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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

CONTENTS
S. No Topic Page No
1. About Territorial Army 1-3
2. Opportunity in Territorial Army 3
3. Territorial Army Notification 2019 For Men and Women 3
4. Exam Pattern and Syllabus of Territorial Army 4-5
5. Territorial Army examination July 2016 solved papers with full explanations 6-44
6. Territorial Army examination July 2017 solved papers with full explanations 44-85
REASONING AND ELLEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
PART – I : REASONING
Analogy- (Verbal Analogy, Alphabet Analogy)
1. Practice Question with Explanations 87-92
Exercise with Answer Key
Coding and Decoding – (letter Coding, Number Coding, Mixed Coding,
Mixed Number Coding, Decoding, Symbols Coding)
2. 93-98
Practice Question with Explanations
Exercise with Answer Key
Odd One Out
3. 99-102
Exercise with Answer Key
Blood Relationship-
4. 103-105
Exercise with Answer Key
Arranging in Order -
5. 106-108
Exercise with Answer Key
Clocks and Calenders- (Ordinary Year, Leap Year, Odd Days)
6. 109-110
Exercise with Answer Key
Number Problems
7. 111-112
Exercise with Answer Key
Syllogism
8. 113-116
Exercise with Answer Key
Personality Test
9. 117-120
Exercise with Answer Key
Spatial Arrangement
10. 121-125
Exercise with Answer Key
TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

S. No Topic Page No
Distance and Direction Senes Test
11. 126-129
Exercise with Answer Key
Dictionary Words
12. 130-132
Exercise with Answer Key
PART – II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
ARITHMETICS
Number System- (Natural Number, The Integers, Rational and Real
Numbers, Test of Divisibility, Radicals and Surds, Arithmetic Progression,
1. Geometric Progression, Harmonic Progression) 133-145
Practice Question with Explanations
Exercise with Answer Key
Fundamental Operations- (Addition, Subtraction, Multiplication, Division,
Basic Arithmetic Properties, Simplification)
2. 146-156
Practice Question with Explanations
Exercise with Answer Key
Square and Cube Roots – (Square and its Properties, Square Root,
Methods of Calculating Square Root, Cube, Cube Root, Methods of
3. Calculating Cobe Root) 157-163
Practice Question with Explanations
Exercise with Answer Key
HCF And LCM- (Methods of Finding HCF, Methods of Finding LCM)
4. Practice Question with Explanations 164-171
Exercise with Answer Key
Decimal Fractions- (Conversion of A Decimal Into Vulgar Fraction,
Operations on Decimal Fractions, Comparison Of Fractions, Types Of
5. Decimals) 172-177
Practice Question with Explanations
Exercise with Answer Key
Average
6. Practice Question with Explanations 178-180
Exercise with Answer Key
Percentage
7. Practice Question with Explanations 181-185
Exercise with Answer Key
Ratio and Proportion
8. Practice Question with Explanations 186-192
Exercise with Answer Key

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

S. No Topic Page No
Profit, Loss and Discount
9. Practice Question with Explanations 193-196
Exercise with Answer Key
Simple and Compound Interest
10. Practice Question with Explanations 197-201
Exercise with Answer Key
11. Logarithm
Practice Question with Explanations 202-206
Exercise with Answer Key
12. Time and Distance
Practice Question with Explanations 207-213
Exercise with Answer Key
13. Time and Work
Practice Question with Explanations 214-219
Exercise with Answer Key
ALGEBRA
Basic Operation and Factorization- (Basic Operations, Factorization)
14. Practice Questions with Explanation 220-224
Exercise with Answer Key
Linear Equations in one and Two Variables
15. Practice Question with Explanations 225-229
Exercise with Answer Key
Quadratic Equations and in-Equations
16. Practice Question with Explanations 230-236
Exercise with Answer Key
Rational Expressions
17. Practice Question with Explanations 237-241
Exercise with Answer Key
Set Theory
18. Practice Question with Explanations 242-247
Exercise with Answer Key
TRIGONOMETRY
Basic Trigonometric Identities
19. Practice Question with Explanations 248-256
Exercise with Answer Key
Heights and Distances
20. Practice Question with Explanations 257-265
Exercise with Answer Key

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S. No Topic Page No
GEOMETRY
Lines (Lines, Angles, Types of Lines, Type of Angles)
21. Practice Question with Explanations 266-273
Exercise with Answer Key
Triangle and its Properties
22. Practice Question with Explanations 274-285
Exercise with Answer Key
Quadrilaterals and Polygons
23. Practice Question with Explanations 286-289
Exercise with Answer Key
Circles
24. Practice Question with Explanations 290-296
Exercise with Answer Key
Locus
25. Practice Question with Explanations 297-302
Exercise with Answer Key
MENSURATION
Area and Perimeter- (Area, Perimeter, Triangle, Quadrilateral, Circle)
26. Practice Question with Explanations 303-305
Exercise with Answer Key
Volume and Surface Area (Colume, Surface Area) 306-310
27.
Exercise with Answer Key
STATISTICS
28. Collection, Tabulation and Representation of Data 311-313
Line, Bar and Pie Charts
29. Practice Question with Explanations 314-317
Exercise with Answer Key
Measure of Central Tendency (Definition of Central Tendency, Mean,
Median and Mode)
30. 318-319
Practice Question with Explanations
Exercise with Answer Key
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND ENGLISH
PART – I : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
General Knowledger- (First in India, First in the World, Major News Papers
of the World, Country with Their Capital, Currency and Languages,
Religions of the World, First women in India,Cities and Rivers in India, Cities
and Rivers in World, Major Sports Events, Hoghest, Longest, Largest in
1. 321- 367
India and Words, Famous Books and their authors, International Org &
Their HQs, Awards and Honours, Commands of Army, Navy and Air
Force,Defence Train ing Est, Important Military Operatons, Chiefs of Army Staff)
Exercise with Answer Key

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S. No Topic Page No
Indian Polity- (Constitution of India, Fundamental Rights, Parliaments
2. Terms, Union Public Service Commission, Constitutional Amendments) 368-405
Exercise with Answer Key
INDIAN HISTORY
I. Ancient History
406-424
Exercise with Answer Key
3. II. Medieval History
425-436
Exercise with Answer Key
III. Modern Indian History
437-453
Exercise with Answer Key
GEOGRAPHY
I. Indian Geography- (Physical Gerography, Rivers, Economic Geography,
Human Geography, Agriculture, Environmental Issues, States and Capitals,
454-485
Union Territories)
4. Exercise with Answer Key
II. World Geography- (Universe, Solar System, Planets, Origin of Earth,
Earthquakes, Rocks, Landform, Mountain, Plains, Deserts, Important
485-505
Boundary Lines
Exercise with Answer Key
GENERAL SCIENCE
I. Biology
506-521
Exercise with Answer Key
5. II. Physics
522-538
Exercise with Answer Key
III. Chemistry
539-557
Exercise with Answer Key
PART – II : ENGLISH
Parts of Speech: (Noun, Pronoun, Adjective, Adverb, Preposition,
Conjunction, Interjection)
1. 558-567
Practice Questions with Explanation
Exercise with Answer Key
Articles: (Definite Articles, Indefinite Articles) 568-570
2.
Practice Questions with Explanation
Tenses: (Simple Present, present continuous, Present perfect, Present
perfect Continuous, Part Simple, Past Continuous, Part Perpect, Past
3. 571-576
Perfect Continuous, Future Simple, Future Continuous, Future perfect)
Practice Question with Explanations

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

S. No Topic Page No
Voices
4. Practice Question with Explanations 577-584
Exercise with Answer Key
Idioms and Pharases
5. Practice Question with Explanations 585-600
Exercise with Answer Key
Vocabulary
6. 601-609
Exercise with Answer Key
Synonyms/Antonyms
7. Practice Question with Explanations 610-632
Exercise with Answer Key
Classification and Analogy
8. 633-635
Exercise with Answer Key
Spotting the Errors
9. 636-644
Exercise with Answer Key
Comprehension
10. Practice Question with Explanations 645-662
Exercise with Answer Key
Filling the Blanks & Cloze Test
11. 663-666
Exercise with Answer Key
Jumbled Sentences/Words:
12. 667-688
Exercise with Answer Key
CURRENT AFFAIRS
1. Top National Current Affairs 2019 689-693
2. Top International Current Affairs 2019 693-695
3. Sports 2019 695-696
4. List of Ministers: PM Narendra Modi’s Cabinet (as on 01 Jun 2019) 697-700

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

ABOUT TERRITORIAL ARMY


The origin of the Territorial Army can be traced back to 1857 when it was raised as
“Volunteers” who were recruited only from the Europeans & Anglo-Indians. Later, this name was
changed to Indian Defence Forces. On 01 October 1920, the Indian Territorial Army Force Bill
was passed resulting in the reorganization of the Territorial Army into two separate wings,
namely, the Auxiliary Force & the Indian Territorial Force.

While the former was meant only for the Europeans and Anglo-Indians, all other Indian citizens
could join the latter. After the attainment of Independence in 1947, a need was felt to have a
sizeable reserve force of trained citizens to support the regular army in times of need. The
Territorial Army Act 1948 was passed by the Indian Parliament resulting in the constitution of
the present Territorial Army.
Raising
The Territorial Army was raised by Shri C Rajagopalachari, the first Governor General of free
India on 09 Oct 1949.
Field of Activity
India’s Territorial Army is active in numerous fields of activity. It has following types of units.
• Infantry Battalions including Home & Hearth.
• Ecological Task Forces.
• Railway Engineer Units.
• Oil Sector Units.
• General Hospitals.

Territorial Army Infantry


The Infantry Territorial Army Battalion relieves Regular Army of static duties & Aid to Civil
Authorities dealing with natural calamities and maintenance of essential services.

Territorial Army Ecological Warriors

The Ecological Task Forces of Territorial Army are located at Dehradun, Pithoragarh
(Uttarakhand), Samba (J&K), Sri Mohangarh (Rajasthan), Kufri (HP), Delhi and Tezpur, Rangia
(Assam). They are making significant contribution in checking ecological degradation and
environment protection in the assigned project areas. These units have won many prestigious
national level awards including Guinness book of world records, for planting maximum number
of trees in a day.
Territorial Army Railway

The units of Railway Engineer (TA) are deployed during war and peace to keep the rail
communications going in designated areas. These units have also been embodied in the past to
help the Railways during the Railway strike and during Flood Relief Operations. Entry to these
units is open to Indian Railway employees only.

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Territorial Army Oil Sector


Territorial Army Oil Sector units help in extraction, refining and distribution of oil during national
emergencies. The officers & men of these units come from ONGC, IOC, BPCL & HPCL.
Territorial Army General Hospital
Territorial Army has seven General Hospitals which are located at Rohtak, Patiala, Jaipur,
Ahmedabad, Guwahati, Allahabad and Kolkata. They provide a capacity of 2500 beds to
manage the overflow of casualties from Military Hospitals during war. Doctors, Nurses and
Para-Medical staff come from the civil hospitals on which the General Hospital (TA) is based.

OPPORTUNITY IN TERRITORIAL ARMY

This is an excellent opportunity given by Government of India to young men and women who
are well settled in their professional life. They can now join Territorial Army as an officer and
prove their dream of wearing army officer uniform. The best thing is, you can serve the nation in
both way- as a civilian and as a soldier. On the top of this, you need not to lose or primary
professional, let it be an MNC job, govt job or your own business.

TERRITORIAL ARMY NOTIFICATION 2019 FOR MEN AND WOMEN

As the Territorial Army notification has come after a long wait, also for the first time, female
aspirants will be taking part in the Territorial army recruitment.
Before proceeding, one must know that the Territorial Army is not like a regular army and the
eligibility criteria are different. The age limit is between 18-42 years, but you must be gainfully
employed or have a good sustained business. So, aspirants who have just completed
graduation or applying for regular entries are not eligible for this. If you are working somewhere
in a good position or having your own business. then you may apply for the same. All such
detailed will be checked in TA preliminary interview once you clear the TA written exam.

TERRITORIAL ARMY RECRUITMENT – IMPORTANT DATES

Important Event Important Dates


Starting Date for online Registration 26th May 2019
Last Date for online Registration 25th June 2019
Exam Date 28th Jul 2019

TERRITORIAL ARMY ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

Nationality Only citizen of India (male and female)


Age Limits 18 to 42 years on the date of application.
Educational Standards A candidate must be physically and medically fit in all respects
Employment Gainfully Employed

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

EXAM PATTERN AND SYLLABUS OF TERRITORIAL ARMY


SYLLABUS:
Paper – I. Reasoning and Elementary Mathematics.
(a) Part – 1. Reasoning. The question paper will be designed to test the candidate’s ability to
complete sequences making logical conclusion based on simple patter of numbers, statements,
figures, letters etc as may be expected of a rational thinking person without any special study of
the subject.

(b) Part – 2. Elementary Mathematics.

(i) Arithmetic. Number System – natural numbers, integers, rational and real numbers.
Fundamental operations – addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, square roots,
decimal fraction.

(ii) Unitary Method. Time and distance, time and work, percentages, application to simple
and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation.

(iii) Elementary Number Theory. Division algorithm, prime and composite numbers. Tests
of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 & 11. Multiples and factors, factorization theorem, HCF and
LCM. Euclidean algorithm, logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic
tables.

(iv) Algebra. Basic operations, simple factors, remainder theorem, HCF, LCM, theory of
polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients
(only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns-
analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear equations in two variables and their
solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous liner equations or in equations in
two variables or quadratic equations in one variable and their solutions. Set language and
set notation, rational expressions and conditional identities, laws of indices.

(v) Trigonometry. Sine x, cosine x, tangent x when O° < x < 90°. Values of sine x, cos x
and ten x, for x = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° & 90°. Simple trigonometric identities. Use of
trigonometric tables. Simple cases of heights and distances.

(vi) Geometry. Lines and angles, plane and plane figures theorems on
• Properties of angles at a point.
• Parallel lines.
• Sides and angles of a triangle.
• Congruency of triangles.
• Similar triangles.
• Concurrence of medians and altitudes.
• Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square.
• Circle and its properties, including tangents and normal.
• Loci.

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(vii) Mensutration. Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle.


Areas of figures which can bisect into the figures (field book). Surface area and volume of
cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular area of cylinders. Surface area and
volume of spheres.

(viii) Statistics. Collection and tabulation of statistical data, graphical representation-


frequency polygons, bar charts, pie charts, etc. Measures of central tendency.

Paper – II. General Knowledge and English


(a) Part – 1. General Knowledge. General knowledge including knowledge of current events
and such matters of everyday observation and experience in scientific aspects as may be
expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The
paper will also include questions on history of India and geography of nature which candidates
should be able to answer without special study.

(b) Part – 2. English. The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding
of English and workman – like use of words. Questions in English are from synonyms,
antonyms, reading comprehension, Para jumbles, error spotting, jumbled sentences, sentence
correction and fill in the blanks.

IMPORTANT NOTE: -

1. Syllabus for Exam, No of Questions & Marks


S. No Paper Subject Nos. of Questions Marks
(i) I Reasoning and Elementary Mathematics 50+50 100
(iI) II General Knowledge and English 50+50 100

2. Time: Maximum time for each paper is 02 hrs and will be conducted in two
sessions from 10:00 hrs to 12:00 hrs and 14:00 hrs to 16:00 hrs.
3. Type of Exam: Objective (OMR Answer Sheet will be used).
4. Qualifying Marks: The candidates will have to score minimum 40% marks in each
paper separately and have an overall average of 50% to qualify.
5. Penalty for Wrong Answers: There will be penalty imposed for wrong answers
marked by a candidate as under: -
• There will be four possible answers to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, half of the mark
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
• If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct. Penalty will be imposed
as above.
• There will be no penalty for questions not attempted.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

TERRITORIAL ARMY
SOLVED PAPER – JULY 2016
PAPER: 1. REASONING & ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
PART I : REASONING
In each of the following series determine order of the letters. Then from the given options select the
one which will complete the given series.
Q1. B A D C ? H G J I
(a) EF (b) FE (c) FG (d) DF
Answer: (b)
The first letter is next letter to the second letter.
In the given series, A is the second letter but B is the next letter to A. So, E is the second letter but it is
the letter before F (first letter)
Thus, FE will complete the series.
Q2. ADG, XVT, BEH, WUS, ?
(a) VTR (b) CFI (c) DFJ (d) FTU
Answer: (b)
In the alphabetical order ABCDEFGH, two letters after one letter is left out and written as ADG.
So CDEFGHIJ is written as CFI.
Q3. GMSY, IOUA, KQWC, ?
(a) MSYE (b) NSYE (c) MTYE (d) MSYF
Answer: (a)
In the alphabetical order ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST, five alphabets are left after one letter and written
as GMSY. So MSYE has the letter gap of five as per the alphabetical order.
In the following question, select the number (s) from the given options for completing the given series.
Q4. 3, 1/3, 14, 1/4, 25, 1/25, ?
(a) 1/ 36 (b) 34 (c) 35 (d) 36
Answer: (d)
14 – 3 = 11, 25 – 14 = 11, ? – 25 = 11
? = 25 + 11 = 36.
Q5. 96, 90, 78, ?, 36, 6
(a) 60 (b) 72 (c) 48 (d) 54
Answer: (a)
On analyzing the following series, 96 is subtracted by multiples of 6.
96-6=90,
90-12=78,
78-18=60,
60-24= 36,
36-30=6
So 60 is the missing number.
In the questions given below establish the relationship between the two words. Then from given options
select one which has the same relationship as of the given two words.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Q6. Gum is __________ as Socket is to Eye.


(a) Tree (b) Paper (c) Tooth (d) Stick
Answer: (c)
Since the second one is a human part related to something in the first so tooth is a human part related to gum.
Q7. Stars are to Night as Sun is to __________
(a) Noon (b) Dawn (c) Day (d) Light
Answer: (c)
Since sun is visible only in day time.
Q8. If ‘light’ is called ‘morning’, ’morning’ is called ‘dark’, ‘dark’ is called ‘night’, ‘night’ is called
‘sunshine’ and ‘sunshine’ is called ‘dusk’, when do we sleep?
(a) Morning (b) Night (c) Dusk (d) Sunshine
Answer: (d)
We sleep at Night and Night is called Sunshine. So, we sleep in Sunshine.
Q9. Horse: Mare. Find the most appropriate pair below
(a) Cow: Bull (b) Cow: Calf (c) Dog: Puppy (d) Tiger: Horse
Answer: (a)
Male and female is paired each other exactly of same species.
Cow: Bull is the correct pair of masculine and feminine gender.
Q10. What Bank: Money, in the same way, Transport: __________
(a) Traffic (b) Goods (c) Speed (d) Road
Answer: (b)
Transaction of second is done through the first.
Q11. Find the odd one out
(a) Crusade (b) Expedition (c) Cruise (d) Campaign
Answer: (c)
One should know the meaning of each to arrive at the correct conclusion.
Cruise means journey on large ships for pleasure sometimes it also refers to the speed of the vehicle also .
Crusade, campaign and expedition are related to war, politics or social changes and it is merely the
synonyms of each other.
Hence, cruise is the odd among the given alternatives.
Q12. Find the odd one out
(a) flourish (b) renovate (c) blossom (d) thrive
Answer: (b)
Renovate means to make something new or to repair something in order to make it new.
All the other three words that are given flourish, blossom and thrive are synonyms to each other.
They mean something that attracts about attention by growing and developing in a healthy manner.
Q13. Find the odd one out
(a) Vapour (b) Mist (c) Hailstone (d) Fog
Answer: (a)
All except vapour are different forms of precipitation.
Q14. Find the odd one out
(a) Circle: Arc (b) Chair: Leg (c) Flower: Petal (d) Cover: Page
Answer: (d)
In all other pair second is a part of the first except Cover : Page.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Q15. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how can is PEARL be coded in that language?
(a) 25430 (b) 29530 (c) 25413 (d) 24153
Answer: (d)
The alphabets are coded as shown:
PALERTH
2134590
So, P is code as 2. E as 4. A as 1. R as 5 and L as 3. Thus, the code for PEARL is 24153.
Q16. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be
the code for SEARCH?
(a) 216473 (b) 246173 (c) 214673 (d) 214763
Answer: (c)
ROSE = 6821 → R=6, O=8, S=2, E=1
CHAIR = 73456 → C=7, H=3, A=4, I=5, R=6
PREACH = 961473 →P=9, R=6, E=1, A=4, C=7, H = 3
Deriving required things from all above,
S=2, E=1, A=4, R=6, C=7, H=3
Therefore, SEARCH = 214673
Q17. If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is written as OGUSSNC, then
how will TOPICAL be written in that code?
(a) VMRJECN (b) VMRHAGJ (c) VMRJACJ (d) VNRJABJ
Answer: (c)
The first, third and sixth letters of the word are each moved two steps forward; the second, fifth and
seventh letters are each moved two steps backward, while the fourth letter is moved one step forward
to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
Q18. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the
woman?
(a) Uncle (b) Grandson (c) Cousin (d) Son
Answer: (c)
Brother of mother — Uncle: Uncle's son — Cousin
So, the man is cousin to that woman.
Q19. What Doctor: Patient, in the same way a politician: _________
(a) Voter (b) Chair (c) Money (d) Public
Answer: (d)
Doctor is related to patient and politicians are related to public only.
Q20. What Ignorance: Education, in the same way Disease: _________
(a) Hospital (b) Doctor (c) Medicine (d) Nurse
Answer: (c)
Ignorance and education is connected in such a way like disease and so medicine.
Q21. What Guilt: Past, in the same way Hope: _________
(a) Present (b) Sorrow (c) Past (d) Future
Answer: (d)
Eventually hope connects with future as like guilt connect with past.
Q22. Carefully study the diagram given below. The circle indicates ‘strong’, square indicates ‘tall’ and
triangle indicates ‘army officers’.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

The strong army officers who are not tall are shown as
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
Answer: (a)
From the diagram it is clear that the strong army officers who are not tall are shown as 4 in the center of
the image which has the common part of circle and triangle.
Q 23. The circles ‘C’, ‘T’, and ‘J’, given below depict criminals, thieves and judges.

Which of the following figures best depicts the relationship among criminals, thieves and judges?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D


Answer: (b)
All the thieves are criminals while judge is different from these.
Q 24. In a family there are husband, wife, two sons and two daughters. All the ladies were invited to a
dinner. Both sons went out to play. Husband did not return from office. Who was at home?
(a) Only wife was at home (b) All ladies were at home
(c) Only sons were at home (d) No body was at home
Answer: (d)
In the family, there are total 3 ladies (wife & two daughters) and 3 gents (husband and two sons).
Therefore, the total family member is 6. All the ladies were out for dinner so 6 – 3 = 3 members are left.
The two boys went out to play. So 3 – 2 = 1 left. The husband did not return from office, so 1-1 = 0.
Therefore no one was at home.
Q 25. Artists are generally whimsical. Some of them are frustrated. Frustrated people are prone to be
drug addicts. Based on these statements which of the following conclusions is true?
(a) All frustrated people are drug addicts (b) Some artists may be drug addicts
(c) All drug addicts are artist (d) Frustrated people are whimsical
Answer: (b)
Some artist may be drug addict is true by considering the above statements.
Q 26. If A is the son of Q. Q and Y are sisters. Z is the mother of Y, P is the son of Z, then which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) P is the maternal uncle of A
(b) P and Y are sisters
(c) A and P are cousins
(d) None of the above
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Answer: (a)
Q and Y are sisters. Z is the mother of Y. P is the son of Z.
Q and Y are sisters to P. So, Q’s son A is nephew to P.
Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of A.
Q 27. There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on a table. If A is placed below E, C is placed above D, B is
placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the following books touches the surface of the table?
(a) C (b) B (c) A (d) E
Answer: (b)
The arrangement of the book on a table will be
C
D
E
A
B
Thus, B touches the surface of the table.
Q28. Three ladies X, Y and Z marry three men A, B and C. X is married to A, Y is not married to an
engineer, Z is not married to a doctor, C is not a doctor and A is a lawyer. Then which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) Y is married to C who is an engineer
(b) Z is married to C who is a doctor
(c) X is married to a doctor
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The correct pair will be
Person Spouse Profession
X A Lawyer
Y B Doctor
Z C Engineer
Y is married to B. Z is married to C and X is married to A.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 29. Choose the figure which is different

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4


Answer: (d)
All the images posses’ one dot in each sector, while image (4) has two dots in a sector.
Q 30. Choose the figure which is different

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4


Answer: (c)
Only figure (3) has the image with one less side than the outer image. Where in all other images, the
large image has smaller sides than the small image inside it.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Q31. Choose the figure which is different

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4


Answer: (c)
First image denotes the time 3:05, second time is 10:35, and third one is 7:00, and then final image is
8:55. So only third image the long dial points at exactly zero and so it is the odd one.
Q32. Choose the figure which is different

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4


Answer: (a)
Since all other figure have a curved edge but not the first figure.
Suggest the next figure in each of the following
Q33.

Answer: (c)
Since here the number of lines in the first image is two (one left and one right). Then one reduced in the
right of next image. No more lines in the third image and one line increased in right so and image should
have two lines developed in both ends facing downwards.
Q34.

Answer: (d)
In the last image the circle is divided into two equal halves followed by separating lines so in that the
separating line again separates that into to two more pieces and then option (d) is correct answer since
it separates the circle into four quadrants.
Q35.

Answer: (d)
The image is rotating 90° in anticlockwise direction.
Q36. In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a manner that southeast becomes north,
northeast becomes west and so on. What will south become?
(a) North (b) North – east (c) North – west (d) West
Answer: (b)

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From the figure, it is clear that ‘S’ becomes ‘Northeast’ in the new figure (dotted line)
Q37. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on foot at the
rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at the rate of 10 km per hour. How much distance did he
travel on foot?
(a) 10 km (b) 20 km (c) 30 km (d) 40 km
Answer: (b)
Let the time taken to travel on foot and bicycle be t1 and t2 respectively
Also, let distance travelled on foot be x.
Now 𝑡1 + 𝑡2 = 8
𝑥 50 − 𝑥
+ =8
4 10
5𝑥 + 100 − 2𝑥
= 8;
20
3𝑥 = 160 − 100
60
𝑥=
3
𝑥 = 20 𝑘𝑚
Q38.

How many different triangles are there in the figure shown above?
(a) 28 (b) 24 (c) 20 (d) 16
Answer: (a)
There are 3 rectangles with two diagonals each. Thus, each rectangle contains 8 small triangles. So total
triangles are 24. Further looking at the first 2 rectangles as a single entity there are 2 triangle (1 at
bottom and 1 at top) and similarly looking at the 2nd and 3rd rectangle there are another 2 triangles (1 at
bottom and 1 at the top).
So total 24+2+2=28.
Q39. If Rs 8,000 can maintain a family of 4 persons for 40 days, for how long will Rs. 10,500 maintain a
family of 6 persons?
(a) 30 days (b) 35 days (c) 25 days (d) 28 days
Answer: (b)
Given Budget for 4 persons =Rs. 8000
Sustain for 40 days
8000
Average expenses per person will be = 40×4 = 50/person
Let Rs.10500 will be maintained by 6 persons for x days.
10500
∴ = 50
𝑋×6
10500
𝑋 =
300
𝑋 = 35

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Q40. X works twice as fast as y. If Y can complete a job alone in 12 days, then in how many days can X
and Y together finish the job?
(a) 18 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
Answer: (b)
Y can complete a job in 12 days.
1
Y’s one day work = 12
As X works twice as fast as Y, X can complete the same job in 6 days.
1
X’s one day work = 6
1 1 2+1
X and Y can finish together = 6 + 12 = 12
3 1
= =
12 4
Thus, X and Y together finish that job in 4 days.
Q41. In a Class of 60 students 45 play cricket, 30 play football, 5 play none. How many students play
both the games?
(a) 20 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 5
Answer: (a)
It is given that out of 60 students, 5 students play none of the sports so the no of students playing at
least one game (cricket or football) is 60–5=55.
Using the Venn diagrams, it can be said that
𝑛(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 𝑛(𝐴) + 𝑛(𝐵) − 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
Where,
𝑛(𝐴) is the number of students playing cricket = 45
𝑛(𝐵) is the number of students playing football = 30
𝑛(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) is the number of students playing at least cricket or football = 55 (as said above)
𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) is number of students playing both cricket and football which we should find out. So using
above formula
55 = 45 + 30 − 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 45 + 30– 55 = 20
So, the number of students playing both cricket and football is 20.
Q42. A person whose house is facing east, comes out of his house, takes a left turn and travels in that
direction for 7 kilometres, after which he takes another left turn and travels for 6 kilometres. He again
takes a left turn and travels for 3 kilometres, and again takes a lef turn and travels for 3 kilometres. Fro
this point what is the shortest distance to his house?
(a) 19 km (b) 10 km (c) 5 km (d) 30 km
Answer: (c)

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According to Pythagoras theorem, the shortest distance to his house = √32 + 42 = √9 + 16


= √25 = 5 𝑘𝑚
Q43. A card is drawn from a well – shuffled pack of cards, This probability if getting a queen of club or
king of heart is?
(a) 1/52 (b) 1/26 (c) 1/13 (d) 1/56
Answer: (b)
Here, n(S) = 52.
Let E = event of getting a queen of club or a king of heart. 𝑛(𝐸) = 2
𝑛(𝐸) 2 1
𝑃(𝐸) = = =
𝑛(𝑆) 52 26
Q44. Gangaram started walking towards south. Afer walking 15 metres he turned to the left and walked
15 metres. He again turned to his lefft and walked 15 metres. How far is he from his original position
and in which direction?
(a) 15 metres, North (b) 15 metres, East
(c) 30 metres, South (d) 15 metres, West
Answer: (b)
On following the given points,

He travelled 15 metres east from the starting point.


Q45. I go 10 m to the East, then I turn left nd go 5 m, I turn left again and go 10 m ad then again I turn
left and go 10 m. In which direction am I from the starting point?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South
Answer: (d)

On tracing his path, he is in south.

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Q46. A 260 metre long train runs at a speed of 55 kmph. How much time will it take to cross a platform
290 metre long?
(a) 20 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 18 seconds (d) 60 seconds
Answer: (b)
Length of train = 260 metres
Length of platform = 290 meters
Distance to be covered by a train to cross the platform = Length of train + length of platform
= 260 + 290
= 550 metres
The distance is given in metre and speed is given in km/h.
So, speed should be changed in terms of m/s.
5
Speed of train = 55 km/h=55 × 18 𝑚/𝑠
Time taken to cross the platform
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑑 10
=
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 5
18
= 2 × 18 = 36
So, the train will take 36 seconds to cross the platform 290 metre long.
Q47. My uncle shall visit me after 64 days of my father’s birthday. If my father’s birthday falls on
Tuesday, what shall be the day on my Uncle’s visit?
(a) Wednesday (b) Sunday (c) Tuesday (d) Monday
Answer: (a)
My father’s birthday is on Tuesday.
After 7, 14, 21, 28 …..multiples of 7 will be Tuesday.
After 63 days, the day will be Tuesday.
So, after 64th day will be Wednesday.
Q48. Rakesh ranked 9th from the top and 38th from the bottom in a class. How many students are there
in the class?
(a) 47 (b) 45 (c) 46 (d) 48
Answer: (c)
Number of students in class = (9+38-1) = 46
Q49. If the following words are arranged in natural order, what will come in the last palce in ascending
order?
(a) Captain (b) Subedar Major (c) Major (d) Lieutenant Colonel
Answer: (d)
The ascending order of the ranks in the Indian Army.
Subedar Major, Captain, Major, Lieutenant-Colonel.
Q50. If day-after-tomorrow is Sunday, what was day-before-yesterday?
(a) Wednesday (b) Thursday (c) Friday (d) Saturday
Answer: (a)
Since if x is the day-after-tomorrow, which is Sunday then today is Friday, so then day before yesterday
is two days back from Friday which is Wednesday.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

PART II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS


Q51. The value of 0.99 × 14 ÷ 11 ÷ 0.7 is
(a) 2.9 (b) 1.6 (c) 1.8 (d) 2.8
Answer: (c)
0.99 × 14 ÷ 11 ÷ 0.7 = 13.86 ÷ 11 ÷ 0.7
= 1.26 ÷ 0.7 = 1.8
5
Q52. What is the value of 112 − 62 ÷ 6 × 2 + 2 𝑜𝑓10?
(a) 126 (b) 108 (c) 110 (d) 125
Answer: (a)
5 5
112 − 62 ÷ 6 × + 2 𝑜𝑓10 = 121 − 62 ÷ 6 × + 2 × 10
2 2
= 121 − 15 + 20 = 126
(24×13)+(28÷7)
Q53. Which of the following is the standard form of 14 5 ?
(24+13)− 𝑜𝑓
3 8
3792 4790 3792 3092
(a) (b) (c) (d)
409 309 411 409
Answer: (a)
(24 × 13) + (28 ÷ 7) (24 × 13) + (4)
=
14 5 14 5
(24 + 13) − (24 + 13) −
3 𝑜𝑓 8 3 ×8
312 + 4 316 7584 3792
= = = =
70 818 818 409
37 −
24 24
Q54. L.C.M of 6,9,12,18 is _________.
(a) 28 (b) 36 (c) 38 (d) 42
Answer: (b)
L.C.M of 6,9,12,18 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 = 36
Q 55. If ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are both odd numbers, which of the following numbers must be even number?
(a) X+Y (b) 𝑋 × 𝑌 (c) 𝑋𝑌 + 2 (d) 2X+Y
Answer: (a)
If X and Y are odd numbers then adding those two numbers given even number so option a is the
correct answer
Q 56. 12.1212 + 17.0005 − 9.1102 =?
(a) 20.1015 (b) 20.0115 (c) 20.0105 (d) 20.0015
Answer: (b)
12.1212 + 17.0005 − 9.1102 = 29.1217 − 9.1102 = 20.0115
Q 57. 1 + 0.1 + 0.01 + 0.001 =?
(a) 1.111 (b) 1.003 (c) 1.011 (d) 1.001
Answer: (a)
1 + 0.1 + 0.01 + 0.001 = 1.1 + 0.01 + 0.001 = 1.11 + 0.001 = 1.111
Q 58. One man adds 3 litres of water to 12 litres of milk and another 4 litres of water to 10 litres of milk.
What is the ratio of the strengths of milk in the two mixtures?
(a) 15:25 (b) 25:28 (c) 28:25 (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
1st case - 12 litre milk in 15 (12 + 3) litre content.
12 4
Ratio = 15 = 5

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2nd case - 10 litre milk in 14 (10 + 4) litre content.


10 5
Ratio = 14 = 7
4 5
Ratio of milk strength in two = 5 ∶ 7 = 28 ∶ 25
Q 59. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper 9 times as heavy as water. The ratio in which these
two metals be mixed so that mixture is 15 times as heavy as water is:
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:3 (c) 3:2 (d) 19:135
Answer: (c)

Required ratio = 6: 4 = 3: 2
Q 60. A certain amount was divided between Kavita and Reema in the ratio 4: 3. If Reema’s share was
Rs. 2400, the amount is:
(a) Rs.5600 (b) Rs.3200 (c) Rs.9600 (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Let Kavita amount be 4𝑥
Let Reema amount be 3𝑥
Total amount = 7𝑥
Then 3𝑥 = 2400
𝑥 = 800
Total amount = 7𝑥 = 7 × 800 = 𝑅𝑠. 5600
Q 61. A batsman has a certain average of runs for 16 innings in the 17th innings, he makes a score of 85
runs thereby increasing his average by 3. What is the average after the 17th inning?
(a) 33 runs (b) 34 runs (c) 37 runs (d) 36 runs
Answer: (c)
Let the total score after 16 innings= 𝑥
and average= 𝑦
𝑥
so 𝑦 = ........(1)
16
now after 17th inning,
𝑥+85
𝑦 + 3 = 17 ........(2)
By solving 1st and 2nd we get
𝑦 = 34
so average after 17th inning = 34 + 3 ⇒ 37
Q 62. What is the value of 𝑎5 × 𝑎7 ?
5
(a) 𝑎35 (b) 𝑎2 (c) 𝑎12 (d) 𝑎7
Answer: (c)
According to the power rule 𝑎𝑚 × 𝑎𝑛 = 𝑎𝑚+𝑛
Therefore 𝑎5 × 𝑎7 = 𝑎7+5 = 𝑎12
Q 63. (100)0 is equivalent to?
(a) 0 (b) 10 (c) 1 (d) 100
Answer: (c)
According to the power rule anything to the power 0 the value is 1

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(100)0 = 1
Q 64. The value of 6𝑎3 𝑏 3 𝑐 2 ÷ 2𝑎𝑏 2 𝑐 is:
(a) 3𝑎2 𝑏𝑐 (b) 3𝑎𝑏 2 𝑐 (c) 3𝑎2 𝑏 2 𝑐 2 (d) 3𝑎3 𝑏 3 𝑐 3
Answer: (a)
6𝑎3 𝑏 3 𝑐 2
= 3𝑎2 𝑏𝑐
2𝑎𝑏 2 𝑐
𝑥 −2 .𝑦 −4 𝑦 −2
Q 65. The value of 𝑥 −3 .𝑦 −1 ÷ 𝑥 −1 is?
1 1
(a) 𝑦 (b) 𝑦 (c) 𝑥𝑦 (d) 𝑥𝑦
Answer: (b)
𝑥 −2 .𝑦−4 𝑦 −2 𝑥 −2 .𝑦 −4 𝑥 −1
÷ 𝑥 −1 = 𝑥 −3 .𝑦 −1 × 𝑦 −2
𝑥 −3 .𝑦−1
𝑥 −1
= 𝑥 −2+3 . 𝑦 −4+1 × 𝑦 −2
𝑥 𝑦2 1
= 𝑦3 × =𝑦
𝑥

Q 66. What is 170% 𝑜𝑓 1140?


(a) 1824 (b) 1881 (c) 1938 (d) 1995
Answer: (c)
170
170% 𝑜𝑓 1140 = 100 × 1140 = 17 × 114 = 1938
Q 67. 14% 𝑜𝑓 280 + 18% 𝑜𝑓 350 =?
(a) 102.2 (b) 103.4 (c) 105 (d) 108.5
Answer: (a)
14 18
14% 𝑜𝑓 280 + 18% 𝑜𝑓 350 = 100 × 280 + 100 × 350
14 18
= 10 × 28 + 10 × 35
392 630 1022
= + = = 102.2
10 10 10

Q 68. A person walks from his house to his office at a speed of 𝑋1 𝑘𝑚/ℎ and return by the same route at
a speed of 𝑋2 𝑘𝑚/ℎ. His average speed is
𝑋1 +𝑋2 𝑋1 +𝑋2 3 𝑋 𝑋 2𝑋1 𝑋2
(a) (b) (c) 4 (𝑋 1+𝑋2 ) (d) (𝑋 )
2 2 1 2 1 +𝑋2
Answer: (d)
𝑋 𝑘𝑚 𝑋 𝑘𝑚
The given distance is covered by two different speeds 1ℎ and 2ℎ
2𝑥𝑦 2𝑋1 𝑋2
Then the average speed = 𝑥+𝑦 = (𝑋 )
1 +𝑋2
Q 69. A house of 100 m subtends a right angle at the window of an opposite house. If the height of the
window be 64m, then the distance between the two houses is
(a) 48 m (b) 36 m (c) 54 m (d) 72 m
Answer: (a)

𝑑 = 64𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃 ...(i)
In △ 𝐶𝐷𝐸, 𝑡𝑎𝑛(90° − 𝜃) = (100 − 64)𝑑

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𝑑 = 36𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 ...(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
𝑑2 = 36 × 64 = 2304
𝑑 = 48𝑚
Q 70. Some portion of a 20 m long tree is broken by the wind and the top struck the ground at an angle
of 30°. The height of the point where the tree is broken is
20
(a) 10 m (b) (2√3 − 3)20𝑚 (c) 3 𝑚 (d) None of these
Answer: (c)

Let the height from the bottom where the tree is broken be ‘h’ m
Hence AC = (20 – ℎ) 𝑚
In right triangle ABC
𝐴𝐵
𝑠𝑖𝑛 30° = 𝐴𝐶
1 ℎ
(2) = 20 – ℎ
20 − ℎ = 2ℎ
20 = 3ℎ
20
ℎ= 3𝑚
Q 71. A man borrowed Rs.8000 at 6% per annum simple interest of 5 yr. After 3 years he returned Rs.
7000. How much amount should he return at the end to settle the loan?
(a) Rs.2732.80 (b) Rs.2612.20 (c) Rs.2824.40 (d) Rs.2190.50
Answer: (a)
The borrowed amount = Rs. 8000
Rate of interest = 6%
Number of years = 5 years
In 3 years, he returned = Rs. 7000
To find the remaining amount:
Simple interest of 3 years.
𝑃×𝑁×𝑅
Simple interest = 100
8000×3×6
= 100
= 80 × 3 × 6
= 1440 𝑅𝑠.
The total for 3 years with interest is Rs. 9440.
If he returned an amount of Rs. 7000
Then the remaining amount is Rs.2440
And the end, he needs settle the loan by returning an amount of,
2440×2×6
Interest for the remaining amount is, = 100 = 𝑅𝑠. 292.80
Then, the total amount of returning is = 2440 + 292.80 = 𝑅𝑠. 2732.80
Q 72. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 20% on selling a book at 16% discount on the printed price. The
ratio of the cost price and the printed price is
(a) 5:6 (b) 5:7 (c)7:10 (d) 6:11

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Answer: (c)
Earns a profit 20% on selling a book at 16% of discount.
To find the ratio of the cost price and the printed price of book.
Let the printed price is Rs.100.
100
So, selling price is Rs.84 and cost price= 84 × (120) = 70
Thus, the ratio of Cost price and Printed price will be 7:10.
Q 73. Seats of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in a school are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6, There is a
proposal to increase these seats by 10%, 20% and 50%, respectively. What will the ratio of increased
seats?
(a) 11:16:30 (b) 16:11:30 (c) 16:12:15 (d) 12:16:30
Answer: (a)
Originally, let the number of seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology be 3x, 4x and 6x respectively.
Number of increased seats are (110% of 3x), (120% of 4x) and (150% of 6x).
110 120 150
⇒ [(100) × 3𝑥] , [(100) × 4𝑥] and [(100) × 6𝑥]
33𝑥 24𝑥
⇒ 10 , 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 9𝑥
⇒ The required ratio = 33𝑥 ∶ 48𝑥 ∶ 90𝑥
⇒ 11𝑥 ∶ 16𝑥 ∶ 30𝑥
⇒ 11 ∶ 16 ∶ 30
Q 74. A well with 14 m inside diameter in dugout 15 m deep. The earth taken out of it has been evenly
spread all around it to a width of 21 m to form an embankment. What is the height of the embankment?
(a) 1 m (b) 2 m (c) 3 m (d) 4 m
Answer: (a)
Inner Diameter of the well= 14 𝑚
14
Inner Radius of the well (r) = 2 𝑚 = 7 𝑚
Height of the well (h) = 15 𝑚
Volume of the earth taken out of the well = 𝜋𝑟²ℎ
22
= 7 × (7)² × 15
= 22 × 7 × 15 = 2310 𝑚³
Width= 21 m
Outer radius of the embankment R =inner radius + width
Outer radius (R) = 7 + 21 = 28m
The embankment is in the form of cylindrical shell, so area of embankment
Area of embankment = outer area - inner area
= 𝜋𝑅² − 𝜋𝑟² = 𝜋(𝑅² − 𝑟²)
22
= ( 7 ) ( 28² − 7²)
22
= (784 − 49)
7
22
= 7 × 735
= 22 × 105
= 2310 𝑚²
Volume of embankment = volume of earth taken out on digging the well
Area of embankment × height of embankment= volume of earth dug out
Height of embankment= volume of earth dug out/area of the embankment
2310
Height of the embankment = 2310
Height of embankment= 1 𝑚
Hence, the height of the embankment so formed is 1 𝑚

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Q 75. The maximum number of boxes, each of length 2m, breadth 4m and height 5m that can be placed
in a box of length 20m, breadth 10 m and height 5m is
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 25
Answer: (d)
Dimensions of Big box:
Length = 20 m
Breadth = 10 m
Height = 5 m
Surface area of the big box = 𝑙 × 𝑏 × ℎ = 20 × 10 × 5 = 1000 𝑚
Dimensions of Small box:
Length = 2 m
Breadth = 4 m
Height = 5 m
Surface area of the big box = 𝑙 × 𝑏 × ℎ = 2 × 4 × 5 = 40 𝑚
1000
To find the maximum number of boxes to be placed = 40 = 25 𝑏𝑜𝑥𝑒𝑠
Q 76. A fan is listed at Rs.2400 with a discount of 10%. What additional discount must be offered to the
customer to bring the net price to Rs. 2000?
(a) 14% (b) 6% (c) 12% (d) 8%
Answer: (d)
A fan is listed at Rs. 2400 with a discount of 10 %
To bring the net price as Rs.2000
From the given options
18
2400 × 100 = 18 × 24 = 432
To bring the net price to 2000 approximately 400 to be given as discount
Comparing to the given option d approximately gives 432 rupees discount
The additional discount given to fan will be 8%.
Q 77. If 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 = 10 and 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏𝑐 + 𝑐𝑎 = 31, then the value of 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 is
(a) 48 (b) 38 (c) 18 (d) 20
Answer: (b)
Given that, 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 = 10 ……(1)
and, 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏𝑐 + 𝑎𝑐 = 31 ……(2)
Squaring on both sides to eqn1 we have,
(𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐)2 = 102
𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 + 2(𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏𝑐 + 𝑎𝑐) = 100
𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 + 2 × 31 = 100 (by eqn(2))
2 2 2
𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 = 38
Q 78. If 𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 − 𝑏 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 = 𝑐, Then 𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 is equal to
(a) ±√𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 – 𝑎2 (b) ±√𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 – 𝑐 2 (c) ±√𝑐 2 + 𝑎2 – 𝑏 2
2 2
(d) ±√𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 2

Answer: (b)
Given 𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 − 𝑏 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 = 𝑐 (Squaring on both sides)
𝑎2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃 + 𝑏 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 − 2𝑎𝑏𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 = 𝑐 2 ----------(1)
Let 𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 = 𝑘 (Squaring on both sides)
𝑏 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃 + 𝑎2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 + 2𝑎𝑏 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 = 𝑘 2 ----------(2)
Adding (1) and (2) we get
𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 = 𝑐 2 + 𝑘 2
𝑘 2 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 – 𝑐 2 .

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

𝑘 = √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 – 𝑐 2
∴ 𝑎 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 𝑏 𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝜃 = √(𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 – 𝑐 2 )

Q 79. A toy is in the shape of hemisphere surmounted by a cone. If radius of base of the cone is 3 cm
and its height is 4 cm. Total surface area of the toy is
(a) 33𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (b) 42𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (c) 66𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (d) 56𝜋𝑐𝑚2
Answer: (a)
Given the radius and height of the cone
r = 3 cm and h = 4 cm
slant height, 𝑙 = √𝑟 2 + ℎ2
𝑙 = √32 + 42
𝑙 = √9 + 16
𝑙 = 5 𝑐𝑚
Total surface area of the toy = surface area of the hemisphere + surface area of the cone
= 2𝜋𝑟 2 + 𝜋𝑟𝑙
= 𝜋𝑟(2𝑟 + 𝑙)
= 𝜋 × 3(2 × 3 + 5)
= 3𝜋(11)
= 33𝜋𝑐𝑚2
Q 80. On the basis of the adjacent figure, consider the statements.

I. ∠1, ∠5, and ∠2, ∠6 are pairs of corresponding angles.


II. ∠4 and ∠6 is an alternate angle.
III. ∠1, ∠2 and ∠8, ∠7 are exterior angles.
Which of the following statements are true?
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
Answer: (d)
Observing the given figure
∠1, ∠5, and ∠2, ∠6 are pairs of corresponding angles.
∠4 and ∠6 is a alternate angles.
∠1, ∠2 and ∠8, ∠7 are exterior angle.
So, the given three statements are true.
√2+1 √2−1
Q 81. If 𝑥 = and 𝑦 = then the value of 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 is
√2−1 √2+1
(a) 34 (b) 36 (c) 32 (d) 38
Answer: (a)
√2+1
𝑥=
√2−1
(√2+ 1)(√2+1)
= 2
(√2) −12
2
(√2+ 1)
= 1
= 2 + 2√2 + 1
𝑥 = 3 + 2√2

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

√2–1
𝑦 =
√2+ 1
(√2− 1)(√2− 1)
= (√2+ 1)(√2−1)
2
(√2 − 1)
= 2−1
𝑦 = 3 − 2√2
2 2
= 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = (3 + 2√2) + (3 − 2√2)
2 2
= (32 + (2√2) + (2 × 3 × 2√2)) + (32 + (2√2) − (2 × 3 × 2√2))
= 18 + 16 = 34
Thus, 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 34
Q 82. Kiran purchased a scooter for Rs.24000. Then value of scooter is depreciating at the rate of 5% per
annum. Then, its value after three years is
(a) 20577 (b) 20977 (c)20677 (d) 20877
Answer: (a)
Principal (P) = 𝑅𝑠. 24,000,
Rate of Interest (R)= 5%, Time (n) = 3 years
𝑅 𝑛
Amount (A) = 𝑃 (1 − 100)
[Value depreciated]
5 3
A= 24000 (1 − 100)
A=24000(0.95)3
A= 24000 × 0.8573775
A= 20577
Hence, the value of the scooter after one year =Rs. 20577
Q 83. When 40% if a number is added to 42, the result is the number itself. The number is
(a) 70 (b) 90 (c) 82 (d) 72
Answer: (a)
Let the number be 'x'
40×𝑥
40% of number = 100
40𝑥
+ 42 = 𝑥
100
40𝑥
42 = 𝑥 − 100
100𝑥−40𝑥
42 = 100
60𝑥
42 = 100
4200 = 60𝑥
𝑥 = 70
Hence the number is 70.
Q 84. A circle and a square have same area. Therefore, the ratio of the side of the square and the radius
of the circle is
(a)√𝜋: 1 (b)1: √𝜋 (c)1: 𝜋 (d) 𝜋: 1
Answer: (a)
Let the side of the square be 'a' and let the radius of the circle be 'r'
A circle and a square have same area.
Then, 𝑎2 = 𝜋𝑟 2
𝑎2
⇒ 𝑟2 = 𝜋

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

𝑎
⇒ = √𝜋
𝑟
∴ 𝑎 ∶ 𝑟 = √𝜋 ∶ 1
Q 85. The greatest six-digit number is a perfect square is
(a) 998004 (b) 998006 (c) 998049 (d) 998001
Answer: (d)
We know the greatest number of 6 digits is 999999.
Then solving through division method,
We get quotient as 999.99 So it is not a perfect square.
But if we consider it to be as (1000 − 1)² which will be equal to 999².
= (1000 – 1)2
= 9992
= 998001
∴ The greatest 6-digit number which is a perfect square is 998001.
Q 86. A mason can build a tank in 12hrs. After working for 6hrs, he took the help of a boy and finished
the work in another 5hrs. The time that the boy will take alone to complete the work is
(a) 30 Hrs (b) 45 Hrs (c) 60 Hrs (d) 64 Hrs
Answer: (c)
1
Mason’s 1 h work = 12
6 1
Mason’s 6 h work = 12 =2
1 1
Remaining work =1 − 2 =2
Remaining work can be finished in 5 h total
Work can be finished in 2 × 5 = 10 ℎ𝑟𝑠
1 1 1
+ =
12 𝑏 10
1 1 1 1
= − =
𝑏 10 12 60
The boy can complete the work in 60 Hrs.
Q 87. In an Army camp ration is available for 100 soldiers for 10 days. After 2 days 60 soldiers joined.
Then for how many days will the remaining ration last?
(a) 7 days (b) 6 days (c) 5days (d) 4 days
Answer: (c)
{It is an indirect proportion question. No. of days is inversely proportional to no. of soldiers}
100 soldiers → 10days
After two days, food is left for 8 days
100 soldiers → 8 days
60 more joins them
160 soldiers → x days
Since the amount of food is not changed, amount of food consumed by 100 soldiers in 8 days is equal to
food consumed by 160 soldiers in x days.
Definitely x will be less than 8.
Since no. of soldiers increase, no of days decrease.
100 × 8 = 160 × 𝑥
800 = 160 × 𝑥
800
=𝑥
160
80
=𝑥
16
𝒙 = 𝟓

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Q 88. The value of sec 𝐴(1 − sin 𝐴)(sec 𝐴 + tan 𝐴) is


1
(a) -1 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 2
Answer: (b)
1 1 sin 𝐴
sec 𝐴(1 − sin 𝐴)(sec 𝐴 + tan 𝐴) = (1 − sin 𝐴) ( + cos 𝐴)
cos 𝐴 cos 𝐴
(1−sin 𝐴) 1+sin 𝐴
= ( )
cos 𝐴 cos 𝐴
12 −𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴
= cos2 𝐴
1−sin2 𝐴
= cos2 𝐴
cos2 𝐴
= cos2 𝐴 = 1
Q 89. Divide the number 26244 by the smaller number, so that the quotient is perfect cube, so the
smallest number is
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 36 (d) 16
Answer: (c)
26244 = 2 × 2 × 38
= 2 × 2 × 32 × 36
Quotient is perfect cube of 3² and number is 2 × 2 × 3² = 36
Q 90. A cubical vessel can hold 1331 litre of water. The length of side of the vessel in m is
(a) 11m (b) 1.1m (c) 0.11m (d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Volume of cubical vessel = 1331 litre
We know 1 𝑚3 = 1000 litre
1331
Therefore 1331 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒 = 1000 𝑚3 = 1.331𝑚3
1331
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑙 = 1000 𝑚3
1331
𝑆𝑖𝑑𝑒 3 = 1000 𝑚3
11
𝑆𝑖𝑑𝑒 = 10
𝑆𝑖𝑑𝑒 = 1.1 𝑚
Q 91. A spherical ball made of iron has diameter 6cm. If density of iron 8𝑔/𝑐𝑚3 the mass of the ball is
nearly
(a) 0.9kg (b) 0.8kg (c) 0.7kg (d) 0.62kg
Answer: (a)
Diameter=D=6 cm
Radius = r = 3 cm
Density = 8 g/ cm³
4
Volume of a sphere = 3 𝜋𝑟³
4 22
=3 × × 3 × 3× 3
7
2376
= 21 𝑐𝑚3 = 113.14 𝑐𝑚3
Density = Mass ÷ Volume
Mass = Density × Volume
= 8 × 113.14 = 905.12 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 [ 𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑥. ]
905.12
Converting grams into kilograms 1000 = 0.9𝑘𝑔
Q 92. A hollow sphere of internal and external diameter 4cm and 8cm is melted and recasted into a
cone of base diameter 8cm. The height of the cone is
(a) 14cm (b) 15cm (c) 28cm (d) 30cm
Answer: (a)

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Internal diameter of hollow sphere (𝑑) = 4 𝑐𝑚.


4
Internal radius of hollow sphere (𝑟) = 2 = 2 𝑐𝑚
External diameter of hollow sphere (𝐷) = 8 𝑐𝑚.
8
External radius of hollow sphere (𝑅) = 2 = 4 𝑐𝑚.
4
Volume of the Hollow sphere = 3 𝜋(𝑅³ − 𝑟³)
4
= 3 𝜋(4³ − 2³)
4
= 3 𝜋(64 − 8)
4
= 3 𝜋(56) 𝑐𝑚³
Diameter of the cone (𝑑1 ) = 8 𝑐𝑚
8
Radius of the cone ( 𝑟1 ) = 2 = 4 𝑐𝑚
Let the height of the cone be h cm.
1
Volume of the cone = 3 𝜋𝑟1 ²ℎ
1 16𝜋ℎ
= 3 𝜋 × 42 × ℎ = 3
Volume of the cone = Volume of the hollow sphere
16𝜋ℎ 4
3
= 3
𝜋(56)
16ℎ = 4 × 56
4 × 56
ℎ = 16
56
ℎ = = 14 𝑐𝑚
4
4 1−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
Q 93. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 = 5 then 1+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = ________
1 1 1 1
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) − 4
Answer: (d)
4
𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 = 5
Opposite side = 4
Adjacent side = 5
Then the value of hypotenuse =√52 − 42 = √25 − 16 = √9 = 3
𝑎𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 5
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = ℎ𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒 = 3
5
1−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 (1− ) 1
3
= 5 = −4
1+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 1+
3

Q94. 2𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛60° − 3𝑦 tan 45° = 0 and 𝑥𝑡𝑎𝑛 60° + √2𝑦 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 45° = 5 then value of x and y respectively
are
1
(a) √3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 (b) √2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 1 (c) √3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 1 (d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
2𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛60° − 3𝑦 tan 45° = 0
√3
2𝑥 ( 2 ) − 3𝑦(1) = 0
√3𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 0 …. (1)
𝑥 𝑡𝑎𝑛 60° + √2𝑦 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 45° = 5
𝑥(√3) + √2𝑦√2 = 5
√3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 5 …. (2)
By solving the equation 1 and 2 we get

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

−5𝑦 = −5
𝑦=1
Put y = 1 in equation 1
√3𝑥 − 3(1) = 0
√3𝑥 = 3
3
𝑥=
√3
𝑥 = √3
∴ 𝑥 = √3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 1
Q 95. Maximum and Minimum value of 5𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑋 + 3𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑋 respectively are
(a) -8 and +8 (b) 2 and 8 (c) −√34 𝑎𝑛𝑑 √34 (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Given 5𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑋 + 3𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑋
𝑎=5
𝑏=3
Formula to find Maximum value = +√𝑎2 + 𝑏 2
= +√52 + 32 = +√25 + 9 = +√34
Minimum Value = −√𝑎2 + 𝑏 2
= −√52 + 32 = −√25 + 9 = −√34
Minimum and Maximum values are −√34 𝑎𝑛𝑑 √34
Q 96. Mean of 5 number is 22. If one number is excluded, mean become 19. The excluded number is
(a) 68 (b) 34 (c) 17 (d) 20
Answer: (b)
The mean of 5 numbers = 22
Sum of all 5 numbers = 5 × 22 = 110
If one number is excluded, numbers remained = 4
The mean of 4 numbers = 19
Sum of these 4 numbers = 4 × 19 = 76
Excluded number = Sum of 5 numbers - Sum of 4 numbers
⇒ 110 − 76
= 34
Hence, 34 is the excluded number.
Q 97. Mean mark of 60 students of a class are 63 and that of 40 other students are 60. The mean mark
of all together are
(a) 61.8 (b) 61.5 (c) 62 (d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
Mean of marks of 60 students of a class = 63
Mean of marks of 40 other students of the class = 60
Total number of students = 100
𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠
𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛 = 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑡𝑢𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠
𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠
63 = 60
Sum of all marks = 3780
For 40 students,
𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠
60 = 40

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Sum of all marks = 2400


2400 + 3780
𝑀𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑜𝑓 100 𝑠𝑡𝑢𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 = = 61.8
100
Q 98. The median of 7, 11, 23, 36,42, 50, 61, 73, 110 and 120 is
(a) 28.4 (b) 46 (c) 60 (d) 55.5
Answer: (b)
First arrange the given numbers in to ascending order 7, 11, 23, 36, 42, 50, 61, 73, 110 and 120
There are 10 observations given so
(5𝑡ℎ +6𝑡ℎ ) 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚 42+50 92
Median = = 2 = 2 = 46
2
Median = 46
Q 99. In the given figure, 𝐶𝐷||𝐴𝐵 , find 𝑦

(a) 79° (b) 60° (c) 74° (d) 77°


Answer: (b)
2𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 4𝑥 = 180
9𝑥 = 180
𝑥 = 20
Then 4𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 180
6𝑥 + 𝑦 = 180
6(20) + 𝑦 = 180
120 + 𝑦 = 180
𝑦 = 60°
Q 100. If ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 and ∆𝐷𝐸𝐹 are similar triangle in which ∠𝐴 = 47° and ∠𝐸 = 83° and then ∠𝐶 is

(a) 50° (b) 70° (c) 60° (d) 80°


Answer: (b)
ABC is similar to DEF
Then...∠𝐴 = ∠𝐷 = 47°
...∠𝐵 = ...∠𝐸 = 63°
...∠𝐸 = ...∠𝐹
Then according to angle sum property
∠𝐴 + ∠𝐵 + ∠𝐶 = 180°
47° + 63° + ∠𝐶 = 180°
120° + ∠𝐶 = 180°
∠𝐶 = 60°
So, the value of ∠𝐶 = 70°

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

TERRITORIAL ARMY
SOLVED PAPER – JULY 2016
PAPER: 2. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & ENGLISH
PART I : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Q1. Kanchenjunga is the highest mountain peak in India. It is situated on the border between
(a) India and Pakistan (b) India and China (c) India and Nepal (d) India and Bhutan
Answer: (c)
The Kangchenjunga is the highest mountain peak in India and ranked 3rd highest summit in the
world with elevation of 8,586 m (28,169 ft). Kangchenjunga is located at the border of India and Nepal
which is located in the great Himalayas range in Sikkim of India.
Q2. Who was the first and the last woman ruler of Delhi?
(a) Chand Bibi (b) Noor Jahan (c) Razia Sultan (d) Mumtaz Mahal
Answer: (c)
Iltutmish became the first sultan to appoint a woman as his successor when he designated his daughter
Razia as his heir apparent. Razia was the first and last female ruler of Delhi Sultanate (reigning from
1236 to 1240).
Q3. The standard meridian of India is
(a) 82 degrees 30’ E (b) 84 degrees 30’ E (c) 72 degrees 30’ E (d) 92 degrees 30’ E
Answer: (a)
The 82-degree 30' East longitude is taken as Standard Time Meridian of India, as it passes through the
middle of India (Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh). GMT + 05:30 is the Indian Standard Time.
Q4. The lowest layer of earth’s atmosphere is
(a) Troposphere (b) Exosphere (c) Mesosphere (d) Stratosphere
Answer: (a)
The lowest layer of earth’s atmosphere is Troposphere which is from 0 km to 12 km (0 to 7 miles).
Q5. The 15th Governor of RBI, Dr Manmohan Singh went on to become the 13th Prime Minister of India.
The present RBI Governor is
(a) D Subbarao (b) Raghuram Rajan (c) Bimal Jalan (d) YV Reddy
Answer: (b)
The 15th Governor of RBI, Dr Manmohan Singh went on to become the 13th Prime Minister of India.
The present RBI Governor is Raghuram Rajan. He is an Indian economist and an international
academician. He was the 23rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India who served between September
2013 and September 2016.
Q6. Rain drops are spherical due to
(a) Viscosity of water (b) Surface tension
(c) Continuous evaporation (d) Air friction
Answer: (b)

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Raindrops start to form in a roughly spherical structure due to the surface tension of water. This surface
tension is the "skin" of the water droplets that makes the water molecules stick together. The cause of
the surface tension is occurrence of weak hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
Q7. Soft water can be easily identified by its characteristic of
(a) Being sweet in taste (b) Being light green in colour
(c) Forms lather with soap (d) Boils faster
Answer: (c)
Soft water is surface water that contains low concentrations of ions and in particular, it contains less
amount of calcium and magnesium ions. Naturally, soft water occurs in the rainfall and the drainage
basin of rivers where hard, impervious, and calcium-poor rocks are found.
Q8. Which of the following is responsible for ‘Acid Rain’?
(a) Smoke (b) Nitrogen (c) Dust (d) Sulphur dioxide
Answer: (d)
Acid rain is caused by the chemical reaction between compounds like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen
oxides when they are released into the air. These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere,
where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants,
known as acid rain.
Q9. The working principle of washing machine is
(a) Gravity (b) Centrifugation (c) Dialysis (d) Reverse Osmosis
Answer: (b)
The principle behind the spinning of the wash tub in a washing machine is centrifugation. The force
acting is called centrifugal force. The fast spinning of the clothes in the drum creates a large centrifugal
force from centre to the edge of the drum, and the wet clothes are flung outwards to the drum edge
and the water escapes through the drum holes.
Q10. Soil pH of acidic soil can be improved by
(a) Adding Lime (b) Repeated ploughing (c) Adding Urea (d) Flooding
Answer: (c)
A pH of 7.0 is considered neutral. A pH value below 7.0 indicates that the soil is acidic, with lower values
in pH, the acidity of the soil increases. A pH value above 7.0 indicates that the soil is alkaline (basic), with
higher values in pH, the alkalinity of the soil increases.
Lime is a calcium-containing inorganic mineral composed primarily of oxides and hydroxide, usually
calcium oxide and calcium hydroxide. The pH value of lime is 8.0 and the pH value of industrial lime
water is 12.4 which is a base substance.
Ploughing is an agricultural process which is used to mix the soil.
Urea is a base substance which contains hydrogen and nitrogen ions. 7.05 is the pH value of urea.
Flood is a natural disaster.
On comparing all the option, urea though base, is close to acidic nature. Thus, option c is the correct
answer.
Q11. Which is the hottest planet of our solar system
(a) Venus (b) Pluto (c) Mars (d) Mercury
Answer: (a)

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Mercury is the planet that is closest to the sun and therefore gets more heat energy directly from sun,
but even it isn't the hottest. Venus is the second planet from the sun and has a temperature that is
maintained at 462 degrees Celsius.
Any heat that Mercury receives from the sun is quickly lost back into space. Venus is very close to the
actual size of earth and viewing it has been difficult due to a very thick atmosphere of carbon dioxide.
This thick atmosphere makes the surface of Venus hotter because the heat doesn’t escape back into
space.
Q12. The largest Gland in the body is
(a) Gall Bladder (b) Liver (c) Pancreas (d) Brain
Answer: (b)
Liver is the largest gland in human body. It is also the largest (internal) organ in our body and can weigh
up to 1.5 kg - 1.6 kg for a human adult. That is, about 1/50th of the body weight is because of liver.
Q13. Which of the following is NOT a radioactive material
(a)Uranium (b) Radium (c) Plutonium (d) Sodium
Answer: (d)
Sodium is a chemical element with the symbol Na (from Latin natrium) and atomic number 11. It is a
soft, silvery-white, and highly reactive metal. It is a salt chemically.
Rest of the materials in the option are radioactive materials because they have unstable nucleus and
isotopes.
Q14. Light year is a unit of measurement of
(a) Time (b) Distance (c) Brightness of a star (d) Speed of light
Answer: (b)
A light-year is a unit of distance. It is the distance that light can travel in one year. Light moves at a
velocity of about 300,000 kilometres (km) each second. So, in one year, it can travel about 10 trillion km.
Q15. One feels heavier in a lift when the lift
(a) Is going down steadily (b) Just begins to go up
(c) Is moving up steadily (d) Descends freely
Answer: (b)
One feels heavier in a lift when the lift just begins to go up.
This is because the floor needs to push you extra hard to make you start moving up, that makes you feel
heavier. When the elevator stops speeding up and moves at a constant speed, the floor doesn't need to
you to speed up anymore, so you feel your normal weight.
Q16. Facebook was founded in the year 2004 by
(a) Bill Gates (b) Mark Zuckerberg (c) Steve Jobs (d) Jan Koum
Answer: (b)
The origins of Facebook have been in dispute since the very week a 19-year-old Mark Zuckerberg
launched the site as a Harvard sophomore on February 4, 2004. Then the so-called site
"thefacebook.com," was an instant hit.
Q17. Navroz celebration is associated with
(a) Assamese New Year (b) Parsi New Year (c) Ladakhi New Year (d) Telugu New Year
Answer: (b)
Navroz is a New Year celebration for Parsis which is held on March 21 every year, followers of
Zoroastrianism and various sects of Muslim, both Shias and Sunnis. Originated in Ancient Persia (Iran),

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Navroz is now celebrated in more than 17 countries, each in their own way. In India, it is known as
Jamshed Navroz.
Q18. Birth place of Lord Gautam Buddha is
(a) Lumbini (b) Sarnath (c) Bodh Gaya (d) Vaishali
Answer: (a)
Siddhartha Gautama, the Lord Buddha, was born in 632 B.C. in the famous gardens of Lumbini, which
soon became a place of pilgrimage. The site is now being developed as a Buddhist pilgrimage centre,
where the archaeological remains associated with the birth of the Lord Buddha form a central feature.
Q19. The term Exhumation refers to
(a) Spray of insecticide (b) Medically re-examining a body that has been buried
(c) Anti malaria precautions (d) Cleaning of Carbon from car exhaust pipe
Answer: (b)
The action of digging up something buried, especially a corpse. It also refers to revive or restore or bring
to light after being neglected for a period of time.
Q20. The acid is gastric juice is
(a) Acetic Acid (b) Nitric Acid (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Sulphuric Acid
Answer: (c)
Gastric acid, gastric juice, or stomach acid, is a digestive fluid formed in the stomach and is composed of
hydrochloric acid (HCl), potassium chloride (KCl), and sodium chloride (NaCl).
Q21. Which of the following is NOT caused by a virus
(a) AIDS (b) Arthritis (c) Swine Flu (d) Dengue Fever
Answer: (b)
Arthritis is inflammation of one or more of your joints. The main symptoms of arthritis are joint pain and
stiffness, which typically worsen with age. The most common types of arthritis are osteoarthritis and
rheumatoid arthritis.
Q22. Mango and guava plants are best propagated through
(a) Stem Cuttings (b) Layering (c) Grafting (d) Tissue Culture
Answer: (b)
Mango and guava plants are best propagated through Layering.
In layering method, a branch of the plant is pulled towards the ground and a part of it is covered with
moist soil leaving the tip of the ranch exposed above the ground.
Q23. A rank in the Air Force which is equivalent of the rank of Colonel in the Army is
(a) Group Captain (b) Commandant (c) Admiral (d) Commodore
Answer: (a)
A rank in the Air Force which is equivalent of the rank of Colonel in the Army is Group Captain.
Group captain is a senior commissioned rank in many air forces. Group captain has a NATO rank code of
OF-5, meaning that it ranks above wing commander, immediately below air commodore and is the
equivalent of the naval rank of captain and the rank of colonel in other services.
Q24. Malala Yousafzai, a Nobel laureate was shot by Taliban to silence her fight against
(a) Right to sing in public (b) Child labour
(c) Right to girl education (d) Child marriage
Answer: (c)

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Malala Yousafzai, a Nobel laureate was shot by Taliban to silence her fight against Right to girl
education. She fought for the rights for girls that even women can be educated equally to men.
Q25. The author of world’s famous Harry Potter series is
(a) Arundhati Roy (b) JK Rowling (c) Taslima Nasrin (d) Salman Rushdie
Answer: (b)
J.K. Rowling is best known as the British author of the Harry Potter series, the bestselling book series in
history with more than 400 million copies sold and one of the most popular movie series of all time. The
book is a fantasy fiction which is about a boy named Harry Potter.
Q26. The term Hypoxia refers to
(a) Lack of sleeps (b) Lack of Oxygen
(c) Injury due to extreme cold (d) Loss of memory
Answer: (b)
Hypoxemia refers to low level of oxygen in blood, and the more general term hypoxia is an abnormally
low oxygen content in any tissue or organ, or the body as a whole. Hypoxemia can
cause hypoxia (hypoxemic hypoxia), but hypoxia can also occur via other mechanisms, such as anemia.
Q27. Mc Mahon Line demarcates the boundary between
(a)India and Pakistan (b) India and Nepal (c) India and China (d) India and Bhutan
Answer: (c)
The McMahon Line is a demarcation line drawn on map referred in the Simla Convention, a
treaty between Britain and Tibet signed in 1914. Although, its legal status is disputed, it is currently the
effective boundary between China and India.
Q28. A nuclear reactor is a device to produce nuclear energy with the help of
(a) Nuclear fusion (b) Uncontrolled chain reaction
(c) Controlled chain reaction (d) Graphite as fuel
Answer: (c)
A boiling water reactor uses 235U, enriched as uranium dioxide, as its fuel. The fuel is assembled into
rods housed in a steel vessel that is submerged in water. The nuclear fission causes the water to boil,
generating steam. The steam is used in the generation of electricity.
The nuclear power plants use controlled chain reaction because the uncontrolled chain reaction which is
used in nuclear weapons will cause huge amount of destruction to the surroundings.
Q29. Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar
Island
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta (Kolkata) (c) Madras (Chennai) (d) Odisha
Answer: (b)
Calcutta (KolKatta) is the High Courts has the territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Island.
Q30. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of
(a) Reconstruction and development (b) Stimulating private investment
(c) Tracking foreign exchange crises (d) Meeting deficits in government budget
Answer: (a)
The World Bank provides financial support and advice to its member countries to help them fight
poverty. Unlike commercial banks, the World Bank lends at little or no interest to countries that are
unable to raise money for development anywhere else.

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Q31. Who was the founder of Maurya dynasty


(a) Chandragupta II (b) Chandragupta Maurya (c) Vishnugupta (d) Ashoka
Answer: (b)
In the wake of the death of Alexander, the Great in 323 BCE, Chandragupta (or Chandragupta Maurya),
founder of the Mauryan dynasty.
The Maurya Empire was a geographically-extensive Iron Age historical power based in Magadha and
founded by Chandragupta Maurya which dominated the Indian subcontinent between 322 and 187 BCE.
Comprising the majority of South Asia, the Maurya Empire was centralized by the conquest of the Indo-
Gangetic Plain, and its capital city was located at Pataliputra (modern Patna).
Q32. Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights because
(a) Clouds prevent escape of heat from the ground
(b) Absorb sunlight during the day and radiate the same at night
(c) Clouds make the atmosphere damp and generate heat
(d) Clouds obstruct the movement of air which creates heat
Answer: (a)
A cloudy night is warmer than a clear night, due to the fact that the sun heats up the land during the day
time, at night time, all the heat goes away into the atmosphere. But when it is cloudy, the clouds
insulate the warmth, causing it to be warmer.
Q33. Rainbow is formed due to a combination of
(a) Refraction and absorption of light in water droplets
(b) Reflection, refraction and dispersion of light in water droplets
(c) Refraction and scattering of light in water droplets
(d) Dispersion and total internal reflection of light in water droplets
Answer: (b)
A rainbow is a meteorological phenomenon that is caused by reflection, refraction, and dispersion of
light in water droplets resulting in a spectrum of light appearing in the sky. It takes the form of a multi-
coloured circular arc. Rainbows caused by sunlight which always appear in the section of sky directly
opposite the sun.
Q34. What do the airbags, used for safety in cars contain?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Sodium azide (c) Sodium nitrite (d) Sodium peroxide
Answer: (b)
The driver-side airbag would contain a canister containing about 50 grams of sodium azide.
Because vehicles change speed so quickly in a crash, airbags must inflate rapidly to reduce the risk of the
occupant hitting the vehicle's interior.
Sodium azide decomposes at 300°C. It doesn't need air and it decomposes on its own. Sodium azide that
is used in air bags, inflates on any mechanical shock (accident). Nitrogen is the gas that is produced in
this explosion. However, nitrogen gas is safest being inert.
Q35. With reference to human nutrition consider the following statements
(a) Banana is richer source of carbohydrates than apples
(b) Banana contains some amount of protein also
(c) Spinach has no protein at all
(d) Potatoes are richer sources of protein than peas

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(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (a)
Banana is richer source of carbohydrates than apples and Banana contains some amount of protein
which is also referring to the human nutrition.
Q36. The yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of
(a) Bile (b) Lymph (c) Cholesterol (d) Urobilin or Urochrome
Answer: (d)
Urine color generally ranges from a pale-yellow color to deep amber. This coloring is primarily caused
by the pigment urochrome, also known as urobilin.
Q37. Which of the following is one of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable waste
(a) Recycling (b) Burying waste (c) Burning waste (d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
Recycling is the process of converting waste materials into new materials and objects. It is an alternative
to "conventional" waste disposal that can save material and help to lower greenhouse gas emissions.
Recycling can prevent the waste of potentially useful materials and reduce the consumption of fresh
raw materials, thereby reducing energy usage, air pollution (from incineration), and water pollution
(from landfilling).
Q38. Zika virus or Zika fever is spread through
(a) Contaminated water (b) Mosquito bite (c) Contaminated food (d) Chicken and eggs
Answer: (b)
It is spread by daytime-active Aedes mosquitoes, such as A. aegypti and A. albopictus. Its name comes
from the Ziika Forest of Uganda, where the virus was first isolated in 1947. Zika virus is related
to dengue, yellow fever, Japanese encephalitis, and West Nile viruses.
Q39. Virat Kohli became the first Indian cricketer to score a century in World Cup against
(a) South Africa (b) Australia (c) West Indies (d) Pakistan
Answer: (d)
Virat Kohli became the first Indian cricketer to score a century in World Cup against Pakistan. He played
in every match of India's successful World Cup campaign. He scored an unbeaten 100, his fifth
ODI century, in the first match against Bangladesh and became the first Indian batsman to score a
century on World Cup debut.
Q40. ‘World Cancer Day’ is observed on
(a) 19 February (b) 4 February (c) 12 February (d) 17 January
Answer: (b)
World Cancer Day is an international day marked on February 4 to raise awareness of cancer and to
encourage its prevention, detection, and treatment.
Q41. Which of the following is a chemical change
(a) Heating of iron to red hot (b) Magnetization of iron pieces
(c) Rusting of iron (d) All of above
Answer: (c)
Rust is another name for iron oxide, which occurs when iron or an alloy that contains iron, like steel, is
exposed to oxygen and moisture for a long period of time. Over time, the oxygen combines with the

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metal at an atomic level, forming a new compound called an oxide and weakening the bonds of the
metal itself.
Q42. Regarding women in the early Vedic period, which of the following are correct
(i) They were allowed to study (ii) They held good positions
(iii) They did not practice Purdah system (iv) They attended Sabha and Samiti
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) all of these
Answer: (d)
Regarding women in the early Vedic period, women were allowed to study and held good positions in
society. They were not forced to undergo purdah system. They also attended Sabha and Samiti which
means meeting or assemblies. Thus, option d is the correct answer.
Q43. The Rowlatt Act came into being in
(a) March 1919 (b) June 1919 (c) March 1918 (d) June 1920
Answer: (a)
The Rowlatt Act came into effect in March 1919.
Rowlatt Act, was a legislative act passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on 10 March 1919,
indefinitely extending the emergency measures of preventive indefinite detention, incarceration
without trial and judicial review enacted in the Defence of India Act 1915 during the First World War.
In the Punjab, the protest movement was very strong, and on 10 April two leaders of the congress, Dr.
Satya Pal and Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew, were arrested and taken secretly to Dharamsala.
Q44. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily
(a) Bhakti (b) Image worship and Yajnas
(c) Worship of nature and Yajnas (d) Worship of nature and Bhakti
Answer: (c)
The Ancient Aryans were highly religious but their religion was simple. They were impressed by the
forces of nature such as the Sun, the Fire, the Wind, the Dawn, the Water, the Rain God Indra and Earth
whom they worshipped as Gods. Every natural phenomenon was regarded as a separate God.
Yajna or Havana (burning incense) was the major part of their religious duty. The daily Yajnas were very
simple and were performed by the family members themselves. Special care was taken in performing
the Yajnas lest the Gods should get displeased.
Q45. Gandhiji’s call for breaking Salt Law was in response to the
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement (b) Civil Disobedience
(c) Khilafat Movement (d) Quit India Movement
Answer: (b)
Gandhiji's call for breaking Salt Laws was in response to the. Salt March marked the beginning of the
Civil Disobedience Movement.
When Gandhi broke the salt laws at 6:30 am on 6 April 1930, it sparked large scale acts of civil
disobedience against the British Raj salt laws (Taxation on salt) by millions of Indians.
Q46. Who was the winner of this year’s French Open Men’s Single title
(a) Novak Jokovic (b) Andy Murray (c) M Bryan (d) F Lopez
Answer: (a)
Novak Djokovic was the winner of this year’s French Open Men’s Single title.

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The French Open is an annual tennis tournament held over two weeks in May and June.
Novak Djokovic is a Serbian professional tennis player who is currently ranked world No. 1 in men's
singles tennis by the Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP).
Q47. MOSSAD is the intelligence agency of
(a) Egypt (b) Israel (c) USA (d) Japan
Answer: (b)
The Israeli Intelligence Community which is made up of Aman (military intelligence), Mossad (overseas
intelligence), and Shabak (internal security). Mossad is responsible for intelligence collection, covert
operations, and counterterrorism. In contrast to the government and military, the goals, structure and
powers of the Mossad are exempt from the constitutional laws of the State of Israel.
Q48. Which of the following paramilitary forces was the first force to raise an all-woman battalion in
India.
(a) ITBP (b) BSF (c) CRPF (d) CISF
Answer: (c)
Central Reserve Police Force was the first force to raise an all-woman battalion in India. The Central
Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is India's largest Central Armed Police Force.
It functions under the authority of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) of the Government of India. The
CRPF's primary role lies in assisting the State/Union Territories in police operations to maintain law and
order and counter insurgency.
Q49. The atmosphere becomes thinner with increasing altitude. With no definite boundary between the
atmosphere and the outer space, Karman Line is often used as a border, with a distance of
(a) 100 KM from earth (b) 10 KM from earth (c) 500 KM from earth (d) 1000
KM from earth
Answer: (a)
The atmosphere becomes thinner with increasing altitude. With no definite boundary between the
atmosphere and the outer space, Karman Line is often used as a border, with a distance of 100 KM from
earth.
The Kármán line, or Karman line, is an attempt to define a boundary between Earth's
atmosphere and outer space. This is important for legal and regulatory measures. The aircraft and
spacecraft fall under different jurisdictions and are subject to different treaties.
Q50. Operation Meghdoot is related to
(a) Siachen Glacier (b) Aksai Chin (c) Kutch (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Operation Meghdoot was an Indian armed forces operation launched 33 years ago on 13 April 1984.
Operation Meghdoot was an operation launched by Indian Armed Forces to capture the Siachen Glacier
in Kashmir.
The Siachen Glacier became a bone of contention following a vague demarcation of territories in the
Karachi Agreement of July 1949 which did not exactly specify who had authority over the Siachen
Glacier area.

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PART II: ENGLISH


Analyse the contents of the passage and then answer the question that follow passage.
The artificial ways of inducing sleep are legion, and are only alike in their ineffectuality. In Lavengro
there is an impossible character, a victim of insomnia, who finds that a volume of Wordsworth’s poems
is the only sure soporific, but that was Borrow’s Malice. The famous old plan of counting sheep jumping
over a stile has never served a turn. I have herded imaginary sheep until they insisted on turning
themselves into white bears or blue pigs, and I defy any reasonable man to fall asleep while mustering a
heard of stupid swine.
Q51. The author points out that
(a) sleep can easily be included
(b) the artificial means of inducting sleep are not good
(c) artificial ways of inducing sleep are ineffective
(d) artificial ways of inducing sleep are expensive
Answer: (c)
Yes, in the passage the author really points out that artificial ways of inducing sleep are ineffective.
Q52. According to the author the character in Lavengro
(a) resorts to external aids to get some sleep
(b) is an admirer of Wordsworth
(c) spends sleepless nights reading Wordsworth
(d) is an avid reader of poetry
Answer: (d)
An avid reader is a reader who is eager to get hold of latest releases or bestsellers in his favourite
genres. The literary's quality of a book is the most important criteria for choosing to satisfy
the reader's appetite for reading.
Q53. The author uses “impossible” for the character of Lavengro in the sense of
(a) funny (b) unrealistic (c) queer (d) imaginary
Answer: (b)
George, the narrator, who is called “Lavengro,” the Zingary gypsy word for “word master” or
“philologist.”, so called unrealistic.
Q54. Borrow’s malice is most probably directed at
(a) sleeplessness (b) the artificial ways of inducing sleep
(c) Wordsworth’s poetry (d) poetry in general
Answer: (c)
William Wordsworth was a major English Romantic poet who, with Samuel Taylor Coleridge, helped to
launch the Romantic Age in English literature with their joint publication Lyrical Ballads.
Q55. In order to cure his insomnia, the writer
(a) does a lot of reading
(b) vainly tries to concentrate on imaginary situation
(c) keeps a flock of sheep
(d) counts sheep jumping over a stile
Answer: (b)

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Vainly tries to concentrate on imaginary situations, rather than rereading the books or counting the
flock of sheep.
Choose the world which best expresses nearly the same meaning of the given word
Q56. CONNOISSEUR
(a) swindler (b) expert (c) informant (d) fugitive
Answer: (b)
It means a person who knows a lot about and enjoys one of the arts, or food, drink, etc. and
can judge quality and skill in that subject:
Q57. INJUNCTION
(a) order (b) coincidence
(c) shot of medic (d) meeting point of railway tracks
Answer: (a)
Since it means, an official order given by a law court, usually to stop someone from doing something.
Q58. SARDONIC
(a) carelessly dressed (b) threatening (c) mocking (d) flirty
Answer: (c)
Since it means, humorous in an unkind way that shows you do not respect someone or something:
Q59. INCISIVE
(a) Impressively direct (b) urgent (c) kind (d) doubtful
Answer: (a)
Since it means, expressing an idea or opinion in a clear and direct way that shows good understanding of
what is important:
Q60. DEBILITATE
(a) attack (b) weaken (c) destroy (d) kill
Answer: (b)
It means to make someone or something physically weak.
Q61. SANGUINE
(a) Hopeful (b) clever (c) modest (d) loyal
Answer: (a)
Since it means, of someone or someone's character) positive and hoping for good things.
Q62. PROGNOSIS
(a) Preface (b) Forecast (c) Suffer (d) Weakness
Answer: (b)
Since it means, a statement of what is judged likely to happen in the future, especially in
connection with a particular situation:
Q63. ONEROUS
(a) Awesome (b) Burdensome (c) Difficult (d) Easy
Answer: (c)
Since it means, difficult to do or needing a lot of effort:
Q64. PERFIDY
(a)Deceit (b) Treachery (c) Conceit (d) Deceit

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Answer: (b)
Since it means, behaviour that is not loyal.
Q65. INNATE
(a) Inborn (b) Unique (c) Imported (d) Essential
Answer: (a)
Since an innate quality or ability is one that you were born with, not one you have learned.
Choose the word which best expresses the opposite meaning of the underlined word in the sentences
given below
Q66. The treaty was ratified by the heads of states
(a) annulled (b) set a side (c) destroyed (d) unsettled
Answer: (a)
Because it means (especially of governments or organizations) to make an agreement official. So,
annuled is antonym.
Q67. He stood gazing at the serene expanse of the sea
(a) ruffled (b) clear (c) scenic (d) tranquil
Answer: (a)
Because it means, peaceful and calm or worried by nothing. So, ruffled is the antonym.
Q68. He looked elated on hearing the news
(a) depressed (b) exasperated (c) anxious (d) jubilant
Answer: (a)
Because it means extremely happy and excited, often because something has happened or been
achieved. So, depressed is the antonym.
Q69. He is suffering from benign tumour
(a) infectious (b) malignant (c) contagious (d) encapsulated
Answer: (b)
Because it means, pleasant and kind: so malignant which means A malignant disease or
growth is cancer or is related to cancer, and is likely to be harmful: is the antonym.
Q70. The indignation of the retreating taliban resulted in large scale killings
(a) orderliness (b) anger (c) happiness (d) displeasure
Answer: (c)
Because it means, angry because of something that is wrong or not fair. So, happiness is the antonym.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words from the option given below
Q71. Krishan’s horse is of an excellent __________
(a) brood (b) breed (c) stood (d) steed
Answer: (b)
A breed is defined as a group of horses with a common origin and possessing certain distinguishable
characteristics that are transmitted to the offspring, such that the offspring possess the parents'
characteristics.
Q72. Smoking __________ health
(a) kills (b) effects (c) rejects (d) affects
Answer: (d)

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Rather than the word “kills”, we can use word the “affects”. As the health is cannot be killed it can only
be affected because health defines the state of being.
Q73. This is a __________ on his character
(a) blur (b) blot (c) spot (d) slur
Answer: (d)
Slur is the apt option because it means an insinuation or allegation about someone that is likely to insult
them or damage their reputation.
Q74. The Christmas tree __________ with star and lights
(a) encased (b) adorned (c) endowed (d) enticed
Answer: (b)
The word adorn means to add something decorative to a person or thing.
Q75. Slaves were freed from __________ only after they died
(a) bondage (b) pilferage (c) arrangement (d) agreement
Answer: (a)
Bondage perfectly means the state of being another person's slave (a person who is owned by them and
has to work for them).
In each of the following sentences find out which part of the sentence has an error
Q76. Children often (a) / quarrel on (b) / petty issues (c) /no error (d)
Answer: (b)
‘Quarrel over’ is correct and not ‘quarrel on’. Over is the correct preposition for the word quarrel.
Q77. My mathematics teacher(a)/often emphasises on(b /the need for a lot of practice (c) / no error (d)
Answer: (b)
We should not use “on” as preposition for the word emphasises. The correct preposition for the word
emphasises is “in”. Thus, the (b) part has error.
Q78. Our laxity in duty (a) / increases with our (b) / aversion for work (c) / no error (d)
Answer: (c)
“aversion for work” must be changed to “aversion to work” because “to” is the appropriate preposition
for the word aversion.
Q79. For nearly half a century he lived in that village, (a) / sharing the joys and sorrows of the people
there (b) / but later he left the village and has not been heard of since (c) / no error (d)
Answer: (c)
Add ‘then’ after ‘since’.
Q80. He was accused for murder (a) / but the court found him not guilty (b) / and acquitted him (c) / no
error (d)
Answer: (a)
The correct preposition is to be used here is ‘accused of murder’ we cannot use for as preposition in this
sentence ‘accused for murder’.
Choose the best expression amongst multiple choices for a given idiom/proverb
Q81. A close shave
(a) A clean shave (b) A lucky escape
(c) A narrow escape (d) A well-guarded secret
Answer: (c)

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A narrow escape from danger is the best expression for given idiom/phrase.
Q82. All Agog
(a) Everybody (b) Almighty (c) Restless (d) All ready
Answer: (c)
The word agog means with great excitement and interest. The word “Restless” is the appropriate
meaning for this idiom.
Q83. A snake in the grass
(a) Unrecognisable danger (b) Secret enemy
(c) Unforeseen happening (d) Ignorant person
Answer: (b)
Snake in the grass is can also be expressed as treacherous person or secret enemy. Though
unrecognisable danger looks apt for this idiom, it cannot be used because this idiom is used to define a
person and the word “danger” cannot be used to define a person.
Q84. To get cold feet
(a) To run for life (b) To be afraid (c) To fall sick (d) To become angry
Answer: (b)
Cold indirectly meaning for being afraid or scared. Our body naturally gets cold while we are afraid of
something, so here “to get cold feet” means “to be afraid”.
Q85. Harp on
(a) To comment (b) To criticize
(c) To keep on talking (d) To keep on insulting
Answer: (c)
“To keep on talking” is the meaning for the given idiom/phrase.
In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted
for the given word/sentence
Q86. A short amusing story about some real person or event
(a) Anecdote (b) Antidote (c) Tale (d) Allegory
Answer: (a)
The option a is the correct answer because the word “Anecdote” means, a short,
often funny story, especially about something someone has done.
Q87. Custom of having many wives
(a) Monogamy (b) Bigamy (c) Polygamy (d) Matrimony
Answer: (c)
The word “Polygamy” means the fact or custom of being married to more than one person at the
same time.
Q88. Strong and settled dislike between two persons
(a) Hatred (b) Antipathy (c) Animosity (d) Hatred
Answer: (b)
The word “Antipathy” means a feeling of strong dislike, opposition, or anger.
Q89. A song embodying religious and sacred emotions
(a) Ballad (b) Lyrics (c) Ode (d) Hymn
Answer: (d)

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The word “hymn” means a song of praise that Christians sing to God.
Q90. Act of killing one’s wife
(a) Avicide (b) Uxoricide (c) Genocide (d) Canicide
Answer: (b)
The word “uxoricide” means the crime of murdering one’s wife.
Rearrange following parts of a sentence to form a meaningful sentence
Q91. A typical Saina Nehwal day
(P) or even a game of tennis
(Q) starts off
(R) on some days
(S) with an early morning workout
(a) QSPR (b) QSRP (c) RPSQ (d) RSQP
Answer: (a)
Starts off with an early morning workout or even a game of tennis on some days; is the correct order.
Q92. Work is the one thing
(P) and without it
(Q) that is necessary
(R) to keep the world going
(S) we all should die
(a) QPSR (b) RPQS (c) QRPS (d) SRPQ
Answer: (c)
“Work is the one thing that is necessary to keep the world going and without it we all should die”, is the
correct order of the sentence.
Q93. He reached his office at 10:00 am and
(P) no sooner
(Q) than there was a huge explosion
(R) had he got out of the car
(S) and it went up in flames
(a) PQRS (b) RPSQ (c) RPQS (d) PRQS
Answer: (d)
“He reached his office at 10:00 am and no sooner had he got out of the car than there was a huge
explosion and it went up in flames” which is correct sentence to be formed.
Q94. The boy
(P) with big blue eyes
(Q) watched him
(R) and he never said a word
(S) that had an uncanny cold fire in them
(a) QPSR (b) PQRS (c) PQSR (d) QRPS
Answer: (a)
The boy watched him with big blue eyes that had an uncanny cold fire in them and he never said a word;
is the correct sentence.

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Q95. This is a letter


(P) from a young lady
(Q) who was lately wounded in a duel
(R) written in most passionate terms
(S) wherein she laments the misfortune of a gentleman
(a) PRQS (b) PRSQ (c) RPQS (d) RPSQ
Answer: (b)
“This is a letter from a young lady written in most passionate terms wherein she laments the misfortune
of a gentleman who was lately wounded in a duel”, is the correct form of the sentence.
For underlined part of sentence choose part of the sentence from given choices, to correct or improve it
Q96. His father won’t be able to leave for Varanasi until they have arrived
(a) until they arrive (b) until they will arrive
(c) until they will have arrived (d) no improvement
Answer: (a)
His father won’t be able to leave for Varanasi until they arrived. The option a has the correct phrase.
Q97. What are needed are not large houses but small cottages
(a) were (b) is (c) was (d) no improvement
Answer: (b)
What is needed are not large houses but small cottages. “Is” is the correct form of the verb which is
need to be used.
Q98. I am sorry, but I don’t believe what you say
(a) I will not believe (b) I am not believing
(c) I will not be believing (d) no improvement
Answer: (d)
“I am sorry, but I don’t believe what you say”, is a correct form of sentence which needs no
improvement.
Q99. It is time the six years old is learning how to read and write
(a) learnt (b) has learnt (c) was learning (d) no improvement
Answer: (a)
It is time the six years old learnt how to read and write. In this sentence, past is the required verb, thus
learnt is the appropriate word for this sentence.
Q100. He plays cricket and tennis also
(a) be sides (b) both (c) too (d) no improvement
Answer: (c)
He plays cricket and tennis too. We cannot use the word “also” in the end of sentence and both defines
the same object, thus, “too” is used in this sentence.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY
SOLVED PAPER – JULY 2017
PAPER: 1. REASONING & ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS

PART I : REASONING

Q 1. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(a) 16 (b) 14 (c) 8 (d) 12


Answer: (a)
On counting it is clear that, the given figure has 16 numbers of triangles.
Q 2. How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 21 (d) 14


Answer: (b)
On counting it is clear that, the given figure has 16 numbers of rectangles.
Q3. In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their
positions. Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(a) 34 (b) 40 (c) 36 (d) 41
Answer: (b)
According to their standing arrangement,
Total number of students in the row = 16 + 25 – 1 = 40.
Q4. Five students are standing one behind the other in the playground facing the instructor. Malini is
behind Anjana, but in front of Gayatri. Meena is in front of Sheena, but behind Gayatri. What is the
position of Meena?
(a) Second from Last (b) Extreme First (c) Extreme Last (d) Second from first
Answer: (a)
While imagining the positions of each and every girl and their order is
Anjana – Malini – Gayatri – Meena - Sheena
It is clear that Meena is second from last.
Q5. Sita is elder than Swapna. Lavanya is elder than Swapna but younger than Sita. Suvarna is younger
than both Hari and Swapna. Swapna is elder than Hari. Who is the youngest?
(a) Sita (b) Lavanya (c) Suvarna (d) Hari
Answer: (c)
According to their age, the order from elder to younger is
Sita > Lavanya > Swapna > Hari > Suvarna.

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It is clear that everyone is elder than Suvarna. So, Suvarna is the youngest.
Q6. C is A’s father’s nephew. D is A’s Cousin but not brother of C. How is D related to C?
(a) Father (b) Sister (c) Mother (d) Aunt
Answer: (b)
From this statement “C is A’s father’s nephew. D is A’s Cousin but not brother of C”. It is clear that D is
the sister of C.
Q7. Deepak said to Nitin, “That Boy playing football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter
of my father’s wife” How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?
(a) Son (b) Nephew (c) Brother (d) Cousin
Answer: (c)
From this line “That Boy playing football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my
father’s wife” it is clear that Deepak is talking about his father and his family only so that boy is his own
brother.
Q8. Which diagram depicts relationship between Nitrogen, Ice, Air?

(a) (b) (c) (d)


Answer: (d)
All these three elements are different from each other, but nitrogen and air can be mixed so diagram (d)
is the exact answer.
Q9. Which diagram depicts relationship between Bus, Car, Vehicle?

(a) (b) (c) (d)


Answer: (c)
Because people taking car and vehicle completely belong to category of travelers and public mode of
transport is bus.
Q10. If CUSTOM is written as UCTSMO then how PARENT will be written in the same code?
(a) ERAPTN (b) TNERAP (c) RAPTNE (d) APERTN
Answer: (d)

Q11. If CAT is coded as 3120, what code number can be given to NAVIN?
(a) 14122914 (b) 49274654 (c) 73957614 (d) 43245654
Answer: (a)

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Here the alphabets are numbered respectively as A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4,……….. respectively thus, CAT 3120
and NAVIN is coded as 14122914
Q 12. If in a certain code EDITION is written as 3891965, then how TIDE will be written in that code?
(a) 3819 (b) 1983 (c) 1839 (d) 1586
Answer: (b)

Therefore,

The above representation clearly states that why tide is coded as 1983.
Q 13. If FADE is coded as 3854 then how can GAGE be coded?
(a) 1824 (b) 2834 (c) 2824 (d) 2814
Answer: (c)
Given that fade is coded as 3854 then
we have to find the code of gage.
F, A, D, E are given
A - 8, B - 7, C - 6, D - 5, E - 4, F - 3, G - 2, H - 1
Thus, GAGE can be coded as 2824
Directions: In each of the following questions, four words are given, out of which three are alike in some
manner and the fourth one is different. Choose the odd one.
Q 14. (a) Wood (b) Cork (c) Stone (d) Paper
Answer: (c)
Except stone all others belong to products of tree only stone is different here.
Q 15. (a) Commander (b) Commodore (c) Admiral (d) Brigadier
Answer: (d)
All except Brigadier are ranks in navy, while Brigadier is a rank in army.
Directions: In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in
all pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are
differently related.
Q 16. (a) Steel : Utensils (b) Bronze : Statue
(c) Duralumin : Aircraft (d) Iron : Rails
Answer: (d)
In all other pairs, first is the alloy used to make the second. Iron is not an alloy, but a metal.
Q 17. (a) Tongue : Taste (b) Eye : Blind
(c) Ear : Deaf (d) Leg : Lame
Answer: (a)
In all other pairs, second indicates a state of non-functioning of the first

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Directions: In each of the following questions, four numbers are given, out of which three are alike in
some manner while the fourth one is different. Choose the one different from the rest.
Q 18. (a) 25631 (b) 33442 (c) 34424 (d) 52163
Answer: (b)
Except (b) in all others, the sum of digits of the number is 17.
Q 19. (a) 2468 (b) 2648 (c) 4826 (d) 6482
Answer: (a)
All other numbers contain first four consecutive even numbers but not in proper order.
Q 20. (a) 3:12 (b) 4:20 (c) 6:42 (d) 7:63
Answer: (d)
In all other pairs, (1st number) × (1st number + 1) = 2nd number.
Directions: In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term missing. Choosing
the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern.
Q 21. 3,20, 63, 144, 275, ____
(a) 554 (b) 548 (c) 468 (d) 354
Answer: (c)
1 × 3 = 3.
(1 + 3) × 5 = 4 × 5 = 20.
(4 + 5) × 7 = 9 × 7 = 63.
(9 + 7) × 9 = 16 × 9 = 144.
(16 + 9) × 11 = 25 × 11 = 275
(25 + 11) × 13 = 36 × 13 = 468.
So, the answer is 468.
Q22. 8, 12, 18, 27,____
1 1
(a) 36 (b) 44 (c) 37 2 (d) 40 2
Answer: (d)
As far seeing the sequence is going like
8×3
= 12
2
12×3
= 18
2
18×3
= 27
2
27×3
= 40.5
2
1
Thus, the answer is 40 2.
Q 23. 8, 29, 113, 449, ____
(a) 673 (b) 984 (c) 1484 (d) 1793
Answer: (d)
8 × 4 = 32– 3 = 29
29 × 4 = 116– 3 = 113
113 × 4 = 452– 3 = 449
449 × 4 = 1796– 3 = 1793
Thus, the answer is 1793.

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2 4 11 16
Q 24. , ,?, ,
3 7 21 31
5 6 7 9
(a) 9 (b) 11 (c)13 (d) 11
Answer: (c)
The difference in the numerator increases by 1
2, 4, 7, 11, 16
Difference: 2, 3, 4, 5
The difference increases by 2
3, 7, 13, 21, 31
Difference: 4, 6, 8, 10
7
So, the correct answer is 13
Directions: In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one
missing term as shown by (?) choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
Q 25. N5V, K7T, ? , E14P, B19N
(a) H9R (b) H10Q (c) H10R (d) I10R
Answer: (c)
N-3=K, K-3=H, H-3=E, E-3=B
5+2=7, 7+3=10, 10+4=14, 14+5=19
V-2=T, T-2=R, R-2=P, P-2=N
Thus, the missing term is H10R.
Q 26. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ? , H16R, M22P
(a) I11T (b) L11S (c) L12T (d) L11T
Answer: (d)
The first letters in odd numbered terms from series J, I, H and in even numbered terms from the series
K, L, M.
The sequence followed by the numbers is + 2, + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6.
The third letter of each term is moved two steps backward to obtain the third letter of the next term.
Thus, the missing term is L11T.
Q 27. C4X, F9U, I16R, ?
(a) K25P (b) L25Q (c) L25O (d) L27P
Answer: (c)
The first letter of each term is moved three steps forward and the last letter is moved three steps
backward to obtain the corresponding letters of the next term.
The numbers from the sequence 22, 32, 42, 52.
Thus, the missing term is L25O.
Directions: In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one
missing term as shown by (?)– choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
Q 28. AB, DEF, HIJK, ?, STUVWX
(a) LMNO (b) LMNOP (c) MNOPQ (d) QRSTU
Answer: (c)
The number of letters in the terms goes on increasing by 1 at each step.
Each term consists of letters in alphabetical order.

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The first letter of the next term is one step forward of last letter of its previous term.
Thus, the missing term is MNOPQ.
Q 29. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?
(a) MQORN (b) MQNRO (c) NQMOR (d) QMONR
Answer: (b)
MQNRO
Last term of previous and first term of next are consecutive. So after L its M, then 1 st term is M
The sequence is next alphabet which is in the alternate places.
So M--N--O fixed. for the blanks Y-2=W,W-2=U like that S-2=Q... similarly T-2=R
So, answer is MQNRO.
Q 30. I am facing in Southern Direction I turn Right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right and walk 10 m. Then
again, I turn left and walk 10 m. Then again, I turn right and walk 20 m. Once again, I turn right and walk
60 m. In which direction I am from (starting) initial point?
(a) North (b) North West (c) East (d) North East
Answer: (d)
The movements of the person are shown in Fig. Clearly, the final position is to the North-east of the
starting point.

Q 31. Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H placed as shown in the diagram. All are facing in the outward
direction. If all of them move anticlockwise to three places then.

(a) B is facing West (b) E is facing East


(c) H is facing North West (d) A is facing South
Answer: (a)
After the rearrangement of their positions, their new positions will be as shown in fig.

Thus, B is facing West.


Q 32. On what dates of March, 2013 did Wednesdays fall?
(a) 6, 13, 20, 27 (b) 5, 12, 19, 26 (c) 4, 11, 18, 25 (d) 7, 14, 21, 28

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Answer: (d)
We need to find out the day of 01-Apr-2013
01-Apr-2013 = (2012 years + period from 1-Jan-2013 to 01-Apr-2013)
We know that number of odd days in 400 years = 0
Hence the number of odd days in 2012 years = 0 (Since 2000 is a perfect multiple of 400)
Days from 1-Jan-2013 to 01-Apr-2013 = 31 (Jan) + 28 (Feb) + 31 (Mar) + 1(Apr) = 91
91 days = 13 weeks = 0 odd day
Total number of odd days = (0 + 0) = 0 odd days
0 odd day = Sunday. Hence 01-Apr-2013 is Sunday.
Hence first Wednesday of Apr 2013 comes in 04th and successive Wednesdays come in March 7, 14, 21, 28th.
Q 33. A watch which gains uniformly is 4 minutes low at 9 A.M. on Sunday, and is 4 minutes 15 sec. fast
at 9 P.M. on next Friday. When was it correct?
(a) 2 A.M. Thursday (b) 6 P.M. Wednesday(c) 1 A.M. Wednesday (d) 6 P.M.
Answer: (c)
Time from 9 a.m. on Sunday to 9 p.m. on the next Friday = 5 days 12 hours = 132 hours
In 132 hours the clock gains 8.25 minutes, or 0.0625 minutes per hour.
To be "on time" the clock must gain 4 minutes.
That takes 64 hours (4 ÷ 0.0625).
Thus, it was correct at 1 A.M. Wednesday.
Q 34. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at interval of 64 minutes of correct time. How
much a day does the clock gain or lose?
9 8 9 8
(a) 43 11Minutes loss (b) 32 11 minute gain (c) 33 11 minute gain (d) 32 11 minute loss
Answer: (b)
In a correct clock, the minute hand gains 55 min. spaces over the hour hand in 60 minutes.
To be together again, the minute hand must gain 60 minutes over the hour
hand.
55 min. are gained in 60 min.
60 720
60 min are gained in (55) × 60 𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 𝑚𝑖𝑛.
11
But, they are together after 65 min.
720 5
Gain in 65 min = ( 11 ) − 65 = 11 𝑚𝑖𝑛.
5 60×24 1440
Gain in 24 hours = (11 × ) 𝑚𝑖𝑛 =
65 143
1440
The clock gains minutes in 24 hours.
143
8
32 11 minute gain.
Directions: Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Q 35. Which letter is sixteenth to the right of the letter which is fourth to the left of I?
(a) S (b) T (c) U (d) V
Answer: (c)
Clearly, the fourth letter to the left of I is E. The sixteenth letter to the right of E is U.
Q 36. Which letter is exactly midway between G and Q in the given alphabet?
(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N

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Answer: (b)
L is the exactly midway between G and Q in the given alphabet.
Q 37. Which letter is midway between the eighteenth letter from the left end and tenth letter from the
right end of the given alphabet?
(a) No letter (b) K (c) Q (d) R
Answer: (a)
18th letter from the left is R and 10th letter from the right end is Q.
There is no letter between Q and R.
Q 38. Statements
(a) All teachers are experienced.
(b) Some teachers are spinsters.
Conclusions
(I) Some experienced are spinsters
(II) Some spinsters are experienced.
(a) Only conclusion I or II follow (b) Either conclusion I or II follow
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow (d) Only conclusion I follows
Answer: (c)

Both the conclusions I and II are appropriate for the given statements.
Q 39. Statements
(a) Some cats are dogs.
(b) No dog is a toy.
Conclusions:
(I) Some dogs are cats.
(II) Some toys are cats.
(III) Some cats are not toys.
(IV) All toys are cats.
(a) Only conclusion I and III follow (b) Only conclusion II and III follow
(c) Only conclusion I and II follow (d) Only conclusion I follows
Answer: (d)

Conclusion I follows the given statements.


Conclusion II and III are complementary pair.
Conclusion IV does not follow.
Thus, the conclusion 1 only supports the above given statements.

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Q 40. Find Missing Term.

(a) 3 and 2 (b) (-3) and 2 (c) 3 and (-2) (d) (-3) and (-2)
Answer: (c)
As First row: 2 + 9 = 11, 9 – 2 = 7 and
Second row: 8 + 5 = 13, 5 – 8 = -3
Similarly, 7 + 3 = 10, 3 – 7 = -4 and
6 + 4 = 10, 4 – 6 = - 2.
Thus, the missing terms are 3 and -2.
Q 41. Find Missing number.

(a) 19 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 12


Answer: (a)
2 × 3 = 6 + 4 = 10
The number in the first segment of the inner circle is multiplied with 2. The answer is then added with
the number in the inner circle of the second segment. Then the answer is found in the respective
segment of the outer circle.

2 × 4 = 8 + 6 = 14
2 × 6 = 12 + 8 = 20
The number 8 is multiplied with 2, then the product 16 is added with 3 which is 19.
∴ 2 × 8 = 16 + 3 = 19
Thus, option a is the correct answer.
Q 42. Find the Missing Term.

(a) 95 (b) 98 (c) 105 (d) 111


Answer: (b)
(67 + 91) − 45 = 113
(78 + 90) − 36 = 132
(98 + 81) − 27 = 152
The difference of 113 and 132 is 19

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The difference of 132 and 152 is 20


Thus, option b is the correct answer.
Q 43. Find Missing Term.

(a) 17 (b) 23 (c) 47 (d) 73


Answer: (b)
(7 + 9) ÷ 2 = 8
(2 + 4) ÷ 2 = 3
(5 + 7) ÷ 2 = 6
(16 + 30) ÷ 2 = 23
Thus, the correct answer is option b.
Directions: In each of the following questions, a letter number series is given with one or more terms
missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
Q 44. √𝐴𝐹𝐼: 13 ∷ √𝐴𝐷𝐷 =?
(a) 12 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 24
Answer: (a)
In the alphabetical order, we know that,
𝐴=1
𝐹=6
𝐼=9
Thus,
AFI = 169
On taking square root, we get,
√𝐴𝐹𝐼 = √169 = 13
In the alphabetical order, we know that,
𝐴=1
𝐷=4
𝐷=4
Thus,
ADD = 144
On taking square root, we get,
√𝐴𝐷𝐷 = √144 = 12
Thus, option a is the correct answer.
Q 45. RUST: 9687 :: TSUR
(a) 7896 (b) 7869 (c) 7689 (d) 6789
Answer: (b)
From the question, we can understand that,
R=9

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U=6
S=8
T=7
Similarly, on substituting the number in the other side of analogy, we get,
T=7
S=8
U=6
R=9
Thus, option b is the correct answer.
Directions: In the following questions you have to identify the correct response from the given premises
stated according to following symbols.
Q 46. If ÷ means +, - means ÷, × means -, and + means ×
(36×4)−8×4
Then 4+8×2+16÷1
(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
Answer: (a)
First, we will do one thing that is convert the above symbol in real form.
(36 × 4) − 8 × 4 (36 − 4) ÷ 8 − 4
=
4 + 8 × 2 + 16 ÷ 1 4 × 8 − 2 × 16 + 1
We should not forget to apply the BODMAS rule which some people do as a common mistake.
(36 − 4) ÷ 8 − 4 (32) ÷ 8 − 4
⇒ =
4 × 8 − 2 × 16 + 1 32 − 32 + 1
4−4

32 − 33
0

−1
(36 − 4) ÷ 8 − 4
⇒ =0
4 × 8 − 2 × 16 + 1
(36 × 4) − 8 × 4
∴ =0
4 + 8 × 2 + 16 ÷ 1
Thus, option a is the correct answer.
Q47. If → stands for ‘additions’, ← stands for ‘subtraction’, ↑ stands for ‘division’, ↓ stands for
’multiplication’, ↓ ‘equal to’, then which of the following alternatives is correct?
(a) 7 ← 43 ↑ 6 ↓ 1↓4 (b) 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2→ 3 ← 6↓4
(c) 5 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 2 ↓4 (d) 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2↓6
Answer: (d)
On substituting the arrows with operators, we get,
2×5−6+2 =6
The earlier down arrow is substituted with multiplication and latter down arrow is substituted with
equal to sign.
On using the BODMAS, we get,
10 − 6 + 2 = 6
4+2=6
⇒6=6
Thus, option d is the correct answer.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Directions: In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one or
more terms missing as shown by – choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.
Q 48. a c b _ c e _ f _
(a) dde (b) cde (c) dee (d) ddg
Answer: (a)
On dividing the question into three parts, we get,
a c b (series given in the question) = a b c (alphabetical series)
The third letter in the alphabetical series is brought in between rest of the two letter.
d c e (series given in the question) = c d e (alphabetical series)
The second letter according to the alphabetical series is brought to the front.
d f e (series given in the question) = d e f (alphabetical series)
Again, third letter according to the alphabetical series is brought in between rest of the two letter.
Therefore, d, d, and e letters will fill the blank spaces.
Thus, option a is the correct answer.
Q 49. r t x_ s x_z_txy_ _yz
(a) yy r x s (b) y y s x r (c) y y r s x (d) y y x r s
Answer: (c)
On dividing the given question into two parts, we get,
rtx_sx_z
_txy__yz
We can understand that, both the statement are same.
On comparing both the statement, we can find all the missing letters.
Therefore,
rtxysxyz
rtxysxyz
Therefore, y, y, r, s, and x are the letters to be filled in the blanks.
Thus, option c is the correct answer.
Q 50. Unscramble the letters to frame a meaningful word. Then find out the correct numerical position
of the letters.
BCUSMELRNA
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) 2 1 3 4 6 8 9 7 5 10 (b) 6 1 4 3 2 5 8 7 9 10
(c) 3 1 5 7 10 4 2 6 9 8 (d) 3 9 4 2 8 10 5 1 7 6
Answer: (d)
After rearranging the alphabets, the correct word formed is
UNSCRAMBLE
Thus, the equivalent numeral for the respective letters are,
3 9 4 2 8 10 5 1 7 6

Thus, option d is the correct answer.

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

PART II – ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS


cos2 60°+4 sec2 30°−tan2 45°
Q 51. The value of sin2 30°+cos2 30°
64 55 67 67
(a) (b) 12 (c)12 (d) 10
√3
Answer: (b)
cos2 60° + 4 sec 2 30° − tan 45°
sin2 30° + cos2 30°
1 2 2 2
(2) + 4 ( ) − (1)2
√3
= 2
1 2 √3
(2) + ( 2 )
1 4
+ 4 (3) − (1)
= 4
1 3
4+4
1 16
= + −1
4 3
3 + 64 − 12
=
12
55
=
12
tan57°+cot37°
Q 52. The expressiontan33°+cot53° is equal to
(a) tan 30° 𝑐𝑜𝑡 57° (b) tan 57° 𝑐𝑜𝑡 37° (c)𝑡𝑎𝑛33° cot 53° (d) 𝑡𝑎𝑛33° cot 37°
Answer: (b)
tan57° + cot37°
tan33° + cot53°
tan 57° + cot 37°
=
tan(90 − 57) ° + cot(90 − 37) °
tan57° + cot37°
=
cot 57° + tan 37°
1
tan57° + 𝑡𝑎𝑛37°
=
1
+ tan 37°
tan 57°
1 + tan 57° 𝑡𝑎𝑛37° 𝑡𝑎𝑛57°
= ×
1 + tan 37° 𝑡𝑎𝑛57° 𝑡𝑎𝑛37°
𝑡𝑎𝑛57°
=
𝑡𝑎𝑛37°
= 𝑡𝑎𝑛57°. cot 37°
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
Q 53. If sin 𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 3 then the value of sin4 𝜃 is
16 2 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 3 9 9
Answer: (a)
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
=3
sin 𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 3(𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 3𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 − 3𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃


4𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
2√1 − sin2 𝜃 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
Squaring on both sides we get
4(1 − sin2 𝜃) = sin2 𝜃
4 − 4 sin2 𝜃 = sin2 𝜃
4 = 5 sin2 𝜃
4
sin2 𝜃 =
5
16
sin4 𝜃 =
25
7
Q 54. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 13 and 0°< θ<90° then the value of sin θ + cos θ is
17 13 1 1
(a) 13 (b) 17 (c) 13 (d) 3
Answer: (a)
(𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)2 + (𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)2 = sin2 𝜃 + cos 2 𝜃 + 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + sin2 𝜃 + cos2 𝜃 − 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
7 2
(𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃) + ( ) = 2(sin2 𝜃 + cos 2 𝜃)
2
13
49
(𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)2 + = 2(1)
169
49
(𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)2 = 2 −
169
289
(𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)2 =
169
17
(𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃) =
13
Q 55. If 𝑎2 sec 2 𝑥 – 𝑏 2 tan2 𝑥 = 𝑐 2 then the value of sec 2 𝑥 + tan2 𝑥 is equal to (assume 𝑏 2 ≠ 𝑎2 )
𝑏 2 −𝑎2 +2𝑐 2 𝑏 2 +𝑎2 −2𝑐 2 𝑏 2 −𝑎2 −2𝑐 2 𝑏 2 −𝑎2
(a) (b) (c) (d) 𝑏2 +𝑎2 +2𝑐 2
𝑏 2 +𝑎2 𝑏 2 −𝑎2 𝑏 2 +𝑎2
Answer: (b)
𝑎2 sec 2 𝑥 – 𝑏 2 tan2 𝑥 = 𝑐 2
𝑎2 (1 + tan2 𝑥) – 𝑏 2 tan2 𝑥 = 𝑐 2
𝑎2 + 𝑎2 tan2 𝑥 – 𝑏 2 tan2 𝑥 = 𝑐 2
𝑎2 tan2 𝑥 – 𝑏 2 tan2 𝑥 = 𝑐 2 − 𝑎2
tan2 𝑥 (𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 ) = 𝑐 2 − 𝑎2
2
𝑐 2 − 𝑎2
tan 𝑥 = 2
(𝑎 − 𝑏 2 )
2(𝑐 2 − 𝑎2 )
sec 2 𝑥 + tan2 𝑥 = 1 + 2
𝑎 − 𝑏2
∵ sec 𝑥 + tan 𝑥 = 1 + tan 𝑥 + tan2 𝑥 = 1 + 2 tan2 𝑥
2 2 2

𝑏 2 + 𝑎2 − 2𝑐 2
=
𝑏 2 − 𝑎2
1 2𝑥
Q56. If 𝑥 + 𝑥 = 5, then 3𝑥 2 −5𝑥+3 is equal to
1 1
(a) 5 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 3

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Answer: (b)
1
If 𝑥 + 𝑥 = 5
𝑥2 + 1
=5
𝑥
𝑥 2 + 1 = 5𝑥
2𝑥 2𝑥 2𝑥 2𝑥 2𝑥 1
2
= 2
= = = =
3𝑥 − 5𝑥 + 3 3(𝑥 + 1) − 5𝑥 3(5𝑥) − 5𝑥 15𝑥 − 5𝑥 10𝑥 5
2𝑥𝑦 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2 −2𝑥𝑦
Q 57. The simplified value of (1 − 𝑥 2 +𝑦2 ) ÷ 2𝑥𝑦
2𝑥𝑦 𝑦 2𝑥 1
(a) 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2 (b) 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2 (c) 𝑥 2 +𝑦2 (d) 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2
Answer: (a)
2𝑥𝑦 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥𝑦 2𝑥𝑦 2𝑥𝑦
(1 − 2 2
) ÷ = (1 − 2 2
)× 2
𝑥 +𝑦 2𝑥𝑦 𝑥 +𝑦 𝑥 + 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥𝑦
𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥𝑦 2𝑥𝑦
=( 2 2
)× 2
𝑥 +𝑦 𝑥 + 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥𝑦
2𝑥𝑦
= 2
𝑥 + 𝑦2
1 494
Q 58. Find the value of 5 + 999 495 × 99
(a) 90000 (b) 99000 (c) 90900 (d) 99990
Answer: (b)

1 494 1
+ 999 × 99 = + 999.99 × 99
5 495 5
= 0.2 + 1000 × 99 = 99000.2
= 99000
Q 59. If 𝑥 = 11 then the value of 𝑥 − 12𝑥 + 12𝑥 3 − 12𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 − 1 is
5 4

(a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) -10


Answer: (b)
If 𝑥 = 11
Substituting 𝑥 = 11 in 𝑥 5 − 12𝑥 4 + 12𝑥 3 − 12𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 − 1
𝑥 5 − 12𝑥 4 + 12𝑥 3 − 12𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 − 1 = 115 − 12(11)4 − 12(11)3 − 12(11)2 + 12(11) − 1
= 161051 − 12(14641) + 12(1331) − 12(121) + 132 − 1
= 161051 − 175692 + 15972 − 1452 + 132 − 1
= 10
3
Q 60. If 𝑝 = 101, then the value of √𝑝(𝑝2 − 3𝑝 + 3) − 1 is
(a) 100 (b) 101 (c) 102 (d) 1000
Answer: (a)
3
If 𝑝 = 101 substituting the value of 𝑝 in √𝑝(𝑝2 − 3𝑝 + 3) − 1
3 3
√𝑝(𝑝2 − 3𝑝 + 3) − 1 = √101(1012 − 3(101) + 3) − 1
3
= √101(10201 − 303 + 3) − 1
3
= √101(9901) − 1
3
= √1000001 − 1

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

3
= √1000000 = 100
1
Q 61. If 𝑎3 = 11 then the value of 𝑎2 − 331𝑎 is
(a) 1331331 (b) 1331000 (c) 1334331 (d) 1330030
Answer: (b)
1
𝑎3 = 11
𝑎 = 113
𝑎 = 1331
Therefore 𝑎2 − 331𝑎 = 13312 − 331(1331)
= 1331(1331 − 331) = 1331 × 1000
= 1331000
Q 62. If 11√𝑛 = √112 + √343 then the value of n is
(a) 3 (b)11 (c) 13 (d) 7
Answer: (d)
11√𝑛 = √112 + √343
11√𝑛 = 4√7 + 7√7
11√𝑛 = 11√7
Therefore, the value of n is 7
Q 63. If 𝑥 + 𝑦 = √3 and 𝑥 − 𝑦 = √2 then the value of 8𝑥𝑦(𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ) is
(a) 6 (b) √6 (c) 5 (d) √5
Answer: (c)
𝑥 + 𝑦 = √3 ……(i)
𝑥 − 𝑦 = √2 ……(ii)
Solving we get
√3 + √2
𝑥=
2
Substituting 𝑥 value in equation (i) we get
√3 − √2
𝑦=
2
1
𝑥𝑦 =
4
10
𝑥2 + 𝑦2 =
4
2 2) 8 10 10
Therefore 8𝑥𝑦(𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4 ( 4 ) = 2 × 4 = 5
1 1 1
Q 64. If 2𝑥 = 3𝑦 = 6−𝑧 then 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 is equal to
3 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) − 2
Answer: (a)
Let 2𝑥 = 3𝑦 = 6−𝑧 = 𝑘
2𝑥 = 𝑘
1
∴ 𝑘𝑥 = 2
1 −1
Similarly, 𝑘 𝑦 = 3 and 𝑘 𝑧 = 6

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

1
𝑘 −𝑧 = 2 × 3
1 1 1
𝑘 −𝑧 = 𝑘 𝑥 × 𝑘 𝑦
1 1 1
− = +
𝑧 𝑥 𝑦
1 1 1
∴ + + =0
𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
1
Q 65. If 𝑥 = 3 + 2√2, then 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 2 is equal to
(a) 36 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 34
Answer: (d)
Given 𝑥 = 3 + 2√2
⇒𝑥 2 = 17 + 12√2
1 1
⇒𝑥 2 = 17 + 12√2
On rationalizing the denominator, we get
1
= (17 – 12√2)
𝑥2
1
∴ (𝑥 2 + ) = (17 + 12√2) + (17 – 12√2) = 34
𝑥2
Q 66. The distance between two parallel chords of length 8 cm each in a circle of diameter 10 cm is
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 5.5 cm
Answer: (a)

𝐴𝐵 = 𝐶𝐷 = 8 𝑐𝑚
𝑟 = 5 𝑐𝑚
∴ 𝐼𝑛 △ 𝑂𝑀𝐵, 𝑂𝐵 2 = 𝑂𝑀2 + 𝑀𝐵 2
𝑟 2 = 𝑂𝑀2 + (4)2
(5)2 = 𝑂𝑀2 + 16
25 − 16 = 𝑂𝑀2
𝑂𝑀2 = 9
𝑂𝑀 = 3
∴ 𝑀𝑁 = 2 × 𝑂𝑀
𝑀𝑁 = 2 × 3 = 6 𝑐𝑚
Q 67. ABCD is a rhombus. A straight line through C cuts AD produced at P and AB produced at Q. If DP of
the length of BQ and AB is
(a) 2: 1 (b)1: 2 (c)1: 1 (d) 3: 1
Answer: (a)

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

ABCD is a rhombus
𝐴𝐵 = 𝐵𝐶 = 𝐶𝐷 = 𝐷𝐴
1
𝐷𝑃 = 𝐴𝐵
2
𝐷𝑃 1
=
𝐴𝐵 2
In a rhombus ∠2 = ∠3
∴△ 𝐴𝑃𝑄 ∼△ 𝐵𝐶𝑄
(∵ ∠𝑄 𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑛 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∠2 = ∠3)

