MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Subject- Ph.D

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student regarding the kind and pattern of questions that may be asked in SRMHCAT-2015
online/offline examination.

The students are advised to download their respective model question papers and go through
before appearing in the examination.

1. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

2. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis

3. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research

4. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above

5. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as

(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Applied Research
6. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a
new course. The process may be termed as:
(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Conference
(D) Symposium

7. In the process of conducting research „Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data

8. The research that aims at immediate application is

(A) Action Research
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research
(D) Fundamental Research

9. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions
is used?
(A) ibid
(B) et.al
(C) op.cit :
(D) loc.cit.

10. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study
(D) Experimental study

11. Conferences are meant for

(A) Multiple target groups
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research
(D) All the above

12. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement
is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning
(B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning
(D) Transcendental Reasoning

13. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication:

(A) Visual one way
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way
(D) Visual two way
14. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for
(A) Total Rating Points
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points
(D) Television Rating Points

15. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence ? 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____
(A) 60 (B) 64
(C) 72 (D) 70
16. Given that in a code language, „645‟ means „day is warm‟; „42‟ means „warm spring‟ and „634‟ means
„spring is sunny‟; which digit represents „sunny‟ ?
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5
17. The basis of the following classification is : „first President of India‟ „author of Godan‟ „books in my
library‟, „blue things‟ and „students who work hard‟
(A) Common names
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Indefinite description

18. In the expression „Nothing is larger than itself‟ the relation „is larger than‟ is
(A) antisymmetric
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive
(D) irreflexive

19. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana
does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with
Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna

20. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun
as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type
of argument is contained in the above passage ?
(A) Deductive
(B) Astrological
(C) Analogical
(D) Mathematical

21. Internal communication within institutions is done through

(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
22. Internet explorer is a type of
(A) Operating System
(B) Compiler
(C) Browser
(D) IP address

23. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development (d) Eco-centrism
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)

24. Determine the nature of the following definition: “Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of
innocent beings.
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Theoretical

25. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr.
B.R. Ambedkar ?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

26. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe

27. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3, 4 and 2
28. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) All self incriminatory statements are valid.
(B) All self-incriminatory statements are violative of Article 20(3).
(C) Self incriminatory statements furnished under compulsion are violative of Article 20(3).
(D) None of the above.

29. Assertion (A) : Under Article-368,the parliament can amend any part of the constitution of India.
Reason (R) : The parliament is supreme legislative body elected by people of India.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

30. „The constitution establishes a system of government which is almost quasi-federal ……. a unitary
state with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features.‟ This is
the opinion of:
(A) K.C. Wheare
(B) Jennings
(C) A.V. Dicey
(D) None of the above

31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
i. Appointment of Judges a. Article-124
ii. A Court of Record b. Article-129
iii. Appeal in civil cases c. Article-133
iv. Certificate for appeal to Supreme Court d. Article-134A
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) a b c d
(B) a c b d
(C) a b d c
(D) b a d c

32. The constitution of Election Commission is provided in the constitution under:

(A) Article-323
(B) Article-324
(C) Article-327
(D) Article-329

33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
i. Doctrine of Eclipse a. RMDC v/s Union of India
ii. Doctrine of severability b. State of Bombay v/s F.N. Balsara
iii. Doctrine of Waiver c. Bhikaji v/s State of M.P.
iv. Doctrine of pith and substance d. Bashesher Nath v/s Income Tax
Commissioner
Codes : i ii iii iv
(A) c b d a
(B) b c a d
(C) c a d b
(D) d b c a
34. In case there is any inconsistency between the laws made by parliament and the laws made by the
state legislature, which one of the following shall prevail?
(A) The law made by parliament only if it is passed before the law made by state legislature.
(B) The law made by parliament only if it is passed after the law made by state legislature.
(C) The law made by parliament whether it is passed before or after the law made by state
legislature.
(D) The law made by state if it is passed after the law made by parliament.

35. Lokpal or Lokayukta is competent to

(A) Discharge the functions of administrative officer.
(B) Investigate complaints involving grievances in respect of administrative actions.
(C) Conduct inquiry against administrative officer for disciplinary action.
(D) Give observations and recommendations in respect of administrative actions to the government.

