SET 1
1. In President Quezon’s time, the country had the
Philippine Commonwealth. What is TRUE about the
Philippine Commonwealth? The Filipino people
_____________________.
a. Were fully independent.
b. Were partially independent.
c. Were granted total freedom to course their
destiny only in matters of education. d. Were citizens
of the United States.
Answer is B. The Philippines was under a 10 year
transition government during the commonwealth
period. Therefore what we had was just a partial
independence
2. With the Batasang Pambansa performing
legislative and executive powers in the Marcos
regime, which form of government was
implemented?
a. Parliamentary
b. Dictatorial
c. Monarchial
d. Presidential
Answer is A.
When martial law was declared, the Constitutional
Convention, by virtue of an Act of Congress in 1971,
was in the process of drafting a new Constitution.
The final draft was adopted by the Convention on
November 29, 1972. This was ratified and
proclaimed by President Marcos on January 17, 1973
amidst widespread protest and controversy. With
the proclamation of a new Constitution, the
presidential form of government was changed to a
modified parliamentary form. Congress was
abolished and was replaced by an elected
unicameral National Assembly, known as Batasang
Pambansa.
3. What form of government is characterized by the
separation of powers?
a. Parliamentary
b. Presidential
c. Aristocracy
d. Monarchical
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Answer is A
The idea of a separation of powers comes from a
presidential system where the legislature makes
laws that the executive enacts and the judiciary
enforces. All this is usually under basic laws laws that
are rigid and difficult to change – a constitution –
which also sets out which institution can act. In
parliamentary systems this is less pure – but thought
to exist nonetheless.
4. The Philippine government is divided into three
branches: executive, legislative and judiciary. Which
among the following doctrines best describes the
model of governance in the Philippines?
a. Tricameralism
b. Separation of powers
c. Emancipation of state
d. Division of labor
Answer is B.
The principle of separation of powers prevents the
concentration of legislative, executive, and judicial
powers to a single branch of government by deftly
allocating their exercise to the three branches of
government.
The separation of powers is a fundamental principle
in our system of government. It obtains not through
express provision but by actual division in our
Constitution. Each department of the government
has exclusive cognizance of matters within its
jurisdiction, and is supreme within its own sphere.
But it does not follow from the fact that the three
powers are to be kept separate and distinct that the
Constitution intended them to be absolutely
unrestrained and independent of each other. The
Constitution has provided for an elaborate system of
checks and balances to secure coordination in the
workings of the various departments of the
government.
5. The Philippine legislature is divided into two major
bodies, the Senate and the House of
Representatives. Which among the following
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describes this division of the legislative body of the
country?
a. Bipartisanism
b. Co- legislative power
c. Unicameralism
d. Bicameralism
Answer is D.
Bicameralism is one in which the legislature is
divided into two chamber.
The Congress of the Philippines ( Filipino:Kongreso
ng Pilipinas) is the national legislature of the
Philippines. It is a bicameral body consisting of the
Senate (upper chamber), and the House of
Representatives (lower chamber) although
commonly in the Philippines the term congress
refers to the latter.
7.In England, Queen Elizabeth acts as a head of state.
This country also has a parliament and a Prime
Minister. Which among the following describes the
form of government?
a. Totalitarianism
b. Constitutional monarchy
c. Oligarchy d. Aristocracy
Answer is B.
A constitutional monarchy is a form of monarchy in
which the sovereign exercises their authorities in
accordance with a written or unwritten constitution.
[1] Constitutional monarchy differs from absolute
monarchy (in which a monarch holds absolute
power), in that constitutional monarchs are bound
to exercise their powers and authorities within the
limits prescribed within an established legal
framework.
The United Kingdom and the other
Commonwealth realms are all constitutional
monarchies in the Westminster tradition of
constitutional governance. Three states – Malaysia ,
Cambodia and the Holy See – areelective monarchies
, wherein the ruler is periodically selected by a small
electoral college .
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
6.Which type of governance is characterized by a
union of partially self- governing states or regions
united by a central government?
a. Federalism
b. Socialism
c. Democracy
d. Totalitarianism
Answer is A.
A federation (also known as a federal state ) is a
political entity characterized by a union of partially
self-governing states or regions under a central
(federal) government. In a federation, the self-
governing status of the component states, as well as
the division of power between them and the central
government, is typically constitutionally entrenched
and may not be altered by a unilateral decision of
either party, the states or the federal political body.
Alternatively, federation is a form of government in
which sovereign power is formally divided between a
central authority and a number of constituent
regions so that each region retains some degree of
control over its internal affairs.
8. .What right is violated when one opens a letter
without permission from the addressee?
a. Right to privacy of communication and
correspondence.
b. Right to read a letter.
c. Right to open the envelope without permission. d.
Right to private affairs.
Answer is A. The right to privacy is enshrined in
several provisions of the 1987 Philippine
Constitution. We quote Section 3(1) of the Bill of
Rights as follows:
“Sec. 3. (1) The privacy of communication and
correspondence shall be inviolable except upon
lawful order of the court, or when public safety or
order requires otherwise as prescribed by law.”
9. When an individual is imprisoned without proper
investigation, what right is violated?
a. Right to due process of law
b. Right to secure persons
c. Right to process paper
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d. Right to protection
Answer is A
Due process deals with the administration of justice
and thus the Due Process Clause acts as a safeguard
from arbitrary denial of life, liberty, or property by
the government outside the sanction of law.
10. What law was passed by the Philippine Congress
in 1995 which affirms the total integration of
persons with disabilities into the mainstream of
society?
a. Republic Act No. 7277
b. Republic Act No. 7784
c. Republic Act No. 7722
d. Republic Act No. 7776
Answer is A
7277 - AN ACT PROVIDING FOR THE
REHABILITATION, SELF-DEVELOPMENT AND SELF-
RELIANCE OF DISABLED PERSON AND THEIR
INTEGRATION
INTO THE MAINSTREAM OF SOCIETY AND FOR
OTHER PURPOSES.
7784 - AN ACT TO STRENGTHEN TEACHER
EDUCATION IN THE PHILIPPINES BY ESTABLISHING
CENTERS OF EXCELLENCE, CREATING A TEACHER
EDUCATION COUNCIL FOR THE PURPOSE,
APPROPRIATING FUNDS THEREFOR, AND FOR OTHER
PURPOSES.
7722 - AN ACT CREATING THE COMMISSION ON
HIGHER EDUCATION, APPROPRIATING FUNDS
THEREFOR AND FOR OTHER PURPOSES.SECTION
11. An individual has the right to file writ of amparo
before the investigation of an administrative case
filed against him/ her. What fundamental right is
invoked by the individual?
a. Right to life, liberty and security
b. Right to due process
c. Right to be defended by a public attorney
d. Right to self- defense
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Answer is A
The petition for a writ of amparo is a remedy
available to any person whose right to life, liberty
and security is violated or threatened with violation
by an unlawful act or omission of a public official or
employee, or of a private individual or entity.
12. What is the writ of habeas data?
a. Right to information privacy
b. Right to accumulate data
c. Right to transmit data
d. Right to search for private information
Answer is A. The writ of habeas data is a remedy
available to any person whose right to privacy in life,
liberty or security is violated or threatened by an
unlawful act of any official or employee, or of a
private individual or entity engaged in the gathering,
collecting or storing of data or information.
13. Which principle states that no man in his country
is above the law and that laws must be obeyed by all
and applied to everyone – rich or poor, lowly or
powerful, without fear or favor?
a. Rule of law
b. Rule of the majority
c. Separation of church and state
d. Social justice
Correct answer is A
The rule of law expresses the principle that all
people are equal under the law. No one is above the
law, whether he or she is a politician, police officer,
corporation or wealthy individual. The courts exist to
ensure that everyone is accountable to the law. The
role of judges and lawyers is to protect the rights
and freedoms of citizens.
14. Filipino citizens have the power to participate in
the establishment or administration of government
such as right to vote and be voted upon as an
exercise of ____________________.
a. Political rights
b. Civil rights
c. Social rights
d. Right to Suffrage
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Answer is A
Political rights are the rights that involve
participation in the establishment or administration
of a government and are usually held to entitle the
adult citizen to exercise of the franchise, the holding
of public office, and other political activities.
https://www.merriam-
webster.com/dictio.../political%20rights
If the question is the right to vote alone, then it is
Suffrage. In the above question, there is an
establishment and administration of the government
which are not suffrage. Suffrage is one of the
political rights we have.
15.:In Philippine history, who was known as “The
Great Dissenter”?
a. Camilo Osias
b. Manuel Roxas
c. Claro M. Recto
d. Eulogio Rodriguez
Answer is C.
He was called Great Dissenter because of his
uncomprising stand against pro-American policy of
R. Magsaysay, the very same man whom he helped
to put in power.
16. Who first introduced the Islamic religion to the
Philippines?
a. Rajah Baguinda
b. Idi Amin
c. Mukdum
d. Abu Bakr
Correct answer is C. Abu Bkr helped propagate Islam
but it was Mukdum who first introduced it.
17. The Japanese successful invasion was climaxed
by the surrender of the joint Filipino American forces
on May 6, 1942. Where did this happen?
a. Bataan
b. Corregidor
c. Capas
d. Manila
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Answer is B.
Victorious Japanese troops atop the Hearn Battery,
May 6, 1942. The Battle of Corregidor, fought May
5–6, 1942, was the culmination of the Japanese
campaign for the conquest of the Commonwealth of
the Philippines during World War II.
The Battle of Bataan (7 January – 9 April 1942)
represented the most intense phase of Imperial
Japan's invasion of the Philippines during World War
II. In January 1942, forces of the Imperial Japanese
Army and Navy invaded ... the delay cost the
Japanese valuable time and prevented immediate
victory across the Pacific.
18. Who is the President who is known for his
“Filipino First Policy” and Austerity Program?
a. Diosdado Macapagal
b. Carlos P. Garcia
c. Manuel Roxas
d. Ramon Magsaysay
Answer is B
B. "AUSTERITY PROGRAM"
In his sincere desire to curb graft and corruption in
the government, Pres. Garcia inaugurated an
austerity program. He urged the people to lead
simple lives and do away with luxurious lifestyles. He
emphasized the values wise spending, industry,
thrift, trustworthiness, integrity and honesty.
Government officials and employees were reminded
that a public office is a public trust and that graft and
corruption destroy the people's trust in government.
Pres. Garcia was not very successful in his austerity
program. Graft and corruption was not totally
eliminated but his efforts were timely in
strengthening the people's faith and confidence in
the democratic process of the government.
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"THE FILIPINO FIRST POLICY"
The Garcia administration sustained the economic
growth of the country by giving full support to
agriculture. The other industries were also
promoted. Transportation and infrastructure were
maintained in support of the economy.
It was Pres. Garcia who popularized economic
nationalism through the Filipino First Policy. The
Filipino First Policy gave priority or preference to
Filipinos over all other foreigners in the acquisition
of land and capital and in the operation of business,
trade and industry. This encouraged Filipino
businessman and entrepreneurs to engage activity in
all economic activities in the country. The policy did
not exclude foreigners were also allowed under the
60-40 percent equity. This meant that foreigners
could invest capital up to 40 percent in any business
or industry while the 60 percent were owned by
Filipino citizens.
The Filipino First policy also aimed to encourage the
people to patronize Philippine-made products and to
promote Filipino labor.
"CULTURAL REVIVAL"
Because of the long years of colonial occupation
many Filipinos had adopted some of the ways of the
Spaniards and the Americans. Pres. Garcia felt that
some of the cultural traditions of the Filipinos should
be revived. He sponsored the annual Republic
Cultural Awards to Filipino artists, scientists,
historians, and writers. He encouraged the world
tours of the Bayanihan Dance Troupe and other
folkdance groups. He also continued the wearing of
the barong Tagalog during special occasions.
19. The Philippines lies in a so called ring of fire
where it is composed of ______?
A. Bodies of water
B. Active Volcanoes
C. Coral Reefs
D. Plants and Trees
Correct answer is B. The Ring of Fire is a string of
volcanoes and sites of seismic activity, or
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
earthquakes, around the edges of the Pacific
Geologic features along the Ring of Fire include not
only volcanoes, but ocean trenches, mountain
trenches, hydrothermal vents, and sites of
earthquake activity.
20. The Law passed by the US congress on August
1909 establishing the partial free trade in the
Philippines.
A. Payne Aldrich Act
B. Bell Trade
C. Tydings McDuffie Law
D. Underwood-Simons Act
The Payne–Aldrich Tariff Act of 1909 (It was not
until 1909, when the American Congress passed the
Payne-Aldrich Tariff Act that partial free trade
relations between the Philippines and the U.S. were
established. Under this act, all Philippine exports,
except rice, were allowed to enter American markets
free of duty within certain quota limits.,
The United States Revenue Act of 1913 also known
as the Tariff Act, Underwood Tariff, Underwood
Act, Underwood Tariff Act, or Underwood-Simmons
Act (ch. 16, 38 Stat. 114, October 3, 1913),
 re-imposed the federal income tax following
the ratification of the Sixteenth
Amendment and lowered basic tariff rates
from 40% to 25%, well below the Payne-
Aldrich Tariff Act of 1909.
 American Congress passed the Simmons-
Underwood Tariff Act in 1913, which
abolished the quota limitations on
Philippine export products like hemp, sugar
and tobacco.
The Hare–Hawes–Cutting Act (ch. 11, 47 Stat. 761,
enacted January 17, 1933) was the first US law
passed setting a process and a date for
the Philippines to gain independence from
the United States.
 It was the result of the OsRox Mission led
by Sergio Osmeña and Manuel Roxas.
 The law promised Philippine independence
after 10 years, but reserved several military
and naval bases for the United States, as
well as imposed tariffs and quotas on
Philippine imports.
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The Tydings–McDuffie Act, officially the Philippine
IndependenceAct (Pub.L. 73–127, 48 Stat. 456,
enacted March 24, 1934), is a United States
federal law that established the process for the
Philippines, then an American colony, to become an
independent country after a ten-year transition
period.
The Bell Trade Act of 1946, also known as
the Philippine Trade Act, was an act passed by
the United States Congress specifying policy
governing trade between the Philippines and the
United States following independence of
the Philippines from the United States
 The United States Congress offered $800
million for post World War II rebuilding
funds if the Bell Trade Act was ratified by
the Philippine Congress.
 The specifics of the act required the
1935 Constitution of the Philippines be
amended.
 The Philippine Congress approved the
measure on July 2, two days before
independence from the United States of
America, and on September 18, 1946
approved a plebiscite to amend
the Constitution of the Philippines.
Authored by Missouri Congressman C. Jasper Bell,
the Bell Trade Act required:
 Preferential tariffs on US products imported
into the Philippines;
 A 2:1 fixed exchange rate between
the Philippine peso and the United States dollar;
 No restrictions on currency transfers from the
Philippines to the United States;
 "Parity rights" granting U.S. citizens and
corporations rights to Philippine natural
resources equal to (in parity with) those of
Philippine citizens, contrary to Article XIII in the
1935 Philippine Constitution, necessitating a
constitutional amendment.
In 1955, the Laurel–Langley Agreement revised the
Bell Trade Act.[3] This treaty abolished the United
States authority to control the exchange rate of the
peso, made parity privileges reciprocal, extended the
sugar quota, and extended the time period for the
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
reduction of other quotas and for the progressive
application of tariffs on Philippine goods exp
21. With whom is the “Strong Republic” associated?
a. Fidel V. Ramos
b. Joseph Estrada
c. Gloria Macapagal- Arroyo
d. Corazon Aquino
Correct answer is C. Arroyo outlined her vision for
the country as "building a strong republic"
throughout her tenure. Her agenda consists of
building up a strong bureaucracy, lowering crime
rates, increasing tax collection, improving economic
growth, and intensifying counter-terrorism efforts.
22. Tomatoes as off season and so price for
tomatoes are up. Which law/principle in
Economics explains it?
a. Substitution effect
b. Law of cause and effect
c. Principle of marginal utility
d. Law of supply and demand
Answer is D
The law of supply and demand is the theory
explaining the interaction between the supply of a
resource and the demand for that resource. The law
of supply and demand defines the effect the
availability of a particular product and the desire (or
demand) for that product has on price.
23. Which explains GNP?
a. The total value in pesos of goods and services
produced during the year.
b. The total value in pesos of goods produced during
the year.
c. The total value in pesos of services produced
during the year.
d. The total value in pesos of goods and services
produced for 2 quarters.
Answer is A
GNP is the total value of goods produced and
services provided by a country during one year,
Page 6
equal to the gross domestic product plus the net d. A peace Corps volunteer who helps dig wells in
income from foreign investments. Central Africa

24. Which does one portray when he thinks that

what is foreign is best and that what is local
is inferior?
a. Xenocentrism
b. Relativism
c. Ethnocentrism
d. Favoritism
Answer is A.
Xenocentrism is the preference for the products,
styles, or ideas of someone else's culture rather than
of one's own. The concept is considered a subjective
view of cultural relativism.
25. The statement that success often comes to those
with humble beginnings would apply best to which
of the following figures?
a. Ramon Magsaysay
b. Gloria M. Arroyo
c. Corazon C. Aquino
d. Joseph Estrada
Answer is A. This ancestral house present Ramon
Magsaysay’s humble beginnings. He was born in Iba,
Zambales on August 31, 1907, to Exequiel
Magsaysay, a black smith, and Perfecta del Ferro, a
schoolteacher. He was raised in Castillejos and
finished elementary in Castillejos Elementary School
and high school in Zambales Academy. Photos
displayed at the first floor of the house show a
young Magsaysay with his family and peers. Even at
a young age, he had been seen mingling and chatting
with the masses, an endearing trait that would win
over the nation later in his life.
Answer is A. He thinks of other’s culture as
unvicilized that’s because he has in mind that his
custom is the civilized or the superior one.
27. Which part of the Visayas receives the least
precipitation?
a. Northern
b. Eastern
c. Western
d. Central
Answer is C. By looking at the figure below we would
know that dry season is shorter in Type 1 areas. In
Visayas, only Western Visayas has a Type 1 climate
as indicated by Red in the legends.
Classification of climate used the Corona's four
climate types (Types I to IV), based on monthly
rainfall received during the year.
Type I- if there is a distinct dry and a wet season; wet
from June to November and dry, the rest of the year.
Type II - when there is no dry period at all
throughout the year, with a pronounced wet season
from November to February.
Type III - when there is a short dry season, usually
from February to April, and
Type IV - when the rainfall is almost evenly
distributed during the whole year.
The climate classification in the Philippines is shown
in Figure

26. Which of the following represent ethnocentric

behavior?
a. A tourist who lectures his foreign hosts on the
"uncivilized" nature of
their marriage customs
b. A student who tutors an immigrant in English
c. A Hispanic community group demands that public
aid forms be published in English
and Spanish

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 7


28. When the Filipino reformists asked for the
assimilation of the Philippines by Spain, what did
they ask for? For the Philippines to ________.
a. become independent from Spain
b. become a province of Spain
c. be independent from Spain with certain
conditions
d. be represented in the Spanish Cortes
Answer is B. The Nature of the Reform Movement
The movement has no clamor for independence it
only aims for the assimilation of the Philippines to
Spain (to make the Philippines a province of Spain)
so that the Filipinos:
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
* would become Spanish citizens
*would be represented in the Spanish Cortes to be
able to participate in the making of laws that may
benefit the country.
And that goal has to be attained by peaceful
means—using the power of words.
29. The maximum price that can be legally changed
for a good or service is called _____.
a. minimum wage
b. price floor
c. legal wage
d. price ceiling
Answer is D. D
National and local governments sometimes
implement price controls , which are legal minimum
or maximum prices for specific goods or services, in
an attempt to manage the economy by direct
intervention. There are 2 types of price controls:
price ceilings and price floors. A price ceiling is the
legal maximum price for a good or service, while
aprice floor is the legal minimum price.
30.The following are legitimate children, EXCEPT
___________.
a. Those born by artificial insemination.
b. Those legitimated.
c. Those born during a valid marriage of parents.
d. Those born out of a valid marriage of the parents.
Answer is D. Illegitimate children are those born out
of wedlock.
31. What form of goverment did we have when
President Aguinaldo proclaimed the Philippine
Independence on June 12, 1898?
A. Dictatorial
B. Revolutionary
C. Freedom
D. Presidential
Answer is A. On May 24, 1898 the Dictatorial
government was established. June 12, 1898 was the
Declaration of Independence. It was on June 23,
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1898 that the government was changed from
dictatorial to Revolutionary. Please read below.
When General Emilio Famy Aguinaldo returned to
the country from his exile in Hong Kong in May 1898,
the truce signed between Filipino revolutionists and
Spaniards at Biak-na-Bato, San Miguel de Mayumo,
Bulacan in December 1897 had been broken in many
parts of the country. Upon advice of Ambrosio
Rianzares Bautista Aguinaldo, established a
dictatorial government of the Philippines on May 24.
Four days later, the Filipino rebels routed the
Spaniards in Alapan, Cavite, a victory celebrated by
Aguinaldo with the first, albeit informal, waving of
the National Flag on Philippine soil. The event
preempted the May 31st launching of the second
phase of the revolution. By July 1898, the Filipinos
liberated the provinces of Cavite, Laguna, Batangas,
Pampanga, most of Bulacan and the suburbs
surrounding Manila.
On June 12, 1898, Aguinaldo proclaimed Philippine
independence from the window of his house in
Kawit, Cavite, and waved the Philippine Flag officially
for the first time to the martial strains of the new
national anthem.
Mabini’s plan to establish a grassroots government
was realized towards the latter half of June 1898.
Aguinaldo issued several important decrees
reorganizing the government in the liberated
provinces: the decree of June 18 reorganized
municipalities and provinces, through the election of
Popular Assemblies, whose heads the town chiefs
then elected the provincial councils. The decree also
provided for the election of delegates to the
Revolutionary Congress by the town chiefs. To
Mabini, the latter were Aguinaldo’s direct link to the
masses and on August 1, 1898, these town officials
assembled at Bacoor, then the seat of the
Revolutionary government, and ratified the newly
proclaimed Philippine independence.
On June 20, Aguinaldo issued a decree organizing the
judiciary, and on June 23, again upon Mabini’s
advice, major changes were promulgated and
implemented: change of government from
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Dictatorial to Revolutionary; change of the Executive
title from Dictator to President
32. Which location should have most nearly twelve
hours of daylight and twelve hours of darkness
during December? A town that is located
__________.
a. Halfway between the Equator and the South Pole.
b. Close to the Equator.
c. Close to the North Pole.
d. Close to the South Pole.
Answer is B. Note in the image that the north polar
region of Earth has 24 hours of night, while the south
polar region basks in 24 hours of daylight.
33. A bill becomes a law even if not signed by the
President after ___ days.
a. 60
b. 40
c. 90
d. 30
Article VI, Section 27. (1) Every bill passed by the
Congress shall, before it becomes a law, be
presented to the President. If he approves the same
he shall sign it; otherwise, he shall veto it and return
the same with his objections to the House where it
originated, which shall enter the objections at large
in its Journal and proceed to reconsider it. If, after
such reconsideration, two-thirds of all the Members
of such House shall agree to pass the bill, it shall be
sent, together with the objections, to the other
House by which it shall likewise be reconsidered, and
if approved by two-thirds of all the Members of that
House, it shall become a law. In all such cases, the
votes of each House shall be determined by yeas or
nays, and the names of the Members voting for or
against shall be entered in its Journal. The President
shall communicate his veto of any bill to the House
where it originated within thirty days after the date
of receipt thereof, otherwise, it shall become a law
as if he had signed it.
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So if we read the Constitution there are 3 ways lng
for a bill to become a law.
1. Approved by President. d ba pg he signs it
automatic law na ang bill
2. The Congress overriding the Veto of the President
by 2/3 vote.
3. when the President doesn't communicate his
approval or disapproval within 30 days, it will lapse
into LAW..
34. Who has the power to declare the existence of a
state of war?
a. Chief justice
b. President
c. Senate President
d. Congress
Answer is D. SECTION 23. (1) of the 1987
Constitution.
The Congress, by a vote of two-thirds of both Houses
in joint session assembled, voting separately, shall
have the sole power to declare the existence of a
state of war
35. Which is TRUE of the Philippines?
a. It has been colonized by two European colonial
powers.
b. It has never been united as a nation.
c. There have been attempts to change its
government to a parliamentary
form.
d. It is the only Christian country in Asia.
Answer is C.
The first attempt to amend the 1987 Constitution
(CHACHA for Charter Change) was under President
Fidel Ramos . Among the proposed changes in the
constitution included a shift to a parliamentary
system and the lifting of term limits of public
officials.
Under President Joseph Estrada , there was a similar
attempt to change the 1987 constitution. The
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
process is termed as CONCORD or Constitutional
Correction for Development.
Under the Arroyo administration, the Consultative
Commission came up with proposals that included a
shift to a unicameral parliamentary form of
government
Not D because there are other Christian nations in
Asia. The Philippines is one of two predominantly
Roman Catholic nations in Asia (the other being East
Timor), and is the third largest Catholic country in
the world.
36. Which of the following was first to happen?
a. Aguinaldo was captured.
b. Aguinaldo declared Philippine independence.
c. Guerilla warfare against the US was initiated.
d. The Philippines was ceded to the US by the Treaty
of Paris.
Answer is B
June 12, 1898- Declaration of Independence
The Treaty of Paris of 1898 was an agreement made
in 1898 that involved Spain relinquishing nearly all of
the remaining Spanish Empire, especially Cuba, and
ceding Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Philippines to the
United States. It was signed Dec. 10, 1898
Guerrilla warfare was only used as a main strategy
on November 13, 1899 which made American
occupation of the Philippine archipelago all the more
difficult over the next few years.
March 23, 1901- capture of Aguinaldo
37. During the Spanish era, who was the
revolutionary leader who waged a long war against
the government because it did not allow proper
burial for his brother?
a. Macario Sakay
b. Andres Bonifacio
c. Diego Silang
d. Francisco Dagohoy
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Answer is D. His revolt lasted for 85 years but he making body.
died in 1800 leaving him at 76 years old. Francisco c. Goods are distributed among the members.
Dagohoy started the revolt at the age of 20. d. Goods are distributed among the members but
elected and appointed officials get more to
Unlike the Tamblot revolt, the Dagohoy rebellion comprehensive their service.
was not a religious conflict. Rather, it was like most
of the early revolts which were ignited by forced
labor (polo y servicios), bandala , excessive tax Answer is B. Goods and services are distributed
collection and payment of tributes. On top of these among the members unlike in the capitalist system
injustices of the Jesuit priests, what triggered that profit goes to the capitalist.
Dagohoy most was the refusal of the Jesuit priest to
41. Which is an unlawful act of escaping from
give a Christian burial to his brother who died in a
payment of taxes?
duel. a. Evasion
b. Avoidance
38. In 1565, Legaspi concluded a blood compact with c. Exemption
the chief of Bohol. Who is referred to? d. Shifting
a. Raja Sulayman
b. Sikatuna
c. Lakandula Answer is A. Essentially,
d. Rajah Tupas
the difference between avoidance and evasion is
legality. Tax avoidance is legally exploiting
Answer is B. This Sikatuna-Legaspi blood compact is the tax system to reduce current or
considered as the First Treaty of Friendship between future taxliabilities
two different races, religions, cultures and
42. The expression promdi connotes
civilizations. It was a treaty of friendship based on
______________________.
respect and equality. This event is commonly known a. Ethnocentrism
as “Sandugo”. b. Xenocentrism
c. Favoritism
The compact was sealed on March 16, 1565. d. Racial discrimination

39. What was the first book published in the

Philippines? Answer is A. Ethnocentrism
a. Del Superior Govierno
b. Doctrina Christiana The migrants are collectively called “promdi’’ by the
c. Pasiong Mahal Tagalogs, a name referring to someone from the
d. Barlaame Josaphat province. Promdi has a derogatory connotation of
not knowing much of a city life and unable to speak
the Tagalog language correctly. This name-calling
Answer is B. DOCTRINA CHRISTIANA The First Book
denotes the prevalent sense of superiority and
Printed in the Philippines. Manila, 1593.
prejudice of the Tagalogs over other ethnic groups in
Metro Manila. Several studies on social distance
40. While in the capitalist system, “to the strongest
reveal this sense of superiority and prejudice by the
goes the spoil”, what happens in the
cooperative system? Christian Tagalogs.

a. All benefits are shared to the members Ethnocentrism

proportionate to the shared capital
b. Goods are distributed among the members but When people find cultural practices and values not
benefiting mostly the policy- their own as disturbing and threatening, that can be

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 11

regarded as ethnocentrism. A literal meaning of
ethnocentrism is the regard that one’s own culture
and society is the center of everything and therefore
far more superior than others (Kottak 2012: 39;
Eriksen 2001:7).
(Reference: Understanding Culture, Society and
Politics, SHS, Deped Portal)
43. The primary purpose of taxation is to
_____________________.
a. Raise revenue for the support of the government.
b. Reduce inequalities in wealth and incomes.
c. Fortify the government against invaders.
d. Make the country a leading industrialized country
in the world
Answer is A. Taxation is the lifeblood of the country
and is necessary for the maintenance of
governmental functions.
44. Hecateus of Miletus was a Greek geographer and
historian. His best-known work is his World map,
which was based on a map that had been designed
by Anaximander. How did he design the map
representing the earth?
A. As a disc surrounded by ocean
B. visualized the earth as a rectangular form
supported by compressed air.
C. a spherical earth with a central fire at its core
D. an irregular shape with oceans surrounding only
Asia and Africa
Answer is A . Hecatæus's map describes the earth as
a circular plate with an encircling Ocean and Greece
in the centre of the world. This was a very popular
contemporary Greek worldview, derived originally
from the Homeric poems. Also, similar to many other
early maps in antiquity his map has no scale. As units
of measurements, this map used "days of sailing" on
the sea and "days of marching" on dry land
45. An agreement signed by President Duterte on
February 28, 2017 dealing with greenhouse gas
emissions mitigation, adaptation and finance starting
in the year 2020.
A. Paris Agreement of Climate Change
B. European Agreement on Climate Change
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
C. Green revolution
Answer is A . The Paris Agreement (French: Accord
de Paris), Paris climate accord or Paris climate
agreement, is an agreement within the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) dealing with greenhouse gas emissions
mitigation, adaptation and finance starting in the
year 2020. The language of the agreement was
negotiated by representatives of 196 parties at the
21st Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC in
Paris and adopted by consensus on 12 December
2015.[3][4] As of August 2017, 195 UNFCCC
members have signed the agreement, 159 of which
have ratified it.
46 The Incan Empire was located in what is now
A. Mexico
B. Central America
C. Peru
D. Brazil
Answer is C. The Inca Empire, or Inka Empire
(Quechua: Tawantinsuyu), was the largest empire in
pre-Columbian America. The administrative, political
and military center of the empire was located in
Cusco in modern-day Peru. The Inca civilization arose
from the highlands of Peru sometime in the early
13th century.
47. Before independence, Bangladesh was called
A. Ceylon
B. East Pakistan
C. Bhutan
D. Bangalore
Answer is B. Due to geographic, economic, and
cultural differences, tensions between East and West
Pakistan caused East Pakistan to secede and become
the independent state of Bangladesh on March 26,
1971.
48. The Magna Carta was published by the King of
which country?
A. France
B. Austria
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C. Italy
D. England
Answer is D. The Magna Carta was created in 1215
issued by King John I of England. It was a document
that signed away much of the Kings power and is one
of the first major political documents.
49. In what instance is the Filipino double-standard
morality shown?
a. A couple brings their sick child to the doctor then
later to the espiritista
b. Young parents bring up their children in a
manner different from how they were brought up
c. Illiterate parents are eager to send their children
to school even if they themselves did not go to
school
d. A married man who flirts with someone else
other than his wife seems acceptable but a married
woman who flirts with another man is condemned.
Answer is D. The growing financial independence of
working mothers is bringing about a change in the
double standard of morality. Looking back to early
Philippine society a single standard was once
prevalent and the aggrieved wife could always file
for a divorce without prejudice to her social
standing. The centuries of Spanish rule changed this
system and any non-marital relationship was
considered infidelity. However, the restriction
applied only to women; men could carry on discreet
extramarital relations which were generally termed
the "querida system". Thus, the so called "double
standard of morality" was established. As long as
extramarital activities were quiet and discreet wives
tolerated it in the hope that they were just flings and
eventually the husbands would return.
50. What factor was a major cause of both World
War I and World War II?
a. The spread of Marxian ideas into Europe
b. The dropping of atomic bombs
c. Nationalism and national borders
d. The rise of totalitarian fascist states
Answer is D.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
51. In which organization is the Philippines a
member to fight communist aggression?
a. APEC
b. ASA
c. UN
d. SEATO
Answer is D
Southeast Asia Treaty Organization (SEATO
In September of 1954, the United States, France,
Great Britain, New Zealand, Australia, the
Philippines, Thailand and Pakistan formed the
Southeast Asia Treaty Organization, or SEATO.
SEATO Meeting in Manila. The purpose of the
organization was to prevent communism from
gaining ground in the
region.https://history.state.gov › milestones › seato
53. As an insular country, to which principle does
the Philippines adhere when it comes to territorial
boundary?
a. Two hundred nautical miles of the country’s
coast
b. Three hundred fifty nautical miles from shore
c. Three-mile territorial limit
d. Archipelagic doctrine
Answer is D. Under this concept ("archipelagic
doctrine"), an archipelago shall be regarded as a
single unit, so that the waters around, between, and
connecting the islands of the archipelago,
irrespective of their breadth and dimensions, form
part of the internal waters of the state, and are
subject to its exclusive sovereignty.
54. In which poem did Rizal write about offering
one’s life for one’s country?
a. A La Juventud Filipina
b. Song of Maria Clara
c. Sa Aking mga Kabata
d. Mi Ultimo Adios
Answer is D
Mi Ultimo Adios (My Last Farewell) is indeed the
most patriotic poem ever made by our National
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Hero. Simply because Rizal sacrificed his life for the
sake of the country. Some people viewed death as a
terrifying moment in one’s
life. But when you get to read the poem, death to
him is sweet and serene knowing that through it, the
country would be soon free from the colonization of
the evil Spaniards. Each line of the poem talks about
positivity even facing death. Rizal didn’t mind his
love to the persons he will be leaving. The feeling
was defeated by the love for his country. Indeed,
patriotism is proved in his poem, My Last Farewell.
CLASS DESCRIPTION
Maginoo(Ruling class) Lakan, Rajah ● The
Lakan or Rajah was the paramount Datu of a large
town.
Datu ● The Datu were maginoo with
personal followings (dulohan or barangay). His
responsibilities included governing his people,
leading them in war, protecting them from enemies,
and settling disputes.● Usually, four to ten datu
lived with their dulohan in a town.
Maginoo ● The Maginoo
comprised the ruling class of the Tagalogs. Ginoo
was an honorific for both men and women.●
Panginoon (sometimes shorted to poon when
addressing them directly) were maginoo who had
many slaves and other valuable property like houses
and boats.
Timawa and maharlika(Freemen) Timawa ● The
Timawa were non-slaves who could attach
themselves to the datu of their choice. They could
use and bequeath a portion of barangay land, and
rendered services and agricultural labor to the
datu.● Members included: illegitimate children of
Maginoo and slaves, and former alipin who paid off
their debts.
Maharlika ● The Maharlika were
similar to the Timawa, except they also rendered
military services to the datu.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Alipin(Slaves) Alipin namamahay ●
Aliping namamahay lived in their own houses apart
from their debtor. They were allowed to farm a
portion of barangay land, but they were expected to
turn over a portion of their harvest to their master.●
Members included: those who inherited debts from
namamahay parents, timawa who went into debt,
and former male Alipin sa gigilid who married.
Alipin sa gigilid ● Alipin sa gigilid lived in
their debtor’s house and were entirely dependent on
him for food and shelter.● Members included:
children born in the debtor’s house (e.g. children of
other alipin, or gintubo), and children of parents who
were too poor to raise them.
55. The theory that population increases by
geometrical ratio while the means of subsistence
increases by arithmetical ratio is attributed to?
a. Karl Marx
b. Robert Malthus
c. Emile Durkheim
d. Aristotle
Answer is B
Malthus first points out that human nature being
what it is, the passion between the sexes appears to
be fairly constant and, if unchecked population will
double itself every twenty-five years. "Population,
when unchecked, increases at a geometrical ratio.
Subsistence increases only in an arithmetical ratio. A
slight acquaintance with numbers will show the
immensity of the first power in comparison with the
second." T. Robert Malthus And this leads to
Malthus’s principle of population. Because of this
unequal power between production and
reproduction, "population must always be kept
down to the level of the means of subsistence.”
56. The important factors which have contributed
to the weakness in the internalization of desirable
values is the?
a. Lack of models among the very people expected
to exemplify these values
b. Use of approaches which are mainly / rather
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than effective
c. Lack of follow up systems from one grade level to
another
d. Minimum recognition and appreciation given to
teachers
Answer is A
57. to govern is to rule and the government rules by
laws. Whose main duty is the enforcement of laws?
a. Police department
b. Judiciary department
c. Legislative department
d. Executive department
CA is D. Executive Department
The executive branch carries out and enforces laws.
It includes the President, Vice President, the Cabinet,
executive departments, independent agencies, and
other boards, commissions, and committees.
Answer is D
During the expedition of Ruy López de Villalobos to
the Islands, Spanish sailor Bernardo de la Torre used
the name Las Islas Filipinas in honour of the then-
Prince of Asturias, originally referring to the islands
of Leyte and Samar. Despite the presence of other
names, the name Filipinas (Philippines) was
eventually adopted as the name of the entire
archipelago.
60. The third and last military governor of the
Philippines was
a. Gen. Wesley Merritt
b. Gen. Elwell Otis
c. Gen. Arthur MacArthur
d. Gen. Douglas MacArthur
Answer is C

The Legislative branch is authorized to make laws,

alter, and repeal them through the power vested in
the Philippine Congress. This institution is divided
into the Senate and the House of Representatives

The judicial branch interprets the meaning of laws,

applies laws to individual cases, and decides if laws
violate the Constitution. The judicial power shall be
vested in one Supreme Court and in such lower
courts as may be established by law.

58. The term that refers to the class of Filipinos who

were free and independent
a. Timawa
b. Maharlika
c. Aliping namamahay
d. Aliping saguiguilid

Answer is A. This is based on history book written by

Zaide.

59. The Spanish expedition responsible for naming

the archipelago Filipinas You might wonder why #4 c Adna Chafee. That's only
a. Magellan’s expedition because he resisted the order of the Pres. of the US
b. Loarca expedition transferring the authority over the island to William
c. Legaspi expedition Howard Taft, the 1st Civil Governor of the Insular
d. Villalobos expedition Government.

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 15


61. Which Katipunan member commuted from
Cavite to Manila to buy materials used to make
ammunitions?
a. Teresa Magbanua
b. Agueda Esteban
c. Teodora Alonso
d. Trinidad Tecson
Answer is B
Agueda Esteban (b. Feb 9, 1868 – d. 1944) was the
point person of the Katipunero who buy materials
from Manila to make gunpowder and bullets which
she will deliver to his husband who is stationed in
Cavite. Upon the death of her husband, called
Tungkod among the Katipuneros from Batac, Ilocos
Norte, she married Gen. Artemio Ricarte.
62.Which economic system is based on free
enterprise?
a. Globalism
b. Mixed economies
c. Capitalism
d. Communism
Answer is C. A free enterprise system is an economic
system where a government places very few
restrictions on the types of business activities or
ownership in which citizens participate. This type of
system is often referred to by others as a free
market, or capitalism. In a free enterprise system,
you are allowed to spend your money in the way you
want. You often have several different companies
competing for your business, which often leads to
lower prices and better-quality products. You are
also free to pursue any type of job or work that you
enjoy.
A mixed economic system is an economic system
that features characteristics of both capitalism and
socialism. A mixed economic system protects private
property and allows a level of economic freedom in
the use of capital, but also allows for governments to
interfere in economic activities in order to achieve
social aims. According to neoclassical theory, mixed
economies are less efficient than pure free markets,
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
but proponents of government interventions argue
that the base conditions such as equal information
and rational market participants cannot be achieved
in practical application.
The United States is mostly a free market economy,
but it incorporates elements such as protection for
agriculture and manufacturing by through trade
restrictions and subsidies. This makes the United
States a mixed economy by definition (and
Philippines too).
Read more: Mixed Economic System Communism,
also known as a command system, is an economic
system where the government owns most of the
factors of production and decides the allocation of
resources and what products and services will be
provided. The most important originators of
communist doctrine were Karl Marx and Frederick
Engels.
Characteristics inherent in a command economy.
 The government is in control of the pricing
of goods and services.
 The government makes all decisions for
finances in the country, such as hourly rate
of pay for workers. The government may
even assign people the jobs.
 Since hourly rate of pay is regulated, also
tending to be just enough to survive, people
will tend to try and break the rules, such as
sell stuff on the black market to make more
money.
 The state has absolute power over all
resources.
 The command economy has state-owned
entities as well as privately-owned entities
that are controlled by the state.
 People in power, such as politicians, give
orders to buyers, sellers, and investors.
Globalization is the increasing economic integration
and interdependence of national, regional, and local
economies across the world through an
intensification of cross-border movement of goods,
services, technologies and capital.
Page 16
63. How is the so-called colonial mentality 5. Antarctica: About 5,500,000 square miles
manifested? (14,245,000 square km)

a. Cultural relativism 6. Europe: 3,997,929 square miles (10,354,636

square km)
b. Cultural diversity
7.Australia: 2,967,909 square miles (7,686,884
c. Xenocentrism square km)
d. Ethnocentrism 65. In which continent can we find stormy Cape
Horn which is known as the graveyard of ships and
Answer is C
sailors?
Xenocentrism is preference the products, styles, a. Africa
ideas, or ideas of someone else's culture rather than b. Australia
of one's own (colonial mentality); Xeno means c. South America
foreign. d. Asia

On the other hand, Ethnocentrism is the practice of Answer is C

judging all other cultures by one's own culture based
on assumption that one's way of life is superior to all
others forms of ethnocentrism
64. If the seven continents were arranged from
largest to smallest, in which order does Australia
fall?
a. 4th
Cape Horn (Spanish: Cabo de Hornos) is the
southernmost headland of the Tierra del Fuego
archipelago of southern Chile, and is located on the
small Hornos Island. Although not the most
southerly point of South America (which are the
Diego Ramírez Islands), Cape Horn marks the
northern boundary of the Drake Passage and marks
where the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans meet.

b. 5th 66. Which led to the creation of Pakistan as a

nation in 1947? Religious differences between
c. 6th
a. Hindus and Christians
8. 7th b. Christians and Muslims
c. Hindus and Buddhists
Answer is 7th d. Hindus and Muslims

CONTINENTS RANKED BY AREA Answer is D

1. Asia: 17,139,445 square miles (44,391,162 square
km)
2. Africa: 11,677,239 square miles (30,244,049
square km)
3. North America: 9,361,791 square miles
(24,247,039 square km)
4. South America: 6,880,706 square miles
(17,821,029 square km)
The long-term religious conflicts between the Hindus
and Muslim people of the region have forced the
countries into countless skirmishes and three brutal
wars. Since the formation of the Indian and Pakistani
nations in 1947, thousands of Indians and Pakistanis
have died fighting in these conflicts.
67. Which is common to Sun Yat Sen and Mahatma
Gandhi?
a. Promoted a society ruled by religious leaders
b. Rejected violence as a way to political power

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 17

c. Led a successful nationalistic movement in their
respective countries
d. Supported Marxist philosophy to change existing
governments
Answer is C
Answers to many reviewers circulating online is B
which is not correct. Mahatma Ghandi has initiated
an act of nonviolent civil disobedience known as the
Salt March based upon Gandhi's principles of non-
violent protest called satyagraha, which he loosely
translated as "truth-force" or "truthful demand."
Sun Yat Sen on the other hand, was a nationalist
revolutionary who believed that the only way for
China to move forward in the early 1900’s was for
the country to become a republic and adopt western
ways in industry, agriculture etc. Unless China did
this, Sun was convinced that she was doomed to
remain backward by western standards. He also led
The Tongmenghui, also known as the Chinese United
League, United League, Chinese Revolutionary
Alliance, Chinese Alliance and United Allegiance
Society, was a secret society and underground
resistance movement founded by Sun Yat-sen, Song
Jiaoren, and others in Tokyo, Japan, on 20 August
1905. It was formed from the merger of many
Chinese revolutionary groups in the late Qing
dynasty.
What is common to both of them is that they led a
successful nationalist movement in their country.
Therefore correct answer is C.
68. Nebuchadnezzar was to the Babylonian Empire
as Asoka was to the ______ Empire.
a. Roman
b. Gupta
c. Greek
d. Maurya
Answer is D
Ashoka, also spelled Aśoka (died 238? BCE, India),
last major emperor in the Mauryan dynasty of India .
His vigorous patronage of Buddhism during his reign
( c. 265–238 BCE; also given as c. 273–232 BCE)
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
furthered the expansion of that religion throughout
India. Following his successful but bloody conquest
of the Kalinga country on the east coast, Ashoka
renounced armed conquest and adopted a policy
that he called “conquest by dharma ” (i.e., by
principles of right life).
69. Which of the following was known to man
before the Neolithic Period?
A. Use of fire
B. Domestication of animals
C. Making pottery
D. Practice of agriculture
Answer is is A. Fire was believed to have been used
during the Paleolithic Period..
Stone Age
 Palaeolithic
"Palaeolithic" means "Old Stone Age", and begins
with the first use of stone tools. The Paleolithic is the
earliest period of the Stone Age.
The use of fire enabled early humans to cook food,
provide warmth, and have a light source at night.
Throughout the Palaeolithic, humans generally lived
as nomadic hunter-gatherers. Hunter-gatherer
societies tended to be very small and egalitarian,
though hunter-gatherer societies with abundant
resources or advanced food-storage techniques
sometimes developed sedentary lifestyles with
complex social structures such as chiefdoms, and
social stratification. Long-distance contacts may have
been established, as in the case of Indigenous
Australian "highways" known as songlines.
 Mesolithic
The "Mesolithic", or "Middle Stone Age" (from the
Greek "mesos", "middle", and "lithos", "stone") was
a period in the development of human technology
between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic periods of
the Stone Age.
The Mesolithic period began at the end of the
Pleistocene epoch, some 10,000 BP, and ended with
Page 18
the introduction of agriculture, the date of which
varied by geographic region.
The Mesolithic is characterized in most areas by
small composite flint tools — microliths and
microburins. Fishing tackle, stone adzes and wooden
objects, e.g. canoes and bows, have been found at
some sites. These technologies first occur in Africa,
associated with the Azilian cultures, before
spreading to Europe through the Ibero-Maurusian
culture of Northern Africa and the Kebaran culture of
the Levant. Independent discovery is not always
ruled out.
 Neolithic
An array of Neolithic artifacts, including bracelets,
axe heads, chisels, and polishing tools. Neolithic
stone artifacts are by definition polished and, except
for specialty items, not chipped.
"Neolithic" means "New Stone Age." Although there
were several species of human beings during the
Paleolithic, by the Neolithic only Homo sapiens
sapiens remained.This was a period of primitive
technological and social development. The Neolithic
is a progression of behavioral and cultural
characteristics and changes, including the use of wild
and domestic crops and of domesticated animals.
The Neolithic era commenced with the beginning of
farming, which produced the "Neolithic Revolution".
It ended when metal tools became widespread (in
the Copper Age or Bronze Age; or, in some
geographical regions, in the Iron Age).The term
Neolithic is commonly used in the Old World, as its
application to cultures in the Americas and Oceania
that did not fully develop metal-working technology
raises problems.
 Chalcolithic
Artist's impression of a Copper Age walled city, Los
Millares, Iberia
In Old World archaeology, the "Chalcolithic",
"Eneolithic" or "Copper Age" refers to a transitional
period where early copper metallurgy appeared
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
alongside the widespread use of stone tools. During
this period, some weapons and tools were made of
copper. This period was still largely Neolithic in
character. It is a phase of the Bronze Age before it
was discovered that adding tin to copper formed the
harder bronze. The Copper Age was originally
defined as a transition between the Neolithic and
the Bronze Age. However, because it is characterized
by the use of metals, the Copper Age is considered a
part of the Bronze Age rather than the Stone Age.
70. The center of civilization that we call Minoan
was
A. in the islands along the Black Sea
B. on the island of Crete
C. on the central part of Asia Minor
D. on the mainland Greece
Answer is B
The Minoan civilization was an Aegean Bronze Age
civilization on the island of Crete and other Aegean
islands which flourished from about 2600 to 1100
BC. It preceded the Mycenaean civilization of
Ancient Greece.[1] The civilization was rediscovered
at the beginning of the 20th century through the
work of British archaeologist Arthur Evans. It has
been described as the earliest of its kind in
Europe,[2] with historian Will Durant calling the
Minoans "the first link in the European chain"
71. In the 16th century, England was under the rule
of which Protestant family?
A. Tudors
B. Stuarts
C. Hapsburgs
D. Medici
E. Windsors
Answer is B
In the 16th century England was under the reign of
the Stuarts which started when Queen Elizabeth died
and James VI of Scotland succeeded the throne as
James I of England. He was the son of Mary Queen of
Scots by her second husband Lord Darnley, and
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great-great grandson of Henry VIII’s sister Margaret.
Religion during the reign of the Stuarts was
Protentantism. Remember that Elizabeth I made
Protestantism the country's official religion.
You may also want to read about the Tudors and
how did England become a Protestant country.
There were major changes in the church during the
reign of the Tudor king and queens. England started
as a Catholic country and ended up being a
Protestant one under the Tudors.
When the first Tudor Kings came to the throne,
England was a Roman Catholic country and the head
of the church was the Pope in Rome, Clement VII.
When Henry VIII came to the throne, he was a
devout Catholic and defended the Church against
Protestants. Henry VIII did not agree with their
views.
In 1521, Pope Leo X honoured Henry VIII with the
title "Defender of Faith', because of his support for
the Roman Church.
When the Pope refused to grant Henry VIII a
divorce* from Catherine of Aragon , Henry split off
the English Church from the Roman church. Rather
than the pope, the king would be the spiritual head
of the English church. (Reformation)
*The Roman Catholic faith believed in marriage for
life. It did not recognise, let alone support, divorce.
King Henry VIII declared himself supreme head of a
new Church of England. (The Act of Supremacy and
reformation ) This marked the start of centuries or
religious conflict in Britain.
Under King Edward VI, son of Henry VIII, (1547-
1553), England became a Protestant nation. King
Edward VI was a devout Protestant and introduced a
new prayer book.
Under Queen Mary I
(1553-1558), England was again a Catholic nation.
Mary was a devout Catholic. The pope became the
head of the church again.
Church services changed back to Latin.
During the last three years of her reign, 300 leading
Protestants who would not accepted Catholic beliefs
were burned to death at the stake. Third earned her
the nickname of 'Bloody Mary'.
Under Queen Elizabeth I (1558-1603), England was
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
again a Protestant nation. It was under Elizabeth that
the Anglican church (Church of England) became
firmly established and dominant. However, Elizabeth
did her best to sort out the problem of religion.
Also take note that Queen Elizabeth I never married
(that's why she is known as the Virgin Queen) and
for this reason James VI of Scotland became her
successor as James I of England. (From Tudor to
Stuart)
72. The Versailles Peace Treaty resulted in a
A. more powerful Germany
B. Austria gaining additional land for the role it
played in the Allied victory
C. financial collapse for Germany by 1923
D. the immediate rise of Hitler and the Nazi Party
E. Germany restoring monarchy to the throne
Answer is C. As a result, by 1919 Germany was no
longer the second most economically advanced
nation in the world. The immediate economic
consequences of the terms of the Treaty of Versailles
were a significant concern and added to Germany's
humiliation. Under the terms of the treaty Germany
had to pay huge sums in reparations.
73. The disease that ravaged and killed a third of
Europe's population in the 14th century is known
as
A. The White Death
B. The Black Plague
C. Smallpox
D. The Bubonic Plague
Answer is D. Bubonic plague, the disease's most
common form, refers to telltale buboes—painfully
swollen lymph nodes—that appear around the groin,
armpit, or neck.
The plague is believed to be the cause of the Black
Death that swept through Asia, Europe, and Africa in
the 14th century and killed an estimated 50 million
people.[1] This was about 25% to 60% of the
European population.[1][7] Because the plague killed
so many of the working population, wages rose due
to the demand for labor.[7] Some historians see this
as a turning point in European economic
Page 20
development.[7] The term bubonic is derived from
the Greek word βουβών, meaning "groin".[8] The
term "buboes" is also used to refer to the swollen
lymph nodes. The Black Death was one of the most
devastating pandemics in human history casued by a
disease known as the bubonic plague.
74. The departure of Soviet troops from
Czechoslovakia in 1991 was the result of the
A. Velvet Revolution
B. The October Revolution
C. The Prague Spring
D. The Cultural Revolution
Answer is A. The Velvet Revolution refers to
Czechoslovakia's relatively peaceful transition from
communism
75. "take up the White man's Burden
Send forth the best ye breed
Go, bind your son in exile
To serve your captives' need.
- by Rudyard Kipling, The Five Nations (1903)
The words of this poem have been used to support
the practice of
A. isolationism
B. cultural borrowing
C. self I determination
D. imperialism
E. humanitarianism
Answer is D. "The White Man's Burden: The United
States and the Philippine Islands" is a 1899 poem by
Rudyard Kipling about the Philippine–American War
(1899–1902), which invites the U.S. to assume
colonial control of that country. The poem was
published in The New York Sun on 10 February
1899.[1]
Originally, Kipling wrote the poem for the Diamond
Jubilee celebration of Queen Victoria's reign (1837–
1901), but it was exchanged for the poem
"Recessional", also by Kipling. Later, he rewrote the
poem "The White Man's Burden" to address the
American colonization of the Philippine Islands, a
Pacific Ocean archipelago conquered from Imperial
Spain, in the three-month Spanish–American War
(1898); the birth of the American Empire.[2][3]
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
The poem exhorts the reader and the listener to
embark upon the enterprise of empire, yet gives
somber warning about the costs involved;
nonetheless, American imperialists understood the
phrase The white man's burden to justify imperialism
as a noble enterprise of civilization, conceptually
related to the American philosophy of Manifest
Destiny.
76. Which statement describes India's foreign policy
between 1947 and 1990?
A. It imitated its former mother country, Great
Britain
B. It supported strong ties with communist China
C. It joined NATO, developing strong ties with the
West
D. It generally followed a policy of nonalignment
E. it maintained a strong and positive relationship
with neighboring Pakistan
Answer is D.
India played an important role in the multilateral
movements of colonies and newly independent
countries that wanted into the Non-Aligned
Movement. India's policy was neither negative nor
positive
Jawaharlal Nehru was the architect of the Non-
Alignment Movement. The five principles were:
 Mutual respect for each other's territorial
integrity and sovereignty
 Mutual non-aggression
 Mutual non-interference in domestic affairs
 Equality and mutual benefit
 Peacefulco-existence.
The movement had its origins in the 1947 Asian
Relations Meeting in New Delhi.
77. The Khmer Rouge, Pot Pot, and the Killing Fields
are all associated with the
A. Vietnam War
B. Cambodian genocide
C. Rape of Nanking
D. liberation of the Philippines
E. boat people
Page 21

Answer is B. The Cambodian Killing Fields ( Khmer :
វាលពិឃាត, Khmer pronunciation: [ʋiəl pikʰiət] ) are
a number of sites in Cambodia where collectively
more than a million people were killed and buried by
the Khmer Rouge regime, during its rule of the
country from 1975 to 1979, immediately after the
end of the Cambodian Civil War (1970–1975). The
mass killings are widely regarded as part of a broad
state-sponsored genocide (the Cambodian genocide
).
The Khmer Rogue was lead by Pol Pot, from 1963
until 1997. From 1963 to 1981, he served as the
General Secretary of the Communist Party of
Kampuchea . As such, he became the leader of
Cambodia on 17 April 1975, when his forces
captured Phnom Penh. From 1976 to 1979, he also
served as the Prime Minister of Democratic
Kampuchea ( 30th Prime Minister of Cambodia ).
The Rape of Nanking. During the Sino-Japanese War,
Nanking, the capital of China, falls to Japanese
forces, and the Chinese government flees to
Hankow, further inland along the Yangtze River.
To break the spirit of Chinese resistance, Japanese
General Matsui Iwane ordered that the city of
Nanking be destroyed. Much of the city was burned,
and Japanese troops launched a campaign of
atrocities against civilians. In what became known as
the “Rape of Nanking,” the Japanese butchered an
estimated 150,000 male “war prisoners,” massacred
an additional 50,000 male civilians, and raped at
least 20,000 women and girls of all ages, many of
whom were mutilated or killed in the process.
Shortly after the end of World War II, Matsui was
found guilty of war crimes by the International
Military Tribunal for the Far East and executed.
78. The Hundred Years War was fought between
what two countries?
A. Italy and Carthage
B. England and Germany
C. France and England
D. Spain and France
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Answer is C. The Hundred Years' War was a series of
conflicts waged from 1337 to 1453 by the House of
Plantagenet, rulers of the Kingdom of England,
against the House of Valois, rulers of the Kingdom of
France, over the succession to the French throne.
79.The first successful printing press was developed
by this man.
A. Johannes Gutenburg
B. Benjamin Franklin
C. Sir Isaac Newton
D. Martin Luther
Answer is A. The printing press was invented in the
Holy Roman Empire by the German Johannes
Gutenberg around 1440, based on existing screw
presses . Gutenberg, a goldsmith by profession,
developed a printing system, by adapting existing
technologies to printing purposes, as well as making
inventions of his own. His newly devised hand mould
made possible the precise and rapid creation of
metal movable type in large quantities. Movable
type had been hitherto unknown in Europe. In East
Asia, where it was invented, the usefulness of
movable type was limited by the complexity of the
writing system and, without the hand mould, the
production of sorts (individual letters of type) was
slow. In Europe, the two inventions, the hand mould
and the printing press, together drastically reduced
the cost of printing books and other documents,
particularly in short print runs.
80. The first year of the Islamic calendar marks the
following event:
A. The birth of Muhammad
B. The Quran is assembled into a single sacred text
C. The division of the Sunnis and the Shiites
D. Muhammads flight from Mecca to Medina
Answer is D
The Hijrah is also often identified with the start of
the Islamic calendar, which was set to 16 July 622 in
the Julian calendar.
The Hegira or Hijrath ( Arabic : ‫ )ﺓَ ْﺮﺠِﻫ‬is the migration
or journey of the Islamic prophet Muhammad and
his followers from Mecca to Yathrib, later renamed
Page 22
by him to Medina , in the year 622. In June 622, after
being warned of a plot to assassinate him,
Muhammad secretly left his home in Mecca to
emigrate to Yathrib, 320 km (200 mi) north of
Mecca, along with his companion Abu Bakr . Yathrib
was soon renamed Madīnat an-Nabī ( Arabic :‫ﻣَـﺪﻳـﻨـﺔ‬
‫ ﺍﻟـﻨّـﺒﻲ‬, literally "City of the Prophet"), butan-Nabī was
soon dropped, so its name is "Medina", meaning
"the city".
81. In 1933, the purpose of the US government in
devaluing the dollar in terms of gold was to
A. raise domestic prices and make American goods
cheaper abroad
B. lower domestic prices and make American goods
more expensive abroad
C. establish the gold standard
D. stop excessive exports of American goods
E. reduce the ability of the gold-producing USSR to
exchange gold for industrial and military goods
Answer is A
This phase involved the deliberate devaluation of the
dollar. The government did this by authorizing the
Reconstruction Finance Corporation to buy gold at
increasing prices. These purchases raised gold’s
value in terms of dollars, conversely lowering the
dollar’s value in terms of gold and in terms of foreign
currencies, whose value in gold remained pegged at
old prices.
The goal of these programs was to raise American
prices of commodities like wheat and cotton,
returning them to the level of 1926, before the
beginning of the contraction. This reflation would
counteract the deflation that had dragged the
economy into the abyss. The reflation would relieve
debtors, resuscitate banks, and revive businesses.
The reflation would lower prices of American goods
abroad, encouraging exports, and raise prices of
foreign goods in the US, discouraging imports
82. The industrial revolution had its very first start
in
A. United States
B. Spain
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
C. Japan
D. England
E. France
Answer is D. The Industrial Revolution was the
transition to new manufacturing processes in the
period from about 1760 to sometime between 1820
and 1840. This transition included going from hand
production methods to machines, new chemical
manufacturing and iron production processes, the
increasing use of steam power, the development of
machine tools and the rise of the factory system.
Textiles were the dominant industry of the Industrial
Revolution in terms of employment, value of output
and capital invested; the textile industry was also the
first to use modern production methods.
The Industrial Revolution began in Great Britain, and
many of the technological innovations were British.
83. The Hanseatic League was most concerned with
A. deficit spending
B. minimum wages
C. union organization
D. international trade
E. regulation of securities
Answer is D
Hanseatic League, also called Hansa, German Hanse,
organization founded by north German towns and
German merchant communities abroad to protect
their mutual trading interests. The league dominated
commercial activity in northern Europe from the
13th to the 15th century.
84. In "Civilization and its Discontents," Freud
expressed his viewpoint concerning the necessity of
controlling the antisocial and aggressive
propensities of man. Which of the following
authors saw similar ideas in 18th and 19th century
politics?
A. Rousseau
B. Locke
C. Voltaire
D. Hobbes
E. Montesquieu
Page 23
Answer is D. Prince Otto Edward Leopold von Bismarck was the
mastermind of German Unification and was the first
chancellor of the united nation. Bismarck caused
Germany to transform from a loose net of 39 states
into the strongest industrial nation of Europe. The
unification of Germany had a tremendous impact on
European balance of powers for the rest of history.
For nearly 30 years Bismarck dominated Germany
and European politics.

87. Both the germ theory if disease and the theory

that bacteria can cause milk to sour was advanced
by
A. Galileo
B. Weismann
C. Pasteur
D. Swann
E. Mendel

Answer is C. Louis Pasteur (France: 1860s)

85. When applying Marxian philosophy to
sociology, Karl Marx thought that throughout the
history of mankind, the economic and social classes
A. were in constant conflict with each other
B. accepted the fact that some classes should live
better than others
C. were all equal in society
D. live in a state of constant harmony
E. recognized the right of the powerful class to
dominate the society
Answer is A
One of the most powerful sociological explanations
of social conflict is that of Karl Marx, who posited a
class struggle between proletariat and bourgeoisie
intrinsic to capitalist, industrial society.
86. Cavour is to Italian unification as _________ is
to German unification.
a. Hitler
B. Gibraldi
C. Luther
D. Bismarck
E. Kaiser Wilhelm III
Answer is D
discovered (by using a swan-necked flask) that germs
cause disease. Before he made this discovery,
doctors had noticed bacteria, but they believed it
was the disease that caused the bacteria (the so-
called theory of 'spontaneous generation') rather
than the other way round.
One of the spin-offs of Pasteur's discovery was
the pasteurisation of milk, which prevented it from
going sour by killing the germs and sealing it from
the air.
88. Which of the following people were especially
influenced by Byzantine civilization and the
Byzantine form of Christianity?
A. Turks
B. Germans
C. Slavs
D. Celts
E. Iberians
Answer is C
Byzantium and the Slavs: Byzantine traditions had
deeply influenced political and cultural affairs of the
Slavic people long before the Empire collapsed.
Serbs and Croats had moved into the Balkan
Peninsula while Justinian had the empire’s military
forces occupied in the Western Mediterranean.

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 24

Bulgars also established a kingdom in the Danube
River valley.
Missionaries from the Empire often converted the
Slavs to Orthodox Christianity. The most famous of
these were two brothers from Thessaloniki, Greece,
known as St. Cyril and St. Methodius. They
conducted missions throughout the region, and
devised an alphabet known as the Cyrillic alphabet
for the Slavs.
89. In 1688, the last Stuart king of England was
removed from power, and William and Mary took
the throne, accepting Parliament as supreme
authority over the monarch. This great event
became known as the
A. the Magna Carta
B. the Act of Supremacy
C. the Model of Parliament
D. the Glorious Revolution
E. the Triennial Act
Answer is D. The Glorious Revolution , also called
the Revolution of 1688 or the Bloodless Revolution ,
was the overthrow of King James II of England
(James VII of Scotland) by a union of English
Parliamentarians with the Dutch stadtholder William
III, Prince of Orange . William's successful invasion of
England with a Dutch fleet and army led to his
ascension to the throne as William III of England
jointly with his wife, Mary II, James's daughter, after
the Declaration of Right , leading to the Bill of Rights
1689 .
The Triennial Act 1641 (16 Cha. I c. 1) (also known as
the Dissolution Act) was an Act passed on 15
February 1641, by the English Long Parliament,
during the reign of King Charles I. The act requires
that Parliament meet for at least a fifty-day session
once every three years.
Act of Supremacy, (1534) English act of Parliament
that recognized Henry VIII as the “Supreme Head of
the Church of England.” The act also required an
oath of loyalty from English subjects that recognized
his marriage to Anne Boleyn.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Magna Carta Libertatum ( Medieval Latin for "the
Great Charter of the Liberties"), commonly called
Magna Carta (also Magna Charta ; "(the) Great
Charter"), [a] is a charter agreed to by King John of
England at Runnymede, near Windsor , on 15 June
1215. [b] First drafted by the Archbishop of
Canterbury to make peace between the unpopular
King and a group of rebel barons , it promised the
protection of church rights, protection for the barons
from illegal imprisonment, access to swift justice,
and limitations on feudal payments to the Crown , to
be implemented through a council of 25 barons.
Neither side stood behind their commitments, and
the charter was annulled by Pope Innocent III ,
leading to the First Barons' War . After John's death,
the regency government of his young son, Henry III ,
reissued the document in 1216, stripped of some of
its more radical content, in an unsuccessful bid to
build political support for their cause. At the end of
the war in 1217, it formed part of the peace treaty
agreed at Lambeth , where the document acquired
the name Magna Carta, to distinguish it from the
smaller Charter of the Forest which was issued at the
same time. Short of funds, Henry reissued the
charter again in 1225 in exchange for a grant of new
taxes; his son, Edward I , repeated the exercise in
1297, this time confirming it as part of England's
statute law.
The Model Parliament is the term, attributed to
Frederic William Maitland , used for the 1295
Parliament of England of King Edward I . This
assembly included members of the clergy and the
aristocracy, as well as representatives from the
various counties and boroughs . Each county
returned two knights , two burgesses were elected
from each borough, and each city provided two
citizens. This composition became the model for
later parliaments, hence the name
90. The Boxer Rebellion of China was
A. an effort to overthrow the rule of the Manchu
power
B. a revolt against the Japanese rule in Korea
C. An attack upon foreigners in China
D. the revolution that established the Chinese
Page 25
Republic
E. a fight to establish Confucianism
Answer is C. Boxer Rebellion, officially supported
peasant uprising of 1900 that attempted to drive all
foreigners from China. “Boxers” was a name that
foreigners gave to a Chinese secret society known as
the Yihequan (“Righteous and Harmonious Fists”).
91. The "Great Trek" refers to
A. the expansion of Canada to the west
B. the migration of Europeans to New Zealand
C. the movement of Dutch-speaking Boers out of
Cape Colony
D. the great sheep drives in Australia
E. General Cluster's march to Montana
Answer is C
The Great Trek was an eastward migration of Dutch-
speaking settlers who travelled by wagon from the
Cape Colony into the interior of modern South Africa
from 1836 onwards, seeking to live beyond the
Cape's British colonial administration.
92. Which of the following is a common trait of a
developing nation?
A. it is urbanized and organized
B. It depends largely on a large farming labor force
C. It has a low infant mortality rate
D. Average life expectancy is about 65-70 years of
age
E. Education is a top priority and extensive
Answer is B. Geographical regions for developing
economies are as follows: Africa, East. Option A
pertains to developed countries.
Asia, South Asia, Western Asia, and Latin America
and the Caribbean A developing country, also called
a less developed country or an underdeveloped
country, is a nation or a sovereign state with a less
developed industrial base and a low Human
Development Index (HDI) relative to other countries.
Agriculture is the main source of national income for
most developing countries. However, for the
developed countries, agriculture contributes a
smaller per cent age to their national income.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
93. From a sociological standpoint, the 'sacredness"
of an object or idea lies in the
A. object or idea itself
B. spirit which dwells in the object or idea
C. type of object or idea
D. kind of people who believe in it
E. attitude of the observer
Answer is E.
At present it is enough to point out that an object is
socially sacred when it provokes in members of the
group an attitude of reverence and when it can be
profaned in the eyes of social opinion, by being
connected with some other object. There are many
degrees of social sacredness; an object that may
appear as sacred in comparison with another may be
itself a source of profanation of a third. Thus,
business has a feature of sacredness which becomes
manifest when it is interfered with by frivolous
things like drinking or the company of women of the
demi-monde; but its sacredness is not very high
since it can easily appear as profane when it
interferes with scientific or religious interests. And
even so highly sacred an object as a scientific
congress or a formal religious meeting may seem
profane as compared with a particularly eager and
difficult pursuit by the individual of the solution of a
great theoretic problem, the ecstasy of a mystic, or
the preservation of the society itself from
destruction or devastation by an alien enemy. And of
course the degree of sacredness attached to
different objects varies.
94. "I proposed never to accept anything for true
which I did not clearly know to be such. I think
therefore I am." This was said by
A. Pascal
B. Descartes
C. Bayke
D. Locke
E. Hobbes
Answer is B. Cogito ergo sum is a Latin philosophical
proposition by René Descartes usually translated
into English as "I think, therefore I am".
Page 26
95. The marginal propensity to consume refers to
the
A. level of income at which consumer spending just
equals income
B. inclination on the part of some to "keep up with
the Joneses" in their consumer spending
C. fraction of extra income that will be spent on
consumption
D. amount a family (or community) will spend on
consumption at different levels of income
E. fact that, at low incomes, families spend more on
consumption than the amount of their income
Answer is C. The marginal propensity to consume
(MPC) measures the proportion of extra income that
is spent on consumption. 96.The Meiji Restoration
in Japan (1867-68) was
A. an effort to cut all ties with the West and go back
to ancient Japanese ways
B. the beginning of Japan's modernization
C. the capture of Formosa by Japan
D. the overthrow of Japanese emperor
E. the reestablishment of the power of the
shogunate
Answer is B. Meiji Restoration, in Japanese history,
the political revolution in 1868 that brought about
the final demise of the Tokugawa shogunate
(military government)—thus ending the Edo
(Tokugawa) period (1603–1867)—and, at least
nominally, returned control of the country to direct
imperial rule under Mutsuhito (the emperor Meiji).
In a wider context, however, the Meiji Restoration of
1868 came to be identified with the subsequent era
of major political, economic, and social change—the
Meiji period (1868–1912)—that brought about the
modernization and Westernization of the country.
97. . What was the First Philippine Republic?
A. The Republic proclaimed in Malolos
B. The Republic proclaimed under the 1935
Constitution.
C. The Republic of the Philippines proclaimed in
1946
D. The Republic proclaimed under the Japanese-
sponsored Constitution
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Answer is A. Though short-lived, the First Philippine,
nonetheless catapulted the Filipino nation onto the
world’s consciousness carving not only a place
among the family of nations but also a distinct niche
as the first republic in Asia. While much of the world
was oblivious to its birthing, the First Republic
proved that Filipinos were capable of self-rule and
deserved their longed-for freedom after more than
300 years of colonial bondage- a bondage shaken
time and again by sporadic revolts, whose
disparateness precluded ultimate victory.
The Repubic was inaugurated on January 23, 1899 at
Barasoain Church, Malolos, in ceremonies marked by
the reading of the whole Constitution, by Secretary
Ocampo; proclamation of the Republic of the
Philippines by Congress president Paterno, followed
by the proclamation of Aguinaldo as the elected
President of the new Republic, and speeches by
Aguinaldo and Paterno.
98. Which was the first government during the
Japanese occupation?
A. The Japanese-sponsored Republic of the
Philippines
B. Military Government
C. Japanese Military Administration
D. The Philippine Executive Commission
Answer is C. On January 2, 1942, the Imperial
Japanese Forces occupied the City of Manila, and on
the next day their Commander in Chief proclaimed
"the MILITARY ADMINISTRATION under law over the
districts occupied by the Army." In said
proclamation, it was also provided that "so far as the
Military Administration permits, all the laws now in
force in the Commonwealth, as well as executive and
judicial institutions, shall continue to be effective for
the time being as in the past," and "all public officials
shall remain in their present posts and carry on
faithfully their duties as before."
A civil government or central administration
organization under the name of "PHILIPPINE
EXECUTIVE COMMISSION" was organized by Order
No. 1 issued on January 23, 1942, by the Commander
in Chief of the Japanese Forces in the Philippines,
Page 27
and Jorge B. Vargas, who was appointed Chairman
thereof, was instructed to proceed to the immediate
coordination of the existing central administrative
organs and judicial courts, based upon what had
existed therefore, with approval of the said
Commander in Chief, who was to exercise
jurisdiction over judicial courts. Retrieved from:
99. What characteristic/s of government is
established by the 1987 Constitution?'
I. Presidential system of government with three
branches
II. Parliamentary system of government
III. The three branches of government are separate
and independent of each other
IV. The three branches of government have a check
and balance over each other.
A. I and IV
B. II. Ill and IV
C. I. Ill and IV
D. II only
Answer is C.(I,III and IV). The Philippines is a
presidential government with three branches of the
government which are independent of each other
based on the principle of Separation of Powers. And
to ensure that no branch will encroach or intervene
upon the function of another, there is the principle
of Checks and Balances.
100. With the basic principle on the rule of the
majority which one follows?
A. The wishes of the majority prevail over those of
the minority.
B. The right of the minority, to express their opinion
is suppressed.
C. The majority is always right.
D. The minority does not have the right to protest
the acts of the-majority.
Answer is A. The majority rule stands for the
proposition that the decisions and choices of the
majority will always prevail over those of the
minorities.
SET 2
SOCIAL STUDIES/ SOCIAL SCIENCE REVIEWER
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
1. Hecateus of Miletus was a Greek geographer and
historian. His best-known work is his World map,
which was based on a map that had been designed
by Anaximander. How did he design the map
representing the earth?
A. As a disc surrounded by ocean
B. visualized the earth as a rectangular form
supported by compressed air.
C. a spherical earth with a central fire at its core
D. an irregular shape with oceans surrounding only
Asia and Africa
Answer: A
Hecatæus's map describes the earth as a circular
plate with an encircling Ocean and Greece in the
centre of the world. This was a very popular
contemporary Greek worldview, derived originally
from the Homeric poems. Also, similar to many other
early maps in antiquity his map has no scale. As units
of measurements, this map used "days of sailing" on
the sea and "days of marching" on dry land
Anaximenes of Miletus (6th century BC), who
studied under Anaximander, rejected the views of
his teacher regarding the shape of the earth and
instead, he visualized the earth as a rectangular form
supported by compressed air
Pythagoras of Samos (c. 560–480 BC) speculated
about the notion of a spherical earth with a central
fire at its core. He is sometimes incorrectly credited
with the introduction of a model that divides a
spherical earth into five zones: one hot, two
temperate, and two cold—northern and southern.
This idea, known as the zonal theory of climate, is
more likely to have originated at the time of Aristotle
Herodotus rejected the prevailing view of most 5th
century BC maps that the earth is a circular plate
surrounded by Ocean. In his work he describes the
earth as an irregular shape with oceans surrounding
only Asia and Africa. He introduces names such as
the Atlantic Sea and the Erythrean Sea. He also
divided the world into three continents: Europe,
Asia, and Africa
2. A type of map that are designed to show
governmental boundaries of countries, states, and
counties, the location of major cities, and they
usually include significant bodies of water.
A. Topographic map
B. Political Map
Page 28
C. Physical Map
D. Economic Map

Answer: B

Political maps are designed to show governmental

boundaries of countries, states, and counties, the lo

4. A type of map characterized by large-scale detail

and quantitative representation of relief, usually
using contour lines, but historically using a variety of
methods
A. Topographic map
B. Political Map
C. Physical Map
D. Economic Map

Answer: A
cation of major cities, and they usually include
A topographic map is similar to a physical map in
significant bodies of water.
that it shows different physical landscape features.
They are different however because they use
3. Map that focuses on the geography of the area
contour lines instead of colors to show changes in
and will often have shaded relief to show the
the landscape. Contour lines on topographic maps
mountains and valleys.
are normally spaced at regular intervals to show
A. Topographic map
elevation changes (e.g. each line represents a 100
B. Political Map
foot (30 m) elevation change) and when lines are
C. Physical Map
close together the terrain is steep.
D. Economic Map

Answer: C
A physical map is one that shows the physical
landscape features of a place. They generally show
things like mountains, rivers and lakes and water is
always shown with blue. Mountains and elevation
changes are usually shown with different colors and
shades to show relief. Normally on physical maps
green shows lower elevations while browns show
high elevations.

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A climate map shows information about the climate
of an area. They can show things like the specific
climatic zones of an area based on the temperature,
the amount of snow an area receives or average
number of cloudy days. These maps normally use
colors to show different climatic areas.
An economic or resource map shows the specific
type of economic activity or natural resources
present in an area through the use of different
symbols or colors depending on what is being shown
on the map.
A road map is one of the most widely used map
types. These maps show major and minor highways
and roads (depending on detail) as well as things like
airports, city locations and points of interest like
parks, campgrounds and monuments. Major
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
highways on a road map are generally red and larger
than other roads, while minor roads are a lighter
color and a narrower line.
Note: Not all roadmaps are maps pertaining to a
road. It also means a plan.
Example: Road map for peace, to resolve
the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
A thematic map is a map that emphasizes a
particular theme or special topic such as the average
distribution of rainfall in an area. They are different
from general reference maps because they do not
just show natural features like rivers, cities, political
subdivisions and highways
5. An act prohibiting discrimination against any
individual in employment on account of age and
providing penalties therefore” prohibits employers
from withholding promotion or deny training
opportunities, compensation and privileges from
employees on the basis of age.
A. RA 10911
B. RA 10932
C. RA 10913
D. RA 10931
Answer: A
Republic Act 10911 or “An act prohibiting
discrimination against any individual in employment
on account of age and providing penalties therefore”
prohibits employers from withholding promotion or
deny training opportunities, compensation and
privileges from employees on the basis of age.
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Recruitment and employment agencies are also
prohibited from refusing to help individuals
regardless of age from seeking employment and
labor organizations are prohibited to refuse
employees of membership because of their age.
Republic Act 10913 or “An act defining and
penalizing distracted driving” will mean that any
person who is using their phones in non-emergency
cases and/or needs it for work will be penalized with
a fine of P5,000 for first offense, P10,000 for second
offense, and P15,000 and suspension of license for
three months for the third offense.
Republic Act No. 10932, otherwise known as the
Anti-Hospital Deposit Law provides that “in
emergency or serious cases, it shall be unlawful for
any hospital or medical clinic to request, solicit,
demand or accept any deposit or any other form of
advance payment as prerequisite for administering
basic emergency care, for confinement or medical
treatment, or to refuse to administer medical
treatment and support to any patient.
Republic Act 10931 also known as the “Universal
Access to Quality Tertiary Education Act”
6. It is the variable you have control over, what you
can choose and manipulate.
A. Independent Variable
D. Dependent Variable
C. Moderator Variable
D. Intervening Variable
Answer: A
An independent variable is the variable you have
control over, what you can choose and manipulate.
It is usually what you think will affect the dependent
variable. In some cases, you may not be able to
manipulate the independent variable. It may be
something that is already there and is fixed,
something you would like to evaluate with respect to
how it affects something else, the dependent
variable like color, kind, time.
Example: You are interested in how stress affects
heart rate in humans. Your independent variable
would be the stress and the dependent variable
would be the heart rate. You can directly manipulate
stress levels in your human subjects and measure
how those stress levels change heart rate.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
7. It is the variable that you measure in the
experiment and what is affected during the
experiment.
A. Intervening Variable
B. Moderator Variable
C. Independent Variable
D. Dependent Variable
Answer: D
A dependent variable is what you measure in the
experiment and what is affected during the
experiment. The dependent variable responds to the
independent variable. It is called dependent because
it "depends" on the independent variable.
(See example in #6)
8. It is sometimes called a mediating variable, is a
hypothetical variable used to explain causal links
between other variables. Itcannot be observed in an
experiment (that's why they are hypothetical).
A. Intervening Variable
B. Control Variable
C. Moderator Variable
D. Independent Variable
Answer: A
An intervening variable (sometimes called a
mediating variable) is a hypothetical variable used to
explain causal links between other variables.
Intervening variables cannot be observed in an
experiment (that's why they are hypothetical)
An intervening variable is something that impacts
the relationship between an independent and a
dependent variable. Usually, the intervening variable
is caused by the independent variable, and is itself a
cause of the dependent variable
9. It is one that influences the strength of a
relationship between two other variables, and a
mediator variable is one that explains the
relationship between the two other variables.
A. Intervening Variable
B. Moderator Variable
C. Independent Variable
D. Dependent Variable
Answer B
A moderator variable is one that influences the
strength of a relationship between two other
variables, and a mediator variable is one that
explains the relationship between the two other
variables.
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Students sometimes confuse moderating variables
with mediator variables. Mediator variables are
variables that explain the correlation between two
variables, while moderating variables affect the
relationship between two variables. For example,
throughout the population, there is a correlation
between weight and income. However, weight also
increases with age, and income also typically
increases with age. Age is the mediating variable that
explains the correlation between weight and income
level.
A control variable is a variable that is held constant
in a research analysis.
10. It is a research method that relies on a single
case rather than a population or sample. When
researchers focus on a single case, they can make
detailed observations over a long period of time,
something that cannot be done with large samples
without costing a lot of money.
A. Longitudinal Method
B. Case Study Method
C. Cohort Study Method
D. Participatory Research
Answer: B
A case study is a research method that relies on a
single case rather than a population or sample.
When researchers focus on a single case, they can
make detailed observations over a long period of
time, something that cannot be done with large
samples without costing a lot of money.
Researcher Robert K. Yin defines the case study
research method as an empirical inquiry that
investigates a contemporary phenomenon within its
real-life context; when the boundaries between
phenomenon and context are not clearly evident;
and in which multiple sources of evidence are used
(Yin, 1984, p. 23)
11. It is an observational research method in which
data is gathered for the same subjects repeatedly
over a period of time. Longitudinal research projects
can extend over years or even decades. In a
longitudinal cohort study, the same individuals are
observed over the study period.
A. Cross-sectional Method
B. Case Study
C. Longitudinal Method
D. Cross-cultural Method
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Answer: C
A longitudinal study is an observational research
method in which data is gathered for the same
subjects repeatedly over a period of time.
Longitudinal research projects can extend over years
or even decades. In a longitudinal cohort study, the
same individuals are observed over the study period.
In longitudinal trend study, different samples from
the population are observed over the study period.
12. This research is used to examine one variable in
different groups that are similar in all other
characteristics.
A. Cross-sectional Method
B. Case Study
C. Longitudinal Method
D. Cross-cultural Method
Answer: A
Cross-sectional research involves using different
groups of people who differ in the variable of
interest but share other characteristics, such as
socioeconomic status, educational background, and
ethnicity.
13. In this research methodology,
participants/constitutents are equal partners with
the researcher (as in feminist research).
A. Naturalistic Observation Method
B. Sample Survey Method
C. Cohort Study Method
D. Participatory research
Answer: D
Participatory action research (PAR) is an approach to
research in communities that emphasizes
participation and action. It seeks to understand the
world by trying to change it, collaboratively and
following reflection. PAR emphasizes collective
inquiry and experimentation grounded in experience
and social history.
Here, participants work with a facilitator to identify a
community problem, develop research
methodology, collect data, and analyze findings.
14. In culture, which of the following is not an
example of norms?
A. Etiquette
B. Superstitions
C. Facial Expressions
D. Speech
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Answer : B
Superstitions fall under the “Beliefs” element of
culture.
Norms are ways of behaving that are considered
normal in a particular society
15. It refers to social norms that are widely observed
and are considered to have greater moral
significance than others.
A. Mores
B. Folkways
C. Laws
D. traditions
Answer: A
Mores is a term introduced into English by William
Graham Sumner (1840–1910), an early U.S.
sociologist, to refer to social norms that are widely
observed and are considered to have greater moral
significance than others. Mores include an aversion
for societal taboos, such as incest. The mores of a
society usually predicate legislation prohibiting their
taboos. Often, countries will employ specialized vice
squads or vice police engaged in suppressing specific
crimes offending the societal mores.
Folkways, in sociology, are norms for routine or
casual interaction. This includes ideas about
appropriate greetings and proper dress in different
situations.
In short, mores "distinguish the difference between
right and wrong, while folkways draw a line between
right and rude".
16. Culture is continually changing. It is never
permanent. Whatever is practiced today may no
longer be applicable in the future. What
characteristic of culture is being implied here?
A. Culture is transmitted from generation to
generation
B. Culture is adaptive and maladaptive
C. Culture is dynamic
D. Culture is cumulative
Answer: C
Culture is dynamic and thus complex. Culture is fluid
rather than static, which means that culture changes
all the time, every day, in subtle and tangible ways.
Because humans communicate and express their
cultural systems in a variety of ways, it can be hard
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
to pinpoint exactly what cultural dynamics are at
play.
17. Christianity originated in observed. Later it
spread to the different parts of the world like the
Philippines. This speaks of_____.
A. Cultural Diffusion
B. Cultural assimilation
C. Cultural Relativism
D. Cultural Innovation
Answer: A
Cultural diffusion is the spread of cultural beliefs and
social activities from one group to another. The
mixing of world cultures through different
ethnicities, religions and nationalities has increased
with advanced communication, transportation and
technology
18. Why do we say that culture is normative?
A. It is manifested in the manner and ways and
individual thinks’
B. It provides a set of rules to be followed by the
people
C. It is about the people’s way of doing things
D. It enables man to develop a capacity to utilize for
the betterment of his/her present condition
Answer : B
It is normative because it sets a universally accepted
principles that members of the society need to
follow.
19. It is a way of life and set of attitudes opposed to
or at variance with the prevailing social norm.
A. Subculture
B. Idioculture
C. Counterculture
Answer: C
A counterculture (also written counter-culture) is a
subculture whose values and norms of behavior
differ substantially from those of mainstream
society, often in opposition to mainstream cultural
mores
Idioculture is defined as “a system of knowledge,
beliefs, behaviors, and customs shared by members
of an interacting group to which members can refer
and employ as the basis of further interaction”
20. It is an act or a series of acts involving any
unwelcome sexual advance, request or demand for a
sexual favor, or other verbal or physical behavior of a
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sexual nature, committed by a government
employee or official in a work-related, training- or
education- related environment
A. Acts of Lasciviousness
B. Sexual Harassment
C. Qualified Seduction
Answer: B
R.A. 7877, an “Act Declaring Sexual Harassment
Unlawful in the Employment, Education or Training
Environment, and for other purposes” was approved
on February 14, 1995 and became effective on
March 5, 1995, fifteen (15) days after its publication
in the Malaya and Times Journal on February 18,
1995. It is known as “The Anti-Sexual Harassment
Act of 1995.”
According to Section 32, Article XIII, of the
implementing rules and regulations of the Child
Abuse Law (RA. 7610), lascivious conduct is defined
as "the intentional touching, either directly or
through clothing, of the genitalia, anus, groin, breast,
inner thigh, or buttocks, or the introduction of any
object into the genitalia, anus or mouth, of any
person, whether of the same or opposite sex, with
an intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, degrade, or
arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person,
bestiality, masturbation, lascivious exhibition of the
genitals or pubic area of a person."
According to the Revised Penal Code, qualified
seduction under Article 337 is: “The seduction of a
virgin over twelve years and under eighteen years of
age, committed by any person in public authority,
priest, home-servant, domestic, guardian, teacher,
or any person who, in any capacity, shall be
entrusted with the education or custody of the
woman seduced.”
21. In world systems theory, these are those that are
less developed countries. These countries usually
receive a disproportionately small share of global
wealth.
A. Core Countries
B. Periphery Countries
C. Semi-periphery countires
Answer B
In world systems theory, the periphery countries
(sometimes referred to as just the periphery) are
those that are less developed than the semi-
periphery and core countries. These countries
usually receive a disproportionately small share of
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
global wealth. They have weak state institutions and
are dependent on – according to some, exploited by
– more developed countries. These countries are
usually behind because of obstacles such as lack of
technology, unstable government, and poor
education and health systems. In some instances,
the exploitation of periphery countries' agriculture,
cheap labor, and natural resources aid core countries
in remaining dominant. This is best described by
dependency theory, which is one theory on how
globalization can affect the world and the countries
in it. It is, however, possible for periphery countries
to rise out of their status and move into semi-
periphery or core status. This can be done by doing
things such as industrializing, stabilizing the
government and political climate, etc.
The semi-periphery countries (sometimes referred to
as just the semi-periphery) are the industrializing,
mostly capitalist countries which are positioned
between the periphery and core countries.
The core countries are the industrialized capitalist
countries on which periphery countries and semi-
periphery countries depend. Core countries control
and benefit from the global market. They are usually
recognized as wealthy nations with a wide variety of
resources and are in a favorable location compared
to other states. They have strong state institutions, a
powerful military and powerful global political
alliances.
22. Which of the following is not a way of
establishing a de facto government?
A. Usurpation
B. Insurrection
C. Invasion
D. officially sanctioned
Answer: D
De facto means a state of affairs that is true in fact,
but that is not officially sanctioned. In contrast, de
jure means a state of affairs that is in accordance
with law (i.e. that is officially sanctioned).
23. What were the branches of the government
established in the Philippines during the Spanish
Occupation?
A. Executive, Legislative and Judicial
B. Executive and Judicial
C. Executive and Legislative
D. Legislative and Judicial
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Answer: B
The laws for the Philippines were made in Spain.
Judicial powers were exercised by the Audencia.
24. It became the basis for the establishment of the
civil government in the Philippines on July 4, 1901
with Taft as the first civil governor.
A. Spooner Amendment
B. Philippine Organic act
C. Philippine Autonomy Act
D. Hare-Haws Cutting Act
Spooner Amendment, congressional amendment to
the Army Appropriations Act of 1901 that called for
the end of the U.S. military government in the
Philippines. By the terms of the Treaty of Paris
(December 1898), sovereignty over the Philippine
Islands had passed from Spain to the United States.
Filipinos fought the imposition of American rule, and
it was believed in the United States that their
resistance was due to the harshness of military
government. The Spooner Amendment authorized
Pres. William McKinley to supplant military rule with
civilian government, which was inaugurated in July
1901. Filipino guerrillas, however, continued
hostilities for a number of years.
25. It provided for the creation of an elected
Philippine Assembly (the lower house) after certain
conditions are met.
A. Spooner Amendment
B. Philippine Organic act
C. Philippine Autonomy Act
D. Hare-Haws Cutting Act
Answer:B
The Philippine Assembly (sometimes called the
Philippine National Assembly) was the lower house
of the Philippines from 1907 to 1916. Along with an
upper house (the appointed Philippine Commission),
it formed the bicameral Philippine Legislature during
part of the American Colonial Period.
The Assembly was created by the 1902 Philippine
Organic Act of the United States Congress, which
established the Insular Government of the
Philippines. In 1916, the Jones Act replaced the
Philippine Organic Act and the Assembly became the
current House of Representatives of the Philippines.
The Philippine Organic Act (c. 1369, 32 Stat. 691) was
a basic law for the Insular Government that was
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
enacted by the United States Congress on July 1,
1902. It is also known as the Philippine Bill of 1902
and the Cooper Act, after its author Henry A. Cooper.
The Jones Law (also known as the Jones Act, the
Philippine Autonomy Act, and the Act of Congress of
August 29, 1916) was an Organic Act passed by the
United States Congress. The law replaced the
Philippine Organic Act of 1902 and acted as a
constitution of the Philippines from its enactment
until 1934, when the Tydings–McDuffie Act was
passed (which in turn led eventually to the
Commonwealth of the Philippines and to
independence from the United States). The Jones
Law created the first fully elected Philippine
legislature.
Hare–Hawes–Cutting Act, (1933), the first law setting
a specific date for Philippine independence from the
United States. It was passed by Congress as a result
of pressure from two sources: American farmers,
who, during the Great Depression, feared
competition from Filipino sugar and coconut oils;
and Filipino leaders, who were eager to run their
own government.
The bill was passed by the Senate in December 1932
but was vetoed by Pres. Herbert Hoover. To
Hoover’s surprise, Congress promptly overrode his
veto, and the bill became law on Jan. 17, 1933. The
act, however, required approval by the Philippine
Senate, and this was not forthcoming. Filipino
political leader Manuel Quezon led a campaign
against the bill because of provisions in it that
allowed the indefinite retention of U.S. military
bases in the islands. The Tydings–McDuffie Act,
substantially similar to the rejected measure but
incorporating minor changes, was accepted by the
Philippine Senate in 1934.
26. Which of the following is impeachable?
A. A President who accepts gifts offered to him by
reason of his office
B. A Senator who has committed a crime involving
graft and corruption
C. A President who has committed moral defamation
D. An Ombudsman for not supporting the president
in his cause
Answer : A. Bribery is an impeachable offense.
The Revised Penal Code defines bribery in two
forms:
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Direct
bribery is "committed by any public officer who shall
agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in
connection with the performance of this official
duties, in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or
present received by such officer, personally or
through the mediation of another."
Indirect
bribery is "committed by a public officer when he
accept gifts offered to him by reason of his office."
Impeachment in the Philippines is an expressed
power of the Congress of the Philippines to formally
charge a serving government official with an
impeachable offense. After being impeached by the
House of Representatives, the official is then tried in
the Senate. If convicted, the official is either
removed from office or censured.
Impeachment followed by conviction is often the
only way to forcibly remove a sitting official. While
"impeachment" is often used to refer to the entire
process of removing an official from office, it only
formally refers to the indictment stage in the House
of Representatives, not the trial stage in the Senate.
Under the current Constitution, an official can be
impeached if one third of the House of
Representatives votes in favor. Since it takes only a
simple majority to set the agenda or to adjourn the
House, it can be difficult for a minority of one third
to bring a vote and impeach an official.
Impeachable offenses. The Constitution limits the
offenses to the following: culpable violation of the
Constitution, treason, bribery, graft and corruption,
other high crimes, or betrayal of public trust. In the
1935 and 1973 constitution, betrayal of public trust
was not an impeachable offense.
Impeachable officials
President of the Philippines.
Vice President of the Philippines.
Members of the Supreme Court of the
Philippines.
Members of the Constitutional
Commissions: Commission on Elections. Civil Service
Commission. Commission on Audit.
Ombudsman.
27. Who among the following officials were
successfully convicted through impeachment?
A. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
B. Joseph Estrada
C. Corazon Aquino
D. Renato Corona
Answer: D
A, B and C were all filed an impeachment complaints
but it all failed except for SC Chief Justice Renato
Corona. In December 2011, 188 of the 285 members
of the House of Representatives voted to transmit
the 56-page Articles of Impeachment against
Supreme Court Chief Justice Renato Corona
President Corazon Aquino was accused by
lawmakers in 1988 of graft and violating the
Constitution. The charges were rejected the
following month due to lack of evidence.
President Joseph Estrada was accused of bribery,
graft and corruption, betrayal of public trust, and
culpable violation of the Constitution during the
impeachment of 2000, to determine the accusations,
the House of Representatives choose 11 members to
act as prosecutors with the Senate as the
impeachment court and the senators as judges. Trial
aborted on January 17, 2001; declared as resigned
on January 20, 2001
President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo was accused in
2005, 2006, 2007 and 2008 impeachment complaints
for different imputations, specially attempting lying,
cheating and stealing during 2004 presidential
election against opposition candidate Fernando Poe,
Jr..
28. How can a member of the Congress, like a
Senator, be removed?
Answer: Each house has the power to expel its own
members
1987 Const. Art. VI, Section 16. (3) Each House may
determine the rules of its proceedings, punish its
Members for disorderly behavior, and, with the
concurrence of two-thirds of all its Members,
suspend or expel a Member. A penalty of
suspension, when imposed, shall not exceed sixty
days.
29. It is a law that applies to crimes that happened
before the law was passed. An example is a law
passed in 1994 that applies to acts that occurred in
1989.
A. Law against Double Jeopardy
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B. Ex Post Facto Law
C. Bill of attainder
Answer: B
Ex post facto laws retroactively change the rules of
evidence in a criminal case, retroactively alter the
definition of a crime, retroactively increase the
punishment for a criminal act, or punish conduct
that was legal when committed
Double jeopardy is a procedural defence that
prevents an accused person from being tried again
on the same (or similar) charges and on the same
facts, following a valid acquittal or conviction.
A bill of attainder (also known as an act of attainder
or writ of attainder or bill of pains and penalties) is
an act of a legislature declaring a person or group of
persons guilty of some crime and punishing them,
often without a trial.
1987 Const., Art. III, Section 22. No ex post facto law
or bill of attainder shall be enacted.
30. It is the sole judge of all contests relating to the
election, returns, and qualifications in the Senate
and House of Representatives.
A. Supreme Court
B. COMELEC
C. Electoral Tribunal
Answer: C
Art. VI Section 17. The Senate and the House of
Representatives shall each have an Electoral Tribunal
which shall be the sole judge of all contests relating
to the election, returns, and qualifications of their
respective Members. Each Electoral Tribunal shall be
composed of nine Members, three of whom shall be
Justices of the Supreme Court to be designated by
the Chief Justice, and the remaining six shall be
Members of the Senate or the House of
Representatives, as the case may be, who shall be
chosen on the basis of proportional representation
from the political parties and the parties or
organizations registered under the party-list system
represented therein. The senior Justice in the
Electoral Tribunal shall be its Chairman.
31. Who has the sole power to declare Martial Law?
A. President
B. Congress
C. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Answer: B
Art. VI, Section 23. (1) The Congress, by a vote of
two-thirds of both Houses in joint session
assembled, voting separately, shall have the sole
power to declare the existence of a state of war
32. President A was removed from office through
impeachment and was succeeded by Vice President
B to serve for the remaining 3 years. Will President B
be eligible for re-election?
A. No. The Constitution prohibits re-election of
President.
B. No. The President is allowed to serve only one
term.
C. Yes. Because he still has to serve the remaining 3
years.
D. Yes, but subject to approval by the Congress.
Answer: C. Its true that no president is qualified for
re-election. However there is an exception provided
by the Constitution. If the remaining years he has to
serve is more than 4 years then he won’t be eligible
for a re-election.
Article VII, Section 4. The President and the Vice-
President shall be elected by direct vote of the
people for a term of six years which shall begin at
noon on the thirtieth day of June next following the
day of the election and shall end at noon of the same
date, six years thereafter. The President shall not be
eligible for any re-election. No person who has
succeeded as President and has served as such for
more than four years shall be qualified for election
to the same office at any time.
33. It shall be the sole judge of all contests relating
to the election, returns, and qualifications of the
President or Vice-President, and may promulgate its
rules for the purpose.
A. Congress
B. Supreme Court
C. Electoral Tribunal
Answer : B
The Supreme Court, sitting en banc, shall be the sole
judge of all contests relating to the election, returns,
and qualifications of the President or Vice-President,
and may promulgate its rules for the purpose.
The returns of every election for President and Vice-
President, duly certified by the board of canvassers
of each province or city, shall be transmitted to the
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Congress, directed to the President of the Senate.
Upon receipt of the certificates of canvass, the
President of the Senate shall, not later than thirty
days after the day of the election, open all the
certificates in the presence of the Senate and the
House of Representatives in joint public session, and
the Congress, upon determination of the
authenticity and due execution thereof in the
manner provided by law, canvass the votes.
34. As a rule, the Congress has the sole power to
declare the existence of a state of war and may
authorize the President to carry out the function for
a period not exceeding 60 days which the Congress
has the power to revoke or extend upon the
initiative of the President, just like what happens
now in Mindanao. Who has the power to review the
factual basis of the proclamation of Martial Law,
suspension of the writ of habeas corpus or its
extension?
A. Supreme Court
B. Congress
C. Sandiganbayan
Answer: A
The Supreme Court may review, in an appropriate
proceeding filed by any citizen, the sufficiency of the
factual basis of the proclamation of martial law or
the suspension of the privilege of the writ of habeas
corpus or the extension thereof, and must
promulgate its decision thereon within thirty days
from its filing.
35. Which of the following is NOT true about a state
of Martial Law?
A. A state of martial law does not suspend the
operation of the Constitution
B. It does not supplant the functioning of the civil
courts or legislative assemblies, nor authorize the
conferment of jurisdiction on military courts and
agencies over civilians where civil courts are able to
function
C. The suspension of the privilege of the writ of
habeas corpus shall apply only to persons judicially
charged for rebellion or offenses inherent in, or
directly connected with, invasion.
D. The privilege of the writ of habeas corpus is
automatically suspended upon the declaration of
martial law
Answer: D
A state of martial law does not suspend the
operation of the Constitution, nor supplant the
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
functioning of the civil courts or legislative
assemblies, nor authorize the conferment of
jurisdiction on military courts and agencies over
civilians where civil courts are able to function, nor
automatically suspend the privilege of the writ of
habeas corpus.
The suspension of the privilege of the writ of habeas
corpus shall apply only to persons judicially charged
for rebellion or offenses inherent in, or directly
connected with, invasion.
36. With regards the treaties or international
agreements entered into by the President, which of
the following is NOT true?
A. The President may sign treaties and international
agreements without being validated by the Congress
B. Treaties/ international agreements are valid only
if it is concurred by the Senate
C. Supreme Court decides on cases involving
constitutionality of treaties/international
agreements
Answer: A
Art. VIII Section 21. No treaty or international
agreement shall be valid and effective unless
concurred in by at least two-thirds of all the
Members of the Senate.
Art. VIII, Section 3.
(2) All cases involving the constitutionality of a
treaty, international or executive agreement, or law,
which shall be heard by the Supreme Court en banc,
and all other cases which under the Rules of Court
are required to be heard en banc, including those
involving the constitutionality, application, or
operation of presidential decrees, proclamations,
orders, instructions, ordinances, and other
regulations, shall be decided with the concurrence of
a majority of the Members who actually took part in
the deliberations on the issues in the case and voted
thereon.
37. A document which a losing party files with the
Supreme Court asking the Supreme Court to review
the decision of a lower court
A. Petition for Writ of Certiorari
B. Writ of Prohibition
C. Writ of Mandamus
D. Quo Warranto
Answer: A
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38. It is a prerogative writ requiring the person to
whom it is directed to show what authority they
have for exercising some right or power (or
"franchise") they claim to hold.
A. Petition for Writ of Certiorari
B. Writ of Prohibition
C. Writ of Mandamus
D. Quo Warranto
Answer D
Petition for Writ of Certiorari. (informally called
"Cert Petition.") A document which a losing party
files with the Supreme Court asking the Supreme
Court to review the decision of a lower court.
Writ of Prohibition. An order from a superior court
to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and
the parties to cease the litigation because the lower
court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or
determine the matters before it. A writ of
prohibition is an extraordinary remedy that is rarely
used.
The writ of mandamus can also be issued in a
mandamus proceeding, independent of any judicial
proceeding. Generally, such a petition for a
mandamus order is made to compel a judicial or
government officer to perform a duty owed to the
petitioner.
Quo warranto (Medieval Latin for "by what
warrant?") is a prerogative writ requiring the person
to whom it is directed to show what authority they
have for exercising some right or power (or
"franchise") they claim to hold.
39. What provision of law does the 1987
Constitution give highest priority?
A. Education, Science and Technology, Culture and
Arts, Culture and Sport Education
B. Social Justice and Human Rights
C. Bill of Rights
D. National Economy and Patrimony
Answer: B
Article XIII, Section 1. The Congress shall give highest
priority to the enactment of measures that protect
and enhance the right of all the people to human
dignity, reduce social, economic, and political
inequalities, and remove cultural inequities by
equitably diffusing wealth and political power for the
common good.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
40. At the option of the parents expressed in writing,
how shall religion be taught in schools?
A. It shall be taught within regular class hours.
B. It shall be taught outside class hours
C. It shall be taught within class hours by religious
authorities paid by the government
Answer: A
Art XIV, Sec. 3(3) At the option expressed in writing
by the parents or guardians, religion shall be allowed
to be taught to their children or wards in public
elementary and high schools within the regular class
hours by instructors designated or approved by the
religious authorities of the religion to which the
children or wards belong, without additional cost to
the Government.
41. What remedy is available to any person whose
right to life, liberty and security is violated or
threatened with violation by an unlawful act or
omission of a public official or employee, or of a
private individual or entity?
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus
D. Bill of Rights
C. Writ of Amparo
D. Writ of Habeas Data
Answer : C
The writ of habeas data is a remedy available to any
person whose right to privacy in life, liberty or
security is violated or threatened by an unlawful act
of any official or employee, or of a private individual
or entity engaged in the gathering, collecting or
storing of data or information
42. What is the constitutional safeguard which
prevents one branch of the government from
become powerful and intervene in the affairs of
another branch?
A. Checks and Balances
B. Impeachment
C. Ombudsman
D. Separation of Powers
Answer: A
Under the system of checks and balances, one
department is given certain powers by which it may
definitely restrain the others from exceeding
constitutional authority. It may object or resist any
encroachment upon its authority, or it may question,
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if necessary any act or acts which unlawfully
interferes with its sphere of jurisdiction and
authority. (Suarez, 2005).
43. Which of the following is a legislative check in
the executive branch of the government?
A. Overriding the veto power of the President
B. Declaring legislative measure or executive acts
unconstitutional
C. Determining whether there has been grave abuse
of discretion
D. Exercise of pardoning power
Answer: A
Congress may override the veto power of the
President. As a consequence, the bill disapproved by
the President will still become a law.
1987 Const. ,Art. VII Section 27. (1) Every bill passed
by the Congress shall, before it becomes a law, be
presented to the President. If he approves the same
he shall sign it; otherwise, he shall veto it and return
the same with his objections to the
House where it originated, which shall enter the
objections at large in its Journal and proceed to
reconsider it. If, after such reconsideration, two-
thirds of all the Members of such House shall agree
to pass the bill, it shall be sent, together with the
objections, to the other House by which it shall
likewise be reconsidered, and if approved by two-
thirds of all the Members of that House, it shall
become a law. In all such cases, the votes of each
House shall be determined by yeas or nays, and the
names of the Members voting for or against shall be
entered in its Journal. The President shall
communicate his veto of any bill to the House where
it originated within thirty days after the date of
receipt thereof, otherwise, it shall become a law as if
he had signed it.
44. Which of the following is an Executive check in
the Judicial branch of the government?
A. Overriding the veto power of the President
B. Declaring legislative measure or executive acts
unconstitutional
C. Determining whether there has been grave abuse
of discretion
D. Exercise of pardoning power
Answer: D
Section 19. Except in cases of impeachment, or as
otherwise provided in this Constitution, the
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
President may grant reprieves, commutations, and
pardons, and remit fines and forfeitures, after
conviction by final judgment. He shall also have the
power to grant amnesty with the concurrence of a
majority of all the Members of the Congress
45. Which of the following is a Judicial check in the
executive branch of the government?
A. Overriding the veto power of the President
B. Declaring legislative measure or executive acts
unconstitutional
C. Power to impeach
D. Exercise of pardoning power
Answer: B
1987 Const., Article VIII, Section 4.
(2) All cases involving the constitutionality of a
treaty, international or executive agreement, or law,
which shall be heard by the Supreme Court en banc,
and all other cases which under the Rules of Court
are required to be heard en banc, including those
involving the constitutionality, application, or
operation of presidential decrees, proclamations,
orders, instructions, ordinances, and other
regulations, shall be decided with the concurrence of
a majority of the Members who actually took part in
the deliberations on the issues in the case and voted
thereon.
46. Which of the following is not true of a bill
becoming a law?
A. A bill becomes a law if approved by the President
B. A bill becomes a law if the Congress overrides the
veto power of the President by 2/3 vote
C. A bill becomes a law after a lapse of 30 days and
the President does not communicate his veto
D. A bill becomes a law after a lapse of 90 days
Answer : D. There is no 90-days requirement in the
passage of a bill into law here in the Philippines.
Article VII, Section 27. (1) Every bill passed by the
Congress shall, before it becomes a law, be
presented to the President. If he approves the same
he shall sign it; otherwise, he shall veto it and return
the same with his objections to the House where it
originated, which shall enter the objections at large
in its Journal and proceed to reconsider it. If, after
such reconsideration, two-thirds of all the Members
of such House shall agree to pass the bill, it shall be
sent, together with the objections,to the other
House by which it shall likewise be reconsidered, and
if approved by two-thirds of all the Members of that
Page 40
House, it shall become a law. In all such cases, the
votes of each House shall be determined by yeas or
nays, and the names of the Members voting for or
against shall be entered in its Journal. The President
shall communicate his veto of any bill to the House
where it originated within thirty days after the date
of receipt thereof, otherwise, it shall become a law
as if he had signed it.
47. A type of Cooperatives the primary purpose of
which is to procure and distribute commodities to
members and non-members
A. Credit Cooperative
B. Consumers Cooperative
C. Producers Cooperative
D. Marketing Cooperative
Answer : B
"(a) Credit Cooperative is one that promotes and
undertakes savings and lending services among its
members. It generates a common pool of funds in
order to provide financial assistance to its members
for productive and provident purposes;
"(b) Consumers Cooperative is one of the primary
purpose of which is to procure and distribute
commodities to members and non-members;
"(c) Producers Cooperative is one that undertakes
joint production whether agricultural or industrial. It
is formed and operated by its members to undertake
the production and processing of raw materials or
goods produced by its members into finished or
processed products for sale by the cooperative to its
members and non-members. Any end product or its
derivative arising from the raw materials produced
by its members, sold in the name and for the
account of the cooperative, shall be deemed a
product of the cooperative and its members;
"(d) Marketing Cooperative is one which engages in
the supply of production inputs to members and
markets their products;
48. It is the earliest period of Earth's history, set
before the current Phanerozoic Eon.
A. Cambrian
B. Precambrian
C. Archean
D. Hadean
Answer: B
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
The Precambrian (or Pre-Cambrian, sometimes
abbreviated pЄ, or Cryptozoic) is the earliest period
of Earth's history, set before the current Phanerozoic
Eon. The Precambrian is so named because it
preceded the Cambrian, the first period of the
Phanerozoic eon, which is named after Cambria, the
Latinised name for Wales, where rocks from this age
were first studied. The Precambrian accounts for
88% of the Earth's geologic time.
The Phanerozoic is the current eon on Earth, which
started approximately 542 million years ago. It
consists of three eras: The Paleozoic (old life),
Mesozoic (middle life), and Cenozoic (old life),[22]
and is the time when multi-cellular life greatly
diversified into almost all the organisms known
today
49. It is the process of removing or reducing state
regulations, typically in the economic sphere
A. Economic liberalization
B. Deregulation
C. Privitization
Answer B
Deregulation is the process of removing or reducing
state regulations, typically in the economic sphere. It
is the undoing or repeal of governmental regulation
of the economy. It became common in advanced
industrial economies in the 1970s and 1980s, as a
result of new trends in economic thinking about the
inefficiencies of government regulation, and the risk
that regulatory agencies would be controlled by the
regulated industry to its benefit, and thereby hurt
consumers and the wider economy.
The stated rationale for deregulation is often that
fewer and simpler regulations will lead to a raised
level of competitiveness, therefore higher
productivity, more efficiency and lower prices
overall.
50. It is the lessening of government regulations and
restrictions in an economy in exchange for greater
participation by private entities
A. Economic liberalization
B. Deregulation
C. Privitization
Answer: A
Economic liberalization is the lessening of
government regulations and restrictions in an
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economy in exchange for greater participation by
private entities; the doctrine is associated with
classical liberalism. Thus, liberalization in short is
"the removal of controls" in order to encourage
economic development.
Economic liberalization is often associated with
privatization, which is the process of transferring
ownership or outsourcing of a business, enterprise,
agency, public service or public property from the
public sector to the private sector.
51. A sector of the economy that is neither taxed,
nor monitored by any form of government.
A. Voluntary sector
B. Private sector
C. Informal sector
D. International Sector
Answer: C
52. It is the duty of social activity undertaken by
organizations that are not-for-profit and non-
governmental.
A. Voluntary sector
B. Informal Sector
C. Private Sector
D. International sectore
Answer: A
The informal sector, informal economy, or grey
economy is the part of an economy that is neither
taxed, nor monitored by any form of government.
Unlike the formal economy, activities of the informal
economy are not included in the gross national
product (GNP) and gross domestic product (GDP) of
a country.
The private sector is the part of the economy,
sometimes referred to as the citizen sector, which is
run by private individuals or groups, usually as a
means of enterprise for profit, and is not controlled
by the State (areas of the economy controlled by the
state being referred to as the public sector).
The private sector encompasses all for-profit
businesses that are not owned or operated by the
government. Companies and corporations that are
government run are part of what is known as the
public sector, while charities and other nonprofit
organizations are part of the voluntary sector.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
The voluntary sector or community sector (also non-
profit sector or "not-for-profit" sector) is the duty of
social activity undertaken by organizations that are
not-for-profit and non-governmental. This sector is
also called the third sector, in contrast to the public
sector and the private sector.
The international sector includes exports (X), which
add to to the value of aggregate demand, and are an
injection into the circular flow of income, and
imports (M), which reduce aggregate demand, and
are a withdrawal from the circular flow
53. It is a logical fallacy in which an argument is
rebutted by attacking the character, motive, or other
attribute of the person making the argument, or
persons associated with the argument, rather than
attacking the substance of the argument itself
A. Argumentum ad baculum
B. Ad hominen
C. Argumentum misericordiam
D. Argumentum ad verecundiam
Answer : B
54. It is the fallacy committed when one appeals to
force or the threat of force to bring about the
acceptance of a conclusion
A. Argumentum ad baculum
B. Ad hominen
C. Argumentum misericordiam
D. Argumentum ad verecundiam
Answer:A
Ad hominem (Latin for "to the man" or "to the
person", short for argumentum ad hominem, is a
logical fallacy in which an argument is rebutted by
attacking the character, motive, or other attribute of
the person making the argument, or persons
associated with the argument, rather than attacking
the substance of the argument itself
Argumentum ad baculum (Latin for "argument to the
cudgel" or "appeal to the stick") is the fallacy
committed when one appeals to force or the threat
of force to bring about the acceptance of a
conclusion.
An appeal to pity (also called argumentum ad
misericordiam, the sob story, or the Galileo
argument) is a fallacy in which someone tries to win
Page 42
support for an argument or idea by exploiting his or
her opponent's feelings of pity or guilt. It is a specific
kind of appeal to emotion.
An argumentum ad verecundiam is an argument
based on authority. The Latin means "appeal to
reverence". (Here, authorities mean people
presumed to be experts, as opposed to people
holding power over others--ScottJohnson)
-also called an appeal to
authority, is a common type of argument which can
be fallacious, such as when an authority is cited on a
topic outside their area of expertise or when the
authority cited is not a true expert.
In argumentation theory, an argumentum ad
populum (Latin for "appeal to the people") is a
fallacious argument that concludes that a
proposition is true because many or most people
believe it: "If many believe so, it is so." (Bandwagon
fallacy)
The Bandwagon is a fallacy in which a threat of
rejection by one's peers (or peer pressure) is
substituted for evidence in an "argument."
55. It was an agreement between Portugal and Spain
to divide ownership rights of New World territory
between the countries. The treaty was originally
agreed to by both countries on June 7, 1494, and
went into effect in September of that year.
A. Treaty of Versailles
B. Treaty of Paris
C. Treaty of Tordesillas
Answer: C
The Treaty of Tordesillas signed at Tordesillas on
June 7, 1494, and authenticated at Setúbal, Portugal,
divided the newly discovered lands outside Europe
between Portugal and the Crown of Castile, along a
meridian 370 leagues[note 1] west of the Cape
Verde islands, off the west coast of Africa. This line
of demarcation was about halfway between the
Cape Verde islands (already Portuguese) and the
islands entered by Christopher Columbus on his first
voyage (claimed for Castile and León), named in the
treaty as Cipangu and Antilia (Cuba and Hispaniola).
The Treaty of Versailles (French: Traité de Versailles)
was the most important of the peace treaties that
brought World War I to an end. The Treaty ended
the state of war between Germany and the Allied
Powers
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
The Treaty of Paris of 1898 was an agreement made
in 1898 that involved Spain relinquishing nearly all of
the remaining Spanish Empire, especially Cuba, and
ceding Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Philippines to the
United States.
56. He is best known for his claim that “human
nature is good.”
A. Mencius
B. Lao Tsu
C. Confucius
D. Buddha
Answer : A
Mencius (fourth century BCE) was a Confucian
philosopher. Often referred to as the "Second Sage"
of Confucianism (meaning second in importance only
to Confucius himself), Mencius is best known for his
claim that “human nature is good.
Lao Tzu, ( 570 B.C. - 490 B.C.) traditionally known as
the Founder of the naturalistic, philosophical "Way"
known as Taoism. He was born in the province of
Honan and has probably exerted more influence
over Chinese thinking than any other person except
Confucius.
He is best known as the author of the Tao-Te-Ching,
the work which exemplifies his thought.
Confucius (551?-479? BCE), according to Chinese
tradition, was a thinker, political figure, educator,
and founder of the Ru School of Chinese thought.[1]
His teachings, preserved in the Lunyu or Analects,
form the foundation of much of subsequent Chinese
speculation on the education and comportment of
the ideal man, how such an individual should live his
life and interact with others, and the forms of society
and government in which he should participate.
Buddha expressed his philosophy when he said: "I
teach only two things, O disciples, the nature of
suffering and the cessation of suffering." Buddha
taught the famous "Four Noble Truths" and
"Eightfold Path," which allows people to achieve
enlightenment.
57. Who was responsible for the original lyrics of the
Philippine National Anthem?
A. Julian Felipe
B. Jose Palma
C. Paz Benitez
D. Felipe Padilla de Leon
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Answer B
58. Whose version of the “Lupang Hinirang” do we
use today?
A. Julian Felipe
B. Jose Palma
C. Paz Benitez
D. Felipe Padilla de Leon
Answer: D
Its music was composed in 1898 by Julian Felipe, and
the lyrics were adapted from the Spanish poem
Filipinas, written by José Palma in 1899.
The first translation was written around that time by
the renowned poet Paz Marquez Benitez of the
University of the Philippines.
During the term of President Ramon Magsaysay,
Education Secretary Gregorio Hernández formed a
commission to revise the lyrics. On 26 May 1956, the
Pilipino translation Lupang Hinirang was sung for the
first time. Minor revisions were made in the 1960s,
and it is this version by Felipe Padilla de León which
is presently used. The Filipino[a] lyrics have been
confirmed by Republic Act No. 8491 (the "Flag and
Heraldic Code of the Philippines") in 1998,
abandoning use of both the Spanish and English
versions
59. Mr. Reyes was teaching something on mores,
folkways, customs and beliefs in his Social Studies
class. What was his lesson about?
A. material culture
B. tangible culture
C. non-material culture
D. hereditary culture
CA: C
Material culture is the physical evidence of a culture
in the objects and architecture they make, or have
made. The term tends to be relevant only in
archeological and anthropological studies, but it
specifically means all material evidence which can be
attributed to culture, past or present.
Nonmaterial culture includes creations and abstract
ideas that are not embodied in physical objects. In
other words, any intangible products created and
sharedbetween the members of a culture over time
are aspects of their nonmaterial culture. Social roles,
rules, ethics, and beliefs are just some examples
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
60. The totality of a group of producer’s demand.
A. aggregate demand
C. aggregate supply
B. supply schedule
D. demand schedule
Answer:
Aggregate supply is the totality of
producer’s demand.
Aggregate demand is the totality of
consumer’s demand
61. A market with large number of sellers and buyers
and buyers trading identical products where buyers
and sellers are price takers.
A. monopoly
B. pure competition
C. oligopoly
D. monopolistic
Answer : B
Pure competition is a term that describes a market
that has a broad range of competitors who are
selling the same products. It is often referred to as
perfect competition. Here are some characteristics
that define a pure competition. ... The price of
products is determined solely by what consumers
are willing to pay. Oligopoly on the other hand is a
state of limited competition.
62. The business practice of selling the same good or
service at different prices to different customers.
A. price discrimination
C. customer’s discrimination
B. customer’s discrimination
D. customer’s maximization
Answer A
* Price discrimination is a pricing strategy that
charges customers different prices for the same
product or service. In pure price discrimination, the
seller charges each customer the maximum price
that he is willing to pay.
* Customer discrimination is a manifestation of
personal prejudice of consumers such that they
prefer to trade with individuals belonging to a
certain group over others. A prevalent fact states
that customers do not like being served by minorities
or women.
Page 44
63. It is a measure used in economics to show the
responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good
or service to a change in its price, ceteris paribus.
A. Price inelasticity of demand
B. Price elasticity of demand
C. Income inelasticity of demand
D. Cross Elasticity of demand
Answer: B
The overriding factor in determining PED is the
willingness and ability of consumers after a price
change to postpone immediate consumption
decisions concerning the good and to search for
substitutes ("wait and look"). A number of factors
can thus affect the elasticity of demand for a good.
Responsiveness is referred to as the elasticity.
64. Which of the following statements represents
normative, rather than positive analysis?
A. Since the supply of gems is limited, their price is
very high.
B. People should not be allowed to purchase bodily
organs, because it allows the rich access to a life-
saving procedure that the poor may not have access
to.
C. Since the supply of water is very large, the price of
water is very low.
D. The demand for organ transplants currently far
exceeds the supply.
Answer; B
This is a normative statement that is based on an
assumption of equity (we want rich and poor to have
equal access to treatment.) The others answers are
positive statements that are based on facts about
the supply and demand of goods in different
markets.
64. What determines the price and quantity of a
good in a perfectly competitive market?
A. The presence or absence of substitute goods.
B. The government.
C. The intersection of the supply and the demand
curve.
D. The position of the demand curve.
Answer: C
In a perfectly competitive market, the equilibrium
price and quantity sold is given by the intersection of
the supply and demand curves. The position of the
demand curve and the presence or absence of
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
substitute goods are also relevant, but these
answers are incomplete.
65. Assume that people enjoy eating either apples or
oranges. What happens in the market for oranges
when the price of apples goes up?
A. There is no change in the demand curve.
B. The demand curve shifts right.
C. The supply curve shifts left.
D. The demand curve shifts left.
Answer : B
When the price of apples increases, more people will
eat oranges because they are more affordable. This
causes the demand curve to shift right: at any given
price point, people will consume more oranges
66. Now, assume there is natural calamity that
destroys part of the orange crop. What happens to
the market for oranges in this case?
A. The supply curve shifts up.
B. The demand curve shifts right.
C. The supply curve shifts down.
D. There is no shift in the demand or supply curves.
Answer: A
When part of the orange crop is destroyed, there are
less oranges available at any price; the supply curve
shifts left to a new equilibrium with lower quantity
and higher price. An alternative way to conceptualize
the change is that the cost of growing fruit, per
orange sold, has now increased for the farmers; they
are still paying to run their farm, but are selling
fewer oranges. For each orange they now sell, they
need to charge more.
67. Which of the following accurately characterize
perfectly inelastic demand?
A. The demand curve is vertical.
B. The demand curve is horizontal.
C. The demand curve is vertical but does not change
regardless of what happens to price.
D. Demand does not change regardless of what
happens to price.
Answer: C
A vertical demand curve means that if the supply
curve shifts, only the price changes; there is no
change in quantity demanded.
The demand curve is a graphical representation of
the relationship between the price of a good or
service and the quantity demanded for a given
Page 45
period of time. In a typical representation, the price
will appear on the left vertical axis, the quantity
demanded on the horizontal axis.
The supply curve is a graphical representation of the
relationship between the price of a good or service
and the quantity supplied for a given period of time.
In a typical representation, the price will appear on
the left vertical axis, the quantity supplied on the
horizontal axis.
Price elasticity of demand is a measure of the
relationship between a change in the quantity
demanded of a particular good and a change in its
price. Price elasticity of demand is a term in
economics often used when discussing price
sensitivity. The formula for calculating price elasticity
of demand is:
Price Elasticity of Demand = % Change in Quantity
Demanded / % Change in Price
If a small change in price is accompanied by a large
change in quantity demanded, the product is said to
be elastic (or responsive to price changes).
Conversely, a product is inelastic if a large change in
price is accompanied by a small amount of change in
quantity demanded.
Price elasticity of demand measures the
responsiveness of demand to changes in price for a
particular good. If the price elasticity of demand is
equal to 0, demand is perfectly inelastic (i.e.,
demand does not change when price changes).
Values between zero and one indicate that demand
is inelastic (this occurs when the percent change in
demand is less than the percent change in price).
When price elasticity of demand equals one, demand
is unit elastic (the percent change in demand is equal
to the percent change in price). Finally, if the value is
greater than one, demand is perfectly elastic
(demand is affected to a greater degree by changes
in price).
Income elasticity of demand refers to the sensitivity
of the quantity demanded for a certain good to a
change in real income of consumers who buy this
good, keeping all other things constant. The formula
for calculating income elasticity of demand is the
percent change in quantity demanded divided by the
percent change in income. With income elasticity of
demand, you can tell if a particular good represents
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
a necessity or a luxury.
BREAKING DOWN 'Income Elasticity Of Demand'
Income elasticity of demand measures the
responsiveness of demand for a particular good to
changes in consumer income. The higher the income
elasticity of demand in absolute terms for a
particular good, the bigger consumers' response in
their purchasing habits, if their real income changes.
Businesses typically evaluate income elasticity of
demand for their products to help predict the impact
of a business cycle on product sales.
Key points
Elasticity can be described as elastic—or very
responsive—unit elastic, or inelastic—not very
responsive.
Elastic demand or supply curves indicate that the
quantity demanded or supplied responds to price
changes in a greater than proportional manner.
An inelastic demand or supply curve is one where a
given percentage change in price will cause a smaller
percentage change in quantity demanded or
supplied. Describes a supply or demand curve which
is relatively unresponsive to changes in price.
Unitary elasticity means that a given percentage
change in price leads to an equal percentage change
in quantity demanded or supplied.
68. When do we expect to see a perfectly elastic
demand curve?
A. When a good has no substitutes.
B. When there is limited supply of a good.
C. When a good has a perfect substitute.
D. When a good has many complements
Answer: C
When a good has a perfect substitute (for example,
hamburgers at different fast food chains), then if
there is a price increase at one store, consumers will
simply switch to purchasing from another store. This
results in a perfectly elastic demand curve. A good
that has no substitutes will have perfectly inelastic
demand. The existence of complementary goods and
Page 46
the nature of the supply curve do not affect the
elasticity of demand.
69. A good in which the demand for it increases with
demand for another good.
A. Normal good
B. Subsitute good
C. Complimentary good
D. inferior good
Answer: C
A complementary good is a good whose use is
related to the use of an associated or paired good.
Two goods (A and B) are complementary if using
more of good A requires the use of more of good B.
For example, the demand for one good (printers)
generates demand for the other (ink cartridges).
An inferior good is a product that has its demand
increase when the relative price of another good
increases. A bus pass, for example, will increase in
demand when the relative price of cars increases.
Substitute goods are two goods that could be used
for the same purpose
Normal goods are any items for which demand
increases when income increases. Whole wheat,
organic pasta noodles are an example of a normal
good. Good for which demand (consumption)
increases as consumer income rises, but at a rate
slower than the rate of increase in income.
70. Consuming one candy bar may satisfy a person's
sweet tooth. If a second candy bar is consumed, the
satisfaction of eating that second bar will be less
than the satisfaction gained from eating the first.
This is an example of what law?
A. Law of Supply
B. Law Demand
C. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
Answer: C. In eating the second candy bar, his
satisfaction has declined because he had already
increased his consumption in eating the first candy
bar.
The law of diminishing marginal utility is a law of
economics stating that as a person increases
consumption of a product while keeping
consumption of other products constant, there is a
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
decline in the marginal utility that person derives
from consuming each additional unit of that product.
71. Law of Demand states that _____
A. With the increase in price Quantity increases
B. With the increase in price quantity decreases
other things remaining the same.
C. Quantity does not change with any increase in
price.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B
Law of demand states that other things remaining
the same every increase in price causes the quantity
to be decreased and vice versa
72. While in Perfect Competition
A. Firms are price taker
B. Buyers are independent
C. Input prices are given
D. None of the above
Answer A
Since in Perfect Competition goods are
homogeneous and perfect substitute for one
another and there is large number of buyers and
sellers, therefore , no firm has control over price.
Perfect competition is a market structure in which
the following five criteria are met:
1) All firms sell an identical product;
2) All firms are price takers - they cannot control the
market price of their product;
3) All firms have a relatively small market share;
4) Buyers have complete information about the
product being sold and the prices charged by each
firm; and
5) The industry is characterized by freedom of entry
and exit. Perfect competition is sometimes referred
to as "pure competition".
73. Model of Monopolistic Competition (i.e
Imperfect competition) is characterized by
A. Homogeneous goods
B. Differentiated goods
C. Substitute Goods
D. All of the above
Answer: B
In monopolistic goods are differentiated and the firm
faces downward sloping demand curve i.e with every
increase(decrease) in price there is
decrease(increase) in quantity.
Page 47

Monopolistic competition is a type of imperfect
competition such that many producers sell products
that are differentiated from one another (e.g. by
branding or quality) and hence are not perfect
substitutes.
74. Price discrimination is a situation when a
producer
A. Charges different prices in different markets
B. Charges same price
C. Charges many prices
D. All of the above.
Answer: A
Price discrimination is a pricing strategy that charges
customers different prices for the same product or
service. In pure price discrimination, the seller
charges each customer the maximum price that he is
willing to pay.
75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
competitive market?
A. There are many buyers and sellers in the market
B. The goods offered for sale are largely the same
C. Firms can freely enter or exit the market
D. Firms generate small but positive economic
profits in the long run
Answer D
The concept of perfect competition applies when
there are many producers and consumers in the
market and no single company can influence the
pricing. A perfectly competitive market has the
following characteristics:
a. There are many buyers and sellers in the
market.
b. Each company makes a similar product.
c. Buyers and sellers have access to perfect
information about price.
d. There are no transaction costs.
e. are no barriers to entry into or exit from
the market.
All goods in a perfectly competitive market
are considered perfect substitutes, and the demand
curve is perfectly elastic for each of the small,
individual firms that participate in the market. These
firms are price takers--if one firm tries to raise its
price, there would be no demand for that firm's
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
product. Consumers would buy from another firm
at a lower price instead.
76. Learning experiences in the cognitive, affective,
and psychomotor domains
which are embedded simultaneously
together in the development of the lesson.
A. ACES teaching B.
problem-based C. discovery
Answer A
The ACES teaching approach employs both the
inductive as well as the deductive methods in the
conduct of the lesson although the former is given
more emphasis since certain principles and
conditions of learning that activate the learner and
make learning personal meaningful are easily
achieved through the inductive method. This
approach is commonly called Andragogy or the
experiential process which develops through four
stages: activity, analysis, abstraction and application
(PRODED’s 4As).
77. A research technique in which the investigators
enter to the activities of the group at the same time
they study the groups behavior is
a. Participants observation
b. A semi-structured (open-ended) Interview
c. A structured interview
d. A data discussion
Answer: A
Participant observation is one type of data collection
method typically used in qualitative research. It is a
widely used methodology in many disciplines,
particularly cultural anthropology and (European)
ethnology, less so in sociology, communication
studies, human geography and social psychology.
Participant observation can only do so much for the
researcher because the sole presence of the
researcher in the field will influence the participants'
behavior (see:observer-expectancy effect).
Researchers engaging in this type of qualitative
research method must be aware that participants
may act differently or put up a facade that is in
accordance to what they believe the researcher is
studying. This is why it is important to employ rigor
in any qualitative research study. A useful method of
rigor to employ is member-checking or triangulation.
78. A research interview determined entirely in
advance and followed rigidly is:
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a. Participants observation "Referendum" is the power of the electorate to
b. A semi structured (open-ended) interview approve or reject a legislation through an election
c. A structured interview called for the purpose. It may be of two classes
d. A data discussion
82. The Philippine Development Plan 2017-2022 of
Answer: C President Duterte is founded on three main pillars.
A structured interview (also known as a standardized Which is NOT one of them?
interview or a researcher-administered survey) is a A. Malasakit
quantitative research method commonly employed B. Pagbabago
in survey research. The aim of this approach is to C. Patuloy na Pag-unlad
ensure that each interview is presented with exactly D. Pagsisikap
the same questions in the same order.
Answer: D
79. A research interview in which the
investigators ask a list of questions, but is free to The Philippine Development Plan (PDP) 2017-2022 is
vary them or make up new ones that become the first medium-term plan to be anchored on a
important during the course interview, that is national long-term vision, or AmBisyon Natin 2040,
a. Participant observation which represents the collective vision and
b. A semi structured (open-ended) interview aspirations of Filipinos for themselves and for the
c. Structured interview country. The PDP also takes off from the
d. A data discussion Administration’s 0-10 point Socioeconomic Agenda
and is informed by inputs from the cross-section of
Answer: B stakeholders and the general public.
A semi-structured interview is a qualitative method
of inquiry that combines a pre-determined set of First is Malasakit, which aims to regain people’s trust
open questions (questions that prompt discussion) in public institutions and cultivate trust among
with the opportunity for the interviewer to explore fellow Filipinos. Strategies under Malasakit include
particular themes or responses further. promoting awareness of anti-corruption measures,
improving the productivity of the public sector,
implementing regulatory reforms, increasing access
80. A direct vote of the people on whether they to legal aid, pursuing corrections reform, and
accept or reject a constitution. promoting culture-sensitive governance and
a.plebiscite development.
b. referendum
c. election Second is Pagbabago, or inequality-reducing
d. initiative. transformation through increasing opportunities for
growth of output and income.
Answer: A “Opportunities in agriculture will be expanded. We
Plebiscite" is the electoral process by which an will increase our presence in the global market, and
initiative on the Constitution is approved or rejected we will streamline bureaucratic processes for both
by the people. local and foreign businesses,” said NEDA
Undersecretary Rosemarie G. Edillon, who presented
81. It is the power of the electorate to approve or to the NEDA Board the PDP strategies.
reject a legislation through an election called for the Also under this pillar, “we will pursue strategies such
purpose. It may be of two classes as achieving quality and accessible basic education
a.plebiscite for all, enhancing disaster risk reduction and
b. referendum management (DRRM) mechanisms, and adopting
c. election universal social protection,” added Undersecretary
d. initiative. Edillon.

Answer: B Third, Patuloy na Pag-unlad concentrates on

increasing potential growth through sustaining and
accelerating economic growth, “this will be done by

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 49

maximizing the demographic dividend and vigorously 3 Samar 5,185 square miles
advancing science, technology and innovation.” 4 Negros 5,139 square miles
5 Palawan 4,706 square miles
83. Rising 4000 meters above sea level, it is 6 Panay ,637 square miles
sometimes called the Rooftop of the world. 7 Mindoro 4,082 square miles
A. Mt. Katanglad 8 Leyte 2,845 square miles
B. Mt. Ararat 9 Cebu 1,725 square miles
C. Mt. Himalayas 10 Bohol 1,475 square miles
D. Pamir Knot
86. Where are the great forests of Russia found?
Answer: D a. Tundra
The Pamir Mountains, or the Pamirs, are a mountain b. Taiga
range in Central Asia at the junction of the Himalayas c. Steppe
with the Tian Shan, Karakoram, Kunlun, Hindu Kush, d. Desert
Suleman and Hindu Raj ranges. They are among the
world’s highest mountain Answer: B
Taiga is the Russian word for forest and is the largest
84. Which is a legislative check on the President? biome in the world. It stretches over Eurasia and
A. Rejection of appointment/s by the President North America. The taiga is located near the top of
B. Prescription of the qualifications of the President the world, just below the tundra biome. The winters
C. Prescription of qualifications of judges of lower in the taiga are very cold with only snowfall.
courts
D. Inquiry into the wisdom of any pardon given by 87. The percentage change in quantity demanded of
the President one good compared to the percentage
change in the price of a related good.
Answer: A A. coefficient elasticity
Section 18. There shall be a Commission on C. cross elasticity of demand
Appointments consisting of the President of the B. income elasticity of demand
Senate, as ex officio Chairman, twelve Senators, and D. point elasticity
twelve Members of the House of Representatives,
elected by each House on the basis of proportional Answer: C
representation from the political parties and parties In economics, the cross elasticity of demand or
or organizations registered under the party-list cross-price elasticity of demand measures the
system represented therein. The chairman of the responsiveness of the quantity demanded for a good
Commission shall not vote, except in case of a tie. to a change in the price of another good, ceteris
The Commission shall act on all appointments paribus.
submitted to it within thirty session days of the
Congress from their submission. The Commission 88. The most densely populated areas of China are
shall rule by a majority vote of all the Members. found in what area?
a. Near industrial areas
85. Which is the fourth largest island in the country, b. In the river valleys
often visited by typhoons and with a very rugged c. in the western mountains
interior? d. on the southern plateau
A. Negros
B. Bohol Answer: B
C. Samar The Han majority is densely settled in the eastern
D. Leyte half of the country—also called "inner China"—along
the coastal areas, on the great plains, in the river
Answer: A valleys.
The Biggest Islands Of The Philippines
Rank Island Area 89. An agreement signed by President Duterte on
1 Luzon 42,458 square miles February 28, 2017 dealing with greenhouse gas
2 Mindanao 37,657 square miles

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 50

emissions mitigation, adaptation and finance starting
in the year 2020.
A. Paris Agreement of Climate Change
B. European Agreement on Climate Change
C. Green revolution
Answer: A
The Paris Agreement (French: Accord de Paris), Paris
climate accord or Paris climate agreement, is an
agreement within the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) dealing
with greenhouse gas emissions mitigation,
adaptation and finance starting in the year 2020. The
language of the agreement was negotiated by
representatives of 196 parties at the 21st
Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC in Paris and
adopted by consensus on 12 December 2015.[3][4]
As of August 2017, 195 UNFCCC members have
signed the agreement, 159 of which have ratified it.
90. The ASEAN Summit is a semiannual meeting held
by the member of the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations in relation to economic, and cultural
development of Southeast Asian countries. On April
26-29, 2017, the 30th ASEAN Summit was held in the
Philippines at the __________________.
A. Philippine Arena
B. Philippine International Convention Center
C. World Trade Center Metro Manila
D. Quezon Convention Center
Answer: B
April 26–29 – The 30th ASEAN Summit was held at
the Philippine International Convention Center in
Pasay
91. President Rodrigo Duterte has officially renamed
Benham Rise to “Philippine Rise,” in an apparent bid
to assert the country’s sovereignty over the
resource-rich waters amid alleged incursions by
Chinese ships by virtue of what law?
A. Executive Order No. 26
B. Proclamation No. 124
C. Proclamation No. 126
D. Executive Order No. 25
Answer : D
President Rodrigo Duterte has officially renamed
Benham Rise to “Philippine Rise,” in an apparent bid
to assert the country’s sovereignty over the
resource-rich waters amid alleged incursions by
Chinese ships.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Duterte signed Executive Order No. 25 renaming the
13-million hectare area undersea landmass off
Aurora. ISigned May 16, 2017)
President Rodrigo Duterte signed Executive Order
No. 26, that ordered a nationwide smoking ban
92. What is legal basis of the Martial Law in
Mindanao?
A. Proclamation No. 124
B. Proclamation No. 216
Answer: B
May 23, 2017 – President Rodrigo Duterte signed
Proclamation No. 216 declaring a 60-day martial law
in Mindanao following clashes between government
forces and the Maute group in Marawi
July 22 - In a special joint session requested by
President Rodrigo Duterte, the Congress of the
Philippines voted 261-18 to extend the martial law in
Mindanao until December 31, 2017.[
President Duterte issued Proclamation No. 124
declaring the month of January as the National Bible
Month.
93. It is the Senate committee tasked to investigate
alleged wrongdoings of the government, its officials,
and its attached agencies, including government
owned and controlled corporations, in aid of
legislation, that is, the primary purpose is the
suggestion of new laws, or proposals of amendments
to existing laws.
A. Justice and Human Rights Committee
B. Local Government Committee
C. Blue Ribbon Committee
D. Rules Committee
Answer : C
The Committee on Accountability of Public Officers
and Investigations of the Senate of the Philippines,
or more popularly known as the Blue Ribbon
Committee, is the Senate committee tasked to
investigate alleged wrongdoings of the government,
its officials, and its attached agencies, including
government owned and controlled corporations, in
aid of legislation, that is, the primary purpose is the
suggestion of new laws, or proposals of amendments
to existing laws
94. It is the country's first micro-satellite and the first
satellite to be built and designed by Filipinos.
Page 51
A. Cygnus
B. Diwata-1
C. Skylab
D. Telstar
Answer: B
Diwata-1 was launched in March 23, 2016 to the
International Space Station (ISS) aboard the Cygnus
spacecraft on a supply mission. Cygnus itself will be
launched using the Atlas V rocket. The satellite was
deployed into orbit from the ISS on April 27. Diwata-
1 is the country's first micro-satellite and the first
satellite to be built and designed by Filipinos.
The Cygnus spacecraft is an American automated
cargo spacecraft developed by Orbital ATK as part of
NASA's Commercial Orbital Transportation Services
(COTS) developmental program.
95. They have direct influence on the person’s
attitude or behavior.
A. perception
B. belief
C. budget line
D. reference group
Answer: D
Reference group: any person or group of people who
significantly influences an individual’s behavior Eg.
Individuals (Celebrities, Athletes, or Political leaders)
Groups of individuals with similarities (Musical
groups or Sports teams.
96. She is recognized as one of the 6 Ani ng Dangal
awardees by the National Commission for Culture
and the Arts.
A. Lea Salonga
B. Nora Aunor
C. Jacklyn Jose
Answer: B
February 29, 2016 – Nora Aunor
May 22, 2016 Jaclyn Jose wins the Cannes Film
Festival Award for Best Actress at the 2016 Cannes
Film Festival for her role in the film Ma' Rosa,
becoming the first Filipina to win the award. is
recognized as one of the 6 Ani ng Dangal awardees
by the National Commission for Culture and the Arts.
97. A revenge tale shot in black and white by director
Lav Diaz, wins the top Golden Lion prize at the
Venice Film Festival.
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
Answer: Ang Babaeng Humayo
The Woman Who Left (Filipino: Ang Babaeng
Humayo) is a 2016 Philippine drama film shot in
black-and-white, written, produced, edited, and
directed by Lav Diaz. It was selected to compete in
the main competition section at the 73rd Venice
International Film Festival where it won the Golden
Lion.[2][3] This was the first film of Charo Santos-
Concio who returned to acting after she stepped
down as President and CEO of ABS-CBN Corporation.
98. President Benigno Aquino III signed Executive
Order 183 that created the Negros Island Region to
improve the delivery of public services in Negros
Occidental and Negros Oriental, which forms part of
the new region
99. The 8 Millennium Development Goals
(United Nations)
1. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
Reduce by half the production of people
living on less than a dollar a day
Reduce by half the proportion of people
who suffer from hunger
2. Achieve universal primary education
Ensure that all boys and girls complete a full
course of primary schooling
3. Promote gender equality
Eliminate gender disparity in primary and
secondary education preferably by 2005, and at all
levels by 2015
4. Reduce child mortality
Reduce by two thirds the mortality rate
among children under five
5. Improve women’s reproductive health
Reduce by three quarters the maternal
mortality ratio
6. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other
diseases
Halt and begin to reverse the spread of
HIV/AIDS
Halt and begin to reverse the incidence of
malaria and other major diseases
7. Ensure environmental sustainability
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 Integrate the principles of sustainable
development into country policies and programmes;
reverse loss of environmental resources
Reduce by half the proportion of people
without sustainable access to safe drinking water
Achieve significant improvement in lives of
at least 100 million slum-dwellers by 2020
8. Develop a global partnership for
development
Develop further an open trading and
financial system, that is rule-based, predictable and
non-discriminatory. Includes a commitment to good
governance, development and poverty reduction –
nationally and internationally
Address the least developed countries’
special needs. This includes tariff-and quota-free
access for their exports; enhanced debt relief for
heavily indebted poor countries; cancellation of
official bilateral debt; and more generous official
development assistance for countries committed to
poverty reduction
Address the special needs of landlocked and
small island developing States
100. TAXATION
• It is an inherent power of the state to
impose and collect revenues to defray the necessary
expenses of the government.
• It is compulsory contribution imposed by a
public authority irrespective of the amount of
services rendered to the payer in return.
• It is compulsory level on private individuals
and organization by the government to raise
revenue to finance expenditure on public goods and
services.
Purpose of Taxation
• To collect revenue for the government
• To redistribute income
• To combat inflation
• To correct an adverse balance of payment
• To check consumption of goods which are
considered undesirable
• To protect local infant industries
• To influence population trend
• To improve unfavorable terms of trade
• To reallocate resources to create a sense of
identity
Sources and Origin of Taxation
SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER
• The Constitution
• Statutes or Presidential Degrees
• Bureau of Internal Revenue regulations
• Judicial Decision
• Provincial, Municipal and Barrio Ordinances
• Observance of International Agreement
• Administrative Ruling and Opinions
Classification of Tax System
• Progressive Income Tax – the Higher the
income the higher the tax rate.
• Proportional Tax – The tax rate is constant
and unaffected by the level of income.
• Regressive Tax – The higher the income the
lower the tax rate.
Classification of Taxes
• As to the subject matter – Personal
Property, Capitation and Poll Tax; Property Tax;
Excise Tax
• As to who bears the burden – Direct Tax
and Indirect Tax
• As to determination of the amount –
Specific and Ad valorem
• As to purpose – General and Specific
• As to Scope – National and Local
Types of Taxes
• Direct Taxes
• The burden cannot be shifted to the third
party
• Direct taxes are based on income and
wealth
• In most cases, direct taxes are progressive
in nature
• Direct taxes are compulsory in nature
• Examples: income tax, residence tax, real
state, immigration tax, estate/gift/inheritance tax.
• Indirect Taxes
• The tax burden can be shifted to the third
party
• Indirect taxes are based on expenditure and
consumption
• All indirect taxes are regressive in nature
• Indirect taxes are optional in the sense that
they can be avoided
• Examples: sales tax, import tax, VAT/EVAT
Characteristics of a Sound Tax System
Page 53
• Efficiency – must generated revenue 5. Mindanoo Island is located in:
greater than the amount of money the government A. The Indian Ocean
must spend to collect taxes. B. North Atlantic
• Equity – individual and groups belonging to
C. The Pacific Ocean
the same income bracket must be taxed equally
while belonging to different income groups must be D. South Atlantic
taxed differently. Answer: C
• Convenience – to set up measures and
procedures that will make it more convenient for 6. Upper Volta is the old name of:
taxpayers to pay. A. Angola
• Stability – tax system must not be too often B. Cape Verde
or it will encourage tax payers to withhold tax
C. Burkina Faso
payment until a more preferred system is put in
place D. Burkina
Answer: D

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE-WORLD GEOGRAPHY 7. Greenland is under the rule of:

A. Turkey
1.The Hwang Ho River falls into:
B. Denmark
A. Indian Ocean
C. Germany
B. Yellow Sea.
D. Portugal
C. Red Sea
Answer: B
D. Bay of China
Answer: B
8. The highest point of Australia is:
A. Mount Kosciusko.
2. Yokohama and Kobe are the main centres of ship
B. Mount Twonsend
building industry in:
C. Mount Twynam
A. Japan
D. Abbott Peak
B. South Korea
Answer A.
C. North Korea
9. Who constructed Suez Canal?
D. China
A. Fyodor Litke
Answer: A
B. Pyotr Semyonov-Tyan-Shansky
C. Voin Rimsky-Korsakov
3. Cocos plate lies between:
D. Ferdinand de Lesseps
A. Central America and Pacific Plate.
Answer: D
B. North America and Pacific Plate.
C. South America and Pacific Plate.
10. Cincinnati (U .S .A.) is famous in the making of:
D. None of Above.
A. Machine Tools.
D. None of Above.
B. Cement Industry
Answer: A
C. Bio-technical Industry
D. Aviation Tools
4. Brown Waterfalls are situated in:
Answer: A
A. Australia
B. New Zealand
11. Intensity of production declines with distance
C. Canada
from the market and the type of land use varies with
D. SwitSwitzerland
distance from the market are the two basic tenets
Answer: B
of:
A. Von Thunen’s Agriculture Location Theory.

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 54

B. Environmental determinism A. Cuba
C. Possibilism B. China
D. Probabilism C. Australia
Answer: A D. India
Answer: A
12. The grasslands in Canada are known as:
A. Prairies. 18. The Homolographic projection has the correct
B. Dawns representation of
C. Pampas A. shape
D. Steppes B. area
Answer: A C. baring
D. distance
13. India's major contacts with out-side world for the Answer: B
last two millennia have been by sea there-by earning
the title for India: 19. The latitudinal differences in pressure delineate a
A. The Mistress of the Eastern Seas number of major pressure zones, which correspond
B. The Mistress of the Western Seas with
C. The Mistress of the Southern Seas A. zones of climate
D. The Mistress of the Northern Seas B. zones of oceans
Answer: A C. zones of land
D. zones of cyclonic depressions
14. The oldest rock system of the world is: Answer: A
A. The Archaean Rock system
B. The Zircons Rock system 20. The higher the wind speed and the longer the
C. The Primitive Rock system fetch or distance of open water across which the
D. None of these wind blows and waves travel, the ____ waves and
Answer: A the ____ energy they process.
A. larger, more
15. The names of Harry Hess, R . S . Dietz, W . J . B. larger, less
Morgan and Le Pichon are associated with: C. smaller, more
A. Plate Tectonics Theory D. smaller, less
B. Agriculture Location Theory Answer: A
C. Diversion of Wind Theory
D. None of these 21. The hazards of radiation belts include
Answer: A A. deterioration of electronic circuits
B. damage of solar cells of spacecraft
16. The concept of sustainable development relates C. adverse effect on living organisms
to: D. All of the above
A. Intergenerational Equity. Answer: D
B. Intrageneration Equity
C. Extrageneration Equity 22. The great Victoria Desert is located in
D. All of the above A. Canada
Answer: A B. West Africa
C. Australia
17. Which country is known as the "Sugar Bowl" of D. North America
the world? Answer: C

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 55

23. The intersecting lines drawn on maps and globes 29. With the disintegration of USSR in end 1991,
are comprised of ____ Union Republics.
A. latitudes A. 15
B. longitudes B. 10
C. geographic grids C. 5
D. None of the above D. 25
Answer: C Answer A

24. The light of distant stars is affected by 30.The iron and steel industries of which of the
A. the earth's atmosphere following countries are almost fully dependent on
B. interstellar dust imported raw materials?
C. both (a) and (b) A. Britain
D. None of the above B. Japan
Answer: C C. Poland
D. Germany
25. The landmass of which of the following Answer: B
continents is the least?
A. Africa 31. The temperature increases rapidly after
B. Asia A. ionosphere
C. Australia B. exosphere
D. Europe C. stratosphere
Answer: C D. troposphere
Answer: A
26. Without ____ the equator would be much hotter
than it is while the poles would be much cooler. 32. The humidity of the air depends upon
A. latitudinal redistribution of heat A. temperature
B. cycle of air circulation B. location
C. global wind pattern C. weather
D. All are similar terms D. All of the above
Answer: D Answer: D

27. The habitats valuable for commercially harvested 33. The groundwater can become confined between
species are called two impermeable layers. This type of enclosed water
A. coral reefs is called
B. sea grass bed A. artesian
C. hot spots B. artesian well
D. None of the above C. unconfined groundwater
Answer: B D. confined groundwater
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is tropical grassland?
A. Taiga 34. The largest glaciers are
B. Savannah A. mountain glaciers
C. Pampas B. alpine glaciers
D. Prairies C. continental glaciers
Answer: B D. piedmont glaciers

SOCIAL SCIENCE LET REVIEWER Page 56

Answer: C A. cool, extremely dry wind that forms over the
Sahara and blows westward or south-westward to
35. The ionosphere includes the Af
A. mesosphere B. wind that blows during the dry season from
B. thermosphere December to February
C. thermosphere and exosphere C. tertiary wind that carry great quantities of fine
D. thermosphere, exosphere and mesosphere dust from the Sahara
Answer: C D. All of the above

36. The highest degree of concentration of mineral 42. The largest gold producing country in the world
deposits are found in is
A. northeastern zone A. China
B. northwestern zone B. Canada
C. southern zone C. South Africa
D. All of the above D. USA
Answer: A Answer: A

37. The group of minerals chemically containing 43. The hydrological cycle is a conceptual model that
hydrocarbons is describes
A. silicate group A. the storage of water between biosphere,
B. organic group hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere
C. oxide group B. the movement of water between biosphere,
D. hydride group atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
Answer: B C. both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
38. The iron ore mined at Bailadila is mostly Answer: C
A. haematite
B. siderite 44. The least explosive type of volcano is called
C. limonite A. Basalt plateau
D. magnetic B. Cinder cone
Answer: A C. Shield volcanoes
D. Composite volcanoes
39. The leading state in producing paper is Answer: A
A. Bihar
B. West Bengal 45. The largest fish exporting region in the world is
C. Kerala A. the north-east atlantic region
D. Orissa B. the north-east pacific region
Answer: B C. the north-west pacific region
D. the south-east asian region
40. The largest dune files are found in Answer: A
A. Middle East 46. The largest country of the world by geographical
B. North Africa area is
C. both (a) and (b) A. Russia
D. None of the above B. Vatican City
Answer: C C. Australia
41. The Harmattan is D. USA

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Answer: A B. the Lesser Himalayas
C. the outer Himalayas
47. The hot and cold deserts together occupy nearly D. None of the above
____ land area of the world. Answer:A
A. 1/2
B. 1/4th 53. The infrared radiation by sun are strongly
C. 1/3rd absorbed by
D. 3/4th A. carbon dioxide
Answer: C B. water vapours
C. carbon dioxide and water vapours
48. The highest average salinity amongst the D. ozone
following seas is reported from Answer: A
A. Dead Sea
B. Red Sea 54. The latitude of a place expresses its angular
C. Black Sea position relative to the plane of
D. Mediterranean Sea A. axis of earth
Answer: A B. north pole
C. south pole
49. The Himalayan mountain system belongs to D. equator
which of the following? Answer: D
A. Volcanic mountains
B. Residual mountains 55. The landforms that are influenced by several
C. Block mountains process namely, weathering, erosion, deposition are
D. Fold mountains known as
Answer: D A. polygenetic landforms
B. structural landforms
50. The heavy day soils that show significant C. polycyclic landforms
expansion and contraction due to the presence or D. None of the above
absence of moisture is called Answer: A
A. aridsols
B. vertisols 56. The initial increase of magnetic field in magnetic
C. histosols storms is caused
D. andisols A. when the shock wave, associated with the gusty
Answer: B solar wind, compresses the magnetosphere
B. when there is a large decrease in field intensity
51. The HBJ Upgradation project, upgraded the C. when the gust wind itself engulfs the
capacity of HBJ pipeline from 18.2 MM SC MD to magnetosphere
A. 20 MM SC MD D. None of the above
B. 33.4 MM SC MD Answer: A
C. 22.3 MM SC MD
D. 29.6 MM SC MD 57. The island state of Australia is
Answer: B A. Victoria
B. Queensland
52. The highest mountains on earth namely Mount C. Tasmania
Everest, K2, Kanchenjanga are located in D. New South Wales
A. the greater Himalayas Answer: C

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 64. The islands of Seychelles are located in the
58. The Ice age ended about ____ years ago. A. Arctic Ocean
A. 140 B. Atlantic Ocean
B. 1,400 C. Indian Ocean
C. 14,000 D. Pacific Ocean
D. 140,000 Answer: C
Answer: C
65. The island of Sri Lanka formerly known as
59. The languages used in China is A. Madagascar
A. Chinese, English B. Tasmania
B. Chinese, Arabic C. Ceylon
C. Chinese, French D. None of the above
D. Chinese, Korean Answer: C
Answer: A
66. The highest sand dunes are found is
60. The islands with coral covered surfaces in Bay of A. the Sahara desert
Bengal are B. the Atacama desert
A. Andaman islands C. the Kalahari desert
B. Nicobar islands D. the Gobi desert
C. both (a) and (b) Answer: A
D. None of the above
Answer: B 67. The greatest variety of animal and plant species
is fund in
61. Within the transporting medium, transport can A. temperate grasslands
occur by B. tropical moist forests
A. suspension C. tundra regions
B. solution and traction D. in hot deserts
C. solution Answer: B
D. All of the above
Answer: D 68. The layer of the earth, immediately below the
crust, is called
62. The length of the day is determined in A. outer core
A. astronomical units B. inner core
B. solar terms C. inner mantle
C. length of the hours D. outer mantle
D. None of the above Answer: D
Answer: A
69. The highest mountains in Africa, which is not part
63. The hot, dry wind on the east or leeward side of of any mountains chain, is
the Rocky mountains (North America) is called A. Mt. Aconcagua
A. the Chinook B. Mr. Kilimanjaro
B. the Sirocco C. Mt. Kosciusco
C. the Harmattan D. Mont Blanc
D. the Loo Answer: B
Answer: A

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70. The heavier silicates named as 'Sima' or silica + C. the Gulf of Genoa
magnesium are most abundant in the D. the Gulf of Venice
A. crust Answer: A
B. core
C. mantle 6. The largest continent in the world is
D. ocean floors A. Africa
Answer: D B. Asia
C. Australia
SECTION 2 of 7 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE-WORLD D. Antarctica
GEOGRAPHY Answer: B
1. The imaginary line on the earth's surface, which
closely follows the 180o meridian, is called the 7. The landforms that are created by massive earth
A. International Date Line movements due to place tectonics are called
B. Tropic of Cancer A. structural landforms
C. Equator B. weathering landforms
D. Prime Meridian C. erosional landforms
Answer: A D. depositional landforms
Answer: A
2. The largest part of our hydrosphere is
A. Atlantic Ocean 8. The largest production of mica in Asia is from
B. Indian Ocean A. Indonesia
C. Pacific ocean B. Malaysia
D. Antarctica ocean C. Myanmar
Answer: C D. India
Answer: D
3. The limit beyond which the stars suffer internal
collapse is called the 9. The latitude 'AA' on the map represents the
A. Raman Effect A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Chandrasekhar limit B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Aurora Borealis C. Equator
D. Quasan Zone D. None of the above
Answer: B Answer: C

4. The ground water that occurs when flow of the 10. The largest fresh water lake of Africa, area wise is
subterranean water is not confined by the presence A. lake Victoria
of impermeable layers is called B. lake Tanganyika
A. unconfined groundwater C. lake Malawi
B. confined groundwater D. lake Rudot
C. aquifer Answer: A
D. artesian
Answer: A 11. The important mountains of Europe include
A. Andes, Alps, Pyrenees
5. The gulf that separates Finland and Sweden in B. Alps, Carpathians, Pyrenees, Apennines
Europe is C. Alps, Himalayas, Rock mountains
A. the Gulf of Bothnia D. None of the above
B. the Gulf of Lions Answer: B

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12. The last major glacial period began about B. average extremes
2,000,000 years before present and is commonly C. absolute extremes
known as D. relative extremes
A. Pleistocene or ice age Answer: C
B. Paleocene or ice age
C. Pliocene or ice age 18. The highest mountain peak of Oceania is
D. Holocene or ice age A. Mt. Victoria, Papua New Guinea
Answer: A B. Mt. Kosciusko, Australia
C. Mt. Cook, South Island (New Zealand)
13. The imaginary axis at which the earth rotates D. Puncak Jaya, Indonesia.
remains inclined at an angle of ____ to the plane of Answer: D
earth's orbit.
A. 44 1/2 º 19. The length of the tropical years (the time interval
B. 55 1/2 º between successive occurrences of the spring
C. 66 1/2 º equinox) is decreasing very slowly as a result of
D. 0 º A. small, progressive changes in the earth's
Answer: C rotational speed
B. small, progressive change in earth's orbit around
14. The ionosphere contains ionized air that protects the sun
the earth from C. both (a) and (b)
A. the ultraviolet rays of the sun D. None of the above
B. the infrared rays of the sun Answer: C
C. the falling meteorites
D. None of the above 20. The largest gulf in the world is
Answer: C A. Gulf of Mexico
B. Persian Gulf
15. The horizontal of soil profile is composed of C. Gulf of Carpentaria
A. weathered parent material that is not affected by D. Gulf of Mannar
translocation and organic modification Answer: A
B. material affected by translocation & organic
modification 21. The hunting and gathering economy can support
C. unweathered bedrock only
D. None of the above A. 1 person per sq. km
Answer: A B. 3 persons per sq. km
C. 5 persons per sq. km
16. The largest city in Latin America is D. 7 persons per sq. km
A. Mexico city Answer: A
B. Caracas
C. Rio-de-Janeiro 22. The import of crude oil and petroleum done from
D. Buenos Aires national oil companies of producer countries, which
Answer: A have a net exportable surplus of oil is by
A. term contracts
17. The highest and lowest values of a weather B. term tenders
element observed over the entire period of record C. monthly tenders
are D. All the above
A. extremes Answer: A

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23. The land-sea distribution or the positions of the B. comet
world's continents and major oceans influences C. asteroid
A. the major pressure belts that develop from the D. corona
general circulation of the atmosphere Answer: D
B. the development of the mid-latitude cyclonic
depressions, at the convergence zone between polar 29. The longest ship canal in the world is the
and A. St. Laurence Seaway (USA and Canada)
C. both (a) and (b) B. Suez canal, Egypt
D. None of the above C. Kiel canal, Germany
Answer: C D. Panama canal, Central America
24. The knowledge about the topography of the Answer: A
ocean basins has been derived from
A. seismic surveying 30. The major geological events of the Palaeozoic era
B. echo sounder include
C. side-scan sonar A. Caledonian mountain rise, life comes ashore
D. All of the above B. Appalachians and Central European mountains
Answer: D come up
C. both (a) and (b)
25. The headquarters of the Commonwealth of D. None of the above
Independent States (CIS), formed out of erstwhile Answer: C
USSR, is at
A. Minsk in Byelorussia 31. The major events of Pre-Cambrian era include
B. Moscow in Russia A. formation of crust, continents and oceans
C. Kiev in Ukraine B. formation of crust, birth of oldest known rock,
D. Kistiner in Moldavia origin of life
Answer: A C. formation of present day atmosphere
D. All of the above.
26. The minor planets revolving between the orbits Answer: D
of Jupiter and Mars are called
A. Novas 32. The meridian passing through London is called
B. Comets the
C. Meteors A. equator
D. Asteroids B. Tropic of Cancer
Answer: D C. Prime Meridian of 0° Meridian
D. Tropic of Capricorn
27. The lowermost and the oldest epoch of the Answer: C
Tertiary Period of geologic time is
A. Pliocene 33. The most recent era of the geological time scale
B. Palaeozoic is
C. Holocene A. Mesozoic
D. Palaeocene B. cenozoic
Answer: D C. Triassic
D. paleocene
28. The luminous coloured ring, surrounding the sun Answer: B
is called the
A. nebula

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34. The low heating capacity of which of the types of
coal reduces its value as an industrial fuel? 40. The major crude oil markets are the
A. Anthracite A. Middle East regions
B. Bituminous coal B. far east regions
C. Lignite C. both (a) and (b)
D. Peat D. None of the above
Answer: D Answer: C

35. The most important factor that is affecting all the 41. The most important force that provide resistance
chemical weathering processes is to particles towards entertainment is
A. vegetation A. frictional resistance
B. topography B. particle cohesive bonds
C. climate C. particle adhesive bonds
D. None of the above D. momentum
Answer: C Answer: A

36. The longest river in the Common wealth of 42. The metamorphism which involves the chemical
independent states is the replacement of elements in rock minerals when
A. Irtysh river gases and liquids permute into bedrock is called
B. Ob river A. metasomatic metamorphism
C. Yenisei river B. dynamic metamorphism
D. Volga river C. thermal metamorphism
Answer: D D. contact metamorphism
Answer: A
37. The monsoon climatic regions are
A. South-east Asia including Australia, Africa, 43. The magnetosphere becomes unstable during
America the magnetic storms during a period of
B. Europe and South America A. initial phase
C. Asia, Africa and Antarctica B. storm sudden commencement phase
D. None of the above C. main phase
Answer: A D. None of the above
Answer: C
38. The main vegetation of the steppe type climatic
regions is 44. The major cause of species extinction is
A. evergreen forests A. agricultural activities
B. evergreen deciduous forests B. extraction (including mining, fishing, logging)
C. large grasslands C. development (human settlements, industry)
D. coniferous forests D. habitat loss and degradation
Answer: C Answer: D

39. The minerals of sulphide group are 45. The major crops found in Sudan are
A. Cinnabar A. rice, barley, bananas, cocoa
B. Pyrite B. maize, cotton, bananas, groundnut
C. Galena C. bajra, oats, tobacco
D. All of the above D. wool, wine, jute
Answer: D Answer: B

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 C. basalt plateau
46. The most pleasant elements i.e. summer D. shield volcanoes
temperatures rarely above 40o and winters are fairly Answer: A
mild, occur in the
A. tropical mid-latitude zone 52. The lowest point, on land, in the world is
B. sub-tropical latitude zone A. Death valley, USA
C. temperature mid-latitude zone B. Caspian sea, Russia
D. sub-temperature latitude zone C. Dead sea, Jordan/Israel
Answer: C D. Lake Eyre, Australia
Answer: C
47. The movement of particles by rolling, sliding and
shuffling along the eroded surface is called 53. The low latitude zone of globe extends between
A. saltation A. Tropic of Capricorn and Cancer
B. suspension B. North pole to South pole
C. traction C. Tropic of Capricorn and equator
D. solution D. Equator and Tropic of Cancer
Answer: C Answer: A

48. Which of the following is an igneous rock? 54. The main objective of multi-purpose river
A. Granite projects are
B. Limestone A. extension of irrigation facilities by constructing
C. Slate dams to store surplus water during the rainy seas
D. Quartzite B. power generation by constructing hydro power
Answer; A stations
C. flood controls and making rivers navigable
49. The main dividing line between the geological D. All of the above
regions of the Indo Gangetic plain and the peninsula Answer: D
is
A. the Vindhya range 55. The mountains which come into being after the
B. the Aravallis continental drift started, with the break up of the
C. the Nilgiri hills large land mass of pangola are
D. the Satpwas A. young mountains
Answer: A B. old mountains
C. volcanic mountains
50. The mean basin area of successive ordered D. fold mountains
streams formed a linear relationship when graphed. Answer: A
This statement is given by
A. morph metric analysis 56. The Mistral is
B. law of drainage composition A. very cold wind, which blows down from the
C. law of basin areas plateau of central France
D. None of the above B. swift, dry, cold northerly wind that blows down
Answer: C from the western Alps and the plateau of Southern F
C. wind that blows for 100 days a year and may
51. The most explosive type of volcano is cause extensive frost damage to plants
A. the caldera D. All of the above
B. a cinder cone Answer: D

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57. The main period of Mesozoic era include 63. The most densely populated country of Africa is
A. Triassic period and Cretaceous period A. Mauritius
B. Jurassic period and Triassic period B. Rwanda
C. Triassic period, Jurassic period and cretaceous C. Burundi
period D. Sierra Leone
D. cretaceous period and Jurassic period Answer: A
Answer: C
64. The major countries of Middle East are
58. The main percentage of the volume of water in A. Iran, Iraq, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait
the hydrosphere is in B. UAE, Jordan, Syria, Lebanon, Yemen
A. oceans and seas C. Israel, Turkey, Cyprus, Afghanistan
B. groundwater, rivers and streams D. All of the above.
C. glaciers and ice sheets Answer: D
D. freshwater lakes and water vapours
Answer: A 65. The most recent and logical concept regarding
the origin of ocean basins and continents is that of
59. The main tributaries of Indus river system are A. continental data
A. the Jhelum, the Chenab , the Ravi B. conventional current
B. the Beas, the Sutlej C. plate tectesic
C. both (a) and (b) D. cooling process
D. None of the above Answer: A
Answer: C
66. The main types of air mass include
60. The model which explains the various types of I. maritime tropical(mT)
igneous rocks II. maritime polar(mP)
A. rock cycle III. maritime arctic(mA)
B. Bowens reaction series IV. continental polar(cP)
C. both are similar terms A. All of the above
D. None of the above B. I, II, III, IV
Answer: B C. I, IV
D. I, II
61. The mean surface temperature of the sun is Answer: A
estimated to be of the prder of
A. 5500°C 67. The major motion of the planet earth includes
B. 4000°C A. rotation
C. 2000°C B. revolution
D. 1000°C C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: A D. any of these depending upon the question under
construction
62. Which of the following is an island sea? Answer: C
A. Caribbean sea 68. The most salty sea in the world is
B. Caspian sea A. Red sea
C. Red sea B. Dead sea
D. Yellow sea C. Arabian sea
Answer: B D. Mediterranean sea
Answer: B

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69. The most densely populated regions in the world B. 150,503,000 km
are C. 148,000,000 km
A. the monsoon climatic regions D. 150,000,000 km
B. the equatorial regions Answer: A
C. the hot desert climatic regions 5. The major control over the form of the developing
D. the summer climatic regions slope is exerted by
Answer: A A. inputs to the hill slope
B. outputs from the hill slope
70. The most notable example of a tectonic valley is C. balance between inputs and outputs from the hill
that of the slope system
A. Doon valley D. None of the above
B. Kashmir valley Answer : C
C. plains of Aksai Chin 6. The middle latitude extends between
D. None of the above A. 23(1/2)? North to 32(1/2)? South
Answer B B. 23(1/2)? and 66? in both the hemispheres
C. 66? North to 66? South
3. SECTION 3 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE-WORLD D. North pole and South pole
GEOGRAPHY Section 3 Answer: B
1. The monetary currency of Greece is called (prior 7. The major graphite producing country is
to Jan 1, 2002). A. Russia
A. guilder B. Sri Lanka
B. drachma C. India
C. yen D. Zaire
D. dinar Answer: B
Answer: B 8. The maximum soil fertility occurs in the pH range
of
2. The main examples of Rabi crop are A. 5.0 to 6.2
A. wheat, barley, peas, rapeseed, mustard, grams B. 6.0 to 7.2
B. rice, jowar, barley, wheat C. 7.0 to 8.2
C. peas, maize, cotton and jute D. 4.0 to 5.2
D. All of the above Answer: B
Answer: A 9. The mica belt of the Himalayas, the major part of
it is situated in
3. The modern theory of plate tectonics states A. Andhra Pradesh
A. the creation of oceanic crust and the drifting of B. Bihar
continents C. Rajasthan
B. the convention currents within the earth's mantle D. West Bengal
cause the creation of new oceanic crust at the mid Answer: B
C. that the oceanic crust is destroyed at areas where 10. The most well known member of halick group is
this crust type becomes subducted under the light A. Halite
D. All of the above B. Pyrite
Answer: D C. Galena
D. Hematite
4. The mean distance of the earth from the sun is Answer: A
approximately 11. The mountains that separate European and
A. 149,502,000 km Arctic Russia are

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A. the Pyranees A. 32,000 km
B. the Balkans B. 6,400 km
C. the Carpathians C. 9,600 km
D. the Urals D. 12,800 km
Answer: D Answer: B

12. The main properties of cosmic ray particles are 18. Which of the following is a warm current?
A. its electric charge A. Benguela current
B. its rest mass B. Labrador current
C. its energy C. Kurosiwo current
D. All of these are its properties D. South Pacific current
Answer: D Answer: C

13. The model that describes how various geological 19.The major countries of central America are
processes create, modify and influence rock is called A. Belize, Costa Rica, Panama
A. water cycle B. China, Taiwan, Japan
B. energy cycle C. Iran, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Kuwait
C. rock cycle D. All of the above
D. None of the above Answer: A
Answer: C
20. The main producers of free gas are
14. The magnetic field generated due to magnetic A. the south Bassein and Tapti fields in the western
storm is directed in the ____ direction to the earth's offshore
main field. B. the gas fields in Tripura and Andhra Pradesh (KG
A. same Basin)
B. opposite C. both (a) and (b)
C. southward D. None of the above
D. northward Answer: C
Answer: B
21. The major pedogenic process acting on soils at
15. The main factor determining a region's climate is the macro scale are
A. longitude A. laterisation and podsolisation
B. latitude B. calcification and salinisation
C. temperature C. salinisation and gleisation
D. All of the above D. All of the above
Answer: B Answer: D

16. The moon orbits the earth at a mean distance 22. The minerals resources of north-eastern zone
approximately include
A. 0.384 million km A. coal, Fe, Mn, Cu, Mica, U, diamond
B. 149.6 million km B. crude Petroleum and natural gas
C. 579 million km C. Fe, Au(gold)
D. 227.9 million km D. natural gas, Fe, Au, Mn, U
Answer: A Answer: A

17. The mean radius of the earth is approximately

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23.The moon A. Cainozoic era
A. is the natural satellite of earth B. Pre-Cambrian era
B. has no liquid water C. Palaeozoic era
C. has no atmosphere D. Mesozoic era
D. All of the above Answer: B
Answer: D
30. The minimum values of annual receipts of solar
24. The moon's volume is about ____ that of earth. radiation occur at
A. 1/40 th A. the equator
B. 1/50 th B. the tropics
C. 1/60 th C. the arctic
D. 1/20 th D. None of the above
Answer; B Answer: C

25. The magnetic field of earth, Magnetosphere 31. The pedogenic process associated with poor
expands to about drainage and which involves the accumulation of
A. 9600 km above the earth's surface organic matter in the upper layers of the soil is called
B. 8000 km above the earth's surface A. salinisation
C. 64,000 km above the earth's surface B. gleisation
D. None of the above C. calcification
Answer : C D. podsolisation
Answer: B
26. The longest epoch of the tertiary period is
A. Palaeocene 32. The rock formations that cannot store
B. Eocene groundwater are called
C. Oligocene A. aquifers
D. Miocene B. aquicludes
Answer: B C. perched aquifer
D. spring
27. The longest day (shortest night) in the southern Answer: B
hemisphere is
A. June 21 33. The planet that takes the highest time for
B. December 22 completing a rotation is
C. July 21 A. Mercury
D. November 22 B. Venus
Answer: B C. Earth
D. Pluto
28. The most obvious effect of pressure on rocks is Answer: B
A. foliation
B. lineation 34. The Penumbra is
C. lithification A. the outer portion of the moon's shadow
D. the reorientation of mineral crystals B. formed by the tangent that intersects between
Answer: D the sun and the moon
C. both (a) and (b)
29. The longest era of the classification of the history D. None of the above
of earth is Answer: C

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35. The river situated along the border between the A. Continental shelf
USA and Mexico is B. Continental Slope
A. the Rio Grande C. both (a) and (b)
B. the Amazon D. None of the above
C. the Mississippi Answer: C
D. the Colorado
Answer: A 41. The original landmass, pangola split into
A. Laurissa in the north and Godwanaland in the
36. The process of capture of precipitation by the south
plant canopy and its subsequent return to the B. Laurissa in the south and Godwanaland in the
atmosphere is called north
A. sublimation C. Laurissa in the east and Godwanaland in the west
B. stem flow D. Laurissa in the west and Godwanaland in the east
C. interception Answer: A
D. through fall
Answer: C 42. The R-horizon of soil horizon consists of
A. unweathered bedrock
37. The oldest rocks found in ocean basins are ____ B. weathered parent material
than the oldest continental rocks. C. plant litter at various levels of decomposition
A. older D. None of the above
B. younger Answer: A
C. larger
D. smaller 43. The propagation of radio signals is greatly
Answer: B influence by
A. troposphere
38. The period of daylight B. ionosphere
A. is nearly constant near the equator C. exosphere
B. varies with latitude and the season D. thermosphere
C. reaches a maximum of 24 hour in the polar zones Answer: B
in summer
D. All of the above 44.The pyramidal peaks that form when several
Answer: D cirques chisel a mountain form three more sides are
called
39. The process of weathering results into A. horns
A. the complete loss of particular atoms or the B. cirques
compounds from the weathered surface C. aretes
B. the addition of specific atoms or compounds to D. medial moraines
the weathered surface Answer: A
C. a breakdown of one mass in to two or more 45. The process that involves the eroded material
masses, with no chemical change in the mineral or being dissolved and carried along in water as
rock individual ions is called
D. All of the above A. solution
Answer: D B. suspension
C. saltation
40. The part of continental margin that is structurally D. traction
a part of continent? Answer: A

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46. The relative abundance of dissolved salts in B. hydrolysis
seawater in descending order is as follows C. carbonation
A. chlorine, sodium, sulphate, magnesium, calcium, D. solution
potassium Answer: A
B. sodium, chlorine, magnesium, potassium,
sulphate, calcium 52. The percentage of sun's radiation reflected back
C. chlorine, magnesium, calcium, sodium, potassium, into space is about
sulphate A. 36 percent
D. chlorine, sodium, magnesium, calcium, potassium, B. 47 percent
sulphate C. 17 percent
Answer: A D. None of the above
Answer: A
47. The planets with no natural satellites (reported
so far) are 53. The progressive wave theory regarding of tides
A. Mercury and Venus was put forth by
B. Earth and Pluto A. R.A. Harris
C. Mars and Neptune B. Issac Newton
D. Jupiter and Saturn C. William Whewell
Answer: A D. G.B. Airy
Answer: C
48. The percentage of the incident radiation
reflected back to space is called 54. The original founders of Common wealth of
A. planet's albedo Independent States, in December 1991, are
B. earth's albedo A. Tadjikistan, Khirghizia and Turkemenistan
C. both are similar terms B. Armenia, Georgia and Azerbaijan
D. None of the above C. Russia, Ukraine and Byelorus
Answer: A D. Moldavia, Khazakhastan and Uzbekistan
Answer: C
49. The plants of which of the following crops are
highly sensitive to frost? 55. The Pyrenees mountains are located on the
A. Barely border between ____ and ____
B. Cotton A. Romania, Bulgaria
C. Maize B. Norway, Sweden
D. None of the above C. Hungary, Romania
Answer: B D. France, Spain
Answer: D
50. The religion of Afghanistan is
A. Islam 56. The process of evaporation of water in nature is
B. Buddhism one of the basic components of the hydrological
C. Hinduism cycle. The other process that is considered to be
D. Christianity essential for the completion of hydrological cycle is
Answer: A the
A. flow tide and ebb tide in a river
51. The reaction between compounds and oxygen is B. movement of water vapour in the atmosphere
called C. flow of water in the sea
A. oxidation D. movement of water in the water table

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Answer: B Answer: C
57. The ocean water is saline due to
A. evaporation of its surface 63. The phosphate are a group of minerals of one or
B. volume of fresh water added by rainfall more metallic elements chemically associated with
C. salts are already present in sea water the phosphate compound ____
D. both (a) and (b) A. PO4
Answer: D B. PO3
C. PO2
58. The platform and the basement rock together D. PO
form Answer: A
A. craton
B. shield 64. The polar diameter is ____ to the equatorial
C. both (a) and (b) diameter.
D. None of the above A. more
Answer: A B. equal
C. less
59. The process that explains the recent changes in D. they cannot be compared
the height of sea level in coastal areas of eastern and Answer: C
northern Canada and Scandinavi is
A. isostasy SECTION 4 of 7 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE - WORLD
B. continental drift GEOGRAPHY 1. The process that directs precipitation
C. plate tectonics down plant branches and stems is called
D. None of the above A. stem flow
Answer: A B. through flow
C. interception
60. The planet with the maximum number of natural D. canopy drip
satellites (moons), so far discovered is Answer: A
A. Jupiter
B. Neptune 2. The region of three W's that is wheat, wool and
C. Saturn wine is
D. Uranus A. mediterranean climatic regions
Answer: A B. china type climatic regions
C. steppe type climatic regions
61. The river Jordan drains into the D. equatorial regions
A. Dead Sea Answer: A
B. Adriatic Garden
C. Gulf of Suez 3. The process that creates a sub layer, which is
D. Resaca Garden white to gray in colour and composes of silica sand in
Answer: A the A horizon is called
A. podsolosation
62. The ratio of land to ocean in the southern B. calcification
hemisphere is C. laterisation
A. 1 to 1.5 D. gleisation
B. 1 to 1 Answer: A
C. 1 to 4
D. 1 to 10

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4. The ratio of the weight of water vapour to the D. phosphates
total weight of air (including the water vapor) is Answer: B
called
A. specific humidity 10. The panama canal links
B. mixing ratio A. Canada with Greenland
C. relative humidity B. North America with South America
D. absolute humidity C. Siberia with Greenland
Answer: A D. None of the above
Answer: B
5. The polar Easterlies lie at
A. 0-30? latitude 11. The Rhine river of northern Europe empties into
B. 30-60? latitude A. the Baltic sea
C. 60-90? latitude B. the North sea
D. 90? Latitude C. the Bay of Biscay
Answer: C D. the Adriatic sea
Answer: B
6. The phenomenon of an opening occurring in the
earth's surface through which a jet of hot water and 12. The place where material is excavated when the
steam is forces out at irregular intervals is called zone of maximum stream velocity approaches the
A. crater stream's bed is called
B. geyser A. scoured pools
C. hot spring B. riffles
D. volcano C. ox-bow lakes
Answer: B D. flood plain
Answer: A
7. The northern hemisphere and the southern
hemisphere are separated by 13. The planets called the inner planets, are
A. the International Date line A. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
B. the plane of the equator B. Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus
C. the plane of Tropic of Cancer C. Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
D. the plane of Tropic of Capricorn D. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
Answer: B Answer: D

8. The process of soil development is called 14. The periodic rise and fall of the sea level on the
A. leaching earth, gives rise to tides. This is related to
B. illuviation A. the position of the moon with reference to the
C. eluviations earth and the gravitational pull exerted mainly by th
D. pedogenesis B. infrared rays from the sun
Answer: D C. ultraviolet rays from the sun
D. None of the above
9. The phosphate are a group of minerals of one or Answer: A
more metallic elements chemically associated with
the phosphate compound ____ 15. The planets that are called superior planets are
A. oxides A. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars and Jupiter
B. silicates B. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto
C. carbonates C. Mercury, Pluto, Venus, Neptune and Earth

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D. Earth, Uranus, Mars, Saturn and Earth B. temperature gradient
D. Earth, Uranus, Mars, Saturn and Jupiter C. isotherm
Answer: B D. None of the above
Answer: B
16. The phenomenon associated with collision and
subduction of the planet is 22.The rate of infiltration normally declines rapidly
A. volcanoes during the early part of rainstorm event and reaches
B. island arcs a constant value after several hours of rainfall. The
C. earthquakes factors responsible for this phenomenon are
D. All of the above I. the filling of fine soil pores with water, which
Answer:D reduces capillary forces
II. moistened soil, clay particles to swell and reduce
17. The products of ____ are a major source of the size of pores
sediments for erosion and ____ III. raindrop impact breaking up with soil clumps,
A. weathering, deposition splashing fine particles into pores
B. deposition, weathering A. I, II
C. rocks, weathering B. I, III
D. rocks, deposition C. II, III
Answer: A D. All of the above
Answer: D
18. The polar regions of earth cannot support forest
growth because 23. The process where the particle moves from the
A. the growing season is short in these areas surface to the medium in quick, continuous,
B. the ground is often frozen or snow or ice covered repeated cycles is called
C. the rainfall is very low A. saltation
D. All of these factors. B. suspension
Answer: D C. traction
D. solution
19. The part of the earth and thin layer of air above Answer: A
its surface, which support life on earth, are referred
to as 24. The obscuring of one celestial body by another,
A. stratosphere particularly that of the sun or a planetary satellite
B. ionosphere A. elliptic
C. biosphere B. ecliptic
D. mesosphere C. eclipse
Answer: C D. None of the above
Answer: C
20. The ridges of the waves are where the jet stream
of waves closes to the 25. The process of destruction or dying of fronts is
A. poles called
B. equator A. fromtogenesis
C. prime meridian B. frontolysis
D. None of the above C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: A D. None of the above
21. The rate at change of temperature is called Answer: B
A. temperature difference

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26. The Palaeozoic era starts at ____ million years 32. Which of the following is concerned with the
ago and ends at ____ million years ago. description and mapping of the main features of the
A. 500, 100 universe?
B. 570, 225 A. Cosmography
C. 470, 150 B. Cosmology
D. 470, 225 C. Geomorphology
Answer: B D. None of these
Answer: A
27. The reaction is carbonate and bicarbonate ions
with mineral is called 33. The process that creates the deep oceanic
A. hydrolysis trenches is called
B. carbonation A. plate tectonics
C. oxidation B. sea floor spreading
D. solution C. continental drift
Answer: B D. isostasy
Answer: A
28. The plants grown in equatorial regions include 34. The rainfall in the peninsular interior averages
A. wheat, barley, maize about
B. evergreen dense forests, rubber trees, groundnuts A. 650 mm a year
C. groundnuts, soyabeens, potatoes B. 750 mm a year
D. evergreen coniferous forests, oats, cocoa C. 850 mm a year
Answer: B D. 550 mm a year
Answer: A
29. The process that may cause physical weathering
or mechanical rupture are 35. The Palaeozoic era contains ____ time periods.
A. abrasion, crystallization, pressure release A. six
B. abrasion, oxidation, hydrolysis B. four
C. crystallization, carbonation, thermal insolation C. five
D. None of the above D. seven
Answer: A Answer: A

30. The process of particle detach ment by moving 36. The ozone layer at high altitude contains
glacial ice is called A. atomic oxygen (O) and ordinary oxygen (O2)
A. plucking B. only ozone (O3)
B. abrasion C. mixture of atomic oxygen (O), ordinary oxygen
C. scouring (O2) and Ozone (O3)
D. None of the above D. only ordinary oxygen (O2)
Answer: A Answer: C

31. The points in the ecliptic farthest north and 37. The right ascension is the equivalent of longitude
south of the celestial equator are called on the celestial sphere, and it is given in the units of
A. summer and winter solstices A. degrees
B. autumnal and vernal equinox B. time-hours, minutes and seconds
C. north celestial pole and south celestial pole C. only hours
D. None of the above D. only seconds
Answer: A Answer: B

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38. The radiation belts are zones in space around the 44. The spring season in the north temperate zone is
A. Earth when
B. Jupiter and Saturn A. the sun is directly overhead the equator
C. Mercury B. the sun is directly overhead the Tropic of Cancer
D. Earth, Jupiter and Saturn C. the sun returns to equator
Answer: D D. the sun is at the Tropic of Cancer
Answer: A
39. The periods of different eras are further divided
into 45. The term 'Abyssal refers to
A. eons A. inner most part of the earth
B. epochs B. organism found in the shallow water zone of the
C. stages seas
D. Any of the above C. deeper parts of the oceans
Answer: C D. None of the above
Answer: C
40. The Plio-Pleistocene boundary lies about ____
years ago, at the beginning of the interval of 46. The transport of warm air toward the poles and
warming after the last Pleistocene glaciations. cold air toward the equator is due to
A. 1,00,000 A. the temperature gradient
B. 1,000 B. the development of waves
C. 10,000 C. the latitude difference
D. 100 D. the longitude difference
Answer: C Answer: B

41. The shape of earth is 47. The traditional lands of the nomads of Central
A. sphere Asia are
B. oblate spheroid A. Mongolia and Tibet
C. circular B. Sinkiang and Turkistan
D. spheroid C. Kirghiz steppe
Answer: B D. All of the above
Answer: D
42. The tertiary winds on the north of the Alps
(Europe) are called 48. The time interval from when the given star
A. the Chinook passes directly overhead to when it next passed
B. the foehn directly overhead, is defined as
C. the sirocco A. one sidereal day
D. the loo B. one solar day
Answer: B C. both the terms are similar, so any of these may be
used
43. The tropical easterlies wind lie at D. None of the above
A. 0-30? latitude Answer: A
B. 30-60? latitude
C. 60-90? latitude 49. The three recognized major fishing grounds of
D. 10-40? Latitude the world are located in the
Answer: A A. northern hemisphere only
B. southern hemisphere only

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C. two in the southern hemisphere only and one in A. ultisols
the northern hemisphere B. alfisols
D. one in the southern hemisphere only and two in C. aridsols
the northern hemisphere D. mollisols
Answer: A Answer: A

50. The variation in the duration of the day and the 55. southernmost part of the world is
night is due to earth's A. Cape of Good Hope, Africa
A. rotation on its axis B. Cape of Horn, S. America
B. revolution around the sun C. Colombo, Sri Lanka
C. inclination of an angle of 60(1/2) degrees D. Wellington, New Zealand
D. both (a) and (b) Answer: A
Answer: D
56. The texture of a soil refers to
51. The sulphites are a mineral group that contain A. the size distribution of the mineral particles
one or more metallic elements in combination with composing the soil
the sulphate compound ____ B. the distribution of mineral particles in the soil
A. SO3 C. the crystal distribution in soil
B. SO2 D. None of the above
C. SO4 Answer: A
D. SO
Answer: C 57. The steady or initial phase of the magnetic
storms is
52. The term 'flora' in the context of natural A. preceded by storm sudden commencement
vegetation refers to B. magnetic storm at middle and low altitudes
A. assemblage of plant species living in association C. a sharp increase of the field
with each other in a given environmental frame D. None of the above
B. plants of a particular region or period, listed by Answer: A
species and considered as a group
C. a large tract covered by trees and shrubs and its 58. The Suez canal connects the
administration for assessing economic benefits A. Baltic sea and the Caspian sea
D. role played by species of animals in the B. Mediterranean sea and the Red sea
maintenance of ecological balance C. Red sea and the Caspian sea
Answer: B D. Mediterranean sea and the North sea
Answer: B
53. Which of the following is concerned with the
study of characteristics, origin and development of 59. The uppermost epoch of the Neogene period is
land forms? A. the Pliocene epoch
A. Ecology B. the Pleistocen epoch
B. Geography C. the Miocene epoch
C. Geology D. the Oligocene epoch
D. Geomorphology Answer: A
Answer: D
60. The type of igneous rock that form from magma
54. The soils common to the south eastern USA are is a function of
called A. the chemical composition of the magma

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B. temperature of solidification SECTION 5 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE- WORLD
C. the rate of cooling, which influences the GEOGRAPHY
crystallisation process 1. The temperature needed to keep the earth's
D. All of the above surface and the atmosphere in thermal equilibrium is
Answer: D called
A. the surface temperature
61. The slow down slope movement of soil and B. equilibrium temperature
sediment because of frost heaving and thawing is C. the mean global surface temperature
called D. global temperature
A. solifluction Answer: C
B. gelifluction
C. frost creep 2. The short term variations of the atmosphere,
D. rockfall ranging from minutes to months are called
Answer: C A. climate
B. weather
62. The transverse, longitudinal and surface waves in C. temperature
an earthquake originate from D. humidity
A. the epicentre within the body of the earth Answer: B
B. the focus on the surface of the earth
C. the focus within the body of the earth 3. The tide produced as a consequence of the moon
D. the epicentre on the body of the earth and the sun pulling the earth in the same direction is
Answer: C called
A. ebb tide
63. The smallest country of the world is B. high tide
A. Russia C. spring tide
B. Vatican city D. neap tide
C. Brazil Answer: C
D. Canada
Answer: B 4. The tropical cyclones with maximum sustained
surface winds of 33 ms are called
64. The smallest annual temperature range occurs in A. tropical depressions
the B. tropical storms
A. equatorial tropical climate zone C. hurricane
B. subtropical climate zone D. None of the above
C. temperate climate zone Answer:C
D. polar climate zone
Answer: A 5. The typical soil of tropical region, formed by the
weathering of laterite rock, which promotes leaching
65. The South Frigid Zone is the region of the soil is
A. lying between 66(1/2)? south and 90? south A. laterite soils
B. lying between the Antarctic circle to the south B. black soil
pole C. red and yellow soil
C. has the coldest climate throughout the year D. peat and marshy soil
D. All of the above Answer: A
Answer: B

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6. The two 'equinoxes' take place respectively in the B. Mont Blane tunnel
months of C. Mersey (Queens way) tunnel
A. January and June D. Orange Fish rivers tunnel
B. July and December Answer: B
C. March and September
D. September and December 13. The sequence of layers of atmosphere from earth
Answer: C to upwards is
A. troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere,
7. The troughs of the waves are where the jet stream stratopause, mesosphere, mesopause,
of waves is closest to the ionosphere(thermosphere, thermopause,
A. poles exosphere)
B. equator B. troposphere, stratosphere, stratopause,
C. Prime meridian mesosphere , ionosphere
D. None of the above C. troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere,
Answer; B thermosphere, exosphere
D. troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere,
8. The study of soils is called mesosphere , exosphere, thermosphere,
A. geomorphology thermopause
B. pedology Answer: A
C. hydrology
D. biogeography 14. The sediment deposited at the base of the glacier
Answer: B is called
A. till
9. The tropical cyclones do not occur to the equator B. moraine
because of C. glacial sand
A. weak coriolis force D. None of the above
B. light and variable width Answer: A
C. excessive humidity
D. connective activity 15. The third world includes about 120 countries of
Answer: A A. Asia, Africa and Central America
B. Asia, Australia and Europe
10. The term 'regur' refers to C. Africa, North America
A. deltaic alluvial soils D. None of the above
B. lateral soils Answer: A
C. black cotton soils
D. red and yellow soils 16. The smallest division of geological time scale is
Answer: C A. eon
B. eras
11. The umbra is C. stage
A. the inner portion of the moon's shadow D. periods
B. formed by tangents to the sun and moon Answer: C
C. both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above 17. The various types of plate convergence is
Answer; C I. oceanic-oceanic convergence
12. The tunnel that connects France and Italy is II. oceanic-continental convergence
A. St. Gothard road tunnel III. continental-continental convergence

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A. I, II 23. The time interval between one vernal equinox
B. II, III and the next is nearest to which of the following
C. I, III figures?
D. All of the above A. 359 days
Answer: D B. 361 days
C. 363 days
18. The smallest state, population wise, in the world D. 365 days
is Answer: D
A. Vatican City
B. Monaco 24. Which of the following is measured on the
C. Nauru Richter scale?
D. Liechtenstein A. Density of liquids
Answer: A B. Intensity of earthquakes
C. Velocity of tornadoes
19. The time at a place is determined by D. Height of mountains
A. the parallels of longitude Answer: B
B. the parallels of latitude
C. distance from equator 25. The term used to describe the combined effect
D. distance from prime meridian of all shortwave losses in
Answer: A A. earth scattering
B. earth radiation
20.The tropical and temperate deserts of the world, C. earth albedo
occupy nearly ____ of the land surface of the worlds. D. None of the above
A. (1/4) th Answer; C
B. (1/3) rd
C. (1/2) 26. The time difference between each side of the
D. (1/7) th International Date line is
Answer: D A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
21. The shortest day (longest night) in the southern C. 36 hours
hemisphere is D. 48 hours
A. June 21 Answer: B
B. December 21
C. December 22 27.The soil used for cutting bricks, use in the
D. June 20 construction of houses is
Answer: A A. black soil
B. laterite soil
22. The smallest glaciers are C. alluvial soil
A. mountain or alpine glaciers D. saline and alkaline soils
B. continental glaciers Answer: B
C. piedmont glaciers
D. None of the above 28. The sidereal month may be defined as
Answer: A A. the period in which the moon completes an orbit
around the earth
B. the period in which the moon completes an orbit
around the earth and returns to the same positions i

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C. the period of rotation of moon 35. The soils whose parent material tend to be rich in
D. None of the above sand are
Answer: B A. spodsols
29. The shallow seas found in the Atlantic basin B. alfisols
include the C. aridsols
A. Caribbean sea and Mediterranean D. ultisols
B. Baltic and Arctic seas Answer: A
C. Gulf of Mexico
D. All of the above 36.The tide produced when the moon and the sun
Answer: D are at right angles to the earth, thus pulling in
30. The study of human geography includes study of opposite directions, is called
A. human society and culture A. neap tide
B. behaviour and urban systems B. spring tide
C. economics and politics C. diurnal tide
D. All of the above D. ebb tide
Answer; D Answer; A

31. The snow line of the Rocky Mountains of the USA 37. The soil found in areas of heavy rainfall and high
is about humidity, where there is good growth of vegetation
A. 3 km above sea level is
B. 6 km above sea level A. peat and marshy soil
C. it is at the sea level B. saline and alkaline soil
D. None of the above C. black soil
Answer: A D. alluvial soil
Answer: A
32. The study of day-to-day variations in weather
called is called 38. The thickness of biosphere is
A. climatology A. 8-10 km above the earth's surface
B. meteorology B. 5-8 km above the earth's surface
C. cyclogenesis C. 5-10 km above the earth's surface
D. None of the above D. 10-12 km above the earth's surface
Answer: B Answer: A

33. The type of soil needed for rice is 39. The temperature inversion is
A. clayey loam A. whenever the normal decrease of atmospheric
B. rich , muddy and saturated with water temperature
C. deep, loamy, well drained B. when the decrease in temperature or moisture or
D. humus, rich in Fe and potash both takes place
Answer: B C. whenever the normal decrease of atmospheric
34. The south temperature zone is a region lying temperature or moisture or both change with height
between over
A. the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic circle D. All of the above
B. the Antarctic circle and the South pole Answer: C
C. the Tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn
D. the Tropic of Capricorn and the equator
Answer: A

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40. Which of the following is most useful for 46. The storms or frontal systems develop where
measuring the shortest distance between two places A. air is rising
on the earth and path between them? B. atmospheric pressure is low
A. Atlas map C. at the equator and in the mid-latitudes
B. Thematic maps D. All of the above
C. Wall maps Answer: D
D. Globe
Answer: D 47. The subatomic particles arriving from outer
space having high energy are called
41. The second largest continent in the world is A. protons
A. Asia B. electrons
B. Australia C. cosmic rays
C. Africa D. None of the above
D. Europe Answer: C
Answer; C
48. The strongest bonds exist between the particles
42. southern Deccan area is in a rain shadow and found within
receives only A. metamorphic rocks
A. 50 to 1000 mm of rainfall a year B. igneous rocks
B. 100 to 200 mm of rainfall a year C. sedimentary rock
C. 200 to 400 mm of rainfall a year D. all have similar strength of bonds
D. 50 to 400 mm of rainfall a year Answer: B
Answer: A
49. The snow line on the northern side of greater
43. The underlying cause of bio diversity loss is Himalayas range about
A. poverty and unsustainable development projects A. 4,500 to 6,000 metres
B. macroeconomic policies B. 5,500 to 6,000 metres
C. international trade factors C. 3,500 to 6,000 metres
D. All of the above D. None of the above
Answer: D Answer: B

44. The temperature increases rapidly after 50. The unit of the light year is used for measuring
A. ionosphere A. speed of satellites
B. exosphere B. speed of ships
C. stratosphere C. distance between bodies in the universe
D. troposphere D. speed of rockets
Answer: A Answer: C

45. The spiral flow in a stream caused by channel 51. The tide of minimum rise is called
shape is called A. spring tide
A. stream flow B. low tide
B. laminar flow C. ebb tide
C. turbulent flow D. None of the above
D. helical flow Answer: B
Answer: D

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52. The second largest island (next to Greenland) in
the world is
A. Borneo
B. Malagasy
C. New Guinea
D. Sumatra
Answer: C

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