𝐴𝑃 𝐴𝑄
=
𝐵𝐶 𝐵𝑄
𝐴𝑄 3
=
𝐵𝑄 2
𝐴𝐵 + 𝐵𝑄 3
= (∴ 𝐴𝑄 = 𝐴𝐵 + 𝐵𝑄)
𝐵𝑄 2
𝐴𝐵 3
+1=
𝐵𝑄 2
𝐴𝐵 3
= −1
𝐵𝑄 2
𝐴𝐵 1
=
𝐵𝑄 2
𝐵𝑄 2
∴ =
𝐴𝐵 1
1 1
Q 68. If the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3: 1 4 : 3 4 then the triangle is
(a) Right triangle (b) Isosceles triangle (c) Obtuse triangle (d)Acute triangle
Answer: (d)
1 1 5 13
Given Ratio = 3: 1 : 3 = 3: :
4 4 4 4
5 13
Therefore, sum of the ratio = 3𝑥 + 4 𝑥 + 𝑥 = 180
4
30𝑥
= 180
4
𝑥 = 24

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Therefore, the angles are 72°, 30°, 78°


All the angles are less than 90° therefore the given ratio is the acute triangle.
Q 69. An equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is inscribed in a circle. Then radius of the circle is:
(a) 2√3𝑐𝑚 (b) 3√2𝑐𝑚 (c) 4√3𝑐𝑚 (d) √3𝑐𝑚
Answer: (a)

Because in equilateral triangle, perpendicular and median are same


∆𝐴𝐷𝐶 is right angle triangle
𝐴𝐶 2 = 𝐴𝐷2 + 𝐷𝐶 2
62 = 𝐴𝐷2 + 32
36 − 9 = 𝐴𝐷2
𝐴𝐷 = 3√3
E is the center of gravity
2
𝐴𝐸 = 𝐴𝐷
3
2
= × 3√3
3
= 2√3 𝑐𝑚
Q 70. If the difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2
years at 8% per annum is Rs. 768/- then the sum invested is:
(a) 1,00,000/- (b) 1,10,000/- (c) 1,20,000/- (d) 1,70,000/-
Answer: (c)
𝑃𝑟 2
We know that, the difference between C.I and S.I for 2 years = 1002
𝑃×8×8
768 =
100 × 100
7680000
𝑃=
64
𝑃 = 𝑅𝑠. 1,20,000
Q 71. On what sum of money will the difference between simple interest and compound interest for 2
years at 5% per annum be equal to Rs. 63/-
(a) Rs.24600/- (b) Rs. 24800/- (c) Rs.25200/- (d) Rs.25500/-
Answer: (c)
𝑃𝑟 2
Difference between C.I and S.I = 1002
𝑃×5×5
63 =
100 × 100

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

630000
𝑃=
25
𝑃 = 𝑅𝑠. 25,200
1
Q 72. A sells an article to B making a profit of 5 of his outlay. B sells it to C, gaining 20%. If C sells it for Rs.
1
600 and incurs a loss of 6 of his outlay, the cost price of A is
(a) Rs.600 (b) Rs.500 (c) Rs.720 (d) Rs. 800
Answer: (b)
Let the Cost price of A = Rs.100
1
The profit gained by A = 5
1
Profit for A in rupees = 5 × 100 = 𝑅𝑠. 20
So, the selling price of A to B = Rs.120
B sells to C gaining profit of 20%
20
Profit for B = 100 × 120 = 𝑅𝑠. 24
The selling price of B to C = Rs.144
1
C sold it for Rs.600 by incurring loss of 6
1
Loss for C in rupees = 144 × 6 = 24
C sold it for Rs.120
Actually, according to the problem C sold for Rs.600
100 1000
Cost price of A = 120 × 600 = = 𝑅𝑠. 500
2
Q 73. Ramesh bought 10 cycles for Rs. 500 each. He spent Rs. 2,000 on the repair of all cycles. He sold
five of them for Rs. 750 each and the remaining for Rs. 550 each. Then the total gain or loss % is
1 1 2 1
(a) Gain of 8 3 % (b) Loss of 8 3 % (c) Gain of 7 3 % (d) Loss of 7 7 %
Answer: (d)
Total actual 𝐶. 𝑃. = 𝑅𝑠. (500 × 10 + 2000) = 𝑅𝑠. 7000
Total 𝑆. 𝑃 = 𝑅𝑠. (5 × 750 + 5 × 550) = 𝑅𝑠. 6500
Loss = 7000 − 6500 = 𝑅𝑠. 500
500 50 1
Loss percent = (7000) × 100 = = 77 %
7
Q 74. A can finish a piece of work in 18 days and B can do the same work in half of the time taken by A.
Then working together what part of the same work they can finish in a day.
1 2 1 2
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 7
Answer: (a)
A can do the work = 18 days
18
B can do the work = = 9 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
2
1 1 1+2 3 1
(A + B)'s one day work = 18 + 9 = = 18 = 6
18
Q 75. The rate of working of A and B are in the ratio 2:3. The number of days taken by them to finish the
work is in the ratio
(a) 2:3 (b) 4:9 (c) 3:2 (d) 9:4
Answer: (c)
Given the ratio of working of A and B is 2: 3

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

2
i.e.,
3
To find the number of days taken by them
3
Inverse the ratio of working of A and B = 2
Therefore, the ratio for number of days taken by them to finish the work = 3:2
Q 76. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in the school is 3:2. If 20% of the boys and 25% of the
girls are scholarship holders, the percentage of the school students who are not scholarship holders is
(a) 56 (b) 78 (c) 70 (d) 80
Answer: (b)
Let the number of boys & girls be 3x and 2x.
Number of those who are not scholarship holders
12𝑥 3𝑥 39𝑥
= (80% 𝑜𝑓 3𝑥 + 75% 𝑜𝑓 2𝑥) = ( + )=
5 2 10
39𝑥 1
Required Percentage = ( 10 × 5𝑥 × 100) % = 78%
Q 77. A train passes two bridges of lengths 800 m and 400 m in 100 seconds and 60 seconds
respectively. The length of the train is
(a) 80 𝑚 (b) 90 𝑚 (c) 200 𝑚 (d) 150 𝑚
Answer: (c)
Let length of the train be 𝑥 𝑚 and speed of the train is 𝑠 𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ.
Speed, 𝑠 = (𝑥 + 800)/100 . . . . . (𝑖)
Speed, 𝑠 = (𝑥 + 400)/60 . . . . . (𝑖𝑖)
Equating equation (i) and (ii), we get,
𝑥+800 𝑥+400
=
100 60
5𝑥 + 200 = 3𝑥 + 2400
2𝑥 = 400
𝑥 = 200 𝑚
Q 78. In an examination, 52% students failed in Hindi and 42% in English. If 17% failed in both the
subjects, what percentage of students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 38% (b) 33% (c) 23% (d) 18%
Answer: (c)
Percentage of students failed in Hindi = 52
Percentage of students failed in English = 42
Percentage of students failed in both Hindi and English = 17
So, students failed in Hindi only = 52 − 17 = 35
Students failed in English only = 42 − 17 = 25
So, failures in Hindi + failures in English + failures in both = 25 + 35 + 17 = 77
Considering total strength as 100 passing percentage would be 100 − 77% = 23%
Q79. The batting average for 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his
lowest score by 172 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is
48 runs. The highest score of the player is
(a)165 (b) 170 (c) 172 (d) 174
Answer: (d)
Maximum - Minimum = 172 .....(i)

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Maximum + Minimum = 50 × 40 − 48 × 38
= 2000 - 1824 = 176
Maximum + Minimum = 176 ....(ii)
From eq (i) & (ii), we get
Maximum = 174
Q80. A discount of series of 15%, 20% and 30% is equal to a single discount
(a) 50% (b) 47.6% (c) 52.8% (d) 52.4%
Answer: (d)
Let the amount be 100
On the first discount 15%, 100 − 15 = 85
20
On the second discount 20%, 85 − (100 × 85) = 85 − 17 = 68
30
On the second discount 30%, 68 − (100 × 68) = 68 − 20.4 = 47.6
The single discount = 100 − 47.6 = 52.4
Q 81. A dishonest dealer defrauds to the extent of x% in buying as well as selling his goods by using
faulty weight. What will be the gain percent on his outlay?
10 𝑥2 𝑥2
(a) 2𝑥% (b) ( 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 ) % (c) (2𝑥 + 100) % (d) (𝑥 + 100) %
Answer: (c)
𝑥2
Total Profit = 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 100
𝑥2
𝐺𝑎𝑖𝑛 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 = (2𝑥 + )%
100
Q82. A and B started a business in partnership by investing in the ratio of 7 : 9. After 3 months A
2 1
withdraw 3 of its investment and after 4 months from the beginning B withdraw 33 3 of its investment. If
a total earned profit is Rs. 10201 at the end of 9 months, find the share of each in profit.
(a) Rs 3535/- and Rs 6666/- (b) Rs 3055/- and Rs. 5555/-
(c) Rs 4503/- and Rs 1345/- (d) Rs 3545/- and Rs. 3333/-
Answer: (a)
Total capital invested by A in 9 months = 21𝑥 × 3 + 7𝑥 × 6 = 105𝑥
Total capital of B invested in 9 months = 27𝑥 × 4 + 18𝑥 × 5
= 108𝑥 + 90𝑥 = 198𝑥
Capital, 𝐴 ∶ 𝐵 = 105𝑥 ∶ 198𝑥
According to the question, (105𝑥 + 198𝑥) = 𝑅𝑠. 10201
303𝑥 = 10201
10201
𝑥 = 𝑅𝑠.
303
10201
Hence, Share of A = 105 × 303 = 𝑅𝑠. 3535
10201
Share of B = 198 × = 𝑅𝑠. 6666
303
Q83. The mean marks of 20 students is 15. On checking it was found that two marks were wrongly
copied as 3 and 6. If wrong marks obtained are replaced by correct values 8 and 4, then the correct
mean is
(a) 15 (b) 15.15 (c) 15.35 (d) 16

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Answer: (b)
Given that the mean of 20 students is 15
Therefore, the sum of the observation is 300
The difference between the sum of marks which are entered wrong = 12 − 9 = 3
Therefore, the new sum of observation is 300+3 = 303
𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑜𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 303
Correct Mean = = = 15.15
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑡𝑢𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠 20
Q84. Three circles of diameter 10 cm each are bound together by rubber band, the length of the rubber
band is.
(a) 30 (b) 30 + 10𝜋 (c) 10𝜋 (d) 60 + 20 𝜋
Answer: (b)
Length of the rubber band = 3 × 𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 + 2𝜋𝑟 = 3 × 10 + 2𝜋 × 5 = 30 + 10𝜋
Q85. A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water will fall
into sea in a minute?
(a) 4,00,000 𝑚3 (b) 40,00,000 𝑚3 (c) 40,000 𝑚3 (d) 4,000 𝑚3
Answer: (d)
Given, a river 3m deep and 40m wide is flowing at the rate of 2km per hour.
Area of cross section of the river = 3 × 40 = 120 𝑚2
Now, volume of water flowing through this cross section in every minute
= 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 × 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 = 120 × 2 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
2000
= 120 × ( ) 𝑚/𝑚𝑖𝑛
60
= 2 × 2000
= 4000 𝑚3
Note:
Since 1 𝑚3 = 1000 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠
So, 4000 𝑚3 = 4000 × 1000 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠 = 4000000 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠
So, in 1 minute, water will fall into the sea is 4000000 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠.
Q86. If the radius of the base and the height of a right circular cylinder is increased by 10% each then
the volume of the cylinder increases by:
(a) 3.31% (b) 14.5% (c)33.1% (d) 19.5%
Answer: (c)
Let the radius and height of the cylinder be 10 cm if it is increased by 10% then the radius and height be
11 cm
Volume to the right circular cylinder whose radius and height is 10 cm = 1000 𝑐𝑚3
Volume of the right circular cylinder whose radius and height is 11 cm= 1331𝑐𝑚3
1331 − 1000 331 331
% 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒 = × 100 = × 100 = = 33.1%
1000 1000 10
Q87. The amount of concrete required to build a concrete cylindrical pillar whose base has a perimeter
22
8.8 metre and curved surface area 17.6 square metre is (Take 𝜋 = )
7
(a) 8.325 𝑚3 (b) 9.725 𝑚3 (c) 10.5𝑚3 (d) 12.32𝑚3
Answer: (d)
Perimeter of cylindrical pillar = circumference of circle
2𝜋𝑟 = 8.8

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22
2× × 𝑟 = 8.8
7
8.8 × 7
𝑟= = 1.4 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑒
2 × 22
Curved surface area = 17.6
2𝜋𝑟ℎ = 17.6
17.6
ℎ= = 2 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑒
8.8
22
Volume of concrete = 𝜋𝑟 2 ℎ = ( 7 × 1.4 × 1.4 × 2) 𝑚3
= 12.32 𝑚3
Q88. Some bricks are arranged in an area measuring 20 m3. If the length, breadth and height of each
brick is 25 cm, 12.5 cm and 8 cm respectively, then the number of bricks are:
(a) 6000 (b) 8000 (c) 4000 (d) 10000
Answer: (b)
Area where the bricks are arranged = 20𝑚3
As the length of the bricks are given in cm convert the given area into cm
= 20 × 100 𝑐𝑚3
Volume of one brick = 𝑙 × 𝑏 × ℎ
= 25 × 12.5 × 8 𝑐𝑚3
20×100×100×100
Required number of bricks = = 8000
25×12.5×8
Q89. The length, breadth and height of a room is 5m, 4m and 3m respectively. Find the length of the
largest bamboo that can be kept.
(a) 5 m (b) 60 m (c) 7 m (d) 5√2𝑚
Answer: (d)
Length of the largest bamboo = √𝑙 2 + 𝑏 2 + ℎ2
= √52 + 42 + 32
= √25 + 16 + 9
= √50
= 5√2𝑚
Q90. A solid metallic spherical ball of diameter 6cm is melted and re-casted into a cone with diameter of
the base as 12 cm. The height of the cone is
(a) 6 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 3 cm
Answer: (d)
Volume of metallic sphere = Volume of cone
4 3 1 2
𝜋𝑟 = 𝜋𝑟 ℎ
3 3
4 1
𝜋×3×3×3 = 𝜋×6×6×ℎ
3 3
ℎ = 3 𝑐𝑚
Q91. If the ratio of the diameter of two right circular cones of equal height be 3:4, then the ratio of their
volume will be
(a) 3:4 (b) 9:16 (c) 16:9 (d) 27:64
Answer: (b)

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1
( 𝜋𝑟12 ℎ) 𝑟 2 3 2 9
Ratio of volume of cones = 3
1 = (𝑟1 ) = (4) = 16
𝜋𝑟 2 ℎ 2
3 2
Therefore, 9:16
Q92. What is the value of log 2 (log 3 81) ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 9
Answer: (a)
log 2 ( log 3 81 ) = log 2 (log 3 34 )
= log 2 (4log 3 3)
= log 2 (4 × 1) [∵ log 𝑎 𝑎 = 1]
= log 2 4
= 𝑙𝑜𝑔2 22
= 2 log 2 2
= 2×1= 2
0.355×0.5555×2.025
Q93. Find the value of 0.225×1.775×0.2222 is equal to
(a) 5.4 (b) 4.58 (c) 4.5 (d) 5.45
Answer: (c)
0.355 × 0.5555 × 2.025
= 0.2 × 2.5 × 9 = 4.5
0.225 × 1.775 × 0.2222
1
Q94. (0.01024)5 is equal to
(a) 0.4 (b) 4.0 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.00004
Answer: (a)
1
1 1024 5
(0.01024)5 =( )
10000
1 1
45 5 4 5×5
= ( 5) = ( ) = 0.4
10 10
Q95. The value of (243)0.16 × (243)0.04 is equal to
1
(a) 0.16 (b) 3 (c) 3 (d) 0.04
Answer: (b)
(243)0.16 × (243)0.04
As per power rule 𝑎𝑚 × 𝑎𝑛 = 𝑎𝑚+𝑛
2
2430.16+0.04 = 2430.2 = 243(10)
1 1
= 2435 = (35 )5 = 3
Q96. If 𝑎 and 𝑏 are two positive integer such that 𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 = 19 then find the value of 𝑎 is
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 9 (d) 10
Answer: (d)
𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 = 19
(𝑎 − 𝑏)(𝑎 + 𝑏) = 1 × 19
𝑎 − 𝑏 = 1 … (i)
𝑎 + 𝑏 = 19 … (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii) we get
2𝑎 = 20

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𝑎 = 10
Q97. √(0.798)2 + 0.404 × 0.798 + (0.202)2 + 1 is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0.404
Answer: (b)
√(0.798)2 + 0.404 × 0.798 + (0.202)2 + 1
= √(0.8)2 + 0.4 × 0.8 + (0.2)2 + 1
= √(0.8 + 0.2)2 + 1 = √12 + 1
=1+1=2
Q98. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers is 147. Then the middle number is
(a) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (d) 51
Answer: (c)
If the sum of three consecutive odd natural number is 147
Then to find the middle number divide the total number with number of consecutive odd natural
number
147
= = 49
3
∴ 49 is a middle number.
5 5
Q99. A student was asked to find 16 of a number. By mistake he found 6 of that number and his answer
is 250 more than found the correct answer. Find the given number
(a) 300 (b) 480 (c) 450 (d) 500
Answer: (b)
Let the original complete number be x
5𝑥 5
( ) + 250 = ( ) 𝑥
16 6
1 1
5𝑥 ( − ) = −250
16 6
−10
𝑥( ) = −50
6 × 16
𝑥 = 5 × 6 × 16
𝑥 = 480
Q100. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 336 respectively. If one number is 84, then the
other number is
(a) 48 (b) 36 (c) 72 (d)36
Answer: (a)
The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 336 respectively
Given that one number is 84
First number × second number = HCF × LCM
84 × 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 = 12 × 336
12 × 336
𝑆𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 = = 48
84

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TERRITORIAL ARMY
SOLVED PAPER – JULY 2017
PAPER: 2. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & ENGLISH

PART I : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE


Q 1. The longest river in the world is?
(a) Nile (b) Brahmaputra (c) Amazon (d) Mississippi
Answer: (a)
The longest river in the world is Nile River.The Nile is a major north-flowing river in northeastern Africa.
Q 2. If the plane of the earth’s equator were not inclined to the plane of the earth’s orbit,
(a) The year would be longer (b) The winter would be longer
(c) There would be no change of seasons (d) The summers would be warmer
Answer: (c)
If the plane of the Earth's Equator were not inclined to the plane of its Orbit then, you could not have
expected any change in seasons to taking place. The Northern and Southern part of Earth experience
opposite seasons. If Equator is not inclined (which means tilting) then there will be no variation in the
seasons.
Q 3. In which type of rocks are coals and petroleum found?
(a) Granite (b) Igneous (c) Metamorphic (d) Sedimentary
Answer: (d)
Metamorphic rocks made up of heat and pressure where the fossil is absent because of the heat and
pressure they undergo. These are present in sedimentary rocks where coal and petroleum products are
found.
Q 4. Earth’s crust below the oceans is composed of?
(a) Sedimentary rocks (b) Igneous rocks (c) Metamorphic rocks (d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: (a)
Earth’s crust below the oceans is composed of sedimentary rocks.
Q 5. Which of the following is the largest producer of coffee in the world?
(a) Argentina (b) Brazil (c) India (d) Sri Lanka
Answer: (b)
Brazil - 2,595,000 metric ton (5,714,381,000 pounds) Brazil is the world's largest coffee producer.
In2016, Brazil produced a staggering 2,595,000 metric tons of coffee beans. It is not a new development,
as Brazil has been the highest global producer of coffee beans for over 150 years.
Q 6. India liberated Goa from the Portuguese in?
(a) 1948 (b) 1965 (c) 1961 (d) 1960
Answer: (c)
While India attained independence from the British Raj on 15 August, 1947, Goa was still languishing
under four and a half centuries of Portuguese rule. The Portuguese were among the very first to
colonise parts of India, and were the last to leave. Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule on December
19, 1961.

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Q 7. The famous ruler of ancient India who towards the end of his life is said to have converted to
Jainism was?
(a) Samudragupta (b) Bindusara
(c) Chandragupta Maurya (d) Ashoka
Answer: (c)
Chandragupta Maurya was the famous ruler of ancient India who towards the end of his life is said to
have converted to Jainism.
Q 8. Babar entered India for the first time from the West through?
(a) Kashmir (b) Sind (c) Punjab (d) Rajasthan
Answer: (c)
Babar entered India for the first time from the West through Punjab. Babur, born Zahīrud-Dīn
Muhammad, was the founder and first Emperor of the Mughal dynasty in India. He was a direct
descendant of Emperor Timur from what is now Uzbekistan.
Q 9. The Vernacular Press Act was passed by?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Wellesley (c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Hardinge
Answer: (c)
The Vernacular Press act was proposed by Lord Lytton, then Viceroy of India, and was unanimously
passed by the Viceroy's Council on 14 March 1878.
Q 10. Alauddin Khilji introduced market reforms:-
(a) To administer his subjects well (b) To easy the peasants’ living
(c) To maintain a large army economically (d) To remove mediators
Answer: (c)
The market reform of Alauddin Khilji was one of the most effective and far reaching economic
regulations of the Sultanate period. These measures were enacted to regulate the activities of the
traders who brought grain to Delhi. The Sultan fixed the prices of all commodities from grain to cloths,
slaves, cattle etc.
Q 11. Which provision of the Fundamental Rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 23 (d) Article 24
Answer: (d)
Article 24 provision of the Fundamental Rights is directly related to the exploitation of children.
Q 12. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha has to be passed by the Rajya Sabha within
(a) 14 days (b) 21 days (c) 1 month (d) 3 months
Answer: (a)
If the Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill
is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok
Sabha without any of the amendments recommended by the Rajya Sabha.
Q 13. Value of vote of each member of the Parliament in the Electoral College is?
(a) 688 (b) 788 (c) 808 (d) 708
Answer: (d)
Total Number of Parliamentary seats (elective) is 776. The value of the vote of each MP is 708.

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Q 14. Which Indian movie has won the best film and best script writer awards at the Asia New Talent
Awards in the 2016 Shanghai International Film Festival?
(a) Detective Chinatown (b) Land of the Little People
(c) Thithi (d) One night only
Answer: (c)
The Kannada film “Thithi” has won the best film and best script writers award at the Asia New Talent
Awards in the 19th edition of Shanghai International Film Festival 2016. It is the only film from India that
has been selected and screened in the festival.
Q 15. The 12th edition of Joint Military Exercise “Nomadic Elephant” in India was with which under
mentioned country?
(a) Australia (b) Japan (c) Thailand (d) Mongolia
Answer: (d)
The 12th edition of Joint Military Exercise “Nomadic Elephant” in India was with Mongolia.
Q 16. Which city hosted the 2017 annual convention of the African Development Bank (AfDB) Group?
(a) Valencia (b) Gandhinagar (c) Lisbon (d) Shanghai
Answer: (b)
Recently, the Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi has inaugurated the 52nd annual meeting of
African Development Bank Group-2017 at the Mahatma Mandir convention centre in Gandhinagar,
Gujarat with theme “Transforming Agriculture for Wealth Creation in Africa.
Q 17. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of a human body?
(a) Radius (b) Tibia (c) Femur (d) Fibula
Answer: (a)
Radius is not a bone in the legs of a human body on the given words. A straight line from the centre to
the circumference of a circle or sphere is called radius.
Q 18. Sweat glands occur in greatest number in the skin of the:-
(a) Forehead (b) Armpits (c) Back (d) Palm of hand
Answer: (b)
Sweat glands occur in greatest number in the skin of the Armpits. Blood and lymph vessels serving the
arm travel through the armpit. There are more than 20 lymph nodes (small lumps of tissue that are part
of the body's lymphatic system, which helps fight infection) in the armpit. The armpits have a high
concentration of hair follicles and sweat glands.
Q 19. Blood grouping was discovered by?
(a) William Harvey (b) Karl Landsteiner (c) Robert Koch (d) Louis Pasteur
Answer: (b)
The human ABO blood groups were discovered by Austrian-born American biologist Karl Landsteiner in
1901. Landsteiner found that there are substances in the blood, antigens and antibodies that induce
clumping of red cells when red cells of one type are added to those of a second type.
Q 20. Sodium metal is kept under?
(a) Water (b) Alcohol (c) Petrol (d) Kerosene
Answer: (d)

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Sodium (Na) is a very reactive metal. It is kept in kerosene to prevent it from coming in contact with
oxygen and moisture. If this happens, it will react with the moisture present in air and form sodium
hydroxide. This is a strongly exothermic reaction, and lot of heat is generated.
Q 21. The element required for solar energy conversion is?
(a) Beryllium (b) Silicon (c) Tantalum (d) Ultra Pure Carbon
Answer: (b)
The element required for solar energy conversion is Germanium or Silicon.
Q 22. Which type of fire extinguisher is used to extinguish petroleum fires?
(a) Foam Type (b) Soda acid type (c) Powder type (d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Foam type extinguisher is used to extinguish class B type fires that is petroleum fires.
Q 23. One horsepower is equal to
(a) 736 watts (b) 746 watts (c) 748 watts (d) 756 watts
Answer: (b)
It was originally defined as 550 foot-pounds per second (ft-lb/s). A power level of 1 hp is
approximately equivalent to 746 watts (W) or 0.746 kilowatts (kW). To convert from horsepower to
watts, multiply by 746.
Q 24. When ice melts into water, its:-
(a) Volume increases (b) Mass Increases (c) Volume decreases (d) Mass decreases
Answer: (c)
The water level remains the same when the ice cube melts. A floating object displaces an amount
of water equal to its own weight. Since water expands when it freezes, one ounce of frozen water has a
larger volume than one ounce of liquid water.
Q 25. Anemometer is an instrument used to
(a) Find the wind direction (b) Measure humidity
(c) Measure wind speed (d) Measure precipitation
Answer: (c)
An anemometer is a device used for measuring wind speed, and is also a common weather
station instrument. The term is derived from the Greek word anemos, which means wind, and is used to
describe any wind speed instrument used in meteorology.
Q 26. Which of the following is not one of the working areas of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
(a) Foster global monetary cooperation
(b) Facilitate international trade
(c) Reduce poverty around the world
(d) Design Nation intellectual property agreements
Answer: (d)
Design Nation intellectual property agreements is not one of the working areas of the international
Monetary Fund (IMF).
Q 27. Which of the taxes are not covered under Goods and Service Tax (GST)?
(a) Octrio Tax (b) Value added tax (c) Central sales tax (d) Customs Tax
Answer: (d)

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There are eight taxes are not covered under Goods and Service Tax. They are Custom Duty, Stamp Duty,
Vehicle Tax, Excise on Liquor, Tax on Sale and Consumption of Electricity, Entry Taxes and Toll,
Entertainment Tax and Road Tax.
Q 28. Which one of the following was the earlier name of Tokyo?
(a) Osaka (b) Kyoto (c) Samurai (d) Edo
Answer: (d)
Edo also Romanized as Jedo, Yedo or Yeddo, is the former name of Tokyo. It was the seat of power for
the Tokugawa shogunate, which ruled Japan from 1603 to 1868. During this period, it grew to become
one of the largest cities in the world and home to an urban culture.
Q 29. Father’s Day is celebrated on?
(a) 3rd Sunday of June (b) 1st Sunday of June (c) 1st Saturday of June (d) 3rd Saturday of
June.
Answer: (a)
Father's Day is celebrated on 3rd Sunday of June. It is a celebration for honouring fathers and celebrating
fatherhood, paternal bonds, and the influence of fathers in society. In Catholic Europe, it has been
celebrated on March 19 since the Middle Ages.
Q 30. Indian rank on the Human Development Index (HDI) out of 188 countries?
(a) 135 (b) 131 (c) 97 (d) 186
Answer: (b)
Indian rank on the Human Development Index (HDI) out of 188 countries is 131.
Q 31. With which of the following is Jeev Milkha Singh associated?
(a) Hockey (b) Athletics (c) Golf (d) Wrestling
Answer: (c)
Jeev Milkha Singh (born 15 December 1971) is an Indian professional golfer who became the first player
from India to join the European Tour in 1998. He has won four events on the European Tour, becoming
the most successful Indian on tour.
Q 32. ‘Ace Against Odds’ is the story of this iconic Indian Player?
(a) Md Azaruddin (b) Sania Mirza (c) Saina Nehwal (d) Leander Paes
Answer: (c)
Ace Against Odds is the 2016 biography of the Indian professional tennis player Sania Mirza. The book is
her official biography chronicling her journey to becoming one of India and world's top female tennis
player. The book also contains some memorable encounters of the player on and off the court and the
people and relationships that have contributed to her growth as a person and a sportsperson.
Q 33. Who has won the 2017 Formula I Monaco Grand Prix World Championship?
(a) Kimi Raikkonen (b) Sebastian Vettel (c) Valtteri Bottas (d) Daniel Ricciardo
Answer: (b)
Sebastian Vettel, a German racing driver for Scuderia Ferrari, has won the 2017 Formula One Monaco
Grand Prix World Championship at Circuit deMonaco La Condamine and Monte Carloin Monaco.
Q 34. Which football club has won the 2017 UEFA Champions League Trophy?
(a) Juventus (b) Milan (c) Barcelona (d) Real Madrid

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Answer: (d)
Real Madrid has won the 2017 UEFA Champions League football competition by defeating Juventus 4–1
in the final.
Q 35. Which India pair have won gold in mixed team 10m air pistol event at 2017 International Shooting
Sport Federation (ISSF) Gabala World Cup?
(a) Sanjeev Rajput and Anjali Bhagwat (b) Apurvi Chandela and Jitu Rai
(c) Anjali Bhagwat and Omkar Singh (d) Jitu Rai and Heena Sandhu
Answer: (d)
Jitu Rai and Heena Sandhu pair from India, have won gold in mixed team 10m air pistol event at 2017
International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) Gabala World Cup.
Q 36. Communication Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) has been signed between India
and?
(a) United Kingdom (b) Itali
(c) United States of America (d) France
Answer: (c)
COMCASA, or Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement, which India and the US have
signed today during the '2+2 Dialogue' between the two countries, will get India military critical and
encrypted defence technologies from the US.
Q 37. Who is the Indian Ambassador and Permanent Representative to the United Nations?
(a) Swaraj Singh Chauhan (b) Rajiv Kumar Chander
(c) Rajesh Chauhan (d) Kushal Singh Rajawat
Answer: (b)
Rajiv Kumar Chander is the Indian Ambassador and Permanent Representative to the United Nations.
Q 38. RuPay is related to?
(a) Rural payment of wages office of India
(b) National associations for facilitation of Rural payments
(c) National Payments corporation of India
(d) Russia pay, a Russian competitor of paypal
Answer: (c)
RuPay is an Indian card scheme conceived and launched by the National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI) on 26 March 2012. It was created to fulfil the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) desire to have a
domestic, open (four-party), multilateral system of payments in India.
Q 39. The 52nd Jnanpith Award was conferred on?
(a) Shankaracharya (b) Sankha Ghosh (c) Amir Khan (d) Pranab Mukherjee
Answer: (b)
The President of India, Shri Pranab Mukherjee conferred the 52nd Jnanpith Award on Prof. Sankha
Ghosh in New Delhi today (April 27, 2017).
Q 40. Who was crowned the Miss Universe 2016?
(a) Jeanette Epps (b) Lucie Sarfarova (c) Pia Wurtzbach (d) Iris Mittenaere
Answer: (d)

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Iris Mittenaere is a French model, television host, and beauty pageant titleholder who was
crowned Miss Universe 2016. She is the second Miss Universe from France after Christiane Martel, who
was elected Miss Universe 1953. Mittenaere had previously been crowned Miss France 2016 and Miss
Nord-Pas-de-Calais 2015.
Q 41. Which city hosted the 2017 Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit?
(a) Dushanbe (b) Astana (c) Beijing (d) Taskent
Answer: (b)
The 2017 SCO summit was the 17th annual summit of heads of state of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation held between 7 - 10 June in Astana, Kazakhstan.
Q 42. India’s first automatic coastal warning for disasters will come up in which state?
(a) Taml Nadu (b) Maharashtra (c) Odisha (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (c)
India's first automatic coastal warning for disasters will come up in Odisha from July 2017. Through alert
system, Odisha will be able to warn its coastal population by pressing a single button from a control
room in the Odisha capital in the event of natural disasters like tsunami or cyclone.
Q43. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully launched a record 104 satellites
from which rocket vehicle?
(a) PSLV-C38 (b) PSLV-C37 (c) PSLV-C36 (d) PSLV-C35
Answer: (b)
The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) launched 104 satellites into orbit aboard the Polar
Satellite Launch Vehicle “PSLV-C37” on Feb. 14, 2017, setting a new record for the most satellites
launched simultaneously on one rocket.
Q 44. Which country has officially recognized Bitcoin and digital currencies as legal money?
(a) Australia (b) China (c) North Korea (d) Japan
Answer: (d)
Japan has officially recognized bitcoin and digital currencies as legal money with effect from April 1,
2017, which will help the integration of digital currency into the legacy banking system through
regulation.
Q 45. Rustom being developed by def research development of India (DRDO) is the name of:
(a) Fighter aircraft (b) Artillery gun
(c) Hovercraft (d) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
Answer: (d)
Rustom being developed by def research development of India (DRDO) is the name of Unmanned Aerial
Vehicle.
Q 46. Which of the following craftsmanship was not practiced by the Aryans?
(a) Pottery (b) Jewellery (c) Carpentry (d) Blacksmith
Answer: (d)
Blacksmith is craftsmanship which was not practiced by the Aryans. A blacksmith is a metal smith who
creates objects from wrought iron or steel by forging the metal, using tools to hammer, bend, and cut.
Q 47. Which of the following Sultans of Tughlaq dynasty issued copper coins instead of silver ones?

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(a) Feroz Shah Tughlaq (b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq


(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq (d) Mahmud Tughlaq
Answer: (b)
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq of Tughlaq dynasty issued copper coins instead of silver ones. Muhammad bin
Tughlaq was the Sultan of Delhi from 1325 to 1351. He was the eldest son of Ghiyas -ud -Din -Tughlaq,
the Turko-Indian founder of the Tughlaq dynasty.
Q 48. The capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was:
(a) Patiala (b) Amritsar (c) Lahore (d) Kapurthala
Answer: (c)
Maharaja Ranjit Singh (1780-1839) was a Sikh ruler of the Punjab. His tomb is located in Lahore,
Pakistan. He is remembered for uniting the Punjab as a strong state and his possession of the Koh-i-noor
diamond.
Q 49. The first Indian ruler to organize Haj Pilgrimage at the expense of the state was:
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Feroz Tuglaq (c) Akbar (d) Muhammad Tughlaq
Answer: (c)
Akbar was the first Indian ruler to organize Haj pilgrimage at the expense of the state. Abu'l-Fath Jalal-
ud-din Muhammad Akbar, popularly known as Akbar I, also as Akbar the Great, was the third Mughal
emperor, who reigned from 1556 to 1605. Akbar succeeded his father, Humayun, under a regent,
Bairam Khan, who helped the young emperor expand and consolidate Mughal domains in India.
Q 50. Which of the following animals was known to ancient Vedic people?
(a) Elephant (b) Boar (c) Tiger (d) Lion
Answer: (d)
Lion was known to ancient Vedic people. They hunted the animals such as lions, buffalos and antelopes.
Horse was an important animal in the Vedic period. Horse bones and terracotta figurines have been
found at some Harappan sites.

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PART II: ENGLISH

Analyse the contents of the passage and answer the questions that follow
Religion is the greatest instrument for so raising us. It is amazing that a person not intellectually bright,
perhaps not even educated, is capable of grasping and living by something so advanced as the principles
of Christianity. Yet, there is a common phenomenon. It is not, however in my province to talk about
religion, but rather to stress the power which great literature and the great personalities whom we
meet in it and in history have to open and enlarge over minds, and to show us what is first rate in
human personality and human character by showing us goodness and greatness.
Q 51. In the passage, the author’s ultimate intention is to talk about
(a) Religious (b) History (c) Education (d) Character
Answer: (d)
In the passage, the author’s ultimate intention is to talk about the character, not the history or religion.
Q 52. The phrase ‘so raising us’ means
(a) Giving us a sense of spiritual superiority
(b) Making us feel that we are more important than we really are
(c) Improving our mental abilities
(d) Making us realize that we all are children of God.
Answer: (c)
The phrase ‘so raising us’ means Improving our mental abilities.
Q 53. What surprise the author is that
(a) Even uneducated people are attracted towards Christianity
(b) Christianity is practiced by a large number of people
(c Despite being difficult and complex, the principles of Christianity are practiced by so many people
(d) Even very intelligent people cannot understand the principles of Christianity
Answer: (c)
Here despite being difficult and complex, the principles of Christianity are practiced by so many people,
this really surprises the author.
Q 54. The author hesitates to talk about religion because
(a) He does not feel himself competent to talk about it
(b) Nobody around him likes to talk about it
(c) He does not believe in any religion
(d) He does not fully understand its importance
Answer: (a)
The author hesitates to talk about religion because he does not feel himself competent to talk about it.
Q 55. According to the author, we come across examples of greatness and nobility in
(a) Great works of literature (b) Literary and historical works
(c) Historical records (d) Books on Christianity
Answer: (b)
According to the author, we come across examples of greatness and nobility in Literary and historical
works.
In each of the following sentences, find out which part of the Sentence has an error

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Q 56. I hoped that the train (a) /will arrive on time, (b)/but it did not (c)./ No error (d)
Answer: (b)
I hoped that the train ‘would’ arrive in time but it did not.
Q 57. All the candidates (a)/felt that this year’s (b)/question paper was very easy (c)/ No error (d).
Answer: (b)
All the candidates “felt that this year” question paper was very easy.
Q 58. Children who have had good pre-school education (a)/are most likely to outdo (b)/other children
in school. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (a)
“Children who have good pre-school education” are most likely to outdo other children in school.
Q 59. She was told (a)/to give the award to whosoever (b) /she thought has done the most for the
downtrodden. (c)/No error (d).
Answer: (c)
The phrase must be changed as she thought had done the most for the downtrodden.
S1 and S6 are the first and the last sentence of a paragraph respectively. The middle four sentences viz
P, Q, R and S are given in jumbled order. Rearrange the four parts in a meaningful sequence and then
choose the correct order from the alternatives provided
Q 60. S1: We don’t see many banyan trees in out cities now-a-days.
S6: And every village has at least one.
P: But in our overcrowded cities, where there is barely enough living space for people, banyan trees
don’t have much of a chance.
Q: These trees like to have plenty of space in which to spread themselves out.
R: Of course, many parks have banyan trees.
S: After all, a full-grown banyan takes up as large as area as a three – storey apartment building.
The proper sequence is:-
(a) PQRS (b) QPSR (c) RSQP (d) SRPQ
Answer: (b)
The correct sequence will be, we don’t see many banyan trees in out cities now-a-days. These trees like
to have plenty of space in which to spread themselves out. But in our overcrowded cities, where there is
barely enough living space for people, banyan trees don’t have much of a chance. After all, a full-grown
banyan takes up as large as area as a three – storey apartment building. Of course, many parks have
banyan trees. And every village has at least one.
Thus, the correct sequence is QPSR.
Q 61. S1: The future beckons to us.
S6: There is no resting for anyone of us until we redeem our pledge in full.
P: In fact we have hard ahead.
Q: Where do we go and what shall be our endeavour.
R: We shall also have to fight and end poverty, ignorance and disease.
S: It will be to bring freedom and opportunity to the common man. The proper sequence is:
(a) PSRQ (b) QPSR (c) QSRP (d) SRPQ
Answer: (c)
The correct sequence will be, The future beckons to us. Where do we go and what shall be our
endeavour. It will be to bring freedom and opportunity to the common. We shall also have to fight and

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end poverty, ignorance and disease. In fact, we have hard ahead. There is no resting for anyone of us
until we redeem our pledge in full.
Thus, the correct sequence is QSRP.
Q 62. S1: There has been an alarming increase in the number of vehicles on Delhi roads.
S6: Should the pedestrians’ case be allowed to go by default?
Q: There is no place where the pedestrian can move freely without the fear of traffic.
R: Zebra crossing like the pavements are no longer safe.
S: This has further aggravated the problem of pollution in the city.
The proper sequence is:-
(a) PQRS (b) SPRQ (c) SQRP (d) SRPQ
Answer: (c)
The correct sequence will be, there has been an alarming increase in the number of vehicles on Delhi
roads. This has further aggravated the problem of pollution in the city. There is no place where the
pedestrian can move freely without the fear of traffic Zebra crossing like the pavements are no longer
safe.
Should the pedestrians’ case be allowed to go by default?
Thus, the correct sequence is SQRP.
Q 63. S1: Life is hazardous.
S6: Everything points to a special kind of arms race with elaborate strategies and counter-strategies for
attack and defence.
P: And preys have evolved adaptations that reduce the risk of being eaten.
Q: Many animals are killed and eaten by other animals.
R: And many predators die from starvation because they fail to secure prey.
S: Predators have continued to evolve adaptations that enable to locate and kill prey.
The proper sequence is:
(a) QPRS (b) QRPS (c) QRSP (d) SQRP
Answer: (c)
The correct sequence will be, Life is hazardous. Many animals are killed and eaten by other animals. And
many predators die from starvation because they fail to secure prey. Predators have continued to
evolve adaptations that enable to locate and kill prey. And preys have evolved adaptations that reduce
the risk of being eaten. Everything points to a special kind of arms race with elaborate strategies and
counter-strategies for attack and defence.
Thus, the correct sequence is QRSP.
In each of the following questions, chose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
idiom/Phrases printed in bold type.
Q 64. Foam in the month
(a) Bitten by a snake (b) To reveal the secret
(c) To be furious (d) To be in the extreme hatred
Answer: (c)
The meaning of “Foam in the month” is “to be furious”.
Q 65. To show the white feather
(a) To show signs of cowardice (b) To seek peace
(c) To show arrogance (d) To become polite

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Answer: (a)
The meaning of “To show the white feather” is “To show signs of cowardice”
Q 66. To be at one’s finger’s end.
(a) To be hopeless (b) To be highly perplexed
(c) To be completely conversant with (d) To count things
Answer: (c)
The meaning of “To be at one’s finger’s end” is “To be completely conversant with”
Q 67. To ride hell for leather
(a) To ride with furious speed (b) To adopt false means to succeed
(c) To work hard for a small accomplishment (d) To earn money by all means
Answer: (a)
The meaning of “To ride hell for leather” is “To ride with furious speed”.
Q 68. To sail close to the wind
(a) To take risk (b) To manage the situation
(c) To work hard (d) To be regular
Answer: (a)
The meaning of “To sail close to the wind” is “To take risk”.
In each or the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) voice. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice.
Q 69. Please help me
(a) You were requested to help me (b) You are being requested to help me
(c) You are requested to help me (d) You have been requested to help me
Answer: (c)
You are requested to help me
Q 70. One should keep one’s promise
(a) One’s promise should be kept by us (b) One’s promise has to be kept
(c) A promise should be keeping (d) A promise should be kept
Answer: (d)
A promise should be kept
Q 71. A lion may be helped even by a little mouse
(a) A little mouse may even help a lion (b) Even a little mouse may help a lion
(c) A little mouse can even help a lion (d) Even a little mouse ought to help a lion
Answer: (b)
Even a little mouse may help a lion.
Q 72. People claim to have seen the suspect in several cities
(a) The suspect is being seen in several cities
(b) The suspect has been seen by the people in several cities
(c) The suspect is claimed to have been seen in several cities
(d) The suspect was seen by people in several cities
Answer: (c)
The suspect is claimed to have been seen in several cities.

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In each of the following questions, out of the given words, one word is mis-spelt. Find the mis-spelt
word. If all words are spelt correctly, answer is ‘All correct’ i.e. (d)
Q 73. (a) Semester (b) Senesent (c) Sensory (d) Salacious
Answer: (b)
“Senesent” is the mis-spelt word and the correct spelling is “Senescent”.
Q 74. (a) Stupor (b) Invador (c) Personnel (d) Proposal
Answer: (b)
“Invador” is the mis-spelt word and the correct spelling is “Invader”.
Q 75. (a) Confidence (b) Successful (c) Adumbrate (d) All correct
Answer: (d)
All the words are spelt correct.
Choose the word which best express nearly the same meaning of the given word out of the choices
given below.
Q 76. ERUDITE
(a) Strong (b) Precious (c) Learned (d) Courteous
Answer: (c)
Erudite means, having or containing a lot of knowledge that is known by very few people:
Q 77. INSIPID
(a) Lucid (b) Flat (c) Wily (d) Witty
Answer: (b)
Insipidmeans, not having a strong taste or character, or having no interest or energy:
Q78. EMPIRICALLY
(a) Intuitively (b) Verbally
(c) Through written communication (d) By observation and experiment
Answer: (d)
Empirically means based on what is experienced or seen rather than on theory:
Q 79. REPUGNANT
(a) Amiable (b) Repulsive (c) Amoral (d) Apolitical
Answer: (b)
Repugnant means if behavior or beliefs, etc. are repugnant, they are very unpleasant, causing a feeling
of disgust.
Q 80. ESTRANGE
(a) Puzzling (b) Endanger (c) Alienate (d) Miscalculate
Answer: (c)
Estrange means to cause someone to no longer have a friendly relationship with another person or
other people:
Choose the word which best expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word out of the choice
given below.
Q81. MODICUM
(a) Simplicity (b) A large amount (c) Brazenness (d) Immodesty
Answer: (b)
Modicum means, a small amount of something good such as truth or honesty. Its opposite is a large
amount.
Q82. FACTITIOUS
(a) Ridiculous (b) Genuine (c) Engineered (d) Magnificent
Answer: (b)
Factitious means, artificial rather than natural. Its opposite is genuine.

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Q83. OVERWROUGHT
(a) Alert (b) Alive (c) Excited (d) Calm
Answer: (d)
Overwrought means, in a state of being upset, nervous, and worried. Its opposite is calm.
Q84. CULPABLE
(a) Irresponsible (b) Careless (c) Blameless (d) Defendable
Answer: (c)
Culpable means, deserving to be blamed or considered responsible for something bad. Its opposite is
blameless.
Q85. TACIT
(a) Order (b) Written (c) Oral (d) Understanding
Answer: (c)
Tacit, understood without being expressed directly. Its opposite is oral.
Pick out the most effective word from the choices below to fill in the blanks to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
Q 86. A cup of water was enough to _________ his thirst.
(a) satisfy (b) appease (c) quench (d) extinguish
Answer: (c)
A cup of water was enough to quench his thirst.
Q 87. Some of our external problems have completely _________ our national leaders.
(a) beguiled (b) belaboured (c) baffled (d) blustered
Answer: (c)
Some of our external problems have completely baffled our national leaders.
Q 88. The strike in the paper mill was resulted in a _________ loss.
(a) commendable (b) voluminous (c) colossal (d) comprehensive
Answer: (c)
The strike in the paper mill was resulted in a colossal loss.
Q 89. A cheerful man _________ all difficulties and hardships with a smile on his face.
(a) challenges (b) embraces (c) resists (d) endures
Answer: (d)
A cheerful man endures all difficulties and hardships with a smile on his face.
For the underlined part of the sentence below choose part of the sentence from given choices, to
correct or improve it.
Q 90. Scarcely had he left when his friends came.
(a) He had left scarcely (b) He had scarcely left (c) He scarcely had left (d) No
improvement
Answer: (d)
There is no improvement in the sentence “Scarcely had he left when his friends came.”
Q 91. I, your brother and you will be partners.
(a) I, you and your brother (b) You, your brother and I
(c) You, I and your brother (d) No improvement
Answer: (b)
“You, your brother and I” will be the improvement to the sentence” I, your brother and you will be
partners.”
Q 92. His salary is not adequate for him to make the both ends meet.
(a) make both ends meet (b) make both the ends meet
(c) make both his ends meet (d) No improvement

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Answer: (a)
The correct sentence is “His salary is not adequate for him to make both ends meet”
In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given sentence.
Q 93. Part of church in which bells hang
(a) Minaret (b) Chapel (c) Belfry (d) Spire
Answer: (b)
Belfry is a Part of church in which bells hang.
Q 94. To slap with a flat object
(a) Hew (b) Swat (c) Chop (d) Gnaw
Answer: (b)
“Hit or crush (something, especially an insect) with a sharp blow from a flat object” is the real meaning
for the word ‘swat’.
Q 95. A man who starves body for the good of soul
(a) Monk (b) Ascetic (c) Saint (d) Spiritualist
Answer: (b)
Ascetic means, characterized by severe self-discipline and abstention from all forms of indulgence,
typically for religious reasons.
Q 96. A person who forsakes religion
(a) Charlatan (b) Apostle (c) Renegade (d) Apotheosis
Answer: (c)
The word renegade means, having abandoned one's religious beliefs.
Q 97. A person sharing responsibility for a political party’s discipline and tactics
(a) Statesman (b) Diplomat (c) Whip (d) Defector
Answer: (c)
The word whip really means, an official of a political party appointed to maintain parliamentary
discipline among its members, especially so as to ensure attendance and voting in debates.
Rearrange the following part of the sentence in form of a meaningful sentence.
Q 98. My brother (P)/to attend his friend’s wedding (Q)/is going to Chennai (R)/tomorrow (S).
(a) PSQR (b) QPSR (c) RQPS (d) PRSQ
Answer: (d)
My brother is going to Chennai tomorrow to attend his friend’s wedding.
Thus, the correct sequence is PRSQ.
Q99. She had a blind belief that inside the bag-two or three other children (P)/there were perhaps
(Q)/which the big man carried (R)/like herself(S).
(a) QRPS (b) QPSR (c) RQSP (d) RQPS
Answer: (d)
Which the big man carried there were perhaps She had a blind belief that inside the bag-two or three
other children like herself.
Thus, the correct sequence is RQPS.
Q 100. He approached the teacher-at school (P)/to know(Q)/in his studies (R)/how his son was getting
on (S).
(a) PQRS (b) PQSR (c) QSRP (d) QSPR
Answer: (b)
He approached the teacher-at school to know how his son was getting on in his studies.
Thus, the correct sequence is PQSR.

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PAPER- I

REASONING AND ELEMENTARY


MATHEMATICS

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PART – I : REASONING
1 ANALOGY
An analogy means comparing two things to show their similarities. It explains one thing in terms
of another to highlight the ways in which they have some similarities. In the questions based on
analogy, a particular relationship is given, we have to identify the similar relationship from the
alternatives provided.
1.1 VERBAL ANALOGY
Example 1: Tree: leaf: flower: petal
Solution:
This is also represented as: Tree is to leaf as flower is to petal. This analogy highlights the
relationship between the whole (a tree and a flower) and its parts (a leaf and a petal).
Here one portion of the analogy is left blank and we have to choose an answer that makes
sense to complete the comparison.
Example2: Dog: puppy:: cat : _______
Solution:
To solve this, first you have to determine the relationship between dog and puppy. Once you
find that a puppy is a baby dog, you can find the corresponding relationship for a cat. A baby cat
is a kitten, so the completed analogy is
Dog: puppy:: cat : kitten
Ex3: Cloth: Fiber:: Petrol: ______
Solution: Cloth is made of fiber and petrol is extracted from crude oil.
Cloth: Fiber:: Petrol : Crude Oil
1.2 ALPHABET ANALOGY
In this type of question, two groups of letters related to each other in some way are given. We
have to find this relationship and choose a group of letters which is related in the same way to a
third group provided in the question.
For example:
1. AG: IO:: EK : MS
Each letter of the first group is moved eight steps forward to obtain the corresponding letter of
the second group.
2. BYCX: DWEV: FUGT: HSIR
The first and third letters of the first group move two steps forward, and the second and fourth
letters move each two steps backward to obtain the corresponding letters of the second group.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-12): In each of the following questions, there are two words/ set of letters/
numbers to the left of the sign:: which are connected in some way. The same relationship
obtains between the third words/ set of letters/ numbers and one of the four alternatives under
it. Find the correct alternative in each question.
1. ABA: ECE:: ............ : ............
(a) LML: NON (b) IDI: OFO
(c) PQP: STS (d) CDC: GEG

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2. CG: EI :: FJ:....
(a) LM (b) IJ
(c) GK (d) JK
3. CG: EI :: FJ:....
(a) LM (b) IJ
(c) GK (d) HL
4. Clock: Time :: Thermometer:?
(a) Heat (b) Radiation
(c) Energy (d) Temperature
5. PRLN: XZTV:: JLFH:?
(a) NPRT (b) NRPT
(c) NTRP (d) RTNP
6. Supervisor: Worker::
(a) Junior: Senior (b) Elder: Younger
(c) Debtor: Creditor (d) Officer: Clerk
7. TOMATO: MTOOTA:: 123412:?
(a) 312214 (b) 123456
(c) 321124 (d) 213314
8. 14: 9:: 26:?
(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 31
9. 6: 24:: 5:?
(a) 23 (b) 22
(c) 26 (c) 20
10. 6: 18:: 4:?
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 16
11. 583: 293:: 488:?
(a) 291 (b) 378
(c) 487 (d) 581
12. 8: 28:: 27:?
(a) 8 (b) 28
(c) 64 (d) 65
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 13-30): Choose the pair of words which exhibits the same relationship
between each other as the given capitalized pair of words:
13. WRITING: PLAGIARISM::
(a) confidence: deception (b) money: misappropriation
(c) gold: theft (d) germ: disease

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14. CONDENSATION: REFRIGERATE::


(a) evaporation: heat (b) consumption: cook
(c) oration: listen (d) exhaustion: buy
15. MOSAIC: TILE::
(a) document: author (b) portrait: paint
(c) fabric: tapestry (d) coverlet: cloth
16. AUTHOR: MANUSCRIPT::
(a) optician: spectacles (b) engineer: bridge
(c) architect: blueprint (d) doctor: stethoscope
17. SIMMER: BOIL:
(a) glide: drift (b) drizzle: downpour
(c) gambol: play (d) stagnate: flow
18. Drizzle: downpour:
(a) census: population (b) government: laws
(c) taxation: revenue (d) team: athletes
19. MITIGATE: PUNISHMENT::
(a) place: placement (b) change: order
(c) monotonous: change (d) alleviate: pain
20. PRAISE: EXTOL::
(a) stuff: cram (b) hurry: run
(c) insure: rely (d) dislike: loathe
21. FRAGILE: CRACK::
(a) Irreducible: Reduce (b) Cemetery: Death
(c) Hydro: Water (d) Pliable: Bend
22. HANDCUFFS: PRISONER::
(a) Shoes: Feet (b) Leash: Dog
(c) Tail: Kite (d) Ring: Finger
23. ISLAND: OCEAN::
(a) Hill: Stream (b) Forest: Valley
(c) Tree: Field (d) Oasis: Desert
24. LYING: PERJURY
(a) statement: testimony (b) seeing: observing
(c) taking: stealing (d) eating: dining
25. PREHISTORIC: MEDIEVAL
(a) Akbar: British (b) present: future
(c) Shakespeare: Tennyson (d) colossus: elephant

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26. SECRET: CLANDESTINE


(a) overt: furtive (b) covert: stealthy
(c) open: closed (d) news: rumour
27. LIQUIDITY: GASEOUSNESS
(a) serum: fume (b) humid: arid
(c) thaw: distil (d) smoke: cloud
28. FISSION: FUSION
(a) implosion: explosion (b) separation: togetherness
(c) intrusion: extrusion (d) enemy: friend
29. ACTION: REACTION
(a) introvert: extrovert (b) assail: defend
(c) diseased: treatment (d) death: rebirth
30. MALAPROPISM: WORDS
(a) anachronism: time (b) ellipsis: sentence
(c) Zinjanthropism: apes (d) catechism: religion
ANSWER KEY FOR PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)

EXPLANATIONS
1. CDC: GEG (Letter Differences) 15. Coverlet: cloth
2. GK (Letter Differences) 16. Architect: blueprint(Relationship’s)
3. HL (Letter Differences) 17. Drizzle: downpour(Relationship’s)
4. Temperature 18. Census: population
5. RTNP (Letter Differences) 19. Alleviate: pain (Remove what)
6. Officer: Clerk (Who is head of whose) 20. Dislike: loathe
7. 312214(Coding and Decoding) 21. Pliable: Bend
8. 15(The relationship is (2x - 4): x.) 22. Leash: Dog
9. 20 23. Oasis: Desert
10. 8(half times’s) 24. Statement: testimony
11. 378(Sum of digits of the first number is 2 25. Present: future (Time Matching)
more than the sum of digits of the second 26. Covert: stealthy (Synonym like)
number.) 27. Serum: fume
12. 65(The relationship is x3: (x + 1)3 + 1.) 28. Separation: togetherness
13. Money: misappropriation 29. Assail: defend
14. Evaporation: heat (one is in need of other) 30. Anachronism: time

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EXERCISE
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-7): Choose the pair of words which exhibits the same relationship
between each other as the given capitalized pair of words:
1. PARADIGM: PATTERN
(a) Skeleton: flesh (b) method: system
(c) plant: genus (d) dinosaur: tyrannosaurus
2. EDITOR: NEWSPAPER::
(a) Lecturer: University (b) Teacher: School
(c) Nurse: Hospital (d) Architect: Design
3. OVATION: APPLAUSE::
(a) Grief: Loss (b) Rout: Defeat
(c) Triumph: Failure (d) Pathway: Ruin
4. PLANT: PARASITE::
(a) Transient: Permanent (b) Wild: Prey
(c) Flora: Fauna (d) Sailor: Pirate
5. MANAGER: OFFICE::
(a) Doctor: Patient (b) Curator: Museum
(c) Bank: Account (d) Fruit: Seed
6. GREENHOUSE: PLANT::
(a) Incubator: Infant (b) Hen house: Chicken
(c) Hive: Bee (d) Archives: Document
7. PHILATELIST: STAMPS:
(a) Carpenter: Saw (b) Runner: Sneakers
(c) Numismatist: Coins (d) Astrologer: Predictions
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-17): In each question three words in bold letters are given which have
something in common among themselves. Out of the four given alternatives, choose the most
appropriate description about these three words.
8. Mars: Mercury: Venus:
(a) They have no opposite motion (b) They are evil planets
(c) They are the planets nearest to the earth (d) They have no corresponding lucky stone.
9. Canoe: Yacht: Dinghy
(a) These are tribal people (b) These are famous clubs
(c) These are names of boats (d) These are rest houses
10. Slumber: Drowse: Snooze
(a) They are medical terms (b) The words are connected with sleep
(c) The terms are connected with peace (d) They are first symptoms of somnambulism
11. Prakrit: Pali: Sanskrit
(a) They are classical languages of Asia and (b) The Vedas are written in these languages
Europe
(c) They are old languages of India (d) They are dead languages

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12. Vinci: Angelo: Raphael


(a) They were Italian engineers (b) They were European painters
(c) They were dictators (d) They were famous politicians
13. Evaporation: Cloud: Rain
(a) Sneezing: Cough: Cold (b) Accident: Injury: Pain
(c) Tanning: Leather: Purse (d) Bud: Flower: Fragrance
14. Lizard: Reptile: Insects
(a) Fox: Wolf: Forest (b) Fly: Insect: Bee
(c) Man: Mammals: Meat (d) Tiger: Mammal: Deer
15. Smile: Laugh: Cry
(a) Sit: Sleep: Play (b) Frown: Anger: Temper
(c) Morning: Night: Day (d) Touch: Catch: Release
16. India: Pakistan: Bangladesh
(a) Japan: China: Turkey (b) Sri Lanka: Japan: India
(c) Iraq: Kuwait: Iran (d) Canada: California: Mexico
17. Morning: Evening: Dusk
(a) Triangle: Quadrilateral: Pentagon (b) Happy: Gay: Excited
(c) Summer: Winter: Autumn (d) Botany: Zoology: Physiology
18. In a certain way ‘Diploma’ is related to ‘Education’. Which of the following is related to
‘Trophy’ in a similar way?
(a) Sports (b) Athlete
(c) Winning (d) Prize
19. ‘Necklace’ is related to ‘Jewellery’ in the same way as ‘Shirt’ is related to
(a) Cloth (b) Cotton
(c) Apparel (d) Thread
20. ‘Hospital’ is related to ‘Nurse’ in the same way as ‘Court’ is related to
(a) Justice (b) Lawyer
(c) Judgment (d) Trial

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(d) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(c) 20. (b)

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2. CODING AND DECODING


Coding is a method of transmitting information from one person to another in the form of codes or
signals without it known by a third person. Codes which are transmitted are decoded on the other side
by the receiver is known as decoding. Coding and Decoding is classified into 6 types.
They are,
➢ Letter coding
➢ Number coding
➢ Mixed coding
➢ Mixed number coding
➢ Decoding
➢ Symbols coding
2.1 LETTER CODING
Here the real alphabets in the word are replaced by certain other alphabets according to a specific rule
to form its code.
For example:
If COURSE is coded as FRXUVH, how is RACE coded in that code?
(a) HFDU (b) UCFH
(c) UDFH (d) UDHF
In the given code, each letter is moved three steps forward than the corresponding letter in the word.
So, R is coded as U, A as D, C as F, E as H. Hence RACE is coded as UDFH.
2.2 NUMBER CODING
In these questions, either numeric code values are assigned to a word or alphabetical code values are
assigned to numbers. The candidate is required to analyze the code as per directions.
Case I: When numerical values are assigned to words.
For example: If in a certain code ROPE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456. What will be the code
for CRAPE?
Solution:
In the given code, the alphabets are coded as follows.
R OP E C H A I R
6 8 2 1 7 3 4 5 6
So, CRAPE is coded as 76421.
Case II: When alphabetical code values are assigned to the numbers.
Eg: In a certain code 3456 is coded as RODE & 15576 is coded as APPLE. Then how is 54613coded?
Clearly, in the given figures, the numbers are coded as follows.
3 4 5 6 1 7
R O D E A L
So 54613 is coded as DOEAR.
2.3 MIXED CODING
In this type of question, three or four complete messages are given in the coded language and the code
for a particular word is asked.

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To analyze such codes, any two messages bearing the common word are picked up, the common code
word will mean that word. Proceeding similarly by picking up all possible combinations of two messages
the entire message can be analyzed.
For Example:
If ‘taa saa paa‘ means ‘drink fruit juice’, ‘saa kaa laa’ means ‘juice is sweet’, and ‘laa raa maa’ means
‘she is intelligent’, which word in that language means sweet?
(a) saa (b) kaa
(c) laa (d) paa
In the first and the second statements the common word is juice and the common code word is saa.
So saa means juice. In the second and the third statements, the common word is ‘is’ and the
common code is laa. So laa means is. Thus, in the second statement, the remaining word sweet is coded
as kaa.
2.4 MIXED NUMBER CODING
In this type of questions, three or four complete messages are given in the coded language and the code
number for a particular word is asked.
For example:
If in a certain code language, ‘158’ means ‘good sweet fruit’; ‘873’ means ‘good red rose’ and ‘143’
means ‘rose and fruit’ which of the following digits stands for ‘ and ‘ in that language?
In the first and the second statements, the common code digit is 8 and the common word is good. So
8 stands for good. In the first and the third statements, the common code digit is 1 and the common
word is fruit. So 1 stands for fruit. Therefore in the third statement, 4 stands for ‘and’.
2.5 DECODING
In these questions, artificial or code values are assigned to a word or a group of words and the
candidate is required to find out the original words.
For example:
If in a certain language ‘FLOWER‘ is written as ‘GMPXFS ‘, what will be written as ‘ IPVTF ‘?
Each letter of the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.
(a) G M P X F S (b) I P V T F
(c) F L O W E R (d) H O U S E
Thus HOUSE is written as IPVTF.
2.6 SYMBOLS CODING
In this type of questions either alphabetical code values are assigned to symbols or symbols are assigned
to alphabets. The candidate is required to analyze the code as per direction.
For example:
In a certain code ‘TOME’ is written as ' @ $ * ? ' and ARE is written as ‘ • £ ? ’ How can ‘REMOTE’
be written in that code?
(a) £ ? • $ @ ? (b) @ ? * $ @ ?
(c) £ ? * $ @ ? (d) Cannot be determined
From the data we have:
T-@
O-$
M-*
E-?
A-•
R-£
Hence REMOTE is coded as £ ? * $ @ ?