36. Assertion (A): Indian Constitution has not recognized the doctrine of separation of power in its
absolute rigidity.
Reason (R): Doctrine of separation of power accommodates a system of checks and balances.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

37. Administrative law is concerned with the operation and control of the powers of administrative
authorities with emphasis on functions rather than on structure. This definition was given by
(A) K.C. Davis
(B) Jennings
(C) A.V. Dicey
(D) Wade

38. Which one of the following is not basic source of administrative law?
(A) Custom
(B) Delegated legislation
(C) Ordinance promulgated by Governor
(D) Reports of the committees and Commission

39. A resolution for the revocation of the proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by
(A) Ten members of Lok Sabha
(B) One-fifth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
(C) One-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
(D) One-fifteenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.

40. Which one of the following has been considered as authority of power?
(A) The Constitution of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The Parliament of India
(D) The Supreme Court of India

41. A Writ of Mandamus will not lie against

(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Local authorities
(D) Courts and Tribunals
42. “A legal person is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality.”
Who said these words?
(A) Savigny
(B) Bentham
(C) Austin
(D) Salmond

43. “Pure theory of Law is an exercise in logic and not life.” This observation was made by
(A) Pound
(B) Savigny
(C) Maine
(D) Harold Laski

44. “Law is derived from social facts and not dependent on State authority but on social compulsion.”
Who said this?
(A) Putchta
(B) Ehrlich
(C) Friedman
(D) Pound

45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Sie utere tero out alierum non laedas: To use your own property as not to injure your
neighbour‟s right
(B) Re Legitima Portis : A person cannot dispose of his entire property
(C) Jus turtii : To set up title of a third person other than himself or the plaintiff
(D) Nec vi nec calur precario: Possession must show to the competitor

46. Assertion (A): In India the distinction between legal and equitable ownership is not recognised.
Reason (R): The trustees are, subject to the law relating to trust and trustees, bound to carry out the trust
according to the dictates of the maker of the trust.
Examine the above statements (A) and Reason (R) and select whether the reason is a correct explanation
of the assertion using the codes given below:

Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

47. Which one of the following cases is considered as “High Water-mark case in Forest Protection”
decided by the Supreme Court?
(A) Salebhai Mulla Mohmadali Vs. State of Gujarat.
(B) T.N. Godavarman Tirumulkpad Vs. Union of India.
(C) Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs. Union of India.
(D) Samatha Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh.

48. The Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 for the control of
water pollution:
(A) On the request from States.
(B) Of his own.
(C) On the direction of United Nations.
(D) On the direction of Supreme Court.
49. Fill in the blank using appropriate statement. Non Compos Mentis means ______
(A) Not of sound mind.
(B) Who lacks the requisite mens rea.
(C) Unable to know that the act is either wrong or contrary to law.
(D) A concussion of brain.

50. Match List-I (Objectives) with List-II (Propositions) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Inchoate crime (i) „Whaton‟ says it is the beginning but not complete.
(b) Attempt (ii) It does not act towards the commission of offence.
(c) Preparation (iii) Culprit commences to do something.
(d) Intention (iv) When preparation merges itself with attempt.

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

51. Which of the following amount to Industrial Dispute?

(A) Any dispute between Employers and Employees.
(B) Between Employers and Workmen.
(C) Between Workmen and Workmen.
(D) All these.

52. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “the benefit of running allowance had to
be taken into consideration for computing pension only once, at the time of retirement of the employee,
not for any future calculation” ?
(A) U.O.I. Vs Dhingara and others (2008) I LLJ 867(SC)
(B) Bennet Coleman & Co. Vs Punya Priyadas AIR 1970 SC 426
(C) State Bank of Patiala Vs phoolpati (2005) II LLJ 473 (SC)
(D) Pearlite Lines Pvt. Ltd. Vs Manorama

53. Ex Post Facto research means

(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.

54. Research ethics do not include

(A) Honesty
(B) Subjectivity
(C) Integrity
(D) Objectivity

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60:

James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power
that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny
members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in
secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In
the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to
participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context
that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see
that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law
for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in
a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said,
“This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience.
Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”
The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive,
Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit
because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has
sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores which would bring about
systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to
fulfill its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public
authorities. The transformation from non-transparency to transparency and public accountability is the
responsibility of all three organs of State.

55. A person gets power

(A) by acquiring knowledge
(B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings
(D) by denying public information

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to

(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill

(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and
effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by

(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

61. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type
of treatment would you like to give him in the class?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.
62. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?
(A) Reliability
(B) Objectivity
(C) Ambiguity
(D) Validity

63. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?

(A) Overhead projector
(B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Slide projector

64. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.

65. A teacher can be successful if he/she

(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner

66. Dynamic approach to teaching means

(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities

67. Legal Theory is based on

(A) a systematic study of positive laws
(B) purely logical and empirical study
(C) concepts like morality, justice and ethics
(D) total exclusion of customary practices, morality and social vagaries

68. On which one of the following one can have corporeal ownership ?
(A) A right
(B) Trademark
(C) Movable property
(D) A debt

69. The Charter of the United Nations can be amended by

(A) Five-third of the members of General Assembly.
(B) The Security Council only
(C) Two-third of the members of the U.N. including all permanent members of the Security Council after
recommendations by a two thirds vote of a conference convened for the purpose, is received .
(D) Two-thirds of the members of the Security Council including five permanent members.

70. In which of the following case, International Court of Justice denied existence of customary rule?
(A) North Sea Continental Shelf case.
(B) The Lotus case.
(C) Both of the above.
(D) None of the above.
71. Which organ of the United Nations has been given responsibility of promoting international co-
operation in the realisation of human rights?
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above

72. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that even the wife of a void marriage is
entitled to maintenance?
(A) Amarjeet Kaur Vs. Harbhajan Singh (2003) 10 SCC 228.
(B) Chand Dhawan Vs. Jawaharlal Dhawan (1993) 3 SCC 406.
(C) Nirmala Devi Vs. Ram Dass (2001) 2 SCC. 4
(D) Ramesh Chandra Vs. Veena Kausal AIR 1978 SC 1807

73. In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale price of woman”?
(A) Maina Bibi case
(B) Humara Bibi case
(C) Subrunnisan case
(D) Abdul Kadir case

74. Which form of talaq is revocable during period of „iddat‟?

(A) Talaq-i-Ahsan
(B) Talaq-i-Hasan
(C) Triple Talaq
(D) None of the above

75. Essentials of valid contract is

(A) Meeting of minds
(B) Meeting of parties
(C) Meeting to discuss consideration
(D) Meeting to discuss proposal and acceptance

76. P and Q, unknown to R, sought and got a lift in R‟s car, but on account of some mechanical defect in
the car, of which R was not aware, one of the front wheels of the car got detached and flew away, and the
car toppled. P and Q got serious injuries and later on, P died of his injuries. Q and P‟s next kin sued R for
damages for negligent driving. What defence R has?
(A) Volenti non fit injuria
(B) No responsibility towards P and Q who got a free lift
(C) Inevitable accident
(D) No defence

77. In contributory negligence:

(A) Both parties have contributed to the negligence equally.
(B) Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.
(C) One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.
(D) When lack of care is equal on both sides.

78. “If it was lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it.” This
observation was made by the court in one of the following cases:
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles
(B) Ashby Vs. White
(C) Christie Vs. Davey
(D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
79. B a married man commits sex with C a girl child of 16 years with her consent. What offence B has
committed?
(A) Adultery
(B) Rape
(C) No offence
(D) Sexual outraging

80. Fill in the blank: Extortion is ________, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to steal property
(C) Robbery
(D) Wrongful restraint

81. Find answer of the following question: What is the distinctive feature between false information and
false charging?
(A) Using lawful power to cause annoyance so as to institute a criminal proceeding.
(B) To omit act which ought not to be done.
(C) A case for false information can only be started by a complaint while false charge can be initiated by
police.
(D) There is no real distinction.

82. Collective bargaining serves purposes:

(A) Regulating wages and conditions of service
(B) Regulating labour management relations.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) None of the above.

83. In which country where statutes make it obligatory to negotiate nonperformance of the obligation
invites penalty, failure to carry obligation is treated as unfair labour practice?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) India

84. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “there was no rule of thumb that in every
case of termination of workman‟s service in violation of Section 25F of ID Act relief of re-instatement
should be granted ?
(A) Talwara Co-operative Credit & Service Society Ltd. Vs. Sushil Kumar (2009) I LLJ 326 S.C.
(B) Gujarat Steel Tubes Ltd. Vs. G.S.T. Mazdoor Sabha (1980) I LLJ 137 (S.C.)
(C) Mavji C. Lakum Vs. Central Bank of India (2008) III LLJ.1.(SC)
(D) None of the above

85. The Registrar to Pensions Appeal Tribunal was appointed as presiding officer of a Labour Court. The
appointment is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Void ab-initio
(D) None of the above

86. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List – I List – II
I. Privilege a. Gives content to the claim of a person
II. Duty b. Freedom from claim of another
III. Power c. Have no correlative claim according to Austin
IV. Absolute Duty d. Ability of a person to change legal relations
87. „X‟ a servant finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over to „Y‟ the owner of the shop,
who asks him to place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of
(A) „X‟ because he was the finder.
(B) „Y‟ because he was the owner of the shop.
(C) „X‟ because he has kept it in the almirah.
(D) „Y‟ because in him there was union of corpus and animus

88. Assertion (A) : International Law Commission has initiated studies and prepared draft codes on
diverse fields in international law.
Reason (R) : International Law Commission was established under General Assembly Resolution No.
174 (11) adopted on 21 November 1947 with an object to promote, progressively
develop and codify international law.

Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(C) (R) is true but (A) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

89. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) China

90. “Recognition operates retroactively not to invalidate the acts of a former government, but to validate
the acts of a de facto government which has become the new de jure government.” has been held by the
court in the case of :
(A) Civil Air Transport Inc. Vs Central Air Transport Corporation.
(B) A.M. Luther Vs Sagar & Co.
(C) The Arantzazu Mendi
(D) Gdynia Ameryka Linie Vs Boguslawski.
91. Match List - I with List - II.
List – I Declaration/ Treaty/Convention List – II Year of Adoption
a. Universal Declaration of Human Rights i. 1948
b. International Convention on Civil and Political Rights ii. 1966
c. Convention on the Rights of the Child iii. 2006
d. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities iv. 1999

Codes :
abcd
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii ii iv i

92. Jus Cogens means:

(A) Peremptory norm of international law.
(B) Norm of international law.
(C) Peremptory norm which does not permit derogation.
(D) None of the above.

18. Which one of the following is primary source of international law?

(A) Decisions of International Court of Justice.
(B) Resolutions of U.N. General Assembly.
(C) General Principles of law recognized by Civilized Nations
(D) None of the above
93. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Ashok Hura Vs Rupa Hura case i. Restitution of Conjugal Rights
b. Bipin Chandra Vs Prabhavati ii. Uniform Civil Code
c. Sarla Mudugal Vs Union of India iii. Dessertion
d. T. Sareetha Vs State of A.P. iv. Divorce by Mutual Consent.

Codes :
abcd
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iii i iv
(D) iv iii i ii

94. Arrange the grounds of divorce in the order in which they appear in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Use the codes given below :
(I) Mutual consent
(II) Break down
(III) Fault
(IV) Customary
Codes :
(A) III II I IV
(B) II III IV I
(C) I II III IV
(D) IV III I II

95. The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented if the spouses have been living
separately for a period of
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) None of the above

96. An offer and an acceptance to it must be in the

(A) same time
(B) same place
(C) same sense
(D) none of above

97. Which of the following statements are true ?

(i) Past consideration is no consideration under Indian and English Law.
(ii) Past consideration is no consideration under Indian Law.
(iii) Past consideration is no consideration under English Law.
(iv) Past consideration is made in past.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) and (i)

98. Assertion (A) : When subject matter of a contract is destroyed, the contract is frustrated.
Reason (R) : Frustration of a contract frustrates a party to the contract.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
99. Which one of the following pairs does not match?
(A) Novation of contract - Section 62
(B) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings - Section 29
(C) Tender of performance - Section 38
(D) Unlawful object and consideration - Section 23

100. Which one of the defence to strict liability is based on the maxim, volenti non fit injuria?
(A) Consent of the plaintiff
(B) Act of God
(C) Act of Third Party
(D) Statutory Authority