Most Repeated Topics Booklet-1 PDF

MOST REPEATED
TOPICS IN UPSC
PRELIMS
by LA EXCELLENCE
Compiled by
SASHI THAKUR
# 1-10-233/F, Ashok Nagar Extension, OPP. ICICI Direct,

Ashok Nagar X Roads, Hyderabad - 500 020. T.S.
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Importance of Solving Past Prelims Papers (1979-2017)
Topic: Rupee Convertibility
Q27. Convertibility of the rupee implies (1994 UPSC Prelims Paper

QUESTION)
(a ) Being able to convert rupee notes into gold
(b) Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by market forces
(c) Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major
currencies and vice versa
(d) Developing an international market for currencies in India
09. Convertibility of rupee implies (2015 UPSC Prelims Paper

QUESTION)
(a) Being able to convert rupee notes into gold
(b) Allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces
(c) Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies
and vice versa
(d) Developing an international market for currencies in India
2
Topic: Buddha-Places associated with him.
45. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of
the Buddha? (2014 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION)
1. Avanti 2. Gandhara
3. Kosala 4. Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only (a) 1, 3 and 4
14. Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the
Buddha? (2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION)
1. Avanti 2. Gandhara
3. Kosala 4. Magadha
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only
3
Topic: Montreal Protocol
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION

15. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control
and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Montreal Protocol (Answer)
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Nagoya Protocol
2001 UPSC Mains Paper Question

Q.11c. What does Montreal Protocol deal with? Discuss its role in
protecting earth's environment.

Q.8f(c) What is ozone pollution?

Q.10 Explain the phenomenon of ozone depletion, its causes and
effects? What effects are needed to reduce it?

Q.10a. What do you understand by depletion of ozone layer and why is it
considered harmful? Name ozone depleting substances and
processes, what international ramifications took place to protect the
ozone layer and what was the target agreed upon?
4
Topic: Congress Socialist Party

1. With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following
statements:
1) It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
2) It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
3) It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed
classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Different Questions asked on same topic - "Congress Socialist

Party" 1988 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
Q109. Which of the following statements are true of the Congress
Socialist Party?
(1) It was a forum for various kinds of Socialists in India.
(2) It was a rival organisation of Indian National Congress.
(3) It championed the cause of workers and peasants.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Q3. Who among the following was a prominent leader of the Congress
Socialist Party?
(a) M. N. Roy (b) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
(c) Pattam Thanu Pillai (d) Acharya Narendra Dev

Q5. Match the columns :
(A) M. N. Roy (i) Swarajist Party
(B) C. R. Das (ii) Hindustan Socialist Republican
Association
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad (iii) Congress Socialist Party
(D) Acharya Narendra (iv) Communist International
(a) A(iv) B(i) C(ii) D(iii) (b) A(ii) B(iii) C(i) D(iv)
(c) A(iii) B(ii) C(iv) D(i) (d) A(iv) B(iii) C(ii) D(i)
5
Topic: Bills passed by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2) A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed
by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item
in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect
is passed by the
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two thirds of its total
membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Raja Sabha by a majority of not less than two thirds of its
members present and voting

02. Consider the following statements:
1) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a
Money Bill.
2) The Rajya Sabha cannot vote the Demands for Grants.
3) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial
Statement.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “Rajya Sabha” -

YOU WILL FIND RAJYA SABHA IN ALMOST EVERY YEAR’s
QUESTION PAPER. I JUST PASTED FEW BELOW.
Q66. What is the power of Rajya Sabha regarding Money Bill?
(a) It can amend it (b) It can reject it
(c) It can withhold the bill for 14 days to make recommendations
(d) It has no power regarding Money Bill

Q86. Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha for
a period not exceeding
(a) 9 days (b) 14 days
(c) 15 days (d) 30 days

Q36. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 6 years (d) It is never dissolved

Q87. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha can be removed by a
resolution
(a) Passed by a two thirds majority of its total members at that time
(b) Passed by a simple majority of its total members at that time
(c) Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha
(d) None of the above

Q100. Representation of any State in Rajya Sabha, is according to
(a) Population of the State (b) Area of the State
(c) Fixed number of candidates for each State
(d) Number of representation in Lok Sabha from that State
7

80. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the
Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name
of a State
b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in
the State List and to create one or more All India Services
c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine
the pension of the President after his/her retirement
d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to
determine the number of Election Commissioners.

1. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya
Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not
accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for
reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Q106. Which one of the following correctly reflects the position of the Upper
House of the State legislature as compared to the position of the
Upper House of the Parliament?
(a) While one third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every
second year, onefourth of the members of the Legislative Council
retire every eighteen months
(b) There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly
and the Legislative Council in the States for resolving deadlocks while
there is such a provision in the case of the two Houses of Parliament
(c) While no Bill other than a Money Bill can originate in the State
Legislative Council, no Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha
(d) While Rajya Sabha has twelve nominated members, the State
Legislative Council has none.
8
Q117. Which is correct?

(a) Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before 5 years
(b) Rajya Sabha lasts only for 6 years
(c) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
(d) Life of Lok Sabha can be extended indefinitely

Q15. In which of the following legislatures can a nonmember be the
Presiding Officer ?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha (d) None of these

Q18. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is responsible to
(a) Rajya Sabha (this is not the answer)
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Lok Sabha
9
Topic: GOI 1919

03. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
(a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the
legislature
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
Different questions asked by UPSC in the past on the same

topic, “Government of India Act of 1919” in different ways.

77. Which of the following is/ are the principal feature(s) of the
Government of India Act, 1919?
1) Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the
provinces.
2) Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3) Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Q56. The DYARCHY as introduced by the Government of India Act,
1919 postulated which of the following ?
(a) A system of dual government in Bengal
(b) Backward classes were entitled to vote
(c) A few subjects were transferred to the Provincial Ministries and
the rest retained by the Executive Council
(d) Hindus and Muslims could vote separately
10
In the following questions the topic “Government of India Act,

1919 has just appeared in the options”
Q56. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the
first time in legislatures ?
(a) The Indian Councils Act. 1909
(b) The Indian Councils Act, 1919
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935

Q114. Which of the following pairs are correct
(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 — Provincial Autonomy
(2) The Government of Act, 1919 — Introduction of India Dyarchy
(3) The Government Act, 1935 — Proposal for a of India Federation
of India
(4) The Indian Act, 1947 — Provincial Independence Legislature
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Q107. Which of the following Acts was introduced by the Britishers to
remove the shortcomings of the Regulating Act ?
(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 (b) Rowlatt Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793 (d) Government of India Act 1919

Q68. The most shortlived of all of Britain’s constitutional experiments in
India was the
(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Government of India Act of 1919
11

Q28 The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:
(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) The Government of India Act, 1919
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

33. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the
Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provide in the
a) Morley Minto reforms 1909
b) Montagu Chelmsford act 1919
c) Govt. of India act, 1935
d) Indian independence act 1947

39. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon
Commission because
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of
1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy
(Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country.
12
Topic : GOI ACT, 1919

03. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
(a) The separation of power between the judiciary and the
legislature
(b) The jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
(c) The powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
Different questions asked by UPSC in the past on the same

topic, “Government of India Act of 1919” in different ways.
77. Which of the following is/ are the principal feature(s) of the
Government of India Act, 1919?
1) Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the
provinces.
2) Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3) Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces


Q56. The DYARCHY as introduced by the Government of India Act,
1919 postulated which of the following ?
(a) A system of dual government in Bengal
(b) Backward classes were entitled to vote
(c) A few subjects were transferred to the Provincial Ministries and
the rest retained by the Executive Council
(d) Hindus and Muslims could vote separately
13
In the following questions the topic “Government of India Act,

1919 has just appeared in the options”
Q56. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the
first time in legislatures?
(a) The Indian Councils Act. 1909
(b) The Indian Councils Act, 1919

Q114. Which of the following pairs are correct
(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 — Provincial Autonomy
(2) The Government of Act, 1919 — Introduction of India Dyarchy
(3) The Government Act, 1935 — Proposal for a of India Federation
of India
(4) The Indian Act, 1947 — Provincial Independence Legislature
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Q107. Which of the following Acts was introduced by the Britishers to
remove the shortcomings of the Regulating Act?
(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 (b) Rowlatt Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793 (d) Government of India Act 1919

Q68. The most shortlived of all of Britain’s constitutional experiments in
India was the
(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Government of India Act of 1919
14

Q28 The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:
(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) The Government of India Act, 1919
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

33. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the
Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provide in the
a) Morley Minto reforms 1909
b) Montagu Chelmsford act 1919
c) Govt. of India act, 1935
d) Indian independence act 1947

39. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon
Commission because
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of
1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy
(Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) There was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d) The Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country.
15
TOPIC: GOLAN HEIGHTS

08. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the
news in the context of the events related to
a) Central Asia b) Middle East
c) South-East Asia d) Central Africa

Q136. “Golan Heights” belonging to country “A” were captured by a
country “B”. Which of the following are “A” and “B” respectively?
(a) Syria and Israel (b) Israel and Syria
(c) Syria and Egypt (d) Egypt and Israel
16
TOPIC: DUGONG

94. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1) It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2) It is found along the entire coast of India.
3) It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
2009 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (Different question on

same topic)
74. The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction
is:
(a) Amphibian (b) Bony fish
(c) Shark (d) Mammal
17
TOPIC: JOINT SITTING

12. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the
Parliament, it has to be passed by
(a) A simple majority of members present and voting
(b) Three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) Two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) Absolute majority of the Houses

same topic)
Q76. In which case a joint session of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
is convened by the President?
(a) When a Finance Bill is to be passed by the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha with 2/3rd majority
(b) To impeach the President
(c) If after a bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to
the other House and the bill is rejected by the other House
(d) All of the above

same topic)
7. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha calls for a
joint sitting of the parliament during the passage of
1) Ordinary legislation 2) Money bill
3) Constitution amendment bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1) 1 only 2) 2 and 3 only
3) 1 and 3 only 4) 1,2 and 3
UPSC has also asked questions on MONEY BILL so many

times. See below
1979
Q66. What is the power of Rajya Sabha regarding Money Bill?
(a) It can amend it (b) It can reject it
(c) It can withhold the bill for 14 days to make recommendations
(d) It has no power regarding Money Bill
18
1980
Q86. Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha
for a period not exceeding
(a) 9 days (b) 14 days
(c) 15 days (d) 30 days
1982
Q19. When a money bill is passed by the Parliament, the President has
the power to
(a) Amend it (b) Reject it
(c) Kept it with him (d) Return it for reconsideration
1984
Q04. Who decides whether a Bill is a ‘Money Bill’ or not?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) President
(c) Prime Minister (d) Vice President
1989
Q56. No money bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly
without there commendations of the
(a) Speaker (b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister (d) Finance Minister
2000
Q59. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not
correct?
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by Lok
Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to Lok Sabha for
reconsideration
19
2013
01. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the
Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not
accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for
reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
UPSC has also asked questions on Passage of Bills so many

times. See below 1987
Q96. A Parliamentary bill passed by the Lok Sabha is sent to the
President for assent. The President sends it back to Lok Sabha for
reconsideration. If the Lok Sabha again sends it back to the
President without making any changes, the President
(a) Must give his assent to it
(b) Can again send the bill for reconsideration
(c) Can take help of the Supreme Court
(d) Can arrange referendum
2003
Q66. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of
the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill (b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill (d) Constitution Amendment Bill
20
TOPIC: CLASSIAL LANGUAGES

50. Which one of the following was given classical language status
recently?
(a) Odia (b) Konkani
(c) Bhojpuri (d) Assamese

same topic)
88. Consider the following languages:
1) Gujarati 2) Kannada
3) Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as 'Classical
Language / Languages' by the Government?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
21
TOPIC : INDIAN REMOTE SENSING SATELLITES

46. In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing
(IRS) satellites used?
1) Assessment of crop productivity
2) Locating groundwater resources
3) Mineral exploration
4) Telecommunications
5) Traffic studies
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q3a. What is remote sensing? What are its uses especially in the Indian
context?

Q6c. What is remote sensing? Describe the status of remote sensing in
India.
22
TOPIC : BASEL III

40. ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III′, often seen in the news,
seeks to
(a) Develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable
use of biological diversity
(b) Improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and
economic stress and improve risk management
(c) Reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier
burden on developed countries
(d) Transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries
to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in
refrigeration with harmless chemicals
same topic)
113. Basel II relates to which one of the following?

(a) International standards for safety in civil aviation
(b) measures against cyber crimes
(c) Measures against drug abuse by sports persons
(d) International standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank’s
capital.
23
TOPIC: WESTERLIES
41. Consider the following statements: (2015 UPSC Prelims Paper

QUESTION)
1) The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes
throughout the year are known as westerlies.
2) The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western
region of India are part of westerlies.

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
DIFFERENT QUESTION ON SAME TOPIC “Westerlies”.

59. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent
than in northern hemisphere. Why ?
1) Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to
northern hemisphere.
2) Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to
northern hemisphere.

24
TOPIC : NANO TECHNOLOGY

98. With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nano-technology.
2) Nano-technology can largely contribute to gene therapy.


Q10b. Explain how nano-science and nano-technology have
revolutionized modern technology. (30 marks)

Q9b. What is 'nanotech'? Give a brief account of its basic concepts,
materials used and applications. (10 marks)
All these questions you can find on page 89 (printed on top of

page) of this pdf.
Mains past papers topic-wise (below link)
https://drive.google.com/file/d/0Bzf3Puazcx04MVZTcHp4SEhXQU
U/view?usp=sharing 2014 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
(Different question on same topic)
18. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some

chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture
of various products. Why?
1) They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water
and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
25
TOPIC : WELFARE STATE
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (Repeated as it is. )

64. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined
in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule

Q12. The concept of welfare state is included in the Constitution of India
in
(a) Preamble (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fourth Schedule
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
26
TOPIC: FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (Repeated as it is)

58. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India”
is a provision made in the
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights (d) Fundamental Duties
1982 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (Repeated as it is)

Q44. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, a
provision has been made in the
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Preamble to the Constitution
(c) Fundamental Duties (d) Fundamental Rights
Different questions on same topic, “Fundamental Duties”

Q86. Which of the following is not included in the list of

Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
(a) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(b) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of
India
(c) Secularism
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

Q76. By which Amendment to the Constitution, the Fundamental Duties
of the citizens were specified?
(a) 38th (b) 40th
(c) 42nd (d) 44th
27

99. Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a
fundamental duty?
(a) To vote in public elections.
(b) To develop the scientific temper.
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals.

9. Which of the following is/ are among the fundamental Duties of
citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2) To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and
collective activity.

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
28
TOPIC : GANGA DOLPHIN

100. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
(a) Saltwater crocodile (b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin (d) Gharial
DIFFERENT QUESTION ON SAME TOPIC “Ganga Dolphin”

94. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline
in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?
1) Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2) Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
3) Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4) Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in
cropfields in the vicinity of rivers
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29
TOPIC: INDEX OF EIGHT CORE INDUSTRIES

83. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following
is given the highest weight?
(a) Coal production (b) Electricity generation
(c) Fertilizer production (d) Steel production
DIFFERENT QUESTION ON SAME TOPIC “Index of Eight Core

Industries”
89. In India the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of
Eighth Core Industries have combined weight of 37.90%. Which
of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?
1) Cement 2) Fertilizers
3) Natural Gas 4) Refinery products
5) Textiles

a) 1 and 5 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
30
TOPIC: INDIA and World Map based questions

14. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1) The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra
but it flows through Sikkim.
2) River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river
Teesta.
3) River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and
Bangladesh.

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1) Jordan 2) Iraq
3) Lebanon 4) Syria

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
16. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

(a) Sumatra (b) Borneo
(c) Java (d) Sri Lanka
17. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following
assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern
Ghats and the Western Ghats?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
31

1) In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2) Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3) Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) l and 3 only
19. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the

minimum number of States within India through which you can
travel, including the origin and the destination?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
20. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and
watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the
shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore. twice a
day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water
recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
(a) Bhavnagar (b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur (d) Nagapattinam

44. Consider the following pairs Community sometimes In the
affairs of mentioned in the news
1) Kurd : Bangladesh 2) Madhesi : Nepal
3) Rohingya : Myanmar
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

95. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation
Council’?
(a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Oman (d) Kuwait
32

97. ‘Belt and Road Initiative' is sometimes mentioned in the news in the
context of the affairs of
(a) African Union (b) Brazil
(c) European Union (d) China

81. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the
easternmost and westernmost State?)
(a) Assam and Rajasthan
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Assam and Gujarat
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

11. Consider the following rivers :
1) Vamsadhara 2) lndravati
3) Pranahita 4) Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari? (INDIA Map based

question)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “India Map”

25. Consider the following rivers: (INDIA Map based question)
1) Barak 2) Lohit
3) Subansiri
Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
33

28. Consider the following pairs : (INDIA Map based question)
Hills : Region
1) Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast
2) Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast
3) Mahadeo Hills Central India
4) Mikir Hills North-East India
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(e) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

77. Consider the following pairs : (INDIA Map based question)
National Highway Cities connected
1) NH 4 : Chennai and Hyderabad
2) NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata
3) NH 15 : Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

83. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each
other by the 'Ten Degree Channel'? (INDIA Map based question)
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java

32. Consider the following pairs (INDIA Map based question)
National Park River flowing through the Park
1) Corbett National Park : Ganga
2) Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3) Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri

(c) 1 and 3 (d) None
34
2012 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (INDIA Map based

question)
93. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:
1) It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern
Rajasthan.
2) It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3) Over 12% of the forest over constitutes Protected Area Network
in this State.
Which one among the following States has all the above
characteristics?
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Assam
c) Himachal Pradesh d) Uttarakhand

question)
27. Two important rivers one with its source in Jharkhand (and known
by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in
Odisha merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of
Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site
of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the
following could be this?
(a) Bhitarkanika (b) Chandipuronsea.
(c) Gopalpuronsea (d) Simlipal.

question)
83. A state in India has the following characteristics:
1) Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2) Its central part produces cotton.
3) Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above

characteristics?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
Cross Check from the below link
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BxkQmyYIKVgAfmVGNVZMVXlRY2R
NcTNVZ19yYmJmdEhZal9fWDlNOFZtbmtFN3d3NlEwUXM Tomorrow –
Another similar question or topic repeated by UPSC from past
papers.
35
TOPIC : CLIMATE AND RAINFALL

TYPE OF QUESTION - "IDENTIFY THE REGION ON THE
CLIMATIC CHARACTERISTICS GIVEN" or "VICE VERSA"
55. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright
with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts
up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning.
But rain is soon over.” Which of the following regions is described
in the above passage?
(a) Savannah (b) Equatorial
(c) Monsoon (d) Mediterranean
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC

23. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
(a) Equatorial climate (b) Mediterranean climate
(e) Monsoon climate (d) All of the above climates

65. "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be
nomadic herders." The above statement best describes which of
the following regions?
(a) African Savannah (b) Central Asian Steppe
(c) North American Prairie (d) Siberian Tundra

39. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the
Tropical Savannah Region?
a) Rainfall throughout the year b) Rainfall in winter only
c) An extremely short dry season a) A definite dry and wet season

36. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
1) Warm and dry climate 2) Mild and wet winter.
3) Evergreen oak trees.
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of
the following regions?
(a) Mediterranean (b) Eastern China
(c) Central Asia (d) Atlantic coast of North America
36
TOPIC : RBI

65. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Scheme
for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed
Assets (S4A)', recently seen in the news?
(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of
developmental schemes formulated by the Goverment.
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big
corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central
Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in 'The Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code' recently implemented by the Government.

97. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity
Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?
(a) India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically
(b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our
country
(c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates
(d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system
Different Questions asked on same topic - " Reserve Bank of

India"
42. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in

matters of
1) Liquidity of assets 2) Branch expansion
3) Merger of banks 4) Winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37
25. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This
would imply which of the following?
1) Other bank retains their deposits with the RBI.
2) The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3) The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
a) 2 and 3 only b )1 and 2 only
c ) 1 and 3 only d )1, 2 and 3

58. The lowering of bank rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to?
(a) More liquidity in the market
(b) Less liquidity in the market.
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market.
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks.

81. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the
Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?
(a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend.
(b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend.
(c) The Union Government will have less money to lend.
(d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend.

Q54. Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of
India :
I) It is a banker to the Central Government.
II) It formulates and administers monetary policy.
III) It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India’s
membership of IMF.
IV) It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and II (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) III and IV
38

Q87. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is
(a) April-March (b) July-June
(c) October-September (d) January-December
Q13. Which one of the following functions of the Reserve Bank of India
is not performed by the other banks?
(a) Making advances to agriculturists
(b) Dealing in foreign exchange
(c) Industrial Refinancing
(d) Acting as the banker to the Government

Q95. Which one of the following is NOT an affiliate of the Reserve Bank
of India?
(a) Agricultural Refinance Corporation
(b) Deposit Insurance Corporation
(c) The Industrial Development Bank of India
(d) Unit Trust of India

Q146. The Reserve Bank of India was established in
(a) 1935 (b) 1947
(c) 1952 (d) 1969
39
TOPIC: ROWLATT ACT

91. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1) The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the
‘Sedition Committee’.
2) In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule
League.
3) Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission
coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

20. The Rowlatt Act aimed at
a) Compulsory economic support to war efforts
b) Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
c) Suppression of the khilafat movement
d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

88. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse
popular indignation?
A) It curtailed the freedom of religion
B) It suppressed the Indian traditional education
C) It authorized the government to imprison people without trial
D) It curbed the trade union activities
2008 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION 112. Who was the Viceroy
of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?
(a) Lord Irwin (b) Lord Reading
(c) Lord Chelmsford (d) Lord Wavell
40

50. Which one of the following aroused a wave of popular indignation
that led to the massacare by the British at Jallianwala Bagh?
(a) The arms Act (b) The Public Safety Act
(c) The Rowlatt Act (d) The Vernacular Press Act

Q38. Which important event immediately preceded Jallianwala Bagh
massacare ?
(a) Rowlatt Act enactment
(b) Communal award
(c) Coming of Simon Commission
(d) Quit India Movement
1997 UPSC MAINS QUESTION

Q.4b. What do you know about Rowlatt Act ? (2 marks)
41
TOPIC: PANCHAYATI RAJ

60. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure
which among the following?
1) People’s participation in development
2) Political accountability
3) Democratic decentralization 4) Financial mobilization

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. The constitution (seventythird amendment) Act, 1992, which aims
at promoting the Panchayati Raj institutions in the country,
provides for which of the following?
1) Constitution of district planning committees.
2) State election commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3) Establishment of state finance commission.
State the correct answer using the codes given below :

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

39. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
A) 1 month B) 3 months
C) 6 months D) 1 year

Q68. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the
(a) Generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the
underemployed men and women in rural area
(b) Generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in
need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) Laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj
Institutions in the country (Answer)
(d) Guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality
before law and equal protection without discrimination
42

Q6. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several
fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following
is not one such provision ?
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture,
rural development, primary education and social forestry among
others.
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they
are due.
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a
third of the strength.
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to
ensure their punctuality and accountability.

Q64. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka

Q20. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be
reserved for women candidates at all levels
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate
resources to Panchayati Raj Institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to
hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj
bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government

Q60. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup?
(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level (b) Two
tier system of local self government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self government, at the village, block and
district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village, block, district
and state levels
43

Q102. Holding of election for the Panchayats is decided by
(a) The District Magistrate (b) Constitutional mandate
(c) The State government (d) The Election Commission

Q50. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the States of Rajasthan
and
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat (d) Orissa

Q37. Of the various sources of income to the Gram Panchayats, one
source is
(a) Income tax (b) Sales tax
(c) Professional tax (d) Levy duties

Q149. Holdingof elections for the Panchayats is decided by
(a) The District Magistrate (b) Constitutional mandate
(c) The State Government (d) The Election Commission

Q53. Assertion (A) : Panchayati Raj institutions were set upto
decentralise planning to village level.
Reason (R) : Village panchayats are in a better position to have a
proper appreciation of their developmental needs.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d)A is false but R is true

Q51. Which of the following States are not covered by the Panchayati
Raj ?
(a) Tripura and Sikkim (b) Manipur and Assam
(c) Meghalaya and Nagaland (d) Assam and West Bengal
44

Q76. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the States of Rajasthan
and
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat (d) Haryana

Q79. Panchayati Raj system was adopted to
(a) Make people aware of politics
(b) Decentralise the power of democracy
(c) Educate the peasants
(d) To introduce a form of local selfgovernment at the village, block
and district levels

Q47. The maximum revenue source of village panchayats is
(a) Government grants (b) Sales tax
(c) Voluntary help by village cooperatives
(d) Local taxes on lands, fairs and festivals

Q107. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at
(a) Rural employment
(b) Agricultural and rural industries development
(c) Political awareness among village people
(d) Giving training to villagers for fighting elections

Q30. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year
(a) 1948 (b) 1959
(c) 1951 (d) 1952

Q198. Which of the following States has no Panchayati Raj setup ?
(a) Nagaland (b) Assam
(c) Kerala (d) West Bengal
45
Also, in UPSC Mains Papers, 9 questions have been asked

from the topic PANCHAYATI RAJ / LOCAL SELF
GOVERNMENT in the following years – 1981, 1983, 1985, 1993,
1998, 2002, 2004 and 2005, 2009.
TOPIC : DPSP
82. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive
Principles of State Policy:
1) The Principles spell out the socioeconomic democracy in the
country.
2) The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable
by any court.

56. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of
State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1) Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2) Organising village panchayats
3) Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4) Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural
opportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected
in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

86. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles
of State policy?
1) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2) Prohibition of Consumption except for medicinal purposes of
intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
46

Q57. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of
State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and
security?
(a) 51 (b) 48 A
(c) 43 A (d) 41

Q44. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State
Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:
(a) political democracy (b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy (d) social and economic democracy

Q49. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been given
precedence over Fundamental Rights in the .... Constitutional
Amendment
(a) 41st (b) 42nd
(c) 43rd (d) 45th

Q55. Directive Principles of State Policy are included in which part of
the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part IV (b) Part III
(c) Part II (d) Part I

Q50. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive
Principles over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 36th Amendment (b) 38th Amendment
(c) 40th Amendment (d) 42nd Amendment
Also, in UPSC Mains Papers, 10 questions have been asked

from the topic Directive Principles of State Policy in the
following years – 1979, 1984, 1985, 1987, 1992, 1995, 1998,
1999, 2001, 2002, 2004 and 2005, 2009. All these questions you
can find on page 31 (printed on top of page) of this pdf.
Mains past papers topic-wise 1979 - 2014 (below link).
47
TOPIC : INFLATION

62. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the
Government of India only
(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
(c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
(d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
Different questions asked in the past on same topic, “inflation”

84. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its
effect?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

66. Consider the following statements :
1) Inflation benefits the debtors.
2) Inflation benefits the bondholders.


28. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to
the “ base effect”. What is “base effect”?
(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of
crops.
(b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic
growth.
(c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the
calculation of inflation rate.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in
this context.
48

Q67. In India, inflation is measured by the
(a) Wholesale Price Index Number
(b) Consumers Price Index for urban non manual workers
(c) Consumers Price Index for agricultural workers
(d) National Income deflation

Q35. Which one of the following governmental steps has proved
relatively effective in controlling the double digit rate of inflation in
the Indian economy during recent years ?
(a) Enhanced rate of production of all consumer goods
(b) Streamlined public distribution system
(c) Pursuing an export oriented strategy
(d) Containing budgetary deficits and unproductive expenditure

Q49. A zero rate of Inflation obtains necessarily in a year where the
annual rate of inflation
(a) in every week of the year is zero
(b) is falling in every week of the year
(c) is both falling and rising in a year
(d) is constant in every week of the year

Q76. Inflation tends to reduce the share of labour in the GNP (Gross
National Product) because
(a) Wages lag behind prices (b) Prices lag behind wages
(c) Profits lag behind prices (d) Profits lag behind wages

Q70. Who among the following is most benefitted from inflation ?
(a) Creditors (b) Debtors
(c) Savings bank account holders
(d) Government pensioners
49

Q10. The rate of inflation in India in 1981 - 82 went down to the extent
of approximately
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 14% (d) 16%

Q100. Temporary control of inflation can be effected by
(a) Increasing the prices (b) Increasing the taxes
(c) Restraint on the growth (d) Reducing the prices

Q69. Cause of inflation is
(a) Increase in money supply
(b) Fall in production
(c) Increase in money supply and fall in production
(d) Decrease in money supply and fall in production
50
TOPIC : TIDES

45. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the
following?
1) Gravitational force of the Sun
2) Gravitational force of the Moon
3) Centrifugal force of the Earth

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Different questions asked in the past on same topic, “Tides”

Q66. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides.
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the
open sea by a narrow channel.
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow
estuary of a river.
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooghly is of crucial
importance to Kolkata as port.

Q32. Assertion (A): During the Neap Tides, the high tide is lower and the
low tide is higher than usual.
Reason (R): The Neap Tide, unlike the Spring Tide, occurs on the
New Moon instead of on the Full Moon.
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true
51

Q12. Consider the following statements :
I) Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing.
II) High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely.
III) Tide prevents siltation in the harbours.
IV) Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports.

(a) I and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV

Q4. Neap tides are produced in the first and third quarters of the Moon.
Then,
(a) The Moon and the Sun are in conjunction with the other planets
(b) The Moon and the Sun are in opposition with each other
(c) The attractions of the Sun and the Moon are at right angles to
each other
(d) The Moon and the Sun are in quadrant position to each other

Q72. High tides at antipodes are caused due to
(a) Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun
(b) Gravitational pull of the sun
(c) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun
(d) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun and the
moon

Q70. Consider the diagrams below :
The above diagrams show the position of the Earth, the Moon and
the Sun where
(a) Only situation A explains the spring tides.
(b) Only situation B explains the spring tides.
(c) Both situations A and B explain the spring tides.
52
TOPIC : LEGISLATIVE COUNCIL OF STATE
57. Consider the following statements : (2015 UPSC Prelims Paper

QUESTION)
1) The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size
than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2) The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative
Council of that particular State.

Different questions asked in the past on same topic, “State

Legislture” 2008 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
The Constitution of India Provides that
1) The Legislative Assembly of each State shall Consist of not
more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial
constituencies in the State
2) A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the
Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of
age.


7. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the
size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must
not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok
Sabha and the total numbers of members of the Legislative
Assembly of that state, respectively?
(a) 91 st (b) 93 rd
(c) 95 th (d) 97 th
53

Q98. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate
who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multimember constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very
marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election

Q106. Which one of the following correctly reflects the position of the
Upper House of the State legislature as compared to the position
of the Upper House of the Parliament?
(a) While one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every
second year, one-fourth of the members of the Legislative Council
retire every eighteen months
(b) There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative
Assembly and the Legislative Council in the States for resolving
deadlocks while there is such a provision in the case of the two
Houses of Parliament
(c) While no Bill other than a Money Bill can originate in the State
Legislative Council, no Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha
(d) While Rajya Sabha has twelve nominated members, the State
Legislative Council has none

Q20. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides to
resign, he should submit his resignation to the
(a) Chief Minister (b) Governor
(c) Judge of the High Court (d) President
54

Q92. What is the minimum percentage of the strength of opposition
required in a State legislature for the appointment of an opposition
leader?
(a) 20% (b) 25%
(c) 40% (d) None of the above

Q19. A certain bill was passed by a State legislature in August 1982 but
did not receive the assent of the State Governor. It was
(a) Bihar Press Bill
(b) Jammu & Kashmir Resettlement Bill
(c) Tamil Nadu Press bill
(d) Orissa Land Reforms Bill

Q103. Which of the following States in India has no Legislative
Council?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal (d) Maharashtra
55
TOPIC : BUDGET DEFICIT
28. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which
action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to
reduce the deficit?
1) Reducing revenue expenditure
2) Introducing new welfare schemes
3) Rationalizing subsidies 4) Reducing import duty

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce
the deficit?
3) Rationalizing subsidies 4) Expanding industries

(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Different questions on same topic, “Budget Deficit” 2001 UPSC

Prelims Paper QUESTION
Q73 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I (Term) List II (Explanation)
I) Fiscal deficit (A) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total
Receipts
II) Budget deficit (B) Excess of Revenue Expenditure over
Revenue Receipts
56
III) Revenue deficit (C) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total

Receipts less borrowings
IV) Primary deficit (D) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total
Receipts less borrowings and Interest
Payments
Codes:
(a) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D (b) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(c) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D (d) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B

Q139. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrect ?
I ) Consumer Price Index : Inflation
II ) Export concessions : Fiscal policy
III ) Imposition of taxes : Economic planning
IV ) Income : Standard of living
V ) Deficit budgeting : Inflation
(a) I and V (b) II and III
(c) III and V (d) None of (a), (b) and (c) is a correct answer
Cross Check from the below link (Prelims Past Papers 1979 –
2015) https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BxkQmyYIKVgAfmV
GNVZMVXlRY2RNcTNVZ19yYmJmdEhZal9fWDlNOFZtbmtFN3d3
NlEwUXM

Q.8e. (a) How is revenue deficit different from budgetary deficit ? 3
marks. You can find this question on page 49 (printed on top
of page) of this pdf.
Mains past papers topic-wise (below link) https://drive.
google.com/file/d/0Bzf3Puazcx04MVZTcHp4SEhXQUU/view?usp=
sharing
Tomorrow – Another similar question or topic repeated by

UPSC from past papers.
57
TOPIC : FINANCE COMMISSION

77. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1) It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool
from 32 percent to 42 percent.
2) It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Different questions on same topic, “Finance Commission”

83. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the
recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
1) A design for the Goods and Services package linked to
adherence to the proposed design.
2) A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in
consonance with India’s demographic dividend
3) Devolution of a specific share of central taxes to local bodies as
grants


100. With reference to the finance commission of India, which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure
development.
(b) It facilities the proper distribution of finances among the public
section undertakings.
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in
his context.
58

76. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by
the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of
Parliament?
(a) The President of India (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Union Finance Minister

Q73 Consider the following statements:
The function (S) of the Finance Commission is/are
1) To allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund
of India.
2) To allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3) To consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4) To supervise and report on whether the Union and State
governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary
provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

Q10 The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
(a) Distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) Prepare the Annual Budget
(c) Advise the President on financial matters
(d) Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State
Governments

Q110 The main objective of the Eighth Finance Commission was
(a) To suggest new pay scales for Central and State government
employees
(b) To suggest measures to increase tax income to the government
(c) To suggest the basis of distribution of Income tax, Excise duties
and Levy duties proceeds between various States
(d) To suggest the basis of providing financial help/assistance to
small scale industries
59

Q129. Assertion (A): Finance Commission aims to safeguard the fiscal
autonomy of the States.
Reason (R): Finance Commission is constituted every fifth year.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correctexplanation of A
c) A is true but R is false d) A is false but R is true

Q48. Finance Commission is appointed for
(a) Passing the money bills (b) Approving money bills
(c) Drafting the budget
(d) Making recommendations to the President regarding the
distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds
of the taxes

Q79. Finance Commission is appointed after every
(a) 2 years (b) 5 years
(c) 7 years (d) 10 years
2015) https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BxkQmyYIKVgAfm
VGNVZMVXlRY2RNcTNVZ19yYmJmdEhZal9fWDlNOFZtbmtFN3d
3NlEwUXM

Q7. Discuss the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance
Commission which have been departure from the previous
commissions for strengthening the local government finances. 10
marks / 200 words

Q.8b What is a Finance Commission? Discuss the main functions of a
State Finance Commission. 150 words / 15 marks

Q.4a Write short note on Finance Commission. 150 words / 20 marks.
60
TOPIC : PRIME MINISTER

1) The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the
“Prime Minister”.
2) The “Prime Minister” is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil
Services Board.

Different questions on same topic, “Prime Minister”

03. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/ her appointment
1) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within
six months
2) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six
months
3) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the parliament
4) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha

54. With reference to Union Government consider the following
statements:
1) The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are
created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet
Secretary.
2) Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President
of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A) 1 only B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
61

Q55. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of
Parliament
(a) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a
noconfidence motion
(b) He will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
(c) He can make statements only on the Upper House
(d) He has to become a member of the Lower House within six
months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister

Q69. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Prime Minister of India
(a) Is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are
members of either House of the Parliament
(b) Can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the
President of India in this regard
(c) Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as
ministers in his cabinet
(d) Has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues
because of the discretionary power vested with the President of
India.
62
TOPIC : SUPREME COURT

36. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of
India?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India (Answer)
Different questions on same topic, “Supreme Court”

75. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court
of India is vested in
(a) The President of India (b) The Parliament
(c) The Chief Justice of India (e) The Law Commission

71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes
between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) Advisory jurisdiction (b) Appellate jurisdiction.
(c) Original jurisdiction (d) Writ jurisdiction

60. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court?
1) Dispute between the Government of India and one or more
States
2) A dispute regarding elections to either House of the parliament
or that of Legislature of a State
3) A dispute between the Government of India and Union Territory
4) A disputes between two or more States.

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4 d) 3 and 4
63

10. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the supreme
court of India?
1) While appointing the Supreme Court judges, the president of
India has to consult the CJI.
2) The SC judges can be removed by the CJI only
3) The salaries of judges are charged on the consolidated fund of
India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4) All appointments of officers and staffs of the SC are made by the
govt only after CJI

a) 1 and 3 only b) 3 and 4 only
c) 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

130. Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India
tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact.
1) On its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2) If he seeks such an advice.
3) Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the
citizens.

(c) 3 (d) 1 and 2

Q9. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of
Legislative Powers rests with
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, justice and Company Affairs
64

Q69. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a
matter of law or fact
(a) On its own initative (b) Only if he seeks such advice
(c) Only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the
country.

Q26. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes
between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) Advisory jurisdiction (b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Original jurisdiction (d) Constitutional jurisdiction

Q34. Which of the following statements regarding the advisory
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct ?
I) It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any
matter referred to it by the President.
II) The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made
to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
III) The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under
advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.
IV) Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the
Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
Select the answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) II and IV
65

Q40. The appointment of the Judges of Supreme Court is done by
(a) The Prime Minister on the advice of the Union Cabinet
(b) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(c) The Prime Minister in consultation with the Chief Justice
(d) The President in consultation with the Law Commission of India
2015) https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BxkQmyYIKVgAfmV
GNVZMVXlRY2RNcTNVZ19yYmJmdEhZal9fWDlNOFZtbmtFN3d3
NlEwUXM

Q.1b What is the position of the Supreme Court under the Constitution
of India? Discuss its role as the guardian of the Constitution? . 40
marks / 250 words

Q.7a What is the position of the Supreme Court under the Constitution
of India? How far does it play its role as the guardian of the
Constitution?. 30 marks / 250 words

Q.4 The Supreme Court of India keeps a check on the arbitrary power
of the Parliament to amend the constitution. Discuss critically. 150
words / 20 marks.
66
TOPIC : COUNCIL OF MINISTERS

small difference
66. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because
the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

small difference
Q103. India has Parliamentary democracy system because
(a) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the public
(b) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature
(c) Of distribution of power between the Centre and the States
(d) Of a single constitutional framework
Different questions on same topic, “Council of Ministers” 1980

UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
Q81. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is responsible to the
(a) Parliament (b) President
(c) Prime Minister (d) Chief Justice

Q18. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is responsible to
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Prime Minister
(c) President (d) Lok Sabha
67

146. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is
collectively responsible both to the lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The Member of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is True but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

1) The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively
responsible to the Parliament.
2) The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of
the President of India.
3) The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the
proposals for Iegislation.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
VGNVZM VXlRY2RNcTNVZ19yYmJmdEhZal9fWDlNOFZtbmt
FN3d3 NlEwUXM

Q.7k. To what authority is the Union Council of Ministers collectively
responsible? 3 marks.
68
TOPIC : DPSP

82. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive
Principles of State Policy:
1) The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the
country.
2) The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable
by any court.

Different questions on same topic, “Directive Principles of

State Policy” 2014 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
35. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and
security is included in the
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy (Answer)
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule

38. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are
fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (Answer)
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

56. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of
State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1) Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2) Organising village panchayats
3) Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4) Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural
opportunities.
69
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected
in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

95. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of
India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India
in the year 1950 as :
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy (Answer)
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India.

86. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles
of State policy?
1) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2) Prohibition of Consumption except for medicinal purposes of
intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(c) Both 1 and 2 Only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q57. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of
State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and
security?
(a) 51 (b) 48 A
(c) 43 A (d) 41

Q44 The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State
Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish :
(a) political democracy (b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy (d) social and economic democracy
70

Q49. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been given
precedence over Fundamental Rights in the .... Constitutional
Amendment
(a) 41st (b) 42nd
(c) 43rd (d) 45th

Q55. Directive Principles of State Policy are included in which part of
the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Part IV (b) Part III
(c) Part II (d) Part I

Q50. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive
Principles over Fundamental Rights ?
(a) 36th Amendment (b) 38th Amendment
(c) 40th Amendment (d) 42nd Amendment

Q48. Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in
(a) Part I of the Constitution (b) Part II of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution (d) Part IV of the Constitution
3NlEwUXM.
71
TOPIC : CABINET MISSION

26. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1) It recommended a federal government.
2) It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3) It provided for more Indians in the ICS.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
Different questions on same topic, “Cabinet Mission”

Q11. Which one of the following is not correct about the Cabinet
Mission Plan?
(a) Provincial grouping (b) Interim Cabinet of Indians
(c) Acceptance of Pakistan (d) Constitution framing right

Q86. Which one of the following leaders of the Congress was totally in
favour of Cabinet Mission Plan ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
3NlEwUXM
1999 UPSC Mains Question

Q1b. What were the proposals of Cabinet Mission Plan? Analyse the
reactions of the Congress and the league to the proposals. 35
marks 1989 UPSC Mains Question
Q1b. What was the Cabinet Mission Plan? How was the ‘grouping
clause’ fundamental to it? What was its impact on the attitude of the
Congress and the Leauge ? 30 marks.
72
TOPIC : SAROJINI NAIDU
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (1st statement repeated

as it is)
23. Consider the following

1) The first woman President of the Indian National Congress
was Sarojini Naidu.
2) The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was

Badruddin Tyabji.

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2

as it is)
Q19. Consider the following statements about the Indian National
Congress
I) Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the
Congress.
II) C.R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of
the Congress.
III) The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was
Alan Octavian Hume.
IV) Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894.

(a) I and III (b) II and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
73
Different question on same topic, “Badruddin Tyabji”

Q89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
I) Theodore Beck : Mohammadan Anglo Oriental
College, Aligarh
II) Ilbert Bill : Ripon
III) Pherozesha : Indian National Mehta Congress
IV) Badruddin Tyabji : Muslim League
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) II and lV
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III
3NlEwUXM

Q1. Describe briefly the contributions of any seven of the following to
the life and thought of modern India (about 40 words each). 28
marks
a) Vivekanand b) Sri Aurobindo
c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan d) Dayanand Saraswati
e) Bal Gangadhar Tilak f) Mirza Ghalib
g) Homi Bhabha h) Sarojini Naidu
i) C V Raman j) Lala Lajpat Rai

Q4d. Why have the following become famous ? 10 marks
i) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan ii) Seth Jamnalal Bajaj
iii) S. Satyamurti iv) Udham Singh
v) Sarojini Naidu
74
TOPIC : INFLATION

62. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the
Government of India only
(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
(c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
(d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
Different questions on the same topic, “inflation”

1) Inflation benefits the debtors.
2) Inflation benefits the bondholders.


84. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its
effect?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

Q67. In India, inflation is measured by the
(a) Wholesale Price Index Number
(b) Consumers Price Index for urban non manual workers
(c) Consumers Price Index for agricultural workers
(d) National Income deflation
75

Q35. Which one of the following governmental steps has proved
relatively effective in controlling the double digit rate of inflation in
the Indian economy during recent years ?
(a) Enhanced rate of production of all consumer goods
(b) Streamlined public distribution system
(c) Pursuing an export oriented strategy
(d) Containing budgetary deficits and unproductive expenditure

Q49. A zero rate of Inflation obtains necessarily in a year where the
annual rate of inflation
(a) in every week of the year is zero
(b) is falling in every week of the year
(c) is both falling and rising in a year
(d) is constant in every week of the year

Q76. Inflation tends to reduce the share of labour in the GNP (Gross
National Product) because
(a) Wages lag behind prices
(b) Prices lag behind wages
(c) Profits lag behind prices
(d) Profits lag behind wages

Q70. Who among the following is most benefitted from inflation ?
(a) Creditors (b) Debtors
(c) Savings bank account holders
(d) Government pensioners
76

Q10. The rate of inflation in India in 198182 went down to the extent of
approximately
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 14% (d) 16%

Q100. Temporary control of inflation can be effected by
(a) Increasing the prices (b) Increasing the taxes
(c) Restraint on the growth (d) Reducing the prices

Q69. Cause of inflation is
(a) Increase in money supply (b) Fall in production
(c) Increase in money supply and fall in production
(d) Decrease in money supply and fall in production.
77
TOPIC : DEFICIT BUDGET

of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce
the deficit?
3) Rationalizing subsidies
4) Expanding industries

(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Different question on the same topic, “budget deficit”

Q73. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I (Term) List II (Explanation)
I) Fiscal deficit (A) Excess of Total Expenditure over
Total Receipts
II) Budget deficit (B) Excess of Revenue Expenditure
over Revenue Receipts
III) Revenue deficit (C) Excess of Total Expenditure over
Total Receipts less borrowings
IV) Primary deficit (D) Excess of Total Expenditure over
Total Receipts less borrowings and
Interest Payments
Codes:
(a) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD (b) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(c) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD (d) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
3NlEwUXM

Q8e) A) How is revenue deficit different from budgetary deficit? 3
marks.
78
TOPIC : DEPARTMENT OF REVENUE
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (3 statements repeated

from different papers)
35. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following
statements
1) The Department of Revenue is responsible for the
preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the
Parliament (asked in 2010 see below)
2) No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of
India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
(asked in 2011 see below)
3) All the disbursements made from Public Account also need
the authorization from the Parliament of India. (asked in 2004
see below)

(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

as it is in 2015)
77. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation
and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue (Wrong statement given in 2015)
(b) Department of Economic Affairs (Answer)
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
79
2004 UPSC QUESTION (3rd statement of 2015 question

repeated from here)
Q1. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following
statements:
1) Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to
the Vote of Parliament.
2) The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a
Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for
each State.
3) Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are
subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other
appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2011 UPSC QUESTION (2nd statement of 2015 question

repeated from here)
91. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the
consolidated fund of India must come from?
(a) The president of India.
(b) The parliament of India. (Answer)
(c) The prime minister of India.
(d) The union finance minister.
Some more questions on Consolidated Fund of India

Q13. In the estimation of expenditure charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India, the Parliament has
(a) No power to discuss. (b) Full power to discuss.
(c) Full power to discuss during financial emergency.
80

Q80. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles
governing the grants in aid of the revenues to the states out of the
Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Finance Commission (b) Inter State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Public Accounts Committee

92. All revenues received by the union government by way of taxes
and other receipts for the conduct of government business are
credited to the ?
(a) Contingency fund of India. (b) Public account.
(c) Consolidated fund of India. (Answer)
(d) Deposits and advances fund.
81
TOPIC : NATIONAL PARKS
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTIONS (2 questions on same

topic – National Parks)
1st question on National Park in 2015 prelims paper
84. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp
with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park
2nd question on National Park in 2015 prelims paper

27. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that
varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park
(b) Nandadevi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National Park
Different questions on National Parks in the past

2013 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTIONS
32. Consider the following pairs
National Park River flowing through the Park
1) Corbett National Park : Ganga
2) Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3) Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri

82

1) The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.
2) A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific
species of flora and fauna.
3) In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

64. Consider the following pairs : Protected Area Well Known for
1) Bhiterkanika, Orissa — Salt Water Crocodile
2) Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard
3) Eravikulam, Kerala — Hootak Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

25. Which one among the following has the maximum number of
National Parks ?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam (d) Meghalaya

123. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip ?
(a) Simlipal National Park
(b) Periyar Wilddlife Sanctuary
(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park

33. Which one of the following is located is located in the Bastar
region?
(a) Bandhavgarh National Park (b) Dundeli Sanctuary
(c) Rajai National Park (d) Indravati National Park
83

1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
List-I (National Park/ Wildlife Sanctuary) List-II (Nearby Town)
A) Chandra Prabha 1) Jaipur
B) Karera 2) Jhansi
C) Jaisamand 3) Agra
D) Nahargarh 4) Varanasi
5) Udaipur
ABCD
(a) 4 1 5 2 (b) 5 2 3 1
(c) 4 2 5 1 (d) 5 1 3 2

Q131. Match List-I (National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary) with List-II (State)
and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I List II
(A) Bondle Wildlife Sanctuary (1) Orissa
(B) Kangerghat National Park (2) Assam
(C) Orang Sanctuary (3) Chhattisgarh
(D) Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary (4) Goa
(5) Tripura
ABCD
(a) 2 1 5 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 5 1 (d) 4 1 2 3

1) Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2) Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed to be built near
the Silent Valley National Park.
3) The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
84

Q65. Match List I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List II (state) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (National Park Sanctuary) List II (State)
A) Kanger Ghati National Park 1) Chhattisgarh
B) Nagerhole National Park 2) Haryana
C) Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary 3) Himachal Pradesh
D) Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary 4) Karnataka
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 3 4

Q137. Match the columns :
(A) Kaziranga National Park (1) Gujarat
(B) Gir National Park (2) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bandipur National Park (3) Assam
(D) Kanha National Park (4) Karnataka
ABCD
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 2 3 1

Q84. Which of the following parks/ sanctuaries is/are correctly matched
with their location:
I : Ghana — Assam
II : Gir — Rajasthan
III : Manas — Assam
IV : Corbett — M.P.
V : Periyar — Kerala
VI : Dudwa — U.P.
(a) I only (b) All
(c) V and VI (d) III, V and VI
85
TOPIC : BANK RATE
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (asked from different

years past papers)
61. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following :
1) Bank rate (asked in prelims 2013, 2011 and 1995 & mains
1983 see below)
2) Open market operations (asked in prelims 1993 and 2013
see below)
3) Public debt (was there amongst options in past papers at
couple of places)
4) Public revenue (was there amongst options in past papers
at couple of places)
Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary

Policy?
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4

Q8c. A) What is BANK RATE? What is BANK RATE in India at present?
2 marks

Q5c. Comment on the view that Monetary Policy in India is used more
as a stabilisation device than a development tool. 20 marks
You can find these questions on page 50 (printed on top of

page) of this pdf.
Mains past papers topic-wise (below link)

https://drive.google.com/file/d/0Bzf3Puazcx04MVZTcHp4SEhXQU
U/view?usp=sharing
86

43. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the
(a) market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy

58. The lowering of bank rate by the reserve bank of India leads to?
(a) More liquidity in the market.
(b) Less liquidity in the market.
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market.
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks.

Q60. Bank Rate implies the rate of interest
(a) Paid by the Reserve Bank of India on the Deposits of
Commercial Banks
(b) Charged by Banks on loans and advances
(c) payable on Bonds
(d) At which the Reserve Bank of India discounts the Bills of
Exchange

75. In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations'
refers to
(a) Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b) Lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c) Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI

Q83. Variable reserve rates and Open Market Operations are
instruments of
(a) Fiscal Policy (b) Monetary Policy
(c) Budgetary Policy (d) Trade Policy
87
TOPIC : HYDROGEN FUEL

70. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen
are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements :
1) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and
water as by-products.
2) Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small
devices like laptop computers.
3) Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current
(AC).

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

96. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as
“exhaust”.
(a) NH3 (b) CH4
(c) H2O (d) H2O2

22. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy.
Why?
1) They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity
from certain substrates.
2) They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3) They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse
water and produce electricity.
Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct ?

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
88
TOPIC : SCHEDULES

34. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the
Constitution of India are made in order to
(a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) Determine the boundaries between States
(c) Determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of
Panchayats
(d) Protect the interests of all the border States
Different questions on the same topic, “Schedules”

Q85. Which language has been added recently to the Eighth Schedule
of the Constitution of India?
(a) Urdu (b) Sanskrit
(c) Sindhi (d) Assamese
1984
Q11 The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution contains
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Directive Principles
(c) A list of 1 8 languages recognised by the Constitution
(d) Number of States and Union Territories
1985
Q89. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains
(a) States and Union Territories
(b) Salaries of the President, Governors of States, Judges of
Supreme Court, etc.
(c) Union List, State’ List and Concurrent List
(d) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
1985
Q90. Which of the following languages are included in the Eighth
Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Sindhi and English (b) English and Kashmiri
(c) Kashmiri and Konkani (d) Sindhi and Kashmiri
89
1998
Q59. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India
contains provisions regarding Anti Defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
2001
Q39 If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the
following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended ?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fifth
2001
Q91 Which one of the following statement correctly describes the Fourth
Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It lists the distribution of power between the Union and the
States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal
areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
2003
Q139 Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution
lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
2003
Q148 The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
(a) First Amendment (b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment (d) Forty second Amendment
90
2004
Q17 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the
Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the
Union and the States.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal
areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States.
2006
7. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of Indian ?
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture (c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
2008
18. Which schedule of the Constitution of india contains special
provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in
several States?
(a) Third (b) Fifth
(C) Seventh (d) Ninth
2008
84. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendments Acts,
four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth
schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number
to 22?
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninetyfirst Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninetysecond Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninetythird Amendment) Act
2014
29. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India
contains provisions regarding antidefection?
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(e) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
91
TOPIC : WOODEN PLOUGHS
SAME QUESTION – DIFFERENT OPTIONS – JUST HAVE A

LOOK 2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
65. The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural
production is an example of
(a) Labour-augmenting technological progress
(b) Capital-augmenting technological progress
(c) Capital-reducing technological progress
1983 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (QUESTION IS SAME –

only slight difference)
Q18. If instead of wooden ploughs iron ploughs are used it would be an
example of
(a) Obsolete technology
(b) Appropriate technology
(c) Redundant technology
(d) Ultimate technology
92
TOPIC : STEEL INDUSTRY
Asked from option given in 2012, see below (no extra efforts –
simply repeated) 2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
33. In India, the steel production industry requires the import of
(a) saltpetre (b) rock phosphate
(c) coking coal (Answer) (d) All of the above
2012 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (see 3rd statement –

same to same)
34. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import
millions of tonnes of coal?
1) It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future
and import it from other countries for the present use.
2) most of the power plants in India are coal based and they are not
able to get sufficient applies of coal from within the country
3) Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which
has to be imported.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


Q61. The steel industry in India is lagging behind its objectives due
to less availability of
(a) Iron ore (b) Coking coal (Answer)
(c) Power (d) Technology
93
TOPIC : WORLD ECONOMIC FORUM REPORTS
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (Reports published by

different organizations)
96. Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’
report periodically?
(a) The Asian Development Bank
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
(d) The World Bank
Different Questions on same topic - "Reports published by

different organizations "
19. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication
known as 'World Economic Outlook'?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Development Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum
(d) The World Bank

Q14 “World Development Report” is an annual publication of
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) International Monetary Fund
2001 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (can also be asked this

way too)
Q15. The theme of the World Development Report, 2001 is
(a) From Plan to Market
(b) Knowledge for Development
(c) Attacking Poverty
(d) The State in the Changing World
94

68. As per the UN – Habitat’s Global Report on Human Settlement
2009, which one among the following regions has shown the
fastest growth rate of urbanization in the last three decades?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Latin America and Caribbean
(d) North America

Q83 Which one of the following countries occupies the first place in the
“Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum ?
(a) USA (b) Singapore
(c) Hong Kong (d) France

Q68. According to the World Development Report, low income
economies are those for which the per capita GNP in 1994 was
(a) US $ 925 or less (b) US $ 825 or less
(c) US $ 725 or less (d) US $ 525 or less
95
TOPIC : AMNESTY INTERNATIONAL
Even if you would have read mains questions you could have
answered this.
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (see below 2004 mains
question)
28. Amnesty International is
(a) An agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil war.
(b) A global Human Rights Movement.
(c) A non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor
people.
(d) An inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies
in war-ravaged regions.

7b. Describe the role of Amnesty International in securing human
rights. 15 marks 2006 UPSC Mains Question
7b. Write about: Expanding role of Amnesty International. 15 marks

page) of this pdf.

codes given below the lists:
List I (Organization) List II (Associated Convention / Person
/ Place / Headquarters)
A) Amnesty International 1) Visculi
B) Common wealth of
Independent States (CIS) 2) Paris
C) Danube Commission 3) Peter Beneson
D) Europian Space Agency 4) Belgrade Convention
96
TOPIC : DISARMAMENT
2015 UPSC Prelims QUESTION (Repeated as it is – recipient

will change every year)
25. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development
for 2014 was given to which one of the following?
(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Indian Space Research Organisation
(d) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
2001 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (recipient will change

every year)
codes given below the lists:
List I (Award / Prize) List II (Recipient)
I) Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, A) Archibishop
Disarmament Desmond Tutu
II) Jamnalal Bajaj Award B) Dr. Gurudev Khush
III) International Gandhi Peace Prize C) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
IV) Wolf Prize D) Nelson Mandela
97
TOPIC : PLATFORM FOR ACTION
Even if you would have read past mains questions you could
have answered this.
2015 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION (see below 2007 mains
question)
54. ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’, often seen in the
news, is.
(a) A strategy to tackle the regional terrorism, an outcome of a
meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization.
(b) A plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-
Pacific Region, an outcome of the deliberations of the Asia-Pacific
Economic Forum.
(c) An agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a
World Conference convened by the United Nations
(d) A strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the
East Asia Summit.

Q10a. What were the main recommendations of the Platform for Action
(PFA) adopted at the Beijing Women Conference, 1995? 250
words / 30 marks.
page) of this pdf.
98
TOPIC : SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
2015 UPSC Prelims QUESTION (no extra efforts – simply

repeated)
18. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
(a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development
(b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
(c) It is a Conference of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change
(d)It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention
on Biological Diversity
2008 UPSC Prelims QUESTION

80. Where was the World Summit on Sustainable Devlopment
(Rio+10) held?
(a) Davos (b) Nova Scotia
(c) Johannesburg (d) Shanghai

Q126. A World Summit with representation from all the countries will be
held in Johannesburg in September 2002 on the subject of
(a) AIDS control (b) Global terrorism
(c) Human rights (d) Sustainable development
99
TOPIC : DADABHAI NAOROJI
2015 UPSC Prelims QUESTION (Dadabhai & R.C.Dutt are

UPSC favourites, see why)
95. Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism
in India?
1) Dadabhai Naoroji 2) G. Subramania Iyer
3) R. C. Dutt

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Questions where Dadabhai Naoroji has appeared (4 direct

questions - indirect so many questions - I cannot post all)
16. The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the
cause of Indian National Movement was that he
1) Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
2) Interpreted the ancient Indian texts stored
3) Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before
anything else.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?


Q75. Who among the following leaders did not believe in the drain
theory of Dadabhai Naoroji ?
(a) B.G. Tilak (b) R.C. Dutt
(c) M.G. Ranade (d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
100

Q71. Which one of the following statements does correctly defines the
term ‘drain theory’ as propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji?
(a) That the resources of the country were being utilised in the
interest of Britain
(b) That a part of India’s national wealth or total annual product
was being exported to Britain for which India got no material return
(c) That the British Industrialists were being given an opportunity to
invest in India under the protection of the imperial power
(d) That the British goods were being imported to the country
making it poorer day by day

Q92. The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Nauroji to the
cause of Indian National Movement was that he
(a) Brought the problems of Indians tothe notice of the British.
(b) Exposed the economic exploitationof India by the British.
(c) Interpreted the ancient Indiantexts and restored the
selfconfidence of Indians.
(d)Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before
anything else.
2008 UPSC Prelims QUESTION [Questions where R.C.Dutt has

appeared (5 times)]
92. Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the
moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of
articles entitled new Lamps for Old?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) R.C.Dutt (1st time)
(c) Syed Ahmad khan (d) Viraraghavachari

Q75. That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20 in 1867-68, was
ascertained for the first time by
(a) M. G. Ranade (b) Sir W. Hunter
(c) R. C. Dutta (2nd time) (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
101

Q89. Which one of the following Indian leaders was dismissed by the
British from the Indian Civil Service ?
(a) Satyendranath Tagore (b) Surendranath Banerji
(c) R. C. Dutt (3rd time) (d) Subhash Chandra Bose

Q75 Who among the following leaders did not believe in the drain
theory of Dadabhai Naoroji ?
(a) B.G. Tilak (b) R.C. Dutt (4th time)
(c) M.G. Ranade (d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

Q99. The theory of economic drain from India to England was
propounded by
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) R. C. Dutt (5th time)
(c) B. G. Tilak (d) L. K. Jha
102
TOPIC : GEOGRAPHICAL INDICATION

74. Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical
Indication’ status?
1) Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2) Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3) Tirupathi Laddu

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

137. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection)
Act, 1999. The difference / differences between a “Trade Mark”
and a Geographical Indication is / are:
1) A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a
Geographical Indications is a community’s right.
2) A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical
Indication cannot be licensed.
3) A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas
the Geographical Indications is assigned to the agricultural
goods / products and handicrafts only.

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
103
TOPIC : SWINE FLU
2015 UPSC Prelims QUESTION (Swine Flu – Topic Repeated)

67. HIN1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
which one of the following diseases?
(a) AIDS (b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue (d) Swine flu

1) Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for
Swine Flu.
2) Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
3) To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area,
the swine (pigs) must all be culled.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
104
IMPORTANCE OF SOLVING PAST PRELIMS PAPERS

2015 UPSC Prelims QUESTION (Godavari – asked so many
times)
11. Consider the following rivers:
1) Vamsadhara 2) lndravati
3) Pranahita 4) Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only

Q52. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Ghaggar’s water is utilised in the Indira Gandhi Canal (Answer)
(b) Narmada rises from Amarkantak region
(c) Nizam Sagar is situated on the Manjra river
(d) Penganga is a tributary of the Godavari

Q89. The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers of the
peninsular India from north to south is
(a) Subranarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishana, Pennar,
Cauvery and Vagai
(b) Subranarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Cauvery, Vagai Pennar
(c) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Pennar
and vagai
(d) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vagai
and Pennar

Q78. What is the correct sequence of the rivers — Godavari, Mahanadi,
Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?
(a) Godavari—Mahanadi—Narmada—Tapi
(b) Godavari—Narmada—Mahanadi—Tapi
(c) Narmada—Godavari—Tapi—Mahanadi
(d) Narmada—Tapi—Godavari—Mahandai
105

66. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Waterfalls River
1) Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
2) Jog Falls : Sharavati
3) Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Q99. The river which flows between Vindhya and Satpura ranges is
(a) Narmada (Answer) (b) Tapti
(c) Mahanadi (d) Godavari

Q7. Mahatma Gandhi Setu is built over the river
(a) Ganga (Answer) (b) Brahmaputra
(c) Godavari (d) Cauvery

Q144. The Narimanam oil field is located in
(a) Mahanadi delta (b) Krishna delta
(c) Cauvery delta (Answer) (d) Godavari delta

Q72. Near the banks of which one of the following rivers, the excavation
in recent years has brought to light that Indus Valley Civilisation
percolated to far south?
(a) Mahanadi (b) Cauvery
(c) Krishna (Answer) (d) Godavari
106

Q147. River Luni drains into
(a) Ganga delta (b) Kerala coast
(c) Rann of Kutchh (Answer) (d) Godavari delta
Q19. Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into two streams and
reunites a few miles farther on, thus forming the islands of
Srirangappattanam, Sivasamudram and Srirangam?
(a) Cauvery (Answer) (b) Tungabhadra
(c) Krishna (d) Godavari

Q23. The Alamatti Dam is on the river
(a) Godavari (b) Cauvery
(c) Krishna (Answer) (d) Mahanadi
VGNVZMVXlRY2RNcTNVZ19yYmJmdEhZal9fWDlNOFZtbmtFN3
d3NlEwUXM

Q7g. Name the major international rivers flowing through India. What
countries / states are covered by the Ganga and Godavari rivers
on their course from the source to the sea? 3 Marks.
107

2015 UPSC Prelims QUESTION (Topic Repeated – feudal
system)
30. With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the
essential element/elements of the feudal system?
1) A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak
provincial or local political authority.
2) Emergence of administrative structure based on control and
possession of land
3) Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and
his overlord

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q91 Assertion (A) : The origin of feudal system in ancient India can be
traced to military campaigns.
Reason (R) : There was considerable expansion of the feudal
system during the Gupta period.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false (d) A is false, but R is true.
108

13. Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of
mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
(b) South-West Bengal
(c) Southern Saurashtra
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “FORESTS IN

INDIA & WORLD” - YOU WILL FIND FOREST QUESTIONS IN
ALMOST EVERY YEAR’s QUESTION PAPER. I JUST PASTED
FEW BELOW.
Q117. The shaded area shown in the map of India
(a) Tropical wet evergreen forests (b) Deciduous forests
(c) Wet temperate forests (d) Mangrove forests

Q135. Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum
total forest cover?
(a) Sikkim (b) Goa
(c) Haryana (d) Kerala

Q123. The shaded portion in the following map represents
(a) Deciduous forests (b) Tropical evergreen forests
(c) Subtropical evergreen forests (d) None of the above

Q109. The largest reserve of ‘Sal’ forests is found in
(a) Nilgiri hills (b) Dehradun valley
(c) The Aravallis (d) Eastern Peninsula

Q87. Tropical rain forests appear in which of the following regions ?
(a) South America, South Africa and Central Europe
(b) Central America, parts of Australia, Guinea Coast
(c) Congo basin, Central America, South East Asia
(d) North and South of the Congo basin
109

Q145 What proportion of geographical land area is under actual forest
cover in India?
(a) One-fifth (b) One-fourth
(c) One-third (d) Two-fifths

Q49 Assertion (A) : Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems
of tropical and subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts.
Reason (R) : They stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwark
against encroachments by sea.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the

following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

Q72. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough
outline map given:
Among these, those which were threatened in 1997 by a serious

epidemic include
(a) Teak forests of 3 and 4
(b) Oaks forests of 1 and sal forests of 2
(c) Sal forests of 3
(d) Sandalwood forests of 4

69. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the
largest area?
(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
(b) Sub – tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
(d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
110

32. India is a member of which among the following?
1) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
2) Association of South-East Asian nation
3) East Asia Summit

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) India is a member of none of them
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “International

Organisations”
Q58 The latest regional economic block to be formed is
(a) ASEAN (b) COMECON
(c) APEC (d) NAFTA

Q80 ‘They are fantastically diverse. They speak hundreds of languages
and dialects. They comprise scores of ethnic groups. They include
highly industrialised economies and upcoming economies. They
span half the surface of the earth and are home to two-fifths of the
world’s population.” The group of countries referred to here
belongs to
(a) SAPTA (b) APEC
(c) EC (d) CIS

104. With reference to the international meeting held in the year 2006,
which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1) NAM Summit : Havana
2. APEC Meeting : Bangkok
3) EU-India Summit : Helsinki
4) Un Climate Change Conference : Geneva

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
111

Q37 The emerging trading blocs in the world, such as NAFTA, ASEAN
and the like, are expected to
(a) Act as constrictions in free trade across the world
(b) Promote free trade on the lines laid down by the WTO
(c) Permit transfer of technology between member countries
(d) Promote trade in agricultural commodities between countries of
the North and South

128. Consider the following countries:
1) Brunei Darussalam 2) East Timor
3) Laos
Which of the above is/are member/members of ASEAN?

A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3
Cross Check from the below link https://drive.google.
com/open? id=0BxkQmyYIKVgAfm VGNVZMVXlRY2RNcTNVZ
19yYmJmdEhZal9fWDlNOFZtbmtFN3d3NlEwUXM

Q.12. Why was ASEAN formed? Who are its members? What has
ASEAN achieved so far? What stand has it taken in respect of
problems in Afghanistan and Kampuchea? (Not more than 150
words) (25 marks)

Q.6e. What is ASEAN PLUS? What is its nature and duty? (10 marks)

Q.9a(ii). What do ASEAN stand for? (1 marks)

Q.2c. Write about India and East Asia Summit (EAS). (In about 20
words) (2 marks).
112
TOPIC : GENETIC ENGINEERING

38. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under
the
(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “Genetic

Engineering” 2003 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
Q19 The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission
is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as
Bt-Cotton in India, is under the Union Minister of
(a) Agriculture (b) Environment and Forests
(c) Commerce and Industry (d) Rural Development

Q.6d. What is meant by 'Genetic Engineering'? What are the promises
and dangers associated with it? Do you recommend that India
should go ahead in developing this technology? (20 marks)

Q.3b. What is genetic engineering? Why is it getting increasingly
important these days? (40 marks).
113
TOPIC : SWADESHI MOVEMENT

43. Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in
the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of
‘moderates’ and ‘extremists?
(a) Swadeshi Movement (Answer)
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “Swadeshi

Movement” 1989 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
Q94. Moderates and extremists of the Indian National Congress differed
mainly on the issue of
(a) Swaraj (b) Swadeshi
(c) Boycott (d)National education

Q191. Swadeshi movement started during
(a) Anti-Bengal partition movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement

Q101. Which one of the following was the most immediate factor for the
spread of Swadeshi and Boycott agitation during the first decade of
the present century?
(a) Curzon’s attempt to control the Universities
(b) Curzon’s design to curtail the sphere of local self-government
(c) Curzon’s partition of Bengal
(d) Curzon’s plan to curb the growing popularity of the Indian
National Congress
114

83. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi
movement?
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon.
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on
Lokmanya Tilak.
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh,
and passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill.
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers.
Cross Check from the below link

https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BxkQmyYIKVgAfm
VGNVZMVXlRY2RNcTNVZ19yYmJmdEhZal9fWDlNOFZtbmtFN3
d3NlEwUXM

Q.1b. How far was the swadeshi movement linked with the Boycott?
Analyse the nature of mass participation in the movement. (35
marks)

Q.3b. How did the Swadeshi movement in Bengal influence the
nationalist politics? (10 marks)

Q.1a. Trace the origin of the Swadeshi movement. How did it involve
the masses? (30 marks).
115
TOPIC : WORLD MAP
Every year we can find questions asked directly or indirectly

from "WORLD MAP". I have given a separate list of questions
which are based directly or indirectly on "INDIA MAP". I have
analysed questions from 2015 to 2011, however you can find
many questions based on world maps in almost all the past
prelims papers. So please read the Atlas properly and do lot
of mapping practice using sketch-pens on blank World maps.

52. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not
open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
(a) Syria (b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon (d) Israel
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “WORLD MAP”

31. Turkey is located between
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(e) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

32. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities
in South East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?
1) Bangkok 2) Hanoi
3) Jakarta 4) Singapore

(a) 4213 (b) 3241
(c) 3412 (d) 4321
116

3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Geographical Region : Feature
(a) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia
(b) Atlas Mountains : NorthWestern Africa
(c) Guiana Highlands : SouthWestern Africa
(d) Okavango Basin : Patagonia

60. Between India and east Asia, the navigation time and distance can
be greatly reduced by which of the following?
1) Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2) Opening a new canal across the kra isthmus between the gulf of
Siam and Andaman sea.

117
TOPIC : NUCLEAR PROLIFERATON TREATY

63. Consider the following countries:
1) China 2) France
3) India 4) Israel
5) Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as

recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear
Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
(NPT)?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “Nuclear Non-

proliferation Treaty (NPT)”
Q15 India is opposed to the Nuclear Nonproliferation Treaty (NPT)
because
(a) It is discriminatory against the nonnuclear powers
(b) It forbids India to use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes
(c) It aims at making South Asia a nuclear free zone
(d) It allows Pakistan to develop its own nuclear capability

Q10 Which of the following republics, besides Russia, are nuclear
powers?
1) Ukraine 2) Georgia
3) Belarus 4) Kazakhstan
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

Q.5. Twenty-five years’ term of Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty will
come to an end in 1995. Some important members want it to be
renewed, as it is, for another 25 or 50 years. What are its basic
provisions and how will its renewal adversely affect India's
interests? (35 marks).
118
TOPIC : CYCLONES

80. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical
latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?
(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
(b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
(c) Coriolis force is too weak
(d) Absence of land in those regions
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “CYCLONE”

Q149 Assertion (A) : The surface winds spiral inwards upon the centre of
the cyclone.
Reason (R) : Air descends in the centre of the cyclone.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

Q25 Which one of the areas marked as A, B, C and D in the given
figure of the cyclone, witnesses heavy torrential short duration
rainfall accompanied by thunderstorms?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D

Q.19b. The recent cyclone on east coast of India was called “Phailin”. How
are tropical cyclones named across the world? (5 Marks).
119
TOPIC: NATIONAL INNOVATION FOUNDATION

85. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National
Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)?
1) NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and
Technology under the Central Government.
2) NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific
research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration
with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.


Q.1. What do you understand by the term “Innovation”? Discuss the
need for launching a national innovation policy in India. (250
words) (25 marks).
120
TOPIC: OCEAN CURRENTS

89. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?
(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
(c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “OCEAN

CURRENTS”
95. Consider the following factors:
1) Rotation of the Earth 1) Air pressure and wind
1) Density of ocean water 1) Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
a) 1 and 2only b) 1,2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4.

1) Ocean currents are the slow surface movement of water in the
ocean.
2). Ocean currents assist in maintaining the Earth’s heat balance.
3) Ocean currents are set in motion primarily by prevailing winds.
4) Ocean currents are affected by the configuration of the ocean.
Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
121

Q30. Which one of the following factors is responsible for the change in
the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean? (a)
Indian Ocean is ‘half an ocean’
(b) Indian Ocean has monsoon drift
(c) Indian Ocean is a landlocked ocean
(d) Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity

Q131. Match the Columns:
(A) Southeastern coast of U.S.A. (1) Florida current
(B) West coast of South Africa (2) Kuroshio current
(C) Southwestern coast of (3) Beneguella current
South America
(D) Southeastern coast of Japan (4) Peruvian current
ABCD
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 4 3 1

Q16. Which of the following is cold ocean current?
(a) Labrador (b) Gulf Stream
(c) Kuro Shio (d) None of these

Q17 In the given map, which one of the following pairs of ocean
currents is shown?
(a) Benguela and Falkland (b) Canary and Humboldt
(c) Agulhas and Guinea (d) Benguela and Guinea
122
TOPIC: CONSUMER PRICE INDEX

4. Which of the following brings out the Consumer Price Index
Number for Industrial Workers?
(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Department of Economic Affairs
(c) The Labour Bureau
(d) The Department of Personnel and Training
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “Consumer Price

Index” 2010 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
86. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1) The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a
monthly basis only.
2) As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers
(CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.


Q65. Assume that the consumer price index (1970 = 100) is at present
500. This means that
(a) Prices of all goods and commodities have increased five times.
(b) Prices of all consumer goods have increased five times.
(c) Prices of all items in a specified list have increased by 400%.
(d) Prices have increased and the weighted mean price increase
for specified items is 400%.

Q.7b. Why the Central Statistics Office has notified a new series of
Consumer Price Index from this year? (5 marks).
123
TOPIC: WORLD TRADE ORGANISATION

6. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the
Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and Peace
Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs
of the
(a) Food and Agriculture Organization
(b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
(c) World Trade Organization (Answer)
(d) United Nations Environment Programme
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “World Trade

Organization” (WTO)
Q.6a. What are the major provisions of Agreements on Agriculture in the
context of World Trade Organisation? (15 marks)

Q40 Which of the following were the aims behind the setting up of the
World Trade Organization (WTO)?
I) Promotion of free trade and resource flows across countries.
II) Protection of intellectual property rights.
III) Managing balanced trade between different countries.
IV) Promotion of trade between the former East Block countries
and the western world.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) I and IV

Q35. One of the important agreements reached in the 1996 Ministerial
Conference of WTO relates to
(a) Commerce in Information Technology
(b) Multilateral Agreement on Investment
(c) Multifibre Agreement
(d) Exchange of Technical Personnel
124

The Ministerial Meeting of the WTO held in December 1999 was
unsuccessful because it attempted to link trade with
I) Labour related issues
II) Environment related issues
III) Terrorism related issues
IV) Debt related issues
Which of these statements are correct?

(a) I, III and IV (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) II and IV

Q99 The earlier name of WTO was
(a) UNCTAD (b) GATT
(c) UNIDO (d) OECD

108. As regards the use of international food safety standards as
reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the
following does WTO collaborate with?
(a) Codex Alimentarius Commission.
(b) International Federation of Standards Users.
(c) International Organization for Standardization.
(d) World Standards Cooperation.

Q.6a. “In the WTO negotiations over the years of the DOHA Rounds,
India appears to be diluting its stand on agriculture issues to
pursue perceived gains in services”. Critically examine this
statements. (20 marks)

Q.9a. What do WTO stand for? (2 marks)

Q.11b. What is WTO? What are India's objections to its overall
functioning? (10 marks)

Q.5a. Discuss the reasons for the failure of the Seattle Millennium talks
on the WTO (World Trade Organisation). Discuss some
implications of this failure for the Indian economy. (15 marks).
125
TOPIC: GROETH RATE OG GDP

56. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following
statements:
1) The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily
increased in the last decade.
2) The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has
steadily increased in the last decade.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “Growth rate of

GDP” 2010 UPSC Prelims Paper QUESTION
28. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following
statements:
1) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times
in the last 10 years.
2) The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in
the last 10 years.

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor

52. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following
statements?
1) The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five
years.
2) The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in
the last five years.


Q135 Growth rate of GDP in last decade was approximately
(a) 3% (b) 4%
(c) 5% (d) 6%
126
TOPIC: IUCN

87. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of
Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on
International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an
international agreement between governments.
2) IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better
manage natural environments.
3) CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but
this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
DIFFERENT QUESTION ON SAME TOPIC “International Union

for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)”

49. The “Red Books’’ published by the international union for
conservation of nature and natural resources (IUCN) contain lists
of?
(a) Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity
hotspots.
(b) Threatened plant and animal species.
(c) Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources
in various countries.

127
TOPIC: BRICS

78. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the
affairs of
(a) ASEAN (b) BRICS (Answer)
(c) OECD (d) WTO
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “BRICS”

91. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS,
consider the following statements:
1) The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2) South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?


Q.3d. Compare the significance of IBSA and BRICS in the context of
India's multilateral diplomacy. (100 words) (10 marks).
TOPIC: COMMAND AREA DEVELOPMENT PROGRAM

1) The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched
during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
2) The Command Area Development Programme was launched in
1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.
DIFFERENT QUESTIONS ON SAME TOPIC “'Command Area

Development'”
Q.8d(A). Describe the use of 'Command Area Development' in India.
(3 marks)

Q.6f. Describe the use of 'Command Area Development' in India. (2 marks)
128

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