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. If B is coded as 5, F is coded as 2, Q is coded as 8, D is coded as 1, T is coded as 3, M is coded as 7, and
K is coded as 9, then what is the coded form of QKTBFM?
(a) 452683 (b) 472683
(c) 452783 (d) 893527
2. A certain code ‘CLOUD’ is written as ‘GTRKF’. How is SIGHT written in that code?
(a) WGJHV (b) UGHHT
(c) UHJFW (d) WFJGV
3. If CUP is 80, V is 44. Then what is ART equal to?
(a) 48 (b) 78
(c) 60 (d) 50
4. If MILK = 5, BOOKS = 6, then GOVERNOR is equal to?
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 9
5. In a certain code BOOK is TLLC and TRICK is NAGDC, then BRICK is coded as -
(a) NAGDC (b) TAGLC
(c) TALCD (d) TAGDC
6. If COME is code as BNLD then DANGER will be coded as
(a) EBOHIS (b) CZMGER
(c) CZMFDQ (d) DANFDQ
7. In a certain code language BORN is written as APQON and LACK is written as KBBLK. How will the
word BIRD be written in that code language?
(a) FQHCD (b) FSHED
(c) AJQEN (d) FSHCD
8. In a certain code BREAK is written as ASDBJ. How is SOLAR written in that code?
(a) RPKBS (b) TPMBS
(c) RPKBQ (d) TPKBQ
9. In certain code, SIKKIM in written as THLJJL. How is a TRAINING written in that code?
(a) SQBHOHOH (b) UQBHOHOF
(c) UQBJOHHO (d) UQBJOHOH
10. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded?
(a) 5279431 (b) 5978213
(c) 8251896 (d) 8543691
ANSWER KEY FOR PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)

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EXPLANATIONS
1. Q K T B F M = 893527
2. Here, each letter of the word CLOUD is written as three letters forward and one letter
backward alternately. Following this CLOUD becomes FKRTG. After that, reverse the order of
the result obtained in the previous operation. Thus, FKRTG becomes GTRKF. Similarly, SIGHT
will change its form as follows: SIGHT→ VHJGW→ WGJHV
3.
Word Code value Final value
CUP 3+21+16= 40 40×2 = 80
V 22 22×2 = 44
ART 1+18+20 = 39 39×2 = 78
4. Type – Alphanumeric series type. Code for ‘MILK’ = 4 because no. of letters = 4
4 + 1 = ‘5’, i.e., the code. Code for ‘BOOKS’ = 5 because no. of letters = 5
5 + 1 = ‘6’, i.e., the code. Code for ‘GOVERNOR’ = 8 because no. of letters = 8
8 + 1 = ‘9’, i.e., the code.
5. BRICK-> TAGDC
6. Word – Code
C – B = (-1)
O – N = (-1)
M – L = (-1)
E – D = (-1)
So,
D – C = (-1)
A – Z = (-1)
N – M = (-1)
G – F = (-1)
E – D = (-1)
R – Q = (-1)
Thus, the required code is ‘CZMFDQ’.
7. AJQE
B – A = (-1)
O – P = (+1)
R – Q = (-1)
N – O = (+1)
N
Similarly,
B – A = (-1)
I – J = (+1)
R – Q = (-1)
D – E = (+1)
N
8. The odd-positioned letters are coded as one position backward and the even-positioned
letters are coded as one position forward as in English alphabet.
9. First, third and fifth letters are moved one step forward and second, fourth and sixth letters
are moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
10. 8251896
D 7, E 3, L 5, H 4, I 1, C 8, A 2, U 9, T 6.
So, in CALICUT, C is coded as 8, A as 2, L as 5, I as 1, U as 9 and T as 6. Thus, the code for
CALICUT is 8251896.

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EXERCISE
1. If O is denoted By L, P is denoted by M, T by N, R by S, C by E, M by E, U by E, E by T then how will the
word ELEMENTS by written?
(a) UCONIDTER (b) UCONITDER
(c) COMPUTER (d) UCOINTDER
2. If WE = 26, LOW = 31, then COME will be equal to
(a) 56 (b) 58
(c) 72 (d) 64
3. If ZIP = 198 and ZAP = 246, then how will you code VIP?
(a) 174 (b) 222
(c) 888 (d) 990
4. If C = 3 and LEOHT = 12, how will you code CAB?
(a) 2 (b) 10
(c) 26 (d) 28
5. If F = 7, ROF = 42, then what is NFTOR equal to?
(a) 61 (b) 65
(c) 73 (d) 78
6. If A = 2, M = 26, Z = 52, then BET?
(a) 22 (b) 54
(c) 56 (d) 64
7. In a certain code, CAT is written as SATC and DEAR and DEAR is written as SEARD. How would SING be
written in that code?
(a) BSINS (b) GNISS
(c) SINGS (d) None
8. If in a certain code, LUTE is written as MUTE and FATE is written as GATE, then how will BLUE be
written in that code?
(a) CLUE (b) GLUE
(c) FLUE (d) None
9. In a certain code language, HAND is written as SZMW, then what will be the code of MILK?
(a) ORNP (b) RNRO
(c) NROP (d) None
10. In a certain code language NATIONALISM is written as OINTANMSAIL. How is DEPARTMENTS written
in that code?
(a) RADEPTSTMNE (b) RADPETSTMNE
(c) RADPESTMTNE (d) RADPETSTNME
11. In a certain code language OUTCOME is written as OQWWEQOE. How is REFRACT written in that
code?
(a) RTGITCET (b) RTGTICET
(c) RTGITECT (d) RTGICTET
12. In a certain code language HGLS is written as ‘$ ÷ * %’ and BSGD is written as ‘#% ÷ ×’. How will the
word HGDS be written in that code language?
(a) $÷ ×% (b) * ÷ $%

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(c) * ÷ ×% (d) #÷ ×%
13. In a certain code, ROAD is written as URDG.. How is SWAN written in that code?
(a) DQXV (b) VZDQ
(c) ZCPV (d) UXDQ
14. If, in a code, MIND becomes KGLB and ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what will DIAGRAM be in that
code?
(a) BGYEPYK (b) BGYPYEK
(c) GLPEYKB (d) LKBGYPK
15. In a certain code language EMPHASIS is written as NDIOBRJR. How will CREATURE be written in that
code language?
(a) SBBDUTSD (b) QBBDTUSD
(c) DSDBSTSF (d) SBDBUTDS
16. In a certain code OVER is written as ‘PWFSQ’ and BARE is written as ‘CBSFD’. How is OPEN written in
that code?
(a) PQFOM (b) NODMO
(c) PQFOO (d) POFMM
17. In a certain code language ‘POETRY’ is written as ‘QONDSQX’ and ‘OVER’ is written as ‘PNUDQ’. How
is ‘MORE’ written in that code?
(a) NNNQD (b) NLPQD
(c) NLNQD (d) LNNQD
18. In a certain code language the word FUTILE is written as HYVMNI. How will the word PENCIL be
written in that language?
(a) OIFRLT (b) OIFRLS
(c) OLFRIT (d) None of these
19. In a certain code language the word ‘NUMBER’ is written as ‘UMHTEL’. How will the word ‘SECOND’
be written in that language?
(a) CTQDRB (b) GRQDRB
(c) CTQFRB (d) GRQFRB
20. If GOLD is coded as HOME, COME is coded as DONE and CORD is coded as DOSE, how would you
code SONS?
(a) TPOT (b) TOOT
(c) TOOS (d) TONT
ANSWER KEY

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b)

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3. ODD ONE OUT


Odd one means, a person or thing differing from all other members of a particular group or set
in some way. In the question, we have to find that differ one.
For example:
1. Iron box, Mixer-Grinder, computer, gas stove
Except Gas stove, all others run on electricity.
2. Elephant, Man, Hawk, Seal, Whale
Except Hawk, all are mammals.
3. FAA, OFF, ATT, IFF, EPP
In all groups, a vowel is followed by a consonant repeated twice, except FAA.
4. 835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532
In the above series, the difference between third and first digit of each element is equal to its
middle digit. But 751 is not in this pattern, so odd one.

EXERCISE
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-20): Pick out the word in each of the following questions that is different.
1. Poppy, mustard, sesame, linseed, castor
(a) mustard (b) sesame
(c) poppy (d) castor
2. Lily, rose, morning glory, flower, marigold
(a) flower (b) lily
(c) marigold (d) morning glory
3. School, waspish, pout, frown, sulk
(a) school (b) waspish
(c) pout (d) sulk
4. Iguana, herring, trout, piranha, mackerel
(a) herring (b) trout
(c) piranha (d) iguana
5. Shove, push, rush, thrust, move
(a) shone (b) push
(c) rush (d) thrust
6. Yen, piece, rouble, dollar, pound
(a) yen (b) piece
(c) rouble (d) pound
7. Shirt, coat, trousers, socks, shoes
(a) coat (b) trousers
(c) socks (d) shoes
8. Respect, revere, worship, believe
(a) respect (b) revere
(c) worship (d) believe
9. Sword, arrow, dagger, trident
(a) sword (b) arrow
(c) dagger (d) trident
10. Man, drone, bison, bull
(a) man (b) drone
(c) bison (d) bull
11. Army, corps, brigade, division, company
(a) army (b) corps

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(c) brigade (d) company


12. Dermatologist, neurologist, obstetrician, dentist, oculist
(a) oculist (b) neurologist
(c) obstetrician (d) dermatologist
13. Viable, feasible, ample, dirigible
(a) viable (b) feasible
(c) ample (d) dirigible
14. Intuitive, initiative, talkative, quantitative
(a) initiative (b) intuitive
(c) talkative (d) quantitative
15.
(a) captivate (b) enchant
(c) fascinate (d) dazzle
16.
(a) brim (b) obscure
(c) brink (d) rim
17.
(a) disaster (b) motley
(c) catastrophe (d) calamity
18.
(a) renovate (b) flourish
(c) thrive (d) blossom
19.
(a) Anarchy (b) chaos
(c) pandemonium (d) shield
20.
(a) adapt (b) accommodate
(c) adopt (d) reconcile
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 21 to 35): In each of the following questions, there are four figures which
are alike in some respect and one is different from others. Find out the odd figure in each
questions and indicate your answer.
21.

22.

23.

24.

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25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

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33.

34.

35.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 36-40): In the questions that follow, four figures are given, out of which one
does not belong to the group. Identify the odd one out.
36.

(a) C (b) A
(c) B (d) D
37.

(a) B (b) A
(c) D (d) C
38.

(a) B (b) A
(c) C (d) D
39.

(a) C (b) B
(c) D (d) A
40.

(a) C (b) D
(c) B (d) A
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6.(b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23.(c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d)

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4. BLOOD RELATIONSHIP

In Blood Relations, certain information is given about the members of the family in the question, Based
on that information we need to find out the relationship between a particular member of the family.
Important Relations:
Mother’s (or) father’s son – Brother
Mother’s (or) Father’s Daughter – Sister
Mother’s brother – Maternal Uncle
Father’s Brother – Paternal uncle
Mother’s (or) Father’s sister – Aunt
Mother’s (or) Father’s father – Grand father
Mother’s (or) Father’s mother – Grand mother
Son’s wife – Daughter in law
Daughter’s husband – Son in law
Husband’s (or) Wife’s father – Father in law
Husband’s (or) Wife’s mother – Mother in law
Husband’s (or) Wife’s brother – Brother in law
Husband’s (or) Wife’s sister – Sister in law
Sister’s husband – Brother in law
Brother’s (or) Sister’s son – Nephew
Brother’s (or) Sister’s daughter – Niece
Types are:
1. Based on Dialogue or conversation
2. Based on puzzles
3. Based on Symbols
1. Based on Dialogues or Conversation
In this type of question, the one person talking to another person giving information throws pointing to
some picture or person.
Case 1: Direct single person blood relationship
These are relationship between two persons only.
HINT: Break the given sentence at is/was/as and resolve it from last point to is/was/as to get easy
solution for the problem.
For Example:
Pointing to a photograph, sita says to mala, "The girl in the photo is the second daughter of the wife of
only son of the grandmother of my younger sister." How this girl of photograph is related to sita?
Solution:
Break the given sentence at is.
From the last, in the view of Sita
My younger sister - Sita’s sister
Grandmother of Sita’s sister – Grandmother of Sita
Only son of Sita’s grandmother- Sita’s father
Wife of Sita’s father – Sita’s mother
Second daughter of Sita’s mother – Sita’s sister.
Answer is Sita’s sister
Case 2: Indirect single person blood relationship
Hint: Break the given sentence at is/was/as.
Resolve the sentence from last up to is/was/as. And also resolve the sentence from the first up to is
/was/as. Using this, will get easy solution.

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For example:
Pointing to a man in the photograph, a girl says,” His mother’s only daughter is my mother”. How is man
related to the girl?
Solution:
Break the sentence at is.
From the last, up to is:
My mother – girl’s mother
From the first, up to is:
His mother’s only daughter – his sister
So, His (Man’s) sister is girl’s mother.
So, the answer is Mother’s brother i.e. Uncle.
NOTE: If question asks like how is girl related to that man? Then answer is sister’s daughter i.e. niece.
2. Based on puzzles.
In this, mutual blood relations depending on more than two persons mentioned. These type of problems
can be solved with the help of diagrams.
Follow these symbols in the diagram to avoid confusion.
+ Male candidate
– Female candidate
<=> Couple
______ Same generation i.e. brother –brother (or) sister-sister (or) sister to brother
_______ Different generations i.e. father-son (or) mother-son (or) father – daughter (or) Mother –
daughter
The following are list of generation required to know:
First generation: Grandfather, Grand mother
Second generation: Father, Mother, Uncle, Aunt.
Third generation: Self, Sister, Brother, Sister in law, Brother in law
Fourth generation: Son, Daughter, Nephew, Niece.
Better to use the same generation in one horizontal row in the diagrams.
For example: A & B are brothers and C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C?
Solution:
By using above notations we can draw the below diagram.
A, B are taken ‘+’ and C, D are taken as ‘-’. It seems that A, B belongs to one generation and C, D belongs
to another generation. So, A, B are taken in one horizontal row and C, D are taken in other horizontal
line.

It says that A is C’s father. Father’s brother is uncle. So, answer is uncle.
3. Based on Symbols
In this type, relationships represented by codes and symbols like +, –, /, *, $, #, @, etc.… You have to
analyze the required relation based on the given code. In this also you may need diagrammatic
representation of problem to solve it. Use the same representation used in puzzles.
For example:
If A+B means A is husband of B, A/B means A is the sister of B, A*B means A is the son of B. How is S
related to P in S*Q+R/P?

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Solution:
R/P – R is sister of P.
Q+R/P– Q is brother in law of P (sister’s husband – brother in law.
S*Q+R/P – S is nephew of P (sister’s husband’s son means sister’s son i.e. nephew).
So, answer is Nephew.
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. No. 1-3): A is mother of B. B is sister of C. D is son of C. E is brother of D. F is
mother of E. G is granddaughter of A. H has only two children B and C.
1. Who are the two couples in the family?
(a) AH and CF (b) AH and BC
(c) DE and CF (d) AB and DE
2. How is B related to D?
(a) Mother (b) Aunty
(c) Cousin (d) Sister in law
3. Who is mother of G?
(a) C (b) B
(c) F (d) Either B or F
Directions (Q. No. 4-6): W is brother in law of Z, who has two sons. Q is grandson of X, who is
married to Z. V is daughter in law of X. P is uncle of N who has only one son. Z is a male.
4. What are the possible couples in the family?
(a) WP, ZX (b) WP, NQ
(c) WP, ZV (d) WP, ZQ
5. Z has two sons, wherein one son will be N. Who is another one?
(a) V (b) Q
(c) Cannot be determined (d) W
6. How is P related to Q?
(a) Maternal Uncle (b) Paternal Aunty
(c) Grandfather (d) None of the above
Directions (Q. No. 7-8): M is brother of I. U is mother-in-law of S, who is father of M. Q is brother
of R. I is granddaughter of U, who has two children
7. If Q and R are two children of U, How is Q is related to S?
(a) Wife (b) Brother-in-law
(c) Father-in-law (d) Uncle
8. How is I related to M?
(a) Sister (b) Cousin sister
(c) Data not sufficient (d) Brother
Directions (Q. No. 9-10):
A@B means A is father of B
A&B means A is mother of B
A*B means A is son of B
A$B means A is daughter of B
9. With respect to the information. How is A related to D in the expression A&B*C@D?
(a) Father (b) Grandfather
(c) Mother (d) Grandmother
10. Which of the following expression shows that P is grandfather of L?
(a) P@Q$K&L (b) P@Q&L
(c) P&Q$L (d) P&K*L

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)

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5. ARRANGING IN ORDER
In ordering and ranking arrangement questions, position/rank of a person from left-right/ top-bottom of
a row/class is to be determined or rank/position is given & total no. of persons is to be calculated.
TYPE 1
Case1:
Total number of persons = (Sum of the number of same person from both sides) – 1
Example: In a row of persons, Position of A from left side of the row is 24 and position of A from the
right side is 27. Find the total number of persons in the row?
Sol: Total no. of person= (Position of A from left + Position of A from right) – 1 = (24 + 27)-1= 51-1=50
Case 2:
Position of a person from other side= (Total number of persons- Position of the same person given side) +1
Example: In a row of 22 persons, Position of Rahul from right side of the row is 11th. Find the position of
Rahul from left side of the row?
Sol: Position of Rahul from left= (Total number of persons- Position of Rahul from right side) +1 = (22-11)
+1= 11+1= 12
TYPE 2
When the positions of two persons are given from both ends and total number of persons are also given
and we have to find the number of persons between them-
There are two cases:-
Case 1:
When there is no overlapping and we have to find the number of persons between them.
No. of Persons between two different persons = Total no. of Persons – (Sum of positions of two different
persons from both sides)
Example: In a row of 52 persons. A is 24th from left side of the row and B is 20th from the right side of
the row. Find out the number of persons sitting between them?
Sol: No. of Persons between A and B
= 52-(24+20) = 52-44=8
Case 2:
When there is overlapping and we have to find the number of persons between them.
HINT: Overlapping means Total number of persons are less than the total of two positions given
No. of Persons between two different persons = (Sum of positions of two different persons from both
sides) -Total no. of Persons –2
Example: In a row of 62 persons. A is 36th from left side of the row and B is 29th from the right side of
the row. Find out the number of persons sitting between them?
Overlapping: 62< (36+29)
Sol: No. of Persons between A and B
= (36+29)-62-2=65-62-2=1
TYPE 3
If total no. of Persons is to be asked and positions of different persons from any side are given, then it is
always a case of ‘cannot be determined. Because we do not know if there will be overlapping or not.
Example: In a row Position of A from left side of the row is the 22nd and position of B from right side of
the row is 35th. Find the total no. of students in the row?
Solution: Cannot be determined

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TYPE 4
If positions are interchanged.
Example: A & B are standing in a row of persons. A is 12th from left side and B is 18th from the right
side of the row. If they interchanged their positions A becomes 25th from left. Find these-
a) New position of B from right side
b) Total number of person
c) Number of person between them
Sol:
A) A Position changes from 12th to 25th from left end. So there is an increase of 13 ranks. Since A and B
both are interchanged their positions so there must be same increase in ranks.
So new position of B from right side
= 18 +13= 31
B) In this questions A position changes from 12 to 25 from left. That means 24 persons are standing
from his left side.
Now A is in B position which is 18th from the right side. That means 17 persons are standing from his
right.
Add all these left and right,
= 24+17+1(A’s own) = 42 total persons
C) Number of persons between A & B = (Position of A from left after interchanging– Position of A from
left before interchanging) – 1
⇒ No. of persons between A & B = (25 – 12) – 1 = 13 – 1 = 12
TYPE 5
If positions of two persons are given and third person is sitting exactly between them.
Example:
In a row of persons, position of A from left side of the row is 10th and position of B from right side of the
row is 9th. If C is sitting just in the middle of A and B and position of C from left of the row is 16th. Find
the total number of persons in the row?
Sol:
Position of C from left is 16th and A from left is 10th so there are (16-10-1=5) persons are sitting
between A and B.
As C is sitting exactly middle between them so 5 persons sitting between C and B. Position of C from
right= Position of B from right 9 + 5 +1= 9+6=15th.
Total number of persons
= Sum of C’s positions from both sides -1
= (16+15)-1=31-1=30
EXERCISE
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3): Read the following information to answer these questions:
Seven friends J, K, L, M, N, O and P are having discussion sitting around a circular table. M is not
neighbour of L or N. J is neighbour of K and L. P, who is second to the left of M, is the neighbour of N and O.
1. Which of the following is correct?
(a) K is between J and M (b) M is between O and P
(c) N is to the immediate right of P (d) O is to the immediate left of P
Solution: (a)

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2. What is the position of L?


(a) Second to the left of K (b) Third to the left of O
(c) To the immediate left of J (d) To the immediate right of N
Solution: (b)
3. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way, based on the information given above and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) JL (b) KM
(c) OP (d) PL
Directions (Q. Nos. 4-8): Twelve persons A, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting in two parallel rows
containing six persons in each row.
P, Q, R, S, T, V are facing north and rest are facing south. In the given seating arrangement each person
of row one faces another member of row two. The person who is facing A sits second to the left of T.
There are two persons between P and T. C and D are immediate neighbours. A sits third to the left of E.
Neither C nor D sits on the extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between B and C. The person
facing D is an immediate neighbour of Q. V is not immediate neighbour of P. A is not opposite to S.
4. Who are at the extreme ends of the line?
(a) QV (b) EF
(c) EB (d) QS
5. Who is sitting adjacent to P, who is facing A?
(a) D (b) C
(c) R (d) B
6. Who is facing diagonally opposite to T?
(a) B (b) D
(c) C (d) E
7. How many person sits between S and V?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
8. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) QE (b) SD
(c) PA (d) TF
ANSWER KEY

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c)

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6. CLOCKS AND CALENDERS


1. Ordinary Year
An ordinary year, also known as Non-leap year is, a year having 365 days. An ordinary year
contains 52 weeks + 1 extra day = 365 days.
2. Leap Year:
Years which are divisible by 4 is a leap year, if it is not a century. Every 4th century is a leap
year and no other century is a leap year.
Examples:
• Each of the years 400, 800, 1200, 1600, 2000 etc. is a leap year.
• Centuries like 1700, 1800 are not leap year (not divisible by 4)
• In a century, there are 76 ordinary years and 24 leap years.
3. Odd Days:
The extra day(s) which is present apart from the complete week, is known as odd days.
Counting of Odd Days:
An ordinary year has 365 days = 52 weeks + 1 odd day
A leap year has 366 days =52 weeks+2 odd days
1 century = 100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years
= (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days = 124 odd days.
= (17 weeks + days) 5 odd days.
Number of odd days in 100 years = 5.
Number of odd days in 200 years (2 centuries),
= (5 x 2) 3 odd days.
Number of odd days in 300 years,
= (5 x 3) 1 odd day.
Number of odd days in 400 years,
= (5 x 4 + 1) 0 odd day.
Similarly, each one of 800 years, 1200 years, 1600 years, 2000 years etc. has 0 odd days.
Day of the Week Related to Odd Days:
No. of Days 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Day Sun Mon Tue Wed Thurs Fri Sat
For example:
1. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
Sol:
On 31st December, 2005, it was a Saturday.
Number of odd days from the year 2006 to the year 2009 = (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days.
On 31st December 2009, it was Thursday.
Thus, on 1st Jan, 2010 it is Friday.
2. If 1st January of an ordinary, non- leap year falls on Thursday, then what will be the day of
week on 1st June of that year?
Sol:
Count the days from months between January 1 and June 1, total days =151.
Since 151=21*7 +4, so excess days are 4.
So we can count the day to Thursday +4 = Monday.

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CLOCKS
1. Minute Spaces:
The face or dial of the watch is a circle whose circumference is divided into 60 equal parts,
called minute spaces.
Hour Hand and Minute Hand: A clock has two hands, the smaller one is called the hour
hand or shorthand while the larger one is called minute hand or long hand.
2. i..In 60 minutes, the minute hand gains 55 minutes on the hour on the hour hand.
ii. In every hour, both the hands coincide once.
iii. The hands are in the same straight line when they are coincident or opposite to each other.
iv. When the two hands are at right angles, they are 15 minute spaces apart.
v. When the hands are in opposite directions, they are 30 minute spaces apart.
vi. Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hours = 360°
vii. Angle traced by minute hand in 60 minutes. = 360°.
Viii. If a watch or a clock indicates 8.15, when the correct time is 8, it is said to be 15
minutes too fast.
On the other hand, if it indicates 6.45, when the correct time is 7, it is said to be 15 minutes too slow.
Example: 1 An event occurs at regular intervals of 20 minutes. The last event occurred 5
minutes ago, the next event is due at 11:20 PM. What is the time now?
Sol:
The last event took place at 11:20 PM -20Minutes, i.e., 11:00 PM, which was 5 minutes earlier
from now.
So the time now is 11:00PM + 5mins=11:05PM
Example: 2 The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is
4.20, is:
Sol:
360 13 °
Angle traced by hour hand in 13/3 hrs =( 12 ∗ ) =130°
3
360 °
Angle traced by minute hand in 20 minutes =( 12 ∗ 20) =120°
Required angle = (130-120) ° =10°
EXERCISE
1. If 10th March, 2003 is Monday, what was the day of the week on 6th March, 2004?
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
2. What was the day of the week on, 11th July, 1876?
(a) Tuesday (b) Monday
(c) Friday (d) Wednesday
3. What was the day of the week on 24th May, 2006?
(a) Thursday (b) Friday
(c) Wednesday (d) Sunday
4. What was the day of the week on 15th August, 1947?
(a) Wednesday (b) Monday
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday
5. The Calendar for the year 1821 is same as which upcoming year?
(a) 1833 (b) 1827
(c) 1849 (d) 1900
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)

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7. NUMBER PROBLEMS
In number series question, a number series is given with one term missing. We have to choose the
correct alternative that have the same pattern.
Case1:
In each series, look for the degree and direction of change between the numbers. In other words, do the
numbers increase or decrease, and by how much.
Example: 1
9, 16, 25, 36, x
Sol:
The numbers are 3², 4², 5², 6², 7²
Therefore the missing number is 7² = 49.
Example 2:
121, 225, 361, ____
Sol:
The numbers are 11², 15², 19² , …
i.e., 11², (11+4*1)², (11+4*2)²,….
Missing number = (11+4*3)² = 23² =529
Example: 3
B3, __, D9, E12, F15, ... What number should fill the blank?
Sol:
The letters increase by 1; the numbers are added by 3.
Therefore B+1 =C; 3+3=6
The answer is C6.
Example: 4
664, 332, 340, 170, ____, 89, ... What number should fill the blank?
Sol:
This is an alternating division and addition series: First, divide by 2, and then add 8. So its 178.
EXERCISE
1. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, 35, 50, 63,?
(a) 80 (b) 82
(c) 83 (d) 84
2. 5, 14, 27, 44, 65,?
(a) 88 (b) 90
(c) 109 (d) 130
3. 3, 5, 9, 17, 33,?
(a) 48 (b) 49
(c) 63 (d) 65
4. 1, 2, 7, 7, 13, 12,?
(a) 19 (b) 18
(c) 12 (d) 14
5. 5, 6, 10, 19, 35?
(a) 50 (b) 55
(c) 60 (d) 71
6. 4, 6, 6, 15, 8, 28, 10,?
(a) 36 (b) 39
(c) 45 (d) 38

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7. 1, 2, 9,?, 65, 126


(a) 28 (b) 82
(c) 99 (d) 108
8. 41, 31,?, 17, 11, 5
(a) 19 (b) 21
(c) 23 (d) 27
9. 8, 15, 28, 53,?
(a) 106 (b) 98
(c) 100 (d) 102
10. 5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58,?, 122
(a) 60 (b) 61
(c) 111 (d) 91
11. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26,?, 50
(a) 32 (b) 33
(c) 34 (d) 35
12. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 89,?
(a) 108 (b) 184
(c) 167 (d) 97
13. 5, 16, 51, 158, .....
(a) 1452 (b) 483
(c) 481 (d) 1454
14. 8, 13, 10, 15, 12, 17, 14...?
(a) 19 (b) 22
(c) 16 (d) 20
15. 240,... 120, 40, 10, 2
(a) 480 (b) 240
(c) 220 (d) 120
16. 6.25, 9, 12.25, 16, 20.25, 25, 30.25,?
(a) 36 (b) 32
(c) 28.25 (d) 40.25
DIRECTION (Qs. 17-20): In the following number series a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong
number.
17. 3 10 35 172 885 5346 37471
(a) 10 (b) 5346
(c) 885 (d) 35
18. 318 158 76 38 18 8 3
(a) 38 (b) 18
(c) 158 (d) 76
19. 3, 5, 8, 11, 17, 23
(a) 8 (b) 11
(c) 17 (d) 23
20. 905, 180, 175, 35, 30, 6, 1
(a) 6 (b) 1
(c) 175 (d) 905
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)

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8. SYLLOGISM
A Syllogism is a verbal reasoning type problem. In these types of questions, two or more
statements are given, and some conclusions also given, we have to find which conclusion
logically follows from the given statement.
These problems are solved by using Venn diagrams and reminding some important points.
First, let’s see, using Venn diagram how relations are made.
Statement 1: All A are B

Statement 2: Some A are B

Statement 3: No A is B

Statement 4: Some A are not B


In this case, Some A are not B indicates both the conditions, some A are B and No A is B.
Important Points:
• In the given statement and conclusion,
➔ Some, Many, At least = some
➔ All, Most, At most =All
• Sometimes they ask “possibility” type questions. There are three types.
• Some possibility
• All possibility
• No possibility
Hints to identify the conclusion is correct or not:
First, you have to draw the Venn diagram for the given statement. After that, using the following
hints, you can find which conclusions are correct.
1. Conclusion: Some A is B
For this, If both A and B circle personally touch each other then Some A is B is true.
Otherwise, not true.

2. Conclusion: All A is B
For this, A should be inside of B

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3. Conclusion:
(Some, All, No) A being B is Possibility.
For this three conclusions to be true,
➔ Gap should be present (No personal or partial touch) between them.
➔ ‘ X ‘ should not present personally
(“No A is B “statement should not present)

TRUE
4. Conclusion: For “Possibility” Another two conditions also available.
➔ If A and B personally touch each other, then
“All A being B is a possibility” is true

➔ If B is inside of A, then “All A being B is possibility” is true

5. Conclusion: Some A are not B


For this, personally or partially not statement should be present.

PERSONALLY NOT

In this diagram we can say,


“Some A are not B”, “Some C are not B” conclusions are true.
Note: But we can’t say “some B are not A”
6. Conclusion: special case
In the conclusion, if they are giving
Conclusion 1: Some A is not B
Conclusion 2: No A is B
We have to mention the answer as,
“Either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 follows”

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EXERCISE
1. Statements: All walls are Windows.
No Floor is a wall.
Conclusions: I. Some Floors are walls.
II. No wall is a Floor.
(a) Only II follows (b) Only I follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) Either I or II follows
2. Statements: Some A are B.
No B is C.
All C are D.
Conclusions: I. No D is B.
II. Some C are D.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) Either I or II follows
3. Statements: All seas are Blue.
No Blue is Hills.
Some Hills are Forest.
Conclusions: Some Blue are not Forest.
Some Seas are Blue.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) None of them follows
4. Statements: All Bangles are Earing.
Some Earings is Chain.
Some Chains are Watches.
Conclusions: I. All Earings being Bangles is a Possibility.
II. All Chains being Watches is a Possibility.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) None of them follows
5. Statements: Some Years are Months.
No Month is a Day.
Some Weeks are days
Conclusions: I. Some Years are not Days.
II. All weeks are months.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) None of them follows
6. Statements: No Cover is a Pen
All pages are covers.
Some Letters are pen
Conclusions: I. Some Pens are Covers
II. At least some Letters are Pen.

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(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows


(c) Both I and II follows (d) None of them follows
7. Statement: No Clocks is a Minutes.
Some Minutes are Hands.
Some Hands are Dots.
Conclusions: I. No Dot is a Clock
II. Some Dots are Clocks.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) Either I or II follows
8. Statements: All the Singers are girls.
All the girls are beautiful.
Conclusions: All the Singers are beautiful.
Some girls are Singers.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) Either I or II follows
9. Statements: Some Animals are carnivorous.
All Carnivorous are Mammals.
No Mammal is a Herbivorous.
Conclusions: I. All Mammals are Animals.
II. Some Mammals are Animals.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follows (d) Either I or II follows
10. Statements: No giraffe is a Tiger
All Tigers are Camel
All Camels are wolfs
Conclusions: I. All Camels can never be giraffes
II. All giraffes are definitely wolfs.
(a) Only II follows (b) Both I and II follows
(c) Either I or II follows (d) Only I follows

ANSWER KEY

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)

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9. PERSONALITY TEST
In personality test, the question is given by a statement followed by two or more assumptions.
We have to find which of these assumptions are ‘IMPLICIT’. Implicit means suggesting
something, but it is not directly expressed.
Example: 1
Statement: The function will start at 7 pm. The audience are requested to take their seats
before 6 pm.
Assumptions:
I. Function will start as per the schedule.
II. If audience are not in their seats before 6p pm, the function will not start.
(1) Assumption 1 is implicit
(2) Assumption 2 is implicit
(3) Either Assumption 1 or Assumption 2 is implicit
(4) Both Assumption 1 and Assumption 2 are implicit
Sol: (1) It is mentioned in the invitation that the audience are requested to take their seats
before 6 pm. It means that function will start as per the schedule. Hence Assumption 1 is
implicit. It is not given that the function will not start if audience do not come in time.
Example: 2
Statement: "You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year
and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation." - A line in an
appointment letter.
Assumptions:
A. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of appointment offer.
B. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit
Sol: (E) The performance of the individual has to be tested over a span of time as the
statement mentions. So, I is implicit. The statement mentions that the individual's worth shall be
reviewed (during probation period) before confirmation. So, II is also implicit.

EXERCISE
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-10): In each of following questions, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit. Give answer: (a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b)
If only assumption II is implicit. (c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.

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1. Statement: In case of any difficulty about this case, you may contact our company’s lawyer.
Assumptions: I. Each company has a lawyer of its own.
II. The company’s lawyer is thoroughly briefed about this case.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
2. Statement: “The programme will start at 6 p.m. but you can come there up to 7 p.m. also and
still there is no problem.”
Assumptions: I. The programme will continue even after 7 p.m.
II. The programme may not even start by that time.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
3. Statement: Health is the foundation of well-being, virtue, prosperity, wealth, happiness and
salvation. Assumptions: I. Happiness results in health and well-being.
II. People desire to be happy, prosperous and virtuous.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
4. Statement: Last century was the century of fundamental rights and let the forthcoming
century become that of excellence. — An appeal from a noted lawyer.
Assumptions: I. Every century should be marked for a particular purpose.
II. The human race is ready to focus its attention on aiming at excellence in every sphere of life.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
5. Statement: The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing
strike of its employees.
Assumptions: I. going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
6. Statement: Nobody can predict as to how long our country would take to contain the
unfortunate and disastrous terrorist activities.
Assumptions: I. It is impossible to put an end to terrorist activities. II. Efforts to control the
terrorist activities are on.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
7. Statement: You know that your suit is excellent when people ask about your tailor who
tailored the suit.
Assumptions: I. People do not ask about your tailor If your suit is not good.
II. The people want to know the criteria of an excellent suit.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
8. Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India, we still continue
to import sugar.
Assumptions: I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.

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(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.


(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
9. Statement: Highly brilliant and industrious students do not always excel in the written
examination.
Assumptions: I. The written examination is good mainly for mediocre students.
II. The brilliant and industrious students cannot always write good answer in the exam.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
10. Statement: The coffee powder of company X is quite better in taste than the much
advertised coffee of company Y.
Assumptions: I. If your product is not good, you spend more on advertisement.
II. Some people are tempted to buy a product by the advertisement.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If neither I nor II is implicit.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 11-20): In each of following questions, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit. Give answer: (a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b)
If only assumption II is implicit. (c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
11. Statement: The state government ‘X’ is committed to restrict smoke levels on the roads of
the metropolis as per the desired parameters. Assumptions: I. It is possible to determine the
smoke levels.
II. A committed government can carry forward welfare measures for its people.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
12. Statement: Unemployment allowance should be given to all unemployed Indian youth above
18 years of age.
Assumptions: I. There are unemployed youth in India who need monetary support.
II. The government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
13. Statement: A Notice Board at a ticket window: ‘Please come in queue.’
Assumptions: I. unless instructed people will not form queue.
II. People any way want to purchase tickets.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
14. Statement: The Government of India has decided to start a track II dialogue with its
neighbor to reduce tension in the area. Assumptions: I. The neighboring country may agree to
participate in the track II dialogue.
II. The people involved in track II dialogue may be able to persuade their respective
Governments.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
15. Statement: The X-Airlines has temporarily suspended flights to a few destinations for the
next four days due to the strike call given by the Pilots’ Association.

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Assumptions: I. the airlines may be able to restore all the flights after four days.
II. The Pilots’ Association may withdraw the strike call within four days.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
16. Statement: Try to steal this camera from our store — a display on a departmental store.
Assumptions: I. People want to own a camera.
II. The store has a video monitoring system to detect stealing.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
17. Statement: Never before such a lucid book was available on the topic.
Assumptions: I. Some other books were available on this topic.
II. You can write lucid books on very few topics.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
18. Statement: “Get rid of your past for future, get our new generation fridge at a discount in
exchange of old”. — An advertisement. Assumptions: I. the sales of the new fridge may
increase in the coming months.
II. People prefer to exchange future with past.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
19. Statement: The party president has directed that no member of the party will give press
briefing or interviews to government and private T.V. channels about the discussion in
scheduled meeting of the party.
Assumptions: I. Party members will observe this directive of the president.
II. The general public will not come to know about the happenings in the scheduled meeting of
the party.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
20. Statement: The end of a financial year is the ideal time to take a look at the performance of
various companies.
Assumptions: I. all the companies take such a review at the end of a financial year.
II. The performance data of various companies is available.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit. (b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit. (d) If both I and II are implicit.
ANSWER KEY
1.(b) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(c) 9.(b) 10.(b)
11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(b)

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10. SPATIAL ARRANGEMENT


It evaluates your spatial ability to determine the position and relation or analysis to find the
pattern in the given diagrams, figures.
Types of Questions it may have combined type:
1. Find the odd pattern or identical pattern
2. Complete the missing / combing piece in the pattern
3. Find the next pattern for sequence
4. Rotated objects
5. Multiple objects rotated
6. Pair and orientation
7. Visualization and projection
8. Pattern embed in figure
9. Increasing or decreasing objects in the Figure
10. Appearing or disappearing objects in the figure
11. Alternate objects are rotated in figure
Tips for solving problem faster
1. 9 basic (8+center) positions in the figure
2. Rotation clock wise or anticlockwise

3. Flip object or position 180° (Mirror image) in vertical or horizontal.


4. Projection view in top angle and rotate the object.
5. Consider dots, small circle, arrow indications
6. In dot situation question find the common region where the dot suite in the figure
Ex1: Find the next pattern in the series

Answer C; Expect dot, other objects moving clockwise and rotated.


Ex2: From top view which of the projection is correct in the options.

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Answer C; rotate the image out of paper and projection becomes top angle.
Ex3: Find the next pattern in the series:

Answer B;
i. Square blocks are decreasing,
ii. Pentagon blocks increasing.
iii. Alternate curves with arrows are mirror image.
iv. In alternate figure- stars are increasing and decreasing
v. Center pentagon objects are rotated
Ex.4: Complete the missing piece:

Answer C: except C Lines are missing in other images.


Ex5: Find the alternate figure in the given answer:

Answer D – Satisfy the intersection parts i.e. is dotted place.


Ex6: Find the figure which is embed in the options:

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Answer: A; Embed figure in the A


Ex.6: Find the next pattern:

Answer A: Outside shadow rotating clockwise,


Inside star shadow rotating anticlockwise.
Ex.7: Find the Pair:

Answer B;
i. Top left diagonal and bottom right diagonal objects are 180° rotated
ii. Top right diagonal and bottom left diagonal objects shadow removed
iii. Centered objects are rotated 90°
iv. Between diagonal and center objects. Shadow changed
v. Top middle and bottom middle for mirror image
Ex.8: Complete the pattern:

Answer A; Alternate figure circle color are changing white and black
Ex9: Find the odd pattern:

Answer D; every object is symmetry, Except O other objects makes angle at the joints.

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EXERCISE
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-15): There is a problem figure on the left side for the questions and on right side,
there are four answer figures, i.e., (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out the figures which is exactly similar with
the problem figure.
1. 2.

3. 4.

5. 6.

7. 8.

9. 10.

11. 12.

13. 14.

15.

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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 16-20): In each of the question, which one of the four figures (a, b, c, d) will continue
the same series or replace the question mark so as to maintain the sequence.
16. 17.

18. 19.

20.

ANSWER KEY
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(a) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(b)
11.(c) 12.(d) 13.(a) 14.(a) 15.(a) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(d)

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11. DISTANCE AND DIRECTION SENES TEST


Description
A progressive follow-up of directions and/or separation is planned and on the premise of given
data it is required to determine the last direction regarding the beginning stage or the most
limited separation between the beginning stage and the last point. Now and then both the last
direction and the distance covered are asked.
Distance and direction sense test questions comprise of a kind of direction and/or distance
riddle. Clearly, such inquiries are intended to judge the competitor’s capacity to follow, take after
and perceive the direction, described in somewhat complicated language, effectively.
In order to solve such questions correctly you must have the knowledge of directions on the
plane of a paper. In the meantime, it is important to draw out the directions according to the
data gave in the question in proper arrangement. An error at any time would change your
answer decision.
Concept
The adjoining figure shows four directions. They are East(E), West(W), North(N) and South(S).

Also there are four more cardinal directions like East-North(EN), West-North(WN), East-
South(ES), West-South(WS) as shown below:

Some important points to be noticed:


• If a man stands confronting/facing the east, his shadow will be towards west during the
sunrise.
• The shadow of an item/object is dependably in the east during the sunset.
• In the event that a man stands confronting the North, at the time of sunrise his shadow
will be towards his left and at the time of sunset it will be towards his right.
• At 12:00 twelve, the beams of the sun are vertically descending henceforth there will be
no shadow.
• Let an example is considered, as shown below:

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• Let the person turns to all the possible directions to have a clear understanding.
Here:
1. A man facing towards North, on taking left turn will face towards West and on taking
the right turn towards East.
• 2. A man facing towards South, on taking left turn will face towards East and on taking
right turn towards West.
• 3. A man facing towards East, on taking left turn will face towards North and on taking
right turn towards South.
• 4. A man facing towards West, on taking left turn will face towards South and on taking
right turn towards North.
• 5. A man facing towards North-West, on taking left turn will face towards South-West and
on taking right turn will face towards North-East.
• 6. A man facing towards South-West on taking left turn will face towards South-East and
on taking right turn towards North-West.
• 7. A man facing towards South-East, on taking left turn will face towards North-East and
on taking right turn towards South-West.
• 8. A man facing towards North-East, on taking left turn will face towards North-West and
on taking right turn towards South-East.
Example-
Ram starting from his town, goes 4 km in the West, then he turns to his left and goes 3 km.
What minimum distance will be covered by him to come back to his town?
Solution:
Given data:
Ram goes 4 km in the west

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From there to his right, goes 3 km.


Consider the drawing shown below:

Therefore,
Distance2 = 42+32
Distance = 16+9−−−−−√
Distance = 5 km
Therefore, minimum distance covered by him to come back to his town = 5 km.
EXERCISE
1. Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right
and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally, he turns left and walks 15 m. In
which direction and how many metres is he from the starting position?
(a) 15 m West (b) 30 m East
(c) 30 m West (d) 45 m East
2. Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First car runs for 25
km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns left and then runs for another 25 km
and then takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the mean time, due to minor break
down the other car has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance
between two cars at this point?
(a) 65 km (b) 75 km
(c) 80 km (d) 85 km
3. Starting from the point X, Jayant walked 15 m towards west. He turned left and walked 20 m.
He then turned left and walked 15 m. After this he turned to his right and walked 12 m. How far
and in which directions is now Jayant from X?
(a) 32 m, South (b) 47 m, East
(c) 42 m, North (d) 27 m, South
4. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face. If
Hema's shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing?
(a) North (b) South
(c) East (d) Data is inadequate

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5. A boy rode his bicycle Northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and
rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northward
initially?
(a) 1 km (b) 2 km
(c) 3 km (d) 5 km
6. K is 40 m South-West of L. If M is 40 m South-East of L, then M is in which direction of K?
(a) East (b) West
(c) North-East (d) South
7. A man walks 2 km towards North. Then he turns to East and walks 10 km. After this he turns
to North and walks 3 km. Again he turns towards East and walks 2 km. How far is he from the
starting point?
(a) 10 km (b) 13 km
(c) 15 km (d) None of these
8. The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs along all the four
walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat. How much total distance is covered by
the cat?
(a) 10 (b) 14
(c) 38 (d) 48
9. One morning sujata started to walk towards the Sun. After covering some distance she
turned to right then again to the right and after covering some distance she again turns to the
right. Now in which direction is she facing?
(a) North (b) South
(c) North-East (d) South-West
10. Some boys are sitting in three rows all facing North such that A is in the middle row. P is just
to the right of A but in the same row. Q is just behind of P while R is in the North of A. In which
direction of R is Q?
(a) South (b) South-West
(c) North-East (d) South-East

ANSWER KEY

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10. (d)

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12. DICTIONARY WORDS


“Arranging the English words as per telephone directory is known as dictionary arrangement:
In such type of questions four or five English words are given, that are not presented in
dictionary order. These words are to be arranged according to telepgone directory to answer the
questions accordingly.
For this arrangement, first we shall take the first letter of each word and then arrange the words
in the order in which they appear in the English alphabet, then take the second letter and so on.

SOLVED EXAMPLES

Directions (1-3): In each of the following questions, four words are given. Which of them
will come at the third if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary?
1.
(a) Dream
(b) Drought
(c) Discourage
(d) Delight
Ans.(a)
Sol. Order according to dictionary:
Delight, Discourage, Dream, Drought

2.
(a) Inspire
(b) Intelligent
(c) Indulgent
(d) Increment
Ans.(a)
Sol. Order according to dictionary:
Increment, Indulgent, Inspire, Intelligent
3.
(a) Glamorous
(b) Gladiator
(c) Gloom
(d) Glucose
Ans.(c)
Sol. Order according to dictionary:
Gladiator, Glamorous, Gloom, Glucose

EXERCIES

1. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary


1. Inventory 2. Involuntary 3. Invisible 4. Invariable 5. Investigate
(A) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
(B) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
(C) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(D) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

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2. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary


1. Noble 2. Nobilitary 3. Noblesse 4. Nobility 5. Nobble
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(C) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
(D) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1

3. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary


1. Inhabit 2. Ingenious 3. Inherit 4. Influence 5. Infatuation
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
(C) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
(D) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3

4. Arrange the given words a meaningful and ascending order and select the option
indicating the correct order
1. Venus 2. Earth 3. Mars 4. Mercury 5. Jupiter
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
(B) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
(D) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

5. Arrange the given words a meaningful and ascending order and select the option
indicating the correct order
1. Pages 2. Book rack 3. Library 4. Books 5. Catalogue
(A) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
(B) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
(C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

6. Arrange the given words a meaningful order


1. Family 2. Community 3. Member 4. Locality 5. Country
(A) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
(B) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
(C) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

7. Arrange the given words a meaningful order


1. Sentence 2. Word 3. Letter 4. Phrase 5. Paragraph
(A) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
(B) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
(C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

8. Arrange the given words a meaningful order


1. Sipahi 2. Captain 3. Naik 4. Brigadier 5. Major
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(D) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

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9. Arrange the given words a meaningful order


1. Table 2. Tree 3. Wood 4. Seed 5. Plant
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1
(D) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

10. Arrange the given words a meaningful order


1. Honey 2. Flower 3. Bee 4. Wax
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 2, 3, 1, 4
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
11. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes second
last.
(A) Keratin
(B) Kingdom
(C) Kindness
(D) Kudos
12. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes last.
(A) Trigger
(B) Trending
(C) Tremendous
(D) Trailer
13. If the alternate letters in the given alphabet starting from A are written in small and
rest all in capital which of the following will represent the MARVELOUS?
(A) MaRVeLous
(B) maRVeLoUs
(C) maRVeLous
(D) MaRVeLOus
14. If each of the twelve digits on a watch is replaced by English vowels a, e, i, o, u in
sequence (1 by a, 2 by e, and so on and so forth), the minute hand will be at which vowel
at 9.30 a.m.?
(A) a
(B) o
(C) u
(D) i

15. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes last.
(A) Lavishing
(B) Latitude
(C) Lavender
(D) Language
ANSWER KEY

1.(D) 2.(C) 3.(D) 4.(C) 5.(C) 6.(B) 7.(A) 8.(B) 9.(C) 10. (C)
11.(B) 12.(A) 13.(C) 14.(A) 15.(A)

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

PART – II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS


ARITHMETICS
1. NUMBER SYSTEM
NUMBER SYSTEM
Number System is defined as the combination of certain figures or symbols known as digits. We use the
common number system, i.e. the decimal system.
Only ten symbols (0-9) are used in this system. These symbols in a combined form give a number known
as a numeral.
1.1 NATURAL NUMBERS
Natural Number
Set of counting numbers is called the Natural Numbers
N = {1,2,3,4,5,6,..}
Whole Number
Set of Natural numbers, including zero is called the Whole Numbers
W= {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,..}
Note: So all natural numbers are whole numbers, but all whole numbers are not natural numbers.
1.2 INTEGERS
Integers Numbers
Integers are the set of all, the whole number, including the negative of Natural Numbers
Z = {..,-7,-6,-5,-4,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,4,5,6,…..}
1.3 RATIONAL AND REAL NUMBERS
Rational Number
A number is known as rational if it can be expressed in the form of p/q where p and q are integers (q>0).
Example: 1/7, 7/6, 8/7 etc.
Irrational Number
A number is known as irrational if it cannot be expressed in the form p/q where p and q are integers
(q>0).
Example: √3, √7 etc.
Real Numbers
A collection of all rational and irrational numbers is known as real numbers. It is denoted by R.
1.4 TEST OF DIVISIBILITY
"Divisible By" means "when you divide one number by another the result is a whole number.
Divisibility by 2: Let us, take any number (for example 576) and note the last digit of the number,
leaving the other digits. Then check if it is divisible by 2. If it is divisible by 2, then the original number is
divisible by 2.
Divisibility by 3 or 9: Let us, take any number (for example 792) and add the digits of the number (7 + 9
+ 2 = 18). Then check whether the sum is divisible by 3. If it is divisible by 3 then the original number is
also divisible by 3 (or 9).
Divisibility by 4: The fundamental rule for divisibility by 4 is that if the last two digits of the number is
divisible by 4, the original number is divisible by 4.

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Divisibility by 5: Divisibility by 5 is determined by checking the last digit in the number (75), and
determining if it is either 0 or 5. If the last number is either 0 or 5, the number is divisible by 5.
Divisibility by 6: Divisibility by 6 is determined by checking the original number. If the number is divisible
by 2 and 3. Then it is divisible by 6.
Divisibility by 11: Test of divisibility by 11 is determined by the difference between the sum of digits at
odd places of a number and the sum of digits at even places of the same number is equal to either ‘0’ or
‘a number divisible by 11’.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. When 241 is divided by 5, what will we get as remainder?
Solution:
241 = (210 × 210 × 210 × 210 ) × 2 = (210 )4 × 2
Unit digit in 241 = Unit digit in (1024)4 × 2
= (6 × 2) = 12,
Now, 12 when divided by 5, gives 2 as remainder.
∴ 241 when divided by 5 gives remainder = 2.
2. Is the number 9641973 divisible by 11?
Solution:
𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑡𝑠 – 𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑑𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑡𝑠
= (3 + 9 + 4 + 9) − (7 + 1 + 6)
= 25 − 14 = 11, which is divisible by 11.
So, 9641973 is divisible by 11.
1.5 RADICALS AND SURDS
A radical is a number that is written by using the radical sign √ .
Radicals such as √4 and √9 are rational since √4 = 2 and √9 = 3. Radicals such as √2, √3 and √5 are
irrational. Irrational radicals are also known as surds.
ADDING AND SUBTRACTING RADICALS
We can add and subtract ‘like radicals’ in the same way as we do ‘like terms’ in algebra.
For example: Just as
3𝑎 + 2𝑎 = 5𝑎
3√2 + 2√2 = 5√2
LAW OF RADICALS
If n is even, assume a, b ≥ 0
𝒏 𝒏
1. ( √𝒂) = 𝒂
𝒏 𝟏⁄ )
2. ( √𝒂) = 𝒂( 𝒏
𝒏 𝒏 𝒏
3. ( √𝒂𝒃) = ( √𝒂). ( √𝒃)
𝒏 𝒏 𝒏
4. ( √𝒂⁄𝒃) = ( √𝒂)⁄( √𝒃)
𝒏 𝒏 𝒎
5. ( √𝒂𝒎 ) = ( √𝒂)
TYPES OF SURDS
• Pure Surds: Surds which have 1 as its rational co-efficient are known as ‘pure surds’.
• Mixed Surds: Surds which have rational co-efficient other than 1 are known as ‘mixed surds’.
• Like Surds: Surds whose order and radicands are same in their simplest form are called ‘like surds’.
• Unlike Surds: Surds whose order or/and radicands are not the same in their simplest form are
called ‘unlike surds’.

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OPERATIONS WITH SURDS


Addition and Subtraction of Surds
Only like surds can be added or subtracted.
Steps to add or subtract surds.
Step I: Convert each surd into its simplest mixed form. Then find the sum or difference of rational co-
efficient of like surds.
Step II: Finally, to get the sum or difference of like surds multiply the result obtained in step I by the
surd-factor of like surds.
Step III: The sum or difference of unlike surds is expressed in a number of terms by connecting them
with a positive sign (+) or negative (-) sign.
Multiplication and Division of Surds
For multiplying surds, we:
• Multiply whole numbers written in front of the √ sign.
• Multiply the numbers under the √ sign together.
For dividing surds, we:
• Divide the whole numbers written in front of the √ sign.
• Divide the numbers under the √ sign together.
Rationalization of Surds
When the denominator of an expression is a surd which can be reduced to an expression with rational
denominator, this process is known as rationalizing the denominator of the surd.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
𝑛
(729) 6 × 32𝑛+2
1. 9𝑛 × 3𝑛−2
Solution:
𝑛 𝑛
(729) 6 × 32𝑛+2 (36 ) 6 × 32𝑛+2
=
9𝑛 × 3𝑛−2 (32 )𝑛 × 3𝑛−2
6𝑛
(3) 6 × 32𝑛+2 3𝑛 × 32𝑛+2
= =
32𝑛 × 3𝑛−2 32𝑛 × 3𝑛−2
3𝑛+2𝑛+2 33𝑛+2
= 32𝑛+𝑛−2 = 33𝑛−2 = 33𝑛+2−3𝑛+2
= 34 = 81
5
2. If (√5) × 252 = 5𝑛 × 5√5, then find the value of n.
Solution:
5
(√5) × 252 = 5𝑛 × 5√5
=> (5 × 5 × √5) × (52 )2 = 5𝑛 × 5√5
1 1
=> 52 × 52 × 54 = 5𝑛+1 × 52
1 1 1 1
=> 52+4+2 = 5𝑛+1+2 => 52+4+2−1−2 = 5𝑛
=> 56−1 = 5𝑛 => 55 = 5𝑛 ,
∴ Value of 𝑛 = 5
1.6 ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION (AP)
An arithmetic progression, or AP, is a sequence where each new term after the first term is obtained by
adding a constant d, known as common difference, to the preceding term. If the first term of the
sequence is a then the arithmetic progression is
𝒂, 𝒂 + 𝒅, 𝒂 + 𝟐𝒅, 𝒂 + 𝟑𝒅, … ..

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Where, the nth term is 𝒕𝒏 = 𝒂 + (𝒏 − 𝟏)𝒅


Sum of an Arithmetic Progression
The sum of the terms of an arithmetic progression gives an arithmetic series. If the starting value is a
and the common difference is d than the sum of the first n terms is
𝟏
𝑺𝒏 = 𝒏(𝟐𝒂 + (𝒏 − 𝟏)𝒅)
𝟐
If we know the value of the last term ℓ instead of the common difference d then we can write the sum
as
𝟏
𝑺𝒏 = 𝒏(𝒂 + 𝒍)
𝟐
Arithmetic Mean (AM)
If a, b, c are in AP, b is the Arithmetic Mean (AM) between a and c.
𝟏
In this case, 𝒃 = 𝟐 (𝒂 + 𝒄)
a, a1, a2 ... an, b are in AP we can say that a1, a2 ... an are the n Arithmetic Means between a and b.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. Find the sum of all odd natural numbers less than 64.
Solution:
Required sum = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 +… + 63.
This is an Arithmetic Progression in which
First term 𝑎 = 1,
Difference, 𝑑 = (3 − 1) = 2
Last term, 𝑙 = 63
Here 𝑛 = 32,
1
Sum of the series, 𝑆𝑛 = 2 𝑛(𝑎 + 𝑙)
1
𝑆𝑛 = × 32 × (1 + 63)
2
= 16 × 64 = 1024
2. How many natural numbers between 23 and 95 are divisible by 7?
Solution:
The number series are 28, 35, 42, 49, … ,91.
This is an Arithmetic progression in which
First term 𝑎 = 28,
Difference, 𝑑 = (35 − 28) = 7
Last term, 𝑙 = 91
Let the number of these terms be n.
Then, 𝑡𝑛 = 91, 𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 = 91
=> 28 + (𝑛 − 1)7 = 91
(𝑛 − 1)7 = 91 − 28
63
𝑛−1= 7
𝑛 = 9 + 1 = 10
Therefore, required number of natural numbers = 10.
1.7 GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION (GP)
A geometric progression, or GP, is a sequence where each new term after the first term is obtained by
multiplying the preceding term by a constant r, known as common ratio. If the first term of the
sequence is a then the geometric progression is

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𝒂, 𝒂𝒓, 𝒂𝒓𝟐 , 𝒂𝒓𝟑 ….


𝑡ℎ 𝒏−𝟏
Where, the 𝑛 term is 𝒕𝒏 = 𝒂𝒓
SOLVED EXAMPLE
1. Find the number of terms in the G.P. 4, 8, 16, …, 512?
Solution:
The given G.P series is 4, 8, 16, …, 512
First term 𝑎 = 4
8
Common ratio, 𝑟 = 4 = 2
Let the number of terms be n.
𝑡𝑛 = 512 => 𝑎𝑟 𝑛−1 = 512
=> 4 × 2𝑛−1 = 512
512
=> 2𝑛−1 = = 128 = 27
4
=> 𝑛 − 1 = 7 => 𝑛 = 8
Sum of Geometric Progression
The sum of the terms of a geometric progression gives a geometric series. If the starting value is a and
the common ratio is r, then the sum of the first n terms is
𝒂(𝟏 − 𝒓𝒏 )
𝑺𝒏 =
(𝟏 − 𝒓)
provided that r not equal to 1.
Note: The sum to infinity of a geometric progression with starting value a and common ratio r is given
by
𝒂
𝑺𝒏 =
(𝟏 − 𝒓)
Where −1 < r < 1.
Geometric Mean (GM)
If non-zero numbers a, b, c are in GP, b is the Geometric Mean (GM) between a and c. In this case, b=
√ac.
The Geometric Mean (GM) between two numbers a and b = √𝑎𝑏
(Note that if a and b are of opposite sign, their GM is not defined.)
SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. Find the sum of the Geometric series 2 + 6 + 18 + 54 + ….. where there are 5 terms in the series.
Solution:
For the given geometric series,
First term, 𝑎 = 2
Common ratio, 𝑟 = 3
And number of terms, 𝑛 = 5
𝑎(1−𝑟 𝑛 )
So, Sum of the geometric series, 𝑆𝑛 = (1−𝑟)
5)
2(1 − 3 2 × (1 − 243) 2 × (−242)
𝑆5 = = = = 242
(1 − 3) (1 − 3) (−2)
2. Find out the 7th term in the Geometric Progression 1, 5, 25, …
Solution:
From the given series 1, 5, 25, …
𝑎1 = 1, 𝑎2 = 5, 𝑎3 = 25

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𝑎2 5
Common ratio 𝑟 = = =5
𝑎1 1
𝑛𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚, 𝑎𝑛 = 𝑎1 𝑟 𝑛−1
7𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚, 𝑎7 = 𝑎1 𝑟 7−1 = 1 × 57−1
= 1 × 56 = 15625
The required number is 15625.
1.8 HARMONIC PROGRESSION (HP)
1 1 1 1
Non zero numbers a1 , a2, a3 , ⋯ an are in Harmonic Progression (HP) if 𝑎 , 𝑎 , 𝑎 , … . 𝑎 are in AP.
1 2 3 𝑛
Harmonic Progression is also known as harmonic sequence.
If 𝑎, (𝑎 + 𝑑), (𝑎 + 2𝑑), …. are in AP, nth term of the AP,
𝒕𝒏 = 𝒂 + (𝒏 − 𝟏)𝒅.
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
Hence, if 𝒂 , (𝒂+𝒅) , (𝒂+𝟐𝒅) , … … are in HP, nth term of the HP,
𝟏
𝒕𝒏 =
(𝒂 + (𝒏 − 𝟏)𝒅)
Harmonic Mean (HM)
If a, b, c are in HP, b is the Harmonic Mean (HM) between a and c
𝟐𝒂𝒄
In this case, 𝒃 = (𝒂+𝒄)
If a, a1, a2 ... an, b are in HP we can say that a1, a2 ... an are the n Harmonic Means between a and b.
𝟐 𝟏 𝟏
If a, b and c are in HP, 𝒃 = 𝒂 + 𝒄
SOLVED EXAMPLE
1. Find the 4th and 8th term of the series 6, 4, 3 ….
Solution:
1 1 1
Consider 6 , 4 , 3 , … . ∞
1 1 1 1
Here 𝑇2 − 𝑇1 = 𝑇3 − 𝑇2 = 12 => 6 , 4 , 3 is an A.P
1 1
4th term of this A.P = 6 + (3 × 12)
1 1 5
= + =
16 4 16
1 1 9
And the 8th term= + (7 × )=
6 12 12
12 4
Hence the 8th term of the Harmonic Progression= =3
9
And the 4th term = 16/5.
Relationship between Arithmetic Mean, Harmonic Mean, and Geometric Mean of Two Numbers
If AM, GM and HM are the Arithmetic Mean, Geometric Mean and Harmonic Mean of two positive
numbers respectively, then
𝑮𝑴𝟐 = 𝑨𝑴 × 𝑯𝑴
SOLVED EXAMPLE
1. (112 + 122 + 132 + ⋯ + 202 ) =?
Solution:
(112 + 122 + 132 + ⋯ + 202 ) = (12 + 22 + 32 + ⋯ + 202 ) − (12 + 22 + 32 + ⋯ + 102 )
20×21×41 10×11×21
={ − }
6 6
1
[∵ (12 + 22 + 32 + ⋯ + 𝑛2 ) = 6 𝑛(𝑛 + 1)(2𝑛 + 1)]
= 2870 – 385 = 2485

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. What is the last digit in the expansion of 34798 ?
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 7 (d) 9
Solution: (d)
Last digit of 34798
We know that 3 is cyclic of its unit digit at 4 times.
So, we divide 4798 by 4
= 34798 = 31199×4+2 = (31199×4 ). 32 = 9
2. If k is any even positive integer, then (𝑘 2 + 2𝑘) is
(a) Divisible by 24
(b) Divisible by 8 but may not be divisible by 24
(c) Divisible by 4 but may not be divisible by 8
(d) Divisible by 2 but may not be divisible by 4
Solution: (b)
If 𝑘 is any even positive integer, then (𝑘 2 + 2𝑘) is divisible by 8 but may not be divisible by 24.
Let 𝑘 = 2𝑚, m ∈ N, then
𝑘 2 + 𝑘.2 =
4𝑚2 + 4𝑚 = 4𝑚 (𝑚 + 1) which is divisible by 4.
3. When a positive integer n is divided by 5, the remainder is 2. What is the remainder when the number
3n is divided by 5?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Solution: (a)
Let 𝑛 = 5𝑞 + 2
3𝑛 = 3(5𝑞 + 2)
=> 3𝑛 = 15𝑞 + 6 = 5 (3𝑞 + 1) + 1
When 3𝑛 is divided by 5, then remainder is 1.
4. Consider the following statements:
If p is a prime such that p + 2 is also a prime, then
I. p (p + 2) + 1 is a perfect square.
II. 12 is a divisor of p + (p + 2), if p > 3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
Solution: (c)
On taking 𝑝 = 11,
𝑝 + 2 = 13 (prime number)
I. 11 × 13 + 1 = 144 (a square number)
II. 11 + 13 = 24 (12 is a divisor of 24)
Hence, both statements I and II are correct.
5. How many rational numbers are there between 1 and 1000?
(a) 998 (b) 999
(c) 1000 (d) Infinite
Solution: (d)
There are an infinite of rational numbers between any two given numbers.

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6. The number 2784936 is divisible by which one of the following numbers?


(a) 86 (b) 87
(c) 88 (d) 89
Solution: (c)
Factors of 88 = 11 × 8 2784936 = (Sum of odd place digit) – (Sum of even place digit)
= 25 – 14 = 11 (This is divisible by 11)
2784936:
Last three digit is 936 is divisible by 8.
So this number is also divisible by 8.
Now, 2784936 is divisible by 88.
7. The product of a rational number and an irrational number is
(a) A natural (b) An irrational
number number
(c) A composite (d) A rational
number number
Solution: (b)
We know that the product of a rational number and an irrational number is an irrational number.
8. Which one of the following three-digit numbers divides 9238 and 7091 with the same remainder in
each case?
(a) 113 (b) 209
(c) 317 (d) 191
Solution: (a)
Difference between the numbers = 9238 – 7091= 2147.
2147 is completely divided by 113.
9. Consider the following assumption and two statements:
Assumption: A number, ‘ABCDE’ is divisible by 11.
Statement I: E – D + C – B + A is divisible by 11.
Statement II: E – D + C – B + A = 0
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Only statement I can be drawn from the assumption
(b) Only statement II can be drawn from the assumption
(c) Both the statements can be drawn from the assumption
(d) Neither of the statements can be drawn from the assumption
Solution: (c)
We know that, if the difference of the sum of odd digits and sum of even digits is either 0 or multiple of
11, then the number is divisible by 11.
Given number is 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷𝐸.
Here, 𝐴 + 𝐶 + 𝐸 – (𝐵 + 𝐷) = 0 or divisible by 11.
Hence, both statements are true.
10. Which among the following is the largest four digit number that is divisible by 88?
(a) 9988 (b) 9966
(c) 9944 (d) 8888
Solution: (c)
If a number is divisible by 88, it should be divisible by 8 and 11.
In a given option, number 9944 and 8888 is divisible by 88. Hence, maximum number is 9944.
11. If r and s are any real numbers such that 0 ≤ 𝑠 ≤ 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟 + 𝑠 = 1, then what is the maximum value
of their product?

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3
(a) 1 (b)
4
1 1
(c 2 (d) 4
Solution: (d)
𝑃 = 𝑟 𝑠 = 𝑟(1 − 𝑟) = 𝑟 − 𝑟 2 (∵ 𝑟 + 𝑠 = 1)
𝑑𝑝
⇒ 𝑑𝑟 = 1 − 2𝑟 = 0 (𝐹𝑜𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑥. 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚𝑖𝑛. )
1 𝑑2 𝑃
⇒𝑟 = 2 also 𝑑𝑟 2 = −2
= Negative⇒ Maximum
1
∴ Maximum value of 𝑟𝑠 = 4
12. If the 14th term of an arithmetic series is 6 and 6th term is 14, then what is the 95th term?
(a) – 75 (b) 75
(c) 80 (d) – 80
Solution: (a)
∵ 𝑇14 = 6 ⇒ 𝑎 + 13𝑑 = 6
and 𝑇6 = 14 ⇒ 𝑎 + 5𝑑 = 14
On solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
𝑎 = 19, 𝑑 = – 1
∴ 𝑇95 = 𝑎 + 94𝑑 = 19 – 94 = – 75
13. If p is an integer, then every square integer is of the form.
(a) 2p or (4p – 1) (b) 4p or (4p – 1)
(c) 3p or (3p + 1) (d) 4p or (4p + 1)
Solution: (d)
Let 𝑝 be any positive number of the form 2𝑚, 2𝑚 + 1 for any whole number 𝑚.
Case I: p = 2m
𝑝2 = 4𝑚2 = 4(𝑚2 ) = 4𝑞 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑞 = 𝑚2
Case II: 𝑝 = 2𝑚 + 1
𝑝2 = (2𝑚 + 1)2 = 4𝑚2 + 4𝑚 + 1
= 4(𝑚2 + 𝑚) + 1 = 4𝑞 + 1 where 𝑞=𝑚2 + 𝑚
From above we see that square of any positive integer is either of the form 4𝑞 or (4𝑞 + 1) for some
integer 𝑞.
14. When a natural number n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder when 2n is
divided by 4?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 6
Solution: (b)
When a number n is divided by 4 then remainder is 3. Now, the number is double then remainder is also
double.
So, remainder = 6 But remainder never greater than its divisor. So, remainder = 6 – 4 = 2
15. ABC is a triangle and AD is perpendicular to BC. It is given that the lengths of AB, BC, CA are all
rational numbers.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) AD and BD must be rational
(b) AD must be rational but BD need not be rational
(c) BD must be rational but AD need not be rational
(d) Neither AD nor BD need be rational
Solution: (c)
Since, 𝐷 is a point of 𝐵𝐶. As 𝐵𝐶 is rational so 𝐵𝐷 must be rational but 𝐴𝐷 need not to be rational.

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16. The remainder on dividing given integers a and b by 7 are, respectively 5 and 4. What is the
remainder when 𝑎𝑏 is divided by 7?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
Solution: (d)
Let 𝑎 = 7𝑝 + 5 and 𝑏 = 7𝑞 + 4 where, 𝑝 and 𝑞 are natural numbers.
∴ 𝑎𝑏 = (7𝑝 + 5) (7𝑞 + 4)
𝑎𝑏 = 49𝑝𝑞 + (4𝑝 + 5𝑞) 7 + 20
= 7 (7𝑝𝑞 + 4𝑝 + 5𝑞) + 7 × 2 + 6
when 𝑎𝑏 is divided by 7, we get the remainder 6.
17. What is the value of x for which x, x + 1, x + 3 are all prime numbers?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 101
Solution: (c)
If 𝑥 = 2, then 𝑥 + 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 + 3 are all prime numbers
18. A three-digit number is divisible by 11 and has its digit in the unit’s place equal to 1. The number is
297 more than the number obtained by reversing the digits. What is the number?
(a) 121 (b) 231
(c) 561 (d) 451
Solution: (d)
On taking option (d), the reverse digit of 451 is 154. Now, 154 + 297 = 451 is equal to the original
number.
19. Which one of the following numbers is not a square of any natural numbers?
(a) 5041 (b) 9852
(c) 1936 (d) 6241
Solution: (b)
Any number is not a square, if the unit’s place digit of number may be 2, 3, 7, 8. Hence, the number
9852 is not a square of any natural number.
20. The largest integer that divides product of any four consecutive integers is
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 12 (d) 24
Solution: (d)
The largest integer that divides product of any four consecutive integers is 4! i.e., 24.
e.g., 1, 2, 3, 4 are four consecutive integers.
Multiplication = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 = 24 which is divided by 24.
21. What can be said about the expansion of 212𝑛 − 64𝑛 , where n is positive integer?
(a) Last digit is 4 (b) Last digit is 8
(c) Last digit is 2 (d) Last two digit are zero
Solution: (d)
212𝑛 − 64𝑛 = (212 )𝑛 − (64 )𝑛 = (4096)𝑛 − (1296)𝑛
= (4096 − 1296)[(4096)𝑛−1 + (4096)𝑛−2 (1296) + ⋯ (1296)𝑛−1 ] = 2800(𝑘)
Hence, last two digits are always be zero.
22. The pair of numbers which are relatively prime to each other is
(a) (68, 85) (b) (65, 91)
(c) (92, 85) (d) (102, 153)
Solution: (c)
92 = 22 × 23; 85 = 5 × 17
Since there is no common factor in 92 and 85, therefore they are relatively prime.

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23. The angles of a triangle are in AP and the greatest angle is double the least. What is the ratio of
angles in the radian measure?
(a) 2: 3: 4 (b) 1: 2: 3
(c) 3: 3: 6 (d) 4: 5: 7
Solution: (a)
Let angles of a triangle in AP are 𝑎, 𝑎 + 𝑑, 𝑎 + 2𝑑.
Also, 𝑎 + 2𝑑 = 2𝑎 (given condition)
⇒ a = 2d ...(i)
Also, 𝑎 + 𝑎 + 𝑑 + 𝑎 + 2𝑑 = 180° (∵ sum of angles of triangle = 180°)
⇒3𝑎 + 3𝑑 = 180°⇒ [from Eq. (i)]
⇒9𝑑 = 180°⇒𝑎 = 40°, 𝑑 = 20°
∴ Ratio of angles = 40°: 60°: 80° = 2: 3: 4
24. Which one of the following is a prime number?
(a) 161 (b) 171
(c) 173 (d) 221
Solution: (c)
161, 171, 221, are divisible by 7, 3 and 13 respectively. But 173 is not divisible by any others numbers
except 1 and 173.
25. If three sides of a right angled triangle are integers in their lowest form, then one of its sides is
always divisible by
(a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) None of these
Solution: (b)
Let the lowest sides of a right triangle be 3, 4, 5. By Pythagoras theorem, (3)2 + (4)2 = (5)2
Hence, one of its sides is always divisible by 5.

EXERCISE
1. By adding 𝑥 to 1254934, the resulting number becomes divisible by 11, while adding y to 1254934
makes the resulting number divisible by 3. Which one of the following is the set of values for 𝑥 and 𝑦?
(a) 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 1 (b) 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = −1
(c) 𝑥 = −1, 𝑦 = 1 (d) 𝑥 = −1, 𝑦 = −1
2. A ten-digit number is divisible by 4 as well as by 5. What could be the possible digit at the ten’s place
in the given number?
(a) 0,1,2,4 or 6 (b) 1,2,4,6 or 8
(c) 2,3,4,6 or 8 (d) 0,2,4,6 or 8
3. What least number should be subtracted from 26492518, so that the resulting number is divisible by
3 but not by 9?
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 7
4. Which one of the following numbers is a composite numbers?
(a) 589 (b) 571
(c) 569 (d) 563
5. Which one of the following is correct?
𝑎𝑛 + 𝑏 𝑛 is divisible by a –
(a) for all integral values of n (b) when n is an even integer

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(c) when n is an odd integer (d) for no integral value of n


6. Which one of the following three-digit numbers divides 9861 and 7325 with the same remainder in
each case?
(a) 113 (b) 209
(c) 317 (d) 191
7. In a divisible operation, the division is 5 times the quotient and twice the remainder. If the remainder
is 15, then what is the dividend?
(a) 175 (b) 185
(c) 195 (d) 250
8. Which one of the following is correct? The number 222222 is
(a) divisible by 3 but not divisible by 7 (b) divisible by 3 and 7 but not divisible by 11
(c) divisible by 2 and 7 but not divisible by 11 (d) divisible by 3, 7 and 11
9. Which of the following numbers is a prime?
(a) 667 (b) 861
(c) 481 (d) 331
10. If the numbers q, q + 2 and q + 6 are all prime, then what can be the value of 3q + 9?
(a) Only 18 (b) Only 42
(c) Only 60 (d) Both (b) and (c)
11. One dividing 4996 by a certain number, the quotient is 62 and the remainder is 36. What is the
divisor?
(a) 80 (b) 85
(c) 90 (d) 95
12. A number, when divided by 987, gives a remainder 59. When the same number is divided by 21,
what is the remainder?
(a) 21 (b) 19
(c) 17 (d) 15
13. What least value must be given to *, so that the number 8798546*5 is divisible by 11?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
14. What is the sum of all prime numbers between 100 and 120?
(a) 652 (b) 650
(c) 644 (d) 533
15. What is the sum of positive integers less than 100 which leave a remainder 1 when divided by 3 and
leave a remainder 2 when divided by 4?
(a) 416 (b) 620
(c) 1250 (d) 1314
16.What is the total number of three digit numbers with unit digit 7 and divisible by 11?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
17. The product of two alternate odd integers exceeds three times the smaller by 12. What is the larger
number?
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 9

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18. What is the last digit in the expansion of (2457)754 ?


(a) 3 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
a x−1 b x−3
19. If (b) = (a) , then the value of x is
1
(a) 2 (b) 1
7
(c) 2 (d) 2
20. If a, b, c are real numbers, then the value of √a−1 b. √b −1 c. √c −1 a is
(a) 𝑎𝑏𝑐 (b) √abc
1
(c) (d) 1
√abc
21. A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5 and 6. The remainders were respectively 2, 3 and
4. The number is
(a) 214 (b) 476
(c) 954 (d) 1908
22. How many terms are there in the G.P. 3, 6, 12, 24, … , 384?
(a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 11
23. Which one of the following numbers will completely divide (325 + 326 + 327 + 328 )?
(a) 11 (b) 16
(c) 25 (d) 30
24. How many natural numbers are there between 23 and 100 which are exactly divisible by 6?
(a) 8 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 13
(x−1)
25. If x = 5 + 2√6, then is equal to
√x
(a) √2 (b) 2√2
(c) 3√3 (d) √3

ANSWER KEY

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b)

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2. FUNDAMENTAL OPERATIONS
2.1 ADDITION
Addition is the fundamental operation of arithmetic. All the operations depended on this operation.
Addition combines two quantities into a single quantity:
SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. Simplify:
(i) 5005+5000+10
(ii) 18800+470+20
Solution:
(i) 5005+5000+10=10015
(ii) 18800+470+20=19272
2. Simplify:
𝑏 − [𝑏 − (𝑎 + 𝑏) − {𝑏 − (𝑏 − 𝑎 − 𝑏)} + 2𝑎
Solution:
Given expression
=𝑏 − [𝑏 − (𝑎 + 𝑏) − {𝑏 − (𝑏 − 𝑎 + 𝑏)} + 2𝑎]
= 𝑏 − [𝑏 − 𝑎 − 𝑏 − {𝑏 − 2𝑏 + 𝑎} + 2𝑎]
= 𝑏 − [−𝑎 − {𝑏 − 2𝑏 + 𝑎 + 2𝑎}]
= 𝑏 − [−𝑎 − {−𝑏 + 3𝑎}] = 𝑏 − [−𝑎 + 𝑏 − 3𝑎]
= 𝑏 − [−4𝑎 + 𝑏] = 𝑏 + 4𝑎 − 𝑏 = 4𝑎.
2.2 SUBTRACTION
Subtraction is the operation which is just the opposite of addition.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. If 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 𝑧 = 55,𝑥 + 𝑧 − 𝑦 = 4 and 𝑦 − 𝑥 + 𝑧 = 12, then what are the values of 𝑥 , 𝑦 and 𝑧?
Solution
The given equations are:
2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 𝑧 = 55 … (𝑖)
𝑥 + 𝑧 − 𝑦 = 4 … (𝑖𝑖)
𝑦 − 𝑥 + 𝑧 = 12 … (𝑖𝑖𝑖)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get:
𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 51 … (𝑖𝑣)
Subtracting (iii) from (i), we get:
3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 43 … (𝑣)
Multiplying (v) by 2 and subtracting (iv) from it, we get: 5𝑥 = 35 𝑜𝑟 𝑥 = 7
Putting 𝑥 = 7 in (iv), we get: 4𝑦 = 44 𝑜𝑟 𝑦 = 11.
Putting 𝑥 = 7, 𝑦 = 11 in (i), we get: 𝑧 = 8

2. Find the value of


1 1 1 1
(1 − ) (1 − ) (1 − ) … . (1 − ).
3 4 5 100
Solution
Given expression
2 3 4 99
= (3) × (4) × (5) × … … .× (100)
2 1
= 100 = 50
2.3 MULTIPLICATION
Multiplication combines several quantities into one quantity which is known as product.

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SOLVED EXAMPLE
𝟗𝟕𝟎 289 18
1. 17 × 15 × 1.5 = 1649 ×?
Solution:
970 289 18
1649 = 17 × 15 × 1.5 = 13192
13192
𝑋 = =8
1649
2.4 DIVISION
Division is the inverse of multiplication, i.e. instead of multiplying quantities together we split them into
small quantities which is also known as the quotient.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. A board 7ft. 9 inches long is divided into 3 equal parts. What is the length of each
part?
Solution:
Length of board = 7ft. 9 inches = (7 × 12 + 9) inches = 93 inches.
=> Length of each part = (93/3) inches = 31 inches = 2ft. 7 inches
2.5 BASIC ARITHMETIC PROPERTIES
Commutative Property
The commutative property describes all the equations in which the order does not affect the result.
Addition and multiplication are commutative operations. Subtraction and division are not commutative.
𝑎+𝑏 =𝑏+𝑎
𝑎×𝑏 =𝑏×𝑎

SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. Show that 𝑎 + 𝑏 = 𝑏 + 𝑎
Solution:
Let 𝑎 = 2 𝑏 = 3
𝑎+𝑏 = 2+3= 5
𝑏+𝑎 = 3+2= 5
Hence 𝑎 + 𝑏 = 𝑏 + 𝑐 proved.
2. Show that 𝑎 × 𝑏 = 𝑏 × 𝑎
Solution:
Let 𝑎 = 8 𝑏 = 10
𝑎 × 𝑏 = 8 × 10 = 80
𝑏 × 𝑎 = 10 × 8 = 80
Hence 𝑎 × 𝑏 = 𝑏 × 𝑎 proved.
Associative Property
The associative property describes all the equations in which the grouping of numbers does not affect
the result. Addition and multiplication are associative operations. Subtraction and division are not
associative.
(𝑎 + 𝑏) + 𝑐 = 𝑎 + (𝑏 + 𝑐)
(𝑎 × 𝑏) × 𝑐 = 𝑎 × (𝑏 × 𝑐)
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. Show that (𝑎 + 𝑏) + 𝑐 = 𝑎 + (𝑏 + 𝑐)
Solution:
Let 𝑎 = 2, 𝑏 = 3, 𝑐 = 4
(𝑎 + 𝑏) + 𝑐 = (2 + 3) + 4 = 9
𝑎 + (𝑏 + 𝑐) = 2 + (3 + 4) = 9
Hence (𝑎 + 𝑏) + 𝑐 = 𝑎 + (𝑏 + 𝑐) proved.

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2. Show that (𝑎 × 𝑏) × 𝑐 = 𝑎 × (𝑏 × 𝑐)
Solution:
Let 𝑎 = 11, 𝑏 = 12, 𝑐 = 13
(𝑎 × 𝑏) × 𝑐 = (11 × 12) × 13 = 1716
𝑎 × (𝑏 × 𝑐) = 11 × (12 × 13) = 1716
Hence (𝑎 × 𝑏) × 𝑐 = 𝑎 × (𝑏 × 𝑐) proved.
Distributive Property
The distributive property is used when the sum of two quantities is multiplied by a third quantity.
𝑎 × (𝑏 + 𝑐) = 𝑎 × 𝑏 + 𝑎 × 𝑐
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Show that 𝑎 × (𝑏 + 𝑐) = 𝑎 × 𝑏 + 𝑎 × 𝑐
Solution:
Let 𝑎 = 2 𝑏 = 3 𝑐 = 4
𝑎 × (𝑏 + 𝑐) = 2 × (3 + 4) = 14
𝑎 × 𝑏 + 𝑎 × 𝑐 = 2 × 3 + 2 × 4 = 14
2.6 SIMPLIFICATION
‘BODMAS’ Rule:
BODMAS rule tells the sequence in which the operations are to be executed. Here,
• ‘B’ stands for ‘Bracket’
• ‘O’ for ‘Of’
• ‘D’ for ‘Division’
• ‘M’ for ‘Multiplication’
• ‘A’ for ‘Addition’ and
• ‘S’ for ‘Subtraction’.
Before simplifying any expression, we must remove all the brackets, strictly in the order (), {} and [].
After removing the brackets, we must use the following operations strictly in the order:
• Step 1: Of
• Step 2: Division
• Step 3: Multiplication
• Step 4: Addition
• Step 5: Subtraction
SOLVED EXAMPLE
1. Find the value of
343 × 343 × 343 − 113 × 113 × 113
343 × 343 + 343 × 113 + 113 × 113
Solution:
𝑎3 −𝑏 3
Given expression= 𝑎2 +𝑎𝑏+𝑏2
= (a-b)
= (343-113)
=230
2. Arjun and Sajal are friends. Each has some money. If Arun gives Rs. 30 to Sajal, the Sajal will have
twice the money left with Arjun. But, if Sajal gives Rs. 10 to Arjun, the Arjun will have thrice as much as
is left with Sajal. How much money does each have?
Solution:
Suppose Arun has Rs. X and Sajal has Rs. Y. then,
2(𝑥 − 30) = 𝑦 + 30
=> 2𝑥 − 𝑦 = 90 … (𝑖)
And 𝑥 + 10 = 3(𝑦 − 10)

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=> 𝑥 − 3𝑦 = − 40 … (𝑖𝑖)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get 𝑥 = 62 and 𝑦 = 34. Arun has Rs. 62 and Sajal has Rs. 34.
Hence 𝑎 × (𝑏 + 𝑐) = 𝑎 × 𝑏 + 𝑎 × 𝑐 proved.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS


1. In a group of ducks and buffaloes the total numbers of legs is 24 more than twice the number of
heads. Find the total number of buffaloes.
(a) 8 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 10
Solution: (b)
Let the number of buffaloes be x and the number of ducks be y.
4x +2y = 2(x+y)+24
2x = 24 => x = 12
2. If a – b = 3 and 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 = 29, then find the value of ab
(a) 8.5 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 7
Solution: (b)
Remember the formula, if not, then cram it
2𝑎𝑏 = (𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 ) − (𝑎 − 𝑏)2
2ab = 29-9=20
ab =10
3. 24.02 × 8.9 × 17.1 = ?
(a) 2700 (b) 4100
(c) 3700 (d) 4500
Solution: (c)
X = 24 × 9 ×17
= 3672 ~ 3700.
4. 6040 ÷ 28 ÷ 6 =?
(a) 36 (b) 46
(c) 32 (d) 49
Solution: (a)
6040
X=
28×6
X = 35.95 = 36 (approx..)
5. 15.89% 𝑜𝑓 850 + 24.8% 𝑜𝑓 650 =?
(a) 270 (b) 375
(c) 298 (d) 295
Solution: (c)
16 25
X = 100 × 850 + 100 × 650
= 136 +162.5 = 298.(approx..)
𝟐
6. √2220 = ?
(a) 54 (b) 41
(c) 37 (d) 47
Solutions: (d)
X = √2220 ≈ √2209
= √47 × 47 = 47

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4 7 2
7. 8 × 5 × 9 =?
5 9 3
(a) 540 (b) 520
(c) 490 (d) 590
Solutions: (c)
44 52 29
𝑋 = 5 × 9 × 3 ≈ 491 ≈ 490
3 2 35
8. 5 𝑜𝑓 7 𝑜𝑓 18 𝑜𝑓 ? = 405
(a) 1215 (b) 1325
(c) 1285 (d) 1375
Solution: (a)
3 2 35
× 7 × 18 ×? = 405
5
405×5×7×18
𝑋 = = 1215
3×2×35
9. 24% of 6550 – 175% of? = 697
(a) 675 (b) 825
(c) 500 (d) 475
Solution: (c)
24% 𝑜𝑓 6550 – 175% 𝑜𝑓 ? = 697
24×6550 175×?
− 100 = 697
100
(1572−697)×100
=?
175
87500
𝑋 = = 500
175
1 1
10. 7 𝑜𝑓 254 𝑜𝑓 8 =? ÷ 21
1 2
(a) 96 4 (b) 98 7
1 3
(c) 954 (d) 967
Solution: (c)
1 1
254 × 7 × 8 =?÷ 21
254×21 1
X= = 95 4
56
11. (2892 ÷ 12)× 13 = ? % of 2410
(a) 130 (b) 342
(c) 241 (d) 230
Solution: (a)
𝑥 × 2410
100
= (2892 ÷ 12) × 13
= 241 × 13 = 3133
3133×100
X = 2410 = 130
12. [(√81 × 64 ÷ (4.5)] × 18 = (? )2 − 153
(a) 17 (b) 23
(c) 21 (d) 22
Solution: (c)
{√81 × 64 ÷ (4.5)} × 18 = (? )2 − 153
(9 × 8 ÷ 4.5) × 18 = (? )2 − 153
16 × 18 + 153 = (? )2
X = √288 + 153 = √441 = 21

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13. 48625 + 13743 – 31872 + 1247 =?


(a) 31743 (b) 43743
(c) 34543 (d) 32543
Solution: (a)
x = 48625 +13743 – 31872 +1218
= 63615 – 31872 = 31743
3 7 1 1
14. 58 + 7 3 − 12 3 + 5 3 =?
7 17
(a) 824 (b) 924
17 17
(c) 724 (d) 10 24
Solution: (c)
3 7 1 1
5 8 + 7 3 + 5 3 − 12 3
3 7 1 1
= (5+7+5-12) +(8 + 3 + 3 − 3)
3 7 1 1
= 5 + (8 + 3 + 3 − 3)
65 185 17
= 5 + 24 = = 7 24
24
15. 64 × 4096 ÷ 32 = (? )2 − 6449
(a) 99 (b) 101
(c) 111 (d) 121
Solution: (d)
64×4096
(? )2 − 6449 = = 8192
32
2
(? ) = 8192 + 6449 = 14641
𝑥 = √14641 = 121
16. (18.20)𝟐 − 1432.04 =?
(a) -1100.8 (b) 1100
(c) -1208.8 (d) 1200
Solution: (a)
X = (18.20)2 − 1432.04
= 331.24 – 1432.04 = -1100.8
17. √?× √4225 = 383
(a) 3480 (b) 3481
(c) 3081 (d) 2604
Solution: (b)
√?× √4225 = 3835
3835
√? = 65 = 59
? =59× 59 = 3481.
1 1
18. 717 × 3485 + 9 18 × 2430 =?
(a) 44290 (b) 42485
(c) 46605 (d) 44290
Solution: (c)
120 163
X = 17 × 3485 + 18 × 2430
= 24600 + 22005 = 46605.
19. 117% 𝑜𝑓 271 + 72% 𝑜𝑓 982 =?
(a) 1011.21 (b) 1124.11
(c) 1044.19 (c) 1044.19

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Solution: (d)
117×27+72×982
X= 100
31707+70704
= = 1024.11
100
20. (20)3
× (4)3 ÷ (80)2 =?
(a) 3030 (b) 3440
(c) 3280 (d) 3430
Solution: (d)
(70)3 ×(4)3
𝑋 = (80)2
=3430
𝟑
21. (47.12)7.5 ÷ (46.99)2 × (46.998)−3
1
= (√46.95)4 × (√47.13)?
27 21
(a) 4 (b) 5
23 29
(c) 8 (d) 4
Solution: (c)
1
(47)7.5 ÷ (4.7)𝟏.𝟓 × (47)−3 = (√47)4 × (√47)?
1 ?
=> (47)3 = (47)8+2
𝑥 1
=3−8
2
24−1 23
= =
8 8
3.1 11.01 27.9 21
22. (8.01 × 1.99 ) ÷ ( × 4.9) % 𝑜𝑓 4424.99 =?
3
(a) 2 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 5
Solution: (a)
3 11 𝟐𝟖 𝟐𝟏 1
(8 × )÷(𝟑 × ) × 100 × 4425
2 𝟓
33 15 1
= 16 × 28×21 × 100 × 4425
= 2.328 ≈ 2.
23. √575 ÷?× 14.982 = 450
(a) 10 (b) 7
(c) 4 (d) 12
Solution: (d)
√575 ÷?× 14.982 = 450
√575
× 15 × 15 = 450
?
24
× 15 × 15 = 450
?
24×15×15
= = 12
450
24. 30.012 − 19.982 −? = 21.012
(a) 60 (b) 30
(c) 41 (d) 49
Solution: (a)
30.012 − 19.982 −? = 21.012
𝑥 ≈ (30)2 − (20)2 − (21)2
= 900 − 400 + 441
= 900 − 841 = 59 ≈ 60

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

25. 820.15 +2379.85 +140.01 × 4.99 =?


(a) 4400 (b) 3000
(c) 3900 (d) 4300
Solution: (c)
X = 820.15 +2379.85 +140.01 × 4.99
≈ 820 + 2380 +140 × 5
= 820 + 2380 + 700 = 3900
26. 39.97% of 649.8 ÷ 13.05 =45.12 - ?
(a) 15 (b) 25
(c) 10 (d) 40
Solution: (b)
39.97% of 649.8 ÷ 13.05 =45.12 - ?
40% of 650 ÷ 13 ≈ 45 - ?
40×650 1
× 13 ≈ 45−?
100
20 ≈ 45−?
45 − 20 = 25.
27. (647.87 + 59.98) ÷ 35.02 =?
(a) 27 (b) 19
(c) 21 (d) 17
Solution : ( c)
(647.87 + 59.98) ÷ 35.02
735
≈ (675 + 60) ÷ 35 = ≈ 21
35
28. 25.10% of 675 – 59.425 +? = 82.75% of 5250
(a) 4234.375 (b) 4403.8
(c) 4335.375 (d) 4032.375
Solution: (a)
82.75×5250 25.10×675
?= − + 59.425
100 100
= 4344.375 + 59.425 – 169.425
= 4403.8 – 169.425 = 4234.375
29. 8365 + (6.4)2 + √? = 8424.96
(a) 400 (b) 289
(c) 361 (d) 225
Solution: (c)
√? = 8424.96 − 8365 − 40.96
= 8424.96 − 8405.96 = 19
? = 19 × 19 = 361
30. 165% 𝑜𝑓 4070 – 85% 𝑜𝑓 ? = 3366.5
(a) 4020 (b) 3840
(c) 5040 (d) 3940
Solution: (d)
165×4070 85×?
? = 100 − 100 = 3366.5
85×?
6715.5 – 3366.5 = 100
85×?
= 3349
100
3349×100
?= = 3940
85
31. (0.8 × √40.96) ÷ 1.6 = 2? − 12.8

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.4
Solution: (a)
2? − 12.8 = (0.8 × 6.4) ÷ 1.6 = 5.12 ÷ 1.6 = 3.2
2? − 3.2 + 12.8 = 16 = 24
?= 4
EXERCISE
1. 36865 + 12473 + 21045 – 44102 =?
(a) 114485 (b) 28081
(c) 26281 (d) 114845
1 1 1 1 1 1
2. 30 + 42 + 56 + 72 + 90 + 110 =?
2 1
(a) 27 (b) 9
5 6
(c) 27 (d) 55
3. 29.37 – 18.89 +2.002 + 0.57 =?
(a) 3.107 (b) 13.052
(c) 931.07 (d) 7.908
4. 1948 – 528 -428 -28 =?
(a) 874 (b) 334
(c) 984 (d) 964
5. 69873 × 17 =?
(a) 1187842 (b) 1186821
(c) 1187841 (d) 1186841
6. On dividing a number by 999, the quotient is 377 and the remainder is 105. The number is
(a) 376538 (b) 359738
(c) 376728 (d) 476727
7. If the number 42573* is exactly divisible by 72, then the minimum value of * is
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 7 (d) 4
8. 9999 ÷ 99 ÷ 99 =?
1111
(a) 9999 (b) 99
101
(c) (d) 101
99
96 64 60
9. 16 × 21 ÷ 42 =?
1 4
(a) 12 (b) 12
2 5
3
(c) 12 (d) 12 5

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

10. 5.8 × 2.5 + 0.6 × 6.75 + 139.25 =?


(a) 157.80 (b) 157.60
(c) 147.80 (d) 147.60
11. 3640 ÷ 14 × 16 + 340 =?
(a) 3500 (b) 2500
(c) 1500 (d) 4500
12.1318 ÷ 25 + 6.75% of 675 =?
(a) 99 (b) 102
(c) 79 (d) 85
13. 34.3% of 643 + 12.5% of 680 =? +189
(a) 420 (b) 385
(c) 320 (d) 116.549
14. 228% of 650 + 74% of 744.84 – 1368.789 =?
(a) 620 (b) 655
(c) 665 (d) 565
𝟑 𝟑
15.√(342.79 + √2195 = (? )2 − 554.876
(a) 24 (b) 23
(c) 22 (d) 19
16. 65% of 405 + 37% of 3700 =? – 1191
(a) 2824.25 (b) 2783.75
(c) 2823.25 (d) 2375.25
17. 32% of? = 4624
(a) 12450 (b) 16450
(c) 14450 (d) 16850
18. √3969% of 630 + 115.1 = (? )3 ÷ 8
(a) 16 (b) 12
(c) 18 (d) 14
19. 2424.64 + 396.28 – 369.79 + 242.8 =?
(a) 2393.39 (b) 2693.43
(c) 2543.93 (d) 2693.93
4 𝟏 2 1 3
20. 𝟓 of 𝟕 of 42875 - 𝟑 of 9 of 7 of 4347 =?
(a) 5762 (b) 3762
(c) 4762 (d) 4862
21. 18.5% of 134 + 27.5% of 610 =?
(a) 192.54 (b) 172.42
(c) 182.54 (d) 182.44

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

22. (√1936 × √51.84) ÷ 24 =?


(a) 14.8 (b) 13.8
(c) 13.2 (d) 11.2
118.3 ?
23. = 70
?
(a) 91 (b) 69
(c) 79 (d) 97
24. 64× 8.5 + 2970 ÷ 18 =?
(a) 709 (b) 599
(c) 819 (d) 609
𝟓 7 5
25. 𝟖 of 11 of 13 of 9724 =?
(a) 1387.5 (b) 1482.25
(c) 1487.5 (d) 1587.75
26. 18% of 625 + 28% of 545 =? + 29
(a) 236.1 (b) 226.01
(c) 228.1 (d) 216.01
ANSWER KEY

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17.(c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a)

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

3. SQUARE AND CUBE ROOTS


3.1 SQUARE AND ITS PROPERTIES
• A natural number is called a perfect square if it is the square of any natural number.
• A natural number is called a perfect cube if it is the cube of any natural number.
• The number obtained when a number is multiplied by itself is called the square of the number.
• The number obtained when a number is multiplied by itself three times are called cube number.
• Squares and cubes of even numbers are even.
• Squares and cubes of odd numbers are odd.
3.2 SQUARE ROOT
If 𝑦 2 = 𝑥, we say that the ‘y’ is the square root of x i.e. √𝑦 = 𝑥.
For example,√4 = ±2, √9 = ±3 etc.
3.3 METHODS OF CALCULATING SQUARE ROOT
By factorization method
Express the given number as the product of prime factors.
Now, take the product of these prime factors choosing one out of every pair of the same primes.
This product gives the square root of the given number.
By Division method
In the given number, mark off the digits in pairs starting from the unit's digit.
Each pair and the remaining one digit is called a period.
• Now, 12 = 1. On subtracting, we get 0 as the remainder.
• Now, bring down the next period, i.e., 47.
• Now, trial divisor is 1 x 2 = 2 and trial dividend is 47. So, we take 22 as the divisor and put 2 as the
quotient. The remainder is 3.
• Next, we bring down the next period, which is 13. Now, trial divisor is 12 x 2 = 24 and trial dividend is
313. So, we take 241 as dividend and 1 as the quotient. The remainder is 72.
• Bring down the next period, i.e., 69. Now, the trial divisor is 121 x 2 = 242 and the trial dividend is
7269. So, we take 3as quotient and 2423 as divisor. The remainder is then zero.
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. Find the value of 𝑥 from the expression √256 + √ 49 + √169 = 𝑥 2
Solution:
Given expression
√256 + √ 49 + √169 = 16 + 7 + 13 = 36
=> 36 = 𝑥 2
=> 𝑥 = √36 = 6
2. What is the square root of 0.0009?
Solution:
9
√0.0009 = √10000
3
= 100 = 0.03

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Note:
• √𝑥𝑦 = √𝑥 × √𝑦
𝑥 √𝑥 √𝑥 𝑦 𝑥𝑦
• √𝑦 = = ( 𝑦) × (√𝑦) = √𝑦
√𝑦 √ √

3.4 CUBE
In arithmetic and algebra, the cube of a number n is its third power: the result of the number multiplied
by itself twice:
𝒏𝟑 = 𝒏 × 𝒏 × 𝒏.
It is also the number multiplied by its square: 𝒏𝟑 = 𝒏 × 𝒏𝟐
3.5 CUBE ROOT
3
The cube root of 𝑥 is denoted by √𝑥
3 3
For example √8 = 2, √343 = 7 etc.
3.6 METHODS OF CALCULATING CUBE ROOT
Resolve the given number as the product of prime factors and take the product of prime
factors, choosing one out of three of the same prime factors.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. By what least number 4320 be multiplied to obtain a number which is a perfect cube?
Solution:
𝟒𝟑𝟐𝟎 = 𝟐𝟑 × 𝟑𝟑 × 𝟐𝟐 × 𝟓.
To make it a perfect cube, it must be multiplied by 2 × 52 i.e., 50.
Formula Table
➢ Squares: ➢ Cubes:
𝑦2 = 𝑦 × 𝑦 𝑦3 = 𝑦 × 𝑦 × 𝑦
➢ Square Root: ➢ Cube Root:
2 3
𝑦 = √𝑦 × √𝑦 = (√𝑦) 𝑦 = 3√𝑦 × 3√𝑦 × 3√𝑦 = ( 3√𝑦)

PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. The least number of four digits which is a perfect square is
(a) 1204 (b) 1024
(c) 1402 (d) 1420
Solution: (b)
Factor of 1024 = 32 × 32 = 32
So, 1024 is a perfect square number.
2. If √10 + ∛𝑥 = 4, then what is the value of x?
(a) 150 (b) 216
(c) 316 (d) 450
Solution: (b)
Given,√10 + ∛𝑥 = 4
On squaring both sides
3
10 + √𝑥 = 16
3
⇒ √𝑥 = 6
On Cubic both sides,
𝑥 = (6)3 = 216

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

3. If a =2 + √3, then what is the value of (𝑎2 + 𝑎−2 )?


(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 18
Solution: (b)
1
Given that, a =2 + √3 , 𝑎 = 2 − √3
1 2
Now, 𝑎2 + 𝑎 −2 = (𝑎 + 𝑎) − 2
2
= (2 + √3 + 2 − √3) − 2
= (4)2 − 2 = 16 − 2 = 14
4. If 196𝑥 4 = 𝑥 6 , then 𝑥 3 is equal to which one of the following?
6
(a) 𝑥 ⁄14 (b) 14𝑥 4
𝑥2
(c) 14 (d) 14𝑥 2
Solution: (d)
Given, 196𝑥 4 = 𝑥 6
⇒ (14𝑥 2 )2 = (𝑥 3 )2
⇒ 14𝑥 2 = 𝑥 3
5. If 𝑎 𝑥 = 𝑏, 𝑏 𝑦 = 𝑐 and xyz = 1, then what is the value of 𝑐 𝑧 ?
(a) a (b) b
𝑎
(c) ab (d) 𝑏
Solution: (a)
Equation 𝑎 𝑥 = 𝑏
Multiplying both sides by 𝑦 in power
(𝑎 𝑥 )𝑦 = 𝑏 𝑦
⇒𝑎 𝑥 𝑦 = 𝑐 (∵𝑏 𝑦 = 𝑐)
Again multiplying both sides by 𝑧 in power
(𝑎 𝑥𝑦 ) 𝑧 = 𝑏 𝑧
⇒ 𝑎 𝑥𝑦𝑧 = 𝑐 𝑧
But 𝑥𝑦𝑧 = 1 Given
So 𝑎 = 𝑐 𝑧
6. What is one of the square roots of?
16𝑥 6 − 24𝑥 5 + 25𝑥 4 − 20𝑥 3 + 10𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 1
(a) 4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 1
(b) 4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 1
(c) 4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 1
(d) 4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1
Solution (c)
From option (c),
(4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 1)2 = [(4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 ) + (2𝑥 − 1)]2
= (4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 )2+(2𝑥 − 1)2 + 2(4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 )(2𝑥 − 1)
= 16𝑥 6 + 𝑥 4 − 24𝑥 5 + 4𝑥 2 + 1 − 4𝑥 + 16𝑥 4 − 12𝑥 3 − 8𝑥 3 + 6𝑥 2
= 16𝑥 6 − 24𝑥 5 + 25𝑥 4 − 20𝑥 3 + 10𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 1
7. If 3𝑥+𝑦 = 81 𝑎𝑛𝑑 81𝑥−𝑦 = 3, then what is the value of x?
17 17
(a) 16 (b) 8
17 15
(c) 4 (d) 4
Solution (b)
Given that, 3𝑥+𝑦 = 81 𝑜𝑟 3𝑥+𝑦 = 34

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

⇒𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4 (𝑖)
𝑎𝑛𝑑 81𝑥−𝑦 = 3 or (34 )𝑥−𝑦 = 31
1
⇒ 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 4 (𝑖𝑖)
On solving eqn. (i) and (ii), we get
1
𝑥+𝑦 =4 ⇒ 𝑥−𝑦 =4
17 17
2𝑥 = ⇒ 𝑥=
4 8
√5+√3 √5−√3
8. What is + equal to?
√5−√3 √5+√3
(a) 16 (b) 8
(c) 4 (d) √15
Solution (b)
√5+√3 √5−√3
+
√5−√3 √5+√3
2 2
(√5+√3) +(√5−√3)
= 2 2
(√5) −(√3)
2 2
2{(√5) +(√3) } 2(5+3)
= = =8
5−3 2
√0.0032
9. What is the value of? √0.32 ?
(a) 0.0001 (b) 0.001
(c) 0.01 (d) 0.1
Solution (d)
√0.0032 √0.32 1 1
= × = = 0.1
√0.32 √100 √0.32 10
10. If2𝑚 + 2𝑙+𝑚 = 24, then what is the value of m?
1
(a) 0 (b) 3
(c) 3 (d) 6
Solution (c)
Given,2𝑚 + 2𝑙+𝑚 = 24
∴ 2𝑚 (1 + 2) = 24
⇒ 2𝑚 × 3 = 24
⇒ 2𝑚 = 8 = 23
∴ 𝑚=3
11. What is the smallest number that must be added to 1780 to make it a perfect square?
(a) 39 (b) 49
(c) 59 (d) 69
Solution (d)
We know that,(42)2 = 1764 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (43)2 = 1849
But 1780 lies between 1764 and 1849.
Now, smallest number = 1849 – 1780 = 69
12. What is the square root of
0.324 × 0.64 × 129.6
0.729 × 1.024 × 36
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
Solution (d)
0.324 × 0.64 × 129.6
0.729 × 1.024 × 36

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

324×0.64×129.6
= √0.729×1.024×36
18×8×36
= 27×32×36 = 1
13. What is one of the square roots of9 − 2√14?
(a) √7 − √3 (b) √6 − √3
(c) √7 − √5 (d) √7 − √2
Solution: (d)
9 − 2√14 = √7 + 2 − 2 × √7 × √2
2
= √(√7 − √2) = √7 − √2
14. If 3𝑥 × 27𝑥 = 9𝑥+4 , then 𝑥 equal to
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
Solution (a)
3𝑥 × 27𝑥 = 9𝑥+4
∴3𝑥 × 33𝑥 = 32(𝑥+4)
⇒ 3𝑥+3𝑥 = 32(𝑥+4)
Here base is same.
𝑥 + 3𝑥 = 2(𝑥 + 4) ⇒4𝑥 − 2𝑥 = 8
8
∴𝑥 = 2=4
1 1 1 1 1
15. - + − + equal to
√9−√8 √8−√7 √7−√6 √6−√5 √5−√4
(a) 0 (b) 1
1
(c) 5 (d) 3
Solution (c)
1 1 1 1 1
− + − +
√9 − √8 √8 − √7 √7 − √6 √6 − √5 √5 − √4
(On rationalization)
= (√9 + √8)-(√8 + √7) + (√7 + √6) − (√6 + √5) + (√5 + √4)= √9 + √4 = 3 + 2 = 5
16. If 𝑝 𝑥 = 𝑟 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟 𝑤 = 𝑝 𝑧 = 𝑛 , then which one of the following is correct?
(a) 𝑥𝑤 = 𝑦𝑧 (b) 𝑥𝑧 = 𝑦𝑤
(c) 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑤 + 𝑧 (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 𝑤 − 𝑧
Solution (a)
Given that,𝑝 𝑥 = 𝑟 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟 𝑤 = 𝑝 𝑧 = 𝑛
Now, 𝑝 𝑥 = 𝑟 𝑦
⇒(𝑝 𝑥 )𝑤 = (𝑟 𝑦 )𝑤 ⇒𝑝 𝑥𝑤 = 𝑟 𝑦𝑤
⇒𝑝 𝑥𝑤 = (𝑟 𝑤 )𝑦 … …. (𝑖)
Here, 𝑟 𝑤 = 𝑝 𝑧 put in eqn (i)
Then,𝑝 𝑥𝑤 = (𝑝 𝑧 )𝑦
⇒𝑝 𝑥𝑤 = 𝑝 𝑧𝑦 (Base is same)
∴ 𝑥𝑤 = 𝑧𝑦
17. What is the value of √29.16 + √0.2916 + √0.002916+√0.00002916 ?
(a) 5.9949 (b) 5.9894
(c) 5.9984 (d) 5.9994
Solution (d)
√29.16 + √0.2916 + √0.002916 + √0.00002916

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= 5.4 + 0.54 + 0.054 + 0.0054 = 5.9994


18. The number √0.0001 is
(a) A rational number less than
(b) A rational number
(c) An irrational number
(d) Neither a rational number nor an irrational number
Solution (b)
1 1
√0.0001 = √ = = 0.01
10000 100
So, it is a rational number.

EXERCISE
1. Which one of the following numbers is an integer?
√2+√3 √2+√3
(a) [( )] + √6 (b) [( )] + 2√6
√3−√2 √3−√2
√2+√3 √2+√3
(c) [( )] + 2√6 (d) [( 2−√3 )] + √6
√2−√3
𝑥 5 −1
2. What is the square root of ( 𝑥−1 ) + (𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 + 𝑥) ?
(a) 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1 (b) 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 1
(c) 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 1 (d) 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 1
3. What is the square root of?9 + 2√14 ?
(a) 1 + 2√2 (b) √3 + √6
(c) √2 + √7 (d) √2 + √5
4. Which is the largest number among?
3 6 12
√2, √3, √6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 √12
3
(a) √2 (b) √3
6 12
(c) √6 (d) √12
5. The sum of the square of a number and the square of the reciprocal of the number is thrice the
difference of the square of the number and the square of the reciprocal of the number. What is the
number?
1
(a) 1 (b) (2)4
1 1
(c) (3)3 (d) (4)4
6. What is/are the real value(s) of(256)0.16 × (16)0.18?
(a) Only – 4 (b) Only 4
(c) 4, – 4 (d) 2, – 2
1 1 1
7. If (𝑥)𝑚 = (𝑦)𝑛 = (𝑧)𝑝 and 𝑥𝑦𝑧 = 1, then what is the value of 𝑚 + 𝑛 + 𝑝 ?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) –1
5041
8. Assertion (A):√6889 is rational
Reason (R): The square root of a rational number is always rational.
(a) A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

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9. What is the square of(2 + √2)?


(a) A rational number
(b) An irrational number
(c) A natural number
(d) A whole number
10. If (𝑎𝑏 −1 )2𝑥−1 = (𝑏𝑎−1 )𝑥−2, then what is the value of x?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
11. What is the value of?
√7.84 + √0.0784 + √0.000784 + √0.00000784
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 .1108 (d) 4
93 𝑥
12. If √1 + 196 = 1+14 , then what does x equal to?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
14. What is the value of
1 1 1
+ + ⋯+ ?
1 + √2 √2 + √3 √15 + √16
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
15. A ball is dropped from a height 64 m above the ground and every time it hits the ground it rises to a
height equal to half of the previous. What is the height attained after it hits the ground for the 16th
time?
(a) 2−12m (b) 2−11 m
(c) 2−10 m (d) 2−9 m
16. If 𝑎 = 𝑐 = 𝑏 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐 𝑦 = 𝑎 𝑧 = 𝑑, then which one of the following is correct?
𝑥 𝑞
𝑦
(a) 𝑥⁄𝑦 = ⁄𝑧 (b) 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑞 + 𝑧
(c) 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑞𝑧 (d) 𝑥 𝑦 = 𝑞 𝑧
2𝑛+3
17. If 27× (81) − 3𝑚 = 0, then what is m equal to?
(a) 2n + 5 (b) 5n + 6
(c) 8n + 3 (d) 8n + 15
1 1

18. If 𝑥 = (𝑎 + +√𝑎2 𝑏 3 )3
+ (𝑎 − + , then what is the value of 𝑥 3 + 3𝑏𝑥 − 2𝑎 ?
√𝑎2 𝑏 3 )3
(a) 2𝑎3 (b) -2𝑎3
(c) 1 (d) 0
𝑥 𝑦 1 1
19. If (3.7) =(0.037) = 1000, then what is the value of − ? 𝑥 𝑦
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 2/3 (d) ¼
20. Out of a group of swans 7/2 times the square root of the number are swimming in the pool while the
two remaining are playing outside the pool. What is the total number of swans?
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 12 (d) 16
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d)

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4. HCF AND LCM


4.1 METHODS OF FINDING HCF
Highest Common Factor (H.C.F)
H.C.F stands for highest common factor or also known as greatest common divisor, the greatest number
which exactly divides all the given numbers.
There are two methods to find H.C.F. They are:
• Prime Factorization method
• Division Method
Finding H.C.F using Prime Factorization method
Express each one of the given numbers as the product of prime factors. The product of least powers of
common prime factors gives H.C.F.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. Find the H.C.F. of 23 × 33 × 5 × 74 , 22 × 35 × 52 × 73 , 23 × 53 × 72
Solution:
The prime numbers common to given numbers are 2, 5 and 7.
H.C.F. = 22 ×5× 72 = 980.
2. Find the H.C.F. of 108, 288 and 360.
Solution:
108 = 22 × 33 , 288 = 25 × 32 and 360 = 23 ×5 × 32 .
H.C.F. = 22 × 32 = 36.
Finding H.C.F of two numbers by division method (euler’s method)
• For the H.C.F. of two numbers, divide the larger number by the smaller one.
• Now, divide the divisor by the remainder.
• Repeat the process till zero is obtained as remainder.
• The last divisor is the required H.C.F.
SOLVED EXAMPLE
1. If √3 = 1.732, find the value of √192 − 1 √48 − √75 correct to 3 places of decimal.
Solution:
√192 − (1 / 2)√48 − √75 = √64 × 3 − (1/2) √16 × 3 − √25 × 3
= 8√3 − (1/2) × 4√3 − 5√3
= 3√3 − 2√3 = √3 = 1.732
4.2 METHODS OF FINDING LCM
Least Common Multiple (L.C.M)
L.C.M is least common multiple, the smallest number which is exactly divisible by all the given numbers.
There are two methods to find L.C.M of given numbers they are:
• Prime factorization method
• Division Method.
Finding L.C.M using Prime Factorization method
Resolve each one of the given numbers into a product of prime factors.
Then, L.C.M. is the product of highest powers of all the factors.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Find the least square number which is exactly divisible by 10, 12, 15 and 18.
Solution:
L.C.M. of 10, 12, 15, 18 = 180. Now, 180 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 22 × 32 × 5.
To make it a perfect square, it must be multiplied by 5.
Required number = ( 22 × 32 × 52 ) = 900.

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Finding L.C.M using Division method


Arrange the given numbers in a row in any order. Divide these numbers by a number which divides
exactly, at least two of the given numbers and carry forward the not divisible numbers.
Except one, repeat the above process till no two of the numbers are divisible by the same number. The
product of the divisors and the undivided numbers is the required L.C.M. of the given numbers.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
√𝟐
1. √𝟐 = 𝟏. 𝟒𝟏𝟒𝟐, find the value of 𝟐 + .
√𝟐
√𝟐
1.√𝟐 = 𝟏. 𝟒𝟏𝟒𝟐, find the value of 𝟐 + .
√𝟐
Solution:
√2 √2 (2 − √2)
= ×
2 + √2 2 + √2 2 − √2
(2√2 − 2)
=
4– 2
(2√2 − 2)
= = √2 – 1 = 0.4142
2
Formula Table
➢ Product of two numbers = Product of their H.C.F. and L.C.M.
➢ H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Fractions:
H. C. F. of Numerators
𝐻𝐶𝐹 =
L. C. M. of Denominators
𝐿𝐶𝑀 𝑜𝑓 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠
𝐿𝐶𝑀 =
H. C. F. of Denominators
➢ Two numbers are said to be co-primes if their H.C.F. is 1.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. What is the HCF of the polynomials 𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2 𝑦 + 2𝑥𝑦 2 and 𝑥 4 + 6𝑥 3 𝑦 + 8𝑥 2 𝑦 2?
(a) 𝑥 (𝑥 + 2𝑦) (b) 𝑥 (𝑥 + 3𝑦)
(c) 𝑥 + 2𝑦 (d) None of these
Solution (a)
Let f₁ (𝑥) = 𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2 y + 2 𝑥𝑦 2
= x (𝑥 2 + 3 𝑦𝑥 + 2𝑦 2 )
= 𝑥 (𝑥 2 + 2 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑥𝑦 + 2𝑦 2 )
= 𝑥 [𝑥 (𝑥 + 2 𝑦) + 𝑦 (𝑥 + 2 𝑦)]
= 𝑥 (𝑥 + 𝑦) (𝑥 + 2 𝑦)
And 𝑓₂ (𝑥) = 𝑥 4 + 6𝑥 3 y + 8𝑥 2 𝑦 2
= 𝑥 2 (𝑥 2 + 6 𝑥𝑦 + 8𝑦 2 )
= 𝑥 2 (𝑥 2 + 2 𝑥𝑦 + 4 𝑥𝑦 + 8𝑦 2 )
= 𝑥 2 [𝑥 (𝑥 + 2 𝑦) + 4 𝑦 (x + 2 𝑦)]
= 𝑥 2 (𝑥 + 2𝑦) (x + 4 𝑦)
HCF of 𝑓1 (𝑥) and 𝑓₂ (𝑥) = 𝑥 (𝑥 + 2𝑦)
2. If (x + k) is the HCF of (𝑥 2 + ax + b) and (𝑥 2 + cx + d), then what is the value of k?
𝑏+𝑑 𝑏+𝑑
(a) 𝑎+𝑐 (b) 𝑐+𝑑

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𝑎−𝑏 𝑏−𝑑
(c) (d)
𝑐−𝑏 𝑎−𝑐
Solution (d)
(𝑥 + 𝑘) is the HCF of (𝑥 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏) and (𝑥 2 + 𝑐𝑥 + 𝑑).
(– 𝑘)2 + 𝑎 (– 𝑘) + 𝑏 = 0
= (– 𝑘)2 + c (– 𝑘) + 𝑑 =0Ÿ
=>(𝑎 – 𝑐) 𝑘 = (𝑏 – 𝑑)
𝑏−𝑑
=> 𝑘 = 𝑎−𝑐
3. LCM of two numbers is 16 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 850. If one number is 50, then
what is the other number?
(a) 800 (b) 1200
(c) 1600 (d) 2400
Solution (a)
Let first number = 𝑥, second number = 𝑦
LCM × HCF = Product of numbers = 𝑥 × 𝑦
Also, LCM = 16
HCF, LCM + HCF = 850 and 𝑥 = 50
17 HCF = 850
HCF = 50
Now, LCM = 16 × 50 = 800
800 × 50 = 50 × 𝑦
𝑦 = 800
4. 5 bells start tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10 s, respectively. How many times
do the five bells toll together in 20 min?
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 15
Solution (a)
LCM of 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10 is 120s.
i.e., 2 min after tolling together.
Total time
Total in 20 min = LCM intervals
20 min
In 20 min tolling = = 10 times.
2 min
5. If HCF of m and n is 1, then what are the HCF of m + n, m and HCF of m – n, n, respectively? (m > n)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 1
(c) 1 and 1 (d) Cannot be determined
Solution (c)
HCF of m and n is 1.
HCF (𝑚 + 𝑛, 𝑚) = 1
And HCF (𝑚 – 𝑛, 𝑛) = 1
6. Let p, q and r be natural numbers. If m is their LCM and n is their HCF, consider the following
I. 𝑚𝑛 = 𝑝𝑞𝑟 if each p, q and r is prime.
II. 𝑚𝑛 = 𝑝𝑞𝑟 if p, q and r are relatively prime in pairs.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

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(a) Only I (b) Only II


(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
Solution (c)
Let 𝑃 = 10, 𝑞 = 11, r = 13 (Co-prime numbers)
LCM of (10, 11, 13) = 1430
HCF (10, 11, 13) = 1
𝑚𝑛 = 1430 × 1 = 1430
Also, 𝑝𝑞𝑟 = 10 × 11 × 13 = 1430
So, 𝑚𝑛 = 𝑝𝑞𝑟
7. The LCM of three different numbers is 150. Which of the following cannot be their HCF?
(a) 15 (b) 25
(c) 50 (d) 55
Solution (d)
We know that LCM is the multiple of HCF. So that 55 cannot be HCF because it is not a divisor of 150.
8. What is the HCF of (𝑥 2 + bx – x – b) and [𝑥 2 + x (a – 1) – a]?
(a) 𝑥 + 𝑏 (b) 𝑥 + 𝑎
(c) 𝑥 + 1 (d) 𝑥 – 1
Solution (d)
Let 𝑓1 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 – 𝑥 – 𝑏
= 𝑥 (𝑥 + 𝑏)– 1 (𝑥 + 𝑏)
= (𝑥 – 1)(𝑥 + 𝑏)
And 𝑓₂ (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 + 𝑥𝑎 – 𝑥 – 𝑎
= 𝑥 (𝑥 + 𝑎)– 1 (𝑥 + 𝑎)
= (𝑥 + 𝑎)(𝑥 – 1)
HCF of 𝑓1 (𝑥) and 𝑓₂ (𝑥) = (𝑥 – 1)
9. If the HCF of (𝑥 2 + x – 12) and (2𝑥 2 – kx – 9) is (x – k), then what is the value of k?
(a) – 3 (b) 3
(c) – 4 (d) 4
Solution (b)
HCF of 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 – 12 and 2𝑥 2 – 𝑘𝑥 – 9 is (𝑥 – 𝑘),
Then 𝑥 = 𝑘 will be the factor of 2𝑥 2 – 𝑘𝑥 – 9
2𝑘 2 – 𝑘 2 – 9 = 0
=> 𝑘 2 – 9 = 0 k = ± 3
And factor of 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 – 12 are (𝑥 + 4) (𝑥 – 3).
Hence, the value of 𝑘 is 3.
10. What is the LCM of (6𝑥 3 + 60𝑥 2 + 150 𝑥) and (3𝑥 4 + 12𝑥 3 – 15𝑥 2 )?
(a) 6𝑥 2 (𝑥 + 5)2(𝑥 – 1) (b) 3𝑥 2 (𝑥 + 5)2 (𝑥 – 1)
(c) 6𝑥 2 (𝑥 + 5)2 (𝑥 − 1)2 (d) 3𝑥 2 (𝑥 + 5)2 (𝑥 − 1)2
Solution (a)
Let 𝑓1 (𝑥)= 6𝑥 3 + 60𝑥 2 + 150 𝑥
= 6 𝑥 (𝑥 2 + 10 𝑥 + 25)
= 3 𝑥 2 × 𝑥 × (𝑥 + 5)2 and

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𝑓₂ (𝑥) = 3𝑥 4 + 12𝑥 3 – 15𝑥 2


= 3 𝑥 2 (𝑥 2 + 4 𝑥 – 5)
= 3𝑥 2 (𝑥 2 + 5 𝑥 – 𝑥 – 5)
= 3𝑥 2 (𝑥 + 5)(𝑥 – 1)
LCM of 𝑓1 (𝑥) and 𝑥 2 (𝑥)
= 3 × 2 × 𝑥 2 × (𝑥 + 5)2 (x – 1)
= 6𝑥 2 (𝑥 + 5)2 (𝑥 – 1)
11. What is the LCM of (𝑥 + 2)2 (x – 2) and 𝑥 2 – 4𝑥 – 12?
(a) (𝑥 + 2) (𝑥 – 2) (b) (𝑥 + 2)3 (𝑥 – 2) (𝑥 – 6)
(c) (𝑥 + 2) 𝑥 − 2)2 (d) ( 𝑥 + 2)2 (x – 2) (𝑥 – 6)
Solution (d)
Let 𝑓1 (𝑥)= (𝑥 + 2) (𝑥 – 2)
And 𝑓2 (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 – 4 𝑥 – 12 = (𝑥 – 6) (𝑥 + 2)
LCM of 𝑓1 (𝑥), 𝑓₂ (𝑥) = (𝑥 + 2)2 (𝑥 – 2) (𝑥 – 6)
12. What is the value of k for which the HCF of 2𝑥 2 + kx – 12 and 𝑥 2 + x – 2k – 2 is (x + 4)?
(a) 5 (b) 7
(c) 10 (d) -4
Solution (a)
(𝑥 + 4) is HCF, so it will be common in both expressions
𝑥 = – 4 will make each one zero.
2 (−4)2 + 𝑘 (– 4) – 12 = 0
and (−4)2 + (– 4) – 2 𝑘 – 2 = 0
32 – 12 = 4 𝑘 and 16 – 6 = 2 𝑘
𝑘 = 5.
13. 21 mango trees, 42 apple trees and 56 orange trees have to be planted in rows such that each row
contains the same number of trees of one variety only. What is the minimum number of rows in which
the above trees may be planted?
(a) 3 (b) 15
(c) 17 (d) 20
Solution (c)
21 42 56
Minimum number of rows = + + = 17.
7 7 7
14. What is the greatest number which divides 392, 486 and 627 so as to leave the same remainder in
each case?
(a) 47 (b) 43
(c) 37 (d) 34
Solution (a)
Given numbers are 392, 486 and 627.
For same remainder
486 – 392 = 94
627 – 486 = 141
627 – 392 = 235
HCF of (94, 141, 235) = 47

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EXERCISE
1. What is the LCM of (𝑥 2 – 𝑦 2 – 𝑧 2 – 2𝑦𝑧), (𝑥 2 – 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 + 2xz) and (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 – 𝑧 2 – 2xy)?
(a) (𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) (𝑥 + 𝑦 – 𝑧) (𝑥 – 𝑦 + 𝑧) (b) (𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) (𝑥 – 𝑦 – 𝑧) (𝑥 – 𝑦 + 𝑧)
(c) (𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) (𝑥 + 𝑦 – 𝑧) (𝑥 – 𝑦 – 𝑧) (d) (𝑥 + 𝑦 – 𝑧) (𝑥 – 𝑦 – 𝑧) (𝑥 – 𝑦 + 𝑧)
2. If (x + 2) is the HCF of 𝑥 2 + ax + b and 𝑥 2 + cx + d (where, a ≥ c and b ≥ d), then which one of the
following is correct?
(a) 𝑎 + 𝑐 = 𝑏 + 𝑑 (b) 2𝑎 + 𝑏 = 2𝑐 + 𝑑
(c) 𝑏 + 2𝑐 = 2𝑎 + 𝑑 (d) 𝑏 – 2𝑐 = 2𝑎 – 𝑑
3. For two natural numbers m and n, let 𝑔𝑚𝑛 denote the greatest common factor of m and n. Consider
the following in respect of three natural numbers k, m and n.
I. 𝑔𝑚(𝑛𝑘) = 𝑔(𝑚𝑛)𝑘
II. 𝑔𝑚𝑛 𝑔𝑛𝑘 = 𝑔𝑚𝑘
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
4. If the HCF of 𝑥 3 – 27 and 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 + 𝑘 is a quadratic polynomial, then what is the value of k?
(a) 27 (b) 9
(c) 3 (d) - 3
5. What is the LCM of 3(𝑎3 – 𝑏 3 ) and 11 (𝑎4 – 𝑏 4 )?
(a) 33(𝑎3 – 𝑏 3 ) (𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 ) (a + b) (b) (𝑎3 – 𝑏 3 ) (𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 ) (a – b)
(c) 33(a – b) (𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 – ab) (𝑎3 – 𝑏 3 ) (d) 33(𝑎3 – 𝑏 3 ) (𝑎4 – 𝑏 4 )
6. What is the least number which, when divided by 42, 72 and 84 leaves the remainders 25, 55 and 67
respectively?
(a) 521 (b) 512
(c) 504 (d) 487
7. For any integer n, what is the HCF of integers m = 2n + 1 and k = 9n + 4?
(a) 3 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 4
8. Consider the following statements:
I. The HCF of x + y and 𝑥10 – 𝑦10 is x + y.
II. The HCF of x + y and 𝑥10 + 𝑦10 is x + y.
III. The HCF of x – y and 𝑥10 + 𝑦10 is x – y.
IV. The HCF of x – y and 𝑥10 – 𝑦 10 is x – y.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and IV (d) II and IV
9. If the highest common factor of two positive integers is 24, then their least common multiple cannot be
(a) 72 (b) 372

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(c) 372 (d) 600


10. Consider those number between 300 and 400 such that when each number is divided by 6, 9 and 12,
it leaves 4 as remainder in each case. What is the sum of the numbers?
(a) 692 (b) 764
(c) 1080 (d) 1092
11. What is the smallest positive integer which when divided by 4, 5, 8 and 9 leaves remainder 3, 4, 7
and 8, respectively?
(a) 119 (b) 319
(c) 359 (d) 719
1
12. If f (x) and g (x) are two polynomials with integral co-efficient, which vanish at 𝑥 = 2, then what is
the factor of HCF of f(x) and g (x)?
(a) 𝑥 – 1 (b) 𝑥 – 2
(c) 2𝑥 – 1 (d) 2𝑥 + 1
13. What is the sum of the digits of the least number which, when divided by 52, leaves 33 as
remainder, when divided by 78 leaves 59 and when divided by 117, leaves 98 as remainder?
(a) 17 (b) 18
(c) 19 (d) 21
14. What is the HCF of 4𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2 y – 9x𝑦 2 + 2𝑦 3 and 𝑥 2 + xy – 2𝑦 2 ?
(a) 𝑥 – 2𝑦 (b) 𝑥 – 𝑦
(c) (𝑥 + 2𝑦)(𝑥 – 𝑦) (d) (𝑥 – 2𝑦) (𝑥 – 𝑦)
15. A number when divided by 2, 3 or 5 given remainder 1. The number is
(a) 31 (b) 47
(c) 43 (d) 53
16. The HCF of two polynomials 𝑝(𝑥) and 𝑞(𝑥) is 2𝑥 (𝑥 + 2) and LCM is 24x (𝑥 + 2)2 (𝑥 – 2). If p(x) =
8𝑥 3 + 32𝑥 2 + 32𝑥, then what is q(x) equal to?
(a) 4𝑥 3 – 16𝑥 (b) 6𝑥 3 – 24𝑥
(c) 12𝑥 3 + 24𝑥 (d) 12𝑥 3 – 24𝑥
17. What is the least number of square tiles required to pave the floor of a room 9 m 99 m cm long and
4 m 7 cm broad?
(a) 247 (b) 277
(c) 297 (d) 307
18. What is the HCF of 3.0, 1.2 and 0.06?
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.06
(c) 6.0 (d) 6.06
19. If the HCF of three numbers 144, x and 192 is 12, then the number x cannot be
(a) 180 (b) 84
(c) 60 (d) 48
4 2 4 2
20. What is the HCF of (𝑥 – 𝑥 – 6) and (𝑥 – 4𝑥 + 3)?

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(a) 𝑥 2 – 3 (b) 𝑥 + 2
(c) 𝑥 + 3 (d) 𝑥 2 + 3
21. What is the LCM of 𝑎3 b – a𝑏 3 , 𝑎3 𝑏 2 + 𝑎2 𝑏 3 and ab (a + b)?
(a) 𝑎2 𝑏 2 (𝑎2 – 𝑏 2 ) (b) ab (𝑎2 – 𝑏 2 )
(c) 𝑎2 𝑏 2 + a𝑏 3 (d) 𝑎3 𝑏 3 (𝑎2 – 𝑏 2 )
22. What is the HCF of the polynomials 𝑥 4 – 3x + 2, 𝑥 3 – 3𝑥 2 + 3x – 1 and 𝑥 4 – 1?
(a) 𝑥 – 1 (b) 𝑥 + 1
(c) 𝑥 2 – 1 (d) None of these
23. The least number which, when divided by 5, 6, 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3 is
(a) 423 (b) 843
(c) 1683 (d) 2523
2 3 14
24. What is the LCM of 7 , 9 and 15 ?
7 14
(a) 3 (b) 3
2
(c) 3 (d) 1

25. The product of two numbers is 6912 and their GCD is 24. What is their LCM?
(a) 280 (b) 286
(c) 288 (d) 296
26. The sum of two numbers is 232 and their HCF is 29. What is the number of such pairs of numbers
satisfying the above condition?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Four (d) None of these
27. What is the HCF of 36(3𝑥 + 5𝑥 – 2𝑥 ), 9(6𝑥 + 4𝑥 2 – 2x) and 54(27𝑥 4 – x)?
4 3 2 3

(a) 9𝑥 (𝑥 + 1) (b) 9𝑥 (3𝑥 – 1)


(c) 18𝑥 (3𝑥 – 1) (d) 18𝑥 (𝑥 + 1)
28. The HCF and LCM of two natural numbers are 12 and 72 respectively. What is the difference
between the two numbers, if one of the numbers is 24?
(a) 12 (b) 18
(c) 21 (d) 24
2 2
29. If (x – 6) is the HCF of 𝑥 – 2x – 24 and 𝑥 – kx – 6, then what is the value of k?
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 9
30. What is the greatest number that divides 13850 and 17030 and leaves a remainder 17?
(a) 477 (b) 159
(c) 107 (d) 87
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)

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5. DECIMAL FRACTIONS

5.1 CONVERSION OF A DECIMAL INTO VULGAR FRACTION


To convert a decimal into vulgar fraction, put 1 in denominator under the decimal point with it as many
zeros as is the number of digits after the decimal point.
Now, remove the decimal point and reduce the fraction to its lowest terms.
755 151
For e.g. 7.55 = 100 = 20
Note:
1. Adding any number of zeros to the right to any decimal value does not affect it.
Example: 0.7 or 0.70 or 0.700
2. If the numerator and denominator contain the same number of division places, then even after
removing the decimal does not affect the value.
0.66 66
Example: 0.92 can be written as 92
5.2 OPERATIONS ON DECIMAL FRACTIONS
Addition and Subtraction of Decimal Fractions
Write the corresponding decimal places one under another.
Example:
3.00 + 12.66 = 15.66
8.54 – 1.32 = 7.22
Multiplication of decimal fractions
Firstly, multiply the fractions as integers. Now, a number of decimal places in a product are equal to a
sum of numbers of decimal places in all factors.
Example:
3.00 x 0.33 = 99.00
Division of decimal fractions
Division of decimal fraction by integer:
Divide the given number as it is without concerning about the decimal point, by the given integer.
Now, in the quotient obtained, put the decimal point to as many places of decimal as there are in the
dividend.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 =?
Solution:
29.94 299.4
=
1.45 14.5
2994 1 172
= ( 14.5 × 10) = = 17.2
10
Division of decimal fraction by another one:
Multiply both the dividend and the divisor by a suitable power of 10 to make divisor. i.e. denominator a
whole number. Now, proceed as above.
0.00926 0.926
For Example, can be written as {0.00926 × 100/0.02 × 100} or 0.463.
0.02 2
5.3 COMPARISON OF FRACTIONS
The way used for comparing functions is by converting it into decimal form and then compare them and
arrange them as required either ascending or descending order.

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For Example:
4 2 8
We have to arrange the fractions 8 , 7 and 10 in descending order.
They can be written as 0. 5, 0.2, 0.8
8 4 2
And now they can be easily arranged i.e. 0.8 > 0.5 > 0.2 or 10 > 8 > 7 .
5.4 TYPES OF DECIMALS
Repeating or Recurring Decimals
A repeating decimal goes on repeating the same digits over and over.
Ex: 0.66666. . . . , 0.10471047. ..
In order to simplify these numbers, we have the following two options.
1) Put a bar over the repeating digits.
2) Or round off the decimal.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
̅̅̅̅ + 4.12
1. What is the value of 1.34 ̅̅̅̅?
Solution:
134−1 133
1.34 = =
99 99
412−41 371
And = 4. 12 = =
90 90
= 1. 34 + 4. 12
133 371 1330+4081
= + =
90 90 990
5411 461
= = 5 990
990
Terminating Decimal
A decimal, which stops at one point is termed as terminating decimal.
2 9
Ex: 8 = 0.25 or 18 = 0.5
Irrational Decimal
A decimal, which can neither be termed as repeating nor terminating are known as irrational decimal.
Ex: 𝑝𝑖 and √2 or any other non-perfect square roots.
For its simplification:
Round it off till wherever you want.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
(0.82)3 −(0.1)3
1. Find the value of (0.82)2 +0.082+(0.1)2
Solution:
(0.82)3 −(0.1)3
Given expression = (0.82)2 +(0.82×0.1)+(0.1)2
𝑎3 −𝑏 3
= (𝑎2 +𝑎𝑏+𝑏2 )
= (a – b)
= (0.82 -0.1)
= 0.72

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS


1. Consider the following decimal numbers
I. 1.16666666. ..
II. 1.181181118 … ..
III. 2.1010010001. ..
IV.1.454545. ..
Which of the above numbers represent(s) rational number(s)?
(a) Only IV (b) II and III
(c) I and IV (d) None of these
Solution: (c)
Since, 1.16666... And 1.454545... are recurring numbers and we know that recurring numbers
represent rational numbers. So, that I and IV are rational numbers.
𝑝 𝑞
2. If 2.5252525. . . = 𝑞 (in the lowest form), then what is the value of ?
𝑝
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.42525
(c) 0.0396 (d) 0.396
Solution: (d)
𝑃
= 2. ̅52
̅̅̅
𝑞
𝑝 252−2
⇒𝑞= 99
𝑝 250
⇒𝑞= 99
𝑞 99
= 250 = 0.396
𝑝
3. Which one of the following is correct?
3.292929... is
(a) An integer (b) A rational number
(c) An irrational number (d) Not a real number
Solution: (b)
3.292929... = 3.29 is a non-terminating repeating decimal. Then, it is a rational number.
4. Consider the following statements:
1
I. 22 cannot be written as a terminating decimal.
2
II. 15 can be written as a terminating decimal.
1
III. can be written as a terminating decimal.
16
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) Only I and III (d) II and III
Solution: (c)
1
= 0.04545……
22
2
= 0.1333 ….
15
1
= 0.0625 … ..…..
16
1
Can be written as terminating decimal.
16
5. If 1 is subtracted from the numerator of a fraction, it becomes (1/3) and if 5 is added to the
denominator, the fraction becomes (1/4). Which fraction shall result, if 1 is subtracted from the
numerator and 5 is added to the denominator?
5 7
(a) 12 (b) 23
1 2
(c) (d)
8 3

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Solution: (c)
Let the numerator and denominator of a fraction are x and y, respectively, According to
question,
𝑥−1 1
= 3 ⇒ 3𝑥 − 3 = 𝑦
𝑦
3 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 3 … … . (𝑖)
𝑥 1
= 4 ⇒ 4 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 5 … … … (𝑖𝑖)
𝑦+5
On solving eqn. (i) and (ii), we get 𝑥 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 3
𝑥−1 2−1 1
Required fraction=𝑦+5 = 3+5 = 8
6. Which one of the following is correct?
−7 −2 −5 −5 −2 −7
(a) 10 < < (b) < <
3 8 8 3 10
−5 −7 −2 −7 −5 −2
(c) 8 < 10 < (d) < <
3 10 8 3
Solution: (a)
−7 −2 −5
By option (a), < <
10 3 8
Here LCM of (3, 8, 10) = 120
−7 −2 −5
× 120 < × 120 < × 120
100 3 8
-84<-80<-75
So this is correct.
7. Which one is the largest among the following?
(a) 0.725 (b) 0.725̅
̅̅̅̅
(c) 0.725 ̅̅̅̅̅
(d) 0.725
Solution: (d)
(a) 0.725
(b) 0.725 = 0.7255...
(c) 0.725 = 0.7252525...
(d) 0.725 = 0.725725725...
̅̅̅̅̅
Largest number is 0.725
8. The least among the following is:
(a) (0.2)2 (b) 1÷ 0.2
(c) 0. 2̅ (d) 0.2
Solution: (a)
1 10
1 ÷ 0.2 = 0.2 = = 5;
2
0. 2̅ = 0.2222 … . ;
(0.2)2 = 0.04.
0.04 < 0.2 < 0.22 … < 5
Since 0.04 is the least, so (0.2)2 is the least.
9. How many digits will be there to the right of the decimal point in the product of 85.65 and
0.04534?
(a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) None of these
Solution: (a)
Sum of decimal places = 7.

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Since the last digit to the extreme right will be zero, so there will be 6 significant digits to the
right of the decimal point.
3 5
10. Which of the following fractions is greater than 4 and less than? 6 ?
2 4
(a) 3 (b) 5
9 1
(c) 10 (d) 2

Solution: (b)
3 5 1 2 4 9
= 0.75, 6 = 0.833, 2 = 0.5, 3 = 0.66, = 0.8, 10 = 0.9
4 5
Clearly 0.8 lies between 0.75 and 0.833.
4 3 5
is between 4 and 6.
5
EXERCISE
0.538×0.538−0.462×0.462
1. =?
1−0.924
(a) .076 (b) .05
(c) 1 (d) 1.03
2. √0.0729 + √0.81 = ?
(a) 1.07 (b) 1.10
(c) 0.17 (d) None
5 7 4 4 9
3. Out of the fractions 12 , 13 , 7 , 15 𝑎𝑛𝑑 which is the third highest?
14
5 4
(a) 12 (b) 7
7 9
(c) 13 (d) 14
1 1 1 1
4. + 4 + 4 =? −1 4
4
1 1
(a) 4 (b) 2 2
(c) 4 (d) 2
̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
5. 1+1+ {1+1+1 − 1 + 2} =?
1 (b) 1
(a) 13
2 2
(c) 1 3 (d) 17
3 3 3 3 3
6. 4 + {4 + 4 + (4 + 4)}=?
3 5
(a) 4 (b) 8
15 3
(c) (d) 8
4
51.2 256
7.8×0.4 = ?
(a) 116 (b) 18
(c) 15 (d) None
8. 5.9 × 5.9 + 1.3 × 1.3 =? + 2.5 × 12.0
(a) 6.5 (b) 7.5
(c) 5.5 (d) 7.8
9. 0.009 +0.9 +9.09+90.09 =?
(a) 100.089 (b) 10.0089
(c) 100.89 (d) 10.089

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5 1 2 1
10. 6 × 5 + 17 × 4 =?
6 3 3 2
17 2
(a) 115 18 (b) 1163
(c) 663 (d) 240
11. Which of the following of fractions has the fractions in descending order?
2 1 4 3 4 3 1 2
(a) 7 , 3 , 7 , 8 (b) 7 , 8 , 3 , 7
2 3 1 4 1 2 3 4
(c) 7 , 8 , 3 , 7 (d) 3 , 7 , 8 , 7
̅̅̅̅ in the fractional form is
12. The correct expression of 5.46
546 540
(a) (b) 100
99
540 54640
(c) (d)
99 1000
0.0203×2.92
13. 0.0073×14.5×0.7 =?
(a) 2.40 (b) 3.25
(c) 1.45 (d) 0.8
14. 0.04 × 0.0162 is equal to:
(a) 6.48 × 10−6 (b) 6.48 × 10−5
(c) 6.48 × 10−4 (d) 6.48 × 10−3
122 12.2
15. If0.122 = 𝑥 , then the value of x is:
(a) 1.22 (b) 0.0122
(c)122 (d)12.2
16. 0.04 × √0.000036 = ?
(a) 0.24 (b) 0.024
(c) 0.0002 (d) None
2 1 2
17. 5 3 + 3 3 + 1 3
2 3
(a) 103 (b) 7 5
1 1
(c) 8 3 (d) 92
4+4×18−6−8
18. 123×6−146×5 =?
(a) 2 (b) 6.65
(c) 7.75 (d) 5.50
3 4 5 6 7
19. Out of the fractions 7 , 11 , 9 , 13 and 12 which is the second largest?
4 5
(a) 11 (b) 9
6 3
(c) 13 (d) 7
2 3 1 7
20. 9 − 1 9 of 3 11 ÷ 5 7 of =?
9
(a) 9 (b) 7
(c) 8 5
(d) 4

ANSWER KEY

1.(c) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(a)
11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(d) 17.(a) 18.(c) 19.(b) 20.(c)

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6. AVERAGE
6.1 DEFINITION OF AVERAGE
For finding average, central value of a set of numbers is calculated.
Procedure:
1. Adding up all the numbers.
2. Then divide the obtained number by how many numbers there are.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. What is the average of 6, 8 and 4?
Solution:
Add the numbers: 6 + 8 + 4 = 18
Then divide by how many numbers (i.e. we added 3 numbers) = 18 ÷ 3 = 6
So the average is 6.
6.2 IMPORTANT FORMULAS
𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑂𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑆
Average = 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑂𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠 = 𝑁

Formula Table
𝑆𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑂𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑆
Average = =
𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑂𝑏𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑁

PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. A batsman scores 80 runs in his sixth innings and thus increases his average by 5. What is his average
after six innings?
(a) 50 (b) 55
(c) 60 (d) 65
Solution (b)
Let the average of 5 innings = 𝑥
Some in sixth inning = 80
∴Total of 5 innings = 5x
According to the question,
5𝑥+80
=𝑥+5
6
⇒5𝑥 + 80 = 6𝑥 + 30
⇒ 𝑥 = 80 – 30 = 50
∴His average after six innings = 50 + 5 = 55
2. An Aeroplane flies along the four sides of a square at a speed of 100, 200, 300 and 400 km/h,
respectively. What is the average speed of the plane in its flight around the square?
(a) 196 km/h (b) 200 km/h
(c) 250 km/h (d) None of these

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Solution (d)
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
Average speed =
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒
𝑥+𝑥+𝑥+𝑥
= 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥
+ + +
100 200 300 400
4𝑥
= 12𝑥+6𝑥+4𝑥+3𝑥
1200
4𝑥×1200
=
25𝑥
= 192 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
3. How much tea at Rs. 9 per kg must be mixed with 100 kg of superior tea at Rs. 13.50 per kg to give an
average price of Rs. 11 per kg?
(a) 85 kg (b) 120 kg
(c) 125 kg (d) 130 kg
Solution (c)
Let 𝑥kg of tea of Rs. 9 per kg.
9×𝑥+13.5×100
= 11
𝑥+100
⇒9𝑥 + 1350 = 11𝑥 + 1100
⇒2𝑥 = 250 𝑥
∴𝑥 = 125 𝑘𝑔
4. The population of a state increased from 100 million to 169 million in two decades. What is the
average increase in population per decade?
(a) 20% (b) 34.5%
(c) 69% (d) 30%
Solution (b)
The difference of population in two decades = 169 – 100 = 69 million
69%
∴Increase in population in first decade = = 34.5%
2
5. A person invested part of Rs. 45000 at 4% and the rest at 6%. If his annual income from both are
equal, then what is the average rate of interest?
(a) 4.6% (b) 4.8%
(c) 5.0% (d) 5.2%
Solution (b)
Let a person invest 4% of x.
According to question,
𝑥×4 (45000−𝑥)
∴ = ×6
100 100
⇒2𝑥 = 45000 × 3 − 3𝑥
45000×3
⇒𝑥 = 5
= 27000

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Another part is Rs. 18000.


Let r = Average rate of interest
27000×4
Interest for 1st part in one year = = 𝑅𝑠. 1080
100
Similarly, interest for rest part in one year = 1080
∵ Total interest = 𝑅𝑠. 2160
45000×𝑟
∴ = 2160
100
216
⇒r= = 4.8%
45

EXERCISE
1. Nine numbers are written in ascending order. The middle number is the average of the nine numbers.
The average of the first five larger numbers is 68 and that of five smaller numbers is 44. What is the sum
of all nine numbers?
(a) 450 (b) 501
(c) 594 (d) 540
2. In an examination, 40% of the candidates wrote their answers in Hindi and the others in English. The
average marks of the candidates written in Hindi is 74 and the average marks of the candidates written
in English is 77. What is the average mark of all the candidates?
(a) 75.5 (b) 75.8
(c) 76.0 (d) 76.8
3. The mean weight of 150 students in a certain class is 60 kg. The mean weight of the boys from the
class is 70 kg, while that of girls is 55 kg. What is the number of girls in the class?
(a) 105 (b) 100
(c) 95 (d) 60
4. Out of 250 observations, the first 100 observations have mean 5 and the average of the remaining
150 observations is 25/3. What is the average of the whole group of observations?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
5. The mean weight of 150 students in a class is 60 kg. The mean weight of boys is 70 kg and that of girls
is 55 kg, what is the number of boys in the class?
(a) 50 (b) 60
(c) 75 (d) 1

ANSWER KEY
1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(a)

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7. PERCENTAGE
7.1 DEFINITION OF PERCENTAGE
Using the term percent symbolize ‘per 100’ i.e. 1% means 1 per 100 or 50% means 50 per 100.
5
Also, 5% means 100𝑡ℎ𝑠
A Percent can also be expressed as a Decimal or a Fraction.
Half can be written as:
• Decimal= 0.5
1
• Fraction= 2
• Percentage= 50%
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Calculate 25% of 80
Solution:
25
25% = 100 = 0.25
25% of 80= 0.25×80
So 25% of 80 is 20
2. Express each of the following as a fraction:
(i) 56%
(ii) 4%
(iii) 0.6%
(iv) 0.008%
Solution:
56 14
(i) 56% = 100 = 25
4 1
(ii) 4% = 100 = 25
6 3
(iii) 0.6% = 1000 = 500
8 1
(iv) 0.008% = 100000 = 12500
7.2 DIFFERENCE BETWEEN PERCENTAGE AND PERCENT
"Percentage" is the "result obtained by multiplying a quantity by a percent". So 10 percent of 50 apples
is 5 apples: the 5 apples is the percentage.
Results on Population: Let the population of the town be P now and suppose it increases at the rate of
R% per annum, then:
𝑅 𝑛
• Population after n years = 𝑃 (1 + 100)
𝑃
• Population n years ago = 𝑅 𝑛
(1+ )
100
Results on Depreciation: Let the present value of a machine be P. Suppose it depreciates at the rate R%
per annum. Then,
• Value of the machine after n years
𝑅 𝑛
= 𝑃 (1 − )
100
• Value of the machine n years ago
𝑃
=
𝑅 𝑛
(1 − 100)

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Formula Table
𝑥
➢ Percent Formula: 𝑥% = 100
𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒
➢ Percentage Formula = =
100 𝑏𝑎𝑠𝑒
𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
➢ Percentage = × 100
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒

PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. An employee is required to contribute 10% of his payment to General Provident Fund. If he gets Rs.
13500 as net pay in a month, then what is the monthly General Provident Fund contribution (assuming
no other deductions)?
(a) Rs. 1215 (b) Rs. 1350
(c) Rs. 1500 (d) Rs. 1650
Solution: (c)
Let the net pay of employee = 𝑥
90 9𝑥
After contributing 10% = 𝑥 × 100 = 10
9𝑥
According to question 10 = 13500
13500×10
∵𝑥= = 15000
9
∵ General provident fund = 10% of basic pay
10×15000
= = 1500.
100
2. What is the number whose 20% is 30% of 40?
(a) 90 (b) 80
(c) 60 (d) 50
Solution: (c) Let the number be 𝑥
According to question 20% of 𝑥 = 30% of 40
𝑥×20 40×30
⇒ 100 = 100
40×30
⇒ 𝑥= = 60
20
3. The income of 'A' is 20% higher than that of 'B'. The income of 'B' is 25% less than of 'C'. What
percent less is A's income from C's income?
(a) 7% (b) 8%
(c) 10% (d) 12.5%
Solution: (c)

Now, A : B : C
18 : 15 : 20
2
A income less = 20 × 100 = 10%

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4. To pass an examination, a candidate needs 40% marks. All questions carry equal marks. A candidate
just passed by, getting 10 answers correct by attempting 15 of the total questions. How many questions
are there in the examination?
(a) 25 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 45
Solution: (a) Let the number of questions in examination = 𝑥
By given condition, 40% of 𝑥 = 10
𝑥×40
⇒ 100 = 10
1000
∴ = = 25
40
2
5. Water contains 14 7 % of hydrogen and the rest is oxygen. In 350 g of water, oxygen will be
(a) 300g (b) 250g
(c) 200g (d) None of these
Solution: (a)

Ratio of Hydrogen and oxygen = 1: 6


6
Now, oxygen in 350g of water = 7 × 350 = 300𝑔
6. 38L of milk was poured into a tub and the tub was found to be 5% empty. To completely fill the tub,
what amount of additional milk must be poured?
(a) 1 I (b) 2 I
(c) 3 I (d) 4 I
Solution: (b) Let tube capacity 𝑥 L.

Now,
95
𝑥 × 100 = 38
𝑥 = 40𝐿
Additional milk = 40L – 38L = 2L.

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7. If the height of a cone is increased by 50%, then what is the percentage increase in the volume of the
cone?
100
(a) % (b) 40%
3
200
(c) 50% (d) %
3
Solution: (c)
1
Volume of cone = 3 𝜋𝑟 2 ℎ
Here radius is constant, then volume is directly proportional to height. Now height increase 50%. So
percentage increase in volume is 50%.
8. If salary of X is 20% more than salary of Y, then by how much percentage is salary of Y less than X?
(a) 25 (b) 20
50 65
(c) (d)
3 4
Solution: (c)

20 50
Less Percentage = 120 × 100 = 3
9. A person spends 30% of monthly salary on rent, 25% on food, 20% on children's education and 12%
on electricity and the balance of ` 1040 on the remaining items. What is the monthly salary of the
person?
(a) 8000 (b) 9000
(c) 9600 (d) 10600
Solution :(a)
Let the monthly salary of person = 𝑥
Total spends = (30% + 25% + 20% + 12%)
= 87%.
Now,
13
𝑥 × 100 = 1040
1040×100
∴ 𝑥= = 8000
13
EXERCISE
1. If 50% of (𝑥 – 𝑦) = 40% 𝑜𝑓 (𝑥 + 𝑦), then what percent of 𝑥 is 𝑦?
1 1
(a) 10 9 % (b) 11 9 %
1 1
(c) 13 9 % (d) 21 9 %
2. The number of workers in the employment guarantee scheme increased by 15 which resulted into an
increase of 20%. What was the initial number of workers?
(a) 60 (b) 75
(c) 80 (d) 90

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3. 10% of the inhabitants of a certain city left that city. Later on 10% of the remaining inhabitants of that
city again left the city. What is the remaining percentage of population of that city?
(a) 80% (b) 80.4%
(c) 80.6% (d) 81%
4. If the radius of the base and the height of a right circular cone are increased by 20%, then what is the
approximate percentage increase in volume?
(a) 60% (b) 68%
(c) 73% (d) 75%
5. There are some coins and rings of either gold or silver in a box. 60% of the objects are coins, 40% of
the rings are of gold and 30% of the coins are of silver. What is the percentage of gold articles?
(a) 16% (b) 27%
(c) 58% (d) 70%
6. The population of a village increases by 20% in one year and decrease by 20% by the next year. If at
the beginning of the third year, the population is 5184, what was the population in the first year?
(a) 5400 (b) 5500
(c) 5600 (d) 5800
7. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 10% and the area is unchanged, then by how much per cent
does the breadth decrease?
100 100
(a) % (b) %
11 9
(c) 9% (d) 10%

ANSWER KEY

1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(a)

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8. RATIO AND PROPORTION


8.1 RATIO AND ITS PROPERTIES
𝑎
The ratio of two quantities a and b in the same units, is the fraction 𝑏 and we can also write it as 𝑎: 𝑏. In
the ratio 𝑎: 𝑏, a is the first term or antecedent and b, is the second term or consequent.
Solved Example:
Q Represent 5 and 9 in ratio where 5 is antecedent and 9 is consequent.
5
The ratio 5: 9 represents 9 with antecedent = 5, consequent = 9.
NOTE:
The multiplication or division of each term of a ratio by the same non-zero number does not affect the
ratio.
For Example:
4: 5 = 8: 10
And 4: 6 = 2: 3.
8.2 PROPORTION AND ITS PROPERTIES
The equality of two ratios is called proportion.
If 𝑎: 𝑏 = 𝑐: 𝑑, we write, 𝑎: 𝑏: : 𝑐 ∶ 𝑑 and we say that a, b, c, d are in proportion . Here a and d are called
extremes, while b and c are called mean terms.
Product of means = Product of extremes.
Thus, 𝑎: 𝑏: : 𝑐 ∶ 𝑑 <=> (𝑏 × 𝑐) = (𝑎 × 𝑑).
• Fourth Proportional: If 𝑎 ∶ 𝑏 = 𝑐: 𝑑, then d is called the fourth proportional to a, b, c.
• Third Proportional: If 𝑎: 𝑏 = 𝑏: 𝑐, then c is called the third proportional to a and b.
• Mean Proportional: Mean proportional between a and b is the square root of ab.
COMPARISON OF RATIOS
We say that (𝑎: 𝑏) > (𝑐: 𝑑) <=> (𝑎/𝑏) > (𝑐/𝑑).
COMPOUNDED RATIO
The compounded ratio of the ratios (𝑎: 𝑏), (𝑐: 𝑑), (𝑒: 𝑓) 𝑖𝑠 (𝑎𝑐𝑒: 𝑏𝑑𝑓)
• Duplicate ratio of (𝑎 ∶ 𝑏) is (𝑎2 ∶ 𝑏 2 ).
• Sub-duplicate ratio of (𝑎 ∶ 𝑏) is (√𝑎 ∶ √𝑏).
• Triplicate ratio of (𝑎 ∶ 𝑏) is (𝑎3 : 𝑏 3 ).
1 1
• Sub-triplicate ratio of (𝑎 ∶ 𝑏) is (𝑎3 : 𝑏 3 ).
𝑎 𝑐 𝑎+𝑏 𝑐+𝑑
• If( ) = ( ),then( ) = ( ) (Componendo and Dividendo)
𝑏 𝑑 𝑎−𝑏 𝑐−𝑑
VARIATION
(i) We say that x is directly proportional to 𝑦, if 𝑥 = 𝑘𝑦 for some constant 𝑘 and
We write, 𝑥 µ 𝑦.
(ii) We say that x is inversely proportional to y, if 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑘 for some constant k and we
write,
1
𝑥∞ ( )
𝑦

Formula Table
➢ Ratio = 𝑎: 𝑏 ∷ 𝑏: 𝑎
𝑎
➢ Ratio by Fraction = 𝑏 𝑜𝑟 𝑎: 𝑏
➢ Product of means = Product of extremes.
Variation = 𝑥 µ 𝑦

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. 𝑥 varies inversely as the square of 𝑦 in such a way that, if 𝑥 = 1, then 𝑦 = 6. If 𝑦 = 3, then what is the
value of𝑥?
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2
(c) 2 (d) 4
Solution: (d)
1 𝑘
∵𝑥 ∝ ⇒𝑥= …… (i)
𝑦2 𝑦2
𝑥 = 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 6
From Eq. (i),
𝑘
∴ 1 = 62 ⇒ 𝑘 = 36
On putting the value of 𝑘 in Eq. (i), we get
36
𝑥 = 𝑦 2 ………. (ii)
On putting 𝑦 = 3 in Eq. (ii), we get
36
𝑥= =4
9
2. 6 years hence a father’s age will be three times his son’s age and three years ago father was nine
times as old as his son. What is the present age of father?
(a) 48 years (b) 42 years
(c) 36 years (d) 30 years
Solution: (d)
Let the age of son and father is 𝑥 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 years respectively 6 years hence.
∴ Present age of father = (3𝑥 – 6) years
Present age of son = (𝑥 – 6) years
3 years ago, age of father =3𝑥– 6– 3
= (3𝑥 – 9) years
Age of son = 𝑥 – 6 – 3 = (𝑥 – 9) years
According to given condition, 3𝑥 – 9 = 9(𝑥 – 9)
⇒ 3𝑥 – 9 = 9𝑥 – 81
⇒ 81 – 9 = 9𝑥 – 3𝑥
⇒ 6𝑥 = 72
72
∴ 𝑥 = = 12
6
∴Present age of father = (3 × 12) – 6 = 30 years
3. In a mixture of 80𝑙, the ratio of milk and water is 3: 1. If the ratio of milk and water is to be 2: 3 the
how much amount of water is to be further added?
(a) 70 𝑙 (b) 80 𝑙
(c) 100 𝑙 (d) 140 𝑙
Solution: (a)
Volume of mixture of milk and water = 80 𝑙
Ratio of milk and water = 3: 1
3
∴Volume of milk = 3+1 × 80
3
= 4 × 80

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= 60𝑙
Volume of water = 80 – 60 = 20 𝑙
Let amount of water added = 𝑥 𝑙
According to given condition,
60 2
=3
20+𝑥
⇒ 40 + 2𝑥 = 180
⇒ 2𝑥 = 180 − 40
⇒ 2𝑥 = 140
⇒ 𝑥 = 70 𝑙
4. The age of a mother, before two years, was eight times the age of their daughter. After 1 year,
mother’s age will be five times the daughter’s age. After how many years from now the mother’s age
will become three times the daughter’s age?
(a) 6 years (b) 8 years
(c) 10 years (d) 12 years
Solution (b)
Let present age of mother and daughter be 𝑥 and 𝑦.
2 years ago, 𝑥 – 2 = 8(𝑦 – 2)
⇒ 𝑥 – 8𝑦 = – 14 .. . (𝑖)
1 year after, 𝑥 + 1 = 5(𝑦 + 1)
⇒ 𝑥 – 5𝑦 = 4 . . . (𝑖𝑖)
On solving equations. (i) and (ii), we get
𝑦 = 6 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 = 34 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
Let after 𝑧 years, mother will be three times of her daughter.
34 + 𝑧 = 3 (6 + 𝑧)
⇒ 𝑧 = 8 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
5. The monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio 4: 3. Each of them saves Rs. 600. If the ratio of their
expenditure is 3: 2, then what is the monthly income of A?
(a) Rs. 2400 (b) Rs. 1800
(c) Rs. 2000 (d) Rs. 3600
Solution: (a)
Let monthly incomes of A’s and B’s are 4𝑥 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥.
And monthly expenditures of A’s and B’s are 3𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑦.
Each saving = Rs.600
∴ Income – Expenditure = Saving
∴ 4𝑥 – 3𝑦 = 600 . . . (𝑖)
3𝑥 – 2𝑦 = 600 . . . (𝑖𝑖)
On solving equations. (i) and (ii), we get
𝑥 = 600
∴ A’s income = 4x = 4 × 600 = Rs.2400
6. A bag contains 50 paisa, Re.1 and Rs.2 coins in the ratio 2: 3: 4. If the total amount is Rs.240, what is
the total number of coins?
(a) 90 (b) 150
(c) 180 (d) 200

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Solution: (c)
Let the number of coins of 50 paise, Re.1 and Rs.2 coins are 2𝑥, 3𝑥 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 respectively.
Value of 50 paise coins = 𝑥
Value of Re. 1 coins = 3 𝑥
Value of Rs. 2 coins = 8 𝑥
According to the question,
𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 8𝑥 = 240
240
⇒𝑥 = = 20
12
Hence, total number of coins = 2𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 4𝑥
= 9 𝑥 = 9 × 20 = 180
1 1
7. If 78 is divided into three parts which are proportional to 1,2 , 6 then what is the middle part?
28
(a) (b) 13
3
52 117
(c) (d)
3 5
1 1
Solution: (d) Ratio of three parts =1: 2 : 6 = 6: 3: 1
3
∴Middle Part = 6+3+1 × 78
3×78 3×39
=
10 5
117
= 5
8. 𝑥 varies directly as 𝑦 and inversely as square of 𝑧. When 𝑦= 4 and 𝑧= 14, 𝑥= 10. If 𝑦= 16 and 𝑧= 7, then
what is value of𝑥?
(a) 180 (b) 160
(c) 154 (d) 140
Solution (b)
1
Given 𝑥 ∝ 𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 ∝ 𝑧 2
𝑦 𝑘𝑦
𝑁𝑜𝑤, 𝑥 ∝ 𝑧 2 𝑥 =
𝑧2
∵𝑥 = 10 𝑎𝑡 𝑦 = 4 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑧 = 14
𝑘∙4 1960
∴10 = ⇒ 𝑘= = 490
196 4
Now, at 𝑧 = 7 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 16
490 × 16
𝑥= = 160
7×7
9. What is the number which has to be added to each term of the ratio 49:68, so that it becomes 3: 4?
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) 9
Solution: (c)
Let x number be added to 49: 68, then it becomes 3:4.
49+𝑥 3
∴ =4
68+𝑥
⇒196 + 4𝑥 = 204 + 3𝑥
∴ 𝑥 = 8
10. What number must be added to each of 4, 10, 12 and 24, so that the resulting numbers are in
proportion?

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(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 4
Solution: (d)
Suppose x number is added to each term, they become in proportion i.e., (4 + 𝑥), (10 + 𝑥), (12 +
𝑥) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (24 + 𝑥) are in proportion.
∴ (4 + x): (10 + x) :: (12 + x): (24 + x)
4+𝑥 12+𝑥
= 24+𝑥
10+𝑥
⇒ (4 + 𝑥)(24 + 𝑥) = (10 + 𝑥)(12 + 𝑥)
⇒ 96 + 28𝑥 + 𝑥 2 = 120 + 22𝑥 + 𝑥 2
⇒ 28𝑥 – 22𝑥 = 120 – 96
⇒6𝑥 = 24
∴ 𝑥 = 4
EXERCISE
1. 10 years ago, Ram was 5 times as old as Shyam (c) 56
but 20 years later from now he will be only twice (d) 48
as old as Shyam. How many years old is Shyam? 1 1 1
5. If 𝑎: 𝑏 = 1 2 : 2 4 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏: 𝑐 = 2: 3 2, then what is
(a) 20 years
𝑎: 𝑏: 𝑐 equal to?
(b) 30 years
(a) 12: 8: 21
(c) 40 years
(b) 8: 21: 12
(d) 50 years
(c) 8: 12: 21
2. The sum of the age of a father and the age of a (d) 21: 8: 12
son is 75 years. If the product of their ages before
6. If the ratio of 𝑥 to 𝑦 is 25 times the ratio of 𝑦to
5 years was 750, then what is the present age of
𝑥, then what is the ratio of 𝑥to 𝑦?
the father?
(a) 1: 5
(a) 60 years
(b) 5: 1
(b) 55 years
(c) 25: 1
(c) 52 years
(d) 1: 25
(d) 50 years
7. If 𝑥: 𝑦= 1: 3, 𝑦: 𝑧 = 5: 𝑘, z: 𝑡 = 2: 5 and 𝑡: 𝑥= 3: 4,
3. Let 𝑦 is equal to the sum of two quantities of
then what is the value of 𝑘?
which one varies directly as 𝑥 and the other 1
inversely as 𝑥. If 𝑦 = 6 when 𝑥 = 4 and 𝑦 = 10/3, (a) 2
1
when 𝑥 = 3, then what is the relation between 𝑥 (b) 3
and 𝑦? (c) 2
(a) 𝑦= 𝑥+ (4/𝑥) (d) 3
(b) 𝑦= – 2𝑥 + (4/𝑥) 8. A person 𝑃 started a business with a capital of
(c) 𝑦= 2𝑥 + (8/𝑥) Rs. 2525 and another person 𝑄 joined 𝑃 after
(d) 𝑦= 2𝑥 – (8/𝑥) some months with a capital of Rs.1200. Out of the
4. A bag contains Rs.114 in the form of Re.1, 50 total annual profit of Rs.1644, 𝑃 ’s share was
paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio 3: 4: 10. What Rs.1212. When did 𝑄 join as partners?
is the number of 50 paisa coins? (a) After 2 months
(a) 76 (b) After 3 months
(b) 72 (c) After 4 months

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(d) After 5 months 14. If (𝑎 – 𝑏): (𝑎 + 𝑏) = 1: 5 , then what is


9. If a quantity 𝑦 varies as the sum of three (𝑎2 – 𝑏 2 ): (𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 ) equal to?
quantities of which the first varies as 𝑥 , the (a) 2: 3
second varies as−𝑥 + 𝑥 2 , the third varies as𝑥 3 − (b) 3: 2
𝑥 2 , then what is y equal to? (c) 5: 13
(a) 𝑘𝑥 3 , where 𝑘 is a constant (d) 13: 15
(b) 𝑘𝑥 + 𝑙𝑥 2 + 𝑚𝑥 3 , where 𝑘, 𝑙, 𝑚 are 15. Three numbers are in the ratio 3: 2: 5 and the
constants sum of their squares is 1862. What are the three
(c) 𝑘𝑥 2 , where 𝑘 is a constant numbers?
(d) 𝑘𝑥, where 𝑘 is a constant (a) 18, 12, 30
10. The wages of labourers in a factory has (b) 24, 16, 40
increased in the ratio 22: 25 and their number (c) 15, 10, 25
decreased in the ratio 3: 2. What was the original (d) 21, 14, 35
wages bill of the factory, if the present bill is Rs. 16. In a class, the number of boys is more than the
5000? number of girls by 12% of the total students. What
(a) Rs. 4000 is the ratio of the number of boys to that of girls?
(b) Rs. 6000 (a) 11: 14
(c) Rs. 8000 (b) 14: 11
(d) None of these (c) 28: 25
11. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio (d) 25: 28
5: 1. On adding 5𝑙 of water, the ratio of milk and 17. The ratio of 𝐴 to 𝐵 is 𝑥: 8 and the ratio of 𝐵 to
water becomes 5: 2. What is the quantity of milk 𝐶 is 12 ∶ 𝑧. If the ratio of 𝐴 to 𝐶 is 2: 1, then what
in the original mixture? is the ratio of 𝑥: 𝑧?
(a) 5 𝑙 (a) 2: 3
(b) 25 𝑙 (b) 3: 2
(c) 27.5 𝑙 (c) 4: 3
(d) 32.5 𝑙 (d) 3: 4
12. The ratio between the ages of A and B is 2: 5. 18. If Rs. 2600 is divided among three persons
1 1 1
After 8 years their ages will be in the ratio 1: 2. 𝐴, 𝐵 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶 in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 , then how much
What is the difference between their present does 𝐴 get?
ages? (a) Rs. 600
(a) 20 years (b) Rs. 800
(b) 22 years (c) Rs. 1000
(c) 24 years (d) Rs. 1200
(d) 25 years
19. A certain amount of money is divided between
13. If 𝑥 varies as the 𝑚𝑡ℎ power of 𝑦, 𝑦 varies as two persons 𝑃 and 𝑄 in the ratio 3: 5. But it was
the 𝑛𝑡ℎ power of 𝑧 and 𝑥 varies as the 𝑝𝑡ℎ power divided in the ratio 2: 3 and thereby 𝑄 loses Rs.
of 𝑧, then which one of the following is correct? 10. What was the amount?
(a) 𝑝 = 𝑚 + 𝑛 (a) Rs. 250
(b) 𝑝 = 𝑚 – 𝑛 (b) Rs. 300
(c) 𝑝 = 𝑚𝑛 (c) Rs. 350
(d) None of these (d) Rs. 400

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20. ‘𝑋’ is twice as old as ‘𝑌’ 3 years ago, when ‘𝑋’ (d) 𝑞: 𝑝𝑡
was as old as ‘𝑌’ today. If the difference between 3 5 3 4
24. If 𝑃: 𝑄 = 5 ∶ 7 and 𝑄: 𝑅 = 2 ∶ 5, then what is
their ages as present is 3 years, how old is ‘𝑋’ at
𝑃: 𝑄: 𝑅 equal to?
present? 3 5 2
(a) 18 years (a) 5 : 7 : 5
9 15 2
(b) 12 years (b) 20 : 28 : 7
(c) 9 years 3 3 2
(c) 5 : 4 : 5
(d) 8 years 3 5 3
(d) 5 : 7 : 4
21. Two vessels are full of milk with milk-water
ratio 1: 3 and 3: 5 respectively. If both are mixed 25. If Rs. 8400 is divided among 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 in the
1 1 1
in the ratio 3: 2, what is the ratio of milk and ratio5 : 6 : 10, what is the share of 𝐴?
water in the new mixture? (a) Rs.2800
(a) 4: 15 (b) Rs.10000
(b) 3: 7 (c) Rs. 3600
(c) 6: 7 (d) Rs. 4000
(d) None of these
26. Two numbers are in the ratio 3: 5. If 9 is
22. A bag contains Rs. 112 in the form of Rs. 1, 50 subtracted from each number, then they are in
paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio 3: 8: 10. What the ratio of 12: 23. What is the second number?
is the number of 50 paisa coins? (a) 44
(a) 112 (b) 55
(b) 108 (c) 66
(c) 96 (d) 77
(d) 84
27. The fourth proportional to 7, 11, 14 is
23. If 𝑝% of Rs. 𝑥 is equal to t times 𝑞% of Rs. y, (a) 16
then what is the ratio of 𝑥 to 𝑦? (b) 18
(a) 𝑝𝑡: 𝑞 (c) 20
(b) 𝑝: 𝑞𝑡 (d) 22
(c) 𝑞𝑡: 𝑝

ANSWER KEY
1.(a) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10.(d)
11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(d) 16.(b) 17.(c) 18.(d) 19.(d) 20.(c)
21.(d) 22.(a) 23.(c) 24.(b) 25.(c) 26.(b) 27.(d)

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9. PROFIT, LOSS AND DISCOUNT


9.1 BASIC TERMS
• Cost Price: The price at which an article is purchased is known as cost price and abbreviated as C.P.
• Selling Price: The price at which an article is sold is known as selling prices and abbreviated as S.P.
• Profit or Gain: If SP is greater than CP, the selling price is said to have profit or gain.
• Loss: If SP is less than CP, the seller is said to incurred a loss.
9.2 IMPORTANT FORMULAS
Gain = Selling Price – Cost Price
Loss = Cost Price – Selling Price
𝐺𝑎𝑖𝑛×100
Gain % = 𝐶𝑃
𝐿𝑜𝑠𝑠×100
Loss % = 𝐶𝑃
(100+𝐺𝑎𝑖𝑛 %)
Selling Price SP = [ × 𝐶𝑃] (in gain)
100
(100−𝐿𝑜𝑠𝑠 %)
=[ × 𝐶𝑃] (in loss)
100
100
Cost Price CP = [(100+𝐺𝑎𝑖𝑛 %) × 𝑆𝑃] (in gain)
100
= [(100−𝐿𝑜𝑠𝑠 %) × 𝑆𝑃] (in loss)

SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. A man buys an article for Rs.27.50 and sells it for Rs.28.50. Find his gain and gain %.
Solution:
CP = Rs.27.50, SP = Rs. 28.50
Gain= Rs. (28.50 –27.50) = Rs.1.00
So gain %={( 1.00/27.50)×100} = 3.63%
2. If the radio is bought for Rs.490 and sold for Rs.465.50. Find loss and loss%.
Solution:
CP=Rs.490, SP= Rs.465.50.
Loss= Rs. (490-465.50) = Rs.24.50.

loss %=[(24.50/490) ×100] %=5%


Formula Table
➢ Gain = (SP)-(CP).
➢ Loss = (CP)-(SP).
➢ Loss or gain is always reckoned on CP
➢ GAIN %={ GAIN×100}/CP
➢ LOSS %={ LOSS×100}/CP

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. A trader marked a watch 40% above the cost (b) Rs.220


price and then gave a discount of 10%. He made a (c) Rs.240
net profit of Rs.468 after paying a tax of 10% on (d) Rs.260
the gross profit. What is the cost price of the Solution: (a)
watch? Let cost of 1 table be Rs.x and cost of 1 chair be
(a) Rs.1200 Rs.y.
(b) Rs.1800 4x + 5y = 1000 ... (i)
(c) Rs.2000 CP Table 4k Chair 5y
1 1
(d) Rs.2340 SP 4x (1 + ) = 5y(1 + ) = 6y
10 5
Solution: (c) 44𝑥

Let the cost price of the watch = Rs.x 10


SP – CP = Profit
After 40% marked price and 10% discount 44𝑥
90 140 126𝑥 ( 10 − 4𝑥) + 6y – 5y = 120
= x × 100 × =
100 100 4𝑥
126𝑥 26𝑥 + 𝑦 = 120... (ii)
Profit = x - = 100 10
100
From equations (i) and (ii),
According to question,
26𝑥 90 𝑥 = 𝑅𝑠. 200
10% pay tax on profit = 100 × 100 = 468
468×100×100
4. In respect of a bill of Rs.10000, what is the
x= = Rs.2000 difference between a discount of 40% and two
26×90
2. By giving 25% discount a trader earns 25% successive discounts of 36% and 4%?
profit. If he sells the item at 10% discount, what is (a) Rs.0
his profit? (b) Rs.144
(a) 10% (c) Rs.256
(b) 40% (d) Rs.400
(c) 45% Solution (b)
(d) 50% Two successive discounts
36×4
Solution (d) = 36 + 4 – = 38.56%
100
Let cost price = Rs x, Difference between discounts = 40% – 38.56% =
Marked price = Rs y and profit % at 10% discount = 1.44%
r% Required difference = 10000 × 1.44%
75𝑦 125𝑥 10000∗1.44
= ⇒3y = 5x ……. (i) = = Rs 144
100 100 100
9𝑦 (100+𝑟)𝑥 (100+𝑟)𝑥
And = ⇒ 15 = 5. A refrigerator and a camera were sold for Rs.
10 100 100
r = 50% 12000 each. The refrigerator was sold at a loss of
Note that discount is always given on marked 20% of the cost and the camera at a gain of 20% of
price and profit is always occurred on cost price. the cost. The entire transaction results in which
3. A man buys 4 tables and 5 chairs for Rs.1000. If one of the following?
he sells the tables at 10% profit and chairs 20% (a) No loss or gain
profit, he earns a profit of Rs.120. What is the cost (b) Loss of Rs.1000
of one table? (c) Gain of Rs. 1000
(a) Rs.200 (d) Loss of Rs. 2000

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Solution: (b) Let the marked price of a cupboard = Rs 𝑥


𝑥𝑦
x + y + 100 According to question,
20∗20 (100−12.5) 100−7.5
= +20 – 20 – = – 4% 𝑋* *( ) = Rs 2590
100 100 100
2590∗100∗100
The total selling price of a refrigerator and a 𝑥= = Rs.3200
87.5∗92.5
camera = 12000 + 12000 = Rs. 24000
7. The marked price of a machine is Rs. 18000. By
Now, loss is 4%
96
selling it at a discount of 20%, the loss is 4%. What
CP × 100 = 24000 is the cost price of the machine?
CP = Rs 25000 (a) Rs. 10000
Loss amount = (25000 – 24000) = Rs 1000 (b) Rs. 12000
1 1
6. Successive discounts of 12 2 % and 7 2 % are (c) Rs. 14000
(d) Rs. 15000
given on the marked price of a cupboard. If the
Solution: (d)
customer pays Rs. 2590, then what is the marked
Given marked price of machine = Rs. 18000
price? 20
(a) Rs.3108 Discount = 100 × 18000 = Rs. 3600
(b) Rs.3148 SP = 18000 – 3600 = Rs. 14400
(c) Rs.3200 If loss of 4%, then
100∗𝑆𝑃 100∗14400
(d) Rs.3600 CP = = = Rs. 15000
100−𝑟 100−4
Solution: (c)
EXERCISE
1. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his good at 4. A trader sells two cycles at Rs. 1188 each and
cost price but uses a false weight and thus gains gains 10% on the first and loses 10% on the
20%. For a kilogram he uses a weight of second. What is the profit or loss per cent on the
(a) 700 g whole?
(b) 750 g (a) 1% loss
(c) 800 g (b) 1% gain
(d) 850 g (c) No loss no gain
2. What the seller marked the printed price of a (d) 2% loss
watch purchased at Rs. 380, so that giving 5% 5. A milk vendor bought 28 l of milk at the cost of
discount, there is 25% profit? Rs. 8.50 per 𝑙. After adding some water, he sold
(a) Rs. 400 the mixture at the same price. If he gains 12.5%,
how much water did he add?
(b) Rs. 450
(a) 5.5 𝑙
(c) Rs. 500
(b) 4.5 𝑙
(d) Rs. 600
(c) 3.5 𝑙
3. A person A sells a table costing Rs. 2000 to a
person B and earns a profit of 6%. The person B (d) 2.5 𝑙
sells it to another person C at a loss of 5%. At what 6. One saree was purchased for Rs.564 after
price did B sell the table? getting a discount of 6% and another saree was
(a) Rs. 2054 purchased for Rs.396 after getting a discount of
1%. Taking both the items as a single transaction,
(b) Rs. 2050
what is the percentage of discount?
(c) Rs. 2024
(a) 3.5
(d) Rs. 2014
(b) 4

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(c) 7 11. A person sold an article for Rs. 136 and got
(d) 7.5 15% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. x, he would have
got a profit of 15%. Which one of the following is
7. A man bought a number of oranges at 3 for a
correct?
rupee and an equal number at 2 for a rupee. At
what price per dozen should he sell them to make (a) 190 < x < 200
a profit of 20%? (b) 180 < x < 190
(a) Rs.4 (c) 170 < x < 180
(b) Rs.5 (d) 160 < x < 170
(c) Rs.6 12. The cost of two articles is in the ratio 3: 5. If
(d) Rs.7 there is 30% loss on the first article and 20% gain
on the second article, what is the overall
8. By selling 8 dozen pencils, a shopkeeper gains
percentage of loss or gain?
the selling price of 1 dozen pencils. What is the
gain? (a) 2.25% gain
(a) 12 2%
1 (b) 5.25% loss
1 (c) 2% loss
(b) 13 7%
(d) None of these
2
(c) 14 7% 13. A person bought 8 quintal of rice for certain
1 rupees. After a week, he sold 3 quintal of rice at
(d) 87 2%
10% profit, 3 quintal of rice with neither profit nor
9. On selling an article for Rs.240, a trader loses loss and 2 quintal at 5% loss. In this transaction,
4%. In order to gain 10%, he must sell the article what is the profit?
for (a) 10%
(a) Rs.275 (b) 20%
(b) Rs.280 (c) 25%
(c) Rs.285 (d) None of these
(d) Rs.300 14. A man buys a television set which lists for Rs.
10. A man sold two watches, each for Rs. 495. If 5000 at 10% discount. He gets an additional 2%
he gained 10% on one watch and suffered a loss of discount (after the first discount) for paying cash.
10% on the other, then what is the loss or gain What does he actually pay for the set?
percentage in the transaction? (a) Rs. 4410
(a) 1% gain (b) Rs. 4400
(b) 1% loss (c) Rs. 4000
100
(c) % Loss (d) Rs. 4500
99
(d) No gain, no loss
ANSWER KEY

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a)

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10. SIMPLE AND COMPOUND INTEREST


INTRODUCTION
The basic terms of the simple and compound interest are Principal and interest.
• Principal: The money borrowed or lent out for a certain period is called the principal or the sum.
• Interest: Extra money paid for using other's money is called interest.
10.1 SIMPLE INTEREST (S.I.)
If the interest on a sum borrowed for a certain period is reckoned uniformly, then it is called simple
interest.
Let Principal = P, Rate = R% per annum (p.a.) and Time = T years. Then,
𝑃×𝑅×𝑇
• Simple Interest = 100
𝑆𝐼×100 𝑆𝐼×100
• 𝑃= ;𝑅 = and
𝑅𝑇 𝑃𝑇
𝑆𝐼×100
• 𝑇= 𝑃𝑅
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Find the simple interest on Rs. 72,000 at 50/3 % per annum for 9 months.
Solution:
P = Rs.72000,
R = 50/3 % per annum and
T = 9/12 years = 3/4years.
𝑃×𝑅×𝑇
𝑆. 𝐼. =
100
50 3 1
= 𝑅𝑠. (72,000 × ( 3 ) × (4) × (100))
= Rs.9000
10.2 COMPOUND INTEREST
After a specified period, the difference between the amount and the money borrowed is called the
Compound Interest (abbreviated as C.I.) for
that period.
Let Principal = P, Rate = R% per annum, Time = n years.
1. When interest is compound annually:
𝑅 𝑛
Amount = 𝑃 (1 + 100)
II. When interest is compounded Half-yearly:
𝑅 2𝑛
2
Amount = 𝑃 (1 + )
100

II. When interest is compounded Quarterly:


𝑅 4𝑛
4
Amount = 𝑃 (1 + )
100

IV. When interest is compounded AnnuaIly but time is in fraction, say 3(2/5) years.
3 2
𝑅 𝑅
5
Amount = 𝑃 (1 + ) × (1 + )
100 100

V. When Rates are different for different years, say 𝑹𝟏 %, 𝑹𝟐 %, 𝑹𝟑 % for 1st, 2nd and 3rd year
respectively.
1 𝑅 2 𝑅 3 𝑅
Amount = 𝑃 (1 + 100 ) (1 + 100 ) (1 + 100 )

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VI. Present worth of Rs. 𝒙 due n years hence is given by:


𝑥
Present Worth = 𝑅
(1+ )
100
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Find compound interest on Rs. 5500 at 4% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually.
Solution:
4 2
Amount = Rs 5500 (1 + (100) )
26 26
= 𝑅𝑠 (5500 × (25) × (25))
= 𝑅𝑠. 5948.8.
Therefore, C.I. = Rs. (5948.8 – 5500) = Rs.448.8

Formula Table
𝑃×𝑅×𝑇
➢ Simple Interest = 100
𝑆𝐼×100
• 𝑃= 𝑅𝑇
𝑆𝐼×100
• 𝑅= 𝑃𝑇
𝑆𝐼×100
• 𝑇 = 𝑃𝑅
➢ When Interest compounded,
𝑅 𝑛
• Annually =>Amount = 𝑃 (1 + 100)
𝑅 2𝑛
• Half-Yearly =>Amount = 𝑃 (1 + 2
)
100
𝑅 4𝑛
• Quarterly =>Amount = 𝑃 (1 + 4
)
100

PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


6
1. A man borrowed Rs. 40000 at 8% simple ∴ 25 (46400 − 𝑥) + 46400 − 𝑥 = 35960
interest per year. At the end of second year, he 6𝑥
paid back certain amount and at the end of fifth ⇒ 11136 − 25 + 46400 − 𝑥 = 35960
31𝑥
year, he paid back Rs. 35960 and cleared the debt. ⇒ 25 = 21576
What is the amount did he pay back after the 21576×25
∴ 𝑥= = Rs. 17400
second year? 31
1
(a) Rs.16200 (b) Rs.17400 2. A sum of Rs. 24000 is borrowed for 1 2 years at
(c) Rs.18600 (d) None of these the rate of interest 10% per annum compound
Solution: (b) semi-annually. What is the compound interest (𝑥)?
Total borrowed money = Rs. 40000 (a) 𝑥<Rs. 3000
Rate of interest = 8% (b) Rs. 3000 <𝑥<Rs. 4000
4000×8×2
The interest for 2 years = = 6400 (c) Rs. 4000 <𝑥<Rs. 5000
100
Let he paid x at the end of second year. Interest (d) 𝑥>Rs. 5000
will be calculated on Rs.(40000 – 𝑥 + 6400). Solution: (b)
(46400−𝑥)×3×8 3
Interest for 3 years = Given, P = Rs.24000, T = 2 years and R% = 10% per
100
6 annum
= Rs. 25 (46400 − 𝑥)
Semi-annual compounding,

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𝑅 2𝑇 total interest in three years is Rs. 390. What is the


𝐶𝐼 = {𝑃 (1 + ) − 𝑃} rate of interest for Rs. 1000?
200
3 (a) 4% (b) 5%
10 2×2 (c) 6% (d) 8%
= {24000 {(1 + ) − 1}}
200 Solution: (a)
Let a man invest Rs.1000 at a rate R%
21 3
={24000{(20) − 1}} According to question,
1000×𝑅×3 1500×(𝑅+2)×3
1261 + = 390
100 100
= 24000 { }
8000 ⇒ 30𝑅 + 45𝑅 + 90 = 390
= 3× 1261 = Rs. 3783 ⇒ 75𝑅 = 300
3. An amount at compound interest doubles itself ⇒ 𝑅 = 4%
in 4 years. In how many years will it become 8 6. If 𝑃 is principal amount and the rate of interest
times of itself? is 𝑅% per annum and the compound interest is
(a) 8 years (b) 12 years calculated 𝑘 times in a year, then what is the
(c) 16 years (d) 24 years amount at the end of 𝑛 years?
Solution: (b) 𝑟 𝑛𝑘
(a) 𝑃 (1 + 100𝑘)
Let sum of money be P and required time be ‘t’
𝑘𝑟 𝑛𝑘
years. (b) 𝑃 (1 + 100)
2𝑃 = 𝑃(1 + 𝑅/100)4 𝑛
1 𝑟 𝑘
2 = 1 + 100
4
𝑅
………………. (i) (c) 𝑃 (1 + 100𝑘)
𝑛
Again, sum of money become 8 times. (d) 𝑃 (1 + 100)
𝑘𝑟 𝑘

𝑅 𝑇
Then, 8P = 𝑃 (1 + 100) Solution: (a)
𝑅 𝑇 Given, principal amount = Rs. P
⇒ 8 = (1 + 100) ………….. (ii) 𝑟
Rate of interest, 𝑟 = 𝑘 %
On putting the value of (1+R/100) in eqn (ii)
1 𝑇 Time, 𝑡 = 𝑛𝑘
8 = (2 ) 4 (From eqn (i)) 𝑟 𝑛𝑘
∴𝐴 = 𝑃 (1 + 100𝑘)
𝑇
⇒ 8 = 24 7. Ram had Rs. 2 lakh, part of which he lent at 15%
𝑇
⇒ 2 =3
24 per annum and rest at 12% per annum. Yearly
On comparing we get ⇒ 3 =
𝑇 interest assured was Rs. 27600. How much did he
4 lend at 15%?
⇒ 𝑇 = 12 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 (a) Rs. 120000 (b) Rs. 100000
4. At what rate per cent annum calculated in
(c) Rs. 80000 (d) Rs. 60000
simple interest will a sum of money double in 10
Solution: (a)
years?
Let first part be Rs. 𝑥, then second part be Rs.
(a) 10% (b) 2%
(200000 – 𝑥)
(c) 12.5% (d) 13.5%
According to question,
Solution: (a)
𝑥 × 1 × 15 (200000 − 𝑥) × 1 × 12
Let principal be x, then amount = 2x + = 27600
100 100
∴ 𝑆𝐼 = 𝐴 – 𝑃 = 2𝑥 – 𝑥 = 𝑥 ⇒ 15𝑥 − 12𝑥 + 2400000 = 2760000
𝑃×𝑅×𝑇
∵𝑆𝐼 = ⇒ 3𝑥 = 2760000 – 2400000
100
𝑥×𝑅×10 ⇒ 3𝑥 = 360000
⇒𝑥 = 100
∴ 𝑥 = 120000
∴ 𝑅 = 10%
Therefore, he lent Rs. 120000 at 15%.
5. A man invested Rs. 1000 on a simple interest at
a certain rate and Rs. 1500 at 2% higher rate. The

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8. Out of a sum of Rs. 640, a part was lent at 6% 11. The compound interest on a sum for 2 years is
simple interest and the other at 9% simple Rs. 832 and the simple interest on the same sum
interest. If the interest on the first part after 3 at the same rate for the same period is Rs. 800.
years equal to the interest on the second part What is the rate of interest?
after 6 years, then what is the second part? (a) 6%
(a) Rs. 120 (b) 8%
(b) Rs. 140 (c) 10%
(c) Rs. 160 (d) 12%
(d) Rs. 180 Solution: (b)
Solution: (c) Given CI = Rs.832, SI = Rs. 800 and T = 2 years
Let first part be Rs. 𝑥, then second part Rs. (640 – From formula,
𝑥) 𝑅 𝑇
According to question, 𝐶𝐼 = 𝑃 {(1 + 100) − 1}
𝑥×8×6 (640−𝑥)×6×9 𝑅 2
= ∴ 832 = 𝑃 {(1 + 100) − 1}
100 100
𝑥 = 1920 – 3𝑥 𝑅2 2𝑅
⇒ 4𝑥 = 1920 ⇒ 832 = 𝑃 {1 + 1000 + 100 − 1}
⇒ 𝑥 = Rs. 480 𝑅2 2𝑅
⇒ 832 = 𝑃 {1000 + 100} ………. (i)
∴ Second part = Rs. (640 – 480) = Rs. 160
Using SI Formula,
9. An amount of Rs.𝑥 at compound interest at 20% 𝑃×𝑅×𝑇
𝑆𝐼 =
per annum for 3 years becomes y. What is 𝑦: 𝑥? 100
𝑃×𝑅×2
(a) 3: 1 ⇒800 = 100
(b) 36: 25 40000
⇒𝑃 = 𝑅
(c) 216: 125
Now putting the value of 𝑃 in Eq. (i) then,
(d) 125: 216 40000 𝑅2 2𝑅
Solution: (c) ⇒ 832 = {1000 + 100}
𝑅
Given, P = Rs. x, R = 20%, T = 3 years, A = Rs. y 832 = 4𝑅 + 800
𝑅 𝑇 ∴ 4𝑅 = 32
∵𝐴 = 𝑃 (1 + 100) 32
𝑅 = 4 = 8%
20 3
⇒ 𝑦 = 𝑥 (1 + 100) 12. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum and is
6 3 compound half-yearly, then the principle of Rs.
⇒ 𝑦 = 𝑥 (5)
𝑦 216
400 in 3/2 years will amount to
⇒ 𝑥 = 125 (a) Rs. 463.00 (b) Rs. 463.05
𝑦: 𝑥 = 216: 215 (c) Rs. 463.15 (d) Rs. 463.20
10. At what rate per cent per annum simple Solution: (b)
interest, will a sum of money triple itself in 25 Given R = 10%, P = Rs. 400 and T =3/2 years
years? Compounding is half-yearly, then,
(a) 8% 3
𝑇 =2×2=3
(b) 9% 10
𝑃= = 5%
(c) 10% 2
𝑅 𝑇
(d) 12% 𝐴𝑚𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝐴 = 𝑃 (1 + 200)
Solution: (a) 5 3
Let principal amount = 𝑃 𝐴 = 400 (1 + 100)
21 21 21
As amount = 3𝑃, = 400 × 20 × 20 × 20
T = 25 years = Rs. 463.05
∴ 𝑆𝐼 = 3𝑃 – 𝑃 = 2𝑃
100×𝑆𝐼 100×2𝑃
∵ Rate = 𝑃×𝑇 = 𝑃×25 = 8%

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

13. A person borrowed Rs. 7500 at 16% compound interest on Rs. 4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum.
interest. How much does he have to pay at the What is the sum placed on simple interest?
end of 2 years to clear the loan? (a) Rs. 1550 (b) Rs. 1650
(a) Rs. 9900 (b) Rs. 10092 (c) Rs. 1750 (d) Rs. 2000
(c) Rs. 11000 (d) Rs. 11052 Solution: (c)
Solution: (b) Let the principal amount be Rs. 𝑃.
Note: By Tricky Formula, Given, 𝑆𝐼 = 2 𝐶𝐼
1

Equivalent rate of interest.


𝑃×8×3 1 10 2
𝑅1 + 𝑅2 +
𝑅1 𝑅2
= 16 + 16 +
16×16 ⇒ = 2 [4000 (1 + 100) − 4000]
100
100 100
24𝑃 1 121
= 34.56% ⇒ = 2 [4000 × 100 − 4000]
7500×3456 100
𝐼𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑡 = =2592 1
= [4840 − 4000]
100
2
Total amount = 7500 + 2592 = Rs. 10092 24𝑃 420×100
⇒ = 420 ⇒𝑃 =
14. The simple interest on a certain sum of money 100 24
⇒𝑃 = Rs. 1750
for 3 years at 8% per annum is half the compound
EXERCISE

1. A person invested some amount at the rate of (c) 5 (d) 4


12% simple interest and the remaining at 10%. He 4. A sum of money on compound interest amount
received yearly an interest of Rs. 130. Had he to Rs. 9680 in 2 years and to Rs. 10648 in 3 years.
interchanged the amounts invested, he would What is the rate of interest per annum?
have received an interest of Rs. 134. How much (a) 5% (b) 10%
money did he invest at different rates? (c) 15% (d) 20%
(a) Rs. 500 at the rate of 10%, Rs. 800 at the rate 5. The sum which amounts to Rs. 364.80 in 8 years
of 12% at 3.5% simple interest per annum is
(b) Rs. 700 at the rate of 10%, Rs. 600 at the rate (a) Rs. 285 (b) Rs. 280
of 12% (c) Rs. 275 (d) Rs. 270
(c) Rs. 800 at the rate of 10%, Rs. 400 at the rate 6. A certain sum at simple interest amounts to Rs.
of 12% 1350 in 5 years and to Rs. 1620 in 8 years. What is
(d) Rs. 700 at the rate of 10%, Rs. 500 at the rate the sum?
of 12% (a) Rs. 700 (b) Rs. 800
2. A sum of money lent on simple interest triples (c) Rs. 900 (d) Rs. 1000
itself in 15 years and 6 months. In how many years 7. What is the compound interest on Rs. 1600 at
will it be doubled? 25% per annum of 2 years compounded annually?
(a) 5 years and 3 months (a) Rs. 700 (b) Rs. 750
(b) 7 years and 9 months (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 900
(c) 8 years and 3 months 8. A sum of money becomes 3 times in 5 years. In
(d) 9 years and 6 months how many years will the same sum become 6
3. What is the least number of years in which a times at the same rate of simple interest?
sum of money at 20% compound interest will be (a) 15 years (b) 12.5 years
more than doubled? (c) 10 years (d) 7.5 years
(a) 7 (b) 6

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b)

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

11. LOGARITHM
11.1 DEFINITION OF LOGARITHM
The logarithm of a number is the exponent to which another fixed number, the base must be raised to
produce that number. In simple cases the logarithm counts factors in multiplication.
For example, the base 10 logarithm of 1000 is 3, as 10 to the power 3 is 1000 (1000 = 10 × 10 × 10 = 103);
10 is used as a factor three times.
The logarithm of x to base ‘b’, denoted log(x), is the unique real number y such that
𝑏𝑦 = 𝑥
Change of base
The logarithm 𝑙𝑜𝑔(𝑥) can be computed from the logarithms of 𝑥 and 𝑏 with respect to an arbitrary base
k using the following formula
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑘 (𝑥)
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥) =
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑘 (𝑏)
Given a number 𝑥 and its logarithm 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥) to an unknown base b, the base is given by
1
𝐵 = x logb(x)
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1 3
1. If 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 (8) = − 4, than what is 𝑥?
Solution:
Rewrite the given equation using exponential form:
3
1
𝑥 −4 = 8
4
Raise both sides of the above equation to the power − 3
4 4


3 3 1 −3
(𝑥 ) 4 = (8) m
4
𝑥 = 83 = 24
𝑥 = 16
Logarithmic identities
Product
The logarithm of a product is the sum of the logarithms of the numbers being multiplied.
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥𝑦) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥) + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑦)
Quotient
The logarithm of the ratio of two numbers is the difference of the logarithms.
𝑥
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 ( ) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥) − 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑦)
𝑦
Power
The logarithm of the p-th power of a number is p times the logarithm of the number itself.
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥 𝑝 ) = 𝑝𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥)
Root
The logarithm of a p-th root is the logarithm of the number divided by p.
𝑝
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 √𝑥 = (1/𝑝)𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 𝑥
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Solve 𝑙𝑜𝑔2 (x) + 𝑙𝑜𝑔2 (x – 2) = 3

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Solution:
Using product rule
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥𝑦) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥) + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑦)
𝑙𝑜𝑔2 (x) + 𝑙𝑜𝑔2 (x – 2) = 3
𝑙𝑜𝑔2 [(x) (x – 2)] = 3
𝑙𝑜𝑔2 (𝑥 2 – 2x) = 3
2 3 = 𝑥 2 – 2𝑥
8 = 𝑥 2 – 2𝑥
0 = 𝑥 2 – 2𝑥 – 8
0 = (𝑥 – 4) (𝑥 + 2)
𝑥 = 4, – 2
But if 𝑥 = – 2, since logs cannot have zero or negative arguments, then the solution to the original
equation cannot be𝑥 = – 2.
Hence 𝑥 = 4
11.2 PROPERTIES OF LOGARITHM
Function producing the 𝑥-th power of b from any real number 𝑥, where the base b is a fixed number.
This function is written as
𝐹(𝑥) = 𝑏 𝑥
The formula for the logarithm of a power says in particular that for any number x,
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑏 𝑥 ) = 𝑥𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑏) = 𝑥
Taking the 𝑥-th power of b and then the base-b logarithm gives back 𝑥. Conversely, given a positive
number 𝑦, the formula
𝑏 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑦) = 𝑦
Derivative and antiderivative
As 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑏 𝑥 is a continuous and differentiable function, so is 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑦)
Derivative of 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥) is given by
𝑑 1
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥) =
𝑑𝑥 x ln(b)
The antiderivative of the natural logarithm ln(x)
∫ ln(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 𝑙𝑛(𝑥) – 𝑥 + 𝑐
Integral representation of the natural logarithm
1
The natural logarithm of t is the shaded area underneath the graph of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥
(reciprocal of 𝑥).
The natural logarithm of t equals the integral of 1/𝑥 𝑑𝑥 from 1 to t:
𝑡
1
𝑙𝑛 (𝑡) = ∫ 𝑑𝑥
1 𝑥
Transcendence of the logarithm
Real numbers that are not algebraic are called transcendental;
For example, π and e are such numbers, but is not.
Almost all real numbers are transcendental. The logarithm is an example of a transcendental function.
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. Simplify 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 ((𝑥 2 + 1)4 )√𝑥

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Solution:
Given that 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 ((𝑥 2 + 1)4 )√𝑥
Use 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 (𝑥𝑦) = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 𝑦
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 ((𝑥 2 + 1)4 ) + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 (√𝑥)
1
Use 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 (𝑥 𝑝 ) = 𝑝 (𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 𝑚) 4 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 (𝑥 𝑝 + 1) + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 ( 𝑥 2 )
Use 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥 𝑝 ) = 𝑝 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 (𝑥)
1
4 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 (𝑥 2 + 1) + 2 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 (𝑥)
1
2. Calculate 𝑦 in 𝑦 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔4 (4)
Solution:
Use the Exponential Function on both sides
1
4y = 4 𝑙𝑜𝑔4 (4)
1
4𝑦 = 4
1
Let 4 = 4−1
4𝑦 = 4−1
Hence 𝑦 = −1
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. What is the value of?
[𝑙𝑜𝑔13 (10)]
[𝑙𝑜𝑔69 (10)]
1
(a) 2 (b) 2

(c) 1 (d) 𝑙𝑜𝑔69 (13)


Solution: (b)
𝑙𝑜𝑔13 (10) 𝑙𝑜𝑔 (10)
= 𝑙𝑜𝑔 13
𝑙𝑜𝑔169 (10) 132 (10)
1
(𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎 𝑏𝑐 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑐 )
𝑏
𝑙𝑜𝑔13 10 1
=1 = 1 =2
𝑙𝑜𝑔13 10
2 2
𝑟
2. If 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 6 = 𝑚 and 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 3 = 𝑛, then what is 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 (2)equal to?
(a) m – n + 1 (b) m + n – 1
(c) 1 – m – n (d) 1 – m + n
Solution (d):
Given, 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 6 = m and 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 3 = n
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 6 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 (2×3)
= 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 2 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 3
𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 2 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 3 = m
⇒ n+𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 2 = 𝑚
⇒ 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑟 2 =m-n

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

= 1-m+n
3. What is the value of
5 128 5
2 log ( ) + log ( ) + log ( ) ?
8 125 2
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 5
Solution: (a)
5 128 5
2𝑙𝑜𝑔 (8)+𝑙𝑜𝑔 (125) + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 (2)
5 128 5
= 𝑙𝑜𝑔 ( )2 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 ( ) + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 ( )
8 125 2
52 ∗27 ∗5
= log 82 ∗125∗2
52 ∗27 ∗5
= 𝑙𝑜𝑔 2
(23) ∗53 ∗2
27 ∗53
= 𝑙𝑜𝑔 27 ∗53= log 1 = 0
4. What is the value of?
(𝑙𝑜𝑔1 2)(𝑙𝑜𝑔1 3)(𝑙𝑜𝑔1 4) … … … … . (𝑙𝑜𝑔 1 1000)?
2 3 4 1000
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 1 or –1 (d) 0
Solution: (b)
(𝑙𝑜𝑔12 ) (𝑙𝑜𝑔13 ) (𝑙𝑜𝑔14 ) …….(𝑙𝑜𝑔 1
1000
)
2 3 4 1000

𝑙𝑜𝑔2 𝑙𝑜𝑔3 𝑙𝑜𝑔4 𝑙𝑜𝑔1000


=( 1 )( 1 )( 1 )….( 1 )
𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑙𝑜𝑔
2 3 4 1000

log 𝑎
(𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏 𝑎 = )
log 𝑏
log 2 log 3 log 4 log 1000
=( )( )( )….( ) = −1
− log 2 − log 3 − log 4 − log 1000

EXERCISE

9 1
1. If 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 (16) = − 2, then x is equal to:
3 3
(a) − 4 (b) 4
81 256
(c) 256 (d) 81
2. If log 2 = 0.30103, the number of digits in 264 is:
(a) 18 (b) 19
(c) 20 (d) 21
3. If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log10 80 is
(a) 1.6020 (b) 1.9030

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

(c) 0.9030 (d) None of these


4. If log10 5 + log10 (5𝑥 + 1) = log10 (𝑥 + 5) + 1, then x is equal to:
(a) 1 (b)3
(c) 5 (d) 10
log √8
5. is equal to:
log 8
1 1
(a) (b) 4
√8
1 1
(c) 2 (d) 8
1
6. If log10 7 = 𝑎, then log10 ( ) is equal to:
70

(a) – (1 + 𝑎) (b) (1 + 𝑎)−1


𝑎 1
(c) 10 (d) 10 𝑎
7. If log 𝑥 𝑦 = 100 and log 2 𝑥 = 10, then the value of 𝑦 is:
(a) 210 (b) 2100
(c) 21000 (d) 210000
8. The value of 𝑙𝑜𝑔2 16 is:
1
(a) 8 (b) 4

(c) 8 (d) 16
9. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:
(a) 0.934 (b) 0.945
(c) 0.954 (d) 0.958
1
10. log 9 (3 log 2 (1 + log 3 (1 + 2 log 2 𝑥))) = 2. Find 𝑥.
1
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 2
ANSWER KEY

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

12. TIME AND DISTANCE


12.1 DEFINITIONS
• Distance - An object covers a range at a period with momentum (Speed).
• Time - Measure of an action that happened, in this case distance.
• The rate is defined as the amount of distance travelled in the unit Time.
12.2 RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN TIME, SPEED AND DISTANCE
The time (t), speed (s) and distance (d) are variables.
The unit of Speed (Rate) is meter per second (m/s). The relationship of speed is same for all units, until
the speed varies.
Example: If a bike travels 60 Kilometers in an hour, then the speed will be 60 Kilometer per hour.
The relationship between time, speed and distance can be calculated if any two of the three variables
are known.
To calculate Speed(S):
𝑫𝒊𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒄𝒆(𝑫)
𝑺𝒑𝒆𝒆𝒅(𝑺) =
𝑻𝒊𝒎𝒆(𝑻)
To calculate Distance (D):
𝑫𝒊𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒄𝒆 (𝑫) = 𝑺𝒑𝒆𝒆𝒅(𝑺) × 𝑻𝒊𝒎𝒆(𝑻)
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. A car travels 80 Kilometers in 4 hours. Find the average speed?
Solution:
Time (T) = 4 hours
= 4×3600 seconds (in order to convert)
=14400 Seconds
Distance (D) = 80 Kilometers
= 80×1000 (in order to convert)
80000 metres.
80000
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑(𝑆) =
14400
=5.5 meters per second
2. Marry travels from one town to another town, she travelled with 60 Kilometer/hr for 2.5 hours.
Calculate the distance covered?
Solution:
Time (T) =2.5 hours, Speed(S) =60 Kilometers/hr
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒(𝐷) = 𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑(𝑆) × 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒(𝑇)
=60×2.5 =150 Kilometers
To calculate Time (T):
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒(𝐷)
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒(𝑇) =
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑(𝑆)
3. A bus crosses a man in the pavement in 28 seconds and the pavement in 40 seconds when it travels at
an average speed of 70 Km/h. Find the length of the pavement?
Solution:
Speed (S) = 70 Km/h,

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

70×1000
= = 19.4 m/s
3600
The distance covered by the bus when it crosses the pavement is equal to the sum of the length of the
bus and the length of the pavement.
Extra time= 40 seconds- 28 seconds= 12 seconds.
Length of the pavement= Speed(S) × Extra time.
=19.4×12 =232.8 meters
12.3 TYPES OF SPEED
If the ratio of the speed of A and B is𝑎: 𝑏, then the ratio of the time consumed by them to cover the
1 1
same length is 𝑎 : 𝑏 or𝑏: 𝑎.
RELATIVE SPEED
Case 1:
Two objects are moving in the same direction at speed 𝑉1 & 𝑉2. Then the relative speed is defined as
𝑽𝒓 = 𝑽𝟏 + 𝑽𝟐
Case 2:
Two objects are moving in opposite directions at speed 𝑉1 & 𝑉2. Then the relative speed is defined as
𝑽𝒓 = |𝑽𝟏 − 𝑽𝟐 |
Average Speed
Average speed is always equal to total distance travelled in the total time taken to travel that distance.
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 =
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒
If a man covers a certain length at 𝑥 Kmph and an equal distance at 𝑦 kmph, then the average speed
during the time of journey is
2𝑥𝑦
( )
𝑥+𝑦
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Divakar travelled from his home to a restaurant at the speed of 25 𝐾𝑚𝑝ℎ and returned back to home
at the speed 4 Kmph, if the whole journey took 5 hours and 48 minutes. Find the distance from the
restaurant to his home?
Solutions:
2𝑥𝑦
Average speed = (𝑥+𝑦)kmph.
2×25×4 200
=( )=( 29 ) 𝐾𝑚𝑝ℎ.
25+4
4
Time= 5 hours and 48 minutes=> 5 5 .
200 29
Distance travelled is = ( 29 × ) =40 Km
5
40
Distance of home from restaurant = = 20 Km.
2
12.4 PROBLEMS ON TRAINS
The basic formula used in the train problem is
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒(𝐷)
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑(𝑆) =
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒(𝑇)
5 𝑚
𝑎Kmph =(𝑎 × 18) 𝑠

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If two trains start at same time from respective places A and B towards each other and after they take a
and b sec in reaching the B and A. Then,
(𝐴′ 𝑠 𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑): (𝐵 ′ 𝑠 𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑) = (√𝑏: √𝑎)
Time taken by a train of length 𝑙 meters to pass a stationary object of length b meter is time taken by
the train to cover (𝑙 + 𝑏) meters.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. A train running at the speed of 60 𝐾𝑚𝑝ℎ crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
Solution:
Speed of the train= 60 𝐾𝑚𝑝ℎ
5 50
=(60 × 18)= 3 .
50
Length of the train = ( 3 × 9)= 150 m.
2. A man sitting in a train which is traveling at 50 kmph observers that a goods train traveling in opposite
direction. It takes 9 seconds to pass him. If the goods train is 280 m long, then find the speed of the
goods train?
Solution:
Speed of the train = 50 𝐾𝑚𝑝ℎ
280 280 18
Relative speed =( ) 𝑚/𝑠 = ( × )Kmph
9 9 5
=112𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ.
Speed of the goods train= (112-50) = 62𝐾𝑚𝑝ℎ.
12.5 BOATS AND STREAMS
In water, the direction is known as up and down stream.
Speed of upstream = (𝑢 − 𝑣)𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ.
Speed of downstream = (𝑢 + 𝑣)𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ
1
Speed in still water=2 (𝑎 + 𝑏)𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ
1
Speed of the stream=2 (𝑎 − 𝑏)𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Boy can row upstream at 7 Kmph & downstream at 10 Kmph. Find his speed in still water and speed
of stream
Solution:
1
Speed in still water=2 (10 + 7) = 8.5 kmph
1
Speed of current = (10 − 7) = 1.5 𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ
2

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟, the next one-third
distance with a speed of 20 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The
average speed of the car for the whole journey is
(a) 18 km/hr (b) 24 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr
Solution: (a)

Let total distance = 𝑥 𝑘𝑚.


total distance
Average speed = total time
𝑥 𝑥
=𝑥 𝑥 𝑥3
𝑡1 + 𝑡2 + 𝑡3 1
+ 2
+
𝑡1 𝑡2 𝑡3
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥
𝑥1 = , 𝑥2 = , 𝑥3 =
3 3 3
𝑥 3
= =
𝑥 1 1 1 6+3+1
3 (10 + 10 + 10) 60
= 18𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
2. A man rows downstream 32 km and 14 km upstream, and he takes 6 hours to cover each distance.
What is the speed of the current?
(a) 0.5 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟 (b) 1 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
(c) 1.5 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟 (d) 2 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
Solution: (c)
Let speed of boat is B km/h and speed of stream is D km/h.
32
Downstream B + D = ... (i)
6
14
Upstream B – D = ... (ii)
6
Now on solving equations (i) and (ii)
46 23
We get 2 B = B= 𝑘𝑚/ℎ
6 6
Put value of B in equation ... (i)
32 23
D= − = 1.5𝑘𝑚/ℎ
6 6
3. A train travels at a speed of 40 km/h and another train at a speed of 20 m/s. What is the ratio of
speed of the first train to that of the second train?
(a) 2: 1 (b) 5: 9
(c) 5: 3 (d) 9: 5
Solution: (b)
5
Speed of a train = 40 km/h = 40×18 m/s
Speed of another train = 20 m/s

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𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑖𝑟𝑠𝑡 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛


Required ratio =
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
5
40×( ) 2×5 10 5
18
= = =18 = 9 or 5: 9
20 18

4. The distance between two points (A and B) is 110 km. X starts running from point A at a speed of 60
km/h and Y starts running from point B at a speed of 40 km/h at the same time. They meet at a point C,
somewhere on the line AB. What is the ratio of AC to BC?
(a) 3: 2 (b) 2: 3
(c) 3: 4 (d) 4: 3
Solution: (a)
Distance between two points = 110 km
Relative speed = 60 + 40 = 100 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
Totaldistance 110
Time after which they meet =Relativespeed =100 = 1.10 h

Distance covered by A in 1.10 h = AC = 60 × 1.10 = 66 km


Remaining distance = BC = 110 – 66 = 44 km
Required ratio = AC: BC = 66: 44 = 3: 2
5. A train 110 m long is running with a speed of 60 km/h. What is the time in which it will pass a man
who starts from the engine running at the speed of 6 km/h in the direction opposite to that of the train?
(a) 5 s (b) 6 s
(c) 10 s (d) 15 s
Solution: (b)
Train and man are running opposite to each other.
66×5
Relative speed = 60 + 6 = 66 km/h = 𝑚/𝑠
18
Distance
Required time = Speed
110 110 × 18
= = = 6𝑠
66 × 5 66 × 5
18
6. A train takes 10 s to cross a pole and 20 s to cross a platform of length 200 m. What is the length of
the train?
(a) 50 m (b) 100 m
(c) 150 m (d) 200 m
Solution: (d)
Let 𝑥 be the length of train
𝑥
Speed of train = 10 m/s
Distance covered by train to cross the platform of length 200m = x + 200
Time taken to cross the platform = 20s
𝑥+200
20 = ⇒ 2𝑥 = 𝑥 + 200 ⇒ 𝑥 = 200 𝑚
𝑥/10

7. A train takes 9 s to cross a pole. If the speed of the train is 48 km/h, the length of the train is
(a) 150 m (b) 120 m

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(c) 90 m (d) 80 m
Solution: (b)
Let the length of the train = x m.
48×1000
Speed = 48 km/h = m/s
60×60
48×1000
Length of train, (x) = Speed × Time to cross the pole = × 9 = 120 m
60×60
8. A train running at the speed of 72 km/h goes past a pole in 15 s. What is the length of the train?
(a) 150 m (b) 200 m
(c) 300 m (d) 350 m
Solution: (c)
Speed of train
𝐿𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
=
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 𝑡𝑜 𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑟𝑦 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
∴Length of train = Speed of train × Time taken to cross the stationary object
72×1000×15
= = 300 m
36000

9. Two cars A and B start simultaneously from a certain place at the speed of 30 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟and 45 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟,
respectively. The car B reaches the destination 2hr earlier than A. What is the distance between the
starting point and destination?
(a) 90 km (b) 180 km
(c) 270 km (d) 360 km
Solution: (b)
Let distance between starting and their destination be x km.
𝑥 𝑥 3𝑥−2𝑥
𝑡2 − 𝑡1 = 2h ⇒30 − =2⇒ = 2=>x=180km
45 90
10. A man cycles with a speed of 10 km/h and reaches his office at 1 p.m. However, when he cycles with
aspeed of 15 km/h, he reaches his office at 11 am. At what speed , so that he reaches his office at 12
noon?
(a) 12.5 km/h (b) 12 km/h
(c) 13 km/h (d) 13.5 km/h
Solution: (b)
𝑥 𝑥 3𝑥−2𝑥
𝑡2 − 𝑡1 = 2 => 𝑡2 − 𝑡1 = 2h ⇒10 − =2⇒ = 2=> x=60km
15 30
Therefore speed required is
60/(15 − 10)
= 12km/hr.
EXERCISE
1. Two trains of lengths 100 m and 150 m are travelling in opposite directions at speeds of 75 km/h and
50 km/h, respectively. What is the time taken by them to cross each other?
(a) 7.4 𝑠 (b) 7.2 𝑠
(c) 7 𝑠 (d) 6.8 𝑠
2. A motorboat takes 2hr to travel a distance of 9 km down the current and it takes 6 hr to travel the
same distance against the current. What is the speed of the boat in still water 1𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟?
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 1.5 (d) 1

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3. AB is a straight line. C is a point whose perpendicular distance from AB is 3 cm. What are the numbers
of points which are at a perpendicular distance of 1 cm from AB and at a distance 4 cm from C?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
4. Two trains each 200 m long move towards each other on parallel lines with velocities 20 km/h and 30
km/h, respectively. What is the time that elapses when they first meet until they have cleared each
other?
(a) 20 s (b) 24.8 s
(c) 28.8 s (d) 30 s
5. A man can walk uphill at the rate of 2.5 𝑘𝑚/ℎand downhill at the rate of 3.25𝑘𝑚/ℎ. If the total time
required walking a certain distance up the hill and return to the starting position is 4 h 36 min, what is
the distance he walked up the hill?
(a) 3.5 𝑘𝑚 (b) 4.5 𝑘𝑚
(c) 5.5 𝑘𝑚 (d) 6.5 𝑘𝑚
6. A train 280 m long is moving at a speed of 60 km/h. What is the time taken by the train to cross a
platform 220 m long?
(a) 45 s (b) 40 s
(c) 35 s (d) 30 s
7. A student moves √2𝑥 km east from his residence and then moves 𝑥 km north. He, then goes 𝑥 km
North-East and finally he takes a turn of 90° towards right and moves a distance 𝑥 km and reaches his
school. What is the shortest distance of the school from his residence?
(a) (+1)𝑥 𝑘𝑚 (b) 3 𝑥 𝑘𝑚
(c) 2√2𝑥 𝑘𝑚 (d) 3√2𝑥 𝑘𝑚
8. A car travels along the four sides of a square at speeds v, 2v, 3v and 4v, respectively. If u is the
average speed of the car in its travel around the square, then which one of the following is correct?
(a) u = 2.25 v (b) u = 3 v
(c) v<u< 2 v (d) 3 v<u< 4v
9. A wheel of radius 2.1 m of a vehicle makes 75 revolutions in 1 min. What is the speed of the vehicle?
(a) 78 𝑘𝑚/ℎ (b) 59.3838 𝑘𝑚/ℎ
(c) 37.4 𝑘𝑚/ℎ (d) 35.4 𝑘𝑚/ℎ
10. A car is travelling at a constant rate of 45 km/h. The distance travelled by car from 10: 40 am to 1: 00
pm is
(a) 165 𝑘𝑚 (b) 150 𝑘𝑚
(c) 120 𝑘𝑚 (d) 105 𝑘𝑚
ANSWER KEY
1.(b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)

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13. TIME AND WORK


13.1 TIME
Defined as the time required to complete a piece of work and when the work done in a given period of
time.
Case I: If a person A completes a piece of work in n days, then work done by A in one days = 1/n th part
of the work.
Case II: If a person A completes 1/n th part of work in one day, then A will take n days to complete the
work.
1
• If a man can do a piece of work in 5 days, it is clear that he can do 5 of the work in 1 day. It means
1
work one by him in 1 day = 5
1
Again if a man can do 5 of the work in 1 day, then he will 5 days to finish the work.
• If A can do a work in 4 days and B in 7 days, the ratio of a work done by A and B in the same time is
7:4
• If A is twice as good as a workman as B, then A will take half of the time taken by B to do certain
piece of work. It means the ratio of the work done by A and B is 2:1.
• Wages are paid in proportional to units of job done by each in the same time.
Days of B
The wage of A = Days of (A+B)
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. Adam is thrice as good a workman as Brain and together they finish the piece of work in 15 days. In
how many days will Adam alone finish the work?
Solution:
Adam’s 1 day’s work: Brain’s 1 day’s work = 3: 1
1
(Adam + Brain)’s 1 day’s work = 15
1
Now, divided 15 in the ratio 3: 1
1 3 1
Therefore, Adam’s 1 day’s work = 15× 4= 20
Therefore, Adam alone can finish the work in 20 days.
2. Aaron alone can finish a piece of work in 12 days and Brandon alone can do it in 15 days. If both of
them work at it together, how much time will they take to finish it?
Solution:
Time taken by Aaron to finish the work = 12 days.
1
Work done by Aaron in 1 day = 12
Time taken by Brandon to finish the work = 15 days.
1
Work done by Brandon in 1 day = 15
1 1 9 3
Work done by (Aaron + Brandon) in 1 day = 12 + 15 =60=20
Time taken by (Aaron + Brandon) to finish the work 20/3 days =>
2
Time = 63 days.
13.2 Work
Suppose if a person A can finish a work in n days.

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Then, work done by A in 1 day = 1/nᵗʰ part of the work.


1
Suppose that the work done by A in 1 day is 𝑛
Then, time taken by A to finish the whole work = n days.
Days and Wages
If A finishes a work in “a” days, B finishes in “b” days and C finishes “c” days, then
1 1 1
Wages of A: Wages of B: Wages of C = 𝑎:𝑏 : 𝑐
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B in 15 days and C in 6 days. If they get Rs.230 for the whole
work, how much B is paid?
Solution:
1 1 1
Ratio of their wages =10:15 : 6
= 15 × 6: 10 × 6: 10 × 15 = 90:60:150 = 3:2:5
2
B’s amount = 3+2+5 × Rs.230 = Rs.46
2. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the
work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
1 1
A’s 2 days’ work = (20 × 2) = 10
1 1 1
(A + B + c)”s 1 day work = (20 + + )
30 60
1 1 1
Work done in 3 days = (10 + )=5
10
1
Now 5 is done in 3 days
Whole work will be done in (3 x 5) = 15 days.
13.3 EFFICIENCY
Efficiency is also known as work-rate.
If A is taking less number of days with respect to B to complete the same work, we can say that the
efficiency of A is more than the efficiency of B.
So, more the efficiency less will be the number of days and less the efficiency, more will be the number
of days to do a certain work.
𝑾𝒐𝒓𝒌
𝑬𝒇𝒇𝒊𝒄𝒊𝒆𝒏𝒄𝒚 =
𝑻𝒊𝒎𝒆
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. A is 30% more efficient than B. How much time will they, working together, take to complete a job
which A alone could have done in 23 days?
Solution:
Ratio of times taken by A and B = 100: 130
= 10: 13.
Suppose B takes 𝑥 days to do the work. Then, 10: 13:: 23: 𝑥
𝑊𝑜𝑟𝑘
Efficiency = 𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒
23 ×13 299
𝑥 = ( ) =
10 10
1
A's 1 day's work =23
10
B's 1 day's work =299
1 10 23 1
(A + B)'s 1 day's work =23 + 299 =299 = 13
(A + B)'s 1 day's work = 13 days
Therefore, A and B together can complete the work in 13days.

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. If 3 men and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 8 days, then 6 men and 8 boys can do the same work in
(a) 2 days (b) 4 days
(c) 6 days (d) 16 days
Solution: (b)
3 men + 4 boys = 8 days 6 men + 8 boys =?
𝑀1 𝐷1 = 𝑀2 𝐷2
⇒ (3M+4B)*8 = 2 (3M + 4B)* 𝐷2
(3M+4B)×8
𝐷2 = 2 (3M + 4B)
= 4 days
2. A swimming pool 70m long, 44m wide and 3 m deep is filled by water flowing from a pipe at the rate
of 30800 𝑐𝑚3 /s. The time taken to fill the swimming pool is
1
(a) 7 ℎ (b) 80 ℎ
2
250 (d) None of these
(c) ℎ
3
Solution: (c)
Required time taken to fill the pool
Volume of the pool 70×44× 3× 100×100×100
= Part of pool filled in1s = s
30800
250
= 300000s = h
3
3. A mason can build a tank in 12 h. After working for 6 h, he took the help of a boy and finished the
work in another 5h. The time that the boy will take alone to complete the work is
(a) 30h (b) 45h
(c) 60h (d) 64h
Solution: (c)
1
Mason work for 1h= 12
6 1
Mason work for 6h = 12 = 2
1 1
Work left = 1 - 2 = 2
Let the boy can finish the work in x h
1 1 𝑥+12
Then, their 1 h work = +𝑥=
2 12𝑥
𝑥+12 1
⇒ ×5= 2
12𝑥
⇒ 10𝑥 + 120 = 12𝑥
⇒ 𝑥 = 60ℎ
2
4. X can complete a job in 12 days. If X and Y work together, they can complete the job in 6 3 days. Y
alone can complete the job in
(a) 10 days (b) 12 days
(c) 15 days (d) 18 days
Solution: (c)
1
X's one day's work = 12

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3
(X+Y) ‘S one day's work =
20
3 1 1
Y's one day's work = 20 − 12 =15
Number of day's taken by Y = 15 days
5. Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 min and pipe B can empty it in 15 min. If both the pipes are opened in an
empty tank, the time taken to make it full is
(a) 20 min (b) 25 min
(c) 30 min (d) None of these
Solution: (c)
1
Part filled by pipe A in 1 min = 10
1
Part empty by pipe B in 1 min = 15
1 1 3−2 1
Total tank filled in minutes = 10 − 15 − = 30
30
Hence, the tank will be filled in 30 min.
1 1
6. 48 Of a work is completed in half a day by 5 persons. Then, 40 of the work can be completed by 6
persons in how many days?
(a) 1 (b) 2
1
(c) 3 (d) 2
Solution: (d)
1
𝑀1 𝐷1 𝑀2 𝐷2 5∗( ) 6∗𝐷2
2
= ⇒ 1 = 1
𝑊1 𝑊2
48 40
1
( )∗5∗48 1
2
⇒ 𝐷2 = =
40∗6 2
7. In an army camp ration is available for 100 soldiers for 10 days. After 2 days, 60 soldiers joined. Then,
for how many more days will the remaining ration last?
(a) 7 days (b) 6 days
(c) 5 days (d) 4 days
Solution: (c)

160 8
⇒ 100 = 𝑥
8×100
𝑥 = = 5 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
160
8. A person walks a distance in 114 days, when he rests 9h a day. How long will he take to walk twice the
distance, if he walks twice as fast and rests twice as long each day as before?
(a) 57 days (b) 228 days
(c) 285 days (d) 324 days
Solution: (c)

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1 × 2 × 6 × 𝑥 = 2 × 1 × 15 × 114
2×15×114
⇒ 𝑥 = = 285 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
2×6
9. The mess charges for 35 students for 24 days in Rs. 6300. In how many days will the mess charges be
Rs. 3375 for 25 students?
(a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 18 (d) 21 Rs.
Solution: (c)
From formula
𝑀1 𝐷1 𝑀2 𝐷2 35∗24 𝑀2 ×25
= ⇒ =
𝑊1 𝑊2 6300 3375
35×24×3375
𝑀2 = =18
6300×25
10. P and Q can do a job in 2 days; Q and R can do it in 4 days and P and R in 12/5 days. What is the
number of days required for P alone to do the job?
(a) 5/2 (b) 3
(c) 14/5 (d) 6
Solution: (b)
1
P's and Q's 1 day work = 2
1
Q's and R's 1 day work = 4
5
P's and R's 1 day work = 12
1 1 5
⇒ Now, (P + Q) + (Q+R) + (P+R) = 2 + + 12
4
6+3+5 14
⇒ 2P+2 Q +2 R = ⇒ 2(P+ Q + R) =
12 12
7
P+Q+R work in one day = 12
1
Q + R work in one day = 4
7 1 7−3 4 1
P alone work in one day = 12 − 4 = = 12 = 3
12
P's can do alone in 3 days.

EXERCISE
1. 42 men take 25 days to dig a pond. If the pond would have to be dug in 14 days, then what is
the number of men to be employed?
(a) 67 (b) 75
(c) 81 (d) 84
2. A person can do a job as fast as his two sons working together. If one son does the job in 6
days and the other in 12 days, how many days does it take the father to do the job?
(a) 9 days (b) 6 days
(c) 4 days (d) 3 days
3. The ratio of the radii of the taps 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 is 2:1. Water is flowing through them with the same
velocity. What is ratio of the time required to completely fill two identical drums kept
under 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 ?
(a) 2: 1 (b) 1: 2
(c) 4: 1 (d) 1: 4

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4. A can finish a work in 8 days and B can do it in 12 days. After A had worked for 3 days, B
also joins A to finish the remaining work. In how many days will the remaining work be finished?
(a) 2 days (b) 3 days
(c) 4 days (d) 5 days
5. If 18 men earn Rs. 1440 in 5 days, how many men can earn Rs. 1920 in 8 days?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 18
6. Ram can do a piece of work in 6 days and Shyam can finish the same work in 12 days. How
much work will be finished, if both work together for 2 days?
(a) One-fourth of the work (b) One-third of the work
(c) Half of the work (d) Whole of the work
7. If one man or two women or three boys can do a piece of work in 55 days, then one man, one
woman and one boy will do it how many days?
(a) 20 days (b) 30 days
(c) 40 days (d) 50 days
8. If m men can do a job in p days, then (𝑚 + 𝑟) men can do the job in how many days?
𝑚𝑝
(a) (𝑚 + 𝑟) days (b) 𝑚+𝑟 days
𝑝 𝑚+𝑟
(c) days (d) days
𝑚+𝑟 𝑝

9. A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. If A,B
and C can complete the same work in 6 days, in how many days can A and C complete the
same work?
(a) 8 days (b) 10 days
(c) 12 days (d) 16 days
10. Two taps can fill a tub in 5 min and 7 min respectively. A pipe can empty it in 3 min. If all the
three are kept open simultaneously, when will the tub be full?
(a) 60 min (b) 85 min
(c) 90 min (d) 105 min

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)

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ALGEBRA
14. BASIC OPERATION AND FACTORIZATION
14.1 BASIC OPERATIONS
The four basic algebraic operations are:
➢ Addition
➢ Subtraction
➢ Multiplication
➢ Division
Addition
Adding two (or more) terms means to find their sum (or total). The symbol used for addition is '+'.
For example, 5𝑥 + 10𝑥 = 15𝑥
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1 3
1. Find the sum of 5 𝑞 + 5 𝑞 .
Solution:
1 3 1 3 4
𝑞 + 𝑞 = ( + )𝑞 = 𝑞
5 5 5 5 5
Subtraction
Subtracting one term from another term is to find the difference between them. The symbol used for
subtraction is '–'.
For example, 17𝑦 – 8𝑦 = 9𝑦
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
2. Solve 3𝑥 − 2𝑎 – 4𝑥
Solution:
3𝑥 − 4𝑥 − 2𝑎 = −𝑥 − 2𝑎
Multiplication
Multiplication means times (or repeated addition). The symbol used for multiplication is '×'.
A product is the result of the multiplication of two (or more) terms.
For example, 7𝑦 × 2𝑦 = 14𝑦 2
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
Simplify: 2𝑝(3𝑝𝑞 – 5𝑞𝑟)
Solution:
(2𝑝 × 3𝑝𝑞) − (2𝑝 × 5𝑞𝑟)
⇒ 6𝑝2 𝑞 − 10𝑝𝑞𝑟
Division
Step1: Write the division of the algebraic terms as a fraction.
Step 2: Simplify the coefficient.
Step 3: Cancel variables of the same type in the numerator and denominator.
The symbol used for division is '÷'.
72𝑦 4
For example, = 9𝑦 2
8𝑦 2
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
Evaluate −8𝑎3 𝑏𝑐 ÷ 2ab

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Solution:
−8 × 𝑎 × 𝑎 × 𝑎 × 𝑏 × 𝑐
= −4𝑎2 𝑐
2×𝑎×𝑏
Properties of Basic Algebraic Operations
Commutative
Defined as the order does not make any difference in the result.
Addition: 𝑎 + 𝑏 = 𝑏 + 𝑎
2+𝑥 =𝑥+2
Multiplication: 𝑎 × 𝑏 = 𝑏 × 𝑎
2×𝑥 = 𝑥×2
Associative
Associative means that the grouping does not make any difference in the result.
Addition: 𝑎 + (𝑏 + 𝑐) = (𝑎 + 𝑏) + 𝑐
𝑥 + (2 − 3𝑦) = (𝑥 + 2) − 3𝑦
𝑎 − (𝑏 − 𝑐) ≠ (𝑎 − 𝑏) − 𝑐
Multiplication: 𝑎 × (𝑏 × 𝑐) = (𝑎 × 𝑏) × 𝑐
𝑥 × (2 × 3𝑦) = (𝑥 × 2) × 3𝑦
Identity Element
Addition: The Identity Element for addition is 0. Any number added to 0 gives the original number.
𝑎+0= 0+𝑎 = 𝑎
𝑥+0=0+𝑥 =𝑥
Multiplication: The Identity Element for multiplication is 1. Any number multiplied by 1 gives the
original number.
𝑎×1= 1×𝑎 =𝑎
𝑥×1= 1×𝑥 = 𝑥
Additive Inverse
The additive inverse is the opposite (negative) of the number.
Any number plus its additive inverse equals 0 (the identity).
𝑎 + (−𝑎) = 0 ; Therefore 𝑎 and – 𝑎 are additive inverse.
𝑥 + (−𝑥) = 0 ; Therefore 𝑥 and −𝑥 are additive inverse.
Multiplicative Inverse
The multiplicative inverse is the reciprocal of the number. Any non-zero number multiplied by its
reciprocal equals 1.
1 1
𝑎 × 𝑎 = 1; Therefore 𝑎 and 𝑎 are multiplicative inverse.
1 1
𝑥 × 𝑥 = 1; Therefore 𝑥 and 𝑥 are multiplicative inverse.
Properties of Negation
We must be careful not to make arithmetic mistakes when dealing with negative signs and subtraction.
(−𝑎)𝑏 = −(𝑎𝑏) = 𝑎(−𝑏)
(−𝑎)(−𝑏) = 𝑎𝑏
−(𝑎 + 𝑏) = (−𝑎) + (−𝑏)
(−2)𝑥 = −(2𝑥) = 2(−𝑥)
(−2)(−𝑥) = 2𝑥
−(𝑥 + 2) = (−𝑥) + (−2) = −𝑥 − 2

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14.2 FACTORIZATION
• Factorization is a method of writing numbers as the product of their factors or divisors.
• When the factors of a number are multiplied together, they give the original number.
Methods of factorizing algebraic expression
• Factorize using common factors.
• Factorize by grouping in pairs.
• Factorize using the difference of two squares.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Find the Factors of 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 6
Solution:
We need to find factors of 6 that add up to 5. Since 6 can be written as the product of 2 and 3, and
since 2 + 3 = 5, then we will use 2 and 3.
𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 6
𝑥(𝑥 + 2) + 3(𝑥 + 2)
So the answer is,
𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 6 = (𝑥 + 2)(𝑥 + 3)
2. Find the factor of 𝑥 2 + 11𝑥 + 30
Solution:
𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 + 5𝑥 + 30
(𝑥 + 6) + 5(𝑥 + 6)
(𝑥 + 5)(𝑥 + 6)
Answer is (𝑥 + 5) (𝑥 + 6)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
1. The factor(s) of 5𝑝𝑥 – 10𝑞𝑦 + 2𝑟𝑝𝑥 − 4𝑞𝑟𝑦 = (2𝑎 + 1) (1) (2𝑎2 + 2𝑎 + 1)
is/are = (2𝑎 + 1) (2𝑎2 + 2𝑎 + 1)
(a) Only (5 + 2𝑟) Hence, (2𝑎2 + 2𝑎 + 1) is a factor of {(𝑎 + 1)4 –
(b) Only (𝑝𝑥 – 2𝑞𝑦) 𝑎4 }.
(c) Both (5 + 2𝑟) and (𝑝𝑥 – 2𝑞𝑦) 3. One of the factors of the polynomial 𝑥 4 – 7𝑥 3 +
(d) Neither (5 + 2𝑟) nor (𝑝𝑥 – 2𝑞𝑦) 5𝑥 2 – 6𝑥 + 81 is:
Solution: (c) (a) 𝑥 + 2 (b) 𝑥 – 2
Given expression = 5𝑝𝑥 – 10𝑞𝑦 + 2𝑟𝑝𝑥 – 4𝑞𝑟𝑦 (c) 𝑥 + 3 (d) 𝑥 – 3
= (5𝑝𝑥 + 2𝑟𝑝𝑥) – (10𝑞𝑦 + 4𝑞𝑟𝑦) Solution: (d)
= 𝑝𝑥(5 + 2𝑟) – 2𝑞𝑦(5 + 2𝑟) Let 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 4 – 7𝑥 3 + 5𝑥 2 – 6𝑥 + 81
= (5 + 2𝑟)(𝑝𝑥 – 2𝑞𝑦) By hit and trial method, 𝑥 4 – 7𝑥 3 + 5𝑥 2 – 6𝑥 +
2. (𝑎 + 1)4 –𝑎4 is divisible by 81
(a) –2𝑎2 + 2𝑎 – 1 (b) 2𝑎3 – 2𝑎 – 1 = 𝑥 3 (𝑥 – 3) – 4𝑥 2 (𝑥 – 3) – 7𝑥(𝑥 – 3) – 27(𝑥 – 3)
(c) 2𝑎3 – 2𝑎 + 1 (d) 2𝑎2 + 2𝑎 + 1 = (𝑥 – 3) (𝑥 3 – 4𝑥 2 – 7𝑥 – 27)
Solution: (d) (𝑥 – 3) is one of the factor of the given
polynomial.
Given, (𝑎 + 1) 4– 𝑎4
= {(a + 1)2 – 𝑎2 }{ (a + 1)2 + 𝑎2 } 4. For what value of 𝑘, (𝑥 + 5) is a factor of 6𝑥 2
= {(a + 1) + 𝑎}{(𝑎 + 1) – 𝑎}{𝑎2 + 1 + 2𝑎 + 𝑎2 } + 𝑘𝑥 + 10?

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(a) 5 (b) 32 (a) (𝑎 – 2) and (𝑎 + 4)


(c) 36 (d) 40 (b) (𝑎 + 2) and (𝑎 + 4)
Solution: (b) (c) (𝑎 + 2) and (𝑎 – 4)
(d) (a – 2) and (𝑎 – 4)
Let 𝑓(𝑥) = 6𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 + 10
Solution: (c)
If (𝑥 + 5) is a factor of 𝑓(𝑥), then
𝑓(–5) = 0
So, 6(– 5) 2 + 𝑘(–5) + 10 = 0
⇒ 6 × 25 – 5𝑘 + 10 = 0
⇒ 5𝑘 = 150 + 10 = 160
∴ 𝑘 = 32
5. What is the value of 𝑘 which will make the
expression 4𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 + 𝑘 a perfect square?
(a) 5 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9 Required factor is (𝑎2 – 2𝑎 – 8)
Further it’s factorize by spilt the middle term,
Solution: (d) = 𝑎2 – 4𝑎 + 2𝑎 – 8
Given expression is 𝑓(𝑥) = 4𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 + 𝑘 = 𝑎(𝑎 – 4) + 2(𝑎 – 4)
= (𝑎 – 4) (𝑎 + 2) other two factors are (𝑎 + 2) and (𝑎 –
= (2𝑥)2 + 2.3. (2𝑥) + k 4).
𝑦−𝑥
For the value of 𝑘 8. If 0.764 𝑦 = 1.236 𝑥, then what is the value of( )?
𝑦+1
Coefficient of (2𝑥) 2 6 2 (a) 0.764 (b) 0.236
=[ ] = (2) = 9
2 (c) 2 (d) 0.472
Hence, 9 is the value of 𝑘 which will make the Solution: (b)
Given, 0.764 𝑦 = 1.236 𝑥
expression 𝑓(𝑥) a perfect square. 𝑦 1.236
⇒ =
3 2 𝑥 0.764
6. If the expression 𝑥 + 4𝑥 + 4𝑥 + 𝑘 has (𝑥 + Now,
𝑦
4) as a factor, then what is the value of k? 𝑦−𝑥 𝑥
−1
= 𝑦
𝑦+𝑥 +1
(a) –16 (b) 16 𝑥
1.236
−1 1.236−0.764
(c) 32 (d) –32 ⇒ 0.764
1.236 = 1.236+0.764 = 20.472
.000
= 0.236
+1
0.764
Solution: (b) 9. What is the value of?
Given that, expression 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 𝑘 has (𝑥 3 × 0.3 × 0.03 × 0.003 × 0.0003 × 30?
+ 4) as a factor, so it will satisfy that expression. (a) (0.09)3 (b) (0.009)3
Let f(x) = 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 𝑘 (c) (0.0009)3 (d) None of these
Solution: (b)
∴ 𝑓(–4) = 0 (by condition) Given, 3 × 0.3 × 0.03 × 0.003 × 0.0003 × 30
⇒ (– 4) 3 + 4(– 4) 2 + 4(–4) + 𝑘 = 0 = 3 × 3 × 10−1 × 3 × 10−2 × 3 × 10−3 × 3 × 10−4 × 3 ×
10 = (3)6 × (10)−9 = (32 )3 (10−3 )3
⇒ –64 + 64 – 16 + 𝑘 = 0 3
1 9
𝑘 = 16 = (9)3 × = ( ) = (0.009)3
(1000)3 1000

7. If two factors of 𝑎4 – 2𝑎3 – 9𝑎2 + 2𝑎 + 8 are


(𝑎 + 1) and (𝑎 – 1), then what are the other two
factors?

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EXERCISE
1. If 𝑥 = 2 + √3, then what is (𝑥 2 + 𝑥 −2) equal to?
(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 14 (d) 15
1+𝑥 1 2𝑎+1
2. If 𝑎 = 2−𝑥, then what is 𝑎+1 + 𝑎2 −1 equal to?
(1+𝑥)(2+𝑥) (1−𝑥)(2−𝑥)
(a) (b)
2𝑥−1 𝑥−2
(1+𝑥)(2−𝑥) (1−𝑥)(2−𝑥)
(c) (d)
2𝑥−1 2𝑥+1
𝑝2 𝑞2 𝑟2
3. If 𝑝𝑞 + 𝑞𝑟 + 𝑟𝑝 = 0, then what is the value of + 𝑞2 −𝑟𝑝 + 𝑟 2 −𝑝𝑞 ?
𝑝2 −𝑞𝑟
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) -1 (d) 3
1 1 1
4. If 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 0, then what is the value of 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2 −𝑧 2 + 𝑦 2 +𝑧 2 −𝑥 2 + 𝑧 2 +𝑥 2 −𝑦2
1
(a) 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2 +𝑧 2 (b) 1
(c) –1 (d) 0
(𝑥−𝑦)3 +(𝑦−𝑧)3 +(𝑧−𝑥)3
5. What is equal to?
4(𝑥−𝑦)(𝑦−𝑧)(𝑧−𝑥)
3 1
(a) − 4 (b) 4
3
(c) 4 (d) 0
6. If the expression 𝑝𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2 – 3 and 2𝑥 3 – 5𝑥 + 𝑝 when divided by 𝑥 – 4 leave the same
remainder, then what is the value of 𝑝?
(a) –1 (b) 1
(c) –2 (d) 2
7. If 𝑥(𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) = 9, 𝑦(𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) = 16 and 𝑧(𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧) = 144, then what is 𝑥 equal to?
9 9
(a) 5 (b)7
9 16
(c)13 (d) 13
8. If u, v and w are real numbers such that 𝑢3 – 8𝑣 3 – 27𝑤 3 = 18uvw, then which one of the following is
correct?
(a) 𝑢 – 𝑣 + 𝑤 = 0 (b) 𝑢 = – 𝑣 = – 𝑤
(c) 𝑢 – 2𝑣 = 3𝑤 (d) 𝑢 + 2𝑣 = – 3𝑤
4 4
9. 𝑥 + 4𝑦 is divisible by which one of the following?
(a) (𝑥 2 + 2xy + 2𝑦 2 ) (b) (𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 )
(c) (𝑥 2 – 2𝑦 2 ) (d) None of these
10. The shadow of a pole 6 m high is 15 m long and at the same time the shadow of a tree is 25 m long.
What is the height of the tree?
(a) 21 m (b) 10 m
(c) 35 m (d) None of these
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)

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15. LINEAR EQUATIONS IN ONE AND TWO VARIABLES


15.1 SOLVING EQUATIONS BY COLLECTING TERMS
• The important thing to remember about any equation is that the equals sign represents a balance.
• I.e. it means what’s on the left-hand side is exactly the same as what’s on the right-hand side.
• So, if we do anything to one side of the equation we have to do it to the other side, else the balance
is disturbed.
• Therefore, whatever operation we perform on either side of the equation, so long as it’s done in
exactly the same way on each side the balance will be preserved.
• Our first step in solving any equation is to attempt to gather all the x’s together and to gather all the
numbers together.
Let’s look at the below example.
3𝑥 + 4𝑥 – 9 + 4 = 9
Do we know how to add 3𝑥 and 4𝑥?
Then we do so and get 7𝑥.
Do we know how to perform the operation 9? 4? Then we do so and get −5. Put that together and our
new equation looks like this
7𝑥 − 5 = 9
Sometimes this step is called combining like terms because we added/subtracted like terms. Like terms
are those pieces of the equation are the same type of number.
In our example, 3𝑥 and 4𝑥 were both variables while the −9 and 4 were both regular numbers.
Therefore we combined them.
Since LHS = RHS, While substituting𝑥 = 2we get
7 × 2 − 5 = 9
14 – 5 = 9
I.e. 9=9
So the value of 𝑥 = 2 in this equation.
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
1. Simplify this expression: 𝑥 + 5 + 3𝑥 − 7 + 9𝑥 + 3 − 4𝑥
Solution:
Collect all the terms together which are alike. Remember that each term comes with an operation
(+, −) which goes before it.
𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 9𝑥 − 4𝑥 + 5 − 7 + 3
Simplify the 𝑥 terms.
𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 9𝑥 − 4𝑥 = 9𝑥
Simplify the numbers separately.
5-7+3=1
=> 9𝑥 + 1
2. Simplify 𝑥 + 2𝑥 = 5 + 10
Solution:
Combine like terms:𝑥 + 2𝑥 = 3𝑥
Combine like terms: 5 +10 =15
Solving 3𝑥 = 15
Now solving for variable𝑥, divide each side by 3
=> 𝑥 = 5

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15.2 LINEAR EQUATIONS WITH FRACTIONAL COEFFICIENTS


Some equations include a variable with fractional coefficient.
Solving these kind of equations by multiplying both sides of the equation by reciprocal of the fraction
and cancelling factors or divide each term in the equation by the coefficient.
Let’s see how it works in the below example
2
𝑥 =12
3
3 2 3
( 𝑥) = 2(12)
2 3
𝑥 = 18
Fraction Busters: Multiplying all the terms of an equation by the common denominator will remove all
of the fractions from the equation. Then the equation can be solved in the usual way.
𝑥 𝑥
Example:2 + 5 = 6
Multiplying by 10 (common denominator) will eliminate the fractions.
𝑥 𝑥
10(2) + 10 (5) = 10(6)
5𝑥 + 2𝑥 = 60
7𝑥 = 60
60
𝑥= 7
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
3 1
Solve: 4 𝑥 +2 𝑦=-14
−1 1
𝑥+6 𝑦=7
3
Solution:
Multiply to eliminate fractions.
3 1
𝑥 +2 𝑦=-14times4 -->3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = −56
4
−1 1
𝑥+6 𝑦=7times6 -->−2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 42
3
3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = −56
−2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 42Times2 -->−4𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 84
3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = −56
−4𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 84
Subtracting these equations, we get
7𝑥 = −140 => 𝑥 = −20
−2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 42
40 + 𝑦 = 42
𝑦=2
15.3 LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES
Equations of degree one and having two different variables in it are called linear equations in two variables.
Standard form of a linear equation in two variables is, 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0
Where, 𝑎, 𝑏 and 𝑐 are real numbers, and both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are not equal to zero.
Since there are two different variables involved, a solution of linear equation in two variables means a
pair of numbers. One for 𝑥 and one for 𝑦 which satisfy the given equation.
Consider the equation,
𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 10

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Substitute 𝑥 = 2 and𝑦 = 4,
⇒ LHS = 2 + 8 = 10 = RHS
𝑥 = 2 and 𝑦 = 4 is a solution of this equation since it satisfies the equation.
This solution is written as ordered pair (2, 4).
Similarly, Substitute 𝑥 = 4 and𝑦 = 3,
⇒ LHS = 4 + 6 = 10 = RHS
Therefore, (4, 3) is also a solution of the equation.
Substitute 𝑥 = 3 and𝑦 = 4,
⇒ LHS = 3 + 8 = 11 ≠ RHS
Therefore, (3, 4) is not a solution of the equation.
We found that (2, 4) and (4, 3) are two solutions of the equation, 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 10.
Similarly, (10, 0) is another solution, since it satisfies the equation.
SOLVED EXAMPLE
3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 10 and 2𝑥 – 2𝑦 = 2.
Solution:
We have, 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 10... (i)
And 2𝑥 – 2𝑦 = 2... (ii)
Multiplying (ii) by 2, we get 4𝑥 – 4𝑦 = 4... (iii)
Adding (i) and (iii), we get 7𝑥 = 14 ⇒ 𝑥 = 2
Putting 𝑥 = 2 in equation (ii), we get 2 × 2 – 2y = 2⇒ 2y = 4 – 2 𝑦 = 1
Hence, the solution is 𝑥 = 2 and 𝑦 = 1
Formula Table
➢ Linear Equation:𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏 = 0 where 𝑎 and 𝑏 are constants and 𝑎 ≠ 0.
➢ “Combining like terms” to solve the equation.
➢ Linear Equations with Fractional Coefficient: Multiply both sides of the equation by
reciprocal of the fraction or divide each term in the equation by the coefficient.
➢ Equations of degree one and having two different variables in it are called linear
equations in two variables.𝒂𝒙 + 𝒃𝒚 + 𝒄 = 𝟎
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. A railway ticket for a child costs half the full fare On solving (i) and (ii), we get
but the reservation charge is the same on half 𝑥 = 340 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 22
tickets as much as on full ticket. One reserved first Reservation charge =Rs 22
class ticket for a journey between two stations is 2. Let there be three simultaneous linear
Rs.362, one full and one half reserved first class equations in two unknowns, which are non-
tickets cost Rs. 554. What is the reservation parallel and non-collinear them. What can be the
charge? number of solutions (if they do exist)?
(a) Rs. 18 (b) Rs. 22 (a) One or infinite (b) Only one
(c) Rs. 38 (d) Rs. 46 (c) Exactly two (d) Exactly three
Solution (b) Solution (d)
Let full fare = Rs. 𝑥 and reservation charges = Rs. 𝑦 If three lines are parallel, then there is infinite
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 362 … … . (𝑖) solution. If all three lines are collinear, then there
and 1(1/2) 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 554 is only one solution. If all three lines are non-
⇒ 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 1108 … … . (𝑖𝑖) parallel and non-collinear, then there is only three

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solutions. Hence, the given systems of equation 7. The system of equations 3𝑥 + 𝑦 – 4 =


have here exactly three solutions 0 and 6𝑥 + 2𝑦 – 8 = 0 has (a) A unique
3. Under what condition do the equations solution 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 1
𝑘𝑥 – 𝑦 = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 have a unique (b) A unique solution 𝑥 = 0, 𝑦 = 4
solution? (c) No solution
(a) 𝑘 = 3 (b) 𝑘 ≠ 3 (d) Infinite solution
(c) 𝐾 = 0 (d) 𝐾 ≠ 0 Solution (d)
Solution (b)
Given equation of system
The equations 𝑘𝑥 − 𝑦 = 2 and 6𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 3 have
a unique solution. Then 3𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4
𝐾 1 6𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 8
( 6 ) ≠ (2) 𝑎1 𝑏 𝑐 1
= 𝑏1 = 𝑐1 = 2
𝐾 ≠ 3 𝑎2 2 2

4. The sum of two numbers is 80. If the larger Therefore the system of equation has infinite
number exceeds four times the smaller by 5, what solutions because it is a coincident line
is the smaller number? 8. If 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≤ 6, 𝑥 ≥ 0, 𝑦 ≥ 0 , then one of the
(a) 5 (b) 15 solutions is
(c) 20 (d) 25 (a) 𝑥= –2 and 𝑦= 3
Solution (b) (b) 𝑥= 1 and 𝑦= 2
Let smaller number = 𝑥 (c) 𝑥= 1 and 𝑦= 1
Larger number = 80 – 𝑥 (d) 𝑥= –1 and 𝑦= –1
According to question Solution (c)
80 − 𝑥 = 4𝑥 + 5 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≤ 6, 𝑥 ≥ 0, 𝑦 ≥ 0
5𝑥 = 75 => 𝑥 = 15 𝑁𝑜𝑤 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≤ 6
5. The sum of two numbers is 10 and their product 𝑃𝑢𝑡 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 1
⇒ 2×1+3×1 ≤ 6⇒ 5<6
is 20. What is the sum of their reciprocals?
1 1 𝑥 = 1 and 𝑦 = 1 is only solution according to
(a) 10 (b) 2
given condition.
(c) 1 (d) 2
9. Pooja started her job with certain monthly
Solution (b)
salary and gets a fixed increment every year. If her
Let the two numbers be 𝑥 and 𝑦.
salary was Rs. 4200 after 3 years and Rs. 6800
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 10 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥𝑦 = 20
1 1 𝑥+𝑦 10 1
after 8 years of service, then what are her initial
+𝑦 = = 20 = 2 salary and the annual increment, respectively?
𝑥 𝑥𝑦

6. The sum of two numbers is 20 and their product (a) Rs. 2640, Rs. 320
is 75. What is the sum of their reciprocals? (b) Rs. 2460, Rs. 320
1 1
(a) 15 (b) 5 (c) Rs. 2460, Rs. 520
4 7 (d) Rs. 2640, Rs. 520
(c) 15 (d) 15
Solution (c) Solution (d)
Let the number be x and y Let Pooja initial salary is Rs 𝑥 and fixed increment
every year is Rs 𝑦
According to the question,
According to question
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 75 and 𝑥𝑦 = 75 𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 4200 and 𝑥 + 8𝑦 = 6800
1 1 𝑦+𝑥
+𝑦 = on solving equation (i) and (ii)
𝑥 𝑥𝑦
20 4 𝑥 = 𝑅𝑠 2640 and 𝑦 = 𝑅𝑠 520
= 15
75

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EXERCISE
1. Assertion (A): The equations 2𝑥 – 3𝑦 = 5 and 6𝑦 – 4𝑥 = 11 cannot be solved graphically.
Reason (R): The equations given above represent parallel lines.
(a) A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
2. If a two-digit number is added to a number obtained by reversing the digits of the given number, then
the sum is always divisible by which one of the following numbers?
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 11
1
3. A train started from a station with a certain number of passengers. At the first half, 3 rd of its
passengers got down and 120 passengers got in. At the second half, half of the passengers got down and
100 persons got in. Then, the train left for its destination with 240 passengers. How many passengers
were there in the train when it started?
(a) 540 (b) 480
(c) 360 (d) 240
4. A person bought a certain number of books for Rs.80. If he had bought 4 more books for the same
sum, each book would have cost Re.1 less. What is the price of each book?
(a) Rs. 10 (b) Rs. 8
(c) Rs. 5 (d) Rs. 4
5. What is/are the solutions of the set of homogeneous equations (4x + 2y = 0) and (6x + 3y = 0)
(a) Only 𝑥 = 0, 𝑦 = 0
(b) Only 𝑥 = 0, 𝑦 = 0 and 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 2
(c) An infinite number of solutions
(d) No solution
6. The cost of 4 books and 3 pencils is same as that of 8 books and 1 pencil. This cost will be same as that
of which one of the following?
(a) 2 books and 6 pencils (b) 5 books and 5 pencils
(c) 6 books and 2 pencils (d) 12 books and 4 pencils
7. If one-third of a two-digit number exceeds its one-fourth by 8, then what is the sum of the digits of
the number?
(a) 6 (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 17
8. What is the sum of two numbers whose difference is 45 and the quotient of the greater number by
the lesser number is 4?
(a) 100 (b) 90
(c) 80 (d) 75
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d)
TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

16. QUADRATIC EQUATIONS AND IN-EQUATIONS


16.1 METHODS OF SOLVING QUADRATIC EQUATIONS
A quadratic equation is a polynomial equation of degree 2, it can be written as 𝑎𝑥 ² + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐
where 𝑎 ≠ 0.
A quadratic equation has two solutions. Either two distinct real solutions, one double real solution or
two imaginary solutions. 3 methods can be used to solve the quadratic equation.
• Factoring
• Completing the square
• Quadratic Formula
Factoring
To factor the expression, you have to use the factors of the 𝑥 2 term and the factors of the constant
term to make them multiply and then add up to the middle term.
Example:
2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 1 = 0
(2𝑥 + 1)(𝑥 − 1) = 0
1
If (2𝑥 + 1) = 0 then, 𝑥 = − 2
If (𝑥 − 1) = 0 then, 𝑥 = 1
Completing the Square
Divide both sides of the equation 2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 1 = 0 by 2,
1 1
𝑥2 − 2 𝑥 − 2 = 0
1
Add 2 to both sides of the equation,
1 1 1 1
𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 2 + 2 = 0 + 2
1 1
𝑥2 − 2 𝑥 = 2
2
1 1 1
Add (2 . (− 2)) = 16 to both sides of the equation,
1 1 1 1
𝑥 2 − 2 𝑥 + 16 = 2 + 16
Factor the left side and simplify the right side,
1 2 9
(𝑥 − 4) = 16
Take the square root of both sides of the equation,
1 3
𝑥 − 4 = ±4
1
Add 4 to both sides of the equation,
1 3
𝑥 =4±4
1 3
𝑥 = 4 + 4 = 1 And
1 3 1
𝑥 = 4 − 4 = −2
Quadratic Formula
−𝒃±√𝒃𝟐 −𝟒𝒂𝒄
The quadratic formula is 𝒙 = 𝟐𝒂
In the equation, 2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 1 = 0
𝑎 is the coefficient of the 𝑥 2 term

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𝑏 is the coefficient of the 𝑥 term


And 𝑐 is the constant.
Substitute 2 for 𝑎, -1 for 𝑏, and -1 for 𝑐 in the quadratic formula and simplify.
−(−1)±√(−1)2 −4(2)(−1)
𝑥= 2(2)
1±√9 1±3
𝑥= => 𝑥 =
4 4
1+3 1−3 1
𝑥= = 1 and 𝑥 = = −2
4 4
16.2 FEATURES OF QUADRATIC EQUATIONS
• Standard form is 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐,where𝑎 𝑎 ≠ 0.
• The graph for quadratic equation is a parabola.
• The parabola will open upward or downward.
• A parabola that opens upward contains a vertex that is a minimum point.
• A parabola that opens downward contains a vertex that is a maximum point.
• The domain of a quadratic function is all real numbers.
• To determine the range of a quadratic function, ask yourself two questions:
➢ Is the vertex a minimum or maximum?
➢ What is the y-value of the vertex?
➢ If the vertex is a minimum, then the range is all real numbers greater than or equal to the y-
value.
➢ If the vertex is a maximum, then the range is all real numbers less than or equal to the y-value.
• An axis of symmetry (also known as a line of symmetry) will divide the parabola into mirror images.
• The line of symmetry is always a vertical line of the form 𝑥 = 𝑛, where 𝑛 is a real number.
• The 𝑥-intercepts are the points at which a parabola intersects the 𝑥-axis. These points are also
known as zeroes, roots, solutions, and solution sets.
• Each quadratic function will have two, one, or no 𝑥-intercepts.
16.3 EQUALITY AND INEQUALITY
Equality
• The term "equation" is used to assert the equality of two quantities.
• An algebraic equation states that one algebraic expression is equal to another.
• An equation is a statement that maintains the equal value of two mathematical expressions.
• If the statement is true for all variable values, it is called an identity. If it is only true for some
variable values, it is called a conditional equation.
Inequality
• An inequality, on the other hand, is a statement that uses the symbols > for greater than or < for
lesser than to denote that one quantity is larger or smaller in value than another.
• Like an identity, an inequality holds values for all variables. It focuses on the inequalities of two
variables with one as their exponents.
Inequality rules
Algebra rules for manipulating inequalities are listed below.
• 𝑎 < 𝑏 means 𝑎 is smaller than 𝑏.
• 𝑎 ≤ 𝑏 means 𝑎 is smaller than or equal to 𝑏.

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• 𝑎 > 𝑏 means 𝑎 is greater than 𝑏.


• 𝑎 ≥ 𝑏 means 𝑎 is greater than or equal to 𝑏.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Solve the quadratic inequality 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 > −3
Solution:
Make one side of the inequality zero
𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 3 > 0
Factor the quadratic expression,
(𝑥 − 3)(𝑥 − 1) > 0
Find the range of values of 𝑥 which satisfies the inequality.
(𝑥 − 3)(𝑥 − 1) > 0 (𝑌 is positive). Choose the interval for which the curve is above the 𝑥-axis. 𝑥 < 1 or
𝑥 > 3.
2. Solve the quadratic inequality 2𝑥 2 < 9𝑥 + 5
Solution:
Make one side of the inequality zero
2𝑥 2 − 9𝑥 − 5 < 0
Factor the quadratic expression
(2𝑥 + 1)(𝑥 − 5) < 0
Find the range of values of 𝑥 which satisfies the inequality.
(2𝑥 + 1)(𝑥 − 5) < 0 (𝑌 is negative). Choose the interval for which the curve is below the 𝑥-axis.
1
− <𝑥<5
2

PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. r is a non-zero real number such that𝑟 75 > 𝑟 90 . This is possible only when
(a) -1<r<0 (b) 0<r<1
(c) 1<r (d) -1<r<1
Solution (b)
𝑟 75 > 𝑟 90 is possible only when r lies between 0 and 1 (0<r<1)
2. When the roots of the quadratic 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 are negative of reciprocal of each other, then
which one of the following I correct?
(a) b=0 (b) c=0
(c) a=c (d) a= -c
Solution (c)
The roots of the equation
𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 are – 𝛼 and (-1/ 𝛼)
(– 𝛼) (-1/ 𝛼) = c/a => C= a
3. What is the root of the equation? 𝑙𝑜𝑔10 (𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 45) = 2?
(a) 9,-5 (b)-9,5
(c) 11,-5 (d) -11,5
Solution (c)
𝑙𝑜𝑔10 (𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 45) = 2

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⇒ (𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 45) = 102 =100


𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 − 55 ⇒ x(x-11) +5(x-11) =0
⇒ (𝑥 + 5) (𝑥 − 11) = 0
𝑥 = 11, −5
4. What are the roots of the equation? 4𝑥 − 4.2𝑥+2 + 32 = 0?
(a) 1,2 (b) 3,4
(c) 2,3 (d) 1,3
Solution (c)
4𝑥 − 4.2𝑥+2 + 32 = 0
⇒ 22𝑥 − 8.2𝑥 + 4.2𝑥 + 32 = 0
⇒ (2𝑥 − 8)(⇒ 2𝑥 − 4) = 0
On comparing both side2𝑥 = 8, 𝑥 = 3
2𝑥 =4 ⇒ x=2
5. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the roots of the equation 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 1 = 0 then what is the value of 𝛼 4 + 𝛽 4 ?
(a) 7 (b) 0
(c) 2 (d) None of there
Solution (a)
𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 1 = 0 , 𝛼 + 𝛽=1, 𝛼 𝛽= -1
We know that
𝛼 4 + 𝛽 4 = (𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 )2 − 2(𝛼 𝛽)2
= (1 + 2)2 − 2 = 9 -2 = 7
6. If one root of the equation 2𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 is 0.5, then what is the value of c?
(a)-1 (b)-2
(c)-3 (d)-4
Solution (b)
2𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 is 0.5
2(0.5)2 + 3(0.5) + 𝑐 = 0
0.5 + 1.5 + 𝑐 = 0
𝑐 = −2
7. What is the condition that the equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 where a≠0 has both the roots positive?
(a) a, b, c are of (b) a, b are of same
same sign sign
(c) b, c have the (d) a, c have the
same sign opposite same sign opposite
to that of a. to that of b.
Solution (d)
a and c have same sign opposite to that of b
8. The equation whose roots are twice the roots of the equation 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 4 =0 is
(a) 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 4 =0 (b) 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 +
16 =0
2
(c) 𝑥 − 4𝑥 + 8 =0 (d) 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 +
16 =0

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Solution (d)
𝛼 + 𝛽 =2 and 𝛼 𝛽 =4
On taking𝛼 → 2𝛼, 𝛽 → 2𝛽
2𝛼 + 2𝛽 =4 and 2𝛼. 2𝛽 = +4 ∗ 4 = +16
𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 16 =0
9. The quadratic equation whose root is 3 and -1 is
(a) 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + (b) 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 −
3 =0 3 =0
2
(c) 𝑥 + 2𝑥 − (d) 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 +
3 =0 3 =0
Solution (b)
Here given roots of the equation are 3 and -1
(𝑥 − 3)(𝑥 + 1) = 0
𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 𝑥 − 3 =0
𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 3 =0
10. If f(x) is polynomial with all coefficients are integers and constant term 10 having a factor (x-k) where
k is an integer, then what is the possible value of k?
(a) 4 (b) 20
(c) 8 (d) 5
Solution (d)
Given that f(x) is a polynomial with constant term 10 and all coefficients are integer. Let k, k1, K2…k (n-
1) be root of nth degree polynomial
Product of roots = constant term/ coefficient of 𝑥 𝑛
10
𝐾, 𝑘1 . 𝑘2 , 𝑘 (𝑛 − 1) = ( 1 )
𝐾, 𝑘1 . 𝑘2 , 𝑘 (𝑛 − 1) = 10 = 5.2.1 … . .1
Therefore, the possible value of 𝑘 is 5.

EXERCISE
1. If 𝑥 2 − 𝑘𝑥 − 21 = 0 and 𝑥 2 − 3𝑘𝑥 + 35 = 0 have common root, then what is the value of k?
(a) +4 (b) -4
(c) ±4 (d) ±1
2. If the equations 2𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 3 = 0 and 4𝑥 2 − 𝑎𝑥 − 3 = 0 have a common root, then what is the
value of a?
(a) -11 or 4 (b) -11 or -4
(c) 11 or -4 (d) 11 or 4
3. If (2𝑥 − 3𝑦 < 7) and (𝑥 + 6𝑦 < 11) then which one of the following is correct?
(a) 𝑥 + 𝑦 < 5 (b) 𝑥 + 𝑦 < 6
(c) 𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤ 5 (d) 𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤ 6
4. For what value of k, does the equation [𝑘𝑥² + (2𝑘 + 6) 𝑥 + 16 = 0] have equal roots?
(a) 1,9 (b) -9,1
(c) -1,9 (d) -1,-9

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5. If the product of the roots of 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 2𝑘 2 − 1 = 0 is for a fixed k, then what is the nature of root?
(a) Integral and positive (b) Integral and negative
(c) Irrational (d)Rational but integral
6. Which one of the following is the quadratic equation whose roots are reciprocal to the roots of the
quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 4 = 0 ?
(a) 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 4 = 0 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 2 = 0
(c) 3𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 2 = 0 (d) 4𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 3 = 0
7. The value of y which will satisfy the equations 2𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 + 5𝑦 + 1 and 2x+y+3=0 may be found by
solving which one of the following equations?
(a) 𝑦 2 + 14𝑦 − 7 = 0 (b) 𝑦 2 + 8𝑦 − 7 = 0
(c) 𝑦 2 + 10𝑦 − 7 = 0 (d) 𝑦 2 + 8𝑦 − 7 = 0
8. If a polynomial equation has rational co-efficient and has exactly three real root, then what is the
degree of the polynomial?
(a) equal to 3 (b) greater than or equal to 3
(c) strictly greater than 3 (d) less than 3
9. Which one of the following is one of the two consecutive positive integers, the sum of whose shares is 761?
(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 24 (d) 225
10. Student of a class is made to stand in row. If one student is extra in a row, there Would be twos less.
If one student is less in a row, there would be three rows more. Then, what is the number of student in
the class?
(a) 65 (b) 55
(c) 60 (d) 50
𝑥 1−𝑥 13
11. What is one of the values of x is the equation √1−𝑥 + √ = ?
𝑥 6

(a) 5/13 (b)7/13


(c) 9/13 (d)11/3
12. What are the roots of the equation? (𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑥)−1 = 𝑎−1 + 𝑏 −1 + 𝑥 −1 ?
(a) a,b (b) –a,b
(c) a,-b (d) –a,-b
13. If one root of 𝑝𝑥 2 + qx + r = 0 is double of the other root, then which one of the following is
correct?
(a) 2q2 =9pr (b) 2q2 =9p
(c) 4q2 =9r (d) 9q2 =2pr
2𝑥 3−𝑥 5
14. What is one of the values of x is the equation √3−𝑥 + √ 2𝑥 = 2 ?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
15. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the roots of the equation𝑥 2 − 3x + 2 = 0, then which euation has the roots (𝛼 + 1)
and (𝛽 + 1) ?

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(a) 𝑥 2 + 5x + 6 = 0 (b) 𝑥 2 − 5x − 6 = 0
(c) 𝑥 2 + 5x − 6 = 0 (d) 𝑥 2 − 5x + 6 = 0
16. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the roots of the equation𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏x + c = 0, then what is the value of 𝛼 3 + 𝛽 3 ?
𝑏 3 +3𝑎𝑏𝑐 𝑎3 −𝑏3
(a) (b)
𝑎3 3𝑎𝑏
3𝑎𝑏𝑐−𝑏 3 𝑏 3 −3𝑎𝑏𝑐
(c) (d)
𝑎3 𝑎3
17. If 3 + 27(3−𝑥 ) = 12 then what is the value of x?
𝑥

(a) only 1 (b) only 2


(c) 1 and 2 (d) 0 or 1
18. What is the magnitude or difference of the roots of𝑥 2 − 𝑎𝑏 + b = 0?
(a) √𝑎2 − 4𝑏 (b) √𝑏 2 − 4𝑎
(c) 2√𝑎2 − 4𝑏 (d) √𝑏 2 − 4𝑎𝑏
19. If 𝑎 + 𝑏 = 2𝑚², 𝑏 + 𝑐 = 2, where 𝑚 is real number and a≤b≤c then which one of the following I
correct?
1 (b)−1 ≤ 𝑚 ≤ 0
(a) 0 ≤ 𝑚 ≤ ( ) 2
1 (d) 1 ≤ 𝑚 ≤ 2
(c) (3) ≤ 𝑚 ≤ 1
𝑥(𝑥−1)−(𝑚+1) 𝑥
20. If the roots of the equation (𝑥−1)(𝑚−1)
= 𝑚 are equal then what is the value of m?
(a) 1 (b) ½
(c) 0 (d) -1/2

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12.(d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)

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17. RATIONAL EXPRESSIONS


17.1 SIMPLIFYING RATIONAL EXPRESSIONS
Rational Expressions: A rational expression is nothing more than a fraction in which the numerator
and/or the denominator are polynomials. Here are some examples of rational expressions.
Examples
6 𝑧 2 −1 𝑚4 +18𝑚+1
, ,
𝑥−1 𝑧 2 +5 𝑚2 −𝑚−6
Steps for Simplifying a Rational Expression
1. Determine the domain. The excluded values are those values that result in a denominator of 0.
2. Find common factors for the numerator and denominator and simplify.
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
𝟓𝒙𝟐 𝒚𝟓
1. Simplify and state the domain for the expression 𝟐𝟓𝒙𝒚
Find the excluded values, the values of 𝑥 and 𝑦 that make the denominator equal to 0.
25𝑥𝑦 = 0 i.e 𝑥 = 0 𝑜𝑟 𝑦 = 0
The domain is all 𝑥 not equal to 0 and all 𝑦 not equal to 0.
Factor the numerator and denominator
5𝑥 2 𝑦 5 5.𝑥.𝑥.𝑦.𝑦.𝑦.𝑦.𝑦
=
25𝑥𝑦 5.5.𝑥.𝑦
Rewrite with factors of 1
5 𝑥 𝑦 𝑥.𝑦.𝑦.𝑦.𝑦
. . .
5 𝑥 𝑦 5
𝑥.𝑦.𝑦.𝑦.𝑦 𝑥𝑦 4
1.1.1. =
5 5
The domain is all 𝑥 not equal to 0 and all 𝑦 not equal to 0.
𝑥+3
2. Simplify and state the domain for the expression 𝑥 2 +12𝑥+27
Determine the values for which the denominator is equal to 0. Factor the quadratic to find the values.
𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 + 27 = 0
(𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 + 9) = 0
𝑥 = −3 𝑜𝑟 𝑥 = −9
Factor the numerator and denominator.
(𝑥+3)
(𝑥+3)(𝑥+9)
Rewrite with factors of 1, and then simplify.
(𝑥+3) 1 1
. = (𝑥+9)
(𝑥+3) (𝑥+9)
The domain is all 𝑥 not -9 or -3.
17.2 ADDING AND SUBTRACTING RATIONAL EXPRESSIONS
Rational Expressions with the Same Denominator
To add/subtract rational expressions with the same denominator
1. Add/subtract the numerators. Write this sum/difference as the numerator over the common
denominator.
2. Reduce to lowest terms.
SOLVED EXAMPLES:
𝟒𝒙 𝟔𝒙
1. Simplify the following 𝟓𝒚 + 𝟓𝒚

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Solution
These fractions already have a common denominator.
Step 1: Write this sum as the numerator over the common denominator
4𝑥 6𝑥 4𝑥+6𝑥
+ 5𝑦 =
5𝑦 5𝑦
Step 2: Reduce to lowest terms
4𝑥 6𝑥 4𝑥+6𝑥 10𝑥 2𝑥
+ 5𝑦 = = =
5𝑦 5𝑦 5𝑦 𝑦
Rational Expressions with Different Denominators
To add/subtract rational expressions with the different denominator
1. Factor each denominator completely.
2. Build the LCD of the denominators.
3. Rewrite each rational expression with the LCD as the denominator.
4. Add/subtract the numerators.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Simplify the following
5𝑥 − 1 3
2
+
𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 2 2𝑥 − 4
Solution:
Step 1: Factor each denominator completely.
5𝑥−1 3 5𝑥−1 3
+ 2𝑥−4 = + 2(𝑥−2)
𝑥 2 −3𝑥+2 (𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)
Step 2: Build the LCD of the denominators.
𝐿𝐶𝐷 = 2(𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 − 2)
Step 3: Rewrite each rational expression with the LCD as the denominator.
5𝑥−1 3 5𝑥−1 3
+ 2𝑥−4 = + 2(𝑥−2)
𝑥 2 −3𝑥+2 (𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)
2(5𝑥−1) 3(𝑥−1)
= 2(𝑥−1)(𝑥−2) + 2(𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)
Step 4: Add the numerators.
5𝑥−1 3
+
𝑥 2 −3𝑥+2 2𝑥−4
5𝑥−1 3
= (𝑥−1)(𝑥−2) +
2(𝑥−2)
2(5𝑥−1) 3(𝑥−1)
= 2(𝑥−1)(𝑥−2) + 2(𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)
2(5𝑥−1)+3(𝑥−1)
= 2(𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)
13𝑥−5
= 2(𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)

17.3 MULTIPLYING AND DIVIDING RATIONAL EXPRESSIONS


To multiply a rational expression
1. Factor all numerators and denominators.
2. Cancel all common factors.
3. Either multiply the denominators and numerators together or leave the solution in factored form.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Multiply the following rational expressions
x 2 + 6x + 9 3x − 9
.
x2 − 9 x 2 + 2x − 3

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Solution:
Step 1: Factor all numerators and denominators
x2 +6x+9 3x−9 (𝑥+3)(𝑥+3) 3(𝑥−3)
. x2 +2x−3 = .
x2 −9 (𝑥−3)(𝑥+3) (𝑥+3)(𝑥−1)
Step 2: Cancel all common factors and simplify
x 2 + 6x + 9 3x − 9
2
. 2
x −9 x + 2x − 3
(𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 + 3) 3(𝑥 − 3)
= .
(𝑥 − 3)(𝑥 + 3) (𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 − 1)
1 3 3
= × =
1 𝑥−1 𝑥−1
To divide a rational expression
When we divide rational functions we need to multiply by the reciprocal.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Divide the following rational expressions
𝑥+4
2𝑥 − 6
3𝑥 + 12
4𝑥 − 12
Solution:
Step 1: Multiply by the reciprocal
𝑥+4
2𝑥−6 𝑥+4 4𝑥−12 𝑥+4 4(𝑥−3)
3𝑥+12 = 2𝑥−6 . 3𝑥+12 = 2(𝑥−3) . 3(𝑥+4)
4𝑥−12
𝑥+4
2𝑥−6 𝑥+4 4𝑥−12 𝑥+4 4(𝑥−3) 1 4 2
Step 2: Cancel all common factors and simplify 3𝑥+12 = 2𝑥−6 . 3𝑥+12 = 2(𝑥−3) . 3(𝑥+4) = 2 . 3 = 3
4𝑥−12

17.4 NESTED FRACTIONS


Generally nested fraction is in the form of
𝟏
𝒂𝟎 + 𝟏
𝒂𝟏 + 𝟏
𝒂𝟐 + 𝟏
…+𝒂
𝒏
𝑐
We can derive a general formula for finding 𝑐 allowing this expression to be equal to y.
𝑥+
𝑥+⋯..
𝑐 𝑐
𝑦= 𝑐 =>𝑦 = 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+
𝑥+⋯..
𝑦 2 + 𝑥𝑦 − 𝑐 = 0
−𝑥+ √𝑥 2 +4𝑐
𝑦= 2
Solved Example
1
Simplify 𝑥 = 6 + 1
2+ 1
2+ 1
12+ 1
2+ 1
2+
12+⋯….
Solution
1
𝑥−6= 1
2+ 1
2+
12+(𝑥−6)
1
𝑥−6= 1
2+ 1
2+
𝑥+6

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1
𝑥−6= 𝑥+6
2+
2𝑥+13
2𝑥+13
𝑥−6= 5𝑥+32
5𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 192 = 2𝑥 + 13
𝑥 2 = 41
And 𝑥 is clearly positive, so 𝑥 = √41
17.5 DIRECT AND INVERSE VARIATION
Direct Variation We say 𝑦 varies directly with 𝑥 if 𝒚 = 𝒌𝒙 for some constant𝑘 . This means that
as 𝑥 increases, 𝑦 increases and as 𝑥 decreases, 𝑦 decreases, and that the ratio between them always
stays the same.
𝒌
Inverse Variation We say 𝑦 varies inversely with 𝑥 if 𝒙𝒚 = 𝒌, or equivalently 𝒚 = 𝒙 for some constant 𝑘.
This means that as 𝑥 increases, y decreases and as 𝑥 decreases, 𝑦 increases.
Solved Example
Direct Variation: If 14 kg of pulses cost $ 441, what is the cost of 22 kg of pulses?
Solution
22
. 441 = 693
14
Indirect Variation: 50 children took 12 hours to complete a work in a given time, how many children will
complete it in 8 hours?
Solution
12
× 50 = 75
8
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

√𝑎+2𝑏+√𝑎−2𝑏
1. If 𝑥 = , then 𝑏𝑥 2 – 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏 is equal to (given that b ≠ 0)
√𝑎+2𝑏−√𝑎−2𝑏
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) ab (d) 2ab
Solution: (a)
𝑥 √𝑎+2𝑏+√𝑎−2𝑏
=
1 √𝑎+2𝑏−√𝑎−2𝑏
Applying componendo and dividendo, we get
𝑥+1 2√𝑎+2𝑏
=
𝑥−1 2√𝑎−2𝑏
𝑥+1 √𝑎+2𝑏
=
𝑥−1 √𝑎−2𝑏
Squaring on both sides, we get
(𝑥+1)2 𝑎+2𝑏
=
(𝑥−1)2 𝑎−2𝑏
Again applying componendo and dividendo, we get
𝑥 2 +1+2𝑥+𝑥 2 +1−2𝑥 2𝑎 𝑎
= =
𝑥 2 +1+2𝑥−𝑥 2 −1+2𝑥 4𝑎𝑏 2𝑏
2(𝑥 2 +1) 𝑎
=
4𝑥 2𝑏
b𝑥 2 + b = ax

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b𝑥 2 – ax + b = 0
Option (a) is correct.
1 1 1 1
2. The value of 1×4 + 4×7 + 7×10 + ⋯ + 16×19
5 6
(a) 19 (b) 19
8 9
(c) 19 (d) 19
Solution: (b)
1 1 1 1
+ 4×7 + 7×10 … … . + 16×19
1×4
1 3 3 3 3
⇒ [ + + 7×10 + ⋯ … . + 16×19]
3 1×4 4×7
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
⇒ [1 − 4 + (4 − 7) + (7 − 10) + … … + (16 − 19)]
3
1 1
⇒ (1 − 19)
3
1 18 6
⇒ 3 × 19 = 19
So, option (b) is correct.
EXERCISE
√(𝑥−1)2
1. Consider the following in respect of the equation 𝑦= 𝑥−1
1. 𝑦 = 1 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 > 1
2. 𝑦 = – 1 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 < 1
3. 𝑦 exists for all values of 𝑥
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The sum of first 47 terms of the series


1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
+ 5 − 6 − 4 − 5 + 6 + 4 + 5 − 6 … … .. is
4
1
(a) 0 (b) − 6
1 9
(c) 6 (d) 20

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (b)

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18. SET THEORY


18.1 DEFINITION AND TYPES OF SETS
• Set – collection of things.
• Each number in a set is called member of the set.
• The things you wear is a set is an example. i.e., {Socks, Shoes, Shirts, Bangles…}
• Some other examples are Set of whole numbers {0, 1, 2, 3, …}, Set of prime numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, ….}
• Types of Sets – Empty set, Singleton Set, Finite and Infinite Set, Union and Intersection of sets,
Subset, Disjoint set, Equality of two sets.
➢ Empty Set – A set that contains no element. Also called as Null set and Void set. Number of
element in set X represented by n(X). Empty set denoted by∅, Hence n (∅) = 0.
➢ Singleton Set – One and only element in a set. Also called as unit set. If A is singleton, then A= {x:
x=A). i.e., A= {5} is singleton set.
➢ Finite set – Set contains only finite number of elements on it. {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} is finite set,
contains 6 elements hence cardinality is 6. Set of all days in a week is also example of finite set.
➢ Infinite Set- A set which is not finite. They are uncountable or countable. Set of all integers is an
example for infinite set.
➢ Union of Sets – Contains all the elements that are in at least one of the two sets. Union of sets is
denoted as A∪B.
➢ Intersection of Sets- Contains all the elements that are in both sets. Intersection of sets is
denoted as A∩B.
➢ Subset – Two sets A and B are equal if both contains same elements. Represented as ′ ⊆’. E.g. A
= {2,3,4,5} B = {2,3,4,5,6,7}. Hence A is the subset of B.
➢ Disjoint Sets – Two sets A and B have no common elements, then the intersection of
two set A and B is the empty set. So they are called as disjoint sets. i.e.,𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = ∅. Example: A
={7, 8, 9} B= {4, 5}, 𝑛 (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 0.
➢ Equality of two sets – Two sets A and B are set to be equal to each other. If sets A and B are
equal, A⊆ 𝐵 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 ⊆ 𝐴, then it will be written as A=B. Example: A= {1,2} B = {1,2} hence A=B.
➢ Equivalent set – Two sets A and b are said to be equivalent. Example: A= {1,-2,-3} B = {0.5, 1.8,
1.9} Hence A≠B.
➢ Power Set- Collection of all sub sets. Set P (A) is called the power set. If n(A) = m, then number of
elements is given by 𝑛(𝑃(𝐴)) = 2𝑚 .
➢ Example:𝐴 = {8,9,10} => 𝑃(𝐴) = {0, {8}, {9}, {10), {8,9}, {8,10}, {9,10},
➢ {8,9,10}}, Hence 𝑃(𝐴) = 8
18.2 UNION AND INTERSECTION OF SETS
Union of Sets
• Union set is defined as that the set contains those elements that are either in A or B, or in both A
and B.
• 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = {𝑋 ∶ 𝑋 ∈ 𝐴 𝑜𝑟 𝑋 ∈ 𝐵}, clearly 𝑋 ∈ 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
If A = {101, 103, 105} and B = {100,101,103,107}. Draw Venn diagram to find 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵.
Solution:
𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = {100, 101, 103, 105, 107}

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Intersection of Sets
• Defined as the group of common elements of two or more sets.
• Denoted by the symbol ‘∩’
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
A = {1, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17} B = {5, 8, 9, 16, 15}
Hence𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = {5, 9,15}.
18.3 IMPORTANT LAWS AND PROPERTIES IN SET THEORY
• In Set theory there are some of the laws in basic sets. They are as follows:
• Commutative law, Associative law, Distributive law, Identity law, Complement law, impotent law,
Domination law and Absorption law.
Commutative laws
(i) 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = 𝐵 ∪ 𝐴
(𝑖𝑖)𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 = 𝐵 ∩ 𝐴
Associative laws
(i) 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∪ 𝐶) = (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∪ 𝐶
(𝑖𝑖) 𝐴 ∩ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) = (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∩ 𝐶
Distributive laws
(i) 𝐴 ∩ (𝐵 ∪ 𝐶) = (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∪ (𝐴 ∩ 𝐶)
(ii) 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) = (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶)
Identity Laws
(i) 𝐴 ∪ ∅ = 𝐴
(ii) 𝐴 ∩ 𝐴 = 𝐴
Domination Laws
(i) 𝐴 ∪ 𝑈 = 𝑈
(ii) 𝐴 ∩ ∅ = ∅
Absorption Laws
(i) 𝐴 ∪ (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) = 𝐴
(ii) 𝐴 ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = 𝐴
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
Let A= {0,1,3,4,7} B = {-3,4,5,7,11,14} C= {4,11,18}.
Show that 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) = (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶)
Solution:
First we find 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶)
Let 𝐵 ∩ 𝐶 = {4,11}
⇒ 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) = {0,1,3,4,7} ∪ {4,11}
⇒ 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) = {0,1,3,4,7,11} ------- (i)
Second we find (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶)
⇒ 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 = {−3,0,1,3,4,5,7,11,14}
⇒ 𝐴 ∪ 𝐶 = {0,1,3,4,7,11,18}
(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶) = {−3,0,1,3,4,5,7,11,14} ∩ {0,1,3,4,7,11,18}
⇒ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶) = {0,1,3,4, ,7,11} ------- (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) = (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶)

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Properties of Set Theory


• Two basic properties to represent a set are shown below:
• Change in order of writing the elements doesn’t make any changes in the set.
• Example: Set A = {5, 7, 8, 9, 10} is same as set A= {10, 5, 8, 7, 9}.
• In a set, if there is one or many elements are repeated, then set remains the same.
• Example: Set B = {5,6,7,6,8,5,9} is same as Set B={5,6,7,8,9}. i.e. {5,6,7,6,8,5,9} = {5,6,7,8,9}.
18.4 FUNCTIONS
• Function is defined as relationship between one set and another.
• For each element, Domain is the first set and Range is the second set.
• It can be written as 𝒇: 𝑨 → 𝑩 and if (𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ 𝑓, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥)
• Function is also known as mapping or transformation.
• It can be represented by Set of ordered pairs, a table, an arrow diagram and a graph.
• By using graph, every function can be represented.
• Graph represents a function when every vertical line intersects a graph at most one point.
• Types of functions are classified as follows:
• One-One function – Also called as injective function.
• Every element of domain is own and range is in unique of the function.
• Onto function – Two or more elements in its domain have same elements in its range.
• Also called as Surjective function.
• Ono-One and onto function – Also called as bijective. One-ton-One correspondence between the
members of the sets.
• Constant function – Every element of A has the same image in B.
• Range is a singleton set in constant function.
• Identity function –𝑓: 𝐴 → 𝐴, 𝐴 be a non-empty set.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
A function 𝑓: (1,6) → 𝑅 is defined as follows
1 + 𝑥, 1 ≤ 𝑥 < 2
𝑓(𝑥) = { 2𝑥 − 1, 2 ≤ 𝑥 < 4 } Here (1, 6) = {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅: 1 ≤ 𝑥 < 6})
3𝑥 2 − 10, 4 ≤ 𝑥 < 6
Find the value of (i) 𝑓(5) (ii) 𝑓(3) (iii)𝑓(1) (IV) 𝑓(2) − 𝑓(4) (v) 2𝑓(5) − 3𝑓(1)
Solution:
(i) Let us find (5) . Since 5 lies between 4 and 6, we have to use𝑓 ( 𝑥) = 3𝑥 2 − 10. Hence 𝑓(5) = 65.
(ii) 𝑓(3), 3 lies between 2 and 4.
 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 − 1 = 2(3) − 1 = 5.
(iii) 𝑓(1), 1 lies between 1 ≤ 𝑥 < 2.
 f(x) = 1+x=1+1 = 2
(iv) 𝑓(2) − 𝑓(4) , 𝑓(2) = 2𝑥 − 1 = 2(2) − 1 = 3.
𝑓(4) = 3𝑥 2 − 10 = 3(4 ∗ 4) − 10 = 48 − 10 = 38
𝑓(2) − 𝑓(4) = 3 − 38 = −35.
(v) 2𝑓(5) − 3𝑓(1), Already we find 𝑓(5) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑓(1). Hence 2𝑓(5) − 3𝑓(1) = 2(65) − 3(2) = 130 −
6 = 124.

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1. The set of integers is closed with respect to 5. In an examination, 52% candidates failed in
which one of the following? English and 42% failed in Mathematics. If 17%
(a) Addition only candidates failed in both English and
(b) Multiplication only Mathematics, what percentage of candidates
(c) Both addition and Multiplication passed in both the subjects?
(d) Division (a) 18% (b) 21%
Solution: (c) (c) 23% (d) 25%
The set of integers is closed with respect to Solution: (c)
addition and multiplication. Total number of candidates = 100%
e.g., Let z = {..., –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3,}
1 + 2 = 3 and –2 – 1 = –3 (for addition)
1 × 2 = 2 and 2 × 1 = 2 (for multiplication)
Hence, the number of subsets is 5.
2. Which one of the following is not correct in
respect of the sets A and B? Percentage of candidates passed in both the
(a) If A ⊆ B, then B ∪ A = B subjects = {100 – (25 + 17 + 35)} % = 23%
(b) If A ⊆ B, then A ∩ (A – B) = f 6. The set S = {x 𝜖 N: x + 3 = 3} is a
(c) If A ⊆ B, then B ∩ A = A (a) null set (b) Singleton set
(d) If A ∩ B =𝜑, then either A = 𝜑 or B = (c) Infinite set (d) None of the above
𝜑 Solution: (a)
Solution: (d)
Given: S = x 𝜖 N: {x + 3 = 3}
If A ∩ B =𝜑, then it is not necessary that either A =
S = {} Thus, S is a null set.
fNULL or B = NULL
7. Consider the following statements:
3. Which one of the following is a correct
I. Set of points of a given line is a finite set.
statement?
II. Intelligent students in a class is a set.
(a) {a} 𝜖 {{a}, {b}, c} (b) {a} ⊆ {{a}, b, c}
III. Good books in a school library is a set.
(c) {a, b} ⊆ {{a}, b, c} (d) a ⊆ {{a}, b, c}
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
Solution: (a)
(a) Only I (b) Both II and III
Here, {a} is an element of {{a}, {b}, {c}}.
(c) Both I and II (d) I, II and III
4. Which one of the following is an infinite set? Solution: (d)
(a) {x: x is a whole number less than or equal to I. The set of points of a given line is not a finite set.
1000} II. Here, we cannot decide, which students are
(b) {x: x is a natural number less than 1000} intelligent.
(c) {x: x is a positive integer less than or equal to III. Here, we cannot decide, which books are good
1000} a school library.
(d) {x: x is an integer and less than 1000}
8. If A = {x: x is an even natural number}, B = {x: x
Solution: (d) is a natural number and multiple of 5} and C = {x: x
In a given option only, {x: x is an integer and less is a natural number and multiple of 10}, then what
than 1000} is the value of A ∩ (B ∪ C)?
i.e., x 𝜖 (–∞, 1000) is an infinite set. (a) {10, 20, 30,} (b) {5, 10, 15, 20,}
(c) {2, 4, 6,} (d) {20, 40, 60,}

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Solution: (a) y. Then, how many elements does the set A


We know that A ∩ (B ∪ C) = {A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C) contain?
Example: (a) 12 (b) 10
A = Set of an even natural number (c) 7 (d) 6
A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12,} Solution: (d)
B = Set of natural number and multiples of 5. Given that 𝑥 𝜖 {2, 3, 4} and
B = {5, 10, 15, 20, 25,} 𝑌 𝜖 {4, 6, 9, 10}
C = Set of natural number and multiple of 10. 𝐴 = 𝑥 × 𝑦
C = {10, 20, 30, 40, 50,} But, A is set of pairs in which 1st number is factor
A ∩ B = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12,} ∩ {5, 10, 15, 20, 25,} of second number.
= {10, 20, 30,} A = {2, 3, 4} × {4, 6, 9, 10} = {(2, 4); (2, 6); (2, 10);
A ∩ C = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12,} ∩ {10, 20, 30, 40, 50,} (3, 6); (3, 9); (4, 4)}
= {10, 20, 30, 40,} Total number of elements = 6
A ∩ (B ∪ C) = (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C) 11. Which one of the following is a null set?
= {10, 20, 30,} ∪ {10, 20, 30, 40,} (a) A = {x is a real number: x > 1 and x <
= {10, 20, 30, 40,} 1}
9. If a set A contains 60 elements and another set (b) B = {x: x + 3 = 3}
B contains 70 elements and there are 50 elements (c) C = {𝜑}
in common, then how many elements does A È B (d) D = {x is a real number: x ≥ 1 and x
contain? ≤ 1}
(a) 130 (b) 100 Solution: (a)
(c) 80 (d) 70 From option (a): A = {x is a real number: x > 1 and
Solution: (c) Here, n (A) = 60, n (B) = 70, n (A ∩ B) x < 1}. So, there is no element which is greater or
= 50 and n (A ∪ B) =? less than 1. So, A is a null set.
We know that: N (A ∪ B) = n (A) + n (B) – n (A ∩ B) From option (b): B = {x: x + 3 = 3} = {0} = Singleton
= 60 + 70 – 50 = 130 – 50 = 80 set
10. Let x 𝜖 {2, 3, 4} and y 𝜖 {4, 6, 9, 10}. If A be the From option (c): C = {𝜑} = Singleton set
set of all order pairs (x, y) such that x is a factor of From option (d): D = {x is a real number: x >1 and x
≤ 1} = {1} = Singleton set

EXERCISE
1. What is {[(A∪ 𝐵)′ ∩ 𝐴]} – (A–B) equal to? (c) A = B
(a) 𝜑 (d) Neither A neither is a subset of B nor is B a
(b) A subset of A

(c) B 3. Which one of the following is correct?

(d) B’ (a) { 𝜑 } ⊂ {{ 𝜑 }, {{ 𝜑 }}}

2. If A = {(22𝑛 – 3n – 1) | n𝜖N}, and B = {9(n – 1) | (b) { 𝜑 } 𝜖{{ 𝜑 }, {{ 𝜑 }}}


n𝜖 N}, then which one of the following is correct? (c) 𝜑𝜖{{ 𝜑 }, {{ 𝜑 }}}
(a) A⊂B (d) 𝜑 = {{ 𝜑 }, {{ 𝜑 }}}
(b) B⊂A 4. Let: P = Set of all integral multiples of 3

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Q = Set of all integral multiples of 4 6. If two sets A and B have 2n and 4n elements,
R = Set of all integral multiples of 6 Consider the respectively. When n is a natural number. What
following relations: can be the minimum number of elements in A∪B?
(a) 2n
I. P∪Q = R
(b) 3n
II. P⊂R
(c) 4n
III. R⊂ (P∪Q) which of the relations given above
(d) 6n
is/are correct?
7. If A = {x: 𝑥 2 – 6x + 8 = 0} and B = {x: 2𝑥 2 + 3x – 2
(a) Only I
= 0} Then, which one of the following is correct?
(b) Only II
(a) A⊆B
(c) Only III
(b) B⊆ A
(d) II and III
(c) Neither A⊆B nor B⊆ A
5.
(d) A = B
8. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, then what is the number of
subsets of A with at least three elements?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5

The Venn diagram given above represents four (d) 10


sets of students who have opted for Mathematics, 9. The set {2, 4, 16, 256,} can be represented as
Physics, Chemistry and Electronics. What does the which one of the following?
𝑛
shaded region represent? (a) {𝑥𝜖𝑁| = 22 , 𝑛𝜖𝑁}
𝑛
(a) Students who opted for Physics, Chemistry and (b) {𝑥𝜖𝑁| = 22 , 𝑛 = 0,1,2, … ..}
Electronics 𝑛
(c) {𝑥𝜖𝑁| = 22 , 𝑛 = 0,1,2, … …}
(b) Students who opted for Mathematics, Physics 𝑛
(d) {𝑥𝜖𝑁| = 22 , 𝑛 = 0,1,2, … ….}
and Chemistry
10. Which one of the following is a correct
(c) Students who opted for Mathematics, Physics
statement?
and Electronics only
(a) 𝜑 𝜖𝜑
(d) Students who opted for Mathematics,
Chemistry and Electronics only (b) 𝜑 ≠ 𝑃(𝜑)
(c) 𝜑 = 𝑃(𝜑)
(d) 𝜑 𝜖 𝑃(𝜑

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)

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TRIGONOMETRY
19.1 BASIC TRIGONOMETRIC IDENTITIES
• Before we start to prove trigonometric identities, we see where the basic identities come from.
• Recall the definitions of the reciprocal trigonometric functions, cosec𝜃, sec 𝜃 and cot 𝜃 from the
trigonometric functions.
1
cosec θ =
sin θ
1
sec θ =
cos θ
1
cot θ =
tan θ
Sine, Cosine, Tangent and the Reciprocal Ratios
For the angle 𝜃 in a right-angled triangle as shown, we name the sides as:
• Hypotenuse (the side opposite the right angle)
• Adjacent (the side “next to” 𝜃)

• opposite (the side furthest from the angle)


We define the three trigonometrical ratios sine 𝜃, cosine 𝜃, and tangent 𝜃 as follows (we normally write
these in the shortened forms sin 𝜃, cos 𝜃, and tan 𝜃).
opposite
sin θ =
hypotenuse
adjacent
cos θ =
hypotenuse
opposite
tan θ =
adjacent
Trigonometric Identities Summary
sin 𝜃
tan θ =
cos 𝜃
sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1
tan2 θ + 1 = sec 2 θ
1 + cot 2 θ = csc 2 θ
SOLVED EXAMPLES
tan y
1. Prove that sin y = sec y
Solution:
We express everything in terms of sin y and cos y and then simplify.
(“LHS” stands for “left-hand side” of the equation and “RHS” means “right-hand side”.)
1
LHS = tan 𝑦 × sin 𝑦
sin 𝑦 1 1
= cos 𝑦 × = cos 𝑦
sin 𝑦
= sec 𝑦 = RHS

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tan2 θ
2. Simplify: sec θ −
sec θ
Solution:
(sec θ − tan2 θ )/sec θ = (sec 2 θ − tan2 θ )/sec θ
[Substitute: sec 2 θ − tan2 θ = 1 ]
1/ sec 𝜃 = cos 𝜃
19.2 TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS OF ALLIED ANGLES
• Two angles are allied if their sum or difference is a multiple of 90 0.
• If 𝜃 is any angle, then −𝜃, 900 ± 𝜃, 1800 ± 𝜃, 2700 ± 𝜃, 3600 ± 𝜃 etc are called as allied angles.
General trigonometric ratios and allied terms are listed below:
sin(−𝜃) = − sin 𝜃 cos(−𝜃) = cos 𝜃

sin(900 − 𝜃) cos(900 − 𝜃) = sin 𝜃


= cos 𝜃
sin(900 + 𝜃) cos(900 + 𝜃) = sin 𝜃
= cos 𝜃
sin(1800 − 𝜃) cos(1800 − 𝜃) = − cos 𝜃
= sin 𝜃
sin(1800 + 𝜃) cos(1800 + 𝜃) = −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
= −sin 𝜃
sin(2700 − 𝜃) cos(2700 − 𝜃) = −𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
= − cos 𝜃
sin(2700 + 𝜃) cos(2700 + 𝜃) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃
= − cos 𝜃
tan(900 − 𝜃) cot(900 − 𝜃) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
= cot 𝜃
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Find the value of trigonometric function cot (−500 ).
Solution:
We know that, cot (-𝜃) = −𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃, then;
cot(−500 ) = −𝑐𝑜𝑡500
19.3 TRIGNOMETRIC FUNCTIONS OF SUM OR DIFFERENCE OF TWO ANGLES
The sum and difference formulas for the cosine function:
cos(∝ +β) = cos α cos β − sinα sin β
cos(∝ −β) = cos α cos β + sinα sin β
The sum and difference formulas for the sine function:
sin(∝ +β) = sin α cos β + cos ∝ sin β
sin(∝ −β) = sin α cos β − cos α sinβ
The sum and difference formulas for the tangent function:
tan α + tan β
tan(∝ +β) =
1 − tan α tan β
tan α − tan β
tan(∝ −β) =
1 + tan α tan β
SOLVED EXAMPLE:

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1. Express cos(3𝑥) + cos(7𝑥) as a product.


Solution:
We have cos(3𝑥) + cos(7𝑥)
3𝑥+7𝑥 3𝑥−7𝑥
= 2 cos ( ) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 ( )
2 2
= 2 cos(5𝑥) cos(2𝑥)
Note that we used cos(−𝑥) = cos(𝑥)
19.4 FACTORIZATION OF THE SUM OR DIFFERENCE OF TWO SINES OR COSINES
Sum of two sines = 2sin (semi sum)cos(semi difference)
Difference of two sines = 2cos (semi sum) sin (semi difference)
Sum of two cosines = 2 cos (semi sum) cos (semi difference)
Difference of two cosines = minus 2sin (semi sum) sin (semi difference)
They are used to FACTORISE trigonometric equations involving sin and cos.
This means writing a SUM or DIFFERENCE as a PRODUCT.
The main use will be to solve equations involving sums or differences of sin and cos which can be
arranged to equal zero.
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
5𝜋
1. What’s the exact value of cos 750 𝑜𝑟 cos [ 12 ] ?
Solution:
5π π π
750 = 450 + 300 [ ]= +
12 4 6
0 0 0)
cos75 = cos(45 + 30
cos750 = cos 450 cos300 − sin450 sin300
√2 √3 √2 1
cos750 = ( ) × ( ) − ( ) × ( )
2 2 2 2

6 2
cos750 = √ −√
16 16
19.5 TRANSFORMATION OF PRODUCT INTO SUM OR DIFFERENCE
The process of converting sums into products or products into sums can make a difference
• between an easy solution to a problem and no solution at all.
• Two sets of identities can be derived from the sum and difference identities that help in this
conversion.
• The following set of identities is known as the product-sum identities.
1
𝑠𝑖𝑛 ∝ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽 = [𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝛼 + 𝛽) + sin(𝛼 − 𝛽)]
2
1
𝑐𝑜𝑠 ∝ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽 = [𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝛼 + 𝛽) − sin(𝛼 − 𝛽)]
2
1
𝑠𝑖𝑛 ∝ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽 = [𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝛼 − 𝛽) − cos(𝛼 + 𝛽)]
2
1
𝑐𝑜𝑠 ∝ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽 = [𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝛼 + 𝛽) + cos(𝛼 − 𝛽)]
2
These identities are valid for degree or radian measure whenever both sides of the identity are defined.

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SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Verify that:
1
sin 𝛼 cos 𝛽 = [𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝛼 + 𝛽) + sin(𝛼 − 𝛽)]
2
Start by adding the sum and difference identities for the sine.
sin(𝛼 + 𝛽) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽
sin(𝛼 − 𝛽) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽
sin(𝛼 + 𝛽) + sin(𝛼 − 𝛽) = 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽
1
sin 𝛼 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽 = [𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝛼 + 𝛽) + sin(𝛼 − 𝛽)]
2
The other three product-sum identities can be verified by adding or subtracting other sum and
difference identities.
19.6 IMPORTANT TRIGNOMETRIC RATIOS
For any right triangle, there are six trigonometric ratios: sine (sin), cosine (cos), tangent (tan), cosecant
(cosec), secant (sec), and cotangent (cot).
Here are the formulas for these six trigonometric ratios:
𝑜𝑝𝑝 1 ℎ𝑦𝑝
𝑠𝑖𝑛 = ; 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 = =
ℎ𝑦𝑝 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑜𝑝𝑝
𝑎𝑑𝑗 1 ℎ𝑦𝑝
𝑐𝑜𝑠 = ; 𝑠𝑒𝑐 = =
ℎ𝑦𝑝 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑎𝑑𝑗
𝑜𝑝𝑝 1 𝑎𝑑𝑗
𝑡𝑎𝑛 = ; 𝑐𝑜𝑡 = =
𝑎𝑑𝑗 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑜𝑝𝑝
SOLVED EXAMPLE:
1. Find the following:
Sin A, Cos A, Tan A, Cosec A, Sec A, Cot A, Sin B, Cos B, Tan B, Cosec B, Sec B, Cot B.

(i) Sin A = 5/13 (vii) Sin B = 12/13


(ii) Cos A = 12/13 (viii) Cos B = 5/13
(iii) Tan A = 5/12 (ix) Tan B = 12/5
(iv) Cosec A = 13/5 (x) Cosec B = 13/12
(v) Sec A = 13/12 (xi) Sec B = 13/5
(vi) Cot A = 12/5 (xii) Cot B = 5/12

PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS


1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 cos 𝑥
1. If p = √1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 , q = , r = 1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 then which of the following is/are correct?
cos 𝑥
1. 𝑝 = 𝑞 = 𝑟
2. 𝑝2 = 𝑞𝑟
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Solution: (c)
Statement 1
1−sin 𝑛 (1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)
1=√ = √(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)(1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)
1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
= √1−𝑠𝑖𝑛2 = √𝑐𝑜𝑠2 =
𝑥 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
𝑃=𝑞
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)
𝑟= =
(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)
1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)
=
1−𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥) 1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
= =
𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
𝑃=𝑞=r
Now, Statement 2 𝑝2 = 𝑞𝑟
(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 (1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥)
= . (1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥) = (1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥) = 𝑝2
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
So, both are correct.
2. If tan A + cot A = 4 then 𝑡𝑎𝑛4 A + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 4 A is equal to
(a) 110 (b) 191
(c) 80 (d) 194
Solution: (d)
𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴 = 4
⇒ squaring both sides
𝑡𝑎𝑛2 A + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 A + 2 = 16
𝑡𝑎𝑛2 A + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 A = 14
Again, squaring both sides
𝑡𝑎𝑛4 A + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 4 A + 2 = 196
𝑡𝑎𝑛4 A + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 4 A = 194.
3− 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝐴
3. If 1−3 𝑡𝑎𝑛3 𝐴 = k where K is a real number, then 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴(3 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴 – 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝐴) is equal to
2𝑘
(a)
𝑘−1
2𝑘 1
(b) , 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 ≤𝑘≤3
𝑘−1 3
2𝑘 1
(c) , 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑘 < 𝑜𝑟𝑘 > 3
𝑘−1 3
2𝑘
(d)
𝑘+1
Solution: (c)
3−𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝐴
=𝐾
1−3𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝐴
3 – 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝐴 = 𝐾 – 3𝐾𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝐴
2

3𝐾𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝐴 – 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝐴 = 𝐾– 3
𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝐴 (3𝐾 – 1) = 𝐾 – 3
𝐾−1
𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝐴 = 3𝐾−1...(i)
1
Subject to the condition 𝐾> 3 or 1 𝐾<3
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝐴 (3 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴 – 4𝑠𝑖𝑛3 A) = 3 – 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 A

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

3𝐾−1
𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 A =
𝐾−3
2 𝐾−3+3𝐾−1 4𝐾−4
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 A = =
𝐾−3 𝐾−3
2 𝐾−1
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 = 4(𝐾−1)
4(𝐾−3)
3 − 4𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝐴 = 3 − 4(𝐾−1)
3𝐾−3−𝐾+3 2𝐾 1
= = 𝐾−1 where𝐾> 3 or 𝐾<3 .
𝐾−1

4. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛(𝐴 + 𝐵) = √3 and 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝐴 = 1, then 𝑡𝑎𝑛(𝐴 – 𝐵) is equal to


(a) 0 (b) 1
1
(c) (d) √2
√3
Solution: (c)
𝑡𝑎𝑛 (𝐴 + 𝐵) = √3
𝑡𝑎𝑛(𝐴 + 𝐵) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 60°
𝐴 + 𝐵 = 60°....(i)
Now, 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝐴 = 1
𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝐴 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45°
𝐴 = 45°
Now putting the value of A in eqn (i)
𝐵 = 60 ° – 45° = 15°
tan(𝐴 – 𝐵) = tan(45° – 15°)
1
= 𝑡𝑎𝑛 30° =
√3
5. If sin 𝑥 + cos 𝑥 = p and 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝑥= 𝑞, then what is 𝑝3 – 3𝑝 equal to?
(a) 0 (b) –2 𝑞
(c) 2 𝑞 (d) 4 𝑞
Solution: (b)
Let sin 𝑥 + cos 𝑥 = 𝑝....(i)
𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝑥 = 𝑞....(ii)
On cubing Eq. (i) both sides
𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝑥 + 3 sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 (sin 𝑥 + cos 𝑥) = 𝑝3
Put 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝑥 = q from equation (ii)
q + 3 sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥(p) = 𝑝3 ....(iii)
On squaring Eq. (i) both sides, we get
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + 2 sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 = 𝑝2
𝑝2 −1
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 = [∴ 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 =1]
2
3(𝑝2 −1)
From Eq. (iii), 𝑞 + = 𝑝3
2
2𝑞 + 3𝑝3 – 3𝑝 = 2𝑝3 ⇒𝑝3 –3𝑝 = –2𝑞
6. Consider the following statements:
𝜋
1. There exists at least one value of 𝑥 between 0 and 2 which satisfies the equation 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝑥 – 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 – 1 = 0.
2. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 1.5 is greater than 𝑐𝑜𝑠 1.5. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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TERRITORIAL ARMY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT EXAM 2019

Solution: (b)
Statement (1) 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝑥 – 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥– 1 = 0
Let 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 = t
𝑡 2 – 2𝑡 –1 = 0
2±2√2
⇒𝑡 = ⇒ 𝑡 = 1 ± √2
2
⇒𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 = 1 ± √2
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 Cannot be negative.
And sin 𝑥 lies between –1
And 1 So, for 0 < x <π/2 there is no value tha