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*1001CJA102118061*

ENGLISH

(1001CJA102118061)

(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

SCORE : I

Test Type : FULL SYLLABUS Test Pattern : JEE-Main

TEST DATE : 27 - 12 - 2018

PAPER – 2

Important Instructions

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point

Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space)

on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A,B,C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and

Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted

4 (four) marks for correct response.

6. One Fourth mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction

from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and

Side–2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile

phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.

9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty

in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with

them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA 324005

+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

PART A - PHYSICS

1. Shown in the figure is a combination of

logic gates. The output values at P and Q +

+

are correctly represented by which of the +

+ +

following?

+ + X

1 p O

+ ++

+

0 Q +

(1) 0 0 (2) 1 1 (3) 0 1 (4) 1 0 (1) 100 V/m (2) 301 V/m

2. By applying a force F 3xy 5z ˆj 4zkˆ a (3) 401 V/m (4) 501 V/m

particle is moved along the path y = x2 from 4. Consider two coherent point sources

point (0,0,0) to the point (2,4,0). The work (S1 and S2) separated by a small distance

done by the F on the particle is (all values along a vertical line and two screens P1 and

are in SI units) P2 placed as shown in Figure. Which one

y of the choices represents the shapes of the

(2,4,0) interference fringes at the central regions

on the screens?

y=x2

P2

(0,0,0) x S1

280 140 232 192 S2

(1) J (2) J (3) J (4) J

5 5 5 5

3. Two semicircular wires of radius 20 cm and P1

10 cm have a common centre at the

origin O as shown in the figure. Assume (1) Circular on P1 and straight lines on P2

that both the wires are uniformly charged (2) Circular on P1 and circular on P2

and have an equal charge of 0.70 nC each. (3) Straight lines on P1 and straight lines

The magnitude of electric field at the

on P2

common centre of curvature O of the

system is (4) Straight lines on P1 and circular on P2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1001CJA102118061 E-1/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

5. For an infinitely long wire with uniform 7. A spherical closed container with smooth

line-charge density, , along the z-axis, the inner wall contains a monoatomic ideal gas.

electric field at a point (a,b,0) away from If the collisions between the wall and the

ˆ ˆj and k̂ are unit vectors in atoms are elastic, then the Maxwell

the origin is ( i,

Cartesian-coordinate system.) dn v

speed-distribution function for the

dv

(1)

2 0 a b 2 2

ˆi ˆi atoms is best represented by :

(2) 2 a2 b2 aiˆ bjˆ dnv

0 (1) dv

0 v

(3) î

2 0 a 2 b 2

dnv

(4) k̂

(2) dv

2 2

2 0 a b

6. A charged particle in a uniform magnetic 0 v

field B B 0 kˆ starts moving from the origin

with velocity

v = 3jˆ 2kˆ m/s. The dnv

trajectory of the particle and the time t at (3) dv

which it reaches 2 meters above the 0 v

ˆ ˆj and k̂ are unit vectors in

xy- plane are ( i,

Cartesian-coordinate system.)

(1) Helical path ; t = 1 s. dnv

(2) Helical path ; t = 2/3 s. (4) dv

(3) Circular path ; t = 1 s. 0 v

(4) Circular path ; t = 2/3 s.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

E-2/18 1001CJA102118061

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

8. In the following RC circuit, the capacitor 9. In an R-L-C circuit v= 20 sin (314t + 5/6)

was charged in two different ways. and i = 10 sin (314 t + 2/3). The power

(i) The capacitor was first charged to 5V factor of the circuit is

by moving the toggle switch to position (1) 0.5 lag

P and then it was charged to 10V by (2) 0.866 lead

moving the toggle switch to position Q.

(3) 0.866 lag

(ii) The capacitor was directly charged to

(4) 1 lead

10V, by keeping the toggle switch at

10. A distant hot air balloon subtends 0.25° at

position Q.

the objective lens of an astronomical

Assuming the capacitor to be ideal, which

one of the following statement is correct? telescope. The image subtends 1.5°. The

objective and eye piece are in a 35 cm long

tube. Find the focal length of the eye piece

R

C lens.

