Bank Soal Ops Bag 3

DPKP
290. Can leaking stern tube seals be replaced when the vessel is afloat and if yes,
how?
A. Yes, ballast the ship until the stern tube is clear of the water
B. Yes, but only the forward seal can be replaced
C. No, they can only be replaced in dry-dock
D. Yes, with divers working under water whilst the forward seal is blanked
291. How is stern tube wear down measured when in dry-dock?

A. By blade feelers inserted in the after seal
B. By a poker gauge, inserted in the plugm above the stern boss tube
C. By measuring the lift on the shaft
D. By blade feelers inserted in the forward bush from the engine roo
292. What is the purpose of the 3-way cock sited in the lowest point of the stern tube
oil circuit?
A. To change from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit
B. To drain or sample the oil from the stern tube bearing
C. To remove air from the system
D. To fill oil in the system
293. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level?
A. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
B. Ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal
C. Ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal
D. To prevent bilge water entering the stern tube
294. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lub oil system to remove metallic
particles?
A. A Metal edge strainer
B. A Fuller's earth strainer
C. A Magnetic basket strainer
D. A Simplex strainer
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DPKP
295. What is the steering system oil tank within the steering pedestal?
A. Header tank for the auto pilot control system
B. Main hydraulic system header tank
C. Lubrication tank for the steering gear linkage
D. Reservoir for the telemotor system
296. What type of filling value is fitted on all air bottles?

A. High pressure S.D. check values
B. High pressure remote-control values
C. High pressure gate values
D. High pressure butterfly value
297. What regular maintenance is required on the burner?

A. Cleaning and resetting of the air register
B. Overhauling of the shut-off valves
C. Renewing of the electrodes
D. Cleaning of the burner tips
298. What is the first action when flashing up a boiler?

A. Start up the water feed pump
B. Clean the burner nozzle
C. Purge furnace with air
D. Power the oil pressure
299. What is the effect if the fuel oil temperature is too low?
A. Flame impingement and refractory damage
B. Blocking of fuel filters
C. Fuel delivery pump cutting out
D. Flame failure
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DPKP
300. What is the most dangerous effect of water in fuel?

A. Damage to furnace refractory
B. Loss of boiler efficiency
C. Extinguishing of burner flame
D. Poor combustion
301. What purpose is the settling tank?

A. To settle out sludge
B. To settle out all impurities
C. To settle out water
D. To settle out suspended solids
302. What is the function of a Viscotherm?

A. Controlling fuel pressure and temperature
B. To control viscosity by altering temperature
C. To regulate the fuel pressure
D. To control the fuel temperature
303. What is the most damaging fuel contaminant?

A. Plater
B. Sludge
C. Bacterial growth
D. Suspended solids
304. What are gauze element filters designed to remove?

A. Fine non-metallic solids
B. Water and sludge
C. Metallic particles
D. Coarse solids
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DPKP
305. What could be the purpose of checking the fuel pump spill position?
A. To check the position the fuel pump ceases delivery.
B. To check the tightness of the pump delivery value.
C. To check the amount of fuel the pump will deliver.°
D. To check the start point of injection
306. How does the fuel pump rack adjust the fuel delivery?
A. By altering the length of time the fuel pump roller contacts the cam
B. By increasing the delivery pressure
C. By altering the opening and closing of the delivery valve
D. By altering the effective stroke of the plunger
307. What is the required temperature in the ship's fish room?

A. From -15 to -20 deg. C.
B. From -5 to -10 deg. C.
C. From 0 to -5 deg. C.
D. Below -25 deg. C.
308. How are boiler tubes secured in the end plates?

A. Screwed
B. Expanded
C. Screwed collar on the outside of the plate
D. Welded
309. What is the most damaging on riveted mountings?

A. Rusting of the rivet heads
B. Raising steam too quickly
C. Chloride levels too high
D. Leakage through the rivets
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DPKP
310. What condition would necessitate blowing down the boiler?

A. Water level too high
B. PH reading below 7 ppm
C. Steam pressure too high
D. Chloride readings too high
311. Why are some boiler tubes not plain cylindrical?

A. To reduce scale formation.
B. To facilitate gas flow.
C. To glue a greater heating area.
D. For extra strength
312. What test is used in boilers to detect leaks after structural repairs?
A. A hydrostatic test
B. A penetrant dye crack test
C. An efficiencytest
D. Air pressure test
313. What is the term for the weakening of boiler steel, as the result of inner
crystalline cracking?
A. Caustic embrittlement.
B. Exposure stress.
C. Corrosion.
D. Alkaline stress.
314. What dailytest should be carried out on boiler water?

A. Chloride0
B. Sludge
C. Dissolved nitrogen^
D. Dissolved oxygen°
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DPKP
315. What is the most dangerous effect of scale build up in the water space?
A. Flame impingement on the furnace walls
B. Overheating and deformation of furnace
C. Damage to feed water values
D. Loss of boiler efficiency
316. What is the test to determine the discharge capacity of boiler safety values?
A. Safety value adjustment test.
B. Steam stop test.
C. Pop test.
D. Accumulation test.
317. Why are cylindrical boiler end plates of dished shape?

A. Increased water capacity
B. Stronger than flat plates
C. Easier access to manhole doors
D. Better accommodates the furnace
318. What mountings must be tested daily on steaming boilers?

A. Water level indicators
B. Main feed water check values
C. Safety value easing gear
D. Boiler blow down values
319. What material is the boiler shell constructed from?

A. High tensile steel
B. Good quality low carbon steel^
C. High grade Molybdenum steel^
D. High carbon steel
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DPKP
320. What is the usual pressure adjustment method on safety values?

A. Machineable adjustment rings
B. Removable shim packs
C. Different rate springs
D. Set bolt and locknut
321. What is the purpose of the scum values?

A. Draining the boiler water to the bilge
B. Removal of scum from boiler water surface
C. Removal of scum from feed tank water
D. Removal of scum from drains observation tank
322. What best describes the "easing gear"?

A. Manual lifting arrangement of safety valves
B. Feed control unit
C. Remote operation of stop valves
D. Reduction gearing to facilitate opening of main stop valves
323. What term is used to describe access holes to the boiler drum?
A. Manholes
B. Furnace inspection panels
C. Access spaces
D. Inspection holes
324. What mountings must be dismantled for inspection during survey?

A. Feed water check valves
B. Safety values
C. Gauge glass & value components
D. AIl boiler mountings
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DPKP
325. What is "simmer" in a safety value?

A. A metallic hammering noise
B. A hissing sound indicating that a safety value is leaking
C. A failure of a safety value to re-seat
D. Initial leakage before the safety value opens
326. What is the purpose of air release valves on boiler shell?

A. To vent the boiler when shut down.0
B. To expel air when filling the boiler.
C. To expel air when raising steam.0
D. To check when steam is being produced.
327. How is "water hammer" best avoided in steam lines?

A. Leave main stops and line values open when shutting down the boiler
B. Ensure lines are drained and open valves slowly
C. Open line valves as quickly as possible
D. Fully open main stops and line valves when raising steam
328. What controls feed water delivery?

A. Water level control of feed water inlet value
B. Steam demand
C. Water level control of feed pump
D. Feed water tank level
329. What is the function of the Low Level alarm?

A. Sound low level alarm
B. Sound alarm and shut down boiler burner
C. Reduce the oil supply to the boiler burner
D. Increase the feed water supply
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DPKP
330. If the gauge glass indicates no water level what is your first action?
A. Check the feed tank water level
B. Shut off all the burners
C. Blow down the gauge glass
D. Check the operation of the feed pump
331. What action would you take if Chloride readings are too high?
A. Add more chemical to the feed water
B. Drain and refill the feed water tank
C. Increase frequency of testing
D. Blow down the boiler regularly until readings are acceptable
332. What action should you take in the case of an uptake fire?
A. Shut off burners, shut down fans and close off air supply
B. Operate soot blowers to extinguish fire
C. Shut down burners but maintain fans to clear fire
D. Increase air supply to burn fire out
333. What percentage CO2 in the flue gases would indicate correct combustion?
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 7%
D. 13%
334. A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water to check for:

A. Sulphates
B. Nitrates
C. Phosphates
D. Excess oxygen
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DPKP
335. What is the most likely source of Chloride contamination?

A. Fuel heater
B. Feed water tank
C. Accommodation heating
D. Trains cooler
336. What is the possible consequence of too high a water level in the boiler?
A. Insufficient steam generation
B. Feed pump cutting out
C. Boiler shutting down
D. Carry-over of the boiler water
337. When testing for chlorides what does the test indicate?
A. Total dissolved solids present in the water
B. Phosphate present in the water
C. Alkalinity level
D. Solids in the water from sea contamination
338. What damage could be caused by raising steam too quickly?

A. Overpressure of the shell
B. Lifting the safety values
C. Damage to refractory
D. Excess soot deposits
339. What term is used for unequal distribution of burner spray in the furnace?
A. Combustion air imbalance
B. Unequal firing
C. Furnace distortion
D. Flame impingement
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DPKP
340. What would your first action be if the feed pump stopped?
A. Shut the main stop valves
B. Check the gauge glass readings
C. Change over to the auxiliary feed pump
D. Shut down the boiler burners
341. Is it possible to blow down a steaming boiler?

A. No, this should never be carried out
B. Yes but steam pressure should be maintained
C. Yes but never allow the level to disappear from the gauge glass
D. Only in an extreme emergency
342. How is temperature controlled in a steam oil heater?

A. Steam inlet value throttled
B. Oil flow increased
C. Steam supply pressure reduced
D. Steam outlet value throttled
343. Why is a by-pass fitted onto the cooling water of the charge air cooler?
A. To prevent overcooling of the charge air
B. To prevent the air temperature going too high
C. To allow increased Jacket water flow to the water spaces
D. To maintain the jacket water temperature
344. What precaution must be observed when fitting new anodes?

A. PTFE tape applied to the plug threads to enable easy removal
B. Ensure the anode is as close as possible to the tube plate
C. Ensure no damage is caused to the exterior surface of the anode.
D. Ensure good, clean contact is made between anode and cooler body
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DPKP
345. How is temperature controlled in a jacket water heat exchanger?

A. Jacket water bypassing the heat exchanger
B. Regulating the sea water inlet value
C. Seawater bypassing the heat exchanger
D. Regulating the sea water outlet value
346. What could be the effect of excess steam or reduced oil flow in an oil heater ?
A. Carbon formation
B. Deformation
C. Corrosion
D. Fitting
347. What is the plate material used in seawater, plate heat exchangers?
A. Stainless steel
B. Bronze
C. Cupro Nickel
D. Titanium
348. Why are anodes fitted to the seawater side of heat exchangers?
A. To afford corrosion protection to the heat exchanger
B. To prevent the formation of marine growth in the water spaces
C. To afford corrosion protection for the system pipes and values
D. To prevent scaling of the tubes and tube plates
349. What is the main advantage of plate heat exchangers?

A. Require less maintenance
B. Easier to clean
C. More efficient and take up less space
D. Cheaper to install
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DPKP
350. How is the quality of the distilled water from a fresh water generator improved?
A. Decreasing the jacket water flow to the evaporator
B. Decreasing the seawater feed to the evaporator
C. Slowing down the output of the evaporator
D. Increasing the shell vacuum
351. What is the required salinity of the fresh water produced as drinking water
onboard?
A. Below 50 ppm
B. Below 7 ppm
C. Below 2 ppm
D. Below 20 ppm
352. What liquid is present in the collecting point at the bottom of the evaporator?
A. Brine
B. Fresh water
C. Sea water
D. Ejector water
353. What is the maximum salinity for water produced by a fresh water generator
when it is to be used in water ube medium pressure boilers?
A. 20 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 7 ppm
D. 2 ppm
354. How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator ?

A. By the condensing effect in the condenser
B. By the vapour ejector driven bythe ejector pump
C. By pumping or ejecting out the brine
D. By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water
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DPKP
355. Why is a baffle plate fitted between evaporator and condenser?

A. To maintain vacuum inside the shell.
B. To prevent carry over of brine
C. To maintain the evaporator temperature
D. To cool the vapour
356. What is the main advantage of vacuum production of FW?

A. Low cost of distillation equipment
B. Utilizes waste heat from the main engine
C. Less possibility of contamination
D. Simpler to operate
357. What precaution is necessary before starting the distillate pump?

A. The vacuum in the evaporator is still minimum
B. The discharge valve of the pump is shut
C. The pump is primed via the priming line
D. Water is visible in the sight glass of the condenser
358. How far from the coast is it permitted to use Low-pressure evaporation to
produce drinking water?
A. 20 miles
B. 30 miles
C. 5 miles
D. 12 miles
359. Why is it necessaryto produce fresh water from seawater?

A. To save cost
B. To ensure purity
C. To make use of waste engine heat
D. Limited shipboard storage.
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DPKP
360. What factors influence the vacuum inside the shell of a fresh water generator?
A. The temperature of the sea water cooling the condenser
B. The pressure of the ejector water on the vacuum ejector
C. All of these.
D. The temperature of the fresh water heating the evaporator
361. In a single stage air compressor what is the maximum practical delivery
pressure?
A. 15 bar
B. 7 bar
C. 3 bar
D. 10 bar
362. What is the purpose of the automatic unloading value?

A. Unload the compressor at working air pressure
B. Avoid high starting current on the motor
C. Avoid the first stage relief values lifting when starting
D. Prevent damage to the values when starting
363. In the case of air-cooled compressors what form does the cooler take?
A. Horizontal box section pipes
B. Finned circular pipes
C. Honeycombed radiator
D. Vertical flattened pipes
364. What material are cylinder blocks and covers normally constructed from?
A. Fabricated steel
B. Cast steel
C. Cast iron
D. Gunmetal
997
DPKP
365. What type of values are normally found in air compressors?

A. Plate or disc values
B. Poppet values
C. Piston controlled ports
D. Slide values
366. Why is the presence of oil particularly dangerous in starting air lines?
A. It could affect the operation of the relief valves
B. The high oxygen content makes it very explosive
C. It may cause sticking of the air start values
D. It may carbon up and choke the lines
367. What shutdown device might be fitted on air compressors?

A. High air pressure
B. Low first stage pressure
C. High delivery temperature
D. Over speed
368. Which is the correct sequence after starting the compressor.

A. Drain value closes and then unloader deactivates
B. Drain closes and unloader deactivates together
C. Drain value only operates on shutdown
D. Unloader deactivates then drain value closes
369. What service is most suitable for the use of rotary compressors?
A. High pressure, tow volume
B. Low pressure, high volume
C. High pressure, high volume
D. Low pressure, low volume
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DPKP
370. Where would you find a rotary compressor in the engine room?
A. Diesel engine charge air compressor
B. Starting air compressor
C. Control air compressor
D. Emergency air compressor
371. What slows the rudder movement when the requested position is reached?
A. The steering wheel transmitter
B. The rudder control receiver unit
C. The hunting gear feedback signal
D. The rudder telemotor control
372. In a conventional rudder system when will least power be required to move the
rudder ?
A. With vessel moving astern
B. Vessel full ahead at service speed
C. With the vessel stationary
D. With vessel moving slowly ahead
373. What happens if the rudder is moved in a heavy sea?

A. The tetemotor pump prevents movement by increasing the hydraulic pressure
B. The main pressure relief valves lift
C. The over pressure is absorbed by system accumulators
D. The hydraulic motor absorbs the shock
374. What is a telemotor system?

A. Hydraulic actuation of steering rams
B. Steering gear feedback system
C. Transfer of steering signals from wheel to steering gear
D. Hand actuation of steering gear
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DPKP
375. In a hydraulic telemotor system what does wheel movement provide?

A. Movement of the transmitter electric motor
B. Movement of the transmitter pistons
C. Transmits electrical signal to the hydraulic actuator valves
D. Direct control of the main hydraulic pumps
376. What is the purpose of Hunting Gear?

A. Limits the speed of the rudder movement
B. To transmit hydraulic pressure
C. Provides feedback to the pump control
D. To control hydraulic motor swash plate movement
377. In an electrically controlled hydraulic system what do the electrical controls

replace?
A. Rudder feedback signal
B. Hydraulic control values
C. Hydraulic telemotor system
D. The hunting gear
378. What does the telemotor receiver unit control?

A. Hydraulic operating pressure
B. Speed of rudder movement
C. Hydraulic control valve
D. Main steering motor control voltage
379. What is meant by radial vane type steering system?

A. Telemotor is vane type operation
B. Hydraulic actuation is onto vanes mounted onto Budderstock
C. Steering is via rotating propulsion unit
D. Hydraulic pumps are vane type pumps
1000
DPKP
380. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action?

A. As soon as the electric motor is started
B. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge
C. As soon as a signal is received from the telemotor receiver
D. As soon as the telemotor pump is started
381. Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is
given?
A. The degree of opening of the hydraulic bypass valve
B. On the distance the hydraulic control lever is moved by the floating link
C. On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection
D. On the hydraulic pressure setting of the relief valves
382. What is the function of the relief values fitted between main hydraulic cylinders?
A. To be opened to allow emergency steering
B. To act as automatic by-pass values when the steering gear is stopped
C. To act as safety values to absorb shock and avoid damage
D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump
383. When would both steering gear motors be run together?

A. When at anchor in a confined anchorage
B. In the tropics to overcome the lowering of the oil viscosity
C. When manoeuvring in confined areas
D. When on passage to minimise wear
384. In a single motor electrical steering system what supplies the main steering
motor?
A. Mains electrical supply
B. Electrical supplyfrom a local motor!generator
C. Hydraulic power delivered bythe main steering motors
D. Hydraulic power pack
1001
DPKP
385. Mat does wheel movement control in an electric steering system?

A. Hydraulic transmitter
B. The electrical balance of the wheel and steering motor fheostats^
C. Current supplied directlyto the electric steering motor
D. Current to the steering gear motortgenerator
386. Which of the following is a system for controlling the steering electrically?
A. Graduated stepper motors
B. Ward Leonard System
C. Compass repeater motors
D. AC-DC rectification
387. In tankers an alternate hydraulic oil supply must be automatically connected

within what time?
A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 45 seconds
388. What provides power to hydraulic emergency steering system

A. Accumulators in the hydraulic system
B. Battery power to the entire steering system
C. Emergency generator running main hydraulic pumps
D. Manual operation of main pumps
389. What would be the most likely cause of high compressor discharge pressure?
A. Failure of the expansion value
B. Inadequate condenser cooling
C. Overcooling of the evaporator return
D. Ice formation on the evaporator coils
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DPKP
390. Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants?

A. Freon 12
B. Ammonia
C. Freon 22
D. Carbon Dioxide
391. What could cause frost on the discharge side of the expansion value?
A. Insufficient condenser cooling
B. Chamber temperature too low
C. The expansion value being dirty or iced up
D. Air in the refrigerant system
392. Why should refrig. compressor oil be stored in small capacity drums?
A. Ease of stowage
B. Only small quantities are required
C. Refrigerator oil is hygroscopic and should not be stored in part full drums
D. Ease of handling
393. What would be fitted to relieve excess compressor pressure?

A. Pressure relief value to atmosphere.0
B. Pressure relief value to suction line.
C. Bursting disc to condenser inlet.
D. Bursting disc to compressor suction.^
394. How is an air conditioning compressor normally unloaded?

A. By throttling the discharge values
B. By throttling the suction values
C. By holding open the suction values
D. By holding open the discharge values
1003
DPKP
395. What kind of metal must never be allowed to come in contact with freon liquid or
freon gas and why?
A. Copper, it has a harmful effect on the freon
B. Iron, it will be rapidly wasted by the freon
C. Aluminium, it dissolves in contact with freon
D. Chromium, it will overheat
396. What is the function of the expansion valve?

A. To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
B. To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
C. To regulate flow and reduce the pressure of refrigerant to the evaporator
D. To allow the expansion of the high-pressure gas before the condenser
397. What is the function of the low-pressure cut-out fitted on the compressor suction
line.
A. Cut-out/cut-in device, no reset required
B. Low-pressure shutdown with manual reset
C. To prevent over pressure of the evaporator
D. Safety shutdown device with manual reset
398. What is the function of the HP cutout fitted on the compressor discharge line?
A. High-pressure shutdown with manual reset
B. High pressure cut out with auto cut-in
C. By-pass device cutting out the expansion value
D. High-pressure alarm device only
399. What is the function of the oil differential pressure switch?

A. To indicate oil is returning from the oil separator
B. As warningicut out due to oil foaming
C. High temperature alarm
D. As a low lub oil pressure shutdown
1004
DPKP
400. What effect has the solenoid stop valve?

A. lectrically shuts down the compressor
B. Operates the stop value on the compressor discharge line
C. Stops the refrigerant from entering the evaporator
D. Shuts off the refrigerant on the compressor suction line
401. What is the correct S. G. for brine used as a secondary refrigerant?

A. 1.05
B. 1.5
C. 1.25
D. 1.1
402. What determines the brine S.G. required?

A. Capacity of refrigerant compressors
B. Type of primary refrigerant in use
C. Carrying temperature of the cargo
D. Amount of brine in circulation
403. What is the required temperature in the ship's vegetable room?

A. From +4 to +6 degree C
B. From +3 to -3 degree C
C. From 0 to +4 degree C
D. From +8 to +12 degree C
404. What is the most usual cause of a restriction at the expansion value?
A. Moisture in the system
B. Insufficient gas charge
C. Dirt in the system
D. Blockage in the filter/drier unit
1005
DPKP
405. What does the sight glass indicate?

A. Operation of the expansion value
B. Adequate refrigerant charge
C. Condition of the filter drier unit
D. Condition of the condenser
406. Where is the fitter/drier unit fitted?

A. At the evaporator inlet
B. Between expansion value and evaporator
C. On the compressor discharge line
D. Between condenser and expansion value
407. What is the state of refrigerant leaving the evaporator?

A. Low-pressure liquid
B. High pressure gasiliquid mixture
C. Gas at high pressure
D. Gas at low pressure
408. What is the state of the refrigerant flowing from the condenser ?
A. High pressure liquid
B. High-pressure gas
C. Low pressure liquid
D. Gas liguid mixture at evaporator pressure
409. Where is the temperature of the refrigerant highest?

A. At the expansion value
B. At the compressor discharge
C. At the compressor suction
D. At the condenser outlet
1006
DPKP
410. When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated
before the drain values are closed?
A. To avoid the safety valves blowing
B. To avoid air blowing in the bilges
C. So the pumping action can blow the drains through
D. To prevent the compressor from tripping
411. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way?
A. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES open
B. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES open
C. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES closed
D. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES closed
412. Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0bar.Which

compressor could this be?
A. A starting air compressor
B. An instrument air compressor
C. A service air compressor
D. A working air compressor
413. What is part number 3 called ?

A. The primary pump
B. The purifier
C. The clarifier pump
D. the secondary pump
1007
DPKP
414. What is shown here ?

A. A common suction mesh strainer
B. A Fuel Oil pressure line filter
C. A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter
D. A centrifugal filter
415. What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the fitter body (3) ?
A. The clamp on top of the fitter cover
B. The fitter's gasket
C. The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp
D. The vacuum created in the filter
416. What type of filter is shown here ?

A. A magnetic fitter
B. A cartridge type pressure line fitter
C. A suction wire mesh fitter
D. A rotating fitter
1008
DPKP
417. What is the correct parts description list of this pressurised filter ?
A. 1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing
B. I = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed cartridge, 3 = Filter body
C. I = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body
D. I = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body
418. How is pump '4" driven from the purifier ?
A. By being directly attached to the gears of the purifier crankcase

B. By electric motor
C. By replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase
D. By lf-belt
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DPKP
419. What is item 'F’ ?
A. A fuel shut-off solenoid

B. A normal mesh filter/strainer
C. A fine filter
D. A flow meter
420. What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier
(Tin) ?
A. 70 degree C
B. 75 degree C
C. 95 degree C
D. 85 degree C
1010
DPKP
421. When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since
the power from the electric motor is transferred by …………. to the purifier
A. a magnetic coupling
B. Friction pads
C. a rotating coupling
D. the bowl spindle
422. What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ?
A. A plate battery heat exchanger

B. A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger
C. A finned bank block heat exchanger
D. A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger
1011
DPKP
423. If the heated medium of this heater is oil and the heating medium is steam, excess
steam supply or sufficient oil flow could cause excessive …………... in the
heater.
A. deformation
B. corrosion
C. carbon formation
D. pitting
424. What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ?
A. Marine diesel
B. Gas oil
C. Distillate diesel
D. Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1)
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DPKP
425. What are items ‘F’ ?
A. Filters
B. Flow controllers
C. Flow meters
D. Fast shut-off values
426. What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank ?
A. To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use

B. As supply source of the system oil
C. To collect the system oil in use
D. All of these.
1013
DPKP
427. What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?
A. A heavy fuel oil system

B. A blend fuel oil system
C. A marine diesel oil system
D. A gas oil system
428. What is the component marked ‘BUC’ ?
A. The Blend Unit Caforifier

B. The Base Unit Calorifier
C. The Basic Unit Controller
D. The Blend Unit Controller
1014
DPKP
429. Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend
fuel of the required viscosity?
A. The diesel oil and heavyfuel oil booster pumps

B. The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater
C. All of these.
D. The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender
430. Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?
A. In unit H
B. In units DP and FP
C. In unit BUC
D. In unit BU
1015
DPKP
431. What are the components marked 'M’ ?
A. Manometers
B. Magnetic shut-off values
C. Flow meters
D. Microprocessors
432. What are the components marked ‘F’ ?
A. Fuel pumps
B. Flow meters
C. Fuel heaters
D. Fuel filters
1016
DPKP
433. Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture.
A. The blending unit controller BUC

B. The HFO daily tank
C. The blending unit BU
D. The unit H
434. What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ?
A. To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

B. To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils
C. To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes
D. To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intend for
purification
1017
DPKP
435. In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter ?
A. In bilge piping
B. In fuel oil piping
C. In sea water piping
D. In starting air piping
436. If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or it
takes too long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should change
the ……………….
A. friction pad linings.
B. gravity disc.
C. purifier ball bearings.
D. O-rings and seal set of the bowl.
437. The most common reason for overflow on purifiers is ………………

A. Sall bearings worn out.
B. the wrong gravity disc.
C. dirt between purifier plates.
D. water seal broken.
438. When the density of purified oil has increased, you should …………..
A. Increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.
B. Decrease the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.
C. Decrease the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter.
D. Increase the temperature and decrease the gravity disc diameter.
1018
DPKP
439. During start up of a purifier, how will you notice when the bowl has reached the
required revolutions ?
A. The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from the
starting current.
B. The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast
C. The purifier will make a humming noise
D. The vibrations on the purifier will increase
440. Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great
danger. Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling,
assembling, inspection, maintenance. This is because ……………..
A. oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This danger
is increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated.
B. static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing
explosion within the purifier.
C. danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor,
various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great.
D. purifier bowls revolve at very high speed causing great centrifugal forces to
act, careless handling causes danger of disintegration.
441. If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective, what action should be
taken?
A. Order the specific bowl spare part
B. Have it repaired on board if it can be done
C. Sent it to a qualified workshop for repair
D. Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advise only
442. The starting/accelerating current of a purifier is ……………% of the normal

operating current.
A. 100
B. 150
C. 50
D. 250
1019
DPKP
443. The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen
correctly, in general the more frequent the interval, the better, however intervals
too short give bad efficiency, intervals too long …………
A. will atso give bad efficiency.
B. may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt.
C. will result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge.
D. may result in water seal depletion.
444. As a rule of the thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of diesel oil
purifiers should be….. hours.
A. 4 to 5
B. 2 to 4
C. 6 to 8
D. 6 to 9
445. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 380 cSt
heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………. hours.
A. 1 to 2
B. 6 to 8
C. 4 to 6
D. 2 to 4
heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………hours.
A. 3 to 5
B. 2 to 3
C. 4 to 6
D. 6 to 8
1020
DPKP
447. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of lubricating
oil purifiers used on crosshead type engine sumps should be………hours.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
448. As a rule of the thumb, time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil
purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set at……….hours.
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6
449. The factors which determine the selection of the size of gravity disc for a purifier
are………..
A. the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific gravity.
B. the bowl speed, the oil temperature and water content.
C. the specific gravity of the oil, the oil temperature and the feed rate.
D. the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.
450. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The
purifying operation is………
A. the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and is
called a two-phase operation.
B. the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation.
C. a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water,
oil, dirt).
D. the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from ater) and is called
a two-phase operation.
1021
DPKP
clarifying operation refers to………..
A. the single phase liquid-liquid operation (water from oil).
B. The 2 phase liquid-solid operation, separating dirt from oil.
C. the 3 phase liquid-liquid-solid operation, separating light from heavy liquids,
as well as solids from light as from heavy liquids.
D. The 2 phase solid-liquid operation, separating dirt from water and oil.
452. The usual mode of series operation of two heavy fuel oil purifiers refers
to…………….
A. two identical machines being put from settling tank to 1st purifier, hence to
second purifier, at half the feed rate of the required quantity.
B. two identical purifiers being used as well for heavy fuel oil as for diesel oil,
by changing line system and gravity discs.
C. two identical machines being operated in series, the first as purifier, the
second in line as clarifier with same throughput.
D. two identical machines being put separately from settling ank to dailytank at
half the feed rate of the required quantity.
453. If you find that the feed rate of an oil purifier (its throughput) has reduced, the
most likely reason for this is
A. that the amount of sealing water of the bowl is insufficient or the containing
tank is empty or shut-off.
B. that the revolution speed of the bowl has slowed or the electric motor is
operating in overload.
C. that the wrong type of gravity disc is fitted, the oil temperature is incorrect or
the heater is blocked.
D. that the capacity of gear pump has fallen, the pump's 'elief valve has opened,
a leaking suction pipe or suction liter is clogged.
1022
DPKP
454. Where is the inlet for the unclean oil ?

A. Area 3
B. Area 1
C. Area 6
D. Area 4

A. The bowl hood
B. The paring disc
C. The distributor
D. The chamber
456. Which part is the paring disc used for removing water ?
A. Part 3
B. Part 2
C. Part 4
D. Part 6
1023
DPKP

A. The paring disc operating water
B. The paring disc for processed oil
C. Slots holding a space
D. the spring support

A. The bowl stack
B. The disc stack
C. The paring disc
D. The disk holder
459. The ash content of a fuel oil is significant because it…………..

A. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures.
B. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.
C. is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.
D. eflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system.
460. The relief values in a fuel oil service system discharge to either the service pump
suction or to the………….
A. simplex fuel oil strainer.
B. recirculating line.
C. slop retention tanks.
D. settling tanks.
1024
DPKP
461. What is part number one called ?
A. The service tank

B. The expansion tank
C. The settlement tank
D. The drainage tank
462. Which part is the heater ?
A. Number 4
B. Number 2
C. Number 3
D. Number 1
1025
DPKP
463. Which of the two drawings shows two series connected purifiers ?
A. None
B. 2
C. 1
D. Both 1 and 2
464. Where is the separation carried out ?

A. At the bottom of the separator
B. At the corner end number 3
C. Between the discs number 5
D. Below discs number 1
1026
DPKP
465. What is item ‘V’ ?
A. A fine fitter
B. A blow-trough steam value
C. An automatic stop value
D. A viscometer
466. What is item 'M’ ?
A. The magnetic shut-off valve

B. The magnetic filter
C. The fuel flow Meter
D. The manometer
1027
DPKP
467. What is the function of valve ‘PR’ in this fuel circuit ?
A. A constant pressure regulating valve

B. A fuel drain value in case of engine shut-down
C. A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop
D. A de-gassing/HP gas release by very high fuel temperature
468. What are the parts marked ‘F’ ?
A. Automatic fitters
B. Fine filters
C. A combination of these or any of the these
D. Magnetic filters
1028
DPKP
469. Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How
will this affect the reading of thermometer ''T" ?
A. Temperature remains constant by same fuel pump viscosity.

B. Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used
C. Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used
D. None of the above
470. What do you call the tanks in which heauyfuel oil is stored on board ?
A. Heavy fuel oil tanks

B. Heavy fuel oil settling tanks
C. Heavy fuel oil daily tanks
D. Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks
1029
DPKP
471. What do you call the gate valves 'MP", 'MS", "AP", AS located on deck ?
A. Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves

B. Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves
C. Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves
D. Heavy fuel oil tank valves
472. How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker ?
A. Via own pumps “P1” and “P2” to transfer pump 'Tp".

B. Via main bunker value “B.V” to transfer pump "Tp".
C. Via suction value “S”, the transfer pump, to discharge value “D”
D. Via own pumps “P1” and “P2”, the main bunker value “BV” to value “D”
1030
DPKP
473. What is the name and function of the gate value “BV” ?
A. Main bunker valve, separates double bottom tanks

B. Main bunker value, separates bunker manifold from engine room
C. Bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from deeptank
D. Bunker valve, separates suction and discharge manifold
474. How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanks maintained when the external
temperature drops below it's pour point ?
A. By transferring it on time to the HFO settling tank

B. By circulating it with the transfer pump
C. By always ensuring that warm oil is bunkered
D. By heating the oil with steam uia steam coils or steam banks
1031
DPKP
475. Which value in the engine room must be kept closed if no bunker operations or
transfer from the deep tanks are taking place ?
A. Value “D”
B. Value "BV"
C. The settling tank value
D. Value “S”
476. If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control value CC, what
other action must you take ?
A. Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier

B. Throttle steam to the HFO service tank
C. Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV
D. Drain the service tank at shorter intervals
1032
DPKP
477. What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump P ?
A. A centrifugal pump
B. A vane pump
C. A piston pump
D. A gear pump or worm pump
478. When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0.87, what would be the
inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier ?
A. 85 degree C
B. 30 degree C
C. 40 degree C
D. 60 degree C
1033
DPKP
479. What is the idealtemperature to maintain the Diesel Oil Daily Tank and how is
this achieved ?
A. 65 degree C, by application of steam heating

B. 65 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank
C. 45 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank
D. 45 degree C, by application of steam heating
480. What description best fits the Main Engine Lub. Oil sump tank ?
A. A Main Engine system oil reserve tank

B. A collecting and buffer tank of the Main Engine system oil
C. An overflow tank of the Main Engine system oil
D. A collecting tank for main engine dirty oil used by the Main Engine
1034
DPKP
481. What do all the lubrication oil tanks that are connected the lubrication oil
purifiers have in common?
A. They all contain wasted oils

B. They all contain the same grade of oil
C. They all contain in-service oils
D. They all contain extremely dirty oils
482. Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier No 2 is running M.E.L.O. sump tank to

M.E.L.O. sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier No 1 is now to be set up for the
other tank purification, which set up is not possible ?
A. M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil tank

B. Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank
C. M.E. Dirty Oil tank to Lub. Oil sump tank
D. M.E. Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank
1035
DPKP
483. Where and how would you take sample of the oil from the Main Engine sump
tank ?
A. In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank
B. At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump
C. After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running
D. from the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps
484. Which of the following alarms may sound after the automatic de-sludging cycle
is completed and the urification of the oil restarts ?
A. The oil high pressure alarm

B. The water seal alarm
C. The oil high temperature alarm
D. The overflow alarm
1036
DPKP
485. What is the purpose of the drain cock (3) on this fitter ?
A. To take samples of the liquid.

B. To drain the dirt out of the filter basket
C. To drain the filter before cleaning
D. To drain out the collected water
486. How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram
refilled ?
A. They are refilled once per day

B. They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier
C. They are refilled twice a week
D. They are refilled only when required.
1037
DPKP
487. What would be the temperature of the oil in the settling tank (item number 3)
shown in this fuel oil arrangement ?
A. 60 to 80 degree C
B. 30 to 45 degree C
C. Above 80 degree C
D. 45 to 60 degree C
488. What is item number 4 of this fuel oil arrangement drawing ?
A. A booster pump
B. A fuel transfer pump
C. A. heater
D. A fuel strainer
1038
DPKP
489. What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?
A. fuel oil ball fitter

B. A fuel oil booster pump
C. A fuel oil transfer pump
D. A fuel oil purifier
490. At sea, what should be the level in tank number 2 of this fuel arrangement
schematic drawing ?
A. Full
B. Between 2/3 and 3/4 full
C. Between 1/2 and 3/4 full
D. Variable, depending time of the day
1039
DPKP
491. Which of the following system set-ups are possible using the fuel arrangement
shown here ?
A. Settling to settling, Daily to Dairy tank

B. Settling to Daily, Settling to Settling tank
C. Settling to Daily, Daily to Daily tank
D. Dally to Settling, Settling to Settling tank
492. What is the usual temperature of a fuel oil (HFO) daily tank ?
C. 40 to 50 degree C
493. Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on a HFO settling tank ?
A. A remote tank gauging system

B. Quick closing shut-off values (remote operated)
C. A drain value (Spring loaded)
D. A thermometer
1040
DPKP
494. Which of the following alarms on UMS operation are not necessarily provided on
the Fuel Oil Daily Tank (HFO)
A. Daily tank high Level

B. Daily tank low temperature
C. Daily tank high temperature
D. Daily tank low level
495. What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of a fuel oil?
A. The lower the temperature the higher the specific gravity
B. The higher the temperature the higher the specific gravity
C. The lower the temperature the lower the specific gravity
D. The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity
496. The dirty oily water mixture fills chamber 1 of this separation bowl, where will
the clean oil be found ?
A. Between item 2 and item 4

B. Item 3 in the bowl
C. Item 4 in the bowl
D. Item 2 in the bowl
1041
DPKP
497. What liquid substance is present in chamber 2 of this oil- water separator ?
A. Clean oil
B. Dirty oil
C. Water
D. Oil-water mixture
498. If a dirty oilyiwater mixture is entering chamber item 1 of this separator, where
will the dirt settle ?
A. On the separation plate between liquids 2 and 3

B. With the liquid item 3
C. With the liquid item 2
D. On the bottom item 4
1042
DPKP
499. Where will the dirt collect which is separated from the oily water mixture in this
Sharpies separator, shown left ?
A. On the oil/water separation plate

B. Near separating plate flushed off with water
C. On the inner mantle of the cylindrical bowl
D. On the bottom of the cylindrical bowl
500. Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixture if separated by the
centrifugal disc type separator, shown right ?
A. On the cylindrical surface of the bowl

B. In between the discs
C. On the bottom of the bowl
D. On the top separation plate between oil and water
1043
DPKP
501. The Disc type oil separator can usually separate water from oil when processing
oils between which density ranges ?
A. 0.87 to 0.95
B. 0.84to 0.945
C. 0.845 to 0.965
D. 0.78 to 0.98
502. If insufficient water sealing is present (blue

colour) in the bowl of this separator, what
will be the effect ?
A. Insufficient oil will be pumped through
the purifier
B. The purifier will overflow oil on the
water side
C. The high temperature alarm will activate
D. No oil will be pumped through the
purifier
503. When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO
daily tank be drained via valve “D” ?
A. At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation
B. Twice a day
C. As required
D. Every 4 hours
1044
DPKP
504. What is pipe No 1 ?

A. The lub oil outlet
B. The lub oil inlet
C. The salt water inlet
D. the salt water outlet
505. What is component No 5 ?

A. The tub oil inlet
B. The fresh water purger
C. The oil purging valve
D. The Sediment drain
506. What is part No 4 ?

A. The saltwater cooling element
B. The inspection ladder
C. The lubrication tubes
D. The copper tubes
1045
DPKP
507. What is Part No 7 ?

A. The sea water drain value
B. The sediment tapping value
C. The water temperature gauge
D. The high pressure Lub oil inlet
508. What is component number 5 ?

A. The lub oil inlet
B. The drain for sediments
C. The oil purging value or lub oil vent
D. The fresh water purger
509. What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank ?
A. To act as purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks
B. To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel Lub. oils
C. To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse
D. To keep auxiliary diesel Lub. Oils fresh
1046
DPKP
510. What kind of pump is pump “P” ?
A. A piston pump
B. A gear or worm wheel pump
C. A centrifugal pump
D. A vane pump
511. What is part number 4 ?
A. A set screw
B. A holder
C. A pressure adjuster
D. A screw fitter
1047
DPKP

A. The pump shaft
B. The motor shaft
C. The pressure outlet
D. An air seal

A. An outlet
B. A rotator screw
C. A plug
D. A pump connector screw
514. Which of the parts is the pump shaft ?

A. Number 1
B. Number 2
C. Number 4
D. Number 5
1048
DPKP
515. What are items ''S" ancl what is their purpose ?
A. Suction valves to pump the wells

B. Suction boxes to retain priming water
C. Elephant shoe to facilitate bilge pumping
D. Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system
516. If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumping bilge well "A" which of
the following actions would you take ?
A. All of these.
B. Prime the pump with sea water
C. Check that bilge well values "B","C" and '9" are properly closed
D. Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking
1049
DPKP
517. How does the filter help in segregating water and dirt ?
A. Due to regeneration
B. Due to molecular friction
C. Due to gravitational force
D. Due to centrifugal force
518. In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass or bull's
eye ?
A. Lube oil pump discharge lines
B. Tank overflow lines
C. Fresh water return piping and condensate line
D. Sea water lines to overboard
519. What is the component shown here ?
A. A Screw compressor
B. A Piston pump
C. A Centrifugal pump
D. A Rotor Screw pump
1050
DPKP
520. What is part number one in this drawing ?
A. A sealing
B. A ball bearing
C. An end piece
D. A shaft
521. What is part number two in this drawing ?
A. A cam shaft
B. A connecting rod
C. A center piece
D. A pump shaft
1051
DPKP
522. What is part number three in this drawing ?
A. The gland packing

B. A bearing
C. A gland house
D. A cooling pipie
523. What is part number four in this drawing ?
A. A rotor
B. A cooling pipe
C. An air duct
D. A connecting rod
1052
DPKP
524. What is part number five in this drawing ?
A. A bearing holder
B. A sealer
C. An end piece
D. An air relief valve
525. Which of the indicated parts is the pump rotor ?

A. No 1
B. No 4
C. No 2
D. No 3
526. What is part NO 3 ?

A. The impeller
B. The shaft rotator
C. The expander
D. The propeller
1053
DPKP
527. What are the two main parts in this drawing ?

A. A steam motor and a pump
B. A centrifugal pump and an electric motor
C. A compressor and an electric motor
D. An electric motor and a screw pump
528. What type of pump is connected to the electrical motor in this drawing ?
A. A Compressor pump
B. A Screw pump
D. A Piston pump
529. What is the component shown in this drawin

A. A Centrifugal pump
B. A Screw pump
C. A Centrifugal compressor
D. A Reefer compressor
1054
DPKP
530. Which is the inlet ?
A. D
B. A
C. C
D. B
531. Which is the outlet?
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B
1055
DPKP

A. An Injector
B. An Ejector
C. A Constructor
D. A Defector
533. What is part number four ?
A. An air duct
B. A connecting rod
C. A cooling pipe
D. A rotor
534. What is part number flue ?
A. A bearing holder
B. An air relief value
C. A sealer
D. An end piece
1056
DPKP
535. Which way will fluid pass through this value ?
A. In both directions
B. From B to A
C. From A to C
D. From A to B
536. What is item '5" ?
A. The automatic 15 ppm shut-down value

B. The sea suction value of the pump
C. A shut-off value
D. A mesh type strainer
1057
DPKP
537. Which is the correct parts description list of this suction filter ?
A. 1 = Filter cover, 2 = Filter mesh element, 3 = Filter body

B. 1 = Body cover, 2 = Cartridge, 3 = Cartridge housing
C. 1= Top sealing plate, 2 = Filter element, 3 = Cast Iron body
D. 1 = Top cover , 2 = Filter, 3 = Cast steel pressure body
538. What are items No 2 and do 6 called ?

A. Water throwing seals
B. Impeller wear rings
C. Bearing sleeves
D. Fixed restraining rings
1058
DPKP
539. This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative
effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is worn excessively ?
A. The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output

B. The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload
C. The housing will be attacked by cavitation
D. The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur
540. What type of centrifugal pump is shown here ?
A. Self priming, single stage, high speed

B. Single stage, high speed
C. Floating, self balancing, single stage
D. Multi-stage, medium speed
1059
DPKP
541. What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump
(Frequency on board is 60 Hz) ?
A. About 2300 RPM
B. About 870 RPM
C. About 1720 RPM
D. About 1150 RPM
542. When are the high sea chests used ?
A. When the ship is in shallow water

B. When the ship is deeply laden at sea
C. When the ship is in polluted waters
D. When the ship is in ballast condition
1060
DPKP
543. What type of filters are fitted to the high and low sea chest suction lines ?
A. Perforated plate fitters

B. Mesh wire filters
C. all flush filters
D. Backflow filters
544. What is the purpose of the spring loaded value, item WA fitted to this pump ?
A. It is a bleed-off valve
B. It is a capacity control valve
C. It is a shock damper
D. It is a safety valve
1061
DPKP
545. How can the capacity of this pump be controlled and how is this done ?
A. By adjusting the internal pressure by spring loaded valve item No 4

B. By fitting an orifice in the discharge line
C. By throttling the suction valve
D. By throttling the discharge valve and reducing spring load item No 4
546. If you have to pump oil which is below normal temperature for a while through
this type pump (initial cold oil in the line) what precaution will you take prior
starting the pump ?
A. Startistop the pump frequently

B. Dpen the first spring loaded value first (release spring Dressure)
C. Throttle the suction value
D. Bleed off from the manometer suctionfdischarge connection
1062
DPKP
547. What are items No 6 on this pump ?

The axial plummer pads
A. The shaft plates
B. The thrust plates
C. The rear bearings
D. The thrust collar
548. What is part do 'I of this pump ?

A. A self lubricating oil tight thrust collar
B. A stuffing box packing unit
C. A metallic type mechanical seal
D. A spring loaded oil tight front thrust assembly
549. If we mention worm wheels or a worm wheel set, we distinguish between

……………. of the pump.
A. the rounded and the bellow gear

B. the drive shaft year and the idle shaft gear
C. the tangential year and the straight shaft year
D. the long shaft year and the stub shaft year
1063
DPKP
550. What would you rate the capacity of this type of pump ?
A. 150 to 250 m3/hour
B. 15 to 25 m3/hour
C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour
D. 10 to 15 m3/hour
551. What is item No 1 of this type of pump lay-out ?
A. The pump coupling unit

B. The pump driving arrangement
C. The intermediate shaft assembly
D. The pump shafting system
552. What is item No 4 on this pump assembly ?

A. The reinforcement frame
B. The pump top casing assembly
C. The motor stool
D. The outer casing
1064
DPKP
553. How is the vertical clearance of the impeller in this pump casing (impeller mouth
fitting in bottom casing ring) adjusted ?
A. By adjusting distance/height by
screwed connection 2 on shaft
B. By fitting shims on pump impeller
C. By fitting shims between motor shaft
and intermediate shaft
D. By fitting shims in coupled part item
No 2 on shaft
554. Which pump parts are fitted in shaft assembly part No 3 ?

A. Shaft sleeve and mechanical seal
B. Shaft sleeve and ball bearing
C. Mechanical seal and ball bearing
D. Mechanical seal, 0-ring and water thrower
555. If you need to replace the mechanical seal on this pump, which parts would you
dismantle and remove in order to give access to the seal ?
A. Remove motor and intermediate shaft,
remove shaft flange
B. Remove pump casing half, shaft flange and
take out pump assembly
C. Remove motor stool with motor and
intermediate shaft complete.
D. Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange,
take out D pump assembly
1065
DPKP
556. When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you
should start the pump with …………
A. the suction value closed.
B. throttled discharge valves.
C. the discharge valve closed.
D. throttled suction valve.
557. If the performance of a centrifugal pump deteriorates over time (tons/hour x

height in metres) it is usually due to …………….
A. condition of the pump housing.
B. excessive wear between impeller and mouth ring.
C. condition of the ball bearing.
D. cavitation of the impeller.
558. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and
impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and
why ?
A. The shape of the impeller to decrease
capacity
B. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it
and avoid turbulence
C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the
flow into the impeller
D. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen
turbulence
1066
DPKP
559. Centrifugal pumps are installed in circuits where the liquids ………….
A. have a moderate to high temperature.
B. are highly viscous.
C. have a high air content.
D. are not excessively viscous.
560. Reciprocating pumps are installed in circuits where liquids …………….

A. have a high air content.
B. have to be pumped to elevated heights.
C. are mixed with solids.
D. are mixed with fuel or oil.
561. If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearings overheat and it is verified that
it is correctly assembled and no parts are touching, the reason is…………………
A. misalignment of the shaft

B. obstruction on the discharge side
C. the pump is not bled off properly
D. insufficient liquid supply to the pump
1067
DPKP
562. When assembling an Endless Screw Pump you have to obtain the correct AXIAL
and RADIAL play between its shafts, if not ……….
A. the pump will run hot and seize
B. wear down and shaft deformation
will be caused due friction stress
C. the bearings will disintegrate after
a short time
D. the shaft seal will loosen due to
vibrations
563. Why is it necessary for centrifugal pumps which can be remotely started and
have a discharge head over 10 metres (for example the fire pump) to have a non-
return valve fitted at pump level?
A. To avoid the discharge piping from bursting when started
B. To avoid an air lock settling in the pump
C. To avoid the pump tripping on overload when started
D. To avoid loss of suction when starting
564. If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on its inner seat, what is the minimum
fixed lift height ?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 12.5 mm.
1068
DPKP
565. What is the purpose of screw cap (1) in the picture ?

A. To adjust initial lift height to about 8
to 10 mm
B. To adjust the lift to 25% of the
diameter
C. To adjust the valve down if it is
heard banging
D. To manually close the valve
566. What are items 'W' ?

A. Ballast water tanks
B. Cargo hold bilge wells
C. Side water tanks
D. Hold deep wells
567. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells ?
A. Because the cargo holds are
cleaner than the engine
room
B. Because they are
inaccessible when cargo is
loaded
C. Because they might be
damaged during loading
and discharging
D. Because the engineers are in charge of pumping the bilges
1069
DPKP
568. How are bilge wells 'W' covered to stop solids entering during cargo carriage or
cargo operations ?
A. There is no covering
B. By perforated plating
C. By sack cloth
D. By steel plates bolted on
569. What type of valves are fitted to cargo bilge lines in front of the Engine Room
bulkhead ?
A. Auto-closing valves
B. Bilge gate valves
C. Non-return screw down valves
D. Manifold valves
570. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump is the Fire and Ballast
Pump ?
A. 140 m3/hour x 30 metres

B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres
C. 110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres
D. 410 m3/hour x 20 metres
1070
DPKP
571. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which one is the Fresh Water
Hydrophore Pump ?
C. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres
D. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
572. What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ?
A. A vane pump
B. A piston pump
C. A gear pump
D. A worm wheel pump
573. Air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by
…………….
A. an air seal line from the compressed airline.
B. a water seal line to the packing gland.
C. a special packing in the stuffing box.
D. the vacuum in the pump suction.
1071
DPKP
574. What is this component called ?

A. A Two way valve
B. A Dynamic valve
C. A Triple flushing valve
D. A lion return value
575. Which way does the fluid pass through the valve ?
A. Neither direction
B. From 13 to A
C. From A to B
D. Either direction

A. A Seal Blade
B. A Glide Bearing
C. A Shaft protector
D. A Mechanical seal
1072
DPKP

A. A key
B. A shaft correction unit
C. A balancer
D. An adjuster
578. What is the purpose of part do 2 ?

A. To clean the bearing
B. To indicate the shaft distance
C. To adjust the pressure
D. To align the impeller with the pump shaft

A. The screw fitter
B. The holder
C. The set screw
D. The pressure adjuster
1073
DPKP
580. What is part do 5 ?

A. The pump shaft
B. The air seal
D. The motor shaft
581. What is part 110 6 ?

A. The plug
B. The rotator screw
C. The outlet
D. The pump connector screw
582. Which part is the key for the pump shaft ?

A. No 3
B. No 5
C. No 2
D. No 1
1074
DPKP
583. Which part is the mechanical seal ?

A. No 2
B. No 6
C. No 1
D. No 3
A. The holder
B. The wear ring
C. The spring washer
D. The mechanical seal
585. What is the purpose of Part No 4 ?
A. To support the shaft

B. To hold the impeller and
connect the motor
C. To prevent liquid moving
upward
D. To support for the impeller
1075
DPKP

A. The spring support
B. The washer
C. The connector
D. The wear ring
587. What is Part No 1 called ?
A. The Ejector
B. The Diffusor
C. The Nozzle
D. The Sprayer
588. Which part is the diffusor ?
A. Part 4
B. Part 2
C. Part 1
D. Part 3

A. The Mixer
B. The Gas Adjuster
C. The Set Screw
D. The Flange Ring
1076
DPKP

A. The 0 Ring
B. The Ring holder
C. The Nozzle
D. The Ejector bearing
591. What are items do 2 of this pump ?

A. The driven end bearings
B. Shaft collars
C. The rear end bearings
D. The driver and the driven gears of the
worm wheels
592. What are items "V" ?

A. Vacuum suction boxes
B. Straight bilge gate valves
C. Vacuum flap valves
D. Non-return screw down valves
593. What type of value is shown here ?

A. A check valve
B. A screw-down valve
C. A gate valve
D. A non-return valve
1077
DPKP
594. Which types of tank gauging are fitted here, if : 1 = Float reading on the tank, 2 =
Measure tape reading, 3 = Sight glass reading, 4 = Distance reading, 5 =
Pneumatic gauging. ?
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2, 3 and 5

A. A set screw
B. A holder
D. A screw fitter

A. The pump shaft
B. The motor shaft
D. An air seal
1078
DPKP

A. An outlet
B. A rotator screw
C. A plug

A. Number 1
B. Number 2
C. Number 4
D. Number 5

1079
DPKP
A. All of these.
1080
DPKP
eye ?
B. A Piston pump
A. A sealing
B. A ball bearing
C. An end piece
D. A shaft
1081
DPKP
A. A cam shaft
B. A connecting rod
C. A center piece
D. A pump shaft

B. A bearing
C. A gland house
D. A cooling pipie
A. A rotor
B. A cooling pipe
C. An air duct
D. A connecting rod
1082
DPKP
A. A bearing holder
B. A sealer
C. An end piece
A. No 1
B. No 4
C. No 2
D. No 3

A. The impeller
C. The expander
D. The propeller
1083
DPKP

B. A Screw pump
D. A Piston pump
613. What is the component shown in this drawing ?
B. A Screw pump
C. A Centrifugal
compressor
1084
DPKP
A. D
B. A
C. C
D. B
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B

A. An Injector
B. An Ejector
C. A Constructor
D. A Defector
1085
DPKP

A. An air duct
B. A connecting rod
C. A cooling pipe
D. A rotor

A. A bearing holder
C. A sealer
D. An end piece
B. From B to A
C. From A to C
D. From A to B
1086
DPKP

C. A shut-off value

1087
DPKP

A. Water throwing seals
B. Impeller wear rings
C. Bearing sleeves
D. Fixed restraining rings

1088
DPKP

A. About 2300 RPM
B. About 870 RPM
C. About 1720 RPM
D. About 1150 RPM

1089
DPKP

D. Backflow filters
1090
DPKP

starting the pump ?
B. Dpen the first spring loaded
value first (release spring
Dressure)
D. Bleed off from the manometer
suctionfdischarge connection

a. The axial plummer pads
b. The shaft plates
c. The thrust plates
d. The rear bearings
1091
DPKP


A. 150 to 250 m3/hour
B. 15 to 25 m3/hour
C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour
D. 10 to 15 m3/hour
1092
DPKP


C. The motor stool
D. The outer casing
A. By adjusting distance/height by
screwed connection 2 on shaft
C. By fitting shims between motor
shaft and intermediate shaft
D. By fitting shims in coupled part item
No 2 on shaft
1093
DPKP

dismantle and remove in order to
give access to the seal ?
A. Remove motor and intermediate
shaft, remove shaft flange
B. Remove pump casing half, shaft
flange and take out pump
assembly
C. Remove motor stool with motor
and intermediate shaft
complete.
D. Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out D pump assembly
1094
DPKP

why ?
A. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity

B. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence
C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller
D. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence
1095
DPKP

B. wear down and shaft deformation will be
caused due friction stress
C. the bearings will disintegrate after a
short time
D. the shaft seal will loosen due to
vibrations
1096
DPKP
fixed lift height ?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 12.5 mm

A. To adjust initial lift height to about 8 to 10 mm
B. To adjust the lift to 25% of the diameter
C. To adjust the valve down if it is heard
banging

C. Side water tanks
D. Hold deep wells
1097
DPKP
A. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room
B. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded
C. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
cargo operations ?
C. By sack cloth
bulkhead ?
C. Non-return screw down
valves
D. Manifold valves
1098
DPKP
Pump ?

C. 110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres
Hydrophore Pump ?
1099
DPKP
A. A vane pump
B. A piston pump
C. A gear pump
…………….
A. A Two way valve

B. A Dynamic valve
1100
DPKP
A. Neither direction
B. From 13 to A
C. From A to B
D. Either direction

A. A Seal Blade
B. A Glide Bearing

A. A key
C. A balancer
D. An adjuster
1101
DPKP


A. The screw fitter
B. The holder
C. The set screw

A. The pump shaft
B. The air seal
D. The motor shaft

A. The plug
C. The outlet
1102
DPKP

A. No 3
B. No 5
C. No 2
D. No 1

A. No 2
B. No 6
C. No 1
D. No 3

A. The holder
B. The wear ring
1103
DPKP

B. To hold the impeller and connect the motor
C. To prevent liquid moving upward

B. The washer
C. The connector
D. The wear ring

A. The Ejector
B. The Diffusor
C. The Nozzle
D. The Sprayer
1104
DPKP

A. Part 4
B. Part 2
C. Part 1
D. Part 3

A. The Mixer
B. The Gas Adjuster
C. The Set Screw
D. The Flange Ring
A. The 0 Ring
B. The Ring holder
C. The Nozzle
1105
DPKP

B. Shaft collars
D. The driver and the driven gears of the worm wheels

1106
DPKP

A. A check valve
C. A gate valve
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2, 3 and 5
679. What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump?

A. Bilge empty
B. Discharge value closed.
C. Pump impeller choked.
D. Suction strainer blocked.
680. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump?
A. Bylining an orifice in the discharge line
B. By throttling the suction value
C. By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value
D. By throttling the discharge value
1107
DPKP
681. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented?
A. Special packing in the stuffing box.
B. An air seal line from the compressed airline.
C. The air pump fitted to the pump
D. A water seal line to the packing gland
682. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the
domestic fresh water system?
B. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
683. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump?
A. Fuel oil transfer
B. Boiler feed pump
C. Hydraulic winch power pack
D. Bilge and ballast
684. at would you rate the capacity of this type of pump?

A. 10 to 15 m3/hour
B. 50 to 250 m3/hour
C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour
D. 15 to 25 m3/hour
685. For which service would a gear pump be most suitable?

A. Engine cooling water circulating.
B. Engine lub oil pressure supply.
C. Bilge pumping
D. Boiler feed water supply.
1108
DPKP
686. Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium?

A. Liquids mixed with solids.
B. Pumping liquids against a high head pressure.
C. Liquids having high air content.
D. Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.
687. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components?
A. The rounded and the bellow gear.
B. The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear.
C. The driving and driven shaft gears
D. The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.
688. What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for?

A. Where liquids are not excessively viscous.
B. Where the liquid has a high temperature.
C. Where liquids are extremely viscous.
D. Where there is a high air content.
689. When assembling an 'Endless Screw"type pump what results from insufficient
axial or radial clearance?
A. The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations.
B. The pump will not pump.
C. Wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress.
D. The pump will not deliver correct pressure.
690. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the
initial load?
A. Suction and discharge valves closed.
B. The discharge value closed.
C. The suction value closed.
D. The suction value throttled.
1109
DPKP
691. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance
deteriorating over time?
A. Cavitation of the impeller.
B. Wear of the pump housing.
C. Near of the gland neck bush.
D. Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.
692. would you do on first starting a gear if pumping cold oil?

A. Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.
B. Throttle the suction value
C. Start/stop the pump frequently
D. Start the pump with values closed and gradually open.
693. what is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump?
A. Malfunction of the electrical motor
B. Tank being transferred into is full.
C. Pump no longer pumping liquid.
D. Malfunction of the pump.
694. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands?
A. Mechanical shaft seal.
B. Preformed lip seals
C. Carbon sealing rings.
D. Soft gland packing.
695. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid?
A. The valve is easier to open.
B. There is less scouring of the value seat at partial openings.
C. There is less restriction to flow in this direction.
D. With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.
1110
DPKP
696. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines?
A. Solid copper joints.
B. Wire reinforced asbestos joints.
C. Preformed neoprene joints
D. General purpose asbestos joints.
697. How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts?

A. Sliding securing mounts.
B. Selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion.
C. Fitting of steel bellows pieces.
D. Sliding section of piping.
698. Where would you find a duplex fitter unit?

A. In starting air piping
C. In bilge piping
D. In sea water piping
699. Where would you find a thermostatic control valve?

A. Hydraulic ring main supply system.
B. Fuel oil system.
C. Engine jacket water cooling system.
D. Engine lub oil system.
700. How does a 'quick closing' value operate?

A. The value can only be opened and closed hydraulically.
B. An independent mechanism closes the value.
C. The value bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the value o close.
D. A retaining collar is released allowing the value to close.
1111
DPKP
701. Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted?
A. Bilge suction valves
B. Fuel tank valves
C. Ballast tank valves
D. Fire main isolating valves
702. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high
suction?
A. Check suction strainers and valves.
B. Open sea suction value to prime pump
C. Clean the oiliwater separator.
D. Inspect pump internals for wear
703. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells?
A. They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells.
B. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
C. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room.
D. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded
704. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them?
A. By perforated plating
B. There is no covering
C. By steel grid plates bolted in place
D. By very fine mesh grids
705. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead?
A. Non-return screw down valves
B. Screw lift valves
C. Butterfly valves
D. Gate valves
1112
DPKP
706. What is the purpose of a cofferdam?

A. To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids.
B. As a watertight barrier.
C. As an emergency storage space for bilge water.
D. As a collection space for leaking pipe work
707. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be
not moving, what would you check first?
A. Whether the value is dirty.
B. If there is excess pressure on the value.
C. Check that the value is not broken.
D. Check to see if the value spindle is being turned.
708. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessaryto have PUMP

REDUNDANCY. What does this mean?
A. A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately
B. All pumps in the engine room are duplicated
C. Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit.
D. All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility
709. What generator cooling is sometimes used in dry-docking?

A. Ship's sanitary system.
B. Ballast pumps.
C. Circulating fore or aft peak tanks.
D. Circulating fresh water tanks.
710. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections
separated?
A. Neoprene lip seals
B. Machineable sealing rings.
C. Labyrinth seals.
D. Mechanical garter spring seals.
1113
DPKP
why?
A. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.
B. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.
C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller.
712. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room?
A. To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running
B. To isolate the pump for repairs.
C. In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room
D. To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the
deck.
713. What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is
correct?
A. Insufficient liquid supply to the pump
B. Obstruction on the discharge side
C. The pump is not bled off properly
D. Misalignment of the shaft
714. When inspecting purifier crankcase oil you find that the oil has emulsified or that
the level of oil has dropped. The most likely reason is……………
A. that the safety joint of the oil pump is broken.
B. the bowl is leaking water on the main seal ring.
C. that the bowl revolutions have dropped and the purifier is working in
overload.
D. that water is leaking in or oil is leaking out via the oil seal of the horizontal
shaft.
1114
DPKP
5. Mengoperasikan pompabahan bakar, pelumas, tolak bara

(ballast) dan system pompa-pompa lainnya dan sistem-sistem
kontrol yang terkait. (Operate fuel,lubrication, ballastand other
pumpingsystems andassociated controlsystems)

A. A set screw
B. A holder
D. A screw fitter

A. The pump shaft
B. The motor shaft
D. An air seal

A. An outlet
B. A rotator screw
C. A plug
1115
DPKP
A. Number 1
B. Number 2
C. Number 4
D. Number 5

1116
DPKP
A. All of these.
1117
DPKP
eye ?

B. A Piston pump
A. A sealing
B. A ball bearing
C. An end piece
D. A shaft.
1118
DPKP
A. A cam shaft
B. A connecting rod
C. A center piece
D. A pump shaft

B. A bearing
C. A gland house
D. A cooling pipie
1119
DPKP
A. A rotor
B. A cooling pipe
C. An air duct
D. A connecting rod
A. A bearing holder
B. A sealer
C. An end piece
1120
DPKP
A. No 1
B. No 4
C. No 2
D. No 3

A. The impeller
C. The expander
D. The propeller

1121
DPKP
B. A Screw pump
D. A Piston pump
.
19. What is the component shown in this drawing ?
B. A Screw pump
C. A Centrifugal compressor
1122
DPKP
A. D
B. A
C. C
D. B
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. B
1123
DPKP
A. An Injector
B. An Ejector
C. A Constructor
D. A Defector
A. An air duct
B. A connecting rod
C. A cooling pipe
D. A rotor
1124
DPKP
A. A bearing holder
C. A sealer
D. An end piece
B. From B to A
C. From A to C
D. From A to B
1125
DPKP

C. A shut-off value

1126
DPKP
A Water throwing seals

B Impeller wear rings
C Bearing sleeves
D Fixed restraining rings

1127
DPKP

A. About 2300 RPM

B. About 870 RPM
C. About 1720 RPM
D. About 1150 RPM
1128
DPKP


D. Backflow filters
1129
DPKP

1130
DPKP
starting the pump ?

B. Dpen the first spring loaded value first (release spring Dressure)
D. Bleed off from the manometer suctionfdischarge connection
A. The axial plummer pads

B. The shaft plates
C. The thrust plates
D. The rear bearings
1131
DPKP



1132
DPKP
A. 150 to 250 m3/hour

B. 15 to 25 m3/hour
C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour
D. 10 to 15 m3/hour

1133
DPKP

C. The motor stool
D. The outer casing
A. By adjusting distance/height by screwed connection 2 on shaft

C. By fitting shims between motor shaft and intermediate shaft
D. By fitting shims in coupled part item No 2 on shaft
1134
DPKP

dismantle and remove in order to give access to the seal ?
A. Remove motor and intermediate shaft, remove shaft flange

B. Remove pump casing half, shaft flange and take out pump assembly
C. Remove motor stool with motor and intermediate shaft complete.
D. Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out D pump assembly
1135
DPKP



1136
DPKP
why ?
A. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity

B. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence
C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller

1137
DPKP


B. wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress
C. the bearings will disintegrate after a short time
D. the shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations
1138
DPKP
fixed lift height ?
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 12.5 mm
A. To adjust initial lift height to about 8 to 10 mm

B. To adjust the lift to 25% of the diameter
C. To adjust the valve down if it is heard banging
1139
DPKP

C. Side water tanks
D. Hold deep wells
A. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room
B. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded
C. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
1140
DPKP
cargo operations ?
C. By sack cloth
bulkhead ?
C. Non-return screw down valves
D. Manifold valves
1141
DPKP
Pump ?

C. 110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres
HydrophorePump ?
1142
DPKP
A. A vane pump
B. A piston pump
C. A gear pump
…………….
A. A Two way valve

B. A Dynamic valve
1143
DPKP
A Neither direction
B From 13 to A
C From A to B
D Either direction
A. A Seal Blade
B. A Glide Bearing
1144
DPKP
A. A key
C. A balancer
D. An adjuster

1145
DPKP
A. The screw fitter

B. The holder
C. The set screw
A. The pump shaft

B. The air seal
D. The motor shaft
1146
DPKP
A. The plug
C. The outlet
A. No 3
B. No 5
C. No 2
D. No 1
1147
DPKP
A. No 2
B. No 6
C. No 1
D. No 3
A. The holder
B. The wear ring
1148
DPKP

B. To hold the impeller and connect the motor
C. To prevent liquid moving upward

B. The washer
C. The connector
D. The wear ring
1149
DPKP
A. The Ejector
B. The Diffusor
C. The Nozzle
D. The Sprayer
A. Part 4
B. Part 2
C. Part 1
D. Part 3
1150
DPKP
A. The Mixer
B. The Gas Adjuster
C. The Set Screw
D. The Flange Ring
A. The 0 Ring
B. The Ring holder
C. The Nozzle
1151
DPKP

B. Shaft collars
D. The driver and the driven gears of the worm wheels

1152
DPKP
A. A check valve
C. A gate valve
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2, 3 and 5
1153
DPKP
A. The primary pump

B. The purifier
C. The clarifier pump
D. the secondary pump
86. What is shown here ?
A. A common suction mesh strainer

B. A Fuel Oil pressure line filter
C. A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter
D. A centrifugal filter
1154
DPKP
87. What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the fitter body (3) ?
A. The clamp on top of the fitter cover

B. The fitter's gasket
C. The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp
D. The vacuum created in the filter
88. What type of filter is shown here ?
A. A magnetic fitter
B. A cartridge type pressure line fitter
C. A suction wire mesh fitter
D. A rotating fitter
1155
DPKP
89. What is the correct parts description list of this pressurisedfilter ?
A. 1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing

B. I = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed cartridge, 3 = Filter body
C. I = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body
D. I = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body
90. How is pump '4" driven from the purifier ?
A. By being directly attached to the gears of the purifier crankcase

B. By electric motor
C. By replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase
D. By lf-belt
1156
DPKP
91. What is item 'F’ ?
A. A fuel shut-off solenoid

B. A normal mesh filter/strainer
C. A fine filter
D. A flow meter
92. What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier
(Tin) ?
A. 70 degree C
B. 75 degree C
C. 95 degree C
D. 85 degree C
1157
DPKP
93. When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since
the power from the electric motor is transferred by …………. to the purifier
A. a magnetic coupling
B. Friction pads
C. a rotating coupling
D. the bowl spindle
94. What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ?
A. A plate battery heat exchanger

B. A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger
C. A finned bank block heat exchanger
D. A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger
1158
DPKP
95. If the heated medium of this heater is oil and the heating medium is steam, excess
steam supply or sufficient oil flow could cause excessive …………... in the
heater.
A. deformation
B. corrosion
C. carbon formation
D. pitting
96. What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ?
A. Marine diesel
B. Gas oil
C. Distillate diesel
D. Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1)
1159
DPKP
97. What are items ‘F’ ?
A. Filters
B. Flow controllers
C. Flow meters
D. Fast shut-off values
98. What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank ?
A. To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use

B. As supply source of the system oil
C. To collect the system oil in use
D. All of these.
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DPKP
99. What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?
A. A heavy fuel oil system

B. A blend fuel oil system
C. A marine diesel oil system
D. A gas oil system
100. What is the component marked ‘BUC’ ?
A. The Blend Unit Caforifier

B. The Base Unit Calorifier
C. The Basic Unit Controller
D. The Blend Unit Controller
1161
DPKP
101. Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend
fuel of the required viscosity?
A. The diesel oil and heavyfuel oil booster pumps

B. The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater
C. All of these.
D. The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender
102. Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?
A. In unit H
B. In units DP and FP
C. In unit BUC
D. In unit BU
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DPKP
103. What are the components marked 'M’ ?
A. Manometers
B. Magnetic shut-off values
C. Flow meters
D. Microprocessors
104. What are the components marked ‘F’ ?
A. Fuel pumps
B. Flow meters
C. Fuel heaters
D. Fuel filters
1163
DPKP
105. Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture.
A. The blending unit controller BUC

B. The HFO daily tank
C. The blending unit BU
D. The unit H
106. What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ?
A. To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

B. To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils
C. To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes
D. To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intend for
purification
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DPKP
107. In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter ?
A. In bilge piping
C. In sea water piping
D. In starting air piping
108. If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or
it takes too long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should
change the ……………….
A. friction pad linings.
B. gravity disc.
C. purifier ball bearings.
D. O-rings and seal set of the bowl.
109. The most common reason for overflow on purifiers is ………………

A. Sall bearings worn out.
B. the wrong gravity disc.
C. dirt between purifier plates.
D. water seal broken.
110. When the density of purified oil has increased, you should …………..
A. Increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.
B. Decrease the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.
C. Decrease the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter.
D. Increase the temperature and decrease the gravity disc diameter.
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DPKP
111. During start up of a purifier, how will you notice when the bowl has reached the
required revolutions ?
A. The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from the
starting current.
B. The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast
C. The purifier will make a humming noise
D. The vibrations on the purifier will increase
112. Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great
danger. Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling,
assembling, inspection, maintenance. This is because ……………..
A. oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This
danger is increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated.
B. static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing
explosion within the purifier.
C. danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor,
various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great.
D. purifier bowls revolve at very high speed causing great centrifugal forces
to act, careless handling causes danger of disintegration.
113. If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective, what action should be
taken ?
A. Order the specific bowl spare part
B. Have it repaired on board if it can be done
C. Sent it to a qualified workshop for repair
D. Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advise only
114. The starting/accelerating current of a purifier is ……………% of the normal

operating current.
A. 100
B. 150
C. 50
D. 250
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DPKP
115. The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen
correctly, in general the more frequent the interval, the better, however intervals
too short give bad efficiency, intervals too long …………
A. will atso give bad efficiency.
B. may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt.
C. will result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge.
D. may result in water seal depletion.
116. As a rule of the thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of diesel
oil purifiers should be….. hours.
A. 4 to 5
B. 2 to 4
C. 6 to 8
D. 6 to 9
heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………. hours.
A. I to 2
B. 6 to 8
C. 4 to 6
D. 2 to 4
heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………hours.
A. 3 to 5
B. 2 to 3
C. 4 to 6
D. 6 to 8
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DPKP
119. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of lubricating
oil purifiers used on crosshead type engine sumps should be………hours.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
120. As a rule of the thumb, time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil
purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set at……….hours.
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6
121. The factors which determine the selection of the size of gravity disc for a
purifier are………..
A. the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific gravity.
B. the bowl speed, the oil temperature and water content.
C. the specific gravity of the oil, the oil temperature and the feed rate.
D. the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.
purifying operation is………
A. the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and is
called a two-phase operation.
B. the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation.
C. a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water,
oil, dirt).
D. the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from ater) and is called
a two-phase operation.
1168
DPKP
clarifying operation refers to………..
A. the single phase liquid-liquid operation (water from oil).
B. The 2 phase liquid-solid operation, separating dirt from oil.
C. the 3 phase liquid-liquid-solid operation, separating light from heavy liquids,
as well as solids from light as from heavy liquids.
D. The 2 phase solid-liquid operation, separating dirt from water and oil.
124. The usual mode of series operation of two heavy fuel oil purifiers refers
to…………….
A. two identical machines being put from settling tank to 1st purifier, hence to
second purifier, at half the feed rate of the required quantity.
B. two identical purifiers being used as well for heavy fuel oil as for diesel oil,
by changing line system and gravity discs.
C. two identical machines being operated in series, the first as purifier, the
second in line as clarifier with same throughput.
D. two identical machines being put separately from settling ank to dailytank at
half the feed rate of the required quantity.
125. If you find that the feed rate of an oil purifier (its throughput) has reduced, the
most likely reason for this is
A. that the amount of sealing water of the bowl is insufficient or the containing
tank is empty or shut-off.
B. that the revolution speed of the bowl has slowed or the electric motor is
operating in overload.
C. that the wrong type of gravity disc is fitted, the oil temperature is incorrect or
the heater is blocked.
D. that the capacity of gear pump has fallen, the pump's 'elief valve has opened,
a leaking suction pipe or suction liter is clogged.
1169
DPKP
126. When inspecting purifier crankcase oil you find that the oil has emulsified or
that the level of oil has dropped. The most likely reason is……………
A. that the safety joint of the oil pump is broken.
B. the bowl is leaking water on the main seal ring.
C. that the bowl revolutions have dropped and the purifier is working in
overload.
D. that water is leaking in or oil is leaking out via the oil seal of the horizontal
shaft.
127. Where is the inlet for the unclean oil ?
A. Area 3
B. Area 1
C. Area 6
D. Area 4
1170
DPKP
A. The bowl hood

B. The paring disc
C. The distributor
D. The chamber
129. Which part is the paring disc used for removing water ?
A. Part 3
B. Part 2
C. Part 4
D. Part 6
1171
DPKP
A. The paring disc operating water

B. The paring disc for processed oil
C. Slots holding a space
D. the spring support
A. The bowl stack

B. The disc stack
C. The paring disc
D. The disk holder
1172
DPKP
132. The ash content of a fuel oil is significant because it…………..

A. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures.
B. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel.
C. is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine.
D. eflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system.
133. The relief values in a fuel oil service system discharge to either the service
pump suction or to the………….
A. simplex fuel oil strainer.
B. recirculating line.
C. slop retention tanks.
D. settling tanks.
134. What is part number one called ?
A. The service tank

B. The expansion tank
C. The settlement tank
D. The drainage tank
1173
DPKP
135. Which part is the heater ?
A. Number 4
B. Number 2
C. Number 3
D. Number 1
136. Which of the two drawings shows two series connected purifiers ?
A. None
B. 2
C. 1
D. Both 1 and 2
1174
DPKP
137. Where is the separation carried out ?
A. At the bottom of the separator

B. At the corner end number 3
C. Between the discs number 5
D. Below discs number 1
138. What is item ‘V’ ?
A. A fine fitter
B. A blow-trough steam value
C. An automatic stop value
D. A viscometer
1175
DPKP
139. What is item 'M’ ?
A. The magnetic shut-off valve

B. The magnetic filter
C. The fuel flow Meter
D. The manometer
140. What is the function of valve ‘PR’ in this fuel circuit ?
A. A constant pressure regulating valve

B. A fuel drain value in case of engine shut-down
C. A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop
D. A de-gassing/HP gas release by very high fuel temperature
1176
DPKP
141. What are the parts marked ‘F’ ?
A. Automatic fitters
B. Fine filters
C. A combination of these or any of the these
D. Magnetic filters
142. Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How
will this affect the reading of thermometer ''T" ?
A. Temperature remains constant by same fuel pump viscosity.

B. Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used
C. Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used
D. None of the above
1177
DPKP
143. What do you call the tanks in which heauyfuel oil is stored on board ?
A. Heavy fuel oil tanks

B. Heavy fuel oil settling tanks
C. Heavy fuel oil daily tanks
D. Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks
144. What do you call the gate valves 'MP", 'MS", "AP", AS located on deck ?
A. Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves

B. Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves
C. Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves
D. Heavy fuel oil tank valves
1178
DPKP
145. How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker ?
A. Via own pumps “P1” and “P2” to transfer pump 'Tp".

B. Via main bunker value “B.V” to transfer pump "Tp".
C. Via suction value “S”, the transfer pump, to discharge value “D”
D. Via own pumps “P1” and “P2”, the main bunker value “BV” to value “D”
146. What is the name and function of the gate value “BV” ?
A. Main bunker valve, separates double bottom tanks

B. Main bunker value, separates bunker manifold from engine room
C. Bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from deeptank
D. Bunker valve, separates suction and discharge manifold
1179
DPKP
147. How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanks maintained when the external
temperature drops below it's pour point ?
A. By transferring it on time to the HFO settling tank

B. By circulating it with the transfer pump
C. By always ensuring that warm oil is bunkered
D. By heating the oil with steam uia steam coils or steam banks
148. Which value in the engine room must be kept closed if no bunker operations or
transfer from the deep tanks are taking place ?
A. Value “D”
B. Value "BV"
C. The settling tank value
D. Value “S”
1180
DPKP
149. If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control value CC, what
other action must you take ?
A. Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier

B. Throttle steam to the HFO service tank
C. Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV
D. Drain the service tank at shorter intervals
150. What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump P ?
A. A centrifugal pump
B. A vane pump
C. A piston pump
D. A gear pump or worm pump
1181
DPKP
151. When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0.87, what would be the
inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier ?
A. 85 degree C
B. 30 degree C
C. 40 degree C
D. 60 degree C
152. What is the ideal temperature to maintain the Diesel Oil Daily Tank and how is
this achieved ?
A. 65 degree C, by application of steam heating

B. 65 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank
C. 45 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank
D. 45 degree C, by application of steam heating
1182
DPKP
153. What description best fits the Main Engine Lub. Oil sump tank ?
A. A Main Engine system oil reserve tank

B. A collecting and buffer tank of the Main Engine system oil
C. An overflow tank of the Main Engine system oil
D. A collecting tank for main engine dirty oil used by the Main Engine
154. What do all the lubrication oil tanks that are connected the lubrication oil
purifiers have in common?
A. They all contain wasted oils

B. They all contain the same grade of oil
C. They all contain in-service oils
D. They all contain extremely dirty oils
1183
DPKP
155. Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier No 2 is running M.E.L.O. sump tank to

M.E.L.O. sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier No 1 is now to be set up for the
other tank purification, which set up is not possible ?
A. M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil tank

B. Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank
C. M.E. Dirty Oil tank to Lub. Oil sump tank
D. M.E. Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank
156. Where and how would you take sample of the oil from the Main Engine sump
tank ?
A. In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank
B. At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump
C. After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running
D. from the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps
1184
DPKP
157. Which of the following alarms may sound after the automatic de-sludging cycle
is completed and the urification of the oil restarts ?
A. The oil high pressure alarm

B. The water seal alarm
C. The oil high temperature alarm
D. The overflow alarm
158. What is the purpose of the drain cock (3) on this fitter ?
A. To take samples of the liquid.

B. To drain the dirt out of the filter basket
C. To drain the filter before cleaning
D. To drain out the collected water
1185
DPKP
159. How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram
refilled ?
A. They are refilled once per day

B. They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier
C. They are refilled twice a week
D. They are refilled only when required.
160. What would be the temperature of the oil in the settling tank (item number 3)
shown in this fuel oil arrangement ?
C. Above 80 degree C
1186
DPKP
161. What is item number 4 of this fuel oil arrangement drawing ?
A. A booster pump
B. A fuel transfer pump
C. A. heater
D. A fuel strainer
162. What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?
A. fuel oil ball fitter

B. A fuel oil booster pump
C. A fuel oil transfer pump
D. A fuel oil purifier
1187
DPKP
163. At sea, what should be the level in tank number 2 of this fuel arrangement
schematic drawing ?
A. Full
B. Between 2/3 and 3/4 full
C. Between 1/2 and 3/4 full
D. Variable, depending time of the day
164. Which of the following system set-ups are possible using the fuel arrangement
shown here ?
A. Settling to settling, Daily to Dairy tank

B. Settling to Daily, Settling to Settling tank
C. Settling to Daily, Daily to Daily tank
D. Dally to Settling, Settling to Settling tank
1188
DPKP
165. What is the usual temperature of a fuel oil (HFO) daily tank ?
C. 40 to 50 degree C
166. Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on a HFO settling tank ?
A. A remote tank gauging system

B. Quick closing shut-off values (remote operated)
C. A drain value (Spring loaded)
D. A thermometer
167. Which of the following alarms on UMS operation are not necessarily provided
on the Fuel Oil Daily Tank (HFO)
A. Daily tank high Level

B. Daily tank low temperature
C. Daily tank high temperature
D. Daily tank low level
1189
DPKP
168. What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of a fuel oil?
A. The lower the temperature the higher the specific gravity
B. The higher the temperature the higher the specific gravity
C. The lower the temperature the lower the specific gravity
D. The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity
169. The dirty oily water mixture fills chamber 1 of this separation bowl, where will
the clean oil be found ?
A. Between item 2 and item 4

B. Item 3 in the bowl
C. Item 4 in the bowl
D. Item 2 in the bowl
170. What liquid substance is present in chamber 2 of this oil- water separator ?
A. Clean oil
B. Dirty oil
C. Water
D. Oil-water mixture
1190
DPKP
171. If a dirty oilyiwater mixture is entering chamber item 1 of this separator, where
will the dirt settle ?
A. On the separation plate between liquids 2 and 3

B. With the liquid item 3
C. With the liquid item 2
D. On the bottom item 4
172. Where will the dirt collect which is separated from the oily water mixture in this
Sharpies separator, shown left ?
A. On the oil/water separation plate

B. Near separating plate flushed off with water
C. On the inner mantle of the cylindrical bowl
D. On the bottom of the cylindrical bowl
1191
DPKP
173. Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixture if separated by the
centrifugal disc type separator, shown right ?
A. On the cylindrical surface of the bowl

B. In between the discs
C. On the bottom of the bowl
D. On the top separation plate between oil and water
174. The Disc type oil separator can usually separate water from oil when processing
oils between which density ranges ?
A. 0.87 to 0.95
B. 0.84to 0.945
C. 0.845 to 0.965
D. 0.78 to 0.98
1192
DPKP
175. If insufficient water sealing is present (blue colour) in the bowl of this separator,
what will be the effect ?
A. Insufficient oil will be pumped through the purifier

B. The purifier will overflow oil on the water side
C. The high temperature alarm will activate
D. No oil will be pumped through the purifier
176. When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the
HFO daily tank be drained via valve “D” ?
A. At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior

UMS operation
B. Twice a day
C. As required
D. Every 4 hours
1193
DPKP
177. What is pipe No 1 ?

A. The lub oil outlet
B. The lub oil inlet
C. The salt water inlet
D. the salt water outlet
178. What is component No 5 ?
A. The tub oil inlet

B. The fresh water purger
C. The oil purging valve
D. The Sediment drain
1194
DPKP
A. The saltwater cooling element

B. The inspection ladder
C. The lubrication tubes
D. The copper tubes
A. The sea water drain value

B. The sediment tapping value
C. The water temperature gauge
D. The high pressure Lub oil inlet
1195
DPKP
181. What is component number 5 ?
A. The lub oil inlet

B. The drain for sediments
C. The oil purging value or lub oil vent
D. The fresh water purger
182. What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank ?
A. To act as purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks
B. To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel Lub. oils
C. To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse
D. To keep auxiliary diesel Lub. Oils fresh
1196
DPKP
183. What kind of pump is pump “P” ?
A. A piston pump
B. A gear or worm wheel pump
C. A centrifugal pump
D. A vane pump
184. What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump?

A. Bilge empty
B. Discharge value closed.
C. Pump impeller choked.
D. Suction strainer blocked.
185. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump?
A. Bylining an orifice in the discharge line
B. By throttling the suction value
C. By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value
D. By throttling the discharge value
186. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented?
A. Special packing in the stuffing box.
B. An air seal line from the compressed airline.
C. The air pump fitted to the pump
D. A water seal line to the packing gland
1197
DPKP
187. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the
domestic fresh water system?
B. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
189. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump?
A. Fuel oil transfer
B. Boiler feed pump
C. Hydraulic winch power pack
D. Bilge and ballast
190. at would you rate the capacity of this type of pump?

A. 10 to 15 m3/hour
B. 50 to 250 m3/hour
C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour
D. 15 to 25 m3/hour
191. For which service would a gear pump be most suitable?

A. Engine cooling water circulating.
B. Engine lub oil pressure supply.
C. Bilge pumping
D. Boiler feed water supply.
192. Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium?

A. Liquids mixed with solids.
B. Pumping liquids against a high head pressure.
C. Liquids having high air content.
D. Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.
1198
DPKP
193. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components?
A. The rounded and the bellow gear.
B. The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear.
C. The driving and driven shaft gears
D. The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.
194. What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for?

A. Where liquids are not excessively viscous.
B. Where the liquid has a high temperature.
C. Where liquids are extremely viscous.
D. Where there is a high air content.
195. When assembling an 'Endless Screw"type pump what results from insufficient
axial or radial clearance?
A. The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations.
B. The pump will not pump.
C. Wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress.
D. The pump will not deliver correct pressure.
196. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce
the initial load?
A. Suction and discharge valves closed.
B. The discharge value closed.
C. The suction value closed.
D. The suction value throttled.
197. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance
deteriorating over time?
A. Cavitation of the impeller.
B. Wear of the pump housing.
C. Near of the gland neck bush.
D. Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.
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198. would you do on first starting a gear if pumping cold oil?

A. Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.
B. Throttle the suction value
C. Start/stop the pump frequently
D. Start the pump with values closed and gradually open.
199. what is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump?
A. Malfunction of the electrical motor
B. Tank being transferred into is full.
C. Pump no longer pumping liquid.
D. Malfunction of the pump.
200. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands?
A. Mechanical shaft seal.
B. Preformed lip seals
C. Carbon sealing rings.
D. Soft gland packing.
201. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid?
A. The valve is easier to open.
B. There is less scouring of the value seat at partial openings.
C. There is less restriction to flow in this direction.
D. With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.
202. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines?
A. Solid copper joints.
B. Wire reinforced asbestos joints.
C. Preformed neoprene joints
D. General purpose asbestos joints.
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203. How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts?

A. Sliding securing mounts.
B. Selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion.
C. Fitting of steel bellows pieces.
D. Sliding section of piping.
204. Where would you find a duplex fitter unit?

A. In starting air piping
C. In bilge piping
D. In sea water piping
205. Where would you find a thermostatic control valve?

A. Hydraulic ring main supply system.
B. Fuel oil system.
C. Engine jacket water cooling system.
D. Engine lub oil system.
206. How does a 'quick closing' value operate?

A. The value can only be opened and closed hydraulically.
B. An independent mechanism closes the value.
C. The value bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the value o close.
D. A retaining collar is released allowing the value to close.
207. Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted?
A. Bilge suction valves
B. Fuel tank valves
C. Ballast tank valves
D. Fire main isolating valves
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208. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high
suction?
A. Check suction strainers and valves.
B. Open sea suction value to prime pump
C. Clean the oiliwater separator.
D. Inspect pump internals for wear
209. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells?
A. They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells.
B. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
C. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room.
D. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded
210. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them?
A. By perforated plating
B. There is no covering
C. By steel grid plates bolted in place
D. By very fine mesh grids
211. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead?
A. Non-return screw down valves
B. Screw lift valves
C. Butterfly valves
D. Gate valves
212. What is the purpose of a cofferdam?

A. To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different
liquids.
B. As a watertight barrier.
C. As an emergency storage space for bilge water.
D. As a collection space for leaking pipe work
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213. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be
not moving, what would you check first?
A. Whether the value is dirty.
B. If there is excess pressure on the value.
C. Check that the value is not broken.
D. Check to see if the value spindle is being turned.
214. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessaryto have PUMP

REDUNDANCY. What does this mean?
A. A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately
B. All pumps in the engine room are duplicated
C. Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit.
D. All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility
215. What generator cooling is sometimes used in dry-docking?

A. Ship's sanitary system.
B. Ballast pumps.
C. Circulating fore or aft peak tanks.
D. Circulating fresh water tanks.
216. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections
separated?
A. Neoprene lip seals
B. Machineable sealing rings.
C. Labyrinth seals.
D. Mechanical garter spring seals.
why?
A. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.
B. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.
C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller.
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218. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room?
A. To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running
B. To isolate the pump for repairs.
C. In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room
D. To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply
the deck.
219.What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is
correct?
A. Insufficient liquid supply to the pump
B. Obstruction on the discharge side
C. The pump is not bled off properly
D. Misalignment of the shaft
220. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge?
A. 600ppm
B. 1000ppm
C. 100ppm
D. 50ppm
221. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'?
A. 0ppm
B. 25ppm
C. 50ppm
D. l5ppm
222. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in

'Special Areas'?
A. Only in a case of emergency.
B. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.
C. When proceeding Full Ahead.
D. During the hours of darkness.
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223. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable
level?
A. A visible alarm.
B. The discharge is dumped to the bilge
C. An audible alarm.
D. The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.
224. What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess?

A. Safety Construction certificate.
B. IOPP certificate
C. MCA pollution certificate.
D. Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate
225. What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book?

A. Record fuel consumption.
B. Record quantity of fuel onboard.
C. Record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.
D. Record oily bilge levels.
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6. Mengoperasikan sistem listrik, sistem elektronik dan sistem

kontrol (Operate electrical,electronic andcontrol systems)
1. An important quantity which is useful in circuit analysis is known as
conductance G (Siemens). Which of the formulas A to D expresses the
conductance for this circuit?
A. G = 1 / R
B. G = 2 R
C. G = I / R
D. G = R * V
2. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is an I/P Transducer?

A. A transducer that converts a known electric current to a
pressure proportional to the current.
B. A transducer that increases a pressure signal which is too low
to give the desired effect.
C. A transducer that is inverting a pressure signal.
D. A transducer that converts a pressure to a proportional electric
signal.
3. Measuring instruments must be routinely calibrated. What is the meant by

instrument calibration?
A. Comparing input and output values against a documented
standard
B. Comparing two instruments of the same type
C. Adjusting size to fit process connection
D. Turning gauge too an easy reading position
4. Thermistors are temperature sensitive devices. A positive temperature

coefficient thermistor will typically have
A. Relatively non linear characteristic
B. Relatively linear characteristic
C. Inaccurate measurement
D. Variable reliability
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5. This block diagram illustrates an elementary control system. What is the

common name for this type of system?
A. Closed loop feed back system
B. Open loop feed back system
C. Feed forward system
D. Scmitt trigger
6. Transducers are devices which translate the value of one measured value
into diferent measurement units (for instance units of temperature to
millivlots). What is the meant by the “Range” of a transducer?
A. The difference between possible maximum and minimum
measurement
B. The maximum output signal
C. The type of measurement
D. The maximum length of the connecting leads
7. What is a ZENER BARRIER?

A. A zener barrier is a unit made to obtain intrinsic safety in
installations for instrumentation in hazardous areas.
B. A zener barrier is a device which limits the current drawn
byan induction motor.
C. A zener barrier is a diode bridge used in rectifiers.
D. A zener barrier is a device that allows the current to pass only
one direction.
8. What is the resistance value of this resistor:

A. 10 M ohm
B. 230 k ohm
C. 2,3 k ohm
D. 68 k ohm
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9. What type of component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

A. Pressure-reducing regulator.
B. Pressure relief valve
C. Pressure switch
D. Flow controller
10. What will be the probable outcome, if the amplification is set too high on a
temperature controller?
A. The process will oscillate and get out of control
B. Nothing
C. The process response will be very slow
D. The set-point will change
11. Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

A. Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console
B. Pressure instument, installed locally
C. Pressure relief valve, self-contained
D. PH analyzer
12. Which of the following instruments is normally part of a control-loop?

A. Transducer
B. Indicator
C. Plotter
D. Gauge
13. Which of the following systems will include a D/P transmitter in the
control-loop
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Smoke indication
D. Oil mist
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14. Why is it important that a transmitter has been correctly installed at the
correct location
A. The control system is depending on the best possible process
signal
B. It is important to have easy access to the transmitter for
maintenance
C. It must be easy to observe for troubleshooting
D. Can be installed anywhere in the piping system
15. A resistor has three red bands. If they all carry information about
resistance value as opposed to tolerance, what is the indicated resistance?
A. 2200 ohm
B. 22 ohm
C. 222 ohm
D. 220 ohm
16. A thermistor may be used to measure temperature. Which of the following

descriptions most accurately describes this device?
A. Temp sensitive semi-conductor
B. Junction of two dissimilar metals
C. Capacitance probe
D. Platinium wire resistor
17. During routine checking of alarm functions of main and auxiliary

equipment, some setpoints are cancelled due to a mistake. What is the
appropriate routine to ensure correct setpoints are set?
A. Consult with the instruction manual for the equipment in
question for correct values.
B. Ask your colleague if he remembers the correct setpoint
C. Check from previous records for correct values
D. Select a setpoint based on present condition allowing for a
reasonable safety margin.
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18. In installations of INTRINSICALLY SAFE equipment it is required that

all cabling should be separated from non-intrinsically safe equipment, and
(where colour coding is relied upon) to be of a special colour. What
colour is that?
A. Blue
B. Green/yellow
C. Red
D. Orange
19. In measurement systems there is often a need to specify performance

characteristics. One such characteristic may be referred to as 'dead band'.
What is the definition of DEAD BAND?
A. The change needed in the input signal to produce a change
in the output signal.
B. The change in the output signal produced by a certain
change in the input signal.
C. The largest difference in the output signal for the same
change in the input signal.
D. A missing electrical signal with no output.
20. In measurement systems, which of the listed sensors is suitable for

physical displacement?
A. Strain gauge
B. Thermocouple
C. Thermistor
D. Pt 500
21. In terms of electronic hardware, what is the meaning of the abbreviation

PCB?
A. Printed Circuit Board
B. Power Control Bridge
C. Positive Colour Board
D. Positive Current Biased
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22. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is a digital signal?

A. A signal with discrete levels such as 0 = "low" and 1 = "High"
B. A signal indicating Revolutions per minute (RPM)
C. A signal used by multimeters to measure resistance.
D. The reading of a multimeter when indicating voltage, current
or resistance.
23. It is common practice to connect a resistor over an alarm contact (see

diagram) in many applications. Why is this connection used?
A. To monitor the cable/wires for break.
B. To avoid sparks on the contacts when opening and closing.
C. To stabilise power consumption.
D. Enable measuring the total resistance of the circuit.
24. Measurement and transmission of electronic values may be in the form of

digital or analogue signals. What is an analogue signal?
A. A continually variable electric signal.
B. A measure of electric current or voltage
C. A measure of voltage using an oscilloscope.
D. A stable electric signal.
25. P = U x I x Root of 3) x cos (fi) What is the formula for I ?

A. Formula 1
B. Formula 2
C. Formula 3
D. Formula 4
26. PT-100 sensors are some times used with 3 or 4 wires. What is the reason
for this?
A. Higher measuring accuracy.
B. Higher mechanical strength of the cable.
C. Because of power-consumption.
D. For fault indication.
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27. Radio frequency signals can carry information from one place to another if
they are modulated. There are several ways to modulate a carrier. Which
modulating method is illustrated here?
A. Amplitude modulation (AM)
B. Frequency modulation (FM)
C. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
D. Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
28. Some areas of ships require that any electrical equipment used must be
intrinsically safe. What is meant by being intrinsically safe?
A. Can not produce enough energy to ignite a gas (explode)?
B. Electric wiring executed by approved manufacture?
C. Any electrical product, being water resistant?
D. Explosion proof product having a special wiring system?
29. Some equipment may be marked with the following symbol: What does it
mean?
A. Intrinsically safe.
B. Explosion proof.
C. Internally explosion proof.
D. Not safe in gas dangerous area.
30. The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12H,
connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent L(S) of the two inductors.
A. L(S) = 4H
B. L(S) = 18 H
C. L(S) = 1,5 H
D. L(S) = 0,667H
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31. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic

component and a typical operating characteristic for the same. Which
component?
A. Transistor
B. Tunnel diode
C. Thyristor
D. Zener diode
32. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component
and a typical operating characteristic for the same component. Which
component?
A. Triac
B. Zener diode
C. Tunnel diode
D. Field effect transistor
33. The physical size of a resistor is an indicator of what aspect of it's

specification?
A. Power dissipation capability
B. Total resistance
C. Resistivity
D. Tolerance
34. The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The output signal is 4-20 mA.
What is the span of the output signal?
A. 16 mA
B. 20 mA
C. 24 mA
D. 4 mA
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35. Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the
following descriptions explains the principle of operation of a
thermocouple?
A. A junction between two dissimilar metals generates a
small voltage.
B. A semi-conductor device that exhibits a negative
coefficient of resistance with temperature.
C. A resistance device that exhibits a positive coefficient
of resistance with temperature.
D. A quartz crystal that changes its resonant frequency
with temperature.
36. This circuit is widely used for rectification of AC into DC. Which of the
diagrams is correct for the output voltage when the input voltage is sine-
shaped as shown?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4
37. This circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6 µF and C(2) = 12 µF, in
series. Calculate the equivalent C(S) of the two capacitors.
A. C(S) = 4 µF
B. C(S) =2µF
C. C(S)=1,5µF
D. C(S) =18µF
38. This circuit consists of two resistances, R1 = 6 ohm and R2 = 12 ohm ,

connected in series. Calculate the equivalent resistance R(S) .
A. R(S) =18 ohm
B. R(S) = 4 ohm
C. R(S) = 72 ohm
D. R(S) =1,5 ohm
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39. This circuit consists of two resistances, R(1)= 12 ohm and R(2) = 6 ohm,
connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent value R(S) of the two
resistances.
A. R(S)= 4 ohm
B. R(S) =18 ohm
C. R(S)=2ohm
D. R(S) =1,5 ohm
40. This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output
signal Q. Which type of logic function does the gate perform?
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. OR gate
D. AND gate
41. This graphical symbol is a logic gate with truth table. Which gate?
A. OR
B. AND
C. NOR
D. NAND
42. This is the graphical symbol and truth table for a logic gate. Which gate?
A. NOR
B. NAND
C. OR
D. AND
43. This resistor has the value of 68 k ohm. Which colour code should be
marked on the rings (assume ring d is the tolerance ring)?
A. a. blue b. grey c. orange
B. a. black b. red c. orange
C. a. violet b. green c. yellow
D. a. red b. black c. yellow
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44. Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric
pressure. What is the common name pressures measured relative to
atmospheric pressure?
A. Gauge pressure
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Absolute pressure
D. Pressure drop
45. Use Kirchoff's voltage law and Ohm's law to calculate the voltage V2
across the resistance R2.
A. 4,5V
B. 0,75V
C. 6V
D. 2V
46. What can be measured by means of a manometer?

A. Pressure
B. Strain
C. Temperature
D. Motion
47. What function is this operational amplifier circuit performing?

A. Inverting amplifier
B. Non-inverting amplifier
C. Integrator
D. Differentiator
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48. What is the difference between a PRESSURE SWITCH and a PRESSURE

TRANSMITTER, if any?
A. The pressure switch has contact(s) that will change
between open and closed position.The pressure
transmitter converts a pressure signal into an electric
signal.
B. There is no difference.
C. The pressure switch gives out an analogue signal
depending on the switch setting.The pressure
transmitter gives out a binary signal depending on the
pressure.
D. The pressure switch gives out a digital signal
dependent on pressure and temperature.The pressure
transmitter converts a pressure signal to a digital
signal.
49. What is the main difference between a THERMOSTAT and a

TEMPERATURE TRANSMITTER, if any?
A. The thermostat has one or more contacts (open or
closed) depending on the temperature/setting. The
temperature transmitter converts a temperature signal
to an electric signal.
B. There is no difference.
C. The thermostat gives out an analogue signal depending
on the switch setting. The temperature transmitter
gives out a binary signal depending on the temperature.
D. The temperature transmitter is a digital component
while the thermostat is an analogue component.
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50. What type of signal output is derived from a NiCr/Ni thermocouple?

A. mV.
B. Ohm.
C. mA.
D. Watt
51. When a diode is used to convert AC to DC, it is usually referred to as

which of the following?
A. Rectifier
B. Controller
C. Alternator
D. Regulator
52. When measuring level of liquids with a differential pressure meter, the
name of the sensing device is:
A. Pressure diaphragm
B. Float
D. Positive displacement tube
53. When calibrating a pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and
ZERO. Please indicate in which order these adjustments should be done.
A. First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then
Zero should be rechecked.
B. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. After
that Span setting should be checked again.
C. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. Then
do not adjust anything.
D. The order of adjustment is of no importance.
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54. When calibrating an instrument what is the most common first step in the
procedure ?
A. Adjustment of Zero-point
B. Adjustment of span
C. Adjustment of range
D. Adjustment of linearity
55. When calibrating an instrument what is the most common second step in
the procedure?
A. Check linearity
B. Adjustment of span
C. Adjustment of range
D. Adjustment of Zero-point
56. When measuring flow of fluids with a fixed area flow meter, the name of
the sensing device is?
A. Orifice plate
B. Float
C. Turbine rotor
D. Positive displacement rotor
57. Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

A. Resistance temperature sensor
B. Potentiometer
C. Thermocouple
D. Triac
58. Which device does this graphical symbol illustrate?

A. Remote level controller with indicator
B. Local level controller with indicator
C. Level switch for centre-tank
D. Low carbon incinerator
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59. Which diagram is the symbol for a THYRISTOR?

A. Figure 2.
B. Figure 1.
C. Figure 3:
D. Figure 4.
60. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol illustrate?

A. Bipolar transistor
B. Silicon controlled rectifier
C. Diode
D. Field Effect Transistor
61. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent:

A. Resistor, 3300 ohms
B. Electric heater, 3.3 kilowatts
C. Capacitor, 3.3 Uf
D. Inductive reactor, 3.3 kH
62. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent?

A. Capacitor
B. Transformer
C. Resistance
D. Temperature sensor

A. Potentiometer, 10 kilo-ohms
B. Variable electrical heater, 10 kilo-watts
C. Auto transformer,10kVA
D. Variable inductive reactor
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DPKP

A. Transistor
B. Silicon controlled rectifier
C. Diode
D. Tunnel diode
65. Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating:

A. Zener diode
B. Transistor
C. Silicon controlled rectifier
D. Triac
66. Which electronic component or system of components does this graphical

symbol illustrate ?
A. Inverter
B. Battery charger
C. Low pass filter
D. Auto transformer
67. Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical

symbol illustrating:
A. Operational amplifier
B. Electronic counter
C. Flip-flop
D. Cathode ray tube
68. Which function is this operational amplifier performing?

A. Non-inverting amplifier
B. Inverting amplifier
C. Integrator
D. Differentiator
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69. Which of the 4 alternatives shows the symbol for a PNP transistor?
A. Figure 2.
B. Figure 1.
C. Figure 3.
D. Figure 4.
70. Which of the following detectors is commonly used for sensing if a

watertight steel door is closed or open?
A. Proximity switch
B. Synchro
C. Strain gauge
D. Transducer
71. Which of the following detectors would you choose for measuring the
torque of a steel shaft?
A. Strain gauge
B. Ultrasonic gauge
C. Synchro
D. Pyrometer
72. Which of the following letter combinations represents a flow indicating

controller on a process and instrumentation diagram
A. FIC
B. LIR
C. FLO
D. FIR
73. Which of the following letter combinations represents a temperature

controller on a process and instrumentation diagram?
A. TC
B. TIC
C. PIC
D. FIC
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DPKP
74. Which type temperature sensors are shown on the picture?

A. Resistance sensors
B. Thermocouple sensors
C. Thermistors type NTC
D. Thermistor type PTC
75. A 450 volt 3 phase brushless alternator will have the following
combination of items mounted on the rotor:
A. 3 phase excitation winding/rectifier bank/main field
winding
B. 3 phase excitation winding/ main field winding
C. 1 phase excitation field winding/rectifier bank/main
field winding
D. Excitation field winding/main field winding
76. A second alternator has just been synchronized onto the main
switchboard, and it is necessary to equally share the load between the
"running" and incoming alternators. What should be done first?
A. Raise the governor speed controller of the incoming
alternator and reduce the governor speed controller of
the alternator already on the switchboard
B. Adjust voltage rheostat for the incoming alternator on
the front of the switchboard
C. Lower the governor speed controller of the incoming
alternator and increase the governor speed controller of
the alternator already on the switchboard
D. Trip the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator and
check the voltage and speed adjustments before trying
again
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DPKP
77. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kW and kVar

loading are respectively transferred by the following controls:
A. Speed governor and voltage regulator
B. Current regulator and voltage regulator
C. Voltage regulator and synchroscope
D. Speed governor and load power factor
78. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator
operating in parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output:
A. Reactive load (kVAR)
B. Active load (kW)
C. Frequency
D. None of the mentioned alternatives
79. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the

automatic voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor
short circuited or disconnected in order to:
A. Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components
from high voltage tester
B. Protect insulation resistance tester and leads from
being damaged
C. Prevent charging of capacitive components within the
automatic voltage regulator causing false regulation
when generator restarts
D. Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator
during insulation testing
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DPKP
80. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kW rated generator has not been in operation for
several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken.
The minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator
winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is:
A. 1 000 000 Ohms
B. 10 Ohms
C. 1000 Ohms
D. 10 000 Ohms
81. Consider generator 1 and 2 to be initially working in parallel. If prime-

mover 2 suffers a total fuel loss what is the likely outcome?
A. No.2 generator trips on reverse power
B. Generator set 2 trips on reverse speed
C. No.1 machine overloads and trips out on overspeed
D. No.1 machine overspeeds and trips out on overload
82. Due to failure of one of the carbon brushes the excitation voltage is lost on
one alternator that is operating in parallel. Will that alternator then:
A. Completely lose its share of the load causing the
auxiliary engine to speed up
B. Overload due to reduced voltage output and increased
current
C. Continue to share the active load (kW) but have very
high reactive load (kVAR)
D. Try to take all the load and so trip the main circuit
breaker
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DPKP
83. During regular inspection of alternator windings it is found that windings

are always covered with a heavy oil film coming from the atmosphere
surrounding the auxiliary engine. After cleaning with an approved solvent,
what should be done?
A. Improve material of intake air filters
B. Take no additional action
C. Blank off intake air filters
D. Reinsulate the windings after each cleaning
84. Electrical generators must provide electrical power at a steady, regulated

voltage. Automatic voltage regulators are used to control the output
voltage of alternators at varying load conditions, by which of the
alternative actions shown below?
A. Varying the excitation field strength by regulating
excitation voltage/current
B. Regulating the voltage signal to the engine governor to
regulate the speed to the desired load condition
C. Supplying variable current to compounding and no
load transformers in the alternator stator winding
circuit
D. All of the mentioned alternatives
85. For ideal synchronising as the incomer circuit breaker contacts make, the
phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage
should be:
A. 0°
B. 30° behind
C. 90° lag
D. 30° ahead
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DPKP
86. Generators must be synchronised before they can operate in parallel.

During synchronising, the incoming generator should be running slightly
"fast" compared to the bus bar frequency. This is to ensure that the:
A. Incoming machine picks up as a generator
B. Most rapid synchronising action is achieved
C. Incomers reverse power trip is tested
D. Incomer picks up as a motor
87. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The

internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is
controlled by:
A. The diesel speed and excitation current.
B. The internal volt drop and the load current.
C. The diesel speed, magnetising force and load current.
D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
88. Great care must be taken when manually paralleling two or more
alternators. At which point would you engage the main circuit breaker of
the incoming alternator when paralleling two alternators?
A. With the pointer of the synchroscope moving slowly
clockwise and almost at 0° (12 O'clock) or both
synchronizing lamps dark (off)
B. With the pointer of the synchronizer stopped at any
position and both synchronizing lamps bright (on)
C. With the pointer of the synchroscope rotating fast and
both synchronizing lamps flashing on and off
D. With the pointer of the synchroscope stopped at 0 (12
O'clock) or both synchronising lights bright
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DPKP
89. If the A.C. line current in a generator stator is doubled, the heating effect
in the stator windings will:
A. Quadruple
B. Remain about the same.
C. Half.
D. Double.
90. It is possible to operate two similar generators in parallel at equal power

(kW) but at different power factors. The generator with lower power factor
will run:
A. Hotter due to increased current
B. Slower due to increased current
C. Faster due to increased voltage
D. Cooler due to increased speed
91. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be
performed to check:
A. Its readiness to perform as specified.
B. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-
drills.
C. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics.
D. Its compliance with the shipbuilder's
recommendations.
92. Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to

the same supply network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and
frequency are respectively adjusted by:
A. AVR and speed governor
B. Voltmeter and frequency meter
C. Speed governor and load power factor controller
D. Synchroscope and speed governor
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DPKP
93. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c.
generator is controlled by:
A. The prime mover speed and excitation current.
B. The internal volt drop and the load current.
C. The prime mover and load current.
D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.
94. The power requirements for the excitation winding/circuit for a 3-phase
alternator operating at rated output power are supplied by:
A. The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage
regulator and the prime mover
B. Independent battery supply with the AVR
C. Independent power supply and rectifier unit
D. The main switchboard via a three phase rectifier
95. The speed of ship's generator is regulated by the governor. A 10%

reduction in generator speed occurs due to a faulty governor. The likely
consequence for all motors powered from this generator is to:
A. Reduce motor speed by about 10%’
B. Increase motor power by about 10%
C. Increase motor speed by about 10%
D. Reduce motor volt drop by about 10%
96. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:

A. Voltmeter and synchroscope
B. kW meter and frequency meter
C. Amp-meter and volt-meter
D. Synchroscope and kVar-meter
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DPKP
97. Two alternators are operating in parallel at 75% load capacity, but then
one of them trips without any warning. What is the first action that should
be taken?
A. Trip/stop all nonessential loads that are connected to
the switchboard
B. Check the circuit breaker of the tripped alternator
C. Restart and connect the tripped alternator immediately
D. Start and connect the emergency alternator
98. Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the
emergency switchboard is supplied from:
A. The main generating plant.
B. Emergency batteries
C. An emergency battery charger.
D. A compressed air driven generator.
99. What determines the power factor of an alternator when it is connected

singularly to the switchboard?
A. The load connected to the switchboard
B. The generated voltage and AVR setting
C. The excitation voltage
D. Number of pairs of pole coils in the excitation winding
100. What is the purpose of the alternator reverse power trip?

A. To prevent the alternator from "motoring" by being
supplied power from other parallel alternator and thus
being damaged
B. To prevent parallel operation if the excitation field
voltage is reversed
C. To prevent the alternator from being paralleled if it is
out of phase with the main switchboard
D. To give automatic disconnection of the circuit breaker
when you are taking the alternator off the switchboard
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DPKP
101. When 3 phase alternators are operating in parallel, it is very important that
the reactive load is evenly shared so that the total alternator loads are
evenly shared. If the total alternator load is the vector sum of active and
reactive loads, which side of the vector diagram (power triangle) shown
represents the reactive load?
A. (Y)
B. (X)
C. Either (X) or (Y)
D. None of the mentioned alternatives
102. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard
and the generator is AVR controlled, what will the output voltage do?
A. Initially rise, then reset to the set value.
B. Remain approximately constant, due to AVR action.
C. Initially fall, then reset to the set value.
D. Remain approximately constant, due to governor
action.
103. When manually paralleling two alternators the pointer of the synchroscope
may slowly stop rotating and remain stopped in one position before the
circuit breaker is closed. This would indicate:
A. The frequency of the incoming alternator is the same
as that of the main switchboard
B. The synchroscope is not functioning properly and
should be checked
C. The voltage of the incoming alternator is the same as
that of the main switchboard
D. The incoming alternator is in phase with the
switchboard, but the frequency is not the same
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DPKP
104. When paralleling two alternators they must have:

A. Equal number of phases, phase sequence and
frequency
B. Same number of phases, phase rotation and power
rating
C. Same phase rotation and voltage rating
D. Same frequency, voltage and power factor
105. When unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load

in order to avoid:
A. Undue overspeeding.
B. Undue overload on the switchboard.
C. Undue overcurrent
D. Undue temperature rise.
106. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an

emergencygenerator?
A. Steering gear and engine room alarm system
B. Engine room lighting and bow thruster
C. Galley and air conditioning
D. Sound powered telephone system
107. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected.

The first step is to:
A. Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
B. Make sure the load is evenly shared
C. Trip the main circuit breaker
D. Increase the frequency on the switchboard
108. In extreme circumstances what is the allowable max & min voltage tolerance?
A. 85% - 120%
B. 90% - 110%
C. 75% - 125%
D. 70% - 130%
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DPKP
109. Where is a generator's Reverse Power protection relay fitted?

A. Between the generator and the consumers
B. Between the breaker and the consumers
C. Between the generator and the bus bars
D. Between the breaker connecting bars
110. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 448
Volt. What is the phase voltage?
A. 311.13 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 220 Volt
D. 254.33 Volt
111. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is
the line current?
A. 73.32 Amps
B. 127 Amps
C. 219.97 Amps
D. 153.52 Amps
112. The kWatt indicator indicates 300 kWatt and the kVAR indicator shows 200
kVAR. What is the Power Factor?
A. 0.864
B. 0.832
C. 0.799
D. 0.766
113. What can happen with only one generator on load when several large fans are
started at the same time?
A. The fans will not start
B. The preferential trips will operate
C. The generator engine may fail
D. The generator engine may trip on over speed
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114. How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse
Trip Relay operates?
A. 3 - 5 seconds
B. 5 - 7 seconds
C. 1 - 3 seconds
D. 7 - 8 seconds
115. For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage

of the total rated current is the device usually set?
A. 125%
B. 110 %
C. 120 %
D. 115%
116. With large load change what maintains steady voltage?

A. Automatic voltage regulator &flywheel
B. Governor & automatic voltage regulator
C. Automatic voltage regulator
D. Flywheel & governor
117. How is the power output of an alternator controlled?

A. By the excitation current in the stator
B. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard
C. By the excitation current in the rotor
D. By the alternator speed
118. Fan alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many
pole pairs does this alternator have?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Eight
D. Six
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DPKP
119. The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation

current proportional to what?
A. The speed of the alternator
B. The output voltage and the output current of the alternator
C. The output voltage of the alternator
D. The output current of the alternator
120. Name the three conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel?
A. Voltage equal, frequency equal, frequency in phase
B. Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency
C. Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal
D. Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase
121. Two generators are running in parallel. One is delivering 300 Amps more than
the other. What is the best course of action?
A. Adjust the speed of one generator
B. Adjust the speed of both generators
C. Replace the AVR of the generator which has the highest current output
D. Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level
122. How is the excitation current transmitted to the rotor?

A. Generated from within the rotor
B. Via slip rings and brushes
C. Via the tacho generator
D. Via a commutator and brushes
123. Why are alternator poles fabricated in laminated form?

A. Prevent build up of unwanted eddy currents
B. Prevent distortion due to temperature variation
C. For ease of manufacture
D. Makes adjustment of stator weight easier
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DPKP
124. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds
100 ° Celsius?
A. The insulation is likelyto be severely damaged
B. Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand more than 500 °Celsius
C. The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor
life span formula
D. The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of
humidity
125. What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated
distribution system?
A. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip
B. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth
C. The opposite line fuse will trip due overload
D. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips
126. What is the purpose of the cable gland in addition to providing a watertight seal?
A. To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable
B. To provide a gas tight seal
C. To allow minor sliding movements of the cable
D. As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement
127. What do wire size numbers indicate?(e.g. sizes 10,12 etc.)

A. Wire outside diameter in millimetres
B. Mre section in square millimetres
C. Progressive numbering in Amps
D. Retrogressive numbering in " AWG"
128. If a cable length 100m, dia.1.25 mm has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length
cable of same material with dia.0.75 mm has a resistance of 25 Ohm?
A. 25 metres
B. 30 metres
C. 15 metres
D. 20 metres
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DPKP
129. What is a Clamp meter used for?

A. To measure cable resistance
B. To measure current in a single cable
C. To measure cable voltage
D. To measure current in a three phase cable
130. Except when used as bus-bars, which conductor number (AWG), or larger should
always be stranded?
A. No12 AWG
B. No 10 AWG
C. No 6 AWG
D. No 8 AWG
131. Which of the following is not a requirement for the Navigation light distribution
board?
A. Location on the Bridge
B. Always supplied from batteries
C. Audible and visual lamp failure alarm
D. Double pole switch.
132. In a fluorescent lamp what is used to improve the power factor?

A. Capacitor
B. Thyristor
C. Mercury gas
D. Coil
133. In incandescent lights what is the filament constructed from?

A. Chromium
B. Tungsten
C. Nickel
D. Carbon
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DPKP
134. What is the danger of fitting too high wattage lamps in flameproof fittings?
A. Internal heat generated will damage the fitting
B. Increase in surface heat of fitting
C. Seal could be damaged by extra heat
D. Extra power could overload the cable
135. When two masthead lights are fitted what is the required relationship between
them?
A. Frd must be at least 2 metres higher than the aft.0
B. Both must be at the same leue1.0
C. Frd must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the aft.
D. Aft must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the frd.
136. What gases are present in the modern incandescent lamp?

A. Argon and Nitrogen
B. Neon and Nitrogen
C. Vacuum
D. Argon and neon
137. Why is a ballast resistor fitted in fluorescent lamps?

A. Stabilize current and power
B. Performs all of these functions
C. Pre heat the electrodes
D. Provide high starting voltage
138. In an incandescent lamp how much of the energy is converted to light?

A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 60%
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DPKP
139. In internal alleyways what is the light spacing regulation?

A. Lights spaced at 2 X alleyway height
B. Lights spaced at 1.5 X alleyway height
C. Lights spaced every 2.5 metres
D. Lights spaced every 2 metres
140. Which of the following is a requirement for the Navigation lighting Distribution
board?
A. Fuse located on the main switchboard
B. Alarm must sound in the engine room
C. Indicator lamps must be in series with the navigation light
D. An alternate supply must be available
141. What is the unit of lighting intensity?

A. Lambert
B. Angstrom
C. Lumen
D. candela
142. What is the purpose of the reverse power trip fitted to an AC alternator?
A. To prevent voltage drop
B. To prevent cycle fluctuation
C. To prevent the alternator being run as a motor
D. To protect the diesel engine in case of overload
143. Why must each voltage system have its own earth fault lamps?
A. To accurately locate the earth fault
B. To make tracing the earth easier
C. Earth faults are not transmitted through the transformers
D. In case of failure of one set
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DPKP
144. What is the purpose of the preference load tripping system?

A. Re-connect essential equipment after a blackout
B. Disconnect essential equipment before a short circuit can cause damage
C. To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload
D. To trip the generator before the overload damages the engine
145. What is most likely cause of an earth indication?

A. A switched off motor has developed a short circuit
B. A deck fitting has been affected by seawater
C. Emergency generator, which is on stand-by, has been C splashed with
seawater
D. Earth fault on the navigation lights
146. When both a fuse and breaker are used on one circuit, when will the fuse blow?
A. A very high short circuit current a
B. An earth fault
C. Continuous moderately high over-current
D. A break in the motor winding
147. What is the wire made from in an HRC fuse?

A. Silver
B. Tungsten
C. Platinum
D. Nickel
148. Why must a stationary generator not be connected to live bus-bars?

A. The alternator will be short-circuited
B. Because the alternator will attempt to run as a motor
C. The breaker will be damaged
D. The alternator already connected will come off the board
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DPKP
149. What is the purpose of thermistors fitted to motor windings?

A. Short circuit protection
B. Prevent high starting current
C. Prevent over-speeding
D. Protect from overheating
150. What will be the most likely equipment to be disconnected by the preferential
trip?
A. General Seruice pump
B. Galley
C. Seawater circulating pumps
D. Steering pumps
151. What prevents a stationary alternator from being connected to live bus-bars?
A. Reverse power trip
B. Low cycle trip
C. No volt trip
D.Overload trip
152. How will an earth fault be noticed in an insulated distribution system?

A. The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow
B. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow
C. The voltage will drop
D. The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance
153. In the formula e = B I ØSin . What does sin represent?

A. Instantaneous rotational velocity
B. Average rotational velocity
C. Maximum rotational velocity
D. Cycles/second
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154. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is
the line current?
A. 153.52 Amps
B. 127 Amps
C. 73.32 Amps
D. 219.97 Amps
155. The line-to-line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28 Amps. What
is the phase current?
A. 48.44 Amps
B. 22.72 Amps
C. 16.18 Amps
D. 18.00 Amps
156. What term describes the effective value of an alternating current?

A. RMS
B. Peak
C. Mean
D. Average
157. Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run in
parallel?
A. The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not
B. No common earth is available
C. Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA
D. Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship
158. In the formula e = B I ØSin. What does 'e' represent?

A. Instantaneous voltage
B. RMS voltage
C. Average voltage
D. Maximum voltage
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DPKP
159. For value 0 - max in the AC sin wave how far does the rotating vector (phasor)
travel?
A. 180 deg
B. 270 deg
C. 360 deg
D. 90 deg
160. In the AC sin wave what is periodic time?

A. Time for zero to max voltage
B. Cycles/second
C. Time for zero to zero voltage
D. Time for one complete cycle
161. What is the amplitude of the AC sin wave?

A. Phasor value
B. Cycle length
C. Cycles/second
D. Peak value
Volt. What is the phase voltage?
A. 220 Volt
B. 311.13 Volt
C. 440 Volt
D. 54.33 Volt
163. How does the RMS voltage compare to peak voltage?

A. 0.707 of peak value
B. 0.805 of peak value
C. 0.666 of peak value
D. 0.777 of peak value
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164. Which is true in a Star-connected 3-phase motor?

A. The line current is equal to the phase current
B. The phase voltage is higher than the line uoltage^
C. The phase current is higher than the line current
D. The line voltage is equal to the phase voltage
165. In a shunt generator the armature current is 100 Amps and the field current 5
Amps. What is the load current of the generator?
A. 95 Amps
B. 100 Amps
C. 105 Amps
D. 110 Amps
166. When a DC generator is short circuited, how is the output voltage affected?
A. Increases to max
B. Falls to zero
C. Remains constant
D. Drops slightly
167. What units is the output of DC generators rated in?

A. HP
B. KW
C. KVA
D. KwA
168. Why are interpoles fitted to DC generators?

A. To counter field distortion
B. To prevent shaft magnetism
C. To prevent burning of the brushes
D. To enable the same size generator to carry more load
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DPKP
169. DC generator is short circuited, what limits the short circuit current
A. There is no iirnit
B. The generator's internal resistance (ER)
C. When the cables start melting
D. The mechanical size of the switch
170. In a series wound generator what is the connection between field and armature
currents?
A. Parallel connection
B. No connection
C. Shunt connected
D. Series connected
171. If the insulation fails on a major distribution cable, which alternator breaker trip
will operate?
A. The high/low frequency trip
B. The overload trip
C. The reverse current trip
D. The short circuit protection
172. Which area of the DC generator requires the most maintenance?

A. Bearings
B. Switchboard breaker
C. Commutator and brushes
D. Main field windings
173. The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by:

A. A tripped bus circuit breaker
B. Failure of the exciter generator
C. The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated
D. Excessive prime mover speed
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DPKP
174. How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a three-phase
alternator?
A. Two
B. Six
C. Three
D. Four
175. What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of an alternator?
A. Cooled down to ambient temperature
B. Cooled down to hand-warm
C. Hot after stopping
D. Running
176. What danger is associated with excess shaft magnetism?

A. Arcing at commutator
B. Failure of the generator to self excite
C. Insulation breakdown
D.Damage to bearing surfaces
177. In DC generators what effect can be caused by 'armature reaction'?

A. Arcing at the brushes
B. Breakdown of the mica insulation
C. Voltage variation
D. Inability of the generator to carryfull load
178. The commutator of a DC generator is examined and is found to have a smooth

appearance and a dark chocolate colour. What action would you take?
A. Clean the commutator with emery cloth until the colour changes to clean
metal
B. Change the brush springs
C. None
D. Change the brushes
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DPKP
179. Why are Arc chutes fitted in circuit breakers?

A. To extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation
B. To isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over
C. To control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc
D. To confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling
180. In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil?
A. To smother the arc
B. Acts as insulation
C. All of these.
D. To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc
181. The governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety
device will trip the main breaker ?
A. The under voltage trip
B. The reverse current trip
C. The overload trip
D. The highilow frequency trip
182. What problem can arise from auto starting electric equipment?
A. Overload the generator prime mover
B. Trip preferential trips
C. Trip reverse power trip
D. Over speeds the generator prime mover
183. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water or oils, what
corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again?
A. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
B. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80° C and change bearings
C. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp
D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
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DPKP
184. How is the direction of a three-phase induction motor reversed?

A. Change the capacitor connection to another line
B. Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals
C. Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST
D. Reverse the polarity of the armature
185. What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of a motor or
alternator?
A. Running
B. Cooled down to hand-warm
C. Hot after stopping
D. Cooled down to ambient temperature
186. What method should be used for achieving 'reduced voltage starting' for large AC
motors?
A. Line resistance starter
B. Any of the given options
C. Star-Delta motor starter
D. Auto transformer
187. The maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type?
A. 55 degree C
B. I80 degree C
C. 45 degree C
D. 105 degree C
188. What is the result if a motor is run at a frequency higher than its designed
operating frequency
A. It will run faster and overspeed
B. It will run slower with too high a current
C. It will run slower and at too high a voltage
D. It will run faster and be overloaded
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DPKP
189. An unidentified feeder supplies three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and
52 Amps each. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder in "AMPACITY "?
A. 120 Amps
B. 235 Amps
C. 350 Amps
D. 175 Amps
190. In an emergency, what would be the lowest acceptable insulation resistance

readings?
A. 0.5 Meg Ohm
B. 5.0 Meg Ohm
C. 1.0 Meg Ohm
D. 10.0 Meg Ohm
191. A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance
is 0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault?
A. 20 Amps
B. 2400 Amps
C. 240 Amps
D. 0 Amps
192. Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and
insulation test?
A. Megger test each phase to phase separately
B. All of these.
C. Megger test each phase separately to earth
D. Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase
193. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
A. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
B. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
C. By carrying out a Megger test
D. By carrying out a Phase balance test
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DPKP
194. How many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the
large starting current?
A. 5 - 7 times
B. 3 - 5 times
C. 7 - 9 times
D. 2 - 3 times
195. How much higher than full load current is motor starting current when starting
direct on-line?
A. 12 to 15 times
B. 9 to 12 times
C. 5 to 7 times
D. 2 to 3 times
A. By carrying out a Megger test
B. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
C. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
197. What could cause sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor?
A. Wrong types of brushes
B. Any of the other options
C. The strength of the field
D. Current overload
198. What can cause etched or burned bands on the contact faces of brushes in a DC
motor?
A. High mica segments
B. Copper drag on the commutator
C. Brushes improperly positioned
D. Copper embedded in the brushes
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DPKP
199. What units measure counter electromotive force or back EMF?

A. Volts
B. Ohms
C. Ampere
D. Farads
200. Which of the following groups of motors are all DC motors?

A. Shunt, series and compound
B. Induction and synchronous
C. Synchronous and compound
D. Series and induction
201. A DC series motor is used to operate a pump driven with a belt, what happens if
the belt breaks?
A. The motor will continue to run at its original speed
B. The motor will stop
C. The motor will slow down
D. The motor will over speed and run out of control
202. Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do?
A. Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be
started
B. Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor
C. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor
D. All of these.
203. How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system?

B. The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage
C. The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance
D. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow
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DPKP
204. When using a Megger Tester to test equipment rated 440 Volt, what test voltage
should you ensure that the Instrument indicates?
A. 250 volts
B. 1000 volts
C. 750 volts
D. 500 volts
205. What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCB' S circuit
breakers?
A. 5 - 8 Megohm
B. 4 - 6 Megohm
C. 1 - 3 Megohm
D. 7 - 10 Megohm
206. What may happen if a Megger tester is used to measure the insulation in a circuit
containing electronic components?
A. The wrong internal resistance maybe shown
B. The Megger may give an indication on how much current the circuit will
consume
C. The connections between components will show a high r. insulation value
D. The components in the circuit may be destroyed
207. When would you undertake resistance tests on an AC motor?

A. 'Menthe motor has been warmed up 5°C above normal operating temperature
B. When the motor has been carefully cleaned
C. When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature
D. When the motor has cooled down after use
208. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water what corrective
action should you take to make the motor operational again?
A. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80°C and change bearings
B. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp
C. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
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DPKP
209. Why hould an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible?
A. There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull
B. It may damage the monitoring instruments
C. A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow
D. The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be withdrawn
210. How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator
preference system is working?
A. By lowering the alternator voltage
B. By raising the generator frequency
C. By lowering the generator frequency
D. By raising the alternator voltage
A. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
B. By carrying out a Megger test
C. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
212. What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter?

A. Between 200 and 500 Volts
B. Between 400 and 500 Volts
C. Between 200 and 300 Volts
D. Between 500 and 800 Volts
213. Nhat will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated
distribution system?
A. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips
B. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth
C. The opposite line fuse will trip due to overload
D. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip
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DPKP
214. Which conductor would produce the greatest inductance?

A. Plain coiled
B. Coiled multi strand
C. Coiled with copper core
D. Coiled with iron core
215. In a non-reactive circuit which statement applies?

A. Impedance is equal to resistance
B. Impedance is greater than resistance
C. Impedance is less than resistance
D. Impedance is zero
216. What is the unit for inductance?

A. Weber
B. Farad
C. Henry
D. Coulomb
217. What produces an induced E.M.F.?

A. Change in vottage.
B. Change in current.
C. Change in resistance.
D. Change in flux linkage.
218. What is impedance?

A. Induction of an electrical circuit
B. Resistance provided by the cable in an electrical circuit
C. Total resistance in an electrical circuit
D. Induced E.M.F. of a circuit
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DPKP
219. Which statement is true for induced E.M.F.?

A. Is a function of resistance
B. Always assists change in current
C. Always resists change in current
D. Always equal to the current
220. In a purely resistive circuit what is the phase difference between vottage and
current?
A. 180 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 0 degrees
D. 45 degrees
221. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as?

A. RMS voltage
B. Power factor
C. Angle of phase difference
D. Circuit inductance
222. On an electrical drawing what symbol represents impedance?

A. Z
B. I
C. R
D. L
223. What units is impedance expressed in?

A. Weber
B. Ohm
C. Farad
D. Henry
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DPKP
224. nduced E.M.F. is out of phase with current by what degree?

A. 60 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 0 degrees
225. On an electrical drawing what symbol represents Inductance?

A. F
B. L
C. R
D. I
226. If the outlet temperature “Tout" is kept constant at 65 degrees C and during
normal sea speed the inlet temperature “Tin” is 62 degree C, what would 'Tin"
show during engine slow down ?
A. Inlet temperature “Tin" will fluctuate

B. Inlet temperature "Tin" will decrease
C. Inlet temperature "Tin" will be kept constant by controller
D. Inlet temperature "Tin" will increase
1256
DPKP
227. What kind of temperature control system is fitted in this lubrication oil system ?
A. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet

B. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet
C. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet
D. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet
228. What is the component marked “W” ?
A. A WAX by-pass temperature controller

B. A water strainer
C. A manual 3-way water by-pass valve
D. A water by-pass buffer
1257
DPKP
229. For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control
is used ?
A. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet

B. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet
C. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet
D. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet
230. What part of a pneumatic control system is this ?
A. A differentiator assembly
B. An amplifier
C. An integrator assembly
D. A nozzle/flapper assembly
1258
DPKP
231. In this nozzle/flapper assembly (part of a pneumatic control system) at what

distance away from the nozzle oes the flapper need to be mooed in order not to
have any influence on the HEW (nozzle back pressure) ?
A. h = 0.25 D
B. h=D
C. h = 0.4 D
D. h = 0.5 D
232. What is the meaning of the pressure indicated by NBP on this nozzle/flapper
assembly ?
A. Nozzle Balance Pressure

B. Nominal Balance Pressure
C. Normal Basic Pressure
D. Nozzle Back Pressure
233. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning or erratic functioning of a
pneumatic nozzle/Flapper ) assembly ?
A. Oil or moisture in the back pressure line (NBP)

B. The flapper is broken or distorted
C. Dirty air passages of restrictor and nozzle
D. The nozzle is worn out
1259
DPKP
234. If the flapper is pushed against the nozzle so that h = 0, what will the reading of
NBP become ?
A. 3 psi
B. 0 psi
C. 20 psi
D. 15 psi
235. This characteristic shows that only linear part a-b can be used. This means that
the normal effective travel the flapper is only …… for the full measuring range.
A. 0.05 mm
B. mm
C. 0.10 mm
D. 0.005 mm
1260
DPKP
236. As we can use only the linear part of the characteristic, this shows that the flapper
can only travel 0.01 mm, therefore DELTA psi obtained can only be less than 1
psi. Can we use the flapper nozzle system ?
A. Yes, but the readings obtained between DELTA psi need to be amplified
B. No , the flapper system will gives erratic readings
C. No, the nozzle/flapper assembly needs modification
D. Yes, but the valves need a servo booster
237. The proportional linear signal for a pneumatic nozzle/flapper assembly is only
less than 1 psi for 0.01 mm flapper travel. How do we make use of this signal ?
A. By using a regulator on the servo of the pneumatic valve

B. By sending it to a Pneumatic Amplifier
C. By changing the diameter of the Pneumatic valve actuator
D. By sending the signal to another flapper/nozzle
1261
DPKP
238. What pneumatic control device is shown here ?
A. A pneumatic controller
B. A pneumatic amplifier
C. A pneumatic flapper / nozzle assembly
D. A pneumatic booster aggregate
239. On which part of the Pneumatic Amplifier is the nozzle back pressure of the
nozzles / flapper (NBP) acting ?
A. On spring S
B. On valve V
C. On ball valve B
D. On membrane M
1262
DPKP
240. By what parts is the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic transmitter directly
controlled ?
A. spring tension in S
B. By the restriction R
C. By the stand of the valves V and B
D. By slight fluctuation of supply pressure
241. What is the function of ball value B in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this
pneumatic amplifier?
A. To counteract the pressure on the membrane M , decrease Pu

B. To push the atmospheric vent close, increase Pu
C. To push the membrane back in place after each movement
D. Opening port of 20 psi supply air access
1263
DPKP
242. What is the function of value V in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this
pneumatic amplifier?
A. To allow venting of pressure Pu to the atmosphere

B. To push spring S open via the ball B
C. To allow stabilising feedback pressure on the membrane
D. To transmit the pressure Pu to the membrane
243. What would be the result if after period of time the tension of spring S should
weaken on this pneumatic amplifier ?
A. It would increase the output pressure Pu

B. It will not have any effect
C. It would decrease the output pressure Pu
D. It will destabilise the amplifier
1264
DPKP
244. These characteristics show Pu in relation to flapper distance and LISP of a

pneumatic nozzle
flapper and transmitter; thus with the smallest distance movements it fluctuates
sharply. What is the result and the remedy ?
A. Unsteady operation .Springs are to be fitted on all moving parts

B. Tendency to open. Fit elongated flappers in output
C. Unsteady operation. Bellows are to be fitted in pneumatic lines.
D. Tendency to close. Fit by pass nozzle to amplifier
245. This an actual lay-out drawing of a pneumaticblock. Where is the 20 psi supply
air admitted ?
A. At air passage item 15

B. At air passage item 13
C. At air passage item 12
D. At air passage item 14
1265
DPKP
246. Where is the output pressure Pu taken from this pneumatic amplifier shown here
?
A. Air passage 15
B. Air passage 13
C. Air passage 14
D. Air passage 12
247. Via which air passage is the nozzle back pressure from the nozzle/Flapper
admitted for this pneumatic amplifier ?
A. Air passage 14
B. Air passage 15
C. Air passage 13
D. Air passage 12
1266
DPKP
248. Which is the exhaust or air vent port to the atmosphere shown on this pneumatic
transmitter?
A. Air passage 13
B. Air passage 14
C. Air passage 12
D. Air passage 15
249. What is item No 3 shown of this pneumatic amplifier?
A. Nozzle flappers
B. Blade (feather) springs to load the ball and the vent valve
C. Ball valve securing blades
D. Retaining plates for the ball valve
1267
DPKP
250. Flow can the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier be initially adjusted
?
A. By screw item 10
B. By screw item 1
C. By screw item 11
D. By screw item 4
251. Which important pneumatic control accessory is shown here ?
A. A transmitter
B. An nozzle /flapper assembly
C. A pressure regulator
D. An amplifier
1268
DPKP
252. What is part No 4 shown in this drawing of a pneumatic amplifier ?
A. The output air compartment

B. The air supply compartment
C. The exhaust or vent compartment
D. The nozzle back pressure supply compartment
253. For what purpose is spring ball adjustment screw item No 2 fitted on the spring
blade of this pneumatic amplifier ?
A. To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially

B. To control the rate of amplification response
C. To control the nozzle back pressure
D. To adjust the valve stem distance
1269
DPKP
254. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning of a pneumatic amplifier ?
A. Diaphragma No 7 bursts
B. Valve stem No 6 defective
C. Internal passages blocked by oil mixed with dirt.
D. Gasket No 8 blown
255. This shows a pneumatic control unit which forms the basis of pneumatic control
engineering. It is.........
A. a pneumatic transmitter assembly

B. a totaliser or summator unit
C. a nozzle/flapper assembly with amplifier
D. a pneumatic basic controller unit
1270
DPKP
256. These small pneumatic pipes are connected to the different parts of pneumatic
system so they can be easily dismantled, using ............ ?
A. clamps with bellow packing

B. plugs and O-rings
C. sleeves and copper gaskets
D. retainer springs and silicon
257. Which part shown here is the nozzle in this pneumatic assembly ?
A. Part No 2
B. Part No 4
C. Part No 3
D. Part No 5
1271
DPKP
258. What will be the existing pneumatic pressure in connecting pipe item 110 6 from
flapper nozzle assembly to the pneumatic amplifier ?
A. Between 0 and 20 psi

B. 20 psi
C. Between 3 and 15 psi
D. Between 2 and 2.75 psi
259. Pneumatic instruments have an air filter fitted so that any impurity present is
removed. Where is this filter fitted ?
A. In the base of the amplifier, filter plug No 4

B. In air connecting line, plug No 5
C. In front of the nozzle item No 2
D. In the main supply line to each individual instrument
1272
DPKP
260. What is the output pressure of this pneumatic amplifier ?
A. 15 to 25 psi
B. 7 to 15 psi
C. 3 to 20 psi
D. 3 to 15 psi
261. What is the amplification factor (K) of a pneumatic amplifier
A. K=4
B. K = 12
C. K = 16
D. K = 20
1273
DPKP
262. What important periodical maintenance checks are required on nozzle/flapper

assemblies of pneumatic instruments ?
A. Exchange packings on the nozzle and flapper

B. Exchange of nozzle and flapper
C. Cleaning of the nozzle and the flapper
D. Redrilling of the nozzle
263. What is the correct name of item No 2 shown here ?
A. Flapper nozzle
B. Connecting plug
C. Filter plug
D. Restrictor nozzle
1274
DPKP
264. What pneumatic device is shown here ?
A. A feedback controller
B. A feedback amplifier
C. A proportional controller
D. A proportional transmitter
265. What is the name of the bellow P, which indicates its purpose ?
A. Equalising bellow
B. Lifting bellow
C. Feedback bellow
D. Absorbing bellow
1275
DPKP
266. If the length of "a" is equal to the length of "b" what will be the proportional
band "PB" of this pneumatic controller ?
A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 25%
267. With what part is the degree of feedback controlled on this pneumatic
Proportional Controller ?
E. By lengths of arms "a" and 'b" (shifting of amplifier)
F. By "desired valve" input
G. By the spring tension
H. By the bellow
268. If Q1 is the filling volume of the tank and Q2 the outflow volume of the tank and
the level L is constant by controller output pressure Pu = 9 psi, the valve V2 will
be open for ...
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 75%
1276
DPKP
269. I the input flow Q1 increases to Q1' and level L increases to L' what will initially
happen ?
A. The amplifier will increase its air output pressurising bellow P

B. The output pressure Pu will increase proportionally to L'
C. The proportional band PB will change
D. The amplification factor K will change
270. What do you call the pneumatic mode of operating of the pneumatic controlled
valve V2 ?
A. Positive activation
B. Negative activation
C. Air to Close
D. Air to Open
1277
DPKP
271. If we shift the nozzle / flapper assembly to the left so that the length of "a" is half
of length "b", to what level will L' rise before it stabilizes ?
A. Half the height from Level L

B. Four times the height from level L
C. Twice the height from level L
D. 1/4th the height from level L
272. What is the level difference between L and L' called in this process ?
A. The offset
B. The range
C. The amplification
D. The span
1278
DPKP
273. This characteristic shows the output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If
PB = 100 % is the graph shown in "a". What is the graph of PB = 50 % ?
A. Graph b
B. Graph d
C. Graph e
D. Graph f
274. This characteristic shows output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If P8
= 100 % is the graph shown in "a ". What is the amplification factor and the
proportional band represented by graph "I" ?
A. Amplification 0, Proportional Band infinitive

B. Amplification 50 %, Proportional Band 100 %
C. Amplification infinitive, Proportional band 0
D. Proportional band 50 %, amplification 100 %
1279
DPKP
275. Graph "d" of this characteristic showing output pressure Pu of a controller

effecting valve lift, represents ZERO proportional band over INFINITIVE
amplification. How does the system works ?
A. It works with intolerable offsets

B. It works with maximum range offsets
C. It does not regulate the level at all
D. It works FULL OPEN/FULL CLOSE, unsteady, offset NIL
276. If the pressures in the MV and the SV bellows are equal, what will be the output
pressure Pu of this pneumatic P-controller ?
A. 9 psi
B. 6 psi
C. 12 psi
D. 3 psi
1280
DPKP
277. If the measured value bellow is connected to the output of the jacket CW
temperature transmitter and thePu of the controller is 9 psi, and we reduce the
temperature setting from 75 to 72 degree C what happens tosigj the Pu ?
A. It will increase above 9 psi

B. It will increase to 20 psi
C. It will decrease to 0 psi
D. It will decrease below 9 psi
278. Between which values (expressed in psi) can setting of the Su (set value or
desired value) bellow of this pneumatic P controller be affected?
A. Between 0 and 15 psi

B. Between 0 and 20 psi
C. Between 2 and 2.75 psi
D. Between 3 and 15 psi
1281
DPKP
279. Suppose the variation of INPUT is 1 psi down instead of 1 psi up on this
pneumatic P-Controller. If the proportional band PB is 25 % what will be the
output pressure ?
A. 2 psi
B. 3 psi
C. 6 psi
D. 0 psi
280. Suppose the INPUT of the pneumatic controller is 4 psi and the PB is 25 %. If
variation on the input is 1psi down, what is the variation on the output expressed
in psi ?
A. 2 psi
B. 1 psi
C. 6 psi
D. 4 psi
1282
DPKP
281. What would be the variation of output on this pneumatic controller if

Proportional B and PB = infinity, by varying the input as shown here ?
A. Infinity, full open, full close control system

B. No response, nil
C. 1 psi
D. Between 3 and 15 psi
282. Suppose the Proportional Band of this pneumatic controller is increased to 500 %
and the input variation remains the same. What would be the output variation ?
A. 5 psi
B. 0.5 psi
C. 0.2 psi
D. 1 psi
1283
DPKP
283. This characteristic shows output pressure of a pneumatic controller controlling

water level. The level is fluctuating. What is wrong with the setting of the
controller.?
A. The amplification is too small

B. The range is too large
C. The proportional band is too small
D. The span is too narrow
284. Something is wrong with the controller setting of this water level control system.
Suppose the Proportional and is 12.5 %, to what value would you reset it ?
A. 500%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 20%
1284
DPKP
285. In this electrical amplifier drawing, what takes the place of the flapper/nozzle
unit used by the pneumatic control unit with amplifier ?
A. R2
B. U2
C. U1
D. R1
286. What takes the place of the 20 psi input used by pneumatic nozzle/flapper units
in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?
A. Resistance R2
B. Voltage U1
C. Voltage U2
D. Resistance R1
1285
DPKP
287. What takes the place of the output pressure of the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit
in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?
A. Voltage U2
B. Voltage U1
C. Resistor R2
D. Resistor R1
288. What control equipment drawing is shown here ?
A. An electric pressure transmitter system

B. An electric P-controller
C. An electric differentiating amplifier
D. An electric temperature measurement scanner
289. The working pressures used by pneumatic control components are between 3 and
15 psi. What are the equivalent currents used by electric control equipment ?
A. Between 0 and 5 or 3 and 9 mA
B. Between 0 and 20 mA or 4 and 20 mA
C. Between 20 and 60 mA or 25 and 75 mA
D. Between 10 and 50 mA or 15 and 50 mA
1286
DPKP
290. What does a thick articulated line represent in automation schematic diagrams ?
(the top articulated line shown here)
A. A measuring line
B. A process line
C. An instrument line
D. A steering line
291. What does a broken or dotted line represent in automation schematic diagrams ?
(the second line from top shown here)
A. A pneumatic line
B. A steering line
D. A measuring line
1287
DPKP
292. What does a non-articulated full line indicate in an automation schematic

drawing ? (the third line from top shown here)
A. A pneumatic steering line

B. An electric steering line
D. A measuring line
293. What does the symbol drawn on the fourth line form the top (a blank circle)
indicate in an automation schematic diagram ?
A. A controller
B. An indicator
C. A transmitter
D. An instrument
1288
DPKP
294. What does the symbol shown on the fifth line from the top (a circle with a
horizontal line through it of the drawing indicated an automation schematic
diagram ?
A. An electronic instrument
B. An instrument fitted in a central panel
C. An instrument fitted in the main control console
D. A pneumatic instrument
295. What do the letters "PT" shown in this instrument symbol (drawn on the bottom
line) indicate if found in an automation schematic drawing
A. First letter: Measuring, Second letter: Steering

B. First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Controlling
C. First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Working function
D. First letter: Measuring function, Second letter: Working function
1289
DPKP
296. As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be

fitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top right drawing ?
A. A thermometer
B. A temperature transmitter
C. A temperature controller
D. A manometer
297. As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might

befitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top centre drawing ?
A. A limit control swicth

B. A line capacitor
C. A level controller
D. A Low Pressure cut-out
1290
DPKP
298. What kind of valve is valve A, shown in the left bottom ?
A. A spring loaded solenoid valve, activation to close

B. An hydraulic control valve, pressure to open
C. An electric motor driven control valve
D. A pneumatic control valve, air to close
299. What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System shown here ?
For No. 74
A. Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve

B. Temperature controller, indicator, pneumatic control valve
C. Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve
D. Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve
1291
DPKP
300. Which are the parameters that steer the level control automatic system of the
boiler shown here?
A. Feed valve and feed by-pass valve

B. The level controller
C. Water level and steam consumption
D. The level transmitter
301. The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-pass values are...........
A. electronic controlled values working in tandem

B. pneumatic controlled values working in opposition.
C. electronic controlled values working in opposition.
D. pneumatic controlled values working in reverse.
1292
DPKP
302. This drawing shows a simple mechanical controller controlling the water level in
the tank. Level "L" is the DESIRED water level in the tank, in automation this is
called the .....
A. set point.
B. set level.
C. measured value.
D. proportional point.
303. Suppose that in the system drawn the water inflow Q1 increases so that the float
is pushed up by the water to level L'. The value of level L' is called the ......
A. increased value.
B. actual value.
C. level value.
D. measured value.
1293
DPKP
304. The difference between the desired value (level L) and the measured value (level
L') is called.........
A. the differential value.

B. the inclination.
C. the measuring fault.
D. the offset.
305. Here 'S' is the support point in the middle of pivoting arm 'AB'. For a given
increase in water level the valve is opened by the same distance, therefore the
amplification is 1. What will happen if b = 2 x a ?
A. The water will drop twice as fast in the tank

B. The valve will open twice the distance of the increased level
C. The amplification is increased by 50 %
D. The process will not longer working
1294
DPKP
306. In the top integrator drawing the bellows fill with air through the Restrictor
Valve 'R'. In the electrical equivalent ......
A. the capacitor takes the place of the bellow.

B. the current increases over time.
C. the Voltage U2 represent the equivalent of the input air.
D. the capacitor allows Voltage built up over the resistor.
307. In these integrator circuits the air flow through the restrictor and the current
through the resistance.........
A. remains constant
B. is negative
C. decreases with time
D. increases with time.
308. What is the difference in function between these electrical and the pneumatic
integrators ?
A. The pneumatic integrator is slower
B. They work in opposite directions
C. The electric integrator is slower
D. None
1295
DPKP
309. The characteristics shown here indicate a ramp input on the left together with the
corresponding output the right of....
E. A a pure integrator
F. B a pure differentiator
G. C a proportional integrating controller
H. D a proportional controller
310. Explain the function of a capacitor that loads up compared with a bellow that fills
up with air ?
A. They have both the same function

B. The capacitor is a differentiator, the bellow is an integrator
C. They perform opposite functions
D. The capacitor is an integrator, the bellow is a differentiator
1296
DPKP
311. This drawing shows which kind of pneumatic controller ?
A. A proportional controller
B. A proportional integrating-differential controller
C. A proportional differentiating controller
D. A proportional integrating controller
312. These graphs are, left, the step input and, right, the output response of a
controller. What characteristics are shown ?
A. The controller response output characteristics

B. The PI characteristics
C. The integrator characteristics
D. The integrator differential characteristics
1297
DPKP
313. For which type of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ?
A. A pressure indicating controller

B. A pneumatic indicating controller
C. A proportional integrating controller
D. A PI differentiating controller
314. The measuring signal obtained to carry out flow measuring is a Differential
pressure signal. This is obtained by a certain medium flowing through a...........
A. oriface plate
B. a right-angled nozzle system
C. nozzle system
D. capillary tube
1298
DPKP
315. Since the output of the pressure transmitter is not linear with the flow in the pipe
as measured over the wring flange the output signal should be sent to a................
A. root extractor.
B. equaliser.
C. summator.
D. balancing valve.
316. To which channel is the nitrogen-filled thermal bellow in this pneumatic

temperature transmitter fitted ?
A. Channel 10
B. Channel 5
C. Bellow 8
D. Channel 8
317. What is item Ho.; of this pneumatic temperature transmitter ?
A. The range control setting

B. The equaliser block
C. The pneumatic amplifier
D. The compensator
1299
DPKP
318. Which is the fitter of the instrument on this transmitter part drawing ?
A. Item No 3
B. Item no 2
C. Item No 4
D. Item No 1
319. On this pneumatic transmitter part drawing, which part is amplifying the signal ?
A. Part No 2
B. Part No 4
C. Part No 3
D. Part No 1
1300
DPKP
320. What is part 110 11 on this transmitter drawing ?
A. The feedback bellow

B. The balance arm tensioner
C. The transmitter bellow
D. The regulating bellow
321. Which part adjusts the proportional band of this pneumatic transmitter ?
A. Part No 9
B. Part No 7
C. Part No 8
D. Part No 10
1301
DPKP
322. On which part of this pneumatic transmitter does the pressure of the process
(steam,oil,water) act ?
A. Item No 1
B. Item No 3
C. Item No 2
D. Item No 4
323. The span of this pneumatic transmitter is set by adjusting or tensioning.......
A. part No 10.
B. part No 9.
C. part No 15.
D. part No 11.
324. From this drawing of a pneumatic pressure transmitter, what is the Proportional
Band setting ?
A. Proportional Band more than 100 %, amplification K less than 1
B. Proportional Band less than 100 %, amplification K more than 1
C. Proportional Band = 100 %, amplification K = 1
D. Proportional Band 0%, amplification infinitive
1302
DPKP
325. For which type of controller are these the input (left) and the response (right)
characteristics ?
A. A pneumatic integrator
B. A pressure integrating controller
C. A pneumatic inverter
D. A proportional integrating controller
326. In this drawing, the triangle marked "A" represents.......
A. an ampere-differential transmitter
B. a current converter
C. an operational amplifier
D. an analog converter
1303
DPKP
327. Which resistor determines the proportional band on this electronic proportional
integrating controller ?
A. R2
B. Rf
C. R1
D. R3
328. Fitting a restriction RI in the supply to the proportional feedback of this PID
controller ensures that for an initial small variation on the input, the initial
response on the output will be .....
A. proportional
B. zero
C. very weak
D. strong
1304
DPKP
329. For which control instrument are these the input (left) and the output or response
(right) characteristics ?
A. A pressure controlling data register

B. A pneumatic differentiating controller
C. A pressure differentiator
D. A proportional differentiating controller
330. For this PID controller to act only as a P (proportional) controller, what should be
the arrangement of restricting values R1 and R2 ?
A. R1 fully open, R2 fully open

B. R1 closed, R2 fully open
C. R1 closed, R2 closed
D. R1 fully open, R2 closed
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331. which kind of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ?
A. A proportional indicating differentiator

B. A proportional integrating-differentiating controller
C. A pressure indicating controller
D. A pneumatic differential summator
332. In the output characteristics (right) of this controller, which response lines are
clearly shown ?
A. The proportional, integration and differentiation

B. The proportional, variation and integration
C. The output, variation and differentiation
D. The proportional output, offset and integration
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333. How is the differentiating action of this PID controller obtained ?
A. By C and RL
B. By C and RL
C. By C and R3
D. By C and R2
334. Where would you find this instrument on board a ship ?
A. Near the Fuel, oil or water piping

B. In the Boiler Control Panel
C. In the Engine Control Room
D. In the Manoeuvring Remote Panel
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335. How is the zero setting of this temperature transmitter adjusted ?
A. By calibration of items 1, 2 and 3

B. By item No 3
C. By item No 2
D. By item No 1
336. How is the range of this instrument adjusted ?
A. With item No 3
B. With item No 2
C. With item No 1
D. With items 1, 2 and 3.
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337. This is a.....
A. temperature calibration system.

B. Wheatstone bridge.
C. temperature compensation system.
D. rectifier bridge.
338. The three conductor system used by Wheatstone Bridge lay-outs is intended to
provide........
A. balancing of the bridge by very high or very low temperatures.

B. conversion of an electrical signal into a pneumatic signal.
C. compensation for changing conductor resistance by
changing temperature.
D. zero setting at all times by variable resistances to be measured.
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339. The function of this measuring system is to..........
A. convert a digital signal into a pressure.

B. convert Field Effect Transistor readings into a temperature reading.
C. convert Wheatstone Bridge readings into remote pressure readings.
D. convert an electric temperature measurement into a pneumatic signal.
340. The resistance characteristic of Platinum is linear. The resistance characteristic of

Nickel is non-linear. How can the characteristic of Nickel be made linear ?
A. By fitting a compensation cable

B. By fitting another resistance in parallel
C. By using a three-wire system Wheatstone Bridge
D. By fitting another resistance in series
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341. Item No 2 of this Wheatstone Bridge is ..........
A. the thermal resistance fed by the output of amplifier A

B. the field balance indicating field wire of amplifier output
C. the field wire fed by amplifier A
D. the feed-back coil fed by amplifier
342. The potential of this thermocouple bridge is zero if all connections are kept at the
same temperature. Why is the indication of the potentiometer zero ?
A. Because of the copper (Cu) calibration wiring connected to C and D.

B. Because A and B couples are opposed.
C. Because the connections in A and B and in C and D are opposed
D. Because of the second balancing couple B.
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343. Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and
have as characteristics that............
A. between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple

exists.
B. the current is calibrated by a compensation system.
C. thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) are
compensated for.
D. minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated n for by a
regulator/compensator.
344. Control valves in a controlled process can be either pneumatic, electrically or

hydraulically operated. What of medium is used to control this valve ? When is it
used ?
A. Pneumatic, when an accurate valve response is required

B. Hydraulic, when a big force or torque is required
C. Pneumatic, when a big force or torque is required
D. Hydraulic, when an accurate valve response is required.
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345. The two valves shown on the left of this picture are called flat valves and give a
high throughput for a small lift in height. They are mostly used for.......
A. self correcting flow valve, by changing pressures in the system the

throughput the same.
B. a stop (zero flow) valve.
C. open - close regulation.
D. process stability, for a certain percentage in lift changes the throughput by
the same percentage.
346. The two valves shown in the centre of the drawing are.....
A. pear shaped valves

B. flat top valves
C. egui-percentage valves
D. linear valves
347. The two valves shown at the right of the picture are .........type valves.
A. linear
B. egui-percentage
C. flat shaped
D. stop flow
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348. The two valves on the left of this picture are ......, the two valves on the right are
...... valves.
A. flat top, linear

B. linear, curved
C. linear, equi-percentage
D. pear shaped, equi-percentage
349. The operating function of the valve on which this pneumatic valve motor is fitted
will be ......
A. air to open (bottom connection).

B. pressure to open (positive manometer reading).
C. vacuum to open (negative manometer reading).
D. air to close (top connection).
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350. This automatic control system shows one temperature controller steering two
value motors (fitted in different process components) by using different working
ranges. This is called ...... control.
A. feedback
B. separated range
C. diverted
D. split range
351. The valve positioner acts on the principle of the balance of forces. The tension of
part ..... ( .......) is to be inbalance with the force of the controller pressure
which acts on part....... (........).
A. 9 (spring), 18 (membrane)
B. 4 (relays), 12 (membrane)
C. 9 (spring), 11 (supply valve)
D. 12 (membrane), 6 (feedback lever)
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352. Why does the output (instrument supply) pressure of a reducer fluctuate ?
A. Because the movement of the membrane follows the input pressure

B. Because of the variation of the output capacity
C. Because of the characteristic of the spring
D. Because of the variation on the output pressure
353. A pressure reducing value works according to the principle of balance of forces,
in this case theforce P2 acting on the membrane is in balance with the force of
the.......
A. the ball valve

B. inlet pressure P1
C. the membrane spring
D. the ball value spring
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DPKP
354. The manometer with scale indication shown here is fitted in the .....line of a
controller or valve positioner which supplies a pneumatic valve motor with
"Pressure to......" function.
A. input, "Close"
B. output, "Open "
C. input, " Open "
D. supply, " Close "
355. This is the drawing of a Machinery Monitoring and Alarm System. What is the
heart and brain of this Scanning Unit ?
A. The LSU's
B. The CPU
C. The MAD
D. The LAD'S
356. Which port of this machinery scanning system collects the incoming data from
instruments and transducers ?
A. The CPU
B. The TWM
C. The LSU'e
D. The MAD
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357. If the engine room is in UMS mode and one of the measuring points collected by
a LSU and fed into the CPU exceeds its preset value parameter, the CPU
will.........
A. activate the LAD in operation and
its visible and audible alarm will set
off.
B. activate the MAD (main Alarm
Display) and Visible and alarms will
be activated.
C. activate the TWM (Type Writer
Monitor) and print out the obtained
error value, measuring point number
and time.
D. activates all of these.
358. The LSU's (Local Scanning Units) have to measure temperature, pressure, flow,
level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit and salinity and do so via analog and
digital tranducers. What is a digital transducer ?
A. A digital transducer gives a continue signal , example 0 - 100 mV

B. A Digital Transducer gives a direct "on " or "off "signal and involve logic
transducers
C. A digital transducer works on AC voltage
D. A digital transducer is an electronic instrument opposed to an Analog
tranducer which is pneumatic operated 3 to 15 psi
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359. The latest obtained system values are fed into the computer and compared with
previous ones. The analysis obtained before has to be compared with the latest
analysis. This is called......
A. wear down and maintenance scheduling.

B. trend analysis and maintenance prediction.
C. material fatigue and maintenance scheduling.
D. wear down and breakdown prediction.
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360. If a fault occurs in this power supply system, the best and fastest way to locate
this fault is by...........
A. checking supply volts, fuses then the Trouble Shooting Chart.

B. checking the input voltage.
C. checking the fuses.
D. calling the electrician.
361. On this commonly used electric pressure transmitter, how will you adjust the
range ?
A. With item No 7
B. With item No 5
C. With item No 1
D. With item No 2
362. How do you adjust the zero setting on this commonly used electrical pressure
transmitter?
A. By item No 5
B. By item No 7
C. By item No 2
D. By item No 1
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DPKP
363. In an automated engine the center from which the ship's engine room is
controlled is called:
A. the control plant station (CPS).
B. the main engine nerve and control station (MENS).
C. the power plant station control station (PPCS).
D. the engineering control room (ECR).
364. In automation, RTD & CV stands for:

A. resistance temperature drop & control event.
B. return time delay.
C. resistance temperature detector and control valve.
D. None of these.
365. The monitoring system that tests the plant for readings of the temperature,
pressure etc. is called:
A. the demand display unit.
B. the scanning unit.
C. the loop back system.
D. the comparing unit.
366. A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of....... type output signals ?
A. impulse
B. digital
C. analog
D. binary
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DPKP
367. The second potentiometer of this electric command system is located in the
steering gear. What moves this potentiometer ?
A. The telemotor
B. The rudder angle indicator
C. The rudder position via the trunion connection
D. The eccentric pushrod on the HELE-SHAW pump
A. The Differentiator
B. The Pressure knob
C. The Measuring scale
D. The Adjusting knob
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DPKP
A. The Pressure bearing

B. The Spring holder
C. The Differential adjusting nut
D. The Pressure adjuster
370. What will be the binary output at E ?
A. 1
B. 0
C. 11
D. 10
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DPKP
371. Indicate the correct characteristic of the amplifier "A".
A. A frequency range less than 1 kHz

B. A voltage gain greater than 100,000
C. An input impedance lower than 1,000 Ohm
D. An output impedance greater than 10,000 Ohm
372. What is this symbol ?
A. A binary flip-flop
B. A binary register
C. A digital amplifier
D. A differential trigger
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DPKP
373. What kind of temperature control mode is fitted here ?
A. Controlling outlet by regulating the inlet

B. Controlling inlet by regulating the inlet
C. Controlling inlet by regulating the outlet.
D. Controlling outlet by regulating the outlet
374. Comparing this pneumatic control unit with the equivalent electrical amplifier.
What takes the place of the air restrictor passage used in the pneumatic
nozzle/flapper unit in the electrical equivalent ?
A. Voltage U2
B. Voltage U1
C. Resistor R1
D. Resistor R2
1325
DPKP
375. When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel
stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the
following is a feasible sequence of activities ?
A. Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by
diesel runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored
B. Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. « 45 sec: he stand-by diesel
runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored
C. Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel
runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored
D. Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8
sec: the power is restored
376. The best way of testing the "stand-by' function of the emergency diesel alternator
is by…..
A. starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any
leakages or deficiencies.
B. causing a total black-out on the ship, example in drydock or when time is
available in port.
C. by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main
switch board.
D. switching on the lest run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.
377. In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced ?

A. In the rotor
B. In the sliprings
C. In the stator
D. In the excitatory
378. How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled ?

A. By the excitation current in the rotor
B. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard
C. By the excitation current in the stator
D. By the alternator speed
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DPKP
379. How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a separately
excited three-phase alternator ?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Six
D. Four
380. If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many
pole pairs has this alternator got…
A. Four
B. Two
C. Eight
D. Six
381. The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation

current proportional to…
A. the output voltage and the output current of the alternator
B. the speed of the alternator
C. the output voltage of the alternator
D. the output current of the alternator
382. When parallel running alternators, what effects the reactive power of each
alternator (10/AR) ?
A. The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator
B. The temperature of the windings due to load distribution
C. The power throttle of the driving units
D. The excitation current
383. Name the three conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel ?
A. Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal
B. Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase
C. Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase
D. Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency
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DPKP
384. Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main switch breaker will trip
the alternator if a major cabled line should fail to the distributors and the
insulation should break through ?
A. The reverse current trip
B. The high/low frequency trip
C. The short circuit protection
D. The under voltage relay
385. If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which

safety device will trip the main Switch breaker ?
A. The overload trip
B. The reverse current trip
C. The high/low frequency trip
D. the under voltage/over voltage trip
386. What happens to the terminal voltage of a generator when it supplies a leading
power factor load ?
A. It falls
B. It fluctuates
C. It rises
D. It remains steady
Volt. What is the phase voltage ?
A. 220 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 311.13 Volt
D. 254.33 Volt
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DPKP
388. The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254.34 Volt. What is
the equivalent line to line voltage ?
A. 147 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 230 Volt
D. 254.34 Volt
389. Two 3 phase 4160 Volt, 60 Hz alternators are operated in parallel. The total load
of the system is 1050 kW with power factor 0.75 lagging. If alternator Ho 1 is
carrying 700 kW at 80 % power factor lagging .....
A. the Power Factor of alternator 110 2 is lagging 0.7064
B. the Power Factor of alternator Ho 2 is lagging 0.6914
C. the Power Factor of alternator lbco 2 is lagging 0.658
D. the Power Factor of alternator Ho 2 is lagging 0.7352
390. Alternator (A) 100 kVA runs parallel with alternator (B) 125 kVA, both are 3
phase, 240 V, 60 Hz. The load of A s 60 kW, 90% power factor and the load of B
is 80 kW, 70 % power factor. What is the total load ?
A. 458.8 Amps
B. 429.8 Amps
C. 472.8 Amps
D. 416.8 Amps
391. It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i.e. as a motor. What
are the circumstances for this to occur ?
A. Where three generators are running in parallel.
B. Where two generators are running in parallel.
C. Any of the above but the alternator in question has lost prime mover
input.
D. Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply
occurs
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392. How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator
preference system is working ?
A. By lowering the generator frequency
B. By rising the generator frequency
C. By rising the alternator voltage
D. By lowering the alternator voltage
393. What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit as generator circuit
breaker ?
A. It trips the alternator by under voltage
B. It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage
C. All of these.
D. It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage
394. If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short-circuit trip fails
to operate, what back-up safety device will activate ?
A. The over speed trip
B. The preferential trip
C. The under voltage trip
D. The low frequency trip
395. A generator's Reverse Power protection relay is fitted between ...

A. the breaker and the consumers.
B. the breaker connecting bars.
C. the generator and the bus bars.
D. the generator and the consumers
396. The pick up and the time settings of reverse power relays are adjustable. If the
prime mover of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the trip level setting ?
A. 0.5 - 1%
B. 6 - 7%
C. 2 - 3%
D. 4 - 6%
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DPKP
397. How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse
Trip Relay operates ?
A. 1 - 2 seconds
B. 3 - 5 seconds
C. 5 - 7 seconds
D. 7 - 8 seconds
398. If the prime mover of an alternator is a diesel engine, what should the Reverse
Power Relays pick up setting be ?
A. 10 - 15 %
B. 5 -10 %
C. 5 -12 %
D. 8 - 10 %
399. How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronising alternators should
your synchronising system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective ?
A. By fitting a voltmeter over one phase
B. By fitting lamps crossed over two phases
C. By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases
D. By fitting lamps over the three phases
400. What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several
large fans are started at the same time ?
A. The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise
B. The lights may be a dimmed a little
C. Nothing special
D. The generator may trip on overload
401. Two generators are running in parallel. Generator one is delivering 300 Amps
more than the second generator. What is the best course of action ?
A. Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level
B. Adjust the speed of both generators
C. Replace the A.V.R of the generator which has the highest current output
D. Adjust the speed of one generator
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DPKP
402. When two generators are being manually synchronized, when should the circuit
breaker be closed ?
A. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 11 o'clock position
B. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11
o'clock position
C. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slow and at 3 o'clock position
D. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 12 o'clock position
403. Why should a stationary alternator not be connected to live bus bars ?
A. Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate
B. Because the bus bars will be short circuited
C. Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor
D. Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage
404. The voltage in an 60Hz AC generator is adjusted by:

A. the number of series conductors
B. the speed of the engine of the generator
C. the magnetic field strength
D. the number of poles
405. What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in
parallel ?
A. To cut in generators automatically as they are needed
B. To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators
C. To divide the reactive current equally between the generators
D. To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load
406. The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by:

A. A tripped bus circuit breaker
B. Failure of the exciter
C. Excessive prime mover speed
D. The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated
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DPKP
407. What is the first step when removing a generator from parallel operation with
other generators?
A. Switch off all connected loads
B. Remove the load from the generator to be stopped
C. Increase the cycles of the generator(s) which remain on the line
D. Trip off the generator from the switchboard
408. What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel
generator ?
A. To maintain good load sharing
B. To prevent over speeding
C. To prevent the generator running as a motor
D. To prevent main circuit overload
409. Why is synchronization required when two diesel generators are due to be
connected to each other ?
A. If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after generators have
been connected.
B. If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime
mover and the generator can be damaged.
C. Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.
D. The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is
carried out.
410. What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 Volt when it
supplies a lagging power actor load, example induction motors ?
A. The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt
B. The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt
C. The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt
D. The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt
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DPKP
7. Perawatan dan perbaikan peralatan listrik dan elektronik

(Maintenance andrepair of electricaland electronicequipment)
1. A 3-phase induction motor is rated at 200 A Full loadline current. Its
initial direct- on-line starting current will be approximately:
A. 1000 A
B. 100 A
C. 5000 A
D. 200 A
2. A delta connected 3-phase A.C. induction motor is running normally at

its rated current of 150 A when a single phasing fault (open circuit)
occurs in one line. The likely outcome will be:
A. Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on
overload.
B. Line currents: 0 A, 150 A, 300 A. Trip condition: trip on
overload.
C. Line currents: 75 A, 75 A, 75 A. Trip condition: no trip but
speed falls.
D. Line currents: 150 A,150A,150 A. Trip condition: fuses blow on
short circuit.
3. A motor is protected by a thermal overcurrent relay. After tripping on

overload it will not be possible to reset the overcurrent relay
immediately because the:
A. Bimetallic strips need time to cool down
B. Starter isolator automatically applies an interlock.
C. Oil dash-pot has to be reset.
D. Line contactor spring has to be reset
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DPKP
4. A ships 3 - phase a.c. electrical supply system has 440 V and 220 V
sections. The effect of a single short circuit fault to earth on a 220 V
line will cause which of the following earth lamp indications:
A. In 440 V section: all lamps equally bright. In 220 V section: Two
lamps bright one lamp dark.
B. In 440 V section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 V section:
One lamp dim.
C. In 440 V section: One lamp dim. In 220 V section: One lamp
dim.
D. In 440 section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 section: All
lamps dark.
5. After main power is restored (following a blackout), a timed sequential

restart of motor-driven auxiliaries is necessary to avoid:
A. Generator overload due to many motors starting at
simultaneously
B. Overloading creating earth faults
C. Overvoltage due to current surges
D. Over-frequency due to overspeed of generator
6. An earth fault exists on the blue line of a 100 A bilge pump circuit. A
second earth fault occurs on the yellow line of a 10 A ventilation fan
circuit. Both systems are supplied from the ship's 440V supply. The
likely outcome is that:
A. A short circuit occurs between earth faults and the ventilation fan
fuse blows
B. An open circuit occurs between earth fault and both motors trip
out
C. Both motors trip out on overload
D. A short circuit occurs between earth fault and the bilge pump
fuse blows
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DPKP
7. An electrical power emergency source in a ship is required because:

A. It satisfies the SOLAS (and other) requirements for ship
safety
B. The ship's total load can be shared between main and
emergency generators
C. The main diesel generator(s) can be taken out of service for
overhaul or repair
D. It satisfies the need to be environmentally "friendly"
8. Check-synchroniser equipment is often installed to:

A. Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits
B. Permit faster paralleling of generators
C. Allow auto-synchronising to take place
D. Ensure fair equal sharing between generators
9. For two generators running in parallel, their share of additional load

(kW) will be determined by the:
A. Governor droop settings on each prime mover
B. Voltage droop setting on each AVR
C. The power factor of the additional load
D. The temperature difference between the generator rotors
10. In terms of electrical units, what is Hz the abbreviation for?

A. Frequency in Cycles per second
B. Revolution per minute
C. Frequency in Direct Current (DC)
D. Measure for Resistance
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DPKP
11. Resistance thermometers are often installed in a thermo-well. Will it

matter to the accuracy of the measurement how you install a resistance
element in a thermo-well?
A. Wrong installation will result in a major deviation in
measurement
B. Will have a minor influence on the measurement
C. Will only result in mechanical problems
D. No influence at all
12. Salinometers are often used to monitor water supplies.The most

common type of sensing device they use is:
A. Electrodes
B. Strain gauge
D. Inductor capsule
13. The correct time to synchronise is usually taken to be when the

synchroscope reaches the "5 to 12" position and is rotating slowly
clockwise. This to allow for:
A. Circuit breaker operating time
B. Synchroscope pointer time lag
C. Synchroscope error
D. Generator phase difference error
14. The earth lamps in a 3-phase system indicate as follows: Red= bright
Yellow= dark Blue= dim . Which fault condition shown as red -
yellow - blue is correct?
A. no fault - hard earth - light earth
B. light earth - no fault - hard earth
C. hard earth - light earth - no fault
D. light earth - hard earth - no fault
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DPKP
15. The function of the fuses in a motor starter circuit is to provide:

A. Short circuit protection.
B. Overload protection.
C. Undervoltage protection.
D. Over load protection.
16. The insulation resistance (IR) to earth of a new galley hot-plate is

measured to be 30 Mohm. When three identical hot-plates on the same
supply are tested together their combined IR will be:
A. 10 Mohm
B. 30 Mohm
C. 3 Mohm
D. 90 Mohm
17. When maintenance work is to be carried out on an electric motor

driving a centrifugal water pump with automatic start, should you;
A. In conjunction with the senior watchkeeper and electrician,
isolate valves, electrical supply, automatics and post 'Do not
operate' signs before commencing work.
B. Set in local control, isolate the suction and delivery valves then
commence work.
C. Isolate the suction and delivery valves then inform the electrician
that you are starting work.
D. Ascertain from the senior watchkeeper if it is okay to startwork,
isolate the valves then commence work.
18. A ship has an electrical system rated at 690 Volts. Which voltage level
is this?
A. Low voltage.
B. High voltage.
C. Medium voltage.
D. Intermediate voltage.
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DPKP
19. High Voltage (HV) cables are smaller than low voltage cables for a
given power rating. Why is this?
A. The HV cable carries a smaller current and therefore requires less
copper.
B. The HV cable uses higher quality copper conductors and
therefore requires them to be a smaller cross-sectional area.
C. The HV cable uses Aluminium conductors and therefore requires
them to be a smaller cross-sectional area.
D. The HV cable has a thinner wall of special insulation material.
20. On finding a person apparently unconscious in a High Voltage switch

room, which of the following should be done?
A. Raise alarm, identify means of isolation
and apply before approaching victim.
B. Trip all breakers and approach victim.
C. Check if the victim is in contact with
live parts and if not apply first aid.
D. Raise alarm then drag the victim clear
so that they cannot reach live parts
while receiving aid.
21. Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell ozone. This is likely to

indicate which of the following?
A. Arcing at badly connected bus bars
B. Transformer overload
C. Vacuum circuit breaker problems
D. Air circuit breaker problems
22. Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell rotten eggs. What may
this indicate?
A. Problems with a gas (SF6) circuit breaker
B. Burning of insulation
C. Problems with a vacuum circuit breaker
D. Arcing at badly coupled bus bars
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23. The recognised definition of High Voltage equipment is anything that

operates at over which of the following levels?
A. 1000Volts ac or 1500Volts dc.
B. 1000Volts ac or 750Volts dc.
C. 33,000Volts ac or dc.
D. 440Volts ac or dc.
24. Which of the following voltage levels would be regarded as high

voltage likely to be found on a ship?
A. 6.6Kv
B. 690V
C. 660kV
D. 220V
25. Which of the following alternatives summarise the benefits of using

high voltage on ships?
A. Smaller conductors, machines and switchgear
B. Smaller conductors, insulators and transformers
C. More efficient transformers and electrical machines
D. Smaller cables and better power factors
26. Which of the following options may be used as a brief summary of how
to safely make high voltage equipment accessible?
A. Disconnect, isolate, earth (ground)
B. Shed load, isolate. Earth (ground)
C. Disconnect, earth (ground), isolate
D. Shed load, Earth (ground), disconnect, isolate
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27. A deadweight tester is used to check and calibrate a pressure gauge.

The tester consists of a hydraulic pump and a hydraulic chamber and
balance weight system. After completing the calibration of the pressure
gauge the hydraulic pressure should be relieved before removing the
weights. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this
requirement.
A. To protect the piston in the hydraulic system from possible impact
damage as it may reach the end of its stroke.
B. To protect the pressure gauge from a surge in pressure as the
weights are removed.
C. To protect the hydraulic balance system from a pressure surge as
the weights are removed.
D. To protect the hydraulic pump from a pressure surge as the
weights are removed.
28. A power card taken from a diesel engine cylinder using a mechanical
indicator has a flat top. Which of the possible actions given in the
options is most likely to correct this irregularity on the power card?
A. Change the indicator spring for one with a higher rating.
B. Lengthen the cord for the indicator drum drive.
C. Shorten the cord for the indicator drum drive.
D. Lubricate the indicator piston and cylinder.
29. A pressure gauge of the bourdon tube type is reading incorrectly and
shows 2 bar when the pressure in the system is zero. There is no spare
available. Which of the options would be the best temporary remedy
for this situation?
A. Use a deadweight tester to mark a new scale on the gauge
throughout the working range.
B. Subtract 2 bar from the gauge reading when checking the
pressure.
C. Remove the indicator needle and reposition it to read zero when
the system is unpressurised.
D. Bend the bourdon tube so that a zero reading is obtained when the
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system is unpressurised.
30. A standard outside micrometer requires regular maintenance, including

calibration, in order to ensure accuracy of measurement. How is the
accuracy of this type of instrument normally checked? Select the
answer from the options given.
A. By measuring a standard gauge block or
rod at a common temperature.
B. By trying a go/no go gauge between the
micrometer anvil and spindle at
maximum opening at a common
temperature.
C. By checking the distance between micrometer anvil and spindle
with an inside vernier gauge.
D. By checking the distance between the micrometer anvil and
spindle with an inside micrometer.
31. As part of the regular maintenance for a paramagnetic oxygen analyser

used for measuring the oxygen content of exhaust gas it is important to
keep the sample line filter as clean as possible. Why is this necessary
with this type of instrument?
A. Pressure variations in the sample chamber can cause errors so
restrictions must be kept to a minimum.
B. A high flow rate is required in order
to deflect the sensing element.
C. The filter may rupture due to the
high pressures generated by the
sample pump.
D. The pressure drop across the filter may damage the sampling
pump.
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32. Compressed air for instrument and control purposes needs to be of high
quality. In order to condition the air filter modules are usually fitted to
remove the contaminants. If there is evidence of oil carry over to the
final elements in the instrumentation air system what is the most likely
cause?
A. The coalescer module is saturated and
requires renewal.
B. The drier section of the module needs
to be regenerated.
C. The particle removal module is choked.
D. The air compressor piston rings need to
be renewed.
33. Vibration analysis is often used as a conditioning monitoring tool

onboard ship as part of the approved planned maintenance system.
Many vibration measuring instruments are fitted with a harmonic
filter/analyser. How would these filters normally be used during
vibration measurement on a centrifugal pump?
A. To isolate a single frequency of vibration
associated with one of the pumps
components.
B. To sum up all the harmonics of a base
frequency to give total vibration for all
of the pump's components
simultaneously.
C. To block out any noise or vibration from the surrounding engine
room.
D. To generate an audible sound signal at the same frequency and
amplitude as the vibration.
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34. When checking the zero point on a combustible gas indicator that is to
be used to detect hydrocarbon gases in an empty cargo tank which
method should be used from the options given?
A. Pass fresh air through the sample chamber.
B. Pass oxygen gas through the sample chamber
C. Pass methane gas through the sample chamber.
D. Pass carbon monoxide gas through the sample chamber.
35. Which of the methods given in the options should be used as part of the
check of the accuracy of a liquid filled thermometer used in the cold
rooms of the ships provisions stores?
A. Immerse the thermometer in a mixture of distilled water and ice
made from distilled water to check the zero reading.
B. Place the thermometer in a hole drilled into a block of ice to check
the zero reading.
C. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the reading
matches the thermostat setting when the liquid line valve closes.
D. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the reading
when the refrigeration compressor cuts out.
36. Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test a
remote reading temperature gauge for the auxiliary boiler exhaust gas?
A. Check the resistance change in the sensor over a known
temperature range against the resistance values in the product
sheet.
B. Place the sensor in a test tank of water fitted with a heater element
and thermometer and check the temperature gauge at different
temperatures.
C. Place the sensor in a test tank of oil fitted with a heater element
and thermometer and check the temperature gauge at different
temperatures.
D. Fit a spare temperature gauge and see if the readings are the same.
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37. Which of the methods given in the options will give the most accurate
test of the accuracy of a bourdon tube type pressure gauge with a range
of 0 to 20 bar?
A. Check the gauge on a deadweight tester.
B. Compare it with the reading from a similar gauge connected to the
same pressure source.
C. Use the fuel injector test pump to check the readings against the
test rig master gauge.
D. Check the readings against the output gauge from a pressure
regulator by connecting it to a regulated test supply.
38. With reference to the installation of pressure gauges for steam systems.
Complete the following statement from the options given. To protect a
bourdon tube type pressure gauge which is to be fitted to a steam line it
should ….
A. ..be fitted with a siphon loop between it and the steam pipe.
B. ..have its casing filled with water.
C. ..be fitted directly to the steam pipe.
D. ..be fitted to the steam pipe using a flexible hose.
39. A simple level control for a water tank consists of a horizontal lever
with a float at one end and a filling valve at the other. The lever is
provided with an adjustable pivot positioned between the valve and the
float. How will the 'offset' in the system be affected under changing
demand conditions if the pivot is moved closer to the filling valve?
A. It will increase the offset across the demand range.
B. It will increase the offset on high demand but reduce it on low
demand.
C. It will reduce the offset throughout the demand range.
D. It will reduce the offset on low demand but increase it during high
demand.
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40. A vapour compression refrigeration system is usually fitted with a

number of devices to give protection and control of the system. Which
of the methods given in the options should be used to test the high
pressure cut out during routine maintenance and checking of the
system?
A. Gradually shut in the condenser cooling water valve or the
condenser refrigerant inlet valve while closely monitoring the
compressor discharge pressure.
B. Charge the system with refrigerant until the high pressure cut out
operates.
C. Manually close each of the evaporator coils by switching off the
electrical supply to the liquid line solenoid shut off valves and
monitor the condenser pressure.
D. Close the condenser outlet valve and closely monitor the
condenser pressure.
41. During maintenance of a pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated

control valve the diaphragm is found to be split. Select, from the
options given, a suitable material to use to make a temporary
replacement if there is no spare diaphragm available.
A. Natural rubber sheet of approximately the same thickness and
elasticity as the original diaphragm material.
B. Natural rubber sheet of greater thickness and lower elasticity as
the original diaphragm material.
C. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of approximately the
same thickness but less elasticity than the original diaphragm
material.
D. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of smaller thickness but
similar strength as the original diaphragm material.
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42. During maintenance work on a compensated mechanical hydraulic

governor air is drawn in to the hydraulic circuit after draining and
flushing out the unit. Which of the actions given in the options is most
likely to assist in the removal of the air from the system?
A. With the governor in operation open the compensation needle
valve to introduce instability and disturb the engine load to make
the governor hunt.
B. Drain the governor again and slowly refill with fresh oil.
C. With the governor in operation close the compensation needle
valve and disturb the load to make the engine hunt.
D. Overfill the governor with fresh oil to force all of the air out.
43. Following replacement of a diesel alternator governor the machine is

test run on load. It is found that as the load is gradually increased the
voltage and the frequency gradually fall to an unacceptable level. The
governor is a mechanical hydraulic type. Select from the options given
the correct adjustment to make to correct the situation.
A. The governor droop should be reduced.
B. The governor droop should be increased.
C. The governor load limit should be reduced.
D. The governor load limit should be increased.
44. The refrigeration system for the ships provisions consists of a number
of cold rooms served by a central refrigeration system. The evaporator
coils for the vegetable room are found to be frosting up even though the
room is down to temperature and the liquid line valve has closed.
Select, from the options given, the automatic control component which
is likely to be malfunctioning and so cause this condition.
A. Back pressure control valve.
B. Thermostatic expansion valve for the meat room.
C. The low pressure cut out for the compressor.
D. The liquid line valve for the flour room.
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45. The Ziegler-Nichols method is used in control engineering when

setting up the system. Which of the system components given in the
options would this method be applied to during initial set up?
A. PID controller for tuning.
B. Valve and actuator to set the span of travel.
C. Valve positioner to optimise speed of operation.
D. Sensing unit to set the range.
46. What could be the cause of a refrigeration compressor running

continuously even though normal temperatures for the cold rooms have
been reached?
A. Low-pressure cut-out is stuck in closed position.
B. The differential pressure switch for the
lubricating oil pressure cut-out is stuck
in the closed position.
C. High-pressure cut-out is stuck in open position.
D. Solenoid valve before the expansion valve stuck in closed
position.
47. With the set point at the actual desired value, a temperature control
system is giving an unacceptably large offset (difference between set
point and measured value) on high load resulting in a low system
temperature. Which of the actions given in the options should be taken
to reduce this effect and therefore achieve closer control of the
temperature?
A. Reduce the width of the proportional band for the controller.
B. Increase the width of the proportional band for the controller.
C. Increase the set point to a value above the actual desired value
D. Crack open the manual bypass valve for the control valve.
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48. What is the electrical function of the pressostat shown here ?
A. Pressure to open contact

B. Pressure to cross-connect contact
C. Pressure to close contact
D. Pressure to either close contact or open contact depending on how
it is connected
49. What are items F indicating in this starting box drawing ?
A. The front switch

B. The phase terminals
C. The fuses
D. The front connectors
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50. What could item D represent in this electric starting diagram ?
A. Any of the above

B. A level switch
C. A pressostat
D. A thermostat
51. When will the left hand lamp 'L' illuminate ? (Assume there is no
defect in the installation)
A. When the engine is stopped

B. When the main breaker is switched on
C. When the engine is running
D. When an overload/trip occurs
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52. What are items 'E' in this starting circuit diagram ?
A. An overload relay /stop button

B. A short-circuit trip
C. A low voltage relay
D. A reverse current trip
53. What are the items marked 'PM' in this electric starter diagram ?
A. Start push buttons

B. Start position switches
C. Stop position switches
D. Stop push buttons
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54. What are the items 'PP' indicated in this electric starting diagram ?
A. Stop push buttons

B. Start push buttons
C. Stop relays
D. Start relays
55. What does item 'C' indicate in this electrical starting circuit ?
A. The overload
B. The auxiliary contactor
C. The main contactor
D. A thermal relay
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56. What does item 'RT' represent in this schematic electrical starting
diagram ?
A. The overload relay

B. The signalling relay
C. The time relay
D. The measuring relay
57. What are the electric power suppliers on board this ship ?
A. 440 Vott and 220 Volt

B. Electric motors and lighting circuits
C. 4 x alternators, 2 x transformers
D. 12 Main Diesels, I Emergency Diesel, 1 Turbo alternator
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58. What is the meaning of item 'CP' in this ship's electric plant diagram ?
A. Control panel
B. Main switchboard
C. Switch panel
D. Control room
59. What does item 'CE' stands for in this ship's electric plant drawing ?
A. Control equipment power

B. Emergency Switchboard
C. Central emergency station
D. Common energy lighting distributor
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60. Where is the shore power supply line to be connected to supply this
ship's electric plant ?
A. On TT
B. On CE
C. On CP
D. On T
61. What are the items 'CD' shown in this ship's electric plant diagram ?
A. Distribution panels
B. Control desks
C. Transformers
D. Starting boxes
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62. What possibilities exist to supply power via direct connection to the
Emergency Switchboard.
A. 1) Supply by shore power. 2) Supply by Main switchboard

B. 1) Supply by Main Switchboard 2) Supply by Emergency Diesel
C. 1) Supply by Shore Power. 2) Supply by Main Switchboard
D. 1) Supply by main diesel engines 2) Supply by Emergency Diesel
63. What are items 'T' shown in this ships electric plant schematic
diagram?
A. Terminal boxes
B. Transit line connector units
C. Thyristor boosters
D. Transformers
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64. The Main as well as the Emergency switchboard are panels where the
electric power is...........
A. fed into, monitored and supplied to the consumers.

B. fed into and distributed to the motors via starting boxes.
C. monitored and supplied via distributors.
D. generated as distributed.
65. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water, which
corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again ?
A. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp.
B. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and revarnish windings.
C. Wash with fresh water, heat to 80 degree C and change bearings
and re-varnish windings.
D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and revarnish windings.
66. A breakdown in insulation between a motor winding and the motor

frame is called ....
A. a winding breakdown.
B. a short circuit.
C. an insulation breakdown.
D. an earth.
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67. A six-pole asynchronous motor is connected to a power supply with a

frequency of 50 Hz. If the rotor bar frequency is 2.3 Hz, what will be
the speed of the motor ?
A. 972 RPM
B. 954 RPM
C. 912 RPM
D. 928 RPM
68. A six pole asynchronous motor is fed from a 60 Hz circuit and has a
slip of 5 %. What is the motor speed ?
A. 1140 RPM
B. 1560 RPM
C. 960 RPM
D. 1720 RPM
69. Which are the two requirements to make electricity generation

possible?
A. Current to induce flux, conductor motion cutting flux
B. Presence of magnetic flux, relative motion between conductor
and flux.
C. Power to induce magnetic flux, power to rotate
D. Current to induce flux, rotary movement
70. A star connected induction motor operates on 220 V with power factor
0.7 and efficiency of 82 %. Its output is 8 HP. What is the phase,
current and voltage ?
A. I phase is 27.3 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt.
B. I phase is 15.8 Ampere, phase voltage is 220 Volt.
C. I phase is 12.8 Ampere , phase voltage is 220 Volt.
D. I phase is 22.7 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt.
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71. A 3-phase 60 cycle motor delivers 50 HP to a pump (shaft output).

What is the torque if the RPM is 1176 RPM ?
A. 275 pound feet
B. 223 pound-feet
C. 250 pound feet
D. 175 pound feet
72. In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil ?
A. To smother the arc
B. To acts as insulation
C. To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc
D. All of these.
73. Arc chutes in circuit breakers are efficient devices for quenching arcs
in air because they......
A. isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over
B. confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling
C. control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc
D. extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation
74. In the worst case, an electric shock of as low as 15 milli-amps will ......
A. be fatal.
B. be totally harmless.
C. give you a faint shock.
D. burn your skin.
75. What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated
distribution system ?
A. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth
B. The system will be in overload and both line fuse trip.
C. The opposite line fuse will trip due overload
D. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips.
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76. What information would you find on the name plate of any electric
motor
A. Voltage, current, horsepower, phases and polarity, A speed,
impedance
B. Voltage, current, kWatt, frequency, phases, speed,
C. Maker, voltage, horsepower, phases, BIL rating, polarity
D. Maker, voltage, full load current, power, frequency, phases,
speed RPM
77. What information would you find on the name plate of any industrial
transformer.
A. Polarity marking, kVA, impedance, voltages, maker
B. kVAR rating, voltage, impedance, BIL rating, polarity
C. Power, current, horsepower, ampere
D. Power, voltage, transformation rate, impedance
78. A single phase motor has a full load current of 28 A. What will be the
rating of the branch fuses?
A. 112 Amps
B. 56 Amps
C. 63 Amps
D. 34 Amps
79. Three motors with full toad currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each are
fed by an unidentified feeder. What is the minimum size of the
motor feeder current carrying capacity ?
A. Approx 134 Amps
B. Approx 175 Amps
C. Approx 235 Amps
D. Approx 350 Amps
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80. split-phase motor is an in uses the motor to rotate. motor where the are
produced by that
A. the main and the auxiliary windings
B. the shunt and the series windings
C. the three stator windings
D. two permanent magnets
81. How many watts are there in one horse power ?

A. 860 Watts
B. 720 Watts
C. 760 Watts
D. 746 Watts
82. At what percentage of the motor name plate rating can a thermal
overload relay be safely set for continuously rated motors with service
factor 1.15 ?
A. 180 %
B. 115 %
C. VW %
D. 165%
83. What should be the minimum current carrying capacity of branch

circuit conductors supplying a single motor ?
A. 140 % of the full motor name plate rating
B. 125 % of the full load current name plate rating
C. 200 % of the full motor name plate rating
D. 110 % of the full motor name plate rating
84. What method should be used for achieving 'reduced voltage starting'
for large AC motors ?
A. Line resistance starter
B. Star-Delta motor starter
C. Any of the above
D. Auto transformer
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85. A clamp meter is usually in practice a

A. Volt meter.
B. Ammeter
C. Resistance meter.
D. Galvanometer.
86. Direct-online starting of motors will subject them to starting currents

which are higher than Their full load (name plate) current ?
A. 5 to 7 times
B. 9 to 12 times
C. 12 to 15 times
D. 2 to 3 times
87. In a Star-connected 3-phase motor

A. the phase voltage is higher than the line voltage
B. the line current is equal to the Phase current
C. the line voltage equal to the phase voltage
D. the phase current higher than the line current
88. The line to line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28

Amps. What is the phase current ?
A. 22.72 Amps
B. 48.44 Amps
C. 16.18 Amps
D. 28.00 Amps
89. Megger test readings of a motor or alternator are ideally done when the
machine is
A. cooled down to hand-warm.
B. hot after stopping.
C. running.
D. cooled down to environment temperature.
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90. When using a Megger Tester to test equipment rated 440 Volt, make
sure that the instrument indicates a test voltage of
A. 250 volts
B. 500 volts
C. 750 volts
D. 1000 volts
91. In an emergency insulation resistance readings lower than normal can

be acceptable, but what would the allowable minimum be ?
A. 0.5 Meg Ohm
B. 1.0 Meg Ohm
C. 10.0 Meg Ohm
D. 5.0 Meg Ohm
92. What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A

insulation
A. 80 degree C
B. 45 degree C
C. 105 degree C
D. 55 degree C
93. Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and
insulation test ?
A. Conduct drop (mini-Volt)test on each phase
B. All of these.
C. Megger test each phase to phase separately
D. Megger test each phase separately to earth
94. Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run
in parallel ?
A. No common earth is available
B. Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship
C. Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA
D. The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not
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95. When an electric motor is operated at a higher frequency, it will run

and it may be operating
A. faster in overload
B. slower at too high a voltage
C. faster at overspeed
D. slower with too high a current.
96. Typically, how many times full load current are motor fuses rated in
order to withstand the large starting current ?
A. 3 - 5 times
B. 2 - 3 times
C. 5 - 7 times
D. 7- 9 times
97. If a fault has occurred (shorted, earthed) an electric motor, you should
A. replace two fuses if only two are found blown.
B. replace all three fuses, blown or not.
C. replace one fuse if only one is found blown.
D. not replace the fuses if they are not blown.
98. What is the advantage of a fuse over a circuit breaker with regard to
short circuit protection ?
A. Its very high speed breaking operation
B. It is less dangerous since there are no arcs
C. The broken fuse is easier to locate
D. It cannot get stuck, no mechanical parts
99. For an overload of 25 % of the full rated current how long compared to
tripping a circuit breaker would a use take to blow ?
A. Very much longer
B. Lesser
C. Longer
D. No difference
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100. For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what

percentage of the total rated current is he device usually set ?
A. 115 %
B. 125 %
C. 110 %
D. 120 %
101. What voltages are accredited standard secondary voltages for voltage
transformers. ?
A. 380 Volt and 220 Volt
B. 230 Volt and 120 Volt
C. 240 Volt and 220 Volt
D. 220 Volt and 110 Volt
102. Current transformers supply ampere meters and the current operated
coils of instruments with a standard current of either
A. 2 or 1 Amps.
B. 5 or 1 Amps.
C. 20 or 5 milli-amps.
D. 20 or 5 Amps.
103. What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCI3' S
circuit breakers ?
A. 7 - 10 Megaohm
B. 5 - 8 Megaohm
C. 4 - 6 Megaohm
D. I. 3 Megaohm
104. What is the purpose of the cable gland besides that it is designed to
provide a watertight seal ?
A. To provide a gas tight seal
B. To allow minor sliding movements of the cable
C. To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable
D. As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement.
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105. Between which points on this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp

is the STARTER fitted
A. Between points 3 and 4

B. Between points 9 and 1
C. Between points 7 and 8
D. Between points 5 and 6
106. In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, through which points

is the electric current absorbed by the lamp during NORMAL operation
(lighting) ?
A. Through points 7 and 8

B. Through points 3 and 4
C. Through points 5 and 6
D. Through points 3 and 8
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107. What is item No 11 called, shown here in this fluorescent lamp

assembly ?
A. The starting box or switching box

B. The lamp body or lamp box
C. The base
D. The lamp fitting or holder
108. How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution

system?
A. The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage
B. The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow
C. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow
109. What is the purpose of a preference load tripping system ?

A. To trip a generator if the load becomes too large
B. To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator
overload
C. To disconnect important equipment before a short circuit can
cause damage
D. To re-connect essential equipment after a black out
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A. By carrying our a Phase balance test
B. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
C. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
D. By carrying out a Megger test
111. What is a Clamp meter used for ?

A. To measure current in a single cable
B. To measure moisture content in a cable
C. To measure current in a three phase cable
D. To measure cable temperature
112. When would you undertake resistance tests on an AC motor ?

A. When the motor has been warmed up 5 degrees C above
operating temperature
B. When the motor has been carefully cleaned
C. When the motor has cooled down after use
D. When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature
113. How is the direction of rotation changed in an asynchronous motor?

A. By switching all three connections on the motor terminal
B. By reversing the frequency
C. By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal
D. The direction of rotation cannot be changed
114. A current clamp meter is clipped around a cable supplying a balanced

three phase motor working at full Load. The motor is rated to consume
100 A. What will the meter show
A. 100 Amps
B. 110 Amps
C. 33.3 Amps
D. 0 Amps
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115. A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called 'insulated neutral"

type. What does this means?
A. The system is totally insulated from the ship's 22011 distribution
system
B. The system does not have a neutral point
C. The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull
D. The system's zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the
generator
116. The ship's insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical
distribution system, advise the possible cause.
A. The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been
splashed with salt water
B. The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited
C. The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited
D. A connection box has been filled with salt water
117. What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the

generator main bus-bars?
A. To prevent bus-bar overload
B. To measure the generator output voltage
C. To measure the temperature of the bus-bar
D. To measure the generator output current
118. That will happen if the connections between an ammeter and an

instrument transformer located on the nerator main bus-bars are
disconnected ?
A. Nothing will happen
B. The ammeter will go to zero
C. The ammeter will go to maximum
D. The ammeter will go to zero and the instrument transformer will
quickly become over heated
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DPKP
119. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature
exceeds 100 degrees C ?
A. The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the
conductor life span formula
B. The insulation is likely to be severely damaged
C. Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand temperatures
of more than 500 degrees Celsius
D. The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any
trace of humidity
120. What is the purpose of a "Melte "starter ?

A. To reduce the start time for an AC motor
B. To reduce the starting current in large AC motors
C. To start either a 0 or an V connected motor
D. To regulate large AC motors
121. What may happen if a megger insulation tester is used to measure the
insulation in an electronic circuit?
A. The wrong internal resistance may be shown
B. The megger may give an indication on how much current the
circuit will consume
C. The components in the circuit may be destroyed
D. The connections between components will show a high insulation
value
122. What is the purpose of a Tachogenerator ?

A. To measure the relation between impedance and frequency
B. To measure the direction of shaft rotation
C. To measure impedance
D. To measure revolutions per minute (RPM)
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DPKP
123. What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase
induction motor ?
A. At 10% below the rated current
B. At 200% of the rated current
C. At the rated current
D. At 5-15% over the rated current
124. The commutator of a DC motor is examined and is found to have a

smooth appearance and a dark chocolate colour. What action would
you take ?
A. Change the brushes
B. None
C. Change the brush springs
D. Clean the commutator with a emery cloth until the colour
changes to clean metal
125. The specific gravity of the cells in a lead acid battery for the emergency
generator is found to be 1250. What action would you take?
A. Clean the terminals
B. Add new acid
C. 110 action is required
D. Top up with water
126. A motor controlled by thyristors is to be tested. What precautions

would you take ?
A. Disconnect all cables to the motor
B. Remove all printed circuit cards from the control system and
megger test
C. Test the motor in the manual manner using a megger
D. Use an 'AVO' meter instead of a 'Megger' for the test
1371
DPKP
127. A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as -
flame failure". Indicate the most possible reason.
A. The flame cell is dirty
B. The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage
C. The fuel oil temperature is too high
D. The fan blades of the fan motor are dirty
128. The engine room high level bilge alarm keeps sounding every few
minutes even though the bilge is empty. Nat action would you take ?
A. Change the setting on the alarm printed circuit board
B. Disconnect the alarm and see if it helps
C. Check the function of the level switch and the printed circuit
board for this alarm group
D. Start the bilge pump
129. An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips

on the "over current" relay, What action would you take ?
A. Cool down the motor with an electrical fan
B. Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function
C. Increase the current setting on the "over current" relay
D. Replace the "over current" relay
130. Why should an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as

possible?
A. A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow
B. It may damage the monitoring instruments

C. The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate maybe
withdrawn
D. There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull
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DPKP
131. What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine
exhaust temperature?
A. A NiCr/NiAl -type K (Thermocouple) probe
B. A mercury thermometer probe
C. A PT100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe
D. A T802 (Thermistor) probe
132. What type of electrolyte is used in a nickel cadmium battery?

A. Dilute hydrochloric acid
B. Dilute sulphuric acid
C. Distilled water
D. Potassium hydroxide solution
133. A six pole 50Hz three phase induction motor has a full load at 950 rpm.
What will the speed become at half load?
A. 1900 rpm
B. 475 rpm
C. 975 rpm
D. 1000 rpm
134. A flat lead acid battery can be revived by:

A. Adding distilled water.
B. Filling with dilute sulphuric acid and trickle charging.
C. Trickle charging.
D. Adding 'battery restorer".
135. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs as a result of:

A. Incomplete charging.
B. Fast charging.
C. Heavy discharging.
D. Lack of trickle charging.
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DPKP
136. What safety protection measure should be taken when connecting a

multimeter to an unknown voltage source ?
A. Set the muttimeter to DC and highest voltage range
B. Set the multimeter to AC
C. Set the multimeter to AC and highest voltage range
D. Set the multimeter to DC
137. Many maintenance on an motor what should you do ?

A. Switch off the main switch for the motor
B. Siang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor
should not be started
C. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor
D. All of these.
138. Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor may be

caused by
A. the wrong types of brushes
B. current overload
C. any of the above
D. the strength of the field
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DPKP
139. In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, in what location is the

BALLAST fitted, if (1) and (2) are the upptyterminals ?
A Between points 7 and 8

B Between points 5 and 6
C Between points 9 and 1
D Between points 3 and 4
140. What do items C represent in this starter diagram ?
A. Overloads
B. Contacts
C. Transformers
D. Relays
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DPKP
141. The breakdown in insulation between one or more windings or one or

more coils inside an electric motor is called
A. an insulation breakdown.
B. an earth.
C. a short circuit.
D. a winding break.
142. If open circuit and interruption of current continuity occur in the

windings of an electric motor it is called…
A. an earth fault.
B. a winding break.
C. an insulation breakdown.
D. a short circuit.
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8. Menggunakan secara tepat, peralatan tenaga tangan, peralatan

tenaga mesin alat-alat ukur untuk fabrikasi dan perbaikan di atas
kapal.
(Appropriate use ofhand tools, machinetools and measuringinstruments
forfabrication andrepair on board)
1. When using an ohmmeter to find a short circuit, which meter reading indicates the
fault?
A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. 100 megohm
D. 1 megohm
2. What is a multi meter used for?

A. To measure voltage and current
B. To measure voltage and resistance
C. To measure voltage, resistance and current
D. To measure resistance
3. What kind of device measures pressure and converts it to an electrical signal?

A. A transducer
B. A transceiver
C. A transponder
D. A transformer
4. Which measuring device should always be connected in series with a circuit?

A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
C. Ohmmeter
D. Wattmeter
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DPKP
5. A Wheatstone Bridge is a precision instrument used mostly to measure:

A. Inductance
B. Amperage
C. Resistance
D. Capacitance
6. What are ideal conditions for taking insulation test readings of a motor or
alternator?
A. Hot after stopping
B. Running
C. Cooled down to ambient temperature
D. Cooled down to hand-warm
7. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is the
line current?
A. 73.32 Amps
B. 127 Amps
C. 153.52 Ams
D. 219.97 Amps
8. What would a clamp type ampere meter read if clipped around a 3-core cable known
to carry 100 Amps to a 3-phase electric motor?
A. 0 Amps
B. 300 Amps
C. 33.33 Amps
D. 100 Amps
9. voltmeter with 5,000 ohm internal resistance reads 10 volts at full scale. What resistor
needs to be put in series to increase its range to 150 volts?
A. 7500 Ohm
B. 70000 Ohm
C. 165000 Ohm
D. 35000 Ohm
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DPKP
10. What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter?

A. Between 400 and 500 Volts
B. Between 1,000 and 10,000 Volts
C. Between 500 and 1000 Volts
D. Between 200 and 300 Volts
11. Which of the following would you expect to find at the main switchboard
A. Suitable extinguisher.
B. Insulated rubber matting.
C. Insulated grab rails.
D. All of these.
12. In one complete cycle of a single phase of alternating current how often is the
voltage at zero?
A. Three times
B. Once
C. Heuer
D. Twice
13. At maximum voltage what angle is the conductor cutting the magnetic field?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 0 degrees
14. What determines the output voltage of an AC alternator?

A. lumber of rotor windings
B. lumber of poles
C. RPM of the prime mover
D. Strength of magnetic field
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DPKP
15. In one cycle of 3-phase AC how often is voltage at peak value?

A. Three times
B. Six times
C. Always
D. twice
16. How is a Voltmeter connected in a circuit?

A. In series
B. In series with a resistance
C. In parallel, combined with a resistance
D. In parallel
17. How is an Ammeter connected in a circuit?

A. In parallel
B. In series
C. In series with a resistance
D. In parallel with a resistance
18. Flow can a Voltmeter measure a variety of voltage values?

A. By connecting a shunt in parallel
B. By connecting a capacitor in series
C. By connecting a capacitor in parallel
D. By connecting a shunt in series
19. Flow can an Ammeter measure a variety of current values?

A. By connecting a capacitor in parallel
B. By connecting a shunt in series
C. By connecting a capacitor in series
D. By connecting a shunt in parallel
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DPKP
20. Why is the battery maintenance of such Importance?

A. The batteries are the fast resort back-up system
B. They are an item of survey equipment
C. To ensure there is a continuity of supply to the navigation lights
D. To comply with the planned maintenance requirements
21. Using lead/acid batteries what is the minimum number of cells required to produce
24V?
A. 16
B. 24
C. 12
D. 6
22. What is the electrolyte in a conventional leadracid battery?

A. Dilute Hydrochloric acid
B. Distilled water
C. Dilute Sulphuric acid
D. Potassium hydroxide
23. What is the danger of naked lights in the battery locker?

A. React with the gases to form a toxic mixture
B. May damage the battery casings
C. The batteries give off hydrogen sulphide making the air explosive
D. The batteries give off highlyflammable hydrogen gas
24. What would be the S.G. of a fully charged battery?

A. 1.28
B. 1.36
C. 1.2
D. 1.12
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DPKP
25. The size of any electrical conductor should be such that the voltage drop at full load
will not exceed what percentage?
A. 1%
B. 3%
C. 2%
D. 5%
26. Line to line uottage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440 Volt.
What is the phase cottage?
A. 220 Volt
B. 311.13 Volt
C. 254.33 Volt
D. 440 Volt
27. If a 100 metre length of 1.25 mm dia. wire has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length
of the same wire of 0.75 mm dia. will have a resistance of 25 Ohm?
A. 35 metres
B. 25 metres
C. 20 metres
D. 30 metres
28. Which of the following four materials is the best electrical conductor?
A. Steel
B. Brass
C. Copper
D. Silver
29. What would be the correct setting of the current relayfor a three phase induction
motor?
A. At 100% of the rated current
B. At 33-50% of the rated current
C. At 5-15% over the rated current
D. At the rated current
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DPKP
30. A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance is
0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault?
A. 0 Amps
B. 240 Amps
C. 20 Amps
D. 400 Amps
31. A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called "closed insulation"type. What does
this mean?
A. The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull
B. The system does not have a neutral point
C. The system is totally insulated from the ship's 220 V distribution system
D. The system's zero voltage point is connected to the 'tame of the generator
32. Flow will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system?

B. The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage
C. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow
33. the worst case what would be the effect a 25 milli-amps electric shock?
A. Could be fatal
B. Give a mild shock
C. Burn the skin
D. Totally harmless
34. What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the main bus bars?
A. To measure the generator output current
B. To measure the earth leakage
C. To prevent bus-bar overload
D. To measure the generator output voltage
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DPKP
35. In a three-phase system why is a resistor fitted in series with the earth detection
lights?
A. To limit the earth current
B. To provide an easier path for the earth current
C. To protect the earth lights
D. To lower the voltage at the earth lights
36. Why should an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible?
A. The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be -nualid
B. There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull
C. A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow
D. it may damage the monitoring instruments
37. What is required to generate 60Hertz using a slow speed prime mover?
A. Gearbox to increase the generator speed.
B. Increased number of poles.
C. Greater excitation current.
D. reduced number of poles.
38. What is the main disadvantage with main shaft driven alternators?
A. Limited power output
B. Engine speed variation
C. Low speed limits voltage output
D. Only available at sea
39. Which of these materials can be used to insulate magnetic flux?

A. Porcelain
B. Ceramic
C. Rubber
D. lone of the other options
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DPKP
40. What causes the EMF variation in an AC alternator?

A. Velocity of conductor cutting flux
B. Changing polarity
C. Flux density
D. Component of velocity at 90"to flux
41. What law states that induced EMF always opposes the change producing it ?
A. Lenz
B. Coulomb
C. Fleming
D. faraday
42. What governs induced EMF in a conductor?

A. Magnetic strength
B. Rate of cutting flux
C. Flux density
D. Rate of change of magnetic flux
43. What law determines the direction of induced EMF?

A. Faraday
B. Lenz
C. Fleming
D. Weber
44. In what situation is Induced OAF given bythe formula e=Blv?

A. When a single conductor cuts a magnetic field in a straight line
B. When a conductor is rotated between opposing magnets
C. When a conductor rotates in a magnetic field
D. When a magnet is rotated in a coiled conductor
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DPKP
45. What are valence electrons?

A. Positively charged electrons
B. Contained in the nucleus
C. Outer orbiting electrons
D. Orbiting electrons
46. When is an atom considered to be a positiuely charged ion?

A. When electrons are gained
B. When electrons are lost
C. When it has positive electrons
D. When it has positive protons
47. What do good insulators have in common?

A. Large number of electrons
B. Positive electrons
C. Stable atomic structure
D. Negative nucleus
48. What determines cycles per second in an AC alternator?

A. No of conductors
B. Generator speed and number of poles
C. Generator speed
D. lumber of poles
49. What determines the speed in a squirrel cage AC motor?

A. The cycles/second
B. The supply current
C. The number of poles
D. Cycles/second and number of poles
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DPKP
50. In an alternator what controls the generated Voltage?

A. Excitation current.
B. Number of poles.
C. Generator speed.
D. Size of the stator windings.
51. In a DC generator where is the current generated?

A. In the commutator
B. In the field windings
C. In the shunt windings
D. In the armature windings
52. In a 'shunt' DC motor how are the pole windings connected?

A. Both parallel and in series
B. In parallel with the armature
C. In series with the armature
D. reparately from the armature output
53. When will the resistance in a wire decrease?

A. When the applied voltage decreases
B. When the length of the wire increases
C. When the temperature of the wire increases
D. When the cross-sectional area of the wire increases
54. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds 100
degrees Celsius?
A. Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand temperatures of more than
500 degrees Celsius
B. The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of
humidity
C. The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor
life span formula
D. The insulation is likely to be severely damaged
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DPKP
55. Why do ships normally use an AC insulated neutral distribution system?

A. It limits fault current
B. It reduces cable size
C. An earth failure on one phase will not cause protective devices like fuses and
circuit breakers to trip
D. It reduces switchgear ratings
56. How would you test the insulation on an AC motor?

A. By carrying out a Phase balance test
B. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
C. By carrying out a Megger test
D. By carrying out a Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
57. What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type?
A. 105 degree C
B. 80 degree C
C. 55 degree C
D. 115 degree C
58. What is the continuity resistance of a heating element of 2 kWatt, 220 Volt?
A. 24.2 Ohm
B. 44 Ohm
C. 11 Ohm
D. 9.09 Ohm
59. What is the unit of magnetic flux?

A. Henry
B. Weber
C. Coulomb
D. Farad
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DPKP
60. Which of the following is the most suitable for use as a magnet?
A. Stainless steel
B. Copper
C. Soft iron
D. Nickel
61. In an alternator what effect does increasing the excitation have?

A. Decreases the voltage produced
B. Increases the cycles/second of the current
C. Increases the amperage produced
D. Increases the voltage produced in the conductor
62. Using Fleming's Right Hand Rule what does the thumb indicate?
A. Direction of the magnetic flux
B. Direction of movement of the conductor
C. Direction of the excitation current
D. Direction of current in the conductor
63. lf magnet pole faces are 3cm X 4cm and have flux density of 0.417T, what is the
flux?
A. 0.5mWb
B. 0.55mWb
C. 0.4mWb
D. 0.7mWb
64. With reference to a magnet what is Hysteresis?

A. Permeability of the magnet material
B. Reluctance of magnetic material
C. Magnetic strength in relation to current
D. Lag of flux compared to field strength
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DPKP
65. Vibration testing is an integral part of what type of maintenance?

A. Planned maintenance
B. Intrinsic surveillance
C. Condition monitoring
D. Breakdown maintenance
66. A Wheatstone Bridge is used to measure an unknown resistance in relation to what?

A. Kirchoffis Laws
B. A voltage drop
C. A known resistance
D. A current imbalance
67. Which law states that the sum of the p.d.s is equal to the sum of the E.M.F.s?
A. Ohm's Law
B. Coulomb's Law
C. Kirchoffs Voltage Law
D. Lenz' Law
68. In series connected resistors what remains constant?

A. Current.
B. Resistance.
C. Voltage.
D. Reactance.
69. Two resistors of 60 ohm & 30 ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V,
what is the circuit current?
A. 3A
B. 9A
C. 2A
D. 6A
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DPKP
70. Which law states that the sum of currents arriving at a junction is equal to the sum of
currents leaving the 'unction?
A. Kirchoffs Current Law
B. Faradays Law
C. Ohm's Law
D. Lenz' Law
71. In parallel connected resistors what remains constant?

A. Impedance
B. Reactance
C. Current
D. Voltage
what is the effective resistance?
A. 90 ohm
B. 20 ohm
C. 60 ohm
D. 4.50 ohm
what is the current in each resistor?
A. 3A & 6A
B. 2A & 4A
C. 0.66A & 1.33A
D. 1A & 2A
74. If the effective resistance of a circuit is 8 ohm and current from source is 1.5A what
is the E.M.F.?
A. 24V
B. 6V
C. 12V
D. 9V
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DPKP
75. Which law governs the relationship between potential difference and current?
A. Coulomb's law
B. Lenz' law
C. Ohm's law
D. Kirchoffs current law
76. Voltage multiplied by current equals what?

A. Power
B. Reactance
C. Efficiency
D. Resistance
77. If a p.d. of 24V exists across a 150 resistor what is the current?
A. 3.6 amps
B. I.6 amps
C. 0.6 amps
D. 1.2 amps
78. What happens to the current if the resistance of a circuit doubles while the applied
voltage remains constant.
A. Halved
B. Quadrupled
C. Doubled
D. Remains the same
79. What happens in a circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance
increases?
A. The current decreases
B. The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance
C. The current remains the same
D. The current increases
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DPKP
80. An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4400W. What is the resistance of the heater?
A. 220 Ohm
B. 22 Ohm
C. 11 Ohm
D. 110 Ohm
81. Why must both primary and secondary windings have independent earth leakage
detection?
A. There is no electrical connection between the two
B. To accurately locate the earth
C. To allow for different leakage current levels
D. Because of the difference in Voltages
82. What is the advantage of a delta-star wound transformer?

A. Allows an earthed primary winding
B. Allows an earthed secondary winding
C. Allows cycle changing
D. Can transform higher loads
83. Which one of the following devices uses the principle of electromagnetic induction?
A. A rheostat
B. A variable capacitor
C. A transformer
D. A transistor
84. What is power?

A. Amount of work done
B. Capacityfor doing work
C. Generated current
D. Rate of energy dissipation
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DPKP
85. If a 2kW heater is on for four hours, how much energy is used?
A. 36.6mJ
B. 24mJ
C. 28.8mJ
D. 40mJ
86. What is energy?

A. Amount of work done
B. Capacityto carry out work
C. Transfer of power
D. Rate of doing work
87. Flow much energy is dissipated when a 2A current is passed through a 50 ohm
resistor for 3 minutes?
A. 36kJ
B. 33.3kJ
C. 30kJ
D. 24kJ
88. What is the unit for energy?

A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Coulomb
D. Ohm
89. What is the unit for power?

A. Coulomb
B. Watt
C. Joule
D. Ohm
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DPKP
90. A patch is to be bonded to a 100 mm diameter sea water line. To avoid contact with
the skin, what should be done?
A. use gloves, use stirrer, take care opening tins and use safety goggles.
B. use gloves, do not smoke,use barrier cream and use safety goggles.
C. use gloves, use brush use barrier cream and use safety goggles.
D. se gloves, ensure below flash point of material, use brush and use safety
goggles.
91. In the following, which letter gives advantages only for adhesive bonding?
A. Heeds good surfaces/no protruding parts
B. 4Veight reduction/may join thin sheet
C. Toxic hazardstreduced galvanic action
D. Poor electrical conductivity/may act as an insulator
92. For a repair to a low pressure water line, a propriety wrap repair tape is to be used.
What is its useable life?
A. 9 to 10 minutes
B. 4 to 6 minutes
C. 2 to 3 minutes
D. 11 to 14 minutes
93. A component with a working temperature of 325°C is to be joined using epoxy resin.
Which of the following is suitable?
A. Epoxy nitrile
B. Epoxy silicone
C. Epoxy phenolic
D. Phenolic nitrile
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DPKP
94. When bonding together two metal components, in which sequence should this be
carried out?
A. Clean and roughing surfaces, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to surfaces
and Clamp together.
B. Clamp together, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to edges and remove
surplus.
C. Clean and roughing surfaces, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to surfaces
and Clamp together only when tacky.
D. Add activator to epoxy resin, Clamp together, Apply to edges and Allow to
cure
95. A method of joining two plastics together is by solvent welding. Describe this
process?
A. A high frequency current is applied to clamps at the join
B. Adhesive is applied and dissolves the plastic material being joined
C. Application of a thin film of adhesive to joining surfaces
D. A heating tool is applied with pressure to required join
96. Thermoplastic type adhesives soften when subject to heat, are fusible and soluble.
They are not suitable for?
A. Aluminium
B. Leather
C. Wood
D. Fabrics
97. In which process would a hacksaw be used?

A. Removing burrs
B. Shaping
C. Cutting threads
D. Cutting off
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DPKP
98. Which table best describes the all hard hacksaw blade?
A Rigid
Cuts thick sections
Best for straight cuts
Easily broken if misused
B. Easily broken if misused
Cuts thick sections
Elexible
C. Rigid
Cuts thin sections
Not easily broken if misused
D. Rigid
Cuts thin sections
Not easily broken if misused
99. Which table best describes the flexible hacksaw blade?

A. Only teeth hardened
Has a long life
Reasonably non-rigid
B. Only teeth hardened
Overheats unless liquid cooled
C. Only teeth hardened
Overheats unless liquid cooled
Has a long life
D. Only teeth hardened
Not easily broken
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DPKP
Has a long life
100. A blind hole in a valve casing requires to be tapped 12 rnm. Which tap(s) would be
used?
A. Second and plug
B. Taper, second and plug
C. Plug
D. Taper and plug
101. When starting to tap a hole, how is the process checked for perpendicularity?
A. By try square
B. By straight edge
C. By spirit level
D. By sighting
103. What dictates the size of drill hole required prior to cutting an internal thread?
A. The thread pitch
B. The outside diameter
C. The thread form
D. The core diameter
104. What is significant about the spring-back hacksaw blade?

A. It can be bent into a circle over its length.
B. It is only suitable for use in a power saw.
C. It is only available with a large tooth pitch.
D. It is a compromise between the flexible and all-hard blade.
105. The engine room workshop carries different types of hacksaw blades. Which blade
should be used to cut sheet metal?
A. Tooth pitch = 6/cm
B. Tooth pitch = 8/cm
C. Tooth pitch =14/cm
D. Tooth pitch = 10/cm
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DPKP
106. When fitting a blade into a hacksaw, which direction should the teeth be pointing
relative to the handle?
A. Towards
B. Towards if blade is fitted at 90. to normal
C. Towards if blade is fitted at 180. to normal
D. Away
107. Which one of the following is used to finish off a component?

A. File
B. Chisel
C. Scraper
D. Orin
108. What general name is given to files which remove maximum metal in the shortest
time?
A. Double cut
B. Single cut
C. Bastard
D. craw file
109. What general name is given to files used for finishing?

A. Smooth
B. Draw file
C. Single cut
D. Second cut
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DPKP
110. In readiness for use, a good scraper would have its cutting edges?
A. Ground
Oil stoned
Lightly tempered
B. Polished
Sand stoned
Lightly tempered
C. Honed
Sand stoned
Highly tempered
D. Ground
Oil stoned
Highly tempered
111. white metal lined bearing is to be fitted on to a shaft. Which combination would be
used?
A. Use a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.
B. Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.
C. Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.
D. U se a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.
112. Chisels are used …………

A. To finish off a machined workpiece.
B. Anywhere when workpiece cannot be fitted in a suitable machine too.
C. Only on ferrous metals.
D. Only on non-ferrous metals
1400
DPKP
113. A chisel is refurbished and requires the cutting end to be tempered after hardening.
How is this achieved?
A. Heat to 250.C
Quench in water
B. Heat to 280.C
Quench in oil
C. Heat to 260.C
Quench in water
D. Heat to 230.C
Quench in oil.
114. A flat chisel requires tempering; which temperature and colour is correct for this
process?
A. 80°C purple
B. 250°C light brown
C. 240°C dark straw
D. 260°C dark brown
115. When tempering a cold chisel, at which part of the chisel is the flame directed?
A. The beginning of the tapered portion
B. The cutting edge
C. The hammer end
D. Mid-way
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DPKP
116. When tempering use is made of the microscopic oxide film formed on the surface,
in what sequence does change occur?
A. Purple
Straw
Brown
Blue
B. Straw
Purple
Blue
Brown
C. Brown
Purple
Blue
Straw
D. Straw
Brown
Purple
Blue
117. When out of use temporarily, how should the workshop plate be stored?
A. Wiped with an oiled rag.
B. Covered with a cloth sheet.
C. Covered with grease.
D. Covered with a wooden cover.
118. What special care does an engineers dividers need :

A. Keep oiled
B. Keep screw thread clean
C. Protect points when not in use
D. Always use same leg in centre pop
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DPKP
119. Given a set of odd-leg calipers and a small cork, what use is the cork?
A. Cork has the same properties as silica gel and prevents corrosion.
B. Cork is a sales gimmick.
C. Cork is to protect the point.
D. Cork is used as centre when marking out.
120. A centre punch has a 60° point for?

A. Accurate marking
B. Ease to see
C. Use as scriber
D. Long life
121. A 90° tentre punch is specifically designed to?

A. To scribe
B. Pop mark for drilling
C. Give long life
D. Act as a pin punch
122. A scriber should NOT be used for marking out?

A. When material is copper
B. When material is to be bent
C. When material is plastic
D. When material is to be hot worked
123. What toot would be used to mark off the centre line shown :
A. Odd leg calliper
B. Straight edge and scriber
C. Height gauge
D. Divider
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DPKP
124. Which set of equipment is required to mark out the keyway of a 30 mm diameter
shaft?
A. Polish flat bar
Slip gauges
Scriber
Engineer's square
B. Dial gauge
Vee block
Dividers
Vernier protractor
C. Porthole glass
Slip gauges
Scriber
Dividers
D. Surface plate
Vee block
Vernier height gauge
Dividers
125. Which of the following effects could be reduced if hand powered tools were used?
A. Fatigue
Loss of concentration
Accidents
Inaccurate work
B. Over familiar
Use of safety glasses
Tiredness
Personal injury
C. Distraction
Use of hard hat
Cramp
Eye strain
D. Injury to hands
Tools correctly sharpened
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DPKP
Loss of concentration
Fatigue
126. ldentify the powered hand tool in No.1 ?
A. Drill
B. Grinder
C. Input wrench
D. Screwdriver
127. Identify the powered hand tool No. 2 ?
A. Input wrench
B. Screwdriver
C. Drill
D. Grinder
128. The drawing of an engine mechanism component gives some surfaces as angles.
How would these angles be marked out?
A. With a vernier protractor
B. With odd leg callipers
C. With dividers
D. With a steel rule
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DPKP
129. The sketch shows the two scales of a Vernier caliper. What degree of accuracy will
a measurement have?
A. 0.02
B. 0.03
C. 0.01
D. 0.04
130. The Vernier protractor gives an angular accuracy of?

A. 4 minutes of angle
B. 2 minutes of angle
C. 7 minutes of angle
D. 5 minutes of angle
131. The speed and feed for the 20 mm diameter reamer would be?
A. 25% less
B. 75% less
C. Same as drill
D. 50% less
132. A plastic cover for an instrument requires four 12 mm diameter holes to be drilled.
What is the best method?
A. Slow helix drill, 90° point and wood backing.
B. Jobbing drill 120'' point.
C. Jobbing drill 120° point and wood backing.
D. Jobbing drill 90° point and wood backing.
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DPKP
133. After sharpening a twist drill, which points are most important to check?
A. Flute length
Face of drill
Ensure no rough grinding marks
Lip length
B. Web size
Rake angle
Flank condition
Point angle
C. Land
Overall length
Chisel edge
Helix angle
D. Clearance angle
Chisel edge angle
Point angle
Lip length
134. The diagram shows four types of socket head screws. Identify the socket shoulder
screw.
A. No.3
B. No.4
C. No.2
D. No.1
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DPKP
135. The diagram shows four types of machine screws. Identify the cheese head screw.
A. No.4
B. No.1
C. No.3
D. No.2
136. When fitting new bottom ends to a small diesel engine, the bottom end bolts have
no locking devices. Which of the following should be fitted.
A. Split pins
B. Taper pins
C. Parallel pins
D. Bifurcated taper pins
137. An auxiliary diesel Engine cylinder head value guide is shown. Which are the
correct guide dimensions for the nominal sizes shown?
A. 00 : 27.00
B. 12.00: 27.04
11.96: 26.96
C. 11.92: 27.05
11.81: 27.04
D. 11.65: 27.21
11.60: 27.23
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DPKP
138. For the square pyramid float component shown, which is the correct development?
A. No.2
B. No.4
C. No.1
D. No.3
139. Which of the following sizes is used conveniently and what is its use?
A. Limit of size
B. Actual size
C. Nominal size
D. Basic size
140. A repair to a compressor requires a plate of the form illustrated to be designed.

Which illustration is dimensioned to be the correct standard.
A. No.2
B. No.4
C. No.3
D. No.1
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DPKP
141. Vee blocks are precision equipment. What is specific about their purchase?
A. Always supplied singularly.
B. Always guaranteed.
C. Always supplied with slip gauges.
D. Aways supplied in pairs.
142. A frustrum of a hexagonal pyramid is shown. Which drawing goes to the left of the
figure in third angle projection?
A. No.1
B. No.4
C. No.3
D. No.2
143. Dimensions are read from the bottom of the drawing but if this is not possible what
is the next choice?
A. Turn drawing clockwise reading from RH side
B. Turn drawing clockwise 45. reading from RH side.
C. Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from LH side
D. Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from RH side.
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DPKP
144. During inspection of a large slow speed diesel engine, how would bottom end
bearings be described and what materials would they be lined with?
A. Thick walled
B. Wrapped bushes
C. Direct lined
D. Solid insert liner
145. When using third angle projection, viewing the component from x, which drawing
will be above the front elevation?
A. C
B. B
C. D
D. A
146. What type of ball- bearing is shown in the illustration?

A. Shallow groove
B. Deep groove
C. Two-way thrust
D. Heavy duty
1411
DPKP
147. In the system of limits and fits shown, on what basis has the drawing been made?
A. Clearance fits
B. Interference fits
C. Hole bases fits
D. Shaft basis fits
148. The square to round section shown requires a template. What forms the triangular
base line from which the true lengths are obtained?
A. ax
ab
B. a2
ab
C. a1
a2
D. ab
a1
1412
DPKP
149. Which of the four bearings shown is located?
A. No.1
B. No.4
C. No.3
D. No.2
150. The engine room workshop has a bench shear. What is the maximum thickness of
mild steel it will cut?
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 7 rnm
151. What is the system called which glues explicit instructions on drawings which
cannot be misinterpreted?
A. Tolerances
B. Geometrical tolerancing
C. Cumulative effect
D. Limits and fits
1413
DPKP
152. Looking at the drawing, can this component be made?
A. No - material is not given

B. Yes
C. No - relevant dimensions are not given
D. No - scale is not given
153. For a particular long shaft, which could be subject to some angular alignment,
which bearing would be most suitable?
A. No.2
B. No.4
C. No.1
D. No.3
154. The ventilation trunk shown goes from square to round section. What does its
development look like?
A. No.3
B. No.4
C. No.2
D. No.1
1414
DPKP
155. In the method of datum dimensioning (sometimes known as parallel dimensioning),

what is the advantage over conventional dimensioning?
A. Improves positional accuracy
B. Makes machining easier
C. Reduces the marking out time
D. Ignores conventions
156. In service, a pump shaft becomes overheated. What effect will this have on the ball-
bearing?
A. The lubricating oil will burn.
B. The outer ring will contract.
C. The inner ring will expand.
D. The individual balls will distort.
157. What is the difference between a guillotine and a shear machine?

A. Blade length
B. Hand operated
C. Plate thickness
D. Power operated
158. ln the sketches, which drawing is incomplete?
A. No.3
B. No.4
C. No.1
D. No.2
1415
DPKP
159. If a view is projected in a direction which is not horizontal or vertical, what name is
given to the view?
A. An elevated view
B. An isometric view
C. An auxiliary view
D. A pictorial view
160. What does the geometrical tolerancing shown in the drawing refer to?
A. Flatness
B. Cylindricity
C. Roundness
D. Squareness
161. Perspex is an example of a thermoplastic, How is this best heated prior to bending?
A. Hot air stream
B. Heat in boiling water
C. Heat in oven
D. Flame heat
162. What is the softening temperature for PVC?

A. 115°C
B. 100°C
C. 105°C
D. 110°C
1416
DPKP
163. What would be necessaryto prevent damage, toxic fumes and combustion when
heating plastics?
A. Do not use a naked flame
B. Only use a paraffin heater
C. Only use a candle
D. Only use an acetylene heater
164. Sketch shows the rollers for a pyramid rolling machine. Which is the idler and what
is its direction?
A. No.4
B. No.2
C. No.1
D. No.3
165. Sketch shows the configuration of a pinch bending roll. How does this operate?
A. Roller No. 3 rises

B. Roller No.1 is lower
C. Roller No. 2 rises
D. Rollers No. 2 and No. 3 rise
1417
DPKP
166. How does the brake press differ from the other forming machines?
A. Uses male and female formers
B. Can pierce only
C. Uses rollers
D. Can crop only
167. it is required to make a drip tray. What machine would be used?

A. Nibbler
B. Rolling machine
C. Hand operated folding machine
D. Powered brake press
168. What is the plate thickness limit for hand-operated folding machines?
A. 4.0 mm
B. 3.0 mm
C. 3.5 mm
D. 2.5 mm
169. What effect will an undersized vee width have on the form produced?
A. Inside bend may be polished
B. Inside bend may fracture
C. Outside bend may fracture
D. Outside bend may be scuffed
170. Mild steel plate 2 mm thick bent in vees would produce an approximate inside bend
radius of?
A. 2.5 mm
B. 1.0 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2.0 mm
1418
DPKP
171. For the cover shown, what length of plate is required?
A. 350.2 mm
B. 345.1 mm
C. 343.7 mm
D. 348.4 mm
172. What is the greatest danger when working with sheet metal?
A. Space to manoeuvre is usually restricting
B. Plate is too large
C. Plate is too heavy
D. Edges are sharp
173. Which is the preferred table to be checked to ensure a sound weld is produced
during an arc welding Process?
A. Arc length
Electrode angle
Ambient temperature
Relative humidity
B. Electrode
Arc length
Ambient
temperature
C. Arc length
Welding current
Electrode angle
Relative humidity
D. Electrode
Arc length
1419
DPKP
Welding current
Electrode angle
174. Which table would give the best checklist following an arc welding process,
checking for:
A. Slag inclusion
Fusion
Undercutting
Contour
B. Undercutting
Surface pin holes
Fusion
Continuous weld
C. Fusion
Undercutting
Surface pin holes
Excessive spatter
D. Fusion
Undercutting
Slag inclusion
Excessive spatter
175. What is the limiting factor of a visual inspection of a weld?

A. Gives an indication only
B. Will not indicate blow holes
C. There is none
D. Will not show if penetration is correct
176. Which examination reveals pin holes, slag inclusion and lack of fusion?
A. Visually
B. Fluorescent penetrant
C. Dye penetrant
D. Macroscopic
1420
DPKP
177. A crankcase weld requires detailed inspection while on passage. How would this be
carried out?
A. By magnetic particle
B. By x-ray
C. Visually
D. By dye penetrant
178. Which of the tables of defects would lead to porosity in a welded joint?
A. Wrong electrode angle.
Incorrect joint set up.
Speed of travel too fast.
Welding current too low.
B. Welding current too low.
Speed of travel too fast.
Incorrect electrode manipulation.
Dirty parent metal.
C. Welding current too high.
Incorrect root gap.
Incorrect electrode size.
Dirty parent metal.
D. Damp electrode coating.
Damaged electrode coating.
Too long an arc.
Incorrect starting.
179. All mechanical cutting devices have the same basic features. These are?
A. Two moving blades
B. One moving blade
C. One fixed blade
D. One moving and one fixed blade
1421
DPKP
180. Which material is difficult to weld due to porosity?

A. Cast iron
B. Low carbon steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Medium carbon steel
181. In electric arc welding, what use is the electrode covering?

A. Allows damp electrodes to be used
Gives a stable arc
Reduces slag inclusion
Reduces Porosity
B. Controls the metallurgical properties
Assists penetration
Tolerates poor welding
Reduces splatter
C. Gives a variable arc
Reduces splatter
Tolerates poor welding
Assists multi-runs
D. It provides a gas shield
Reduces splatter
Gives a stable arc
Controls the metallurgical properties
182. Which system of welding uses a shield of Argon and a non-consumable electrode?
A. Metal inert gas
B. Tungsten inert gas
C. Gas metal arc
D. Manual metal arc
1422
DPKP
183. In the following gas flame temperatures, which is the oxyacetylene?

A. 2770°C
B. 2820°C
C. 3200°C
D. 1880°C
184. Principles of Gas Welding -An acetylene cylinder is packed with charcoal and
charged with acetone. At 15 bar it will absorb its own volume ?
A. 375 times
B. 425 times
C. 275 times
D. 325 times
185. If a gas pressure gauge is over-pressured and bursts, what feature minimizes
damage?
A. A bursting disc
B. The hoses rupture
C. A relief value
D. The flexible back
186. How does a two-stage pressure regulator give precise control?

A. Second stage only adjustable
B. First stage only adjustable
C. Both stages unadjustable
D. Both stages adjustable
187. Why is a high pressure blow pipe unsuitable for use in a low pressure system?
A. Oxygen pressure differs
B. Gas pressures must be equal
C. Acetylene pressure differs
D. Nozzle sizes are different
1423
DPKP
188. Hoses are easily damaged and require special care for long life, but what are they
reinforced with?
A. Wire
B. Cotton
C. Canvas
D. Nylon
189. The safety features for a welded acetylene gas cylinder are?
A. Gas loaded relief values
B. Fusible plugs
C. Bursting discs
D. Spring load relief value
190. Which correctly identifies a full acetylene cylinder ?

A. 170 bar right hand thread black colour
B. 15 bar left hand thread maroon colour
C. 170 bar right hand thread blue colour
D. 7.5 bar left hand thread red colour
191. What device is fitted to prevent component gases mixing in hoses?

A. Stop value
B. Hose check value
C. Relief vale
D. By-pass value
192. For a particular welding arrangement, the decision is to use a manifold system.
Why would this be chosen?
A. Cost - two cylinders cheaper than one
B. Using large bore nozzles
C. Long time span of welding0
D. Discharge rate too high from single bottle
1424
DPKP
193. A flashback arrester has been triggered. Which is the correct sequence to follow
after this event?
A. Ascertain cause of activation
Check equipment
Open up flashback arrester
Clean, if necessary
B. Ascertain cause of activation
Clean, if necessary
Check equipment
C. Check equipment
Clean, if necessary
Ascertain cause of activation
D. Clean, if necessary
Check equipment
Ascertain cause of activation
194. What is significant about a flat square?

A. Its material
B. Its calibration
C. Its size
D. Its squareness
195. A 1.3 m long slot is to be marked off on the floor plate but only a 300 mm straight
edge is available. How is this overcome?
A. By a piece of tape
B. By a piece of wood
C. By chalk line
D. By a cardboard template
1425
DPKP
196. What is a trammel used for?

A. Marking off pipes
B. Scribing large circles
C. Cutting out joints
D. Instead of dividers
197. When gas welding, which is the most likely cause of a serious accident?
A. Distraction
B. Leaving torch on floor
C. Not extinguishing when finished
D. Touching hot metal
198. When welding at a bench, which list of equipment would be used?

A. Leather gloves
Leather apron
Welding helmet
Safety Boots
B. Leather gloves
Leather apron
Boiler suit
Breathing apparatus
C. Leather gloves
Leather apron
Safety boots
Boiler suit
D. Leather gloves
Boiler suit
Safety boots
Welding helmet
1426
DPKP
199. Welding fumes can be dangerous. When welding in the workshop how is welding
rendered safe?
A. By extractor welding gun
B. By ventilation
C. By extraction
D. By respirator
200. When self-secured joints are to be made, which tool is most useful?
A. Press
B. Rubber headed hammer
C. Folder
D. Tin snips
201. To make a single grooved seam from 1 mm plate, in what order would the
following operations be carried out?
A. Set to thickness
A Hook together
Fold
Flatten
B. Fold
Hook together
Flatten
Set to thickness
C. Fold
Set to thickness
Hook together
Flatten
D. Flatten
Set to thickness
Fold
Hook together
1427
DPKP
202. The sketch shows a partially completed knocked up joint made from 0.5 mm plate.
Which direction of ending completes the joint?
A. No.1
B. No.3
C. No.4
D. No.2
203. What may be done to improve the finished appearance of a self-secured joint?
A. Fit edging wire
B. Caulk
C. Burnish
D. Solder
204. During a plasma cutting process the workpiece was not totally penetrated. What
would be the most likely problem?
A. Current is too high
B. Speed of cut too high
C. Metal is too thin
D. Speed of cut too low
205. What condition must exist in order to cut using an oxygen fuel gas mixture?
A. Slow temperature rise
B. Low velocity jet
C. Rapid oxidation
D. Slow oxidation
1428
DPKP
206. Which of the materials listed can be cut using an oxygen fuel gas mixture?
A. Stainless steel
B. Mild steel
C. Bronze
D. Cast iron
207. Which gas is not commonly used as a fuel when cutting steel plate?
A. Propane
B. Natural gas
C. Acetylene
D. Hlelium
208. Sketch shows a gas cutting blowpipe. What is control No. 1 used for?
A. Mixing gases
B. Pre-heat oxygen
C. Acetylene control
D. Cutting oxygen
209. What is the effect of low pressure cutting oxygen?

A. Melt will not be blown out
B. Combustion will not occur
C. Cut will be ragged at edges
D. Melting point will not be reached
1429
DPKP
210. Which column gives the correct factors for a clean cut edge preparation?
A. Flame adjustment.
Speed of travel.
Oversized nozzle.
Pressure.
B. Flame adjustment.
Angle of nozzle to plate.
Undersized nozzle.
Polished surface.
C. Flame adjustment.
Speed of travel.
Angle of nozzle to plate.
Polished surface.
D. Flame adjustment.
Speed of travel.
Distance between plate and nozzle.
Pressure.
211. When gas cutting a mild steel plate, what does the size of nozzle used depend upon?
A. Gases used
B. Gases remaining in cylinder
C. Thickness of plate
D. Impurities in material
212. Which system uses a tungsten electrode, causing an arc between itself and the metal
to be cut?
A. Molten arc cutting
B. Arc cutting
C. Plasma arc cutting
D. Plastic arc cutting
1430
DPKP
213. What is shown in No. 1 ?
A. Spade guide
B. Radius bar
C. Small circle guide
D. Roller guide
214. What is the attachment shown in No. 2 ?
A. Spade guide
B. Radius bar
C. Roller guide
D. Small circle guide
1431
DPKP
215. If two pieces of metal are welded together while laying in the same plane, this is
known as?
A. Corner weld
B. A butt weld
C. Lap weld
D. Fillet weld
216. Prior to welding, plate edges are prepared to?

A. Give economical use of filler
B. Allow maximum penetration of filler
C. Give a flat surface to filler
D. Allow filler to flow
217. Plates of less than 6 mm thickness (T) have no edge preparation but what ratio of
(T) is the gap?
A. T/2
B. T/4
C. T/6
D. T/1
218. What feature of a good weld is indicated by No.4 ?
A. Good spot welding

B. Backing bar has been used
C. Blend with parent metal
D. Contour even and regular
1432
DPKP
219. Thick plates require a multi-run weld. Which type of runs are used?
A. No.4
B. No.3
C. No.2
D. No.1
220. When two pieces of metal at right- angles are welded together, what weld is used?
A. Lap
B. Fillet
C. Bevel
D. Butt
221. For the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?
A. ab
B. ac
C. de
D. ad
1433
DPKP
222. For the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?
A. ae
B. af
C. db
D. ad
223. Figures show welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No. 1 ?
A. Single V
B. Double U
C. Double V
D. None
1434
DPKP
224. Figure shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No.2 ?
A. Double U
B. Single bevel
C. Double V
D. Double bevel
225. Figure shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No.3 ?
A. Single U
B. Double bevel
C. Single bevel
D. Double U
1435
DPKP
226. A short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm steel plate. What edge preparation is
required for No.2 ?
A. Double U
B. Double bevel closed corner
C. Single bevel Closed corner
D. None
227. A short box girder is fabricated from 18 mm thick steel plate. What edge
preparation is necessary for No.3 ?
A. Double bevel
B. Single bevel
C. Single U
D. None
1436
DPKP
228. A short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm thick steel plate. What edge preparation
is required for No.1 ?
A. Double bevel 45°

B. Single bevel 60°
C. Double bevel 60°
D. Single bevel 45°
229. "Which of the following is a non-identifiable hazard?

A. Motor v-belts
B. Worn spanner
C. The tailshaft
D. Grease on floor plates
230. How is the emergency stop button indented on workshop machinery, for example,
the lathe?
A. Large round head with light emitting diode insert.
B. Large round head painted red.
C. Large round head painted yellow.
D. Large round head painted green
231. When shaping a chisel on a grinding machine, what would probably cause fingers
contacting the grinding heel?
A. Using too much force
B. Wrong grade of wheel
C. Tool rest clearance excessive
D. Wheel speed low
1437
DPKP
232. Twist drills can be sharpened with the aid of which of the following ?
A. A file.
B. A wire brush.
C. A pistol drill.
D. The bench grinder.
234. The tool used for scoring lines on metal surfaces is called a .............
A. a pin punch.
B. a centre punch.
C. a scriber.
D. a hammer.
235. A hammer with one flat end to its head and one half round end is called ......
A. a ball pane hammer.
B. a half round hammer.
C. a claw hammer.
D. a chipping hammer.
236. The file known as a "bastard" file is which of the following ?

A. One that is extremely smooth.
B. One having an edge with no teeth.
C. One having a side rounded so it is half round.
D. One that is rough and flat.
237. The part of a hand drill which holds the drill bit is called ...
A. the handle.
B. the chuck key.
C. the spindle.
D. the chuck.
1438
DPKP
238. The tool used for marking out a circle on steel is called...
A. oddleg calipers.
B. a pair of dividers.
C. outside calipers.
D. inside calipers.
239. A tool used to mark the centre for a twist drill is called...
A. a centre punch
B. a pin punch
C. a scriber
D. a pair of dividers
240. Die nuts are used for which of the following ?

A. Cleaning an existing thread.
B. Cutting a thread on a round bar.
C. Holding and turning dies.
D. Cutting a new thread in a hole.
241. The part of the centre lathe which holds the cutting tool is called ....
A. the compound slide.
B. the tool post.
C. the tailstock.
D. the saddle.
242. Spanners which have one end as a ring spanner and the other end an open ended
spanner are called........
A. half open ended spanners.
B. combination spanners.
C. socket spanners.
D. half ring spanners.
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243. After using hand or power tools, they should be....

A. returned to the workshop bench.
B. returned to the duty engineer.
C. left beside the job for use next time.
D. returned to their allotted stowage position.
244. Side cutters are used.....

A. to cut the side of metal.
B. to hold cold metal
C. to cut electrical wiring.
D. to hold metal while it is being cut.
245. A hacksaw blade is placed in the body of the hacksaw with the teeth facing ........
A. Down and towards the handle.
B. Up and towards the front.
C. Up and towards the handle.
D. Down and towards the front.
246. The diameter of a hole in a piece of metal can best be measured using...........
A. outside calipers
B. an engineer's square
C. feeler gauges
D. inside calipers
247. A tool should be used.........

A. with regard to the correct shape of its handle.
B. for at least 2 different functions.
C. only for the function for which it was designed.
D. for a variety of functions according to circumstances.
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248. A machine tool used for reducing the diameter of a round bar is called ......
A. a milling machine
B. a pillar drill.
C. a centre lathe.
D. a bench grinder.
249. The diameter of round bar is best measured with the aid of...
A. an engineer's square.
B. feeler gauges.
C. inside calipers.
D. outside calipers.
250. In a set of thread taps the plug tap has ....

A. a slight taper at its end.
B. no thread at all.
C. the full thread to the end.
D. larger taper at its end.
251. Drilling a hole with a drill in the end of a piece of round bar is best carried out
using which of the following ?
A. A shaping machine
B. A pillar drill.
C. A milling machine.
D. A centre lathe.
252. Which of the following spanners is best to use in most cases ?

A. A pair of stillsons.
B. The correct size ring spanner.
C. A parallel jaw adjustable spanner.
D. The correct size open-ended spanner.
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253. What type of screw is number 2 ?
A. A hexagon head screw

B. A round head screw
C. A cheese head screw
D. A countersunk screw
A. A hexagon head screw

B. A fillister head screw
C. A countersunk screw
D. A button head screw
A. A round head screw

B. A countersunk screw
C. A hexagon head screw
D. A cheese head screw
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256. What rigging device is shown at the bottom ?
A. A strop
B. A double eye wire strop
C. A wire sling
D. A double loop wire
257. What is shown top right ?
A. An eye bolt
B. A strop bolt
C. A connecting bolt
D. A shackle bolt
258. What kind of tool is shown top right and what is its purpose ?
A. Traverse cut chisel /To break bolts and nuts

B. Cross cut chisel To chisel grooved profiles in metal
C. Seam cut chisel / To remove welds and protruding objects
D. Sharp cut chisel/For inside piping cutting
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259. Before leaving the engine room workshop, you are to ensure that...
A. the entrance to the shop is secured by padlock.
B. all tools are in place, power tool supply is off, all is sea fast.
C. the inventory of all parts used is filled up.
D. the lighting is switched off.
260. What is the device shown in the centre of the picture ?
A. A U-connector
B. A connecting bolt
C. A shackle
D. A bend connector
261. What do you call the device shown on the right side of the picture ?
A. An eye lifter
B. An elongated bolt lifter
C. An elongated eye bolt
D. An elongated eye lifter
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262. What is the measuring device shown top right ?
A. A microcalipre
B. A clamp metre
C. A stress meter
D. A micrometer
263. What is shown top left ?
A. strop connection
B. A loop welding
C. A chainblock clamp
D. An overhead bulkhead eye
264. What is the tool shown top left called ?
A. A carpenter's ball hammer

B. A ball pen hammer
C. A ball head hammer
D. A carpenter's hammer
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265. What kind of hammers are shown bottom left and right side ?
A. Lead hammers
B. Plastic hammers
C. Recoil-less hammers
D. Assemblers hammers
266. What kind of hammer is shown top left and for what is it used ?
A. Bell hammer /To knock split pins in place

B. Lead hammer / For heavy hammering of frozen nuts and bolts
C. Aluminium hammer / For testing tightness of motor covers
D. Plastic or Teflon hammer. / For light assembly work
267. What kind of hammer is shown bottom left and for what is it used ?
A. A common hammer / All purpose engineer's work

B. A curved hammer / Used for hammering and removing rust
C. A claw hammer / For carpentry and wood work, nail removal.
D. A carpenter's hammer I Used for all purpose work on deck
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268. What kind of hammer is shown right side and for what is it used ?
A. Heavy hammer/ For use on large size forged ring spanners

B. Striking hammer / To loosen or fastening torque rings
C. Moker hammer / To loosen or fastened cylinder head nuts
D. Sledge hammer/ For all-purpose grudgingly and powerful hammering
269. What kind of hammer is shown at the top and for what is it used ?
A. A brick hammer /For hammering plates and steel

B. A fitter's hammer/For general use
C. A blacksmith's hammer / General purpose
D. A descaling hammer f For descaling heavy rust
270. What kind of hammer is shown at the bottom ?
A. A scale remover
B. A deckhand hammer
C. A chipping hammer
D. A double edge hammer
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271. What kind of tool is shown top right ?
A. An adjustable pipe spanner

B. An adjustable wrench
C. A shifter
D. A pocket spanner
272. What is the tool shown top left and for what is it used ?
A. Centre punch. / To mark a point on metal

B. Drivel / To push small pins out of their fastening
C. Pointed chisel / To chisel a tracing groove
D. Dopper punch. / To chisel a small hole trough metal sheets
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273. What is shown on the left side of the picture ?
A. A cylinder head lifter

B. A triple hook chain lifter
C. A cylinder liner pulling chain
D. An oil drum lifting chain
274. What is shown on the right of the picture ?
A. A lifting block
B. A rattle chain
C. A chain block
D. A chain lifter
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275. What do you call the measuring device shown top centre ?
A. A workshop compass found in any workshop, any profession

B. A plane level compass
C. A metal worker's compass, with spring tension adjustable by screw
D. A ship's compass used only on board ship
276. What kind of tool is shown bottom centre ?
A. A pipe cutting tool

B. A pipe bending tool
C. A pipe flating tool
D. A pipe fitting tool
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277. What is the purpose of the tool shown bottom right ?
A. To extract bushes and gears from shafts

B. To extract ball bearings, roller bearings or needle bearings
C. To extract pulleys and sleeves from shafts
D. All of these.
278. If you are an engine room rating, what basic technical knowledge must you posses
as far as tools and equipment are concerned ?
A. Be able to operate the drilling machine
B. Be able to operate the milling machine
C. Be able to identify and select the proper tool for each job
D. Be able to operate the gas welding equipment
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9. Perawatan dan perbaikan permesinan dan peralatan kapal

(Maintenance andrepair of shipboardmachinery andequipment)
1. What could cause engine oil to turn a “milky” colour ?
A. Overheating.
B. Water contamination.
C. The oil is old.
D. Fuel contamination.
2. You have a cylinder liner with 6 outlet holes for cylinder lubrication, how many
clogged holes can you tolerate ?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 0
D. 1
3. What do you consider as the most important task after piston work ?
A. Patching up destroyed paintwork on the crankcase doors.
B. Starting the engine to see that it rotates.
C. Starting the auxiliary blower to ventilate the scavenging belt, the cylinder
liners, to ensure that the engine has sufficient fresh air to start.
D. A search inside the crankcase for tools and rags.
4. A clogged or dirty lubrication oil filter can best be detected by ….

A. a decrease in oil viscosity.
B. the pressure drop across the filter.
C. high tube oil temperature.
D. visual inspection of the filter elements.
5. What can happen with lubrication oil cooled pistons if you stop the lubricating
oil pump immediately after you stop the engine?
A. Overheating of the piston and oil coke deposits in the cooling chambers.
B. You preserve the oil sealings in the piston.
C. The oil flashpoint will change.
D. Nothing will happen.
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6. You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test
kit. The result shows that the viscosity is low. What will you do ?
A. Clean the system and change the oil.
B. Start to purify the oil.
C. Decrease the lubrication oil temperature.
D. Increase the lubrication oil temperature.
7. Why is the tightening of the time chain important ?

A. To avoid wear down of chain and chain wheel tooth and a potential
breakdown.
B. To get the right timing on the chain.
C. To reduce the noise level.
D. To reduce vibration in the chain.
8. You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test
kit. The result shows that he viscosity is high. What will you do ?
A. Decrease the cooling water temperature for the oil.
B. Increase the cooling temperature for the oil.
C. Clean the system and change the oil.
D. Increase the lubrication oil pressure.
9. How is the opening pressure (setpoint) adjusted in a fuel injector valve ?

A. By spring.
B. By length of stroke.
C. By oil pressure.
D. By camshaft regulation.
10. If you have a fuel injector nozzle with 10 holes, how many clogged holes are
acceptable ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0
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11. Why do main engine makers recommend grinding the valve spindle sealing
surface with a half degree difference to the valve seat ?
A. To improve sealing surface between value and seat during operation of
engine.
B. To for heat expansion.
C. To minimize heat transfer between seat and housing.
D. To avoid sticking between value and seat during high load operation.
12. Why is important to check the timing on the cylinder oil lubricators ?
A. To avoid excess lubrication.
B. To avoid high temperature in the combustion chamber.
C. To get the oil into the cylinder when the piston is in the right position.
D. To get the right amount of oil into the cylinder.
13. You are experiencing large hunting in the fresh water cooling system. What is the
reason ?
A. The fresh water-circulating pump is worn out.
B. The cooling water temperature is too low.
C. You have a cracked liner, or cover.
D. The expansion tank is empty.
14. You have installed a new bearing in the main engine. What is the necessary
action to take during the running in period ?
A. No action is required to be taken.
B. Stop after 30 minutes running and hand feel the bearing.
C. Allowance must be made for a running in period with reduced speed and
careful temperature monitoring.
D. Allow for one hour running with appropriate temperature monitoring of the
bearing
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15. You are having a blow-by on the main engine, but due to circumstances, it is
impossible to stop and do a to overhaul. What is the correct action to take ?
A. No action is necessary.
B. Increase cylinder oil consumption.
C. Reduce speed temporarily and increase cylinder oil consumption.
D. Reduce speed.
16. During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of
the cylinders. The turbocharger starts surging and smoke is coming from the inlet
air filter. What is the probable cause?
A. High back pressure in the exhaust system.
B. Turbocharger failure.
C. Scavenge box fire.
D. Fuel valve stuck in open position.
17. When carrying out piston overhaul, why it is important to clean the ring grooves
properly ?
A. To make sure gas pressure can enter freely on top of and behind the piston
ring .
B. That the piston ring can moue freely in the grooves.
C. To make the ring fit in the groove.
D. All rings must be changed to make a perfect sealing.
18. Inspection of the crank bearing shows the bearing shell was black and hard with
patches of black incrustations which had worn grooves in the journal. What could
be the cause ?
A. Water in the lubricating oil during service.
B. The wrong casting of bearing shell.
C. Bearing shell service time exceeded.
D. Dirt the lubricating oil.
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19. If you are going to enter the engine's crankcase, how should you secure the
engine after you have closed the main starting air valve?
A. Close absolutely all valves on the starting air bottle.
B. Keep a man posted in the control room to watch that nobody tries to start the
engine
C. Close the instrument air supply.
D. Engage the turning gear on the engine.
20. What will the effect be if a fuel injector value is dripping after the injection is
finished ?
A. Damage to piston & liner.
B. Greater output of the engine.
C. Better combustion.
D. Less carbonizing.
21. A leak from the gland of a centrifugal pump is found to be excessive. The correct
procedure is ....
A. lighten the gland as much as possible until the leakage stops.
B. re-pack the stuffing box loosely with the correct size packingat the earliest
opportunity.
C. fit over size packing to the stuffing box.
D. pump out the bilge well to which it is draining regularly.
22. A turbo charger is running at full speed. What would be a possible oil sump bath
temperature on the turbine side ?
A. 72 to 82 degrees C.
B. 35 to 45 degrees C.
C. 45 to 50 degrees C.
D. 55 to 65 degrees C.
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23. For a low pressure boiler, testing shows the water chloride level to be 500 PPM.
What action would you take ?
A. Blow down boiler and check condenser for leakage.
B. Increase dosage.
C. No action needed.
D. Decrease dosage.
24. The timing of the engine is delayed and the exhaust temperatures are high. How
would you expect this to affect the turbocharger ?
A. Cause surging of turbocharger.
B. Cause decreased turbocharger revolutions.
C. Cause higher air and gas temperatures after turbocharger.
D. Cause increased turbocharger revolutions.
25. The plate heat exchanger is separated for cleaning, what should you do if the plates
are thick with scale or other organic material ?
A. Use wire-brush or metal scraper to clean the plates.
B. Change the plates.
C. Put the plates in water with cleaning chemicals. Use soft brush or high
pressure cleaner with care.
D. Use high pressure cleaner with abrasives.
26. You notice the sump level in an engine has increased and no new oil has been
added. What action would you take ?
A. Reduce the load and look for fuel or water leak.
B. Drain some oil from the engine.
C. Leave it alone.
D. Stop the engine and look for fuel or water leak.
27. When opening a plate cooler for cleaning, how should the bolts be removed ?
A. One by one, anti-clockwise.
B. One by one, clockwise.
C. Fully slacken and remove middle bolts first, then top and then bottom ones.
D. Fully slacken and remove top ones first, then middle and then the bottom
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ones.
28. when an overhaul of a compressor is completed and the compressor is going to be

started for a test run, it is important to………..
A. check maximum pressure of the capacity on run-up.
B. check that an open discharge line exists all the way to the pressure bott
C. check that all consumptions are closed during the test run.
D. check the direction of rotation.
29. What steps are to be taken in chronological order to stabilise a governor of a diesel
engine after overhaul ?
A. Set integrating to MAX, than adjust speed (P) and differential D.
B. Set integrating to MAX, differentiating to MITI, adjust speed (P) upward.
C. Adjust speed (P) setting, than integrating next differentiating from 0.
D. Set integrating and differentiating to MAX, set speed (P) 0 upwards.
30. If oil is found in the boiler water, what action would you take other than isolating
the leak ?
A. Dose the coagulant and blow down the boiler.
B. No action needed.
C. Blow down the boiler.
D. Dose the coagulant.
31. On the air compressor's crankcase there is a small value that lets off pressure. What
should be done if the value is letting of pressure and oil moisture ?
A. Block off the valve.
B. Increase the flow of cooling water.
C. Overhaul the compressor unit.
D. Check the clearance in the bearing.
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32. How often should greasing of pump bearings take place ?

A. Every Week.
B. Every day.
C. As specified in the vessel's PMS.
D. Every month.
33. What will you do if the plate exchanger leaks after cleaning and is back in service?
A. Dismantle exchanger and check or renew packings.
B. Close the valves.
C. Tighten more.
D. Reduce pressure.
34. Why is it important to follow a maintenance schedule for purifiers ?

A. To prevent serious damage to main components.
B. To improve the purifier's efficiency.
C. To comply with company regulations.
D. The only maintenance necessary is cleaning of the bowl.
35. What will you do if a purifier starts to vibrate, or has heavy vibrations?
A. Try to increase the flow.
B. Stop the purifier immediately.
C. Check the vibration alarm.
D. Try to decrease the flow.
36. How do you test the probes for the 15 ppm monitor ?
A. By immersing in oil.
B. It is only necessary to clean them.
C. By immersing in oil and water.
D. They have to be changed, testing is not possible.
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37. Adjusting the spring tension on the fuel values during operation is recommended to
achieve …………….
A. exhaust temperatures in line (equal temperatures).
B. equal cylinder pressures.
C. improved fuel atomizing.
D. improved fuel flow.
38. Most engine makers recommend a change of cylinder head gaskets each time a
piston overhaul is carried out. Why ?
A. To avoid heat transfer to the cylinder head.
B. To increase consumption of parts so they can make more money.
C. To be granted a proper sealing with new gasket.
D. To obtain a proper sealing and correct distance between piston and cover in
TDC position.
39. When adjusting the value clearance between the rocker arm and pushrod, the cams
on the camshaft for each cylinder should be………..
A. 90 degrees before TOG.
B. 90 degrees after TOG.
C. negative.
D. positive.
40. The lapping a value and value seat means……………..

A. adjusting the overlapping of the inlet and exhaust valves.
B. repairing by welding.
C. grinding the valve against the value seat to obtain a uniform sealing surfac
D. machining the value in a lathe machine.
41. Mat will you do if the heat transfer capacity is dropping and we know that flow and
heat energy corresponds to specifications ?
A. Try to increase the flow.
B. Use the "cleaning in place arrangement.
C. Add some more plates to the exchanger.
D. Increase the flow pressure
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42. At what interval should boiler water testing take place ?

A. very eight hours.
B. very week.
C. very fortnight.
D. every day.
43. What should be observed when you make a lubricating check of the crankcase gear
forced lubrication oil system ?
A. The level in the oil sump tank.
B. The oil pressure on the top position manometer.
C. Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, gear train.
D. The condition of the oil in the sump tank using a test kit.
44. Which very important maintenance activity should you carry out on pre-tensioning
hydraulic tools to avoid trouble during work on the engines and to ensure safe
operations on board ?
A. Replace the 0-rings of the tool components regularly, in particular replace
after frequent use.
B. Renew the hydraulic oil after every use.
C. Clean the hydraulic filter.
D. Check that there are no metallic parts in the internals and hat the oil is clean.
45. Why is it important to slow down the main engine RPM while water washing the
turbocharger ?
A. To protect rotor blades from damage.
B. To protect the bearings.
C. To protect the exhaust gas economizer.
D. To protect the blower side.
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46. Your vessel is entering a tropical area and high humidity is expected. What should
you do to avoid condensation in the main engine's air cooler ?
A. Reduce speed.
B. Increase scavenging air temperature to above dew point.
C. Decrease the air temperature so proper draining can be achieved from the air
cooler.
D. Operate the engine with slightly open drain cocks, scavenging to get rid of
water.
47. Which of the following components is HOT directly lubricated by the lubricating
inlet supply line ?
A. The gear train.
B. The main bearings.
C. The thrust bearing.
D. The crosshead.
48. How is the trust bearing lubricated ?

A. By its own independent supply system.
B. Direct via the main lubrication oil line.
C. Via the crankshaft.
D. Via the camshaft.
49. How is the gear train lubricated ?

A. Via the crankshaft.
B. Via the camshaft system.
C. Direct by the common lubricating oil circuit.
D. By its own independent lubricating oil circuit.
50. From where should a boiler water sample be taken for testing ?
A. Any place where possible.
B. From the water space.
C. From the drain cock.
D. Frorn the steam space.
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51. What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out prior to main engine
manoeuvring with regards to the starting air system ?
A. Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spanner.
B. Open up the main and cylinder head starting value and clean the pistons.
C. Grease the values by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture.
D. See that the cylinder starting value is moving by air hose connection.
52. The timing of the engine is delayed. The exhaust temperatures are high. How
would you expect this to affect the turbocharger ?
A. Higher air and gas temperature after turbocharger.
B. Increased turbocharger revolutions.
C. Surging of the turbocharger.
D. Decreased turbocharger revolutions.
53. What are the two most important factors influencing the outcome of crankshaft
deflection readings?
A. Ballast tank condition, bedplate alignment.
B. Bedplate alignment, condition of after peak.
C. Bearing wear and bedplate alignment.
D. Condition of ballast tanks, temperature of engine.
54. What is the meaning of the term "value clearance" ?

A. The clearance between rocker arm and camshaft pushrod.
B. The clearance between rocker arm and camshaft in either warm or cold state.
C. The clearance between rocker arm and value pushrod.
D. The clearance between value spindle disc and seat.
55. With full load on the main engine, the RPM of the turbocharger is too low. What
may be the cause?
A. Dirty nozzle ring.
B. The diffuser ring is damaged.
C. Exhaust temperatures on the main engine are too high.
D. The lubricating oil pump is malfunctioning.
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56. If you want to obtain a higher spray-off pressure on the injector, what should you
do ?
A. Tension the fuel pump spring more.
B. Adjust the fuel oil cam to retard.
C. Tension the injector spring more.
D. Adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.
57. The blower air delivery to the turbocharger is not sufficient. What is the cause ?
A. Air temperature in engine room is too high.
B. Dirty scavenge duct.
C. Clogged air inlet filter.
D. Fooling water temperature is too high.
58. After water washing the turbocharger exhaust side, the blower starts to vibrate.
What has happened?
A. The foundation bolts for the blower unit are loose.
B. The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned.
C. The inlet filer is partly clogged.
D. The water drain for washing system is clogged.
59. With full load on the main engine, the turbocharger tachometer reads - too low
RPM. Why ?
A. Damaged connection between pick-up and tachometer unit.
B. Pick up tachometer is wrongly adjusted.
C. Pick up is not connected to turbocharger.
D. Turbocharger needs to be cleaned/overhauled.
60. You have a problem with vibration in the turbocharger. What might be the cause?
A. The turbine rotor is not balanced.
B. Worn out turbocharger bearings.
C. The lubricating oil needs to be changed.
D. Dirty air inlet filter.
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61. How is the set pressure (opening pressure) of the safety value on cylinder head of a
diesel engine to be adjusted ?
A. By adjusting the lift height of the spindle.
B. By fitting distance washers.
C. By adjusting the distance of the value cone.
D. By adjusting the spring pressure.
62. linear position of the crankshaft in a running engine changes constantly and this
distortion needs to be measured. What is it called ?
A. Any of these.
B. Crankshaft distortion reading.
C. Crankshaft deflection measurement.
D. Crankshaft misalignment calibration.
63. After boiler inspections and surveys, what is the final test carried out by the
surveyor in order to accredit the safety values and boiler mountings ?
A. Check the condition of valves and valve seats.
B. Check the valves for corrosion.
C. Check safety valve blow off at required overpressure.
D. Check the valve spindles for cracks.
64. The lubricating oil on the exhaust side of the turbine blower gets dirty after only a
few hours in service. What can the reason be ?
A. The oil is mixed with salt water.
B. Exhaust gas leaking into the oil chamber.
C. Worn out bearing turbine side.
D. The wrong type of oil used.
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65. The water cooling space on the turbocharger is damaged and you have no spares.
The cooling water must be closed. What steps would you take to ensure least
possible damage ?
A. Dismantle the rotor and assemble the sealing plate.
B. Run the engine at lower speed.
C. Cool the turbocharger by means of air.
D. Make no modifications, but tell the duty engineer to pay special attention for
abnormalities.
66. The turbocharger (constant pressure) is making ''whoofing" noises. What might be
the cause ?
A. One or more leaking exhaust valves.
B. A faulty turbocharger bearing.
C. Heavy seas from astern.
D. A strong counter current.
67. Paint spraying has been carried out in the engine room while the engine was
running and the turbocharger was not protected. This could cause which of the
following ?
A. Higher than normal scavenging air pressure.
B. Lower than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.
C. Higher then normal exhaust gas temperatures.
D. Higher than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.
68. Which of these could cause a problem with surging in the turbocharger ?
A. Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side.
B. Dirty rotor blades and nozzle ring.
C. Lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning.
D. Worn bearings on the turbocharger.
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69. After how many hours would you consider changing the turbocharger bearings,
even though all appears to be normal ?
A. 12000 hours.
B. 30000 hours.
C. 4000 hours.
D. 25000 hours.
70. Which important maintenance activity should you carry out on pre-tensioning
hydraulic tools to ensure their continuous safe use ?
A. Clean the hydraulic filter

B. Replace the 0-rings of the tool components regularly, replacing particularly
after frequent use
C. Renew the hydraulic oil after every use
D. Check that there are no metallic parts in the internals or in the oil
71. In what kind of machinery would this type of gland packing never be used ?
A. Fuel oil or Lub. oil piping
B. Steam equipment
C. Sea water or freshwater pumping equipment
D. Refrigerating installations
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72. Where are you most likely to find this kind of value fitted ?
A. On refrigerating machinery
B. On sea chests
C. In diesel engine starting air lines
D. Before and after filters
73. What kind of valve is this ?
A. A worm wheel operated gate valve

B. A manually operated butterfly valve
C. A gear operated gate valve
D. A gear operated butterfly valve
74. Where is this type of valve usually found ?
A. In piping of low pressure and tow

B. In piping of high pressure and large
flow
C. In piping with large flow but low
pressure
D. In piping of high pressure but limited
flow
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75. How is the soot which will accumulate between the finned piping of an exhaust gas
boiler removed?
A. By high pressure water jet washing at 3000 psi

B. By sand blasting in the drydock
C. Soot blowing at sea, water washing in port
D. By chemical cleaning with pump in port
76. What would you do if water was found leaking at sea from the exhaust gas boiler
and it is found to be from a leaking finned tube pipe from the steam generating
unit ?
A. Put the entire steam generating bank out of commission.

B. Put the exhaust gas boiler out of commission.
C. Plug the section; bank
D. Plug the pipe
77. What are parts 1 and 4 and what ensures the seal between them ?
A. Part 1 = valve plate, part 4= cast body, a sea
B. Part 1 = top cover, part 4 = valve casing, a jointing
C. Part 1 = valve cover, part 4 = valve body, a gasket
D. Part 1 = top plate, part 4 = casing, an O-ring
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DPKP
78. What is this unit called ?
A. A stuffing box gland packing

B. A flexible type rotating packing assembly
C. A segmented seal unit
D. A box type packing unit
79. If you find a leak on one of the tubes of this heater, what should you do ?
A. Weld the tube tight
B. Machine plugs and weld in place.
C. Put the heater out of commission
D. Machine plugs and plug the tube by
hammering the plugs into position
80. On a reciprocating pump piston, the rings are made of material with low elastic
limit such as hard rubber, Bakelite etc. In order to be able to fit them in the piston
grooves you will need to……..
A. put them on top of the boiler casing to warm up.
B. apply grease or vaseline to slide the rings on.
C. heat them in boiling water for 20 to 30 minutes .
D. use a special sliding tool.
81. How is the sealing ring (2) fitted on the butterfly valve plate ?
A. It sits in a grooved bolted-on section

B. It is bolted on and secured by wiring
C. It is glued on a separate removable ring
D. It kept in place by a retaining ring secured by
countersunks
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DPKP
82. All the ferrous components of a ship will sustain strong corrosive action in the
presence of……
A. turbulent water.
B. acid waters.
C. steam
D. alkaline waters.
83. What is the most important item of maintenance required to ensure maximum
flow of air conditioned air to the accommodation ?
A. Clean the sea water side of the condenser every 2 months

B. Ensure always that there is sufficient Freon in the receiver
C. Clean the central air conditioning fan unit's intake suction filters
D. Verify and top-up the oil level of the compressor.
84. A bilge strainer is blocking up during bilge pumping operations which is causing
delays as the pump frequently loses suction and has to be primed. What action
should be taken to remedy the situation?
A. Clean the strainer more frequently and clean out the bilge
well at the first opportunity.
B. Remove the strainer plate from the housing to avoid
blockage and loss of suction.
C. Remove the strainer plate and drill larger holes in it and
replace it in the housing to avoid blockages.
D. Use a portable pump to avoid blockage of the strainer.
1471
DPKP
85. A centrifugal pump gland has been repacked following overhaul of the pump.
What is the correct method to ensure the pump shaft does not overheat when the
pump is operating?
A. Gradually tighten the gland follower with the pump
running until leakage at the gland stops.
B. Tighten the gland to half way travel of the gland follower.
C. Tighten the gland follower as much as possible and then
slacken it back again by one turn of the gland nuts.
D. Gradually tighten the gland follower with the pump
running until the leakage is just a small steady flow.
86. A new gasket has been fitted to the manhole cover of a ballast tank. Which of the
options given would be suitable to test that the new gasket is correctly fitte
A. Carry out a hose test on the manhole cover.
B. Carry out an air pressure test on the ballast tank.
C. Fill the tank with water until it overflows through the air
vent.
D. Fill the tank with water up to capacity.
87. A new joint is needed for a steam condensate drain line. What is the most
suitable jointing material to use?
A. Plain fibre jointing
B. Wire reinforced fibre jointing
C. Cork jointing
D. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion
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DPKP
88. A pump cover is sealed using a paper gasket which is damaged during overhaul.
There are no spare gaskets available. How should the casing be sealed when
reassembling the pump?
A. Make a new gasket from old chart paper or other similar
material of the same thickness as the original gasket.
B. Run a bead of silicon around the outside of the joint after
fitting the cover.
C. Re-use the old gasket.
D. Put a thick layer of jointing compound on the face of the
cover and tighten the cover until the compound squeezes
out.
89. A seawater pipe is holed due to corrosion causing frequent bilge alarms. Which
of the given temporary repair methods would be the preferred option to remedy
the problem until the pipe can be replaced?
A. Cover all of the affected area with fibre glass tape and
resin/fibre glass mixture.
B. Cover the hole with rubber insertion held in place with a
jubilee clip.
C. Drive a steel taper pin into the hole to seal it.
D. Wrap duct tape around the pipe in way of the hole.
90. A small electric motor needs to be taken to the bottom plates for fitting to a
domestic water pump. It is only just too heavy to be manually carried so is to be
lowered using the engine room crane. Which of the options given would be a
suitable strop to use for the operation?
A. Any certified strop which has a safe working load greater
than the weight of the motor.
B. Any strop which looks big enough to carry the load.
C. A wire strop which is rated for twice the required load but
is out of certification.
D. Any piece of rope will do as the motor is only just too
heavy to carry.
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DPKP
91. A spare cylinder head for the generator needs to be lifted from its storage cradle
to the generator flat. Because of its location the engine room crane cannot be
positioned directly above it. What method should be used to bring the cylinder
head into position?
A. Rig chain blocks to lift the cylinder head from its cradle and
then transfer it gradually over to the crane hook by working
the chain blocks.
B. Attach the crane hook to the lifting gear for the cylinder head
and drag it across the deck until it is directly under the crane.
C. Use a block and tackle to drag the head across to a position
beneath the crane.
D. Use crow bars to lever the cylinder cover across the deck until
it is in position below the crane.
92. A threaded hole is to be formed in a steel plate using a tap and wrench. When
drilling the hole which of the options best describes the required drill size?
A. The drill should be a smaller size than the diameter of the tap.
B. The drill should be the same size as the diameter of the tap.
C. The drill should be a bigger size than the diameter of the tap.
D. The drill should be the same size at the diameter of the bolt
that is to be fitted into the hole.
93. An electric motor is to be aligned to a pump by inserting shims under the motor
feet. Which tool would be used to check that the alignment is correct by
measurement of the gap between the coupling faces?
A. A set of feeler gauges.
B. A go/no go gauge
C. An inside micrometer.
D. An inside vernier caliper
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DPKP
94. An engine room rating is assisting in the maintenance of some of the valves on
the low pressure steam range. Which packing material, from the options given,
would be the best choice for repacking the gland of a low pressure steam valve?
A. Graphite fibre packing.
B. Greasy cotton packing.
C. Lead covered cotton packing.
D. PTFE rope packing.
95. An engine room rating is given the task of retightening the flanges of a pipe that
has been replaced in the engine room. Which of the following tightening
procedures should be followed?
A. Gradually tighten all of the bolts working diagonally
across and around the flange.
B. Start with the top bolt and fully tighten each in turn
moving clockwise around the flange.
C. Start with the bottom bolt and partially tighten each bolt in
turn working counter-clockwise around the flange. Repeat
to fully tighten.
D. Fully tighten each bolt in turn and work diagonally across
and around the flanges.
96. An engine room rating notices that the guard on a running pump is hanging loose
due to a missing bolt on the support bracket and it is catching the shaft coupling.
What is the best action to take as a repair method?
A. Inform the watchkeeper so that the pump can be stopped
and a new bolt can be fitted to permanently fix the guard in
place.
B. Fasten the guard back in place with a piece of rope with
the pump running as a temporary repair.
C. Place a sheet of metal in front of the guard to deflect any
parts that may fly off as a temporary repair.
D. Try and fit a new bolt while the pump is running to
permanently fix the guard in place.
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DPKP
97. During maintenance work at sea an engine room rating is moving a heavy
component to the workshop using a chain block attached to an overhead trolley
on a rail. Part way through the operation the rating is asked by the engineer to go
immediately to the store for some equipment. What should the rating do?
A. Continue with the moving operation until the component is
properly secured in the workshop before going to the store
for the equipment.
B. Immediately land the component on the deck but leave the
chain block attached and go and collect the equipment
from the store.
C. Leave the component suspended from the chain block and
go and collect the equipment from the store.
D. Immediately land the component on the deck and secure it
to a hand rail stanchion and go and get the equipment from
the store.
98. During maintenance work in the engine room an access ladder and platform have
been removed to allow work to be carried out on a pipe. When breaking for lunch
what action should be taken to make the worksite safe?
A. Close off the area with rope or tape and put out warning
signs that work is in progress.
B. Loosely refit the platform and ladder.
C. Refit the access ladder and platform securely and remove
it again after lunch.
D. Leave one man to carry on working on his own and to
warn anyone entering the engineroom that work is
ongoing.
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DPKP
99. Dring maintenance work on a fuel tank the engine room ratings are removing
scale in preparation for re-coating. One of the ratings suddenly notices the smell
of fumes even though the atmosphere had been satisfactorily tested before the
work started. What action should the ratings take?
A. Leave the tank immediately and have the
atmosphere retested.
B. Ask for another fan to be switched on to increase
the ventilation in the tank.
C. Put on breathing apparatus and carry on with the
task.
D. Stop work until the smell disappears and then carry on removing the scale.
100. During overhaul of a hydraulic pump a large number of small components are
removed. Where should these components be kept so that they are not lost?
A. They should be placed in a clean box or tin and
covered over.
B. They should be placed inside the pump casing.
C. They should be kept in a boiler suit pocket.
D. They should be placed in the pump save all.
101. During overhaul of a purifier the engine room rating is instructed to drain and
clean the gearbox on the machine. Which of the materials given in the options is
the best one for wiping up the remaining oil in the gearbox after draining the oil?
A. Clean, lint free cotton rags.
B. Clean cotton waste.
C. Used paper towels from the wash room.
D. Used dish cloths from the galley.
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DPKP
102. During overhaul of some plate type compressor valves the engine room rating is
asked to clean the valve plates and seat. Some of the valve plates are heavily
marked. What action should be taken?
A. Discard the defective valve plates and replace them with new
spares.
B. Use coarse grinding paste to remove the marks from the valve
plates as quickly as possible.
C. Skim the valve plates in the lathe to remove all of the marks.
D. Dress the valve plates up using a portable grinder.
103. Following maintenance work on an air compressor the engine room rating is
asked to put the tools away. It is noticed that an allen key is missing from the set.
What action should be taken?
A. Inform the engineer in case it has been left inside the
compressor when it was closed up.
B. Assume it has fallen in the bilge and look for it when the
bilges have been pumped.
C. Make a note in the log book so the other engine room staff
know it is missing.
D. Get another one from the store to make up a full set again.
104. Following repair and refitting of the seawater pipe for the fresh water generator
feed line the rating notices that one of the flange joints is leaking. What action
should be taken?
A. Check the bolts are correctly tightened before informing the
engineer so that the flange faces can be cleaned and re-jointed
if necessary.
B. Use a spanner with an extension pipe to try and stop the leak
by tightening the flange bolts as much as possible.
C. Use a hammer and flogging spanner to try and stop the leak by
tightening the flange bolts as much as possible.
D. Shut off the water and apply silicon or other sealing compound
to the outer edge of the flange joint.
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DPKP
105. Hot work is to be carried out close to a smoke detector in the engine room. What
precautions should be taken?
A. Notify Deck Officer and Engineer Officer in charge. The loop
for the smoke detector should be isolated while work is done
and normal precautions for hot work taken including permit to
work.
B. No special precautions except for having a watch man and a
fire extinguisher available.
C. Notify deck officer in charge that a fire alarm may occur.
D. Disconnect or cover up the smoke detector.
106. Most maintenance and repair tasks carried out onboard ship require a permit to
work which will include a full risk assessment. Where would an engine room
rating find out about the precautions that are required for a particular task?
A. Ships Safety Management Manual (ISM Code procedures)
B. Code of Safe Working Practices (COSWP)
C. Chief Engineer’s standing orders.
D. Engine room log book.
107. One of the tubes in a seawater cooled condenser is leaking due to being holed
half way along its length. What is the most appropriate onboard repair method to
be used from the options given?
A. Blank off the leaking tube at both ends using suitably tapered
brass plugs.
B. Blank off the leaking tube at both ends with steel screw plugs
after cutting an internal thread using a suitable tap.
C. Roll both ends of the leaking tube using a tube expanding tool.
D. Blank off the leaking tube by brazing a cap to each end of the
tube.
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DPKP
108. Personal protection equipment appropriate to the task should be worn during
work in the engine room. Which of the tasks requires that safety goggles should
always be worn?
A. When you are working with power tools or chemicals.
B. When you are filling in the engine room log book.
C. When you are welding.
D. When you are tidying up in the engine room workshop.
109. Tab washers are often fitted to bolted assemblies to prevent the nuts and bolts
slackening. For an assembly where the nuts are positioned at the top select the
option which describes the correct method of locating the tab washers.
A. Bend the inner tab up against one flat of the nut and the
other tab down over the edge of the component.
B. Bend the outer tap up against one flat of the nut and leave
the other tab flat against the component.
C. Bend both tabs up against opposite flats of the nut.
D. Bend the outer tap down over the edge of the component
and leave the other tab flat against the component.
110. The threads on the drain plug for the bronze end cover of a sea water cooled heat
exchanger have been badly damaged during maintenance. There is no spare brass
plug available. What is the best solution for repairing the heat exchanger?
A. Make a new brass plug on the lathe to fit the drain hole.
B. Use a steel plug with the same thread as the original to
replace it.
C. Hammer in a wooden tapered plug as a temporary repair.
D. Wrap the threads in thread tape and coat it with jointing
compound before refitting it.
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DPKP
111. Welding and burning are two operations which give the highest risk of a fire on
board ship. Which of the following safety precautions may be regarded as the
most important in order to minimise this particular risk?
A. The area where the welding is to take place and adjacent
spaces to be cleaned and all unnecessary materials and
objects to be removed.
B. Only holders of a welding certificate should be allowed to
carry out welding or burning on board ships.
C. Electric welding plants should be controlled by a
responsible engineer before use.
D. Only use electrodes from a well known manufacturer.
112. What is meant by the term 'lapping in' in relation to diesel engine cylinder cover
valves?
A. Grinding the valve against the valve seat, usually
manually, to obtain a uniform sealing surface across the
seat.
B. Repair of the valve by welding stellite onto the seat.
C. The period of overlap when the inlet and exhaust valves
for a cylinder are open together.
D. Machining the valve and seat to achieve a differential seat
angle.
113. What is the main reason for using a ring spanner to tighten the brass nuts on the
cover studs of a pump casing?
A. It will minimise the risk of slipping off the nut or
damaging the nuts.
B. It will allow the nuts to be tightened correctly.
C. It can be adjusted to the exact size of the nut.
D. The nuts can be tightened more with this type of spanner.
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DPKP
114. What is the most suitable type of packing for a shaft gland of a pump used for
seawater duties?
A. Greasy cotton packing.
B. Mica impregnated cotton packing.
C. Lead covered hemp packing.
D. PTFE rope packing.
115. What kind of safety equipment should be used when operating a grinding wheel?
A. Goggles and shield
B. Goggles
C. Shield
D. Welding mask
116. What type of heat exchanger is shown in the illustration?

A. Plate
B. Shell and tube
C. Evaporative
D. Bundle and stack
117. What would be the likely cause if the shaft of a centrifugal pump shows
excessive wear in way of the stuffing box?
A. Over tightening of the gland packing.
B. Incorrect material used in construction of the shaft.
C. The discharge pressure of the pump is too high.
D. Wrong direction of rotation of the pump.
118. When refitting the bolts into a flange on a steam line how should the bolts be
prepared so that they can be easily removed next time maintenance is required?
A. Coat the threads in graphite based grease.
B. Coat the threads in general purpose grease.
C. Fit the bolts dry with a spring washer.
D. Apply thread tape to the bolt threads.
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DPKP
119. When working at height onboard ships what is the most important safety
precaution that should be taken?
A. Wear a safety harness securely attached to ship's structure.
B. Keep all the tools required for the work in a bucket.
C. Lash the bottom of the ladder to a fixed point.
D. Wear a safety helmet and goggles.
120. Which cleaning agents are suitable for use in machinery space when considering
the effect on the function of the oily water separator?
A. Only non-emulsifying cleaning agents with self splitting
emulsifiers are suitable.
B. Any kind of cleaning agent is suitable.
C. An emulsification type cleaning agent is suitable.
D. None should be used as all cleaning agents affect the
function of an OWS.
121. Which of the following tools can be safely sharpened using a pedestal grinder?
A. Steel drill bit
B. Hacksaw blade
C. Brass chisel
D. Wooden wedge
122. Which of the options given is most likely to result in overheating of a ball
bearing fitted to a pump shaft?
A. Completely filling the bearing with grease.
B. Partly filling the bearing with grease.
C. Running the pump at full capacity.
D. Fitting a sealed bearing that cannot be greased
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DPKP
123. Which tool in the options given is the best one for cutting a new external thread
on the end of a steel pipe?
A. Split dies
B. Die nut
C. Tap
D. Thread chaser
124. Which tool would be best suited for cutting a piece of angle iron?
A. Hacksaw.
B. Tenon saw.
C. Rip saw.
D. Crosscut saw.
125. Which tool would be used to produce accurately sized bolt holes in a steel
flange?
A. A reamer.
B. A twist drill.
C. A hole punch.
D. A centre drill.
126. Which type of pump is shown in the illustration?

A. A centrifugal pump.
B. A gear pump.
C. A scroll pump.
D. A reciprocating pump.
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DPKP
127. While getting tools ready and preparing for overhaul work on the main engine
the engine room rating notices that the electrical extension is damaged. A small
section of the cables outer insulation is split although the inner insulation appears
ok. What action should the rating take?
A. Label the damaged extension as unfit for use and
return it to the store for testing and get a
replacement extension.
B. Carry on using the extension after wrapping insulation tape over the
damaged section as it is only minor damage.
C. Just use the extension as it is since the damage is only to the outer
insulation and the inner insulation appears ok.
D. Cut off the end of the cable including the damaged section and refit the
plug to the end of the remaining cable before using the extension.
128. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted in the seawater side of heat exchangers?
A. To protect against corrosion
B. To reduce salinity
C. To prevent scaling
D. To prevent accumulation of marine growth
129. A centrifugal pump is to be reassembled following overhaul and it is discovered

that there are no spare gaskets for the pump housing. From the options given
select the best alternative material to make a gasket from.
A. Thick paper (chart paper).
B. Cork gasket.
C. Reinforced pilot packing.
D. Thick rubber gasket.
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DPKP
130. A centrifugal pump, which has been running normally and under optimum
conditions, is due for maintenance according to the planned maintenance
schedule. Which of the following components will most likely need to be
renewed to ensure incident free running through to the next scheduled
maintenance?
A. Ball bearings on the shaft and the wear rings for the pump housing or
impeller.
B. The shaft and guide bushes.
C. The impeller and retaining nut.
D. The shaft coupling and bolts.
131. A mechanical seal, consisting of carbon and ceramic seal rings, is to be fitted to a
cetrifugal pump shaft. What is the most likely result of not being extremely
carefull when fitting this type of seal?
A. The seal rings are brittle and can be easily chipped or damaged.
B. The seal rings are hard and may score the pump shaft.
C. The spring and bellows for the seal can be easily damaged.
D. The rubber O rings for the seal can be easily damaged.
132. An auxiliary engine is fitted with a duplex type lubricating oil filter. The in-use
element requires changing. What procedure should be used to fit the new
element?
A. With the engine running, change over to the other filter
after priming it and replace the dirty element after
checking there is no pressure on dirty filter housing.
B. With the engine running, position the changeover cock so
that both filters are in use to reduce the pressure before
opening dirty filter cover and changing the filter element.
C. The engine must be stopped to fit a clean filter element.
D. With the engine running, shut off the filter inlet and
quickly fit the new filter element
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DPKP
133. Choose the option which is most likely to result in erosion of the tubes in a heat
exchanger.
A. Cooling water velocity too high.
B. Cooling water temperature too high.
C. Cooling water pressure too high.
D. Rate of heat transfer too high.
134. During reassembly of a plate type heat exchanger following cleaning, the plate
stack is normally compressed to a recommended thickness when tightening the
tie bolts. Why is this recommended thickness given?
A. To prevent serious damages to the plates.
B. It is only a recommendation and is not really important.
C. To prevent distorting the backing plates.
D. To prevent overstressing the tie bolts.
135. If a refrigeration system contains air, how would you remove it from the system?
A. Pump the system down to the condenser, continue
cooling water flow until the condenser is at the same
temperature as the cooling water and vent off the air
from the top of the condenser.
B. Pump the system down to the evaporator and keep the fan running until the
evaporator is at ambient temperature and vent off the air from the top of the
evaporator.
C. Stop the compressor and vent the air from the crankcase.
D. Stop the compressor and undo a pipe coupling at the highest point in the
system to vent off the air.
136. In a refrigeration system what is the most likely cause of the compressor suction
pressure being too low and causing the compressor to short cycle?
A. System undercharged with refrigerant
B. System overcharged with refrigerant.
C. Insufficient cooling water flow through the condenser.
D. Expansion valve stuck open.
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DPKP
137. The packed gland on a centrifugal pump is leaking even though the gland has
been 'nipped up'. What is the correct action to take to stop the leakage?
A. Re-pack the stuffing box loosely with the correct size packing
at the earliest opportunity.
B. Fit an extra ring of oversize packing to the stuffing box at the
earliest opportunity.
C. Tighten up the gland as much as possible until the leakage
stops.
D. Ensure the bilge well to which the leakage is draining is
regularly pumped out.
138. What action would you take if the performance of a plate type heat exchanger
was falling off even though flow rates and pressures of the primary and
secondary fluids were normal?
A. Clean the heat exchanger.
B. Iincrease the flow of both fluids.
C. Add some more plates to the exchanger.
D. Increase the pressure of both fluids.
139. What information is required to evaluate the condition of a heat exchanger during
operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops across the
heat exchanger for both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures of the cooling water
C. Pressure drop for both fluids
D. Inlet and outlet temperatures for the fluid being cooled
140. What is the best method to use to remove heavy scale and fouling from the plates
of a heat exchanger?
A. Soak the plates in a recommended cleaning solution and then
use a soft brush or pressure cleaner.
B. Use high-pressure cleaner with abrasive additives.
C. Use wire-brush, metal scrapers and chipping guns.
D. Renew the plates.
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DPKP
141. What would you suspect has happened if the lubricating oil for an air compressor
has a milky white appearance?
A. Water contamination of the oil.
B. Air contamination of the oil.
C. Oil temperature has been too high.
D. Wrong grade of oil has been used.
142. Why is it necessary to use the vacuum pump after a major overhaul of a
refrigeration system?
A. To remove any air and water from the system in order to
prevent problems during operation.
B. To create a vacuum to help speed up refrigerant recharging
of the system.
C. To remove any lubricating oil from the system pipework.
D. To check the condition of the various seals in the system
143. During replacement of the diesel engine cylinder cover following maintenance
some manufacturers recommend that different torques are applied to some of the
cylinder cover stud nuts. Select the option which is most likely to be the reason
for this?
A. Temperature variations across the cylinder cover result in
uneven thermal loads on the studs.
B. Pressure variations in the cylinder result in uneven
mechanical loads on the cylinder cover studs.
C. The last of the cylinder cover stud nuts need to be
tightened more to even out the load on the cylinder cover
gasket.
D. The cylinder cover stud nuts that are most awkward to get
at are always tightened more in case they become loose
during engine operation.
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DPKP
144. For a Nitrite - Borate based cooling water treatment system, what would be
considered to be the normal nitrite concentration limits for a correctly dosed
system?
A. 1500-3000 ppm Nitrite.
B. 0-1500 ppm Nitrite.
C. 3000-4500 ppm Nitrite.
D. 4500-6000 ppm Nitrite.
145. How do we recognize a leaking fuel injection valve during testing?

A. The pressure falls off on the pressure gauge when trying to
hold the pressure in the injector below normal opening set
pressure.
B. The injector does not open at the normal opening set pressure.
C. The injector opens before normal opening set pressure.
D. Fuel oil leaks out of the joint between the nozzle and the
injector body.
146. How often should water testing of a diesel engine cooling water system be
carried out to check treatment levels and water condition during normal engine
operation?
A. Once a week.
B. Once a day.
C. It doesn't matter as water condition for diesel engine
cooling systems is not important.
D. Once a month.
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DPKP
147. Some engine manufacturers recommend that water washing of the compressor
side of a diesel engine turbocharger using chemical cleaners is no longer carried
out. Why is water washing no longer considered good practice?
A. It can cause fouling of the charge air cooler with wet sludge
lodging between the fins.
B. It uses too much water as the chemicals have to be flushed
through.
C. It leads to corrosion of the compressor casing and parts.
D. The chemicals are too expensive.
148. What is meant by the term 'feel over sequence' as applied to diesel engine
operation following replacement of a crankshaft bearing?
A. Stopping the engine to check the bearing temperature after a
short period of operation and repeating this procedure at
increasing running intervals.
B. Stop the engine after 2 hours running to check the bearing
temperature by running the hand over it.
C. Running the engine at low load and gradually increasing the
load over a period of 12 hours.
D. Using the hand to feel for any loose fastenings or sharp edges
before starting the engine.
149. What is the main purpose for taking diesel engine crankshaft deflections?
A. To check for weardown of the main bearings.
B. To check that the shafting is in a straight line.
C. To check for weardown of the bottom end bearings.
D. To allow calculation of the load on each of the bearings.
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DPKP
150. What is the main reason for routine testing of the cooling water in a diesel engine
cooling system?
A. To ensure that the correct levels of chemical treatment are
maintained at all times
B. To detect the presence of contaminants in the water
C. To detect dissolved oxygen in the water
D. To measure the pH - value of the water
151. What is the most important task after carrying out any major overhaul on a diesel
engine?
A. a thorough check inside the engine to make sure all tools
and cleaning rags have been removed.
B. Start the engine to check the direction of rotation.
C. Start the auxiliary blower to ventilate the engine so that it
has sufficient fresh air for starting.
D. Repair any damaged paint work on the engine.
152. What precautions should be taken, in addition to shutting the main air start valve,
if work is to be carried out inside the main diesel engine crankcase?
A. Engage the turning gear and put a notice at each engine
control position.
B. Engage the turning gear and close every valve on the
starting air receivers.
C. Engage the turning gear, stop the starting air compressors
and drain the air receivers.
D. Keep a man posted in the control room to stop anyone who
tries to start the engine.
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153. Why do diesel engine manufacurers usually recommend that all of the gaskets are
renewed when refitting a cylinder cover?
A. To minimise risk of gas leakage and ensure correct
clearance between piston and cylinder cover.
B. It will guarantee a good seal even if the sealing faces are
damaged.
C. To increase the consumption of parts so they can make
more money
D. To avoid the need to clean the sealing faces.
154. Why do some diesel engine manufacturers recommend machining the valve
spindle sealing surface with a half degree difference to the valve seat angle?
A. To improve valve sealing by compensating for pressure
and temperature effects on the valve during engine
operation..
B. To improve valve sealing by compensating for expansion
of the valve during high temperature operation.
C. To improve valve sealing by increasing contact force by
reducing contact area between valve and seat.
D. To minimize heat transfer between valve and valve seatz
155. A simple level control for a water tank consists of a horizontal lever with a float
at one end and a filling valve at the other. The lever is provided with an
adjustable pivot positioned between the valve and the float. How will the 'offset'
in the system be affected under changing demand conditions if the pivot is
moved closer to the filling valve?
A. It will increase the offset across the demand range.
B. It will increase the offset on high demand but reduce it on
low demand.
C. It will reduce the offset throughout the demand range.
D. It will reduce the offset on low demand but increase it
during high demand.
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156. A vapour compression refrigeration system is usually fitted with a number of

devices to give protection and control of the system. Which of the methods given
in the options should be used to test the high pressure cut out during routine
maintenance and checking of the system?
A. Gradually shut in the condenser cooling water valve or the
condenser refrigerant inlet valve while closely monitoring
the compressor discharge pressure.
B. Charge the system with refrigerant until the high pressure
cut out operates.
C. Manually close each of the evaporator coils by switching
off the electrical supply to the liquid line solenoid shut off
valves and monitor the condenser pressure.
D. Close the condenser outlet valve and closely monitor the
condenser pressure.
157. During maintenance of a pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control

valve the diaphragm is found to be split. Select, from the options given, a suitable
material to use to make a temporary replacement if there is no spare diaphragm
available.
A. Natural rubber sheet of approximately the same thickness
and elasticity as the original diaphragm material.
B. Natural rubber sheet of greater thickness and lower
elasticity as the original diaphragm material.
C. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of approximately
the same thickness but less elasticity than the original
diaphragm material.
D. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of smaller
thickness but similar strength as the original diaphragm
material.
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158. During maintenance work on a compensated mechanical hydraulic governor air

is drawn in to the hydraulic circuit after draining and flushing out the unit. Which
of the actions given in the options is most likely to assist in the removal of the air
from the system?
A. With the governor in operation open the compensation
needle valve to introduce instability and disturb the engine
load to make the governor hunt.
B. Drain the governor again and slowly refill with fresh oil.
C. With the governor in operation close the compensation
needle valve and disturb the load to make the engine hunt.
D. Overfill the governor with fresh oil to force all of the air
out.
159. Following replacement of a diesel alternator governor the machine is test run on
load. It is found that as the load is gradually increased the voltage and the
frequency gradually fall to an unacceptable level. The governor is a mechanical
hydraulic type. Select from the options given the correct adjustment to make to
correct the situation.
A. The governor droop should be reduced.
B. The governor droop should be increased.
C. The governor load limit should be reduced.
D. The governor load limit should be increased.
160. The refrigeration system for the ships provisions consists of a number of cold
rooms served by a central refrigeration system. The evaporator coils for the
vegetable room are found to be frosting up even though the room is down to
temperature and the liquid line valve has closed. Select, from the options given,
the automatic control component which is likely to be malfunctioning and so
cause this condition.
A. Back pressure control valve.
B. Thermostatic expansion valve for the meat room.
C. The low pressure cut out for the compressor.
D. The liquid line valve for the flour room.
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161. The Ziegler-Nichols method is used in control engineering when setting up the
system. Which of the system components given in the options would this method
be applied to during initial set up?
A. PID controller for tuning.
B. Valve and actuator to set the span of travel.
C. Valve positioner to optimise speed of operation.
D. Sensing unit to set the range.
162. What could be the cause of a refrigeration compressor running continuously even
though normal temperatures for the cold rooms have been reached?
A. Low-pressure cut-out is stuck in closed position.
B. The differential pressure switch for the lubricating oil
pressure cut-out is stuck in the closed position.
C. High-pressure cut-out is stuck in open position.
D. Solenoid valve before the expansion valve stuck in closed
position.
163. With the set point at the actual desired value, a temperature control system is
giving an unacceptably large offset (difference between set point and measured
value) on high load resulting in a low system temperature. Which of the actions
given in the options should be taken to reduce this effect and therefore achieve
closer control of the temperature?
A. Reduce the width of the proportional band for the
controller.
B. Increase the width of the proportional band for the
controller.
C. Increase the set point to a value above the actual desired
value
D. Crack open the manual bypass valve for the control valve.
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164. A deadweight tester is used to check and calibrate a pressure gauge. The tester
consists of a hydraulic pump and a hydraulic chamber and balance weight
system. After completing the calibration of the pressure gauge the hydraulic
pressure should be relieved before removing the weights. Select, from the options
given, the main reason for this requirement.
A. To protect the piston in the hydraulic system from
possible impact damage as it may reach the end of its
stroke.
B. To protect the pressure gauge from a surge in pressure
as the weights are removed.
C. To protect the hydraulic balance system from a
pressure surge as the weights are removed.
D. To protect the hydraulic pump from a pressure surge as
the weights are removed.
165. A power card taken from a diesel engine cylinder using a mechanical indicator
has a flat top. Which of the possible actions given in the options is most likely to
correct this irregularity on the power card?
A. Change the indicator spring for one with a higher
rating.
B. Lengthen the cord for the indicator drum drive.
C. Shorten the cord for the indicator drum drive.
D. Lubricate the indicator piston and cylinder.
166. A pressure gauge of the bourdon tube type is reading incorrectly and shows 2 bar
when the pressure in the system is zero. There is no spare available. Which of the
options would be the best temporary remedy for this situation?
A. Use a deadweight tester to mark a new scale on the
gauge throughout the working range.
B. Subtract 2 bar from the gauge reading when checking
the pressure.
C. Remove the indicator needle and reposition it to read
zero when the system is unpressurised.
D. Bend the bourdon tube so that a zero reading is
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obtained when the system is unpressurised.
167. A standard outside micrometer requires regular maintenance, including

calibration, in order to ensure accuracy of measurement. How is the accuracy of
this type of instrument normally checked? Select the answer from the options
given.
A. By measuring a standard gauge block or rod at a
common temperature.
B. By trying a go/no go gauge between the micrometer
anvil and spindle at maximum opening at a common
temperature.
C. By checking the distance between micrometer anvil
and spindle with an inside vernier gauge.
D. By checking the distance between the micrometer anvil
and spindle with an inside micrometer.
168. As part of the regular maintenance for a paramagnetic oxygen analyser used for
measuring the oxygen content of exhaust gas it is important to keep the sample
line filter as clean as possible. Why is this necessary with this type of instrument?
A. Pressure variations in the sample chamber can cause
errors so restrictions must be kept to a minimum.
B. A high flow rate is required in order to deflect the
sensing element.
C. The filter may rupture due to the high pressures
generated by the sample pump.
D. The pressure drop across the filter may damage the
sampling pump.
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169. Compressed air for instrument and control purposes needs to be of high quality.
In order to condition the air filter modules are usually fitted to remove the
contaminants. If there is evidence of oil carry over to the final elements in the
instrumentation air system what is the most likely cause?
A. The coalescer module is saturated and requires
renewal.
B. The drier section of the module needs to be
regenerated.
C. The particle removal module is choked.
D. The air compressor piston rings need to be renewed.
170. Vibration analysis is often used as a conditioning monitoring tool onboard ship as
part of the approved planned maintenance system. Many vibration measuring
instruments are fitted with a harmonic filter/analyser. How would these filters
normally be used during vibration measurement on a centrifugal pump?
A. To isolate a single frequency of vibration associated
with one of the pumps components.
B. To sum up all the harmonics of a base frequency to
give total vibration for all of the pump's components
simultaneously.
C. To block out any noise or vibration from the
surrounding engine room.
D. To generate an audible sound signal at the same
frequency and amplitude as the vibration.
171. When checking the zero point on a combustible gas indicator that is to be used to
detect hydrocarbon gases in an empty cargo tank which method should be used
from the options given?
A. Pass fresh air through the sample chamber.
B. Pass oxygen gas through the sample chamber
C. Pass methane gas through the sample chamber.
D. Pass carbon monoxide gas through the sample
chamber.
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172. Wich of the methods given in the options should be used as part of the check of
the accuracy of a liquid filled thermometer used in the cold rooms of the ships
provisions stores?
A. Immerse the thermometer in a mixture of distilled
water and ice made from distilled water to check the
zero reading.
B. Place the thermometer in a hole drilled into a block of
ice to check the zero reading.
C. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the
reading matches the thermostat setting when the liquid
line valve closes.
D. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the
reading when the refrigeration compressor cuts out.
173. Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test a remote
reading temperature gauge for the auxiliary boiler exhaust gas?
A. Check the resistance change in the sensor over a
known temperature range against the resistance values
in the product sheet.
B. Place the sensor in a test tank of water fitted with a
heater element and thermometer and check the
temperature gauge at different temperatures.
C. Place the sensor in a test tank of oil fitted with a heater
element and thermometer and check the temperature
gauge at different temperatures.
D. Fit a spare temperature gauge and see if the readings
are the same.
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174. Which of the methods given in the options will give the most accurate test of the
accuracy of a bourdon tube type pressure gauge with a range of 0 to 20 bar?
A. Check the gauge on a deadweight tester.
B. Compare it with the reading from a similar gauge
connected to the same pressure source.
C. Use the fuel injector test pump to check the readings
against the test rig master gauge.
D. Check the readings against the output gauge from a
pressure regulator by connecting it to a regulated test
supply.
175. With reference to the installation of pressure gauges for steam systems. Complete
the following statement from the options given. To protect a bourdon tube type
pressure gauge which is to be fitted to a steam line it should ….
A. ..be fitted with a siphon loop between it and the steam
pipe.
B. ..have its casing filled with water.
C. ..be fitted directly to the steam pipe.
D. ..be fitted to the steam pipe using a flexible hose
176. A tank containing hydrocarbon residues requires manual cleaning by use of

shovels, scrapers etc. Which of the following is the correct procedure to follow?
A. Open and ventilate the tank, test oxygen content, have
someone standing by with rescue equipment, complete
a permit to work and a tank entry permit and then
commence work.
B. Open and ventilate the tank, have someone standing by
outside the tank and then commence work.
C. Open the tank, provide ventilation and then commence
work immediately.
D. Open the tank , have someone standing by outside the
tank and commence working.
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177. Every person onboard ship has a responsibility for safety and security. General
house-keeping rules should be followed. Which of the listed rules is the most
important onboard a tanker?
A. Never carry lighters or matches on the tank deck.
B. Always use the handrails when going up or down
ladders.
C. Always wear safety shoes on deck..
D. Always use gloves when operating portable grinders
and chipping machines.
178. If the oxygen content in an enclosed space is less than 20% and a non-essential
routine inspection of the space is due which of the following is the correct course
of action?
A. Postpone the inspection until the correct oxygen
content can be achieved.
B. Wear breathing apparatus while carrying out the
inspection.
C. Carry out the inspection as quickly as possible.
D. Release oxygen into the space from an oxygen
cylinder.
179. On a UMS vessel gas welding operations in the work shop are to be stopped for a
lunch break. Which of the following actions should be carried out prior to taking
the break?
A. The main supply valves in the deck storage are closed
and checks made that no fire risk exists prior to
switching on the fire alarm system and going to UMS-
mode.
B. The local acetylene/oxygen valve in the work shop is
closed prior to switching to UMS-mode
C. No precautions are necessary for a short break in
operations.
D. One of the ratings is left "on watch" during the lunch
break.
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180. Sounding pipes in the engine room are normally fitted with deadweight cocks
and screw caps. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Caps and cocks should be closed at all times, except
when sounding tanks, to prevent ingress of water or oil
into the engine room in case of tank bottom damage or
overflow.
B. Caps should be placed on top of sounding pipes to
keep the engine room tidy.
C. Deadweight cocks should be fastened in the open
position to save time when sounding the tanks.
D. It does not matter where the cocks/caps are unless the
tank is in use.
181. Under what circumstances would you remove guards and safety devices from
machinery?
A. During overhaul and maintenance procedures.
B. When the safety devices keep stopping the machinery
C. To allow the shaft to be seen to confirm the machine is
running.
D. When they are rattling and vibrating.
182. What action is required if the crankcase relief valve on an air compressor is
operating and emitting an air and oil mixture?
A. Overhaul the compressor unit.
B. Increase the lift pressure of the relief valve.
C. Place a drip can beneath the valve to collect any
escaping oil.
D. Increase the flow of cooling water to the compressor
and intercooler.
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183. What action should you take if you have a flash-back during gas welding?
A. Close the regulator valves immediately, oxygen first.
B. Run for your life.
C. Use a portable fire extinguisher.
D. Cool the bottles down with water.
184. What is generally considered as the minimum safe time period before opening a
crankcase door after the oil mist detector alarm has activated and the engine has
been stopped?
A. After at least 20 minutes
B. After at least 1 hour
C. After at least 5 minutes
D. After at least 10 minutes
185. What precautions should be taken for the deck covering in a steering gear room
where hydraulic oil is in use?
A. Coat the deck with non slip paint and use duck boards
provided with drainage.
B. Cover the deck with sawdust.
C. Cover the deck with sand.
D. No special precautions are required.
186. What should you do if you are in the engine room and the alarm for "CO2 release
into the engine room" sounds?
A. Leave the engine room immediately.
B. Start the fire pump.
C. Immediately go for the nearest fire extinguisher.
D. Wait to make sure that the CO2-system is discharging
into the engine room before leaving.
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187. When the engine room crane is to be utilised for lifting or lowering a piece of
equipment to the lower decks through access hatches designed specifically for
the purpose, there are certain measures that should be taken. What are they?
A. Securely rope off the area around open hatches and
post notices at the site.
B. Post a notice in the engine control room.
C. Post a notice at the crane controls.
D. Put some black and yellow tape on the deck close to
the open hatch.
188. When using portable ladders during work activities onboard a ship what
precautions should be taken.
A. Secure the ladder top and bottom and have a shipmate
standing by while you are working on the ladder.
B. Prop the ladder against a suitable pipe and have a
shipmate hold the ladder while you are working on it.
C. Just secure the top of the ladder once you reach the top.
D. Use a safety belt/harness and secure it to the ladder.
189. Which of the following pump types could be damaged if the discharge valve is
closed before the motor is stopped?
A. Gear pump
B. Propeller pump
C. Centrifugal pump
D. Turbine pump
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190. Which preparations and precautions are necessary before "hot work" commences
onboard ship?
A. Follow all ISM procedures relating to hot work
including permit to work and hotwork permit
requirements.
B. Notify all persons onboard at least 24 hours in advance
of the work commencing.
C. Just inform the Chief Engineer that the work is going
to be carried out
D. Sound the general alarm before commencing work.
191. Why may wearing sweat rags slung round your neck when working in the
machinery spaces be hazardous?
A. The rags may be caught by running machinery or
power tools.
B. The rags may be soaked with oil and catch fire.
C. The rags may cause sweat rash.
D. The rags may cause you to get too hot and faint.
192. Why should engine and boiler rooms be kept clean and any oil spillage cleaned
up immediately?
A. To reduce risk of fire and the risk of slipping.
B. To avoid being fined by the port state control.
C. To prevent oil spillage from damaging deck paint
coatings.
D. To reduce the premium to be paid to the insurance
company.
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10. Menjamin dipenuhinya persyaratan-persyaratan pencegahan pencemaran.

(Ensure compliancewith pollution preventionrequirements)
1. The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed within special areas unless, with
exemption of processed engine room bilge water, unless certain conditions are
satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?
A. II, IV, V, VII, VIII
B. I, IV, V, VIII, IX
C. I, IV, VI, VII, IX
D. II, III, V, VIII, IX
2. The oil record book for machinery space operations shall be completed on a tank
to tank basis whenever which of these operations take place ?
A. III, IV, VI, VII
B. I, II, III, VII
C. I, II, IV, V
D. II, IV, V, VI
3. Amongst other things, Part 1 of the Oil Record Book shows which of these ?
A. Period over which the IOPP certificate is valid
B. Period from …………. To …………..
C. Operational procedures and remarks
D. Master's name as well of the person relieving him against date
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4. Which of these items must be recorded in the Oil Record Book -Part I,
concerning the disposal of oil residues (Sludges) ?
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, VI
C. I, Ill, VI
D. I, II
5. Which of these items concerning non-automatic discharge overboard of bilge

water from machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?
A. I, Ill, VI
B. III, IV, V
C. II, III
D. II, VI
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6. Which of these items concerning the operation of machinery spaces must be

recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?
A. III, VI, VII
B. II, III, V, VII
C. II, V, VI
D. II, IV, VI, VII
7. Which of these items concerning automatic discharge overboard of bilge water

from machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?
A. I, II, V, VI
B. I, IV, V, VII
C. II, IV, VI, VII
D. II, Ill, V, VII
8. Mat entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part I (machinery space
operations) about the condition of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control
system ?
A. The time when the system was started and the time when the system was
stopped
B. The time when the system was started and stopped, the ships speed and the
ppm of the affluent discharged
C. The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again and
the reason for failure
D. The time when the system was started and the time when it was stopped and
the ppm of the effluent discharged
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9. Which of these items concerning accidental or other exceptional discharges of

oil must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?
A. I, II, V, VII
B. I, II, III, V
C. I, III, IV,VI
D. I, II, V, VI
10. Handling fuel oils without proper care can lead to

A. overflow, pollution and gas formation.
B. gassing up, asphyxia and explosion.
C. fire or overflow.
D. explosion, fire and pollution.
11. Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that……should
personalty supervise all bunkering operations.
A. the 2nd engineer
B. the master
C. the chief engineer
D. a responsible person
12. Bunkering procedures for all ships require that communication should be
maintained with the shorelbarge staff in charge of the transfer ?
A. continuous
B. intermittent
C. frequent
D. occasional
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13. Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch be
informed prior to the starting of bunkering. This is because ……
A. the bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put on
stand-by.
B. appropriate precautions have to betaken by the deck department
C. the time needs to be recorded exactly.
D. The is responsible for all communication with the shore or barge.
14. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been
detained because
A. the oily water separator filters were found dirty.
B. the sludge tank was found full level.
C. the engine room bilges were found dirty.
D. The engineroombilgelineswerefounddirty.
detained because
A. an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water
separator.
B. oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.
C. an oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump.
D. lubricating oil was transferred in port.
16. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge?
A. 600ppm
B. 1000ppm
C. 100ppm
D. 50ppm
17. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'?
A. 0ppm
B. 25ppm
C. 50ppm
D. l5ppm
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18. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in

'Special Areas'?
A. Only in a case of emergency.
B. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.
C. When proceeding Full Ahead.
D. During the hours of darkness.
19. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable
level?
A. A visible alarm.
B. The discharge is dumped to the bilge
C. An audible alarm.
D. The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.
20. What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess?

A. Safety Construction certificate.
B. IOPP certificate
C. MCA pollution certificate.
D. Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate
21. What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book?

A. Record fuel consumption.
B. Record quantity of fuel onboard.
C. Record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.
D. Record oily bilge levels.
22. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are
satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that……….
A. the tanker is within a Special Area.
B. the tanker is not within a Special Area
C. the tanker is within a Designated Zone
D. the tanker is not within a Designated Zone
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satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that…………
A. the tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the nearest land.
B. the tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land.
C. the tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land.
D. the tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land.
satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that ……….
A. the tanker is en route.
B. the tanker is in ballast condition.
C. the tanker is tank cleaning.
D. the tanker is loaded.
25. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no
more than ……..of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue
formed part.
A. 1/25000
B. 1/100000
C. 1/15000
D. 1/50000
26. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed…
A. 120 litres per nautical mile
B. 100 litres per nautical mile
C. 75 litres per nautical mile
D. 30 litres per nautical mile
27. For new tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea shall not exceed
….. of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.
A. 1/10000
B. 1/15000
C. 1/25000
D. 1/30000
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28. What is the meaning of the term "Combination Carrier " ?

A. A ship designed to carry either oil products or crude oil in bulk or in parcels
B. A cargo ship that has product oil tanks, example Palm Oil Tanks
C. A general term for vessels carrying more than one kind of cargo, example
reefer-container, log-bulk etc.
D. A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
29. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ?

A. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and
refined products
B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil
C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products
D. Any grade of crude oil
30. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ?
A. A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm
B. A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm
C. A mixture with any oil content
D. A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm
31. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ?

A. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
B. Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals
C. Yes
D. No
32. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ?
A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil
B. A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C
C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary
machinery
D. A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or
boilers
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33. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ?

A. Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals
B. No, it is not
C. Yes, it is
D. Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
34. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ?
A. A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction
after 30 June 1976
B. A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995
C. A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979
D. All of these.
35. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according to
Marpol ?
A. The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment
B. The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed
of the ship in knots at the same instant
C. The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered during
the time of discharge by the ship
D. The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600
36. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ?

A. An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are
required
B. A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions
and in view of traffic special prevention is required
C. An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at
anytime
D. A sea area where in view of its particular dense traffic no
overboarddischarged of any oily mixture is allowed
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37. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?

A. A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils
B. The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centre tank
C. Any tank where slops or sludges are collected
D. A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washings
or other oily mixtures
38. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as
defined by Marpol ?
A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces
on the shore lines.
B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the
surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface.
C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on
adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea.
D. If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day will
not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below
39. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ?

A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by
the clean ballast pump
B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which
cargo pumps cannot be used
C. The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast pump
D. The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from
cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast
40. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date
on its building contract would read……………
A. after 1st January 1981.
B. after 31st of December 1980.
C. after 1st June 1982.
D. after 1st June 1979.
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41. Marpol defines Crude Oil as ………….

A. a liquid hydrocarbon from which certain distillate fractions were removed.
B. liquid hydrocarbon to which certain distillate fractions ere added.
C. a non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which C neither distillate
fractions were removed nor added.
D. a liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally whether treated or not
irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added.
42. Every oil tanker of ….. tons gross tonnage and above and every other ship of
tons gross tonnage and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
A. 500,1000
B. 400, 700
C. 150, 400
D. 250, 500
43. The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in order
to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations shall include …………
A. a complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks.
B. a complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including
oil-discharging monitoring system, oil tittering and separating systems.
C. a complete survey of all piping.
D. a complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements
and materials in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.
44. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the
administration. These intervals are not to exceed…………..
A. two and a half years.
B. three years.
C. two years.
D. five years.
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45. At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP
certificate. This shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems
including ODME are in order. What is this survey called ?
A. The Annual survey
B. The Special survey
C. The Intermediate survey
D. The Midterm survey
46. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its
equipment remain in all respects satisfactory for service. What are these
inspections called ?
A. Annual Inspections
B. Unscheduled inspections
C. Obligatory inspections
D. Special surveys
47. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it
effect unscheduled Inspections carried out according to Marpol ?
A. The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory
B. Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required
C. Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years
D. Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period
48. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ?

A. Approved ship's officers
B. Port-State Control Inspectors
C. Coast Guard Inspectors
D. Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised by
Administrations
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49. Who may carry out Marpol Inspections ?

A. Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in
which the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors.
B. All of these.
C. Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations.
D. Coast Guard officers.
50. What is the meaning of a “harmful substance" under Marpol ?

A. Petroleum products and petrochemicals
B. Hydrocarbons in any form
C. Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.
D. Oils and fuels
51. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by

Marpol ?
A. Dumping or disposal from the ship
B. Spilling, leaking or escape from the ship
C. Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship
D. Any release how ever caused
52. What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ?

A. The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents
containing such substances
B. B The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture
C. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or
effluents containing such substances
D. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture
53. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be…..
A. adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe
irrespective of where the violation occurs.
B. imposed by all countries, the severity depends on where the violation occurs.
C. imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.
D. in all cases most severe.
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54. To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under
Marpol occurs ?
A. A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance with
Marpol Protocol 1.
B. A report of the incident is to be made to the vessel's Administration.
C. You are to write a full report of the incident to the vessels owners or
managers.
D. You are to note this incident in the Log Book.
55. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated as…
A. a product / chemical carrier
B. a crude oil I product carrier
C. a product carrier
D. a crude oil tanker
56. Anew oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy the
requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well as
COW may be designated as a ……
A. product carrier
B. crude oil / product carrier
C. crude oil tanker
D. petrochemical / product carrier
57. A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying the requirements SBT and
PL, but not fitted with COW should be designated as a …..….on the IOPP
certificate.
A. crude oil 1 product carrier
B. crude oil tanker
C. product carrier
D. petrochemical tanker
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58. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt
NOT fitted with SBT and PL should be designated as a …….on the IOPP
certificate.
A. crude oil tanker
B. crude oil / product carrier
C. petrochemical tanker
D. product carrier
59. stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT
may be designed as a …………….on the IOPP certificate.
A. crude oil /product carrier
B. product oil carrier
C. crude oil / petrochemical tanker
D. crude oil tanker
60. How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on the
IOPP certificate ?
A. As a product carrier
B. As a crude oil tanker
C. As a crude oil / product carrier
D. As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker
61. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above satisfying the requirements of
SBT, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
A. Product carrier
B. Crude oil tanker
C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
D. Crude oil / product carrier
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62. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above fitted only with a COW
system, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ?
A. Product carrier
B. Crude Oil / product carrier
C. Crude oil tanker
D. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
63. Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers are prohibited
except when, amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is
fitted ?
A. An Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment
B. Interface oily water detector
C. A 50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system
D. A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system
64. When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ?

A. Any one of these
B. If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction
C. If significant alterations have taken place for fittings, equipment or
arrangements without sanction
D. If significant alterations have taken place in the ships construction without
sanction
65. When alterations to ships construction, equipment, materials , fittings or

arrangements are carried out without sanction the IOPP certificate ceases to be
valid. What is the exception ?
A. Improvement in ships construction
B. The direct replacement of equipment and fittings
C. Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and ay-out does not deviate
from Marpol requirements
D. Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is approved by the
Administration
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66. What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate survey is not carried out as
specified ?
A. The IOPP certificate remains valid, but when the overdue survey is carried
out, the stringency will depend on the duration of the elapsed time
B. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid and a survey corresponding to the
requisite survey is to be carried out .
C. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid when the C survey is 3 months
overdue
D. The IOPP certificate remains valid, however an unscheduled inspection is
to be carried out by the Port State inspection of the country of call
67. Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker
in order to be allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea ?
A. Segregated ballast tanks
B. 15 ppm oil filtering equipment
C. Double hulls
D. A slop tank arrangement
68. An oil tanker is prohibited from discharging oily mixtures into the sea except
when certain conditions are satisfied. Which of the conditions mentioned here
must be satisfied ?
A. II, III, V, VII, IX, X, XI

B. II, III, VIII, IX, X, XII
C. II, IV , VI, VIII, X, XII
D. I, IV, V, VII, VIII, X, XII
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69. A ship other than tanker of 000grt and above, but less than 10,0000, cannot
discharge oily mixtures from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are
satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?
A. II, IV, VIII

B. II, V, VII
C. II, III, VI
D. I, IV, VI
70. What is the oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when
the ship is not in a special area ?
A. 100 ppm
B. 50 ppm
C. less than 15 ppm
D. 15 ppm
71. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily

mixtures prior to discharge these into the sea ?
A. Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm
B. Not allowed at all
C. Oil dispersants are allowed
D. Dillutants are allowed
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72. Ships other than tankers of less than z100grt cannot discharge oil or oilymixtures
while within a special area, except for the discharge of processed bilge water.
To do this which of these conditions must be satisfied ?
A. II, IV, V, IX
B. II, V, VI, IX
C. I, Ill, VI, VIII
D. I, IV, VII, VIII
73. Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily mixtures applicable to
issues of safety at sea ?
A. They remain in force, only Government Organisations can decide to lift same
in case of emergencies.
B. They are not applicable when oil is released for the purpose of securing the
safety of a ship or saving life at sea.
C. They do not apply when life can be saved at sea at the cost of releasing oil in
the water
D. They remain in force at all times, they help promote safety as well.
74. The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges oil mixtures at sea. The regulations
will not apply if the discharge is the result of damage arising from which items
in this list ?
A. I, IV
B. IV, V
C. II, V
D. III, VI
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75. Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do
not apply if the discharge is the result of damage to the ship or its equipment.
What is the exception ?
A. Damage to ship and equipment due operational error
B. Crew negligence
C. Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage could
probably result
D. Collision or groundings
76. It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the

Administration, (eg. oil dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific
pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which of these conditions ?
A. II IV V
B. I, II, V
C. I, III
D. III, IV
77. For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated
ballast tanks shall be such hat, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and
trim meet which of these requirements ?
A. I, Ill, IV, VI
B. I, II, IV, V
C. I, II, IV. VII
D. I, IV, V, VII
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78. New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in
cargo tanks, except when which of these circumstances arise ?
A. IV, V
B. II, V
C. III, V
D. II, V
79. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers,
which tanks may be Included ?
A. Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks
B. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.
C. Segregated ballast tanks only
D. Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks
80. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and cofferdams
allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of Cars for tankers ?
A. Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured
B. Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water
system
C. Provided an oily separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board
D. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15
ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted
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81. If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and operating
with COW is to change its designation to product carrier and vice versa, which
provisions will apply ?
A. Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No survey is
required prior switching trades. Manual for both procedures required.
B. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade
C. Crude oil is not allowed to be carried in tanks designated CBT in the crude
oil trade
D. The COW system needs to be blanked
82.If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to
immobilise the ship, what are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW ?
A. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply
B. The requirements for SBT do not apply
C. The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply
D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
83. hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the
requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW ?
A. The requirement for SET does not apply
B. The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply
C. The requirement for SBT and PL do not apply
D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
84. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast
shall be that it is equipped with…….
A. a crude oil washing system.
B. two separate slop tanks.
C. segregated ballast tanks and PL.
D. an oil content meter.
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85. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if
the tanker is engaged in specific trades provided reception facilities are existing
in ports. What document is to be endorsed ?
A. The oil record book
B. The bill of lading
C. The charter party
D. The ship's IOPP certificate
86. Existing oil tankers which complies at all times with SBT draught and trim
requirements without the use of ballast water, may be considered to comply with
SBT requirements in full provided which of these items apply ?
A. II, IV V
B. I, II, VI
C. II, V, VI
D. III, IV VI
87. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of

Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers ?
A. To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in event of grounding
or collision
B. To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers
C. To reduce the bending moments on tankers
D. To reduce the shear forces on tankers
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88. For Protective Location of Segregated ballast tanks, which of these items apply ?
A. III, V VI, VIII
B. I, II, VI, VIII
C. II, IV, VI, VII
D. I, III, VI, VII
89. Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel
oil tank. What is the exception ?
A. Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time at sea, for
example: tugs, fishing boats
B. For exceptional long voyages, when the ships bunkers are depleted and
weather conditions are deteriorating
C. If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptures, the fuel tank may be filled with
ballast if stability requires this
D. In case of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships
90. Under Marpol, can a ship carry oil in the Fore Peak Tank ?
A. Only tugs
B. No, not on any vessel
C. Only fishing vessels
D. Only tug boats and fishing vessels
91. Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by
tank washings, oil and dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less
than ….. % of the tank capacity.
A. 2.5
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
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92. In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks ?

A. Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue
and tank washings from the cargo tanks.
B. Any tank separated form the ships' side by a distance of at least 3 metres
C. Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities.
D. Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separation
filter.
93. At least two slop tanks are required for……..

A. new oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above.
B. new oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above.
C. new and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt.
D. new oil tankers of 4.0,000 tons dwt and above.
94. Which of these are the requirements for an Oil Discharge Monitoring and
Control System ?
A. I, II, Ill, IV, VI, VII

B. I, II III, V, VI, VII, VIII
C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX
D. II, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII
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95. An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring is
required on board. This manual must mention all operations and ……..
A. instructions to ensure that at no time oil shall be discharged.
B. shall be approved by the Administration.
C. all automatic operations. The manual shall be approved by the
Administration.
D. shall be approved by the Administration. It must contain instructions to
ensure that no oil can be discharged except in compliance with regulations
96. No oil discharge monitoring equipment is to be fitted on tankers if trading in

specific areas or within 50 miles from the nearest land provided that which of
these items apply ?
A. I, Ill, IV, V, VIII

B. I, II, III, IV, V
C. I, II, Ill, IV, VII
D. I, II, Ill, V, VII
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97. Under Marpol, any ship of 10,000 tons gross and above shall be fitted with
which of these items of equipment for oily-water separation and oily mixture
discharges ?
A. I
B. Ill
C. II
D. IV
98. Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does not
carry ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with a …….oil filtering
equipment for engine bilge discharge.
A. 100 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 150 ppm
99. Which of these design requirements must be met by oil filtering equipment fitted
on ships of 10,000 grt and above ?
A. II, Ill, V, VII

B. I, Ill, VI, VII
C. I. III, V, VI
D. I, II, III, IV
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100. Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be of Standard Format and/or
may it be part of the ship's official Log Book ?
A. It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is not standard but must
contain the required information.
B. It is no part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.
C. It is not part of the ship's official Log, its format is not standard but must
contain all required information.
D. It may be part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.
101. In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed

discharge in order to save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record
book explaining what ?
A. The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged
B. The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge
C. The report of the accident indicating precautions
D. The amount discharged and the reasons for it
102. Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book
without delay and…..…..
A. The Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and be
countersigned by the Master.
B. The entries match operations completed after which it is signed by the
Master.
C. When the operations are completed will be signed by the Officer or in charge
during the time of the operation.
D. Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each
completed page will be signed by the Master.
103. Where is the Oil Record Book to be kept on board ?

A. At a place where it is readily available
B. In the ship's office
C. On the bridge
D. I the Master's cabin
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104. Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ?

A. A Notary Public
B. The Master
C. The Officers of the Flag State
D. Port Authorities
105. Of the four categories of discharges associated with the operation of offshore
platforms for which type or types is Marpol 73.(03 applicable ?
A. Type, I, Ill and IV

B. Type I only
C. Type IV only
D. Type I and Type IV
106. Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ?

A. Roofers Flux
B. Blending Stocks
C. Straight run residue
D. Solvent
107. Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of
Marpol Annex I ?
A. Clarified
B. Road Oil
C. Automotive
D. Spindle oil
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108. the following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I
of Marpol AnnexI?
A. Reformates
B. Polymer fuel
C. Flashed feed stock
D. Alkylates fuel
109. Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I
of Marpol AnnexI?
A. Fuel oil No 1 D
B. Fuel oil No 1
C. Fuel oil No 4
D. Fuel oil No 2
110. The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a chapter about Tanks for Oil
Residues (Sludges). What information is recorded in this chapter ?
A. The location and capacity of the sludge tanks
B. The total tank capacity in m3 and the means for disposal of oil residue in
addition to the provision of sludge tanks
C. The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to open
deck sludge connection
D. The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements
111. The Record of Construction and Equipment for ships other than tanker contains
information in Chapter II about oil discharge from the machinery space and fuel
tanks. Which of these item are included ?
A. II, Ill, IV, VI, VII
B. I. II, Ill, IV, V, VI, VII
C. I, II, Ill, IV, VI, VII
D. I, II, Ill, IV, V, VII
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112. If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in
bulk of a capacity of ……. or more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers
applies.
A. 100 T
B. 400 T
C. 500 cubic metres
D. 200 cubic metres
113. There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI). They dealing with
pollution caused by ……..
A. I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged
substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
B. I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, Ill = Sewage, IV = Harmful packaged
substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.
C. I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, Ill = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged
substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.
D. I= Oil, II = Sewage, Ill = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V =
Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.
114. Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with ……

A. the construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational
procedures of petroleum tankers
B. the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangementsfor
discharge of cargo residues
C. the labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages
D. the handling and discharge of garbage
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115. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations
concerning processing and treatment of sewage ?
A. Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being
B. It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant must
be installed on board
C. Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant is
on board
D. The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries
have adapted them and have stingent regulations
116. How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port

regulations ?
A. Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be complied
with
B. Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with
C. They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention
D. national regulations in the ports visited may be more tingent and must be
complied with
117. Marpol Annex IV concerning sewage is not yet in force, but a number of
countries (example USA) have adapted it and have stringent regulations. The
regulations concern which of these items ?
A. II, Ill, IV, V, VI

B. I, II, IV, VI, VIII
C. I, Ill, V, VII, VIII
D. I, II, Ill, V, VII
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118. Which of these waters are the Special Areas as defined by Marpol Annex V ?
A. I, II, III, IV, VI, VIII, X, XIII
B. I, II, III, V, VII, VIII, X, XIII
C. I, III, IV, V, VII, IX, X, XIII
D. I, II, IV, V, VIII, X, XII, XIII
119. According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard inside

the Special Areas. Which is the exception ?
A. Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles
offshore
B. Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore
C. Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown overboard beyond 12
miles offshore
D. Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore
120. Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that within 3
miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters……….
A. you cannot throw plastics overboard.
B. you cannot throw anything overboard.
C. you cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that float
overboard.
D. you cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard unless
ground to less than 25 mm.
121. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining
and packing materials that float …….
A. maybe thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore.
B. may not be thrown overboard at anytime.
C. may be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore.
D. may be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.
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122. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery,
rags, metal , glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles
offshore, provided it is ground to less than ………in size.
A. 5mm
B. 10mm
C. 30 mm
D. 25 mm
123. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that plastics….
A. cannot be thrown overboard at anytime
B. cannot be thrown overboard within 12 miles offshore
C. cannot be thrown overboard within 3 miles offshore
D. cannot be thrown overboard within 25 miles offshore
124. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery,
glass, metal, food and rags, bigger in size than 25 mm may only be thrown
overboard outside ……. miles offshore.
A. 3
B. 25
C. 12
D. 10
125. Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside special Areas specify the
type of garbage which can be thrown overboard at a given distance offshore. Is
this universally accepted ?
A. Yes, except food, some countries have restrictions
B. Yes, accepted by all states and regions
C. Regional or state variations can further restrict the disposal of garbage
D. Yes, except dunnage
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126. Outside special areas there are three ways of disposing of garbage produced on
board ships. From this list, choose the 3 ways ?
A. II, Ill, V
B. I, IV, V
C. I, II, IV
D. I, III, VI
127. Why is on board training important in relation to pollution prevention ?

A. Because pollution related incidents are on the increase and all efforts are
needed to reduce them
B. Because many schools and training facilities are considered sub-standard
C. Because MARPOL is not compulsory taught in nautical schools
D. Because each ship has her own characteristics and equipment with which the
new crew member must become familiar
128. How can an on board pollution prevention training program help the new crew
member know clearly what is expected of him ?
A. By teaching and pointing out to the new crew members which are the weak
spots which may cause pollution
B. By composing a realistic training program with special emphasis on the
personal responsibilities and duties of the trainee
C. By teaching the new crew member the requirements of Marpol concerning
pollution of the seas
D. By teaching him the risks of oil transferring operations (bunkers as well as
cargo)
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DPKP
129. For on board pollution prevention training to work, it is important that …..
A. a quite considerate amount of time is spent with the incoming new crew
member for the first week on board
B. the Master puts up a rigid discipline.
C. the trainees have an adequate background in pollution control
D. it is continuous and stresses safe, pollution free operations
130. Which of these items should be included in an on board pollution prevention

training program?
A. I. III, V, VI
B. I, IV, VI, VII
C. I, II, V, VII
D. II, Ill, IV, VI
131. Which of these items can help make on

board pollution prevention training
effective ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VIII
B. I, II, IV, V, IX
C. I, Ill, V, VII, IX
D. I, III, V, VII, VIII
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DPKP
132. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to
pollution are conducted on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions.
What are these questions ?
A. I, III, V
B. I, II, III
C. II, IV, VI
D. I, II, V
133. Pick the flue operations, from this list, which when conducted on cargo ships
may lead to a pollution incident ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VII

B. I, II, Ill, IV, VI
C. I, III, V, VII, VIII
D. II, IV, V, VII, VIII
1542
DPKP
134. Permanently posted information and procedures concerning bunkering and

transfer procedures should be available on board in a place where they can be
easily seen and used. Where on board?
A. Either on the bunker manifold values OR in the engine control room OR near
the fuel oil transfer pumps
B. Either on the bridge OR on deck, OR by the manifolds
C. Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR near the bunkers
emergency shut off valves OR in the cargo — control room
D. Either in the engine control room OR near the fuel transfer pumps OR in the
emergency headquarters
135. There is potential for pollution when starting taking ballast on non-SBT tankers
because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this
a notice should be placed on the ballast pump. Which one ?
A. FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST
B. START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION
C. ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP
D. START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED
136. Containment is critical when oil has spilled on deck. Pollution can be avoided if
prompt action and careful preparation for containment is carried out. Which
three of these items are vital ?
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, III, V
D. II, IV, V
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DPKP
137. In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly
inspected to make sure that……..
A. the fastenings are not worn.
B. the coating is intact.
C. they have not developed cracks or holes.
D. they are correctly fitting
138. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most
common cases of oil pollution. Which flue of these items are the main
preventive measures against tank overflow ?
A. II, IV, V, VI, VII

B. I. Ill, IV, V, VI
C. I, II, Ill, VI, VII
D. I, Ill, V, VI, VII
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DPKP
139. Topping off procedures during oil cargo loading or bunkering is a most critical
operation. Which fire of these precautions or actions must be taken ?
A. I, II, III, V, VIII

B. II, IV, VI, VII, VIII
C. I, Ill, V, VI, VII
D. II, III, V, VI, VIII
140. Here are FIVE items concerning topping off procedures during oil cargo loading
and bunkering. Which one of these is not true ?
A. III - is not true

B. II - is not true
C. V - is not true
D. I- is not true
1545
DPKP
detained because ……..
A. no electrical drawing of the oily bilge separator alarm was posted.
B. no instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted.
C. no pollution placards were posted.
D. no up to date deck port log was kept.
142. These items are standard inspection items for Marpol as given in guidelines to
inspectors and surveyors. Which item does not belong ?
A. Item VII - does not belong

B. Item VI - does not belong
C. Item II - does not belong
D. item V - does not belong
1546
DPKP
143. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross
tonnage and above to record machinery space operations.Out of below
mentioned operations, it is compulsory to record:
A. Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil.
B. Transfer of oil from settling - to daytank.
C. Discharge of water from Aft, Peak Tank.
D. Purification of HFO.
144. Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water
separating equipment for the control of machinery space bilges.What kind of
equipment is required in this connection?
A. Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water
separating equipment , or combination of both.
B. Oil fitting equipment only.
C. Sludge separating tank.
D. Oily-water separating equipment only.
145. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the
sea voyage?
A. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000
part of full cargo on the ballast voyage.
B. Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000
C. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000
D. There isn’t any restrictions of pumping sludge from
ships outside special areas
146. For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring
Equipment (ODME) be retained onboard?
A. Three years
B. Six months
C. Two years
D. Four years
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DPKP
147. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the
chemicals do?
A. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water
B. Absorb the oil for easy removal
C. Remove the oil from the water
D. Contain the oil within a small area
148. In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall notify the cleaning up contractor
(OPA-90)
A. Qualified Individual
B. Emergency response team
C. The Master
D. The shipowner
149. In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal?

A. Not permissible any where.
B. 100 n.m. from shore line.
C. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL).
D. In coastal waters.
150. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any
sludge or oil residues?
A. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge
or oil residues
B. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and
Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil
residues
C. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea
and Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil
residues
D. There isn’t any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any
sludge or oil residues
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DPKP
151. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2
days after departure, you would like to empty your machinery space bilges.
What will be the correct procedures in this connection?
A. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge
overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment.
B. Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering
equipment without calling the bridge.
C. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge
directly overboard.
D. Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way.
152. MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment
plant certified by the Administration. During discharge, while vessel is
awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is iscoloured. What
kind of action would be appropriate to take?
A. Stop discharge.
B. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type.
C. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of
surrounding water.
D. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally
not yet in force.
153. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After

unpacking spares, you are left with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this
prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the
sea of these materials?
A. This is prohibited
B. 3 miles
C. 12 miles
D. 25 miles
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154. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel is in the Red Sea
(Special Area) and the Chief Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned
in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to have the
waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the
sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal?
A. 12 miles
B. This is prohibited
C. 3 miles
D. 25 miles
155. Most minor oilspills are caused by:

A. Human error
B. Equipment failure
C. Major casualties
D. Unforeseeable circumstances
156. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the
previous instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical
mile) was changed to:
A. 30 litters per nautical mile
B. 25 litters per nautical mile
C. 20 litters per nautical mile
D. 10 litters per nautical mile
157. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90)

A. Every report or message must be logged including time and date
B. Only initial reports to be logged
C. Only verbal reports for documentation
D. Only communication with USCG
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DPKP
158. Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90):

A. Once a month
B. Once a week
C. Once a year
D. Once every six months
159. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering
equipment, complying with Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of
machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of oily-water
mixture to pass through the filter?
A. 15 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 60 ppm/n.m
160. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what?
A. Plugging the scuppers
B. Driving wooden plugs into the vents
C. Closing the lids on the vents
D. Plugging the sounding pipes
161. The OPA-90 notification requirement is:

A. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a
spill
B. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding 10
gallons of oil
C. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible
D. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and
charged
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DPKP
162. What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution
Regulations?
A. All the other alternatives
B. Spilling
C. Leaking
D. Dumping
163. What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1?

A. Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm
B. Ballast with an oil content of less than 45 ppm
C. Ballast with an oil content of less than 1 %
D. There isn’t any definition on clean ballast
164. What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills aboard a ship?
A. Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship
B. Rig an oil boom around the ship
C. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill
D. Have sawdust ready for use
165. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water?

A. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
B. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-
spill
C. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the
ship's side
D. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind
166. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment)
printer ?
A. To prove that oil has been pumped
overboard according to regulations
B. To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used
C. To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E
D. None of the mentioned
1552
DPKP
167. What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had
burned garbage containing plastics?
A. Discharge to a shore facility only
B. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore
C. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore
D. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary
168. What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell,
plating, structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine room?
A. White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed
and dealt with.
B. Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil
spills.
C. Whatever paint is available.
D. The same colour as machinery and equipment.
169. When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken.
State which of following priority sequences to be considered:
A. Stop pumps - report - clean up?
B. Clean up - report - stop pumps?
C. Report - stop pumps - clean up?
D. Stop pumps - clean up - report?
170. Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection
(MARPOL-connection) for discharging of sewage ?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
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DPKP
171. Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged

overboard, under the US water pollution laws?
A. All of the mentioned
B. Garbage
C. Hazardous substances
D. Oil
172. Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard?

A. 15 PPM
B. 100 PPM
C. 50 PPM
D. 0 PPM
173. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill
B. It is not covered by the pollution law
C. It does little harm to marine life
D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil
174. Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?
A. To avoid pollution.
B. To relieve the master.
C. To inform the authorities.
D. To restrict pollution.
175. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the
Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard?
A. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard
B. Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard
C. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting
particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
D. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting
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DPKP
176. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are
you allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ?
A. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are
ground so that the resulting particles can pass
through a screen with 25 mm openings
B. No, glass bottles can not be dumped
overboard
C. Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard
D. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting
177. You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a
mixture of food waste, glass bottles and floating packing materials. Is this
allowed? and if so, how far off the coast would you have to be?
A. This is prohibited
B. 3 nautical miles off the coast
C. 12 nautical miles off the coast
D. 25 nautical miles off the coast
178. You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water
around your vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and:
A. Notify the US Coast Guard
B. Begin clean up operations
C. Leave the area
D. Notify the Corps of Engineers
1555
DPKP
11. Menjagakelaik-lautankapal (Maintainseaworthiness ofthe ship)

1. A stiff vessel will have a GM which is:
A. Large*
B. negative
C. Small
D. Zero
2. When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be:

A. Zero*
B. Large
C. Small
D. Negative
3. The weight a vessel can carry is called the:

A. Registered Tonnage
B. Deadweight*
C. Load Displacement
D. Gross Tonnage
4. A GZ curve is used to determine:

A. Buoyancy
B. Stability*
C. Displacement
D. Deadweight
5. A sudden rising strong wind, or sudden increase of wind usually immediately

followed by a shower of rain snow is called a
A. Squall*
B. Storm
C. Tropical cyclone
D. Cyclone
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DPKP
6. A squall line of sharp changes of wind, is very often associated with a :

A. Warn front
B. Warm front
C. Occluded front
D. Cold front*
7. A ship moving through heavy seas is affected by the water pressure at the bows
causing an effect known as "Panting". What structure in the forward region of the
ship combats the effects of Panting?
A. Panting beams and stringers

B. Collision bulkhead and deck
C. Centreline bulkhead
D. Double bottom tanks and floors
8. From which locations is it normally possible to close watertight doors?

A. Watertight doors can be closed adjacent to the door and
remotely from bridge and also one emergency remote
control station
B. Watertight doors can be closed from the bridge and an
alarm sounds at the door
C. Watertight doors can be closed locally and also a
remote control station within the accommodation
D. A watertight door can only be closed by a control
adjacent to the door
1557
DPKP
9. How can an approximate value of the initial transverse Metacentric Height (GM)
be found from the Curve of Statical Stability (GZ curve)?
A. Drawing a tangent to the curve through the origin and
erecting a perpendicular through the angle of heel of
57.3 degrees
B. The value in metres from the X axis of the point where
the curve changes from concave to convex shape.
C. Drawing a tangent from the highest point of the curve
to the X axis and measuring it in metres
D. It is impossible to establish the GM value from the
curve of righting levers (GZ)
10. What are the ideal conditions required to satisfactorily conduct an Inclining
Experiment?
A. All of the suggested answers
B. Moorings slack, head wind, minimum people on board
C. All derricks lowered and no moving items on deck and
in store rooms
D. Minimum ballast and bunkers on board and all tanks
pressed up.
11. What can be done to minimize the reduction of GM due to free surface?
A. Reduce the number of slack tanks.
B. Load liquids into only one tank at a time
C. Close all watertight doors.
D. Load fluids only into tanks with transverse subdivision
bulkheads
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DPKP
12. What is the anticipated rolling period of a ship with a large initial Transverse
Metacentric Height (GM) and would there be any associated dangers to consider?
A. Short sharp period of roll associated with breaking
lashings and shifting cargo
B. Long slow roll and no particular hazards
C. Short period of roll, but a very stable ship and no
associated dangers
D. Long period of roll with free surface effects at a
maximum.
13. What is the correct understanding of the tem "Angle of Loll" when applied to
ships stability?
A. The angle the ship will lie when the ship has a negative
GM
B. The angle the ship will lie when it has suffered a shift
of cargo.
C. The maximum angle to which the ship rolls when
rolling in a seaway.
D. The angle of heel which the ship must reach before
suffering progressive flooding through deck ventilators.
14. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bending moments" when applied
to ships?
A. The longitudinal Bending Moment at any section within
the ship is the total moments tending to alter the
longitudinal shape of the ship
B. The Bending Moments of a ship are the forces acting on
the ship causing it to hog and sag.
C. The longitudinal Bending Moments are the forces
between empty and full compartments causing the ship
to bend and change shape
D. All of the suggested answers
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DPKP
15. What is the minimum Initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) allowed under
the International Load Line Rules?
A. 0.15 metres
B. 2.5 metres
C. 0.5 metres
D. 0,1 metre
16. When a ships derrick or crane lifts a weight off the deck of a ship, from which
position can the centre of gravity of the weight be considered to act?
A. From the head of the derrick or crane
B. From the centre of the weight lifted
C. From the position on the deck from which the weight
was lifted
D. From a position on the deck at the base of the derrick or
crane
17. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned
the class notation:
A. Ro-Ro
B. Tanker
C. Container
D. Bulk Carrier
18. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with
machinery aft is:
A. Five
B. Four
C. Six
D. Three
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DPKP
19. The transverse curve of the deck is called:

A. Camber
B. Rake
C. Flare
D. Tumble home
20. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the:

A. Inside of the Plating
B. Inside of the Ceiling
C. Inside of the Frames
D. Outside of the Plating
21. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is
called:
A. A Ballast Tank
B. A Cofferdam
C. A Deep Tank
D. An Escape Trunk
22. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called:

A. Rise of floor
B. Sheer
C. Rake
D. Freeboard
23. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured
from the bottom is:
A. 0.25 h
B. 0.5 h
C. 0.1 h
D. 0.33 h
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DPKP
24. istortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called"

A. Racking
B. Pounding
C. Heaving
D. Slamming
25. Panting stresses are most severe:

A. Between the Bulkheads
B. Forward
C. Aft
D. Amidships
26. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is:
A. In ballast, beam sea
B. Loaded, head sea
C. In ballast, head sea
D. Loaded, beam sea
27. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:

A. Side Girders
B. Deck Girders
C. Stringers
D. Bulkheads
28. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist:
A. Panting & Racking
B. Water Pressure
C. Hogging & Sagging
D. Panting & Pounding
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DPKP
29. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is
designed to resist:
A. Sagging
B. Pounding
C. Hogging
D. Racking
30. A vessel in the condition shown in Figure will be:

A. Twisting
B. Racking
C. Sagging
D. Hogging
31. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's:

A. Hydrostatic Information
B. Layout
C. Construction Sequence
D. Tank Capacities
32. The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a
?
A. Knee
B. Gusset
C. Bracket
D. Stiffener
33. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a:

A. Flat Plate Keel
B. Box Keel
C. Bar Keel
D. Duct Keel
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DPKP
34. The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the:

A. Sheer Strake
B. Stealer Plate
C. Garboard Strake
D. Stringer Plate
35. The athwartships cross section structure shown in the given Figure is a:
A. Flat Plate Keel

B. Duct Keel
C. Box Keel
D. Bar Keel
36. When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in:

A. Torsion
B. Compression
C. Sheer
D. Tension
37. The Figure shows a:

A. Strut
B. Bulwark Stanchion
C. stiffener
D. stay
38. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a:

A. Construction Drawing
B. Sheer Profile
C. Body Plan
D. Shell Expansion Plan
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DPKP
39. In Figure shown, the section marked 4 is:

A. A Flat Bar
B. An Offset Bulb
C. A Tee
D. An Angle
40. A vertically welded shell joint is called a:

A. Lap
B. Joint
C. Seam
D. Butt
41. In the Figure shown, the items marked 6 are:
A. Knees
B. Webs
C. Chocks
D. Bilge Brackets
42. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck
should be constructed with approved:
A. Drains
B. Scuppers
C. Baffles
D. Sills
43. Water is drained from an exposed deck by:

A. Drain Valves
B. Discharge Pipes
C. Side Scuttles
D. Freeing Ports
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DPKP
44. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by:

A. Stays
B. Chocks
C. Brackets
D. Cleats
45. The type of framing shown in the drawing of this ship cross section is:
A. Combination
B. Longitudinal
C. Transverse
D. Web
46. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by fitting:

A. Deck Girders
B. Stringers
C. Web Frames
D. Pillars
47. The type of weld shown in Figure is a:

A. Vee Butt
B. Fillet
C. Butt
D. Lap
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DPKP
48. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision
bulkhead to resist:
A. Panting
B. Pounding
C. Racking
D. hogging
49. The item of structure numbered 9 in the given Figure is a:
A. Deck Plate
B. Panting Stringer
C. Foundation Plate
D. floor Plate
50. 50. A perforated flat is part of the structure in the:

A. Double Bottom
B. Deck House
C. Fore Hold
D. ForePeak
51. 51. The pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker
is called a:
A. Mooring
B. Scupper
C. Hawser
D. Spurling
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DPKP
52. The item of structure numbered 10 in the Figure given is a:
A. Bracket
B. Bow Chock
C. Breast Hook
D. Diamond Plate
53. The item of structure numbered 11 in the given Figure is a:
A. Floor Plate
B. Nash Plate
C. Web
D. Bulkhead
54. The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a:

A. Frame
B. Beam
C. Stringer
D. Seel Plate
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DPKP
55. The type of rudder in the Figure is

A. Semi-balanced
B. Unbalanced
C. Spade
D. Balanced
56. The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a:

A. Coupling
B. Gudgeon
C. Bolt
D. Pin
57. The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the:
A. Transom Floor
B. After Peak Bulkhead
C. Steering Flat
D. Vibration Post
58. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line
disc is the:
A. Winter Draught
B. Statutory Freeboard
C. Depth
D. Summer Draught
59. The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the:
A. Tropical Allowance
B. Bock Water Allowance
C. Fresh Water Allowance
D. Summer Allowance
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DPKP
60. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the:

A. Fresh Water Allowance
B. Freeboard
C. Winter Draught
D. Summer Draught
61. Gross tonnage is defined as:

A. Earning Capacity
B. Light Displacement
C. Load Displacement
D. Internal Capacity
62. Stacked containers are prevented from moving in the hold by:
A. Girders
B. Portable Beams
C. Cell Guides
D. Wire Lashings
63. The steel section shown here will be used to construct a:
A. Steering Flat
B. Bulkhead
C. Tank Top
D. Hatch Cover
64. In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propeller will move in one revolution
of the shaft is the:
A. Slip
B. Diameter
C. Pitch
D. Circumference
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DPKP
65. When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be:

A. Small
B. Zero
C. Large
D. Negative
66. The intact volume of a vessel above the waterline is called:

A. Buoyancy
B. Negative Buoyancy
C. Reserve Buoyancy
D. Lost Buoyancy
67. A stiff vessel will have a GM which is:

A. Large
B. Small
C. Zero
D. Negative
68. Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the:

A. Waterline to the Keel
B. Top of the Bulwarks to the Waterline
C. Main Deck to the Keel
D. Main Deck to the Waterline
69. A GZ curve is used to determine:

A. Stability
B. Deadweight
C. Displacement
D. Buoyancy
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70. The weight a vessel can carry is called the:

A. Deadweight
B. Gross Tonnage
C. Registered Tonnage
D. Load Displacement
71. The horizontal distance between the forces of Buoyancy and Gravity acting on a
vessel when heeled by wind or waves is called the:
A. KM
B. KG
C. Righting Lever
D. Metacentric Height
72. Panting stresses are most severe:

A. Forward
B. Between the Bulkheads
C. Aft
D. Amidships
73. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured
from the bottom is:
A. 0.5 h
B. 0.33 h
C. 0.1 h
D. 0.25 h
74. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist:
A. Panting & Racking
B. Water Pressure
C. Hogging & Sagging
D. Panting & Pounding
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75. Distortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called:

A. Heaving
B. Racking
C. Pounding
D. Slamming
76. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is:
A. In ballast, beam sea
B. Loaded, beam sea
C. In ballast, head sea
D. Loaded, head sea
77. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:

A. Side Girders
B. Deck Girders
C. Stringers
D. Bulkheads
78. A vessel in the condition shown here is:

A. Sagging
B. Hogging
C. Twisting
D. Racking
79. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is
designed to resist:
A. Hogging
B. Pounding
C. Racking
D. Sagging
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80. The transverse curve of the deck is called:

A. Rake
B. Tumble home
C. Flare
D. Camber
81. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with
machinery aft is:
A. Six
B. Five
C. Three
D. Four
82. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the:

A. Outside of the Plating
B. Inside of the Plating
C. Inside of the Frames
D. Inside of the Ceiling
83. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called:

A. Freeboard
B. Rake
C. Sheer
D. Rise of Floor
84. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned
the class notation:
A. Container
B. Bulk Carrier
C. Ro-Ro
D. Tanker
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85. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is
called:
A. A Ballast Tank
B. A Cofferdam
C. A Deep Tank
D. In Escape Trunk
86. The type of weld shown here is a:

A. Lap
B. Fillet
C. Butt
D. Vee Butt
87. The athwartships cross section structure shown here is a:
A. Box Keel
B. Duct Keel
C. Flat Plate Keel
D. Bar Keel
88. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a:

A. Body Plan
B. Shell Expansion Plan
C. Construction Drawing
D. Sheer Profile
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89. The item marked 5 is a:

A. Frame
B. Bracket
C. Beam Knee
D. Beam
90. This drawing shows a:
A. Strut
B. Bulwark Stanchion
C. Stiffener
D. Stay
91. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision
bulkhead to resist:
A. Hogging
B. Pounding
C. Panting
D. Racking
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DPKP
92. The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the:

A. Stealer Plate
B. Sheer Strake
C. Garboard Strake
D. Srtringer Plate
93. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's:

A. Layout
B. Construction Sequence
C. Hydrostatic Information
D. Tank Capacities
94. In the figure, the items marked 6 are:
A. Bilge Brackets
B. Chocks
C. Webs
D. Knees
95. A vertically welded shell joint is called a:

A. Seam
B. Butt
C. Joint
D. Lap
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DPKP
96. The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a:
A. Gusset
B. Knee
C. Stiffener
D. Bracket
97. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a:

A. Flat Plate Keel
B. Box Keel
C. Duct Keel
D. Bar Keel
98. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck
should be constructed with approved:
A. Sills
B. Baffles
C. Drains
D. Scuppers
99. In a longitudinallyframed vessel transverse strength is maintained by Fitting:

A. Stringers
B. Web Frames
C. Deck Girders
D. Pillars
100. When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in:

A. Torsion
B. Sheer
C. Compression
D. Tension
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101. Water is drained from an exposed deck by:

A. Discharge Pipes
B. Freeing Ports
C. Drain Values
D. Side Scuttles
102. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by.

A. Brackets
B. Cleats
C. Chocks
D. Stays
103. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the:

A. Winter Draught
B. Summer Draught
C. Freeboard
D. Fresh Water Allowance
104. The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the:
A. Fresh Water Allowance
B. Dock Water Allowance
C. Summer Allowance
D. Tropical Allowance
105. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line
disc is the:
A. Statutory Freeboard
B. Winter Draught
C. Depth
D. Summer Draught
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106. The item of structure numbered 12 is a:

A. Stern Post
B. Boss Plate
C. Stern Frame
D. Stern Bearing

A. Web
B. Floor Plate
C. Wash Plate
D. Bulkhead
108. A perforated flat is part of the structure in the:

A. Fore Hold
B. ForePeak
C. Deck House
D. Double Bottom
109. The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a:

A. Gudgeon
B. Pin
C. Bolt
D. Coupling
110. The pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker is
called a:
A. Scupper
B. Hawser
C. Spurling
D. Mooring
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111. The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the:
A. Transom Floor
B. After Peak Bulkhead
C. Vibration Post
D. Steering Flat

A. Diamond Plate
B. Bracket
C. Breast Hook
D. Bow Chock
113. The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a:

A. Keel Plate
B. Stringer
C. Beam
D. Frame
114. The item of the structure numbered 9 is a:

A. Foundation Plate
B. Deck Plate
C. Floor Plate
D. Panting Stringer
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12. Memantau kepatuhan terhadap persyaratan - persyaratan

ketentuan. (Monitorcompliance with legislative requirements)
1. Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or “The
Company” ?
A. The Bareboat Charterer
B. The Manager
C. Could be any of these
D. The Owner
2. What is meant by a "Safety Management system" ?

A. A documented shipboard system which lists each and every know
shipboard hazard to safety, health and environment.
B. The implementation on board ship of emergency response training by
documented training methods.
C. A system which eliminates all causes for accidents or near misses on board
ship.
D. A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board to
implement the company safety and environment protection policy.
3. Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity ?

A. A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement
B. Lack of comfort leading to health risks
C. A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking.
D. Not conforming with safe working practices which may ead to accidents
4. What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM code ?

A. A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to life.
B. A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge oil, chemicals or
toxic substances from the ship
C. A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master is
diminished
D. A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of
ship or personnel or to the Environment
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5. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things
include ………….
A. Continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel
including preparing for emergencies related to safety and environmental
protection
B. Hiring of outside training companies to conduct on-board safety training of
its shipboard personnel
C. Conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke
free passages on board
D. Holding life boat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered into
the water every week
6. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things
provide for …………
A. Supply of all safety equipment within one month of requisition date
B. Safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment
C. Shipboard trainers hired from outside the Company who have the required
qualifications
D. Safety working shoes, winter underwear, safety torches and parkas
7. Safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things

establish…………..
A. Sources of information concerning operational pollution prevention for
joint departmental use and consultation in case of emergency
B. A cooperative and informative atmosphere on board
C. Safeguards against all identified risks
D. A dictatorial regime on board
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8. The SMS (Safety Management System) should ensure, amongst other things, that
applicable codes, guidelines and standards recommended by …………..are taken
into account.
A. Classification Societies
B. Maritime industry organisations
C. The IMO, and Flag-State administrations
D. All of these.
9. The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place ………………..
A. That that the life saving appliances are well maintained on board.
B. Compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations.
C. That all Marpol requirements are complied with.
D. That Boat and Emergency Station Bills are posted.
10. All the requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken
into account in ship operation through …………………..
A. Videos and books
B. Training by qualified instructors
C. Regular on board inspections by the Company's shore based personnel
D. Written procedures and work instructions
11. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into
account in ship operation through written procedures. These requirements include
the following information: …………….
A. All of these.
B. The provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations and
procedures for internal audits and management review.
C. The defined levels of authority and lines of communication between and
amongst shore and shipboard personnel.
D. The procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the
provisions of the Code.
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12. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop,

implement and maintain a system which includes the following :……………..
A. 1) maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the required
Letters of Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship.
B. 1) contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control of
countries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State authorities.
C. 1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and
procedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the environment.
D. 1) safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and
chief engineers 3) office staff Home telephone numbers.
13. Under ISM, the Company should establish ………….to describe how the
objectives of the ISM code willbe achieved.
A. Circulation of informative guidelines
B. Company regulations
C. A safety and environmental policy
D. Company newsletters
14. Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental
Policy is …………….
A. Known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers.
B. Known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew.
C. Known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based
as well as shore based.
D. Known by all ships officers.
15. The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be …………..

Standards required by the ismcode ?
A. Set above
B. A substrtute for
C. Set below
D. Deviating from
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DPKP
16. A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set
above the standards of the ISM code, should be …………..
A. Totally disregarded since not enforceable.
B. Erased as far as excessive standards are concerned.
C. Encouraged and supported.
D. Discouraged.
17. It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the

company's………… which Forms an integral part of the Safety Management
System ?
A. Legal policy objectives
B. Ethics and environment objectives
C. Safety management objectives
D. Trading policy objectives
18. Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the company
who ……….. The ship.
A. Has chartered
B. Owns
C. Has mortgaged
D. Has assumed responsibilityfor the operation of
19. Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific ship
related activities such as manning, technical support or maintenance ?
A. Yes, it is allowed
B. No, it is not longer allowed
C. Yes, only for manning
D. Yes, only for technical support and manning, not for maintenance
1586
DPKP
20. Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning,
technical support or maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be
issued ?
A. Only one DOC can be issued to the Company
B. One DOC is issued to the company and one DOC is issued to the the
manning company only
C. One DOC is issued to the Company and one for each subcontractor
D. One DOC is issued to the Company and one DOC is required for the
maintenance as well as for the technical support company, not for
manning.
21. Linder ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which
is subcontracted……..
A. Remains the responsibility of the Company
B. Becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor
C. Becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor
D. Is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand
22. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor
must be satisfied that the company is in control of ……………
A. The subcontractors' personnel and resources.
B. All activities concerning the Safety Management System which have been
subcontracted.
C. The subcontractors' insurance system.
D. The financial portfolio of the subcontractors.
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23. Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority
and interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to
and affecting safety and pollution prevention. How ?
A. By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and
Officers Messroom.
B. By wall posters in the accommodation of the affected ships
C. By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and
pollution prevention activities for each functional area
D. By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibility
and command flow chart
24. Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in
order to carry out his functions ?
A. All of these.
B. Freedom to travel worldwide at will
C. An executive salary and a company car
D. Adequate resources and shore based support
25. Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should
include………….
A. Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of
each ship
B. Having overall control over all company departmental heads
C. Being a member of the Board of the Company
D. Final control over all shipboard operations and maintenance activities
26. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ?
A. A master certificate
B. Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and
control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code
C. Twenty years seagoing experience
D. A university degree
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27. Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person ?

A. Every 2 to 3 months
B. May be necessary
C. Is not required at all
D. Frequent lengthy stays on board are required
28. Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the Company's Safety and
Environmental Policy on board ?
A. The senior Officer's
B. The Designated Person's
C. The Master's
D. The entire crew's
29. Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively
implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the
Company ?
A. By the state of cleanliness on board
B. By judging the moral of the officers and crew on board
C. Through interviewing officers and crew
D. By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water
separator
30. Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe the Safety and
Environmental policy on Board ?
A. The Master
B. The Company's shore based and shipboard management
C. All ships officers
D. The senior officers
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31. Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the
Safety and Environmental protection policy ?
A. Ensure that the crew understands that they will be dismissed and will have
to pay their own air fare if they do not observe the policy
B. Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from the
implementation as well as encouraging reception of ownership
C. Ensure that copies of the Company's policy are given to all shipboard
personnel
D. Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and the
heavy fines to be paid for Pollution
32. How can the crew be helped to understand how they personally benefit from the
SEP policy and how could their perception of ownership be encouraged ?
A. Through regular meetings at which the crew members are encouraged to
participate in the continuous development of the objectives of the SEP
B. By distribution of Nature, Health &Wealth or the like magazines and by
asking them to open a savings account
C. By encouraging then to join Green Peace or any other environmental
group
D. By the Company's monthly newsletter
33. Under ISM, the master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental
policy and should issue appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and simple
manner. How is this to be done ?
A. By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples
B. Tell what is expected in a casual and amicable way during social
gatherings to officers and crew
C. By telling each and every crew member what to do exactly in a clear voice
D. By calling the ship's compliment together and give short orders in clear
English
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34. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures
and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who
will actually verifythis on board ?
A. The Designated Person
B. The Master
C. The Master and Officers
D. The Chief Engineer
35. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures and
instructions) Regarding the Safety Management System are observed ?
A. By computerising all specified requirements and have an officer assigned
as input controller
B. By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their
own Safety Work Book
C. By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities cof crew
members
D. By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master
36. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and
reporting its deficiencies to ………..
A. The shore based management
B. The classification society
C. The Flag state authorities
D. The Port state control of the next port of call
37. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should include
any deficiencies and may include …………..
A. A list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by the
Company.
B. A list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who are
to be promoted
C. Proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the
SMS.
D. The officer's and crew's appraisal reports
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DPKP
38. Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety,
finds a deficiency in the Safety Management system relevant to the ships
operation he should …………
A. Inform the P & I club.
B. Make note in the log book of this deficiency.
C. Correct the deficiency and make note of the correction applied in the
official log book.
D. Inform the Company.
39. When is the Master to review the Safety Management System and to report to the
Company ?
A. Prior to change of command
B. The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews
C. Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board
D. Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year
40. Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Management system?
A. The Master is to be mentioned as the Responsible Person in charge of
implementing the SMS
B. The overriding responsibility of the Master is self evident and need not to
be repeated in the SMS
C. The Master is to be mentioned as the juridical person in command of the
vessel
D. The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship
contains a clear statement emphasizing the Master's authority
41. Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies …………….
A. In case of oil spill clean-ups
B. In normal circumstances
C. In both normal and extreme circumstances
D. In emergency and extreme circumstances
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42. It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has
overriding responsibility and authority as required …………..
A. By the Company's Main Policy Objective
B. By the SOLAS Convention
C. By the International Association of Classification Societies
D. By the Shipowners Trust Fund
43. The Company must be sure that the Master is …………….

A. A safety and environmental protection licensed person.
B. A person in good standing with the P & I club association.
C. Properly qualified for command.
D. Not blacklisted by the U.S. Coast Guard or any other Port state control.
44. Verification of the master's qualifications should be done firstly by …………..

A. Interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental
awareness.
B. Drug and alcohol test.
C. Confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the
STCW convention.
D. Medical examination.
45. The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements
relating to safety and environmental protection by ……………..
A. Having the Superintendents prepare monthly information sheets
B. Including such requirements in operating instructions.
C. Reminding him time to time.
D. Having the Designated Person sent on board at specified intervals.
46. To make sure that the Master and the crew understand the tasks required of them
by the Safety Management System ……….. Should be described.
A. The vessel's safety equipment
B. Safety and environmental protection hazards
C. Job responsibilities
D. The ship's voyage and cargo details
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47. The Master is to be fully conversant with the Company's SMS and should be
informed of all requirements through formal meetings with the …………..
A. Shore management.
B. Senior Classification Society surveyors.
C. P & I club representatives.
D. Port state inspectors.
48. Masters are to be given the necessary support so that they can perform their duties
safely. Support from the Company includes ……………
A. Having port watchmen assigned on the ship in every port.
B. Having diver inspections carried out at least every 6 months.
C. Maintaining the required compliment and onboard expertise
D. Having the ship drydocked every 30 months.
49. The Master must be given the necessary support so that he can perform his duties
safely. Tf the Master reports deficiencies in the SMS, the company should ………
A. Make financial assistance available to the Master to correct the
deficiencie
B. Call in outside contractors to look at these deficiencies and rectify/repair
the same
C. Respond to identified deficiencies in the SMS.
D. Reward the Master for his diligence.
50. Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ………. With which the
Company should be familiar.
A. The shipping business
B. National and International requirements
C. The manpower industry
D. Crew management responsibilities
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DPKP
51. The Company should have a system in place for firstly ………….personnel,
especially if obtainedthrough a manning agent.
A. Briefing
B. Joining and offsigning
C. Dismissing
D. Selecting
52. To confirm seafarers as medically first is generally difficult …………

A. Since there is usually insufficient time for a thorough medical check up.
B. Since seaman have the tendency to hide illness.
C. Since there are no International or National standards.
D. Since medical certificates cannot be verified.
53. The Company should establish procedures to ensure that personnel transferred to
new assignments related to safety and environment protection are given
familiarisation training. What are defined as new assignments ?
A. Another ship
B. A different job
C. Promotion
D. All of these.
54. Instructions which are essential must be identified, documented and given to
newly assigned Personnel prior sailing. What are "essential instructions"
A. The role in the shipboard organization, dayworker or watchkeeper, which
watch assigned to.
B. SMS manual extracts, the safety manual to be read by each incoming
crewmember
C. Those that clearly define the crew members role within the SMS and
insure that they are prepared prior taking up their duties on board
D. Allotting crew cabin, linen, towels, instruction as to use of messrooms and
bathrooms
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55. Familiarization for personnel transferred or on new assignments could be

accomplished by …………..
A. Visual aids such as manuals, operating instructions and videos.
B. Observing overlap while vessel in port.
C. All of these.
D. On board training in a supernumerary capacity.
56. The choice and level of detail to assist familiarisation to new or newly assigned
crewmembers will depend on ………..
A. The age of the seaman and the number of years worked sea.
B. The rank of the newly assigned crewmember.
C. The intelligence quotient of the newly assigned crewmember.
D. The individual experience with the new assignment and job
responsibilities.
57. If individuals require essential familiarisation prior to sailing ……………

A. It will be the Master's duty to assess as such and initiate a training
program.
B. They should serve a full contract of at least ten months in a lower rank
prior to take up the new position.
C. Then the company should identify such requirements and develop an
appropriate plan.
D. They cannot take shipboard duty at all until they prove themselves
qualified for the job.
58. The Company should ensure that all personnel involved in the SMS have an
adequate Understanding of relevant rules, regulations, codes and guidelines.
How could such information be communicated ?
A. Trough written instructions
B. Described in the job responsibilities
C. Formal discussions with company representatives
D. All of these.
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59. The Company should identify the individual(s) having the responsibility to define
training needs Appropriate for specific tasks, taking into account …………..
A. Previous training, experience and required proficiency in operation of the
ship.
B. All of these.
C. Familiarity with new equipment, familiarity with equipment when
transferred to different type vessel.
D. Drills for emergencies, results of internal auditing.
60. The Company should establish procedures for the ship's personnel to receive
relevant information on the SMS and the amount of documentation should be
determined by……………….
A. Whatever is necessary to ensure that all appropriate shipboard personnel
understand their respective roles.
B. The type of vessel and the trading pattern.
C. The requirements of the Charterers.
D. The size of the Company
61. Under SMS sufficient instructions in a suitable language need to be verified, as

well as ensuring an understanding of them by the crew. How can this be verified?
A. The crew must be proficient in their own national language and have basic
understanding of the language in use on board
B. The crew is to be recruited in English speaking countries or will have to
pass and examination
C. Videos on the correct pronunciation of English need to be available on
board
D. By witnessing an exercise
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DPKP
62. Concerning the ability of the ship's personnel to communicate effectively in the
execution of their duties related to the SMS, documented evidence must be
available………….
A. On the medical examination of each crewmember.
B. On the ability of each crewmember to read and write in English.
C. On the procedures required for effective communication and what
verification is carried out on board.
D. On the educational level of each crewmember.
63. When developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations with safety
and pollution prevention as primary objective, the focus is on …………
A. Prevention.
B. Finance.
C. Economy.
D. Response to accident
64. Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollution
prevention as a primary objective and should include amongst other things …
A. Methods to tower the lifeboats.
B. Efficiency of the propulsion machinery.
C. Measures to mitigate identified risks.
D. Accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.
65. Concerning developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations it is
expected that the Company has identified risks associated with ………..
A. The carriage of liquid oil cargoes in bulk
B. Drugs and alcohol misuse
C. The shipping industry’s cost structure
D. The particular type of vessel and its trade.
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DPKP
66. Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to
the safety of the ship and pollution of the environment ?
A. Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering
B. Cargo shifting, collision, explosion
C. Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing
D. Fire, flooding, grounding
67. The Company should establish procedures to identify, describe and respond
to……….. Emergencyshipboard operations.
A. Potential
B. Assumed
C. Occuring
D. Theoretical
68. A company is expected to have documented emergency procedures applicable for

use onboard the particular type ship being operated including the duties and
responsibilities of the crewmembers and …………..
A. The methods of rescue available.
B. Shipboard communication methods available.
C. The ways of combating a worst case scenario.
D. The methods of reporting casualties to the Authorities.
69. In addition to routine drills prescribed in International and National regulations,

drills should also include ………..
A. Diving exercises under the ship.
B. Boat drills at sea.
C. Emergency situations such as identified potential emergency shipboard
situations.
D. Fire drills in port.
1599
DPKP
70. The scope of drills should exercise the company's ashore and on board personnel
and develop familiarity with a particular emergency. Documented evidence of
drills should exist which demonstrate ………..
A. That the Company has been able to respond effectively.
B. That all shore staff, office staff and subcontractors, manning agents and
repair outfits were effectively involved .
C. That the ships staff has followed the correct procedures in notifying the
shore staff.
D. That all the kinds of drills were carried out.
71. The Company should have available shoresideorganisational structure, resources

means and procedures for communications and equipment for responding to a
shipboard emergency. This means that ………..
A. A very large communications network is required.
B. The office is to be staffed by Emergency Response Teams 24 hours a day.
C. The Company needs offices spread out over the globe.
D. A 24-hour contact has to be available.
72. The SMS should include procedures ensuring that …….. Are reported to the
company, investigatedandanalysed with the objective of improving safety and
pollution prevention ?
A. Cargo operations and ballast operations
B. Illness and injury
C. Crew changes
D. Non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations
73. The Company should have ………. For responding to non-conformities identified
from internal audits andduring routine operation of the ship
A. Procedures
B. Printed labels
C. A toll free telephone number
D. Inventory cards
1600
DPKP
74. The Company should establish procedures to ensure that the ship is maintained in
conformity with the provisions of the relevant rules and regulations and
with………….
A. The by-laws of the relevant P & I club.
B. The approval of the London Salvage Association.
C. The cooperation of the Master.
D. Any additional requirements which may be established by Company.
75. Objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established

maintenance requirements inclusive …………
A. Of a computerised planned maintenance system.
B. Of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines.
C. Of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routines
and verification of their implementation by the appropriate personnel.
D. Of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and engine
departments up to date.
76. Under the SMS as part of shipboard responsibilities, there should be routine
inspections of ……………
A. All crews belongings, luggage and items stowed in crew cabins.
B. The accommodation.
C. All machinery and ships equipment in use.
D. Machinery, ships equipment and structural integrity of the ship.
77. Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be
expected to correct non-conformities whenever possible. In this respect, what are
“Non-Conformities" ?
A. Damage
B. Any one these
C. Deficiencies
D. Defects, malfunctioning
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DPKP
78. The Company should have procedures established for corrective action.
Corrective actions involves solutions which …………..
A. Punish the persons guilty of neglect without taking any other action
afterwards.
B. Investigate who was at fault and put the blame on the person(s) involved.
C. May reduce or prevent occurrence of a non-conformity.
D. Guaranty that there is no recurrence of a non-conformity.
79. The Company should establish procedures under SMS to identify equipment and
technical systems of which the sudden failure may result in hazardous operations.
Once identified ……………
A. These items are checked at least once a week by the Master.
B. Tests and other procedures should be established to ensure reliability.
C. A rigid maintenance program is to be established for this equipment
D. It must be ensured that each and every component of these systems and
equipment is carried as spare on board.
80. The testing and maintenance of stand by equipment and inactive systems
associated with alternatives should be part of the Company's maintenance plan.
Example of tests are…………..
A. Operation of alarms and emergency shut-downs.
B. Emergency and safety equipments tests (eg EPIRB, VHF, CO2 detectors)
C. Any or all of the other options
D. Pre-arrival and pre-departure tests
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DPKP
81. The Company should establish and maintain procedures to control all documents
which are relevant to the SMS. The Company should ensure that:1) …….. 2)
……3) ………
A. 1) Documents are kept confidential by the Master 2) the Master reviews
the documents 3) the Masterimplements the contents of documents.
B. 1) Documents are approved by authorised personnel 2) Documents are to
be reviewed by the Master 3) Documents are to be kept safe.
C. 1) Documents are in the Master's safekeeping only 2) Documents are
authorised by the Classification Society 3) Documents are authorised by P
& I Club.
D. 1) Valid documents are available 2) Changes to documents are reviewed
and approved by authorised personnel 3) Obsolete documents are removed
prompt.
82. The documents used to describe and implement the SMS may be referred to as
the…………….
A. Ship Management Manual
B. Safety Management Manual
C. Ship Maintenance Manual
D. Shipboard Instruction Manual
83. The Company should carry out ……….. To verify whether safety and pollution
preventionactivitiescomply with the Shipboard Management System ?
A. Inspections by third party consultants
B. Drydock Inspections
C. External safety audits
D. Internal safety audits
84. SMS Management reviews should be initiated at least by ………….

A. Analysis and investigation of accidents, results obtained due
implementation of SMS.
B. Changes in the market strategy, social and environmental conditions.
C. Any of these
D. Recommendations based on statutory/classification surveys and outdated
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DPKP
SMS in the light of new rules/ regulations brought in force.
85. Personnel carrying out audits should be……… the areas being audited.
A. Very conversant
B. Familiarised with
C. Independent of
D. Experts in
86. A ……….. Should be issued for every Company complying with the
requirements of the ismcode by the Administration, or by the
Organisationrecognised by the Administration .
A. Safety Management Certificate
B. International Shipmanagement Certificate
C. Document of Compliance
D. Safety and Environmental Protection Certificate
87. When verified that the Company and its shipboard management operate in
accordance with the approved SMS, a …….... Should be issued to the ship by the
Administration or organisationrecognised by it.
A. Safety Management Certificate
B. Certificate of Responsibility
C. Document of Compliance
D. Credibility Certificate
88. The Company should ensure that each ship is manned with ………… seafarers in
accordance withnational and international requirements.
A. Intelligent and healthy
B. Safety conscious and diligent
C. Qualified, certified and medically fit
D. Drug and alcohol abstaining
1604
DPKP
89. Under ISM, what is the role of the Designated Person as defined by the ISM
Code?
A. To write the safety manuals and to follow up on all safety related
requisitions requested by the ship
B. To monitor and if necessary to build up better safety relationships between
the Authorities and the ship's staff
C. To inspect the ship at least once every six months and to report all matters
concerning safety and environmental protection to the management
D. To ensure the safe operation of each ship and to provide a link between the
company and those on board
90. What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code ?

A. The international code for transporting of cargoes safety on board ships as
regulated by Marpol Annex III
B. An international management code for the safe operation of ships and for
pollution prevention as adopted by the IMO
C. The international code for accident prevention and safe working practices
D. The International Ship Management Association's code For navigational
safety
91. How is a Safety Management Certificate obtained?

A. Ship owner has Document of Compliance issued, and vessel is assessed
and holds all statutory certificates
B. Vessel is surveyed by MCA and certificate issued
C. Ship owner is authorised to carry out internal audits and issue SMC
D. RSS issue SMC with Register
92. Under ISM, what is a "non-conformity"?

A. An observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-
fulfilment of a specified requirement
B. The wearing of non-standard Personal protective equipment
C. Official log book entries not being completed correctly
D. A safety officer not being nominated for the vessel
1605
DPKP
93. Watch keeping engineers shall have a minimum of knowledge of the vessel's
engine room and operation of its functions prior to being accepted as Engineer on
Duty, and shall acknowledge his familiarization with the equipment by signing a
check list listing all units he shall be able to operate. Minimum knowledge is:
A. He shall have all the knowledge as listed in the
other alternatives
B. Start, operate and stop main and auxiliary
machinery units, including switching between
automatic, remote and/or manual control
functions, and operate the various units in various modes.
C. Understand the function of all main and auxiliary equipment, e.g.
Machinery, pumps, fuel systems, cooling systems and the interlinks
between various units and the function of them.
D. Check routines during operation and prior to switching to UMS-mode
94. What do you understand by the term “Risk Assessment”, and how would this be
carried out on board?
A. Identify the hazards, quantify the risks, put control measures in place,
monitor the work activity and review
B. Requires a great deal of preparation and involves recording everything on
paper
C. Identify the hazards and specify the personal protective equipment that
would be required to complete the work
D. States than when work has a degree of risk that the work is not carried out
95. What does ISM stand for?

A. The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and
for Pollution Prevention
B. International Safe Manning Certification
C. Internal Ship Safety Management
D. International Ship Measurement and Pollution Control
1606
DPKP
96. What is the main theme of modern safety practice?

A. Making use of Risk Assessment as a means to improving safety
B. Use the same practice that has been in place for some time
C. Consult the chief officer before commencing work
D. Health & Safety at Work Act
97. What is the period of validity of the Safety Management Certificate

A. 5 years
B. 6 months
C. 2 years
D. 1 Year
98. Which personnel must undergo familiarization training on board

A. Everyone
B. Only the deck officers
C. Only the ratings
D. Only catering staff
99. Which ships does the ISM code apply to

A. All passenger ships, all cargo ships of 500GRT or above
B. Only tankers and Ro-ros
C. Only passenger vessels
D. All craft above 300GRT
100. With respect to the ISM, what training in additional to lifeboat and fire drills
must be carried out?
A. Familiarization, and other drills identified as necessary by the ship
B. The boat drill and fire drill should be adequate to meet your needs
C. Mooring operations
D. Bridge Team Management
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DPKP
101. Under ISM, which methods can the master use to implement the Company's
Safety and Environmental policy?
A. Implementation of all existing IMO and Marpol rules
B. At his own discretion taking into account the trading pattern and the
workload on the ship, as well as weather conditions
C. As defined and documented by the Company
D. He should discuss the methods to be used with the senior officers and the
shipboard safety committee
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DPKP
13. Menerapkanketerampilankepemimpinandankerjasamakelompok
(Application ofleadership andteamworking skills)
1. Which of the Following is not a Type of Team?
A. Cross Functional
B. Virtual
C. Problem Solving
D. Individual
2. Identify 4 of the Five Steps in Team Formation and Development.

A. Storming, Warming, Norming and Performing
B. Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing
C. Storming, Norming, Practicing and Adjourning
D. Starting, Norming, Performing and Adjourning
3. Which of these is a Disadvantage of Teamwork?

A. More ideas may be generated
B. More resources are available
C. More time is taken to perform the tasks
D. More networking opportunities
4. Which of these is an Advantage of Teamwork?

A. Conflict may occur
B. Compromises may not be best option
C. Cost may be increased due to extra resources
D. Can provide Support
5. What Individual or Group Behaviours might lead to an effective Team?

A. Self Interest verses Group Interest
B. Lack of boundaries
C. Ill-defined roles
D. Able to listen to feedback
1609
DPKP
6. When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying
effective team decision making?
A. Two people always seem to make the decisions
B. Decision reached by voting or by consensus
C. Silence implies acceptance
D. The loudest member always decides
7. To be an effective communicator in a team

A. Never Praise your team mates
B. Never Judge your team mates
C. Never Listen by yourself
D. Never Respond to your team mates
8. The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes:

A. Reinforcing Individualism
B. Taking one’s time
C. Quality Management
D. Assimilating Diversity
9. To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to

A. Check their Fair Work Act Award
B. Train them in one task at a time
C. Monitor their individual performance
D. Reward and motivate them
10. To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to

A. Actively stick to company procedures
B. Actively discourage members to ask for help as it is a sign of weakness
C. Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions
D. Actively avoid introducing too many diverse ideas as it may create confusion
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DPKP
11. Groupthink is used to describe

A. The positive aspects that accur when a group works together.
B. Group dinamics that can interfere with group decision-making processes and
can produce disastrous results.
C. When group members have in-jokes and give each other knowing glances.
D. When group members are on the same wavelength and complete each others
sentences.
12. Research on working in pairs, teams, or in groups has shown that.

A. Collaborations are never productive
B. Teamwork is never as good as working alone
C. Group problem solving tasks always dilute original ideas
D. Collaborations can be productive
13. The subject of minority influence refers to?

A. When the group votes by minority rules instead of majority rules
B. When the minority opinion in not able to sway the majority opinion
C. When one person in a group influences the other members in the group
D. When the group members only influence one member in the group
14. Who are free riders ?

A. People who report social loafers
B. People who volunteer to give others ride home in situations of potential drunk
C. Driving Those who do not put forth effort on a task, but reap the benefits of a
group
D. People who voice their opinions despite the unpopularity of their views
15. Minority influence can

A. Never sway the majority of the group members to the other point of view
B. Steer other goup members who hold the majorityview over to the minority
point of view
C. Decrease creativity
D. Able to listen to feedback
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DPKP
16. When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying
effective team decision making?
A. Two people always seem to make the decisions
B. Decision reached by voting or by consensus
C. Silence implies acceptance
D. The loudest member always decides
17. To be an effective communicator in a team

A. Never Praise your team mates
B. Never Judge your team mates
C. Never Listen by yourself
D. Never Respond to your team mates
18. The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes:

A. Reinforcing Individualism
B. Taking one’s time
C. Quality Management
D. Assimilating Diversity
19. To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to :
A. Check their Fair Work Act Award
B. Train them in one task at a time
C. Monitor their individual performance
D. Reward and motivate them
20. To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to

A. Actively stick to company procedures
B. Actively discourage members to ask for help as it is a sign of weakness
C. Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions
D. Actively avoid introducing too many diverse ideas as it may create confusion
1612
DPKP
21. One finding of the risky shift effect is........

A. That group decisions are often risker when groupthink sets in.
B. That individual decisions are often risker than group decisions.
C. That individuals help less when others are around.
D. That group decisions can encourage more exreme decisions than the person
would have made in the first place.
22. It is through ............. That group members can be inspired, motivated and guided to
be successful and productive.
A. Fellowship
B. Sportsmanship
C. Coercion
D. Leadership
23. Which style of leadership focuses on goals, standard and organization ?

A. Task leadership
B. Social leadership
C. Semantic leadership
D. Transformational leadership
24. If immersed in a group that gives a person a sense of anonymity, a person could
A. Alter their social indentity to meet the expectations of others
B. Unleash inhibitions because of deindividuation
C. Become inhibited because of social comparsion
D. Accept resposibility for their actions
25. The transformational leadership style

A. Encourages group members to transform themselves into better people
B. Strives to change the group members opinions by showing them a better way
to think
C. Changes opinions and attitudes without changing behaviors
D. Encourages and inspires group members to go above and beyond selfish
interests and do what is the best for the common good of the group as a whole
1613
DPKP
26. Social comparasion theory is offered as one explanation for ........................

A. Group polarization
B. Pluralistic ignorance
C. Summation polarity
D. Group adhesion
1614

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DPKP

291. How is stern tube wear down measured when in dry-dock?

296. What type of filling value is fitted on all air bottles?

297. What regular maintenance is required on the burner?

298. What is the first action when flashing up a boiler?

300. What is the most dangerous effect of water in fuel?

301. What purpose is the settling tank?

302. What is the function of a Viscotherm?

303. What is the most damaging fuel contaminant?

304. What are gauze element filters designed to remove?

307. What is the required temperature in the ship's fish room?

308. How are boiler tubes secured in the end plates?

309. What is the most damaging on riveted mountings?

310. What condition would necessitate blowing down the boiler?

311. Why are some boiler tubes not plain cylindrical?

314. What dailytest should be carried out on boiler water?

317. Why are cylindrical boiler end plates of dished shape?

318. What mountings must be tested daily on steaming boilers?

319. What material is the boiler shell constructed from?

320. What is the usual pressure adjustment method on safety values?

321. What is the purpose of the scum values?

322. What best describes the "easing gear"?

324. What mountings must be dismantled for inspection during survey?

325. What is "simmer" in a safety value?

326. What is the purpose of air release valves on boiler shell?

327. How is "water hammer" best avoided in steam lines?

328. What controls feed water delivery?

329. What is the function of the Low Level alarm?

334. A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water to check for:

335. What is the most likely source of Chloride contamination?

338. What damage could be caused by raising steam too quickly?

341. Is it possible to blow down a steaming boiler?

342. How is temperature controlled in a steam oil heater?

344. What precaution must be observed when fitting new anodes?

345. How is temperature controlled in a jacket water heat exchanger?

349. What is the main advantage of plate heat exchangers?

354. How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator ?

355. Why is a baffle plate fitted between evaporator and condenser?

356. What is the main advantage of vacuum production of FW?

357. What precaution is necessary before starting the distillate pump?

359. Why is it necessaryto produce fresh water from seawater?

362. What is the purpose of the automatic unloading value?

365. What type of values are normally found in air compressors?

367. What shutdown device might be fitted on air compressors?

368. Which is the correct sequence after starting the compressor.

373. What happens if the rudder is moved in a heavy sea?

374. What is a telemotor system?

375. In a hydraulic telemotor system what does wheel movement provide?

376. What is the purpose of Hunting Gear?

377. In an electrically controlled hydraulic system what do the electrical controls

378. What does the telemotor receiver unit control?

379. What is meant by radial vane type steering system?

380. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action?

383. When would both steering gear motors be run together?

385. Mat does wheel movement control in an electric steering system?

387. In tankers an alternate hydraulic oil supply must be automatically connected

388. What provides power to hydraulic emergency steering system

390. Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants?

393. What would be fitted to relieve excess compressor pressure?

394. How is an air conditioning compressor normally unloaded?

396. What is the function of the expansion valve?

399. What is the function of the oil differential pressure switch?

400. What effect has the solenoid stop valve?