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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1. In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. superior B. mandatory C. beneficial D. constructive
Question 2. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.
A. inevitable B. imminent C. controversial D. absolute
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in
Question 3. There is a lesson for all parents in this tragic accident.
A. boring B. mysterious C. comic D. incredible
Question 4. Are you looking for a temporary or a permanent job?
A. fleeting B. fierce C. stable D. loose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
Question 6. A. contrary B. graduate C. document D. attendance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction
Question 7. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.
A B C D
Question 8. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and
mathematics.
A B C D
Question 9. Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to
them.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions from 10 to 14.
Long ago prehistoric man began to domesticate a number of wild plants and animals for
his own use. This not only provided a more abundant food source but also allowed more people
to live on a smaller plot of ground. We tend to forget that all of our present-day pets, livestock,
and food plants were taken from the wild and developed into the forms we know today.
As centuries passed and human cultures evolved and blossomed, humans began to
organise their knowledge of nature into the broad field of natural history. One aspect of early
natural history concerned the use of plants for drugs and medicine. The early herbalists
sometimes overworked their imaginations in this respect. For example, it was widely believed
that a plant or part of a plant that resembles an internal organ would cure ailments of that organ.
Thus, an extract made from a heartshaped leaf might be prescribed for a person suffering from
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heart problems.
Nevertheless, the overall contributions of these early observers provided the rudiments
of our present knowledge of drugs and their uses.
Question 10. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Cures from plants B. The beginning of natural history
C. Prehistoric man D. Early plants and animals
Question 11. Domestication of plants and animals probably occurred because of ________.
A. the need for more readily available food B. lack of wild animals and plants
C. early man’s power as a hunter D. the desire of prehistoric man to be nomadic
Question 12. The word “This” in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. providing food for man B. man’s domestication of plants and
animals
C. man’s ability to live on a small plot of land D. the earliest condition of prehistoric man
Question 13. The word “blossomed” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. produced flowers B. changed C. learned D. flourished
Question 14. An herbalist is which of the following?
A. A dreamer B. An early historian
C. Someone who uses plants in medicine D. A farmer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best option for
each of the blanks.
Owning a car has several advantages. ________(15), you can go wherever you want,
whenever
you want. You don’t have to depend on public transport, and ________(16), you will feel more
independent. ________(17), you are able to give lifts to friends, or carry heavy loads of
shopping. ________(18), there can be certain financial problems, especially if you live in a city.
Running a car can be costly, since you have to spend quite an amount on items ________(19)
petrol, servicing the car, and repairs. You might also have problem with parking, as every where
is more and more crowded with cars. ________(20) most people feel that the advantages of
owning a car outweigh the disadvantages.
Question 15. A. First of all B. As a result C. Generally D. Besides
Question 16. A. however B. personally C. since D. as a result
Question 17. A. In contrast B. In my opinion C. Besides D. However
Question 18. A. On the other hand B. To sum up C. Thus D. For example
Question 19. A. as B. such as C. owning to D. alike
Question 20. A. Overall B. Secondly C. Nonetheless D. Notwithstanding
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 21. I have a mere ________ of German.
A. smattering B. knowledge C. acquaintance D. command
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Question 22. Please don't ________ a word of this to anyone else, it's highly confidential.
A. breathe B. speak C. pass D. mutter
Question 23. The silver medalist was later ________ for running outside her lane.
A. banned B. disqualified C. disallowed D. outlawed
Question 24. It’s a small lamp, so it doesn't ________ off much light.
A. cast B. give C. shed D. spend
Question 25. The fumes were so thick that he was ________ for breath.
A. suffocating B. inhaling C. gasping D. wheezing
Question 26. She ________ hope of any reconciliation.
A. departed B. left C. ceased D. abandoned
Question 27. The storm causing flooding and landslides in Miami prompted the government to
________ hundreds from coastal towns.
A. evacuate B. demolish C. contribute D. evaporate
Question 28. You dropped it down the stairs? You're lucky it is still in one ________!
A. whole B. piece C. entirely D. unit
Question 29. They are conducting a wide ________ of surveys throughout Viet Nam.
A. collection B. range C. selection D. group
Question 30. Look,will you stop ________ in and let me finish my sentence!
A. butting B. moving C. pushing D. plugging
Question 31. John paid $20 for his meal, ________ he had thought it would cost.
A. not much as B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 32. “Mum! I’ve got 890 on the TOEIC test.” “________”
A. Good way! B. You are right C. Good job! D. Oh, hard luck!
Question 33. “Would you like me to get a taxi?” “________”
A. Yes, please, if it’s no bother. B. Well, let’s see.
C. That would be delightful. Thanks. D. Yes, I see.
Question 34. ________ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity transmitting B. That electricity can be transmitted
C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
Question 35. The discovery was a major ________ for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. breakdown C. break-in D. breakout
Question 36. John ________ knowledge from many of his life experiences to his work.
A. approved B. accomplished C. appreciated D. applied
Question 37. ________, sheep were then used for wool.
A. Having first domesticated for milk production
B. Having been first domesticated for milk production
C. Because they had been first domesticated for milk production
D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production
Question 38. Lorie is very thin, ________ her young sister, who is quite heavy.
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A. unlike B. dissimilar to C. dislike D. unlikely
Question 39. Flooding in April is an unusual ________ in this area.
A. occurrence B. occur C. occurring D. occurred
Question 40. It is a fact that ________ form of energy.
A. electricity being the most useful B. electricity is the most useful
C. the most useful in electricity D. electricity the most useful
Question 41. You have a good feeling about yourself and ________ when you volunteer.
A. the others B. other C. the other D. others
Question 42. Prices of flats ________ from a few thousand to millions of dollars.
A. change B. vary C. differ D. fluctuate
Question 43. By the end of this month, I ________ for this company for two years.
A. have been working B. will work
C. will have been working D. will be working
Question 44. The policeman explained to us ________ get to the market.
A. how B. how could C. how we could D. how could we
Question 45. Is this the address ________ you want the package sent?
A. that B. where C. to which D. which
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Considering that we travelled right across the country, the bus ticket was
surprisingly reasonable.
A. Because we were able to move right through the country, the price of the bus ticket didn't
bother us.
B. The ticket for the bus, which took us from one side of the country to the other, was the
cheapest that we could find.
C. The most reasonable way to go right across the country was by bus, so we bought ourselves a
ticket.
D. As the bus brought us right across the country, we found the price of the ticket to be cheaper
than its value to us.
Question 47. When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him because I
could hear the
noise of a party in the background.
A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background and I
told him that when he telephoned.
B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was saying
properly because of my unbelievably noisy party.
C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't believe
his claim that he was studying.
D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the background
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there were party-like sounds.
Question 48. I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined sound that is
pronounced differently from the rest
Question 49. A. purity B. burning C. cure D. durable
Question 50. A. see B. seen C. sportsman D. sure
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Question 1: Last year she earned _______ her brother.
A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as many as D. twice as more as
Question 2: The politician tried to arouse the crowd, but most of them were ________ to his
arguments.
A. closed B. indifferent C. careless D. dead
Question 3: - Can you take the day off tomorrow?
- Well, I’ll have to get _________ from my boss.
A. permission B. licence C. allowance D. permit
Question 4: I do not believe that this preposterous scheme is _____ of our serious consideration.
A. worthy B. worth C. worthwhile D. worthless
Question 5: __________ the fifth largest among the nine planets that make up our solar system.
A. The Earth being B. The Earth is C. That the Earth is D. Being the Earth
Question 6: Dr. Evans has _________ a valuable contribution to the life of the school.
A. done B. created C. caused D. made
Question 7: No matter _______, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. how it seems remarkable B. how remarkable it seems
C. it seems remarkable how D. how seems it remarkable
Question 8: It was difficult to guess what her ________ to the news would be.
A. feelings B. reaction C. capital D. opinion
Question 9: ________ some countries have ruined their agriculture, squandering money on
uneconomic factories, the Ivory Coast has stuck to what it is good at.
A. After B. During C. When D. While
Question 10: Harry: “May I smoke?”
Kate: “________”
A. What suits you? B. You are free C. Accommodate yourself! D. Go ahead!
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Question 11: Sportsmen __________ their political differences on the sports field.
A. take part B. put aside C. take place D. keep apart
Question 12: Maria: “Can I borrow your umbrella for a day?”
Ann: “___________”
A. With pleasure B. Ready C. Welcome D. Yes, I can
Question 13: When she __________ her mistake, she apologized.
A. realized B. realize C. was realizing D. has realized
Question 14: _______ is to forget all about it.
A. At best you can do B. The best thing you can do
C. What best you can do D. You can do the best
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: In 1864 George Pullman designed a sleeping car that eventually saw widespread
use.
A. previously B. ultimately C. familiarly D. simultaneously
Question 16: Why are you being so arrogant?.
A. snooty B. stupid C. humble D. cunning
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 17: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 18: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
that differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. great B. bean C. teacher D. means
Question 20: A. horrible B. hour C. house D. here
Question 21: A. weather B. animal C. human D. canteen
Question 22: A. familiar B. redundant C. customary D. reluctant
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23: It is important that you turned off the heater every morning before you leave for
class.
A B C D
Question 24: The children had such difficult time when they began school in their new
neighbourhood that
A B
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their parents decided never to move again.
C D
Question 25: The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as "silent", the
film has never been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very beginning, music
was regarded as an indispensable accompaniment; when the Lumiere films were shown at
the first public film exhibition in the United States in February 1896, they were
accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes. At first, the music played bore no
special relationship to the films; an accompaniment of any kind was sufficient. Within a
very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a solemn film became
apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in matching their pieces to the mood of the
film.
As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a cellist,
would be added to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie theaters small orchestras
were formed. For a number of years the selection of music for each film program rested entirely
in the hands of the conductor or leader of the orchestra, and very often the principal qualification
for holding such a position was not skill or taste so much as the ownership of a large personal
library of musical pieces. Since the conductor seldom saw the films until the night before they
were to be shown (if, indeed, the conductor was lucky enough to see them then), the musical
arrangement was normally improvised in the greatest hurry.
To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice of publishing
suggestions for musical accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company
began issuing with their films such indications of mood as "pleasant', "sad", "lively". The
suggestions became more explicit, and so em erged the musical cue sheet containing
indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of music, and precise directions to show where
one piece led into the next.
Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these early
special scores was that composed and arranged for D. W. Griffith's film Birth of a Nation, which
was released in 1915.
Question 26: The passage mainly discusses music that was ____________.
A. performed before the showing of a film B. played during silent films
C. recorded during film exhibitions D.specifically composed for certain movie
theaters
Question 27: What can be inferred that the passage about the majority of films made after 1927?
A. They were truly "silent"
B. They were accompanied by symphonic orchestras
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C. They incorporated the sound of the actors' voices
D. They corresponded to specific musical compositions
Question 28: It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters needed
to ________.
A. be able to play many instruments B. have pleasant voices
C. be familiar with a wide variety of music D. be able to compose original music
Question 29: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. years B. hands C. pieces D. films
Question 30: According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company?
A. It produced electricity B. It distributed films
C. It published musical arrangements D. It made musical instruments
Question 31: It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared
around _________.
A. 1896 B. 1909 C. 1915 D. 1927
Question 32: Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a
musical cue sheet of the early 1900's?
A. "Calm, peaceful" B. "Piano, violin"
C. "Key of C major" D. "Directed by D. W. Griffith's
Question 33: The word "scores" in paragraph 4 most likely mean ____________.
A. totals B. successes
C. groups of musicians D. musical compositions
the correct word for each of the blanks.
NEIGHBOURS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product
solely on its merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision.
(34)________, we are easily influenced by the people around us.
There is nothing wrong with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than
(35) ________ on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have
long understood that groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but
understanding the reasons has been tricky. It is because they are so similar with (36) _______ to
how much money they make and what television ads they watch that they independently arrive
at the same decision? Or do they copy one another, perhaps (37) ______ envy or perhaps
because they have shared information about the products?
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big
influence on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the
chances that that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week and a half (38)
__________ by 86 per cent. The researchers argued that it was not just a matter of envy. Used
cars seemed to attract neighbours even more than new cars. This suggested that people were not
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trying to keep up with their neighbours, they were keen to learn from them. Since used cars are
less reliable, a recommendation of one can strongly influence a buying decision.
Question 34: A. What’s more B. Instead C. Unlike D. In place
Question 35: A. basing B. trusting C. supposing D. relying
Question 36: A. connection B. regard C. relation D. concern
Question 37: A. for B. as to C. out of D. about
Question 38: A. boosted B. rose C. enlarged D. lifted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Glass is a remarkable substance made from the simplest raw materials. It can be
colored or colorless, monochrome or polychrome, transparent, translucent, or opaque. It is
lightweight impermeable to liquids, readily cleaned and reused, durable yet fragile, and often
very beautiful. Glass can be decorated in multiple ways and its optical properties are
exceptional. In all its myriad forms - as table ware, containers, in architecture and design -glass
represents a major achievement in the history of technological developments.
Since the Bronze Age about 3, 000 B. C. glass has been used for making various kinds
of objects. It was first made from a mixture of silica, line and an alkali such as soda or
potash, and these remained the basic ingredients of glass until the development of lead
glass in the seventeenth century. When heated, the mixture becomes soft and malleable and
can be formed by various techniques into a vast array of shapes and sizes. The homogeneous
mass thus formed by melting then cools to create glass, but in contrast to most materials formed
in this way (metals, for instance), glass lacks the crystalline structure normally associated
with solids, and instead retains the random molecular structure of a liquid. In effect, as molten
glass cools, it progressively stiffen s until rigid, but does so without setting up a network of
interlocking crystals customarily associated with that process. This is why glass shatters so
easily when dealt a blow. Why glass deteriorates over time, especially when exposed to
moisture, and why glassware must be slowly reheated and uniformly cooled after manufacture to
release internal stresses induced by uneven cooling.
Another unusual feature of glass is the manner in which its viscosity changes as
it turns from a cold substance into a hot, ductile liquid. Unlike metals that flow or freeze at
specific temperatures glass progressively softens as the temperature rises, going through varying
stages of malleability until it flows like a thick syrup. Each stage of malleability allows the glass
to be manipulated into various forms, by different techniques, and if suddenly cooled the object
retains the shape achieved at that point. Glass is thus amenable to a greater number of
heatforming techniques than most other materials.
Question 39: Why does the author list the characteristics of glass in paragraph 1?
A. To demonstrate how glass evolved B. To show the versatility of glass
C. To explain glassmaking technology D. To explain the purpose of each
component of glass
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Question 40: What does the author imply about the raw materials used to make glass?
A. They were the same for centuries B. They are liquid
C. They are transparent D. They are very heavy
Question 41: According to the passage, how is glass that has cooled and become rigid different
from most other rigid substances?
A. It has an interlocking crystal network B. It has an unusually low melting
temperature
C. It has varying physical properties D. It has a random molecular structure
Question 42: The words "exposed to" in paragraph 2 most likely mean ______.
A. hardened by B. chilled with C. subjected to D. deprived of
Question 43: What must be done to release the internal stresses that build up in glass products
during manufacture?
A. The glass must be reheated and evenly cooled.
B. The glass must be cooled quickly.
C. The glass must be kept moist until cooled.
D. The glass must be shaped to its desired form immediately
Question 44: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to________.
A. feature B. glass C. manner D. viscosity
Question 45: According to the passage, why can glass be more easily shaped into specific forms
than can metals
A. It resists breaking when heated
B. It has better optical properties
C. It retains heat while its viscosity changes
D. It gradually becomes softer as its temperature rises
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 46: "Getting a good job doesn't matter much to me "
A. "I am only interested in getting a good job." B. "It's interesting for me to get a
good job."
C. "I am not good at getting a good job." D. "I don't care about getting a good
job."
Question 47: They were exposed to biased information, so they didn't know the true story.
A. If they got unbiased information, they could know the true story.
B. If they had unbiased the information, they could have known the true story.
C. If they had been exposed to unbiased information, they would have known the true story.
D. If they have exposed to the unbiased information, they could have seen the true story.
Question 48: It doesn't cost much to run a solar power system.
A. A solar power system is quite cheap to set up. B. Running a solar power system costs
nothing.
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C. A solar power system costs so much to run. D. Running a solar power system is not
costly.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Question 50: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
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differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Q1: A. examine B. famine C. determine D. miner
Q2: A. fare B. black C. match D. calcium
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Q3: A. sedentary B. available C. additional D. majority
Q4: A. prevent B. receive C. recent D. remote
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in the each of following questions.
Q5: For centuries, musics have played acoustical guitars, which produce sound from the
A B C
vibration of the strings.
D
Q6: The leader emphasized the need for justice and equality between his people.
A B C D
Q7: She is no longer young to enter a beautiful contest.
A B C D
Q8: In an to diffuse the tension, I suggest that we break off for lunch.
A. attempt B. advance C. effort D. ability
Q9: One man outside his own country is tipped to become the new President.
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A. little knowing B. to know little C. little known D. to be little known
Q10: I’m surprised to hear that Wendy and Harry have . They seemed very happy together
when I saw them last Oktoberfest in Munich.
A. ended up B. been separating C. split up D. finished up
Q11: The issue question is more complex than you think.
A. from B. at C. on D. in
Q12: I really respect that man his honesty.
A. by B. about C. with D. for
Q13: It’s too noisy here. Can we go somewhere ?
A. the quietest B. quieter C. more quieter D. quite
Q14: Mario has now to the point where his English is almost fluent.
A. arrived B. approached C. advanced D. reached
Q15: No matter how angry he was, he would never to violence.
A. exert B. resolve C. resort D. recourse
Q16: When you do something, you should .
A. go down well with
B. turn over a new leaf
C. weigh up the pros and cons
D. get through
Q17: I like to do something completely spontaneous.
A. Very so often B. Every so often C. Very often so D. Every often so
Q18: Look, will you stop in and let me finish my story?
A. butting B. moving C. pushing D. plugging
Q19: All three TV channels provide extensive of sporting events.
A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Q20: “How well you are playing!” – “ ”
A. Say it again. I like to hear your words.
B. Many thanks! That’s a nice compliment.
C. I think so. I am proud of myself!
D. Thank you too much!
Q21: “ .” – “Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I’ve broken your precious vase
B. I have a lot on my mind
C. I couldn’t keep my mind off work
D. I didn’t get the vacant position
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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Q22: When being interviewed, concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. pay all attention to
B. be interested in
C. be related to
D. express interest to
Q23: We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn’t have got our task done in
time.
A. depreciate B. are proud of C. feel thankful for D. require
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Q24: “Don’t be such a pessimist. I’m sure you’ll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist
Q25: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the islanD. The islander even exported the
surplus.
A. excess B. small quantity C. sufficiency D. large quantity
Q26: The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately.
A. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
B. So great the demand was that they had to reprint the book immediately.
C. So great was the demand so they had to reprint the book immediately.
D. So great the demand was, they had to reprint the book immediately.
Q27: My friend said to me, “If I were you, I would tell them the truth.
A. My friend said me to tell the truth.
B. My friend advised me to tell the truth.
C. My friend felt sorry for me and asked me to tell the truth.
D. My friend advised me not to tell the truth.
Q28: People believe that 13 is an unlucky number.
A. People are believed that 13 is an unlucky number.
B. 13 has been believed to be an unlucky number.
C. It’s believed that 13 is an unlucky number.
D. It’s believed 13 to be an unlucky number.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Q29: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
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Q30: She turned the radio at 7:30. She was still listening to it when her mother came home at
9:00.
A. She has been listening to the radio at 7:30.
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7:30.
C. She has been listening to the radio after 7:30.
D. She has been listening to the radio by 7:30.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going
around for years. However, few (31) have been made to investigate the phenomenon
scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the sodcalled staring effect,
there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (32) sixth sense. The study
involved hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes covered and with
their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. The
results consistently showed that the children who could not see were able to (33)
when they were being stared at. In a total of 18.000 trials (34) worldwide, the
children (35) sensed when they were being watched almost 70% of the time.
Q31. A. tries B. attempts C. tests D. aims
Q32: A. genuine B. accepted C. received D. sure
Q33: A. notice B. find C. reveal D. tell
Q34: A. worked throughB. worked over C. carried on D. carried out
Q35. A. thoroughly B. correctly C. exactly D. perfectly
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The history of clinic nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how
the body takes in and utilizers food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first
began in the nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was
recognized for the first time that food contained constituents that were essential for human
function and that different foods provided different amounts of these essential agents. Near the
end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated with
nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate protein associate with
certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be
called “the vitamin period”. Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency
syndromes were described. As vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents
necessary for health, it became tempting to suggest that every disease and condition for which
there had been no previous effective treatment might be responsive to vitamin therapy. At the
point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in having their curricula
integrate nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made for effects of vitamins
14
that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950’s to midd1960’s, vitamin therapy
began to fall into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also
became less popular. It was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their
vitamins sales skyrocketing and were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous
samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue of supplementation for a variety health-
related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in disease control were
exaggerate
As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less effective when applied to
health crisis conditions that when applied to long term problems of nutrition that lead chronic
health problem.
Q36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of vitamins in the human body.
B. The history of food preferences from the 19th century to the present.
C. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study.
D. Nutritional practices of the 19th century.
Q37: It can be inferred from the passages that which of the following discoveries was made
during the first era in the history of nutrition?
A. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Effective technique of weight loss were determined.
D. Certain food were found to be harmful to good health.
Q38: The word “tempting” is closest meaning to .
A. necessary B. attractive C. realistic D. correct
Q39: The word “reckless” can be best replaced by .
A. recorded B. irresponsible C. informative D. urgent
Q40: The word “them” refers to .
A. therapies B. claims C. effects D. vitamins
Q41: Why did vitamins therapy begin losing favour in the 1950’s?
A. The public lost interest in vitamins.
B. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts
C. Nutritional research was of poor quality.
D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
Q42: The word “skyrocketing” is closest meaning to .
A. internationally popular
B. acceptable
C. increasing rapidly
D. surprising
15
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effect of global
warming. Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals,
such as flowers blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have
begun shifting where they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up
mountainsides toward higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking
new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will
prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may
become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar and
mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not possible.
For instance, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by
dwindling sea ice but have nowhere farther to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some
scientists have estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with
2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is
extremely important for plants and animals. Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as
certain types of forest, many not be able to adjust quickly enough and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global
warming. Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged
will lead to the death of the coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional
warming could lead to widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the world. Also,
increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the acidity of ocean
waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
Q43: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flower to .
A. die instantly B. bloom earlier C. become lighter D. lose colour
Q44: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move
.
A. south – eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations.
B. north – westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations.
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations.
D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations.
Q45: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. species B. ecosystems C. habitats D. areas
Q46: The phrase “dwindling sea ice” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. the frozen water in the Artic
B. the violent Arctic Ocean
C. the melting ice in the Arctic
D. the cold ice in the Arctic
16
Q47: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius
degrees,
.
A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimetres
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent
D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
Q48: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer
temperatures, .
A. they may be endangered
B. they can begin to develop
C. they will certainly need water
D. they move to tropical forests
Q49: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means .
A. very large B. easily damaged C. rather strong D. pretty hard
Q50: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates .
A. the water absorption of coral reefs
B. the quick growth of marine mammals
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds
D. the slow death of coral reefs
E. ĐỀ 10
F. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1. She had no qualms about lying to the police.
A. distress B. impunity C. persevere D. scruple
Question 2. Her impersonations of our teachers were a source of considerable mirth.
A. anger B. glee C. sarcasm D. mistrust
G. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite
Question 3. I was not dreaming," I said, with some warmth, for her brazen coolness
provoked me.
A. bashful B. boisterous C. noisy D. heated
Question 4. Without demur, then, she turned and accompanied the rascally Malay toward
the harbour.
A. embrace B. crude C. boisterous D. falter
H. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. vocabulary B. influential C. engineering D.
biological
17
Question 6. A. referee B. electrician C. manufacture D.
immortal
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction
J. Question 7. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to
the same idea.
K. A B C D
L. Question 8. Students should be encouraged to discuss critically about the information
that they are given.
M. A B C D
N. Question 9. Neither of the scout leaders know how to trap wild animals or how to
prepare them for
O. A B C
D
P. mounting.
Q.
R. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 10 to 16.
S. In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat
soluble vitamins, A, D, E and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good
sources of these vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the
body’s fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, this
increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. Fats add variety,
taste, and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty
deposits in the body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human
female body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits.
T. Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely
known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin
becomes inflamed and scaly, and their reproductive systems are damaged. Two fatty
acids, linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called
essential fatty acids. They also are required by a number of other animals but their roles
in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential
nutrient for humans.
U. Question 10. This passage probably appeared in which of the following?
A. A diet book B. A book on basic nutrition
C. A cookbook D. A popular women’s magazine
Question 11. The phrase “stored in” in lines 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. manufactured in B. attached to
C. measured by D. accumulated
18
Question 12. The author states that fats serve all the following body function EXCEPT
to_____.
A. promote a feeling of fullness B. insulate and protect the body
C. provide energy D. control weight gain
Question 13. According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true for
rats when they are fed a fat free diet?
A. They stop growing B. They have more babies
C. They lose body hair D. They require less care
Question 14. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as _____.
A. an essential nutrient for humans
B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. preventing weight gain in rats
D. a nutrient found in most food
Question 15. The phrase “these abnormalities” in line 11 refers to _____.
A. a condition caused by fried food
B. strategically located fat deposits
C. curves on the human female body
D. cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
Question 16. That humans should all have some fat in our diet is, according to the author
A. a commonly held view B. not yet a proven fact
V. C. only true for women D. proven to be true by experiments on rats
W. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best option
for each of the blanks.
X. From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green
Revolution regimen depend heavily on technology. One (17) ________, however,
depends much more on technology - organic farming. Many organic farmers use
machinery, but (18) _______ chemical fertilizers or pesticides. (19) ________ chemical
soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant parts not used as food - natural, organic
fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (20) _______. Organic farmers also use
alternatives for pesticides; for example, they may rely (21) _______ natural predators of
certain insect pests. Then, the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae of these
natural predators and introduce them into their crop fields.
Y. Question 17. A. alternative B. alternate C. alteration D.
alternation
Question 18. A. also B. for C. not D. all
Question 19. A. In spite of B. On account of C. In favour of D.
Instead of
Question 20. A. resource B. source C. matter D.
substance
19
Question 21. A. of B. to C. on D. in
Z. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
AA. An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans
to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials
adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous
change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth
century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled - a far cry
from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed
and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air
pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air
pollutant under certain conditions.
BB. Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and
nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these
pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in
biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the
compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of
these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
CC. However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In
such a region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural
purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious
chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be
greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human
activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in
fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this
represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example,
sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about
400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm
and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
DD. Question 22. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
Question 23. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _____.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
20
Question 24. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important
role in controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 25. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized
regions _____.
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
Question 26. The word “localized” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
Question 27. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of
a
substance is only useful if _____.
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
Question 28. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air
pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air
pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air
pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
EE. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
FF. Question 29. The woman _______ someone had stolen her purse, but although they
searched everyone in the shop, it wasn't found.
GG. A. accused B. enforced C. claimed D.
warned
Question 30. As I was _______ of the change in the program, I arrived half an hour late
for the rehearsal.
A. unaware B. unconscious C. unable D.
unreasonable
Question 31. The Best Invention _______ this year was given to Jason Meyers.
A. Reward B. Brand C. Factor D. Award
21
Question 32. On Christmas Eve, the _______ family gathers for dinner, usually at my
grandmother's house.
A. mere B. entire C. total D. complete
Question 33. When the first Chinese restaurants opened in Greece, it was very difficult to
get fresh _______ of Chinese vegetables.
A. provisions B. materials C. supplies D. ingredients
Question 34. I find mending old socks incredibly _______, that's why I always ask my
mother to do it for me.
A. hilarious B. tedious C. furious D. recreational
Question 35. Megan solved her computer problem quite _______ as she happened to
mention it to a friend who had had the same problem and told her what to do.
A. occasionally B. clumsily C. accidentally D. attentively
Question 36. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful _______ in
computer software.
A. pioneer B. navigator C. generator D. volunteer
Question 37. My mother often _______ our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict
and punishes us for even the slightest one.
A. passes B. neglects C. avoids D. overlooks
Question 38. When I joined the army, I found it difficult to _______ out orders from my
superiors, but I soon got used to it.
A. call B. carry C. miss D. take
Question 39. After nine months without any rain, the country was facing one of the worst
_______ in the last fifty years.
A. draughts B. floods C. eruptions D. droughts
Question 40. What I like about this restaurant is that there is _______ parking space right
outside it.
A. plenty B. ample C. expanded D. big
HH. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
II. Question 41. – “Thanks for the lovely evening.” – “_____.”
A. Yes, it's really great B. No, it's not good
C. Oh, that's right D. I'm glad you enjoyed it
Question 42. – “What do you usually do on your day off?” – “_____.”
A. I usually drive to work B. I will sleep all day.
C. I usually do not much D. Nothing much. I always sleep until noon
JJ. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
KK. Question 43. I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a
photograph.
22
A. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph.
B. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her.
C. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph.
D. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph.
Question 44. The human brain is ten times the size of a baboon’s. It weighs about 1,400
grams.
A. The size of human brain is ten times that of a baboon’s which is about 1,400 grams
weigh.
B. The human brain, which weighs about 1,400 grams, is ten times the size of a
baboon’s.
C. The size of a baboon’s brain is 1,400 grams, ten times that of the human one.
D. The weight of a baboon’s brain is 1,400 grams, ten-fold than that of the human one.
LL. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
MM. Question 45. Tom has the ability to be a professional musician, but he’s too lazy
to practice.
A. He is talented but he’ll never be a professional musician as he doesn’t practice.
B. As a professional musician he is not lazy to practice music lessons.
C. He is able to practice music lessons professionally though he is lazy.
D. Though practicing lazily, he is a professional musician.
Question 46. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final.
A. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now
C. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.
Question 47. My father couldn’t stand Tom’s behavior.
A. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerant
B. My father found Tom’s behavior intolerable
C. My father was tolerant towards Tom’s behavior
D. Tom’s behavior was not tolerable
Question 48. Cultures vary from country to country.
A. Cultures are different in different countries.
B. There are different cultures in one country
C. Culture differences are based on countries
D. Cultures move from one country to another.
NN. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
sound that is pronounced differently from the rest
Question 49. A. slaughter B. draught C. naughty D.
plaudit
23
Question 50. A. but B. bury C. nut D.
young
ĐỀ 11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest
Question 1. My original statement has been completely distorted by the media.
A. wrong B. evil C. deform D. harm
Question 2. With a wonderful memory for detail, this woman—who my father said never
forgets anything—became truly loquacious.
A. talkative B. thirsty C. beautiful D.
complicated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite
Question 3. Her imagination was kindled by the exciting stories her grandmother told
her.
A. smother B. detest C. enemy D. discourage
Question 4. It was not for his friend to abate that confidence.
A. free B. augment C. provoke D. wane
OO. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 5. A. tendency B. difference C. importance D. incidence
Question 6. A. diverse B. current C. justice D.
series
PP. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction
Question 7. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such
as cooking.
QQ. A B C D
RR. Question 8. John announced that he could not longer tolerate the conditions of the
contract under which
SS. A B C D
TT. he was working.
UU. Question 9. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realised that he has been
driving in the wrong
VV. A B C
D
WW. direction.
XX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
24
YY. Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’
homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word
processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no
consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is
completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their
employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7
million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not
appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable
Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more
popular?
ZZ. Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the
part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a
large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems
for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s
responsibilities.
AAA. It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are
reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction
with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for
advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even
when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from
the office.
BBB. Question 10. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily
concerned?
A. The advantages of telecommuting.
B. A definition of telecommuting.
C. An overview of telecommuting.
D. The failure of telecommuting.
CCC. Question 11. The phrase “of no consequence” means _____.
A. of no use B. of no good C. unimportant D. irrelevant
DDD. Question 12. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of
telecommuting, EXCEPT _____.
A. the opportunities for advancement.
B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group.
D. The work place is in the home.
EEE. Question 13. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the
employees _____.
A. need regular interaction with their families.
25
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
FFF. Question 14. When Business Week published “The Portable Executive”, it
implied that _____.
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.
GGG. B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.
C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.
D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.
HHH. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks.
III. Not everybody recognizes the benefits of new developments in communications
technology. Indeed, some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a
negative (15)_____ on young people's communication and language skills, especially
when we hear that primary school children may be at (16)______ of becoming addicted
to the habit. So widespread has texting become, however, that even pigeons have started
doing it. What’s more, in this case, it's difficult to view the results as anything but
positive.
JJJ. Twenty of the birds are about to (17) ______ to the skies with the task of
measuring air pollution, each (18) _____ with sensor equipment and a mobile phone. The
(19) _____ made by the sensors will be automatically (20) _____ into text messages and
beamed to the Internet - where they will appear on a dedicated 'pigeon blog'.
KKK. Question 15. A. result B. outcome C effect
D. conclusion
Question 16. A. danger B. threat C. risk D. peril
Question 17. A. make B. launch C. reach D. take
Question 18. A. armed B. loaded C. granted D.
stocked
Question 19. A. studies B. readings C. reviews D.
inquiries
Question 20. A. adapted B. converted C. revised D.
applied
LLL. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
MMM. Question 21. In fact the criminals ___________into because the front door was
wide open and so they just walked in.
A. needn't have broken B. didn't need break
C. didn't need to break D. needn't to have broken
Question 22. The city libraries present a gloomy picture of the ___________who used to
26
flock the libraries every evening.
A. gradual reduction of readers B. gradual readers reduction
C. gradual readers of reduction D. reduction gradual readers
Question 23. I have looked through the report, but I must admit, only ___________.
A. superficially B. thoroughly C. carefully D. seriously
Question 24. - “Sorry, I’m late” - “_______________”
A. You are welcome B. No, I don’t mind
C. All right. Well done D. Not to worry. Better late than never
Question 25. - " Who wrote this poem?" - " It's said ___________ written by one of the
Bronte sisters."
A. to be B. to have been C. to being D. to having been
NNN. Question 26. After Jill had realized that the new computer was not what she
really wanted, she __________ it for an other one.
A. dropped B. traded C. turned down D. bought
Question 27. The new campus parking rule __________many students.
A. affects B. effect C. has an influence D. effective
Question 28. Human carelessness has been ___________ damaging marine life.
A. accused of B. prevented C. said to D. warned against
Question 29. “If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” -“_____________”
A. Well, you did, so it’s no use crying over spilt milk.
OOO. B. All right. You will be OK.
C. Sorry, I have no idea.
PPP. D. I’m afraid you will have to do it.
Question 30. Anne was not ___________ to think that the test was too difficult.
A. who B. the one who C. the only one D. among the people
Question 31. The teacher always ______that the students make an outline before writing
the complete essay.
A. reports B. tells C. says D. recommends
Question 32. Only if you do what you tell others ___________ as they are told.
A. will they do B. they will do C. they won't do D. won't they
Question 33. " Would you like another coffee?" -
"_______________________"
A. I'd love one B. Willingly
C. Very kind of your part D. It's a pleasure
Question 34. “Do you have a minute, Dr Keith?” - “____________________”
A. Well. I’m not sure when B. Good, I hope so
C. Sure. What’s the problem? D. Sorry, I haven’t got it here.
Question 35. He had changed so much since the last time we met that I
___________him.
27
A. could recognize B. could hardly recognize
C. wouldn't have recognized D. don't recognize
Question 36. _________of transportation has given someone the idea for a new type of
toy.
A. Mostly forms B. Most every form C. Almost forms D. Almost every form
Question 37. Helen is ___________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.
A. allergic to B. tired of C. keen on D. preferable to
Question 38. ___________one day by a passing car, the dog never walked proper again.
A. Having injured B. Injuring C. Injured D. To be injured
Question 39. ___________ you to be offered that job, would you have to move to
another city?
A. Should B. Were C. Had D. Provided that
Question 40. If too many species ___________ out, it will upset the ecosystem.
A. disappear B. die C. go D. extinct
Question 41. - “Would you mind lending me your bike?”
- “ ______ .”
A. Yes. Here it is B. Not at all C. Great D. Yes, let’s
Question 42. They would ______ go by air than travel by train.
A. always B. better C. prefer D. rather
QQQ. Question 43. Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as _______ as possible.
A. economizing B. economic C. uneconomically D. economically
Question 44. ______ entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.
A. With B. On C. At D. During
Question 45. - “Has an announcement been made about the eight o’clock flight to
Paris?”
- “ _______.”
A. Not yet B. Yes, it was C. I don’t think that D. Sorry, I don’t
RRR. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Once the airline announced its ticket sale, the telephone in the main office
would not stop ringing.
A. People kept calling the airline main office since its announcement of ticket sale.
B. If the airline didn't announce a ticket sale, its telephone would stop ringing.
C. The airline telephone was ringing because they announced a ticket sale.
D. Nobody called the airline until it announced its ticket sale.
Question 47. "I'm sorry for what happened but you will just have to accept the truth",
Laura said to her friend.
A. Laura took the responsibility for what happened.
B. Laura didn't mean to tell the truth.
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C. Laura apologized to her friend for what had happened.
D. Laura consoled her friend.
Question 48. It is widely believed that hard work makes success.
A. People think that success is when you work hard.
B. Believers of success think that we should work hard.
C. Many people think that success at work is hard.
D. Many people believe that if you want to succeed, you should work hard.
Question 49. A. chorus B. cherish C. chaos D. scholarship
Question 50. A. plumber B. doubt C. debt D. herbage
ĐỀ 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in
Question 1. The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based
enemies.
A. unique B. novel C. exotic D. vital
Question 2. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is opposite in
Question 3. It was a heartfelt apology.
A. loving B. insincere C. unhealthy D. humorous
Question 4. A trial must be fair and impartial.
A. hostile B. biased C. unprejudiced D. apprehensive
Question 5. A. contaminate B. artificial C. intelligent D.
encouragement
Question 6. A. argument B. difference C. employee D. category
correction
Question 7. It is time the government do something to help the unemployed to find some jobs.
A B C D
Question 8. I enjoy reading the article that you told me about it yesterday.
A B C D
Question 9. Many languages used around the world they do not have a form of writing.
A B C D
29
the correct answer to each of the following questions from 10 to 14.
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and
Europe, recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new
ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding was to use products a second
time. The motto of the recycling movement is "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle".
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister
packs, boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in
lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People
should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to
reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many
customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For
example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the
manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce
garbage, the throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles.
After customers empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks
collect the bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make
new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common
practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from
throwaway bottles.
The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be
cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of
energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people
collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world's precious
resources.
Question 10. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. How to reduce garbage disposal
B. What people often understand about the term 'recycle'
C. What is involved in the recycling movement
D. How to live sensitively to the environment
Question 11. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT:
A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers
Question 12. Why is it a waste when customers buy low-quality products?
A. Because people will soon throw them away.
B. Because they have to be repaired many times.
C. Because customers change their ideas all the time.
D. Because they produce less energy.
30
Question 13. What best describes the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, retuned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned filled again and washed.
Question 14 What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor
oil.
C. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best option for
each of the blanks.
If you're an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It
has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw-away society. But there seems little doubt it is here
to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (15) ________, even
environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are the evil ─ it's the way society
chooses to use and (16) ________ them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal ─
non-renewable natural (17) ________. We (18) ________ well over three million tones of the
stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high (19) ________
of our annual consumption is in the form of packaging, and this (20) ________ about seven
percent by weight of our domestic refuse.
Question 15. A. savings B. pleasures C. benefits D. profits
Question 16. A. abuse B. endanger C. store D. dispose
Question 17. A. processes B. resources C. products D. fuels
Question 18. A. import B. consign C. remove D. consume
Question 19. A. amount B. proportion C. portion D. rate
Question 20. A. makes B. carries C. takes D. constitutes
Question 21. A trust employee was discovered to have ________ confidential plans to a
competing company.
A. stolen B. spread C. rumored D. leaked
Question 22. Poor management brought the company to ________ of collapse.
A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink
Question 23. It never ________ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed
Question 24. The doctors are examining the dog ________ the child for rabies, which is a
dangerous disease ________ immediate treatment.
A. biting/ required B. bitten/ required C. bitten/ requiring D. biting/ requiring
31
Question 25. Do you have any objections ________ this new road scheme?
A. at B. with C. to D. for
Question 26. Despite a lot of hardship, the Green City Project will go ________.
A. before B. forward C. advance D. ahead
Question 27. Gale-force winds caused destruction ________ the buildings ________ the
seafront.
A. to/ along B. of/ in C. for/ by D. with/ on
Question 28. The reason why this game attracts so many youngster is that ________ other video
games, this one is far more interesting.
A. comparing to B. in compared with C. on comparison to D. in comparison with
Question 29. ________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email
and the Internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers B. That computers C. Computers that D. That it’s computers
Question 30. A quick look would reveal that in Sweden the number of computers, at 10 million,
is ________ the figure for television.
A. almost as big as B. almost many as C. almost the same as D. almost much as
Question 31: ________ with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn't want to answer his phone call.
A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled
C. Because of she quarreled D. Had quarreled
Question 32: Everyone in both cars ________ injured in the accident last night, ________?
A. were/ weren't they B. was/ weren't they
C. was/ wasn't he? D. were/ were they
Question 33: He ________ in trouble with the police now if he had listened to me in the first
place.
A. isn’t B. won’t be C. wouldn’t be D. wouldn’t have
been
Question 34: She ________ the flowers. If she had, they wouldn’t have died.
A. may not have watered B. shouldn’t have watered
C. can’t have watered D. might not have watered
Question 35: The young girl ______ down completely on hearing of her father’s death.
A. broke B. fell C. turned D. went
Question 36: - I can’t see the stage very well from here.
- ________.
A. Neither can’t I. B. So do I C. Neither I can D. I can’t, either
Question 37: The mother ________ her little son. She gives him whatever he wants.
A. spoils B. harms C. ruins D. damages
Question 38: Quite soon, the world is going to ________ energy resources.
A. get into B. run out of C. keep up with D. come up against
Question 39: Is this the address ________ you want the package sent?
32
A. that B. where C. to which D. which
Question 40: - Don’t forget to do as I have told you.
- ________.
A. Sure, I won’t B. Yes, I will C. Not at all D. No, I will
remember
Question 41: ________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. As the boy was intelligent B. Intelligent as the boy was
C. As intelligent the boy was D. Intelligent as was the boy
Question 42: Many of the pictures sent from outer space are presently on ________ in the public
library.
A. duty B. exchange C. display D. account
Question 43: ________, Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.
A. Whatever it seems remarkable how B. No matter how does it seem remarkable
C. No matter how it seems remarkable D. No matter how remarkable it seems
Question 44: You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ________
is at the desk.
A. whoever B. whom C. who D. that
Question 45: Take the number 7 bus and get ________ at Forest Road.
A. down B. up C. off D. outside
Câu 46: "Leave my house now or I'll call the police!" shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn't leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn't leave her house.
Câu 47: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn't have any test on his eyes in ten months.
Câu 48: The children couldn't go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children's swimming.
Question 49. A. clown B. cow C. plough D. tough
33
Question 50. A. bear B. hear C. pear D. share
ĐỀ 13
Read the passage and choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer for each
numbered blank.
If you want to prepare yourself for great achievement and have more to (1) ________ to
your education or your work, try reading more books. (2) ________ up some of the interestingly
informative books and search for well - researched materials that can help you grow.
We should encourage our children to read more books and spend less time watching TV.
Some people have commented that this is inconsistent. "Why is the written word a superior way
to get information than television?" That is (3) ________ interesting point of view worth further
(4) ________. Reading is a skill that is in much greater demand than the demand for watching
TV. There are no jobs that require a person to be able to watch TV but reading is an integral part
of many jobs. The written word is an incredibly flexible and efficient way of communication.
You can write something down and, in no time, it can be communicated to many different
people. Not only that, we can (5) ________ vast amounts of information through reading in a
very short time. A good reader
can acquire more information in reading for two hours than someone watching TV can acquire in
a full day. You are able to gain a lot of information quickly because you are a fast reader with
good comprehension skills. It will save you massive amounts of time and you will be able to
assimilate vast quantities of information.
Question 1: A. gain B. gather C. collect D. contribute
Question 2: A. Make B. Pick C. Set D. Take
Question 3: A. a B. an C. the D. X
Question 4: A. exploration B. explore C. explorer D. explorative
Question 5: A. digest B. inhale C. breathe D. eat
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 6: ______ parents of Thomas claimed that he was at __ home at the time of
________________ robbery.
A. X-X-the B. The -X- the C. The -the-the D. X – X - a
Question 7: Nowadays children would prefer history ________ in more practical ways.
A. be taught B. teach C. to be taught D. to be teaching
Question 8: The discovery was a major ____ for research workers.
A. breakthrough B. break-in C. breakdown D. breakout
Question 9:1 accidentally ________ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. lost touch with B. kept an eye on C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
Question 10: Jane: “It's going to rain”.
Mary: “________.”
A. I hope not so B. I hope not C. I don't hope so D. I don't hope
either
34
Question 11: ______ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.
A. Small as the stars B. The stars as small
C. As the small stars D. Despite of the small stars
Question 12: In the United States ____ the states but Hawaii is an island.
A. all of B. neither of C. none of D. no of
Question 13:I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of ________.
A. brain B. tongue C. mind D. memory
Question 14: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very .
A. narrow-minded B. kind-hearted C. open-minded D. absent-minded
Question 15: It’s good idea to see your doctor regularly for ________.
A. a revision B. acheck up C. an investigation D. a control
Question 16: When ________ a European, we should stick to the last name unless he
suggests that we use his first name.
A. speaking B. discussing C. talking D. addressing
Question 17: - Jordan: "________"
- Jim: "No, thanks."
A. Would you want another drink? B. Would you care for another drink?
C. Can you help me with this? D. Come in, please! breath.
Question 18: After running up the stairs, I was __
A. without B. out of C. no D. away from
Question 19: She listened so attentively that not a word
A. she had missed B. did she miss C. she didn't miss D. She missed
Read the passage and choose A, B, c or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They
find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows
that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue.
Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that
there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people
who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with
modem scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because
of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the
name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every
day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use,
35
but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech
machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone
companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry
about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use mobile phones
less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone
only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in
emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for
your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 20: The most suitable title for the passage could be .
A. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular”
B. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time”
C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work”
D. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”
Question 21: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people
because __________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________ .
A. they make them look more stylish
B. they are indispensable in every day communications
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
Question 22: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ,
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the resident memory
C. the arteries of the brain D. the smallest units of the brain
Question 23: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is
________.
A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays
Question 24: According to the writer, people should
A. never use mobile phones in all cases
B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly
D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
Question 25: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, .
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. had a problem with memory
C. abandoned his family D. could no longer think lucidly
Question 26: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means
A. obviously D.possibly C. certainly D. privately
36
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part that differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 27: A. dirty B. early C. learn D. near
Question 28: A. theater B. author C. thumb D. clothes
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 29: A. opponent B. habitat C. contribute D. eternal
Question 30: A. museum B. position C. recommend D. commitment
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31: The Arctic fox’s brownish-gray coat blends in with the barren tundra landscape in
the months without snow.
A. poor B. fruitful C. arid D. desert
Question 32: Many animals, like the otter who uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable
of using objects in the natural environment as rudimentary tools.
A. technical B. basic C. superior D. original
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Question 33: I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and
dry.
A. have been successful B. have not got wet
C. have got no water D. have got home dry
Question 34: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying
or asking you
A. pay all attention to B. be related to
C. be interested in D. express interest to
Choose A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following sentences.
Question 35: For thousands of years, man has created sweet-smelling substances from wood,
herbs
A B
and flowers and using them for perfume or medicine,
C D
Question 36: I think I can reach your requirements so I am writing to apply for the position of
A B C D
English-speaking local guide.
Question 37: Today the number of people who enjoys winter sports is almost double that of
twenty
37
A B C D
years ago
Read the passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions
American music, in most of its various forms, can be traced back to the music of the earliest
African- Americans. Even though these Americans came here under the worst of circumstances,
they still brought with them traditions, and developed new traditions of their own, that have
grown into what is recognized around the world today as American music.
Musicians, like other artists, are usually quick to give credit where credit is due. Just as a
writer quotes his sources, a musician credits those musicians who inspired him. In the case of the
early African - Americans that is not always easy. Many of the slaves who brought musical
traditions from Africa will never be known by name. No one wrote their history. Many of the
slaves who sang work songs in the fields will never be known by name No one wrote their
history either.
However, there is a lot that we do know.
The first well-recognized form of African-American music was spirituals. Spirituals are
religious songs They are songs that tell a story or express emotions. Spirituals have a strong
rhythm. They are often sung by a group, sometimes with a leader who sings a line or two alone
and a chorus that sings the refrain. Spirituals originated in the Southern United States. Spirituals
sung by slaves often expressed the hope for freedom that was so important in their lives. Well
know spirituals include "Go Down Moses," "Deep River, " and "Swing Low Sweet Chariot."
After slavery ended, spirituals began to spread to other parts of the United States. Harry
Thacker Burleigh was one of the first singers to perform spirituals on stage in a concert. Marian
Anderson, well known for her classical singing, helped spirituals to gain a wider audience too.
Spirituals influenced the development of another well-known form of American music - the
blues.
The blues were a more individual style of music than spirituals. Blues were often sung solo,
and sometimes they were accompanied by guitar music. As the name suggests, the blues were
often about sadness and facing troubles. However, the blues could also be funny, positive, and
even defiant. One blues singer, loved for her strong, beautiful voice, was Bessie Smith. Another
early blues musician was w. C. Handy. Handy was not only a musician, he also wrote music,
promoted concerts, and published blues songs.
During the time that the blues were spreading across the country, another style of music was
also quickly gaining in popularity. Ragtime was energetic music with a complicated, syncopated
beat. Often played on the piano, ragtime was the latest and most sophisticated in American
popular music. The best-known ragtime musician was probably Scott Joplin, who wrote many hit
ragtime pieces for the piano including "Maple Leaf Rag. ”
Eventually, elements from all of these forms of music and more came back together. In their
own kind of melting pot, African rhythms, slave work songs, spirituals, blues, ragtime, and other
38
influences recombined to form the beginnings of that truly American art form - jazz. In the late
1800’s jazz was just beginning, but not long after the turn of the century, it would be the most
popular American music. It would go on from there to worldwide popularity. Jazz would branch
out into many forms, and it would influence future styles of American music.
Many musicians today credit earlier musicians such as Scott Joplin or Bessie Smith with
inspiring their music. It’s a shame that they can’t also name the earliest African-Americans who
really began the traditions that led to the American music of today.
Question 38: According to the passage, who introduced the early form of American music?
A. American natives B. Harry Thacker Burleigh
C. slaves from Africa D. people from the South of the United States
Question 39: Which type of music is often involved with piano accompaniment?
A. spirituals B. ragtime C. blues D. jazz
Question 40: What is NOT true when talking about blues?
A. they could be amusing and optimistic
B. a well-known blues musician was Scott Joplin
C. they gained popularity near the time ragtime became popular
D. they were a more individual style of music than spirituals
Question 41: When did jazz become the most popular American music?
A. sometime in the early 20th century
B. when elements from other American music combined
C. after the hit “Maple Leaf Rag” was written
D. in the late 1800s
Question 42: Scott Jopljn and Bessie Smith were __ .
A. famous ragtime musicians
B.people who really began the American musical traditions
C. artists who inspired many musicians today
D. songwriters who wrote blues songs
Question 43: What is the closest meaning to the word “chorus” used in the passage?
A. a group of singers that sing together B. the main part of a song
C. an accompanying singer D. none of the above
Question 44: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to __ .
A. today’s musicians B. Scott Joplin and Bessie Smith
C. the musicians’ music D. the names of the earliest African-American
singers
Question 45: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. today’s style of American music is mostly influenced by African-rooted songs
B. it is hard to exactly recognize the people who started the American musical tradition
C. spirituals, blues and ragtime are the major components that formed jazz
D. American’s musical history was built by several famous musicians
39
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
Question 46: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat
B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat
C. Even though joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.
D. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.
Question 47: Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country.
Mexico does not require US citizens to do the same.
A. Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico
does either
B. Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico
does not, either
C. Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and neither
Mexico does
D. Canada does not require us citizens to obtain passports to enter the country while Mexico
does
Question 48: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom.” said our manager.
A. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
B. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.
C. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.
Question 49: Their holiday plans fell through because there was a strike at the airport.
A. They couldn’t go on holiday as planned as a result of a strike at the airport
B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a strike took place at the
airport
C. A strike at the airport almost put a stop to their holiday plans.
D. Disappointingly, a strike at the airport forced their holiday plans to nothing
Question 50: He was driving so fast that he could have had an accident.
A. An accident happened, and it was caused by his very fast driving
B. He didn’t have an accident although he was driving very fast
C. If he had been driving very fast, he would have had an accident.
D. He wasn't driving slowly enough to avoid the accident.
ĐỀ 14
the following question.
Question 1: I gave the waiter a $50 note and waited for my ___ .
40
A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost
Question 2: People can become very ______ when they are stuck in traffic for a long time.
A. nervous B. bad-tempered C. stressful D. pressed
Question 3:1 believe that judges should be independent ___ the government.
A. to B. from C. with D. on
Question 4: The MP asked _____ the prime minister was aware of the growing social problem.
A. that B. him C. if D. What
Question 5: Although David was ____ household chores.
A. Exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
Question 6: I think there's a picture of the hotel ________ the first page.
A. on B. at C. in D. to
Question 7: I'm saving all my pocket money __________ to buy a new PlayStation.
A. out B. down C. up D. away
Question 8: We usually do go by train, even though the car ___ is a lot quicker.
A. travel B. journey C. trip D. voyage
Question 9: Dogs make very _______ pets. They'll always stay by your side.
A. mental B. private C. loyal D. digital
Question 10: I'm sorry, but I've got ____much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. so B. such C. enough D. too
Question 11: - “You must be Jane's sister. Glad to meet you.
“______________”
A. I am, either B. So I am. I'm glad C. What do you do D. Me too
Question 12: The boys __________ that he had had anything to do with the break-in.
A. refused B. denied C. objected D. reject
Question 13: - “How lovely your pets are!”
“_______________”
A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say no B. Really? They are
C. can you say that again D. I love them, too
Question 14: If you hadn't lost the pieces, we__________ a game of chess
A. couldn't have had B. can't have C. may have D. could have
correction.
Question 15: Transplanting organs such hearts and kidneys had proved easier than transplanting
A B C
muscles.
D
Question 16: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-tipped mountains more than a
mile
A B C
41
beneath sea level.
D
Question 17: Justice is often personified as a blind folded woman to hold a pair of scales
A B C D
the correct answer to each of the question from 41 to 50
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms' bodies that are used
grown larger Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you
excercise particular muscles they grow. Those that are never used dimish. By examining a man’s
body, we can tell which muscles he uses and. which he doesn't, we may even be able to guess his
profession or his reaction. Enthusiasts of the "body- building"cult make use of the principle of
use and disuse to "build" their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture into whatever unnatural
shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of
the body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on
your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone. The
farmer’s hands are horny, hardenedby long exposure to rough work. The teller's hands are
relatively soft.
The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in
their world progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans,
through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of It, develop a skin color which equips them better
to survive in the particular local conditions
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible
to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets.
The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight, makes a screen
to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned
person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears and the body is able to benefit from
what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle of use and disuse:
skin goes brown when it is "used", and fades to white when it is not.
Question 18: What does the pasage mainly discuss?
A. How the principles of use and disuse change people's concepts of themselves.
B. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse
C. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 19: The phrase "wither away" in bold is closest in meaning to
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
Question 20: The word "Those" in bold refers to
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
Question 21: According to the passage, men who body build.
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
42
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
Question 22: From the passage, it can be inferred that author views body building.
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic from
C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefic
Question 23: It can be inferred from the passage that the principle of use and dissure enables
organisms to
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any condition D. improve their lifetime
Question 24: The author suggests that melanin
A. is necessary for the production of vitamin-D B. is beneficial in sunless climates
C. helps protect fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product
Question 25: In the second paragraph, the author mentions suntanning as an example of
A. humans improving their local condition B. humans surviving in adverse
conditions
C. humans using the priciple of use and disuse D. humans running the risk of skin cancer
Question 26: A. close-knit B. cactus. C. desert D. rhinoceros
Question 27: A. blamed B. dissolved C. misused D. increased
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following question.
Question 28: A. furnish B. reason C. promise D. tonight
Question 29: A. habitable B.infamously C. geneticist D. communist
THE HISTORY OF WRITING
The development of writing (30) ________ a huge difference to the world and might see it as the
beginning of the media. Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably numbers have been
discovered in China that date from around 4000 BC. Hieroglyphics and other forms of "picture
writing" developed in the (31) ________ around Mesopotamia (mordem-day Iraq), where the
ancent Sumerian civilization was based, from around 3300 BC onwards. However, the first (32)
________ alphabet was used by the Phoenicians around 1050BC. Their alphabet had 22 letters
and it is estimated that it lasted for 1000 years. The first two signs were called "aleph" and
"beth", which in Greek became "alpha" and "beta"* which gave us the modem word "alphabet"
The modem European alphabet is based on the Greek and (33) to other European countries
under the
Romans. A number of changes took place as time passed. The Romans added the letter G, and
the letter J and V were unknown to people in Shakespear's time.
If we (34) ________ the history of punctuation, we also find some interesting facts. The
43
Romans used to write quaesto at the end of a sentence in order to show that it was a Question,
they started to write Qo in place of the whole word, and then put the Q above the 0. In the end,
that became the question mark "?"
Question 30: A. did B. had C. made D. took
Question 31: A. distance B. area C. length D. earth
Question 32: A. true B. accurate C. exact D. precise
Question 33: A. spread B. appeared C. was D. occuưed
Question 34: A. look into B. bring on C. make off D. hold up
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the
country’s impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five
in 1966. In September 1966 Canada’s population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this
surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930s and the war had held
back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued
through the decade of the 1950s, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the
five years from 1951 to 1956 This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in
Canada’s history, in the decade before 1911 when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly,
the good economic conditions of the
1950s supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward
earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate
stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the worlk
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling
until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of
births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society.
Young people were staying at school longer more women were working; young married couples
were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting
down the size of families It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend
toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the
Industrial Revolution.
Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in
the first half of the 1960s was only nine percent) another large population wave was coming over
the horizon. It would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high
birth rate prior to 1957.
Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Canada during the Second World
War
C. Population trends in postwar Canada D. Standards of living in Canada
Question 36: The word “five” in bold refers to
44
A. Canadians B. years C. decades D. marriages
Question 37: The word “surging” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising
Question 38: The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950's
A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married
C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high
Question 39: The author mention all of the following as causes of declines in population growth
after 1957 EXCEPT
A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier
C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution
A. families were larger B. population statistics were unreliable
C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad
Question 41: The word “it” in bold refers to
A. horizon B. population wave C. nine percent D. first half
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Question 42: A nuclear station may take risk going off due to unexpected incidents.
A. demolishing B. running C. developing D. exploding
Question 43: The members of the orchestra have arrived an hour prior to the performance for a
short rehearsal.
A. after B. while C. when Đ. before
Question 44: Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their
selection and use of sources.
A. related to parties B. religious C. serious D. disregard
Question 45: There are three crucial points in his argument.
A. unimportant B. special C. diverse D. complex
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 46: The hotel is not spacious. The hotel is not comfortable.
A. The hotel is neither spacious nor comfortable
B. The hotel is neither spacious or comfortable
C. The hotel is both spacious and comfortable
D. The hotel is not spacious but comfortable.
Question 47: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him.
A. The man was shot in bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him
B. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
45
C. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery.
D. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery.
Question 48: Nobody at all came to the meeting
A. There was almost nobody at the meeting B. Not a single person came to the meeting
C. Not many people came to the meeting D. Only a few people came to the meeting
Question 49: Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. More men than women have insurance.
B. Women are twice as likely as men to have sold insurance,
C. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.
D. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
Question 50: We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money.
A. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money.
B. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money.
C. If we couldn’t have managed our business successfully, we would have had my father’s
money.
D. Hadn’t it been for my father’s money, We couldn’t have managed our business
successfully
ĐỀ 15
Question 1: About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but
most, like the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with backbones B. with ribs C. without ribs D. without backbones
Question 2: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at
the annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 3: - "Mr. Adams is going to retire next month."
- “_____________.”
A. Oh, I have no idea C. Right, you’d probably be the next.
B. You don't say! D. Congratulations!
Question 4: - “________________”
- "Never mind, better luck next time."
A. I’ve broken your precious vase. B. I have a lot on my mind,
C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work. D. I didn't get the vacant position.
Question 5: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that
46
over two hundred people _________________ away.
A. would turn B. would have turned
C. would have to be turned D. had been turned
Question 6: No matter how angry he was, he would never _____________ to violence.
A. exert B. resolve C. resort D. recourse
Question 7: The effect of the painkiller is _______ and I begin to feel the soreness again.
A. turning out B. doing without C. fading away D.
wearing off
Question 8: She has just bought _____________.
A. an interesting old French painting B. an interesting French old painting
C. a French interesting old painting D. an old interesting French painting
Question 9: It never ___________ my head that such a teưible thing would happen.
A. struck B. dawned C. occurred D. entered
Question 10: Sarah and I ____________ reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She was really
surprised to see me there.
A. coincidentally B. practically C. intentionally D. deliberately
Question 11: We spent nearly 3 hours waiting outside the station, then out ____________.
A. the star came B. did the star come C. came the star D. under
Question 12: Hats like this may have been fashionable in the 60's, but now they are
_____________ the times.
A. behind B. over C. beneath D. under
Question 13: My mother often ___________ our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and
punishes us for even the slightest one.
A. neglects B. overlooks C. avoids D. passes
Question 14: Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and
____________.
A. Communicate B. Communication C. Communicative D. Communicator
Question 15: Despite all the evidence, he wouldn’t admit that he was in the ______________.
A. fault B. error C. wrong D. slip
Question 16: I don’t suppose there is anyone there, ________________?
A. is there B. isn't there C. do I D. don't I
Mark the letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction
Question 17: An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez's ability to keep the new
restaurant
A B
going for several months with limited revenue.
C D
Question 18: Mobility is one of the characteristics oữen demanded of executives, and they
47
must accustom
A B C
themselves to move quite regularly
D
Question 19: Not until recent has interest in synthetic fuels been revived.
A B C D
Question 20: A. touch B. watch C. machine D. armchair
Question 21: A. famous B. nervous C. loud D. serious
Question 22: A. zoology B. conquest C. cement D. duet
Question 23: A. photocopy B. particular C. enthusiasm D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: At fifty-five, he began life again, determined with his pen to wipe out the debt.
A. rub out B. pay off C. bump off D. give up
Question 25: The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching research to
determine the psychological effects of using drugs.
A. refined B. extensive C. prevalent D. tentative
Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture or anything
else that is included in one’s possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and
copyright deals with intangible forms of property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to
authors of creative works, for example books magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television
shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance and all other forms of
intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright
establishes the ownership of the creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs
to this individual as a tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the
research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell or give
away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or
organizations that hold the copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be
received from the copyright owner, who will most likely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be
played by anyone after it is published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need
to pay a fee called a royalty. A similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On
48
the other hand, names, ideas and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become copyrighted
property until they are published in a book a painting or a musical work. Almost all artistic work
created before the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law
was passed.
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and piracy.
Plagiarizing the work of another person means passing it off as one’s own. The word plagiarism
is derived from the Latin plaglarus, which means “abductor”. Piracy may be an act of one
person, but, in many cases, it is a joint effort of several people who reproduce copyrighted
material and sell it for profit without paying royalties to the creator. Technological innovations
have made piracy easy and anyone can duplicate a motion picture on videotape a computer
program, or a book. Video cassette recorders can be used by practically anyone to copy movies
and television programs, and copying software has become almost as easy as copying a book.
Large companies zealously monitor their copyrights for slogans, advertisements, and brand
names, protected by a trademark
Question 26: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Legal rights of property owners B. Legal ownership of creative work
C. Examples of copyright piracy D. Copying creating work for profit
Question 27: The word “principle” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. crucial point B. cardinal role C. fundamental rule D. formidable
force
Question 28: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if _____
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
Question 30: With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling
Question 31: The phrase “infringing upon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. impinging upon B. inducting for C. violating D.
abhorring
Question 32: The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the
following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoking C. A school policy D. A
49
household rule
Question 33: According to the passage, copyright law is __
A. meticulously observed B. routinely ignored C. frequently debated D. zealously
enforced
Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a
jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation,
based on group organization and attitudes.
In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group
contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with
each member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means
and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.
While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterate societies, secondary
cooperation is characteristic of many modem societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals
devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of
the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members
perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of
salary prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of
secondary cooperation.
In the third type called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the
shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is
loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it
breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not,
strictly speaking cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic
cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.
Question 34: What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of to passage?
A. To urge readers to cooperate more often
B. To offer a brief definition of cooperation
C. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict
D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes
Question 35: The word cherished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______________
A. defined B. agreed on C. prized D. set up
Question 36: Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by
information in the passage?
A. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to
cooperate
B. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing
skills
50
C. It is an ideal that can never be achieved
D. It was confined to prehistoric times
Question 37: According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary
cooperation?
A. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation
B. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds
C. To get rewards for themselves
D. To defeat a common enemy
Question 38: Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is
defined in the fourth paragraph?
A. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades
B. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow
C. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party
D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?
A. Tertiary cooperation B. Antagonistic cooperation
C. Accommodation D. Latent conflict
Question 40: The word fragile in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. involuntary B. poorly planned C. inefficient D. easily broken
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the blanks.
Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going
around for years However, few attempts have been made to investigate the phenomenon
scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so- called staring effect,
there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and genuine sixth sense. The study
involved hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes (41) ___________
so they could not see, and with their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them
or look
away. Time and time again the results showed that the children who could not see were able to
tell when they were
being stared at. In a total of more than 18, 000 trials (42) _____________ worldwide, the
children correctly sensed when they were being watched almost 70% of the time. The
experiment was repeated with the added precaution of putting the children who were being
watched outside the room, (43) ____________ from the starters by the windows. This was done
just in case there was some pretending going on with the children telling each other whether they
were looking or not. This (44) _____________ the possibility of sounds being transmitted
between the children. The results though less impressive, were more or less the same. Dr
Sheldrake, the biologist who designed the study, believes that the result are convincing enough
to find out through futher experiments precisely how the staring effect might actually (45)
51
______________.
Question 41. A. shaded B. covered C. masked D. wrapped
Question 42. A. worked over B. carried out C. carried on D. worked
through
Question 43. A. parted B. seperated C. split D. divided
Question 44. A. prevented B. omitted C. evaded D. ended
Question 45. A. set out B. be looked at C. come about D. be held up
Mark me later A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the exam.
A. John is studying hard in Oder not to fail the next exam
B. John is studying hard in Oder that he not fail the next exam
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam
D. John is studying hard in Oder to not to fail the next exam
Question 47: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January
B. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January
C. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January
D. Her notice was given in order for her to start her new job in January.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence in italics.
Question 48: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.
A. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.
B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.
C. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.
D The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.
Question 49: I wish you hadn't said that
A. I wish you not to say that. B. If only you didn't say tot
C. I hope you will not say that. D. It would be nice if you hadn’t said
that.
Question 50: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
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