(1) 10 cm (2) 3 cm

P 5V (3) 5 cm (4) 7 cm

11. A train passes through a station with a

10V constant speed. A stationary observer at

Q the station platform measures the tone of

the train whistle as 484 Hz when it

(1) The energy dissipation in cases (i) and approaches the station and 442 Hz when it

(ii) will be equal and non-zero. leaves the station. If the sound velocity in

(2) The energy dissipation for case (i) will air is 330 m/s, then the tone of the whistle

be more than that for case (ii). and the speed of the train are

(3) The energy dissipation for case (i) will

(1) 462 Hz, 54 km/h.

be less than that for case (ii).

(2) 463 Hz, 52 km/h.

(4) The energy will not be dissipated in

(3) 463 Hz, 56 km/h.

either case.

(4) 464 Hz, 52 km/h.

1001CJA102118061 E-3/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

12. The minimum length of a plane mirror to 14. In a mixture of gases, the average number

see the entire full-length image of an object of degree of freedom per molecule is 6. The

is half of the object's height. Suppose is

rms speed of the molecules of the gas is C.

the distance between eye and top of the

head of a person of height h. The person The velocity of sound in the gas is

will be able to see his entire full-length

C 3C

image with a mirror of height h/2 fixed on (1) (2)

the wall 2 4

(1) when the bottom edge of mirror is kept

h/2 above the floor. 2C C

(3) (4)

(2) when the bottom edge of mirror is kept 3 3

(h+)/2 above the floor.

15. Equal masses of two liquids A and B

(3) when the bottom edge of mirror is kept

(h–)/2 above the floor. contained in vessels of negligible heat

(4) when the centre of the mirror is at the capacity are supplied heat at the same rate.

same height as centre of the person. The (temperature vs time) graphs for the

13. A particle travels in a medium along a two liquids are shown in figure. If S

horizontal linear path. The initial velocity

represents specific heat and L represents

of the particle is v0 and the viscous force

acting on it is proportional to its latent heat of liquid, then

instantaneous velocity. In the absence of

any other forces, which one of the following A

Temperature

figures correctly represents the velocity of B

the particle as a function of time?

v(t) v(t)

Time

(1) (2)

t t

(1) SA > SB ; LA < LB

(2) SA > SB ; LA > LB

v(t) v(t)

(3) (4) (3) SA < SB ; LA < LB

t t (4) SA < SB ; LA > LB

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

E-4/18 1001CJA102118061

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

16. A uniform solid wheel of mass M and 17. As shown, inside a cart that is accelerating

radius r is halted at a step of height h as horizontally at acceleration a there is a

block of mass M connected to two light

shown in the figure. The minimum force F,

springs of force constants k1 and k2. The

applied horizontally at the centre of the

block can move without friction

wheel, necessary to raise the wheel over

horizontally. Find the vibration frequency

this step is of the block.

F M

r k1 k2

m

h

h(2r h)

(1) Mg

rh 1 k1 k 2

(1)

2 M

h(2r h)

(2) Mg 1 k1 k 2

rh (2) a

2 M

h(r h)

(3) Mg 1 k1k 2

rh (3) 2 (k k )M

1 2

h(2r h) 1 k1k 2

(4) Mg

rh (4) 2 (k k )M a

1 2

1001CJA102118061 E-5/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

18. A uniform cylinder of radius "a" originally a 4b2

had a weight of 80 N. After an off-axis 20. A physical quantity y has four

(cd 4 )1/ 3

cylinder hole at 2a/3 distance was drilled variables a, b, c and d. The percentage error

through it as shown, it weighs 65 N. The

in a,b,c and d are 2% ,3%, 4% and 5%

axes of the two cylinders are parallel and

their centers are at the same height. A respectively. The error in y will be

force T is applied to the top of the cylinder (1) 6% (2) 11 %

horizontally. The value of the force should

be ____ in order to keep the cylinder is at (3) 12 % (4) 22%

rest. 21. A screw gauge has a screw having

T 2 threads in 1 mm. The circular scale has

50 divisions. Find the diameter of wire, if

the main scale shows 6th division and the

vernier reads 46.

(1) 1 N (2) 3 N (3) 5 N (4) 8 N (1) 6.46 mm

19. A small block slides down from rest at (2) 3.46 mm

point P1 on the surface of a smooth circular

cylinder, as shown. At P2 the particle falls (3) 6.54 mm

off the cylinder. The equation relating the (4) 3.04 mm

angles 1 and 2 is given by______ .

22. Particle A collides elastically (perfect) with

P1 another particle B which was at rest. They

P2

disperse in opposite directions with same

1 speeds. Ratio of their masses respectively

2 must be

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3

3 2

(1) sin 1 sin 2 (2) sin 1 cos 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 3

2 3

(3) sin 1 cos 2 (4) cos 1 sin 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

E-6/18 1001CJA102118061

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

23. The half life period of a radioactive 26. Two coherent sources of light S1 and S2,

element X is the same as the mean lifetime equidistant from the origin, are separated

of another radioactive element Y. Initially by a distance 2 as shown. They emit light

both of them have the same number of of wavelength . Interference is observed

atoms. Then, on a screen placed along the circle of large

radius R. Point P is seen to be a point of

(1) X and Y have the same initial decay rate.

constructive interference. Then, angle

(2) X and Y decay at the same rate always.

(other than 0° and 90°) is

(3) I ni t i al l y, Y w i l l decay at l ar ger r at e

t han X. Y

(4) I n i t i al l y, X w i l l decay at l ar ger r at e

t han Y.

R

24. A sodium atom emits a photon of

X

wavelength 590 nm and recoils with S1 0 S2

velocity v equal to

(1) 0.029 m/s (2) 0.048 m/s

(3) 0.0023 m/s (4) data inadequate

25. A wire ab of length 10 cm is fixed in the (1) 45º

shape of a sinusoidal curve as shown. The (2) 30º

wire carries a current of 1.2 A. In a uniform (3) 60º

(4) Not possible in the first quadrant

magnetic field B of 0.1 T, the wire

27. The impedance of the RL circuit given in

experiences a force whose magnitude is

the adjacent figure is expressed by the

relation Z2 = A2 + B2. Then the dimensions

Y

of AB are

1.2A

B

a (4cm, 0 cm) R

(0cm, 0 cm) b X E

L

(1) 1.2 × 10–2 N. (2) 4.8 × 10–3 N (1) [M1L2I–2T–3] (2) [M2L4I–4T–6]

(3) Zero (4) Insufficient data. (3) [M1L–1I–2T–3] (4) [M–1L–2I2T4]

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1001CJA102118061 E-7/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

28. A thin ring has a radius R, density and 30. To demonstrate Bernoulli's principle, an

Young's modulus Y. The ring is rotated in instructor arranges two circular horizontal

its own plane about an axis passing through plates of radii b each with distance

its centre with angular velocity . Then the d (d << b) between them (see figure). The

small increase in its radius is upper plate has a hole of radius a in the

middle. On blowing air at a speed v 0

2 3

R through the hole so that the flow rate of

(1) dR

Y air is a 2 v0 , it is seen that the lower plate

does not fall. If the density of air is , the

32 R 3 upward force on the lower plate is well

(2) dR

Y approximated by the formula (assume that

the region with r < a does not contribute

62 R 3 to the upward force and the speed of air at

(3) dR

Y

the edges is negligible) (take a << b)

2 R 3

(4) dR a

2Y

d

plates of a capacitor. If the charge on the

capacitor before the slab is introduced is q b

on the dielectric surface is q', then v02a4 b

ln v02a 2 b2 b

(1) (2) l n

(1) q' < q (always) 4d 2 a 4d 2 a

(2) q' > q (always)

v02d 4 b 2v02a 4 b

(3) q' = q (always) (3) ln (4) l n

d2 a d2 a

(4) q' = 0

E-8/18 1001CJA102118061

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

PART B - CHEMISTRY

31. 33. The compound having maximum covalent

character is :

Vapour Pressure

B (3) AgCl (4) CsCl

C

34. Which of the following is NOT an

Tf application of hydrogen bonding ?

Temperature(in K) (1) It creates infinite chains for HF2–1

Given: Tf = depression in freezing point (2) Dimerisation of CH3COOH in non-polar

Curves A, B and C given in above diagram solvents.

respectively are : (3) Low volatility of HF

(1) liquid solvent, liquid solution, frozen (4) Water has greater density than ice.

solution

(2) liquid solvent, liquid solution, frozen 35. An electrophile is most likely to attack at

solvent ........ position in given molecule :

(3) liquid solution, liquid solvent, frozen

solvent O

(4) liquid solution, liquid solvent, frozen

()

solution

32. Which of the following is incorrect about

Tyndall effect? () ()

(1) It is only observed when a homogenous

solution is placed in the path of light. (1)

(2) The diameter of the dispersed particles

is not much smaller than the

wavelength of the light used. 36. Which of the following reaction is not used

(3) The refractive indices of the dispersed to synthesize primary amine ?

phase and the dispersion medium differ (1) Gabriel phthalimide reaction

greatly in magnitude. (2) Hoffman bromamide reaction

(4) The colour of colloidal solution appears

in this effect depends on the Sn HCl

(3) R- CN

wavelength of light scattered by the

dispersed particles. (4) Carbyl amine reaction

1001CJA102118061 E-9/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

37. 11 moles of FeSO4 are treated with acidic 40. Which of the following is both polar and

KMnO4 solution containing its 1 mole and planar ?

resulting solution is further treated with (1) N2O4 (2) ClF3

acidic K 2 Cr 2O 7 solution as a result

(3) XeF4 (4) CH2F2

remaining FeSO4 is completely oxidised.

Find out minimum number of moles of 41. Which of the following statement is correct ?

K2Cr2O7 present in the solution (1) Terminal alkynes form silver mirror

when react with tollens reagent.

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 1

(2) Benzene can decolourize Bromine

38. Critical temperature of two real gases A water.

and B are TC(A) and TC(B) respectively

(3) Formic acid can reduce tollens reagent.

Given : TC(A) is greater than TC(B) (4) Carbyl amine test is used for primary

Which of the following statements is aliphatic amines only.

correct regarding these two gases ? 42. Which of the following is true about a

tetrapeptide ?

(1) 'A' can be more easily liquified than 'B'

(1) Contains 4 peptide linkages

(2) Critical pressure of 'A' will be more than

(2) On hydrolysis can produce 4 amino acid

'B' molecules.

(3) 'B' can be more easily liquified than 'A' (3) Contains 3 glycosidic linkages.

(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) On hydrolysis produces 4 monosaccharides.

43. If a current of 4.468A is passed for 6 hours

39. In which of the following sets all the species

between Nickel electrodes in 0.5L of 2M

are paramagnetic ? solution of Nickel nitrate. What will be the

(1) O2 , O22+, N22– molarity of nickel nitrate in solution at the

end of electrolysis ?

(2) B2 , C2, H2 Assuming volume of the solution remains

(3) O2–1 , O2+, O2 same after electrolysis

(1) 1.4M (2) 1.2M

(4) N2, O2+, F2+

(3) 2M (4) 1.5M

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

E-10/18 1001CJA102118061

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

44. The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. 47. Which of the following is used as an

If the initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, antiseptic ?

the undecayed mass remaining after (1) Heroin

24 hours is : (2) Norethindrone

(1) 1.042 g (2) 2.084 g (3) Soframicine

(3) 3.125 g (4) 4.167g (4) Rahitidine

45. Complex Isomerism 48. Consider following reaction

(P) Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)] (1) Hydrate

(Q) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O 4)2] (2) Ionisation CH2

O3

(S) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (4) Geometrical A + B

Zn-H2O

Tollens Tollens reagent

reagent

P Q R S Silver mirror Silver

not formed mirror

(1) 3 1 2 4

(2) 3 4 2 1

Compound A & B are organic compounds.

(3) 4 1 2 3

Which of the following is INCORRECT ?

(4) 4 3 2 1

46. Identify the correct order of wavelength (1) Compound A can undergo aldol

of light absorbed for the following complex condensation.

ions:

(2) Compound B can undergo cannizzaro

I. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ II. [Fe(NH3)6]3+ reaction.

III. [Fe(CN)6]3– IV. [FeF6]3–

(3) Compound A and B can be

(1) I > IV > III > II

differentiated by fehling solution.

(2) IV > I > III > II

(4) Compound A is obtained when CH3OH

(3) II > III > I > IV

reacts with pyridinium chloro

(4) IV > I > II > III

chromate.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1001CJA102118061 E-11/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

49. Calculate the pH at which Mg(OH)2 will 52. Which of the following reactions is redox?

just begin to precipitate from a 0.100M (1) XeF4 + BF3

Mg(NO3)2 solution by addition of NaOH.

(2) XeF6 + H2O

Given : Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 1.0 × 10–11

(3) XeF4 + H2O

(1) 5 (2) 9 (3) 6 (4) 8

(4) XeF4 + PF5

50. A certain ionic compound is found in the

Spinel structure in nature, in which 53. Which of the following can not be used to

synthesize alkyne ?

O2– ions constitute CCP lattice, A ions

2+

Ag /

occupy 1/8th of the tetrahedral voids and (1) 2CHI3 CH CH

B3+ ions occupy 1/2 of the octahedral voids. Br2 / CCl4

(2) CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Br CH 2 Br

Find out total +ve charge contained in two

alco.KOH NaNH2

unit cells of given ionic structure.

(1eq.)

(1eq.) HC CH

(3) CH3 C CH CH3 C C CH3

(2) +12 electronic charge

OH

(3) +16 electronic charge 2PCl5 (i) alco. KOH

(4) +24 electronic charge (4) (ii) NaNH2

OH

51. Which reaction/step does not take place

during extraction of copper and its 54. Which of the following reaction proceed via

subsequent refining, from copper pyrite formation of carbanion ?

ore ? (ignore balancing) (1) SN1 (2) SN2

(3) E2 (4) E1CB

(1) Cu2O + Cu2S Cu + SO2

55. If the work function of sodium metal

(2) FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3 surface is 2.3eV, then which of the

following metal surface has lower work

(3) Cu2O + C Cu + CO function than sodium.

(4) Cu2S + O2 Cu2O + SO2 (1) Li (2) K (3) Mg (4) Ag

E-12/18 1001CJA102118061

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

56. A 2B C 2D 59. Which of the following is weakest base ?

(s) (g ) (g ) ()

NH

' U' for A(s) is 80kcal/mol at 250K

||

temperature when the above reaction is (1) H 2 N C NH 2 (2) CH3 – NH2

carried out in a bomb calorimeter. Find out

' H' for same reaction at same NH2

temperature.

(2) 78.5kcal/mol

60. In which of the following reaction,

(3) 79.2kcal/mol reactants and products are not correctly

matched?

(4) 72.8kcal/mol

D

57. Which of the following transition metal CH3

(i) LiAlD 4

ions is strongest oxidising agents in (1)

(ii) D2O

aqueous solution ? O OD

OH

(1) Mn3+ (2) V2+ Br

HBr

(2)

(3) Zn2+ (4) Cr3+

hygroscopic ?

O3 (i) LiAlH4

(3) dihydroxy alcohol

(1) NaOH Zn-H2O (ii) H2O

(i) LiAlH

(2) Pure NaCl dihydroxy alcohol

(ii) H O

(3) MgCl2 OH

O O

H3O CHO

+ CHO

(4) CaCl2 (4)

1001CJA102118061 E-13/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

PART C - MATHEMATICS

61. The equations 2x2 + bx + (c + 1) = 0 where 66. Let a, b R satisfy

b, c Q and x2 + 3x – 5 = 0 have a common

3 2 3 2

root, then the value of b – c is sin7 b = a a 9a 9 + a a 4a 4

(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 13 (4) 17

62. The distance of point of intersection of the + sec22b + cos4b.

tangents to the parbola x = 4y – y2 drawn The number of ordered pairs (a, b) where

at the points where it is met by y-axis, from a, b [0, 4] satisfying this equation,

its focus is is

11 17 13 (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

(1) (2) (3) (4) 3

4 4 4

67. The equations of the tangents at the origin

63. Let a n be an arithmetic progression whose to the curve y2 = x2(1 + x + x2) is

sum of first n terms is Sn. If a1 = –1, a4 = 2a9,

(1) x = ± y (2) 2x = ± y

then the least possible value of Sn, is

(1) –6.5 (2) –6 (3) –7.5 (4) –7 (3) 3x = ± y (4) 2y = ± x

64. Number of real values of 'a' for which at a

1

least two of the straight lines given by 68. 1 e a2 2ax

dx , (a is a real constant) equals

0

2x – ay = 3, x + (a + a2)y = 1 and x – y = 1 are

parallel, is a a

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 0 (1) (2)

4 2

3x 8 4x13 (3) 2a (4) a + a2

65. (1 2x5 )4 dx equals

69. Let t n be a sequence, t1 = 1, and n 1,

9 6

x x 1

(1) C (2) C tn . If t 2019 , a N,

3(1 2x 5 )3 3(1 2x 5 )5 t n 1

1 n.t n 1 2019a

1 x then a is

(3) C (4) C

3(1 2x 5 )5 3(1 2x 5 )3 (1) 1004 (2) 1007

(where C is the constant of integration) (3) 1008 (4) 1009

E-14/18 1001CJA102118061

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

70. If A and B are two points in first quadrant 72. If complex numbers z and w, satisfies

lying respectively on the lines z 2 2i 1 and Re(w) –1 respectively,

y = 4x and y = 2x at a distance 4 from origin,

then the point where angle bisector of then minimum value of the expression

AOB meets AB, is z w is

1 1 4 4

(1) 2 , 1

17 5 17 5 (1) 2 (2)

2

1 1 8 8

(2) 2 , (3) 3 (4) 4

17 5 17 5

73. The number of ordered pairs (a, b) where

1 1 8 4 a, b I for which the straight lines in R3

(3) 2 ,

17 5 17 5

x y2 z x y3

given by b ,

z are

1 1 8 4 a 2 82 a 3a

(4) 2 ,

17 5 17 5 perpendicular, is

71. Let a and b be two constant vectors and (1) 0 (2) 1

x be a variable vector satisfying the vector (3) 2 (4) 3

equation (a· x)a a x b , then x (wherever

1/ x 2

2

a(a· b) a (a b)

(1) 4 of lim(f (x))g(x ) is

x 0

a

2 (1) 1 (2) e

a(a· b) a (a b)

(2) 3 (3) e–1 (4) 0

a

2

a(a· b) a (a b) 1

(3) 75. lim(

The value of 2 ·sin 4 sin( )) is

3 0

a

2 (1) –1 (2) 1

a(a· b) a (a b)

(4) 4

a (3) 2 (4) e

1001CJA102118061 E-15/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

76. A person has to catch a train. To catch train, 80. The area bounded by curves

from his home he can take a taxi or take

y sin 1 (sin x) and y = sinx, between the

rickshaw or walk by foot with respective

1 1 1 lines x = 0 and x = 2 is

probabilities , , .

2 3 6 2 2 2

Probability of him catching train when he (1) 2

(2) (3) (4)

2 4 8

takes rickshaw from his home is half that

of when the takes the taxi and probability 81. The number of ways of arranging letters of

of catching the train when he walked by the word COMPUTER such that none of

1 the first three letters are C, O or M, is

foot is th that of when he takes rickshaw. (1) 7100 (2) 7000 (3) 7200 (4) 7120

4

He finally reached the train, the x 2 y2

probability he walked by his foot to catch 82. The ellipse 1 intersects positive

16 4

the train, is

x-axis and positive y-axis at A, B

1 2 7 13

(1) (2) (3) (4) respectively. The equation of tangent

33 33 33 33 parallel to AB, not passing through first

77. If the variance of the observations a1, a2,

quadrant, is

a 3,..... a n is x then the variance of the

observations, –2a1, –2a2, ......, –2an is (1) y + x + 2 2 = 0

(1) x (2) –x (3) –4x (4) 4x (2) 2y + x + 4 2 = 0

4

78. The coefficient of x appearing in the

(3) y + x – 2 2 = 0

expansion of

(1 + x2)10 (1 – x)6 (1 + x3)8 (1 + x)6 is (4) 2y + x – 4 2 = 0

(1) –10 (2) 60 (3) 45 (4) 0 83. If f(x) is a non constant polynomial function

79. Let p, q, r be three mathematical f : R R such that

statements. The statement ( p q) r is

d

equivalent to 7 (xf(x)) 3f (x) 4f (x 1),

dx

(1) ( p q) (q r)

(2) ( p r) ( q r) f(–1) + f(0) = 2, then number of such

functions is

(3) ( p r) (q r)

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

(4) a tautology

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

E-16/18 1001CJA102118061

Enthusiast Course/Score-I/27-12-2018/Paper-2

84. Solution of the differential equation 88. A flagstaff AB 4 m high is placed on a

dy 2x y 1 vertical tower. The angle of elevation from

is

dx x y 2 foot of the flagstaff B at two points D, E on

(1) xy – y2 = 2y + C the ground on the level of foot of the tower

(2) xy + y2 + 2y = 3x2 + C are ' ' and 60° respectively with 4m and

(3) xy + y2 = 2y + 3x2 + C

2 3 m as the respective distances of these

y2

(4) xy + + 2y = x2 + x + C points from the foot of tower. The angle

2

subtended by the flagstaff at point D is

(Where C is an arbitrary constant)

85. Which of the following functions is a 1 2 1 2

continuous but non differentiable function (1) tan (2) tan

19 9

in its domain ?

(1) f(x) = max(sinx, 1) 1 19 1 4

(2) f(x) = sinx + cosx (3) tan (4) tan

2 19

(3) f(x) = sin(sin x)

89. If f(x) be a polynomial function such that

(4) f(x) = log x 1 x

f(0) = –1, f(1) = 1, f(2) = –2, f(3) = –2, then

86. If mean and mode in a frequency

minimum number of roots of the equation

distribution are 6 and 3 respectively then

3

their median approximately, is f '(x) 2f(x)·f '(x)·f "(x) 0 in (0, 3) is

(1) 5 (2) 6.9 (3) 2.8 (4) 4

87. The negation of following statement : (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3

2

" If 7 is a perfect square then 2 + 2 = 5 and 90. If the complex number A = z – z is purely

6 > 7 " is imaginary, the locus of z is (z set of

(1) 7 is a perfect square and 2 + 2 5 or 6 < 7 complex numbers)

(2) 7 is a perfect square and 2 + 2 5 or 6 7 (1) a circle

(3) 7 is not a perfect square or 2 + 2 5 and

(2) a parabola

67

(4) 7 is not a perfect square and 2 + 2 5 (3) an ellipse

and 6 7 (4) a hyperbola

1001CJA102118061 E-17/18

Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/27-12-2018/Paper-2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

E-18/18 1001CJA102118061

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