidence
• Best Evidence
• On which of the following circumstances parol evidence can be accepted?
• When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the written agreement;
• The fulfillment of the written agreement to express the true intent and agreement of the parties thereto;
• The validity of the written agreement;
• The existence of other terms agreed to by the parties or their successors in interest after the execution
of the written agreement.
• The following are qualifications for discharged of a person to be state witness.
• There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the accused whose discharge is requested;
• There is no other direct evidence available for the proper prosecution for the offense committed except
the testimony of said accused;
• The testimony of said accused can be substantially corroborated in its material points;
• Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
• Said accused has not at any time been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude;
• R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank
deposits are absolutely confidential in nature and may not examined or inquired or looked into by any person or
government officials, EXCEPT:
• upon written permission of the depositor
• in cases of impeachment
• upon order of competent court in cases of briber, dereliction of duty of public officials
• in case where the money deposited or invested is the subject matter of litigation
• in cases of well explained wealth
• No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct
descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
• Parental and filial privilege
• declaration against pedigree
• declaration against common reputation
• declaration against Parental relationship
• An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any liability and is not admissible in evidence against
the offeror on the following case, EXCEPT:
• In civil cases
• Those arising from criminal negligence
• An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other expenses occasioned by an injury
• In criminal cases
• It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d. Cumulative evidence
• It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
a.secondary evidence
b.prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d.best evidence
• A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
a.documentary evidence
b.testimonial evidence
c.material evidence
d.real evidence
• When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
• positive evidence
• corroborative evidence
• secondary evidence
• negative evidence
a.ex post facto law
b.equal protection of the law
c.rule of law
d.due process of law
• The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved on?
• January 1, 1923
• January 1, 1932
• December 8, 1930
• January 1, 1933
• Aberratio ictus
• Error in personae
• Dura Lex Sed lex
• Praeter Intentionem
• Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their punishment?
• Act 3815
• Criminal Law
• Revised Penal Code
• Criminal Procedure
• Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious
affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by:
• Treaty Stipulation
• Public International Law
• Law of Preferential Application
• By Principles of Public International law, the following enjoin immunity from the application of the Philippine
Criminal law, EXCEPT:
• Consul
• Heads of State
• Ambassador
• d. Minister de affaires
• Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or forbidding it:
• Crimes
• Felonies
• Offense
• Infractions of law
• Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal liability is human free will, the purpose of punishment is
retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised Penal Code.
• Eclectic
• Classical Theory
• Positivist Theory
• Neo-Classical Theory
• The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial jurisdiction which generally follows the Nationality
Principle and not the Domiciliary Principle except when the crime committed on board vessels affects the
national security of the Country where such vessel is located.
• French Rule
• English Rule
• Spanish Rule
• Greek Rule
• A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a
judicial determination of guilt.
• Ex post facto law
• Retroactivity
• Bill of attainder
• Prospective
• Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of Dolo or Deceit?
• Intent
• Freedom
• Intelligence
• Negligence
• These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself but the doer is found to have transgress the law for act
which it prohibits.
• Crime
• Felonies
• Mala in se
• Mala Prohibita
• Is that act performed which would be an offense against persons or property where it not for the inherent or legal
impossibility of its accomplishment.
• Mala in se
• mala prohibita
• Impossible crime
• Formal crimes
• It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and not an essential element of a crime but would tend to
establish the identity of the perpetrator.
• Intent
• Motive
• Negligence
• ignorance
• The following are causes which would produce criminal liability though the result be different from what is
intended, EXCEPT:
a.Abberatio ictus
b.Error in Personae
c.Preater intentionem
d.Ignorantia Facti
• The offender performs all the acts of execution that would produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is
not produced by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator.
• Attempted
• Consummated
• Frustrated
• Formal Crimes
• Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.

a.formal crimes
b.formal felonies
c.informal crimes
d.material crimes
• It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement to commit a felony and decide to commit it.
• Proposal
• Conspiracy
• A&B
• Cuadrilla
• A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the
service of his sentence during calamity, gives himself up to the authorities within 48 hours following the issuance
of a proclamation announcing the passing away of the calamity.
• Good Conduct Time Allowance
• Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
• Executive Clemency
• Indeterminate Sentence
• The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of certain time.
• Prescription of Crime
• Prescription of Penalty
• Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
• Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the commission of crime
• The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute the offender after the lapse of certain time.
• Prescription of Crime
• Prescription of Penalty
• Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
• Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the commission of crime
• It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
• Parole
• Pardon
• Probation
• Amnesty
• Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the Parole Law.
• Act No. 4103 as amended
• RA No. 4103 as amended
• RA No. 4225 as amended
• PD No. 968 as amended
• What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59)
• Arresto Menor
• Arresto Mayor
• Prision Correctional
• Prision Mayor
• It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s sentence shall not be more than 3 times the length of the most
severe of the penalties imposed upon him but in no case to exceed 40 years.
• Three-fold rule
• Three-fold liability rule
• Four-fold rule
• Four-fold liability rule
• In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve the same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day
of subsidiary imprisonment.
• Php 8.00
• Php 12.00
• Php 35. 00
• Highest minimum wage existing in the country
• It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of Court to be assessed against or to be recovered by a party
in litigation.
• Costs
• Fine
• Damages
• Civil liability
• Who may grant pardon?
• The President
• The private offended party
• The accused
• The People of the Philippines
• If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted
prisoners, the credited preventive imprisonment is
• Fulltime credit
• 4/5 credit
• 2/3 credit
• 1/5 credit
• Period of detention undergone by an accused where the crime with which he is charged is non‐bailable or, even
if bailable, he is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39)
• Solitary confinement
• Preventive imprisonment
• Inmate incarceration
• Suppressive Detention
• A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of parental authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority; (3)
The right to manage his property; and (4) The right to dispose of such property by any act or any conveyance
inter vivos.
• Absolute disqualification
• Temporary disqualification
• Bond to keep the peace
• Civil interdiction
• It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a certain place and is prohibited from entering or coming
near that place designated in the sentence, not less than 25 kilometers but not to extend beyond 250 kilometers.
• Transportation
• Deportation
• Destierro
• Extradition
• Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except:

• Capital
• Afflictive
• Correctional
• Slight
• Light
• Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the imposition of penalty:
a. Retribution or expiation
b. Correction or reformation
c. Social defense
d. Public Rataliation
• The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a person who commits a deliberate or negligent act which is
against the law.
• Penalty
• Ordeal
• Fine
• Imprisonment
• Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from criminal liability, EXCEPT:
• Natural brother/ sister
• Legitimate brother/ sister
• Adopted brother/ sister
• Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
• Brother in a fraternity
• One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the principals by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the
execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts, with the intention of supplying material or moral aid in
the execution of the crime in an efficacious way.
• Principal by inducement
• Accomplice
• Accessory
• Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears at the crime scene and performs acts necessary in the
commission of the crime.
• Principal by inducement/ induction
• Principal by direct participation
• Principal by conspiracy
• Who are criminally liable?

• Principals
• Accomplices
• Accessories
• Those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and effects of
the crime and the other conditions attending its commission.
• Extenuating
• Mitigating
• Alternative
• Aggravating
• It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to
injury or adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. It shocks the moral conscience of man.
• Cruelty
• Ignominy
• Outraging
• Scoffing
• Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex object, also forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is A
committed crime of Violence Against Women and Their Children?
• Maybe NO
• Yes
• No
• Maybe YES
• The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing information respecting the national defense with intent, or there
is reason to believe that information is to be used to the injury of the Republic of the Philippines or to the
advantage of any foreign nation.
• Treason
• Rebellion
• Espionage
• Mutiny
• Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are punishable under
• BP No. 616
• PD No. 616
• CA No. 616
• RA No. 616
• Committed when two countries are at war of which the Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the
regulation issued by the government enforcing neutrality.
• Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
• Correspondence with hostile country
• Flight to enemy’s country
• A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy country despite government prohibition is liable of this
crime.
• Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
• Correspondence with hostile country
• Flight to enemy’s country
• Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit
and intention of universal hostility.
• Mutiny
• Piracy
• Sea-jacking
• Hi-jacking
• The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a
widespread and extra-ordinary fear and panic among the populace. They demanded from the government to
release all prisoners entire the country for them to stop raping. Are they liable for terrorism?
• Yes
• No
• Doubtful
• No answer
• Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary detention?
• Detaining a person without legal ground
• Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper authorities
• Delaying release
• Illegal Detention
• A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who detains a person without legal ground.
• No crime
• A crime committed by a private individual who detains a person without legal ground.
• Committed by a public officer who detains a person for some legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the
proper authority w/n the prescribed time.
• A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays the release of a person in his custody in spite of a
judicial/ executive order to release him.
• A public officer who without authority compels a person to change his residence is guilty of
• Grave Coercion
• Grave Threat
• Expulsion
• A public officer who procures a search warrant without just cause is liable of
• Abuse in the service of search warrant
• Warrant maliciously obtained
• Searching domicile without witnesses
• An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a
peace officer, commanding him to SEARCH for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
• Warrant of Arrest
• Search Warrant
• Subpoena
• Summons
• In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to
be highly
• Accepted
• Determinate
• Sensitive
• Unreliable
• To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-
prisoner?
• Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
• Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
• Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
• Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
• What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
• Codigo Penal
• Code of Kalantiao
• Code of Hammurabi
• Maragtas Code
• How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
• Liberally in favor of the government
• Liberally in favor of the offended party
• Liberally in favor of the accused
• Liberally in favor of the innocent
• Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus requires the highest condemnation of the society.
• Crimes mala prohibita
• Crimes mala in se
• Crimes supersedeas
• Crimes flagrante delicto
• This rulerecognizes that the host country has jurisdiction over crimes committed on board the vessel unless they
involve the internal management of the vessel.
• American Rule
• English Rule
• French Rule
• Filipino Rule
• Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and impartial attorneys that may be invited by the court to appear
as amicus curiae’
• Champertous contract
• Amicus curiae
• Amicus curiea
• Champertuos contract
• A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses of litigation in return for the agreement of the client to
pay the lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be won or recovered in the trial or litigation. This is
unethical for the lawyer and hence illegal.
• Champertous contract
• Amicus curiae
• Amicus curiea
• Champertuos contract
• The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts based on the same cause of action. This is not allowed and
is a ground for dismissal of the case filed by the guilty party.
• contempt
• forum shipping
• forum shopping
• direct contempt
• It is a small ceremonial mallet commonly made of hardwood, and a symbol of the authority and right to act officially
in the capacity of a chair or presiding officer.
a. Gavel
b. Hammer
c. Wood hammer
• The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code of all judges and it is called as.
a. Black robes
b. Black toga
c. Black dress
d.White robes
• It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a particular day usually placed or posted outside the
courtroom.
a. Court calendar
b. Supreme Court calendar
c. School calendar
d. Schedule calendar
• Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court or judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings before
it.
a. contempt
b. direct contempt
c. indirect contempt
d. disobedience
• A-2 in Intelligence report means?

a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by other sources
b. completely reliable source and is
Probably true
c. completely reliable source and is
Usually reliable
d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by other sources
• Seeing ahead and making sound assumption?
a. prioritizing
b. foretelling
c. forecasting
d. documenting
• This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest of criminal syndicate member?
a. investigation
b. intelligence
c. crime search
d. patrol
• Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get information and would be managed to get back?
a. mercenary
b. none
c. penetration
d. assassin
• Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
a. trumpet
b. siren
c. horn
d. radio
• The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is called?
a. tear down
b. eviction
c. squadron
d. demolition
• H refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the national economy and security?
a. risk analysis
b. relative critically
c. risk assessment
d. relative vulnerability
• There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in 2011. What was the percent increase?
a. +27.3%
b. +23.7%
c. +37.2%
d. +32.7%
• In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
• The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy or security:
a. Relative security
b. Relative necessity
c. Relative criticality
d. Relative vulnerability
• These are the major courses of action that the organization plans to take in order to achieve its objectives.
• Procedures
• Strategies
• Plans
• Objectives
• In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but they offer advice. Frequently this advice is based on
the high level of expertise, but the advice carries no formal requirement of acceptance.
• Democracy
• Functional authority
• Line authority
• Staff authority
• The __________ means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of command from top to
bottom organization.
• Audit
• Coordination
• Monitoring
• Authority
• PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available information concerning the activities of the Red Scorpion
Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the police?
• anti – juvenile delinquency
• criminal investigation
• intelligence operations
• patrol activities
• Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
a. promote better police-citizen interaction
b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report writing
c. improve administration efficiency particularly in recruitment and selection
• increase the number of arrests of criminal syndicate members
• PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is possibly true
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true
• PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is possibly true
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true
• Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551?
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of service.
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified by the appropriate government agency.
c.Government employees wishing to transfer to the PNP
d.Graduates of Criminology
• Plans which require action or assistance from persons or agencies outside the police organization.
a. management plans
b. operational plans
c. tactical plans
d. extra-department plan
• Protection of classified document concerning their preparation, classification, reproduction, handling,
transmission, disposal and destruction.
• document security
• operational security
• physical security
• organizational security
• What is the system of natural or man-made barriers placed between the potential intruder and the objects,
persons and matters being protected?
• document security
• communications security
• physical security
• personnel security
• Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of operation used in the planning and objects, persons and
matters being protected?
a. military intelligence
b. strategic intelligence
c. combat intelligence
d. counter-intelligence
• The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to date
information about crime and criminals. This calls for the establishment of:
a. patrol base headquarters
b. crime information center
c. management information center
d. public information office
• Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to ________ on the entire police organization, community,
crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc.
a. costs
b. data
c. plans
d. statement
• New employees should be briefed on security rules and regulations of the organization and the importance of
observing them. This process is called:
a. security information
b. security reminders
c. security orientation
d. security investigation
• What plans require action or assistance from persons or agencies outside the police organization?
a. tactical plan
b. extra department plan
c. management plan
d. all of these
• This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear for the
would be violators.
a. double-officer patrol
b. single-officer patrol
c. low visibility patrol
d. high visibility patrol
• The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called _______?
a. oxidation
b. convection
c. conduction
d. radiation
• How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and
little chance of detection?
a. systematic pilferer
b. ordinary pilferer
c. casual pilferer
d. unusual pilferer
• An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional Appellate Board shall be decided within ______ days from receipt of
the nation appeal.
a. fifty
b. twenty
c. thirty
d. sixty
• In the intelligence functions, the black list includes ________ forces.
a. unwanted
b. friendly
c .neutral
d. unfriendly
• The first step in the planning process is to recognize the need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way to
discovering the need to plan?
a. conduct of research
b. conduct of training
c. conduct of inspection
d. conduct of management audit
• The special formations used in crowd control include the wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a crowd is
small enough not to require a squad, then the formation is:
a. diagonal
b. wedge
c. deployed line
d. clockwise
• 634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly controls two to ten subordinates, who then control two to
ten subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the organization is reached.
a. scalar principle
b. exception principle
c. unity of command
d. span of control
• What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
a. information comes from an unreliable source and is probably true
b. information comes from a fairly reliable source and is confirmed by other sources
c. information comes from an unreliable source and is improbable
d.information comes from an unreliable source and is doubtfully true
• Under physical security, what should be placed between the prospective intruder and target installation?
a. Hazard
b. Net
c. Risk
d. Barrier
• Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does he meet the age requirement for entry to the police service
in June 1999?
a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the age requirement
c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age requirement
• A police officer who manages a police station must use all of the following skills, EXCEPT.
a. conceptual
b. technical
c. interpersonal
d. communication
• The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
a. formulation of details of the plan
b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
d. gathering and analysis of data
• In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
• These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence in order to increase physical protection of establishment or
installations.
a. top tower
b. top guard
c. cellar guard
d. tower guard house
• What is the next planning step after the need to plan is recognized?
a. evaluate alternatives
b. formulate the objective
c. execute the plan
d. analyze the data
• This type of patrol performs certain specific, predetermined preventive strategies in a regular and systematic
basis.
a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. split-force patrol
d. directed deterrent patrol
• Among the following applicants for appointment to the police service, who may be automatically granted height
waiver?
a. government employees wishing to transfer to the PNP
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by the appropriate government agency
c. police retirables requesting for extension of service
d. graduate of criminology
• The following changes must be made in police operating procedures if the investigative skills of patrol personnel
are to be employed to their fullest advantage EXCEPT.
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol officers simply make a brief report and return to patrol
duties rather than complete their investigations
b. patrol officers should be better trained and equipped to conduct routine investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote more time to the investigation of crimes to which they
respond
d. the patrol supervision should be able to provide the patrol officer with assistance in determining
whether a case has sufficient merit to warrant immediate follow-up investigation by the patrol officer
• The more complex the organization, the more highly specialized the division of work, the greater the need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
• The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that patrol officers perform certain specific, predetermined
preventive strategies on a regular and systematic basis.
a. low-visibility patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. split force patrol
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
• PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report only to one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of
_______________.
a. unity of command
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
d. report to immediate superior
• PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of amusement and entertainment known to be habitually visited by
his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III Alta’s undercover assignment is called.
a. multiple assignment
b. social assignment
c. work assignment
d. dwelling assignment
• Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. classified information must not be discussed by one friends and members of the family
b. classified information should be known only by one person
c. cabinets with classified documents must be secured with padlocks and security measures at all time
d. all classified documents must be safeguarded
• Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is usually known as:
a. force field analysis
b. Delphi technique
c. simulation model
d. forecasting
• These regulations establish the specifications of uniform and the manner in which they are to be worn:
a. personnel transaction regulations
b. firearms regulations
c. uniform regulations
d. equipment regulations
•
653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention
strategy.
a. police omnipresence
b. police effectiveness
c. police discretion
d. police authority
• Which of the following trait or ability is most important for a police officer?
a. personnel integrity and honesty
b. physical stamina and bearing
c. courageous
d .high intelligence
• In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to the Police Station of Municipality A. If the population of
Municipality is 5 Million, what is the crime rate?
a. 3509
b. 4010
c. 4250
d. 4009
• If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a result of the first investigation, a _________ report should
be submitted.
a. investigation report
b. case disposition report
c. follow-up report
d. crime report
• The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up for slightly inferior performance. More patrolmen are
then made available for emergency and the more active and widespread the patrol, the more apparent is their
presence, thus, promoting the impression of -
a. suspensions
b. effectiveness
c. omnipresence
d. efficiency
• What is the importance of a firm or installation in the relation to national security referred to?
a. relative security
b. relative necessity
c. relative criticality
• When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium, the method is called ____________.
a. radiation
b. oxidation
c. convection
d. conduction
• The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to attend meeting in Malacañang.
a. white list
b. black list
c. target list
d. access list
• The attestation function over police appointment is vested in the:
a. Civil Service Commission
b. National Police Commission
c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. Department of Interior and Local Government
• Selling security within the organization sets and maintains a climate of _______ to the appreciation of the
department’s objectives.
a. participation
b. clear
c. understanding
d. collaboration
• Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he meet the age requirement for entry to the police service
in June 2002?
a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age requirement
b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the age requirement
c. No, but he can apply for age waiver
d. Yes, he meets the maximum education requirement
• What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is “the information comes from a completely reliable source
and is probably true”?
a. B-2
b. A-2
c. A-3
d. A 1
• In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of a total crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the total crime
volume is attributed to physical injuries?
a. 18.7%
b. 20.7%
c. 25.7%
d. 4.8%
• SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information gathered as “completely reliable, source probably true”. What is
the type of evaluation?
a. A-5
b. A-1
c. A-4
d. A-2
• It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks are recognized and that established deterrents remain
necessary and cost effective.
a. inspection
b. interrogation
c. risk analysis
d. evaluation
• What type of patrol performs certain specific, predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and systematic
basis?
a. split-force patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. apprehension-oriented
d. directed deterrent patrol
• A patrol beat refers to a:
a. Number of crimes to be solved
b. Number of residents to be protected
c. Location of police headquarters
d. Geographical area to be patrolled
• It is importance of installation in relation to national security.
a. relative criticality
b. relative indispensability
c. relative security
• It is the formal process of choosing the organization mission and overall objective both the short and long term
as well as the divisional and individual objectives based on the organizational objectives.
a. planning
b. organizing
c. directing
d. managerial decision-making
• A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either wanted for
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a certain location.
a. stake out
b. cops and robbers game
c. follow up
d. surveillance
• How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol Division organized into shifts for each duty?
a. daily four-shift
b .daily five-shift
c. one shift-daily
d. daily three-shift
• The formulation of conclusions from the theory developed, tested and considered valid as a result of
interpretation is called.
a. collection
b. integration
c. evaluation
d. deduction
• In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If the total index crimes were 25,000, how many were
murder incidents?
a. 250
b. 2,500
c. 500
d. 5,000
• The more complex the organization, the more highly specialized the division of work, the greater the need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
• The following questions are tests for accuracy of information, EXCEPT:
a. Does the report agree or disagree with available and related intelligence?
b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance
c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus operandi?
d. Is the information about the target or area of the operation?
• Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To minimize
the disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security officer must prepare a:
a. guard deployment plan
b. security education plan
c. civil defense plan
d. disaster or emergency plan
• It involves segregation of deviants into isolated geographic areas so that they can easily be controlled.
a. Coercion
b. Quarantine
c. Conversion
d. Containment
• What management principle provides that only one officer be in direct command or supervision of each officer.
a. span control
b. unity of command
c. chain of command
d. line of authority
• What is referred to as total number of police officers assigned to patrol duties?
a. effective strength
b. mandatory strength
c. actual strength
d. authorized strength
• When police patrols are increased beyond normal levels, this is called ________?
a. reactive patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. citizen patrol
d. proactive patrol
• What is the method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or shadows the persons or vehicles?
a. Research
b. Surveillance
c. Casing
d. Photography
• Before a security expert can recommend what type of security will needed by an industrial establishment, there is
a need for him to undertake a :
a. security training
b. security check
c. security survey
d. security education
• When one procures information about subject secretly; he is performing _______ collection method.
a. routine
b. overt
c. active
d. covert
• Under this principle, each group reports to an individual who is part of a supervisory group that answers to a
higher supervisor and so on until a group of administrators report to the chief executive.
a. unity of command
b. span of control
c. scalar principle
d. aggregation
• Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern?
a. clockwise
b. zigzag
c. criss-cross
d. stationary
• To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong when they infiltrate and gather information about criminal
syndicates?
a. Budget
b. Planning
c. Intelligence
d. Patrol
• Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police personnel.
b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases of promotion.
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel.
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work performance of personnel.
• Line units such as the patrol section or investigation section in police stations prepare their work programs in
which areas are called ___.
a. Budget
b. Management
c. Operational plans
d. Tactical plan
• What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of actions of
foreign nations?
a. combat intelligence
b. national intelligence
c. police intelligence
d. strategic intelligence
• How are coded messages converted to intelligible language?
a. Encoding
b. Processing
c. Labeling
d. Decoding
• The type of undercover operation wherein techniques are applied for a longer time and are considered as the
most different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most rewarding.
a. casing
b. undercover operation
c. penetration
d. surveillance
• As Security Director of Company B, you should know how many beds, are normally available in a multiple injury
situation and how many ________ patients can be processed at a single time.
a. Wounded
b. Emergency
c. Female
d. Male
• A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is determined through a process called _________.
a. security training
b. security education
c. security promotion
d. security investigation
• 696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol
techniques?
a. decoy patrol
b. high visibility patrol
c. directed patrol
d. low visibility patrol
• What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a designated location and under specific circumstances?
a. management plans
b. tactical plans
c. operating plans
d. procedural plans
• What type of organization consciously coordinates the activities of two or more persons towards a given
objective?
a. flexible organization
b. formal organization
c. informal organization
d. non-flexible organization
• Who among the following meets the age qualification for appointment to the police service?
a. Rey who is 20 years old
b. Dennis who is 17 years old
c. John who is 22 years old
d. Santi who is 35 years old
• The covert observation of an area, a building or stationary object in order to gain information is called:
a. undercover works
b. penetration
c. casing
d. surveillance
• If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be from:
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be controlled
b. an explosion
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire
d. a toxic and irritant gas
• Which of the following is not included in the patrol function?
a. Response to citizen calls
b. Investigation of crimes
c. Routine preventive patrol
d. Inspection of identified hazards
• Disaster preparedness and control plans should include _______ so that people who are directly involved know
the extent of the incident.
a. evacuation services
b. identification services
c. counseling services
d. public information services
• An intelligence report classified as A-2 means__________.
a.the information comes from a completely reliable source and is doubtfully true
b.the information comes from a completely reliable source and is probably true
c.the information comes from a usually reliable source and is and is probably true.
d.the information comes from a usually reliable source and is possibly true
• It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by the plan?”
a. objectives
b. planning assumptions
c. problems
d. planning environment
• The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following organizational features, EXCEPT:
a. Unified delivery of services
b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
d. Unity of direction
• Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of the
following cannot be undertaken by them?
a. He can locate and question the suspect if he apprehends him.
b. He can identify available evidences.
c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow policemen.
• It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged in industries, like manufacturing, assembling,
research and development, processing, warehousing and even agriculture.
a. operational security
b. industrial security
c. physical security
d. special types
• It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned with the physical measures to prevent unauthorized
access.
a. operational security
c. physical security
d. special types
• Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by human action, accidental or
intentional.
a. security hazards
b. man-made hazard
c. natural hazard
d. all of the above
• Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused damage, disturbance and problems of the normal
functioning of human activities, including security.
a. security hazards
b. man-made hazard
c. natural hazard
d. all of the above
• It is the importance of the firm with reference to the national economy and security.
b. relative vulnerability
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
• One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away any of all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
a. pilferer
b. casual pilferer
c. systematic pilferer
d. intruder
• . A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of an installation to restrict or impede access thereto.
a. natural barrier
b. man-made barrier
c. perimeter barrier
d. physical security
• . It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with mesh openings not larger that two inches square, and
made or #9 gauge wire or heavier.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
• . It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the height is less than the prescribed, additional topping is
placed to attain the minimum height requirement.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
• . An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the perimeter barrier.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
• . He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security guards.
a. Chief, PNP
b. Mayor
c. Governor
d. Secretary, DILG
• . It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward with a
45 degree angle with three to four strand of barbed wire.
a. topping
b. top guard
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
• . Are house like structure above the perimeter barriers, it give psychological effect to violators.
a. guard towers
b. tower guards
c. guard house
d. guard post
• . A conference or dialogue between the survey team and management officials before security survey is
conducted.
a. pre- security survey
b. post- security survey
c. entrance conference
d. exit conference
• . It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security.
a. security inspections
b. security survey
c. special survey
d. supplemental survey
• . It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work.
a. security education
b. security indoctrination
c. security training
d. security awareness
• . It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof.
a. controlling
b. access list
c. exclusion area
d. controlled area
• . Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction control.
a. restricted area
b. exclusion area
c. controlled area
d. coverage factor
• . A restricted area containing materials or operation of security interest.
a. restricted area
b. exclusion area
c. controlled area
d. coverage factor
• It is the key elements in the security survey system of a plant or installation.
a. security guard
b. human guard
c. company guard
d. agency guard
• . It is a term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or areas.
a. doppler effect
b. duress code
c. peterman
d. fail safe
• . A term applied to a device or system that in the event of failure or a component, the incapacity will be signaled.
a. doppler effect
b. duress code
c. peterman
d. fail safe
• . It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its validity, it is also an operational readiness exercise.
a. dry run
b. run through
c. controlling
d. fire drill
• . It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various
hazard.
b. relative vulnerability
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
• . It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction of which does not have the same value as the original
records.
a. useful records
b. vital records
c. important records
d. non-essential records
• . How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity?
a. casual pilferer
b. ordinary pilferer
c. systematic
d. unusual pilferer
• . The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and the temperature is lowered below the burning point.
a. smothering
b. starving
c. cooling
d. all of the above
• . It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the increase of room temperature, and which automatically
operates the system to put out the fire.
a. wet pipe system
b. automatic sprinklers
c. dry pipe system
d. stand pipe system
• . These fire results from the burning of wood, paper, textiles and other carbonaceous materials.
a. Class “A” Fires
b. Class “B” Fires
c. Class “C” Fires
d. Class “D” Fires
• . Private Security Agencies must be registered at what government agency.
a. DTI
b. PNP
c. CSC
d. LGU
• It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of temporary license.

a.100
b.1,000
c.50
d.200
• . The regular security guard license is good for how many years?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 6 months
d. 3 years
• . It is the minimum capitalization for PSA.
a. P1,000,000.00
b. P500,000.00
c. P100,000.00
d. non of the above
• . It is the required minimum number of guards to operate company security forces.
a. 30
b. 200
c. 50
d.100
• . A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance company.
a. P50,000.00
b. P100,000.00
c. P150,000.00
d. P200,000.00
• . PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how many firearms for use of its security guards.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 70
• . PSAs who have been applying for regular license to operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed firearms.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 70
• . The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a basic load of how many rounds per unit of duly
licensed firearms.
a. 20
b. 12
c. 50
d. 25
• . This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to individual security guards.
a. 20
b. 12
c. 50
d. 25
• It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be allowed to use high powered firearms; except one.
a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality
b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery
c. transporting big amount of money
d. providing security to VIPs
• . The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how many percent of the total number of guards employed.
a.5%
b.10%
c.15%
d.20%
• . These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or security guard, EXCEPT:
a. high school graduate
b. physically & mentally fit
c. 18 to 50 years of age
d. without pre-licensing training
• . There are two different ways in which security guards are hired or employed, the company guard and the other
one is:
a. government guards
b. private security agency
c .propriety guards
d. in-house guards
• . This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs.
a. PD 603
b. EO 292
c. RA 5487
d. PD 968
• . They are any person who offers or renders personal service to watch or secure either residential or business
establishment or both.
a. private detective
b. security guards
c. propriety guards
d. company guards
• . Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP, but involved in detective work.
a. private detective
b. security guards
c. propriety guards
d. company guards
• . It is any person who for hire or reward or on commission, conducts or carries on or holds himself out in carrying
detective works.
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
• . It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private corporation that employs any watchman or guards.
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
• . It is a security force maintained and operated by the private company/corporation for its own protection and
security requirements
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
• . It is a security unit maintained and operated by any government entity other than military or police.
a. PDA
b. PSA
b. GSU
c. CSF
d.PAD
• . It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA.
a. PADPAO, Inc.
b. SAGSD
c. SEC
d. PNP
• . It is a government agency involved in the supervision of the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and
GSUs.
a. PADPAO, Inc.
b. SAGSD
c. SEC
d. PNP
• . It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
a. 25 years
b. 30 years
c. 35 years
d. 20 years
• . It is the initial number of guard requirements that must be contracted for the 1st year of operation of PSA.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 1,000
d. 50
• . What is the minimum number of guard requirements in the operation of branch offices of PSA.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 10
d. 40
• . __________ are included in the category of in-house guards.
a. government guards
b. private security agency
c. propriety guards
d. all of the above
• . It is charge with the directing the work and observing the behavior performance of the men under his unit.
a. security guard
b. security supervisor
c. watchman
c. security officer
• . The following items must be stipulated in the security service contract, EXCEPT:
a. money consideration
b. number of hours of security service
c. salary of the security guard
d. commission of the operator
• . It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any applicant who failed to submit the complete
requirements in the renewal of license.
a. cancellation
b. revocation
c. nullification
d. suspension
• . It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout the Philippines.
a. Private Scty. Law
b. RA 5487
c .IRR of RA 5487
d.all of the above
• . It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as provided by R.A. 5487.
a. suspension of license
b. cancellation of license
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
• . It is the established rules and regulations in the operation of GSUs, EXCEPT:

a. registration at SAGSD
b. registration at CSG
c. both A & B
d. registration at SEC
• . Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a __________ to exercise profession at SAGSD.
a. permit
b. authority
c. registration
d. license
• . How many days prior expiry month of license shall require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 15 days
• . Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the accredited testing centers within how many days after the
date of examination.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c .45 days
d.15 days
• . Moribund but previously licensed security agency, means:
a. dying PSA
b. viable PSA
c. new PSA
d. renewing PSA
• .It refers to the requirements for application for licenses as security officers, guards, and operators.
a. physical & mental examination
b. medical & dental examination
c. physical agility test examination
d. drug test examination
• . Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom?
a. DILG
b. C, PNP
c. PD, PPO
d. RD, PRO 3
• . Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom?
a. PSAs Operators
b. CSF Managers
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
• . It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to the C, PNP.
a. closing reports
b. opening reports
c. participants
d. name of course
• . It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs.
a. displayed
b. carried
c. registered
d. all of the above
• . Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in the industrial security management.
a. Kabit System
b. Illegal Operation
c. Merger of Security
d. Moribund Security
• . It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing temporary license to operate.
a. pre-inspection
b. post-inspection
c. inspection
d. continuing inspection
• . It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is conducted to the applicant agency.
a. regular license
b. temporary license
c. license to operate
d. permit to operate
• . These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT:
a. serious offense
b. light offense
c. grave offense
d. less grave offense
• . They have the authority to conduct inspection to PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT:
a. C, SAGSD
b. C, ROPD
c. PD, PPO
d. SAGSD Officer
• . These are authorized to conduct investigation on all complaints against securities of PSAs or detective of
PDAs.
a. C, ROPD
b. Inves. Comm., CSG
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
• . It must be avoided by the private security personnel, either physically or otherwise with the strikers.
a. direct contact
b. indirect contact
c. confrontation
d. carrying of firearms
• . The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or _________ the members of the agency in case of
emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
a. organize
b. incorporate
c. utilize
d. deputize
• . The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
a. Intelligence
b. Police Community Relation
c. Civil Security Group
d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
• . Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
a. Chief of Staff, AFP
b. Secretary of the DILG
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Chief of the PNP
• . It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion in the PNP.
a. MNSA
b. Master’s Degree
c. OSEC
d. BS Degree
• . Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551 to remove from the PNP, police officers who are-
a. inefficient
b. ineffective
c. unproductive
d. all of the choices
• . The nature of which, the police officer is free from specific routine duty is the definition of -
a. “on duty”
b. “special duty”
c. “leave of absence”
d. “off duty”
• . An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is called-
a. post
b. unit
c. sector
d. section
• . The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is-
a. Very Satisfactory
b. Fair
c. Outstanding
d. Poor
• . The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month. How
much will be his Longevity Pay?
a. 5,000 pesos
b. 7,500 pesos
c. 10,000 pesos
d. 12,500 pesos
• . SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000. He had been in the service for 27 years. How much is his
longevity pay?
a.Php4, 200
b. Php5, 000
c. Php6, 500
d. Php7, 000
• . A primary subdivision of a bureau is called-
a. division
b. unit
c. section
d. department
• . The mandatory training course for PO1 for them to be promoted to PO2 or PO3.
a. PSJLC
b. PSOBC
c. PSOOC
d. PSBRC
• . Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector before he could be promoted to Chief Inspector is-
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 2 years
d. 5 years
• . An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes is called-
a. beat
b. sector
c. route
d. post
• . The system used in PNP promotions is called-
a. Performance
b. Seniority
c. Palakasan
d. Merit
• . The directorate who is in charge of supplies and equipments of PNP is-
a. logistics
b. comptrollership
c. intelligence
d. plans
• . What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional Director?
a. 4 years
b .5 years
c. 6 years
d. 9 years
• . The period of time in the present rank in permanent status is called-
a. Time-In-Grade
b. Length of Service
c. Seniority in rank
d. Plantilla position
• . The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and “deodorant” of the PNP is called-
• Personnel Records Mgt.
b. Research Development
c. Police Community Relation
d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt.
• . The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into how many districts?
a. four
b. six
c. five
d. seven
• . A functional group within a section is called-
a. division
b. route
c. unit
d. sector
• . The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
a. Intelligence
b. Police Community Relation
c. Comptrollership
d.Investigation and Detective Mgt.
• . Which of the following is not an administrative support unit?
a. Special Action Force
b. Civil Security Group
c. Police Security and Protection Office
• . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP members who want to be promoted to-
a. SPO4
b. SPO3
c. SP01
d. PO3
• Under the general qualifications for appointment in the PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at least-
a. 1.62 m
b. 1.64 m
c. 1.57 m
d. 1.54
• . The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is-
a. Officers Basic Course
b. Officers Candidate Course
c. Officers Advance Course
d. Senior Leadership Course
• . What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel under the waiver program?
a. permanent
b. contractual
c. temporary
d. probationary
• .The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is-
a. Western Police District

b. NCRPO
c. Southern Police District
d. Central Police District
• . The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is-
a. Director General
b. Chief Superintendent
c. Deputy Director General
d. Director
• . The number 2 man in the PNP organization in-
a. TCDS
b. DDG for Administration
c. DDG for Operations
d. none of them
• .The national headquarters of the PNP is-
a. Camp Dangwa
b. Camp Crame
c. Camp Aguinaldo
d. Fort Bonifacio
• . The purpose of promotion in the PNP is-
a. recognition of good work
b. gives officers high morale
c. gives higher pay
• . Waiver system in the PNP will apply if-
a. recruitment falls on summer
b. qualified applicant falls below quota
c. ordered by the President
d. none of them
• . Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified thru-
a. medical examination
b. neuro-psychiatric examination
c. physical fitness examination
d. drug test
• . Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is-
a. 20 to 36 years old
b. 19 to 36 years old
c. 21 to 35 years old
d. 20 to 35 years old
• . What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be qualified a the C, PNP?
a. Director
b. Superintendent
c. Chief Superintendent
d. Director General
• . The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who passed any licensure examination administered by the
Professional Regulations Commission is-
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551
• . The highest award given to a PNP member is-
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan
b. Medalya ng Kagitingan
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting
d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
• . What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program?
a. 10 months
b. 18 months
c. 12 months
d. 24 months
• . When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and Reorganization Act?
a. 1992
b. 1996
c. 1994
d. 1998
• . What law was amended by RA 8551?
a. RA 7659
b. RA 6425
c. RA 6975
d. RA 9165
• . Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB
must be established?
a. two
b. four
c. three
d. five
• . What is the lowest administrative penalty?
a. Forfeiture of Pay
b. Restricted to Specified limits
c. Witholding of Privilege
d. Admonition
• . It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under the educational attainment waiver to finish his B.S.
Degree according to RA 8551?
a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
• . It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP Member can be attrited.
a. 5 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 20 years
• . It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits (MRB).
a. lump sum
b. pension
c. gratuity
d. allowance
• Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred to as-

a. citizens complaint
b. grave misconduct
c. breach of internal discipline
d. none of them
• PLEB is composed of how many person?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
• . How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the Chief, PNP?
a. four years
b. six years
c. five years
d. nine years
• . How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief, PNP if extended?
a. not more than 1 year
b. not less than 2 years
c. more than 1 year
d. none of them
• . The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board Exam passers is-
c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
• . The agency that administers all the mandatory training for police officers is
a. PPSC
b. PNP
c. DHRDD
d. NAPOLCOM
• . Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP?
a. President
b. Chief, PNP
c. Sec. of DILG
d. NAPOLCOM
• . Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and Promotional Exam for policemen as provided for under
Republic Act Nr. 8551?
a. NAPOLCOM
b. Civil Service Commission
c. Congress
d. PNP
• . What is the basis for promotion that includes the length of service in the present rank?
a. Merit
b. Superiority
c. Time-In-Grade
d. Age
• . In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered continuous service of-
a. 10 years
c. 15 years
b. 20 years
d. 25 years
• . What is the length of service before a PNP member would be qualified for optional retirement?
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 20 years
• . A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty is called-
a. Regular
b. Permanent
c. Temporary
d. Meritorious
• . Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place
c. Police Checkpoint
d. Pre-Determined Area
• . It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable
cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
criminal activity.
a. Frisking
b. Search
c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
• . A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while in the performance of duty is called-
a. Regular
b. Posthumous
c. Temporary
d. None of them
• . Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a criminologist who applied and selected will have the initial rank of
-
a. Senior Inspector
b. Inspector
c. SPO4
d. Chief of Inspector
• . The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police Superintendent is vested in the-
a. Chief, PNP
b. President
c. Civil Service Commission
d. NAPOLCOM
• . When can the President extend the tenure of service of the Chief, PNP?
a. after 4 years
b. there is no successor
c. during martial law
d. national emergencies
• . What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified for early retirement?
a. two ranks higher
b. one rank higher
c. his present rank
d. one year gratuity
• . Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
b. Congress
c. Commission of Appointment
d. NAPOLCOM
• . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP members who want to be promoted to-
a. SPO4
b. SPO1
c. SPO3
d. PO3
• . The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State shall establish and maintain one police for which shall
be-
a. national in scope
b. civilian in scope
c. national in character
d. military in character
• . What is the meaning of PPSC?
a. Phil. Public Safety Course
b. Phil. Private Safety College
c. Phil. Public Safety College
d. Phil. Private Safety Course
• .The mandatory training required for promotion to the rank of Police Superintendent is called-
a. MNSA
b. OSEC
c. MPSA
d. Master’s Degree
• . He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen
b. Gen. Rafael Crame
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt
• .It is an association or group of individuals with a common goal.
a. Police organization
b. Law enforcement group
c. Non-government organization
d. Organization
• . Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?

a. Edwin Sutherland
b. Emile Durkhiem
c. Sir Robert Peel
d. Leonard Keeler
• .Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila?
a. Capt. George Curry
b. Capt. Henry Allen
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt
d. Capt. Howard Taft
• . Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____.
a. chastity
b. passion
c. person
d. mankind
• . What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of satisfactory service rendered?
a. promotion
b. longevity pay
c. additional allowance
d. retirement benefits
• . What is the lowest administrative penalty?
a. reprimand
b. admonition
c. restriction
d. forfeiture of pay
• .Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of Police, City or Municipal Mayors and _______.
a. Chief, PNP
b. Provincial Director
c. Regional Director
d. PLEB
• . Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced
resignation may be appealed before this body.
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. Office of the President
c. National Appellate Board
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
• . Which of the following composed the PNP?
a. members of the INP
b. members of the PC
c. members of the PNP
• .What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?
a. Deputy Director General
b. Police Director
c. Police Chief Superintendent
d. Police Senior Superintendent
• . The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who meets all the basic qualification for promotion is termed-
a. special
b. meritorious
c. regular
d. ordinary
• . It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector.
a. Officer’s Basic Course
b. Officer’s Advance Course
c. Officer’s Candidate Course
d. Senior Leadership Course
• . How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP National Office (NHQ-PNP)?
a. eleven
b. ten
c. nine
d. twelve
• . Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:
b. NAPOLCOM
c. Commission on Appointment
d. President of the Phil.
• . The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the -
a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns
b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm
c. The Chief Directorial Staff
d. Regional Director of the NCR
• . The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM is located in what city?
a. Quezon City
b. City Of Manila
c. Mandaluyong City
d. Makati City
• . Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by-
a. Chief, PNP
b. Secretary, DILG
c. President of the Phil.
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
• . The law that merges the police and Philippine Constabulary into the PC-INP is-
a. R.A. 7659
b. R.A. 6975
c. R.A. 8551
d. P.D. 765
• . How many deputies do the PNP consist?
a. one
b. three
c. two
d. four
• . How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the PNP Organization?
a. fourteen
b. sixteen
c. Fifteen
d. Seventeen
• . The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done how many times per year?
a. once
b. thrice
c. twice
d. four
• . MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is offered and administered by an institution known as-
a. PPSC
b. NAPOLCOM
c. National Defense Office
d. National Defense College
• . The mandatory training course needed to be promoted to SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
a. Police Basic Course
b. Junior Leadership Course
c. Senior Leadership Course
d. Officers Candidate Course
• . The administrative support unit in charge of delivering the necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units in
the field is called-
a.Finance Service
b.Logistics Support Service
c.Computer Service
d.Communications & Electronics Svc
• . The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer is-
a. SPO2
b. SPO4
c. SPO3
d. Inspector
• . How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director?
a. one
b. three
c. two
d. four
• . The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of 1990 that established the PNP under the DILG is-
c. Republic Act 8551
d. Presidential Decree 765
• . In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
b. Gen. Raul Imperial
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
• . The primary objective of Philippine National Police:
a. Law Enforcement
b. Peace and Order
c. Protect and Serve
d. Crime Prevention
• . The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon City. It was named after the 1 st Filipino Chief of the
Philippine Constabulary.
a. Rafael Palma
b. Cesar Nazareno
c. Rafael Crame
d. Emilio Aguinaldo
• . Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years old then. What year can Alden retire?
a. 2017
b. 2031
c. 2032
d. 2022
• . The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national security?
a. The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily responsible on matters
involving insurgency and other serious treats to national security.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other serious treats to national
security.
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
d. All of the choices
• . The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the
field operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to
a. Field Procedure
b. Time Specific plan
c. Problem oriented plan
d. Headquarters procedure
• . The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period ______?
a. Not exceeding four years.
b. Not exceeding five years.
c. Not exceeding six years.
d. Not exceeding three years.
• . The law that empowered the police commission to conduct entrance and promotional examination for police
members refers to:
a. RA 6040
b. RA 157
c. RA 5487
d. PD 765
• . The theory of police service which states those police officers are servants of the people or the community
refers to:
a. Old
b. Home rule
c. Modern
d. Continental
• . Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National Police. What would be his initial
rank upon entry?
a. Senior Inspector
b. Chief Inspector
c. Inspector
d. none of the choices
• . The following are functions in a police organization, EXCEPT:
a. primary functions
b. administrative functions
c. secondary functions
d. auxiliary functions
• . If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
Patrol officer is:
a. Conduct a complete search.
b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. No further search may be made.
d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
• . He is known as the father of modern policing system?
a. August Vollmer
b. Robert Peel
c. Oliver Cromwell
d. Cesare Lombroso
• . When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or found explosives, what immediate actions
should the patrol officer will do?
a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to happen.
c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.
• . Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in
the PNP?
a. Inspector
b. Chief Inspector
c. Senior Inspector
d. Superintendent
• . How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
• . The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
a. Four star general
b. Director
d. Director General (PNP)
• . What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
a. 1:1000
b. 1:1500
c. 1:500
d. 1:7
• . The fourth man in command of the PNP is the __________.
a. DDG for operation
b. Chief, Directorial Staff
c. DDG for administration
d. Chief, PNP
• . Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and function of the PNP?
a. enforce all laws and ordinances
b. maintain peace and order
c. investigate and prevent crimes
d. prosecute criminal offenders
• . The word “police” was derived from the Greek word _______, which means government of the city.
a. politia
b. Polis
c. politeia
d. Policy
• . It is defined as the determination in advance of how the objectives of the organization will be attained.
a. planning
b. Advancement
c. police planning d. Development
• . It is the premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing education
of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
a. PPSC
b. RTS
c. PNPA
d. NPC
• . It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
a. IAS
b. PNP
c. PLEB
d. NAPOLCOM
• . The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by the
PNP regional director:
a. six
b. Five
c. Three
d. four
• . The deployment of officers in a given community, area or locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to
provide day-to-day services to the community.
a. Patrol
b. Beat Patrol
c. Line Patrol
d. Area Patrol
• . The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ____________?

a. Director General
b. Solicitor General
c. Inspector General
d. IAS General
• . As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
a. one (1)
b. more than one
c. at least one
d. less than one
• . If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the immediate things to do when accident occur?
a. Cordon the area
b. Go away and call your superior
c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
• . Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation.
Who is the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS?
a. Dir. Alma Jose
b. Dir. Romeo Pena
c. Dir. Sonny Razon
d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
• . All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected
members of the community
b. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of barangay
captains
c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
• . Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for establishing such organization.
They must identify the organization’s _________:
a. strategy
b.mission
c.vision
d. objective
• . To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
a. establish objectives and standards
b. count the number of supervisors
c. require completed work
d. define authority and responsibility
• . The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person tends to:
a. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as between individual
subordinate increases
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line supervisory level to the management
level
d. All of the above
• . This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom of
organization:
a. Audit
b. Coordination
c. Monitoring
d. Authority
• . Which of the following statements is true:
a.Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police
b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases or promotion
c.Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel
d.Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work performance of personnel
• . The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for _______:
a. Administrative control
b. Operational supervision
c. Administration and control
d. Policy and program coordination
• . SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
a. delegation of authority
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. chain of command
• . The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP is;
a. 4 years
b. 56 years
c. 5 years
d. 21 years
• . In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
a. standard operation procedures
b. special operation procedures
c. standard operating procedures
d. special operating procedures
• . The following are the characteristics of a good plan, except:
a. Flexibility
b. specific
c. Clear
d. expensive
• . If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many of the annual quota is allocated for women?
a.10%
b.120
c.100
d.200
• . Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived in the following order:
a. age, height, weight & education
b. age, weight, height & education
c. height, education, weight & age
d. in any order
• . It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis provided by law.
a. attrition
b. separation
c. romotion
d. Retirement
• . The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The
Maximum age requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry program is ____.
a. 35 years old
b. 25 years old
c. 30 years old
d. 31 years old
• . A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required for permanency of their appointment. Who
among the following is exempted to undergo the Field Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector after graduation.
d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and First Place in the Examination.
• . Planning as a management function is to
be done in the various levels of PNP
Organization. Broad policy based from laws
directives, policies and needs in general is the responsibility of:
a. Directorate for Plans
b. President of the Philippines
c. Chief, PNP
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
• . What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy
Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
a. Lt. General
b. Major General
c. Brigade General
d. General
• . The Philippine National Police will recruit
500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978
b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980
c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993
d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991
• . Police Inspector Katunggali joined the
Philippine National Police on October 1, 1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as embalmer, he
decided to file an optional retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP which he served
with extreme commitment and loyalty. When does Mark Espinosa can retire?
a. October 5, 1998
b. October 6, 1999
c. September 5, 2010
d. September 5, 2008
• . Which of the following administrative
penalties is immediately executory?
a. Dismissal
b. Forfeiture of pay
c. Suspension
d. Death penalty
• . It is the third in command in the Philippine National Police:

a. Regional Director
b. Chief Directorial Staff
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd.
d. Deputy Chief for Operation
• . The head of the National Capital Regional
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR director with the rank of:
a. Chief Superintendent
b. Director
c. Superintendent
d. General
• . Under the waiver program, who among the following PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment?
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b. Paloma who is under height
c. Jauquinwho is underweight
d. Alden who is overage
• . Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
as____________.
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
d.Department of the Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
• . SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00
base pay since he was promoted. After five years from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after
adding his longevity pay?
a. 32, 690.00
b. 37, 690.00
c. 30, 459.00
d. 31, 549.00
• . Decisions rendered by the national IAS
shall be appealed to the__________:
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. National Appellate Board
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board d. National Police Commission
• . It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
a. R.A. 4864
b. R.A. 8551
c. Act 175
d. PD 765
• .__________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Meritorious Promotion B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
• .PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements can re-
apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes
B.Maybe No
C..Absolutely Yes
D.Absolutely No
• .The reason why police officer appears in court as a witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his respect
to the court and to his:
A.Position/Rank
B.Superior
C.Profession
D.Comrades
• .Which among the following is NOT subjected to field Operational Plans?
A.Patrol
B.Records
C.Investigation D. Traffic
• . Which of the following statement is not true about patrol?
A.It is the backbone of the police department
B.It is the essence of police operation
C.It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated
D.It is the nucleus of the police department
E.It is the operational heart of the police department
• .The performance evaluation system in the PNP is conducted:
A.thrice a year
B. Every 6 months
C.Every 2 years
D. Quarterly
• . A PNP member who acquired permanent physical disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to further
perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime pension equivalent to:
A50% of his last salary B. 70% of his last salary
C.60% of his last salary D. 80% of his last salary
• . How many successive annual ratingperiods before a police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance?
A.2 B.4
C.3
D.1
• . How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before a police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance?
A.2 B.4
C.3 D.1
• .In this theory, management assumes employees may be ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-control.
It is believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical work duties.
A.Hawthorne Effect B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory D.Y theory
• .The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?
A.Edward H. Sutherland
B.C. Edwin Hawthorne
C.Henry A. Landsberger
D.Douglas McGregor
• In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in most modern practice, management assumes
employees are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that they inherently dislike work. As a result of
this, management believes that workers need to be closely supervised and comprehensive systems of controls
developed.
A.Hawthorne Effect B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory
D.Y theory
• .This kind of organizational structure classifies people according to the function they perform in their professional
life or according to the functions performed by them in the organization.
A.Functional Structure B.Line and Staff Structure
C.Line Structure D.Divisional Structure
• .If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s
complaint against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
A.Office of the chief of police
B.PLEB
C.Mayor’s Office
D. any of the choices
• .Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of
20 years active service
A.50%
B.10%
C.2.5%
D.55%
• .This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
A.Strategic plan
B.Time Specific plan
C.Problem oriented plan
D.time bound operational plan
• .This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field operations and some special
operations
A.Strategic plan
B.Time Specific plan
C.Problem oriented plan
D. policy or procedural plan
• .The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A.Superintendent B. Director
C.Senior Superintendent D. Chief Superintendent
• . The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a police officer is
A.A ground for dismissal
B.Not qualified for promotion
C.Automatically dismiss D.Not a bar to promotion
• .Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the
offenders to justice
A.Deployment
B.Reinforcement
C.Reintegration
D.Employment
• . What is the first step in making a plan?
A.Frame of reference
B.Analyzing the Facts
C.Collecting all pertinent data D.Identification of the problems
• .It identify the role of police in the community and future condition in state
A.Visionary Plans
B.Strategic Plans
C.Synoptic Planning D.Incremental Planning
• .Is that field of management which involves planning, and controlling the efforts of a group of individuals toward
achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and minimum use of administrative resources.
A.Human Resources
B.Personnel Management
C.Human Management
D.Personnel Administration
• . Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
accomplishment of a definite objective.
A.Management
B.Functioning
C.Budgeting D.Planning
• . Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific circumstances and details with the following procedures.
A.Field Procedures B.Procedural plan
C.Operational Plans D.Functional plan
• . Which of the following is not a function of police personnel unit?
A.Preparing policy statements and standard operating Procedures relating to all areas of the
administration of human resources
B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials regarding personnel matters
C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to identify, and subsequently correct,
unsatisfactory working conditions
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks
• .It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating undesirable applicants that do not meet the organization’s
selection criteria
A. Promotion Recruitment
B.Transfer Selection
C.Recruitment
D.Selection
• .It is recognized as the best method of filing
A.Pigeon Hole
B.retrieval operation
C.Records Management
D.chain of custody
• .It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it provides positive identification of the criminal
A.Arrest and booking report B.Miscellaneous Records
C.Identification record
D.Fingerprint Records
• .The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of
how many year?
A.1 year B. 2 months
C. 4 years D.2 years
• .In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of hours of classroom training should be required for
newly promoted supervisory personnel
A.72 hours
B.80 hours
C.75 hours
D.85 hours
• .It should be proactive, people oriented, based on individual need, and delivered in such a way as to motivate the
experienced officer Higher dgreee of professionalism/
Professionalization.
A.Recruit Training B.Specialized training
C.In Service
D.Field Training
• . When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing the entire mandatory and other consideration in
promotion, is what kind of promotion?
A.Promotion by Virtue of Position B. Regular Promotion
C.Meritorious Promotion D. Promotion
• .It involves assistance and action by non police agencies such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division,
DSWD for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans and Civil defense plans
A.Management Plans
B.Procedural plan
C.Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan
• . Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an
award:
A.Medal B. Awards
C.Decorations D.Ribbons
• .For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member:
A.Six B. Four
C.Five D. Three
• .Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive use of authority:
A.Misconduct B. Dishonesty
C.Incompetency D. Oppression
• .The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police
forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, hostage taking, rescue operations and other special
operations:
A.NARCOM B. SAF
C.SWAT
D. SOCO
• .The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.
A.Line
B. functional
C.staff
D. line and staff
• . As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of
lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number
of security guards.
A.50% B. 20%
C.30% D. 10%
• . The vault door should be made of steel at least __________ in thickness?
A.7 inches
B. 9 inches
C.6 inches
D. 20 feet or more
• . An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive to a breach of the protection system, or that, could
result to loss.
A.Hazards
B. Environmental Hazards
C.Natural Hazards
D. Security Hazards
• .An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to
determines person suitability for appointment or access to classified matter.
A.Character Investigation
B.Physical Investigation
C.Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
• .The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy security
A.Relative vulnerability
B. Relative program
C.Relative criticality
D. Relative security
• .Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
A.SEC
B.DTI
C.PADPAO
D. PNP, SAGSD
• .To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be constructed.
A.Full view fence
B. Chain link fence
C. Solid fence
D. Multiple fences
• . A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be
issued with a-
A.Firearms
B. Mission Order
C.Duty Detail Order
D. None of These
• .What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
A. 150 Hours
B. 72 Hours
C. 48 Hours
D. 300 Hours
• .All except one are the line leadership staff:
A.Detachment Commander
B.Post-in-Charge
C.Chief Inspector
D.Security Supervisor 1
• . Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an equal
part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than ___ high excluding the top guard.
A.8 feet
B.7 feet
C.9 feet
D. 6 feet
• . Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to security guards.
A. Any of the choices
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
C. Secretary, DILG
D. C/PNP
• .What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?

A. Photoelectric
B. Metallic foil
C. Audio detection
D. Microwave Detection
• .Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with establishment security policies
and procedures?
A. Security Education
B. Security Survey
C. Security Planning
D. Security Inspection
• . Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the knowledge of the objectives of the security and the
means and the method to reach these objective or goal must then involve.
A. Security Inspection B. Security Hazards C.
Security Planning
D. Security Survey
• . A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a building, room
container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items without the consent of the owner
A .Padlocks B. Locks C. Code
Operated
D. Lever Locks
• . A type of protective alarm system where the central station located outside the installation. When the alarm is
sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency
A. Local Alarm system

B. Auxiliary System
C. Central Station System
D. Proprietary
• . It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to
engage the activation bar
A. Bill traps
B. Foot Rail Activator
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
D. Foot buttons
• These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the approaches to
the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights
B. Street Lights
C. Floodlights
D.Search lights
• . What is the required capital investment for organization of private security agency?
A. P 500,000
B. B. P 100,000
C. P 1,000,000
D. P 50,000
• . One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for economic
gain?
A. Normal Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer
C. Casual Pilferer
D. Systematic pilferer
• . The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an office or installation refers to:
A. Safe
B. Vault
C. File room
D. None of these
• .Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material excluding the top guard?
a. Seven feet
b. Six feet
c. Four feet
d. Five feet
• .The following things are used as barrier, which serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial
Complex, EXCEPT:
a. Human
b. Fences
c. Doors
d. Concertina
• .Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
a. 3 hours
b. 24hours
c. 6hours
d. 12 hours
• . A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by
utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
a. Lever locks
b. Combination lock
c. Padlock
d. Code operated locks
• . The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___ units.
a. 30
b. 70
c. 500
d. 1000
• .What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
a. Sodium vapor lamp
b. Incandescent lamp
c. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Quartz lamp
• .What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business enterprises where personnel, processes,
properties and operations are safeguarded?
a. Personnel security
c. Physical security
d. bank security
• .The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:
a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
• . The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
a. Relative vulnerability
b. Relative criticality
c. Relative susceptibility
d. Relative security
• . Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared to access
and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of
issuance.
a. 1 year
b. 4 years
c. 2 years
d. 5 years
• . The tenure of a security guard is:

a. Six Months
b. Co-terminus with the service contract
c. Two years
d. Contractual
• . Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence, except:
a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids the intruder in planning.
b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with
.the movements of persons in the installation
c.It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of the intruder.
d.None of these
• .Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond which shall answer for any valid and legal claims
against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
a. 50, 000
b. 100, 000
c. 150, 000
d. 200,00
• . What type of investigation involves all aspect and details about the circumstances of a person?
a. partial background investigation
b. completebackground investigation
c. personnel security investigation
d. national agency check
• . The exposure and the teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work is:
a.Security Inspection
b.Security Education
c.Security Orientation
d.Security Survey
• .A type of security which provides sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness
a. Protective Lighting
b. Fresnel Lights
c. Search Lights
d. Street Lights
• . Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the interruption of the light beam is known as:
a. Metallic foil
b. Electric eye device
c. Audio alarm
d. Microwave alarm
1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their licensed firearm is needed after operating for six months.
a. 1:3
b. 1:5
c. 1:2
d. 1:1
• .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects predominate?
a. Mercury vapor lamp
b. Quartz lamp
c. Sodium vapor Lamp
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
• . What is an act governing the organization and management of private security agency, company guard force
and government security forces?
a. RA 8574
b. RA 5478
c. RA 4587
d. RA 5487
• .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina. Chain link are for ______.
a. Solid structure
b. Least permanent structure
c. Permanent structure
d. Semi- permanent structure
• it is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough and complete
investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is conducted?
• Personnel Security Investigation
• Partial Background Investigation
• Background Investigation
• Complete Background Investigation
• 1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel
area to afford better observation of the installation refers to:
a. Clear zone
b. Complimentary zone
c. Open zone
d. Free zone
• The extension period for a license to operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of
guards is:
a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 2 years
d. 1 year
• .Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car doors?

a. Warded lock
b. Lever lock
c. Disc tumbler lock
d. Combination lock
• PADPAO stands for:
• Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.

• Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
• Philippine Association of Detective and Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
• Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective Associations Operators, Inc.
• 1 It refers to a protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by various methods and device.
a. Physical Security
b. Perimeter Security
c. Operational Security
d. Security
• . All except are the qualifications of a security officer.

a. Has graduated from a Security Officer
b. Training Course.
c. Holder of Masters Degree.
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
e. Physically or mentally fit.
• .These provides access within the perimeter barrier and should be locked and guarded.
a. Gates and Doors
b. Side-Walk Elevator
c. Utilities Opening
d. Clear Zones
• .A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security, with the
corresponding recommendation is:
a. security inspection
b. security education
c. security training
d. security survey
• . What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license for private security personnel?
a. PNP SOSIA
b. PNP FED
c. PADPAO
d. PNP SAGSD
• . What is the most common type of human hazard?
a. Sabotage
b. Pilferage
c. Theft
d. Subversion
• . What is the security force maintained and operated by any private company/ corporation for its own security
requirements?
a. GSU
b. CSF
c. PSA
d. PD
• . What type of controlled area requires highest degree of security?

a. Limited
b. Restricted
c. Special
d. Exclusive
• . What lock requires manipulation of parts according to a predetermined combination code of numbers?
a. Card- operated lock
b. Combination lock
c. Electromagnetic lock
d. Card Operated
• .What type of lamp emits bright white light?

a. Sodium vapor lamp
b. Mercury vapor lamp
c. Incandescent lamp
d. Quartz lamp
• . What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the guard remains in the comparative darkness?
a. Controlled lighting
b. Fresnel light
c. Emergency lighting
d. Glare- projection
• . What is the system of natural or man- made barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object,
person and matter being protected?
a. Communication security
b. Document security
c. Physical security
d. Barrier
• .The following are the purposes of Security Survey, EXCEPT:

a. To ascertain the present economic status
b. To determine the protection needed
c. To make recommendations to improve the overall security
d. None of these
• . License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate document which is issued by ____________ authorizing a
person to engage in employing security guard or detective, or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct,
manage or operate a private detective agency.
a. Secretary of DILG
b. Security and Exchange Commission
c. Chief, PNP
d. President
• . One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that the distances between strands will not exceed
_______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and midway between posts.
a. 3 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 4 inches
d. 7 inches
• .Clear Zone of _______ must be established between the perimeter barrier and structure within the protected
areas.
a. 20 feet or more
b. 40 feet or more
c. 30 feet or more
d. 50 feet or more
• .A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container usually a part of the building structure use to keep,
and protect cash, documents and valuables materials.
a. Vault
b. Safe
c. File Room
d. None of these
• . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm?
• Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s Vault.

• Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
• Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
• Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards table.
• . Any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or
unauthorized access.
a. Perimeter Fences
b. Wire Fences
c. Moveable Barrier
d. Barrier
• . A company owned protective alarm with unit in a nearest police station of fire department.
a. A. Proprietary Alarm
b. Auxiliary Alarm
c. Central Alarm
d. Security Alarm
• . It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light rather than direction beam. They are widely used in
parking areas
a. Street Lights
b. Search Lights
c. Flood Lights
d. Fresnel Lights
• . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like and is then
made fast or secured.
a. Lock
b. Padlock
c. Code Operated
d. Card Operated
• . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe
can withstand 2000
0F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it has passed the test.
• Fire Endurance Test

• Fire and Impact Test
• Burning Test
• Explain Hazard Test
• . The following are phases of Security Education, EXCEPT:

a. Special Interview
b. Security Seminar
c. Security Promotion
d. Training Conference
• . How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
chance of detection?
a. Systematic pilferer
b. Ordinary pilferer
c. Casual pilferer
d. Unusual pilferer
• Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
a. Low Visibility
b. High Visibility
c. Reactive
d. Proactive
• Its purpose is to provide the organizational and operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms toward
enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP investigational capability.
a. Detective Beat Patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System
c. Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing
• Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the end of the line beat, and before returning to the point of
origin.
a. Patrol Report
b.Situation Report
c.Investigation Report
d.Incident Report
• The ideal police response time is:

a. 3 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 7 minutes
d. 10 minutes
• Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing a high potential for criminal attack or for the creation of
problem necessitating a demand for immediate police service:
a. Hazard
b. Opportunity
c. Perception of Hazard
d. Police Hazard
• The most expensive patrol method and gives the greatest opportunity to develop sources of information is:
a. Foot Patrol
b. Marine Patrol
c. Mobile Patrol
d. Helicopter Patrol
• Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen less visible during the
night. The primary purpose is:
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime
b. To have sufficient cover
c. To attract less attention
d. For safety of the Patrol officer
• The following are included in the cause and effect of team policing.
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.
a. a, b, e
b. c. a, b, d, e
c.a, c, d, e
d. d. a, b, c, e
• This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform specific
predetermined preventive functions on a planned systematic basis:
a. Target Oriented Patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
• Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best penetrated by the police through.
a. Foot patrol
b. Bicycle patrol
c. Mobile patrol
d. Helicopter patrol
• Integrated patrol system is the total system used to accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. The
Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with prescribed divisions of:
a. 2 shifts
b. 4 shifts
c. 3 shifts
d. every other day shift.
• The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent the desire of human being to commit crime.
a. Preventive
b. Proactive
c. Reactive
d. High Visibility
• Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they can be operated very quietly and
without attracting attention.
a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
d. Mobility and stealth
• What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?

a. Foot Patrol
b. K-9 Patrol
c. Automobile Patrol
d. Bicycle Patrol
• When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau of
Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
a. May 7, 1954
b. May 17, 1954
c. May 14, 1957
d. March 10, 1917
• As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons, places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles especially
during night-time, be prepared to use your service firearm and Flashlight should be-
• Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a possible target.

• Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a possible target.
• Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible adversary.
• None of these
• What is your priority as a Patrol officer when responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
a. Arrest criminals
b. Securing the area
c. Aiding the injured
d. Extort Money
• As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon, except when its occupants pose imminent danger of causing
death or injury to the police officer or any other person, and that the use of firearm does not create a danger to
the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following
parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
a. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing suspect/s with the police officer and other persons.
b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to harm in certainty the police officer or other persons
c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm the police officer or other persons.
d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
• When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during pat-down search, a more secure search position may be:
a. Standing position
b. Lying Face down Position
c. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet spread apart.
d. All of these
1096. The following are types of specialized patrol method except:

a. Marine Patrol
b. Air Patrol
c. Canine Patrol
d. Foot Patrol
• A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged by his-
a. Knowledge of all problems in the community
b. Residents developed good public relations
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor offenses
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
• Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?

a. True
b. False
c. Absolutely Yes d. Absolutely No
• This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of apprehension of law violator to engage in certain types of
crimes:
a. Preventive Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
• Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?

a. It is the backbone of the police department
b. It is the essence of police operation
c. It is the nucleus of the police department
d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department that can be eliminated
• It is an immediate response to block the escape of lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also established
when nearby checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police personnel conducting
mobile patrol on board a marked police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and foot patrol operations within the
vicinity/periphery of the national or provincial highways.
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
• The following are patrol activities, except:

A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
• This type of patrol maintains better personal contact with the members of the community ideal in gaining the trust
and confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol
B. Bicycle Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol
D. Foot Patrol
• The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area
of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
• The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:

a. It involves larger number of personnel
b. It develops greater contact with the public
c. It insures familiarization of area
d. It promotes easier detection of crime
• Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call
the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking
purposes?
a. German shepherd
b. Bloodhounds
c. Doberman pinscher
d. Black Labrador Retrievers
• The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:

a. Foot
b. Automobile
c. Bicycle
d. Helicopter
• A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of number of:

a. Superiors to whom he reports
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
d. Any of these
• Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities on
his beat.
a. Well Acquainted
b. Sluggish
c. Energetic
d. Unfamiliar
• The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise and before the counter-clockwise?
a. Straightway
b. Crisscross
c. Sector
d. Zigzag
• The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase attack of police officer by militant, dangerous section to
be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the street.
a. Unnecessary
b. Necessary
c. Voluntary
d. Redundant
• A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of peace and
order by police officers.
a. Integrated Police System
b. Comparative Police System
c. Detective Beat System
d. Community Oriented Policing System
• Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the least likely to become completely a function of automobile
patrol is the checking of-
a. Security of business establishment.
b. Street light outrages.
c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs. D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement.
• It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it
usually-
a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
c. Wasteful of manpower.
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick mobilization is needed.
• Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
a. Opportunity for graft.
b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law.
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads.
• Team Policing is said to be originated in________:

a. Aberdeen, Scotland
b. Lyons, France
c. Vienna. Austria
d. London, England
• They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:
a. Egyptians
b. English
c. Chinese
d. American
• The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in order to catch criminals is known as:
a. High visibility patrol
b. Blending patrol
c. Low visibility patrol
d. Decoy patrol
• A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14 h floor building. Which of the following should be the first thing to
do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene?
a. Urge no to jump
b. Call nearest relative
c. Clear the area
d. Report immediately to Station
• What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle patrol over the other patrol methods?
A. Low cost
B.Visibility
C. Speed
D. Security
• The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively implemented by police activity which-
a. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to commit crime.
c.Influences favorable individual and group attitudes in routine daily associations with the police.
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of apprehension.
• What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and community interests into a working
relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
a. Preventive patrol
b. Directed Patrol
c. Community Relation
d. Team policing
• What is the appropriate patrol method that is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue
operations?
a. Motorcycle
b. Automobile
c. Helicopter
d. Horse
• If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
Patrol officer is:
a.Conduct a complete search.
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. No further search may be made. d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
• During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing
troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
a. Tear Gas
b. Water Cannon
c. Truncheon
d. Shield
• Going left while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until reaching the point of origin is following what
pattern?
a. Clockwise
b. Zigzag
c. Counter clockwise
d. Crisscross
• All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:

a. Can report regularly to the command center.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
c. It is inexpensive to operate .
d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.
• Its purpose is to provide the organizational and operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms toward
enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP investigational capability.
a. Detective Beat Patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System
c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing
• The members of the Patrol teams shall form and assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least _______ before the start of their shift for accounting-
a. 10 minutes
b. hour
c. 30 minutes
d. 15 minutes
• The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze upon the law abiding citizens and would be criminals
alike that the police are always existing to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around
the corner at all times. This statement refers to:
a. Police Omnipresence
b. Police Patrol
c. Police Discretion
d. Integrated Patrol
• The patrol method characterized by speed and mobility and considered as lest expensive as it utilizes lesser
number of men and covers a wider area in a short period of time, while protection to patrol officers:
a. Foot patrol
b. Motorcycle Patrol
d. Helicopter patrol
• Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in a manner designed to help them blend the neighborhood
where they are deployed.
a. Absolutely False
b. Absolutely True
c. Absolutely Yes
d. Absolutely No
• “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:

a. One Man Patrol Car
b. Two Man Patrol Car
c. Foot Patrol
d. Canine Patrol
• The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of activities:

a. Afternoon Shift
b. Morning Shift
c. Night Shift
d. None of these
• It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific persons or places:

c. Reactive Patrol
• This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform specific
predetermined preventive functions on a planned systematic basis:
• Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed and dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on
foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal means to accomplish such end.
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
• Which among the following activities during post-patrol or post-deployment phase is not included?
a. Formation & Accounting
b. Debriefing/Report Submission
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment
d. Briefing
• Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls of service.

a. Reactive
b. High Visibility
c. Proactive
d. Low Visibility
• The first organized patrol for policing purposes was formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done at the
last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol?
a. Straight
b. Crisscross
c. Clockwise
d. counter clockwise
• Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of an individual for weapons only.
a. Frisking
b. Search
c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
• It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the beat not at random but with definite target location
where he knows his presence is necessary.
a. Target Oriented
b. Zigzag
c. Clockwise
d. Criss-Cross
• Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken.
b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable area
c. Inspire more Public confidence.
d. The officer can actually get to know the physical layout of his beat better.
• The word Patrol was derived from the French word ________which means to go through paddles.
a. Patroulier
b. Patroul
c. Politeia
d. Politia
• The concept of Unity of command is:

a. No one should have more than one boss.
b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can effectively supervise.
d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities to subordinates.
• Which among the following Patrol Method is appropriate when responding to quick emergency call?
a. Motorcycle Patrol
b. Air Patrol
d. Foot Patrol
• This patrol strategy is focused more on called for services

a. Reactive patrol
b. Directed deterrent patrol
c. Proactive patrol
d. Blending patrol
• Before policemen become a dispatcher he must be_______.

a. Voice Radio Operator
b. Trained Formally
c. Licensed Dispatcher
d. Coordinator
• Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated on:

a. August 10, 1917
b. August 7, 1901
c. November 22, 1901
d. March 17, 1901
• What should be accomplished by Patrol officers during Post-Deployment Phase?

a. Situation Report
b. Citation Report
c. Daily Patrol Report
d. Hourly Patrol Report
• This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police omnipresence:

• It is the most prevalent and economical method of patrol used in patrol force:
a. Foot Patrol
b. Air Patrol
d. Motorcycle Patrol
• The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
a. One thousand times
b. One hundred times
c. Ten thousand times
d. Ten million times
• Transfer of knowledge from one person to another through common medium and channel.
a. Information
b. Communication
c. Police Communication
d. Radio
• Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place
c. Police Checkpoint
d. Pre-Determined Area
• It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily to prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the
peace and order situation in a particular area:
a. Police Patrol
b. Preventive Patrol
c. Foot Patrol
d. Patrol
• It is the primary objective of police patrol operations:

A.Crime Prevention
B.Protect and Serve
C.Law enforcement
D. All of the choices
• Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol strategy called:

a. Reactive Patrol
b. Directed Patrol
c. Preventive Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
• If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident faster but undetected, then the best patrol method that he
should employ is:
a. Bicycle patrol
b. Automobile patrol
c. Motorcycle patrol
d. Foot patrol
• In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a person that enables another to victimize him:
a. Instrumentality
b. Opportunity
c. Motive
d. Capability
• The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the
following, except:
a. Size of the area
b. Possible problems to be encountered
c. Topography
d. none of the choices
• The patrol strategy which brings the police and the people together in a cooperative manner in order to prevent
crime:
a. Integrated Patrol
b. Team policing
c. Reactive patrol
d. Proactive patrol
• The theory in patrol which states that police officers should conduct overt police operations in order to
discourage people from committing crime refers to:
a. Theory of police omnipresence
b. Low police visibility theory
c. Low profile theory
d. Maximum deterrence theory
• The principle of patrol force organization which states that patrol officers should be under the command of only
one man refers to:
a. Span of control
b. Unity of command
c. Chain of command
d. Command responsibility
• The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit crime as a result of patrol.

a. Crime prevention
b. Crime intervention
c. Crime suppression
d. Crime deterrence
• The Greek word which means “government of a city” or “civil organization and the state”, which is claimed as
the origin of the word police refers to:
a. Politia
b. Policia
c. Politeia
d. Polis
• Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary objective of patrol activity is:
a. To prevent commission of crime.
b. Integrate the police and the community
c. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
d. Visibility and Omniprescence.
• What law provides for the creation of the National Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
a. RA 157
b. B. EO 213
c. RA 6040
d. EO 246
• A person who breaks intercepted codes.
a. Crypto Analyst
b. Cryptographer
c. Cryptograph
d. Code breaker
• Agent who is a member of paramilitary group organized to harass the enemy in a hot war situation.
a. Guerilla
b. Propagandist
c. Provocateur
d. Strong Arm
• It is a type of Cover which alters the background that will correspond to the operation.
a. Multiple
b. Natural
c. Artificial
d. Unusual
• Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information report any time since it is to processes.
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by clandestine method.
c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium size police station.
d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information by initiating good public relations.
• Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s discretion
since it tends to collect intelligence information.
a. Partly True
b. Partly False
c. Wholly True
d. Wholly False
• If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
acceptance?
a. Maybe Yes
b. Yes
c. No
d. Maybe No
• In selection and recruitment of informers the best factor to be considered is:
A.Age
B.Access
C.Educational Attainment D.Body built
• It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act” which prohibits wiretapping in our country.
a. RA 1700
b. RA 4200
c. RA 7877
d. RA 7160
• Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared to access and
classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of
issuance.
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 2 years
d. 4 years
• How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2?
a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true information

b. Unreliable source – probably true information
c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true information
• It is a process or method of obtaining information from a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
a. Interview
b. Interrogation
c. Forceful Interrogation
d. Tactical Interrogation
• The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other people.
a. Eavesdropping
b. Bugging
c. None of these
d. Wiretapping
• The process of extracting information from a person believes to be in possession of vital information without his
knowledge or suspicion.
a. Elicitation
b. Surveillance
c. Roping
d. Undercover Operations
• It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who leaks false information to the enemy.
a. Double Agent
b. Expendable Agent
c. Agent of Influence
d. Penetration Agent
• It is one of the Functional Classification of Police Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal offenders.
a. Internal Security Intelligence
b. Public Safety Intelligence
c. Criminal Intelligence
d. Preventive Intelligence
• Intelligence is the end product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation of
all available information. What is considered as the core of intelligence operations?
a.Dissemination
b. Analysis
c. Mission
d. Planning
• He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military Espionage".

a. Alexander the Great
b. Frederick the Great
c. Karl Schulmeister
d. Arthur Wellesley
• There are four categories of classified matters; top secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To distinguish,
their folder consists of different colors. What will be the color of the document which requires the highest degree
of protection?
a. Red
b. Black
c. Blue
d. Green
• What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical indication of the beginning of Intelligence?
a. Number 13:17
b. Number 3:17
c. Number 17:13
d. Number 17:3
• A certain locality is identified to be a major source of illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was
deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of time to find out the authenticity of such reports.
a. Social assignments
b. Work assignments
c. Organizational assignments
d. Residential assignments
• It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with defending the organization against its criminal enemies?
a. Line Intelligence
b. Counter-Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Tactical Intelligence
• What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is “usually from a reliable source and improbable
information”?
a. C-5
b. B-5
c. B-3
d. C-3
• It is a form of investigation in which the operative assumes a cover in order to obtain information
a. Overt operation
b. Undercover assignment
c. Covert operation
d. clandestine operation
• It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes
and cipher.
a. Cryptographer
b. Crypto Analyst
c. Cryptography
d. Cryptechnician
• What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and
doubtfully true information?
a. D-4
b. C-4
c. C-5
d. D-5
• In surveillance, the following are done to alter the appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT:
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses
c.Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance vehicle
d.Keep the cars behind the subject car.
• A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted for
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a certain location.
a. Stake out
b. Rough Shadowing
c. Shadowing
d. Surveillance
• In the Intelligence function, the black list includes ________ forces.

a. Unwanted
b. Friendly
c. Neutral
d. Unfriendly
• They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of its
old post office box number.
a. Security Service
b. Secret Intelligence Service
c. Government Communication Headquarters
d. Defense Intelligence Staff
• Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and
censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence accounting.
a. Herbert Yadley
b. Wilhem Steiber
c. Admiral Yamamoto
d. Joseph Fouche
• If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of the investigation
becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation
b. Surveillance
c. Covert Operation
d. Analysis
• Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and residence of the individual being investigated.
a. CBI
b. NAC
c. PBI
d. LAC
• The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary for more effective police planning.
b. Strategic Intelligence
c. Police Intelligence
d. Departmental Intelligence
• It is considered as the most secured method of disseminating the information to the user of classified matters is
by means of:
a. Debriefing
b. Conference
c. Cryptographic method
d. Seminar
• It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a logical picture or theory.
a. Integration
b. Evaluation
c. Deduction
d. Interpretation
• In intelligence functions, a black list means:

a. Neutral
b. Unwanted
c. Friendly
d. Unfriendly
• It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained
from clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
a. Observable
b. Overt
c. Visible
d. Covert
• An E-3 intelligence report means:
a. The information comes from completely reliable sources and Improbable true.
b. The information comes from Unreliable sources and probably true.
c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources and doubtfully true.
d. The information comes from Unreliable sources and possibly true.
• Refers to the observations of person’s movements is generally refers to as?
a. Plant
b. Stakeout
c. None
d. Tailing or Shadowing
• The classification “Top secret”, have the security color folderof?
a. Red
b. Black
c. Blue
d. Green
• The process of assigning higher category of document or information according to the degree of security needed.
a. Degrading
b. Classification
c. Upgrading
d. Advancement
• It is a process or method of obtaining information from a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
a. Interview
b. Forceful Interrogation
c. Interrogation
d. Tactical Interrogation
• The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if the information is true and-
a. Reliable
b. Accurate
c. Correct
d. Probably true
• This kind of intelligence is long range in nature:

b. Operational Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Counter Intelligence
• It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting
purposes.
a. Safe house
b. Log
c. Live Drop
d. Decoy
• It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which includes some or all of the circumstances.
a. National Agency Check
b. Background Investigation
c. Complete Background Investigation
d. Personnel Security Investigation
• He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time:

a. Frederick the Great
b. Alexander the Great
c. Arthur Wellesley
d. Joseph Hernandez
• What specialist group of CIA that was established to research, create and manage technical collection discipline
and equipment.
a.National Clandestine Service

b.Directorate of Support
c. Directorate of Intelligence
d. Directorate of Science and Technology
• The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a certain establishment or building.
a. Access list
b. Black List
c. Blue Print
d. Silver list
• The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or
dissatisfied employees.
a. Subversion
b. Sabotage
c. Espionage
d. None of these
• The combination of the elements isolated analysis with other known information related to the operation.
a. Recording
b. Analysis
c. Integration
d. Interpretation
• It deals with the demographic and psychological aspects of groups of people.

a. Sociological Intelligence
b. Economic Intelligence
c. Biographical Intelligence
d. Political Intelligence
• Which among the following principles of intelligence deemed to be the most important?
a.intelligence requires continuous security measures

b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
c. Intelligence must be available on time
d. Intelligence must be flexible
• It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose.
a. Casing
b. Loose Tail
c. Rough Shadowing
d. Stakeout
• It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the information to the operation, reliability of the source of or
agency and the accuracy of the information.
a. Evaluation
b. Recording
c. Credibility
d. Appraisal
• It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.

a. Women
b. Double Crosser
c. False
d. Anonymous
• It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.

a. Coding
b. Encrypting
c. Decoding
d. Reclassify
• After the planning on how intelligence is to be collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough knowledge of
the __________.
a. The strength of the area where the information will be gathered

b. Where they will be collecting the information
c. Available sources of information
d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
• He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered as
the greatest military strategist.
a. Alexander the Great
b. Hannibal
c. Frederick the Great
d. Genghis Khan
• If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
acceptance?
a. Yes
b. True
c. No
d. False
• It is one of the Functional Classification of Police Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal offenders.
a. Internal Security Intelligence
b. Criminal Intelligence
c. Public Safety Intelligence
d. Preventive Intelligence
• If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of the investigation
becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation
b. Clandestine
c. Surveillance
d. Covert Operation
• Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer gives information to the police?
a. Monetary Reward
Popularity
Revenge
As a good citizen
• A method of collecting information thru interception of telephone conversation.

a. Bugging
b. Wire Tapping
c. Code name
d. NONE
• Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal groups
susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the police organization.
a.Conclusion
b.Capabilities
c. Vulnerabilities
d.Evaluation
• It is the general statement describing the current police internal defense, internal development, psychological
operation and responsibilities of the organization
a. Area of operation
b. Capabilities of organized crime
c. the crime situation
d. the mission
• It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning organized crime and other major police
problems.
A.Military Intelligence
b.Military Information
c.Police Intelligence
d.Police Investigation
• The term appropriate for someone who gives information in exchange for a reward is:
a. Informer
b. Informant
c. Special informer
d. Confidential Informant
• The intelligence required by department or agencies of the government to execute its mission and discharge its
responsibilities.
a. Counter
b. Departmental
c. Line
d. National
• Is the reduction of information into writing or some other form of graphical representation and the arranging of
this information into groups related items.
a. Recording
b. Integration
c. Analysis
d. Demonstration
• What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and Possibly true?

a. -2
b. E-2
c. E-3
d. C-3
• Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and
the protection of information against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
a. Passive Intelligence
b. Counter Intelligence
c. Line Intelligence
d. Demographic Intelligence
• Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance of peace and order.

a. CRIMINT
b. SIGINT
c. PUSINT
d. INSINT
• Who directs the organization conducting the clandestine activity?

a. Manager
b. Superior
c. Sponsor
d. Agent
• Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions of an individual group or nation.
a. Propagandist
b. Support Agent
c. Principal Agent
d. Action Agent
• Refers to a place where agents or informants leave their messages to the other Agents.
a. Live Drop
b. Safe House
c. Decoy
d. Bait
• All except one are interrelated to one another.

a. Fixed Surveillance
b. Stakeout Surveillance
c. Stationary Surveillance
d. Active Surveillance
• The agent will gain access to the subject by going to the different hang out places of the subject.
a. Social Assignment
b. Residential Assignment
c. Work Assignment
d. None of these
• A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other material gain he is to receive.
a. Gratitude
b. Repentance
c. Remuneration
d. Vanity
• National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-
a. Director
b. General
c. President
d. Director-General
• Integrated product of intelligence developed by all government departments concerning the broad aspect of
national policy and national Security.
a National Intelligence
b.Departmental Intelligence
c. International Intelligence
d. Social Intelligence
• .The process of categorizing a document or information according to the degree of security needed.
a. Classification
b. Upgrading
c. Reclassification
d. None of these
• Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 4 years
d. 1 year
• It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.

a.Surveillant
b Subject
c. Interrogator
d. Interviewee
• The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose of
bringing him the truth that his throne might rest upon it.
a. Joseph Petrosino
b. Edgar Hoover
c. Napoleon Bonaparte
d. Akbar
• The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if the information is true and-
a Reliable
b. Correct
c. Probably true
d. Accurate
• It refers to those measures, which seek actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain information or engage in
espionage, subversion, and sabotage.
• Counter Intelligence
b. Passive Counter Intelligence
c. Active Counter Intelligence
d. Intelligence
• Chronological records of activities that took place in the establishment under surveillance.
a. Memory
b. records
c. Log
d. Report
• It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers.

a. Cryptography
b. Cryptanalysis
c. Decipher
d. Coding
• The protection resulting from the application of various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or
unauthorized person in gaining information through communication.
a. Communication Security
b. Physical Security
c. Document Security
d. Internal Security
• Those documents place on a Blue Folder are considered as:

a. Top Secret
b. Secret
c. Restricted
d. Confidential
• Documents which are classified as Secret should be placed on-

a. Blue Folder
b. Black folder
c. Green Folder
d. Red Folder
• It is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared to access and classify matters
at appropriate levels.
a. Security Clearance
b. Document Clearance
c. Interim Clearance
d. Nome of these
• Extreme precautions are taken against losing the subject is employed where constant surveillance is necessary.
a. Close tail
b. Loose tail
c. Rough Shadowing
d. Surveillance
• M evaluates the information as usually reliable and probably true.

a. C-4
b. B-3
c. B-2
d. C-5
• Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of _____________.

a. Russia
b. Germany
c. Israel
d. Pakistan
• Law enforcement in China was carried out by _______ which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of the
Spring and Autumn period.
a. Watch man
b. Prefect
c. Gendemarie
d. Constabulary
• She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a UN integral mission.

a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
d. None of these
• New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited jurisdiction on _______:

a. USA
b. New York
c. None of these
d. Los Angeles
• The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act:

a. RA 5678
b. RA 9165
c. RA 1298
d. RA 8792
• In the etymology of the word police the ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a person who_____?
a. Enforcing Law
b. Civil Policy
c. Guarding a City
d. Citizenship
• During the middle ages, there were two guard officer of the kingdom of France with police responsibilities those
are the Marshal of France and ________:
a. Constable of France
b. Queens Royal Guard
c. Scotland Yard
d. Constabulary
• Peace officers are treated as state servants and people have minimal share in their duties or any direct
connection with them. This reflected the:
a. Continental Theory
b. Home rule Theory
c. Old Concept
d. Modern concept
• The typical number of Detectives are roughly ________ of a police service personnel:
a. 75%
b. 5 to 10%
c. 15 to 25%
d. 7 to 10%
• In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes or those with an interstate components. The statement is:
a. Correct
b. Partially Correct
c. False
d. partly False
• This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in some sense transgress national borders:
a. International Policing
b. Global Policing
c. National Policing
d. Transnational Policing
• In US, he introduced police reforms to include educational requirement for police officer:
a. James Q. Wilson
b. Sir Henry Peel
c. August Volmer
d. O.W. Wilson
• The motto of Hongkong Police force:

a. Law and Order
b. Safer Communities together
c. Serve and Protect
d. We serve with pride and Care
• Where do you can find the so called Police Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for police officer whose
are changed of committing any form of misconduct:
a. Northern Ireland
b. England
c. China
d. Japan
• Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured of police force is identical up to the rank of?
a. Chief Constable
b. Chief Inspector
d. Inspector
• In USA, what state are among the first to hire women and minorities as police officer.
a. Massachusetts
b. California
c. New York
d. Washington
• In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank to inspector or sub-lieutenant?

a. Police Rank 4
b. Police Supervisor Rank 4
c. Police Officer Rank 1
d. Police Supervisor Rank 1
• In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest possible rank of its police personnel?
a. Police Rank 1
b. Police Officer Rank 1
c. Investigator 1
d. Constable
• It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest” police force
and in having, set up the foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as one
of the safety cities in the world.
a. Philippine National Polic

b. Hong Kong Police Force
c. Japan Police Department
d. National Police Agency
• It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force:

a. Commissioner General
b. Director General
c. Commissioner
d. Director
• The code of secrecy of Mafia:

a. Omerta
b. Morse
c. Nostra Compra
d. Cosa Nostra
• The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the:

a. Executive Assembly
b. Major Assembly
c. National Assembly
d. General Assembly
• The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run by the:

a. Director General
b. Supervisor
c. Inspector General
d. Secretary General
• In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
Chicago Police Department:
a. August Volmer
b. Margaret Adams
c. William Stewart
d. O.W. Wilson
• The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
a. Policeman
b. Chief Superintendent
c. Superintendent
d. Senior Superintendent
• It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in Japan:

a. Keishi
b. Koban
c. Omerta
d. Keiban
• In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the highest position in Japan Police Organization:
a. Commissioner Secretariat
b. Commissioner
c. Chairman
d. Commissioner General
• The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a Commissioner General who is appointed by:
a. Japans Emperor
b. Prime Minister
c. National Public Safety Commission
d. Japan Commission
• The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:

a. Junsa
b. Constable
c. Sergeant
d. Police Officer
• Irish Police are called:

a. Militsiya
b. Constable
c. Police Force
d. Garda Socha
• In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral Mission in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino police commissioner
of a United Nation Operation.
a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
d. None of these
• It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies on the absence of crime.
a. Home rule
b. Continental
c. Old police service
d. Modern police service
• The first secretary general of the Interpol.

a. Oskar Dressler
b. Ronald K. Noble
c. Johann Schober
d. Aberdeen Scotland
• The first president of the Interpol.

a. Oskar Dressler
b. Ronald K. Noble
c. Johann Schober
d. Aberdeen Scotland
• Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts fear and uses violence to accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope of activity.
a. Organized Crime
b. Transnational Crime
c. Transnational Organized crime
d. Terrorist
• Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
a. Al Qaeda
b. Jihad
c. Mafia
d. Nuestra Costra
• Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by members of the Islamic religion against the Jews?
a. Al Qaeda
b. Jihad
c. Mafia
d. Nuestra Costra
• It is the category of terrorist organization which is aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious freedom.
a. Revolutionary
b. Separalist
c. Ethnocentric
d. Political
• It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes committed via the internet:
a. Dynamic IP Address
b. Internet Protocol Address
c. Static IP Address
d. Email Address
• It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system or network of an individual, group or business enterprise
without the consent of the party’s system:
a. Computer Fraud
b. Hacking
c. Cracking
d. Theft
• It refers to a Code written with the intention of replicating itself.

a. Trojan Horse
b. Worm
c. Virus
d. None of these
• It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to establish a shared database among concerned agencies for
information on criminals,
methodologies, arrests and convictions on transnational crime
a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)

b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
d. Philippine National Police (PNP)
• What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?
a. KEISHI SOKAN
b. KEISHI SO
c. KEISHI KAN
d. KEIBU-HO
• The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be the “Father of Texas”.
a. Stephen Austin
b. Vernon Knell
c. Dave Batista
d. Johann Schober
• An order strengthening the operational, administrative and information support system of the PCTC. Under this
EO, the centre shall
exercise general supervision and control over NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
a. EO 100
b. EO 465
c. EO 465
d. EO 789
• Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years old then. What year will Amado will retire?
a. 2016
b. 2023
c. 2012
d. 2031
• It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP commissioned and non-commissioned officer may retire and be paid
separation benefits corresponding to a position two ranks higher than his/her rank:
a. Retirement in the next higher grad
b. Compulsory retirement
c. Early retirement program
d. Optional Retirement
• It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory
power over PNP members.
a. Internal Affairs Service
b. National Police Commission
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
d. National Appellate Board
• In police operational planning the use of the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable used for:
a. Arm confrontation
b. Relief Operation
c. Civil Disturbance
d. VIP Security
• What is the appropriate training course for POIII to SPOI?

a. Officers Senior Executive Course
b. Officer Basic Course
c. Senior Leadership Course d. Junior Leadership Course
• Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation of local chief executives as representative of the
NAPOLCOM:
Repeated unauthorized absences;
.II. Abuse of authority;

III. Habitual tardiness;
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
A. I, II, III, V
B. II, V, IV, I
C.I, II, IV, III
D. I, II, III, IV, V
• Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at known locations.
a. Functional Plan
b. Time Specific Plans
c. Tactical Plans
d. Operational Plans
• A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump sum of his retirement benefits for the period of the first
_____.
a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 2 years
• Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, Height, Weight and Education, only when the number of qualified
applicants falls below the minimum annual quota. Appointment status under a waiver program is ________.
a. Temporary
b. Probationary
c. Permanent
d. Regular
• __________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
life above and beyond the call of duty.
a. Meritorious Promotion
b. Special Promotion
c. Regular Promotion
d. On-the-Spot Promotion
• Which among the following has no promotional authority over the members of the PNP?
a. Deputy Director General
b. Director General
c. President of the Philippines
d. Regional Director
• Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from the service after due notice and summary hearings if it
was proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous period of:
a. 30 days or more
b. 15 days or more
c. 20 days or more
d. 60 days or more
• Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons following a high-risk stop.
• Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
• PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base pay since he was promoted. After five years from promotion,
what would be his monthly base pay after adding his longevity pay?
a. 21, 857.00
b. 19, 970.00
c. 24, 870.00
d. 31, 549.00
• It refers to those situations or conditions that may induce incidents for some kind of police action:
a. Police Accident
b. Police Brutality
c. Police Hazard
d. Police Operation
• The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means-

a. The Sword Bearer
b. The Base
c. Islamic Congregation
d. Ayman Al Zawahiri
• What kind of force is needed during armed confrontation?

a. Reasonable force
b. Logical Force
c. Rational Force
d. Evenhanded Force
• The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the picket line (or confrontation line) but should be stationed in
such manner that their presence may deter the commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from either
side. The members of the peace-keeping detail shall stay outside a _______ radius from the picket line.
a. 50 feet
b. 50 meter
c. 100 feet
d. 100 meter
• In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a patrol jeep, the subject must be-
a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject
b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject
d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject
• Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper escort,
preferably aided by a police woman. The statement is-
a. Partially True
b. Wholly True
c. Partially False
d. Wholly False
• During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public assemblies, employment of tear gas and water cannons
shall be made under the control and supervision of the-
a. Ground Commander b. Incident Commander
c. Immediate Commander d. Superior Officer
• What should be the action of patrol officers, when responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except?
a. Stop the car at some distance away from the scene.
b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
c. Determine the crime committed.
d. None of these
• Where should the patrol officer turnover the information and pieces of evidence gathered at the crime scene?
a. SOCO team
b. Immediate Supervisor
c. Responding unit
d. Medico Legal Officer
• Request for police assistance in the implementation of final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and of
administrative bodies on controversies within their jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate police
office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual implementation.
a. 3 days
b. 10 days
c. 5 days
d. 15 days
• It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and
refused to disperse despite earlier efforts.
• Tear Gas
• Water Cannon
• Truncheon
• Shield
• It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable
cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
criminal activity.
• Frisking
• Search
• Spot Check
• Pat-down Search
• Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
• Clear Zone
• Public Place
• Police Checkpoint
• Pre-Determined Area
• Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the public
in general. What police office is using this kind of blotter?
• Makati
• Cebu
• Baguio
• Davao
• It refers to the venue or place established or designated by local government units within their respective
jurisdictions where a public assembly could be held without securing any permit for such purpose from the local
government unit concerned.
• Secured Area
• Wide Space
• Freedom Park
• Clear Zone
• The police function in which patrol belong is:
• Line function
• Administrative function
• Staff function
• Auxiliary function
• Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near Josephine,
Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for successful robbery is
prevented.
• Ambition
• Intention
• Motive
• Opportunity
• Police personnel whose rank at the time of his retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the rank of
__________:
• Superintendent
• C/Superintendent
• Sr. Superintendent
• C/Inspector
• Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up without material interval for the purpose of taking into
custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one suspected to have committed a recent offense while
fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary to another that will normally require prior official inter-unit
coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot, at that moment, comply due to the urgency of the situation.
• Hot Pursuit
• Hasty Checkpoint
• Dragnet Operation
• High Risk Stop
• Which among the following terms is not related to each other?
• Hot Pursuit
• Fresh Pursuit
• Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
• Bright Pursuit
• Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the police, military and other peace keeping authorities shall
observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the same.
• Reasonable Force
• Greatest Lenience
• Maximum Tolerance
• Utmost Patience
• Which among the following aspects of a. Security is the weakest of them all?
a. Physical security
b. Personnel security
c. Document and information security
d. Personal Security
• “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-

a. Partially Correct
b. Partially Wrong
c. Absolutely Correct
d. Absolutely Wrong
• It refers to any structure or physical device capable of restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an
installation.
a. Hazard
b. Perimeter Barrier
c. Barrier
d .Energy Barrier
• It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards
on a full time basis.
a. Guard Control Stations
b. Tower
c. Tower Guard
d. Top Guard
• This lamps have the advantage of providing instant illumination when the switch is open and most commonly
used protective lighting system.
a. Incandescent Lamp
b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp
c. Mercury Vapor Lamp
d. Quarts Lamp
• The following are the areas to be lighted:

A.Parking Areas;
b.Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and
E.Susceptible Areas.
a. a, c, e
b. a, b, c, d
c. a, c, d, e
d. a, b, c, d, e
• It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of this record does not have the same value as the
original.
a. Vital Documents
b. Important Documents
c. Useful Documents
d. Non- Essential Documents
• It is the importance of firm with reference to the natural economy and security.
a.. Relative Operation
b Relative Security
c. Relative Vulnerability
d. Relative Criticality of Operation
• A new Private security agency that has been issued a temporary license to operate is good for how many years?
a. One
b. Two
c.Three
d.Four
• The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.

a.Segregation
b. Declassify
c. Reclassify
d. Exclusion
• The form of security that employs cryptography to protect information refers to:
A. Document and information security
b. Operational security
c. Communication security
d. Industrial security
• The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow complete visual access between two areas is:
a. Solid fence
b. Semi-solid fence
c. Full-view fence
d. Masonry Fence
• The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
a. 40 yrs. Old
b. 25 yrs. Old
c. 30 yrs. Old
d. 35 yrs. Old
• The following are the categories of automatic alarm system, except:

a. Photoelectric
b. Electric Eye Device
c. Audio detection
d. Bill Traps
• Which of the following is not a false key?
a. A picklock or similar tool .
b. A duplicate key of the owner.
c. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
d.Any key other than those intended by the owner.
• The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
a. 500 lbs.
b. 750 lbs.
c. 1000 lbs.
d. 600 lbs.
• The minimum number of guards required for a company security force is:
a. 1000
b. 30
c. 100
d. 200
• It refers to a system use in big installation whereby keys can open a group of locks.
a. Key Control
b. Master Keying
c. Change Key
d. Great Grand Master Key
• What is called as devices and contrivance installed inside and outside a facility to compliment and provide
additional security measures and operates to advertise entry into sensitive and protected area?
• Protective locks
• Protective cabinet
• Protective barrier
• Protective Lighting
• A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty:

a. Post
b. Beat
c. Area
d. Route
• The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands of inch.

• Measurement
• Caliper
• Buffer
• Calibre
• Chemical used to whiten paper pulp.
• Bleach
• Alum
• Sufite
• Pulp
• A form of printing to produce a raised impression or pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper.
• Lithograph printing
• Embossing
• Edge chains
• Reprographing
• The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper machine.
• Fourdrinier Brothers
• Bryan Donkin
• Nicholas-Louis Robert
• Milton Reynolds
• Quality of a paper related to the amount of light that can be transmitted through its surface.
• Thickness
• Opacity
• Translucent
• Texture
• Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective of document examiner is to determine and conclude with
scientific basis and technique who is the
• Beneficiaries
• Writer or signatory
• Master mind
• Conspirator
• In questioned document, it is where all characteristics are grouped.
• Class characteristics
• Individual characteristics
• Both A and B
• Neither
• Writing was written by one person when there is a sufficient number of identical writing habits and the absence of
divergent characteristics. This is in consonance with;
• Identification
• Non-identification
• Either
• Niether
• Embellishment is an example of
• Individual Characteristics
• Class Characteristics
• Both
• Neither
• Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to
• Speed in writing
• Defective writing instrument
• Unevenness of writing materials
• Among the following, which is not an element of movement?
• Line Quality
• Rhythm
• Speed Freedom
• emphasis
• Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift, except those at the
• Middle of the words/strokes
• End of the stroke
• Beginning of strokes
• B and C
• The orientation of the writing instrument is referred to as

• Pen position
• Pen hold
• Pen emphasis
• Pen orientation
• The relation between the tall and short letters is referred to as
• Ratio
• Proportion
• Line quality
• All
• In questioned document examination, it is referred to as the flourishing succession of motion which are recorded
in a written record.
• Line quality
• Rhythm
• Speed in writing
• Movement
• Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the letters relative to the
• Baseline
• Slope
• Alignment
• Staff
• Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that serve as a fundamental point of identification.
• Slant
• Habit
• Movement
• All
• Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which the writing ______
• Holds
• Rests
• Stays
• Slants
• Among the following, which is a common defect of forgery?
• Patching
• Retracing
• A and B
• None
• Letters that extend a distance vertically above the linear letters.
• Infra-linear
• Supra-linear
• Linear
• None
• The only question to tackle in this kind of signature forgery is the determination of the probable writer of the
forgery.
• Simple forgery
• Simulated forgery
• Traced forgery
• A and B
• A kind of signature forgery where the resemblance of the questioned signature and genuine is apparent.
• Fraudulent
• Simulated
• Simple
• Traced
• To identify whether simple forgery was committed, which of the following should be retrieved?
• Standard signature from the forger
• Standard of the genuine signature
• Standard of the person who made the forgery
• Identity of the forger
• One of the following statements best describe what a collected standard is.
• It has the advantage of easily finding it.
• Attempt to disguise is removed.
• The accused is aware that the specimen will be used against him.
• None
• Authenticity of private documents is not necessary when
• It is 30 years old
• More than 30 years old
• Less than 30 years old
• More or less 30 years old
• During paper manufacture, the following are included except
• Security fiber
• Watermarks
• Iridescent band
• Serial number
• Which of the following is not a crime called forgery?
• Forging the seal of the government
• Counterfeiting of coins
• Mutilation of coins
• Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or stamp
• The imitation of a legal or genuine coin.
• Counterfeit
• Mutilation
• Utter
• Import
• When a spurious coin is made, there is
• Counterfeiting
• Uttering
• Mutilation
• Importing
• Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud is
• Not punishable under the revised penal code
• Not punishable by any law
• Punishable under the revised penal code
• Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC.
• To make false instrument intended to be passed for the genuine one is a form of
• Falsification
• Forgery
• Tracing
• Fraud
• Which of the following method should be used in order for the naked eye to see a charred document?
• X-ray
• Spectrograph
• Ultra violet
• Infra red
• Which of the following security features of a paper bill does not react to ultra-violet light?
• Serial Number
• Watermark
• Fluorescent printing
• Invisible security fibers
• Paper is for china while papyrus is for
• Sumer
• Turkey
• Sumeria
• Egypt
• What is gustatory sensation?
• Smell
• Taste
• Skin
• Hearing
43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and there should be light and darkness which is daylight
and night. Among these, what is the basic component of photography?
• All of these
• Film
• Camera
• Light
• Positive result of photography is called –
• Picture
• Photograph
• Positive
• Negative
• Other term for lie detector is –
• GSR
• Pneumograph
• Cardiograph
• Polygraph
• In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost corner on the numerator?
• Yes
• Maybe
• No
• Sometimes
• Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples of light of short duration. Which among of these is popular
today?
• Flash bulb
• Electronic bulb
• Lamp
• Flash light
• Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint permanently?
• Yes
• No
• Maybe
• This time
• In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner examines the firearm usually involved in a crime or the case_____?
• In court
• In progress
• Controversy
• Handled
• In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false statement or signs of -
• Detection
• Deception
• Lie
• Untrue statement
• In typewriting examination which of the following first to be conducted?
• Examination of the questioned specimen
• Collecting of typewriting standards
• Locate the type writer used
• Examination of the exemplar
• Aside from fingerprint, what is the other identification in securing NBI clearance?
• Thumb mark
• Pending case
• Picture
• Signature
• Which of the following is a must to be considered in a sketch?
• Compass direction
• Name of placed
• Time
• Location
• In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you preserve perishable evidence like injuries, contusions,
hematoma and the like?
• Recording
• Sketching
• Photography
• Note taking
• In questioned document examination, it refers to a stroke which goes back to writing stroke.
• Patching
• Retouching
• Retracing
• Restroking
• In photography probe, when murder occurred showing disarray of cabinets, photography is essential to show
defense of the -
• Suspect
• Witness
• Victim
• Kibitzers
• In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the energy coming from the muzzle point is called -
• Armor-piercing
• Velocity
• Lead bullet
• Muzzle energy
• What are the two types of firearms according to the construction of the interior of the barrel?
• Short and long barreled firearms
• Small arms and artilleries
• Lands and grooves
• Smoothbore and rifled bore
• What is the symbol of tented arch?
• Dash
• T
• Te
• A and/or B
• It is the centermost part of the fingerprint pattern.
• Inner terminus
• Delta
• Inner shoulder
• Core
• Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found in the -
• Pattern area
• Delta
• Core
• Type lines
• What is the test in examination of blood if belong to human or animal?
• Takayama
• Benzidine
• Kestle Meyer
• Precipitin
• How many standards in questioned documents is needed to prove?
• 5 standards
• 10 signatures
• Sufficient amount
• 5 pages
• In USA, what year photography was used for court presentation?
• 1909
• 1859
• 1890
• 1903
• What is the official purpose of conducting post mortem examination?
• To determine the duration of death
• To determine the manner of death
• To determine the deadly weapon
• To determine the cause of death.
• What part of the polygraph machine is responsible in detecting pulse rate and heart beat?
• Kymograph
• Pneumograph
• Polygraph
• Cardiograph
• In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl, he or she has -
• Extra fingerprint
• Extra hand
• Extra finger
• Added finger
• What year did the colored photography was accepted in US court?
• 1956
• 1978
• 1946
• 1960
• Blood stays liquid for how many hours?
• 6-8 hours
• 9-10 hours
• 8-12 hours
• 3-6 hours
• The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph examination?
• James MacKenzie
• Angelo Mosso
• William Marston
• John Larson
• What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity?
• Blue
• Violet
• Pink
• Bright red
• In crime laboratory concerning the study of types, model of firearm and its bullets is done by -
• Ballistician
• Ballistic engineer
• Forensic engineer
• Firearm prober
• What is the type of document which is notarized by a RTC judge?
• Public
• Official
• Private
• None of these
• Going back to a defective portion of a writing stroke is called -
• Slicing
• Embracing
• Retouching
• Patching
• What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge from the chamber?
• Breech
• Firing pin
• Extractor
• Ejector
• The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is measured by -
• Gauge
• Caliber
• Caliper
• Hundredth of an inch
• In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the -
• Victim
• Investigator
• Object relative
• Prosecutor
• In fingerprint, which of the following is the pattern which refers to the rolled fingers onto the rolling impression
columns?
• Rolled impression
• Indexing impression
• Palm impression
• Little finger impression
• A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling of a gun is also termed as –
• Twist of rifling
• Gyroscopic action
• Rotating motion
• Pitch of rifling
• In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for scrutiny by litigants and others.
• Police photography
• Photograph
• Forensic photography
• Crime scene photography
• In what way to determine the date of a paper was made?
• Wiremark
• Trademark
• Copyright
• Watermark
• Tripod has how many feet?
• It depends
• Two
• Three
• Four
• In robbery case involving force upon things, which should be closely photographed?
• Weapons used
• Victims wounds
• Entrance and exit
• Things stolen
• What is the advantage of other agencies with other agencies when it comes to authenticity?
• Signature and photograph
• Thumb mark and photograph
• Thumb mark and signature
• Signature only
• What is the best test in determining the presence of blood?
• Benzedine
• Marquis
• Takayama
• Teichman
• Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds affects the result of polygraph examination?
• Yes
• No
• Depends
• Maybe
• It is where handwriting rest?
• Feet
• Vase line
• Baseline
• Alignment
• Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of the heart that results to death.
• Instantaneous rigor
• Heart attack
• Myocardial infarction
• Death
• In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is measured in millimeter by the -
• Kymograph
• Sphygmomanometer
• Pneumograph
• Galvanograph
• In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and importance of fingerprint is for -
• Indemnification
• Comparison
• Identification
• Collection
• Photography at the crime scene taken at the crime scene which will be used for court presentation is called -
• Crime scene photography
• Forensic photography
• Crime photography
• Police photography
• The study of projectiles the moment the bullet leaves the muzzle of the gun is a kind of –
• Interior ballistics
• Terminal ballistics
• Forensic ballistics
• Exterior ballistics
• A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is known for introducing the word “Criminalistics.”
• Hans Gross
• Alphonse Bertillon
• Prof. R.A. Riess
• Edmond Locard
• In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two deltas?
a. No
b. Never
c. Yes
d. Maybe
• A light proof box with a means of forming an image, with a means of holding sensitized material and with a
means of regulating the amount of light that enters the camera at a given time. a. camera
b. light
c. film
d. lens
• The location of the blood pressure in the chart paper
a. Side
b. Middle
c. Lower
d. Upper
• What is the most common death caused by asphyxia?
• strangulation
• drowning
• throttling
• Hanging
• What is being affected in intracranial hemorrhage?
a. brain
b. stomach
c. lung
• A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch
a. small firearm
b. handgun
c. revolver
d. shotgun
• What is the measure of the rubber tube in the pneumograph?
a. 20 inches
b. 10 inches
c. 7 inches
d. 8 inches
• An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. It must have:
a. the building itself
b. communication barrier
c. perimeter barrier
d. window barrier
• If the dead person is laying, where will the blood go during livor mortis?
• Back
• Neck
• Head
• Legs
• If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands?
• Yes
• No
• Partly Yes
• Partly No
• What is the other term for dot?
• Islet
• Core
• Delta
• Bifurcation
• In writing, what is being used?
• Finger
• Forearm
• Hands
• There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch, whorl and _____.
• Ulnar loop
• Radial loop
• Loop
• Arch
• Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this?
• Irrelevant
• Relevant
• Control
• Evidence
• In polygraph examination, what is being detected?
• Lying
• Dying
• Truth
• Response
• In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be conducted in the crime laboratory?
• DNA
• Microscope examination
• Chemical examination
• Serology examination
• If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will be the effect to the fingerprint?
• Blurred
• Sticky
• Classified
• Clear
• What is found on the left white portion of the portrait?
• Vignette
• Watermark
• Security fiber
• Fiber
• In Henry System how many clasifications of fingerprints are there?
• 2
• 3
• 8
• 7
• Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and sickness is what kind of signature?
• Genuine
• Spurious
• Forged
• Simulated
• If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you consider it as rape on minor?
• Yes
• No
• Partly Yes
• Partly No
• In polarization film, how long is the developing?
• 5 minutes
• 7 min
• 3 min
• 8 minutes
• What do you call the outer cover of the bullet?
• Jacketed
• Metallic
• Silver
• Ogive
• In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and _____.
• Hemotoxic
• Viral
• Surgical
• B or C
• Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not admissible?

• Under experimental stage
• Under analysis
• Based on opinion
• Unskill
• Phos means light, graphia means _____.

• Write
• Study
• Technology
• Record
• In major classification, the right thumb is the numerator while the left is the denominator?
• Yes
• No
• It depends
• If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you photograph even though there is no SOCO photographer?
• Vehicular accident scene
• Infanticide scene
• Homicide scene
• Parricide scene
• What is the most common symptom of coma?
• Unconsciousness
• Blackening of lips
• Dilated eyes
• consciousness
• The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking?
• H2O
• Blood
• Air
• Anesthesia
• In police laboratory, the one examined by biologist is not limited to ____.
• Semen
• Blood
• Riverstone
• None of these
• These bullets when fired emit bright red flame from their base, thereby showing the gunner the path as well as
the striking point of the bullet.
• Jacketed bullet
• Armor-piercing
• Semi-wed cutter bullet
• Tracer bullet
• The caliber of the firearms can be determined by the bore diameter measured from:
• Land to firearm
• Land to land
• Land to groves
• Groves to land
• The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is sealed by a solid flat block of metal against which the barrel
comes into position when the weapon is closed for firing, which is termed as:
• Extractor
• Breechface
• Head space
• Breechblock
• The firearms that propelled projectiles more than one inch in diameter is called.
• Machine gun
• Musket
• Artillery
• Single-shot firearm
• A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class characteristics of:
• Four lands, four grooves right twist
• Six lands, six grooves left twist
• Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
• Five lands, five grooves right twist
• To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability in its
flight is called:
• Range
• Gauge
• Rifling
• Center-fire
• Most commonly these marks are found on bullets fired from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of the cylinder
with the bore:
• Shaving marks
• Skid marks
• Pivot marks
• landmarks
1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to:
• James Forsythe
• Philip O. Gravelle
• Van Amberg
• Berthold Scwartz
• That science dealing with the motion of projectile from the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to the time it
reaches the muzzle of the barrel is called:
• Posterior ballistics
• The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
useful in directly identifying the:
• Person who fired the particular gun
• Direction form which a shot was fired
• Gun from which a bullet was fired
d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound
• A patrolman should fire his pistol:

• At no time
• Primarily to stop a quarrel
• To impress upon citizen the need for respect
• Only as a last resort
• . Which of the following, the best method to use in firing a revolver is to keep:
• Both eyes closed
• Both eyes open
• Only the right eye is open
• Only the left eye is open
• .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling
which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the following statement the one which can most accurately be
inferred is that:
• Most pistols have the same number of grooves
• Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right
• The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either left or right
• All of the above
• The secret of good shooting form is:
• Proper sighting of the target
• Firing slowly and carefully
• A relaxed and natural position
• Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
• The term muzzle velocity refers most accurately to the:

• Acceleration of the projectile in flight
• Average speed of the bullet in flight
• Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
• Discharged bullet are initiated at:

• On base or nose
• Left side
• Right side
• The end of the bullet
• Discharged shell are initiated at:
• Inside or outside of a case near open end
• Where firing pin strikes
• On any part of the shell
• Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
• Increase the speed of the bullet
• Decrease the amount of recoil
• Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
• Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air
• The caliber of the gun is:

• Its barrel length
• The circumference of its barrel
• The size of the ammunition used
• Diameter of the bore
• A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of the exploded shell have been recovered by the investigator
of the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given:
• The cap, the weds and the pellets
• The cap and the wads
• The cap and the pellets
• The shot shell only
• Which of the following, the most accurate statement concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
means of the ballistics is that:
• Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight lands
• The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined by the angle of lead
• Pistols with the same number of land can be differentiated by the direction of the lead
• The angle lead is the angle which the land from the width of the groove
• The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
useful in directly identifying the:
• Person who fired the particular gun
• Direction form which a shot was fired
• Gun from which a bullet was fired
• Bullet which caused a fatal wound
• A patrolman should fire his pistol:
• At no time
• Primarily to stop a quarrel
• To impress upon citizen the need for respect
• Only as a last resort
• Which of the following, the best method to use in firing a revolver is to keep:
• Both eyes closed
• Both eyes open
• Only the right eye is open
• Only the left eye is open
• .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling
which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the following statement the one which can most accurately be
inferred is that:
• Most pistols have the same number of grooves
• Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right
• The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either left or right
• The secret of good shooting form is:
• Proper sighting of the target
• Firing slowly and carefully
• A relaxed and natural position
• The term muzzle velocity refers most accurately to the:
• Acceleration of the projectile in flight
• Average speed of the bullet in flight
• Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
• Discharged bullet are initiated at:
• On base or nose
• Left side
• Right side
• The end of the bullet
• Discharged shell are initiated at:

• Inside or outside of a case near open end
• Where firing pin strikes
• On any part of the shell
• Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
• Increase the speed of the bullet
• Decrease the amount of recoil
• Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
• Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air
• The caliber of the gun is:
• Its barrel length
• The circumference of its barrel
• The size of the ammunition used
• Diameter of the bore
• A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of the exploded shell have been recovered by the investigator
of the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given:
• The cap, the weds and the pellets
• The cap and the wads
• The cap and the pellets
• The shot shell only
• Which of the following, the most accurate statement concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
means of the ballistics is that:
• Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight lands
• The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined by the angle of lead
• Pistols with the same number of land can be differentiated by the direction of the lead
• The angle lead is the angle which the land from the width of the groove
• Paraffin test is used to:
• Detect whether a witness is telling the truth
• Discover whether the deceased person was poisoned
• Estimate the approximate time of death of the deceased
• Determine whether a suspect has fired a gun recently
• The term double action with reference to revolver means most nearly that:
• The revolver has both safely and automatic firing action
• Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released the hammer
• The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell ejection
• The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge is pushed from the magazine at the same time
• The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or Rifle barrels is called:
• Land
• Groove
• Lead
• One complete revolution inside the bore
• Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a shell by the:
• Firing
• Ejector
• Extractor
• Hammer
• It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the chamber is called the:
• Ejector
• Primer
• Striker
• extractor
• A revolver to be tested and used in evidence should be picked up by:

• Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel
• Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger guard
• Grasping the handle with the handkerchief
• Grasping the barrel with clean cloth
• The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol found at the scene of the crime is normally not individual marked
for identification in the:
• Trigger
• Ejector
• Slide
• barrel
• The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is usually a:
• Rifled bore
• Choke bore
• Full choke bore
• Smooth bore
• The maximum distance form the muzzle at which a firearm discharge will usually produce detectable powder
pattern on a target is about:
• 6 to 10 inches
• 6 to 10 feet
• 6 to 10 yards
• 6 to 10 meters
• When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a criminal:
• The empty shell remain within the chamber
• The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of firing
• The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
• The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
• When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index finger should:
• Grasp the stock
• Be straight along the barrel
• Touch the outside of the trigger guard
• Be inside of the trigger guard
• A member of the police force may properly used his pistol:
• To disperse a disorder group of people
• To subdue a maniac
• To prevent the escape of a pelon
• To stop a man suspected of having committed a crime
• A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found a revolver, in reference to this he should be most careful:
• To see that it is not loaded
• To put on the safety lock
• Not to handle it unnecessarily
• To mark it readily on the barrel
• The term “MAGNUM” originated in:

• United States
• France
• England
• Italy
• The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm due to rusting or the action of salts deposited from the cap or
gunpowder is:
• Pressure
• Extractor
• Corrosion
• Priming Composition
• The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an arm due to sliding friction when the bullet passes through is:
• Ejector
• Single action
• Erosion
• Potassium nitrate
• When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire continuously while the trigger is depressed is called:
• Double action
• Caliber
• Automatic
• Trigger
• The distance that the rifling advances to make one complete turn inside the gun barrel is called:
• Gauge
• Breech End
• Velocity
• Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger releases the hammer that must be manually cocked is called:
• Automatic
• Repeating arms
• Single action
• Ejector
• Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both cocks and releases the hammer:
• Single action
• Trigger
• Hammer
• Double action
• When a barrel of a game guns are almost invariability bored with a slightly constriction near the muzzle end is
known as:
• Shotgun
• Choke
• Gauge
• Chamber
• The only sure method of determining the velocity is by the use of:
• Micrometer
• Taper Gauge
• Caliber
• Chronograph
• One of the most important single case in Firearms Identification History was that involving two men who were
supposed to have their employer and his housekeeper in upper New York State:
• Castelo Case
• Timbol Case
• The Stielow Case
• Castaneda case
• During the seven years of radical agitation that followed the arrest of these men , It was apparently forgotten that
they had been seized on specific charge of murdering one Parameter, a paymaster and his guard Berrdelli.
Forensic Ballistics sprange into national prominence during this last phrase of:
• Brownell Case
• Sacco-Vanzetti Case
• Mitchell Case
• Weber Case
• He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the First World War who had transferred to the ordinance corps and
considered the Father of modern Ballistics:
• Lieutenant Van Amberg
• Maj. Calvin Goddard
• Capt. Edward C. Crossman
• Philip O. Gravelle
• The most important single process in barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the identification expert is:
• Reaming operation
• Rifling operation
• Boring operation
• Grinding or machining
• That part of the mechanism in a firearm which causes empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown from the gun
is called:
• Extractor
• Ejector
• Hammer
• trigger
• This process of combustion results in the solid powder being converted into gases rapidly, and at a high
temperature, and it is the expansion of these gases which causes the explosive force which propels the bullet or
shot charge along the barrel. This force is known as:
• Energy
• Pressure
• Velocity
• High Intensity
• A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with the right hand twist is:
• Smith & Wesson
• Browning type
• Colt type
• Webley type
• An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by the expansive force of gases coming from burning powder
a:
• Helixometer
• Firearm
• Stereoscopic
• Comparison microscope
• A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body of the bullet which contains lubricant in order to minimize
friction during the passage of the bullet inside the bore is:
• Jacketed bullet
• Wad cutter bullet
• Cannelure
• Plated bullet
• The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its original trajectory is:
• Range
• Fouling
• Key hole shot
• ricochet
• Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or there is a delayed in explosion due to faulty functioning of
the primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is:
• Misfire
• Recoil
• Hang-fire
• velocity
• type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as phosphorus or other material, that can set fire upon impact is
called:
• Boat tail bullet
• Tracer bullet
• Incendiary bullet
• Ball type
• A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than 22”.
• Gatling guns
• Pistolized shotgun
• Carbine
• muskets
• A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by means of compressed air is:
• Springfield armory
• Marlin rifle
• Carbine
• Air rifle
• The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol is:
• 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist
• A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to:
• Caliber .32
• Caliber .25
• Caliber .45
• Caliber .22
• How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch shot shotgun cartridges contains:
• 12 gauge
• 24 pellets
• 6 pellets
• 9 pellets
• Here is a case, when two specimens are examined under the comparison microscopic and was erroneously
drawn a conclusion and actually no identity exist, this matching is called:
• Photomicrograph
• Pseudomatch
• Microphotograph
• striagraph
• When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a stationary position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its natural
tendency is to go straight forward before encountering the regular rifling twist is called:
• Shaving marks
• Skidmarks
• Slippage marks
• Those characteristics which are determinable only after the manufacture of the firearm. They are characteristics
whose existence is beyond the control of men and which have random distribution. Their existence in a firearm is
brought about through the failure of the tool in its normal operation through wear and tear, abuse, mutilation,
corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous causes:
• Class characteristics
• Riflings
• The steel block which closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge is:
• Breechface
• Breechblock
• Chamber
• bore
• Firearms which propel projectile of less than one inch in diameter are generally classified as:
• Artillery
• Small arms
• Cannons
• Recoilless rifle
• It is the study of firearms Identification by means of the ammunition fired through them:
• Ballistics
• Forensic Ballistics
• The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson, revolver caliber .38 is:
• Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
• Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
• Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
• Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
• Velocity of the bullet is being measure in:
• Foot pound
• Lbs./sq. inch
• Feet per second
• millimeter
• How many types of problem are there in Forensic Ballistics?
• 8
• 7
• 6
• 5
• What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the flame coming from the priming composition passes?
• Shell head
• Vent
• Primer pocket
• anvil
• What is the most powerful handgun in the world?
• Magnum .357
• Magnum .44
• Magnum .50
• Magnum .41
• What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in millimeter?
• 7.65mm
• 6.35 mm
• 9 mm
• 7.63 mm
• When a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in explosion;
• Misfired cartridge
• Hang-fire
• Tapered cartridge
• Rebated cartridge
• What is the equipment in measuring the velocity of the bullet?
• Omoscope
• Helixometer
• Chronograph
• micrometer
• Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination of:
• Pitch grifling
• Twist
• Lands & grooves
• cannelures
• The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm after explosion is called:
• Suppressor
• Muzzle blast
• Compensation
• choke
• What are muzzle loading firearms?
• Muskets
• Shotgun
• Single sot firearms
• Rifled arms
• In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you mean by 51?
• The diameter of the cartridge case
• The shoulder of the cartridge case
• The diameter of the cartridge
• The length of the cartridge case
• A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent
• Caliber .32
• Caliber .30
• Caliber .308
• Caliber 30.06
• How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot shotgun cartridge 12 gauge?
• 12 pellets
• 9 pellets
• 10 pellets
• 16 pellets
• . A firearm which features a movable firearm which is manually actuated in motion parallel to the barrel by the
shooter;
• Slide action type
• Lower action type
• Bolt action type
• Single shot firearm
• A device primarily designed for another purposes that have a gun mechanism in corporated in them.
• Gas gun
• Liberator
• Freakish device
• Flare guns
• The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into the head of the cartridge case to shotshell to identify the
manufacturer, caliber or gauge.
• Headspace
• Headstamp
• Proof mark
• ratchet
• The distance from the face of the closed breech of a firearm to the surface in the chamber on which the
cartridge seats.
• Keyhole
• Headspace
• Gas operator
• Silencer
• The most important single process in barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the identification expert.
• Reaming operation
• Rifling operation
• Boring operation
• Grinding operation
• The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the target sideways;
• Ricochet
• Hang-fire
• Key hole shot
• misfired
• An obsolete barrel designed in which the major length of the barrel in smooth and the few inches are rifled.
• Gas operated
• Damascus barrel
• Paradox gun
• Cape gun
• A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder to rotate when force is applied by a level called a hand.
• Headspace
• Ratchet
• Trigger pull
• Cylinder stop
• A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger to prevent accident discharge or damage to it.
• Trigger pull
• Trigger guard
• Trailing edge
• Thumb rest
• Pressure developed after explosion is measured in:
• feet/second
• Lbs./sq. inch
• Foot pound
• Millimetre
• Used in cases such as for sending signals and enabling to see enemies in the dark.
• Harpoon guns
• Gas guns
• Flare guns
• Care guns
• In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the second 30?
• Refers to the caliber
• Refers to the weight of gunpowder
• Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
• Refers to the weight of the bullet
• In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.
• Muzzle energy
• Diameter of the cartridge
• Muzzle velocity of the bullet
• Pressure developed
• In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more than one bullets will come out of the barrel in one press of
the trigger?
• Slide
• Main spring
• Disconnector
• Magazine catch
• The amount of force which must be applied to the trigger of a firearm to cause sear to be released.
• Velocity
• Muzzle energy
• Trigger pull
• Shocking power
• Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in police photography?
• Single, glossy, white
• Single, matte, cream
• Double, glossy, white
• Double matte, cream
• When a photograph was developed, the objects in open space casts a deep and uniform shadow, what was the
lighting condition when the shot was taken?
• Bright
• Dull
• Hazy
• Cloudy
• Refers to the response of film to different wavelength of light source.

• Spectral sensitivity
• Color sensitivity
• Light sensitivity
• Film sensitivity
• A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only.
• Blue sensitive
• Orthochromatic
• Panchromatic
• Infra red
• Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no shadow.
• Bright
• Dull
• Hazy
• Cloudy
• Lens corrected for astigmatism.

• Aprochomat lens
• Anastigmat lens
• Achromatic lens
• Rapid rectilinear lens
• A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with focal length that is:
• Wide angle lens
• Normal lens
• Telephoto lens
• Narrow angle lens
• When a material does not allow light to pass its medium it is said to be:
• Transparent
• Translucent
• Opaque
• To separate colors, this homogenous medium absorbs and transmits light rays passing through it.
• Filter
• Stop bath
• Developer
• Fixer
• In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens type for interior photograph?
• Wide angle lens
• Normal lens
• Telephoto lens
• Narrow angle lens
• It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined time interval.
• View finder
• Shutter
• Light tight box
• Holder of sensitized material
• Its primary use in photography is focus the light to the subject.
• Light tight box
• Shutter
• Lens
• View finder
• It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is focused with a given particular diaphragm opening.
• Depth of field
• Hyper-focal distance
• Focal distance
• Scale bed
• It is the distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object.
• Depth field
• Scale bed
• Focal distance
• Which among the following is not a primary color?
• Red
• Blue
• Yellow
• Green
• It is a microscopically small photograph.
• Microphotograph
• Photomicrograph
• Photomacrograph
• Macrophotograph
• The normal developing time of a paper or film.
• 1 to 1 ½ minutes
• 5 to 10 minutes
• 20 to 30 minutes
• In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal paper for printing?
• Chloride paper
• Bromide paper
• Contact paper
• Chloro-bromide paper
• This refers to the absence of all colors.
• White
• Red
• Blue
• Black
• A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts a transparent shadow.
• Hazy
• Cloudy Dull
• Cloudy bright
• Bright
• To view watermarks in disputed documents, what particular method of photography is utilized?
• Bounce light
• Side light
• Transmitted light
• Reflected light
• Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of two chemical solution in chemical processing in
photography.
• Development
• Stop-bath
• Fixation
• Bleaching
• Which among the following comprises the essential parts of a camera?
• Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized material, View finder
• Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized material, View finder
• Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized material, Shutter
• Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, holder of sensitized material
• A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative material.
• Wide angle lens
• Normal lens
• Long lens
• Telephoto lens
• Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of convergence of light coming from a subject as seen from two
apertures.
• Focusing scale
• Scale bed
• View finder
• Range finder
• It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular of a
compound microscope.
• Microphotograph
• Photomicrograph
• Photomacrograph
• Macrophotograph
• Attributed as the person who first discovered first true photography.
• William Henry Fox Talbot
• Thomas Wedgewood
• Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre
• Joseph Nicephore Niepce
• Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright sunlight with normal subject.
• 1/30 f-8
• 1/125 f-11
• 1/60 f-4
• 1/250 f 2-8
• In police photography, to obtain a general view of the scene we use a camera at what particular level?
• Elevated
• Eye level
• Bird’s eye view
• Worm’s eye view
• The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in reference to visible light is:
• 001 to 100
• 300 to 400
• 400 to 700
• 700 to 1000
• Photography is defined as drawing with what particular element?
• Light
• Camera
• Film
• Developer
• It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker center and thinner sides.
• Positive lens
• Negative lens
• Concave lens
• Convex lens
• It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the various energies of the electromagnetic spectrum.
• Infra-red
• X-ray
• Orthochromatic
• Panchromatic
• The first use of photography in police work is in what particular field?
• Crime prevention
• Identification files
• Surveillance work
• Crime scene investigation
• The chemical processing step wherein the latent image recorded on the paper or film becomes visible.
• Fixer
• Bleacher
• Stop bath
• Developer
• Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of microscope.

• Microphotography
• Photomicrography
• Macrophotography
• Photomacrography
• The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of image refers to:
• Focal distance
• Focusing
• Focal length
• Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
• Laser light
• Coherent light
• Black light
• Heat rays
• The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in logarithmic values refers to:
• ISO rating
• ASA rating
• DIN rating
• BSI rating
• Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing solution.
• Hypo or silver halide
• Potassium Alum
• Sodium Sulfate
• Acetic Acid
• Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.
• Hydroquinone
• Sodium sulfite
• Sodium carbonate
• Potassium bromide
• Refers to the product of illumination and time.
• Exposure
• Development
• Sensitized material
• Photograph
• Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging.
• Potassium Bromide
• Sodium Sulfite
• Sodium Carbonate
• Boric Acid
• A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits differentially light rays passing through it.
• Stop bath
• Fixer
• Filter
• Dektol
• Papillary or friction ridges may be located at:
• Fingers
• Palms
• Soles of the feet
• The fingerprint classification which is used in the US and other English speaking country.
• Henry System
• Batley System
• Bertillion System
• Galton System
• Which among the following is considered as a basic type of ridge characteristics?
• Ridge endings
• Bifurcation
• Dots
• Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of papillary ridges as means of identification.
• Edgeoscopy
• Poroscopy
• Podoscopy
• Chiroscopy
• In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject’s hand is:
• Necessary
• Unnecessary
• Optional
• Excessive
• Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is:
• Temporary
• Permanent
• Lasting
• Stable
• An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
• Porelon
• Special pad
• Inkless pad
• None of the foregoing
• If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impression are arbitrarily classified as.
• Plain whorl with meeting tracing
• Loops with ridge count
• Arches
• Dependent on ridge tracings
• Referred to as outer terminus:
• Delta
• Dots
• Bifurcation
• Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:
• Impression of false markings
• Accentuation of patterns
• Pattern reversals
• Difficulty in photographing
• In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from the body of the subject.
• All fingers
• All fingers except the thumbs
• Both thumbs
• Both little fingers
• Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card are referred to as:
• Rolled impressions
• Plain impressions
• Fragmentary impressions
• Visible impressions
• Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals in the world are exactly the same size and that human
skeleton does not change after 20 years.
• Darwin
• Mendel
• Galton
• Bertillon
• The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is to view the area:
• Obliquely
• About half an inch distance
• Directly
• About one inch distance
• Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of pattern are represented:
• Accidental Whorl
• Central pocket loop
• Double loop
• Whorl
• A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with its respective shoulder and deltas.
• Double loop
• Accidental loop
• Whorl
• A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has two deltas.
• Accidental loop
• Double loop
• Whorl
• What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the thumb toward the little finger?
• Tented Arch
• Radial loop
• Ulnar loop
• Loop
• A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a recurve, and terminate
on the same side where the ridge has entered.
• Tented arch
• Radial loop
• Ulnar loop
• Loop
• It is a triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern.
• Latent prints
• Ridge
• Core
• Delta
• The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:

• Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts
• Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs
• Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
• Type lines, converging ridges and recurving ridges
• A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge is called:
• Enclosure ridge
• Dot ridges
• Short ridges
• Resembling a loop
• Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges.

• Soles of the foot
• Palm
• Finger
• Elbow
• Points often missed in rolling impression.
• Bifurcation
• Core
• Delta
• Ridge
• Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an impression or imprint.
• Latent print
• Pattern
• Loop
• Arch
• Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
• Loop
• Arch
• Whorl
• Accidental
• A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes.
• Whorl
• Double loop
• Accidental
• Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as a means of identification.
• Poroscopy
• Edgeoscopy
• Podoscopy
• Dactyloscopy
• A ridge which forks out into two ridges.
• Delta
• Bifurcation
• Core
• Pores
• Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or ridges from the little finger toward the thumb.
• Ulnar loop
• Radial loop
• Arch
• Whorl
• Basis of fingerprint identification.
• Pores
• Ridges
• Friction ridges
• Latent print
• Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of identification due to following reason; except:
• Fingerprints are not changeable
• There are no two identical fingerprints
• Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear
• It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy
• Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are formed and developed?
• 3rd month of fetus life
• 6th month of infancy
• At birth
• 3 months after birth
• Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or rod.
• Delta
• Core
• Ridge
• Whorl
• Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the identity between two points.
• Nine
• Twelve
• Fifteen
• Eighteen
• Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical and chemical properties, physiological action, treatment and
method of detection.
• Forensic Chemistry
• Toxicology
• Posology
• Forensic Medicine
• A substance which when introduced into the body is absorbed in the blood stream and acting chemically is
capable of producing noxious effect.
• Drugs
• Dangerous drugs
• Poison
• Antidotes
• Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in
the abdomen and purging.
• Corrosives
• Irritants
• Narcotics
• Tetanics
• When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord producing immobility or stiffness to the parts to which they
are attached, it is classified as:
• Corrosives
• Irritants
• Narcotics
• Tetanics
• In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important application in:
• Counterfeit coins
• Theft and Robbery
• Bombs and Explosives
• Restoration of tampered serial numbers
• Agents which depress or retard the physiological action of an organ.
• Corrosives
• Sedatives
• Tetanics
• Narcotics
• According to the methods of isolation, what poison is isolated by means of distillation.

• Volatile poisons
• Non volatile poisons
• Metallic poisons
• Tetanic poisons
• When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance of function or death within a short time, the poisoning is
classified as:
• Acute poisoning
• Sub-acute poisoning
• Chronic poisoning
• Suicidal poisoning
• When the action of the poison is marked by disturbance produced in distant part from the site of application, it is
classified as:
• Local
• Remote
• Combined
• Acute
• Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body.

• Semen
• Blood
• Cells
• Muscles
• A man of average built would normally have how many quarts of blood?
• 6 quarts
• 7 quarts
• 8 quarts
• 9 quarts
• It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about 65% of the blood.
• Platelets
• Fibrin
• Leucocytes
• Plasma
• It is the oxygen carrier of the blood.
• Plasma
• Hemoglobin
• Erythrocytes
• Fibrin
• Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is decomposed and stained with contamination.
• Benzidine test
• Van Deen’s Test
• Phenolphthalein test
• Precipitin test
• Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof that subject is definitely blood.
• Preliminary test
• Confirmatory test
• Precipitin test
• Blood typing and grouping
• Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.
• Preliminary test
• Confirmatory test
• Precipitin test
• Blood typing and grouping
• Positive result in the preliminary examination for semen in Barberio’s test.

• Picric acid
• Spermine picrate
• Napthol diazonium
• Anthraquinous chloride
• Animal fiber may be best described by:
• It is composed of protein
• Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet light
• It burns fast
• It has acid like odor when burned
• When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the approximate time of firing the gun?
• Soot
• Nitrates and nitrites
• Gases
• Metallic fragments
• In determining whether the hair is of human or animal origin what should the chemist examine under the
microscope?
• Parts of the shaft
• Parts of the tip
• Parts of the hair
• Parts of the root
• A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue litmus to red, it is:
• Cotton
• Silk
• Fiber glass
• Steel wool
• It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race determinant?
• Cortex
• Cuticle
• Medulla
• Shaft
• A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of human or animal origin
• Ignition test or burning
• Fluorescence analysis
• Chemical analysis
• Microscopic analysis
• Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is ineffective.
• Carbon
• Logwood
• Nigrosine
• Gallotanic
• Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its effects.
• Emetics
• Antidotes
• Alkaloids
• Tetanics
• Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed to u.v. light?
• Blood
• Semen
• Saliva
• Urine
• Oldest known explosive.
• Black powder
• Smoke powder
• Dynalite
• TNT
• Deals with the study and identification by means of body fluids.
• Immunology
• Serology
• Posology
• Pharmacology
• The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.
• Casting
• Cementing
• Moulage
• Pickling
• Major component of a glass.
• Lime
• Silica
• Soda
• Lime
• Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of tissues and causes nausea.
• Corrosives
• Irritants
• Tetanics
• Asthenics
• A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.

• Lime
• Soda
• Glass
• Gel
• An organic bacterial poison.
• Strychnine
• Ptomaine
• Brucine
• Chloroform
• This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained clothing.
• Microscopic test
• Barberio’s test
• Florence test
• Ultraviolet test
• The best method in comparative soil analysis.
• Chemical examination
• Density gradient test
• Ultra-violet light examination
• Microscopic test
• To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?
• Accelerated aging test
• Bursting strength test
• Opacity examination
• Microscopic examination
• A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.
• Chloride
• Ammonia
• Carbon dioxide
• Hydrogen sulfide
• The application of chemical principles in the examination of evidence.
• Forensics
• Criminalistics
• Instrumentation
• Forensic Chemistry
• To positively determine the presence of blood in stained material, what test is used?
• Takayama Test
• Phenolphtalien test
• Baberio’s test
• Florence test
• According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons may be isolated by means of what process?
• Extraction
• Dilution
• Distillation
• Dialysis
• Which of the following is not an accurate test for the presence of alcohol in the human body?
• Saliva test
• Harger breath test
• Fecal test
• Drug test
• A disturbance produced by poison on that part with which the poison came into contact.
• Acute
• Local
• Remote
• Combined
• A material which is used to which is used to improve the quality of the paper.
• Sizing material
• Rosin
• Gelatin
• Starch
• By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be formed if it is pesent.
• Rosin
• Starch
• Casein
• Gelatin
• Oldest ink material known to man.
• Logwood
• Nigrosine
• Carbon
• Gallotanic
• Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.
• Logwood
• Nigrosine
• Carbon
• Gallotanic
• It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing ink, pencil or other marking material.
• Erasure
• Obliterated writing
• Indented writing
• Contact writing
• Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male pelvis.
• Greater
• Equal
• Lesser
• Less significant
• How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to
declare a person clinically dead?
• 10-15 minutes
• 15-30 minutes
• 30-45 minutes
• 45-60 minutes
• A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration by placing water or mercury in a container on top of the
chest of a person and no visible movement is noticed.
• Winslov test
• Florence test
• Barberio test
• Castle Meyer test
• A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and in which it no longer responds to
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins.
• Stage of primary flaccidity
• Stage of secondary flaccidity
• Rigor mortis
• Livor mortis
• In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in how many days?
• 7
• 14
• 21
• 28
• Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days from death?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, loss of alignment of the affected bones and separation of
fragment bones.
• Simple fracture
• Compound fracture
• Comminuted fracture
• Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.
• Internal hemorrhage
• Hematoma
• Contusion
• Internal wound
• Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
• Imprint abrasion
• Pressure abrasion
• Friction abrasion
• Graze
• Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with accompanying movement over the skin.
• Pressure abrasion
• Imprint abrasion
• Impact abrasion
• Graze
• A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion and loss of consciousness.
• Epilepsy
• Apoplexy
• Catalepsy
• Uremia
• Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition seen in
urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma and convulsion.
• Epilepsy
• Apoplexy
• Catalepsy
• Uremia
• Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours when the blood has already clotted or
diffused to different parts of the body wherein the discoloration is permanent and darker in color?
• 12 hours
• 24 hours
• 36 hours
• 48 hours
• In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with either group A or B what would be the particular blood
group of the sample.
• Group A
• Group B
• Group AB
• Group O
• Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
• 10 years
• 20 years
• 30 years
• 40 years
• It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
• Saponification
• Rigor mortis
• Mummification
• Maceration
• A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent
portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
• Rigor mortis
• Primary flaccidity
• Maceration
• Livor mortis
• Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
• 2 to 3 hours
• 3 to 4 hours
• 4 to 5 hours
• 5 to 6 hours
• Rate of growth of human hair.
• 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day
• 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day
• 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day
• 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day
• A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is about:
• 10 to 15 deg. F
• 15 to 20 deg. F
• 20 to 25 deg. F
• 25 to 30 deg. F
• A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
• Wound
• Trauma
• Bruise
• Scratch
• A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger one’s life.
• Non-mortal wound
• Mortal wound
• Trauma
• Coup injury
• A collection of blood underneath the skin.
• Contusion
• Bruise
• Petechiae
• Hematoma
• Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.
• Sprain
• Contusion
• Fracture
• Dislocation
• It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.
• Simple
• Compound
• Comminuted
• Dislocation
• A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds.
• Sprain
• Fracture
• Hematoma
• Dislocation
• In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that
it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately.
• 6 inches
• 12 inches
• 18 inches
• 24 inches
• A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of the application of force.
• Extensive injury
• Coup injury
• Contre coup injury
• Coup and contre coup injury
• A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.
• Extensive injury
• Coup injury
• Contre coup injury
• Coup and contre coup injury
• A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and stone.
• Punctured wound
• Hack wound
• Lacerated wound
• Incised wound
• When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be exhibited?
• Punctured wound
• Hack wound
• Lacerated wound
• Incised wound
• Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.
• Punctured wound
• Hack wound
• Lacerated wound
• Incised wound
• The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A stands for what?
• Adenine
• Adenide
• Adenum
• Adenoid
• In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what sample should be obtained for DNA testing?
• Fingerprints
• Hair
• Skeleton
• Teeth
• It is inherited from the mother found in the mitochondria which is in the cell body
• Nuclear DNA
• Helix
• Mitochondrial DNA
• DNA nucleus
• Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
• 10 years
• 20 years
• 30 years
• 40 years
• A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of an
organism.
• Somatic death
• Cellular death
• Molecular death
• Apparent death
• Manner of walking of a person which may be natural
• Mannerism
• Tic
• Gait
• Body language
• This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30 minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the
muscles and loss of their natural tone.
• Stage of primary flaccidity
• Post mortem rigidity
• Cadaveric spasm
• Secondary flaccidity
• Approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA testing.
• Minimum of 2 weeks
• Minimum of 4 weeks
• Minimum of six weeks
• Minimum of eight weeks
• Period of time wherein there body would be skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical countries.
• 1 month
• 3 months
• 6 months
• 12 months
• In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable muscular change.
• Cold stiffening
• Heat stiffening
• Instantaneous rigor
• Putrefaction
• Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
• Diffusion lividity
• Clotting of the blood
• Rigor mortis
• Hypostatic lividity
• Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation under normal conditions.
• 2 to 2.5 cc
• 2.5 to 5 cc
• 5 to 10 cc
• 1.5 to 3.5 cc
• DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
• Deonatural acid
• Dynamic natural anti-body
• Deoxyribonucleic acid
• Deoxyribunucliec acid
• A powerful tool in identification which points to the source of biological evidence by matching it with samples from
the victims, suspects and their relatives.
• DNA profiling
• Serology
• Instrumentation
• Forensics
• Body fluids routinely tested because they are good sources of cells.
• Saliva and tears
• Semen and saliva
• Urine and semen
• Semen and blood
• Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may undergo DNA testing.
• Hair
• Bone
• Skin
• Fingernails
• It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action of its bacteria and enzyme.
• Primary flaccidity
• Post mortem rigidity
• Cadaveric spasm
• Putrefaction
• Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female.
• Possession of vagina
• Possession of ovaries
• Possession of estrogen
• Possession of progesterone
• A person with big face and prominent cheek bones.

• Hippocratic facie
• Mongolian facie
• Myxedema facie
• Facies lionine
• Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.
• Presence of testis
• Presence of androsterone
• Possession of penis
• Possession of testosterone
• A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous secretion of the respiratory track after death.
• “Cutis anserina”
• Washerwoman
• “Champignon d’ ocume”
• Cadaveric spasm
• It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.
• Natural death
• Molecular death
• Somatic death
• Apparent death
• A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming into contact with a moving object.
• Thermal burn
• Friction burn
• Radiation burn
• Electrical burn
• A condition of a woman who have had one or more sexual experience but not had conceived a child.
• Moral virginity
• Demi-virginity
• Physical virginity
• Virgo intact
• Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body.
• Flaccidity
• Rigidity
• Lividity
• Putrefaction
• A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of
cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body temperature.
• Gangrene
• Frostbite
• Trench foot
• Immersion foot
• Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the breakdown of sweating mechanism.
• Heat cramp
• Heat exhaustion
• Heat stroke
• Burning
• In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which part is not used?
• Skull
• Pelvis
• Sternum
• Tibia
• A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and bones, considered as the most severe burn causing death
due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive infection.
• Sunburn
• 1st degree burn
• 2nd degree burn
• 3rd degree burn
• A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes would die, the case of death would be?
• Stupor
• Stroke
• Asphyxia
• Exhaustion
• Most effective method in determining sex of an individual.
• Gonodal test
• Social test
• Genital test
• Chromosomal test
• Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the time of death.
• Cadaveric spasm
• Putrefaction
• Mascular contraction
• Rigor mortis
• Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
• Masturbation
• Fingering
• Sodomy
• Sexual intercourse
• In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell occurs in:
• 3 to 6 hours
• 12 to 24 hours
• 24 to 36 hours
• Most noticeable sign of death.
• Cessation of respiration
• Progressive fall of body temperature
• Insensibility of body and loss of power to move
• Cessation of heart action and circulation
• Most common and scientific method of detecting deception.
• Polygraphy
• Polygraph
• Truth serum
• Interrogation
• Devised an instrument capable of continuously recording pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure.
• William Marston
• Angelo Mosso
• John Larson
• Sticker
• Psychological response to any demand.

• Reaction
• Stress
• Pressure
• For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure is to be utilized in the system of cardio or vent.
• 30 mm
• 60 mm
• 90 mm
• 120 mm
• A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep considered fit for polygraph examination.
• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8
• Type of question related to the facts of the case and is answerable by NO.
• Relevant question
• Irrelevant question
• General question
• Immaterial question
• Question known to the subject and is answerable by YES.
• Relevant question
• Irrelevant question
• General question
• Immaterial question
• An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that something is hidden or obscure.
• Fear
• Deception
• Detection
• Reaction
• An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ or organism as a result of stimulation.
• Response
• Deception
• Detection
• Reaction
• Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
• Response
• Reaction
• Stimuli
• Fear
• This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per
minute.
• Cardiosphygmograph
• Kymograph
• Galvanograph
• Pneumograph
• Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.
• Finger electrode plate
• Diacritic notch
• Rubber convoluted tube
• Kymograph
• This component record changes of the subject blood pressure and pulse rate.
• Cardiosphygmograph
• Galvanograph
• Pneumograph
• It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount of electricity.
• Cardisphygmograph
• Galvanograph
• Pneumograph
• This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject.
• Cardisphygmograph
• Galvanograph
• Pneumograph
• Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive others.
• Black lie
• White lie
• Red lie
• Yellow lie
• Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
• Reaction
• Normal response
• Specific response
• Positive response
• Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were answered.
• Reaction
• Normal response
• Specific response
• Positive response
• Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
• The primary objective of post test interview.
• To thank the subject
• To obtain confession
• To make the subject calm
• To explain polygraph test procedures
• The purpose of pretest interview.

• To prepare subject for polygraph test
• To obtain confession
• To make the subject calm
• To explain polygraph test procedures
• Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of response.
• Relevant questions
• Irrelevant questions
• Supplementary questions
• Control questions
• The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph.
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
• Developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
• William Marston
• Harold Burtt
• John Larson
• Leonarde Keeler
• He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were signs of deception.
• William Marston
• Harold Burtt
• Leonard Keeler
• John Larson
• Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure for accused persons.
• Angelo Mosso
• Veraguth
• Lombroso
• Vittorio Benussi
• Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex.
• Angelo Mosso
• Veraguth
• Lombroso
• Vittorio Benussi
• Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration component and blood pressure.
• Harold Burtt
• Hans Gross
• Leonarde Keeler
• John Larson
• Refers to any specimen or writing executed normally without any attempt to change or control its identifying
habits and its usual quality of execution.
• Natural writing
• Disguised writing
• Cursive writing
• System of writing
• Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to hide his identity is using:
• Natural writing
• Cursive writing
• Writing in which are for most part joined together.
• Natural writing
• Cursive writing
• Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of any individual handwriting or in the product of any
typewriter.
• Normal variation
• Natural variation
• Tremor
• Wrong hand writing
• A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied and assisted produces a:
• Guided signature
• Normal signature
• Scribble
• Handwriting signature
• A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters.
• Embellishment
• Beard
• Buckle knot
• Diacritic
• A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal strokes.
• Hook
• Spur
• Loop
• Staff
• An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l.
• Hook
• Spur
• Loop
• Staff
• The introductory backward stroke added to the staff of many capital letters and which can also be seen
occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters.
• Embellishment
• Beard
• Buckle knot
• Hitch
• A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.
• Embellishment
• Beard
• Buckle knot
• Diacritic
• Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.
• Embellishment
• Hump
• Diacritic
• Knot
• Balance quality of movement of the harmonious recurrence of stress of impulse.
• Line quality
• Rhythm
• Baseline
• Writing pressure
• Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface with
increase pressure.
• Writing pressure
• Shading
• Pen emphasis
• Natural variation
• An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
• Line quality
• Baseline
• Foot
• Hitch
• A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the genuine
signature.
• Traced forgery
• Disguised forgery
• Simple forgery
• A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful type of forgery.
• Traced forgery
• Disguised forgery
• Simple forgery
• Which among the following is an indication of genuineness of handwriting?
• Continuity
• Smoothness
• Skillful writing
• Tremor
• Document which is completely written and signed by the testator.

• Genuine document
• Disputed document
• Holographic document
• Authentic document
• A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.
• Altered documents
• Disputed document
• Obliterated document
• Inserted document
• It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the original undecipherable.
• Decipherment
• Restoration
• Obliteration
• Interlineation
• A class of signature for routine document or day to day correspondence.
• Formal
• Complete
• Cursory
• Careless scribble
• Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important documents.
• Complete
• Cursory
• Informal
• Careless scribble
• A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a fraudulent document underneath the genuine and
tracing it with the use of pointed instrument.
• Carbon process
• Indention process
• Projection process
• Transmitted light process
• A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of its outline.
• Off its feet
• Twisted letter
• Clogged type face
• Rebound
• It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits
reacting from fixed mental impressions.
• Handwriting
• Writing
• Typewriting
• Writing movement
• A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation and pen-lifts difficult.
• Ball point pen
• Fountain pen
• Iron nutgall ink
• Markers
• Disconnection between letters or letter combination due to lack of movement control.
• Pen lift
• Retouching
• Patching
• Retracing
• A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during manufacture.
• Water marks
• Fiber marks
• Paper design
• Wire marks
• In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what particular condition is manifested?
• Grainy image
• Two image
• Overlapping image
• Three dimensional image
• An element which is added to complete another letter.
• Spur
• Slant
• Diacritics
• Arc
• It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, purpose and normal writing conditions.
• Complete signature
• Standard signature
• Evidential signature
• Model signature
• Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink stroke.
• Shading
• Pen emphasis
• Pen lift
• Pen pressure
• The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.
• Quality of the engraving
• Color of the seal
• Wet strength of the paper
• Watermarks
• A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine
coin.
• Priceless coin
• Mutilated coin
• False coin
• It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal strokes made by the momentum of the hand.
• Tremor
• Tremors of fraud
• Genuine tremor
• Deterioration
• Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
• Staff
• Slant
• Diacritics
• Humps
• A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the horizontal inch.

• Pica
• Elite
• Proportional spacing machine
• Adding machine
• Developed the system of handwriting classification utilized by most police departments.
• Lee and Abbey
• Rolando Wilson
• Levine
• Landsteiner
• A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarized by competent officials.
• Official document
• Public document
• Commercial document
• Private document
• An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.
• False coin
• Counterfeit coin
• Priceless coin
• Mutilation of coin
• It refers to the printing surface of a type block.
• Character
• Design
• Pitch
• Type face
• Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
• Base
• Baseline
• Foot
• Staff
• It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
• Decipherment
• Collation
• Obliteration
• Comparison
• An act of setting two or more items to weigh their identifying characteristics.
• Comparison
• Collation
• Conclusion
• Examination
• An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the light passing
through the paper.
• Transmitted light examination
• Oblique photography examination
• Infrared examination
• Ultraviolet examination
• The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his handwriting.
• Questioned Document Examination
• Polygraphy
• Graphology
• Psychology
• Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.
• Projectile
• Ball
• Shell
• Missile
• The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the
time it hits the target.
• The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile on the target.
• Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
• Trigger
• Hammer
• Sear
• Main spring
• Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in
pound equal to reciprocal gauge index.
• Caliber
• Gauge
• Shot
• Charge
• An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead ball.
• Shotgun
• Rifle
• Musket
• Pistol
• A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of lead pellets in one charge.
• Shotgun
• Rile
• Musket
• Pistol
• Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge.
• Breechblock
• Breechface
• Ejector
• Extractor
• Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be withdrawn from the chamber.
• Breechblock
• Breechface
• Ejector
• Extractor
• Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
• Rifling
• Land
• Groove
• Cannelure
• Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
• Recoil
• Force
• Backfire
• Shot force
• Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due to sliding friction when the bullet passes through it.
• Erosion
• Rusting
• Corrosion
• Decomposition
• Distance that the rifling advances to make one compete turn.
• Choke
• Trajectory
• Recoil
• Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete unfired unit
• Bullet
• Primer
• Gunpowder
• Most common individual characteristic that are visible on the base portion of then fired cartridge.
• Firing pin impression
• Ejector marks
• Extractor marks
• Chamber marks
• Failure of cartridge to discharge.
• Misfire
• Hang fire
• Ricochet
• Key hole shot
• Invented the gunpowder.
• Chinese
• James Forsythe
• Van Amberg
• Berthold Schwartz
• Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed into gun chamber.
• Cartridge
• Primer
• Bullet
• Shell
• The measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
• Gauge
• Mean diameter
• Caliber
• Riflings
• This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the firing of the cartridge.
• Hammer
• Ejector
• Trigger
• Firing pin
• Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet.
• Breech
• Ogive
• Rim
• Pitch
• A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings.
• Shotgun
• Rifle
• Pistol
• Revolver
• A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to prevent leading.
• Jacketed bullet
• Metal cased bullet
• Metal point bullet
• Plated bullet
• The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target sideways.
• Key hole shot
• Ricochet
• Hang fire
• Misfire
• A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification.
• Interior
• Exterior
• Terminal
• Forensic
• Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in forensic ballistics.
• 3 test bullets/shell
• 4 test bullets
• It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by side position.
• Drag marks
• Positively matched
• Juxtaposition
• Pseudomatch
• Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
• Range
• Trajectory
• Velocity
• Yaw
• Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on fire when it is projected.
• Incendiary bullet
• Ball bullet
• Tracer bullet
• Explosive bullet
• Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from what particular part?
• From land to land
• From land to groove
• From groove to groove
• From groove to land
• Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:

• Frame
• Barrel
• Slide assembly
• Rotating cylinder
• The term double action in a firearm means.
• Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously
• Manually cocks the hammer
• Autoloads before firing
• Double pressing of trigger
• Regarded as the father of ballistics,
• Albert Osborne
• Col. Calvin H. Goddard
• Hans Gross
• Charles Waite
• Raised portion between the groove found inside the barrel.
• Land
• Caliber
• Gauge
• Rifling
• The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
• Yaw
• Trajectory
• Velocity
• Gyroscopic action
• A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular firearm?
• Rifle
• Revolver
• Pistol
• Sub-machine gun
• It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
• Rifling
• Breaching
• Ogive
• Swaging
• A primer with two vents or flash holes.
• Bordan primer
• Berdan primer
• Boxer primer
• Battery primer
• Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as:
• Flare guns
• Zip guns
• Matchlock
• Freakish device
• The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired cartridges are concerned.
• Extractor marks
• Ejector marks
• Chamber marks
• Breech face marks
• It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s failure to explode on time.
• Misfire
• Hang fire
• Ricochet
• Key hole shot
• A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce
what kind of markings?
• Slippage marks
• Skid marks
• Rifling marks
• Shearing marks
• Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.
• Caliper
• Chronograph
• Test bullet
• Bullet recovery box
• Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics of persons so as to differentiate him from others
a. Dactyloscopy
c. Identification
b. Personal
d. Comparison
• Considered to be first scientific method of Identification in person done by measuring various bony structure of
the human body.
a. Portrait-Parle
b. Photography
c. Antropometry
d. Anthropometry
• 547. The following are principles in personal Identification, except.
a. Law of individuality
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence
b. Law of infallibility d. Law of constancy
• Which of the following personal Identification is not easy to change?
a. Hair b. Speech
c. Dress
d. personal pharapernalia
• Considered to be one of the most infallible means of Identification.
• DNA fingerprinting
• Dactyloscopy
• Fingerprint Identification
• Photography
• Identification of person can be done either by Comparison or by____?
• Exclusion
• Examination
• Experimentation
• Inclusion
• The person credited for the discovery of the two main layers of the friction skin.
• Alphonse Bertillion
• Marcelo Malpighe
• Herman Welcker
• J.C.A. Mayer
• The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from white jade containing the name and the thumb print of
the owner.
• Tien Chi
• Tein Chi
• Tein Shi
• Tien Shi
• He is known to be the father of personal Identification having devised the first scientific method of personal
Identification.
• John Dellinger
• Cesare Lombroso
• John F. W. Herschel
• He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change,
except for some scratches due to old age.
• Herman Welcker
• Marcelo Malpighi
• J.C.A. Mayer
• Johnnes E. Purkenji
• The person who used fingerprints in replacement for signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native.
• William Herschel
• Dr. Henry Faulds
• Dr. Francis Galton
• Sir Edward Henry
• Is person considered to be the father of modern fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in almost
all English speaking country.
• Sir Edward Richard Henry
• Juan Vucetich
• Dr. Hans Gross
• Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges and pores of the hand and feet which was read before the
Royal Society of London.
• Nehemiah Grew
• G. Bidloo
• Hintze
• Albinus
• A system of Identification best used in case of burned body.
• Fingerprint
• Skeletal Identification
• Odontology
• Photography
• The following are characteristics of man which can easily be changed EXCEPT?
• Hair Growth
• Body Ornamentation
• Speech
• Clothing
• The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the science of fingerprint?
• People vs. Medina
• US vs. Jennings
• Miranda vs. Arizona
• West Case
• Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own
thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.
• Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
• Gilbert Thompson
• Capt James Parke
• Dr. Henry P. De Fores
• The Filipino who top the first comprehensive examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New York Police
Dept. and FBI.
• Generoso Reyes
• Isabela Bernales
• Patricio Agustin
• Marcelo Bonifacio
• Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is possibility for two prints to be the same it is
1:63,000,000,000.
• Francis Bacon
• Francis Galton
• J.C.A. Mayer
• Herman Welker
• The person who used the system of identification which was accepted by Spanish countries.
• Juan Vucetich
• Henry Faulds
• Is the law which states that the greater the number of the similarity or differences the more probability for the
conclusion to be correct.
• Law of Infallability
• Law of Multiplicity of evidence
• Law of Permenancy
• Law of Barcelinity
• The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
• Greek word
• French word
• Latin word
• English word
• If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a photographer?
• Filter
• Camera
• Firearm
• Handcuff
• Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph or demonstration?.
• Yes
• Partly Yes
• No
• Partly No
• Burned document or charred document is best examined by.
• Infrared Photography
• Ultraviolet Photography
• Macro Photography
• Micro Photography
• The average age of menopausal period of women to take place.
• 50 yrs old
• 45 yrs old
• 35 yrs old
• 42 yrs old
• Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at the age of.
• 14-16
• 13-15
• 16 to 18
• 12-14
• Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
• 14
• 13
• 16
• 12
• In a robbery case, close up photographs must be taken to show:
• Entrance
• Entrance and Exit
• Exit
• Either a or b
• The development of breast in female commences at the age of.
• 13 to 14
• 12 to 13
• 10-11
• 11 to 12
• In photography, when we say tripod, how many stands are there?

• 2
• 3.5
• 4
• 5
• The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist who performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar.
• Landsteinir
• Zacchias
• Antistus
• Hippocrates
• Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a normal light.
• Ultra Violet Photography
• Infra red photograhpy
• Macro Photography
• Micro photography
• It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the amount of light reaching the film by varying the length of time,
and it is considered as the door of the camera.
• Shutter
• lens
• obscura
• view finder
• It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like formation.
• dermis
• Dermal papillae
• papillae
• dermal
• The morphological constituents of human hair are cuticle, cortex and medulla, is the statement correct?
• Partly Yes
• Partly No
• Yes
• No
• It is the sensitized material that has the primary function of recording the image that is focused upon it by the
lens of the camera.
• Filter
• Film
• Firearm
• Handcuff
• Considered to be first scientific method of Identification in person done by measuring various bony structure of
the human body.
• Portrait-Parle
• Photography
• Antropometry
• Anthropometry
• The person credited for the discovery of the two main layers of the friction skin.
• Herman Welcker
• J.C.A. Mayer
• The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from white jade containing the name and the thumb print of
the owner.
• Tien Chi
• Tein Chi
• Tein Shi
• Tien Shi
• He is known to be the father of personal Identification having devised the first scientific method of personal
Identification.
• John Dellinger
• Cesare Lombroso
• John F. W. Herschel
• He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change,
except for some scratches due to old age.
• Herman Welcker
• Marcelo Malpighi
• J.C.A. Mayer
• Johnnes E. Purkenji
• The person who used fingerprints in replacement for signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native.
• Dr. Henry Faulds
• Dr. Francis Galton
• Sir Edward Henry
• He is considered to be the father of modern fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in almost all
English speaking country.
• Juan Vucetich
• Dr. Hans Gross
• Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges and pores of the hand and feet which was read before the
Royal Society of London.
• Nehemiah Grew
• G. Bidloo
• Hintze
• Albinus
• A system of Identification best used in case of burned body.
• Fingerprint
• Skeletal Identification
• Odontology
• Photography
• Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own
thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.
• Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
• Gilbert Thompson
• Capt James Parke
• Dr. Henry P. De Fores
• The Filipino who top the first comprehensive examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New York Police
Dept. and FBI.
• Generoso Reyes
• Isabela Bernales
• Patricio Agustin
• Marcelo Bonifacio
• Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is possibility for two prints to be the same it is
1:63,000,000,000.
• Francis Bacon
• Francis Galton
• J.C.A. Mayer
• Herman Welker
• The person who used the system of identification which was accepted by Spanish countries.
• Juan Vucetich
• Henry Faulds
• The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
• Greek word
• French word
• Latin word
• English word
• Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals with the interpretation of one’s personality?
• Dactyloscopy
• Dactylomancy
• Dactylography
• Dactylo-analysis
• Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside of the last joint of the fingers and thumb on some smooth
surface with the aid of sweet or ink?
• Dactyloscopy
• Dactyloanalysis
• Latent Print
• Fingerprint
• Which of the following serves the importance of Poroscopy?
• For determination of whether the prints belong to a young or adult person.
• For Identification of person
• For determination of whether the prints was taken during the lifetime or after death of a person
• B and C only
• Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage will constitute a permanent scar.
• Epidermis
• Stratum corneum
• Dermis
• Stratum mucosum
• He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy.
• Francis Galton
• John Herschel
• Edmond Locard
• Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the ridges.

• Podoscopy
• Poroscopy
• Chiroscopy
• Edgeoscopy
• Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a permanent scar in a normal friction skin?
• less than 1cm
• less than 1 mm
• more than 1cm
• more than 1mm
• Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in U.S who attempt to destroy his friction skin with the use of
corrosive acid.
• John Derenger
• John Dillenger
• Robert James Pitts
• Robert Joworski
• Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and without hair found on the palm of the hand and soles of the
feet?
• Epidermal skin
• Papillary skin
• Friction
• Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which covers the skin?
• Epidermis
• Stratum corneum
• Stratum Sangum
• Stratum musocum
• Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of the hands?
• Podoscopy
• Chiroscopy
• Poroscopy
• Chairoscopy
• Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores) in an inked finger impression?
• sweat pores
• furrows
• ridges
• sweat duct
• What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin (found between ridges).
• Pores
• indentions
• furrows
• duct
• What is the tiny openings on the skin from where sweat is excreted?
• duct
• furrows
• pores
• sweat glands
• That part of the friction skin between the epidermis and dermis layer which responsible for the ridge formation
• Generating layer
• Dermal papillae
• Sweat glands
• Dermis Papillary
• Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which states that fingerprint is a reliable and positive means of
Identification?
• Principle of Individuality
• Principle of Infallibility
• Principle of Constancy
• Principle of Permanency
• What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise or
wave in the center?
• Loop
• tented arch
• plain arch
• exceptional arch
• In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should have _______ridge count.
• 1
• 2
• at least 1
• 3
• What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?
• Plain arch
• central pocket loop
• tented arch
• accidental whorl
• What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
• loop
• radial loop
• ulnar loop
• tented arc
• A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta, recurving ridge and a ridge count of at least one.
• radial loop
• ulnar loop
• loop
• tented arch
• What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and
when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered
as the most common type of whorl.
• plain whorl
• central pocket loop whorl
• double loop whorl
• accidental whorl
• In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is excluded in the combination?
• ulnar loop
• plain whorl
• tented arch
• plain arch
• The core and delta are also termed as _____?
• inner terminus
• outer terminus
• focal point
• pattern area
• A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the center of the diverging typelines.
• Core
• island ridge
• delta
• convergence
• What is the rule where there are two or more possible bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of delta?
• the one nearest the core should be chosen
• the one away from the core should be counted
• the one which does not open towards the core is counted
• the one towards the core should be counted
• What is that spreading of two ridges that previously running side by side?
• Bifurcation
• convergence
• divergence
• enclosure
• What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a period?
• Lake
• ending ridge
• island ridge
• incipient ridge
• What ridge divides itself into or more branches that meets to form the original figure?
• bifurcation
• island ridge
• lake ridge
• convergence
• What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the direction from which it started?
• diverging ridge
• recurving ridge
• converging ridge
• bifurcation
• Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge curves inward?
• sufficient recurve
• appendage
• obstruction ridge
• shoulder of loop
• Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from the inner
delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in the second type of central pocket loop.
• bar
• appendage
• uptrust
• obstruction
• Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the line flow above the right delta and there are three
intervening ridges.
• meeting whorl
• outer whorl
• inner whorl
• central pocket loop whorl
• A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular ridge which is not included as a ridge count even if it has
been cross by the imaginary line.
• ending ridge
• incipient ridge
• intervening ridge
• enclosure
• What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and which resembles a fork structure
• divergence
• convergence
• bifurcation
• enclosure
• Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its infants stage which usually starts:
• 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
• 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
• 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
• 5th to 6th months before birth
• Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch.
• T
• A
• P
• W
• It is the process of counting the ridges which intervene between the delta and core of a loop?
• ridge tracing
• ridge counting
• ridge tracking
• ridge summing
• Is an instrument used for the spreading of the fingerprint ink to the slab?
• Fingerprint brush
• Fingerprint lifting tapes
• Fingerprint roller
• fingerprint card
• The fingerprint card used in recording the subject print has a size of:
• 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
• 8” x 8”
• 9” x 9”
• 8” x 10”
• The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card has a size of:
• 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
• 8” x 8”
• 9” x 9”
• 8” x 10”
• Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the fingerprint ink is distributed for fingerprinting?
• Card Holder
• Fingerprint roller
• Fingerprint transfer card
• ink slab
• A chemical compound used in conventional developing of latent prints being one of the best methods that can be
utilized by a fingerprint technician.
• Fingerprint powder
• Fingerprint Brush
• Fingerprint Fuming Device
• Inkless Inking Device
• Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint card to avoid movement of the card during printing?
• Card Holder
• Forceps
• Carrying Case
• Fingerprint card clip
• Is a card used in recording and preserving developed latent print?
• Fingerprint lifting tapes
• Fingerprint transfer card
• Evidence Identification tags
• Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment
• Is the type of an impression made or printed on the card by individually rolling the ten fingers of the subject.
• Latent Prints
• Rolled Impression
• Plain Impression
• Molded Impression
• Is the type of impression taken simultaneously and serves as a guide in checking the proper rolling of the finger
in the card?
• Rolled Impression
• Plain Impression
• Contaminated with colored substance
• Molded Prints
• In taking prints of the subject the technician always instruct the subject to:
• Stand straight
• Cooperate
• Relax
• Help the technician rolling
• One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of the subject is that fingers must be:
• Healthy
• Dry
• Moisten
• Oily
• In taking prints of the subject what fingers are rolled away from the body of the subjects
• Both thumbs
• All eight fingers
• All fingers including thumbs
• All fingers except the thumbs
• An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards in taking fingerprint of a dead person
• Card holder
• Spatula
• Strip holder
• Forceps
• When taking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled impression the fingers must be inked from______ to base of
the first joint.
• a. Base
• Tip
• second joint
• third joint
• Occupational problems such as acid works, plasters, cement mixer usually causes weak friction skin and such is
known as:
• Permanent Disabilities
• Temporary Deformities
• Permanent Destructions
• Deformities
• Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are more than the usual number in both hands?
• Polyfinger
• Deformities
• Polydactyl
• Bidactyl
• Is the process of placing under each pattern the letter symbols as a result of the interpretation?
• Checking
• Identification
• Classification
• Blocking
• Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger.
• left thumb
• index finger
• left index
• left middle
• It is the division in the fingerprint classification which is always represented by a numerical value depending upon
a whorl pattern appearing on each finger.
• key division
• major division
• primary division
• final division
• In getting the Secondary Division of a given fingerprint from what finger does the Capital letter is derived.
• thumb
• index
• little finger
• middle finger
• The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the numerator and the denominator in the primary division is ____.
• so that there will be an equal value
• to complete the primary div.
• to have a complete 32 numerical value
• for formality
• What patterns are included in the small letter classification under the secondary division.
• Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch
• Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch
• Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop
• Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch
• In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what is the classification of 14 ridge count.
• Inner Loop
• Outer Loop
• Medium
• Small
• What patterns are almost always represented by a dash in the classification formula except in the secondary
division.
• Ulnar loop and Plain Arch
• Whorl and Arch
• Plain and Tented Arch
• Ulnar and Whorl
• It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the tracing ridge flows below the right delta and there are five
intervening ridges.
• Outer Whorl
• Meeting Whorl
• Inner Whorl
• Accidental Whorl
• In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the tracing splits into two branches the tracing will proceed on the:
• next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge
• upper line of the bifurcation
• Lower limb
• next ridge just below
• It refers to the number of ridges that appears between the tracing ridge and the right delta of a whorl pattern.
• Ridge Count
• Intervening Ridge
• Incipient ridge
• Ridge tracing
• A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is interpreted as ____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge count.
• Small
• Medium
• Large
• Exceptional
• A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is interpreted as ____ when the right thumb reaches 17.
• Small
• Large
• Medium
• Exceptional
• What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a ridge count of 17 or more.
• Small
• Medium
• Large
• Exceptional
• What division in the fingerprint classification is derived by ridge counting a loop and tracing a whorl on the thumb.
• Key Division
• Final Division
• Major Division
• Secondary Division
• What division in the classification is place at extreme right of the fingerprint card represented by a numerical
value.
• key
• final
• Major
• Primary
• Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a loop or a whorl appearing on the;
• Little Finger
• Thumb Finger
• Index Finger
• Middle Finger
• The key Division is derived by getting the ridge count of the
• ulnar Loop
• Radial Loop
• First Loop
• First Radial Loop
• What Fingers are not included in looking for a loop in the key division?
• Both Index
• Both little
• Both thumb
• Both middle
• In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint card of a subject, said missing finger will be interpreted as.
• Amputated finger
• Same as the corresponding digit of the other hand
• Meeting whorl
• Outer loop
• If in case that there were no loop on all fingers, how will the key be obtained.
• Ridge count of the first plain whorl
• Ridge count of the first whorl
• No key division to derived
• Just indicate Dash
• In the event that same fingers of both hand is missing what will be the pattern interpretation of the two missing
fingers.
• Plain Whorl
• Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
• Dash
• Same as the pattern of the next fingers
• It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?

• Mutilated finger
• Amputated finger
• Fragmentary finger
• Deformities
• What will be the primary Division if all fingers are amputated.
• 1/1
• 31/31
• 32/32
• 16/16
• What division will be left blank in the classification formula if all fingers are missing?
• Major and Final Division
• Key and Major Division
• Major and sub-secondary
• key and final Division
• Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
• 14
• 13
• 16
• 12
• What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?
a. Plain arch
b. tented arch
c. central pocket loop
d. accidental whorl
• Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene between the delta and core of a loop?
a. ridge tracing
b. ridge counting
c. ridge tracking
d. ridge summing
• In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern, what finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl pattern
appears therein:
a. left little finger and right thumb
b. right thumb and left little finger
c. right little finger and left thumb
d. left thumb and right
• If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the primary
division?
a. 25/29
c. 24/28
b. 29/25
d. 28/24
• What would be the secondary division if all the fingers at right hand are plain arches while all the left hand fingers
are tented arches?
a. aA3a/tT3T
c. A2a/tT2t
b. aT3a/aA3t
d. tT3t/aA3a
• What division in the formula classification is left blank if all fingers are amputated?
a. Major and key
b. key and final
c. Key and primary
d. final and major
• The word Photography was coined by _____?
a. John F. W. Herschel
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
c. Henry Fox Talbot
d. Leonardo Da Venci
• What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors are combined each other?
a. magenta
c. yellow
b. cyan
d. Green
• Which of the following are NOT considered as the primary colors, EXCEPT.
a. yellow
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Red
• The act of attempting to interpret the character or personality of an individual from his handwriting.
a. paleography
b. collation
c. graphology
d. cacography
• In Q.D it is the term used by some document examiners and attorneys to characterize known material.
a. exemplar
b. evidence
c. questioned
d. disputed
• In Q.D it is the term used when a person having the ability to write with both left and right.
a. cacography
b. calligraphy
c. calcography
d. ambidextrous
• Which of the following are NOT considered as the secondary colors, EXCEPT.
a. yellow
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Red
• An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the writing instrument from the paper is called..
a. pen emphasis
b. pen pressure
c. pen jump
d. pen lift
• The term document came from latin word “documentum”, which means.
a. write
b. to teach
c. lesson
d. paper
• It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the
paper ( usually applicable to the fountain pen). a. whirl
b. knob
c. sour
d. loop
• The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is

a. Manuel Quezon
b. Emilio Aguinaldo
c. Segio Osmena
d. Apolinario Mabini
• The only security features that the BSP was portrait in the new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is.
a. optically variable ink
b. optical device
c. optical ink
d. optically variable device
• It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the lower right corner of the face of the note changes color from
green to blue when viewed at different angles
a. optically variable ink
b. optical device
c. optical ink
d. optically variable device
• What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso bill and the clam in 1000 peso when the note is rotated at 90
degrees?
a. blue to green
b. green to blue
c. red to green
d. green to red
• The new banknote of the BSP is made of what kind of paper.
a. abaca-cotton
b. plastic-polymer
c. abaca
d. cotton
• The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is
a. Diosdado P Macapagal
b. Emilio Aguinaldo
c. Segio Osmena
d. Apolinario Mabini
• How many security features are there in the new 500 peso bill?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 7
d. 6
• How many security features are there in the new 1000 peso bill?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 7
d. 6
• The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that measures the pitch of rifling is:
• Chronograph
• Helixometer
• Micrometer
d. Taper gauge
• A magnified photograph of a small object produced by connecting a camera with the ocular of a compound
microscope is:
• Photomacrograph
• Microphotograph
• Photomicrograph
• Photography
• A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is smaller than the diameter of the body of the case:
• Rimmed cartridge
• Rebated cartridge
• Tapered cartridge
• Rimless cartridge
• . If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the lands have been worn down or through a bore is slightly
oversize or oily, the marks are called:
• Skid marks
• Slippage marks
• Rifling marks
• Shearing marks
• When two specimens are compared under the comparison microscope at the same direction, the same level,
the same magnification and the same image, they are called:
• Positively match
• Pseudo match
• Juxtaposition
• Drag marks
• In the United States, crimes are committed by juveniles using home-made weapons generally referred to as:
• Freakish device
• Zip guns
• Matchlock
• Flare guns
• A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from:
• Revolver
• Pistol
• Rifle
• Pistol & Revolver
• . A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
• 730”
• 728”
• 729”
• 724”
• A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into the chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as:
• Bullet
• Shell
• Primer
• Cartridge
• Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination of:
• Pitch
• Twist
• Lands & grooves
• Cannelures
• Class characteristics are determinable even:
• During
• After
• Before
• Never the manufactures of the firearm
• The caliber is determined with the aid of:
• Combined microscope
• Micrometer
• Macrometer
• Manufacturer of the firearm
• An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the crime scene will request the ballistician to determine:
• Owner of the firearm
• Model of the firearm
• Caliber and types of the firearm
• Manufacture
• . That science which deals with the motion of the projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to the time
it hits the target is known as:
• That science dealing with the effect of the impact of the projectile on target is called:
• Anterior ballistics
• What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs?

• Lot Lizards
• Hookers
• Skeezers
• Hustler
• It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She is usually a newcomer in the business?
• Door knocker
• Street walker
• Call girl
• skeezers
• are the real professional type of prostitutes. She works in regular houses of prostitution or brothels?
• Door knocker
• Street walker
• Call Girl
• Factory Girl
• These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their own legitimate work or profession but works as a prostitutes
to supplement their income?
• Door knocker
• Street walker
• Call Girl
• Factory Girl
• The following countries which comprises the Golden Triangle, EXCEPT.
• Vietnam
• Thailand
• Myanmar
• Laos
• Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long term partner repeatedly?
• philander
• prostitution
• philandering
• prostitute
• What do you call a prostitute who offers services to female customers?
• gigolo
• pimps
• callboy
• Johns
• A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag factor of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what is the
approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved in accident. .
• 64 kms./hour
• 54 kms./hour
• 46 km.s/hour
• 45 kms./hour
• This method of identification depends on the ability of the witness to describe the person seen committing the
crime.
• Verbal description
• Photographic files
• Police line up
• General photograph
• Criminals whose identity may be established background identification.

• Known criminals
• Unknown criminals
• Convicted criminals
• Unidentified criminals
• Compilation of known criminals available from police files and records.
• Rouge gallery
• General photograph
• Police blotter
• Modus operandi files
• Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is necessary.
• Loose tail
• Rough shadowing
• Close tail
• The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is:
• Place it in a pill box and label it
• Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining
• Place it in a plastic bag and label it
• Tag it with a label
• To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an interrogation room must be:
• With no windows or views
• There should only be one door
• It must be sound proof
• In this type of interrogation the investigator must have great knowledge of the case and is preferable when the
subject is not the talkative type.
• Narrative type
• Question and answer type
• Stern type
• Simple interrogation
• What should the investigator do to protect while in transport those collected evidence from the crime scene?
• Seal it
• Mark it
• Pack it properly
• Label it
• Shadowing has the following purposes, except:
• To detect evidences of criminal activities
• To establish association of a suspect
• To locate wanted persons
• “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B”
managed to escape. This is an example of:
• Attempted felony
• Frustrated felony
• Consummated felony
• Consummated felony
• Kind of recognition whereby the description and characteristics maybe vague that identification is difficult.
• Known fugitives
• Professional criminals
• Ordinary criminals
• Unknown fugitives
• The methods of determining and finding the best way to remedy the specific cause or causes of the
complaint or grievance refers to:
• Cross examination
• Grievance procedures
• Investigative procedure
• Criminal procedures
• A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequence of stuff produced from thin air.
• False informant
• Double-crosser informant
• Mercenary informant
• Frightened informant
• Clandestine operation in police parlance.
• Covert intelligence
• Secret activity
• Over intelligence
• Surveillance
• It is an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt
through criminal proceeding.
• Information
• Interrogation
• Instrumentation
• Investigation
• Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
• Physical evidence
• Tracing evidence
• Testimonial evidence
• Associative evidence
• Is a person who provides an investigator with confidential information concerning a past or projected
crime and does not wish to be known as a source of information.
• Informants
• Witness
• Informers
• Confidential informants
• Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.
• Interview
• Interrogation
• Investigation
• All of the foregoing
• A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in investigation for identifying suspects in a crime.
• Photographic file
• 201 file
• Rogue gallery
• Cartographic sketch
• This is an element of crime commission wherein one is induced to commit the crime.
• Motive
• Intent
• Opportunity
• Deceit
• In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a
procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up?
• 3 to 5
• 5 to 7
• 7 to 10
• 10 to 15
• It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime.
• Motive
• Intent
• Opportunity
• Deceit
• Motive in giving information wherein the informant delights in giving information to gain favorable
attention from the police.
• Competition
• Repentance
• Vanity
• Jealousy
• Employed where a general impression of the subject’s habits and associate are required.
• Surveillance
• Loose tail shadowing
• Rough shadowing
• Close tail shadowing
• More advantageous because it permits immediate changes of men and less likely to be recognized.
• One man shadow
• Two man shadow
• Three man shadow
• ABC method
• In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at the same pace along the path parallel to one side of
the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher turns and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to
the first movement.
• Zone method
• Strip method
• Spiral method
• Wheel method
• In this method, the area to be searched is divided into quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant.
• Zone method
• Strip method
• Spiral method
• Wheel method
• The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph to show the relative location and distances.
• Environmental photograph
• Physical reconstruction
• Overview
• Over-all photograph
• Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale, proportion ignored and everything is approximate.
• Sketch
• Draft
• Rough sketch
• Finished sketch
• Most common reason in discharging informants
• Burn out
• Too expensive to maintain
• Lack of loyalty
• Reprehensible behavior
• Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
• Stylus
• Pen
• Ink
• Chalk
• A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes a different and unofficial identity.
• Tailing
• Shadowing
• Surveillance
• Roping
• Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.
• Narrative type
• Interrogation type
• Question and answer type
• Stern type
• Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a person taken into custody.
• Protective custody
• Detaining for questioning
• Police restraint
• Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the objects, what naturally occurred and
what were the circumstances of the crime.
• Crime scene
• Mental reconstruction
• Reconstruction of the crime
• Paid informants
• Anonymous informants
• Rival elimination informants
• False informants
• Mercenary informants
• Most common type of shadowing.
• One man shadow
• Two man shadow
• Three man shadow
• Rough shadow
• Articles and materials which are found in connection with the investigation and which aid in establishing the identity
of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which, in general assist in the
prosecution of the criminal.
• Corpus delicti
• Physical or material evidence
• Instrumental detection of deception
• Ballistic test
• Fingerprint test
• Questioned document test
• Polygraph testing
• When the subject is in prone position what type of search should be implemented.
• Kneeling search
• Standing search
• Floor search
• Wall search
• This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To discover weapons or evidences and determine the
identity of the suspects.
• Preliminary search of a person
• Wall search
• Standing search
• Floor search
• Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned.
• Dashboard
• Door handles
• Steering wheel
• Rear view mirror
• Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the law enforcers in order to get more information from them
than he gives.
• Double-crosser informants
• Mercenary informants
• False informants
• Self-aggrandizing informants
• That profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation of
physical science by application of natural sciences in matters of law and science.
• Chemist
• Scientist
• Criminalistics
• Toxicologist
• Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one place.
• Local crimes
• Local action
• Transitory crimes
• Transitory action
• The number of persons who handle the pieces of evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times of
the commission up to final disposition of cases.
• Time custody
• Time disposition
• Time disposal
• Chain of custody
• A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending death.

• Part of res gestate
• Dying Declaration
• Confession
• admission
• Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
• Instrumentation
• Forensic
• Legal medicines
• Criminology
• Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition
• Blood
• Semen
• Saliva
• Hair
• The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest physical surroundings.
• Finished sketch
• Sketch of details
• Sketch of locality
• Sketch of grounds
• The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects in a sketch.
• Title
• Legend
• Scale
• Such articles and evidences which assists the investigator in locating the suspect.
• Physical evidence
• Material evidence
• Objects or substances which are essential part of the body of the crime.
• Corpus delicti
• Physical evidences
• Material evidences
• Associative evidences
• The primary consideration in transporting evidences.
• Markings should be placed
• Proper turnover must be observed
• Avoid altering contents
• Proper packing to protect the evidence while in transit
• General rule in handling pieces of evidence
• MAC rule
• Right of way rule
• Last clear chance rule
• In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are usually encircled. What is the primary objective?
• To show points of interest
• To have proper marking
• To avoid contamination
• To prevent alterations
• If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the specimen?
• Formaldehyde
• Saline solution
• Alcohol
• Distilled water
• It is the surprise invasion of building or an area.
• Assault
• Attack
• Raid
• Surveillance
• Primary requisite for conducting raids.
• Search warrant
• Raiding team
• Firearms
• Back-up personnel
• A public officer when not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will of the
owner thereof is committing:
• Legal entry
• Violation of domicile
• Trespassing
• Illegal entry
• A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his constitutional rights namely:
• The right to oppose whatever accusation on him.
• The right to plea guilty and not guilty
• The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right to be informed of such rights.
• The right to face his accuser in public trial
• A type of informant reveals information usually of no consequences of stuff concocted of thin air.
• False informant
• Mercenary informant
• Double crosser informant
• Self-aggrandizing informant
• Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are committed in many places.
• Local crime
• Local action
• Transitory crime
• Transitory action
• The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been committed, in order to determine
such, he must have knowledge of the so-called cardinal questions of investigation. How many cardinal questions
are there?
• Three
• Four
• Five
• Six
• In bank robberies, this person is in charge of transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate on it.
• Drivers
• Ripper
• Wheelman
• Rover
• Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to facilitate proper sketch orientation.
• Proper north
• True north
• Legend
• A search method in which the searchers follow each other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
proceeding toward the center.
• Zone method
• Wheel method
• Spiral method
• Strip method
• Taking into custody property described in the search warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence in
a case.
• Seizure
• Detention
• Safekeeping
• Confiscation
• A method of criminal identification whereby the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are
identified by depiction.
• General photographs
• Police line up
• Rouge gallery
• Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
• Sprinkler
• Fire pump
• Fire hose
• Hydrant key
• Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
• Dust
• Oxidizing material
• Pyrolysis
• Cryogenic
• Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous
combustion.
• Ignition temperature
• Kindling temperature
• Fire point
• Flash point
• The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-air mixture that ignites.
• Fire point
• Flash point
• Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a self-
contained combustion without the addition of heat from outside sources.
• Boiling point
• Fire point
• Flash point
• An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
• Thermal balance
• Thermal imbalance
• Combustion
• Oxidation
• Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
• Pyrolysis
• Combustion
• Detonation
• A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.
• Pyrolysis
• Combustion
• Detonation
• Oxidation
• Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material with unit temperature gradient.
• Conduction
• Thermal conductivity
• Radiation
• Fission
• A means of heat transfer when energy travels through space or materials as waves.
• Conduction
• Convection
• Radiation
• Fission
• It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
• Providential fire
• Accidental fire
• Intentional fire
• Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
• Arson
• Accidental fire
• First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
• Nitrogen
• Hydrogen
• Oxygen
• Neon
• Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.
• Fuel
• Oxygen
• Heat
• Refers to gases liberated by heat.
• Free radicals
• Flash point
• Thermal balance
• Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or structure under natural
conditions.
• Free radicals
• Pyrolysis
• Thermal balance
• In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive capabilities is developed.
• Initial phase
• Incipient phase
• Free burning phase
• Smoldering phase
• A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
• The fire triangle
• The fingerprint of the fire
• Flashover
• Incipient phase of the fire
• An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
• Flashover
• Backdraft
• Thermal balance
• An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
• Flashover
• Backdraft
• Thermal balance
• Which among the following is the primary objective in investigating fires?
• To determine its cause
• To prevent recurrence
• To determine liable persons
• Reason why fire investigation is unique.
• It does not conform with regular investigative procedure
• Unavailability of witnesses
• Fire destroys evidence
• They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
• Providential
• Accidental
• Intentional
• Incendiarism
• A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
• Fire
• Origin of fire
• Fire triangle
• Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
• Fuel
• Heat
• Oxygen
• Gas
• A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
• Conduction
• Convection
• Radiation
• Fission
• The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
• Specific heat
• Latent heat
• Heat of Combustion
• Heat of fusion
• Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
• Carbon black
• Lamp black
• Soot
• Black bone
• Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of combustion.
• Fire
• Flame
• Heat
• Smoke
• Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
• Fire
• Flame
• Heat
• Smoke
• The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
• Backdraft
• Flashover
• Carbon monoxide poisoning
• Falling debris
• Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates the burning of what material?
• Rubber
• Nitrogen products
• Asphalt singles
• Chlorine
• Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
• Asbestos
• Diamond
• Asphalt
• Cotton
• A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most
common cause of providential fires.
• Rays of the sun
• Spontaneous heating
• Arcing
• Lighting
• Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
• Smoking
• Arcing
• Sparkling
• Overloading
• A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or throughout the structure.
• Accelerant
• Plants
• Trailer
• Wick
• Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
• Accelerant
• Plants
• Trailer
• Wick
• Most common reason of arson cases.
• Revenge
• Profit
• Competition
• Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
• Combustible gases
• Combustible dust
• Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start a fire.
• Plants
• Trailers
• Accelerants
• Wick
• Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
• Abatement
• Combustion
• Allotment
• Distillation
• The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly
known as:
• Black bone
• Used petroleum
• Soot
• Black iron
• The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the
existing electrical system.
• Overloading
• Jumper
• Wire tapping
• Arcing
• One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the assessed value of the building:
• Schools
• Department stores
• Hospitals
• Single family dwellings
• Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base to top of the building.
• Standpipe system
• Sprinkler system
• Vertical shaft
• Flash point
• Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with structural
stability to remain standing even if the adjacent construction collapses under fire conditions:
• Post wall
• Fire trap
• Fire wall
• Firewood
• A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for any particular establishment.
• Fire service
• Fire safety inspection
• Fire drill
• Fire protection assembly
• Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.
• Radiation
• Convection
• Conduction
• Fission
• The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of combustion.
• Oxidation
• Flash point
• Smoldering
• Fire
• Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes place.
• Endothermic reactions
• Exothermic reactions
• Oxidation
• Combustion
• Product of an incomplete combustion.
• Soot
• Charring
• Ashes
• All of foregoing
• Color of a luminous flame.
• Orange-blue
• Blue
• Yellow
• Red
• Refers to the amount of heat released during complete oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted to water
and carbon dioxide.
• Heat of combustion
• Calorific value
• Fuel value
• Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
• Calorie
• Latent heat
• Thermal heat
• Specific heat
• Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
• Fire gases
• Combustion gases
• Oxidation gases
• Flame
• Fires caused by human error and negligence.
• Providential fires
• Intentional fires
• Accidental fires
• Incendiarism
• Primary component of wood
• Fiber
• Cellulose
• Carbon
• Pulp
• During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or fingerprint of fire is developed.
• Incipient phase
• Initial phase
• Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame and carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
• Incipient
• Initial phase
• Most effective way of regulating vices.
• Continued police action by relentless drives in vice control
• Sincere and honest law enforcement
• Both a and b
• Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive intake of alcoholic beverages develops physical and
psychological changes and dependence to alcohol.
• Alcoholics
• Liquor addicts
• Drunkard
• Chronic alcoholics
• A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which contains alcohol.
• Liquor
• Wine
• Booze
• Vodka
• Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill-refute whereby the business of prostitution is conducted.
• Operator
• Banker
• Mama
• Pimp
• Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with another for hire.
• Prostitute
• Whores
• Knockers
• The procurement and transportation of women from far flung places for immoral purposes.
• White slavery
• Prostitution
• Organized crimes
• This place usually lodges several number of factory girls or professional prostitutes under the control of an
organized crime ring.
• Disorderly houses
• Furnished room houses
• Call houses
• Massage clinics
• Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with which to carry on the gambling game.
• Maintainer
• Conductor
• Banker
• Operator
• Anti gambling law
• PD 1869
• PD 1612
• PD 1602
• PD 1866
• Social causes of prostitution are the following, except
• Broken families
• Poverty
• Anonymity of city life
• Refers to a person having no apparent means of subsistence.
• Gambler
• Prostitute
• Vagrants
• Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave trade.
• Prision correctional
• Prison mayor
• Reclusion temporal
• Reclusion perpetua
• A person who manages or carries a gambling game.
• Maintainer
• Conductor
• Banker
• Operator
• Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect.
• Tolerance
• Physical dependence
• Poly drug abuse
• Drug experimenter
• A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis Sativa.
• Marijuana
• Hashish
• Opium
• Morphine
• Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics?
• Opium
• Opiates
• Morphine
• Heroin
• It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
• Tetrahydrocannabinol
• Cannabis sativa
• Papaver somniferum
• Methamphetamine
• Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used as:
• Pain killer
• Cough reliever
• Stimulant
• Depressant
• Who among the following acts as the chairman of the DDB?
• Secretary of Justice
• Secretary of National Defense
• Secretary of Education
• Secretary of Health
• Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese tourist.
• Marijuana
• Cocaine
• Shabu
• Opium
• The most potent derivative from opium.
• Codeine
• Cocaine
• Morphine
• Heroin
• Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru.
• Tetrahydrocannabinol
• Papaver somniferum
• Amphetamine
• Erythroxylon coca
• The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”.
• Chomper
• Ecstacy
• Shabu
• Heroin
• Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to circumvent legal restrictions.
• Designer drugs
• Hallucinogens
• Amphetamines
• Methamphetamines
• A law which prohibits government officials to enter and gamble in Philippine casinos.
• PD 1602
• PD 1869
• PD 510
• PD 483
• Office that controls and regulates gambling.
• PAGCOR
• PCGG
• PACC
• PNP
• A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among persons who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable
consideration for the chance to obtain a prize.
• Gambling
• Sport
• Lottery
• A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.
• Wage
• Wager
• Prize
• Banker
• Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as 25% of the substance:
• Hashish
• Codeine
• Morphine
• Heroin
• Amphetamine is a representative of good class of stimulants known as:
• Crank
• Pep pills
• Knock-out drops
• Stick
• Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on prohibited and regulated drugs.
• DDB
• NBI
• PACC
• PNP
• Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
• Narcotics
• Stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• Chemical substance which effects a person in such a way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or emotional
change.
• Alcohol
• Coca leaf
• Drug
• Marijuana
• Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion.
• Depressants
• Tranquilizers
• Hallucinogens
• Stimulants
• An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind
and body.
• Abuse
• Vice
• Addiction
• Gambling
• A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock owners and other bettors.
• Promoter
• “Cristo”
• Banker
• Gambler
• Most common problem encountered by the police in vice control measures:
• Unwillingness of government officials to work against vices
• Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
• Public apathy
• Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts
• The process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical change which later becomes sour or alcoholic.
• Distillation
• Fermentation
• Ionization
• Purification
• A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes argumentative and over confident.
• Slight inebration
• Moderate inebration
• Drunk
• Coma
• This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on conversion and fellowship.
• Aversion treatment
• Psychotherapy method
• Withdrawal method
• Program of alcoholic anonymous
• Oldest profession known to man which involves habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for money or profit.
• Gambling
• Prostitution
• Addiction
• Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to supplement their income.
• Call girls
• Factory girls
• Hustler
• Door knocker
• Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of
responsibility.
• Disorderly houses
• Furnished room houses
• Call houses
• Massage clinics
• The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originated is located specifically in:
• Thailand-Burma-China border
• Laos-Thailand-China border
• Thailand-Burma-Laos border
• Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
• Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made from Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal altering
ingredient. Which among the following is not an immediate effect of weed?
• Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
• Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
• Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of losing control
• Altered sense of time/disorientation
• A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South American shrub. It is a central nervous system stimulant.
• Marijuana
• Shabu
• Cocaine
• Opiates
• A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly upon chance or hazard.
• Gambling
• Sports
• Tupada
• Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is difficult to control is that:
• The big demand
• The plant can be easily cultivated
• Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
• Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
• The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information?
A. interview
C. interrogation
B. information
D. instrumentation
• It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be shown in order to obtain conviction?
A. intent
B.desire
C. motive
D. opportunity
• Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others.
• Grapevine Sources
• Cultivated Sources
C.Regular Sources
D.Cognitive interview
• What interrogation techniques when the investigator indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a
grave offense.
A. Sympathetic Appeal
B. Mutt and Jeff
C Extenuation
D. Emotional Appeal
• It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt.
• Confession
• Extra-Judicial Confession
• Admission
• Judicial Confession
• It refers to Police files of Photograph of known criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and names of
associate criminals.
• Physical Line-up
• Physical Show-up
• Geographic Sketch
• Rogues Gallery
• It is the general questioning of all persons at the crime scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite the Miranda
doctrine
A. Custodial Investigation
B. Interview
C. Field Inquiry
D. Interrogation
• It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and is established by a series of crimes under one classification.
A. Modus Operandi
B. Modes of Operation
C. Methods of Operation
D. Pattern of Operation
• It refers to a person who gives information relevant to a criminal case about the activities of the criminals voluntarily
to the investigator and who may even be willing to be a witness.
A. Informant
B. Informer
C. Mercenary
D. Women
• Methods of Search whereby the searchers will proceed at the same place along the path parallel to one side of the
rectangle.
A. Wheel search method
B.Quadrant Search
C. Spiral search method
D. Strip Search
• Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in court; it should be taken from ____.
A. General View
C. Close-up view
B. Mid-range
D. General to Specific
• It is the simplest and most effective way of showing actual measurements and of identifying significant items of
evidence in their location at the scene.
A. Sketch
B. Rough Sketch
C. Final Sketch
D. Finish Sketch
• What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the crime and its environs, including neighboring buildings,
roads, etc.?
• Sketch of Locality
• Sketch of Environs
• c. Sketch of the Ground
• d. Sketch in Details
• Elements of the Sketch:
• Measurement and compass direction
• Essential items and scale of proportion
• Legend and title
• During a custodial investigation, Jayson was subjected to physical harm by continuously kicking and punching
him in the stomach so that the same may confess.
• A. Coercion
• B. Physical torture
• C. Duress
• D. Verbal threats
• A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall
suffer the penalty of:
• A. Reclusion perpetua
• B. Death
• C. Reclusion temporal
• D. Destierro
• The Unit now charged with conducting field operation and technical investigation at the crime scene is:
• PNP Crime Laboratory
• Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
• Scene of the Crime Operation
• Crime Scene Investigation
•
• Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying on the
pavement sustaining multiple gun shot wounds, but still moving. What is the proper course of action he should
take?
• Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team to arrive
• Ask the desk officer to proceed to the
• crime scene and assist him with the situation.
• Call the investigator and inquire
• about his decision concerning the victim.
• D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the nearest hospital.
• In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____
• the property taken
• the fact that the crime was committed
• anything of value
• Intent of the suspect
• One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper
orientation of the scene.
• A. North
• B. West
• C. East
• D. South
• The following are the rules to be observed when intervening a witness, EXCEPT:
• allow implied answer
• saving faces
• one question at a time
• avoid leading questions
• In case there is no other available means of establishing the age of the offender, what should be done if he
claims that he is still a minor?
• Do not listen to his claim because probably he is already of majority age.
• Wait for the court to determine the age of the offender
• Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant
• Ask the social worker to determine the age of the offender
• 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident shall have the following duties, EXCEPT:
• Record the date and time the report was made
• Immediately respond to the crime scene
• Made a synopsis of the incident
• Inform his superior officer or duty officer regarding the report
• What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene where the briefing is to be conducted and also the place
where the evidence custodian receives the evidence collected during crime scene investigation?
• A. crime scene
• C. fixed post
• B. command post
• D. reception area
• In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT:
• Takes down note to document important factors
• Makes a general assessment of the crime scene
• Photograph the crime scene before walking through the crime scene
• Defines the extent of search area
• What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the crime scene?
• To determine whether or not the processing has been completed.
• To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
• To check all evidence gathered from the crime scene.
• To determine whether there is a need to request for additional personnel
• After the conduct of final survey by the team leader to whom will the crime scene be turned over?
• A. Chief of Police
• B. PCP Commander
• C. Investigator-on-case
• D. owner of the place
• Are all physical evidence found and collected at the crime scene to be transported to the Crime Laboratory?
• Yes, because they were collected for examination
• Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed to take custody of evidence
• No, because the SOCO Team has no authority to bring the evidence to the Crime Laboratory if the
investigator did not request
• No, only those which require further laboratory examination will be transported.
• Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted, the collection
process begins and will usually start with –
• A. point of exit
• B. fragile evidence
• C. large objects
• D. removal of cadaver
• Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
• A. Chief Investigator
• B. Team Leader
• C. Chief of Police
• D. Investigator-on-case
• This is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken
glasses:
• A. Incised wound
• B. Punctured wound
• C. Stab wound
• D. Lacerated wound
• What is the means of identifying physical evidence in which the investigator inscribe initial date and time directly?
• A. marking
• B. labeling
• C. tagging
• D. none of these
• A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a evidence should be marked where ____.
• A. At the tip of the blade
• B. At the frame
• C. At the base
• D. At the handle
• What may be added to blood to preserve for a week?
• A. Sodium Chloride
• B. Sodium Fluoride
• C. Sodium Dioxide
• D. NONE
• What is the most important part of the hair?
• A. Follicle
• B. Medulla
• C. Root
• D. All of these
• What is the minimum number of hair strands is needed?
• A. 10 strands
• B. 30 to 60 strands
• C. 120 strands
• D. unlimited
• Mummification is a condition of arrested decomposition due to the absence of moisture. It is common in hot dry
conditions, usually takes ___ to form.
• A. 3 months
• B. 1 month
• C. 6 months
• D. 1 year
• A dead body was found and there is already presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead body was at least
___.
• A. 2 days
• B. 5 days
• C. 3 days
• D. 1 week
• The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave for the conduct of medical examination:
• A. Inhumation
• B. Exhumation
• C. Autopsy
• D. Interment
• The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of the following
• The actual cause of death of the victim
• The actual killer of the victim
• The modus operandi involved
• The motive behind killing
• 41. The method used to support a likely sequence of events by the observation and evaluation of physical
evidence, as well as statement made by those involved with the incident:
•
• Crime Scene Reconstruction
• Mental reconstruction
• Any of the above
• The purposes of a crime scene search are the following, EXCEPT:
• To identify the method of operation
• To analyze physical evidence
• To reduce the number of suspects
• To obtain physical evidence
• In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains on the
front door, since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were both cut their identities need to be
established through the bloodstains. How will the police collect the stains?
• moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently.
• remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
• scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
• blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
• The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for
A. scale and proportion
B. future use
C. accuracy and clarity
D.courtroom presentation
• What is the court process requiring a person to bring documents in his possession to the courts?
• summon
• subpoena ducestecum
C.subpoena testificandum
D. bill of particulars
• What is the best method of collection evidence like footprints and tire prints?
A. Casting
B. Dental Stone
C. Plaster of Paris
D. Photograph
• Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are the information, interview/interrogation and instrumentation.
Among of them information is deemed to be the most important because
• Information involves the elements of the crime
• Information identifies the perpetrator of the crime
• Information identifies witnesses that will lead to the suspect
• None of these
• Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-and-run may be particularly useful in the investigation process
because the year and make of the car involved may be determinable. The paint chips evidence collected should
be ideally placed on?
• Clear plastic envelope
• Clear plastic container
• Small plastic bag
• Cotton
• Which of the following is the primary source of evidence?
A. victim
B. crime scene
C. suspect
D. all of these
• Which among the following is an essential element of parricide?
• by means of treachery
• relationship of the offender with the victim
• relationship of the offender with the witness
• age of the victim
• In crime scene investigation, who determines its entry/exit?
A. the prober
B. SOCO
C. COP
D. First responded
• After developing the latent print found at the crime scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as a back
record, is it a correct practice and do you agree with the prober?
A. yes
B. no
C. maybe
D. It depends
• What would be the best camera position in taking photographs showing a view of what a witness might have seen?
• at 6 foot distance from the camera man
• parallel to the subject witness
• overhead
• at the eye level
• Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or engraved the initial on a collected hard object is called?
A. Collection
C. Scratcher
B. Luminous
D. Stylus
• As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose of interrogation?
• To extract illegally the confession of a suspect
• To extract the information he possesses
• To extract a confession of admission
• Before going to court, be sure to review the ___?
• Names of the suspect
• Names of the witness
• Number of the cases
• Facts of the cases
• In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober must keep in mind that before placing the specimen in a paper
packet it must be allowed first to ____?
A. Refrigerate
B. Air dried
C. Moist
D. Freeze
• Why is it important for a perishable material to be preserved by the way or the methods of preservation?
• So that the evidence will not be destroyed
• In order that this evidence will reach the court in the same physical condition as when they were
collected
• To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the acquittal of the accused
• In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand has how many legs or vertical support?
A. two
B. four
C. one
D. three
• Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and empty shell for
A. proper and lasting mark
B. preservation
C. marking it
D. labeling
• Which of the following is not the function of criminal investigation?
• Identify, locate and arrest the person who commits crime
• Prosecute and convict the criminal
• Identify, collect and preserve evidence
• Bring the offender to justice
• Below are serious crimes which leave physical evidence, EXCEPT:
• Homicide
• Carnapping and arson
• Sexual assault and robbery
• Libel
• There are two robbers who broke into a house and carried away some valuables. After they left such house these
two robbers decided to cut or divide the loot already so that they can go of them . So while they are
dividing the loot the other robber noticed that the one doing the division is trying to cheat him and so he
immediately boxed him. Now this robber who was boxed then pulled out his gun and fired at the other one killing
the latter. What crime is committed?
• Robbery and Murde
• Murder
• Robbery w/ Homicide
• Homicide
• If a person had an enemy and killed him and after killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took this, the
crime would be?
• Robbery and Murder
• Robbery and Theft
• Robbery w/ Homicide
• Murder
• A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw B a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned A, and
they get married. What crime is committed?
A. Robbery
B. Robbery w/ Rape
C. Robbery and Rape
D. NONE
• On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night, a
man entered through that opening without breaking the same and gets items there. What crime is committed?
A. Robbery
B. Theft
C. Robbery w/ force upon things
D. None
• The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
A. RA 8484
B. RA 7877
C. RA 7080
D. RA 8353
• If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are found in your house by the police, then it is ____.
• Prima facie evidence of Fencing
• Prima facie evidence of theft
• Conclusive Evidence of Theft
• Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
• The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful warrantless arrest EXCEPT:
A. Seized in “Plain view”
B. Customs search
C. Search of a moving vehicle
D. None of the choices
• After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately the things or property seized to the ____ together with an
inventory duly verified under oath.
• Judge who issued the warrant
• Prosecution Counsel
• Requesting Party
• Any of these
• The validity period of Search Warrant is ____.
A. 10 days
B. No time Limit
C. 15 days
D. NONE
• The taking of a person into custody in the manner authorized by law for the purpose of presenting that person
before the court to answer for the commission of a crime.
A. Search
B. Arrest
C. Initial Contact
D. Warrant of Arrest
• Who shall issue a Search Warrant?
A. Judge
B. Executive Branch
C. Investigator on Case
D. Prober
• All but one are the instances you can execute a lawful warrantless arrest.
A. Flagrante Delicto
B. Escaped prisoner
C. Hot pursuit Principle
D. None of these
• Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because-
• it speaks for itself
• it cannot lie
• not affected by emotion
• Physical or personal appearance is important when testifying in court because –
• it will determine the quality of your testimony
• it will determine the quantity of your testimony
• it will affect the weight given to your testimony by the court
• it will reduce the chances of the defense
• What does DNA stand for?
• Deoxyrebunucleic Acid
• Deoxyribunucleic Acid
• Deoxyribonucleic Acid
• Deoxyribunucliec Acid
• It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton
• Every contact leaves a Mark
• modus operandi
• shadowing
• casing
• The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the crime will most likely mean that –
• the victim cleaned up before the police arrived
• the suspect was professional
• the suspect was juvenile
• the police probably did not conduct a complete search for evidence.
• During an interview, planning is important and must follow the order of time and bring out facts orderly as they
happened, this technique is called –
• chronological questioning
• psychological questioning
• physical questioning
• None of these
• It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign territory” such as the investigator room at the police station because
the place –
• Is comfortable to the suspect
• Is familiar to the suspect
• Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
• Intimidates the suspect
• When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he should first of all –
• Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to jar
• wait until the crime scene has been sketched, photographed and measurements taken before he
collects the evidence
• immediately collects it and always sends it to the Crime Laboratory for specific examination
• Compare the following edge of the took with impression to determine if this was the tool used in crime
• All of the following are generally accepted rules of behavior that should be followed by police officer first arriving at
the crime scene of a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT –
• Try to keep witnesses separated
• Record the time of discovery of the crime
• Discus the crime with persons who witness the incident
• Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible but do not leave the scene unguarded while doing so
• The primary reason for conducting a search in the crime scene is to –
• Obtain obvious physical evidence
• Ascertain the reasons for the crime
• Undercover hidden evidence
• Determine the criminals method of operation
• Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be made on the item itself upon collection, in a place least likely
to affect the appearance of its -
A. Physical Integrity
B. Evidentiary
C. Legal Integrity
D. Integrity and Identity
• In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the pursuit is not possible, what should you not do?
• Better use your time and efforts to alert another unit
• Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are formerly doing
• Inform the dispatched of the unit
• Use radio for possible active pursuit in coordination with other police units
• This situation takes place when a police officer induced a person to commit a crime and arrest him after the
commission of the crime.
A. Instigation
B. Search
C. Recidivism
D. Entrapment
• The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is
possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This
statement is applicable to –
• Chain of custody of evidence
• Cardinal rules in investigation
• Three tools in investigation
• To establish the guilt of the accused
• It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the crime scene.
• Locate and apprehend the accused
• Protection of the crime scene
• Collect evidence
• Present evidence of guilt
• These are some of the investigative activities in a homicide case, EXCEPT:

• record the crime scene through notes, photographs, and sketches
• recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical evidences and clue materials
• establish the cause and the manner of death of the victim
• alleged suspicion as they initially appear to the investigators
• Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide case, are the following, EXCEPT:
• determine the categories and modes of death
• seek additional information by interviewing witness
• ascertaining the motive of the suspect
• questioning the suspect after explaining his rights
• White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to prevent and when detected or reported, they pose many ____.
• investigative difficulties
• investigative tasks
• investigative problems
• investigative burden
• To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the investigator must develop ___, eh must also remember that the
victim may suddenly lose interest in aiding prosecution.
• every phase of the case
• contingency of case
• friendly atmosphere
• rapport with victim
• The following are characteristics of organized crime, EXCEPT:
• close-knit nature of its membership
• their elaborate planning and lack of impulsiveness
• violence and intimidation are common tools
• basically a street gang with criminal skills
• The following statements, answers the questions “when” and “how” rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
• sexual assault by inserting penis into another person’s mouth
• inserting any instrument or object into the genital or anal orifice or another person
• committed under all the elements enumerated by Art. 324 of the Revised Penal Code
• rape case is a crime against chastity
• Rape is committed under any of the following circumstance, EXCEPT:
• through the use of force, threat or intimidation
• when the offended party is deprived of reasons or otherwise unconscious
• by means of fraudulent machinations or grave abuse of authority
• it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a woman
• As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is divided into two different classifications, one is robbery by the
use of force upon things, and the other is:
• robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
• taking of personal property belonging to another
• with intent, to gain and to possess the property
• pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
• The following are the elements of the crime robbery, EXCEPT:

• personal property belonging to another
• the taking must be with intent to gain
• there is violence or intimidation of any person
• it engender fear and quality of life
• The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an automobile which has been stolen and abandoned is
on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
• If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying then collecting information and evidences, the next logical
step to do is
• presents them in court
• preserves their legal integrity
• evaluate their strength in establishing proof
• recognize their importance in the case
• During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman arriving at
the scene a short time later finds the victim unconscious, calls for an ambulance and orders the crowd to leave.
His action was
• bad; there may have been witnesses to the assault among the crowd
• good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an injured person room and air
• bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
• good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
• bad; it is poor public relations for the police to order people about needlessly.
• The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:

• sketch, search, photograph
• search, sketch, photograph
• photograph, search, sketch
• photograph, sketch, search
• It is often important to know the time of death. The reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
• to question individual who last talk with the victim
• to look for flaws on a witness’s account of incident
• protect the innocent from malicious allegations
• to know what was occur and how did it occur
• 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a privilege, 2 nd Driver’s License is issued to a person, who has all
the qualification as provided by law, 3rd Driver’s License is a public document
• The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect
• The 1st and 3rd statements are correct
• The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
• All statements are correct
• Which of the following is not a function of warning symbol?
• To call the decrease of speed
• To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of the approaching danger
• To direct motorist along the establish direction
• To notify traffic units an approaching hazardous circumstance either on or adjacent to road
• 106. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT:
• To guide motorist along established routes
• To inform proper routes
• To help him along his way to the most simple and direct method
• To call the diminution of speed
• 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve around questions of right of way, for practically purposes, one of the
following is the best definition of “Right of Way”.
• The personal right to move from one place to another
• The privilege of immediate use of particular section of highway
• The way or place open to the motorist and pedestrian
• The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at the time is occupied by another vehicle
• It is intended to inform road user of special obligation, instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply.
A. Traffic Signs
B. Informative Signs
C. Regulatory Signs
D. Danger/warning signs
• A kind of road according to political subdivision within town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters.
A. National Road
B. Municipal Road
C. Barangay Road
D. City Road
• It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB
A. Private
B. For Hire
C. Government
D. Diplomatic
• Professional and non-professional driver’s license is valid for ___ from the date of issuance and renewable every
birth month.
A. 18 Months
B.36 Months
C. 24 Months
D.12 Months
• It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way involving persons using vehicle or transportation, but not
involving a motor vehicle in motion:
• Vehicle Traffic Accident
• Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
• Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
• Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident
• Which of the following law created the Metropolitan Manila Development Authority (MMDA)?
A. RA 8750
B .RA 7924
C. RA 8749
D. PD 96
• The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the following:
• A cutback of traffic accidents and interruption
• A amplify in traffic enforcement actions
• A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to enforcement manner
• None of these
• 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the moment he
starts to cross.
A. Absolutely true
B. Partly true
C. Absolutely false
D. Partly false
• It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above street level for free-flow traffic.
A. Expressway
B. Subway
C. Skyway
D. Tunnel road
• City roads inter-link between municipalities and within the city with a right of way of 15 meters; what is the minimum
width of sidewalk?
A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
D. 2.0 meters
• It refers to enforcement actions which consist of taking a person into custody for the purpose of holding or
detaining him to answer a charge of law violation before a court.
A. Arrest
B. Traffic Arrest
C. Traffic Citation
D. Traffic Warning
• Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not less than ___ can apply for non-professional driver’s license
A. 150 Days
B. 180 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 30 Days
• Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other than serious to one or more persons:
A. Property damage
B. Less Serious Injury
C.Fatal Accident
D. Non-fatal Accident
• When two vehicles approach an intersection at approximately the same time, which shall give the right of way:
• The vehicle coming from the right
• Vehicle from the center
• The vehicle coming from the left
• The vehicle that arrives first
• Which of the following consideration does not act as a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
A. Fear of fine and punishment
B.Loss of driving privileged
C.Possibility involve in an accident
D.Increase of insurance premium
• Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by, EXCEPT:
A.Poor legislation activities
B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
• The following are NOT functions of Land Transportation Office, EXCEPT:
A.Reparation of vehicles
B.Registration and licensing
C.Rental and license
D.Licensing operating
• One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of traffic rules
C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
• Most common defect attributed to the human element in cases of traffic vehicular accidents:
A. Intellectual
B. Perceptual
C. Decision
D. Attitudinal
• 2568. Statistically it is considered as the most common reason for public utility vehicular accidents.
A.Not observing the proper distance and following too close
B.Unnecessary
C.Recklessness
D.Discussion regarding fare
• 2569. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left”
B. Safety First
C. “keep to the right”
D. “watch out”
• 2570. What would drivers do when an emergency vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red light and
sounding a siren?
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly
B.continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the passage of the vehicle
D.disregard the red light and siren
• As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you approach an intersection with the traffic light with a “green color” on
but a traffic policeman is standing at the center of intersection conducting the flow normally. As a driver you will
ignore the traffic man and follow the automatic traffic light-
A. True
B. False
C. Sometimes
D. It depends
• Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes another vehicle, object or person and left the scene without
stopping to identify himself or render aid
A. hit and run
B. third party liability
C. reckless driving
D. side sweeper
• A systematic examination of all the facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features associated with motor
collision or accident –
A.traffic engineering
B.traffic accident investigation
C.reckless driving
D.hit and run
• A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody who are not a member of the organization who can helps the
organization
A. Enforcer
B. Capo
C. Corrupter
D. Corruptee
• What type of OCG which is manned by semi-organized individual with the end view of attaining psychological
gratification such as adolescent gangs.
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
B.Political Graft
C.Predatory Organized Crime
D.Syndicated Organized Crime
• A continuing illegal activity of group of person which is primarily concerned with the generation of profits,
irrespective of national boundaries as a result of globalization.
A.Transnational Organized Crime
B.Transnational Crime
C.Organized Criminal Group
D.NONE
• What category of terrorist group which is What category of terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow an
established order and replacing it with a new political or social structure?
A. Ethnocentric
B. Revolutionary
C. Separalist
D. Political
• ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for?
A.InformationConnection Technology
B.InformationCommunication
Technology
C.InternetCommunication
Technology
D.Internet Connection Technology
• Economic crime is known as:
A.Blue Collar Crime
B.Wildlife Smuggling
C.White Collar Crime
D.Wildlife trafficking
• It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
A. Terrorisme
B.Terrere
C. Rapere
D. Vestigarre
• It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades to the
authorities:
A. Capo
B. Omerta
C. Jihad
D. Ideology
• It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro National Liberation
Front (MNLF):
A.Rizal Day Bombing
B.Ninoy assassination
C.Black September
D.Jabbidah Massacre
• Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that calls all Muslims
around the world to slay Americans and their allies.
A. Abu-Abbas
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef
C. Ahmed Yassin
D. Osama bin-Laden
• This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal
record, or similar considerations:
A.No Political Goals
B.Hierarchical
C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture
D.Limited or Exclusive Membership
• Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of their:
A. membership
B. motivation
C. leadership
D. networking
• This theory refers to those processes by which the community influences its members towards conformity with
established norms and behavior.
A. differential association
B. social control
C. anomie
D. strain
• It is a form of modern day slavery.
A. Human Trafficking
B. Prostitution
C. Drug Trafficking
D. Sex tourism
• The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified when:
A.the person trafficked is an elderly
B.the person trafficked is a special child
C.the person trafficked is a woman
D.the person trafficked is a child
• The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides that an organized criminal group must have a membership
of at least ___:
A. 3 or More
B. 2 or More
C. 4 or More
D. 5 or More
• In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly included.
A. Al Qaeda
B. MILF
C. MNLF
D. JI
• In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
A.Swords bearer
B.Islamic Congregation
C.Father of the Swordsman
D.The Base
• These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting for as much as 80% of terrorist-related violence:
A. Bombings
B. Assassinations
C. Kidnapping
D. Prostitution
• This is also known as the Human Security Act of 2007:
A. RA 9372
B. RA 9160
C. RA 9165
D. RA 8294
• This is the country which believed to be the origin of Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
A. United States of America
B. Italy
C. Japan
D. China
• An Asian organized crime that represents mystical symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing the
heaven, earth and man:
A. Yakuza
B. Triad
C. Tongs
D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
• Chain of custody should be observed by the investigating team of cybercrimes:
A.The Statement is wrong
B.The statement is true
C.None of these
D.All of these
• Internet pornography is punishable under E-Commerce Act of 2000:
A.The Statement is correct
B.Statement is wrong
C.either of the above
D.neither of the above
• Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and cyber cafes, where majority of cybercrimes are perpetuated,
are legally required to have permanent logs and records of their clients:
A.The statement is true
B.The statement is false
C.Neither of the above
D.Either of the above
• The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that telecommunication companies are legally bound to cooperate with the
law enforcement agencies in the course of their investigation:
A.The statement is absolutely correct
B.The statement is absolutely wrong
C.The statement is partially correct
D.The statement is partially wrong
• It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E-Commerce Act of 2000.

A. 20 years
B. 12 years
C. 6 years
D. 3 years
• It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make them
appear to have originated from legitimate sources:
A. Estafa
B.Money Laundering
C. Anti-Money Laundering
D. Swindling
• This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic and/or sound in electronic form, representing the identity of a
person and attached to or logically associated with the electronic data message:
A. electronic key
B. originator
C. electronic signature
D. electronic date message
• Only a computer forensic expert should search for any evidence contained in a computer hardware.
A.The statement is absolutely correct
B.The statement is absolutely wrong
C.The statement is partially correct
D.The statement is partially wrong
• It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998:
A. RA 8551
B. RA 8484
C. RA 9160
D. RA 9165
• What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
A.Operation Geronimo
B.Operation Jabbidah
C.Operation Neptune Spear
D.Operation Merdeka
• These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT?
A. The Neopolitan Camera
B. Sinilian Mafia
C. Cali Cartel
D. Sacra Corona Unita
• It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to establish a shared database among concerned agencies for
information on criminals, methodologies, arrests and conviction on transnational crime.
A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
C.International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
D.Philippine National Police (PNP)
• It is known as IP address that changes every time the internet accesses his ISP:
A. ISP
B. Dynamic IP address
C. Static IP Address
D. IP Address
• It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or website pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive financial
information such as credit card numbers or social security numbers.
A. Phising
B. Hacking
C. Cracking
D. Identity Theft
• It refers to a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without permission or knowledge of the
user
A. Virus
B. Trojan Horse
C. Logic Bomb
D. Worm
• What kind of hacker who breaks into computer systems with malicious intent, usually for some criminal purpose.
A. Black Hat Hackers
B. Gray Hat Hacker
C. White Hat Hackers
D. Any color
• This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known as “Back to Islam”.
A. Abu Sayyaf
B. MILF
C. Je naah Islamiya
D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
• It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with the capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of people.
A.Nuclear
B.Weapon of mass destruction
C.Anthrax
D.Chemical weapons
• Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal organization in the world.
A. Al Qaeda
B. Jihad
C. Chinese Mafia
D. Nuestra Costra
• What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density
B. fire point
B. boiling point
D. vapor pressure
• It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire when it is in its gas-phased combustion.

A. Flames
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Endothermic reaction
D. NONE
• What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete
combustion and has a low temperature.
A. Luminous
B. Non-luminous
C. Laminar
D. Turbulent
• The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____.
A. Infection
C. shock
B. burns
D. asphyxiation
• What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature inside
its container?
A. cryogenic gas
B. liquefied gas
C. compressed gas
D. nuclear gas
• When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the method is called ____.

A. radiation
B. oxidation
C. convection
D. conduction
• Which of the following does NOT fall under class A fires?
A. none of the choices
B. burning nipa hut
C. exploding gas depot
D. forest fire
• Which of the following best illustrate arson?
A.simultaneous fire
B.thick reddish smoke
C.faulty electric wiring
D.unexplained explosion
• Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?
A.water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
B.there is the danger of electrocution
C.burning metals are too hot
D.explosion may occur
• Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so that water with
pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box
B. fire truck
C. hose reel
D. fire hydrant
• In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is known as ___.
A. reducing agent
B. oxidizing agent
C. cooling agent
D. chemical agent
• 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a building:
A.It only moves horizontally
B.It has a circular movement
C.It moves sideways while moving vertically
D.It has a circular movement while moving horizontally
• A sudden introduction of air into a closed space containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of incomplete
combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, may result to an explosion, which is called:
A. Spontaneous ignition
B. flashover
C. Backdraft
D. Flash fire
• It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while electric current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to the
damage or destruction of insulating materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal or external.
A. Arcing
B. Induced Current
C. Over Heating
D. sparkling
• The most common motive for arson is
A. jealousy
B. profit
C. spite
D. revenge
• Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
A.inflammable substance found in the premises
B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
C.building insurance
D.any of the choices
• What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the on-volatile from the less volatile parts and then
cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified substance?
A. combustion
B. evaporation
C. distillation
D. condensation
• What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?

A. hydrant key
B. key board
C. fire hose
D. jumper
• What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming
ascent or descent?
A. rope
B. hydrant
C. ladder
D. nozzle
• What are the cross members between the beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
A. hangar
B. beams
C. rungs
D. braces
• Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which of the following facilities should you
check?
A.Gift-wrapped packages
B.Electric switch system
C.Telephones
D.All of these
• The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to as:
A. vertical ventilation
B. cross ventilation
C. forced ventilation
D. horizontal ventilation
• If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is:
A. smothering
B. fuel removal
C. cooling
D. dilution
• The most important element of Fire?
A.Fuel
B.Chemical chain reaction
C.Heat
D.Oxygen
• A complete and detailed checked of the structures and material involved in the fire to make sure that every spark
and ember has been extinguished and to have assurance against
A. Overhaul
B. Rescue
C. Salvage
D. None
• When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely
reason for taking this position?
A.The stream is projected farther
B.The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
C.A backward force is developed which must be counter acted
D.The firemen can see better when the stream strikes
• If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:
A. murder with arson
B. arson with murder
C. murder
D. arson
• This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical powder intended to fight all classes of fires.
A. H20
B. Liquefied
C. Dry Chemical
D. Soda Acid
• All except one are aggravating circumstances in Arson.
A.If committed with intent to gain:
B.If committed with the benefit of another:
C.If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the owner or occupant of the property
burned:
D.If committed by a syndicate
E.None of the Above
• What color of smoke is present when the materials burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
A. Black
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Blue
• After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must
determine?
A.look for survivors
B.search for debris
C.locate the point of origin
D.established corpus delicti
• Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F) is a:
A. Combustible liquid
B. Corrosive liquid
C. Flammable liquid
D. Volatile liquid
• A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal
quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your interpretation under such circumstance?
A.The person died because of asphyxia
B.The person died because of the burning
C.The person was killed before it was burned
D.The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
• What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
A. attic
B. extension
C. aerial
D. hook
• 257.What type of ground ladder which contains only one section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet.
A. Straight ladder
B. Attic ladder
C. Extension ladder
D. Wall ladder
• Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate flame propagation.
A. Plant
B. Trailer
C. Accelerant
D. Gasoline
• Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
A. Witness
B. Society
C. First responder
D. Owner
• Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
A. RA 9514
B. PD 1185
C. RA 8294
D. RA 8484
• All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in Arson.
A.Kind and character of the building burned
B.Location of the building
C.Extent or value of the damage
D.Whether inhabited or not
E.None of the choices
• The amount of drug that produces untoward effect of symptoms of poisoning.
A. Minimal Dose
B. Abusive Dose
C. Toxic Dose
D. Maximal Dose
• A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost entirely around the drug experience and securing supplies.
A. Situational
B. Hard-core
C. Hippies
D. Spree
• Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably the
second most commonly used route of drug administration,
A. Snorting
B. inhalation
C. oral ingestion
D. Injection
• Among the countries involved in the first important drug traffic route, which is responsible for preparation for
distribution?
A. Middle East
B. USA
C. Turkey
D. Europe
• Which among the following responsible for producing almost 60% of Opium in the world.
A. Golden triangle
B. Golden Crescent
C. Silver Triangle
D. White Christmas
• What countries constitute the Golden Crescent?
A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
C.Burma, Laos, Thailand
D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand
• It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in Europe”.
A. Philippines
B. Mexico
C. Spain
D. Lebanon
• It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and often induce sleep.
A. Sedatives
B. Stimulants
C. Hallucinogen
D. Narcotics.
• It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes about 10% of the use raw opium.
A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Opium
• The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon coca.
A. Cocaine
B. Marijuana
C. Papayer Somniferum
D. claviceps purpurea
• Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___ specs.
A. Blue
B. Orange
C. Violet
D. Red
• PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of ___
A. Assistant Secretary
B. Secretary
C. Chairman
D. Undersecretary
• What is the minimum age required to be able to become a PDEA agent?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 21
D. s25
• The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the rank of Director. He/She shall be appointed by the ___.
A. Chairman/President
B. Secretary/PDEA DG
C. CSUPT/President
D. SUPT/PDEA DG
• The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug
prevention and control
A. PDES
B. DDB
C. PNP Narcotics
D. NBI Narcotics
• They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A.NBI Director and PNP Director General
B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
C.PNP Director and PDEA Director
D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
• If the clandestine laboratory is established in the following circumstances such will serve as Aggravating
Circumstances:
A.Conducted in the presence or with the help of minor/s
B.Established within one hundred (100) meters of a residential, business, church or school
premises.
C.Secured or protected with booby traps
D.Concealed with legitimate business operations
E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical engineer, public official or foreigner
F.all of the choices
• The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of how many Ex-officio Members?
A. 2
C. 2
B. 12
D. 17
• Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A.Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.
D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
• What agency of the government supervises drug rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks and laboratories?
A.Department of Interior and Local Government
B.Department of Health
C.Department of Justice
D.Department of Social Welfare and Development
• The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. 2 years
B. 6 years
C. 4 years
D. co-terminus
• The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of 50 to 200 thousand pesos.
B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine of 10 to 50 thousand pesos.
C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40 thousand pesos.
D.6 months rehabilitation
• It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person with or without his/her knowledge either
by injection inhalation, ingestion or other means.
A. Administer
B. Use
C. Dispense
D. Deliver
• Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques
were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide-out operation
B. Safe house
C. Clandestine Operation
D. Drug Syndicate
• Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on:
A. June 7, 2002
B. July 4, 2002
C. July 30, 2002
D. June 18, 2003
• The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT
A.Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B.Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence
C.Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies
D.All candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in national or local government
units.
E.All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an imposable
penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day.
• Apprehending team having initial custody and control of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall immediately after seizure, physical inventory and
photograph the same in the presence of the following, EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were confiscated or his representative or counsel.
B.A representative from the media.
C.A representative from the DOJ.
D.Any elected public official.
• Apprehending team having initial custody and control of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall immediately after seizure, physical inventory and
photograph the same in the presence of the following, EXCEPT.
A.To person from whom such items were confiscated or his representative or counsel
B.A representative from the media
C.A representative from the DOJ
D.Any elected public official
• In what quantity of specimen should be taken by forensic examiner of drugs for scientific analysis:
A.Not more than five (5) grams per package/bag
B.Not more than three (3) tablets for capsules or tables
C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid solution
D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried leaves and not more than 2 plants.
E.All of the choices
• The following shall not be subject to Mandatory Drug Testing EXCEPT:
A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary Schools
B.Persons apprehended or arrested for violation of the Provision of Comprehensive Dangerous
Drug Act.
C.Officers and Employee of public and private offices
D.A and C only
• Preliminary Investigation of cases involving dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period of:
A. 180 days
B. 45 days
B. 30 days
D. 60 days
• An analytical test using some tools or device design to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or screening
test.
A. Screening test
B. Confirmatory rest
C. Physical test
D. Chemical Test
• The ____ shall designate special courts from among the existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try and
hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
A. DOJ
B. Supreme Court
C. DDB
D. Sandiganbayan
• The law that penalized the use and possession or the unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
A. P.D. 1519
B. P.D. 1916
C. P.D. 1619
D. P.D. 580
• A laboratory examination is only required to apprehend offender within 24 hours if the person arrested has:
A.Physical sign of drug abuse
B.Symptoms of Drug abuse
C.Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
D.All of the choices
• Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic beverage is the absorption is faster?
A. 20 to 30 minutes
B. 30 to 60 minutes
C. 10 to 20 minutes
D. 50 to 60 minutes
• It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of the liquor
(alcohol)?
A. 0.05
B. 1.5
C. 0.15
D. 0.50
• The person who manages houses of ill-refute where the business of prostitution is conducted.
A. Pimp
B. prostitute
C. Knocker
D. Maintainer
• The person is argumentative and overconfident. There is slight impairment of mental difficulties.
A. Slight inebriation
B. Moderate inebriation
C. Drunk
D. Very drunk
• Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70 of RA 9165 is ____:
A.Qualified to apply for probation
B.Disqualified to apply for probation
C.Allowed to apply for probation
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day
• What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”.
A. Marijuana
B. Ecstacy
C. Shabu
D. None of these
• Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a cough reliever?
A. morphine
B. cocaine
C. opium
D. codeine
• When drunken person does not know the intoxicating strength of the beverage he has taken.
A. involuntary
B. Intentional
C. Habitual
D. Coma
• Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Morality
B. Vices
C. Prostitutions
D. Gambling
• After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall conduct ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or
surrendered dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors within:
A. 24 hours
B. 30 days
C. 72 hours
D. 48 hours
• That part of the body most affected to by heavy drinking are:
A.digestive system and nervous system
B.brain and veins of the body
C.the lungs and heart
D.None of the above
• Can a high school student be compelled to undergo drug test?
A. yes
B. maybe
C. upon circumstances
D. No
• SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as a prosecution witness during trial of the case against the alleged
drug dealer caught in buy-bust operation. What will be his penalty?
A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C. Life imprisonment
D. Death penalty
• PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is their penalty
the same?
A. No
B. False
C. Yes
D. True
• DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of investigation
involving the violations of RA 9165.
A. True
B. Partially True
C. False
D. Partially False
• A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.

A. Ketamine
B. Codeine
C. Anesthesia
D. Sleeping pills
• What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2nd violation.
A.6 Months Rehabilitation
B.12 Months Rehabilitation
C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
• It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly or
indirectly, through any overt or cover acts:
A. Entrapment
B. Planting of Evidence
C. Instigation
D. Black mailing
• It is the Agency of the government that will take charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated:
A. Maritime Police
B. Dangerous Drug Board
C. PDEA
D. NBI
E. PNP
• “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what time and
date the arresting officers have to subject “A” to a drug test as required by the law?
A.7:00 P.M., October 25
B.7:00 P.M., October 24
C.8:00 A.M., October 26
D.8:00 A.M., October 25
• Which among the following data concerning photographs as evidence is LEAST essential?
A.date and hour which each photograph was taken
B.identification of the police photographer
C.proof of ownership of the camera
D.focal length of the lens
• The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for _____.
A.scale and proportion
B.future use
C.accuracy and clarity
D.courtroom presentation
• All except are object evidence that should be taken photograph individually, EXCEPT?
A. Knife
B. Semen
C. stone
D. Gun
• All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?
A. Police car on call
B. Ambulance on call
C. Fire Truck on call
D. Physician’s car
• Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front seat of any running motor vehicle:
A.Seven years old
B.six years and old and under
C.under six years old
D.seven years old and under
• Marijuana is also known as?
A. Coke
B. Poppers
C. Cannabis
D. Morphine
• Who will be punished of life imprisonment in illegal drug cases?
A. User
B. Pusher
C. Possessor
D. Coddler
• Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
• Marijuana
• Shabu
• Cocaine
• AMorphine
• Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal behavior?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Sometimes
D. It depends
• It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict to?

A. Reintegrate him to society
B. Punish him
C. Give him a lesson
D. Incapacitate him
• In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the crime scene. Legally, it means
• proof in the commission of crime
• body of the victim
C. wrongful act
D. none of these
• Deals with the study of major crimes based on the application of special investigative technique.
A. background investigation
B. criminal investigation
C. preliminary investigation
D. special investigation
• What is the other name for marijuana?
• rope
• grassland
• weed
• leaf
• Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation regarding drug operation.
• information
• abuses
• integrity
• reliability
• The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is:
• RA 7438
• RA 8353
• RA 9160
• RA 9165
• What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of a prohibited drug?

A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca bush
D. Peyote
• What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-awareness and emotion?
A. Narcotics
B. Stimulants
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
• What is that state arising from repeated administration of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis?
A. Habituation
B. Drug dependence
C. Drug Addiction
D. Physical dependence
• What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances that are sniffed to
obtain intoxication fall?
A. Depressants
B. energizers
C. inhalants
D. tranquilizers
• What is the act of injecting or that means of introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological system of the
body?
A. Consumption
B. Use
C. Administration
D. Abuse
• If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and using
it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, he is –
A. Socially dependent on drugs
B. Mentally dependent on drugs
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs
D. Physically dependent on drugs
• A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than morphine.
A. amphetamines
B. cocaine
C. heroin
D. iodine
• The most important constituent of opium is the drug:

A. cocaine
B. codeine
C. heroin
D. morphine
• The number of persons who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times of the
commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the case.
A. chain of custody
B. time of custody
C. time of disposal
D. time of disposition
• The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to:
A. morphine
B. cocaine
C. heroin
D. codeine
• The word hashish is derived from the name of Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to:
A. female marijuana plant
B. male marijuana plant
C. marijuana leaves
D. the marijuana resin
• What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid obtainable by the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in which
the alkaloid base may be made by treating morphine with acetyl chloride, washing the product with a dilute
alkaline solution and crystallizing from alcoholic solution?
A. cocaine
B. codeine
C. heroin
D. paregoric
• Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as
A. cocaine
B. marijuana
C. opium
D. shabu
• Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or counteracts poison or its effect
A. alkaloid
B. antidote
C. emetic
D. titanic
• “Shabu” is chemically known as:

A. methamphetamine
B. methamphetamine HCL
C. methyl amphetamine
D. methyleneamine
• A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis Sativa.
A. hashish
B. marijuana
C. morphine
D. opium
• Scientific name for cocaine.

A. cannabis sativa
B. erythroxylon coca
C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine
Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital body functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and
breathing rate. The regular administration of narcotics will produce physical dependence.
A. depressants
B. hallucinogens
C. narcotic
D. stimulants
• What is the method of introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric current?
• Topical method
• Injection method
• Iontophoresis
• Oral method
• What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms of cocaine?
• South East Asia
• South America
• Middle East
• South West Asia
• Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in

• Columbia
• India
• Mexico
• France
• What is the group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and gives the general effect of mood
distortion?
• Sedatives
• Hallucinogens
• Hypnotic
• Tranquillizers
• What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

• Heroin
• Marijuana
• Cocaine
• Shabu
• 2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness?
• Psychological dependence
• Physical dependence
• Addiction
• Withdrawal syndrome
• 2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to
• liquid amphetamine
• Shabu
• Heroin
• freebase cocaine
• Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it
tends to
• reduce the need for the drug
• satisfy more than one motive or need
• increase the satisfaction of use
• give sense of well being
• Which of the following drugs produces the effect of mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy?
• Solvents
• LSD
• Shabu
• Narcotics
• If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs are known as “downers”?

• Hallucinogens
• Barbiturates
• solvents
• cocaine
• Who has committed an act which is punishable under RA 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion
perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to P10,000,000.00?
• Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana plants in a plantation in the Cordillera.
• Julio who was caught for illegal possession of opium pipes and other paraphernalia.
• Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful medical prescription
• Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal use of volatile substances.
• What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system and are commonly referred to as “uppers”?
• Amphetamines
• Naptha
• Barbiturates
• Diazepam
• What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
• opiates
• Track
• Shabu
• coke
• What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-awareness and emotion?
A. Narcotics B. Stimulants
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
• It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for
Other Purposes.
• RA 9165
• RA 1956
• RA 9156
• RA 1965
• What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?

• Reclusion Perpetua
• Life Imprisonment
• Death
• Fine
• Who is the primary author of RA 9165?

• Sen. Ramon Revilla
• Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago
• Sen. Joker Arroyo
• Sen. Tito Sotto
• These are the requirements during the conduct of actual buy-bust operations.
A. poseur buyer
B. marked money
C. all of the choices
D. none of these
• Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by
RA 9165.
A. employee B. caretaker
C. financier D. lookout
• What do you call a prostitute who offers services to female customers?

• Johns
• Gigolo
• Pimps
• Rentboys
• What is the theory of organized crime wherein the penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
commission of crimes?
a. Anomie
• Deterrence theory
• Rational choice theory
• What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs?
A. Lot lizards
C. Hookers
B. Skeezers
D. Punters
• Globalization refers to the rapid growth and development of what culture?
• Northern
• Eastern
• Western
• Southern
• Crimes consummated by the use of computers and other highly modern devices.
• Transnational crimes
• white collar crimes
• modern crimes
• cyber crimes
• The following are transnational crimes, except
• drug trafficking
• gun smuggling
• money laundering
• illegal recruitment
• The following countries comprises the Golden Triangle, except
• Thailand
• Laos
• Myanmar
• Vietnam
• A term used to describe a place where trafficked person are brought and forced to become prostitutes.
• sweat shops
• hotels
• brothels
• motels
• Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group?
• Khaddafy Janjalani
• Hashim Salamay
• Abdurajack Janjalani
• Nur Misuari
• It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic light came into being before the automobile was in use?
A. No
B. It depends
C. Sometimes
D. Yes
• In planning for a traffic control program, which of the following is NOT a factor to consider
A.model of cars and vehicles
B.existing road /highway system
C.incidence of traffic accidents
D.traffic congestion hazards
• In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police
investigator.
A.Conduct each interview separately
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are not biased
C.Listen to both sides
D.Conduct the interview jointly
• When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at the same time who shall yield the right of way as a general
rule
A. The driver on the left
B.The faster vehicle
C.The driver on the right
D. The slower vehicle
• When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow moving vehicles should use the:
A.lanes 2 and 3
B.outer lanes
C.inner lanes
D.either the inner or outer lanes
• As a general rule, you should overtake on the left side, except when-
A.the oncoming traffic is free from an obstruction
B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming motor vehicles
C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway
D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic way
• The double solid white line:
A.doesn’t allow lane changing
B.allows overtaking
C.allows lane changing
D.allows parking
• It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian,
vehicles and roadway condition.
A. Apprehension
B. Adjudication
C. Defection
D. Prosecution
• Traffic arrest can be made when the following are present, EXCEPT:
A to avoid continues violation
B. offense committed is serious
C. the violator will not attend in court
D. involved in vehicular accident
• The following are the good ways of searching the scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
A.look over the grounds at what seems to be the point of collision
B.follow the path that the vehicle took in leaving the scene
C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
D.established the identity of the vehicles
• These are the basic steps in traffic accident-investigation, EXCEPT
A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
B.Gassesses the situation and call for assistance
C.care to the injured and protect their property
2462
• A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is to:
A.Look for the key event that causes the accident
B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
C.Consider violations as primary causes and any factors as secondary causes
D.Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather as causes
• One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the assessed value of a building.
A. single family dwellings
B. department store
C. hospitals
D. schools
• This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane is for right turn only:
A.Two headed arrow
B.Arrow pointing to left
C.Straight arrow on the pavement
D.The arrow is pointing to the right
• In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
keeping in full view of traffic:
A. Stationary
B. Visible
C.Conspicuous
D. Inconspicuous
• Licensed person allowing limited number of passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses
A. Operator
B. Driver
C.Conductor
D. Pedestrian
• It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an object with which it has collided; the force between the object
ceases at this time.
A. Stopping
B. Disengagement
C. Maximum Engagement
D. Initial Contact
• A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to
braking to collision damage, or rarely, to other circumstances.
A. Skid Mark
B.Scuff Marks
C.Skip skid
D. Gas Skid
• The place and time after or beyond which accident cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit.
A.point of no escape
B.point of Possible Perception
C.Perception Delay
D.Any of the above
• Main cause of human trafficking.
• lack of employment opportunities
• poverty
• corruption in government
• organized crimes
• Meaning of the phrase Abu Sayyaf
• Holder of the sword
• Founder of the sword
• Bearer of the sword
• Keeper of the sword
• The other name given to the UN Convention Against Transnational Crimes
• Palerna Convention
• Paterno Convention
• Palermo Convention
• Paderno Convention
• A prostitute who solicits customers in public places is called
• street walker
• Johns.
• call boy.
• whore.
• Placement is also called as
• heavy soaping
• banking
• immersion
• spin dry.
• The Yakuza has the ritual of putting tattoos in almost all parts of their bodies. The reason is
• their white bodies are very good materials to make drawings.
• it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos on their bodies.
• they delight in showing theother members their tattoos.
• anybody without tattoos are expelled from the group.
• The initiation of the Chinese Triad consists of
• placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a photograph of a saint and then let it burn on his palm while
reciting his oath to the organization.
• the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed animal mixed with his blood and pass beneath an arch of
swords while reciting his oath to the organization.
• the recruit will put body tattoos and lift three fingers while reciting his oath.
• the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed animal mixed with his blood and a picture of a saint will be
burned on his palm while reciting his oath.
• What do the Yakuza do with their tattoos?
• Cover them as they are sacred.
• They undress to show everybody their tattoos.
• They undress only inside their house.
• They only undress during oicho kabu.
• What OPLAN was created by the PNP as their campaign against most wanted persons and other fugitives?
• Oplan Cleansweep
• Oplan Criminal
• Oplan Pagtugis
• Oplan Batas
• 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a person who accepts the cultural goals to become rich but failed to accept the
institutional means of achieving it.
• Rebellion
• Retreatism
• Conformity
• Innovation
• It is a type of anomie wherein an individual does not accept the cultural goal but accepted the institutional means
of achieving it?
• Innovation
• Retreatism
• Rebellion
• Ritualism
• It is referred to as oldest and biggest criminal organization in the world.
• Mafia
• Yakuza
• Chinese Triad
• Cali Cartel
• The name given to a person afflicted with a mental illness wherein he is sexually aroused by young children.
• Pedophile
• pervert
• Maniac
• Pedophilia
• The former and original name of the Mafia

• Sicilian Clan
• Code of Omerta
• Mafiosi
• La Cosa Nostra
• Moslem who participated in the Afghan war are referred to as
• Jihadis
• Fundamentalists
• Mujaheddins
• Holy warriors
• Founder of the New People’s Army of NPA
• Jose Mari Chan
• Jose Maria Sison
• Jose Marie Gonzales
• Jose Maria Sioson
• A member of the Bar refers to this profession
• judges
• investigators
• lawyers
• prosecutors
• The year the UN Convention Against Transnational Crimes was held.
• 2000
• 2002
• 2001
• 2003
• The founder of the Moro Islamic Liberation Front
• Nur Misuari
• Khadaffy Janjalani
• Hashim Salamat
• The founder of the Moro National Liberation Front

• Nur Misuari
• Khadaffy Janjalani
• Hashim Salamat
• Abdurajack Janjaalani
• In the strategy of terrorist, what is used for the people, government and the world to know their aims?
• Television
• Newspaper
• Radio
• Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”.
• Abu Sayaff
• Hezbollah
• Fatah
• Hamas
• The most notorious and sought after terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
• Hezbollah
• Al Qaeda
• Fatah
• Hamas
• South America country principal source of cocaine.
• Brazil
• Spain
• Columbia
• Chile
• Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
• Israel
• Gaza Strip
• Lebanon
• West bank
• The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
• organization
• faction
• cell
• station
• Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
• Hezbollah
• Hamas
• Al Qaeda
• Fatah
• One of the most important components of terrorist-related investigations is the collection and preservation of
what?
• physical evidence
• witnesses
• information
• all of these
• It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wire Tapping Law.”
• RA 4200
• RA 4002
C. RA 2004
D. RA 4020
• Meaning of the term “Jihad”.
• Holy War
• Holy Mass
• Holy Cow
• Holy Ghost
• Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda
• Yasser Arafart
• Osama Bin Laden
• Abu Nidal
• Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries
• M16
• AK47
• M14
• Galil
• Terrorist group that operates within a single state or country.
• Transnational
• national
• international
• none of them
• The most wanted terrorist in the world.
• Yasser Arafat
• Abu Nidal
• Osama Bin Laden
• Mohammad Alzawari
• It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure the State and Protect the People from Terrorism,”
a. RA 9372
b. RA 9732
c. RA 9273
d. RA 9237
• It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of force to achieve a political end.
• terrorism
• violence
• felony
• criminal act
• Who formally organized the Kuratong Baleleng?
• Francisco Manuel
• Franco Calanog
• Fidel Ramos
• Fajardo Sebastian
• An organized crime in the Philippines which is made up of former MNLF and MILF rebels.
• A.Lexus Group
• B.Pentagon Group
• C.Abu Sayyaf
• D.Ilonggo KFR Group
• The largest and most powerful triad.
• A.Su Yee On
• B.14K
• C.Wo Shing Wo
• Sham Shui Po
• What numeric code refer to the Dragon head of the chinese triads?
• A.438
• B.49
• C.489
• D.426
• What do you call the act of lending money in exchange of exorbitant interest?
• Tax evasion
• Revolutionary tax
• Sokaiya
• Loansharking
• What kind of vices are Lotto and casino?
• common
• prohibited
• regulated
• unusual
• What is the penalty of a person using a diplomatic passport in importing prohibited drugs inside the country?
• A.8-12 years
• B.life imprisonment to death
• C.40 years to life imprisonment
• all of the above
• What are the two divisions of Criminalistics?
• Physiacl and metallurgical
• Scientific and technological
• Biological and physiological
• Biblical and Astrological
• What is secreted by the endocrine glands which trigger and control many kinds of bodily activities and behavior?
• A.Tears
• B.Hormone
• C.Blood
• Sweat
• Who among the following has the authority to conduct examination of a deceased person?
• A.Medico Legal prober
• B.Medical Justice
• C.Medico Legal Officer
• Medical Scientist
• These are the three fold aims of the criminal investigator, EXCEPT:
• to identify the guilty party
• to provide evidence of his guilt
• to locate the guilty party
• to file charges at the proper court
• It is a type of search wherein one searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a quadrant. Tax evasion
• zone method
• spiral method
• wheel method
• strip method
• It is the simplest way to locate points on sketch to give the distances from two mutually perpendicular lines.
common
• surveying methods
• cross projection
• rectangular coordinates
• polar coordinate
• It is existing between the investigator and the subject, and it is usually determines the success of the
investigation.
• rapport
• personality
• breadth of interest
• the approach
• Usually, the conduct of investigation must start with this, purposely to develop rapport with the subject, either the
victim or suspect.
• opening statement
• inquiry of subject
• narration
• sympathetic approach
• It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental and physical function

• stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• Narcotics/ Opiates
• A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
• stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional nervous activity.
• stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes hallucinations and changes our perception, thought, emotion
and consciousness and physical function
• stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• The following countries which considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top supplier
for opium. Which of the choices does not belong.
• Vietnam
• Iran
• Afghanistan
• Pakistan
• According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in year___?
• 2035
• 2025
• 2030
• 2020
• It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the participation of the community.
• Oplan lambat sibat
• operation private eye
• operation public eye
• oplan galugad
• In the PNP what campaign was created to fight against drug trafficking.
• oplan cleansweep
• A fire just started only a very small or insignificant portion of house was being damaged.
• Consummated arson
• Attempted arson
• Frustrated arson
• No crime
• When a person sets fire to his own property under what circumstances which expose to danger of life or property
of another.
• Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of property
• Arson
• no crime
• Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of his prayer.
• Arson
• no crime
• It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in combating organized crime and terrorism.
• family
• school
• NGO
• Community
• A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed
• Tiananmen square massacre
• Beijing square massacre
• Tienanmen massacre
• Tienanmen square massacre
• A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim
from Quezon City. Where the case should be filed?
• Quezon City
• Pasig City
• Manila
• either of the above choices
• It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous drugs to implicate person to drug related crime.
• Buy bust operation
• Instigation
• entrapment
• planting evidence
• September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as Intelligence_______.
• Invalidate
• unsolved
• success
• failure
• In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be suicidal or accidental it should be treated as?
• Homicide case
• Suicide case
• Murder case
• Any of the choices
• What is the penalty when a person bringing into country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or passport.
• Life imprisonment
• Life imprisonment-death
• death
• no penalty because of immunity
• In E-crimes it is accessing in order to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and communication system

• hacking
• Trojan
• virus
• intellectual property
• The vehicles should not parked at these area.

• Private driveway
• intersection
• pedestrian lane
• fire hydrant
• all the choices
• What is the penalty when a police officer failed to appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable
reason?
• 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
• Death
• Most important equipment in traffic accident investigation?
• cellphone
• camera
• Manila
• What is the penalty when less than 5 grams shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
• 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
• 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
• Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to facilitate proper sketch orientation.
• Proper north
• True north
• Legend
• A search method in which the searchers follow each other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
proceeding toward the center.
• Zone method
• Wheel method
• Spiral method
• Strip method
• Taking into custody property described in the search warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence in
a case.
• Seizure
• Detention
• Safekeeping
• Confiscation
• A method of criminal identification whereby the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are
identified by depiction.
• General photographs
• Police line up
• Rouge gallery
• Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
• Sprinkler
• Fire pump
• Fire hose
• Hydrant key
• Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
• Dust
• Oxidizing material
• Pyrolysis
• Cryogenic
• Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous
combustion.
• Fire point
• Flash point
• The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-air mixture that ignites.
• Fire point
• Flash point
• Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a self-
contained combustion without the addition of heat from outside sources.
• Boiling point
• Fire point
• Flash point
• An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
• Thermal balance
• Combustion
• Oxidation
• Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
• Pyrolysis
• Combustion
• Detonation
• A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.
• Pyrolysis
• Combustion
• Detonation
• Oxidation
• Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material with unit temperature gradient.
• Conduction
• Thermal conductivity
• Radiation
• Fission
• A means of heat transfer when energy travels through space or materials as waves.
• Conduction
• Convection
• Radiation
• Fission
• It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
• Accidental fire
• Intentional fire
• Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
• Arson
• Accidental fire
• First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
• Nitrogen
• Hydrogen
• Oxygen
• Neon
• Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.
• Fuel
• Oxygen
• Heat
• Refers to gases liberated by heat.
• Free radicals
• Flash point
• Thermal balance
• Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or structure under natural
conditions.
• Free radicals
• Pyrolysis
• Thermal balance
• In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive capabilities is developed.
• Initial phase
• Incipient phase
• A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
• The fire triangle
• The fingerprint of the fire
• Flashover
• Incipient phase of the fire
• An occurrence when the heat has brought the combus-tible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
• Flashover
• Backdraft
• Thermal balance
• An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
• Flashover
• Backdraft
• Thermal balance
• Which among the following is the primary objective in investigating fires?
• To determine its cause
• To prevent recurrence
• To determine liable persons
• Reason why fire investigation is unique.
• It does not conform with regular investigative procedure
• Unavailability of witnesses
• Fire destroys evidence
• They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
• Providential
• Accidental
• Intentional
• Incendiarism
• A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
• Fire
• Origin of fire
• Fire triangle
• Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
• Fuel
• Heat
• Oxygen
• Gas
• A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
• Conduction
• Convection
• Radiation
• Fission
• The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
• Specific heat
• Latent heat
• Heat of Combustion
• Heat of fusion
• Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
• Carbon black
• Lamp black
• Soot
• Black bone
• Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of combustion.
• Fire
• Flame
• Heat
• Smoke
• Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
• Fire
• Flame
• Heat
• Smoke
• The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
• Backdraft
• Flashover
• Carbon monoxide poisoning
• Falling debris
• Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates the burning of what material?
• Rubber
• Nitrogen products
• Asphalt singles
• Chlorine
• Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
• Asbestos
• Diamond
• Asphalt
• Cotton
• A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most
common cause of providential fires.
• Rays of the sun
• Arcing
• Lighting
• Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
• Smoking
• Arcing
• Sparkling
• Overloading
• A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or throughout the structure.
• Accelerant
• Plants
• Trailer
• Wick
• Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
• Accelerant
• Plants
• Trailer
• Wick
• Most common reason of arson cases.

• Revenge
• Profit
• Competition
• Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
• Combustible gases
• Combustible dust
• Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start a fire.
• Plants
• Trailers
• Accelerants
• Wick
• Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
• Abatement
• Combustion
• Allotment
• Distillation
• It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental and physical function

• stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
• stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional nervous activity.
• stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes hallucinations and changes our perception, thought, emotion
and consciousness and physical function
• stimulants
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• The following countries which considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top supplier
for opium. Which of the choices does not belong.
• Vietnam
• Iran
• Afghanistan
• Pakistan
• According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in year___?
• 2035
• 2025
• 2030
• 2020
• It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the participation of the community.
• oplan galugad
• In the PNP what campaign was created to fight against drug trafficking.
• oplan cleansweep
• A fire just started only a very small or insignificant portion of house was being damaged.
• Consummated arson
• Attempted arson
• Frustrated arson
• No crime
• When a person sets fire to his own property under what circumstances which expose to danger of life or property
of another.
• Arson
• no crime
• Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of his prayer.
• Arson
• no crime
• It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in combating organized crime and terrorism.
• family
• school
• NGO
• Community
• A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed
• Tiananmen square massacre
• Beijing square massacre
• Tienanmen massacre
• Tienanmen square massacre
• A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim
from Quezon City. Where the case should be filed?
• Quezon City
• Pasig City
• Manila
• either of the above choices
• It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous drugs to implicate person to drug related crime.
• Buy bust operation
• Instigation
• entrapment
• planting evidence
• September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as Intelligence_______.

• Invalidate
• unsolved
• success
• failure
• In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be suicidal or accidental it should be treated as?
• Homicide case
• Suicide case
• Murder case
• What is the penalty when a person bringing into country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or passport.
• Life imprisonment-death
• death
• no penalty because of immunity
• In E-crimes it is accessing in order to corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and communication system
• hacking
• Trojan
• virus
• intellectual property
• The vehicles should not parked at these area.
• Private driveway
• intersection
• pedestrian lane
• fire hydrant
• all the choices
• What is the penalty when a police officer failed to appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable
reason?
• Death
• Most important equipment in traffic accident investigation?
• cellphone
• camera
• Manila
• What is the penalty when less than 5 grams of shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
• 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
•
• Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”.
• Abu Sayaff
• Hezbollah
• Fatah
• Hamas
• The most notorious and sought after terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
• Hezbollah
• Al Qaeda
• Fatah
• Hamas
• South America country principal source of cocaine.
• Brazil
• Spain
• Columbia
• Chile
• Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
• Israel
• Gaza Strip
• Lebanon
• West bank
• The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
• organization
• faction
• cell
• station
• Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
• Hezbollah
• Hamas
• Al Qaeda
• Fatah
• One of the most important components of terrorist-related investigations is the collection and preservation of
what?
• physical evidence
• witnesses
• information
• all of these
• Meaning of the term “Jihad”.

• Holy War
• Holy Mass
• Holy Cow
• Holy Ghost
• Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda
• Yasser Arafart
• Osama Bin Laden
• Abu Nidal
• Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries
• M16
• AK47
• M14
• Galil
• Terrorist group that operates within a single state or country.
• Transnational
• national
• international
• none of them
• The most wanted terrorist in the world.
• Yasser Arafat
• Abu Nidal
• Osama Bin Laden
• Mohammad Alzawari
• It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of force to achieve a political end.
• terrorism
• violence
• felony
• criminal act
• The largest and most powerful triad.
• Su Yee On
• 14K
• Wo Shing Wo
• Sham Shui Po
• The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private
citizens is termed as:
A.Arrest
B.Initialcontact
C.Childcustody
D. All of the above
• It is the study of human society, its origin structure, functions and direction.
a. criminology
b. sociology
c. psychology
d. anthropology
• The science of classifying the physical characteristics.
a. free will
b. positivism
c. atavism
d. somatology
• The approach that is using the perspective of heredity in explaining the cause of crime.
a. geographical approach
b. biological approach
c. psychiatric application
d. psychological application
• The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of criminology.
a. retribution b. rejection
c. reformation
d. restoration
• It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the behavior of the criminal.
a. entomology
b. penology
c. phrenology
d. criminology
• Children shall be given priority during_____ as result of armed conflict.?
a. war
b. treatment
c. evacuation
d. education
• Science concerned with improving the quality of offspring.
a. criminology
b. eugenics
c. genetics
d. heredity
• Commonly known as victimless crime:

A.occassional crime
B.political crime
C.public order crime
D. conventional crime
• A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.
a. abandoned child
b. dependent child
c. abusive child
d. neglected child
• The principle that events including criminal behavior that has sufficient causes..
a. atavism
b. narassism
c. determinism
d. positivism
• An established and generally accepted moral values refer to.
a. integrity
b. morality
c. ethical standard
d. authority
• This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
a. split mind b. psychosis
c. neurosis
d. schizoprenia
• What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate events?

A.mass murder
B. serial killer
C.homicidal
D. spree killer
• A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in
flight diving a chase would be an example of:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Multiple Murder
• What is the legal term for nighttime?
A. sanctuary
B.absurdity
C. ephitomy
D. nocturnity
• These are the rights of an accused that are derived from special laws enacted by Congress.
A. Constitutional rights
B. Civil rights
C.Statutoryrights
D. Natural rights
• If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported
to the police?
a. 22, 868
b. 22, 068
c. 20, 250
d. 32, 644
• What is the antonyms of the word arrest?
A. Apprehend
B. Search
C. Set free
D. Renounce
• How many members composed the “Pangkat?”
A. 1 member C. 2 members
B. 3 members
D. 4 members
• Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010 and 220 in 2011. What was the percent increase?
a. + 22.2%
b. + 20.2%
c. + 22.0%
d. + 20.1%
• If the population in municipality A is 195, 000 and the crime volume is 2, 540, what is the crime rate?
a. 1230.6
b. 1465.2
c. 1302.6
d. 1203.5
• In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes reported to the police. If the 2011 population was 63 million what was the
crime rate?
a. 147.5 b. 145.7
c. 143.4
d. 154.7
• In 2000 the police recorded a total of 84,875 crimes committed. If the population was 62 million what was the
crime rate?
a. 139.6 b. 193.6
c. 136.9
d. 163.9
• If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total crime volume of 84, 875, how many crimes were reported
to the police?
a. 20, 250
b. 32, 644
c. 22, 068
d. 22, 858
• If the 128 murder cases in City B represent 40% of the total murder cases in the province, what is the total value
for murder cases province wide?
a. 120
b. 420
c. 430
d. 340
• This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of the frustration and anger people experience over their
inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
a. strain theory
d. labeling theory
• This theory suggest that stability and changes in criminal and deviant behavior through time and different stages
in life.
• Self Derogation Theory
• Anomie Theory
• Life Course Theory
• Routine Activities Theory
• This theory suggest that females and males are becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and
education
• Feminist Theory
• Paternalism
• Liberation Theory
• In the power control theory by Hagan, which father and mother share similar roles in the workplace and power in
the family
• Feminist theory
• Egalitarian family
• Patriarchal family
• Matriarchal family
• These views suggest that males such as judges, police officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional views
on women thus, they are more lenient to them as compared to their male counterparts.
• Paternalism
• Chivalry Hypothesis
• Masculinity
• Power Control Theory
• This new branch in criminology opposes the theoretical perspective and proposes the involvement of all
stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions
• Peacemaking Criminology
• Sociology of Law
• Restorative Justice
• Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
• This crimes are those that the lower class commit against the upper class of society in a capitalist system
• Crimes of Passion
• Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
• Crimes of domination and Repression
• Crimes of Lower class group
• The ruling class in a capitalist system is the
• Proletariat
• Bourgeois
• Capitalist
• Ruling class
• Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked communism as a remedy?
• George Vold
• Karl Marx
• Emile Durkheim
• Max Weber
• This theory believes that society is divided into two groups with competing values the upper class and lower
class.
• Class Theory
• Differential Opportunity
• Conflict Theory
• Consensus Theory
• A problem that occurs when offenders who have been released from the system are placed in a program simply
because the program exist.
• Diversion Movement
• Intervention
• Net widening
• Primary Deviance
• The term criminology was originally derived from Italian word:
a. crimen b. criminologo
c. criminologia
d. criminologie
• It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the society to prevent and repressed them?
a. Crime
b. Criminology
c. Victimology
d. Criminal justice
• The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge and concept of other sciences and field of study which
makes the study of criminology:
a. Dynamic b. Nationalistic
c. Social science
d. An applied science
• Criminal ________ refers to the study of the relationship between criminality and the inhabitants of a certain
locality:
a.Ecology b) Demography
c) Epidiomology
d) Physical anthropology
• It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure, functions and direction.
a. Sociology b. Criminology
c. Psychology
d. Anthropology
• It deals primarily with the study of crime causation.
a. Criminology
b. Criminal Etiology
c. Victimology
d. Criminal Sociology
• An act or omission in violation of the public law commanding or forbidding it.
a. Crime b. Felony
c. Offense
d. Infraction of law
• Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by _____________.
a. Culpa
b. intent
c. Fault
d. both a and c
• The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit, EXCEPT:
a. Intelligence
c. Freedom
b. Intent
d. Negligence
• Perla, a victim of rape, was able to identify her assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on her way to the hospital
where she was declared dead on arrival, This crime is called,
a. complex crime b. simple crime
c) instant crime
d) situational crime
• Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in making deception through verbal communication. She had committed
estafa to several persons through illegal recruitment. What crime according to result did she committed?
• acquisitive crime
• extinctive crime
c) instant crime
d) situational crime
• It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the commission of a crime.
a. criminal victim b. criminal psychiatry
c. victimless crime d. victimology
• It is the scientific study of human behavior or man’s external manifestation in relation to criminality.
a) Epidiomology
b) Criminal Psychiatry
c) Criminal psychology
d) Physical anthropology
• A crime can be classified according to its stages of commission. What crime is committed when the offender
merely commences the execution of an offense by overt act but which nevertheless did not perform all acts of
execution which would produce the felony by reason of some cause other than his own spontaneous
desistance?
a. Attempted crime
b. Consummated crime
c. Frustrated crime d. Complex crime
• It is the process by which individual reduce the frequency of their offending behavior as the age increases.
a. doing gender
b. aging out
c. criminal reduction d. active precipitation
• Crimes are classified under the Revised Penal Code according to their gravity. What crime to which the law
attaches the capital punishment or afflictive penalties.
a. grave felonies b. less grave felonies
c. light felonies
d. complex felonies
• What crimes according to the time or period of the commission are those which are committed only when the
circumstances or situation is conducive to its commission like for instance, committing theft in a crowded place.
a. seasonal crimes b. instant crimes
c. situational crimes
d. continuing crimes
• There are crimes that are committed within a certain length of time. What crime is committed by a series of acts
in a lengthy space of time?
a. static crime
b. instant crime
c. situational crime
d. episoidal crime
• Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which are committed to maintain one’s livelihood or as a means for
living are what crimes?
a. Rational crimes b. Irrational crimes
c. Blue-collar crimes d. White collar crimes
• It is that element of intentional felony which means that the person who committed the felony has the capacity to
distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully understands the consequences of his actions:
a. intelligence
b. imprudence
c. intent d. freedom
• A psychological disorder in which a child shows developmentally inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity and lack
of attention.
a. psychotism
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. neuroticism
d. KSP disorder
• The commission of criminal acts using the instruments of modern technology such as computers or the internet.
a. cyber sex b. cyber crime
c. computer crimes d. computer hacking
• An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed to bring financial gain to the offender.
a. organized crime b. economic crime
c. cyber crime
d. profit crime
• This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term is used interchangeably with the term “terrorism”.
a. violence b. revolution
c. guerilla d. rebel
• The killing of a large number of people over time by an offender who seeks to escape detection.
a. road rage b. hate crime
c. mass murder
d. serial murder
• Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
a. Margaret Juke b. Ada Kallikak
c. Ada Juke d. Ada Edwards
• It refers to an study showing the relationship between the physical built of a person to his personality structure
and the type of offense he is most prone to commit
a. physiognomy b) somatotype
c. phrenology
d) psychology
• It is a proposal of a double male or super male syndrome. This theory held that the possession of an extra Y-
chromosome causes males to be violent and aggressive.
a. XYY syndrome b XXY syndrome
c. YYX syndrome d. YXX syndrome
• A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred from
one generation to the next taking place mostly among disorganized urban areas.
a. Cultural Transmission b) Social Phenomenon
c. Crime d) Delinquent behavior
• In this theory of crime causation, mankind is viewed as manifestations of basically evil human nature reflecting
either with the prince of darkness or an expression of divine wrath.
• Classical theory
• positivist theory
• Demonological theory
• neo-classical theory
• An attempt to determine intelligence and personality on the basis of the size and shape of the skull.
• Physiognomy
• palmistry
• Craniology
• Somatotype
• It involves the measurement of facial and other body characteristics as indicative of human personality.
• Physiology
• somatotype
• Physiognomy
• Palmistry
• According to Sheldon, the three “somatotypes” or body built which have relationships to personality
characteristics are the following, EXCEPT:
• Ectomorph
• extomorph
• Endomorph
• Mesomorph
• A type of violent offender who uses violence as a means of perpetrating the criminal act:
• Culturally violent offender
• pathologically violent offender
• Criminally violent offender
• d. situationally violent offender
• One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action arises from
the intra-psychic conflict between the social and anti-social components of his personality?
a. Acute c. Chronic
b. neurotic d. normal
• Criminals can also be classified according to this behavioral system. What are those criminals who have high
degree of organization that enables them to commit crime without being detected and usually operates in a large
scale?
a. ordinary criminals b. professional criminals
c. situational criminals
d. organized criminals
• A forcible sex in which the offender and the victim are acquainted with each other.
a. statutory rape b. date rape
c. marital rape d. acquaintance rape
• According to Lombroso, these are physical characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the general
population and are throwbacks to animals or primitive people.
a. physical deviations
b. distinguishable traits
c. atavistic stigmata d. ape-like appearance
• It is the most essential part of the definition of the criminal law:
a. elements b. penalty
c. degree of evidence d. motive
• The concept that conduct norms are passed down from one generation to the next so that they become stable
within the boundaries of a culture.
a. heredity b. inheritance
c. cultural transmission d. DNA
• Group of urban sociologists who studies the relationship between environmental conditions and crime.
a. classical school b. chicago school
c. neo-classical school
d. positive school
• He is recognized as the first codifier of laws:
a. Drakon
b. the Hittites
c. Solon
d. Hammurabi
• He said that individuals are like human calculators. Before a person commits a crime, he first analyzes whether
the satisfaction he would gain is greater than the possible negative effect he would have to suffer if the gets
caught doing the crime:
a. Cesare Beccaria b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Edwin Sutherland
d. Jeremy Bentham
• Who stated that crime is normal in a society?
a. Cesare Beccaria b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Emile Durkheim
d. Enrico Ferri
• This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free Will Study, stating that its absence among mentally
retardate persons or those with some psychological imbalances and personality disorders or physical disabilities,
could likewise lead to violation of laws thereby citing said theory as one of crime causation.
a. Classical Criminology b. Positivist Criminology
c. Neoclassical Criminology
d. Social Structure Theory
• This refers to the act of killing a large number of people in a single violent outburst.
• Road rage
• serial killing
• Mass murder
• mass destruction
• A type of sexual deviancy where the person achieves sexual gratification by cruelty, psychotic desire to often
torment torture or otherwise abuse his victim.
• Masochism
• bestiality
• Sadism
• Incest
• A sexual relationship between persons closely related by blood.
• Incest
• sadism
• Masochism
• rape
• These are violent acts directed toward a particular person or members of group merely because the targets
share discernible racial, ethnic, religious or gender characteristics.
• Violent crimes
• hate crimes
• Copy-cat crimes
• victimless crimes
• A term to denote a premeditated, politically motivated violence perpetrated against non-combatant targets by
subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually intended to influence an audience.
• Rebellion
• piracy
• Terrorism
• little war
• It conceded that certain factors such as insanity might inhibit the exercise of free will.
• neo-classical
• Sociological
• positivist
• These are crimes committed by a person of respectability and high social status in the course of occupation.
• Blue collar crimes
• crime of the upper world
• White collar crimes
• crime of the underworld
• Public order crime is otherwise known as:
• Violent crimes
• economic crimes
• Organized crimes
• victimless crimes
• The law that provides Board Examination for Criminologists in the Philippines.
• R.A. 6975
• R.A. 8551
• R.A. 6506
• R.A. 8353
• Criminals who have a high degree of organization to enable them to commit crimes without being detected.
• Professional criminals
• ordinary criminals
• Organized criminals
• expert criminals
• Who among the following are the “Holy Three in Criminology”?

• Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria
• Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri
• Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri
• Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso
• Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ wherein he concluded that the main difference between a
criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to different sets of conduct norms.
• Emile Durkheim
b) Andre Michael Guerry
c) Thorsten Sellin
d) Abraham Maslow
• This school of thought in criminology states that although individuals have self-rule, there are other factors that
affect the exercise of their autonomy, which cause them commit crimes:
a) neo-classical
b) utilitarianism
c) classical d) positivist
• This theory reflects the way people react to a given situation based on the social influences they acquired from
other people that practically determine their behaviors. This theory likewise serves as the learning process of
delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most important theory in crime causation.
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory
c) Differential Association Theory
d) Social Reaction Theory
• It is the breakdown of social order as a result of the loss of order in a society.
a. synomie b) anarchy
c) anomie d) chaos
• He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states that individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals,
and that those with weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier by those with stronger personalities:
a. Emile Durkheim b) Adolphe Quetelet
c) Gabriel Tarde
d) Enrico Ferri
• A term that used to describe motorists who assault each other.
a. road rage b. predation
c. hate crime d. serial murder
• This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, that low
intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal behavior:
a. Nature Theory b) Psychological theory
c) Strain Theory
d) Labeling theory
• The theory which states that attachment, connection and link to society will determine whether a person shall
commit a crime or not:
a. social control
b) social disorganization
c) social bond
d) social learning
• The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who violate the rights of others deserve to be punished. The
severity of the punishment should be commensurate with the seriousness of the crime.
a. restorative justice b. jus desert
c. utilitarianism d. equality of punishment
• A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls below levels necessary for normal and efficient brain
functioning.
a. hyperglycemia b. hyperglycomia
c. hypoglycemia d. hypoglycomia
• This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and concentrated on the need for the quality
among all citizens. They provided statistical data which claimed to show that variations in crime rates are
associated with variations in economic conditions.
a. Cartographic School
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Chicago School
• “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the
personality that is characterized by an inability to learn from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
better known as:
a. psychotic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. neurotic behavior
d. dementia praecox
• A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law, and
as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this particular theory.
a. Disorganization Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory
C.Differential Association Theory
d. Strain Theory
• Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per month. It is the theoretical basis which determines the peace and
order situation.
a. index crimes
b. crime rate
c. non-index crimes d. crime statistics
• The Idea that low female crime and delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency which the police treat
female offenders.
• Doing gender
• masculinity hypothesis
• Chivalry hypothesis
• pre-menstrual syndrome
• A stage of development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers.
a. Oedipus complex b. doing gender
c. Electra complex d. chivalry hypothsis
• The legal principle by which the decision or holding in an earlier case becomes the standard by which
subsequent similar cases are judged. It literally means “to stand by decided cases”.
a. jus desert b. stare decisis
c. story decisis d. just stare
• This is a theory by Robert Merton which assumes that people are law abiding but under great pressure, they will
resort to crime.
a. strain theory b. social learning
c. cultural deviance d. anomie
• The first IQ test was developed by a French psychologist named:
a. Rafael Garofalo b. Albert Bandura
c. Walter Reckless d. Alfred Binet
• His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he concluded that feeblemindedness is inherited and related to
deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to use the term “moron”.
a. Robert Dugdale b. Henry Goddard
c. Eaenest Hooton d. Charles Goring
• This theory focuses on the development of high crime areas associated with the disintegration of conventional
values caused by rapid industrialization, increased migration and urbanization.
• Cultural Deviance Theory
• Differential Association Theory
• Social Disorganization Theory
• Strain Theory
• A societal stage marked by normlessness in which disintegration and chaos have replaced social cohesion.
• Social disorganization
• Anomie
• Strain
• Synomie
• It is otherwise known as the decline in criminal activities together with the time.
• Birth cohort
• aging out phenomenon
• Criminal aging
• crime rate
• He invoked that only justified rationale for laws and punishment is the principle of the greatest happiness shared
by the greatest number of people.
• Utilitatrianism
• Jeremy Bentham
• Felicific Calculus
• Cesare Beccaria
• The beginning to have sexual feelings for the mother, which occurs during the third year from birth is known as:
• Oedipus Complex
• Inferiority Complex
• Electra Complex
• Incest
• Serious illegal detention is a crime committed through series of acts or episodes and in much longer time. This
crime is classified as:
• Instant crime
• episoidal crime
• Situational crime
• seasonal crime
• The following are the characteristics of the Classical School of Criminology:
• The basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
• Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolute free will to choose between right and wrong.
• Criminals are distinguishable from non-criminals because of their physical deviations.
• That every man is therefore responsible for his act.
• I, II, III are correct.

• I, III, IV are correct.
• II, III, IV are correct.
• I, II, IV are correct.
• It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the exercise of free will.
• Neo-classical theory
• radical theory
• His great contributions to criminology were the principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
• Cesare Beccaria
• Jeremy Bentham
• Cesare Lombroso
• Emile Durkheim
• He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop
the theory of atavism.
• Cesare Lombroso
• Charles Goring
• Cesare Beccaria
• Charles Darwin
• According to him, people with criminal behavior, should be prohibited from having children.
• Robert Dugdale
• Henry Goddard
• Charles Goring
• George Wilker
• It states that individuals are deviant mainly because they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and
others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to
the actor.
• Containment Theory
• Theory of Imitation
• Social Process Theory
• Social Reaction theory
• Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with five (5) or more atavistic stigmata.
• Born-criminal type
• insane
• Criminaloid
• pseudo-criminal
• These are crimes which are wrong from their very nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other
violations of the Revised Penal Code.
• Heinous crimes
• mala in se
• Serious crimes
• mala prohibita
• These are crimes which are wrong only because there are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an orderly
society. Examples of these are the violations of special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”.
• Mala prohibita
• less grave felonies
• Mala in se
• light felonies
• The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege” means:
• An act done by me against my will is not my act
• There is no crime where no law punishing it.
• Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
• Mistake of fact is an excuse.
• He was the one who introduced the following definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge
regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking
laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
a) Raffaelle Garofalo
b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Beccaria
d) Paul Topinard
• Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not
he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in giving punishment is________________.
a) Restoration
b) Treatment
c) Retribution
d) Deterrence
• Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty, without
however exceeding the maximum of the penalty provided by law for the offense.
a. Justifying
b. Exempting
c. Mitigating
d. Aggravating
• Those wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal liability.
• Exempting
• aggravating
• Justifying
• Mitigating
• Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Manila City Hall on January 14, 2011. June 14, 2011, a city
ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of
loitering?
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
b. Yes under the principle of retroactive effect of criminal law
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the law.
d. No, for A did not loiter again.
• His theory was that God did not make all the various species of animals in two days, as what the bible says but
rather that the species had evolved through a process of adoptive mutation and natural selection which led to his
conclusion that man was traced to have originated from the apes.
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Charles Darwin
c. Prince Charles d)Charles de Gaulle
• Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works,
upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be
further studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern and Empirical Criminology”.
a) Cesare Beccaria b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Lombroso d) Jeremy Bentham
• Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works,
upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be
further studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern and Empirical Criminology”.
a) Cesare Beccaria b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Lombroso d) Jeremy Bentham
• Which of the following is NOT included in the components of criminal justice system of the United States?
a. Law enforcement b. Corrections
c. Prosecution
d. Courts
• The power of the state to give any form of charity of public nature. It is the philosophy behind the view that
youthful offender/child in conflict with the law is the victim of improper care and that the state is duty bound to
provide protection.
a. positivism b. loco parentis
c. patria potestas d. parens patriae
• Under the law, they are the one responsible for preventing the child from becoming addicted to intoxicating
drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or any harmful practices.
a. DSWD b. Parents
c. state
d. police
• The civil personality of the child is deemed to have been commenced upon:
a. birth of the child
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday
c. from the time of his conception
d. upon reaching the age of majority
• Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as the legal guardian of the child even though the parents of the
child are still alive when the best interest of the said child so require.
a. adopter
b. loco parentis
c. guardian ad litem
d. temporary guardian
• Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is exempt from criminal liability unless:
a. he is committed a henious crime
b. he is the principal accused
c. he acted without discernment
d. he acted with discernment
• The Child in Conflict with the law cannot be prosecuted for the commission of the following, EXCEPT:
a. mendicancy
b. sniffing of rugby
c. prostitution
d. theft
• A child left by himself without provisions for his needs/or without proper supervision falls under what special
category of a child?
a. abandoned child b. abused child
c. neglected child d. dependent child
• In the absence of death of both parents of the child who shall continue to exercise authority over the child?
• Surviving grand parents
• Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age
• Surviving parents of child
• Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age.
a. I, II and IV only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, III only d. all of the above
• Is a self-association of peers, bound together by mental interest, who acted in concert in order to achieve a
specific purpose which includes the conduct of illegal activities and control over a particular territory, facility or
type of enterprises.
a. Juvenile gang
b. Organized criminal
c. a bond
d. street corner gang
• The court can suspend parental authority if it finds that the parent:
• Treats the child with excessive harshness of cruelty.
• Gives the child corrupting order, counsel or example
• Compel the child to beg
• Imposed to child disciplinary actions.
a. I and II only
c. I and III only
b. I, II, III and IV d. I, II and III only
• Who among the following is considered as “Child in Conflict with the Law”?
a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
b. Yang who is 10 years old.
c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
d. anyone of them
• Refers to the totality of the circumstances which are most beneficial for the child.
a. child as zone of peace b. nation building
c. best interest of the child
d. presumption of minority
• Is the mass obligation which the parents have in relation to the persons and property of their an unemancipated
child.
a. Paretal authority
b. Patria Potestas
c. Parens’ Patriae
d. Parental Responsibility
• A person of such age is automatically exempted from criminal liability but should be taken to the custody and
care of his parents, DSWD representative or any institution engage in child caring.
a. 15 years and below
b. under 18 years of age
c. under 15 years of age
d. under 21 years of age
• Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child by subsequent marriage of his/her parents.
a. illegitimate b. legitimated
c. legitimate d. adopted
• In case of separation between parents of the child, a child of such age is given by the court the preference to
choose between either parents.
a. under 9 years of age
b. 7 years of age
c. 10 years of age
d. 5 years of age
• Refers to aggregate of persons working in commercial, industrial and agricultural establishments or enterprises
whether belonging to the labor or management whose primary duty is to care for the welfare of the working
children.
a. civic association of adult
b. community
c. Samahan
d. youth association
• Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
a. death of the parents
b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
• Which of the following is the best way for the police to win youth’s trust and confidence?
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a person in authority
• A child born inside a marriage where either party is suffering from an impediments.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child
• This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a child who committed an offense by the law
enforcement officer:
a. initial contact with the child
b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
• This common procedure applied when arresting an offender shall NOT be employed when the person who is the
subject of apprehension is a child.
a. informing the suspect is a child
b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
• It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions which are most congenial to the survival, protection
and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and emotional
development. It also means the least detrimental available alternative for safeguarding the growth and
development of the child.
a. Child at risk
b. Best Interest of the Child
c. Full development.
d. Child welfare program
• In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall be determine in the absence of proof what principle shall be
observed?
a. He is presumed to be minor
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced pending such issuance he should be hold.
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to prove his age.
• It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability to
respond to repeated physical and psychological violence?
A. Battered Woman Syndrome
B. Battered Wife
C. Abused Woman
D. Rape trauma syndrome
• Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion program without necessity of court intervention on the
following:
• Where the imposable penalty for the crime committee is not more than six (6) years imprisonment;
• Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment;
• Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years but not more than 12 years
imprisonment;
• Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed does not exceeds 12 years imprisonment.
• Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict with the law is guilty of the crime charged, the court shall:
A. Pronounce its judgment;
B. Wait for the application for suspension of sentence of the child and order his turn over to DSWD.
C. Automatically place the child in conflict with law under suspension of sentence.
D. Determine the civil liability and order the final discharge of the child in conflict with the law.
• Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age of 18 while under suspended sentence the court may:
A. Order the execution of sentence;
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with the law;
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain period or to its maximum age of 21.
D. Any of the above choices
• All records and proceedings involving children in conflict with the law from initial contact until final disposition of
the case shall be:
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part of the public record;
b. open to the public;
c. considered restricted;
d. considered privileged and confidential
• Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18 th birthday when she painted her neighbor’s walls with greeting to
herself. How will you classify Mona as an offender?
a. juvenile offender b. habitual offender
c. adult offender
d. none
• All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct:
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile delinquency when parents find it hard to balance their jobs
with their parental responsibilities
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency
d. it is only within the family that a child must learn his life values
• Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street 24 hours a day with no place to go, surviving on foods given
by kind-hearted people with no one to supervise him at his young age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro as
a child?
a. neglected child b. independent child
c. Abandoned child
d. dependent child
• Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, was raped by her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her as a
victim?
a. an adult b. an insane
c. a child d. an adolescent
• It is the act of buying and selling children:

a. exploitation
b. prostitution
c. abuse d. trafficking
• This refers to the maltreatment of children, whether habitual or not:
a. exploitation
b. abuse
c. prostitution
d. trafficking
• Children are declared as ____________ in situations of armed conflict:
a. priorities for evacuation b. exemptions
c. zones of peace d. shields
• This refers to pledging by the debtor of his or her personal services or those of a person under his or her control
as security or payment for a debt, when the length and nature of services are not clearly defined:
a. debt bondage
b. involuntary servitude
c. abuse d. slavery
• A working child below fifteen years old may be allowed to work for only _______ hours per day:
a. eight
b. four
c. five d. six
• Publication of photographs of persons or children in various obscene or indecent poses meant to cause sexual
excitement to those who will see them is a form of:
a. adult entertainment
b. illegal publication
c. obscene material
d. pornography
• Employers shall provide an opportunity for education to all working children up to this level:
a. elementary
b. college
c.secondary d. vocational
• In employing children, the employment contract must be signed:
a) by the Department of Labor and Employment
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer
c) by the child’s parent or guardian
d) and notarized by a Notary Public
• In cases of working children, this has the duty of securing the permit from the Department of Labor and
Employment:
a. parents b. working child
c. manager
d. employer
• This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as
but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated verbal abuse:
a. battery b. psychological
c. sexual d. physical
• The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified when:
a) the person trafficked is an elderly
b) the person trafficked is a woman
c) the person trafficked is a special child
d) the person trafficked is a child
• This refers to any word or deed which debases, degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth and dignity of the child
as human being.
a. eglect
b. psychological abuse
c. sexual abuse
d. cruelty
• The following person are liable for child prostitution, EXCEPT:

a. those who act as procurer of child
prostitute
b. children recruited as prostitutes
c. managers or owners of the establishment where the prostitution takes place
d. clients of child prostitute
• This refers to the use, hiring, employment and coercing of children as actors or models in printed pornographic
materials:
a. indecent shows b. child prostitution
c. obscene publication
d. child exploitation
• The legislative act that penalizes the acts, means and purposes of human trafficking:
a. R.A. 9344
b. R.A. 7610
c. R.A. 9208
d. R.A. 8043
• 1st. The crime of trafficking in person is qualified when the trafficked person is a child.
2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 years of age shall not be employed.
• Both statements are correct.
• The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is incorrect.
• The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is correct.
• Both statements are incorrect.
• The “Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children Act of 2004”:
a. R.A. 9262
b. R.A. 7610
c. R.A. 9208
d. R.A. 9344
• It refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the woman or her child resulting to the physical and
psychological or emotional distress.
a. stalking
b. economic abuse
c. battery d. sexual violence
• This includes the employment, use, inducement or coercion of a child to engage in sexual intercourse or
lascivious conduct; the molestation, prostitution and or incest with children.
a. sexual abuse b. physical abuse
b. psychological abuse d. cruelty
• Refers to a program organized by travel establishments and individuals which consist of packages or activities,
utilizing and offering escort and sexual services as enticement for tourists.
a. prostitution
b. exploitation
c. sex tourism d. pornography
• Refers to an intentional act committed by a person who knowingly and without lawful justification follows the
woman or her child or places the woman or her child under surveillance directly or indirectly.
a. stalking b. economic abuse
• A working child over fifteen but under eighteen may work but his work hours must not exceed ____ hours:
a) eight
b) seven
c) ten
d) six
• A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen years old may be allowed to work between the hours of:
a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven to eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm
d) seven to ten o’clock pm
• It means failure to provide, for reasons other than poverty, the basic needs of the child, such as food, clothing,
medical care, shelter and basic education
a. sexual abuse
b. physical abuse
c. psychological abuse
d. neglect
• Refers to acts that make or attempt to make a woman financially dependent.
a. stalking b. economic abuse
• No child shall be employed as a model in any advertisement directly or indirectly promoting the following:
I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks
II. pornographic materials
III. medicines for use of adults
IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling
• I, II, III are correct
• II, III, IV are correct
• I, II, IV are correct
• I, III, IV are correct
• The law that provides special protection of children against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination.
a. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 9208
c. R.A. 9231 d. P.D. 603
• The law prohibiting the worst forms of child labor.
a. R.A. 9262
b. R.A. 7610
c. R.A. 9231
d. R.A. 9344
• This form of child abuse includes lacerations, fractured bones, burns, internal injuries and serious bodily harm
suffered by a child:
a. psychological
b. emotional
c. physical d. cruelty
• This refers to offenses where there is no private offended party:

• Victimology
• public order crime
• Victimless crime
• d. both a and c
• This is the Latin term for parental authority:

a) loco parentis b) patria potestas
c) parens patriae
d) patria adorada
• Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the adopter and the adoptee must first undergo a supervised
trial custody for a period of:
a) at least six months
b) not more than six months
c) at least one year d) not less than one year
• This refers to the document issued by the court signifying the approval of the application for adoption:
a) decree of adoption
b) petition for adoption
c) annulment
d) rescission
• This is the legal age in the Philippines:
a) twenty-one
b) seventeen
c) eighteen
d) twelve
• A child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily committed to the DSWD or to a duly licensed child placement
agency and is free from parental authority:
a) child legally available for adoption
b) legally-free child
c) emancipated child
d) abandoned child
• This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as
but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated verbal abuse:
a) battery b) psychological
c) sexual d) physical
• A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen years old may be allowed to work between the hours of:
a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven to eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm
d) seven to ten o’clock pm
• Emancipation takes place when:
a) the parents decide to emancipate him or her
b) the child becomes 18 years old
c) the child is already married
d) the child applies for it
d) games and gadgets
• The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic suspension of sentence until the maximum age of __:
a) twenty-three
b) eighteen
c) twenty-one
d) twenty
• In case the child has been found guilty by the court, he shall be ordered to be transferred to _______:
a) a youth rehabilitation center
b) a youth detention home
c) a city or municipal jail
d) an agricultural camp
• Preliminary investigation shall only be conducted when the:
a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
c) CICL acted with discernment
d) victim filed the complaint
• The law enforcement officer must ensure that all statements signed by the child during investigation are
witnessed and signed by the following:
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker
b) his parents or guardian
c) legal counsel
d) social worker
• The body search of the child in conflict with the law must be done only by a law enforcement officer:
a) who has initial contact
b) assigned to the case
c) of the opposite sex
d) of the same gender
• The first important thing that a law enforcer must do upon initial contact is to ____:
a) know the age of the child
b) notify the local DSWD
c) call the parents
d) make a report
• It is the best evidence to prove the age of the child in conflict with the law:
a) testimony of the parents of the child
b) testimony of the child
c) certificate of birth
d) school records
• It is the holding in abeyance of the service of the sentence imposed by the court upon a finding of guilt of the
child in conflict with the law, whereby the child undergoes rehabilitation within a fixed period under such terms
and conditions as may be ordered by the court:
a) probation b) suspension of sentence
c) parole
d) pardon
• It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer:
a) suspension of sentence b) parole
c) probation
d) pardon
• A child in conflict with the law is exempted from _____:
a) both criminal and civil liability
b) neither criminal nor civil liability
c) criminal liability only
d) civil liability only
• If the penalty for the crime committed by the CICL is imprisonment of more than six years, diversion will be within
the jurisdiction of the ____________:
a) barangay
b) DSWD
c) police
d) court
• Discernment is the determining factor if the CICL is over fifteen years old. The decision as to whether the child
acted with or without discernment is made initially by the _______:
a) social worker
c) law enforcer
b) CICL
d) judge
• The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict with the law lies with the _______:
a) social worker
b) law enforcer
c) CICL
d) judge
• The age of full criminal responsibility is:
• Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
• More than 18 but less than 70 years old
• Over 15 but under 18 years old
• Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years old
• It pertains to the document that must be signed by the parents of the child in conflict with the law as part of the
conditions of diversion:
a) contract of diversion proceedings
b) certification of conciliation
c) memorandum of agreement
d) contract of diversion
• A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen years of age shall be turned over to the ________________
by the police for the determination of appropriate program:
a) nearest police station b) family
c) local DSWSD d) court
• The diversion proceedings must be completed within ____ days:

a) thirty b) forty-five
c) sixty d) twenty
• If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law is guilty of the crime he is accused of doing, the
____________ of the sentence shall automatically be suspended:
a) imposition b) determination
c) execution d) discharge
• The ________________ has the right to refuse the diversion program designed for the child:
a) offended party b) parents of the child
c) victim d) social worker
• When the court decides to execute the suspended sentence, the child must be transferred to a:
a) youth rehabilitation center
b) youth detention home
c) agricultural farm
d) prison
• It shall be the duty of the ______________________ to make proper recommendation to the court regarding the
disposition of the child who is undergoing rehabilitation while under suspension of sentence:
a) prosecutor b) social worker
c) lawyer d) judge
• All records pertaining to the case of the child in conflict with the law shall remain _______ and ______:
a) privileged and confidential
b) classified and confidential
c) privileged and restricted
d) secret and confidential
• The age of full criminal irresponsibility is:

• Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with discernment
• 18 to 70 years old
• 15 years old and below
• Below 18 even if the act is committed with discernment
• It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his environment or the way human beings act.
• Human Beings
• Learning
• Human Behavior
• Stimulus
• Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes exhibited by people because of their inherited capabilities or the
process of natural selection.
• Inherited Behavior
• Inborn Behavior
• Learned Behavior
• both a and c
• It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to a state of form adjustment and attempt to experience them
again in memory.
a. phobia
b. anger
b. frustration d. regression
• Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self from _____.
a. anger
b. fear
c. pleasure d. pain
• Human behavior is man’s response to the interpretation of the ______ from within the person or from his
environment.
a. stimulus b. action
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. inclination
• This personality system controls the gateway to action.
a. alter ego b. Id
c. ego
d. Superego
• What is the process of interpreting our behavior in ways to make it more acceptable to the self usually with the
use of good reasons and alibi to substitute for real cause?
a. projection b. sublimation
c. rationalization d. Compensation
• Conflicts and their behavioral outcomes are classified as follows, EXCEPT:

a. avoidance-approach b. avoidance-avoidance
c. approach-avoidance d. approach-approach
• Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what particular defense mechanism?
a. repression b. sublimation
c. displacement d. projection
• An uncontrollable, morbid propensity to steal or pathological stealing.
a. kleptomania b. pyromania
c. phobia d. Dipsomania
• This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction to an object or state of affairs at the same time repulsion
towards something associated with it.
a. avoidance-avoidance c. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance d. multiple
• This is the process of excluding from the consciousness a thought or feeling that causes pain, shame or guilt.
a. identification b. regression
c. repression d. fixation
• This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing a desirable type
of behavior.
a. rationalization b. sublimation
c. compensation d. projection
• Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting an unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
a. olfactory
b. Auditory
c. cutaneous
d. gustatory
• This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that is a manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
a. Neurosis b. Depression
c. Psychosis d. Anxiety
• This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.
a. frustration b. conflict
c. anxiety d. Depression
• The aggregate observable responses of an organism to internal and external stimuli.

a. human behavior b. behavior
c. personality d. attribute
• The process by which behavior changes as a result of experience or practice.
a. actualization b. learning
c. thinking d. feeling
• This type of conflict occurs when there are two desirable but mutually exclusive goals.
a. avoidance-avoidance b. approach-approach
• This type of conflict when there are two courses of action, each of which has both pleasant and unpleasant
consequences.
a. avoidance-avoidance b. approach-approach
• This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situation or object.
a. melancholia
b. phobia
c. exaltation
d. Mania
• It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.

a. psychoses b. neuroses
c. abnormality d. Psychopathy
• Hydrophobia is fear of ________.

• Water
• darkness
• Snakes
• deep water
• A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination and regression.
a. psychosis
b. neurosis
c. abnormality
d. psychopathy
• A transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring.
a. heredity b. environment
c. inheritance d. Introvert
• Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny that they have problems. This is a manifestation of what type of defense
mechanism?
• Fantasy
• sublimation
• Denial
• displacement
• Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology student in the evening session, blames his poor performance in the
preliminary examination to his professor rather than his lack of preparation. This is an example of what type of
defense mechanism?
• Reaction formation
• displacement
• Sublimation
• rationalization
• Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her boyfriend when she saw the latter kissing another girl, cries. This is an
example of what defense mechanism?
• Regression
• suppression
• Repression
• displacement
• Texting while driving is an example of what classification of human behavior?
• Habitual
• symbolic
• Instinctive
• complex
• It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus which largely helps to determine the actual behavioral
response in a given situation.
• Perception
• awareness
• Sensation
• Learning
• A person who is a balanced introvert and extrovert is said to be:

• Psychotic
• ambivert
• Neurotic
• angry bird
• He is known as the “Father of Psychoanalysis”.
• Tom Cruise
• Gina Ferrero-Lombroso
• Sigmund Freud
• Cesare Lombroso
• Coping mechanism is the way people react to __________.
• Fear
• anxiety
• Frustration
• Anger
• It can be seen among people who handle their problems in a very objective way.
• Coping Mechanism
• Direct Approach
• Detour
• Withdrawal
• The most tolerated way of handling frustration.
• Defense Mechanism
• Direct Approach
• Detour
• Withdrawal
• A type of defense mechanism whereby a person concentrates in area where he can excel.
• Displacement
• compensation
• Rationalization
• fantasy
• What type of defense mechanism is manifested by Pining Garcia when he joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi
Chupapi, because of low self-esteem?
• Identification
• projection
• Fantasy
• regression
• This refers to an action-producing agent:
• Motives
• Drives
• Stimulus
• sensation
• Human actions in relation to events taking place inside the body such as the brain and the nervous system is
known as:
• Neurological
• psychological
• Cognitive
• Humanistic
• A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating manifests what particular classification of human behavior?
• Habitual
• complex
• Instinctive
• symbolic
• Displaying the diplomas and graduation awards signify one’s academic achievement. This classification of
human behavior is known as:
• Habitual
• complex
• Instinctive
• symbolic
• Mathematical ability and English communication skills are examples of what type of human behavior?
• Learned
• inborn
• Operant
• both a and c
• Eating when you are hungry is an example of _______ behavior.
• Habitual
• complex
• Instinctive
• Symbolic
• It is the ability to withstand frustration without developing inadequate modes of response such as being
emotionally depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic, or becoming aggressive.
• Frustration Tolerance
• Frustration Shield
• Frustration Flexibility
• all of the above
• Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up applying into the Armed Forces of the Philippines when he
failed in the initial height and weight measurement stage because he was under height. This is an example of:
• Sublimation
• repression
• Substitution
• withdrawal
• Which of the following items does not belong to the group?
a. prostitution
b. assassination
c. sabotage
d. bombing
• It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to others and
aggression to environment and other people.
a. schizophrenic personality b. psychopathic personality
c. compulsive neurosis
d. neurotic personality
• Which of the following is not a common tactic in terrorism?
a. robbery
c. bombing
b. hijacking
d. kidnapping
• This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a person performs an act while sleeping.
a. somnambulism b. mesmerism
c. somnolencia
d. delirium
• Animals are used for the achievement of sexual excitation and gratification.
a. voyeurism b. fetishism
c. pedophilia
d. bestiality
• A person suffers from _____ when he developed a maladaptive behavior in his childhood as a result of an
external influence that later on becomes a part of his lifestyle and which he uses to relate to the world around
him.
a. personality disorder
b. abnormal behavior
c. personality behavior
d. abnormal personality
• These are priorities in a hostage taking situation EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media
• Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to:
a. police handling of the situation
b. negotiation
c. contact
d. control of area and people
• The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators should not command
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands
• When both hostage and hostage taker develop a mutual feeling of sympathy, understanding, and other shared
stand on issues, leading them to become enemies of the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Stockholm Syndrome
b. Confrontation
c. Negotiation
d. familiarization
• Motivation is classified under 28 needs. The need to assault or injure is:
a. need deference b. need aggression
c. need recognition d. need order
• The need to influence or control others is:
a. need order
b. need dominance
c. need achievement
d. need exhibition
• A person has _____ when he/she has painful memories associated with some shocking experience which are
repressed and cannot be recalled.
a. anxiety
b. delusions
c. amnesia
d. phobia
• The first step in hostage taking crisis is:
a. crowd control
c. negotiation
b. assault
d. traffic control
• Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant takes place pleasure in imagining having sexual relations with newly dead
young female bodies who were victims of suicides or vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio
commit?
• necrophilia
• rape
• incest
• none
• The most important person in a hostage situation:
a. negotiator
b. hostage taker
c. commander
d. hostage
• A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the bank together with their hostages; their demand is
geared towards:
a. revenge
b. economic gain
c. escape
d. vindication
• In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown
by:
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance
c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are willing to negotiate
• It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching nude woman or man.
a. exhibitionism
b. voyeurism
c. transvestitism
d. fetishism
• It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience deficient feeling of affection to others and
aggression.
a. schizophrenic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. compulsive neurosis
d. neurotic personality
• This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to the principles upon which society is based.
a. Anti-social
b. Psychopath
b. Schizophrenic
d. Sociopath
• A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid sense of religious feeling.
a. mania
b. mania fanatica
b. delusion
d. legal insanity
• This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the male or an inability to achieve it.
a. masturbation
b. prostitution
c. exhibitionism
d. frigidity
• This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual, preferred, and compelling need for sexual gratification by any
technique, other than willing coitus between man and woman and involving actions that are directly results in
genital excite.
a. crime against chastity b. acts of lasciviousness
c. sexual deviation
d. sexual offenses
• The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
a. to accept their beliefs as being true
b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. to try to bluff or trick them
• The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to negotiate, except:
a. fears of police assault and punishment
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
• In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used is_____?
A. Kidnapping
C. Bombing
B. Assassination
D. Extortion
• A personality disorder characterized by suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self important, and
argumentativeness, plus a tendency to blame others for one’s own mistakes and failure and to ascribe evil
motives to others.
A. Paranoid Personality
B. Dependent Personality
C. Schizoid Personality
D. Borderline Personality
• A personality disorder characterized by an inability to form social relationships and can be classified as “loners”.
A. Paranoid Personality
B. Schizoid Personality
C. Dependent Personality D. Borderline Personality
• A personality disorder characterized by instability, reflected in dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems. Such
individuals are frequently described as impulsive and unpredictable.
A. Borderline Personality B. Compulsive Personality
C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti-social Personality
• When the disorder is characterized by chronic mental and physical fatigue and by various aches and pains, it is
considered as:
A. Anxiety Disorder
B. Somatoform Disorder
C. Dissociative Disorder
D. Amnesia
• The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators should not command
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands
• In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical and
psychic energy, hence:
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the authorities
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender.
• Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
• They serve as stimuli-producing action that satisfies a need:

a. interest b. perception
c. motives d. drives
• It is an effective planning, formulation of an effective plan, policies, procedures and techniques in dealing with
sudden violent act of terrorist.
a. Crisis management
b. stress mgt.
c. hostage negotiation
d. political analysis
• Last option in hostage crisis:
a. crowd control b. negotiation
c. traffic control d. assault
• It is any incident in which people are being held by another person or persons against their will, usually by force
or coercion, and demands are being made by the perpetrator.
a. kidnapping
b. crisis management
c. hostage incident
d. abduction
• “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take hostages:
a. by reason of mental illness
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and problems
c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief
• In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for death is called;
A. eros
B. animus
C. thanatos
D. lupus
• In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” , which means:
a. the truth will prevail
b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives
d. save the host
• When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands, they were left with
three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more
realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands
d. let the hostages killed
• In hostage negotiation, if the hostage taker demands an airplane/helicopter, what will you do?
• go to your ground commander
• give it with consent
• talk to him and delay the moment
• assault and kill him immediately
• Considered to be the oldest tactic in terrorism:

a. Prostitution
b. Bombing
c. Assassination
d. Kidnapping
• These are important in a hostage taking situation, EXCEPT:
• Presence of linguist negotiator
• Considerable screening of all members
• Dry run or constant practice
• Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation
• It is the position from which a unit commander and his staff exercise command over the hostage incident.
a. command post
b. outer perimeter
c. inner perimeter
d. command headquarters
• It is an assault team responsible in carrying out assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
a. Negotiation Team
b. Medical Team
c. Tactical Team
d. Response Team
• Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational Procedures Manual of 2010, this group should immediately be activated
in case of hostage situation:
a. Hostage Negotiation Team
b. Civil Disturbance Management Team
c. Crisis Management Task Group
d. PNP Command Post
• P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest ranking PNP officer who first arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he
serves now as a ground commander on the said crisis. Having decided to conduct hostage rescue operations,
the objectives are as follows, except one:
• Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed, and set free.
• Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the demands of the hostage takers.
• Hostage takers desist from his threats.
• hostage takers come to the fold of the law by surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
• Which of the following is considered least among terroristic tactic?
• noise barrage
• assassination
c.bombing
d.kidnapping
• In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should not:
a.give his name
b. give his rank and designation
c.give in to all demands
d.look friendly or accommodating
• The highest ranking field commander should not also be the chief negotiator because:
• hostage takers will be afraid

• he is not authorized to grant concessions
• of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker
• hostage takers will not trust him
• What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist tactic where target are often police, military officials
or political figures?
a.Hijacking
b. Ambush
c.Assassination
d. Kidnap for Ransom
• The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination and control in response to an anticipated future
crisis occurrence is called
• Proactive Crisis Management
• Reactive Crisis Management
• Performance Stage
• Reaction Phase
• A comprehensive plan which delineates responsibilities and specific action to be taken when a bomb incident or
bomb threat occurs is called
• Floor plan
• Bomb threat plan
• Drill
• Contingency plan
• the crime charged against a child in conflict with the law is more than 12 years of imprisonment, which will
determine whether diversion is necessary?
• The Police
• The Prosecutor
• The Court
• The Barangay Chairman
• From the moment a child is taken into custody, the law enforcement officer shall immediately but not later than
hours after apprehension, turnover custody of the child to the Social Welfare and Development Office.
• Nine
• Eight
• Seven
• Six
• An Act Strengthening the Juvenile Justice System in the Philippines.

• RA 9344
• RA 10630
• RA 10627
• RA 8960
• It is one of the most important assets of the nation. Thus, every effort should be exerted to promote his welfare
and enhance his opportunities for a useful and happy life.
• Teenager
• Kid
• Child
• Youth
• The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under what agency of the government?
• Department of Justice
• Department of Social Welfare and Development
• Department of Tourism
• Department of Interior and Local Government
• It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or to the placement of a child in conflict with the law in a public
or private custodial setting, from which the child in conflict with the law is not permitted to leave at will by order of
any judicial or administrative authority.
• Apprehension
• Confinement
• Deprivation of Liberty
• Incarceration
• It refers to any organization whose members are 21 years or older which is directly or indirectly involved in
carrying out child welfare activities and programs.
• NGO
• Youth association
• Youth organization
• Civic organization
• The taking of the statement of the child in conflict with the law shall be conducted in the presence of the
following, EXCEPT.
• Child’s counsel of choice
• Local Social Welfare and Development Officer
• Child’s relative
• Child’s parents
• It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the Protection of Children in the formulation and implementation of
juvenile intervention and diversion programs in the If community.
• Women and Children Protection Desk
• Local Government Unit
• Sangguniang Kabataan
• Local Social Welfare and Development
• It attributes variations in delinquency to influence social structures.
• Biogenic approach
• Sociogenic approach
• Psychogenic approach
• All of these
• It refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated conflict with the law.
• Delinquent
• Habitual delinquent
• Juvenile
• Recidivist
• Failure to provide for the child’s support for this period shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to abandon.
A. 3 Months
B. 5 Months
C. 4 Months
D. 6 Months
• These are undesirable conditions in the community which are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT.
• Gambling Houses
• Recreational Facilities
• Vice Dens
• Attractive Nuisances
• This view asserts that children who started delinquent careers early and committed violent acts throughout their
adolescence would likely to continue as adults.
• Culture conflict
• Persistence
• Containment theory
• Reflective role taking
• If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he
is often referred to as?
• Socialized delinquent
• Truant
• Criminal
• Youth offender
• What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have
behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the appropriate care for them or recommending their
permanent treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare agencies?
• Rehabilitation Center
• Reintegration Center
• Reformation Center
• Restoration Center
• Which among the following is not part of the rights of a child in conflict with the law?
• The right to be imposed a sentence of capital punishment or life imprisonment, without the possibility of
release
• The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment
• The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a
disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the shortest appropriate period of time
• The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate cases
• It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that a
crime will be committed.
• Precipitating factor
• Environmental factor
• Biologic factor
• Predisposing factor
• A person who learns the facts or circumstances that give rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may
report the same to what agency?
• School
• Neighborhood Association
• Barangay Council
• Church
• Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity as
to require professional help or hospitalization?
• Mentally Ill Children
• Physically Handicapped Children
• Emotional Disturbed Children
• Retarded at Maturity
• A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
• Social delinquent
• Accidental delinquent
• Asocial delinquent
• Neurotic delinquent
• It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or made
to beg in the streets or public places, or when children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling, prostitution,
or other vices.
• Physically Neglected Child
• Emotionally Neglected Child
• Psychologically Neglected Child
• Sexually Neglected Child
• The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed
annually by Local Government Unit and its result shall be submitted by the provincial and city governments to the
Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council not later than of what date of every year?
• February 28
• April 30
• March 30
• May 30
• This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members of this
classification are only slightly retarded and they can usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra
help, guidance and consideration.
• Trainable group
• Custodial group
• Educable group
• Borderline or low normal group
• It refers to any club, organization or association of individuals below twenty-one years of age which is directly or
indirectly involved in carrying out child or youth welfare programs and activities.
• Samahan
• Student organization
• Sanguniang Kabataan
• Youth association
• A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments over
the life course.
• Social development model
• Differential opportunity
• This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, and the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾ of
that expected of a normal child of the same chronological age.
• Trainable group
• Borderline or low normal group
• Educable group
• Custodial group
• This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance and
curiosity.
• Predisposing factor
• Environmental factor
• Biologic factor
• Precipitating factor
• This is where the molding of the character of the child starts and every member of the family should strive to
make it a wholesome and a harmonious place.
• Family
• Home
• Church
• School
• The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts
with governmental and social control agencies and other similar variables.
• Socio-genic approach
• What program is required for the child in conflict with the law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an
offense without resorting to formal court proceedings?
• Diversion
• Community Service
• Parole
• Probation
• It is the application of the criminal justice to minors and youthful offender through the cooperation of the criminal
justice system.
• Child Justice System
• Youth Justice System
• Minor Justice System
• Juvenile Justice System
• A category of delinquency which may be credited to peer pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young
person.
• Social
• Accidental
• Neurotic
• Asocial
• Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an activity.
• Coercion
• Cruelty
• Molestation
• Abuse
• It is otherwise known as Special Protection of Children Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act
of 1992.
• RA 6809
• RA 9344
• RA 9262
• RA 7610
• It asserts that lower class youths with limited legitimate opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal career to
achieve alternate means universal success goals.
• Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, which among the following refers to a child who is alleged
as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense under Philippine laws?
A. Juvenile Delinquent
B. Child in Conflict with the Law
C. Minor Offender
D. Youth Criminal
• It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on delinquency through undertaking preventive programs,
policies and activities.
• Philippine National Police
• Department of National Defense
• Local Government
• Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
• An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below 15 Years of Age in Public and Private Undertakings.
A. RA 7610
B. RA 9262
C. RA 7658
D. RA 9231
• A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs and illicit experiences is stressed.
• Conflict sub-culture
• Criminal sub-culture
• Retreatist sub-culture
• All of these
• It refers to one with no proper parental care or guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at least six
months.
• Neglected Child
• Deserted Child
• Unattended Child
• Abandoned Child
• It refers to the programs provided in a community setting developed for purposes of intervention and diversion,
as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict with the law, for reintegration into his/her family and/or community.
• Community Juvenile Programs
• Community Rehabilitation Programs
• Community Outreach Programs
• Community - Based Programs
• Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion programs in the community?
• Kabataan Partylist
• Commission on Human Right
• National Youth Commission
• Their degree of success or accomplishment depends upon the quality and type of education they receive as well
as on the treatment at home and in the community, their I.Q range from about 50 to 75.
• Educable
• Custodial
• Borderline
• Trainable
• It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules and regulations.
• Recidivism
• Juvenile delinquency
• Quasi recidivism
• Delinquency
• It refers to persons and individuals who are effective deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or
watchful and concerned neighbors.
• Clever guardians
• Proficient guardians
• Capable guardians
• Qualified guardians
• It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by
himself without provision for his needs and/or without proper supervision. What classification of neglected child is
this?
• Physically Neglected Child
• Psychologically Neglected Child
• Emotionally Neglected Child
• Sexually Neglected Child
• It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and children in conflict with the law, which provides child-
appropriate proceedings, including programs and services for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration
and aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development.
• Child Justice and Welfare
• Youth Justice and Welfare
• Minor Justice and Welfare
• Juvenile Justice and Welfare
• A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to their
perception or view of how significant others feel about them.
• Reflective role taking
• Persistence
• A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the Department of Social Welfare and Development or any duly
licensed child placement agency or individual.
• Placement
• Commitment
• Consignment
• Entrustment
• Failure to provide the basic needs of a child.
• Abuse
• Cruelty
• Exploitation
• Neglect
• High moral principles should be instilled in the child by the following, EXCEPT.
• Government
• School
• Home
• Church
• A child left by himself without provisions for his needs and / or without proper supervision.
• Unattended Child
• Neglected Child
• Dependent Child
• Abandoned Child
• It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in
conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, economic, psychological or educational background
without resorting to formal court proceedings.
• Diversion
• Friendly Interview
• Due Process
• Preliminary Investigation
• Family home type which provide temporary shelter from 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the
DSWD.
• Receiving homes
• Maternity homes
• Nursery
• Shelter care institution
• His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality for which the youth feels no remorse.
• Asocial
• Neurotic
• Accidental
• Social
• It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the manner by which an individual reduce the rate of their aberrant
behavior as they age.
• Aging-out
• Decadence
• Desistance
• Reduction
• Who among the following shall primarily ensure that the status, rights and interests of children are upheld in
accordance with the Constitution and international instruments on human rights?
• National Youth Commission
• Kabataan Partylist
• Commission on Human Rights
• Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition which results from rules and norms of an individual’s sub-cultural
affiliation disagreement with the role of demands of conformist society.
• Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some hereditary defect.
• Biologic approach
• Sociogenic approach
• It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for authority.
• Emotional Disorder
• Vagrancy
• Truancy
• Anti Social Behavior
• These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise defective which restricts their means of action on
communication with others.
• Physically Handicapped Children
• Mentally Subnormal
• Essentially Incurable
• Retarded at Maturity
• Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any knowledge of a child who have been treated or suffered
from abuse.
• Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of abuse
• Report the incident to the family
• Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
• File a case in court in behalf of the child
• Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against any violation of R.A. 7610?
• Parents or guardians
• Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd degree of consanguinity
• Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any three responsible citizen
• The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own emotion
and mood.
• Neurotic
• Social
• Accidental
• Asocial
• Forcing an activity on the child without consent.
• Coercion
• Abuse
• Cruelty
• Molestation
• View that youth can move in and out of delinquency and that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both deviant
and conventional values.
• Swift
• Drift
• Coast
• Waft
• A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent offender who is arrested more than four times before the age
of majority and stands a good chance of becoming an adult criminal.
• Acute offender
• Severe offender
• Chronic offender
• Desperate offender
• A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do so with a permit or clearance issued by:
• The parents
• The guardians
• Department of Social Welfare and Development
• This refers to children who are unable to cope with their family life and chooses to leave the family home. This is
a direct result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy for
adventures.
• Vagrancy
• Cheating
• Lying
• Stealing
• What is a child caring institution that provides care for six or more children below six years of age twenty-four
hours a day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily medical and educational services?
• Nursery
• Detention Home
• Day Care
• Maternity
• It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions, which are most congenial to the survival, protection
and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and emotional
development.
• Anti Youth Exploitation Measure
• Special Protection of Minor
• Restorative Juvenile Justice
• Best Interest of the Child
• A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
• Maternity home
• Hospital
• Rehabilitation center
• Foster homes
• This may be demonstrated by any of the following: severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
behavior.
• Psychological injury
• Mental injury
• Physical injury
• Emotional injury
• It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to address issues that caused the child to commit an
offense. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program, which may include counseling, skills
training, education, and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-
being.
• Diversion
• Rehabilitation
• Probation
• Intervention
• If children, whether male or female, who for money, profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known
as…
• Child Abuse
• Child Trafficking
• Child Prostitution
• Child Exploitation
• It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring
• Control
• Recession
• Repression
• Prevention
• Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as
defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a barangay tanod.
• Police Officer
• Probation Officer
• Law Enforcement Officer
• Public Officer
• He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended or inadequately attended.
• Abandoned Child
• Abused Child
• Neglected Child
• Dependent Child
• This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old.
• Adolescence
• Early adolescence
• Juvenile
• What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, custom
and culture which society does not accept and which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures in the
public interest and it is being committed by minors?
• Juvenile Delinquency
• Minor Delinquency
• Child Delinquency
• Youth Delinquency
• Police officers who have taken into custody a child in conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but not later than hours after apprehension.
• 8
• 24
• 12
• 36
• This type of delinquent youth is characterized by aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any person
who tries to control his behavior.
• Neurotic
• Accidental
• Asocial
• Social
• If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the CICL refused to take custody, the child may be release to any
of the following, EXCEPT.
• Duly registered nongovernmental or religious organization
• A barangay official or a member of the Barangay Council for the Protection of Children
• A local social welfare and development officer
• Duly authorized Women and Children Protection Desk Officer
• It accounts for individual offender by reference to learning process, which goes on in youth gangs, stigmatizing
contacts with social control agencies and other variables of that time.
• Biogenic
• Psychogenic
• Phatogenic
• Sociogenic
• It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights, and delinquency prevention by relaying consistent
messages through a balanced approach.
• The mass media
• The family
• The community
• The educational system
• What approach towards delinquency views the lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the result of faulty
biology?
• Phatogenic
• Biogenic
• Psychogenic
• Sociogenic
• In determining whether diversion is appropriate and desirable, the following factors shall be taken into
consideration, EXCEPT.
• The safety of the child

• The nature and circumstances of the offense charged
• The circumstances of the child
• The best interest of the child
• It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against a child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for
committing similar acts. These shall include curfew violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like.
• Delinquency
• Exclusive
• Status
• Grave
• Children detained pending trial may be released on bail or as provided for under Sections 34 and 35 of
RA 9344.
• Probation
• Recognizance
• Parole
• Bond
• Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of a minor, whether habitual or not?
• Caress
• Abuse
• Discrimination
• Exploitation
• He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or whose parents, guardian or other custodian for good cause
desire to be relieved of his care and custody; and is dependent upon the public of support.
• Abandoned Child
• Neglected Child
• Abused Child
• Dependent Child
• It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible persons from various sector of the community.
• Organization
• Association
• Club
• Samahan
• A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short term resident care for youthful offenders.
• Bahay Pag-asa
• Nursery
• Child caring institution
• Foster home
• The parents of guardian of a working child is obligated by law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall
constitute at least percent of the earning of the child.
• 20
• 40
• 30
• 50
• The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council under the law is:
• The undersecretary of the DOJ
• The undersecretary of DepEd
• The undersecretary of the DILG
• The undersecretary of the DSWD
• It refers to a principle, which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender,
the offended and the community; and reassurance to the offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It
also enhances public safety by activating the offender, the victim and the community in prevention strategies.
• Rehabilitative Justice
• Reformative Justice
• Reintegrative Justice
• It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed by the Department of Social Welfare and Development
(DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs monitored by the DSWD, which provides care, treatment and
rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the law. Rehabilitation services are provided under the
guidance of a trained staff where residents are cared for under a structured therapeutic environment with the end
view of reintegrating them into their families and communities as socially functioning individuals. Physical mobility
of residents of said centers may be restricted pending court disposition of the charges against them.
• Youth Reformation Center
• Youth Reintegration Center
• Youth Rehabilitation Center
• Youth Restoration Center
• The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of the commission of the offense is found guilty of the offense
charged, shall place the child under .
• Recognizance
• Diversion
• Bail
• Suspended Sentence
• Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in the Barangay Level where there is a diversion program?
• Punong Barangay
• BCPC Chairman
• LSWDO
• PNP member
• This criminal justice model is based on the idea that the most important function of the CJS is the protection of
the public and the repression of criminal conduct.
a. Crime prevention b. Crime control
c. Law and order
d. Due process
• According to this criminal justice model, the rights of an individual must be co-equal with the concern for public
safety.
a. Crime prevention b. crime control
c. Law and order d. due process
• This concerns to the obligations of the community to individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common
advantages and sharing of common burden.
a. Prosecution
b. justice
c. equality d. trial
• This function of the law enforcement is being done through elimination of factors influencing the occurrence of
crimes, good community relations, educating the citizens about their role, introduction of delinquency prevention
programs, good parenting and others.
a. Maintenance of law and order b. Reduction of crime
c. crime prevention
d. crime control
• This principal character of the criminal justice process links all components of the CJS.
a. Offender
b. Victim
c. witness d. Crime
• The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
a. Prosecution
b. Correction
c. Police
d. Court
• He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the police have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient to
warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged violator.
a. Investigator
b. judge
c. prosecutor
d. solicitor genera
• He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense and the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of
introducing evidences.
a. Clerk of court
b. judge
c. sheriff
d. jury
• The pillar of the CJS which is not under the executive branch of the government.
a. law enforcement (Excutive) b. court
c. prosecution (Executive) d. correction (judiciary)
• This is a governmental body that is charged with the responsibility of administering justice.
a. Law enforcement b. correction
c. Prosecution
d. court
• Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some court, Government
Corporation, board or commission.
a. Agent of person in authority
b. Government employee
c. Government officer
d. person in authority
• A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as the lawyer
of the State or government in criminal cases.
a. law enforcement b. court
c. prosecution
d. correction
• This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered by
the Barangay Court.
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. Certificate to file action
d. complaint affidavit
• It refers to the study of the various agency of our government in charged of processing law violators to ensure
the protection of the society and maintenance of peace and order.
a. Criminology
b. Criminal Justice
c. Victimlogy d. Sociology
• Refers to the person who is being implicated to the commission of a crime and subject of an investigation.
a. Convict b. respondent
c. Accused d. suspect
• Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to
maintain peace and order?
a. Criminal Justice System b. Criminology
c. Criminal law
d. Criminal jurisprudence
• It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral
certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the possibility of error.
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Clear and convincing evidence c. substantive evidence
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
• A negotiation between the defense counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the
prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering a
guilty plea.
a. arraignment
b. preliminary investigation
c. pre-trial d. plea bargaining
• The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the country which is under the ________?
a. DOJ
b. DILG
c. NAPOLCOM
d. DSWD
• A person who is under custodial investigation is basically protected by a number of rights mandated under the
constitution and this was even expounded in the legislative act known as _______?
a. Miranda Doctrine b. R.A. 7438
c. Bill of Rights
d. R.A. 6975
• A body officially assembled under authority of law in which judicial power is vested or the administration of justice
is delegated.
a. court b. corrections
c. prosecution
d. law enforcement
• A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property and
ensure public safety.
a. police b. prosecution
c. court
d. corrections
• System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation and treatment of persons convicted of committing crime.
a. police b. prosecution
c. court
d. corrections
• The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.
a. R.A. 8294 b. R.A. 7080
c. R.A. 1379 d. R.A. 3019
• Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years.
a. Supreme Court c. RTC
b. Court of Appeals
d. MTC
• It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on
December 13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC.
a. R.A. 6975 b. P.D. 1184
c. R.A. 8551 d. R.A. 6040
• Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s, cause oriented groups and advocacy groups that promote
the welfare of the people against all forms of abuse and exploitation.
a. crime control
b. political parties
c. civil society
d. volunteer
• It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the existence of a cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen the
police work as suppressing the spread of criminality.
a. Crime Prevention b. Crime control
c. Criminal apprehension d. law enforcement
• Directly under the supervision of the Department of Justice, its most important function in the Criminal Justice
System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law through the speedy d2elivery of services particularly in the
prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service b. PNP
c. Ombudsman
d. Solicitor General
• What do you call a court covering two (2) or more municipalities?
a. MTC
b. MeTC
c. MCTC d. MTC’s
• What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s own judgment in a given situation without referring to your
superior due to the eminence of the situation?
a. Police resourcefulness b. Police discretion
c. Police integrity d. police prudence
• It refers to the art or science of identifying law violators, locating and tracing them in order to affect their arrest
and gather evidence to prove their guilt in court.
a. Crime prevention
b. criminal investigation
c. Crime control d. Intelligence work
• An attached agency of the Office of the President tasked to implement and undertake drug law enforcement.
a. Narcotics Command b. AID-SOTF
c. PDEA d. NBI
• Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of
a. Complaint b. Information
c. Pleadings d. Affidavit
• Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that
a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
a. preliminary investigation b. Prejudicial question
c. inquest proceeding d. custodial investigation
• Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day.
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above
• It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of the law in order for him to answer for the commission of an
offense.
a. Arrest b. investigation
c. invitation d. seizure
• It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
a. Instigation b. Entrapment
c. Investigation
d. Raid
• A pillar of our CJS which is not under or interdependent from any branch of government.
a. prosecution
b. correction
c. court d. community
• During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it on
the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the
State in the prosecution of the offense?
a. Chief State Prosecutor b. Solicitor General
c. National or provincial prosecutor d. Judge
• It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer after a person has been taken into custody.
a. custodial investigation b. interview
c. inquest d. interrogation
• In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade 27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art.
210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should first be filed to the office of _______ for the conduct of
the required preliminary investigation.
a. Ombudsman
b. Solicitor General
c. Judge of MTC
d. the President
• In flagrante delicto means ______?
a. caught in the act
b. caught after commission
c. instigation
d. entrapment
• Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use in
referring to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
a. Jurisdiction
b. Venue
c. Jurisprudence
d. Territory
• It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the first time to the exclusion of other courts.
a. original jurisdiction
b. exclusive jurisdiction
c. appellate jurisdiction
d. concurrent jurisdiction
• It is the formal reading of the charges against a person accused of a crime and latter asking him whether he
pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
a. arraignment
b. preliminary investigation c. plea
d. promulgation of judgment
• It is a body of men created to settle disputes within Barangay level.
a. barangay tanod
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo
c. barangay council
d. lupon tagapamayapa
• It is the most common way by which the police discovers or it informed that a crime has been committed:
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime.
b. When the police discovers the crime
c. When the victim reports the crime
d. When the suspect surrenders
• The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy.
Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other members who shall be:
a. more than 10 but less than 20
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
c. more than 10
d. less than 10
• When arrest may be made?
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn
• Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a warrant?
a. All of the choices
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the arresting officer.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is personal knowledge based on probable cause
that the person to be arrest has committed it.
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ad testificandum
c. subpoena duces tecum
d. warrant of arrest
• The “anti-Plunder Act”.

a. R.A. 7080
c. R.A. 3019
b. R.A. 1379
d. R.A. 6713
• This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide free legal assistance to poor members of society:
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. National Prosecution Service
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Public Attorney’s Office
• This is the power to apply the law to contests or disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties between
the state and private persons, or between individual litigants in cases properly brought before the judicial tribunal.
a. Judicial Power b. Judicial Review
c. Court d. Court of Justice
• This is the process or method whereby accusations are brought before the court of justice to determine the
innocence or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecutor
b. Prosecution
c. Trial
d. Preliminary Investigation
• The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to hear both sides and to come to a decision.
a. Mediation
b. Settlement
c. Arbitration
d. Agreement
• One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name of the government?
a. Public Prosecutor
b. Private Prosecutor
c. Prosecution
d. Ombudsman
• It refers to the “court of last resort”.
a. RTC
b. Sandiganbayan
c. Supreme Court d. MTC
• This court was created under RA 1125, as amended, which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on
appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and decisions of
the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals
• This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27 above),
which can only be committed because of their position.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals
• It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
a. Commitment Order
b. Mittimus
c. warrant of arrest d. habeas corpus
• Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
convicted offender.
a. Penology b. Probation
c. Correction d. Criminology
• Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by the president. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. Pardon b. Amnesty
c. Commutation of Sentence d. Parole
• Prison is a place for confinement of convicted prisoners. What classification of prisoners is sentenced to serve a
prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose fine is less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner
d. municipal prisoner
• Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of
imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word _____?
a. Presinto b. Precindio
c. presidio d. precinto
• There are how many members the composed the Lupon?
a. 3 members b. 5 to 10 members
c. 10 to 20 members d. 5 members
• It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons
and Parole.
a. Pardon b. Probation
c. Amnesty d. Parole
• It is a security facility, usually operated by the police stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for
investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before the prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail
b. Ordinary jail
c. workhouses
d. prison
• It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted from the
length of years that a prisoner have been sentenced to serve for his good conduct.
a. Commutation of sentence b. Parole
c. GCTA
d. reprieve
• Correctional institutions in the country is divided into National and Local institution. What Department of the
Executive Branch is the one in charge of the National Penitentiary?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology
b. Department of Justice
c.Department of Interior and Local
Government
d. Bureau of Correction
• It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of the law.
a. penalty
b. self-defense
c. exemplarity
d. punishment
• City and Municipal is the division of our correctional institution which primarily in charge of those detention
prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and serving short sentences and under the Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology. While it is true that even the Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are
under the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the __________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Correction
d. Provincial government
• This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the
community.
a. Reintegration
b. reincarnation
c. Realization
d. Rehabilitation
• It refers to the examination of an individual’s person, house, papers or effects, or other buildings and premises to
discover contraband or some evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a criminal action:
a. Search b. seizure
c. Raid d. entrapment
• This court was established by virtue of PD1083, otherwise known as “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the
Philippines”.
a. Court of Tax Appeals
b. Shari’a Court
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Family Court
• Refers to any person below 18 years of age or those over but unable to fully take care of themselves from
neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due to some physical defect or mental disability or
condition.
a. child
b. wards
c. physically disabled
d. youth
• Act or omission which may not be punishable if committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful when they are
committed by a child or a person of tender year or one who is in need of supervision or assistance.
a. crime
b. status offense
c. delinquency
d. felonies
• It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the society to prevent and repressed them?
a. Penology
b. Victimology
c. Criminology
d. Sociology of law
• In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown
by:
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
assurance
c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are willing to negotiate
• These are priorities in a hostage taking situation EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media
• A hostage taker is characteristically all of these, EXCEPT
a. mental derange
b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
c. sociopath personality
d. mental balance
• These are not negotiable in a hostage taking situation:

a. guns and ammunition b. drinks
c. foods
• One of the following is not a terrorist tactics:

a. bombing
b. assassination
c. hostage-taking d. media exposure
• In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical and
psychic energy, hence:
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the authorities
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
• When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands , they were left
with three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more
realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands
d. let the hostages killed
• The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
a. to accept their beliefs as being true
b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. to try to bluff or trick them
• The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to negotiate, except:
a. fears of police assault and punishment
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
• Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.

a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
• P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP officer who first arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves now
as a ground commander on the said crisis. Having decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the objectives
are as follows, except one:
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed and set free.
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the demands of the hostage takers.
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
• In a hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, it is a “cardinal rule”:
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker face to face
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated agreement
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage taker
• In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS”, which means:
a. the truth will prevail
b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives
d. save the hostages
• Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a hostage negotiation.

a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker
• Last option in hostage crisis:

a. crowd control b. negotiation
c. traffic control d. assault
• It is any incident in which people are being held by another person or persons against their will, usually by force
or coercion, and demands are being made by the perpetrator.
a. kidnapping
b. crisis management
c. hostage incident
d. abduction
• The following are the priorities in hostage taking situation, except:

a. preservation of life
b. arrest of the hostage-taker
c. inclusion of the media
d. successfully negotiate
• “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take hostages:
a. by reason of mental illness
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and problems
c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief
• This is an assault team responsible in carrying out assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
a. medical team
b. tactical team
c. negotiation team d. snipers
• This asserts that strong self-image protects the youth from the influence and pressure of criminogenic pulls in his
environment.
• Rational theory
• Conflict theory
• Label theory
• The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private
citizens is termed as:
A.Arrest
B.Initialcontact
C.Childcustody
D. All of the above
• It is the study of human society, its origin structure, functions and direction.
a. criminology
b. sociology
c. psychology
d. anthropology
• The science of classifying the physical characteristics.
a. free will
b. positivism
c. atavism
d. somatology
• The approach that is using the perspective of heredity in explaining the cause of crime.
a. geographical approach
b. biological approach
c. psychiatric application
d. psychological application
• The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of criminology.
a. retribution b. rejection
c. reformation
d. restoration
• It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the behavior of the criminal.
a. entomology
b. penology
c. phrenology
d. criminology
• Children shall be given priority during_____ as result of armed conflict.?
a. war
b. treatment
c. evacuation
d. education
• Science concerned with improving the quality of offspring.
a. criminology
b. eugenics
c. genetics
d. heredity
• Commonly known as victimless crime:
A.occassional crime
B.political crime
C.public order crime
D. conventional crime
• A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.

a. abandoned child
b. dependent child
c. abusive child
d. neglected child
• The principle that events including criminal behavior that has sufficient causes..
a. atavism
b. narassism
c. determinism
d. positivism
• An established and generally accepted moral values refer to.
a. integrity
b. morality
c. ethical standard
d. authority
• This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
a. split mind b. psychosis
c. neurosis
d. schizoprenia
• What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate events?
A.mass murder
B. serial killer
C.homicidal
D. spree killer
• A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in
flight diving a chase would be an example of:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Multiple Murder
• What is the legal term for nighttime?
A. sanctuary
B.absurdity
C. ephitomy
D. nocturnity
• These are the rights of an accused that are derived from special laws enacted by Congress.
A. Constitutional rights
B. Civil rights
C.Statutoryrights
D. Natural rights
• If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported
to the police?
a. 22, 868
b. 22, 068
c. 20, 250
d. 32, 644
• What is the antonyms of the word arrest?
A. Apprehend
B. Search
C. Set free
D. Renounce
• How many members composed the “Pangkat?”
A. 1 member
C. 2 members
B. 3 members
D. 5 members
• He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study of society, which to him passes through stages
divided on the basis of how people try to understand it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific understanding
of the world. Comte called this the positive stage and those who followed his writings were called,
a. August Comte b. Positivists
c. Positivism
d. Sociologists
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. volunteer counsel
• He represent the government’s position in a criminal case during court proceedings from the time of the
suspect’s arrest until the adjudication of his case.
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. prosecutor
• What is the highest rank in the national prosecution service SERVICE?
a. Prosecutor V
b. Prosecutor IV
c. Prosecutor VI
d. Chief Prosecutor
• The Office of the ____________represents the Government of the Philippines, its agencies and
instrumentalities and its officials and agents in any litigation, proceeding, investigation or matter requiring the
services of lawyers
a. Solicitor General
b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
• An office which Investigate and prosecute on its own or on complaint by any person, any act or omission of any
public officer or employee, office or agency, when such act or omission appears to be illegal, unjust, improper
or inefficient
a. Solicitor General Office

c. Ombudsman
b. Sandiganbayan
• An office which shall independently discharge its mandate to render, free of charge, legal representation,
assistance, and counselling to indigent persons in criminal, civil, labor, administrative and other quasi-judicial
cases
c. Ombudsman
b. Sandiganbayan
• Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief
that a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest proceeding
c. preliminary investigation
b. arraignment
• Is an inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to determine the legality of the arrest made especially those arrests
made without a warrant
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest proceeding
c. preliminary investigation
b. arraignment
• It is the power to apply the laws to contests or disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties of and
between the state and the private persons or between individual litigants in cases properly brought before the
judicial tribunals.
a. court power
b. legal power
c. judicial power
b. right power
• It has original exclusive jurisdiction over public officers accused of committing crimes in relation to their official
functions and whose salary grade is 27and above.

c. Ombudsman
b. Sandiganbayan
• It is said that the home is the cradle of human personality, for it where the child develops his fundamental
attitudes and habits that last throughout his life
a. school
b. community
c. barangay
b. family
• It is a body of men created to settle disputes within Barangay level.
a. barangay tanod
b. barangay council
c. pangkat tagpagkasundo
b. lupon tagapamayapa
• It refers the process whereby disputants are persuaded by the Punong Barangay or Pangkat to amicably settle
their disputes
a. agreement
b. conciliation
c. conference
b. mediation
• This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of the frustration and anger people experience over their
inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
a. strain theory
d. labeling theory
• This theory suggest that stability and changes in criminal and deviant behavior through time and different stages
in life.
• Self Derogation Theory
• Anomie Theory
• Routine Activities Theory
• This theory suggest that females and males are becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and
education
A.Feminist Theory
B. Paternalism
C.Liberation Theory
D. Life Course Theory
• In the power control theory by Hagan, which father and mother share similar roles in the workplace and power in
the family
• Feminist theory
• Egalitarian family
• Patriarchal family
• Matriarchal family
• These views suggest that males such as judges, police officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional views
on women thus, they are more lenient to them as compared to their male counterparts.
• Paternalism
• Chivalry Hypothesis
• Masculinity
• Power Control Theory
• This new branch in criminology opposes the theoretical perspective and proposes the involvement of all
stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions
• Peacemaking Criminology
• Sociology of Law
• Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
• This crimes are those that the lower class commit against the upper class of society in a capitalist system
• Crimes of Passion
• Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
• Crimes of domination and. Repression
• Crimes of Lower class group
• The ruling class in a capitalist system is the
• Proletariat
• Bourgeois
• Capitalist
• Ruling class
• Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked communism as a remedy?
• George Vold
• Karl Marx
• Emile Durkheim
• Max Weber
• This theory believes that society is divided into two groups with competing values the upper class and lower
class.
• Class Theory
• Differential Opportunity
• Conflict Theory
• Consensus Theory
• A problem that occurs when offenders who have been released from the system are placed in a program simply
because the program exist.
• Diversion Movement
• Intervention
• Net widening
• Primary Deviance
• It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the exercise of free will.
• Neo-classical theory
• radical theory
• His great contributions to criminology were the principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
• Cesare Beccaria
• Jeremy Bentham
• Cesare Lombroso
• Emile Durkheim
• He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop
the theory of atavism.
• Cesare Lombroso
• Charles Goring
• Cesare Beccaria
• Charles Darwin
• According to him, people with criminal behavior, should be prohibited from having children.
• Robert Dugdale
• Henry Goddard
• Charles Goring
• George Wilker
• It states that individuals are deviant mainly because they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and
others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to
the actor.
• Containment Theory
• Theory of Imitation
• Social Process Theory
• Social Reaction theory
• Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with five (5) or more atavistic stigmata.
• Born-criminal type
• insane
• Criminaloid
• pseudo-criminal
• These are crimes which are wrong from their very nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other
violations of the Revised Penal Code.
• Heinous crimes
• mala in se
• Serious crimes
• mala prohibita
• These are crimes which are wrong only because there are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an orderly
society. Examples of these are the violations of special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”.
• Mala prohibita
• less grave felonies
• Mala in se
• light felonies
• The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege” means:
• An act done by me against my will is not my act
• There is no crime where no law punishing it.
• Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
• Mistake of fact is an excuse.
• He was the one who introduced the following definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge
regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking
laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
a) Raffaelle Garofalo
b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Beccaria
d) Paul Topinard
• Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not
he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in giving punishment is________________.
a) Restoration
b) Treatment
c) Retribution
d) Deterrence
• Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty, without
however exceeding the maximum of the penalty provided by law for the offense.
a. Justifying
b. Exempting
c. Mitigating
d. Aggravating
• Those wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal liability.
• Exempting
• aggravating
• Justifying
• Mitigating
• A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
• Maternity home
• Hospital
• Rehabilitation center
• Foster homes
• This may be demonstrated by any of the following: severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
behavior.
• Psychological injury
• Mental injury
• Physical injury
• Emotional injury
• It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to address issues that caused the child to commit an
offense. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program, which may include counseling, skills
training, education, and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-
being.
• Diversion
• Rehabilitation
• Probation
• Intervention
• If children, whether male or female, who for money, profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known
as…
• Child Abuse
• Child Trafficking
• Child Prostitution
• Child Exploitation
• It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring

• Control
• Recession
• Repression
• Prevention
• Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as
defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a barangay tanod.
• Police Officer
• Probation Officer
• Law Enforcement Officer
• Public Officer
• He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended or inadequately attended.
• Abandoned Child
• Abused Child
• Neglected Child
• Dependent Child
• This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old.
• Adolescence
• Early adolescence
• Juvenile
• What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, custom
and culture which society does not accept and which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures in the
public interest and it is being committed by minors?
• Juvenile Delinquency
• Minor Delinquency
• Child Delinquency
• Youth Delinquency
• Police officers who have taken into custody a child in conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but not later than hours after apprehension.
• 8
• 24
• 12
• 36
• This concerns to the obligations of the community to individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common
advantages and sharing of common burden.
a. Prosecution
b. justice
c. equality d. trial
• A probationer is allowed to do the following except?
a. Stay away from bad associates
b. Work regularly to support his family
c. Make periodic office report
d. Go and play in a gambling den
• Which of the following are the major goals of correction?
a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
• A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community subject to conditions
imposed by the court?
a. Reprieve
b. Probation
c. Commutation
d. Parole
• Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to be the best and prison without walls?
a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Iwahig penal colony
• Which is called the finest penal farm in the world?
a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Iwahig penal colony
• . Under the UN Standard Minimum Rules for treatment of Prisoners, which of the following are the two basic
principles under rules of general application to prisoners?
1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other
opinion, national or social origin, birth or other status
2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and moral rule of the group to which the prisoner belong
3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not their exclusion from the community, but their continuing
part in it
4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent and shall be treated as such.
a. 2 and 3
b. 4 and 1
c. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4
• What does classical theory provides?
a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could be controlled by regulating the reproduction of families
b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in the process of communication
c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and penalty disorders
d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
• The theory in criminal causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes irregularity, and abnormal brain
activity?
a. Biological
b. Psychological
c. Sociological
d. Geological
• Where Rene Boy shall be confined if his sentence is 6 months or less?
a. National prison
b. Municipal jail
c. City jail
d. Provincial jail
• Crimes with no private offended party?
a. Complex crime
b. Status offense
c. Simple crime
d. Victimless crime
• A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were granted the time for their marital sexual obligation. What
do you call this affair?
a. Sexual relation
b. Conjugal partnership
c. Conjugal privilege
d. Conjugal visit
• What institution conducts the training program for uniformed personnel of the BJMP?
a. Fire Training Center
b. Philippine National Jail Academy
c. PNP Training Center
d. Jail Management Training Institute
• Robin Padilla was convicted and ready to serve his sentence inside the prison. Why was he photographed at the
Reception and Diagnostic Center?
a. He is a actor and photogenic
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the reception procedure
• A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration is referred to as
a. Determinate sentence
b. Capital punishment
c. Corporal punishment
d. Indeterminate sentence
• Which of the following executive clemency needs the concurrence of the congress?
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Probation
d. Parole
• It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted person should serve part of his sentence?
a. Pardon
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Amnesty
• What should the court do where the accused violated the terms and conditions of his probation?
a. Court releases the probationer to the community
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his sentence
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his probation
• Which of the following is a minor offense in jail?
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the jail where it is off- limits to inmates
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official communication, transaction or investigation
• Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is a type of offense?
a. Grave offense
b. Less grave offense
c. Not so grave offense
d. Minor offense
• How many hours should the jail disciplinary board hear and decide the case brought before it?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
• Minimum number of time in counting the inmates on daily basis?
a. Three times
b. Two times
c. Four times
d. Five times
• What is the duration should the probation officer submit his post sentence investigation to the court?
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. within 60 days
d. 15 days
• A shoemaker and became the father of probation in the U.S
a. Mathew Davenport Hill
b. Edward Savage
c. John Augustus
d. Teodolo Natividad
• When does probation started?
a. 1938
b. 1841
c. 1896
d. 1932
• It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the rehabilitation or prisoners
a. Recreational program
b. Religious program
c. Educational program
d. Employment of prisoners
• Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with inmates?
a. Chaplain
b. Warden
c. Psychologist
d. Prison guards
• Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with inmates?
a. Chaplain
b. Warden
c. Psychologist
d. Prison guards
• It is given to prisoners who have returned to their places of confinement within 48 hours after a calamity.
a. Good conduct time allowance
b. Special time allowance
c. Visitation privileges
d. Good treatment allowance
• Juan Manalo was convicted by final judgment to serve the term of imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his
sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto returned the
following day, how many years would be deducted from his sentence?
a. 4 years
b. 8 years
c. 9 years
d. 11 years
• A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment would be classified as what kind of prisoner?
a. Municipal prisoner
b. Insular prisoner
c. Provincial prisoner
d. Detention prisoner
• It is one of the forerunners of modern correctional system wherein they confine the prisoners in single cell at
night but allow them to work during the day.
a. Auburn system
b. Pennsylvania system
c. Elmira reformatory
d. None of the above
• It is an institution intended to detain or house political offenders.
a. Iwahig Penal farm
b. Davao Penal Farm
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
d. Sablayan Prison Farm
• This forerunner whereby he introduced the theory of atavism?
a. Lombroso
b. Becarria
c. Ferri
d. Garofalo
• It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence?
a. Pardon
b. Appeal
c. Commutation
d. Reprieve
• It is the deduction of the term of imprisonment due to the convict’s good behavior while serving his sentence?
a. Special time allowance
b. Parole
c. Good conduct time allowance
d. Probation
• A writ ordering the confinement of a person in penal institution.
a. Detention order
b. Commitment order
c. Warrant of arrest
• Who grants probation?
a. Probation officer
b. Solicitor general
c. Court
d. All of the above
• Where the application for probation should be filed?
a. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Office of the Solicitor General
c. Trial court
d. Appellate court
• The court shall resolve the application for probation for _.
a. Not later than 60 days
b. Within 10 days
c. Within 5 days
d. Within 15 days
• Pending the submission of the investigation report, the defendant may be allowed on temporary liberty through_.
a. Release on recognizance
b. Bail
c. Manifestation
d. Cash bond
• Probation shall be denied if the court finds that_.
a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed.
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment
c. There is undue risk that during the period of probation the offender will commit another crime
• The probationer and his probation program shall be under the control and supervision of ___?
a. Probation officer
b. Board of pardons and parole
c. Court
d. All of the above
• Is the denial of probation appealable?
a. It depends on the violation
b. Yes
c. No
d. Partially No
• Who shall have the control over the probationer once the latter is permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of
another court?
a. Regional Director
b. Executive judge of the municipal court
c. Executive Judge of the first instance
d. Appellate court
• Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an imprisonment of six months, how many years would be the duration of
his probation?
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Shall not exceed two years
d. Shall not be more than six years
• In the hearing for the violation committed by the probationer, the latter shall have the right to be informed of the
violation charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. This right is in pursuant to his right to ___?
a. Equal protection
b. Presumption of innocence
c. Miranda rights
d. Due process of law
• What is the effect of the termination of probation?
a. Erase criminal records
b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as a result of conviction
c. Both A and B
• Probation aids shall have the term in office for ___?
a. 3 years
b. 1 year
c. 2 years
d. 4 years
• Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly convicted offenders at the RDC?
a. 45 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 15 days
• An inherent responsibility of a warden in seeing to it that he continually motivates his staff and personnel to
perform at their best.
a. Decision making
b. Control of prison operation and activities
c. Personnel program
d. Executive leadership
• Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for at least a minimum period of 5 days to ten days for the
conduct of medical examination, vaccination, x-rays to prevent physical contamination
a. Reception diagnostic center
b. Medical center
c. Quarantine unit
• A writ issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating the basis of confinement of a prisoner
a. Mittimus
b. Detention order
c. Warrant of arrest
d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus
• A code which provides “an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth.”
a. Code of Babylon
b. Code of Kalantiaw
c. Hammurabi code
d. Bible
• A French word meaning “word of honor”
a. Pardon
b. Probation
c. Parole
d. Amnesty
• Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities awaiting verdict in their cases
a. Prisoner
b. Detainees
c. Probationer
d. Offender
• It is said to be the alternative for jail confinement in modern penology.
a. Amnesty
b. Parole
c. Probation
d. Pardon
• He advocated the Irish system which is considered by many as one of the most famous contributor to the
reformatory movement.
a. Z.R. Brockway
b. Alexander Macanochie
c. Ceasar Lombroso
d. Walter Crofton
• He is the father of probation in the Philippines
a. Ferdinand Marcos
b. Manuel Roxas
c. Teodulo Natividad
d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
• A Boston shoemaker who advocated in behalf of alcoholic and youthful offenders and known as the father of
probation.
a. Mathew Davenport Hill
b. Edward Savage
c. John Augustus
d. Alexander Rice
• He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.
a. Hans Gross
b. Edward Savage
c. John Augustus
d. Benjamin Franklin
• This case paved the way for the abolition of the first probation law?
a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
• It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified applicants.
a. Post Investigation Report
b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
c. Admission report
d. Post Sentence Investigation
• After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a judge decide whether to grant or deny the application for
probation.
a. 5 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days
• Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as the chairman of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
a. PNP Chief
b. DILG Secretary
c. DOJ Secretary
d. Chief Executive
• Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner maybe checked at anytime.
a. Search and seizure
b. Confiscation
c. Inspection
d. Operation greyhound
• These are long, narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails, usually rowed by criminals.
a. Hulks
b. Ships of criminals
c. Galleys
• What is the standard ratio in escorting a non- bailable inmate?
a. One is to one security officer
b. One is to three security officers
c. One is to two plus one security officers
d. One is to one plus one security officer
• Offenders who are committed to the jail or prison in order to serve their sentence after final conviction of a
competent court is known as
a. Detention prisoner
b. Sentenced prisoner
c. Provincial prisoner
d. National prisoner
• Penology came from the latin word “poena” which means
a. Conviction
b. Pain and suffering
c. Punishment
d. Deterrence
• It is the suffering inflicted by the state against an offending member of the society for the transgression of the law
a. Penalty
b. Punishment
c. Suffering
d. Any of the above
• When different crimes should be punished with different penalties, punishment should therefore be
a. Correctional
b. Legal
c. Productive of suffering
d. Commensurate with the offense
• An institution for the imprisonment of persons convicted of major offenses refers to
a. Jail
b. Prison
c. Penitentiary
d. All of the above
• Imprisonment for a term of 6 years 1 day to 12 years
a. Prision correccional
b. Reclusion temporal
c. Arresto mayor
d. Prision mayor
• A criminal can seek refuge in a church in order to avoid punishment in a period of ninety days. This refers to
a. Refuge
b. Securing sanctuary
c. Hidden church
d. Claiming penitentiary
• This were the former warships used to house prisoners in the 18th century and 19th century as means of relieving
congestion of prisones refers to
a. Galleys
b. Hulks
c. Gaols
d. Warships
• In the ancient times, who were commonly subjected to harsh punishments?
a. Middle class
b. Black people
c. Slaves
d. Any of the above.
• Offenders who were convicted should be kept away from the society for its protection. This is frequently called as
a. Incapacitation
b. Deterrence
c. Penalization
d. Rehabilitation
• What code specified punishment according to the social class of the offenders?
a. Greek Code of Draco
b. Justinian Code
c. Burgundian Code
d. Akadian Code
• The establishment of the usefulness and responsibility of the offender as a productive individual is a punishment
justified by
a. Expiation
b. Rehabilitation
c. Atonement
d. Retribution
• The penalty of banishing a person from the place where he committed a crime refers to what contemporary
forms of punishment
a. Atonement
b. Destierro
c. Exile
d. Incapacitation
• The early Roman place of confinement which was built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to
a. Town Gates
b. Wulnut Street Jail
c. Bridewell Workhouse
d. Mamertime Prison
• What was the most popular workhouse in London which was built for the employment of English prisoners?
a. Borstal prison
b. Panoptican prison
c. Elmira reformatory
d. None of the choices
• Which branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, prepares and cooks food and serve to inmates?
a. General Service Branch
b. Mess Service Branch
c. Budget and Finance Brach
d. Property and Supply Branch
• The unit where the prisoner is given thorough physical examination including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and
immunity for the purpose of insuring that the prisoner is not suffering from contagious disease?
a. Rehabilitation Unit
b. Quarantine Cell
c. Medical and Health Center
d. RDC
• Who provides the security system of sound custody, security and control of inamtes and their movements and
also responsible to enforce jail or prison discipline
a. Administrative Group
b. Security Group
c. Rehabilitation Group
d. Medical Group
• What law was passed during the Aquino administration that renamed the Bureau of Prisons to Bureau of
Corrections?
a. E.O. 292
b. E.O. 229
c. A.O 262
d. E.O. 292
• Who appoints the Director of Prisons who shall be the Head of the Bureau?
a. Chief BJMP
b. Sec. of DILG
c. Chief Executive
d. Sec. of DOJ
• What agency has supervision and control over all the national prisons or penitentiaries?
a. Bureau of Prisons
b. Bureau of Correction
c. Bureau of Jail
• Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the jurisdiction of the DOJ
b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the provincial government
c. The jail bureau controls the administration and supervision of all jails nationwide
d. The BJMP is under the DILG
• Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend?
a. Chief Executive
b. DILG Sec
c. Chief BJMP
d. Chief of BUCOR
• Who appoints the Chief Inspector as warden?
a. DILG sec
b. Chief Executive
c. Chief BJMP
d. Chief of BuCor
• Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of uttering insulting words or languages on the part of prison staff to
the prisoners to degrade or break the confidence of prisoners.
A. Degradation
B. Corporal Punishment
C. Monotony
D. Mass Movement
• The public will be protected if the offender has being held in conditions where he cannot harm others especially
the public. Punishment is effected by placing offenders in prison so that society will be ensured from further
criminal depredations of criminals.
A. Deterrence
B. Incapacitation & Protection
C. Retribution
D. Atonement
• He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as correctional treatment for major offenders also responsible for
the abolition of death penalty and torture as a form of punishment.
A. John Howard
B.Charles Montesquieu
C. William Penn
D. Jeremy Bentham
• Director of the Prisons of Valencia, Spain who divided prisoners into companies and appointed prisoners as petty
officer in charge.
A. Domets of France
C. Manuel Montesimos
B. Zebulon Brockway
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
• What governing law of Aklan and Panay based on the beliefs, customs and practices, it is also reflects the level
of uprightness and morality of the people?
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203
B. Law of the Talion
C. Kalantiaw Code
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779
• It refers to prison which is used to confine slaves where they were attached to workbenches and forced to do
hard labor in the period of their imprisonment.
A. Underground Cistern
B. Ergastalum
C. Sing-Sing Prison
D. Alcatraz Prison
• It is known as the “Age of Reason of Age of Enlightment”
A. 1870 – 1880
B. 18th century
C. 19th century
D. 21st century
• It refers to a Prison System whereby prisoners are confined in their own cells during the night and congregate
work in shops during the day also known as “Congregate System”.
A. Auburn Prison System
B. Custody Oriented Prison
C. Pennsylvania Prison System
D. Treatment Oriented Prison
• The first juvenile reformatory which was opened in January 1825 and located in New York City.
A. Borstal Institution
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. New York House of Refuge
D. Panoptican Prison
• One of the juridical conditions of Penalty, The consequence must be in accordance with the law it is a result of a
judgment rendered by a court of justice.
A. Equal
B. Legal
C. Commensurate w/ the offense
D. Personal
• X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him?
A. BuCor
C. BJMP
B. PNP
D. AFP
• Baby Ama was sentenced to serve Prison Correctional. What is the duration of his penalty?
A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y
C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y
B. 6M1D to 6 Y
D. 1M&1D – 6 M
• It is then known as Carcel y Presidio.
A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Manila City Jail
C. NBP
D. May Halique Estate
• Formerly known as the Luhit Penal Settlement.
A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
B. San Ramon Prison
C. Sablayan Prison
D. New Bilibid Prison
• When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it meant
A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and Photograph
B. Examination for Contraband
C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record Clerk
D. All of These
• ____ is the Chairman of the Classification Board in BJMP.
A. Assistant Warden
B. Medical Officer
C. Chief, Security Officer
D. Jail Chaplain
• A general agreed principle that women prisoners should be placed in a special building on the same site with the
men prison.
A. Diversification by Sex
B. Segregation
C. Diversification by Age
D. Diversification by Degree of Custody
• What satellite of NBP does RDC is situated?
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
B. Camp Sampaguita
C. Main building
D. Chapel
• What is the prescribed color of uniform for Minimum Security Prisoners?
A. Blue
B. Brown
C. Tangerine
D.Gray
• It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao Del Norte, General Paulino Santos led the first contingent which opened the
colony.
A. Davao Penal Colony
B. Tagum
C. Panabo
D. Kapalong
E. Tanglaw
• Gov. White E. Dwigth made the suggestion of the construction of this penal institution and it was established on
1904 through the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is considered a one of the most open penal institutions in the world.
A. Iwahig
B. Tagumpay
C. Sta. Lucia
D. Inagawan
• The following are the sub colonies of Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm.
I. Central III. Pusog
II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan
IX. Montible X. Central
A. I, II, III, IV
B. V and VI
C. VII, VIII, IX & X
D. Either of these
• Convicts committed to BUCOR are brought to RDC for a total period of ____ for classification and determination
of appropriate program.
A. 60 days
B. 55 days
C. 5 days
D. NONE
• One of the components of RDC which is responsible in the examination of the prisoner’s mental and emotional
make-up.
A. Medical Center
B. Sociologist
C. Psychologist
D.Psychiatrist
• The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology was created thru ____ as one of the Tri Bureau under the
Department of Interior and Local Government .
A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
B. Section 53, RA 6975
C. Section 23 of RA 6975
D. Section 60 of RA 6975
• X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him?
A. BuCor
C. BJMP
B. PNP
D. AFP
• All except one is included in the command group of BJMP
A. Chief of Staff
B. Deputy C/BJMP
C. Chief of BJMP
D. Chief of Directorial staff
• One of the Administrative groups in BJMP responsible for preparation of the daily menu, prepare and cook the
food and serve it to inmates.
A. Mess Service Branch
B. General Service Branch (maintenance)
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial)
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics)
• When the offender is in transit, the ratio of __ for every offender shall be observed.
A. 1:1+1
B. 1:2
C. 1:7
D. 1:500
• When the offender is in transit, in case of ___ that demands extra precaution additional guards shall be
employed
A. High Profile offender
B. Female Offender
C. High-risk offender
D. Either of these
• If the inmate agrees to abide by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, he shall be asked
to, manifest his ___ in writing.
A. Certification
C. Agreement
B. Manifestation
D. Affidavit
• John was sentenced to serve Arresto Mayor, what classification of sentenced prisoner is John classified?
A. Municipal Prisoner
C. City Prisoner
B. Provincial Prisoner
D. Insular Prisoner
• Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate committed for the first time. He classified as a ____ among the classification
of inmates according to privileges.
A. 1st class inmate
B. 3rd class inmate
C. 2nd class inmate
D. Colonist
• What classification of Prisoners according to Degree of Security if the prisoner cannot be trusted in open
conditions and pose lesser danger than maximum-security prisoners in case they escape.
A. Minimum Security Prisoners
B. Medium Security Prisoners
C. Maximum Security Prisoners
D. Any of the Above
• What is the lowest authorized disciplinary punishment imposable to inmates?
A. Close Confinement
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty
C. Reprimand
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges
• Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be between ___ in any calendar month provided that this punishment
shall be imposed only in the case of an incorrigible prisoner when other disciplinary measured had been proven
ineffective.
A. 30-60 days
C. 1-7 Days
B. 1 day
D. NONE
• All except one are instruments of restraints.
A. Handcuffs
B. Whipping Rod
C. Leg iron
D. Strait Jackets
• Inmates ____ may be excused from mandatory prison labor.
A. 60 years old
B. 56 years old
C. 50 years old
D. 21 years old
• The _____ may grant GCTA to an inmate for good behavior with no record of disciplinary infraction or violation of
prison rules and regulation.
A. Director of BJMP
B. Warden
C. President
D. Director of Corrections
• Inmates earnings that may be used to buy his needs.
A. ½ of his earnings
B. ¼ if his earnings
C. ¾ of his earnings
D. Discretion of Warden
• GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only be denied if the prisoner breaks the rules and only after due process is
observed.
A. right
B. Privileges
C. Discretion
D. liberty
• A colonist when classified by the director of the Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion perpetua
will have benefit from an automatic reduction from maximum term of forty years to ___.
A. 20 Years
B. 25 Years
C. 30 Years
D. 35 Years
• Duration of viewing of privilege of a deceased relative is limited to ___ hours.
A. 3
B. 9
C. 6
D. 12
• Who among the following inmates may not be allowed to see the remains of a dead immediate family member?
A. Minimum Security
B.Maximum Security
C. Medium Security
D. None of these
• Telephone calls are permitted for inmates for a period not exceeding 5 minutes every ___ days.
A. 30
B. 90
C. 60
D. 120
• If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of not less than ____ paces from his charge.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 15
D. 45
• In mess hall and dining area for purposes of precaution, the prescribe utensil for inmates shall be made of:
A. Wood
B. Paper
C. Plastic
D. Carton
• It is a continuing state of good order.
A. Discipline
B. Communication
C. Morale
D. Loyalty
• Unload as method in searching the prisoner for possession of contraband’s inside the prison cell and compound.
A. Frisking
B. Shakedown
C. Operation Greyhound
D. Body Frisking
• It is considered as the highest income earner among the Philippine Correctional Institution.
A. Iwahig Penal Colony
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
C. Davao Penal Colony
D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
• The most common problem for national penitentiaries.
A. Excessive number of inmates
B. Lack of funds
C. Sex problems
D. Discipline
• Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to
the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with?
A. B.P 85
B. RA 4200
C. B.P. 22
D. PD 968
• The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his religious beliefs sect or the like to another
while under confinement is referred to as
A. Proselytizing
B. Initiation
C. Fraternization
D. Inducement
• Who composed of guards trained on proper handling and use of firearms who shall be ready to fire when the
lives of the guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in Command.
A. 1st group Anti-Riot
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot
D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot
• Within the radius by road from the confinement facility and the actual stay of the inmates to view the remains.
A. 20 kilometer
B. 40 Kilometer
C. 30 Kilometer
D. 50 Kilometer
• Under RA 9344, what happens to the sentence of a Child in Conflict with the law after conviction of a trial Court?
A. His sentence serve
B. His sentence is suspended
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his family
D. His sentence is NOT suspended
• One-fifth of the sentence for Loyalty equivalent shall be deducted from the inmates sentence if, after the inmate
abandoned prison due to disorder arising
A. STA
B. GCTA
C. Commutation
D.Visitation Privilege
• It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and even individuals people conflicts:
A. Bodong
C. Capic
B. Korte Supremo
D. Hito
• The following are the aims of diversification in prison or jail, except:
A. more effective execution of treatment programs
B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or another
C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk
D. none of the above
• It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal sex life.
A. Maternal Visit
B. Sodomy
C. Masturbation
D. Conjugal Visit
• An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement
of the passing away of calamity shall be granted
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. 1/2 reduction of sentence
C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
D. 4/5 reduction of sentence
• Which of these is known as the Release on Recognizance Law providers for the release of offender charged
with an offense whose penalty is not more than six (6) months and /or a fine of P2,000.00 or both, to the custody
of a responsible person in the community, instead of a bail bond-
A. RA 6036
B. PD 603
C. Act 2489
D. RA 9262
• If the Warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next
in command or the ___ officer present shall assume the command.
A. Veteran
B. most senior
C. assistant
D. custodian
• In case of mass jailbreak, all member of the custodial force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to
critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes
B. protect the other inmates
C. to shoot the escape
D. give warning shots
• When a jailbreak, escape or riot in progress or has just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately:
A. sound the alarm
B. notify the nearest police precinct
C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
D. call the warden or the director
• The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except:
A. Censor offender’s inmate
B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
• It served as the cornerstone or rehabilitation
A. Religion
B. Education
C. Discipline
D. Recreational
• Maiming; Physical Torture; Electrocution; ____
A. Social degradation
B. Exile
C. Physical torture
D. Death Penalty
• It refers to those items, though authorized, is already in excessive quantities to become a fire hazard, a threat to
security or has become causative in making the place unsanitary.
A. Contraband
B. Paraphernalia
C. Prohibited items
D.Nuisance Contraband
• It refers to the entrusting for confinement of an inmate to a jail by competent court or authority for investigation,
trial and/or service of sentence
A. Commitment
B. Safekeeping
C. Entrustment
D. Imprisonment
• This was the right in ecclesiastical court during the middle ages particularly in England.
A. Inquisition
B. Incapacitation
C. Benefit of Clergy
D. Retribution
• The inmates may request a review of the findings of the Disciplinary Board and the propriety and the penalty to
the ____.
A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board
B. BJMP
C. Central office/BJMP
D. Warden
• If the inmate fails to claim his letter within ____ after it has been posted, the mail should be delivered to him.
A. 48 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
• All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s stamp at the ____ of each page and on the envelope. The
letter should be placed back in the same envelope and resealed.
A. Back
B. Conspicuous Area
C. Side
D. Top
• In case if jailbreaks, who will immediately sound the alarm?
A. Desk Officer
B. Armorer
C. Control Center
D. Officer-in-Charge
• It is designed to improve their communication and computation skills, such as the ability to read and write in
order to enhance their individual educational level.
A. Skills Training
B. Adult Education
C. Secondary Education
D. Non-Formal Education for Adults
• Detention Prisoners are allowed to smoke cigars and cigarettes, except in prohibited cases. The statement is –
A. Partially true
B. Partially false
C. Absolute False
D. Absolutely True
• All persons in custody shall before final conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter of ____
A. Right
B. preference
C. Privilege
D. Discretion
• The visiting room officer shall be responsible for compiling the regular visiting list for each inmate.
A. Special Visitor
B. Strange Visitor
C. Regular Visitor
D. Unusual visitor
• ____responsible for handling the keys in Women’s quarter and the keys shall be available all the time.
A. Key Matron
B. .Resident Matron
C. Matron
D. Any of these
• Ms. Malou Wang has duration of penalty of 6 years and one day to 12 years. What correctional facility he should
be incarcerated?
A. Bureau of Correction
B. Prision Correctional
C. Prision Mayor
D. BJMP
• Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted of the crime murder. After 12 days from the promulgation of the sentence he
escaped from his place of confinement. Abdul Salsalani is:
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
C. considered as an escaped prisoner
D. Either of C
• It should be executed by the interviewer, which will exempt prison authorities from any liability arising from death
or injury sustained while in prison:
A. Waiver of Liability
B. Waiver of Responsibility
C. Waiver of Acceptance
D. Waiver of Agreement
• Before the actual date of interview the media shall file request within ____
A. 1 day
B. 3 days
C. 2 days
D. 8 days
• Who should make an immediate preparation for the issuance of the necessary anti-riot equipment and firearms?
A. the Warden
C. Director for operation
B. Director
D. Desk Officer
• The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of Director, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the rank of
Senior Superintendent. This sentence is
A. partially true
C. true
B. partially false
D. false
• The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of offenders prescribes that penal facilities should not
exceed _____ inmates.
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 1200
D. 2000
• Who among the following inmates may not be allowed to see the remains of a dead immediate family members?
A. Minimum security
B. Maximum security
C. Medium security
D. None of these
• Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on a daily basis.
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. Five
• Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
A. 55 days
B. 5 days
C. 60 days
D. 15 days
• In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the
end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by a road or path assigned to him.
A. 30 days
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 60 days
• In Operation Greyhound, all orders concerning troop movements will emanate from him.
A. Assistant team leader
B. Team Leader
C. Ground Commander
D. Security Teams
• Who among the following shall be responsible in the custody of all the properties seized from the detainee prior
to his detention?
A. Custodial Officer
B. Chief of Detention Center
C. Evidence Custodian Officer
D. Court
• Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper escort
preferably aided by a police woman. The statement is
A. Yes
B. Wholly True
C. Partially False
D. Wholly False
• Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns that she is already overstaying in jail because her jail guard, Benny B.
Rotcha, who happens to be a law student advised her that there is no more legal ground for his continued
imprisonment, and Benny told her that she can go. Ms. Malou Wang got out of jail and went home. Was there
any crime committed?
A. Evasion of Service
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
C. Evasion through Negligence
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
• As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail guard who allowed Ms. Malou Wang to go, is concerned, the crime committed
is:
A. Evasion of Service
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
C. Evasion through Negligence
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
• This refers to the one-in-charge of a Prison.
A. Director
C. Warden
B. Superintendent
D. Wardress
• What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting investigation?
A. BUCOR
B. Jail
C. Penitentiary
D. Prison
• Who supervised and control the Provincial Jail.
A. DILG
B. Governor
C. DOJ
D. LGU
• It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal severity of punishment through a compromise with the church.
A. Benefit of Clergy
B. None
C. Rehabilitation
D. Retribution
• Richard Alden was convicted to serve a penalty of 6 years imprisonment for usurpation of a person in authority
due to his frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent, what would be his classification under PD 29?
A. Detention prisoner
B. Municipal prisoner
C.Provincial prisoner
D. Insular prisoner
• Theory which states that criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in the process of
communication.
A. Differential Association Theory
B. Social Disorganization Theory
C. Classical Theory
D. Strain Theory
• Having a pornographic materials inside jail is a?
A. Minor offense
B. Moral Turpitude
C. Grave Offense
D. Less grave offense
• A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that puts him into deep sleep in lethal injection.
A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat) B. Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles)
C. Sodium Thiopenthotal
D. Sodium chloride (salt)
• If a regular convicted prisoner has 3 shifting guards, X which is a Death Convict should have___.
A. 2 Shifting Guards
B. 3 Shifting Guards
C. 4 Shifting Guards
D. 5. Shifting Guards
• How do inmates know that they have letters?
A. A list of mails for inmates is posted
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the addressee
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ Office
• What is referred to as “hustling” inside the prison?
A. Reporting illegal activities
B. Doing prison assignment
C. Using prohibited drugs
D. Selling illegal commodities
• ____ program employs prisoner in various product or good-producing tasks.
A. Agricultural
B. Industrial
C. Operational
D. Administrative
• The 2nd group shall not use riot control gases, except on orders of the –
A. Desk Officer
B. Armorer
C. Control Center
D. Officer-in-Charge
• Detention Prisoners are NOT allowed to have a Conjugal Visit. The statement is –
A. True
B. Maybe True
C. Maybe False
D. False
• If Jail Officer I Masunurin was appointed in 2013 at a monthly salary of 19,000, how much is longevity pay in
2018?
A. 9000 pesos
B. 1900 pesos
C. 9500 pesos
D. NONE
• An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for adjustment process from life in prison to life is free
community within –
A. 60 days prior to release
B. 30 days prior to release
C. 90 days before release
D. 15 days prior to release
• How many days are given to the disciplinary board of BJMP to resolve issue?
A. 5 working days
B. 2 days
C. 30 working days
D. 24 hours
• How long does an inmate mother who gave birth inside the jail is allowed to be with his child?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 7 years
• A colonist when classified by the director of the Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion perpetua
will have benefit from an automatic reduction from a maximum term of forty years to ____.
A. 20 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 35 years
• Close confinement in Prison shall not exceed –

A. 45 days
B. 30 to 60 days
C. 7 days
D. 15 days
• Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On March 25, 2013 the judge who
promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to the service of Abdul’s sentence?
A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
B. He will have to serve his sentence
C. His sentence will be suspended
D. His sentence will be reduced
• It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid Prison.

A. Mittimus
B. Carpeta
C. Commitment Order
D. Prison Record
• How many days before election does inmate are prohibited from going out?
A. 30 days
B. 90 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 120 Days
• Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has never been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor. If
you were the prison director, how many days for each month would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time
allowance?
A. 5 days
B. 8 days
C. 10 days
D. 12 days
• A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison where W,X,Y & Z are inmates. All, except Z, escaped. W surrendered
after 24 hours, X b. surrendered after 24 hours, X surrendered after 2 days and Y surrendered after 3 days. Who
among them are not entitled to Special Time Allowance for Loyalty under Art. 98.
A. X
C. W
B. Y
D. Z
• Which of the following organizations donated the Half-way House inside the compound of the Bureau of
Corrections?
A. Office of the President
B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office
C. United Nations Security Council
D. Asia Crime Foundation
• Mail letters of a Death Convict should be documented within ____ before the execution.
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 48 hours
D. NONE
• Involves the formulation of a tentative treatment program best suited to the needs of the individual prisoner,
based on the findings.
A. treatment planning
C. reclassification
B. Execution of treatment Plan
D. Diagnosis
• An authorization that permits inmate to leave place of confinement for emergency reasons.
A. Furlough
B. Prisonization
C. Diversification
D. Counseling
• A warden who limits his role to consider policy matters and major problems, his responsibility is centered on:
A. Decision Making
B. Personnel Program
C. Public Relations
D. Executive Leadership
• For minimum security institution, the purpose of fencing the surrounding is:
A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the institution.
B. It is designed to prevent escapes.
C. It is designed for agricultural purposes
D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the surrounding.
• It is the primary objective of custodial and security division?
A. To prevent riots
B. To implement discipline
C. To prevent escapes
D. To help in the reformation of prisoners
• 230. When the death penalty was still enforced by means of lethal injection, four guards keep a death watch, the
convict is confined in an individual cell ___ hours prior to the scheduled time of execution which is usually 3:00 in
the afternoon.
A. 6
B. 24
C. 12
D. 36
• What is the population of a type A Jail?
A. More than 100
B. 20 or less
C. 21 to 99
D. 101 to 150
• This theory assumes that people are law abiding but under great pressure they will resort to crime and that
disparity between goals and means provides that pressure.
A. Differential Association Theory
B. Psychoanalytic Theory
D. Strain Theory
• This is also known as “Youth Camps” and is being maintained by Bucor where youth offenders may serve their
sentence in lieu of confinement in a prison.
A. AFP Stockade
B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps
C. Social Camps
D. A or C
• It was established in 1910 under the American Regime.
A. Philippine Prison System
B. Provincial Jail System
C. Probation
D. Parole
• The following are the requisite of a valid Commitment Order EXCEPT:
A. Signature of the Judge
B. Seal of the Court
C. Valid Identification of Prisoner
D. Signature of the Clerk
• A prisoner having the natural inclination or tendency to evade custody against the will of the custodian or from
the place where he is held in lawful custody or confinement.
A. Escape Prone Prisoner
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner
D. Alien Prisoner
• Where a person commits FELONY before beginning to serve or while serving his sentence on a previous
conviction
A. Quasi-recidivism
B. Reiteration
C. Habitual Delinquency
D. Recidivism
• If a prisoner who is serving sentence is found in possession of dangerous drugs can be considered a quasi-
recidivist?
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while serving his sentence
B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in prison
C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony
D. A and B
• What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction from the official records?
A. Mitigation
B. Expungement
C. Exoneration
D. Restriction
• Who advocated the principle that the basis of all social actions must be the utilitarian conception of the greatest
happiness for the greatest number?
A. John Howard
B. Jeremy Bentham
C. Cesare Becaria
D. George Void
• Prison work assignments are usually given to prisoners.
A. After recreational activities
B. At early morning hours
C. Before sleeping hours
D. During middle hours of the day
• Forced is used only by correctional to,
A. Exact respect
B. Enforce discipline
C. Show physical strength and power
D. Perform assignments
• One of the effects of social stigma maintained by an unforgiving society against criminals is ____.
A. Worked out good relationship with the community
B. Respond to a rehabilitation program
C. Difficulties in securing employment
D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner
• With respect to the UN Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners, which of the following should
NOT be done to the prisoners?
A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from convicted prisoners.
B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult prisoners.
C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away from male prisoners.
D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children stay with her.
• Which of the following unusual offender should be under the close supervision of the jail physician?
1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick
2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
• Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command in BJMP?
A. Deputy for Administration
B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command)
C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command)
D. Any of these
• All original appointments of officers in the jail bureau shall commence with the rank of ___
A. JO1
B. Jail Inspector
C. JO11
D. Jail Senior Inspector
• What is the minimum tank required to be appointed as Chief Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
A. Superintendent
B. C/Superintendent
C. Senior Superintendent
D. Director
• It is a means correcting an offender by placing him to an institution where he can be treated well until he
becomes fully recovered and accepted by the community.
A. Institutional Corrections
B. Non Institutional Correction
C. BJMP
D. Parole
• This is the basic needs of a convicted person under custody.
a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes
b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks
A. a,b,c,d
B. a,c,d,e
C. c,d,e,f
D. a,b,d,f
• It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s conviction is final and executory and has already served the
minimum period of the sentence imposed to him.
A. Parole
B. Word of Hohor
B. Parole d’ Honeur
D.Probare
• He is the Governor/Superintendent in Norfolk Island, a penal colony in the East of Australia and initiated the
famous “Mark System”.
A. Alexander Macanochie
B. Edward Savage
C. Walter Crofton
D. Edward Savage
• Ex-officio Chairperson of board of Pardons and Parole.
A. Administrator
B. Sec. of DOJ
C. Sociologist
D. Clergyman
• It is known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law that creates the board of Indeterminate Sentence which took
effect on December 5, 1933.
A. EO 83 S. 1937
B. EO 94
C. Act 4103
D. EO 292
• All except one are the requisites to be eligible for review of a Parole cases.
A. Final conviction
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr
C. served the minimum period of said sentence
D. None of the above
• All except one are objectives of the Parole System.
A. It standardize the penalty
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of liberty
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and economic usefulness
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and
protecting social order
• Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward the document to the board, ____ before the expiration of
prisoner’s minimum sentence.
A. 15 days
B. 45 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
• The board shall assess and determine whether the petitioner is qualified for Parole, the decision or action must
be suspended by ____ of the members of the board.
A. 4 votes
B. Majority
C. 5 members of the Board
D. at least four (4) votes
• If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a ____ or specifically known as discharge on parole.
A. Release Document
B. Final Release & Discharge
C. Discharge on Parole
D. Summary Report
• One of the mandatory conditions attached to the parolee is to report at least once a month for those residing
outside Metro Manila/to report at least twice a month for those who are residing in Metro Manila.
A. True
B. Partially True
C. False
D. Partially False
• The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if parolee commits any violation of the terms and conditions stated
in the release document.
A. Violation Report
B. Progress Report
C. Infraction Report
D. Summary Report
• Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD may issue an ____ against the parolee.
A. Warrant of Arrest
B. Search Warrant
C. Order of Arrest
D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)
• What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee?
A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
C. Minimum sentence impose
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
• As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer residence stated in the release document except if the petition for
transfer of residence is approved by ____.
A. Regional Director
B. Probation & Parole Officer
C. BOARD
D. Administration
• A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize outside travel his area of jurisdiction for a period of NOT
more than ___.
A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 10 days
• If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be approved by the ____.
B. Probation & Parole Officer
C. BOARD
D. Administration
• A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has NO pending criminal case in any court. Application for travel and
work abroad shall be approved by the Administration and confirmed by the ____.
C. BOARD
B. Probation and Parole Officer
D. Administration
• Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants it as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This is
statement is:
A. Partially true
C. True
B. Partially false
D. False
• The following are disqualifications for Parole to be granted.
a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence;
b. those who have pending criminal case;
c. habitual delinquencies;
d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
e. conviction is on appeal
A. a,b,c, and e
B. a,b,c, and d
C. b,c,d, and e
D. a,b,c,d, and e
It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of the President for the objective of preventing miscarriage of
Justice or correcting manifests injustice.
A. Parole
B. Pardon
C. Executive
D. Reprieve
Who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in his exercise of the power to grant executive clemency?
A. DOJ
B. BOARD
C. Administration
D. Administrator
Kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an individual within certain limits or conditions from the punishment that
the law inflicts for the offense he has committed resulting from the partial extinction of his criminal liability.
A. Absolute Pardon
B. Reprieve
C. Commutation of Sentence
D. Conditional Pardon
Pardon by the President shall be extended ____.
A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action
B. After Conviction of Final Judgment
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information
D. Upon the discretion of the President
A pardon violator upon conviction will be liable for imprisonment of “prision correctional”.
A. Article 95 of RPC
B. Article 59 of RPC
C. Article 159 of RPC
D. A and C
On Executive Clemency petition filed by prisoner should be addressed to ____.
A. Board
B. Administrator
C. Chairman of BPP
D. President
Who shall endorse to the Board the petition for absolute or conditional pardon if the crime committed is against the
national security?
A. DFA Secretary
B. COMELEC
C. DOJ Secretary
D. DND Secretary
Any wilful or malicious concealing material information made by the client either or after the grant of Conditional
Pardon or Parole is a ground for the BOARD to –
A. Extend the period of Supervision
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of Conditional Pardon
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good behavior has shown by the client
All except one are the instances wherein supervision of parole and conditional pardon case deemed to archive/close.
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board against the client
B. Certificate of transfer of resident
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and discharge of the client
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the deceased client
The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to the following, EXCEPT:
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election law may be granted without
favourable recommendation of the Commission of Elections
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. Pardon is administered by the Court
Pardon can be extended to any of the cases, EXCEPT:
A. Carnapping
B. Impeachment
B. Estafa
D. Parricide
Father of Philippine Probation.
A. John Augustus
B. Edward Savage
C. Matthew Davenport Hill
D. Teodulo Natividad
First juvenile court established in 1899
A. Chicago
B. Massachusetts
C. England
D. Philippines
Federal Probation act signed by President Calvin Coolidge became a Law on _____.
A. April 26, 1878
B. 1899
C. 1887
D. March 4, 1925
Probation in Philippines was first introduced by virtue of ___ also known as Philippine Probation Act of 1935
A. HB 393
B. PD 968
C. Act 4221
D. RA 4221
Celebrated case which paved the way for declaring unconstitutional of the first probation law of November 16, 1937
A. People vs. Vera
B. People vs. De Vera
C. People vs. De Vega
D. People vs. Vega
How long is the period of probation of a defendant sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one (1)
year?
A. Not to exceed 6 years
B. Not to exceed 8 years
C. Not to exceed 10 years
D. Not to exceed 2 years
The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to the following, EXCEPT:
A. Pardon is administered by the court
B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election law may granted without
favourable recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
What court will you apply for Probation?
A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below
C. Same court, where you had been convicted
D. Any of these
Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for probation, the offender applying for probation –
A. Must stay in prison as a detainee
B. Maybe set free without bail
C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance
D. all of these
When will the court deny application for probation of a petitioner?
A. Petitioner is a foreigner
B. Petitioner is a drug dependent
C. Petitioner violates the condition
D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve a penalty of Prision Correctional. Is he qualified to apply for probation?
A. Yes
B. True
C. No
D. False
Violations of the following Special Laws shall disqualify an offender to avail of the benefits of PD 968.
A. Omnibus Election Code
B. Robbery
C. Wage Rationalization Act
D. Videogram Law
As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is disqualify to apply for Probation,
EXCEPT:
A. Section 12
B. Section 14
C. Section 13
D. Section 17
E. Section 70
This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner’s application for probation if an appeal is perfected.
A. PD 1357
B. BP 76
C. PD 968
D.PD 1257
He is a convicted defendant whose application for probation has been given due course by the court but fails to report
to the probation officer or cannot be located within a reasonable period of time.
A. Absconding Petitioner
B. Absconding Probationer
C. Disobedient Petitioner
D. Uncooperative Petitioner
Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
A. After the submission of the PSIR
B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. When his probation is approved
When shall probation order take effect?
A. Three days after issuance
B. Three days prior to issuance
C. Upon its issuance
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer
Which of the following cases is disqualified to apply for probation?
A. Infanticide
C. Simple Theft
B. Malicious Mischief
D.Unjust Vexation
Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
A. DILG Secretary
B. President
C. DOJ Secretary
D. Administrator
How many days are given to the court to act on application for probation?
A. 15 days
B. 60 days
C. 10 days
D. 5 days
Probationer and his Probation Officer will prepare a _____.
A. Associate Plan
B. Supervision & Treatment Plan
C. Treatment Program
D. Orientation Plan
One of the mandatory conditions to a probationer is to present himself to the probation officer designated to
undertake his supervision within ___ from receipt of said order.
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 150 hours
When shall probation order take effect?
A. Three days after issuance
B. Upon its issuance
C. Three Days Prior to Issuance
D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer
Modifications of conditions for probation is allowed ___.
A. 15 days after granting it
B. At any time during supervision
C. Upon the application of the community
D. Any of these
If the Probationer did not comply with the conditions, if the reasons for non-compliance is not meritorious the court will
issue a ____.
A. termination order
B. Warrant of Arrest
C. OAR
D. Revocation Order
What is the effect of the recommitment of a Probationer?
A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
C. Minimum sentence impose
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the maximum number of minor violations that would result
in the revocation of the probation order?
A. 5 Violations
B. 3 Violations
C. 4 Violations
D. 2 Violations
Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a probation aide
A. 3
B. 7
C. 5
D. 9
Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
A. After submission of the PSIR
B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. When the probation is approved
Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Probation Law?
A. Criminal
B. Society
C. Family
D. Governor
It refers to those that handle the investigation of petitioners for probation, and the supervision of probationers,
parolees and conditional pardonees.
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Department of Justice
Post Sentence Investigation report must be submitted by the probation officer to the court within
A. 20 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
Those that have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison
Maximum term of office for those appointed as members of the Board of Pardon and Parole.
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 6 years
When will you close a probation case?
A. When the probationer absconds the place
B. When he incurred violations
C. When there is recommendation for revocation
D. When the termination order is approved
Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among the citizen’s of ____
A. Good religious background
B. High Educational Level
C. Good Repute and Probity
D. High Social Standing
It refers to the manner or practice of managing or controlling places of confinement as in jails or prisons.
A. Penology
B. Penal Management
C. Correctional Administration
D. Correction
It refers to a long, low narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails, usually rowed by criminals. A. type of ship
used for transportation of criminals in the 16th century.
Gaols
Galleys
Hulks
D. Mamertine Prison
Represented the earliest codification of Roman Law incorporated into the Justinian Code. It is also collection of legal
principles engraved on metal tablets and set up on .
Twelve Tablets
Burgundian Code
Hammurabic Code
Greek code of Draco
The most popular workhouse in London which was built for the employment and housing of English prisoners.
A. Bridewell
B. Hospicio de San Michelle
C. Saint Bridget” Well
D. Walnut Street Jail
Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
A. DILG Secretary
C. President
B. DOJ Secretary
D. Administrator
It is the branch of criminology which deals with the management and administration of inmates:
Criminal justice
Penology
Victimology
d. Jail Management
Any article, thing, or item prohibited by law/ or forbidden by jail rules is called:
Instrument of restraint
contraband
Handcuff
leg iron
It shall exercise supervision and control over all district, city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and
sanitary and adequately equipped jail for the custody and safekeeping of city, municipal prisoners, any fugitive from
justice or persons detained awaiting for investigation or trial and/or transfer to the National Penitentiary:
Bureau of Corrections b. Dep’t of
Social Welfare and Development
Jail Bureau
Department of Justice
Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day or as often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly
accounted for:
Two
Four
Three
d. Five
The head of prison may establish _______ whenever the frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that
warrants limitations:
Media group
news team
c.Press pool
d. public affairs
An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in CIW may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not
exceeding:
1 month
1 year
6 months
6 years
BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for Administration and Rehabilitation and one for:
Health and Care services
Prisons and Security
Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security
A representative of the news media may file a written request with the head of prison for a personal interview of an
inmate that he/she shall file a written request at least:
One day
two days
Three days
four days
This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert inmates and be affiliated into their religion:
Conversions
agitation
Proselytizing
Captivation
Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by a confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months
depending upon the gravity of the offense committed:
One to two
one to three
One to four
one to five
During the 11th and successive years of following years of prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a
deduction of __ days for each month of good behaviour:
Five
eight
Ten
fifteen
During the following years until the 10th year, inclusive, of inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction
of:
Five
eight
Ten
fifteen
During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he shall be allowed a deduction of:
Five days
ten days
Seven days
twelve days
GCTA means:
Good conduct turning allowance
. good conduct time allowance
Good conduct training allotment
d. none of the foregoing
It is a form of bails that the court may release a person in custody of a responsible person.
Property bond
Recognizance
Corporate surety
Cash deposit
Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
a. Department of Justice
b. Chief Executive
c. Judiciary
d. Legislative
338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence
and extinguish criminal liability.
a. Parole
c. Pardon
b. Executive clemency
The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
a. DILG c. BUCor
b. PNP
d. DOJ
It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
a. Amnesty
c. Reprieve
b. Commutation
d. none of the foregoing
The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment.
a. Retribution
b. Punishment
c. Deterrence
d. Rehabilitation
The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
a. Reprieve
c. Amnesty
b. Pardon
d. Communication
Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused before a court or competent authority and is temporarily
confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, trial or final judgment.
Prisoner
Bail
Detainee
Arrest
Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
Parents
Offended Spouse
Guardians
Godfather
He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation
Matthew Davenport Hill
John Augustus
Father Cook
d. Edward Savage
Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the concurrence of congress?
a. probation
b. Amnesty
c. pardon
d. Parole
Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the probation officer to the court within
a. 20 days
c. 60 days
b. 30 days
Parole is a matter of ___.
a. privilege
b. right
c. grace
d. requirement
For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
a. punishment
b. treatment
c. enjoyment
d. incarceration
PPA is headed by:
Director
Administrator
Secretary
Superior
Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor.
Remission
Forfeiture
Fine
All of the above
Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and
regulations
President
Director of Prisons
Warden
None of the above
A person who is placed under probation.
Petitioner
Probationer
Probationee
None of the above
It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition.
Special pardon
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
General pardon
Which is not a form of bail?
Cash deposit
Corporate surety
Recognizance
Title bond
An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement
of the passing away of calamity shall be granted
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
b. 1/2 reduction of sentence
c. 2/5 reduction of sentence
d. 2/6 reduction of sentence
He is considered as the father of probation in the Philippines.
Ferdinand Marcos
Teodulo Natividad
Fidel Ramos
Antonio Torres
The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
a. Commutation
b. Reform model
c. Amnesty
d. Pardon
An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, that
is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years
a. BJMP
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Provincial Government
d. Parole and Probation Administration
Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of what government agency
Parole and Probation Administration
Board of Pardons and Parole
Probation and Parole Administration
Board of Parole and Pardons
It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006.
R.A. 7610
P.D. 603
R.A. 9262
R.A. 9344
The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:
a. Director
b. Secretary of the dnd
c. Chief of executive
d. Prison inspector
A term means a friend of a court
Amicos curae
Amigos curae
Amicus curiae
None of the above
The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or shemay not commit another crime in the future.
a. Retribution
b. Deterrence
c. Incapacitation
d. Rehabilitation
He is considered as the father of Probation in England.

Matthew Davenport Hill
Father Cook
John Augustus
Edward Savage
An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of
offenders who are likely to respond to individualized community based treatment programs.
a. BJMP
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Provincial Government
d. Parole and Probation Administration
Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual for an ordinary crime.
General pardon
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
Special pardon
Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of money as the consequence of violating the provisions of
some statute or refusal to comply with some requirement of law.
Remission
Forfeiture
Fine
All of the above
The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to the following, except:
a. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment.
b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation of any election law may be granted without
favorable recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
d. Pardon is administered by the court
It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.
a. Recidivism
b. Delinquency
c. Quasi-recidivism
d. City prisoner
It refers to leniency or mercy.
Power
Clemency
Grace
Damages
A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a certain category.
Special pardon
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
General pardon
During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of an inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for
each month for displaying good behavior?
10 days
15 days
8 days
5 days
The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual from the punishment
which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the Presidentthru the recommendation of the Board of
Parole and Pardon is called:
Amnesty
Parole
Probation
Pardon
It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty.
Reprieve
Amnesty
Probation
Commutation
Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his
prison sentences.
Parole
Pardon
Probation
None of the above
The who investigates for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both
a. police officer
b. probationer officer
c. intelligence officer
d. law enforcer
When does probation revocable before the final discharge of the probationer by the court for the violation of any of
the conditions of probation.
a. any time during probation
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer
c. after 1 year under probation
It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has been subsequently convicted of another crime;
a. progress report
b. violation report
c. infraction report
d. arrest report
The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT one:
a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence
b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty, reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
c. those who are habitual delinquents
During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment of an inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days
for each month for displaying good behavior?
10 days
15 days
8 days
5 days
It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment for a time after conviction and sentence.
Reprieve
Amnesty
Probation
Commutation
Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.

a. Administrator
b. Warden
c. Director
d. Commander
Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?

a. President
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Director of Prison
d. Court
The Bureau of Corrections is under the:

a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. Department of Justice
c. Department of the Interior and Local Government
d. Department of Health
It is the redress that the state takes against an offending member of society that usually involves pain and suffering:
incarceration
floggings
ordeal
punishment
This code introduced the concept of restitution. But punishments were meted according to the social class of the
offender:
Justinian code
The Greeks
Burgundian code
Code of Hammurabi
According to this ancient law that was practice in the areas of Babylon, The killer is answerable not to the family but
to the king:
Code of Hammurabi
Roman twelve tables
Pharaoh’s law
Burgundian code
This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the detection and punishment of unbelievers and heresy:
Inquisition
Lateran council
Ecclesiastical court
Tortio millenio adviniente
borne out of the need to maintain the health of prisoners so that their profitability can be maximized not out of
humanitarian reasons as the government and the merchants want to make it appear:
UN convention for profitability of prisoners
US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners
UN convention for treatment of prisoners
US convention for treatment of prisoners
In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal lords instituted official methods by which God could indicate
who was innocent and who was guilty. One such method was called:
Trial by fighting
Trial by ordeal
Trial by combat
Dei indicum
Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this was tied to the crime committed:
Banishment
Death
Torture
Mutilation
Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the
latter to undergo institutional treatment program:
Solitary confinement
Punishment
Floggings
Imprisonment
It is conditional release after the prisoner has served part of his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re-
introducing them to free life:
Probation
Parole
Pardon
Executive clemency
This school argues that since children and lunatic cannot calculate pleasure and pain they should not be prepared as
criminals and as such that they should not be punished:
Classical school
Neo classical school
Positivist school
Hedonism
This approached of penology assessed at the time of French Revolution:
Classical school
Positivist school
Hedonism
According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man who needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so that
his illness which has something to do with the commission of crime may be cured”:
Corrections
Penology
Classical
Positivist
This school views as crime as social phenomenon:
Classical school
Positivist school
Sociology
It is the study and practice of a systematic management in jails or prisons and other institutions concerned with the
custody, treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders:
Penology
Corrections
Correctional administration
Penal management
a Latin word which means pain or suffering:
Penology
Poena
Peona
All of the abovementioned
It is the field of criminal justice administration which utilizes the body of knowledge and practices of the government
and the society in handling individuals who have been convicted of an offense:
Penology
Corrections
Criminal justice
All of the above
The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code:
Code of drakon
Code of Hammurabi
Justinian code
Burgundian code
existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years before Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient
Sumeria:
king Ur Nammu
king Herodes
Emperor Justin
None of the above
Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder, assaults on noble or middle class women, sexual relations with
noble or middle class women and giving aid or comfort to escape offender:
Burgundian code
Drakonian code
Law of Talion
The Greeks
This people love to philosophize that their brand of justice was not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that justice
should reform the offender but must also serve as deterrence to others from committing offense:
The Romans
The Greeks
The Jews
The Americans
Today, the stand of the Church has become a complete reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope John Paul
II who reversed this so called:
Eclessiastical court
Inquisition
Ordeal
Culture of death
punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also practice of the Israelites in Jesus time:
stoning to death
breaking on a wheel
burning alive
trial by ordeal
the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a board made of wood and then had their bones systematically
broken:
stoning to death
breaking on a wheel
burning alive
trial by ordeal
like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once practiced by Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has also been
known to resort to this form of punishment during the time of inquisition for non believers, witches and heretics:
stoning to death
breaking on a wheel
burning alive
trial by ordeal
The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land started to intensify in 17 th Century.
Absolutely true
Probably true
Absolutely false
Probably false
Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for release on the basis of individual response and progress within
the correctional institution and a service by which they are provided with necessary control of guidance as they
served the remainder of their sentence with in the free community:
Probation
Parole
Imprisonment
Reprieve
The indeterminate sentence law was approved on:
December 5, 1933
December 25, 1933
December 5, 1955
December 25, 1955
The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT:
Granted by the court
He was once on Probation
Must not have committed any crime against national security
Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment
The following are the unanticipated consequence of punishment; EXCEPT:
It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing crime during night time
Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the law)
Punishment elevates the criminal
Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals
It assumes that every individual has free will and knows the penal laws:
Classical school
Neo classical
Positivist
This school focuses on crimes and on the corresponding punishment attached to it:
Classical school
Neo classical
Positivist
This school maintains that criminals must be rehabilitated to institutions provided by the government and should not
be punished contrary to other schools ideology:
Classical school
Neo classical
Positivist
BJMP stands for:
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
The government
The jail bureau
None of the abovementioned
STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are administered and controlled by the Provincial Government (Governor).
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the supervision of the Department of the Interior and Local
Government.
Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true
Both statement is true
Both statement is false
The following institutions are controlled and supervised by our government EXCEPT:
New Bilibid Prisons
Manila City Jail
Iwahig Penal Colony
Elmira Reformatory
The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an AFP stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum
security risk and is __ years of old who can no longer perform manual work:
More than 60
more than 50
More than 70
more than 80
As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased
relative is in a place within a radius of ___ kilometres by road from prison:
10
30
20
d. 40
An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from mandatory labor:
a. 50
b. 60
c. 55
d. 65
The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
Tangerine
Blue
Brown
Yellow
The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform:
Tangerine
Blue
Brown
Yellow
The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
Tangerine
Blue
Brown
Yellow
The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or custody by an inmate:

Detention
emancipation
Release of prisoner
escape
The following are considered instruments of restraint; EXCEPT:
Leg irons
whipping rod
Straight jacket
handcuffs
Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders:
100 or more
21- 99
150 or more
20 or less
Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders:
21 – 99
120
20 or less
150
Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders:
21 – 99
120
20 or less
150
This correctional facility introduced individuals housing in cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during the day:
Elmira reformatory
Borstal institution
Auburn prison system
Pennsylvania prison system
His progressive move was noted when the convicts after good behavior were given marks and after accumulating the
required number, a ticket to leave was issued to deserving convicts:
Sir Walter Crofton
Alexander Macanochie
Zebulon Brockway
Manuel Montesinos
opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to remodel its philosophy away from punitive and retributive practices
and veered towards reformation and treatment educational and vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a way to
treat his lack of life skills to survive according to the rules of the outside society:
Elmira reformatory
Sing-sing prisons
Alcatraz
Walnut street jail
This is considered as the “institution of silent system” due to the imposition of strict code of silence:
Auburn
Pennsylvania
Walnut street
Irish prisons
He established an agricultural colony for male youth:
Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
Sir Walter Crofton
Manuel Montesinos
Domer of france
assigned as superintendent of the English Penal Colony located at Norfolk Island in Australia:
Domer of France
8Sir Walter Crofton
Zebulon Brockway
He introduced the progressive stage system. It was also referred to as the Irish System:
Evelyn Ruggles Brise
Manuel Montesinos
Sir Walter Crofton
He was the superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory in New York. He introduced a system of grades for prisoners:
Zebulon Brockway
Manuel Montesinos
Domer of France
The progressive development of the prison system came to the middle of the __ century:
18th
19th
20th
21st
This law brought about extensive reforms in the prison and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be built in
the yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement with labor for ``hardened atrocious offenders’’:
ACT of 1890
ACT of 1790
ACT of 1690
ACT of 1590
The new prison had the traditional lay out of large rooms for the inmates:
Auburn Prison
Pennsylvania
Walnut Street
Irish Prisons
On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is founded:
1875
1876
1877
1888
He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain which organized prisoners into companies and appointed petty
officer in charge:
Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
Manuel Montesinos
Alexander Maconochie
Sir Walter Crofton
This state prison contained cells in the pits similar to the underground cistern of long ago rome:
St Michael System
Sing-Sing prisons
Maine State prisons
Wal nut street
An agricultural colony for male juveniles was established by Domer of France. The boys were confined in cottages
with an appointed ___ to supervise them:
Penal guards
Immediate supervisors
House fathers
Big brothers
Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to lessen their period of imprisonment should be confined in a singular
cell (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___ months with a reduce diet:
6 months
7 months
8 months
9 months
This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an equivalent to a modern day parole:
Progressive stage system
Spanish system
Criminal justice system
None of the foregoing
It features consisted solitary confinement of prisoners in their own cell day and night:
Auburn system
Pennsylvania system
St Michael System
Irish system
He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as the father of prison reform in the United States of America:
Zebulon Reed Brockway
Sir Walter Crofton
Domer of France
It is considered the best reform institution for young offenders:
Borstal Institution
St. Michael Institution
Auburn System
Pennsylvania
This is the discipline being implemented in Louisiana state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every inmate is
responsible for the actuations of all the others:
a. Rough Rider Industries
b. I am my Brother’s keeper
c. Conditional setting
d. collective responsibility
Sweden, a convict may undergo probation with community service and render service to the community for ___ to
____ hours depending on the seriousness of the crime committed:
a. 50 – 250
b. 40- 280
c. 40 – 240
d. 50 – 260
3403. what type of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness who is unwilling to testify?
A. Intelligent
B. Misleading
C. Unresponsive
D. Leading
Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its
A. Retribution
B. Restoration
C. The Executive
D. The Quasi-Judiciary
The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to court within___________?
A. 10-days period
B. 30-days period
C. 15-days period
D. 60-days period
To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for disposition,documentation and appropriate order?
A. Bureau of Corrections
B. Bureau of Immigration and
Deportation
C. Board of Pardons and Parole
D. National Bureau of Investigation
A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT:
A. The offended party
B. other public officers
C. any peace officer
D. Offender
The President grants absolute/conditional pardon based on the recommendation of
A. Bureau of Corrections
B. Office of the Executive Secretary
C. Board of Pardon and Parole
D. Parole and Probation Administration
A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration is referred to as

Determinate sentence
Capital punishment
Corporal punishment
Indeterminate sentence
Which of the following executive clemency needs the concurrence of the congress?
a.Pardon
Amnesty
Probation
Parole
It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted person should serve part of his sentence?
a.Pardon
b.Parole
c.Probation
d.Amnesty
How many days before election does inmate are prohibited from going out?
A. 30 days
B. 90 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 120 Days
Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has never been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor. If you
were the prison director, how many days for each month would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time
allowance?
A. 5 days
B. 8 days
C. 10 days
D. 12 days
The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to court within___________?
A. 10-days period
B. 30-days period
C. 15-days period
D. 60-days period
Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
A. 55 days
B. 5 days
C. 60 days
D. 15 days
In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the end of
which time he has compelled to leave the realm by a road or path assigned to him.
A. 30 days
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 60 days
Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?
A sick prisoner, certified as such by government physician
A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his probation conditions
The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate, EXCEPT:
Rendering service to fellow inmate
Failing to stand at attention and give due respect when confronted by or reporting to any officer or
member of the custodial force
Willful waste of food
Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings
What documents are attached to the Release Document of the parolee?
Prison record
Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
Location of the Prison or Confinement
Order of Court
4 and 1
1 and 2
3 and 4
2 and 3
An advantageous result in the integration of correctional agencies is:
More physical facilities to maintain
More prisoners to supervise
Divided resources such as manpower and finances
Better coordination of services and increased cost-efficiency
A petition for the grant of absolute or conditional pardon shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the _______ if
the crime committed by the petitioner is against national security.
Secretary of Foreign Affairs
Secretary of Justice
Secretary of National Defense
Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum penalty for the offense he may be found guilty of is
destierro
If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
prision correccional
If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
reclusion perpetua
If he has been in jail for a period equal to or more than the possible maximum term of punishment of the
offense he may be found guilty of
Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and one (1) day
Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and one (1) day
Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
There are four (4) acknowledged goals of _____________ as follows: retribution, deterrence, incapacitation and
rehabilitation.
Criminal intent
Criminal mind
Criminal sanction
Criminal action
The system of key control in a jail includes:
An updated system of monitoring and control of keys
A documented inventory of security personnel
A collection of all padlocks and keys
An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them
To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for disposition, documentation and appropriate order?
Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
Bureau of Corrections
National Bureau of Investigation
The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court within _____________.

10-day period
30-day period
15-day period
60-day period
The President grants absolute/conditional pardon based on the recommendation of:

Board of Pardon and Parole
Office of the Executive Secretary
Which of the following are classified as detainees?
Accused person who is confined in jail while undergoing investigation
Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting of undergoing trial
Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting final judgment
Accused person who is confined in jail and already convicted to serve a prison term
3, 4 and 1
2, 3 and 4
4, 1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
Why is probation service analogous to parole service?

Both have similar investigation and supervision functions.
Both services are performed by the prosecutors.
Both services are performed by alcoholics.
Both services are under the courts.
The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
However, control over the probationer and probation program is exercised by:
The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides
The Parole and Probation Administrator
The Secretary of Justice
The Court who placed him on probation
Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum
imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with?
Batas Pambansa 95
Batas Pambansa 85
Batas Pambansa 105
Batas Pambansa 965
What is the primary purpose of the presentence investigation?
To help the judge in selecting the appropriate sentence of the offender
To exonerate the offender
To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself
To assist the judge in dismissing the case
According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result when an individual’s bond to ________________ is
weak and broken.
Behavior
Police
Law
Society
A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to serve his sentence by the court if he
Becomes unruly and undisciplined
Commits another offense
He is 21 years old
Violates any of the conditions of his probation
JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white crystalline substance rolled in a transparent sachet and she suspected it to be
“shabu”. What should he do first?
Record the incident in the logbook
Bring the substance to NBI
Properly identify the substance
Properly preserve the evidence
All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be treated _________________.
Comprehensively
Appropriately
Confidentially
Judiciously
Is the court order revoking the grant of probation appealable?

Definitely yes, it is appealable
Definitely no, it is not appealable
It depends on the outcome of the investigation
It depends on the violations committed
Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its
Retribution
Restoration
Rehabilitation
Deterrence
What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of a prison sentence?
Commutation of sentence
Parole
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
There are various types of prison programs. For what purpose is a rehabilitative program?
It secures prisoners from escape or violence
It employs prisoners in various products or good-producing tasks
It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills or educational achievement
It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like laundry and janitorial
There are two (2) inmates arguing over loss of some items in their cell. You are the guard on duty. What will you do?
Invite both of them to the office and investigate the matter
Poke your gun at both of them to stop the heated discussion
Confine the culprit in a segregated room
Look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit
Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is ordered by the Court to pay certain amounts to the victim as part of his civil
liability. To whom shall he pay the amount for remittance of the victim?
Municipal treasurer
Cashier of the trial court
Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
Cashier of the Probation Office
The ______________ model of correctional institution focuses in security, discipline and order:
Rehabilitative
Reintegration
Medical
Custodial
Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the
police. What are these studies called?
Population surveys
Police surveys
Victimization surveys
Information surveys
Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more care than other inmates. Which of the following
should NOT be done by a jail officer?
Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly
Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed diet
Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate
What is the classification of the prisoner’s offense of possession of lewd or pornographic literature and/or
photographs?
Minor offense
Less grave offense
Victimless offense
Grave offense
Juveniles are not capable of committing deviant acts, and what are considered deviant acts are deviant only by
mainstream standards, not by the offender’s standards. This assumption is advanced by the ________________
theory.
Social
Juvenile
Cultural deviance
Choice
If people fear being apprehended and punished, they will not risk breaking the law. This view is being held by the
__________ theory.
Displacement
General deterrence
Discouragement
Incapacitation
One of the following is NOT a gauge in determining the age of the child and that is:
Baptismal certificate
Birth certificate
Looks
Warts
What do you call the monitoring and support of juveniles who have been released from custody or supervision by the
juvenile court.
After care
Welfare
Duty
Concern
The scientific approach to the study of criminal behavior is ____________________.

Research
Survey
Criminology
Study
To be eligible for the grant of conditional pardon, what portion of the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-
prisoner?
At least one half of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
At least one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
At least one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
At least one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
Who among the following can apply for release under the Law on Release on Recognizance?
One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is three (3) years and above
One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is twelve (12) months and above
One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is not more than six (6) months
One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is six (6) months and above
Which of the following is NOT an objective in the conduct of interview of probation applicant?
To diagnose the applicant’s problems
To determine how the person shall respond to supervision
To gather information about the person
To determine his paying capacity
Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of probation in the United States?
Sir Walter Crofton
John Murray Spear
John Augustus
What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the Latin word “probatio” and had historical roots in the
practice of judicial reprieve?
Live with integrity
Testing period
Walk with faith
Out of the institution
Sociologists look at corrections as:
The intervention which documents the attitudinal response of offenders and staff to processes of
punishment
The medium through which prisoners change their behavior and attitudes
The consolidation of interactions between correctional officers and the prisoners
A total institution in which the basic physiological needs of prisoners were to be met away from the
outside world
What is the function responsibility of prison guards?

Inmates’ health
Prison security
Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
Prison industry
Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every
corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed guards:
Maximum security facility
Medium security facility
Super maximum security facility
Minimum security facility
Which of the following procedures should be observed in handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
They should be segregated especially during the withdrawal period
They should be closely supervised to prevent attempts to commit suicide or self-mutilation
They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a physician
They should be transferred to mental institution of proper psychiatric treatment
2, 3 and 4
3, 4 and 1
4, 1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
A prisoner who is aggressive, violent, quarrelsome and does not cooperate with other inmates is referred to as
Squealer
Sucker
Hustler
Tough
When does an applicant who was granted probation report to the assigned Probation Officer for Interview?
Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of probation order
Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of probation order
Within seventy-two (72) hours from his receipt of the probation order
Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of probation order
What agency issues the Certificate of Final Release and Discharge of a Parolee?
Pedro was arrested by the police for theft in the amount of P5,000.00. He was brought to the police station and an
administrative record of the arrest was prepared. He was fingerprinted, interrogated and placed in a line-up for
identification by witnesses. What process did he undergo?
Preliminary hearing
Booking
Trial
Indictment
The “Discharge on Parole” issued by the Board to the parolee, and also issued by the President of the Philippines to
a pardonee upon the Board’s recommendation.
Release document
Release folders
Release signatures
Release notes
What is called the body of unwritten guidelines which expresses the values, attitudes and types of behavior that older
inmates demand of younger ones?
Code of jail conduct
Rehabilitation guidelines
Code of silence
Inmate social code
Which of the following guidelines shall be followed when the parolee commits an infraction of the terms and
conditions appearing in his Release Documents?
His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon and Parole
Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders the arrest of the parolee
The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board finds that the continuation of his parole is incompatible with
public welfare
The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction
2, 3 and 4
4, 1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
3, 4 and 1
You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and sentences.
What shall you do?
Report the matter to the Jail Warden
Put back the letter inside the envelope and give it to the inmate
Study the letter carefully and analyze the contents to determine the real meaning of the names and
sentences
Xerox the letter before giving it to the addressee
The classical theory of criminology provides that the basis for criminal liability is ______________________
Individual’s thinking
Individual’s mental state
Human free will
Human facilities
He said the “crime must be considered an injury to society, and the only rational measure of crime is the extent of
injury.”
Jeremy Bentham
Cesare Beccaria
James Wilson
John Howard
What is the effect of the grant of probation?
The prisoner is sent to half-way house
The execution of sentence is suspended
The probationer is sent to prison
The prison term is doubled
To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that they can engage in producing goods?
Industrial
Operational
Agricultural
Administrative
In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall proceed to their assigned critical posts armed with
their issued firearms to:
Shoot at the escapees
Protect the other inmates
Plug off the escape routes
Give warning shots
When shall the prison record and carpeta of a petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the Board of Pardon
and Parole (BPP)?
Within three (3) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for prison record
and carpeta
At least one (1) month before the expiration of the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate sentence
Within five (5) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the BPP request for prison record and
carpeta
Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request made by the BPP for the prison
record and carpeta
Which of the following contributes to prison violence?

Prison industry
Inhuman prison conditions, including overcrowding and threats of homosexual rapes
Conjugal visits
Work furlough allowing inmates to go out and work
Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a released prisoner to lead a straight life?
Scientific advances have made modern living more pleasant
Police conduct close supervision on released prisoners
Lasting reformation must come from within and cannot be imposed
Many of his contacts and friends are underworld characters
Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
Saturate the area with riot gas
All inmates must be locked up inside their respective cell
Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
Which agency exercises supervision over parolees?
Bureau of Pardon and Parole
The judge approves or denies the grant of probation based on the report of the
Social worker
Probation officer
Prosecutor
Police office
What law grants probation to first time offenders who are sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years?
Presidential Decree No. 448
An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance is he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is:
Three (3) years and above
Not more than six (6) months
Twelve (12) months and above
Six (6) months and above
Which of the following is the prison administrator’s tool for controlling and stabilizing prison operation?
Leadership
Supervision
Activity
Recreation
Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called
_______________ for counseling and therapy.
Recreation Center
Congregate Group
Half-way House
Diagnostic Center
What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy Bentham?
Utilitarianism
Rehabilitation
Reformation
Conformance
Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision correccional.
Based on his penalty, is he qualified for probation?
Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day
No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
The approval of the application of probation is done by the Judge thru the issuance of
Probation Citation Ticket
Probation Order
Probation Certificate
Probation Clearance
According to this theory, social actions are repeated (or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in the
actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
Containment
Differential Association
Operant Conditioning
Differential Identification
This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
Strain theory
Differential association theory
Social learning theory
Psychoanalytic theory
Parole
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
It is a report on the background of the convict, prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial of
application of probation.
Probation Report
Post-Sentence Investigation Report
Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
Pre-Trial Report
By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside prison or jail known?
Gleaning
Hustling
Benting
Vending
There are various types of prison programs. What type of program that secures prisoner from escape or violence?
Maintenance
Rehabilitative
Industrial
Security
The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid Prison is called
Carpeta
Released Document
Commitment Order
Mittimus
The founder of the Classical School of Criminological Theory.
John Howard
Jeremy Bentham
Cesare Lombroso
Cesare Beccaria
If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants pardon?
President of the Philippines
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
What guarantees the appearance in court of a defendant granted release on recognizance?

His/her promise to live a new life
His/her fear of being sent back to prison
His/her ties with family, friends, employment, etc.
His/her capacity to raise bail
Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their minimum or maximum term for maintaining good behavior or
participating in various types of vocational, educational and treatment programs.
Good time
Credits
Days off
Vacation
Which of the following requirements shall qualify a prisoner for parole?
Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate sentence
Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a final judgment of conviction
Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the good conduct time allowance earned
Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
4, 1 and 2
2, 3 and 4
3, 4 and 1
1, 2 and 3
When an accused is released from imprisonment on his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon the
undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called:
Promise
Acknowledgment
Surety
Recognizance
According to the routine activities theory, the volume and distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the
following, EXCEPT:
Presence of motivated offenders
Absence of capable guardians
Availability of suitable targets
Absence of motivated offenders
A group that has a short history, limited size, and little define territory is a type of gang known as:
Status
Sporadic
Criminal
Collective
The correctional program which enables an individual to enhance his employability, develop his intellectual faculties,
and graduate to a free existence in community living all at the same time is referred to as _______________
Livelihood program
Guidance counseling
Education program
Religious program
What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
noncriminal ways to coping outside?
Psychotherapy
Behavior therapy
Occupational therapy
Milieu therapy
Prisoners should not be given corporal punishment nor confined in dark cells or sweat boxes as these are:
Somewhat prohibited
Relatively prohibited
Absolutely prohibited
Fairly prohibited
Which does not form part of the basic principles for riot control?
Preparation of a specific plan of action
Dissemination of plan to everyone
Rapid execution of plan
Firmness in executing the plan
Prison time is considered a dead time when minutes seem to crawl and the soul grows bitter. Which of the following
mitigate the oppressiveness of time?
Administrative program
Security programs
Rehabilitation programs
Custodial program
A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of three (3) years and one (1) day to death, is known as:
Provincial Prisoner
Insular Prisoner
City Prisoner
Municipal Prisoner
How is an offender released from prison or jail?

After service of sentence
Issuance of order of the court
Grant of parole
Grant of pardon
Grant of amnesty
Any lawful order of competent authority
1,3,4,5 and 6
1,2,3,4 and 5
All of those listed above
2,3,4,5, and 6
The institution during the Golden Age of Penology in 1870 to 1880 that used parole extensively.
Irish Prison System
Elmira Reformatory
Federal Bureau of Prisons
Irish Parole Organization
Strip search should be conducted:
In the presence of other inmates so that there are witnesses
At the warden’s office
At the admission office in the presence of other jail personnel
Private room where it will be out of the view of the others to avoid further embarrassment
Idea of probation first existed early in the 19th century in
Japan
U.S.A.
England
Ireland
You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and sentences.
What shall you do?
Report the matter to the Jail Warden
Put back the letter inside the envelope and give it to the inmate
Study the letter carefully and analyze the contents to determine the real meaning of the names and
sentences
Xerox the letter before giving it to the addressee
The classical theory of criminology provides that the basis for criminal liability is ______________________
Individual’s thinking
Individual’s mental state
Human free will
Human facilities
He said the “crime must be considered an injury to society, and the only rational measure of crime is the extent of
injury.”
Jeremy Bentham
Cesare Beccaria
James Wilson
John Howard
What is the effect of the grant of probation?
The prisoner is sent to half-way house
The execution of sentence is suspended
The probationer is sent to prison
The prison term is doubled
To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that they can engage in producing goods?
Industrial
Operational
Agricultural
Administrative
In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall proceed to their assigned critical posts armed with
their issued firearms to:
Shoot at the escapees
Protect the other inmates
Plug off the escape routes
Give warning shots
When shall the prison record and carpeta of a petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the Board of Pardon
and Parole (BPP)?
Within three (3) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for prison record
and carpeta
At least one (1) month before the expiration of the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate sentence
Within five (5) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the BPP request for prison record and
carpeta
Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request made by the BPP for the prison
record and carpeta
Which of the following contributes to prison violence?

Prison industry
Inhuman prison conditions, including overcrowding and threats of homosexual rapes
Conjugal visits
Work furlough allowing inmates to go out and work
Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a released prisoner to lead a straight life?
Scientific advances have made modern living more pleasant
Police conduct close supervision on released prisoners
Lasting reformation must come from within and cannot be imposed
Many of his contacts and friends are underworld characters
Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
Saturate the area with riot gas
All inmates must be locked up inside their respective cell
Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
Which agency exercises supervision over parolees?
Bureau of Pardon and Parole
The judge approves or denies the grant of probation based on the report of the
Social worker
Probation officer
Prosecutor
Police office
What law grants probation to first time offenders who are sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years?
An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance is he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is:
Three (3) years and above
Not more than six (6) months
Twelve (12) months and above
Six (6) months and above
Which of the following is the prison administrator’s tool for controlling and stabilizing prison operation?
Leadership
Supervision
Activity
Recreation
Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called
_______________ for counseling and therapy.
Recreation Center
Congregate Group
Half-way House
Diagnostic Center
What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy Bentham?
Utilitarianism
Rehabilitation
Reformation
Conformance
Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision correccional.
Based on his penalty, is he qualified for probation?
Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day
No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
The approval of the application of probation is done by the Judge thru the issuance of
Probation Citation Ticket
Probation Order
Probation Certificate
Probation Clearance
According to this theory, social actions are repeated (or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in the
actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
Containment
Differential Association
Operant Conditioning
Differential Identification
This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
Strain theory
Differential association theory
Social learning theory
Psychoanalytic theory
Parole
Absolute pardon
Conditional pardon
It is a report on the background of the convict, prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial of
application of probation.
Probation Report
Post-Sentence Investigation Report
Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
Pre-Trial Report
By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside prison or jail known?
Gleaning
Hustling
Benting
Vending
There are various types of prison programs. What type of program that secures prisoner from escape or violence?
Maintenance
Rehabilitative
Industrial
Security
The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid Prison is called
Carpeta
Released Document
Commitment Order
Mittimus
The founder of the Classical School of Criminological Theory.
John Howard
Jeremy Bentham
Cesare Lombroso
Cesare Beccaria
If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants pardon?

President of the Philippines
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
What guarantees the appearance in court of a defendant granted release on recognizance?

His/her promise to live a new life
His/her fear of being sent back to prison
His/her ties with family, friends, employment, etc.
His/her capacity to raise bail
Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their minimum or maximum term for maintaining good behavior or
participating in various types of vocational, educational and treatment programs.
Good time
Credits
Days off
Vacation
Which of the following requirements shall qualify a prisoner for parole?
Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate sentence
Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a final judgment of conviction
Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the good conduct time allowance earned
Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
4, 1 and 2
2, 3 and 4
3, 4 and 1
1, 2 and 3
When an accused is released from imprisonment on his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon the
undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called:
Promise
Acknowledgment
Surety
Recognizance
According to the routine activities theory, the volume and distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the
following, EXCEPT:
Presence of motivated offenders
Absence of capable guardians
Availability of suitable targets
Absence of motivated offenders
A group that has a short history, limited size, and little define territory is a type of gang known as:
Status
Sporadic
Criminal
Collective
The correctional program which enables an individual to enhance his employability, develop his intellectual faculties,
and graduate to a free existence in community living all at the same time is referred to as _______________
Livelihood program
Guidance counseling
Education program
Religious program
What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
noncriminal ways to coping outside?
Psychotherapy
Behavior therapy
Occupational therapy
Milieu therapy
Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances:
Rape
Murder
Impeachment
Brigandage
It was held as the 1st probation officer employed by the government:
John Augustus
Teodolo C Natividad
Edward N Savage
Mattew Davenport
Which of the following is a prerogative of the chief executive with concurrence of congress:
probation
amnesty
pardon
parole
What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
Compound crime
Complex crime
Blue collar crime
Victimless crime
An open institution usually a penal form or camp.
Maximum security institution
Minimum security institution
Medium security institution
None of these
They assist probation and parole office in the supervision of the probationers.
Volunteer workers
Volunteer probation officers
Volunteer community workers
Volunteer probation aides
It ensures a more careful selection of the institution in which the prisoner is to be confined.
Quarantine unit
Courts
RDC
Correction
The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as?
Pre-Sentence Investigation
None of these
supervision
affiliation guidance
The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison guard for every____number of inmates.
1:2
1:4
1:12
1:7
He was the first Superintendent of Elmira sentence reformatory.

John Augustus
John Howard
Zebulon Brockway
Teodulo Natividad
Reducing the degree of Death penalty inflected upon the council.

amnesty
commutation
pardon
commutation of sentence
NOTHING FOLLOWS

4K QNA COMPILATION Dio 1

Загружено:

Сведения о документе

Оригинальное название

Авторское право

Доступные форматы

Поделиться этим документом

Поделиться или встроить документ

Параметры публикации

Этот документ был вам полезен?

Это неприемлемый материал?

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

4K QNA COMPILATION Dio 1

Загружено:

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE

JOHN MICHAEL D. DIONISIO

Registered Criminologist, Master of Science in Criminal Justice

ILLEGAL DISTRIBUTION AND REPRODUCTION OF

• Bong is liable of what crime?

• What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit?

• What if Manuel killed Grace?

• For what crime Alden can be charged?

• Lola A is liable for a crime as?

• Alden is liable for a crime as?

• What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case?

• The damage was caused inadvertently

• Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?

• A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his probation conditions

• Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from criminal liability/

• The accused does not appear to be guilty.

• The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure, EXCEPT:

• Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

• The following persons are authorized to conduct preliminary investigation, EXCEPT:

• When bail is a discretionary?

• When reception of evidence is necessary under the following circumstances:

• Prescription of offense commences to run:

• When an appeal shall be taken?

• In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the ____?

• The modes of making an arrest are:

• The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:

• The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying release, EXCEPT:

• The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.

• The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a person in authority

• Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful utterances

• Falsification of public document

• The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality, EXCEPT:

• Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it

• Pro reo Principle

• Things which are wrongful in their nature.

• The following are the elements of frustrated felonious, EXCEPT:

• What crime was committed by A,B and C?

• The RPC shall be observed

• The Special Law shall be supplementary to the RPC

• The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT

He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. Determine his penalty.

• Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

• A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.

• The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:

• What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?

• The following statement are false, EXCEPT:

• The following are cases covered by rules on summary procedure EXCEPT:

• What are secondary evidence?

• Parol evidence Rule

• The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:

• The offender is a public officer or employee

• Disobedience to summons issued by the National Assembly

• The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of service of sentence.

• Through connivance with other convicts or employees of the penal institution.

• It means mistake in the blow.

• Proof beyond reasonable doubt

• Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.

• Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except:

• Who are criminally liable?

• A-2 in Intelligence report means?

• It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of temporary license.

• . It is the established rules and regulations in the operation of GSUs, EXCEPT:

a. Western Police District