SKV VIDHYAASHRAM SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL

CDF Test-1
Class:XII Date: 27.06.2019
Subject:Maths Subject Code:045 Time: 3 Hrs Marks:30

Multiple Choice Questions: 30×1=30

1. Let R be the relation in the set {1,2,3,4} given by R={(1,2)(2,2), (1,1), (4,4), (1,3),(3,3),
(3,2)} . Choose the correct answer.
A. R is reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
B. R is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
C. R is symmetric and transitive but not reflexive
D. R is an equivalence relation
2. Let R be the relation in the set N given by R = {(a,b): a=b }. Choose the correct
answer.
A. (2,4) R B. (3,8) R C. (6,8) R D. (8,7) R
3. Let f: R be defined as Choose the correct answer.
A. is one-one onto B. is many-one onto
C. is one-one but not onto D. is neither one-one nor onto
4. Let R R be defined as Choose the correct answer.
A. is one-one onto B. is many-one onto
C. is one-one but not onto D. is neither one-one nor onto
5. Let R R be given by , then
A. B. C. D.
6. Let R R be a function defined as . The inverse of is the map g:
Range R given by
A. g(y) = B. g(y) = C. g(y) = D. g(y) =
7. Consider a binary operation * on N defined as . Choose the correct
answer.
A. Is * both associative and commutative?
B. Is * commutative but not associative?
C. Is * associative but not commutative?
D. Is * neither commutative nor associative?
8. Number of binary operations on the set {a,b} are
A. 10 B. 16 C. 20 D. 8
9. Let A= {1,2,3}. Then number of equivalence relations containing (1,2) is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
10. Let A= {1,2,3}. Then number of relations containing (1,2) and (1,3) which are reflexive
and symmetric but not transitive is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
11. If
A. B. C. D.
12.
A. B. C. D.
13. sin( ), | | is equal to
A. B. C. D.
14. , then is equal to
A. 0, B. 1, C. 0 D.

15. equal to

A. B. C. D.
16. A = is a square matrix, if
A. B. C. D. None of these
17. Which of the given values of and y make the following pair of matrices
equal

A. B.Not possible to find

C. D. ,
18. The number of all possible matrices of order 3×3 with each entry 0 or 1 is:
A. 27 B.18 C. 81 D. 512
19. The restriction on n, k and p so that PY + WY will be defined are:
A. B. k is arbitrary,
C. is arbitrary, D.
20. If n=p, then the order of the matrix 7X-5Z is:
A. B. C. D.
21. If A, B are symmetric matrices of same order, then AB – BA is a
A. Skew symmetric matrix B. Symmetric matrix
C. Zero matrix D. Identify matrix

22. If A= , and A+A’ = 1, then the value of is

A. B. C. D.
23. Matrices A and B will be inverse of each other only if
A.AB=BA B.AB=BA=0 C. AB=0, BA=1 D.AB=BA=1
24. If A = is such that =1, then
A.1+ B. 1- C. 1- D. 1+
25. If the matrix A is both symmetric and skew symmetric, then
A. A is a diagonal matrix B.A is a zero matrix
C. A is a square matrix D. None of these
26. If A is square matrix such that =A, then A is equal to
A. A B.1-A C. 1 D. 3A
27. Note this question If A = , then = ….

A. B. C. D.

28. If = , then the values of x, y, z, w are

A. 2, 2, 3, 4 B.2, 3, 1, 2 C. 3, 3, 0, 1 D. none of these

29. If A = , then co-factor of 2nd row are

 A. 3, -3, 11 B.3, 3, 11 C. -3, 3, -11 D. -3, -3, 11
30. If A and B are two matrices such that AB = B and BA =A, then =?
A. 2 AB B.2 BA C. A +B D. AB
 SKV VIDHYAASHRAM SR SEC SCHOOL

Date :27-06-2019 TEST ID: 60

Time : 00:30:00Mins PHYSICS
Marks : 30
3.CURRENT ELECTRICITY

Single Correct Answer Type

1. As the temperature rises the resistance offered by metal

1) Increase 2) Decrease 3) Remains same 4) None of these
2. If the free electron density be 𝑛 and relaxation time be 𝜏, the electrical conductivity of a conductor may be
expressed as
𝑛𝑒𝜏 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏 𝑛𝑒 2 𝑚 𝑒2𝜏
1) 2) 3) 4) 𝑒
𝑚𝑒 𝑚𝑒 𝜏𝑚𝑒 𝑛
3. Two copper wires of lengths 𝑙 and 2𝑙 have radii 𝑟 and 2𝑟 respectively. What is ratio of their specific
resistances?
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 1 4) 1 : 3
4. Metals have
1) Zero resistivity 2) High resistivity 3) Low resistivity 4) Infinite resistivity
5. When a charged particle of charge 𝑒 revolves in circular orbit of radius 𝑟 with frequency 𝑛, then orbital
current will be
𝑒𝑣 𝑒𝑣 𝑒𝑣 𝑒𝑣
1) 2 2) 3) 4)
𝜋𝑟 4𝜋𝑟 2𝜋𝑟 4𝜋𝑟 2
6. The length of the resistance wire is increased by 10%. What is the corresponding change in the resistance
of wire?
1) 10 % 2) 25 % 3) 21 % 4) 9 %
7. In which of the following substances does resistance decrease with increase in temperature?
1) Copper 2) Carbon 3) Constantan 4) Silver
8. A resistor has a colour code of green, blue, brown and silver. What is its resistance?
1) 5600Ω ± 10% 2) 560Ω ± 5% 3) 560Ω ± 10% 4) 56Ω ± 5%
9. Electric field (E) and current density (J) have relation
1 1
1) 𝐸 ∝ 𝐽−1 2) 𝐸 ∝ 𝐽 3) 𝐸 ∝ 2 4) 𝐸 2 ∝
𝐽 𝐽
10. The reciprocal of resistance is
1) Conductance 2) Resistivity 3) Voltage 4) None of the above
11. The colour code for a resistor of resistance 3.5𝑘Ω with 5% tolerance is
1) Orange, green, red and gold 2) Red, yellow, black and gold
3) Orange, green, orange and silver 4) Orange, green, red and silver
12. When the length and area of cross-section both are doubled, then its resistance
1) Will become half 2) Will be doubled
3) Will remain the same 4) Will become four times
13. Which of the following is vector quantity
1) Current density 2) Current 3) Wattlesscurrent 4) Power
14. The resistance across 𝑅 and 𝑄 in the figure.

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 A

r r
rr r

P B r C Q

1) 𝑟/3 2) 𝑟/2 3) 2𝑟 4) 6𝑟
15. The effective resistance between points 𝐴 and 𝐵 in figure
4Ω
6Ω
12 Ω
3Ω 5Ω
A 24 Ω B

1) 10 Ω 2) 12 Ω 3) 9.85 Ω 4) 10.85 Ω
16. The resistance of the following circuit figure between 𝐴 and 𝐵 is
E
2Ω 2Ω
C D
2Ω

2Ω 2Ω
2Ω 2Ω
F

A B
2Ω

1) (3/2) Ω 2) 2 Ω 3) 4 Ω 4) 8 Ω
17. In the circuit shown the equivalent resistance between A and B is

9Ω
A B
9Ω 9Ω

1) 27 Ω 2) 18 Ω 3) 9 Ω 4) 3 Ω
18. The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of current is shown here. The current I will be

1A

10 A I

6A

2A

1) 3A 2) 9A 3) 13A 4) 19A
19. Kirchoff’s second law for the analysis of circuit is based on
1) Conversion of charge 2) Conversion of energy
3) Conversion of both charge and energy 4) Conversion of momentum of electron
20. A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance R. the potential difference between the terminals of the cell
is found to be V volt. Then the internal resistance of the cell must be
1) (E-V) (𝐸 − 𝑉) 2(𝐸 − 𝑉)𝑅 2(𝐸 − 𝑉)𝑉
2) 𝑅 3) 4)
𝑉 𝐸 𝑅
21. A voltmeter essentially consists of
1) A high resistance, in series with a galvanometer 2) A low resistance, in series with a galvanometer
3) A high resistance in parallel with a galvanometer 4) A low resistance in parallel with a galvanometer

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22. For measurement of potential difference, potentiometer is preferred in comparison to voltmeter because
1) Potentiometer is more sensitive than voltmeter
2) The resistance of potentiometer is less than voltmeter
3) Potentiometer is cheaper than voltmeter
4) Potentiometer does not take current from the circuit
23. The resistance of ideal voltmeter is
1) Zero 2) Greater than zero but finite value
3) Infinite 4) 5000 Ω
24. Two resistances are connected in two gaps of a meter bridge. The balance point is 20cm from the zero end.
A resistance of 15Ω is connected is series with the smaller of the two. The null point shifts to 40cm. The
value of the smaller resistance in ohm is
1) 3 2) 6 3) 9 4) 12
25. In the circuit given, the current relation to a balanced Wheatstone’s bridge is
P R

S Q

𝑃 𝑅 𝑃 𝑆 𝑃 𝑄 𝑃 𝑆
1) = 2) = 3) = 4) =
𝑄 𝑆 𝑄 𝑅 𝑆 𝑅 𝑅 𝑄
26. One 𝑘𝑖𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡 hour is equal to
1) 36 × 105 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠 2) 36 × 103 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠 3) 103 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠 4) 105 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠
27. The material of fuse wire should have
1) A high specific resistance and high melting point
2) A low specific resistance and low melting point
3) A high specific resistance and low melting point
4) A low specific resistance and a high melting point
28. 𝑊𝑎𝑡𝑡-ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟 meter measures
1) Electric energy 2) Current 3) Voltage 4) Power
29. The resistance will be least in a wire with dimension
1) 𝐿/2,2𝐴 2) 2𝐿, 𝐴 3) 𝐿, 𝐴 4) None of these
30. Two wires of resistance 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 have temperature coefficient of resistances𝛼1 and 𝛼1 respectively.
These are joined in series. The effective temperature coefficient of resistance is
𝛼1 + 𝛼2 𝛼1 𝑅1 + 𝛼2 𝑅2 √𝑅1 𝑅2 𝛼1 𝛼2
1) 2) √𝛼1 𝛼2 3) 4)
2 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 √𝑅12 + 𝑅22

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 SKV VIDHYAASHRAM SR.SEC.SCHOOL
CDF TEST-1
CLASS:XII (NCERT) SUB:CHEMISTRY SUB.Code:043 MARKS:30

Answer all the following questions . 30x1=30

1. Two possible stereo-structures of CH3 CHOHCOOH, which are optically active, are called
(a) atropisomers (b) enantiomers
(c) mesomers (d) diastereomers.

2 The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol b y

(a) elimination (b) dehydrohalogenation (c) addition (d) substitution.

3. In the following reaction

 ‘Ž›o X


›  the product ‘ X’ is

 

(a) C6H 5 CH2OCH2C 6H 5 (b) C6 H 5CH2OH (c) C6H 5 CH3 (d) C6H 5 CH2CH2C6H 5

4. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol requires drastic conditions. But

chlorine of 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced because
(a) NO2 donates e at meta position
(b) NO2 withdraws e from ortho/para positions
(c) NO2 make ring electron rich at ortho and para
(d) NO2 withdraws e from meta position.

5. Which of the following compounds is not chiral?

(a) CH3CHDCH2Cl (b) CH 3CH2CHDCl
(c) DCH2 CH2CH2Cl (d) CH 3CHClCH2D

DMF
6. In a SN 2 substitution reaction of the type R —Br + Cl ⎯⎯⎯→ R—Cl + Br which one of the following has the highest
relative rate?
CH 3
(a) CH3 –

C CH2 Br
–

(b) CH3CH2Br (c) CH3CH 2CH 2Br (d) CH3 – CH – CH2Br

CH 3 CH3
7. Industrial preparation of chloroform employs acetone and
(a) phosgene (b) calcium hypochlorite (c) chlorine gas (d) sodium chloride.
8. Phosgene is a common name for
(a) phosphoryl chloride (b) thionyl chloride (c) carbon dioxide and phosphine (d) carbonyl chloride.

9. Chlorobenzene reacts with Mg in dry ether to give a compound (A) which further reacts with ethanol to yield
(a) phenol (b) benzene (c) ethyl benzene (d) phenyl ether.

10. Reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation is

(a) R – F > R – Cl > R – Br > R – I (b) R – I > R – Br > R – Cl > R – F

(c) R – I > R – Cl > R – Br > R – F (d) R – F > R – I > R – Br > R – Cl
 11. Griganard reagant is prepared by the reaction between
(a) magnesium and alkane
(b) magnesium and aromatic hydrocarbon
(c) zinc and alkyl halide
(d) magnesium and alkyl halide.

12. The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces

(a) iodobenzene (b) phenol (c) benzene (d) ethyl chloride.

13. The reaction, &+

&+ & 21D  &+ &+ &O 1D&O
&+ &+
is called
&+ & 2 &+ &+
(a) Etard reaction &+
(b) Gattermann-Koch reaction
(c) Williamson synthesis
(d) Williamson continuous etherification
process.

14. Consider the following reaction:

Zn dust CH 3Cl Alkaline KMnO4 the product Z is
Phenol X Y Z
Anhyd. AlCl3

(a) benzaldehyde (b) benzoic acid (c) benzene (d) toluene

15. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is

(a) Cn H2n +2 O (b) CnH 2nO 2 (c) Cn H2n O (d) CnH 2n + 1 O

16. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water. It gives

(a) m-bromophenol (c) 2,4-dibromophenol
(b) o-and p-bromophenols (d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol.

17. Phenol is heated with CHCl3 and aqueous KOH when salicylaldehyde is produced. This reaction is known as
(a) Rosenmund’s reaction (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (c) Friedel-Crafts reaction (d) Sommelet reaction.

What is formed when a primary alcohol undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation?

18.
(a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone (c) Alkene (d) Acid

Which one of the following on oxidation gives a ketone?

19.
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol (c) Tertiary alcohol (d) All of these.
20. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH, the product formed is

(a) benzaldehyde (b) salicylaldehyde (c) salicylic acid (d) benzoic acid.

CH3 CHO and C 6H 5CH 2CHO can be distinguished chemically by

21.
(a) Benedict’s test (b) Iodoform test (c) Tollen’s reagent test (d) Fehling’s solution test

22. Consider the reaction : RCHO + NH2NH2 ® RCH N – NH2 What sort of reaction is it?
(a) Electrophilic addition-elimination reaction
(b) Free radical addition-elimination reaction
(c) Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction
(d) Nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction

Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?
23.
(a) Acetophenone (b) Methyl acetate (c) Acetamide (d) 2-Hydroxypropane

24. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?

(a) Glycol with KOH (b) Zn-Hg with HCl (c) LiAlH 4 (d) H 2 and Pt as catalyst

25.
Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the
corresponding alcohol and acid?
O
(a) C6H5CHO (b) CH3CH2 CH2CHO (c) CH3 – C – CH3 (d) C6H 5CH2CHO

26. Reduction by LiAlH 4 of hydrolysed product of an ester gives

(a) two alcohols (b) two aldehydes (c) one acid and one alcohol (d) two acids.

27. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is called
(a) Cope reduction (b) Dow reduction (c) Wolf-Kishner reduction (d) Clemmensen reduction.

28. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is called

(a) Etard reaction (b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction (c) Wurtz reaction (d) Cannizzaro’s reaction.

29. Aldol condensation will not take place in

(a) CH3 COCH3 (b) CH 3CHO (c) HCHO (d) CH3CH2CHO

30. Formalin is an aqueous solution of

(a) fluorescein (b) formic acid (c) formaldehyde (d) furfuraldehyde.
 SKV VIDHYAASHRAM SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL
CDF TEST BIOLOGY XII BIO-MAT & BIO-CS 30 QUESTIONS

