aerodie

AERODYNAMICS MIDTERM EXAM #1
Basic Properties of Physics
1) What is power?
a) Ability to do power
b) Work done per unit of time
c) Energy due to motion
d) Mass times acceleration
2) Air density is:
a) Total mass of air particles per unit of volume

b) Total mass of air particles at a given temperature
c) The volume of air at a given temperature
d) The volume of air particles
3) What is Newton’s Third Law?
a) A push or pull exerted on a body

b) F = m x a
c) For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
d) A body at rest tends to stay at rest; a body in motion tends to stay in motion unless acted upon
by an outside force
4) What is the value of atmospheric pressure on a standard day?
a) 2116 lb/ft2
b) 29.92” Hg
c) 32.17 ft/sec3
d) 2116 ft2/lb
5) On what property is speed of sound most dependent?
a) Pressure
b) Density
c) Temperature
d) Weight
6) A student trims the airplane because:
a) If the airplane is trimmed it is in equilibrium flight

b) If he doesn’t the instructor will yell at him
c) Trimming reduces pressure on the control stick and rudder thus making the plane easier to fly
d) Both b and c are correct
7) What is aerodynamic force (AF)?
a) A force vector which is always oriented parallel to relative wind

b) A force vector which is a result of pressure and friction distributed over an airfoil
c) A coefficient which depends solely on angle of attack and camber
d) A force vector which is always oriented perpendicular to relative wind
8) What must a pilot due to maintain constant altitude and indicated airspeed as aircraft weight decreases
due to fuel consumption?
a) Maintain constant true airspeed and reduce angle of attack
b) Increase true airspeed and reduce angle of attack
c) Increase true airspeed and increase angle of attack
d) Increase true airspeed and maintain constant angle of attack
9) Aerodynamic force is expressed in units of:
a) Slugs
b) lbs/ft2
c) Ft - lbs
d) Lbs
10) Maximum lift will be attained at what point?
a) L/D maximum AOA

b) Minimum drag AOA
c) C LMAS AOA
d) Maximum velocity airspeed
11) In a constant altitude turn, what must the vertical component of lift be equal to?
a) Induced drag
b) Horizontal lift component
c) Weight
d) Thrust
12) What is the effect of an increase in AOA, at a constant TAS, on the moment about the aerodynamic
center (AC) of a positive cambered airfoil?
a) The pitching moment about the AC increases

b) The pitching moment about the AC decrease
c) The pitching moment about the AC remains constant but will vary if g, S, or camber are
changed
d) No pitching moment about the AC is provided
KEY
1) b
2) a
3) c
4) b
5) c
6) c
7) b
8) a
9) d
10) c
11) c
12) c
1) What is a moment?

b) A force acting over a distance to produce rotation about an axis
c) Mass per unit of volume
d) A force acting toward the center of the Earth
2) What affect does an increase in altitude have on temperature?
a) Decreases until 25,000’ and then remains constant

b) Decreases until there are no molecules of air
c) Decrease until 36,000’ and then remains constant until 80,000’
d) Decreases until 0 degrees is reached
3) If altitude is held constant, a decrease in temperature has what affect on density?
a) An increase
b) No affect
c) A decrease
4) Which one of the following causes a change in the speed of sound?
a) Density
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Humidity
5) An aircraft is climbing vertically at a constant airspeed in equilibrium flight. Which of these is true?
a) Thrust equals weight

b) Lift equals weight
c) Kinetic energy equals potential energy
d) Thrust equals weight plus drag
6) What is humidity?
a) Mass per unit of volume?

b) Amount of water vapor in the air
c) Amount of oxygen in the air
d) A measure of air’s resistance to flow
7) What is the effect of runway temperature if the airfield static pressure remains constant and density
increases, according to the General Gas Law?
a) Air temperature increases

b) Air temperature decreases
c) There is no effect
Airplane Terminology
8) What are the 5 major components of an airplane?
a) Wings, fuselage, empennage, landing gear, engine

b) Wings, cockpit, empennage, flaps, engine
c) Fuselage, rudder, empennage, ailerons, engine
d) Fuselage, empennage, engine/transmission assembly, vertical stabilizer, rudder
9) What three major components comprise an empennage?
a) Vertical stabilizer, elevator, trim tabs

b) Horizontal stabilizer, rudder, fuselage
c) Rudder, elevator, and the aft part of the fuselage
d) Vertical stabilizer, horizontal stabilizer, and the aft part of the fuselage
10) All changes in aircraft attitude occurs about which position?
a) Aerodynamic center (AC)

b) Center of pressure (CP)
c) Center of gravity (CG)
d) Cockpit
11) Yaw is defined as the motion of the longitudinal axis about which axis?
a) Lateral axis
b) Longitudinal axis
c) Vertical Axis
d) Horizon
12) The wingspan of the T-34c is:
a) 35’ 3”
b) 33’ 5”
c) 53’ 3”
d) 34’ 4”
13) The wings of the T-34c are tapered:
a) On the leading edge

b) On the trailing edge
c) At the root
d) Both a and b
14) What control surfaces control roll?
a) Elevators
b) Rudder
c) Control stick
d) Ailerons
15) The apparent surface area of the wing from wing tip to wing tip is the:
a) Taper
b) Aspect ration
c) Wing area
d) Sweep angle
16) What is airspeed considered to be in the study of aerodynamics?
a) A uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a solid

b) A non-uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a solid
c) A uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a fluid
d) A non-uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a fluid
17) What is indicated airspeed?
a) It is the actual aircraft velocity through an air mass

b) It is the result of correcting for errors in the instrument due to position or location
c) It is the result of correcting calibrated airspeed (CAS) for compressibility effects
d) It is the instrument indication for some given flight condition
18) An aircraft is stabilized in level flight at 600 knots TAS with a ground speed of 8 nautical miles per
minute. What is the wind component?
a) 120 knot headwind

b) 120 knot tailwind
c) 120 knot crosswind
d) 120 knot downdraft
19) What component in the pitot-static system provides total pressure input?
a) The density spring

b) The static pressure port
c) The barometric unit
d) The pitot tube
20) What change in mach number occurs as an aircraft descends at a constant 350 knots IAS?
a) Mach number increases

b) Mach number decreases
c) Mach number remains the same
d) There is no mach number at this speed
Lift and Stalls
21) What is the chord line of an airfoil?
a) A straight line extending from the upper surface to the lower surface of an airfoil
b) A straight line extending from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil
c) A straight line extending from the wing root to the wing tip
d) A diagonal line from the leading edge wing root to the trailing edge wing tip
22) What is the angle formed between the wing chord line and the longitudinal axis?
a) Angle of attack
b) Angle of incidence
c) Pitch angle
d) Sideslip angle
23) What is the aerodynamic force equation?
a) AF = qSC F
b) AF = qSC L
c) AF = qSC D
d) AF = qSC HAC C
24) What change in angle of attack is needed to maintain a constant amount of lift as aircraft TAS
decreases?
a) An increase
b) A decrease
c) No change
d) It is not possible to maintain a constant amount of lift as TAS decreases
25) What is the single largest factor in increasing an aircraft’s stall speed?
a) Increasing weight
b) Decreasing weight
c) Decreasing air density
d) Decreasing humidity
26) What two factors does the pilot control that affect the coefficient of lift?
a) Velocity and density

b) Velocity and angle of attack
c) Angle of attack and density
d) Angle of attack and camber
27) Which of the following, when doubled, will cause the greatest increase in lift?
a) Velocity
b) Coefficient of lift
c) Density
d) Area
28) According to the lift equation (L = 1/2pV2SCL), upon what variables is lift directly dependent?
a) TAS, S, V
b) TAS, q, S
c) TAS, C, S, density
d) TAS, p, CL, S
29) At zero degrees angle of attack, a symmetrical airfoil will produce:
a) Lift, but less than a positively cambered airfoil

b) No form drag
c) No induced drag
d) No net aerodynamic force
30) What change in the coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) occurs at angles of attack greater than C LMAX ?
a) Coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) increases

b) Coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) decreases
c) Coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) remains constant
31) What is equivalent to parasite area (f)?
a) A cross-sectional area of the aircraft

b) A combination of an aircraft’s cross-sectional area presented to the relative wind and other
aircraft surfaces over which air flows
c) The airfoil surfaces which have the same texture
d) Aircraft surfaces where parasite drag values are equal
32) Vortices can cause one or both of the wings of a trailing plane to stall.
a) True
b) False
Thrust and Power
33) Power required is:
a) The amount of power required to lift the weight of an aircraft

b) The amount of power needed to reduce drag
c) The amount of power required to produce thrust required
d) The amount of power required to start the aircraft’s engines
34) The amount of thrust that an aircraft’s engines are actually producing at a give throttle setting, velocity
and density is:
a) Thrust required
b) Thrust available
c) Power required
d) Thrust horsepower
35) As air density decreases, power available:
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
36) Thrust horsepower depends only on thrust and velocity.
a) True
b) False
37) As the throttle is retarded, thrust available:
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
38) As air density decreases, thrust available:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
39) The T-34c’s engines are limited by the Navy to:
a) 1350 SHP
b) 1015 SHP
c) 400 SHP
d) 425 SHP
40) Propeller efficiency (pe):
a) Determines power required

b) Is the ability of the engine to turn engine output into thrust
c) Is a turboprop’s engine output
d) Is propeller output
41) For a turbojet, max thrust excess occurs at:
a) L/D
b) L/D minimum
c) L/D maximum
d) TAS
42) With an increase in altitude:
a) Power excess increases

b) Power excess decreases
c) Power excess remains constant
KEY
1) b
2) c
3) a
4) c
5) d
6) b
7) b
8) a
9) d
10) c
11) c
12) b
13) d
14) d
15) c
16) c
17) d
18) a
19) d
20) b
21) b
22) b
23) a
24) a
25) a
26) b
27) a
28) d
29) a
30) a
31) b
32) a
33) c
34) d
35) a
36) b
37) c
38) b
39) d
40) b
41) c
42) b
1) What is the definition of power?
a) The ability to do work

2) What is the definition of density?
a) Force per unit area

b) Mass per unit of volume
c) Mass times gravity
d) Mass times velocity squared
3) What is an example of an aircraft operating under Newton’s Law of Equilibrium?
a) An aircraft making a turn while maintaining constant true airspeed (TAS) and altitude
b) An aircraft maintaining straight and level flight at a constant TAS
c) An aircraft pulling out of a dive at a constant TAS
d) An aircraft accelerating in straight and level flight due to an increase in thrust
4) How does an increase in altitude affect static pressure?
a) Increases
b) No change
c) Decreases
5) What would cause an increase in the density of air?
a) Increase in altitude
b) Decrease in pressure
c) Increase in temperature
d) Decrease in altitude
6) What property is the Greek letter p (Rho) used to represent?
a) Density
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Viscosity
7) What affect does an increase in altitude have on the speed of sound and why?
a) Increase due to decrease in temperature

b) Decrease due to decrease in density
c) Increase due to decrease in pressure
d) Decrease due to decrease in temperature
8) What atmospheric conditions would provide the greatest air density?

a) Hot temperature, low static pressure, low humidity
b) Hot temperature, low static pressure, high humidity
c) Cold temperature, low static pressure, high humidity
d) Cold temperature, high static pressure, low humidity
9) What are the five major components of an airplane?

d) Fuselage, empennage, engine/transmission assembly, vertical stabilizer, tail rudder
10) Pitch is defined as the motion of the longitudinal axis about which axis?
a) Longitudinal
b) Lateral
c) Vertical
d) The horizon
11) All motion or changes in an aircraft’s attitude occurs about which position?

d) The cockpit
12) What control surface is used for longitudinal control?
a) Rudder
b) Elevators
c) Ailerons
d) Flaps
13) The wing of the T-34 are tapered to:
a) Increase weight, improve structural stiffness, reduce wing tip vortices

b) Reduce weight, improve structural stiffness, reduce wing tip vortices
c) Reduce weight, remove structural stiffness, reduce wing tip vortices
d) Increase weight, improve structural stiffness, and increase wing tip vortices
a) Elevators
b) Rudder
c) Control stick
d) Ailerons
15) Aspect ration (AR) is:
a) The ratio of the wingspan to the tip of the chord (C T )

b) The ratio of the root chord (C 2 ) to the tip of the chord (C T )
c) The ratio of the wingspan to the average chord (c)
d) The ration of wingspan to the root chord (C 2 )
16) The fuselage construction of the T-34 is:
a) Full cantilever
b) Full monocoque
c) Semi-monocoque
d) Paper mache
Basic Aerodynamic Principles
17) What four airflow properties must remain constant on an airfoil to have a steady airflow?
a) Viscosity, temperature, pressure, density

b) Velocity, temperature, pressure, density
c) Lift, weight, thrust, drag
d) Friction, viscosity, density, lift
18) What is the continuity equation for an incompressible airflow?
a) F = m x a
b) A 1 V 1 = A 2 V 2
c) H T = q + P 3
d) q = 1/2pV2
Lift and Stalls
19) What is the angle of the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind?
a) Angle of attack
c) Pitch angle
d) Slideslip angle
20) What is the static pressure distribution about a positively cambered airfoil at zero angle of attack in
level flight?
a) The static pressure distribution is equal over all portions of the airfoil
b) The static pressure distribution is less over the upper surface of the airfoil
c) The static pressure distribution is less over the lower surface of the airfoil
d) The static pressure over the upper surface is equal to atmospheric static pressure
21) What is the aerodynamic lift equation?
a) L = qSC F
b) L = qSC L
c) L = qSC D
d) L = qSC MAC C
22) What must a pilot do to accelerate an aircraft, yet maintain constant altitude?
a) Add thrust and decrease lift as TAS increases

b) Add thrust and increase angle of attack as TAS increases
c) Add thrust and decrease angle of attack as TAS increases
d) Reduce thrust and increase angle of attack as TAS increases
23) What is the cause of a stall if an aircraft rolls into a 60 degree angle of bank turn and pulls 3 g’s at 200
knots?
a) Excessive angle of bank

b) Excessive g loading
c) Excessive airspeed
d) Excessive angle of attack
24) According to the lift equation, in a slow speed situation such as landing, angle of attack will be:
a) Smaller than at cruising speed because we need less lift

b) Larger than at cruising speed in order to maintain the same lift at slower velocities
c) Dependent upon drag
d) None of the above
25) How do you compute Aerodynamic Surface Area (Wing Surface Area)?
a) Divide the wingspan by average chord

b) Multiply wingspan by average chord
c) Squaring average chord
d) Squaring the wingspan
26) What type of airflow and associated energy levels comprise the boundary layer?
a) The boundary layer has high energy laminar flow

b) The boundary layer has low energy turbulent flow
c) The boundary layer is comprised of both laminar and turbulent airflow with
the laminar airflow having the highest energy level
d) The boundary layer is comprised of both laminar and turbulent airflow with
the turbulent airflow having the highest energy level
27) Which of the following are two types of BLC devices?
a) Fixed slots and regulated slots

b) Fixed slots and automatic slots
c) Broken slots and fixed slots
d) Intermittent slots and fixed slots
Drag and Wake Turbulence
28) Drag is:
a) Parallel to the chord line

b) Parallel to the thrust vector
c) Perpendicular to the lift vector
d) Parallel to the centerline of the fuselage
29) Airfoil efficiency at various angles of attack is expressed by the ratio of:
a) Lift to dynamic pressure

b) Lift to drag
c) Lift to weight
d) Lift to velocity
30) High induced drag is associated with low angles of attack.

a) True
b) False
31) Parasite drag always decreases with increases in velocity.
a) True
b) False
32) L/D Maximum AOA is equivalent to all but which of the following.
a) Minimum drag AOA

b) AOA where parasite drag equals induced drag
c) Maximum lift AOA
d) Wing’s most efficient AOA
33) What change in induced drag occurs as airfoil angle of attack increases in a stall?
a) Induced drag increases as lift decrease

b) Induced drag decreases as lift increases
c) Induced drag remains constant as lift decreases
34) Vortices may instantly change the direction of the:
a) Crosswind
b) Headwind
c) Relative wind
35) Small planes have nothing to worry about when operating within 3 rotor diameters of a hovering
helicopter.
a) True
b) False
Thrust and Power
36) Thrust required refers to:
a) The amount of thrust that is required to overcome drag

b) The amount of thrust needed to reduce drag
c) The amount of thrust needed to maintain constant speed when flying into a headwind
d) The amount of thrust needed to lift the weight of the plane
37) To find power required:
a) Multiply trust required by drag

b) Multiply thrust required by velocity
c) Divide thrust required by drag
d) Divide thrust required by velocity
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
39) In a turboprop engine, its output is called:
a) Propeller efficiency (p.e.)

b) Thrust horsepower (THP)
c) Shaft horsepower (SHP)
d) Horsepower
40) Thrust horsepower refers to:
a) Engine output
b) Propeller output
c) The torque produced by the engine
41) The T-34’s greatest maintainable airspeed without descending is:
a) 490 KIAS at sea level

b) 390 KIAS at sea level
c) 190 KIAS at sea level
d) 90 KIAS at sea level
42) If a plane is in equilibrium flight at zero angle of attack, an increase in weight requires:
a) Decrease in thrust required

b) Increase in thrust required
c) Decrease in power required
d) Decrease in power available
43) With an increase in altitude, the power required curve shifts:
a) Up and right
b) Down and right
c) Up and left
d) Right only
KEY
1) b
2) b
3) b
4) c
5) d
6) a
7) d
8) d
9) a
10) b
11) c
12) c
13) b
14) d
15) c
16) c
17) b
18) b
19) a
20) b
21) b
22) c
23) d
24) b
25) b
26) c
27) b
28) c
29) b
30) b
31) a
32) c
33) a
34) c
35) b
36) a
37) b
38) a
39) a
40) b
41) c
42) b
43) a
1) What is power?
a) Ability to do work
2) What forces act on an aircraft in flight?
a) Lift and thrust

b) Lift and drag
c) Lift, drag and thrust
d) Lift, drag, weight and thrust
3) Total energy is comprised of what two types of energy?
a) Potential and kinetic

b) Potential and dynamic
c) Kinetic and dynamic
d) Dynamic and static
4) What is the relationship between altitude and density?
a) Direct
b) Independent
c) Inverse
5) What is the standard day temperature of air?
a) 500o R
b) -30o C
c) 59o C
d) 59o F
6) What force relationship must exist for an aircraft to maintain equilibrium flight?
a) Lift must equal weight

b) The sum of all the forces and moments action about the center of gravity must equal zero
c) Thrust must equal weight
d) Thrust must equal drag
7) What would increase the density of air acting on an aircraft?
a) An increase in air temperature

b) An increase in altitude
c) A decrease in altitude
d) A decrease in static pressure where temperature is constant
8) What equation expresses the General Gas Law?
a) P = pKT
b) p = P/RT
c) P = pT
d) RP = pT
a) Wings, fuselage, empennage, landing gear and engine

b) Wings, rudder, fuselage, ailerons and engine
c) Rudder, elevator and the aft part of the fuselage
d) Vertical stabilizer, horizontal stabilizer and the aft part of the fuselage
10) What three major components comprise the empennage?
a) Vertical stabilizer, elevator and trim tabs

b) Horizontal stabilizer, rudder and fuselage
d) Vertical stabilizer, horizontal stabilizer and the aft part of the fuselage
11) Roll is defined as the movement of the lateral axis about which axis?
a) Lateral
b) Longitudinal
c) Vertical
d) Horizon
12) Where do all the changes in aircraft attitude take place?
a) Aerodynamic center
b) Center of pressure
c) Center of lift
d) Center of gravity
13) The wingspan includes the area within the fuselage area?
a) True
b) False
14) Dihedral angle can be seen looking at the aircraft head on. The wings will angle down slightly.
a) True
b) False
15) The wings of the T-34c are tapered to:

c) At the root
d) Both a and b are correct
16) A cord is:
a) An infinitely long straight line drawn through the leading ad trailing edges of an airfoil
b) The wings center line
c) A measure of the length of the wing
d) The average distance from the wing root to the wingtip

17) What is Bernoulli’s equation?
a) M = V/Va
b) H T = q + P 3
c) H T = q - P 3
d) A 1 V 1 = A 2 V 2
18) According to the continuity equation for incompressible airflow, what is the relationship between area,
airflow velocity and mass airflow?
a) Airflow velocity increases as stream tube area increases, to maintain a constant mass airflow
b) Airflow velocity increases as stream tube area decreases, to maintain a constant mass airflow
c) Airflow velocity remains constant as stream tube area decreases, to maintain a constant mass
airflow
d) Airflow velocity decreases as stream tube area decreases, to maintain a constant mass airflow
19) How does the pitot-static system function?
a) It subtracts static pressure from total pressure to compute dynamic pressure

b) It subtracts pressure from dynamic pressure to compute indicated airspeed
c) It subtracts pressure from dynamic pressure to compute true airspeed
d) It adds pressure to dynamic pressure in order to compute total pressure
20) What is airspeed considered to be in the study of aerodynamics?
a) A uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a solid

b) A non-uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a solid
c) A uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a fluid
d) A non- uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a fluid
21) When will the value on the aircraft indicate airspeed indicator equal the aircraft true airspeed?
a) When the static pressure at aircraft altitude is less than static pressure at sea level
b) When the static pressure at aircraft altitude is greater than static pressure at sea level
c) When the static pressure at aircraft altitude is equal to static pressure at sea level
d) When air density at aircraft altitude is equal to air density at sea level, on a standard day
22) What airspeed, when corrected for compressibility effects, results in equivalent airspeed?
a) Indicated airspeed
b) True airspeed
c) Ground airspeed
d) Calibrated airspeed
23) What type of correction must you apply to indicated airspeed (IAS) to calculate true airspeed (TAS)?
a) Temperature correction
b) Density correction
c) Pressure correction
d) Viscosity correction
24) An aircraft is climbing at a constant 350 knots IAS. What change in Mach number occurs as altitude
increases?

c) Mach number remains constant
d) There is no Mach number at this airspeed
Lift and Stalls
25) What is the angle formed between the aircraft’s longitudinal axis and the wing chord line?
a) Angle of attack
c) Pitch angle
d) Sideslip angle
26) What airfoil angle of attack setting is required zero net lift on a positively cambered airfoil?
a) Positive angle of attack

b) Negative angle of attack
c) Zero angle of attack
27) What variables determine the amount of lift produced by an airfoil?
a) True airspeed (TAS), airfoil surface area (S) and aircraft weight (w)
b) True airspeed (TAS), airfoil surface area (S) and total drag (D T )
c) True airspeed (TAS), airfoil coefficient of lift (C L ) and coefficient of total drag (D T )
d) True airspeed (TAS), air density (p), airfoil surface area (S), airfoil angle of attack and camber
28) What happens to an aircraft’s minimum flying speed as it burns off fuel?
a) Stall speed decreases

b) Stall speed increases
c) Stall speed remains constant
29) Lift of an airfoil is always:
a) That component of AF that is perpendicular to RW

b) Perpendicular to drag
c) Perpendicular to flight path
d) All of the above
30) To maintain altitude lift must equal drag.
a) True
b) False
31) If an aircraft is operating at C LMAX AOA, the aircraft is stalled.
a) True
b) False
32) What causes a stall?
a) An increase in lift caused by an increase in AOA

b) A decrease in lift caused by an increase in AOA
c) Excessive AOA
d) Both b and c
33) Why do we want the wing root to stall first?
a) To maintain aileron effectiveness during the first stages of a stall and to provide an
aerodynamic warning
b) To maintain aileron effectiveness during the first stages of a stall and return the plane to
straight and level flight
c) To provide an aerodynamic warning
d) To give a geometric twist to the angle of incidence
34) How will placing tip tanks on the wings affect D P or D i ?
a) Will not effect D P and increase D i

b) Will not effect D i and increase D P
c) Will increase D P and increase D i
d) Will increase D i and not affect D P
35) Why will a wing with high aspect ratio have less induced drag?
a) The wing is very thin

b) The effect of the wingtip vortices is reduced
c) The angle of incidence at the root is more than the angle of incidence at the tip
d) It is designed to fly at higher speeds
36) How does induced drag vary?
a) Directly with velocity squared

b) Inversely with velocity squared
c) Inversely with velocity
d) Directly with velocity cubed
37) What is the relationship between induced drag and aspect ration?
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) No relationship
38) What are three types of parasite drag?
a) Form, interference, leakage

b) Induced, form, interference
c) Form, interference, skin friction
d) Form, skin friction, leakage
39) How can one reduce friction drag?
a) Smooth the exposed surfaces of an airplane

b) Change the AOA
c) Friction can not be reduced
40) Vortices can cause one or more of the wings of a trailing airplane to stall.
a) True
b) False
41) Why does the greatest vortex strength occur when the generating airplane is heavy, slow and clean?
a) Because speed is the most significant factor in the strength of wing tip vortices
b) Because surface area is the most significant factor in the strength of wing tip vortices
c) Because weight is the most significant factor in the strength of wing tip vortices
d) Because weight is the least significant factor in the strength of wing tip vortices
Thrust and Power
42) Power required is:
a) The amount of power needed to lift the weight of the airplane

b) The amount of power needed to reduce drag
c) The amount of power needed to produce thrust required
d) The amount of power needed to start the aircraft engine
a) True
b) False
44) The amount of power the aircraft’s engine is actually producing at a given throttle setting, velocity
and density is:
a) Power horsepower
b) Thrust horsepower
c) Power available
d) Power required
45) Propeller efficiency (pe):

b) The ability of the engine to turn engine output into thrust
c) Is a turboprop’s output
46) The T-34c’s greatest maintainable airspeed without descending is:
a) 490 KIAS at sea level

b) 390 KIAS at sea level
c) 190 KIAS at sea level
d) 90 KIAS at sea level
47) If thrust available is greater than thrust required at a particular velocity:
a) Thrust decreases
b) Thrust excess occurs
c) The plane will stall
48) For a turbojet, max power excess occurs at a velocity greater than:
a) L/D
b) L/D minimum
c) L/D maximum
d) TAS
a) Thrust excess increases

b) Thrust excess decreases
c) Thrust excess remains constant
KEY
1) b
2) d
3) a
4) c
5) d
6) b
7) c
8) b
9) a
10) d
11) b
12) d
13) a
14) b
15) d
16) a
17) b
18) b
19) a
20) c
21) d
22) d
23) b
24) a
25) b
26) a
27) d
28) a
29) d
30) b
31) b
32) d
33) a
34) c
35) b
36) c
37) b
38) c
39) a
40) a
41) c
42) c
43) a
44) c
45) b
46) c
47) b
48) c
49) b
AERODYNAMICS EXAM #5

b) A force acting over a distance to produce rotation about an axis
c) Mass per unit volume

b) The sum of all forces and moments acting about the center of gravity (CG) must equal zero
3) What affect does an increase in humidity have on density?
a) Increases
b) No affect
c) Decreases
4) What is static pressure?
a) Mass per unit volume

b) Average molecular energy of air molecules
c) Weight of a column of air over a given area
d) Air's resistance to flow
5) What change in atmospheric pressure occurs with an increase in altitude?
a) Static pressure increases

b) Static pressure decreases
c) Static pressure remains constant
6) An increase in which of the following will result in an increase in air viscosity?
a) Pressure
b) Density
c) Temperature
d) Weight
7) What are the best density conditions for producing lift?
a) Warm, high pressure, dry air

b) Warm, low pressure, moist air
c) Cold, low pressure, moist air
d) Cold, high pressure, dry air
8) According to the General Gas Law, an increase in temperature has what affect on density?
a) Density decreases
b) Density increases
c) Density remains constant

d) Fuselage, rudder, ailerons, elevator, engine
a) Lateral
b) Longitudinal
c) Vertical
d) Horizon
11) Pitch is defined as the movement of the longitudinal axis about which axis?
a) Lateral
b) Longitudinal
c) Vertical
d) Horizon
12) Yaw is defined as the movement of the longitudinal axis about which axis?
a) Lateral
b) Longitudinal
c) Vertical
d) Horizon
13) Which of the following is an airplane?
a) The Goodyear blimp

b) H-57
c) F/A-18
d) Hot air balloon
a) 35' 3"
b) 33' 5"
c) 53' 3"
d) 34' 3"
15) The aspect ration (AR) is:
a) The ratio of the wingspan to the tip chord (C T )

b) The ratio of the root chord (C R ) to the tip chord (C T )
c) The ratio of the wingspan to the average chord (c)
d) The ratio of the wingspan to the root chord (C R )
16) A glider has a low aspect ratio (AR) wing.
a) True
b) False
17) What for airflow properties must remain constant at a give point on an airfoil to have a steady airflow?

c) Lift, thrust, drag, weight
18) According to the continuity equation for incompressible airflow, what is the relationship between area, airflow
velocity, and mass airflow?
a) Airflow velocity increases as stream tube area increases, to maintain constant mass airflow
b) Airflow velocity increases as stream tube area decreases, to maintain constant mass airflow
c) Airflow velocity remains constant as stream tube area decreases, to maintain constant mass airflow
d) Airflow velocity decreases as stream tube area decreases, to maintain constant mass airflow
19) For a given altitude, what are the properties of the input provided by the static pressure port to the pitot-static
system?
a) The static pressure value will vary with changes in the aircraft true airspeed (TAS)
b) The static pressure value will vary with changes in the aircraft angle of attack (AOA)
c) The static pressure value will vary with changes in the aircraft weight
d) The static pressure value will vary with changes in atmospheric abient static pressure and altitude
20) What must a pilot do to maintain a constant indicated airspeed (IAS) during a climb?
a) Increase true airspeed (TAS) as altitude increases

b) Decrease true airspeed (TAS) as altitude increases
c) Keep true airspeed (TAS) constant as altitude increases
d) Keep ground speed (GAS) constant as altitude increases
21) When will the value on the aircraft's indicated airspeed indicator equal the aircraft's true airspeed?
a) When the static pressure at aircraft altitude is less than static pressure at sea level, on a standard day
b) When the static pressure at aircraft altitude is greater than static pressure at sea level, on a standard day
c) When the static pressure at aircraft altitude is equal to static pressure at sea level, on a standard day
d) When the air density at aircraft altitude is equal to air density at sea level, on a standard day
22) What is the primary factor in determining calibrated airspeed?
a) Headwind
b) Density
c) Instrument error
d) Tailwind
23) What will be the result of an increases in the dynamic pressure within a closed system, according to Bernoulli's
equation?
a) A decrease in the static pressure

b) An increase in the total pressure
c) An increasing potential energy per unit of volume
d) A decrease in total energy per unit of volume
24) What change in indicated airspeed and dynamic pressure will occur when an aircraft accelerates to a greater true
airspeed at a constant altitude?
a) Indicated airspeed will increase
b) Indicated airspeed will decrease
c) Indicated airspeed will remain constant
d) Dynamic pressure will remain constant
Lift and Stalls
25) What kind of airfoil has a mean camber line that is coincident with the chord line?
a) A positively cambered airfoil

b) A negatively cambered airfoil
c) A symmetrical airfoil
d) A non-symmetrical airfoil
26) The net aerodynamic forces can be resolved into what two component forces?
a) Lift and drag

b) Weight and drag
c) Thrust and drag
d) Dynamic and static pressure
27) What must you do to remain in formation as your aircraft takes on fuel (increasing weight) from the tanker that
is maintaining a constant altitude and true airspeed?
a) Maintain a constant AOA and TAS

b) Decrease AOA and increase TAS
c) Increase AOA and maintain constant TAS
d) Increase AOA and TAS
KEY
1) b
2) b
3) a
4) c
5) b
6) c
7) d
8) a
9) a
10) b
11) a
12) c
13) c
14) b
15) c
16) b
17) b
18) b
19) d
20) b
21) c
22) c
23) a
24) a
25) c
26) a
27) c
a) Increases
b) Remains the same
c) Decreases
2) What is the relationship between altitude and density?
a) Direct
b) Independent
c) Inverse
3) On what property is the speed of sound most dependent?
a) Pressure
b) Density
c) Temperature
d) Weight
4) What are the best conditions for producing lift?
a) Warm, high pressure, dry air

b) Warm, low pressure, moist air
c) Cold, low pressure, moist air
d) Cold, high pressure, dry air

b) A force acting over a surface to produce rotation about an axis
c) Mass per unit of volume
6) An aircraft is climbing vertically at a constant speed in equilibrium flight.
a) Thrust equals weight

b) Lift equals weight
c) Kinetic energy equals potential energy
d) Thrust equals weight plus drag
7) What is the relationship between air temperature and altitude?
a) Air temperature decrease from sea level to 25 K and then remains constant until 80 K
b) Air temperature decrease from sea level to 36 K and then remains constant until 80 K
c) Air temperature decrease as altitude increases until air temperature stabilizes at 0 degrees C
d) Air temperature decreases at a linear rate until 80 K
8) A vector is:
a) A quantity that represents only magnitude

b) The quantity that represents magnitude and direction
c) The distance and direction of a body’s movement
d) The speed and direction of a body’s movement
9) What are the three major components that comprise the empennage?
a) Vertical stabilizer, elevators, trim tabs

d) Horizontal stabilizer, vertical stabilizer, and the aft part of the fuselage
10) Pitch is defined as the movement of the longitudinal axis about which axis?
a) Longitudinal
b) Lateral
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
a) Longitudinal
b) Lateral
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
a) 35’ 3”
b) 33’ 5”
c) 53’ 3”
d) 34’ 3”
13) The root chord is:
a) The chord that measures the wing tip

b) The chord that measures the length of the wing
c) The chord at the wing centerline
d) The width of the wing
14) The angle between a line drawn 25% aft of the leading edge and a line parallel to the lateral axis is:
a) Wing area
b) Taper angle
c) Aspect angle
d) Sweep angle
15) A negative dihedral angle is called:
a) Sweep angle
b) Aspect angle
c) Anhedral angle
d) Spanwise angle
16) There is an inverse relationship between aspect ratio and wing loading.
a) True
b) False
17) For steady airflow:

a) Static pressure, density, temperature, and velocity must increase
b) Static pressure, density, temperature, and velocity must remain constant over time
c) Static pressure, density, temperature, and velocity must decrease
18) In a steady airflow, particles cross streamlines.
a) True
b) False
19) In a streamtube, velocity and area are inversely related.
a) True
b) False
20) Static pressure is a measure of:
a) Energy per unit volume

b) Kinetic energy per unit volume
c) Potential energy per unit volume
d) Weight per unit volume
21) The sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure equals:
a) Total pressure
b) Dynamic pressure
c) Kinetic pressure
d) Continuity pressure
22) The instrument indication for the dynamic pressure the airplane is creating during flight is called:
a) Knots of indicated air speed

b) Indicated air speed
c) Air speed
d) Calibrated air speed
23) A pilot is flying under standard day conditions at sea level. His/her true air speed will:
a) Equal indicated air speed

b) Be greater than indicated air speed
c) Be less than indicated air speed
24) If true air speed is corrected for the movement of the air mass, one gets:
a) Calibrated air speed

b) Equivalent air speed
c) Ground speed
d) Indicated air speed
25) Flight path, relative wind, and angle of attack should be inferred from pitch attitude.
a) True
b) False
26) The T-34c AOA indicator is calibrated so that the airplane stalls between:
a) 29.0 and 29.5 units of AOA
b) 28.5 and 29.0 units of AOA
c) 28.5 and 29.5 units of AOA
d) 29.5 and 30.0 units of AOA
27) An increase in altitude will cause stall speed to:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain the same
28) Power-on stall speed will be _____ than power-off stall speed.
a) More
b) Less
c) The same
29) The primary purpose of high lift devices is to _____ takeoff and landing speeds by _____ stall speed.
a) Increase; reduce
b) Increase; increase
c) Reduce; reduce
d) Reduce; increase
30) Boundary layer devices (BLC)
a) Hurries the separation of the boundary layer as AOA increases beyond the normal stall setting
b) Delays the separation of the boundary layer as AOA increases beyond the normal stall setting
c) Hurries the separation of the boundary layer as AOA decreases beyond the normal stall setting
31) Using flaps _____ the stalling AOA.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change
32) The primary reason for a root first stall pattern is to maintain aileron effectiveness until the wing has
fully stalled
a) True
b) False
33) As weight increases:
a) Stall speed decreases and IAS increases

b) Stall speed increases and IAS decreases
c) Stall speed increases and IAS increases
d) Stall speed decreases and IAS decreases
34) A _____ wing produces an even stall and therefore provides little warning of a stall.
a) Highly swept wing

b) Swept wing
c) Elliptical wing
d) Moderate taper wing
35) When an airfoil is at an angle of attack that produces no net lift, the airfoil is also not producing:
a) Skin friction drag

b) Form drag
c) Parasite drag
d) Induced drag
36) Drag is:
a) Parallel to the chord line

b) Parallel to the thrust vector
c) Perpendicular to the lift vector
d) Parallel to the centerline of the fuselage
37) Minimum total drag occurs where parasite drag equals induced drag.
a) True
b) False
38) Parasite drag always decreases with increases in velocity.
a) True
b) False
39) What are the three type of parasite drag?
a) Form, interference, leakage

b) Induced, form, interference
c) Form, interference, skin friction
d) Form, skin friction, leakage
40) What change in the coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) occurs at angles of attack greater than C LMAX ?
a) Coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) increases

b) Coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) decreases
c) Coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) remains constant
41) It is less difficult for airplanes with shorter wingspans (compared to the vortex generating plane) to
counter the imposed roll.
a) True
b) False
42) Small planes have nothing to worry about when operating within three rotor diameters of any hovering
helicopter.
a) True
b) False
43) Thrust required refers to:
a) The amount of thrust required to overcome drag

b) The amount of thrust needed to reduce drag
c) The amount of thrust needed to maintain a constant air speed when flying into a headwind
d) The amount of thrust needed to lift the weight of the airplane
a) True
b) False
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
46) As air density decreases, thrust available:
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
47) The T-34's engines are limited by the Navy to:
a) 550 SHP
b) 1015 SHP
c) 400 SHP
d) 425 SHP
48) Propeller efficiency (p.e.):

b) Is the ability if the engine to turn engine output into thrust
c) Is a turboprop's engine output
49) For a turbojet, max thrust excess occurs at:
a) L / D
b) L / D minimum
c) L / D max
d) TAS
a) Power excess increases

b) Power excess decreases
c) Power excess remains constant
KEY
1) c
2) c
3) c
4) d
5) b
6) d
7) b
8) b
9) d
10) b
11) a
12) b
13) c
14) d
15) c
16) a
17) b
18) b
19) a
20) c
21) a
22) b
23) a
24) c
25) b
26) a
27) a
28) b
29) c
30) b
31) b
32) a
33) c
34) c
35) d
36) c
37) b
38) b
39) c
40) a
41) b
42) b
43) a
44) a
45) a
46) a
47) d
48) b
49) c
50) b
a) Increase
b) Remains the same
c) Decreases
2) What equation expresses the General Gas Law?
a) P = pKT
b) P = p*RT
c) P = pT
d) RP = pT
3) If altitude is held constant, a decrease in temperature has what affect on density?
a) Increases
b) Remains constant
c) Decrease
4) What affect does an increase in altitude have on the speed of sound and why?
a) Increase due to a decrease in temperature

b) Decrease due to a decrease in density
c) Increase due to a decrease in pressure
d) Decrease due to a decrease in temperature
5) What is the definition of density?
a) Force per unit of area

b) Mass per unit of volume
c) Mass times gravity
d) Mass times velocity squared
6) Mass is:
a) The quantity of molecular material that comprises an object

b) The amount of space occupied by an object
c) The force acting on a body as it moves
d) The rate of doing work per unit of time
7) Temperature is the measure of the average potential energy of air particles.
a) True
b) False
8) The layer of air that remains at a constant -56.5 degrees Celsius is the:
a) Boundary layer
b) Isothermal layer
c) Cold layer
d) Stable layer
9) What are the three major components that comprise an epennage?

a) Vertical Stabilizer, elevator, trim tabs
c) Rudder, elevator, aft part of the fuselage
d) Vertical stabilizer, horizontal stabilizer, the aft part of the fuselage
10) All motion or changes in an aircraft's attitude occurs about which position?

d) The cockpit
11) The wingspan includes the area within the fuselage area.
a) True
b) False
12) The wings of the T-34 are tapered to:
a) Increase weight, improve structural stiffness, and reduce wing tip vortices
b) Decrease weight, improve structural stiffness, and reduce wing tip vortices
c) Increase weight, remove structural stiffness, and reduce wing tip vortices
d) Increase weight, improve structural stiffness, and increase wing tip vortices
13) Aspect ration is:
a) The ratio of the wingspan to the tip chord (C T )

b) The ratio of the root chord (C R ) to the tip chord (C T )
c) The ration of the wingspan to the average chord (c)
d) The ratio of the wingspan to the root chord (C R )
14) The angle between a line drawn 25% aft of the leading edge, and a line parallel to the lateral axis is the:
a) Wing area
b) Taper angle
c) Aspect angle
d) Sweep angle
15) A negative dihedral is called:
a) Sweep angle
b) Taper angle
c) Anhedral angle
d) Spanwise angle
16) What four airflow properties must remain constant at a given point on an airfoil to have a steady airflow?

c) Lift, weight, thrust, drag
17) How does the pitot-static system function?
a) It subtracts static pressure from total pressure to compute dynamic pressure

b) It subtracts pressure from dynamic pressure to compute IAS
c) It subtracts pressure from dynamic pressure to compute TAS
d) It adds/subtracts pressure and dynamic to compute total pressure
18) What type of correction must you apply to an indicated airspeed (IAS) to calculate true airspeed (TAS)?

b) Static pressure, density, temperature, and velocity must remain constant
20) In a steady airflow, particles dross streamlines.
a) True
b) False
21) The instrument indication for the dynamic pressure the airplane is creating during flight is:
a) Knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)

b) Indicated airspeed (IAS)
c) Airspeed
d) Calibrated airspeed
22) A pilot is flying under standard day conditions at sea level. His/her true airspeed will:
a) Equal indicated airspeed

b) Be greater than indicated airspeed
c) Be less than indicated airspeed
23) How does an increase in angle of attack affect the dynamic pressure and static pressure on the upper surface of
an airfoil?
a) The dynamic pressure decreases

b) The static pressure increases
c) The dynamic pressure increase and the static pressure remains constant
d) The dynamic pressure remains constant
24) What variables determine the amount of lift produced by an airfoil?
a) True airspeed (TAS), airfoil surface area (S), and aircraft weight (w)
b) True airspeed (TAS), airfoil surface area (S), and aircraft total drag (D T )
c) True airspeed (TAS), airfoil coefficient of lift (C L ), and coefficient of total drag (D T )
d) True airspeed (TAS), air density (p), airfoil surface area (S), airfoil angle of attack, and airfoil camber
25) What must a pilot do to maintain a constant altitude and indicated airspeed as aircraft weight decreases due to
fuel consumption?
a) Maintain a constant true airspeed and reduce angle of attack

b) Increase true airspeed and reduce angle of attack
c) Increase true airspeed and increase angle of attack
d) Increase true airspeed and maintain a constant angle of attack
26) Maximum lift will be attained at what point?
a) L / D maximum AOA
b) Minimum drag AOA
c) C LMAX AOA
d) Maximum velocity airspeed
27) What is a boundary layer?
a) The airflow layer which is perpendicular to the aircraft's flight path

b) The airflow layer which demonstrates no retardation due to the airfoil's surface
c) The airflow layer which is parallel to the relative wind
d) The airflow layer which shows local airflow retardation caused by viscosity
28) In a stall what is the result of increasing AOA?
a) C L increases and lift decreases

b) C L increases and lift increases
c) C L decreases and lift increases
d) C L decreases and lift decreases
29) Using flaps _____ the stalling AOA.
a) Increases
b) Decrease
c) Does not change
30) Raising flaps from 100% to 50% reduces drag significantly without a large loss of lift.
a) True
b) False
31) As weight increases:
a) Stall speed decreases and IAS increases

b) Stall speed increases and IAS decreases
c) Stall speed increases and IAS increases
d) Stall speed decreases and IAS decreases
32) A _____ wing produces an even stall and therefore provides little warning of a stall.
a) Highly tapered wing

b) Swept wing
c) Elliptical wing
d) Moderate taper wing
33) Which of the following is correct.
a) Parasite drag is constant in level flight

b) Parasite drag equals induced drag at the 1 G stall speed
c) Induced drag is predominant at high velocities and low angles of attack
d) Parasite drag increases with the square of velocity
34) When an airfoil is at an angle of attack that produces no net lift, it is also not producing:
a) Skin friction drag
b) Form drag
c) Parasite drag
d) Induced drag
35) Minimum total drag occurs where parasite drag equals induced drag.
a) True
b) False
36) If an aircraft is flying at L / D maximum AOA changes its velocity, total drag will:
a) Increase
b) Remain the same
c) Decrease
37) What change in induced drag occurs as airfoil angle of attack increases in a stall?
a) Induced drag increases as lift decreases

b) Induced drag decreases as lift decreases
c) Induced drag remains constant as lift decreases
38) What is equivalent parasite area (f)?
a) The cross-sectional area of the aircraft

b) A combination of aircraft cross-sectional area presented to the relative wind and other aircraft surfaces
over which air flows.
c) The airfoil surfaces which have the same texture
d) Aircraft surfaces where parasite drag values are equal
39) Vortices can cause one or more of the wings of a trailing airplane to stall.
a) True
b) False
40) It is lees difficult for an aircraft with short wingspans (compared to the vortex generating aircraft) to counter the
imposed roll.
a) True
b) False
41) To find power required:
a) Multiply thrust required by drag

b) Multiply thrust required by velocity
c) Divide thrust required by drag
d) Divide thrust required by velocity
a) True
b) False
43) Propeller efficiency (p.e.):

b) Is the ability of the engine to turn engine output into thrust
c) Is a turboprop's engine output
44) Thrust horsepower refers to:
a) Engine output
b) Propeller output
c) The torque produced by the engine
45) For a turbojet, max power excess occurs at a velocity greater than:
a) L / D
b) L / D minimum
c) L / D max
d) TAS
46) If a plane is in equilibrium flight at a constant angle of attack, an increase in weight requires:
a) A decrease in thrust required

b) An increase in thrust required
c) A decrease in power required
d) A decrease in power available
KEY
1) c
2) b
3) a
4) d
5) b
6) a
7) b
8) b
9) d
10) c
11) a
12) b
13) c
14) d
15) c
16) b
17) a
18) b
19) b
20) b
21) b
22) a
23) c
24) d
25) a
26) c
27) d
28) d
29) b
30) a
31) c
32) c
33) d
34) d
35) a
36) a
37) b
38) b
39) a
40) b
41) b
42) a
43) b
44) b
45) c
46) b
1) What forces act on an aircraft in flight?
a) Lift and thrust

b) Lift and drag
c) Lift, drag, weight
d) Lift, weight, thrust, drag
2) What is the definition of power?
a) The ability to do work


b) The sum of all forces and moments acting about the center of gravity (CG) must equal zero
4) What is the value of atmospheric pressure on a standard day?
a) 2116 lbs/ft
b) 29.92" Hg
c) 32.17 ft/sec
d) 2116 ft/lbs
5) What affect does an increase in altitude have on temperature?
a) Decreases until 25K' and then remains constant

b) Decreases until there are no molecules of air
c) Decreases until 36K' and then remains constant
d) Decreases until 0 degrees is reached
6) If you are in equilibrium flight, then you are in trimmed flight.
a) True
b) False
7) Air viscosity increases as temperature:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
8) High density altitude will:
a) Decrease the power produced by an engine and increase the thrust produced by the propeller or jet
b) Increase the power produced by an engine and increase the thrust produced by the propeller or jet
c) Decrease the power produced by an engine and decrease the thrust produced by the propeller or jet
d) Increase the power produced by an engine and decrease the thrust produced by the propeller or jet
a) Wings, fuselage, engine, empennage, landing gear

d) Fuselage, empennage, engine, vertical stabilizer, rudder
10) All motion or changes in aircraftattitude occurs about which position?

d) The cockpit
11) The fuselage construction of the T-34 is:
a) Full cantilever
b) Full monocoque
c) Semi-monocoque
d) Paper mache
12) The T-34 uses a dihedral wing to improve:
a) Visibility
b) Maneuverability
c) Appearance
d) Lateral stability
13) The wings of the T-34 are tapered:

c) At the root
d) Both a and b
a) Elevators
b) Rudder
c) Control stick
d) Ailerons
15) The apparent surface area of a wing from wing tip to wing tip is the:
a) Taper
b) Aspect ration
c) Wing area
d) Sweep angle
16) There is an inverse relationship aspect ration and wing area.
a) True
b) False
17) An aircraft is stabilized in level flight at six nautical miles per second ground speed with a tailwind of 100 knots.
What is the aircraft's true airspeed?
a) 460 knots
b) 360 knots
c) 260 knots
d) 160 knots
18) For a given altitude, what are the properties of the input provided by the static pressure port in the pitot-static
system?
a) The static pressure value will vary with changes in aircraft true airspeed (TAS)
b) The static pressure value will vary with changes in aircraft angle of attack (AOA)
c) The static pressure value will vary with changes in aircraft weight
d) The static pressure value will vary with changes in atmospheric abient static pressure and altitude
19) When will the value on the aircraft indicated airspeed (IAS) indicator equal the aircraft true airspeed (TAS)?
a) When static pressure at aircraft altitude is less than static pressure at sea level, on a standard day
b) When static pressure at aircraft altitude is greater than static pressure at sea level, on a standard day
c) When static pressure at aircraft altitude equals static pressure at sea level, on a standard day
d) When static pressure at aircraft altitude equals density at sea level, on a standard day
20) An aircraft is climbing at a constant 350 KIAS. What change occurs in Mach number as altitude increases?

c) Mach number remains constant
d) There is no Mach number at this speed
21) Two identical aircraft are stabilized in level flight. Aircraft 1 is maintaining Mach 2 at 40,000 feet. Aircraft 2 is
maintaining Mach 2 at sea level. What can be said about their respective indicated and true airspeeds?
a) Both aircraft are maintaining the same indicated airspeed (IAS)

b) Both aircraft are maintaining the same true airspeed (TAS)
c) The aircraft flying at sea level is maintaining a greater IAS and TAS than the aircraft at 40,000 feet
d) The aircraft flying at 40,000 feet is maintaining a greater IAS and TAS than the aircraft at sea level
22) What will the result of an increase in the dynamic pressure within a closed system, according to Bernoulli's
equation?
a) A decrease in static pressure

b) An increase in total pressure
c) An increase in potential energy per unit volume
d) A decrease in total energy per unit volume
23) What type of correction must you apply to indicated airspeed (IAS) to calculate true airspeed (TAS)?

b) Static pressure, density, temperature, and velocity must remain constant
Lift and Stalls
25) What is the static pressure distribution about a positively cambered airfoil at zero angle of attack in level flight?
a) The static pressure distribution is equal over all portions of the airfoil
b) The static pressure distribution is less over the upper surface of the airfoil
c) The static pressure distribution is less over the lower surface of the airfoil
26) What airfoil angle of attack setting is required to produce zero net lift on a positively cambered airfoil?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero angle of attack
27) What aerodynamic force component is always perpendicular to the relative wind?
a) Weight
b) Lift
c) Thrust
d) Drag
28) What must a pilot do to accelerate an aircraft, yet maintain a constant altitude?
a) Add thrust and decrease lift as true airspeed increases

b) Add thrust and increase angle of attack as true airspeed increases
c) Add thrust and decrease angle of attack as true airspeed increases
d) Reduce thrust and increase angle of attack as true airspeed increases
29) How do you compute the Aerodynamic Surface Area (Wing Surface Area)?
a) Divide the wingspan by average chord

b) Multiply wingspan by average chord
c) Square the average chord
d) Square the wingspan
30) What causes a stall?
a) An increase in lift caused by an increase in AOA

b) A decrease in lift caused by an increase in AOA
c) Excessive AOA
d) Both b and c
31) Which of the following are BLC devices?
a) Fixed slots and regulated slots

b) Fixed slots and automatic slots
c) Broken slots and fixed slots
d) Intermittent slots and fixed slots
32) Stall speed is the minimum _____ required to maintain level flight at C LMAX AOA.
a) Indicated airspeed
b) Calibrated airspeed
c) True airspeed
d) Equivalent airspeed
34) Aerodynamic twist is an increase in camber from wing root to wingtip.
a) True
b) False
35) When flying at the velocity for L / D maximum in straight and level flight:
a) Induced drag exceeds parasite drag

b) Parasite drag exceeds induced drag
c) Parasite drag equals induced drag
d) Induced drag and parasite drag will vary on the type of airplane
KEY
1) d
2) b
3) b
4) b
5) c
6) b
7) a
8) c
9) a
10) c
11) c
12) d
13) d
14) d
15) c
16) a
17) c
18) d
19) d
20) a
21) c
22) a
23) b
24) b
25) b
26) b
27) b
28) c
29) b
30) c
31) b
32) c
33) b
34) c
35) c
AERODYNAMICS 2 EXAM #1
1) What conditions exist when an airplane is flying a maximum range profile?
a) The aircraft operates at a stall speed and stalling angle of attack

b) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that maximizes total drag per
pound of fuel consumed
c) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that minimizes flying time per
d) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that maximizes velocity per pound
of fuel consumed
2) What change, if any, in engine thrust available (Ta) is necessary to maintain a constant altitude in the region of
reverse command as angle of attack increases and true airspeed decreases?
a) An increase in thrust available

b) A decrease in thrust available
c) No change is necessary
3) What conditions exist when an airplane is flying an endurance profile?
a) The aircraft is flying at stall speed and stalling angle of attack

b) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that maximizes flying time per
c) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that maximizes velocity per pound
of fuel consumed
4) What change, if any, in thrust available (Ta) occurs with an increase in aircraft weight?
a) Thrust available increases

b) Thrust available decreases
c) Thrust available is not affect by aircraft weight
5) The tower tells you to launch your T-34 immediately and climb to 15,000 feet MSL as quickly as possible. How
would you comply with this?
a) Execute a maximum angle of climb profile into the wind

b) Execute a maximum rate of climb profile into the wind
c) Execute a maximum rate of climb profile and disregard the wind
d) Execute a maximum power, C LMAX AOA, and climb into the wind
6) Operation of propeller driven aircraft at increased altitudes will _____ range and _____ endurance due to the
effects of _____.
a) Increase, increase, density

b) Not affect, decrease, density
c) Increase, increase, temperature
d) Increase, not affect, temperature
7) An airplane is gliding at its minimum glide angle at an airspeed of 100 kts. If the plane speeds up to 110 kts, what
will happen to the resultant glide path?
a) Become steeper
b) Remain the same
c) Become more shallow
d) Cause an increase in gliding distance because of a faster descent
8) Two aircraft are identical except for weight, and they are gliding for maximum distance. Both aircraft will be
gliding at:
a) L/D max, same airspeed, and will glide the same distance
b) Same AOA, same airspeed, and will glide the same distance
c) Same AOA, different airspeeds, and will glide different distances
d) L/D max AOA, different airspeeds, and the same distance
9) You are flying in your turboprop aircraft and you lose your engines. To give yourself maximum time aloft you
want to fly max glide endurance. How, if at all, can you increase glide endurance?
a) Turn into the wind to increase lift

b) Fly L/D max AOA
c) Jettison cargo and fuel
d) It is not possible
10) Max operating ceiling for the T-34c is:
a) 14,000'
b) 18,000'
c) 25,000'
d) 27,000'
11) The altitude where excess power permits only a 100 f.p.m. climb rate is called the:
a) Cruising ceiling
b) Combat ceiling
c) Service ceiling
12) What control surface controls the pitching moment around the airplane's CG?
a) The ailerons attached to the trailing edges of the wing

b) The elevator, attached to the trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer
c) The spoilers attached to the wing's upper surface
d) The rudder, attached to the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer
13) Trimming reduces the force required to hold control surfaces in a position necessary to maintain a desired flight
attitude.
a) True
b) False
14) The right aileron trim tab of the T-34 is set by:
a) The pilot after takeoff

b) The manufacturer
c) Maintenance
d) Gremlins
15) The right rudder trim tab is required for:
a) Power decreases and slower airspeeds

b) Power increases and slower airspeeds
c) Power reductions and faster airspeeds
d) Power increases and faster airspeeds
16) The control surfaces are balanced around the:
a) Aerodynamic center of gravity

b) Hingeline
c) Headline
d) Trimline
17) The T-34's control CG's are located:
a) Aft of the hingeline

b) In front of the hingeline
c) On the hingeline
18) Trim tabs provide artificial feel by creating or enhancing control feedback under various conditions.
a) True
b) False
19) The initial tendency of an object to move toward or away from its original equilibrium position is called:
a) Dynamic stability
b) Static stability
c) Divergent oscillation
20) The relationship between stability and instability is:
a) Inverse
b) Equal
c) Independent
21) If a component's aerodynamic center is in front of the airplane's CG, the component will be a _____ contributor
to longitudinal static stability.
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Neutral
22) Which of the following have a positive affect on directional stability?
a) Straight wings, swept wing design, vertical stabilizer

b) Vertical stabilizer only
c) Straight wing design only
d) Fuselage only
23) A _____ mounted wing is a positive contribution, and a _____ mounted wing is a negative contributor to lateral
static stability.
a) Low, high
b) Low, center
c) High, center
d) High, center
24) A dutch roll occurs due to:
a) Strong lateral stability, and strong lateral stability

b) Strong lateral stability, and weak lateral stability
c) Weak lateral stability, and strong lateral stability
d) Weak lateral stability, and weak lateral stability
25) If a pilot encounters pilot induced oscillations, he/she should:
a) Rely on his instinct and make the appropriate corrections

b) Rely on the inherent stability of the aircraft and release the controls
c) Kiss his/her *%& goodbye
26) During spin recovery, the control stick should be forward of neutral. If it is even slightly aft of neutral:
a) A progressive spin will result

b) Spin recovery may take as many as 6 turns
c) Your instructor will yell at you
27) Autorotation is:
a) An aggravated stall
b) A combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to asymmetric
stalling conditions on the wings
c) A combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to symmetric
stalling conditions on the wings
28) Pitch attitude will have a direct impact on the speed an aircraft stalls.
a) True
b) False
29) In a stall the increased AOA on the down-wing decreases CL generated by that wing. The down-going wing also
has:
a) A higher CD due to its increased AOA

b) A lower CD due to its increased AOA
c) No change in CD
30) In a stall, the up-wing has:
a) A higher AOA, less lift, and more drag

b) A lower AOA, less lift, and more drag
c) A higher AOA, more lift, and more drag
d) A lower AOA and more lift
31) In an erect (normal) spin, what type of G's are experienced?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Transverse
32) How does the configuration of the empennage and the placement of the horizontal control surfaces affect spin
recovery?
a) The horizontal stabilizer deflects the relative wind towards or away from the vertical stabilzer
b) The horizontal control surface has no impact on the vertical components of the empennage
c) The empennage has no impact on spin recovery
33) How is load factor or G-load computed?

a) Multiply lift by weight
b) Divide lift by weight
c) Add lift and weight
d) Subtract lift from weight
34) What velocity and angle of attack will result in the minimum radius turn and maximum rate of turn?
a) Redline airspeed and C LMAX AOA

b) Redline airspeed and C LMIN AOA
c) Maneuver airspeed and C LMAX AOA
d) Maneuver airspeed and L/D max AOA
35) If you create 16,000 lbs. of lift in your T-34 and it weighs 4000 lbs., you will experience:
a) 4.5 G's
b) 4 G's
c) 6 G's
36) If your aircraft's limit load is 12, how many G's could you pull before there is a possibility of overstress?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 18
37) What change in limit load will occur during an hour long air combat maneuvering flight?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant
38) The Vg/Vn diagram has no negative accelerated stall line.
a) True
b) False
39) What is true about redline airspeed?
a) Decreases with increasing altitude

b) Is measured in IAS
c) If exceeded could result in wing flutter
d) All of the above
40) The ultimate load factor for a given aircraft is always:
a) 1.0 times the load limit

b) Within the safe flight envelope
c) Greater than the maximum G limits for the aircraft
d) The same as the limit load
41) Maneuvering airspeed for the T-34 is:
a) 130 KIAS
b) 135 KIAS
c) 195 KIAS
d) 280 KIAS
42) What type of strength concerns the cumulative effect of repeat or cyclical loads during service?
a) Static
b) Accelerated
c) Fatigue
d) Brute
43) What affect will an increase in aircraft weight, for a constant amount of lift, have on maneuvering load factor?
a) Maneuvering load factor will increase

b) Maneuvering load factor will decrease
c) Maneuvering load factor will remain constant
d) Weight has no affect on maneuvering load factor
44) What type of drag does ground effect reduce?
a) Parasite
b) Form
c) Skin friction
d) Induced
45) What affect will headwinds have on your TAS on takeoff?
a) Increase
b) Headwinds have no affect on TAS
c) Decrease
d) Explode
46) What effect will an increase in weight have on your takeoff IAS?
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) No effect
47) What factors determine the minimum takeoff distance for an aircraft with uniform acceleration?
a) Weight, velocity, thrust, drag, rolling friction

b) Weight, velocity, thrust drag, pressure
c) Weight, velocity, thrust drag, acceleration
d) Drag, friction, weight, velocity, temperature
48) What effect does an increase in airfield air density have on runway distance required for takeoff?
a) Increases
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant
49) What is the effect of an increase in altitude and abient temperature on landing performance?
a) Landing distance increases because density decreases

b) Landing distance increases because density increases
c) Landing distance decreases because density decreases
d) Landing distance decreases because density increases
50) What change in the aircraft's total lift force occurs in ground effect?
a) Total lift increases

b) Total lift decreases
c) Total lift remains constant
KEY
1) d
2) a
3) b
4) c
5) c
6) c
7) c
8) d
9) c
10) c
11) c
12) b
13) a
14) c
15) b
16) b
17) c
18) a
19) b
20) a
21) a
22) a
23) c
24) b
25) b
26) a
27) b
28) a
29) a
30) d
31) a
32) a
33) b
34) c
35) b
36) b
37) a
38) b
39) d
40) c
41) b
42) c
43) b
44) d
45) b
46) b
47) a
48) b
49) a
50) c
1) What is the effect of an increase in aircraft weight on maximum range?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Not effected
2) In the region of reverse command, what is the result of decreasing velocity?
a) D P increases
b) D P exceeds D l
c) D T decreases
d) D T exceeds D P
3) What is the effect, if any, of a decrease in air density on the maximum angle of attack of climb of an
aircraft?
a) Maximum angle of attack of climb increases

b) Maximum angle of attack of climb decreases
c) Maximum angle of attack of climb is not affected
4) What change in aircraft thrust available (Ta) occurs with an increase in aircraft altitude?
a) Thrust available increases as static pressure decreases with altitude

b) Thrust available decreases as density decreases with altitude
c) Thrust available decreases due to the reduction in temperature at altitude
d) Thrust available will remain constant
5) You are flying a T-34 at max endurance when you receive instructions to climb as fast as possible from
5,000 ft. to 20,000 ft. MSL. What must you do with the throttle setting and angle of attack to comply?
a) Select maximum power and increase AOA to establish a maximum excess power condition
b) Select maximum power and decrease AOA to establish a maximum excess power condition
c) Select maximum power and keep AOA at endurance setting to establish a maximum excess
power condition
d) Select maximum power and L/D max AOA to establish a maximum excess thrust condition
6) The maximum endurance airspeed of an aircraft is the speed where:
a) Most distance per pound of fuel is obtained

b) Fuel flow is minimum
c) Airspeed is minimum
d) AOA is minimum
7) The airspeed for a maximum angle of climb is:
a) The same airspeed for maximum rate of climb

b) The same for jets and props
c) Greater than the airspeed for maximum range
d) Less than the airspeed for maximum rate of climb
8) For a given weight, the minimum thrust to maintain level flight for a turboprop occurs at an airspeed:
a) Equal to L/D maximum

b) Less than L/D maximum
c) Equal to CL maximum
d) Where CD is zero
9) While flying maximum endurance in a T-34 at 10,000 feet, you receive a radio transmission telling you
to climb to 15,000 feet ASAP. What should you do to AOA and power to achieve this?
a) Decrease AOA, increase power

b) Decrease AOA, decrease power
c) Increase AOA, increase power
d) Maintain AOA, increase power
10) If you have thrust, you have power (thrust horsepower).
a) True
b) False
11) Another T-34c wants to race you to 10,000 feet from takeoff. What climb profile should you use?
a) From the thrust curve, use L/D max AOA and airspeed
b) From the power curve, use L/D max AOA and airspeed
c) Fly max power excess at L/D max
d) Both b and c
12) The ailerons control:
a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
13) For trimming, trim tabs are _____ moved in the opposite direction as the control surface.
a) Sometimes
b) Never
c) Always
14) The T-34 rudder and elevator trim will be adjusted:
a) Only once after takeoff

b) Frequently during flight because they are sensitive to power and airspeed changes
c) Never
15) Power changes take precedence at low speed.
a) True
b) False
16) Which form of balancing is used to balance the forces that act at the aerodynamic center?
a) Mass balance
b) Aerodynamic balance
c) Control-free balance
17) Mass balance requires that weights be placed inside control surfaces of the T-34 in the areas forward of
the hingeline to locate the CG on the hingeline.
a) True
b) False
18) A servo trim tab is found on the T-34’s:
a) Aileron
b) Rudder
c) Elevator
19) The position with respect to time or motion of an object after disturbance is called:
a) Dynamic stability
b) Static stability
c) Divergent oscillation
20) To increase an airplane’s maneuverability you could:
a) Strengthen stability and use larger control surfaces

b) Weaken stability and use larger control surfaces
c) Weaken stability and use smaller control surfaces
21) The neutral point defines the farthest aft CG position without negative stability.
a) True
b) False
22) Which of the following has a negative effect on directional stability?
a) Straight wings
b) Swept wings
c) Fuselage
d) Vertical stabilizer
23) Swept wings are laterally stabilizing.
a) True
b) False
24) Phugoid oscillations are long period oscillations (20-100 seconds) of altitude and airspeed while
maintaining a nearly constant angle of attack.
a) True
b) False
25) The T-34c is not subject to pilot induced oscillations since it does not have strong longitudinal static
stability.
a) True
b) False
26) In a spin, if you apply opposite rudder but hold full back stick you will:
a) Enter a progressive spin

b) Enter a flat spin
c) Enter an inverted spin
d) Buy the farm
27) What factors make up a spin?
a) An incomplete stall, roll and drag

b) A complete stall, yaw and roll
c) A rolling moment
28) The higher the pitch attitude, the _____ the vertical component of thrust, and the _____ the stall speed.
a) Greater, higher
b) Greater, lower
c) Lesser, higher
d) Lesser, lower
29) In a stall, the greater lift on the up-going wing results in:
a) A continued rolling motion of the airplane

b) A continued yawing motion of the airplane
c) Discontinuing the rolling motion of the airplane
d) Discontinuing the yawing motion of the airplane
30) The turn needle is the only reliable indicator of spin direction.
a) True
b) False
31) In an inverted spin, what type of G’s are experienced?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Transverse
32) The spin recovery technique in the T-34 is forward stick and opposite rudder.
a) True
b) False
33) What is the maximum aircraft limit load factor?
a) The maximum load factor that can be sustained without over-stressing the aircraft
b) The load factor at which structural failure occurs
c) The airspeed at which structural failure occurs
d) The maximum amount of weapons the wing can hold
34) What flight regime will produce sufficient aerodynamic force to cause the airplane structure to flex,
resulting in wing flutter, aileron reversal, or wing divergence?
a) Flight at red-line airspeed

b) Flight at a velocity greater than red-line airspeed
c) Flight at a velocity greater than maneuver airspeed
d) Flight at a velocity greater than Vmin
35) If you increase airspeed, your red-line airspeed will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant
36) What values are plotted on the to axes of the Vg/Vn diagram?
a) TAS and G’s

b) IAS and weight
c) G’s and “n” factor
d) Load factor and IAS
37) Which of the following should you increase to decrease the size of the V-n diagram?
a) Altitude
b) Weight
c) Asymmetrical wing loading
d) All of the above
38) Exceeding limit load at maneuver airspeed will always cause structural damage.
a) True
b) False
39) Positive accelerated stalls:
a) Never occur above maneuver speed

b) At a constant airspeed will always occur before over-stress
c) Are always above the positive load limit
40) Turbulent penetration airspeed is 2/3 of maneuver airspeed.
a) True
b) False
41) In a standard rate turn, you will turn 360o in:
a) 60 seconds
b) 90 seconds
c) 120 seconds
d) 180 seconds
42) What is the structural deformation which occurs as a function of time because the part is subjected to
constant stress that causes plastic strain?
a) Yield stress
b) Ultimate stress
c) Aerodynamic stress
d) Creep damage
43) What will cause both limit load factor and ultimate load to decrease?
a) An increase in altitude
b) A decrease in altitude
c) An increase in gross weight
d) A decrease in gross weight
44) Which of the following factors has the greatest affect on takeoff distance?
a) Velocity
b) Weight
c) Rolling friction
d) Density
45) What is the safest way to stop after touchdown?
a) Aerodynamic braking
b) Friction braking
c) Crash into a wall
d) Both a and b
46) Two identical aircraft prepare for takeoff. The first aircraft will be departing from NAS Oceana, VA
(sea level). The other from Colorado Springs (6930 feet). Which aircraft will have a longer takeoff roll
and why?
a) Colorado Springs: lower air density causes an increase in takeoff TAS

b) NAS Oceana: higher air density causes an increase in takeoff TAS
c) Colorado Springs: lower air density causes an increase in takeoff IAS
d) NAS Oceana: lower air density causes an increase in takeoff IAS
47) When is rolling friction greatest during takeoff?
a) At the beginning
b) At the half way point
c) At the 2/3 point
d) At the point of liftoff
48) What runway wind component reduces the aircraft takeoff distance requirement?
a) Headwind
b) Tailwind
c) Crosswind
d) Calm wind conditions
49) What is the coefficient of braking friction dependent upon?
a) Runway surface condition, weight, headwind

b) Runway length, thrust, tailwind
c) Runway surface condition, tire type, temperature
d) Runway surface condition, tire type, degree of brake application
50) What change in power setting is required in the final phase of the field approach to maintain the desired
flight path as the airplane nears the ground?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change
KEY
1) b
2) d
3) b
4) b
5) b
6) b
7) d
8) a
9) a
10) b
11) d
12) b
13) c
14) b
15) a
16) b
17) a
18) a
19) a
20) b
21) a
22) c
23) a
24) a
25) a
26) a
27) b
28) b
29) a
30) a
31) b
32) a
33) a
34) b
35) b
36) d
37) d
38) b
39) d
40) b
41) c
42) d
43) c
44) b
45) d
46) a
47) a
48) a
49) d
50) b
1) What is the effect of a headwind on the maximum range of an airplane?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change
2) The throttle linkage on your jet breaks and the engine goes to max thrust output. To achieve the greatest altitude
for glide prior to fuel exhaustion, you should clime at what angle of attack?
a) Max range
b) Max angle of climb
c) Minimum excess thrust horsepower
d) Max rate of climb
3) What change, if any, in the maximum glide range occurs as excess aircraft weight is jettisoned and a constant lift
to drag ratio (L/D) is maintained?
a) Max glide range increases

b) Max glide range decreases
c) Max glide range remains constant
4) What change in maximum turbojet thrust available (Ta) occurs with an increase in true airspeed at a constant
altitude?
a) Turbojet thrust available significantly increases

b) Turbojet thrust available significantly decreases
c) Turbojet thrust available remains relatively constant
5) You are flying a T-34c at maximum rate of climb and receive instructions to level off and go to maximum
endurance. What must you do?
a) Reduce velocity and increase AOA to stabilize at L/D max

b) Reduce velocity and increase AOA to stabilize at C LMAX
c) Reduce velocity and increase AOA to a point greater than L/D max
d) Reduce velocity and increase AOA to stabilize at V min
6) The velocity (TAS) for maximum range:
a) Will decrease with an increase in weight

b) Will decrease with an increase in altitude
c) Will be greater with a tailwind
d) Will increase with an increase in weight
7) You are flying a T-34c at 150 KIAS into a 50 knot headwind. Your engine suddenly quits. You have enough
altitude to set up a glide and make it back to Whiting Field. Which of the following is true?
a) A 50 knot headwind will increase your AOA giving you more lift and therefore longer glide range
b) L/D max increases
c) Your rate of descent will decrease due to the increased lift from the headwind
d) The headwind will decrease your glide range but not your total time aloft
8) Minimum fuel flow for a propeller aircraft is located at the point where:
a) Tr is minimum
b) Tr = THP
c) THPr is minimum
d) Tr = 0
9) Two identical aircraft of equal weight, one powered by turbojet, the other by turboprop, are lined up on parallel
runways. Both will fly their maximum rate of climb performance. Compare AOA and TAS.
a) AOA and TAS are the same because rate of climb is on the THP curves
b) AOA for the prop is lower; TAS for the jet is higher
c) AOA for the prop is higher; TAS for the jet is higher
d) AOA for the prop is higher; TAS for the jet is lower
10) You can have thrust without having thrust horsepower.
a) True
b) False
11) Max endurance torque for the T-34c is:
a) 240 ft-lbs
b) 420 ft-lbs
c) 580 ft-lbs
12) When a pilot pushes the stick to the right, what happens?
a) The elevator moves right

b) The left aileron rises, the right aileron lowers
c) The right aileron rises, the left aileron lowers
d) The airplane yaws right
13) You are taking off in your T-34 and you adjust the aileron trim. During flight you will:
a) Have to adjust it every now and then

b) Probably not need to touch it again
c) Turn it off
14) In the T-34, rudder trim compensates for:
a) Downwash
b) High AOA
c) Prop wash and torque
15) The elevator trim is adjusted:
a) Down at slower speeds and up at higher speeds

b) Up at slower speeds and down at higher speeds
16) For aerodynamic balance, the T-34c uses _____ on the elevator and rudder, and a(n) _____ on the ailerons.
a) Overhang, shielding horn

b) Shielding horn, overhang
c) Flaps, flaps
17) The T-34 uses what form of control system to move the control surfaces?
a) Conventional, reversible controls

b) Power-boosted controls
c) Full-power controls
18) An anti-servo trim tab is located on the T-34's:
a) Aileron
b) Rudder
c) Elevator
19) If an object has an initial tendency toward its original equilibrium position after a disturbance, it posses:
a) Positive dynamic stability

b) Positive static stability
c) Neutral static stability
20) Stability of the longitudinal axis around the lateral axis (pitch) is called:
a) Longitudinal pitch
b) Longitudinal stability
c) Directional stability
d) Lateral stability
21) The neutral point (NP) can be thought of as the aerodynamic center for the entire airplane.
a) True
b) False
22) Which will be the greatest positive contributor to the directional static stability?
a) Straight wings
b) Swept wings
c) Fuselage
d) Vertical stabilizer
23) When in a lateral side-slip, the vertical senses an angle of attack, so it _____.
a) Produces drag
b) Produces lift
24) Phugoid oscillations begins when:
a) An upward gust strikes the airplane causing the plane to gain altitude and lose airspeed
b) A downward gust strikes the airplane causing the airplane to gain altitude and lose airspeed
c) An upward gust strikes the airplane causing the plane to gain altitude and gain airspeed
25) If the relative wind is above the thrust line, the up-going propeller blade on the _____ side creates more thrust
since it has a greater AOA with the relative wind. This will yaw the nose to the _____.
a) Left; right
b) Right; right
c) Left; left
d) Right; left
26) AOA in an inverted spin will be:
a) Pegged at 30 units
b) Indicated between 2 and 3 units
c) Pegged in the direction of the spin
27) A lighter airplane will enter a spin:
a) Slower than a heavier airplane, but will have a faster recovery

b) Faster than a heavier airplane, and will recover faster
c) Slower than a heavier airplane, and will recover slower
d) Faster than a heavier airplane, but will recover slower
28) Slower stall speeds make the spin recovery entry slower with:
a) More oscillations
b) Fewer oscillations
c) No change in oscillations
29) The greater drag on the down-going wing results in:

b) Discontinued yawing motion in the direction of the roll
c) Discontinued rolling motion of the airplane
d) A continued yawing motion in the direction of the roll
30) In an erect (normal) spin, which of the following would NOT be characteristic of the cockpit indicators?
a) Altimeter rapidly decreasing

b) Airspeed of 80-100 kts
c) AOA of 30 units
d) Turn needle pegged in the direction opposite direction of the spin
31) What effect will aileron inputs have on spin recovery?
a) It will aggravate the spin

b) Not much since the wing is stalled
c) It will bring the aircraft out of the stall
32) During a spin, what conditions exist on the up-going wing verses the down-going wing?
a) The up-going wing has more lift, AOA, and total drag than the down-going wing
b) The up-going wing has more lift but less AOA and total drag than the down-going wing
c) The up-going wing and down-going wing have the exact same conditions
33) What is aircraft ultimate load factor?
a) The maximum load factor that can be sustained without over-stressing the aircraft
b) The maximum load factor that the aircraft structure is designed to support
c) The maximum weight of the aircraft
d) The maximum cargo capacity of the aircraft
34) What effect will an increase in aircraft weight, for a constant amount of maximum lift, have on the limit load
factor and maneuver airspeed?
a) Limit load and maneuver airspeed will increase

b) Limit load and maneuver airspeed will decrease
c) Limit load will decrease and maneuver airspeed will increase
d) Limit load and maneuver airspeed will not be affected
35) What is the relationship between weight and allowable G's?
a) Direct
b) Inverse
c) Independent
36) Wing divergence, wing flutter, and aileron reversal are all aeroelastic effects that are associated with flight in
what region?
a) Flight above the ultimate load

b) Flight beyond red-line airspeed
c) Flight above the limit load
d) Flight to the left of the accelerated stall line
37) When flying at an airspeed greater than maneuvering airspeed:
a) Pulling an excessive number of G's will always result in a stall

b) Flying too slow will result in a stall
c) Turbulent air may over-stress the aircraft
d) Turbulent air may cause a stall
38) Red-line airspeed is a fixed indicated airspeed.
a) True
b) False
39) The Vg/Vn diagram shrinks in the landing configuration.
a) True*
b) False
40) Which of the following might occur if an aircraft exceeds the red-line airspeed?
a) Spiral divergence
b) Directional divergence
c) Wing divergence
d) Stall
41) Wing flutter, aileron reversal, and wing divergence are all examples of what redline airspeed problem?
a) Overstress
b) Elastic limit
c) Aeroelastic effect
d) Asymmetric loading
42) What are the most critical factors that increase the rate of creep damage?
a) High stress and density

b) High stress and temperature
c) High strength and pressure
d) High strenght and attitude
43) Upon what factors is the airplane flight Vn diagram contingent?
a) Weight, temperature, loading

b) Weight, aspect ratio, loading
c) Configuration, altitude, gross weight
d) Configuration, altitude, loading
44) On what factor is frictional braking dependent?
a) Gross weight of aircraft

b) Runway construction
c) Actual weight on the wheels
d) Temperature
45) What situation has the greatest rolling friction?
a) Sea level on an ice covered runway

b) Summer day in Pensacola on an asphalt runway
c) Landing during a storm
46) Frictional braking is considered the most _____ form of braking.
a) Effective
b) Dangerous
c) Efficient
d) Useless
47) What force is the most out of balance during the takeoff roll?
a) Drag
b) Rolling friction
c) Lift
d) Thrust
48) Which runway would you use when runway 9 has a headwind of 20 knots and a crosswind of 2 knots, while
runway 13 has a headwind of 10 knots and a crosswind of 10 knots?
a) Runway 9 because takeoff TAS is lower

b) Runway 13 because after takeoff the headwind will be 22 knots
c) Runway 9 because takeoff ground speed is lower
d) Runway 9 because takeoff IAS is lower
49) What is the effect of ground effect on an airplane's induced drag and thrust requirements?
a) Induced drag increases and thrust required increases

b) Induced drag increases and thrust required decreases
c) Induced drag decreases and thrust required increases
d) Induced drag decreases and thrust required decreases
50) What change in aircraft vertical lift force occurs during ground effect?
a) Effective lift increases

b) Vertical lift decreases
c) Vertical lift remains constant
KEY
1) b
2) d
3) c
4) c
5) c
6) d
7) d
8) c
9) c
10) a
11) b
12) c
13) b
14) c
15) b
16) b
17) a
18) b
19) b
20) b
21) a
22) d
23) b
24) a
25) a
26) b
27) b
28) b
29) d
30) d
31) b
32) b
33) b
34) c
35) b
36) b
37) c
38) b
39) a
40) c
41) c
42) b
43) c
44) c
45) b
46) a
47) d
48) c
49) d
50) a
1) What factor must be maximized for an airplane to fly a maximum angle of climb profile?
a) Thrust required (Tr)

b) Thrust excess (Te)
c) Power excess (Pe)
d) Angle of attack (AOA)
2) Which of the following is true for a jet fling a max endurance angle of attack and maintaining a constant altitude?
a) Thrust required is a minimum

b) A headwind will increase endurance
c) C L is maximum
d) Y X is maximum
3) What is the effect, if any, of an increase in cruise altitude (from sea level to 15,000 feet) on the maximum range
of an airplane?
a) Max range increases

b) Max range decrease
c) Max range will not change
4) What change in maximum fixed pitch propeller thrust available occurs with an increase in true airspeed at a
constant altitude?
a) Propeller thrust available increases due to an increase in propeller efficiency at higher velocities
b) Propeller thrust available decreases due to a decrease in propeller efficiency at higher velocities
c) Propeller thrust available will remain relatively constant
5) A propeller airplane executing a maximum glide range profile stabilizes at 95 KTAS. If the pilot decides to slow
to 90 KTAS by increasing AOA, what will be the affect on the glide path angle?
a) The glide path angle will be steeper

b) The glide path angle will be more shallow
c) The glide path angle will not be affected
6) What causes the region of reverse command?
a) Increase of parasite drag with increased velocities

b) Increase of induced drag with decreased velocities
c) Decrease of wingtip vortices with higher angle of attack
d) Increase of the lift to drag ratio with decreasing velocities
7) The AOA where the lift to drag ratio is maximum is the AOA for:
a) Max range for a prop

b) Max range for a jet
c) Max endurance for a prop
d) Max lift and minimum drag
8) The difference between turboprop thrust available and thrust required (Ta - Tr) determines thrust excess. Thrust
excess:
a) Goes to zero at the maximum level of flight

b) Is at a maximum at a velocity less than L/D max
c) Is at a maximum at an AOA greater than L/D max
d) All of the above
9) Increasing weight in a prop driven aircraft will:
a) Result in an increase in the TAS and decrease in the angle of attack for maximum range
b) Result in a decrease of the TAS for maximum range
c) Have no effect on the TAS at which the aircraft will fly for maximum
d) Result in the aircraft flying at a greater TAS and the same AOA for maximum range
10) You are flying along at you max range airspeed in your trusty T-34c at 500 feet over the bay when suddenly the
engine stops. You should:
a) Establish a glide into the wind to increase your total time aloft
b) Glide for maximum range by maintaining your current AOA
c) Tell your instructor to jump out to reduce weight and increasing glide distance
d) Glide for maximum range by increasing your AOA
11) For an aircraft to glide at a constant angle of attack L/D max, as the aircraft is descending:
a) IAS must increase

b) TAS must increase
c) IAS must be constant
d) TAS must be constant
12) What control surface controls the pitching moment around the airplane's CG?
a) The ailerons on the trailing edge of the wing

b) The elevator on the trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer
c) The spoilers on the upper surface of the wing
d) The rudder attached to the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer
13) The right aileron trim tab of the T-34 is set by:
a) The pilot after takeoff

b) The manufacturer
c) Maintenance
14) The elevator trim is adjusted:
a) Down at slower speed and up at higher speed

b) Up at slower speed and down at higher speed
15) Mass balancing requires that weights be placed inside control surfaces of the T-34 in the aeras forward of the
hidgeline to locate the CG on the hindgeline.
a) True
b) False
16) A neutral trim tab is found on the T-34's:
a) Aileron
b) Rudder
c) Elevator
17) The bobweight on the T-34's elevator increases the force required to pull the stick _____ during maneuvering
flight.
a) Forward
b) Aft
c) Right
d) Left
18) The down-spring on the T-34's elevator increases the force required to pull the stick _____ at low airspeeds.
a) Forward
b) Aft
c) Right
d) Left
19) If an object does not have positive static stability, it cannot have positive dynamic stability.
a) True
b) False
20) Which of the following are positive contributors on longitudinal stability?
a) Wing sweep, horizontal stabilizer, neutral point location

b) Straight wings, wing sweep, fuselage
c) Neutral point location only
21) When an airplane yaws, its momentum keeps it moving along its original flight path for a short time. This is
called:
a) Slip angle
b) Sideslip
c) Sweep
22) There is an inverse relationship between tail size and moment arm length.
a) True
b) False
23) Directional divergence is caused by:
a) Positive directional static stability

b) Negative directional static stability
c) Neutral directional static stability
24) You are flying along and apply pressure to the rudder. You realize that your plane has begun to roll in the same
direction as it is yawing. What kind of roll are you experiencing?
a) Dutch roll
b) Proverse roll
c) Adverse yaw
d) Cinnamon roll
25) If the relative wind is below the thrust line, the down-going propeller blade on the _____ side creates more
thrust since it has a larger AOA with the relative wind. This will yaw the nose to the _____.
a) Right; right
b) Left; left
c) Right; left
d) Left; right
26) A spin is:
a) An aggravated stall that results in autorotation

b) A roll and yaw that propagates itself
c) A rolling moment
27) The weight in the wing tanks causes a large portion of the weight of the airplane to be away from the CG. This
creates a large moment of inertia for the spin to overcome.
a) True
b) False
28) In a stall, the greater lift on the up-going wing results in:

b) A continued yawing motion of the airplane
c) Discontinued rolling motion of the airplane
d) Discontinued yawing motion of the airplane
29) The turn needle is the only reliable indicator of spin direction.
a) True
b) False
30) During spin recovery, a pilot should apply:
a) Full rudder in the same direction as the spin

b) Full rudder in the opposite direction of the spin
c) No rudder because it has no effect on stopping the spin
31) In a spin, if you apply opposite rudder but hold full back stick, you will:
a) Enter a progressive spin

b) Enter a flat spin
c) Enter an inverted spin
d) Buy the farm
32) Where is the maneuvering point depicted on the Vn diagram?
a) The point where the load factor scale and the velocity scale intersect
b) The point where the redline and the ultimate load factor intersect
c) The point where the accelerated stall line and the ultimate load factor intersect
d) The point where the accelerated stall line and the limit load factor line intersect
33) What precaution should be taken to ensure that the aircraft limit load will not be exceeded by turbulent air
during flight?
a) Operate the aircraft at redline airspeed

b) Operate the aircraft at maneuver airspeed
c) Operate the aircraft significantly below maneuver airspeed
d) Operate the aircraft at the minimum TAS required to maintain equilibrium level flight (Vmin)
34) Maximum allowable negative G's for the T-34c is:
a) -2.3
b) -2.7
c) -3.2
35) How, if at all, will the redline airspeed of a subsonic aircraft change?
a) It will decrease if the aircraft's gross weight increases

b) It decreases in the landing configuration
c) It increases as altitude increases
d) It never changes
36) At the t-34's maneuvering speed:
a) It is possible to pull twice the G limit before structural damage occurs

b) Turn radius is at its maximum
c) Structural damage would occur before a stall
37) What is load factor?
a) Weight the wing must support for flight

b) Number of G's divided by the weight
c) Weight plus vertical load
d) Lift / weight
38) If you exceed the operating limits of your aircraft in flight, you should always:
a) Visually inspect the aircraft prior to landing

b) Inspect the aircraft for major damages upon landing
c) Report overstress and any resultant damage on the aircraft discrepancy report
d) All of the above
39) What parts of the Vg/Vn diagram will be affected by an increase in weight?
a) Accelerated stall lines, limit load and redline airspeed

b) Accelerated stall lines, IAS and redline airspeed
c) Accelerated stall lines, limit load and ultimate load
d) Wing changes have no affect on the Vg/Vn diagram
40) How much greater than the limit load factor is the ultimate load factor?
a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
d) 2.5
41) What is the relationship between structural strength and weight in aircraft design?
a) Additional weight requires additional aircraft structural strength

b) Additional weight does not require additional aircraft structural strength
c) Additional weight requires additional aircraft structural stress
d) Aircraft weight and structural strength are not related
42) What occurs in flight at G's above the lines of maximum lift capability?
a) Overstress
b) Structural damage
c) Structural failure
d) Stall
43) What are the boundaries of the safe flight envelope?
a) Limit airspeed, limit load factor, maximum lift capability

b) Limit airspeed, ultimate load factor, maximum lift capability
c) Maneuver airspeed, limit load factor, maximum lift capability
d) Maneuver airspeed, ultimate load factor, maximum lift capability
44) Aerodynamic braking is the most _____ form of braking.
a) Effective
b) Fun
c) Efficient
d) Useless
45) What are the worst conditions for takeoff?
a) High, hot, light, humid

b) High, hot, heavy, dry
c) High, hot, heavy, humid
d) High, hot, light, dry
46) On landing, when an aircraft is within one wingspan of the ground, total lift is increased, thus causing the
aircraft to float down the runway.
a) True
b) False
47) What is the effect of an increase in weight on takeoff speed and why?
a) Takeoff speed decreases because a lower dynamic pressure is necessary to produce the lift needed to get
the airplane airborne
b) Takeoff speed decreases because a higher dynamic pressure is necessary to produce the lift needed to get
c) Takeoff speed increases because a higher dynamic pressure is necessary to produce the lift needed to get
d) Takeoff speed increases because a lower dynamic pressure is necessary to produce the lift needed to get
48) What factors determine the minimum landing distance for an aircraft with uniform deceleration?
a) Weight, velocity, thrust, drag, rolling friction

b) Weight, velocity, thrust, drag, pressure
c) Weight, velocity, thrust, acceleration
49) What change in the aircraft vertical lift force occurs in ground effect?
a) Effective lift increases

b) Vertical lift decreases
c) Vertical lift remains constant
50) What change in the aircraft total lift force occurs in ground effect?
a) Total lift increases

b) Total lift decreases
c) Total lift remains constant
KEY
1) b
2) a
3) a
4) b
5) a
6) b
7) a
8) d
9) d
10) b
11) d
12) b
13) c
14) b
15) a
16) c
17) b
18) b
19) a
20) a
21) b
22) a
23) b
24) b
25) c
26) a
27) a
28) a
29) b
30) a
31) d
32) b
33) a
34) a
35) b
36) d
37) d
38) d
39) c
40) b
41) a
42) d
43) a
44) c
45) c
46) a
47) c
48) a
49) a
50) c
1) What is the effect, if any, of an increase in weight on aircraft climb performance?
a) Maximum angle of climb increases

b) Maximum rate of climb increases
c) Maximum angle of climb and rate of climb decrease
d) Maximum angle of climb and rate of climb will not be affected
2) On a weekend cross-country in your T-34, you decide to go to Maine to pick up live lobster. The lobsters add 200
pounds of weight to you airplane. What will be the effect on your rate of climb and why?
a) Increase, because the heavier the airplane, the better the rate of climb
b) Decrease, because the heavier the airplane, the more THP required, decreasing THP excess
c) Decrease, because the heavier the airplane, the less THP is required
d) Increase, because the heavier the airplane, the less THP is required
3) What does the thrust required curve (Tr) on the thrust graph represent?
a) The amount of thrust necessary to equal aircraft total lift in equilibrium flight
b) The amount of thrust necessary to equal aircraft total drag in equilibrium level flight
c) The amount of thrust the engine produces in equilibrium flight
4) What change in L/D max AOA and velocity values depicted on a thrust curve occur when the thrust data is
converted into power data?
a) L/D max AOA and velocity increase because of the effect of a force acting over a distance
b) L/D max AOA and velocity decrease because of the effect of converting work value to power value
c) L/D max AOA and velocity values remain constant because no change has been made to the aircraft or
the operating environment
5) What change in angle of attack is required to go from maximum glide range to a maximum glide endurance
profile?
a) Increase the AOA to a value greater than C LMAX

b) Increase the AOA to a value greater than L/D max
c) Decrease the AOA to a value greater than L/D max, which equates to minimum induced drag
d) Keep AOA at L/D max, which equates to minimum total drag
6) A fully loaded airplane will glide faster than a lighter loaded airplane of the same type. What will the minimum
angle of glide for the heavier airplane be?
a) The same as the lighter airplane

b) Dependent upon altitude
c) Greater than the lighter airplane
d) Less than the lighter airplane
7) In order to clear obstacles on the field boundary after a short takeoff, a pilot should climb at:
a) Max rate of climb

b) Max angle of climb
c) Airspeed where THPa - THPr is greatest
d) Maximum vertical velocity
8) Which of the following is true about a prop aircraft climbing at full throttle to clear a mountain peak. The aircraft
should:
a) Climb at an angle of climb that is the same airspeed as max rate of climb
b) Climb at CL max to obtain the greatest lift and the steepest angle of climb
c) Climb at max angle of climb that would be the same as max range airspeed
d) Climb at max angle of climb that is obtained where the greatest excess thrust exists
9) Increasing weight in a prop driven aircraft?
a) Result in an increase in the TAS and decrease in the AOA for max range
b) Result in a decrease of TAS for max range
c) Have no effect on the TAS at which the aircraft will fly for max range
d) Result in a greater TAS and the same AOA for max range
10) An increase in altitude will increase glide endurance but have no affect on glide range.
a) True
b) False
11) You are flying your T-34 at max range airspeed at 500 feet over the bay when suddenly your engine stops. You
should:
a) Establish a glide into the wind to increase your total time aloft
b) Glide for max range by maintaining your present AOA
c) Tell your instructor to bail out to reduce weight and give you a better chance at making it back
d) Glide for max range by increasing your AOA
12) The ailerons control:
a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
13) Trimming reduces the force required to hold the control surfaces in a position to maintain flight attitude.
a) True
b) False
14) The T-34 rudder and elevator trim will be adjusted:
a) Once after takeoff

b) Frequently during flight because they are sensitive to power and airspeed changes
c) Never
15) Power changes take precedence at low speed.
a) True
b) False
16) For aerodynamic balance, the T-34 uses _____ on the elevator and rudder, and _____ on the ailerons.
a) An overhang, shielding horn

b) Shielding horn, an overhang
c) Flaps, flaps
17) The T-34's control CG's are located:

a) Aft of the hindgeline
b) Forward of the hindgeline
c) On the hidgeline
18) The bobweight on the T-34's elevator increases the force required to pull the stick _____ during maneuvering
flight.
a) Forward
b) Aft
c) Right
d) Left
19) Static stability does not ensure dynamic stability, but static instability ensures dynamic instability.
a) True
b) False
20) Which of the following are negative contributors to longitudinal static stability?
a) Wing sweep, horizontal stabilizer, neutral point location

b) Straight wings and fuselage
c) Neutral point location only
21) Directional static stability is stability of the longitudinal axis around the:
a) Horizontal axis
b) Vertical axis
c) Lateral axis
22) Which type of wing has the greatest positive contributors to lateral static stability?
a) Swept
b) Dihedral
c) Low mounted wings
23) Spiral divergence when an airplane has:
a) Strong directional stability and weak lateral stability

b) Weak directional stability and strong lateral stability
c) Strong directional stability and strong lateral stability
d) Weak directional stability and weak lateral stability
24) The tendency of an airplane to yaw away from the direction of aileron roll input is called:
a) Proverse yaw
b) Adverse yaw
c) Pilot induced oscillation
25) The T-34 is not subject to pilot induced oscillations since it does not have strong longitudinal static stability.
a) True
b) False
26) Autorotation is:
a) An aggravated stall
b) A combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to an asymmetric
stalled condition on the wings
c) A combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to a symmetric
stalled condition on the wings
27) The higher the pitch attitude the _____ the vertical component of thrust, and the _____ the stall speed.
a) Greater, higher
b) Greater, lower
c) Lesser, higher
d) Lesser, lower
28) In a stall the down-wing has:
a) A higher AOA, less lift, and more drag

b) A lower AOA, less lift, and more drag
c) A higher AOA, more lift, and more drag
d) A lower AOA, and more lift
29) In an inverted spin, which of the following would not be characteristic of the cockpit indicators?
a) Altimeter rapidly decreasing

b) Airspeed 80-100 knots
c) AOA 2-3 units
d) Turn needle pegged in the same direction of the spin
30) How does the configuration of the empennage and placement of the horizontal control surfaces affect spin
recovery?
a) The horizontal control surface deflects the relative wind towards or away from the vertical stabilizer
b) The horizontal control surface has no effect on the vertical components of the empennage
c) The empennage has on effect on spin recovery
31) Forward stick and opposite rudder are the procedures for spin recovery in the T-34.
a) True
b) False
32) AOA in an inverted spin will be:
a) Pegged at 30 units
b) Indicated between 2 and 3 units
c) Pegged in the direction of the spin
33) What will occur if excessive AOA is applied while operating at maneuver airspeed?
a) The aircraft will exceed its ultimate load factor

b) The aircraft will be overstressed
c) The aircraft will stall before an overstress occurs
d) The aircraft will experience aileron reversal due to aeroelastic effects
34) In turbulence, if you fly below maneuver airspeed, you might stall the airplane; if above maneuver airspeed you
might:
a) Exceed redline
b) Experience aeroelastic effects
c) Overstress the airplane
35) If an aircraft increases angle of bank in a turn, what change in total lift and power-on TAS (Vso) is necessary to
maintain a constant altitude?
a) An increase in total lift and true stall speed

b) A decrease in total lift and true stall speed
c) An increase in total lift as true stall speed decreases
d) No change is required
36) What is the primary danger in flying above maneuver airspeed and below redline airspeed in turbulent air?
a) Overstress
b) Stall
c) Aileron reversal
d) Spiral divergence
37) Increasing altitude will decrease redline airspeed.
a) True
b) False
38) What should you use to plot the V-n diagram?
a) IAS and load factor

b) TAS and load factor
c) IAS and altitude
d) G limits and altitude
39) Aileron reversal is caused by:
a) Turbulent air and requires the use of opposite ailerons

b) Gust loads imposing different angles of attack on the wing
c) Pulling high G forces
d) Exceeding the Vmax of the aircraft
40) What airspeed is the best trade-off between getting the smallest radius of turn while achieving the best turn rate?
a) Minimum straight and level airspeed

b) Maneuver airspeed
c) Max straight and level airspeed
d) Redline airspeed
41) What happens to typical aircraft metal at low values of applied stress?
a) The metal incurs no permanent deformation and the material does not return to the original unstressed
shape when the stress is released
b) The metal incurs no permanent deformation and the material does return to the original unstressed shape
when the stress is released
c) The metal incurs permanent deformation and the material does not return to the original unstressed shape
d) The metal incurs permanent deformation and the material does return to the original unstressed shape
42) What is the effect of an increased velocity on the maximum attainable load factor?
a) Maximum attainable load factor increases
b) Maximum attainable load factor decreases
c) Maximum attainable load factor is not affected
42) In what region must an airplane be operated to prevent structural damage and ensure that the anticipated service
life is obtained?
a) Altitude regime
b) Weight windows
c) Safe flight envelope
d) Manila envelope
44) What is the effect of an increase in density an landing rollout?
a) Increased
b) Not affected
c) Decreased
d) Disappears
45) What kind of winds are best for landing?
a) Tailwind
b) Crosswind
c) No wind
d) Headwind
46) Which of the following situations would give you the shortest runway requirements on takeoff?
a) Sea level, 10 knot crosswind, 30o F

b) Sea level, 10 knot crosswind, 90o F
c) 4000 ft altitude, no wind, 80o F
d) 4000 ft altitude, no wind, 88% humidity
47) What is the effect of an increase in density altitude on takeoff performance?
a) Takeoff velocity increases, thrust and net acceleration force increase

b) Takeoff velocity increases, thrust and net acceleration force decrease
c) Takeoff velocity decreases, thrust and net acceleration force increase
d) Takeoff velocity decreases, thrust and net acceleration force decrease
48) What effect does an increase in aircraft weight have on runway length requirement for landing?
a) Required runway length increases

b) Required runway length decreases
c) Required runway length remains constant
49) What is the coefficient of braking friction dependent upon?
a) Runway surface condition, weight, headwind

b) Runway length, thrust, tailwind
c) Runway surface condition, tire type, temperature
d) Runway surface condition, tire type, degree of brake application
50) What change in power setting is required in the final phase of field approach to maintain the desired flight path
as the airplane nears the ground?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change is required
KEY
1) c
2) b
3) b
4) c
5) b
6) a
7) b
8) d
9) d
10) b
11) b
12) b
13) a
14) b
15) a
16) b
17) c
18) b
19) a
20) b
21) b
22) b
23) a
24) b
25) a
26) b
27) b
28) a
29) b
30) a
31) a
32) b
33) c
34) c
35) a
36) a
37) a
38) a
39) d
40) b
41) b
42) a
43) c
44) c
45) d
46) a
47) b
48) a
49) d
50) b

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AERODYNAMICS MIDTERM EXAM #1

Basic Properties of Physics

2) Air density is:

a) Total mass of air particles per unit of volume

3) What is Newton’s Third Law?

a) A push or pull exerted on a body

4) What is the value of atmospheric pressure on a standard day?

5) On what property is speed of sound most dependent?

6) A student trims the airplane because:

a) If the airplane is trimmed it is in equilibrium flight

7) What is aerodynamic force (AF)?

a) A force vector which is always oriented parallel to relative wind

9) Aerodynamic force is expressed in units of:

10) Maximum lift will be attained at what point?

a) L/D maximum AOA

a) The pitching moment about the AC increases

Basic Properties of Physics

a) A push or pull exerted on a body

2) What affect does an increase in altitude have on temperature?

a) Decreases until 25,000’ and then remains constant

3) If altitude is held constant, a decrease in temperature has what affect on density?

4) Which one of the following causes a change in the speed of sound?

a) Thrust equals weight

a) Mass per unit of volume?

a) Air temperature increases

a) Wings, fuselage, empennage, landing gear, engine

9) What three major components comprise an empennage?

a) Vertical stabilizer, elevator, trim tabs

10) All changes in aircraft attitude occurs about which position?

a) Aerodynamic center (AC)

12) The wingspan of the T-34c is:

13) The wings of the T-34c are tapered:

a) On the leading edge

14) What control surfaces control roll?

a) A uniform mixture of gases with the properties of a solid

17) What is indicated airspeed?

a) It is the actual aircraft velocity through an air mass

a) 120 knot headwind

a) The density spring

a) Mach number increases

Lift and Stalls

21) What is the chord line of an airfoil?

23) What is the aerodynamic force equation?

a) Velocity and density

29) At zero degrees angle of attack, a symmetrical airfoil will produce:

a) Lift, but less than a positively cambered airfoil

a) Coefficient of total drag (C Dt ) increases

31) What is equivalent to parasite area (f)?

a) A cross-sectional area of the aircraft

Thrust and Power

33) Power required is:

a) The amount of power required to lift the weight of an aircraft

35) As air density decreases, power available:

36) Thrust horsepower depends only on thrust and velocity.

37) As the throttle is retarded, thrust available:

38) As air density decreases, thrust available:

39) The T-34c’s engines are limited by the Navy to: