Question Report 461

Form Number : Paper Code
(1001CMA303119001) )1//1CMA3/3119//1)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020)
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE

PHASE : MLA & MLB
Test Type : MINOR Test Pattern : AIIMS(CBT)
TEST DATE : 14 - 07 - 2019
Important Instructions / egRoiw.kZ funsZ' k

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,s A
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be
removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVªs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh nwljs fo|kFkhZ
ds LFkku ij cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkSj nksuksa dks dksbZ vU; tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA
2. Duration of Test is 3½ Hours and Questions Paper Contains 200 Questions. The Max. Marks are 200.
ijh{kk dh vof/k 3½ ?k.Vs gS rFkk iz'u i= esa 200 iz'u gaSA vf/kdre vad 200 gaAS
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yksx Vscy] dsYdwysVj ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gSA
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ijhoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gAS
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
iz'u i= gy djus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesa lHkh ist layXu gaS vFkok ughaA
6. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each
incorrect answer.
izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds 1 vad gaS tcfd ,d frgkbZ vad] xyr mÙkj dk ml fo"k; ds dqy vadksa esa ls de dj fy;k tk;sxkA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz'uksa ds vuqokn esa fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr esa] vaxzsth laLdj.k dks gh vafre ekuk tk,sxkA
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
Leader Course/Phase-MLA & MLB/14-07-2019
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. The displacement-time graph of a moving particle 1. fu;r Roj.k ls pyrs gq, fi.M dk foLFkkiu le; xzkQ fp=
with constant acceleration is shown in the figure. esa fn[kk;k x;k gAS (0 £ t < 1 rFkk 1 < t £ 2 sec. ds
The velocity-time graph is best given. by fy;s) osx le; xzkQ fuEu esa ls dkSulk gksxk\
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2. Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both 2. izkjEHk esa dkj A, B ls 10.5 m vkxs gAS nksuksa t = 0 ij
start moving at time t = 0 in the same direction leku fn'kk esa ljy js[kk ds vuqfn'k xfr izkjEHk djrs gS A
along a straight line. The velocity time graph nksuksa dkjksa ds osx le; xzkQ fn, x, gAS fdl {k.k dkj B,
of two cars is shown in figure. The time when A dks idM+ ysxh A
the car B will catch the car A, will be
(1) t = 21 sec (2) t = 2 5 sec (1) t = 21 sec (2) t = 2 5 sec
(3) 20 sec (4) none (3) 20 sec (4) none

3. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the 3. ,d xsan dks /kjkry ls m/okZ/kj mij dh vksj Qsa dk tkrk
ground. It crosses a point at the height of 25 m gAS ;g 25 m nwjh ij fLFkr fcUnq dks 4 lsd.M dsa vUrjky
twice at an interval of 4 secs. The ball was thrown esa nks ckj ikj djrh gSA xsa n dks fdl osx ls Qs ad k x;k
with the velocity of Fkk\
(1) 20m/sec. (2) 25 m/sec. (1) 20m/sec. (2) 25 m/sec.
(3) 30m/sec. (4) 35 m/sec. (3) 30m/sec. (4) 35 m/sec.
4. A particle is projected vertically upward with initial 4. ,d d.k dks m/okZ/kj Åij dh vksj 25 m/s ls Qasdk tkrk
velocity 25 m/s. For its motion during third second, gAS rhljs lsd.M esa bldh xfr ds fy;s fuEu esa ls dkuS lk
which of the following statement is correct? dFku lR; gS \
(1) Displacement of the particle is 30 m (1) d.k dk foLFkkiu 30 m gS
(2) Distance covered by the particle is 30 m. (2) d.k }kjk r; dh xbZ nwjh 30 m gS
(3) Distance covered by the particle is 2.5 m (3) d.k }kjk r; dh xbZ nwjh 2.5 m gAS
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
1001CMA303119001 1/35
Target : Pre-Medical 2020/AIIMS-CBT TEST/14-07-2019
5. A man in a balloon rising vertically with an 5. 4.9 m/s2 Roj.k ls m/okZ/kj Åij mM+rs gq, xqCckjs esa fLFkr
acceleration of 4.9 m/s2 releases a ball 2 seconds ,d O;fDr xqCckjs ds /kjkry dks NksM+us ds 2 sec ckn ,d
after the balloon is let go from the ground. The xasn eqDr djrk gAS xasn }kjk /kjkry ls izkIr vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ
greatest height above the ground reached by the gksxh\ (g = 9.8 m/s2)
ball is (g = 9.8 m/s2) (1) 14.7 m (2) 19.6 m
(1) 14.7 m (2) 19.6 m
(3) 9.8 m (4) 24.5 m (3) 9.8 m (4) 24.5 m
6. A body is thrown with velocity 20 m/s at an angle 6. ,d oLrq dks {k Sf rt ls 60ºC ds dks . k ij 20 m/s
of 60° with the horizontal. Find the time gap os x ls Qaasdk tkrk gSA oLrq dks nks fLFkfr;ksa ftu ij
between the two positions of body where velocity osx {k Sf rt ls 30° dks . k cukrk g S ds e/; le;kUrjky
of body makes an angle of 30° with horizontal:- gks x k :-
(1) 1.15 sec. (2) 0.95 sec. (1) 1.15 sec. (2) 0.95 sec.
(3) 1 sec. (4) 1.5 sec. (3) 1 sec. (4) 1.5 sec.
7. At t = 0 a particle leaves the origin with a 7. t = 0 ,d d.k dk ewy fcUnq ls /kukRed y fn'kk esa osx
velocity of 6 m/s in the positive y direction. Its r
6 m/s gAS bldk Roj.k a = 2î - 3 ĵ m/s2 ls fn;k tkrk
r
acceleration is given by a = 2î - 3 ĵ m/s2. The gAS tc d.k vf/kdre y funsZ'kkad ij igqWprk gS rks x o y
x and y coordinates of the particle at the instant funsZ'kkad gksxkA
the particle reaches maximum y coordinate are (1) 2m, 3m (2) 4m, 6m
(1) 2m, 3m (2) 4m, 6m
(3) 1m, 3m (4) 2m, 6m (3) 1m, 3m (4) 2m, 6m
8. From the ground level, a ball is to be shot with 8. {kSfrt ry ls] ,d xsan dks fdlh pky ls Qasdk tkrk gAS xzkQ
a certain speed. Graph shows the range R it will esa bldh ijkl dks iz{ksi.k dks.k q ds lkFk fn[kk;k x;k gAS
have versus the launch angle q. The least speed ;fn q dks bl izdkj pquk tkrk gS fd mM~M;u dky vf/kdre
the ball will have during its flight if q is chosen lEHko eku dk vk/kk gS rks bldh U;wure pky gksxhA (fn;k
such that the flight time is half of its maximum gS % g = 10 m/s2)
possible value, is equal to (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 250 m/s (2) 50 3 m/s (1) 250 m/s (2) 50 3 m/s
(3) 50 m/s (4) 25 3 m/s (3) 50 m/s (4) 25 3 m/s

9. A particle at a height 'h' from the ground is 9. ,d d.k tehu ls 'h' ÅWpkbZ ls {kfS rt ls 30° ds dks.k
projected with an angle 30° from the horizontal, ij Qsdk x;k vkSj og tehu ls 45° ij vkdj Vdjkrk gSA
it strikes the ground making angles 45° with ;fn d.k dks mlh osx ls {ksfrt ls 60° ds dks.k ij Qsdk
horizontal. It is again projected from the same tk, rks og tehu ls {ksfrtr ls fdrus dks.k ij vc Vdjk,
point with the same speed but with an angle of
x,A
60° with horizontal. Find the angle it makes with
the horizontal when it strikes the ground. (1) tan–1(4) (2) tan–1(5)
(1) tan–1(4) (2) tan–1(5)
(3) tan–1( 5 ) (4) tan–1( 3 )
(3) tan–1( 5 ) (4) tan–1( 3 )
2/35 1001CMA303119001
10. A shell fired from the base of a mountain just 10. ,d ioZr ds vk/kkj ls ,d xksyk bl izdkj nkxk tkrk gS dh
clears it. If a is the angle of projection then the ;g Bhd bl ioZr ds Åij ls xqtjsA ;fn iz{ksi.k dks.k a
angular elevation of the summit b is gS rks f'k[kj dk mUu;u dks.k b gAS
1 1
(1) a (2) tan–1(1/2) (1) a (2) tan–1(1/2)
2 2
(3) tan–1(1/2 tan a) (4) tan–1(2 tan a) (3) tan–1(1/2 tan a) (4) tan–1(2 tan a)
11. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity 11. V osx ls uhps dh vksj vk jgs ,d xqCckjs ls ‘u’ osx ls ÅèokZèkj
‘u’ from the balloon descending with velocity V. Åij dh vksj ,d xsan Qsadh tkrh gAS fdrus le; i'pkr~
The ball will pass by the balloon after time. xsan xqCckjs ds Åij ls xqtjsxh ?
u-V u+V u-V u+V
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2g 2g 2g 2g
2(u - V ) 2( u + V ) 2(u - V ) 2( u + V )
(3) (4) (3) (4)
g g g g
12. A stationary man observes that the rain strikes 12. ,d fLFkj vkneh o"kkZ dh cwanksa dks {kSfrt ls 60° dks.k ij
him at an angle 60° to the horizontal. When he fxjrs gq, ns[krk gAS tc og 25 m/s ls xfr djrk rks cwans
begins to move with a velocity of 25 m/s then the {kfS rt ls 30° dks.k ij fxjrh gqbZ yxrh gAS o"kkZ dh cwanksa
drops appear to strike him at an angle of 30° from dk osx gksxk :
horizontal. the velocity of the rain drops is : (1) 25 m/s (2) 50 m/s
(1) 25 m/s (2) 50 m/s
(3) 12.5 m/s (4) 24 2 m/s (3) 12.5 m/s (4) 24 2 m/s
13. A car is driving down the road at a velocity Vc, 13. ,d dkj /kjkry ds lkis{k Vc pky ls py jgh gS ,oa fp=kuqlkj
relative to ground and is delivering newspaper v[kckj QSd jgh gSA v[kckj] dkj ds lkis{k Vp pky ls
to homes, as shown in figure below. The QSdk tkrk gAS fdrus dks.k q ij v[kckj QSdk tk, fd og
newspaper are thrown at a velocity Vp relative lM+d ds yEcor~ mMs+A
to the car. At what angle q must the newspapers
be thrown relative to the car, so that they fly Road
in a direction perpendicular to the road. car
Vc
Road
car q
Vc Vp
q
Vp
-1 æ Vc ö -1 æ p ö
V
-1 æ Vc ö -1 æ p ö
V (1) sin ç V ÷ (2) sin ç ÷
(1) sin ç V ÷ (2) sin ç ÷ è pø è Vc ø
è pø è Vc ø
-1 æ Vc ö -1 æ Vc ö -1 æ p ö
V
-1 æ p ö
V
(3) cos ç V ÷ (4) cos ç ÷ (3) cos ç V ÷ (4) cos ç V ÷
è pø è Vc ø è pø è cø
1001CMA303119001 3/35
14. A heavy spherical ball is constrained in a frame 14. ,d Hkkjh xksyh; xsan fp=kuqlkj Ýse esa xfr ds fy;s j[kh gAS
as in figure. The inclined surface is smooth . The ur ry fpduk gSA Ýse dk vf/kdre Roj.k fdruk gS fd
maximum acceleration with which the frame can xsan Ýse dks NksM+s ughaA
move without causing the ball to leave the frame:
(A) g/2 (2) gÖ3

(A) g/2 (2) gÖ3 (3) g/Ö3 (4) g/Ö2 (3) g/Ö3 (4) g/Ö2
15. The acceleration of the blocks (A) and (B) 15. fp= esa nh x;h fLFkfr esa CykWd (A) ,oa (B) ds Roj.k Øe'k%
respectively in situation shown in the figure is : gksaxs (f?kjuh ,oa jLlh nzO;eku jfgr g)S
(pulleys & strings are massless)
2g g 2g g
(1) downward, upward (1) uhps dh vksj, Åij dh vksj
7 7 7 7
2g g 2g g
3 3 3 3
10g 5g 10g 5g
13 13 13 13
(4) none of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
16. A 50 kg person stand on a 25 kg platform. He 16. 50 kg dk ,d O;fDr ,d 25 kg IysVQkeZ ij [kM+k gAS
pulls on the rope which is attached to the platform og jLls dks [khaprk gS tks fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj ?k"kZ.kjfgr
via the frictionless pulleys as shown in the figure. f?kjfu;ksa ls gksdj IysVQkeZ ls tqM+k gAS IysVQkeZ ,d LFkk;h
The platform moves upwards at a steady rate if nj ls Åij dh vksj xfr djrk gAS ;fn og cy ftlls O;fDr
the force with which the person pulls the rope is jLls dks [khaprk g]S g%S
(1) 500 N (2) 250 N (3) 25 N (4) None (1) 500 N (2) 250 N (3) 25 N (4) dksbZ ugha
17. Find the time in which 2 kg mass will strikes 17. og le; Kkr dhft;s ftlesa 2 kg nzO;eku fojke ls eqDr
the pulley after being released from rest. gksus ds Bhd i'pkr~ f?kjuh ls Vdjk;sxkA
(1) 10 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 5 sec (4) 4 sec (1) 10 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 5 sec (4) 4 sec
4/35 1001CMA303119001
18. A block slides down a frictionless incline making 18. ,d fi.M ?k"kZ.kjfgr urry ij uhps dh vksj fQly jgk gS
an angle q with the floor at an elevator. The urry fy¶V ds Q'kZ ls q dks.k cukrk gS fy¶V uhps dh
elevator is decending with an acceleration a. The vksj a Roj.k ls uhps dh vksj xfr dj jgh gAS Cykd ij yxus
value of normal reaction acting on the block is okys vfHkyEc cy dk eku crkvksa\
(1) mgsinq (2) m(g-a)cosq (1) mgsinq (2) m(g-a)cosq
(3) mgcosq (4) m(g-a)sinq (3) mgcosq (4) m(g-a)sinq
19. A sphere of mass 'm' is lying in between two rigid 19. 'm' nzO ;eku dk ,d xksy k fp= esa n'kkZ ;s vuqlkj 90º dk
walls making an angle 90º as shown in the figure. dks.k cukrh gqbZ nks n`<+ nhokjksa ds chp esa j[kk gAS ;fn nhokjksa
If the walled structure moves upward with dh ;g lajpuk ‘g’ Roj.k ls Åij dh vksj xfr djrh gS]
acceleration ‘g’ the force with which the sphere rks og cy D;k gS ftlls xksyk fdlh ,d nhokj dks nckrk
presses one of the walls is gS\
g g
45° 45°
(1) zero (2) mg (3) 2 mg (4) 2 mg (1) zero (2) mg (3) 2 mg (4) 2 mg
20. A particle is moving under influence of a force 20. ,d d.k ,d cy
r r
( )
F = éë 2x 2 - y î + (x - z)ˆj + (5x 2 - 2y 2 - 3z)kˆ ùû ( )
F = éë 2x 2 - y î + (x - z)ˆj + (5x 2 - 2y 2 - 3z)kˆ ùû
N . Where x, y and z are coordinates of the particle N ds izHkko esa xfreku g]S tgk¡ x, y o z ehVj esa d.k ds
in meter.The particle is in equillibrium at funZ'kkad gAS d.k fdl fLFkfr ij lkE;koLFkk esa gksrk gS ?
(1) (1,2,1) (2) (1,2,-1) (1) (1,2,1) (2) (1,2,-1)
(3) (–1,2,–1) (4) (–1,2,1) (3) (–1,2,–1) (4) (–1,2,1)
21. Suppose a current carrying wire has a 21. ekuk fd ,d /kkjkokgh rkj dk vuqiz LFk dkV {ks=Qy
cross-sectional area that, gradually become fp=kuqlkj cgqr yEcs 'kadq ds vkdkj okys rkj ds vuqfn'k
smaller along the wire, has the shape of a very èkhjs&èkhjs NksVk gks tkrk gAS lR; dFku pqfu, :
long cone as shown in figure. Choose the
correct statement:
A B
A B
(1) rkj ds fofHkUu Hkkxksa esa fo|qr /kkjk vyx&vyx gAS

(1) Electric current is different in different
(2) fcUnq A ij fo|qr {ks=] fcUnq B ij fo|qr {ks= ds leku
portions of wire.
gSA
(2) Electric field at point A is same as that of point B.
(3) Drift speed of electrons at point A is lesser (3) fcUnq A ij bysDVªkWuksa dh viogu pky] fcUnq B ij
than that of at point B. bysDVªkWuksa dh viogu pky ls de gAS

(4) Drift speed of electrons at point A is same (4) fcUnq A ij bysDVªkWuksa dh viogu pky] fcUnq B ij
as that of at point B. bysDVªkWuksa dh viogu pky ds leku gAS
1001CMA303119001 5/35
22. Two cylindrical rods of uniform cross-section 22. A o 2A ,d leku vuqizLFk dkV dk {ks=Qy dh nks
area A and 2A, having free electrons per unit csyukdkj NM+s ftuesa eqDr bysDVªkuW izfr bdkbZ vk;ru Øekxr
volume 2n and n respectively are joined in 2n o n gS Js.khØe tksM+h xbZ gAS lkE;koLFkk esa muesa ls I
series. A current I flows through them in steady èkkjk izokfgr gAS rks ck;h NM+ esa eqDr bysDVªkWu ds vuqxeu
state. Then the ratio of drift velocity of free osx dk nka;h NM+ esa eqDr bysDVªkWu ds vuqxeu osx ls vuqikr
electron in left rod to drift velocity of electron
æ vL ö æ vL ö
in the right rod is ç ÷ çè v ÷ø gksxk
èv ø R
R
I I
2n n 2n n
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

23. The free e– density of a 10m long conductor 23. ,d 10m yackbZ ds pkyd rkj ds eqDr e– ?kuRo dk eku
wire is 2 × 1028 m–3. The cross-sectional area 2 × 1028 m–3 gAS vuqizLFk dkV dk eku 0.5 × 10–6 m2
is 0.5 × 10–6 m2. If current is 1.6A than calculate
gAS ;fn bles 1.6A /kkjk izokfgr gksrh g]S rks rkj ds ,d fljs
the time taken by an e– to drift from one end
ls nwljs fljs ij tkus esa e– dks yxk le; gksxk &
to other.
(1) 2 × 104 sec (2) 0.5 × 104 sec (1) 2 × 104 sec (2) 0.5 × 104 sec
(3) 3 × 104 sec (4) 1 × 104 sec (3) 3 × 104 sec (4) 1 × 104 sec
24. Two identical conducting spheres M and N has 24. nks ,d leku pkyd xksys M vkjS N gS ftu ij Øe'k%
charges q m and q n respectively. A third vkos'k qm vkjS qn gS ,d frljk mlh ds leku xksys P dks
identical neutral sphere P is brought in contact igys xksys M ds lEidZ esa ykrs gaS vkjS gVk nsrs gaS fQj xksys
with M and then seperated. Now sphere P is
P dks xksys N ds lEidZ esa ykrs gS rc xksys P ij vfUre
brought in contact with N then final charge on
vkos'k D;k gksxk :-
sphere P is-
q m + 2q n q + qn q m + 2q n qm + q n
(1) (2) m (1) (2)
4 4 4 4
q q m + 2q n qn q m + 2q n
(3) q m + n (4) (3) q m + (4)
2 2 2 2
25. A positive point charge +Q is placed at x = 0 25. ,d /kukRed fcUnq vkos'k +Q, x = 0 ij fLFkr gAS rFkk ,d
and a negative point charge –Q is placed at ½.kkos'k –Q, x = a ij fLFkr gAS rFkk nksuksa vkos'kksa ds e/;
x = a. The magnitude of the electrostatic force
fLFkj fo|qr cy dk ifjek.k F gAS ;fn ,d vU; vkos'k +Q
between the two is F. If another point charge
dks x = –a ij j[k fn;k tk,] rks ewy fcUnq (x = 0) ij fLFkr
+Q is placed at x = –a, the net force on the
vkos'k ij ifj.kkeh cy gksxk&
charge at the origin (x = 0) is :-
(1) 2F ½.kkRed x-fn'kk dh vksj
(1) 2F in the negative x-direction
(2) F in the positive x-direction (2) F /kukRed x-fn'kk dh vksj
(3) 5F/4 in the positive x-direction (3) 5F/4 /kukRed x-fn'kk dh vksj
(4) 2F in the positive x-direction (4) 2F /kukRed x-fn'kk dh vksj
6/35 1001CMA303119001
26. The figure shows four situations in which 26. fp= esa iznf'kZr pkj ifjfLFkfr;k¡ ftlesa vkos'kksa (q > 0) dks
charges as indicated (q>0) are fixed on an
v{k ij tM+or~ j[kk x;k gS bu vkos'kksa ds cka;ha vksj fdl
axis. In which situation is there a point to the
left of the charges where an electron would fLFkfr esa bysDVªkWu lkE;koLFkk esa jgsxk\
be in equilibrium ?
+q –4q –q +4q
+q –q (1) (2)
–4q +4q
(1) (2)
+4q –q –4q q
(3) (4)
+4q –q –4q q
(3) (4)
(1) 1 vkSj 2 (2) 2 vkSj 4
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 4
(3) 3 and 4 (4) 1 and 3 (3) 3 vkjS 4 (4) 1 vkjS 3
27. Two point charges –4Q and 9Q are placed at a 27. nks fcUnq vkos'k –4Q rFkk 9Q ,d&nwljs ls 2m dh nwjh ij
distance 2 m from each other. The position at j[ks gaAS vkos'k –4Q ls x (m esa) nwjh ij dqy fo|qr {ks= dk
which net electric field is zero from the charge eku 'kwU; gks rks x Kkr dhft,A
–4Q is x (in m). What is the value of x ? (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
28. A point charge of 25 mC is located in the XY 28. XY ry esa ,d 25 mC dk fcUnq vkos'k fLFkfr lfn'k
r
plane at the point of position vector
r r0 = ( î + ˆj ) m ds fcUnq ij fLFkr gSA fLFkfr lfn'k
r = ( î + ˆj ) m . What is the magnitude of electric r
r1 = ( 4iˆ + 5ˆj ) m ds fcUnq ij fo|qr {ks= dk ifjek.k Kkr
0
field at the point of position vector
r
r1 = ( 4iˆ + 5ˆj ) m ? dhft;s %&
V 9V V 9V
(1) 900 (2) (1) 900 (2)
m m m m
V V V V
(3) 90 (4) 9000 (3) 90 (4) 9000
m m m m
29. A ring of radius "r" has charge Q. It is cut by 29. f=T;k r dh oy; ij vkos'k Q mifLFkr gSA fp=kuqlkj bl ls
small length dl. Find the electric field at the vYika'k yEckbZ dl dkVh tkrh gAS rks oy; ds dsUnz ij
centre :-
fo|qr {ks= gksxk :-
Q dl Q dl
r
r
Qdl Qdl
(1) Zero (2) (1) Zero (2)
2pr 2e 0 2pr 2e 0
Qdl Qdl Qdl Qdl

(3) (4) 8p 2e r 3 (3) 2pr 3e (4) 8p 2e r 3
2pr 3e 0 0 0 0
1001CMA303119001 7/35
30. Find the variation of electric field on the line 30. fp=kuqlkj nksuksa vkos'kksa dks feykus okyh js[kk ij vkos'kksa ds
joining between the two charges - chp fo|qr {ks= ds ifjorZu dk xzkQ gksxk &[/kukRed x v{k
®
[Take +x axis as +ve direction of E ] ds vuqfn'k fo|qr {ks= /kukRed gAS ]
Q 2Q Q 2Q
a a
(1) Q· ·
(1) Q· ·
a/2 a/2 2Q a/2 2Q
a/2
· · · · · ·
(2) Q
a/2 a/2 2Q (2) Q
a/2 a/2 2Q
· · ·
(3) Q
· · ·
2Q (3) Q
a/2 a/2
2Q
a/2 a/2
· ·
· · (4) Q a/2 2Q
(4) Q
a/2 a/2 2Q a/2
31. The maximum electric field at a point on the 31. ,d leku vkosf'kr oy; dh v{k ij vf/kdre fo|qr {ks=
axis a uniformly charged ring is E0. At how E0 gAS v{k ij fdrus fcUnqvksa ij o|
S qr {ks= dk ifjek.k
many points on the axis will the magnitude of
E0/2 gksxk\
electric field be E0/2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
32. The charge per unit length of the four quadrant 32. ,d oy; ds pkjksa iknksa dk vkos'k ,dkad yEckbZ ij Øe'k%
of the ring is 2l, – 2l, l and – l respectively. 2l, – 2l, l ,oa – l gAS dsUnz ij fo|qr {ks= dh rhozrk
The magnitude of electric field at the centre is: dk ifjek.k gksxk %
y y
–2l- - - - + + + + 2l –2l- - - - + + + + 2l
+ ----
++
+ ----
++
+ ----
+ ----
R x R x
++
++
--
-
- -+ + + +
l –l
--
- -+ + + +
l –l
2Kl Kl 4Kl 2Kl Kl 4Kl

(1) (2) (3) (4) r (1) (2) (3) (4) r
r r r r r r
8/35 1001CMA303119001
33. Eight point charges having magnitude q are 33. ifjek.k q okys vkB fcUnq vkos'kksa dks ,d ?ku ds 'kh"kks± ij j[kk x;k
fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux gAS ?ku dh oxkZdkj lrg ABCD ls fuxZr fo|qr ¶yDl gksxk
through square surface ABCD of the cube is q D C
q
q D q
C Aq
q B
q
Aq B q
H qG
q q
H qG qF
E
q
E qF
q q q q
q q q q (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 24 Î0 12 Î0 6 Î0 3 Î0
24 Î0 12 Î0 6 Î0 3 Î0
34. A charge Q is distributed uniformly on a ring 34. ,d vkos'k Q ,d leku :i ls r f=T;k dh oy; ij mifLFkr
of radius r. Consider an sphere of equal radius gAS ;fn r f=T;k ds xksys dk dsUnz fp=kuqlkj oy; dh ifjf/k
r with its centre at the periphery of the ring. ij gS] rks xksys dh lrg ls xqtjus okys ¶yDl dk eku
Find the flux of the electric field through the
gksxk :-
surface of the sphere -
sphere
sphere ring
ring O O'
O O'
Q Q Q Q
(1) 4 Î (1) 4 Î (2) 6 Î
(2) 6 Î 0 0
0 0
Q Q Q Q
(3) 3 Î (4) 2 Î (3) 3 Î (4) 2 Î
0 0
0 0
35. A heart shaped conductor shown below carries 35. ,d ân; dh vkd`fr ds pkyd ij fp=kuqlkj usV vkos'k Q
net charge Q. Which of the statement, about gAS fo|qr {ks= E rFkk i`"B vkos'k ?kuRo s ds lkis{k uhps
the electric field E and the surface charge fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa dkuS lk lR; gS ?
density s, below is correct?
2
2
3
3 1
1
(1) E strongest and s smallest at position-1 (1) fLFkfr-1 ij E izcyre rFkk s U;wure gaSA
(2) E strongest and s highest at position-1 (2) fLFkfr-1 ij E izcyre rFkk s vf/kdre gaAS
(3) E weakest and s highest at position-2 (3) fLFkfr-2 ij E nqcZyre rFkk s vf/kdre gaAS
(4) E strongest and s highest at position-3 (4) fLFkfr-3 ij E izcyre rFkk s vf/kdre gaAS
36. Electric potential in a particular region of space 36. lef"V esa fdlh fo'ks"k LFkku ij fo|qr foHko dk eku
is V = 12x – 3x2y + 2yz2. The electric field at V = 12x – 3x2y + 2yz2 gAS fcUnq P(1m, 0, –2m) ij
point P (1m, 0, –2m) is :- fo|qr {ks= gksXkk :-
(1) 12 unit (2) 13 unit (1) 12 bdkbZ (2) 13 bdkbZ
(3) 5 unit (4) Zero (3) 5 bdkbZ (4) 'kwU;
1001CMA303119001 9/35
37. Figure shows some equipotential lines 37. fp= esa fnDdky esa forfjr dqN lefoHko js[kk,a n'kkZ;h xbZ
distributed in space. A charged object is moved gaAS dksbZ vkosf'kr fi.M fcUnq A ls fcUnq B rd xfr djrk
from point A to point B. gSA
30V 40V 30V 30V 40V 30V
A B A B A B A B A B A B
10V 20V 30V 40V 50V 10V 20V 50V 10V 20V 40V 50V 10V 20V 30V 40V 50V 10V 20V 50V 10V 20V 40V 50V
Fig. I Fig. II Fig. III Fig. I Fig. II Fig. III
(1) The work done in Fig. (i) is the greatest. (1) fp= (i) esa fd;k x;k dk;Z vf/kdre gAS
(2) The work done in Fig. (ii) is least.
(2) fp= (ii) esa fd;k x;k dk;Z U;wure gAS
(3) The work done is the same in Fig. (i), Fig.
(3) fp= (i), fp= (ii), fp= (iii) esa fd;k x;k dk;Z leku gAS
(ii) and Fig. (iii).
(4) The work done in Fig. (iii) is greater than (4) fp= (iii) esa fd;k x;k dk;Z fp= (ii) ls vf/kd gS ijUrq
Fig. (ii) but equal to that in Fig. (i). fp= (i) ds leku gAS
38. Equipotentials at a great distance from a 38. dqN vkos'kksa ds ,d lewg dk dqy ;ksx 'kwU; ugha gAS blls
collection of charges whose total sum is not vf/kd nwjh ij cuus okys lefoHko i`"B gksasxs&
zero are approximately :
(1) xksyh;
(1) Spheres
(2) lery
(2) Planes
(3) ijoy;t
(3) Paraboloids
(4) nh?kZo`Ùkt
(4) Ellipsoids
r r r r r r r r
39. Given that P = Q = R. If P + Q = R then the 39. fn;k gS P = Q = R ; ;fn P + Q = R gks] rks P rFkk R ds
r r r r r r r r r r r r
angle between P & R is q1. If P+Q+R = 0 then e/; dks.k q1 gAS ;fn P + Q + R = 0 gks] rks P rFkk R
r r
the angle between P & R is q2. What is the ds e/; dks.k q2 gAS q1 rFkk q2 es lEcU/k gksxkA
relation between q1 and q2 ?
(1) q1 = q2
(1) q1 = q2
q2
q (2) q1 =
(2) q1 = 2 2
2
(3) q1 = 2q2
(3) q1 = 2q2
(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugh
(4) None of the above
40. Square of the resultant of two forces of equal 40. nks leku ifjek.k ds cyksa ds ifj.kkeh dk oxZ muds ifjek.kksa
magnitude is equal to three times the product of ds xq.kuQy dk rhu xquk gAS rks muds e/; dk dks.k gksxk&
their magnitude. The angle between them is:
(1) 0°
(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(2) 45°
(3) 60° (3) 60°
(4) 90° (4) 90°
10/35 1001CMA303119001
41. Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of 41. 9.85g BaCO3 dks (Ba dk ijek.kq Hkkj = 137) iw.kZ :i
CO2 released at STP on heating 9.85g of BaCO3 ls fo?kfVr djus ij izkIr CO2 dk vk;ru STP ij crk;sa:-
(Atomic mass of Ba = 137) will be :- (1) 0.84 L (2) 2.24 L
(1) 0.84 L (2) 2.24 L (3) 4.06 L (4) 1.12 L (3) 4.06 L (4) 1.12 L
42. How many moles of electron weight one kilogram? 42. fdrus eksy bysDVªkuksa dk Hkkj 1 kg gksxk ?
1 1
(1) 6.023 × 1023 (2) ´1023 (1) 6.023 × 1023 (2) ´1023
9.108 9.108
6.023 1 6.023 1
(3) ´ 10 54 (4) ´ 108 (3) ´ 10 54 (4) ´ 108
9.108 9.108 ´ 6.023 9.108 9.108 ´ 6.023
43. A 400 mg iron capsule contains 100 mg of 43. 400 mg vk;ju dSI lw y es a 100 mg Qs j l ¶;w e js V
ferrous fumarate (CHOO)2Fe. The percentage (CHOO)2Fe gAS dsIlwy es vk;ju dh izfr'krrk yxHkx
of iron present in capsule is. fdruh gksxh ?
(1) 33% (2) 25% (1) 33% (2) 25%
(3) 14% (4) 9.5% (3) 14% (4) 9.5%
44. What volume of NH 3 gas at STP would be 44. 2.5 eksyj (2.5M) veksfu;e gkbMªkDlkbM foy;u ds 100
needed to prepare 100 ml of 2.5 molar (2.5M) ml dks r;S kj djus ds fy, STP ij NH3 xl S ds fdrus
ammonium hydroxide solution ? vk;ru dh t:jr iM+xs h ?
(1) 0.056 litre (2) 0.56 litre (1) 0.056 litre (2) 0.56 litre
(3) 5.6 litre (4) 11.2 litre (3) 5.6 litre (4) 11.2 litre
45. 100g CaCO3 reacts with 1 L 1N HCl. On 45. 100g CaCO 3 1 L 1N HCl ls vfHkd` r gks r k gSA
completion of reaction, how much weight of CO2
will be obtain?
vfHkfØ;k ds iw.kZ gksus ij CO2 dk fdruk Hkkj feysxk ?
(1) 5.5g (2) 11g (3) 22g (4) 33g (1) 5.5g (2) 11g (3) 22g (4) 33g
46. Which curve represent zero order reaction ? 46. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk oØ 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k iznf'kZr djrk
(where [A] represents concentration of reactant) gS ?
(tgk¡ [A] fØ;kdkjd dh lkUnzrk dks iznf'kZr djrk gS)
[A] [A]
(1) (2) [A] [A]
(1) (2)
t t
t t
[A] [A] [A] [A]

(3) (4) (3) (4)
t t t t
47. The inversion of cane sugar in to glucose and 47. 'kdZjk dk Xywdkst o ÝDVkst esa izfriu gS :
fructose is : (1) izFke dksfV (2) f}rh; dksfV
(1) Ist order (2) IInd order
(3) IIIrd order (4) Zero order (3) r`rh; dksfV (4) 'kwU; dksfV
48. The concentration of R in the reaction, R ® P was 48. fdlh vfHkfØ;k R ® P esa R dh lkUnzrk] le; ds lkis{k
measured as a function of time and the following fuEu vkadM+ks ds vk/kkj ij ekih gSA
data is obtained. [R] (eksyj) 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10
[R] (molar) 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10 t (feuV) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18
t (min) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18 vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV gksxh :-
the order of the reaction is :- (1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
1001CMA303119001 11/35
49. The threshold energy of a chemical reaction 49. ,d jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k dh nsgyh mGtkZ fuHkZj djrh
depends upon :- gS :-
(1) Nature of reacting species (1) fØ;kdkjd iztkfr dh izd`fr
(2) temperature (2) rkieku
(3) Concentration of species (3) iztkfr dh lkUnzrk ij
(4) Number of collisions per unit time or collision (4) izfr bdkbZ le; esa VDdjksa dh la[;k ;k VDdj vko`fr
frequency ij
50. Plot ln K vs 1/T for two reactions A and B are 50. l n K o 1/T es fuEu oØ nks vfHkfØ;kvksa A o B ds fy,
given below. Which reaction is more sensitive gS] dkSulh vfHkfØ;k rkieku ds izfr T;knk laons u'khy gS?
to temperature?
B
B A
A
lnK
lnK
1/T
1/T
(1) A (1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) Both have same sensitivity (3) nksuks leku :i ls laons u'khy
(4) Can't compare (4) rqyuk ugh dj ldrs
51. Time required for 100 percent completion of 51. 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k dks 100 izfr'kr iwjk djus esa yxk le;
a zero order reaction is gksxk
(1) 2 K/a (2) a/2K (3) a/K (4) a–K (1) 2 K/a (2) a/2K (3) a/K (4) a–K
52. For a reaction A + 2B ® C, rate is given by 52. vfHkfØ;k A + 2B ® C, esa nj R = K[A][B]2 nh xbZ
R = K[A][B] 2 the order of a reaction is ; gAS vfHkfØ;k dk Øe gksxk :
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 7 (1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 7
53. Units of rate constant of first and zero order 53. izFke o 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;kvksa esa nj fLFkjkad dh bdkbZ;ka
reactions in terms of molarity M are respectively. eksyjrk ds :i esa Øe'k% gksxh &
(1) s–1, Ms–1 (2) s–1, M (3) Ms–1, s–1(4) M, s–1 (1) s–1, Ms–1 (2) s–1, M (3) Ms–1, s–1(4) M, s–1
54. The rate law for the single step reaction, 54. ,d inh; vfHkfØ;k 2A+B® 2C ds fy, nj fu;e
2A+B® 2C is given by gksxk
(1) rate = K[A].[B] (2) rate = K[A]2.[B] (1) rate = K[A].[B] (2) rate = K[A]2.[B]
(3) rate = K[2A].[B] (4) rate = K[A]1.[B]2 (3) rate = K[2A].[B] (4) rate = K[A]1.[B]2
55. If concentration of reactants is increased by 'X' 55. vxj vfHkfØ;k dh lkUnzrk 'X' ls c<+k;h tk;s] rc nj fLFkjkad
the rate constant K becomes. K gks tkrk gAS
(1) eK/X (2) K/X (3) K (4) X/K (1) eK/X (2) K/X (3) K (4) X/K
56. Which orbital does not possess angular node. 56. fdl d{kd esa dks.kh; uksM ugh gksrk gAS
(1) s (2) p (3) d (4) f (1) s (2) p (3) d (4) f
57. Which has the maximum magnetic moment ? 57. fuEu esa ls fdlesa vf/kdre pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ gksxk ?
(1) Mn+2 (2) Fe+2 (3) Ti+2 (4) Cr+2 (1) Mn+2 (2) Fe+2 (3) Ti+2 (4) Cr+2
58. The number of d electrons retained in Fe+2 ion is 58. Fe+2 vk;uksa esa mifLFkr d bysDVªkuksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 4
59. The electronic configuration of an element is 59. ,d rRo dk bysDVªkfud 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s23p63d5, 4s1.
1s2,2s2,2p 6,3s23p63d5, 4s 1. this represents its. ;g iznf'kZr djrk gS &
(1) excited state (2) ground state (1) mÙksftr voLFkk (2) vk| voLFkk
(3) cationic form (4) anionic form (3) /kukosf'kr :i (4) ½.kkosf'kr :i
60. Which will be most stable among Fe, Fe+, Fe+2 60. Fe, Fe+, Fe+2 o Fe+3 es ls bysDVªkWfud foU;kl ds vkèkkj
and Fe+3 based on electronic configuration ? ij dkuS lcls T;knk LFkk;h gksxk ?
(1) Fe+2 (2) Fe+ (3) Fe (4) Fe+3 (1) Fe+2 (2) Fe+ (3) Fe (4) Fe+3
12/35 1001CMA303119001
61. Which of the following is most basic ? 61. fuEu esa ls dkuS lokZf/kd {kkjh; gAS
(1) (2) (1) (2)

NH N NH N
NH2 NH2
NH NH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
62. Tautomerism is not possible in :- 62. pyko;ork ugha n'kkZrk gS %&

O O
O Me O Me
(1) (2) (1) (2)
Me Me
CHO O
CHO O
(3) (4) (3) (4)
63. Which of the following is Aromatic 63. fuEu esa ls dkuS ,jS ksesfVd fo"kepØh; ;kfS xd gS %&
Heterocyclic compound ?
NH2
NH2
(1) (2)
(1) (2) O
O
O O
(3) (4) (3) (4)

N N
64. Arrange the following carbocation in correct 64. dkcZ/kuk;u LFkkf;Ro dk lgh Øe gAS
order of stability. Å
Å (I) CH 3 - O - CH - CH 3
(I) CH 3 - O - CH - CH 3
Å
Å (II) CH 3 - CH - CH 2 - CH 3
(II) CH 3 - CH - CH 2 - CH 3
O
O Å ||
Å ||
(III) CH 3 - CH - C - CH 3
(III) CH 3 - CH - C - CH 3
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III (1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II (3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
65. Which of the following is incorrect order of 65. fuEu esa ls dkSu gkbMªkstuhdj.k dh Å"ek dk lgh Øe ugha
Heat of Hydrogenation ? gS %&
(1) > (2) > (1) > (2) >
(3) < (4) < (3) < (4) <
1001CMA303119001 13/35
66. Which of the following is pair of metamers ? 66. fuEu esa ls dkuS e/;ko;oh dk ;qXe gS \
O O O O
|| || || ||
(1) CH 3 - CH 2 - C - OH and CH 3 - C - O - CH 3 (1) CH 3 - CH 2 - C - OH rFkk CH 3 - C - O - CH 3
O O O O
|| || || ||
(2) CH 3 - C - O - CH 3 and H - C - O - CH 2CH 3 (2) CH 3 - C - O - CH 3 rFkk H - C - O - CH 2 CH 3
O O O O
|| || || ||
(3) CH 3 - CH 2 - C - CH 3 and H - C - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 3 (3) CH 3 - CH 2 - C - CH 3 rFkk H - C - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 3
O O O O
CH3–C CH3–C CH3–C CH3–C
(4) O and O (4) O RkFkk O
CH3–C CH3CH 2–C CH3–C CH3CH 2–C
O O O O
67. Which of the following does not show 67. fuEu esa ls dkSu T;kferh; leko;ork iznf'kZr ugha djsxk\
geometrical isomerism ?
(1) N–OH (2) Ph–N=N–Ph
(1) N–OH (2) Ph–N=N–Ph
(3) Ph Ph (4) N–OH (3) Ph Ph (4) N–OH
68. Configuration of the following compound is :- 68. fn, x, ;kfS xd dk foU;kl gS %&
Br Br
(1) 2Z, 4Z (2) 2E, 4E (3) 2Z, 4E (4) 2E, 4Z (1) 2Z, 4Z (2) 2E, 4E (3) 2Z, 4E (4) 2E, 4Z
CH3 Br CH3
CH3 Br CH3
69. Cl Br Cl CH3 C2H5 Br
69. Cl Br Cl CH3 C2H5 Br
C2 H 5 C2 H 5 Cl
C2H5 C2H5 Cl
(I) (II) (III)
(I) (II) (III)
Which of the following statement is not correct
about structure I, II, III. lajpuk I, II, III ds fy, dkuS lk dFku lgh ugha g\S
(1) II and III are homomers (1) II vkSj III le:ih gS
(2) I and III are Enantiomers (2) I vkSj III izfrfcEc :i leko;oh gS
(3) II and III are Enantiomers (3) II vkSj III izfrfcEc :i leko;oh gS
(4) I and II are Enantiomers (4) I vkSj II izfrfcEc :i leko;oh gS
70. Which of the following does not show optical 70. fuEu esa ls dkSu izdkf'kd leko;ork iznf'kZr ugha djsxkA
isomerism. Cl Cl
Cl Cl (1) C=C=C
(1) C=C=C Br Br
Br Br
CH3 NO2
CH3 NO2
(2)
(2)
NO2 CH3
NO2 CH3
(3) CH3–CH–CH=CH–CH3 (3) CH3–CH–CH=CH–CH3
OH OH
(4) CH3 H (4) CH3 H
C=C=C C=C=C
CH3CH2 H CH3CH2 H
14/35 1001CMA303119001
dil. H2SO4 dil. H2SO4

71. CH3–C ºCH HgSO4
A 71. CH3–C ºCH HgSO4
A
(1) BH3/THF (1) BH3/THF
1
B 1
B
(2) H2O2/OH (2) H2O2/OH
Relation between A and B is :- A vkjS B esa laca/k gS :-

(1) Functional isomers (2) Metamers (1) fØ;kRed leko;oh (2) e/;ko;oh
(3) Position isomers (4) Homomers (3) fLFkfr leko;oh (4) le:ih
72. HBr ? 72. HBr ?

R2O2 R2O2
CH3 CH3
Major product in above reaction is :- mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa eq[; mRikn gS %&
Br Br Br Br
(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH 3 CH 3
CH3 CH3
(3) (4) Br (3) (4) Br
CH2Br CH3 CH2Br CH3
73. Which of the following is least reactive towards 73. fuEu esa ls dkSu ukfHkdLusgh ;ksxkRed vfHkfØ;k esa U;wure
Nucleophilic Addition reaction ? fØ;k'khy gS \
O O
O C O C
Me Me
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O O
O O
H H
(3) (4) C (3) (4) C
H H H H
74. The intermediate formed in the addition of HBr 74. 1-esfFkylkbDyksgDs lhu esa HBr dk ;ksx djus ij fuEu esa
to 1-methylcyclohexene is :- ls D;k e/;orhZ cusxk \
(1) (2) Br (1) (2) Br

Br Br
Å Å
(3) (4) (3) (4)
Å Å
1001CMA303119001 15/35
75. How many meso isomers are possible for 75. isUVsu –2, 3-Mkbvksy ds fy, fdrus ehlks leko;oh
pentane –2, 3-diol. gS \
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 0 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 0
76. Which is most stable free radical ? 76. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk eqDr ewyd lokZf/kd LFkk;h gAS
CH3 CH3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
CH3 CH3
CH2 CH2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
77. Arrange the following compound in correct 77. fuEu ;kSfxdksa dks vEyh; lkeF;Z ds lgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr
order of Acidic strength. dhft,A
OH OH CH2OH OH OH OH CH2OH OH
NO2 NO2
CH3 CH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > II > IV > III (1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > II > IV > III
(3) II > IV > III > I (4) II > III > IV > I (3) II > IV > III > I (4) II > III > IV > I
78. IUPAC name of given compound is :- 78. fuEu ;kfS xd dk IUPAC uke gS %&
Me Me
Me Me
Et Et
(1) 1-Ethyl-2,2-dimethylcyclohexene (1) 1-,fFky-2,2-MkbZesfFkylkbDyksgsDlhu
(3) 6,6-Dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexene (3) 6,6-MkbZesfFky-1-,fFkylkbDyksgDs lhu
79. In which of the following compound nitrogen 79. fuEu esa ls ukbVªkstu dk ladj.k sp3 gS ?
is sp3 hybridised ? (I) ikbjksy (II) csafty ,feu
(I) Pyrrole (II) Benzyl amine
(III) ,fyy ,ehu (IV) ,uhyhu
(III) Allyl amine (IV) Aniline
(1) dsoy II (2) dsoy III
(1) Only II (2) Only III
(3) II, III (4) I, IV (3) II, III (4) I, IV
80. Which of the following is incorrect ? 80. fuEu esa ls D;k xyr gS \
(1) CH3–CH 2–Cl does not show electromeric (1) CH3–CH2–Cl esa bysDVª ksesf jd izH kko ugha gksrk
effect gSA
Me Me Me Me
(2) and differ in position of double bond (2) vkjS esa f}ca/k dh fLFkfr fHkUu gAS
(3) Propene and cyclopropene are ring chain isomers (3) izksihu vkjS lkbDyksizksihu oy; Üka`[kyk leko;oh gAS
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) vkSj (3) nksuksa
16/35 1001CMA303119001
81. A single allele for recessive trait can express 81. fdlh vizHkkoh y{k.k dk ,dy vyhy Hkh Lo;a dks
itself if it occurs on vfHkO;Dr dj ldrk gS ;fn og mifLFkr gks&
(1) Any autosome (1) fdlh Hkh vfyax xq.klw= ij
(2) Any chromosome (2) fdlh Hkh xq.klw= ij
(3) X-chromosome of female (3) eknk ds X-xq.klw= ij
(4) X-chromosome of male (4) uj ds X-xq.klw= ij
82. Which of the following statements are correct? 82. fuEu esa ls dkuS &lk dFku lgh g\ S
(A) Mendelian traits are qualitative in nature (A) es.Myh; y{k.k xq.kkRed izdkj ds gAS
(B) Qualitative traits show discontinuous variations (B) xq.kkRed y{k.k vlrr fofo/krk n'kkZrs gaS
(C) Qualitative traits are polygenic traits (C) xq.kkRed y{k.k cgqthuh y{k.k gksrs gaS
(D) Quantitative traits show discontinuous variations (D) ek=kRed y{k.k vlrr fofof/krk n'kkZrs gaS
(1) Statements A and B (2) Statements A and D (1) dFku A o B (2) dFku A o D
(3) Statements B and C (4) Statements C and D (3) dFku B o C (4) dFku C o D
83. Which of the following cross with respect to 83. fuEu esa ls fdl ØkWl ls larfr;ksa esa jDr lewg ds laca/k esa
blood groups show both multiple allelism and cgq ; q X efodfYirk rFkk lgiz H kkfork nks uks a ns [ kus dks
codominance in offsprings? feysxh\
(1) O × O (2) A × A (1) O × O (2) A × A
(3) A × B (4) AB × AB (3) A × B (4) AB × AB
84. A colourblind man has a colourblind sister and a 84. ,d o.kkZU/k O;fDr dh ,d o.kkZU/k cgu rFkk ,d lkekU; HkkbZ
normal brother. The phenotype of his parents are:- gS rks mlds irS `dksa dk y{k.k izk:i gksxk:-
(1) Father colourblind and mother normal (1) firk o.kkZU/k o ekrk lkekU;
(2) Father normal and mother colourblind (2) firk lkekU; o ekrk o.kkZU/k
(3) Both parents are normal (3) nksuksa irS `d lkekU;
(4) Both parents are colourblind (4) nksuksa irS `d o.kkZU/k
85. If the two gene pairs in a dihybrid cross are situated 85. ;fn fdlh f}ladj ØkWl esa nksuksa thu leku xq.klw= ij mifLFkr
on the same homologous pair of chromosome gaS rks fuEu esa ls D;k laHko g\
S
then which of the following is possible?
(1) Higher parental gene combination as (1) iqu;ksZth dh rqyuk esa vf/kd irS `d thu la;kstu
compared to recombinants.
(2) lHkh iSr`d thu la;kstu vkSj dksbZ iqu;ksZth ugha
(2) All parental gene combinations and no
recombinants. (3) iSr`d thu la;kstu rFkk iqu;ksZth dk leku vuqikr
(3) Equal proportion of parental gene combination
as well as recombinant (4) mijksDr lHkh laHko gSA
(4) All the above is possible.
86. Christmas disease is another name of- 86. fdl jksx dk ,d vkSj uke fØLel jksx g\ S
(1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Haemophilia A (1) nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk (2) gheksfQfy;k ,
(3) Haemophilia B (4) Haemophilia C (3) gheksfQfy;k ch (4) gheksfQfy;k lh
87. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments 87. es.My us ladj.k iz;ksx fd;k Fkk
(1) Seven years (1865 - 1872) (1) lkr o"kZ (1865 - 1872)
(4) Fourteen years (1857 - 1867) (4) pkSng o"kZ (1857 - 1867)
88. The number of chromosomes in male and 88. uj rFkk eknk e/kqeD[kh esa xq.klw=ksa dh la [;k gksrh gS
female honeybee are respectively:- Øe'k%
(1) 16, 32 (2) 32, 16 (1) 16, 32 (2) 32, 16
(3) 16, 16 (4) 32, 32 (3) 16, 16 (4) 32, 32
1001CMA303119001 17/35
89. The symbol used for consanguineous mating 89. oa'kkoyh (isMhxzh) esa lejDr eFS kqu ds fy, iz;qDr izrhd
in pedigree is- gS -
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)

90. Female heterogamety is found in 90. eknk fo"ke;qXedrk (fgfVjksxsfeVh) ik;h tkrh g&S
(1) Human (2) Birds (1) euq" ; esa (2) if{k;ksa esa
(3) Grasshopper (4) Cockroach (3) fVM~Ms eas (4) frypês esa
91. RNA can act as : 91. RNA ________ dh rjg dk;Z djrk gS &
(a) Genetic material (b) Messenger (a) vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ (b) lan's kokgd
(c) Adapter molecule (d) Structural molecule (c) vuqdwyd v.kq (d) lajpukRed v.kq
(e) Catalytic molecule (e) mRizsjd v.kq
(1) a and e only (2) a, b and c only (1) dsoy a rFkk e (2) dsoy a, b rFkk c
(3) a, b, c, d and e (4) c and d only (3) a, b, c, d rFkk e (4) dsoy c rFkk d
92. In the DNA double helix, a purine is always 92. ,d f}dqaMyh DNA esa ,d I;qjhu ges'kk ,d ikbjhehMhu
paired with pyrimidine base through hydrogen ds lkFk gkbMªk st u ckW .M }kjk ;q X eu djrk g SA blds
bonds, that leads to : dkj.k &
(1) The opposite polarity (1) foijhr /kqzohdj.k gksrk gAS
(2) Uniform length of all DNA (2) lHkh DNA dh yackbZ leku gksrh gAS
(3) Uniform width throughout DNA (3) laiw.kZ DNA dh pkM S +kbZ leku gksrh gAS
(4) The conservative nature of DNA (4) DNA dk laj{kh LoHkko gksrk gAS
93. DNA of an organism as A = 30%, T = 10%, 93. ,d tho ds DNA esa A = 30%, T = 10%, G = 35%
G = 35% and C = 25%. Considering the rFkk C = 25% gAS pkjxkWQ fu;e ds vuqlkj &
Chargaff's rule it can be concluded that : (1) ;g f}jTtqdh; jfS [kd DNA gSA
(1) It is double stranded linear DNA
(2) ;g f}jTtqdh; o`Ùkh; DNA gAS
(2) It is double stranded circular DNA
(3) ;g single stranded DNA gSA
(3) It is single stranded DNA
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) nksuksa 1 rFkk 2
94. Match the column I and II and choose the 94. dkWye I rFkk II dk feyku dhft, vkSj lgh fodYi
correct option : pqfu;s &
Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkW ye -II
(a) Bacteriophage l (i) 5386 nucleotide (a) Bacteriophage l (i) 5386 nucleotide
(b) Bacteriophage (ii) 48502 bp (b) Bacteriophage (ii) 48502 bp
f × 174 f × 174
(c) E.coli (iii) 4.6 × 106 bp (c) bZ-dksykbZ (iii) 4.6 × 106 bp
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 6.6 × 109 bp (d) Homo sapiens (iv) 6.6 × 109 bp
(Diploid cell) (f}xqf.kr dksf'kdk)
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
95. Which one is incorrect ? 95. dkuS lk lgh ugh g\
S
(1) DNA ® Deoxyribose sugar (1) DNA ® MhvkWDlhjkbckst 'kdZjk
(2) Capping ® Adding of 7 mG at 5' end (2) vkPNknu (Capping) ® 7 mG dk 5' fljs ij tqM+uk
(3) Splicing ® Adding poly A at 3' end (3) lca/ku ® ikWyh A dk 3' fljs ij tqM+uk
(4) RNA ® Cytosine and Uracil (4) RNA ® lkbVksflu] ;w jfs ly
18/35 1001CMA303119001
96. Which enzymes are produced by lac 'z' and 96. ySd vkWijs kWu esa Øe'k% lac 'z' rFkk lac 'a' dkSuls ,atkbe
lac 'a' genes in lac operon, respectively ? cukrs g\ S
(1) b-Galactosidase, Transacetylase (1) b-xsyDs VkslkbMst, Vªkal,lhVkbyst
(2) Transacetylase, Permease (2) Vªkal,lhVkbyst, ijfe,st
(3) Permease, b-Galactosidase (3) ijfe,st, b-xsyDs VkslkbMst
(4) Permease, Lactate dehydrogenase (4) ijfe,st, yDS VsV MhgkbMªkfs tust
97. A strand of DNA has following base sequence 97. DNA dh ,d J` a [ kyk ij N 2 {kkjdks a dk Øe
3'AAGAGTCGA-5'.On transcription, it produces 3'AAGAGTCGA-5' gSA blds vuqy s[ku }kjk ,d
an m-RNA which of the following anticodon of mRNA curk gAS fuEu esa ls dku S ls,aVhdksMkWu okyk tRNA
t-RNA recognises the second codon of this m-RNA bl mRNA ds nwljs dksMkWu dks igpkusxk &
(1) AGU (2) AGT (1) AGU (2) AGT
(3) GAC (4) UCA (3) GAC (4) UCA
98. During elongation of polypeptide in 98. izkd
S sfj;ksV esa ikWyhisIVkbM+ ds nh?khZdj.k ds nkSjku] GTP v.kq
prokaryotes, GTP molecule is needed for : dh vko';drk fdlesa gksrh gS &
(1) Formation of formyl-met-t RNA (1) QkWfeZy-met-t RNA ds cuus esa
(2) Translocation of ribosome (2) jkbckslkse dh xfr ds fy, (Translocation)
(3) Binding of 30s subunit of ribosome (3) jkbckslkse dh 30s mibdkbZ dk mRNA ds lkFk caèku
with mRNA cukus esa
(4) Association of 30s-mRNA with formyl- (4) 30s-mRNA dk QkWfeZy-met-tRNA ds lkFk lkgp;Z
met-tRNA cuus esa
99. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 99. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku xyr g\ S
(1) Introns do not appear in mature mRNA (1) vO;Drsd (baVªkWu) ifjiDo mRNA esa ugh feyrs gAS
(2) Terminator is located towards 5' end of coding (2) lekid dwVys [ku jTtqd ds 5' fljs ij fLFkr gksrk
strand gSA
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyse (3) DNA fuHkZj RNA ikWyhejst cgqydu dsoy ,d fn'kk
polymerisation in only one direction (5'®3') 5'®3' dh vksj mRizsfjr djrk gAS
(4) rRNAs play structural and catalytic role (4) rRNA LFkkukUrj.k ds nkjS ku lajpukRed o mRizsjd dh
during translation Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gAS
100. If there were 5 types of N2 bases in mRNA and 100. ;fn mRNA esa 5 izdkj ds {kkj gksrs rFkk izksVhu esa 20 izdkj
20 types of amino acids in protein. Then the ds vehuks vEy gksrs rks dksMksu dSlk gksxk\
codon would have been : (1) Singlet
(1) Singlet
(2) Doublet
(2) Doublet
(3) Triplet
(3) Triplet
(4) Quadruplet (4) Quadruplet
101. Which of the following statement regarding 101. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk dFku izlo ds fy;s lR ; ugha
parturition is not correct ? gS ?
(A) Increase in progesterone and estrogen ratio. (A) izkt
s Ls Vsjksu vkjS bZLVªkstu vuqikr eas o`f¼A
(B) Oxytocin is the main parturition harmone. (B) vkWDlhVksflu eq[; izlo gkWeksZu gAS
(C) Only fully developed foetus is responsible
(C) dsoy iw.kZ fodflr xHkZ gh xHkZ mR{ksiu izfrorZ ds fy,
for foetal ejection reflex.
mÙkjnk;h gAS
(D) Parturition is a complex neuro-endocrine
mechanisms. (D) izlo ,d tfVy raf=dk var% L=koh fØ;k gAS
(1) C and D (2) A and C (1) C rFkk D (2) A rFkk C

(3) A, C and D (4) B and C (3) A, C rFkk D (4) B rFkk C
1001CMA303119001 19/35
102. HO 102. HO
O O
H N H N
CH3 CH3
HO HO
Which of the following statement is/are correct fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS ls dFku mijksDr lajpuk ds fy;s lR;
about the given structure ? gS ?
(A) This is obtained by acetylation of morphine. (A) ;g ekWfQZu ds ,lhfVyhdj.k ls izkIr fd;k tkrk gAS
(B) Its receptors are present in our central (B) blds xzkgh gekjs dssUnzh; raf=dk ra= vkSj tBjka= iFk esa
nervous system and gastrointestinal tract. mifLFkr gksrs gAS
(C) It is obtained from Papaver somniferum (C) ;g iiS o s j lksEuhQsje ls izkIr gksrh gAS
(D) Four phenanthrene rings are present in morphine (D) ekWfQZu eas pkj fQuUS Fkzhu oy; gksrs gAS
(E) It is a psychotropic drug which leads to (E) ;g ,d euksuqorZuh vkS"k/kh gS ftlls Hkzkafr;k¡ inS k gksrh
delusions and disturbed emotions. gS ,oa xM+cM+ Hkkouk,¡ vkus yxrh gAS
(1) A, B and C (1) A, B rFkk C
(2) A, B, C and D (2) A, B, C rFkk D
(3) B, C and D (3) B, C rFkk D
(4) A, B, C and E (4) A, B, C rFkk E
103. Hormones secreted by corpus luteum are :- 103. dkWiZl Y;wfV;e ls L=kfor gksus okys gkWeksZu gS :-
(1) hCG, hPL, Progesterone, Prolactin (1) hCG, hPL, izkstsLVhjksu ] izksysfDVu
(2) Progesterone, Estrogen, Relaxin, Inhibin (2) izkstsLVhjksu ] ,LVªkstu] fjysfDlu] bfUgfcu
(3) hCG, hPL, Estrogen, Relaxin, Inhibin (3) hCG, hPL, ,LVªkstu] fjysfDlu] bfUgfcu
(4) LH, Progesterone, Estrogen, FSH (4) LH, izkstsLVhjksu ] ,LVªkstu , FSH
104. Which of the following is not related with the 104. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dku S Lru/kkfj;ksa ds iwoZt ls lacaf/kr ugha
ancestory of mammals ? gS ?
(1) Thecodont (1) FksdksMksUV
(2) Sauropsids (2) lkSjksf IlM
(3) Therapsids (3) FksjSfIlM
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) rFkk (2)
105. Which of the following was not obtained in the 105. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dku S lk inkFkZ;wjs rFkk feyj tlS s ekuo iz;ksxksa
experiment similar to Miller and Urey ? esa izkIr ugha gqvk Fkk ?
(1) Amino acids (1) vehuks vEy
(2) Nucleic acids (2) U;wfDyd vEy
(3) Fats (3) olk
(4) Sugars (4) 'kdZjk
20/35 1001CMA303119001
106. How many of the statements given below are 106. fn;k x;k fp= ds lanHkZ esa fdrus dFku xyr gS ?
incorrect regarding given figure ?
(A) Glycoprotein in nature. (A) LoHkko esa XykbdksizksVhu gSA

(B) Produce by both B and T cells. (B) B o T nksuksa dksf'kdkvksa }kjk fufeZrA
(C) Gives stimulation for antigen. (C) izfrtu ds fy;s mÙkstuk nsrh gAS
(D) Two chains are held together by disulphide (D) nksuksa Jà[kykvksa dks Mkb&lYQkbM ca/k }kjk tksM+k tkrk
bond gSA
(E) Found in blood and is responsible for cell (E) ;g jDr esa mifLFkr gksrh gS rFkk dksf'kdk vk/kkfjr izfrj{kk
mediated immunity. ra= ds fy;s mÙkjnk;h gksrh gAS
(F) Represented as H2L2 molecule. (F) bls H2L2 ls n'kkZrs gAS
(1) Four (2) Three (1) pkj (2) rhu
(3) Two (4) One (3) nks (4) ,d
107. In tetanus vaccination, body is introduced with:- 107. fVVul ds Vhdkdj.k esa ] 'kjhj esa Mkys tkrs gS :-
(1) Killed bacteria (1) ekjs x, thok.kq
(2) Harmless virus (2) gkfujfgr fo"kk.kq
(3) Inactivated toxin (3) vfØ; VkWfDlu
(4) Harmless bacteria (4) gkfujfgr thok.kq
108. Which of the following statement are correct 108. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS ls dFku vijk ds lanHkZ esa lR ;
regarding placenta ? gS ?
(A) Placenta is a temporary endocrine structure. (A) vijk ,d vLFkkbZ vUr% L=koh lajpuk gAS
(B) The chorionic villi and uterine tissue (B) tjk;q vadqjd rFkk xHkkZ'k;h ÅÙkd ,d nwljs ds lkFk
become interdigitated with each other and varjkaxqfy;qDr gks tkrs gS rFkk vijk dk fuekZ.k djrs
form placenta. gS A
(C) IgG, IgM can cross placenta and provide (C) IgG rFkk IgM vijk dks ikj dj ldrh gS rFkk Hkzw.k
passive immunity to embryo. dks fuf"Ø; izfrj{kk iznku djrh gAS
(D) STD like HIV as well as hepatitis-B virus (D) ;ku S lapkfjr jksx tlS s HIV rFkk ;d`r'kksFk&B ds fo"kk.kq
can cross placenta. vijk dks ikj dj ldrs gSA
(E) Teratogens can cross placenta and can (E) VsjVs kstu vijk dks ikj dj ldrs gS rFkk vaxtuu ds le;
cause deformity during organogenesis. fod`fr yk ldrs gAS
(1) A, B, C, D and E (1) A, B, C, D rFkk E
(2) A, B and E (2) A, B rFkk E
(3) A, B, D and E (3) A, B, D rFkk E
(4) A, B and D (4) A, B rFkk D
1001CMA303119001 21/35
109. Which of the following induce active immunity? 109. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lfØ ; izfrj{kk izsfjr djrs gS ?
(a) Antiserum (a) ,.Vhlhje
(b) Toxoid (b) VkWfDlu
(c) Vaccine (c) Vhdk
(d) Antivenom (d) ,.Vhosue
(e) Combination (DPT, MMR) (e) la;ksth Vhdk (DPT, MMR)
(1) a, c, e (2) a, b, c, e (1) a, c, e (2) a, b, c, e
(3) b, c, e (4) a, b, c, d and e (3) b, c, e (4) a, b, c, d and e
110. Which of the following side effect is not caused 110. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk vuq"kaxh izHkko iq:"k f[kykfM+;ksa
by performance enhancing anabolic steroids in esa izn'kZu c<+kus okys mikip;h LVsjkbM+ksa ds dkj.k ugha gksrk
male sports person ? gS ?
(1) Increase in size of testicles. (1) VsLVhdy dk vkdkj c<+uk
(2) Decreased sperm count. (2) 'kqØk.kq mRiknu esa deh
(3) Breast enlargement. (3) Lru dk c<+uk
(4) Increased aggressiveness. (4) vkØedrk c<+uk
111. Which of the following statements are not 111. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls dFku jfrtjksx(oh-Mh-) ds lanHkZ
correct about venereal diseases ? esa lR; ugha gS ?
(1) Early symptoms of these are itching, fluid (1) buds izkjfEHkd y{k.k tufud{ks= esa [kqtyh] rjy L=ko
discharge, slight pain, swelling in the genital region vkuk] gYdk nnZ rFkk lwtu gksrs gAS
(2) They can lead to pelvic inflammatory diseases, (2) buls Jksf.k&'kksFkt jksx] xHkZikr] tuu ekxZ dk dSalj gks
abortions, cancer of reproductive tract. ldrk gAS
(3) Genital herpes is one of the curable venereal disease. (3) tufud ifjliZ ,d bykt laHko jfrtjksx gSA
(4) Genital warts caused by human papilloma and (4) ySafxd eLls g~;weu iiS hyksek fo"kk.kq ls gksrk gS rFkk ;g
this virus can cause cervical cancer in females. fo"kk.kq eknk esa xzhok dSalj djk ldrk gAS
112. The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was of 112. izkphu i`Foh dk vkfn ok;qe.My vipk;d FkkA ;g ifjofrZr
reducing nature. It was transformed into an oxidising gks x;k vkt ds mip;u ok;qe.My esa fdldh mRifÙk ds
atmosphere of present day due to the emergence of:- dkj.k :-
(1) Cyanobacteria (1) uhy gfjr 'ko S ky
(2) Photosynthetic bacteria (2) izdk'k la'ysf"kr thok.kq
(3) Angiosperms (3) vko`Ùkchth
(4) Giant ferns (4) fo'kky QuZ
113. The evolution of a species is based upon sum 113. fdlh iztkfr dk mn~fodkl fdlds }kjk lajf{kr fd, x,
total of adaptive changes preserved by :- vuqdwyh ifjorZuksa ds dqy ;ksx ij vk/kkfjr gksrk gS :-
(1) Speciation (2) Isolation (1) tkfr mn~Hkou (2) i`FkDdj.k
(3) Inheritance (4) Natural selection (3) oa'kkxfr (4) izkd`frd oj.k
114. Artificial selections to obtain sheep yielding 114. vf/kd Åu nsus okyh HksM+ks dks izkIr djus ds fy, fd;k x;k
higher wool output represents :- d`f=e oj.k D;k n'kkZrk gS ?
(1) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this (1) LFkk;hdj.k oj.k D;ksafd ;g tula[;k esa bl y{k.k dk
character in the population. LFkk;hdj.k djrk gAS
(2) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it
(2) LFkk;hdj.k ds ckn fonkjd D;ksfa d ;g tula[;k esa mPp
stabilizes the population to produce higher
mRiknd HksM+ks dk LFkk;hdj.k djrk gSA
yielding sheeps.
(3) Disruptive as it splits the population into two (3) fonkjd D;ksafd ;g tula [;k dks nks esa foHkkftr
one yielding higher output and the other djrk gS] ,d vf/kd mRiknu okyh ,oa vU; de
lower output. mRiknu okyh
(4) Directional as it pushes the mean of the (4) fn'kkRed oj.k D;kasfd ;g y{k.k ek/; dks ,d fn'kk
character in one direction. esa /kdsy nsrk gAS
22/35 1001CMA303119001
115. Differentiation of immature lymphocyte into 115. vifjiDo yfldk.kqvksa dk izfrtu laons h dksf'kdkvksa esa
antigen sensitive cells occurs in :- foHksnu gskrk gS :-
(1) Spleen (1) Iyhgk esa
(2) Bone marrow and thymus (2) vfLFk eTtk o Fkkbel
(3) Secondary lymphoid organs (3) f}rh;d ylhdkHk vax esa
(4) MALT (4) MALT esa
116. How many statements are not incorrect for AIDS? 116. fuEu esa ls fdrus dFku ,M~l ds lanHkZ esa xyr ugha gS ?
(a) Core of HIV has two identical molecules of ss RNA (a) HIV ds dksj esa nks leku ss RNA v.kq gksrs gAS
(b) GP-120 has complementary sequence to (b) GP-120 dk iwjd Øe CD-8 xzkgh ij gksrk gAS
CD-8 receptor. (c) ELISA VsLV window period esa ½.kkRed gksrk gAS
(c) ELISA is negative in window period. (d) fo"kk.kq T-lgk;d dksf'kdk esa iz frd`fr ugha cukrk
(d) Virus doesn't replicate in T-helper cell. gSA
(e) HIV virus is enveloped virus and has two (e) HIV ,d vko`r fo"kk.kq gS rFkk blds ikl mRØe
molecules of reverse transcriptase. VªkalfØIVst ds nks v.kq gksrs gAS
(1) Four (2) Three (1) pkj (2) rhu
(3) Two (4) Five (3) nks (4) ik¡p
117. The pregnancy test is based on the detection 117. xHkkZoLFkk tk¡p fdl gkWeksZu dh mifLFkfr ij vk/kkfjr gksrh
of which hormone ? gS ?
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (1) ,LVªkt s u (2) izkt
s Ls Vsjksu
(3) HCG (4) LH (3) HCG (4) LH
118. Primary peak level of estrogen and secondary peak 118. ekfld pØ esa ,LVªkstu dk izkFkfed 'kh"kZ Lrj rFkk f}rh;d
level of estrogen in menstrual cycle occurs due to:- 'kh"kZ Lrj fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS :-
(1) Mature graafian follicle and corpus luteum (1) xzkfQ;u iqfVdk rFkk dkiZl Y;qfV;e ds dkj.k
respectively.
(2) v.MksRlxZ rFkk dkiZl Y;qfV;e ds dkj.k
(2) Ovulation and corpus luteum
(3) dsoy dkiZl Y;qfV;e ds dkj.k
(3) Only formation of corpus luteum
(4) Ovulation and destruction of corpus luteum (4) v.Mks R lxZ rFkk dkiZ l Y;q fV;e ds u"V gks us ds
respectively. dkj.k
119. Which hormone regulates the hypothalamus 119. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSul gkWeksZu QhMcd
S fØ;kfof/k ls
hormone pulse involved in gametogenesis by gkbiksFky
S sel ds gkWeksZu tks ;qXedtuu esa Hkkx ysrk gS mldks
feedback mechanism ? fu;fer djrk gS ?
(1) Estrogen (1) ,LVªkt s u
(2) ABP (2) ABP
(3) Relaxin (3) fjysfDlu
(4) Inhibin (4) bfUgfcu
120. How many of the following are not copper 120. fuEu esa ls fdruh rk¡ck ekspd var % xHkkZ'k;h ;qfDr ugha
releasing IUD's ? gS ?
LNG-20, Cu-T, Cu-7, Progestasert, Multiload 375, LNG-20, Cu-T, Cu-7, izkstsLVklVZ] eYVhyksM 375,
Depoprovera, Centchroman, Gossypol Msiksizkos js k] lsUVØkseus ] xkWlhiksy
(1) Four (1) pkj
(2) Five (2) ik¡p
(3) Three (3) rhu
(4) Six (4) N%
1001CMA303119001 23/35
DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180 iz ' u la [;k 121 ls 180 ds fy, funsZ 'k
These questions consist of two statements each, izR;sd iz'u es a dFku rFkk dkj.k fn , x;s gSaA iz'uksa
printed as Assertion and Reason.While
answering these Questions you are required to
dks gy djrs le; uhps fn, x, pkjks a fodYiks a es a
choose any one of the following four responses. ls lgh fodYi dks pq fu,A
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the A. ;fn dFku ,oa dkj.k nks uksa lR ; gaS rFkk dkj.k dFku
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason B. ;fn dFku ,oa dkj.k nksu ksa lR; gaS] ys fdu dkj.k] dFku
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA
C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. C. ;fn dFku lR ; gS ] ys fdu dkj.k vlR ; gS A
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False. D. dFku o dkj.k nks uks a vlR; gS aA
121. Assertion :- The time taken by a particle to slide 121. dFku :- ,d d.k }kjk xksys ds mPpre fcUnq ls vyx&vyx
down along different smooth chords of a sphere fpduh thok ds vuqfn'k xfr djus esa fy;k x;k le; leku gksxkA
starting from highest point of the sphere is same. dkj.k :- bl izdkj dh thok dh yEckbZ] d.k Roj.k ds
Reason :- Length of such a chord is propotional lekuqikrh gksrh gAS
to acceleration of the particle along it.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. A ball is dropped from rest from the top of a 122. ,d xsan dks fojkekoLFkk ls ehukj ds 'kh"kZ ls NksM+k x;k gS tks
building and strikes the ground with a speed /kjkry ij vf pky ls Vdjkrk gAS /kjkry ls nwljh xsan dks
vf. From ground level, a second ball is thrown mlh le; tc igyh xsan NksM+h xbZ Fkh] dks lh/kk Åij dh
straight upward at the same instant that the first rjQ Qsadk tkrk gAS
ball is dropped.
nwljh xsan dh izkjfEHkd pky v0 = vf
The initial speed of the second ball is v0 = vf
Assertion :- The acceleration of both the balls dFku :- nksuksa xsan dk Roj.k leku gksxkA
is the same dkj.k :- ehukj dh vk/kh ÅWpkbZ ij nksuksa xsan ,d nwljs dks
Reason :- The two balls cross each other at half ikj djsxhA
the height of building.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123. Assertion :- Horizontal component of velocity 123. dFku :- xq:Roh; xfr esa iz{ksI; ds osx dk {kfS rt ?kVd
is constant in projectile motion under gravity. lnoS fLFkj jgrk gAS
Reason :- Two projectiles having same range dkj.k :- ;fn nks iz{ksI; ds ijkl le; gks rks muds mM;u
must have the same time of flight. dky Hkh leku gksxkA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. Assertion :- For a projectile motion, the 124. dFku :- iz{ksI; xfr esa] iFk dh lehdj.k f}?kkr gS tks ;g
equation for trajectory is quadratic indicating n'kkZrh gS fd iFk dk vkdkj ijoy;dkj gksxkA
the path in space is parabolic in shape.
dkj.k :- fLFkj Roj.k ls f}foeh; xfr ijoy;dkj iFk cukrh
Reason :- Two dimensional motion with constant
gSA
acceleration produces parabolic trajectories.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
24/35 1001CMA303119001
125. Assertion :- When a projectile breaks into two 125. dFku :- tc ,d ç{ksI; ,d ,dleku xq :Roh; {ks= esa
pieces during flight in a uniform gravitational mM+ku ds nkSjku nks Vq dM+ksa esa Vw Vrk g]S rks ,d Vq dM+s dk iFk
field, the path of one piece is straight line as ljy js[kh; gksrk gS tks nwljs VqdM+s }kjk çf{kr fd;k tkrk
observed by the other piece. gSA
Reason :- All projectiles have same acceleration dkj.k :- lHkh ç{ksI; ewy Ýse (ground frame) esa leku
in ground frame. Roj.k j[krs gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion :- The distance between 2 floating 126. dFku :- ,dleku :i ls iz o kfgr unh ij 2 rSj rh gq b Z
objects on a river flowing uniformly does not oLrq vksa ds e/; nwj h le; ds lkFk ifjofrZ r ugha gksr h
change with time. gS A
Reason :- The floating object has the same dkj.k :- rjS rh gqbZ oLrq unh dh Hkkafr leku osx j[krh
velocity as that of the river. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. A spring is kept pressed in between a block and 127. ,d fLizax dks ,d CykWd o ,d Å/oZ nhokj ds e/; esa nck;s
a vertical wall. The block is pushed by a j[kk tkrk gAS CykWd dks fpdus lery /kjkry ij ,d {kfS rt
horizontal force on a smooth level ground so cy }kjk bl izdkj nck;k tkrk gS fd ;g lkE;koLFkk esa gksrk
that it is in equillibrium. gSA
Assertion :- The force exerted by the spring on dFku :- nhokj ij fLizax }kjk vkjksfir cy CykWd ij fLizax
the wall is equal and opposite to the force }kjk vkjksfir cy ds leku o foijhr gksrk gAS
exerted by the spring on the block.
dkj.k :- izR;sd fØ;k dh leku o foijhr izfrfØ;k gksrh
Reason :- Every action has equal and opposite
gSA
reaction.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. A block is suspended from an elevator at rest. 128. fLFkj fy¶V esa ,d CykWd yVdk gSA izkjEHk esa CykWd
Initially block is at equilibrium position. lkE;oLFkk fLFkr gAS vpkukd fy¶V eqDr :i ls fxjus yxrh
Suddenly elevator begins falling freely. gSA
Assertion :- After fall has begun, initially the

dFku :- tSl s gh fxjuk iz k jEHk gks r h gS] fLiz a x igys
spring begins to contract. fldqM+sxhA
Reason :- Just after fall of elevator begins
resultant force on block in reference frame of
dkj.k :- fy¶V ds fxjus ds rqjUr ckn fy¶V ds ra= esa CykWd
elevator is upward.
ij ifj.kkeh cy ij dh vksj gksxkA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. A massless string is held taut between 2 poles 129. ,d nzO;ekughu Mksjh n'kkZ, vuqlkj 2 [kEHkksa ds e/; ruko
as shown. j[ks gq, gAS
Assertion :- The force exerted by string on both dFku :- nksuksa [kEHkksa ij Mksjh }kjk yxk;k x;k cy leku ,oa
poles is equal and opposite. foijhr gAS
Reason :- Every action has equal & opposite dkj.k :- izR;sd fØ;k leku o foijhr izfrfØ;k j[krh gS
reaction which act on different bodies. tks fHkUu oLrqvksa ij dk;Zjr gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
1001CMA303119001 25/35
130. Assertion :- A man standing at rest on ground. 130. dFku :- ,d vkneh /kjkry ij fojke ij [kM+k gqvk gAS vkneh
Force exerted by man on ground is equal to }kjk /kjkry ij yxk;k x;k cy vkneh ds Hkkj ds cjkcj gksrk
weight of man. gSA
Reason :- Earth attract man by force mg hence dkj.k :- i`Foh] cy mg }kjk vkneh dks vkdf"kZr djrh
by Newton's third law man also attract earth by gS vr% U;wVu ds r`rh; fu;e ls vkneh Hkh i`Foh dks leku
same force. cy }kjk vkdf"kZr djrk gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion : The dot product of one vector with 131. dFku % ,d lfn'k dk nwljs lfn'k ls fcUnq xq.kuQy ,d
another vector may be a scalar or a vector. vfn'k ;k lfn'k gks ldrk gAS
Reason : If the product of two vectors is a dkj.k % ;fn nks lfn'kksa dk xq.kuQy ,d lfn'k jkf'k gks]
vector quantity, then product is called a dot rks xq.kuQy fcUnq xq.kuQy dgykrk gAS
product.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. Assertion : The direction of a zero (null) vector 132. dFku % 'kwU; lfn'k dh fn'kk vfu/kk;Z gksrh gAS
is indeterminate. r r r r r r r r
r r r r r r dkj.k % A ¹ 0 ,oa B¹0 ds gksrs gq, A ´ B = A.B gks
Reason : We can have A ´ B = A.B with A ¹ 0
r r ldrk gAS
and B ¹ 0 .
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion :- Electrostatic field lines never form 133. dFku :- fLFkj o|
S qr cy js[kk;s dHkh Hkh can ywi ugha cukrh
closed loops. gSA
Reason :- Electrostatic field is a conservative dkj.k :- fLFkj o|
S qr {ks= ,d laj{kh {ks= gksrk gAS
field.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion :- The electrostatic potential is 134. dFku :- fdlh fcUnq ij tgk¡ fo|qr {ks= dh rhozrk 'kwU; g]S
necessarily zero at a point, where the electric fo|qr foHko vko';d :i ls 'kwU; gksrk gS A
field strength is zero. dkj.k :- fdlh fo|q r {ks = esa ,d vkos f 'kr d.k mPp
Reason :- A charged particle in an electric field fLFkfrt ÅtkZ {ks = ls fuEu fLFkfrt ÅtkZ {ks = es a xfr
will move from higher potential region to lower djsx kA
potential region.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion :- Electric field lines do not cut at any 135. dFku :- fo|qr {ks= js[kk,¡ ,d nwljs dks ugha dkVrh
point. gSA
Reason:- At any point, there is only one dkj.k :- fdlh Hkh fcUnq ij fo|qr {ks= dh ,d gh fn'kk
direction of electric field. gksrh gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion :- We cannot find electric field from 136. dFku :- xkWml ds fu;e ls vlefer vkos'k forj.k ds fy,
Gauss's law for unsymmetrical charge fo|qr {ks= Kkr ugha fd;k tk ldrkA
distribution. dkj.k :- xkWml dk fu;e vlefer vkos'k forj.k ds fy;s
Reason :- Gauss's law is not applicable for ykxw ugha gksrkA
unsymmetrical charge distribution.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion :- Two charged particles at rest 137. dFku % fojkekoLFkk ij nks vkosf'kr d.k dsoy fo|qr cy
experiences only electrical force. vuqHko djrs gaSA
Reason :- Charges at rest can only produce dkj.k % fojkekoLFkk ij vkos'k dsoy fo|qr {ks= gh mRiUu
electric field. ldrs gaSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
26/35 1001CMA303119001
138. Assertion :- Charge is invariant. 138. dFku : vkos'k vpj gAS
Reason :- Charge does not depend on speed dkj.k : vkos'k osx ;k funsZ'k rU= ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gAS
or frame of reference.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion :- Electric potential energy of any 139. dFku : fdlh /kukRed vkos'k dh fo|qr fLFkfrt ÅtkZ ges'kk
positive charge is always positive. /kukRed gksrh gAS
Reason :- Potential energy is a vector quantity. dkj.k : fLFkfrt ÅtkZ ,d lfn'k jkf'k gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. Assertion :- Under electrostatic conditions net 140. dFku :- Bksl pkyd ds vUnj fLFkjo|
S qr fLFkfr esa dqy fo|qr
electric field inside a solid conductor will be zero. {ks= 'kwU; gksxk A
Reason :- Under electrostatic conditions there dkj.k :- fLFkjoS|qr fLFkfr esa pkyd ds vUnj dksbZ eqDr
will be no free electons inside a conductor. bysDVªkWu ugha gksxk A
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. Assertion :- Reactions of higher order are rare. 141. dFku :- mPp dksfV okyh vfHkfØ;k cgqr nqyZHk gksrh gAS
Reason:- Only these reactions are multisteps. dkj.k :- dsoy ;g vfHkfØ;k,s cgqinh; gksrh gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. Assertion :- Threshold energy is always greater 142. dFku :- nsgyh mGtkZ lno
S lfØ;.k mGtkZ ls vf/kd gksrh
than Activation energy. gSA
Reason:- HP – HR = DHreaction . dkj.k :- HP – HR = DHreaction.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
143. Assertion :- A catalyst is more effective in 143. dFku :- mRizsjd dh fØ;k'khyrk pq.kZ:i es vf/kd gksrh
finely powdered form. gSA
Reason:- Catalyst has different mechanism. dkj.k :- mRizsj.k dh fØ;kfof/k fHkUu&fHkUu gksrh gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- The rate of most reaction doubles 144. dFku :- vf/kdrj vfHkfØ;kvksa dh nj 10ºC rki c<+kus
when temperature is raised by 10ºC ij nksxquh gks tkrh gAS
Reason:- On increasing Temperature collision dkj.k :- rkieku c<+kus ij la?kV~V dh vko`fÙk ?kVrh
frequency decreases. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- If T ® ¥, rate constant becomes 145. dFku :- rkieku dks vuUr djus ij nj fu;rkad vf/kdre
maximum. gksrk gAS
Reason:- At unit concentration rate and rate dkj.k :- bdkbZ lkUnzrk ij] nj rFkk nj fu;rkad leku gksrs
constant are equal. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. Assertion :- Only possible Quantum No. of 3d' 146. dFku :- 3d' ds bysDVªkWu dh lEHkkfor pkjksa DokUVe la[;k
is n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = 1/2 n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = 1/2 ek= gAS
Reason:- Energy level of shell and subshell are dkj.k :- d{kkvksa rFkk midks'kksa dh mGtkZ Lrj (n + l) fu;e
calculated by (n + l) rule. }kjk ekik tk ldrk gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. Assertion :- Numerical value of Total energy. 147. dFku :- dqy mGtkZ] xfrt mGtkZ rFkk vk;uhdj.k mGtkZ dk
Kinetic energy and Ionization energy are same. xf.krh; eku leku gksrk gAS
Reason:- P.E. of electron in 3 rd shell of dkj.k :- gkbMªkstu dh rhljh d{kk esa bysDVªkWu dh fLFkfrt
hydrogen is 0.66 eV/atom. mGtkZ 0.66 eV/ijek.kq gksrh gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion :- (e/m)proton > (e/m)neutron 148. dFku :- (e/m)proton > (e/m)neutron
Reason:- mp < mn dkj.k :- mp < mn
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
1001CMA303119001 27/35
Mw Mw
149. Assertion :- ( E w )Fe = in its chloride. 149. dFku :- vk;ju ds DyksjkbM es] ( E w )Fe = .
3 3
Reason:- E w of Fe is that weight which dkj.k :- Fe dk Ew bldk og Hkkj tks 35.5 gm DyksjkbM
combines with 35.5 gm of chloride. ls la;ksx djrk gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
6.4 6.4
150. Assertion :- For solids atomic wt ~
- sp.heat (cal/g) 150. dFku :- Bkslks ds fy, ijek.kq Hkkj ~- fof'k"V Å"ek (cal/g)
Reason:- At wt. is variable dkj.k :- ijek.kq Hkkj cnyrk jgrk gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Å Å Å
151. Assertion :- CH 3 - CH 2 is more stable than 151. dFku :- CD3 - CH 2 dh rqyuk esa CH3 - C H 2 vf/kd
Å LFkk;h gAS
CD 3 - C H 2 .
Reason :- Inductive effect of –CD3 is more
dkj.k :- –CD3 dk izsjf.kd izHkko –CH3 ls vf/kd
than –CH 3 .
gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- Acetone is more stable than its 152. dFku :- ,lhVksu dk LFkkf;Ro blds bukWy pyko;oh ls
enol tautomer. vf/kd gksrk gAS
Reason :- C=O in acetone is stronger than C=C dkj.k :- ,lhVksu esa mifLFkr C=O bukWy esa mifLFkr C=C
in its enol tautomer. ls vf/kd izcy gksrk gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- Product formed by reaction of 153. dFku :- csUtsYMhgkbM dh vfHkfØ;k NH 2 –OH ls
benzaldehyde with NH2–OH show geometrical djkus ij izkIr mRikn T;kferh; leko;ork iznf'kZ r djrk
isomerism. gS A
Reason :- Oxime of all aldehyde show dkj.k :- C=N ds lkis{k izfrcfU/kr ?kw.kZu ds dkj.k lHkh
geometrical isomerism due to restricted rotation ,YMhgkbM ds vkWDlhe T;kferh; leko;rk iznf'kZr djrs
about C=N. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- Acetic acid is more acidic than 154. dFku :- ,lhfVd vEy QhukW y ls vf/kd vEyh ;
phenol. gSA
Reason :- Conjugate base of acetic acid is dkj.k :- ,lhfVd vEy dk la;qXeh {kkj vuqukn}kjk LFkk;h
stable by resonance. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- CH3 - CH - CH 2 - CH 3 and 155. dFku :- CH3 - CH - CH 2 - CH 3 vkjS
| |
COOH COOH
CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 are position fLFkfr leko;oh gAS

| CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2
|
COOH COOH
isomers of each other.
Reason :- Position of functional group is dkj.k :- fØ;kRed lewg dh fLFkfr nksuksa ;kSfxd esa fHkUu
different. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
28/35 1001CMA303119001
Å Å
156. Assertion :- CH3 - O = CH 2 is less stable than 156. dFku :- CH3 - O = CH 2 dh rqy uk es a
Å Å
CH3 - O - C H 2 . CH3 - O - C H 2 de LFkk;h gAS
Reason :- Resonating structure with complete dkj.k :- iw.kZ v"Vd vuquknh lajpuk viw.kZ v"Vd vuquknh
octet is more stable than incomplete octet lajpuk ls vf/kd LFkk;h gksrk gSA
resonating structure.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. Assertion :- Product obtained by reaction of 157. dFku :- 2-C;wVhu esa HBr dk ;ksx nsus ij izkIr mRikn esa
2-Butene with HBr contain chiral carbon. fdjSy dkcZu mifLFkr gAS
Reason :- Addition of HBr to Alkene completes dkj.k :- ,Ydhu esa HBr ds ;ksx ls dkcZ½.kk;u e/;orhZ
through formation of carbanion intermediate. curk gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion :- Smallest alkane that can show 158. dFku :- ,Fksu lcls NksVk ,Ydsu gS ftlesa la:i.k leko;rk
conformational isomerism is ethane. ns[kus dks feyrh gAS
Reason :- Ethane has 7 s bonds. dkj.k :- ,Fksu esa 7 s ca/k gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. Assertion :- Toluene show Hyperconjugation 159. dFku :- VkWywbu esa vfrla;qXeu izHkko ns[kus dks feyrk gS
while t-butylbenzene does not. ijUrq t-C;wfVy csathu esa ughaA
Reason :- Toluene contain a-H while dkj.k :- VkWywbu esa a-H mifLFkr gS ijUrq t-C;wfVy csathu
t-butylbenzene does not. esa a-H ugha gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
160. Assertion :- Butanone is incorrect IUPAC name. 160. dFku :- C;wVsuksu lgh IUPAC uke ugha gAS
Reason :- It is necessary to specify position, of
dkj.k :- IUPAC uke esa izfrLFkkih] fØ;kRed lewg vkSj
substituent, functional group, multiple bond in
cgqca/k dh fLFkfr crkuk vfuok;Z gSA
IUPAC name.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion :- Genes are the units of inheritance 161. dFku :- thu vkuqokaf'kdrk dh bdkb;k¡ gAS
Reason :- Genes are being passed down from
dkj.k :- thu irS d` ls larfr dks ;qXedksa ds ek/;e ls mÙkjksÙkj
parents to offspring through the gametes over
ihf<;ksa esa vxzflr gksrh gSA
successive generation.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- In a dihybrid cross in Drosophila 162. dFku :- MªkWlksfQyk esa vk¡[k ds jax rFkk ia[k ds vkdkj ds
for eye colour and wing size, Morgan found fy, fd, x, f}ladj ØkWl esa ekWxZu dks 1.3% iqu;kst Z u izkIr
1.3% of recombination. gqvkA
Reason :- Genes for eye colour and wing size dkj.k :- vk¡[k ds jax rFkk ia[k ds vkdkj okys thUl esa vfèkd
were very tightly linked. lgyXurk FkhA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- Sickl e-cell anaemia can be 163. dFku :- nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk (fldy lsy ,fufe;k) irS d
` ksa
transmitted from parents to the offspring ls larfr esa rHkh izo's k djrk gS tc nksuksa tud thu ds okgd
when both the parents are carrier for the gene gksrs gaS (fo"ke;qXeth)
(or heterozygous)
dkj.k :- nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk ,d X-lgyXu vizHkkoh
Reason :- Sickle cell anaemia is X-linked
jksx gAS
recessive disorder
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
1001CMA303119001 29/35
164. Assertion :- Morgan carried out several dihybrid 164. dFku :- fyax&lgyXu thuksa ds v/;;u gsrq ekWjxu us
crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were MªkslksfQ;k esa dbZ f}ladj Økal fd,A
sex linked. dkj.k :- ekWjxu us ihys 'kjhj rFkk 'osr vk¡[kksa okys uj ekfD[k;ksa
Reason :- Morgan hybridised yellow bodied, dk ladj.k Hkwjs 'kjhj rFkk yky vk¡[kksa okyh eknk ekfD[k;ksa
white-eyed males to brown bodied, red eyed ds lkFk fd;k vkSj fQj F1 larfr;ksa dks vkil esa ØkWl
females and crossed their F 1 progeny. djok;kA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
165. Assertion :- Mendel's experiment has a small 165. dFku :- es.My ds iz;ksx esa uewuksa dk ifjek.k (sampling
sampling size. size) NksVk FkkA
Reason :- It gave greater credibility to the data dkj.k :- blus muds}kjk bdV~Bs fd, x, vkWdM+kas dks vfèkd
he collected. fo'oluh;rk iznku dhA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. Assertion :- RNase do not affect transformation 166. dFku :- RNase thok.kq esa :ikUrj.k dks izHkkfor ugh djrs
in bacteria. gSA
Reason :- In bacteria, the genetic material is dkj.k :- thok.kq esa vkuq okaf'kd inkFkZ DNA gksrk
DNA. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- Euchromatin is transcriptionally 167. dFku :- ;wØksesfVu vuqy s[ku&lfØ ; ØksesfVu gksrs
active chromatin. gSA
Reason :- Heterochromatin takes dark stain and dkj.k :- gsVjs ksØksefs Vu xk<+s vfHkjaftr gksrs gS o dkQh vPNs
is densely packed. <+ax ls ca/ks gksrs gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. Assertion :- In Griffith's experiment, when 168. dFku :- xzhfQFk ds iz;ksxksa esa tc vkj izHksn dks pwgs esa
R strain was injected into mice, the mice died. LFkkukUrfjr fd;k rks pwgk ej x;k FkkA
Reason :- R strain bacteria have a mucous dkj.k :- vkj izHksn ds thok.kq esa 'ys"ek (cgq'kdZjkbM+) ;qDr
(polysaccharide) coat around it. vkoj.k gksrk gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates 169. dFku :- DNA izfrd`fr ds le; MhvkWDlhjkbcksU;wfDy;kslkbM+
act as substrate during DNA replication. VªkbQkWLQsV voLrj dh rjg dk;Z djrs gAS
Reason :- DNA replication occurs within a dkj .k :- DNA iz f rd` f r gs r q DNA dq . Mfyuh
small opening of the DNA helix called as Nks Vs &Nks V s Hkkx esa [kq y rs g S ftls iz f rd` f r f}'kk[k dgrs
replication fork. gS A
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- 15 N
is a radioactive isotope of 170. dFku :- 15N
,d fofdj.k lfØ; vkblksVksi gAS
nitrogen.
dkj.k :- DNA fcuk RNA dh lgk;rk ds izksVhu dh
Reason :- DNA can directly code for proteins dksfMax djrk gAS
without help of RNA.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- Anti-viral drugs are effective in 171. dFku :- ,M~l ds mipkj esa ,UVhok;jy MªXl izHkko'kkyh
treatment of AIDS. gSA
Reason :- AIDS virus is retrovirus with ss DNA dkj.k :- ,M~l ok;jl] ss DNA okyk ,d fjVªksok;jy
as genetic material. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
30/35 1001CMA303119001
172. Assertion :- A transplanted cornea is rarely 172. dFku :- izR;kjksfir dkWfuZ;k cgqr dh de vLohd`r fd;k
rejected. tkrk gAS
Reason :- Cornea is avascular. dkj.k :- dkWfuZ;k vlaogh; gksrk gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. Assertion :- Excess intake of alcohol causes 173. dFku :- ,Ydksgy dh vf/kd ek=k esa varxzZg.k ls chyh;jh
biliary cirrhosis disease. fljksfll uked jksx gksrk gAS
Reason :- Excess alcohol in blood causes dkj.k :- :f/kj esa ,Ydksgy dh vR;f/kd ek=k olk ds
increase in the synthesis of fat which is la'ys"k.k dks c<+k nsrh gS vkSj ;g ;Ïr dksf'kdkvksa esa tek
deposited in the liver cell. gksus yxrh gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- Higher vertebrates have the ability 174. dFku :- mPp d'ks:dh; Lo;a vkSj ij dksf'kdkvksa esa Hksn
to differentiate self cells from foreign cells. djus esa l{ke gAS
Reason :- Memory based acquired immunity dkj.k :- mPp d'ks:fd;ksa esa Le`fr vk/kkfjr mikftZr izfrj{kk
evolved in higher vertebrates. mRiUu gksrh gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
175. Assertion :- Regular cyclic menstruation is an 175. dFku :- fu;fer pfØ; ekfld L=ko dk gksuk] lkekU;
indicator of normal reproductive phase. tufud voLFkkvksa dh lwpuk gAS
Reason :- It occurs throughout the reproductive dkj.k :- ;g lkekU; efgykvksa ds iw.kZ tufud dky esa gksrk
phase of normal female. jgrk gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- Eye of octopus and human eye 176. dFku :- vkDVksil rFkk ekuo dh vk¡[ks le:irk iznf'kZr
show analogy. djrh gAS
Reason :- Analogous organs are the result of dkj.k :- le:i va x vilkjh fodkl dk ifj.kke
divergent evolution. gSA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. Assertion :- Formation of sperms takes place 177. dFku :- 'kqØk.kq dk fuekZ.k o`"k.k ds 'kqØtuu ufydkvksa
in seminiferous tubules of testes. esa gksrk gAS
Reason :- Seminiferous tubules are lined with dkj.k :- 'kqØtuu ufydk uj tuu dksf'kdk ,oa lVksZyh
male germ cells and sertoli cells. dksf'kdk ls Lrfjr gksrh gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- Periodic abstinence is a natural 178. dFku :- vkof/kd la;e ,d izdkj dh izkd`frd fofèk gS
method where couples abstain from coitus. ftlesa naifr eFS kqu ls cprs gAS
Reason :- Coitus from day 5-10 of menstrual dkj.k :- ekfld pØ ds 5-10 fnu rd eFS kqu ls cpuk pkfg,
cycle should be avoided because this is the time D;ksafd ;g v.MksRlxZ dk le; gksrk gAS
of ovulation.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- Oogenesis in initiated during the 179. dFku :- v.Mtuu dh 'kq:vkr O;LdkoLFkk ds nkjS ku gksrh
puberty stage when a couple of million gamete gS tc dbZ fefy;u ekr` ;qXed dksf'kdk,¡ izR;sd v.Mk'k;
mother cells are formed within each ovary. ds vanj fofufeZr gksrh gSA
Reason :- Oogenesis starts at the age of puberty dkj.k :- v.Mtuu ;kSoukjaHk ls gksus yxrh g]S D;ksafd bl
due to significant increase in secretion of GnRH. nkjS ku GnRH ds L=o.k esa dkQh o`f¼ gks tkrh gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
180. Assertion :- Water is essential for origin of life. 180. dFku :- ty thou dh mRifÙk ds fy;s vko';d gAS
Reason :- Chemical evolution took place in water. dkj.k :- jlk;fud mn~fodkl ty ds vanj gqvkA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
1001CMA303119001 31/35
181. Where is the headquarter of ICC (International 181. vUrjkZ"Vªh; fØdsV ifj"kn~ dk eq[;ky; dgk¡ gS ?
Cricket Council)? (1) flMuh (2) ykMZ l
(1) Sydney (2) Lords
(3) Delhi (4) Dubai (3) fnYyh (4) nqcbZ
182. What is the name of the scheme which will be 182. 1 tqykbZ 2020 ls ns'kHkj esa 'kq: gksus okyh Ldhe dk uke
available across the country from July 1, 2020? D;k gS ?
(1) One Nation One Ration Card (1) ou us'ku ou jk'ku dkMZ
(2) Digital India (2) MhftVy bafM;k
(3) Atal Pension Yojana (3) vVy isa'ku ;kstuk
(4) Make In India (4) esd bu bafM;k
183. Who is the present speaker of Lok Sabha ? 183. yksdlHkk ds orZeku v/;{k dkSu gS ?
(1) Meera Kumar (1) ehjk dqekj
(2) Ramnath Kovind (2) jkeukFk dksfoUn
(3) Om birla (3) vkse fcjyk
(4) Ramvilas Paswan (4) jkefoykl ikloku
184. Which state has the largest area ? 184. dkSuls jkT; dk {ks=Qy lokZf/kd gS ?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Madhya Pradesh (1) egkjk"Vª (2) e/; izn's k
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (3) mÙkj izn's k (4) jktLFkku
185. Which state in India is the largest producer of 185. Hkkjr dk dkSulk jkT; lokZf/kd lksuk mRiknd gS ?
gold ? (1) rfeyukMw (2) dsjy
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Kerala
(3) Karnatka (4) Odisha (3) dukZ Vd (4) mM+h lk
186. Name the Indian Scientist who has been 186. dkSuls Hkkjrh; oK
S kfud dks uklk us vius PUNCH fe'ku
selected as co-investigator by NASA for its ds fy;s lg&vUos"kd ds :i esa pquk x;k gS ?
PUNCH mission. (1) t;Ur gfjrlk
(1) Jayant Haritsa
(2) nhikUdj cSuthZ
(2) Dipankar Banerjee
(3) dekfu;ks pêksik|k;
(3) Kamanio Chattopadhyay
(4) Ramarathnam Narasimhan (4) jkejkFkue ujflage~
187. Name the Indian personality Who has been 187. dkSuls Hkkjrh; O;fDrRo vUrjkZ"Vªh; vksyafi;kd lfefr ds
elected as a member of International Olympic lnL; ds :i esa pqus x;s gaS ?
Committee (IOC) :- (1) ijxr flag
(1) Pargat Singh
(2) ufjUnj c=k
(2) Narinder Batra
(3) jeunhi flag
(3) Ramandeep Singh
(4) Dilip Tirkey (4) fnyhi fVdhZ
188. Who has ties up with Facebook for digital 188. fMftVy lk{kjrk igy ^fMftVy mMku* ds fy;s fdlus
literacy initiative 'Digital Udaan'? Qslcqd ds lkFk le>kSrk fd;k gS ?
(1) Vodafone Idea (2) Bharathi Airtel (1) oksMkQksu vkbfM;k (2) Hkkjrh ,;jVsy
(3) Reliance Jio (4) BSNL (3) fjykbal ft;ks (4) ch-,l-,u-,y
189. Who is the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) of 189. Hkkjr ljdkj ds eq[; vkfFkZd lykgdkj dkSu gS ?
the Government of India ? (1) fojy vkpk;Z
(1) Viral Acharaya
(2) xhrk xksihukFk
(2) Gita Gopinath
(3) Ï".kkewfrZ&oh- lqHkzefu;u
(3) Krishnamurthy V Subramanian
(4) Arun Jaitley (4) v:.k tsVyh
32/35 1001CMA303119001
190. Who won the gold medal in women's 200 metre 190. xksyfs du LVsfM;e] iksyaSM esa vk;ksftr iksTuku ,FkysfVDl
in Poznan Athletics Grand Prix 2019 held in xzaSM fizDl 2019 esa efgykvksa esa 200 ehVj dk Lo.kZ ind
Golecin Stadium, Poland ? fdlus thrk ?
(1) Hima Das (1) fgek nkl
(2) V.K. Vismaya (2) oh- ds- foLek;k
(3) Dutee Chand (3) nwrh pUn
(4) M. R. Poovamma (4) ,e- vkj- iwokek
191. In an exam, the average marks obtained by 191. ,d ijh{kk esa va x z s th] xf.kr] fgUnh vkSj Mª kba x es a tkW u
John in English, Maths, Hindi and Drawing }kjk izk Ir vk Slr va d 50 Fks A mlds xf.kr] foKku ]
were 50. His average marks in Maths, Science, lkekftd Kku vk Sj Øk¶V es a vk S lr va d 70 Fks A ;fn
Social Studies and Craft were 70. If the average lHkh lkr fo"k;ks a esa vk Slr va d 58 g S rks mlds xf.kr
marks in all seven subjects is 58, his score in esa fdrus va d Fks \
Maths was- (1) 50 (2) 52
(1) 50 (2) 52
(3) 60 (4) 74 (3) 60 (4) 74
192. Find the missing character? 192. fuEu fp= esa foyqIr v{kj Kkr dhft;s %&
Z Z
S G S G
M D I M D I
F E H ? F E H ?
(1) F (2) Z (1) F (2) Z

(3) S (4) G (3) S (4) G
193. Select a figure from amongst the Answer 193. fuEu mÙkj fp=ksa esa ls og fp= pqfu;s tks fd ik¡p iz'u fp=ksa
Figures which will continue the same series as }kjk LFkkfir dh xbZ Jà[kyk dks tkjh j[ksxkA
established by the five Problem Figures. iz'u fp= :
Problem Figures :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
mÙkj fp= :
Answer Figures :
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
194. Find out that pair which is differently related. 194. fuEu esa ls vlaxr ;qXe pqfu;s
(1) Fish and Aquarium (1) eNyh vkjS ,Dosfj;e
(2) Bird and Nest (2) fpfM+;k vkjS ?kksalyk
(3) Student and Teacher (3) Nk= vkSj f'k{kd
(4) Criminals and Prison (4) vijk/kh vkSj tsy
1001CMA303119001 33/35
195. Identify the figure that completes the pattern. 195. ml vkÏfr dk p;u dhft, tks fp= dks iw.kZ djsxhA
? ?
(X) (X)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
196. The population of a village decreases at the rate 196. ,d xkao dh tula[;k izfro"kZ 20% dh nj ls ?kV tkrh gAS
of 20% per annum. If its population 2 years ago ;fn bldh tula [;k 2 o"kZ iwoZ 10,000 Fkh] rks orZeku
was 10,000, the present population is tula[;k D;k g\
S
(1) 4600 (2) 6400 (1) 4600 (2) 6400
(3) 7600 (4) 6000 (3) 7600 (4) 6000
197. Choose the missing terms out of the given 197. fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls nh xbZ Js.kh ds yqIr in pqfu;sA
alternatives. Z, ?, T, ?, N, ?, H, ?, B
Z, ?, T, ?, N, ?, H, ?, B
(1) W, Q, K, E (2) W, R, K, E
(1) W, Q, K, E (2) W, R, K, E
(3) X, Q, K, E (4) X, R, K, E (3) X, Q, K, E (4) X, R, K, E
198. Two men undertake a job for Rs. 960. They can 198. nks vkneh ,d dk;Z dks iwjk djus ds fy, 960 :i;s ysrs
complete it in 16 days and 24 days, gAS os nksuksa bl dk;Z dks Øe'k% 16 ,oa 24 fnuksa esa iwjk dj
respectively. They work along with a third man ldrs gaAS os nksuksa bl dk;Z dks rhljs vkneh ds lkFk feydj
and take 8 days to complete it. Then the share 8 fnuksa esa iwjk dj ysrs gaAS rks rhljs vkneh dk fgLlk fdruk
of the third man should be gksuk pkfg,\
(1) Rs. 155 (2) Rs. 165 (1) 155 :i;s (2) 165 :i;s
(3) Rs. 160 (4) Rs. 150 (3) 160 :i;s (4) 150 :i;s
199. If in the number 38564927, first all the even digits 199. ;fn ,d la[;k 38564927 esa] igys lHkh le vadksa dks
are arranged in ascending order and then all the vkjksgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr fd;k tk;s fQj lHkh fo"ke vadksa
odd digits are arranged in ascending order then dks vkjksgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr fd;k tk;s rks dkSulk vad nk;s
which digit will be fourth from the right end? fljs ls pkSFks LFkku ij gksxk\
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6 (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6
200. Choose a figure which would most closely 200. fuEu eas ls og fp= pqfu;s tks fd fp= (Z) ds [kqys gq, :i
resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z). ls lkn`';rk iznf'kZr djsxk %
X Y Z X Y Z
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
34/35 1001CMA303119001
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy;s txg
1001CMA303119001 35/35

Question Report 461

Загружено:

Сведения о документе

Авторское право

Доступные форматы

Поделиться этим документом

Поделиться или встроить документ

Параметры публикации

Этот документ был вам полезен?

Это неприемлемый материал?

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

Question Report 461

Загружено:

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

Form Number : Paper Code

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE

Important Instructions / egRoiw.kZ funsZ' k

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(1) t = 21 sec (2) t = 2 5 sec (1) t = 21 sec (2) t = 2 5 sec

(3) 20 sec (4) none (3) 20 sec (4) none

(3) 50 m/s (4) 25 3 m/s (3) 50 m/s (4) 25 3 m/s

(A) g/2 (2) gÖ3

(1) rkj ds fofHkUu Hkkxksa esa fo|qr /kkjk vyx&vyx gAS

than that of at point B. bysDVªkWuksa dh viogu pky ls de gAS

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1

Qdl Qdl Qdl Qdl

2Kl Kl 4Kl 2Kl Kl 4Kl

[A] [A] [A] [A]

(1) (2) (1) (2)

62. Tautomerism is not possible in :- 62. pyko;ork ugha n'kkZrk gS %&

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(1) > (2) > (1) > (2) >

(3) < (4) < (3) < (4) <

(3) Ph Ph (4) N–OH (3) Ph Ph (4) N–OH

dil. H2SO4 dil. H2SO4

Relation between A and B is :- A vkjS B esa laca/k gS :-

72. HBr ? 72. HBr ?

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) Br (3) (4) Br

CH2Br CH3 CH2Br CH3

(1) (2) Br (1) (2) Br

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(1) C and D (2) A and C (1) C rFkk D (2) A rFkk C

(A) Glycoprotein in nature. (A) LoHkko esa XykbdksizksVhu gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Assertion :- After fall has begun, initially the

CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 are position fLFkfr leko;oh gAS

(1) F (2) Z (1) F (2) Z

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Вам также может понравиться