1. The replication occur within the small opening of DNA helix referred to as
1) Replication fork 2) Duplication fork 3) DNA fork 4) RNA fork
2. RNA primer is must for initiation of DNA duplication as it
1) Holds the nucleotides to be added 2) Activates DNA polymerase
3) Activates RNA polymerase 4) Stops DNA duplication
3. A gene of operon which synthesizes a repressor protein is
1) Promoter gene 2) Structural gene 3) Operator gene 4) Regulator gene
4. An operon is considered to regulate a
1) Translational unit 2) Genetic unit
3) Protein unit 4) Unspecific; unspecific
5. Firstly, who proposed the presence of adaptor molecule which could read the code on one end, and
other hand bind to specific amino acid?
1) Watson 2) Crick 3) Mendel 4) Khorana
6. Mutations that do not go along with the gametes are classified as
1) Auxotrophic mutation 2) Somatic mutation
3) Morphological mutation 4) Oncogenes
7. Fully processed ℎ RNA is called
1) mRNA 2) rRNA 3) tRNA 4) sRNA
8. Which of the following statement is correct?
1) A forms 2 hydrogen bonds with G; T forms 3 hydrogen bonds with C
2) A forms 3 hydrogen bonds with T; G forms 3 hydrogen bonds with C
3) A forms 2 covalent bonds with T; G forms 3 covalent bonds with C
4) A forms 2 hydrogen bonds with T; G forms 3 hydrogen bonds with C
9. The order and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequences of the bases in
1) rRNA 2) mRNA 3) tRNA 4) All of these
10. Which of the following groups of codons code for amino acid serine?
1) CUU, CUC , CUA and CUG 2) UAU , UAC, UGU and UGC
3) UCU, UCC, UCA and UCG 4) UGU, UGC, UGA and UAG
11. Degeneracy of genetic code is due to
1) Functional 61 codons and 20 amino acids 2) Functional 64 codons and 20 amino acids
3) Functional 20 codons and 20 amino acids 4) Functional 20 codons and 61 amino acids
12. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by
1) RNA polymerase 2) Ribosome 3) Transcription factor 4) anticodon
13. In . , hydrolysis of disaccharide, lactose into galactose and glucose is performed by
1) Permease 2) Catalase 3) β-galactosides 4) Transacylase
14. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino
acids?
1) 61 2) 60 3) 20 4) 64
15. The strand of DNA acting as template, for mRNA transcriptionis
I. Coding strand II. Non-coding strand
III. Sense strand IV. Anti-sense strand
The correct answer is
1) I and III 2) I and IV 3) II and IV 4) II and III
16. The length of DNA usually depends on
1) Position of nucleotides 2) Number of nucleotides
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) None of the above
17. Formation of mRNA from DNA is
1) Translation 2) Transcription 3) Transformation 4) transduction
18. In DNA if, adenine is a, guanine is b, cytocine is c thymine is d.
Which of the following options is true?
1) a + b = d + c 2) a + d = b + d 3) a + c = c + d 4) a + c = b + c
19. Who coined the term ‘gene’?
1) Johanssen 2) Watson 3) Morgan 4) Williamson
20. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1) Ribosomal RNA Carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
2) Transcription Process by which protein is synthesized
3) Translation Process by which mRNA carries the information from nucleus to the
ribosome
4) Anticodon Siteof tRNA molecule that contains complementary bases to the
triple code on the mRNA
21. VNTR belongs to the class of satellite DNA referred to as
1) Microsatellite DNA 2) Minisatellite DNA 3) Megasatellite DNA 4) Repetitive DNA
22. RNA being a catalyst was reactive and hence …A… . Therefore, DNA has evolved from RNA with …B…
modification that makes it more …C…
Choose the correct option for A, B and C
1) A-stable, B-physical, C-stable 2) A-stable, B-chemical, C-stable
3) A-unstable, B-chemical, C-stable 4) A-unstable, B-chemical, C-unstable
23. Cosider the following statements :
I.rRNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins.
II.tRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code.
III.RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription.
IV.A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called intron.
1) I and III are correct
2) I and II are correct
3) I, II and III are correct
4) II and III are correct
24. How many RNAs are there for the stop codon?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) None of these
25. Lactose is a substrate for
1) Galactosidase 2) α-galactosidase 3) β-galactosidase 4) γ- galactosidase
26. Which of the following statement about Griffith’s experiment is right?
I. S-strain have capsule
II. Mouse will die if injected with living S-strain
III. Mouse will die if injected with living R-strain
IV. Transforming principle associated with capsule of S-strain
V. Transformation of R-strain into S-strain can take place in a test-tube
1) I and II 2) III and IV 3) I, II and V 4) III, IV and V
27. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is associated with
1) Point mutation 2) Tautomerism 3) Capping 4) Okazaki fragments
28. Wobble hypothesis was given by
1) Watson 2) Crick 3) Khorana 4) Gamow
29. How many base pairs of DNA helix are contained in a typical nucleosome?
1) 400 2) 300 3) 200 4) 100
30. Major countries who contributed or participated in human genome project were
I. Japan II. France
III. Germany IV. China
Choose the correct combination
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV