1.

Solve for 𝑈 if 𝑈 = √1 − √1 − √1 − ⋯
a. 0.723 b. 0.618 c. 0.852 d. 0.453
2. Simplify the following: 7𝑎+2 − 8(7𝑎+1 ) + 5(7𝑎 ) + 49(7𝑎−2 )
a. −5𝑎 b. 3 c. −7𝑎 d. 7𝑎
2
3. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 1, then 𝑓(𝑥) − 𝑓(𝑥 − 1) =
a. 0 b. x c. 2x d. 3
3 2
4. If 4𝑦 + 8𝑦 + 18𝑦 − 4 is divided by 2𝑦 + 3, the remainder is:
a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 13
5. What is the value of the coefficient with linear term in the expression?
𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 10
𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥
a. 2 b. -2 c. -1/2 d. 1/2
1 16
6. Find the 6𝑡ℎ term of the expansion: (2𝑎 − 3)
−22113 −66339 −22113 −66339
a. 256𝑎11 b. 128𝑎11 c. 128𝑎11 d. 256𝑎11
7. A father is three times as old as his son. Four years ago, he was four times as old as his son was at that time. How
old is his son?
a. 36 years b. 24 years c. 32 years d. 12 years
8. A swimming pool is filled through its inlet pipe and then emptied through its outlet pipe in a total of 8 hours. If
water enters through its inlet and simultaneously allowed to leave through its outlet, the pool is filled in 7 and ½
hours. How long will it take to fill the pool with the outlet closed?
a. 6 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
9. How many minutes after 3:00pm will the minute hand of the clock overtakes the hour hand?
a. 14/12 min. b. 16-11/12 min c. 16-4/11 min d. 14/11 min
10. A man rows downstream at the rate of 5 mph ad upstream at the rate of 2 mph. How far downstream should he
go if he is to return in 7/4 hours after leaving?
a. 2 mi b. 3.5 mi c. 3 mi d. 2.5 mi
11. What is the sum of the following finite sequence of terms: 18,25,32,39……67
a. 234 b. 181 c. 213 d. 340
12. How many permutations can be made from the letters of the word ENGINEERING?
a. 39,916,800 b. 277,200 c. 55,440 d. 3,326,400
13. A bag contains 3 white and 5 red balls. If two balls are drawn in succession without replacement, what is the
probability that both balls are black?
a. 5./28 b. 5/16 c. 5/32 d. 5/14
14. A two-digit number is chosen randomly. What is the probability that it is divisible by 7?
a. 13/90 b. 7/50 c. 1/7 d. 7/45
15. Points A and B are 100m apart and are on the same elevation as the foot of a building. The angles of elevation of
the top of the building from points A and B are 21⁰ and 32⁰, respectively. How far is A from the building?
a. 271.6m b. 265.4m c. 259.2m d. 277.9m
16. If sin 40 + sin 20 = sin 𝜃, find the value of θ.
a. 20 b. 80 c. 120 d. 60
17. Solve for x from the given trigonometric equation: arctan(1 − 𝑥) + arctan(1 + 𝑥) = arctan(1/8)
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 2
18. The sides of a right triangle is in arithmetic progression whose common difference is 6cm. Its area is:
a. 216 sqcm b. 270 sqcm c. 360sqcm d. 144sqcm
19. A right spherical triangle has an angle C=90, a=50 and c=80. Find the side b.
a. 45.33 b. 78.66 c. 74.33 d. 75.89
20. An airplane flew from Manila (14⁰36’N, 121⁰05’E) at a course of S 30⁰ E maintaining a certain altitude and
following a great circle path. If its groundspeed is 350 knots, after how many hours will it cross the equator?
a. 2.87 hours b. 2.27 hours c. 3.17 hours d. 3.97 hours
21. From the third-floor window of a building, the angle of depression of an object is 35⁰58’, while from a sixth-floor
window, 9.75 m above the first point of observation, the angle of depression is 58⁰35’. How far is the object from
the building?
a. 11.9m b. 10.7m c. 9.3m d. 15.3m
22. If the edge of the cube is increased by 30%, by how much is the surface area increased?
a. 67% b. 69% c. 63% d. 65%
23. A frustum of a pyramid has an upper base 100m by 10m and a lower base of 80m by 8. If the altitude of the
frustum is 5m, find its volume.
 a. 4567.67 cu.m b. 38733.33 cu.m c. 4066.67 cu.m d. 2345.98 cu.m
24. A trough has an open top 0.30m by 6m and closed vertical ends which are equilateral triangles 30cm on each side.
It is filled with water to half its depth. Find the volume of the water in cubic meters.
a. 0.058 b. 0.046 c. 0.037 d. 0.065
25. A cone was formed by rolling a thin sheet of metal in the form of a sector of a circle 72cm in diameter with a
central angle of 210⁰. What is the volume of the cone?
a. 13,602 cc b. 13,504 cc c. 13,716 cc d. 13,318 cc
26. How far from a vertex is the opposite face of a tetrahedron if an edge is 50cm long?
a. 38.618cm b. 40.825cm c. 39.421cm d. 41.214cm
27. A reservoir is shaped like a square prism. If the area of its base is 225 sqcm., how many liters of water will it hold?
a. 3.375 b. 3375 c. 33.75 d. 337.5
28. What is the surface area of a sphere whose volume is 36 cu.m?
a. 57.2 sqm b. 48.7 sqm c. 46.6 sqm d. 52.7 sqm
2 2
29. The area in the second quadrant of the circle 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 36 is revolved about the line 𝑦 + 10 = 0. What is the
volume generated?
a. 2218.6 b. 2228.8 c. 2233.4 d. 2208.5
30. Find the radius of the spherical wedge whose volume is 12 cu.m with a central angle of 1.8 radians.
a. 2.36 m b. 2.73 m c. 2.52 m d. 2.15 m
31. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are A(-3,-1), B(5,3) and C(2,-8).
a. 34 b. 36 c. 38 d. 32
32. Find the distance from the point (5, -3) to the line 7𝑥 − 4𝑦 − 28 = 0.
a. 2.62 b. 2.36 c. 2.48 d. 2.54
33. The slope of the line 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 5 = 0 is?
a. -2/3 b. -3/2 c. 3/2 d. 2/3
34. Find the angle that the line 2𝑦 − 9𝑥 − 18 = 0 makes with the x-axis.
a. 74.77 b. 4.5 c. 47.77 d. 77.47
35. Find the slope of the line whose parametric equation is 𝑦 = 5 − 3𝑡 and 𝑥 = 2 + 𝑡.
a. 3 b. -3 c. 2 d. -2
36. The two straight lines 4𝑥 − 𝑦 + 3 = 0 and 8𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 6 = 0
a. Intersects at the b. are coincident c. are parallel d. are perpendicular
origin
37. Find the center of the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 6𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 23 = 0.
a. (3,-2) b. (3,2) c. (-3,2) d. (-3,-2)
38. The radius of the circle 2𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 − 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 1 = 0 is:
a. √33/4 b. 33/16 c. √33/3 d. 17
2
39. What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve 𝑥 = −12𝑦?
a. 12 b. -3 c. 3 d. -12
2 2
40. Find the ratio of the major axis to the minor axis of the ellipse: 9𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 24𝑦 − 72𝑥 − 144 = 0
a. 0.67 b. 1.8 c. 1.5 d. 0.75
2 2
41. Find the area of the ellipse 25𝑥 + 16𝑦 − 100𝑥 + 32𝑦 = 284.
a. 86.2 sq units b. 62.8 sq units c. 68.2 sq units d. 82.6 sq units e. 45.396 sq units
42. What is the slope of the curve 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 6𝑥 + 10𝑦 + 5 = 0 at (1,0).
a. 2/5 b. 5/2 c. -2/5 d. -5/2
43. Determine the radius of curvature at (4,4) of the curve 𝑦 2 − 4𝑥 = 0.
a. 24.4 b. 25.4 c. 23.4 d. 22.4
44. Find the second derivative of 𝑦 = 𝑥 −2 at 𝑥 = 2.
a. 96 b. 0.375 c. -0.25 d. -0.875
(ln 𝑥)2 ′
45. Given the equation; 𝑦 = 𝑒 , find 𝑦 .
a. ln 𝑥 b. 2(ln 𝑥) /2 c. 2x d. 2𝑒 ln 𝑥
2
46. The number of newspaper copies distributed is given by 𝐶 = 50𝑡 − 200𝑡 + 10000, where t is in years. Find the
minimum number of copies distributed from 1995 to 2002.
a. 9850 b. 9800 c. 10200 d. 7500
47. A rectangular box having a square base and open at the top is to have a capacity f 16823 cc. find the height of the
box to use the least amount of material.
a. 16.14 cm b. 32.28 cm c. 18.41 cm d. 28.74 cm
48. A Norman window is in the shape of a rectangle surmounted by a semi-circle. What is the ratio of the width of the
rectangle to the total height so that it will yield a window admitting the most light for a given perimeter?
a. 1 b. 2/3 c. 1/3 d. 1/2
49. Determine the shortest distance from point (4,2) to the parabola 𝑦 2 = 8𝑥.
a. 2.83 b. 3.54 c. 2.41 d. 6.32
4 𝑑𝑥
50. Evaluate: ∫ 3𝑥+2
a. 4 ln(3𝑥 + 2) + 𝑐 4 1 d. 2 ln(3𝑥 + 2) + 𝑐
b. ln(3𝑥 + 2) + 𝑐
3
c. 3
ln(3𝑥 + 2)+c
9 𝑑𝑥
51. Evaluate: ∫0
√1+√𝑥
a. 6.667 b. 5.333 c. 4.6667 d. 7.333
52. Determine the moment of inertia of the area bounded by the curve 𝑥 2 = 4𝑦, the line 𝑥 − 4 = 0 and the x-axis,
with respect to the y-axis.
a. 51.2 b. 25.1 c. 52.1 d. 21.5
53. Find the length of the arc of 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 64 from 𝑥 = −1 to 𝑥 = −3, in the second quadrant.
a. 2.24 b. 2.61 c. 2.75 d. 2.07
54. With a starting speed of 30kph at point A, a car accelerates uniformly. After 18 minutes, it reaches point B, 21 km
𝑚
from A. find the acceleration of the car in 𝑠2 .
a. 0.126 b. 0.0562 c. 0.0206 d. 3.42
55. An elevator weighing 2,000lb attains an upward velocity of 16fps in 4 sec with uniform acceleration. What is the
tension in the supporting cables?
a. 1950lb b. 2150lb c. 2495lb d. 2250lb
56. An automobile has a power output of 1 hp. When it pulls a cart with a force of 300 N, what is the cart’s velocity?
a. 249 m/s b. 24.9 m/s c. 2.49 m/s d. 0.249 m/s
57. The point at which the material will have an appreciable elongation or yielding without any increase of load.
a. Yield Point b. Ultimate Strength c. Rapture Point d. Ultimate Point
58. The maximum ordinate in the stress-strain diagram is the ultimate strength or tensile strength.
a. Maxima b. Ultimate Strength c. Rapture Strength d. Elastic Limit
59. The strength of the material at rapture.
a. Breaking b. Rapture Strength c. Ultimate Strength d. Both a and b
strength
60. Determine the outside diameter of hallow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500kN at a stress of 140 MPa.
Assume the wall thickness to be one-tenth of the outside diameter.
a. 123 mm b. 113 mm c. 103 mm d. 93 mm
61. A metal specimen 36-mm in diameter has a length of 360 mm. A force of 300KN elongates the length by 1.20mm.
What is the modulus of elasticity?
a. 88.419 GPa b. 92.564 GPa c. 92.658 GPa d. 95.635 GPa
62. A force of 10 Newtons is applied to one end of a 10 inches diameter circular rod. Calculate the stress.
a. 0.20 KPa b. 0.05 KPa c. 0.10 KPa d. 0.15 KPa
63. What force is required to punch a 20-mm diameter hole through a 10-mm thick plate. The ultimate strength of
the plate material is 450 MPa.
a. 241 KN b. 283 KN c. 386 KN d. 252 KN
Situation 1 (64-66). A 10-meter long simply supported beam carries a uniform load of 8 KN/m for 6 meters from the
left support and a concentrated load of 15, 2 meters from the right support. Determine the maximum shear and
moment.
64. What are the reactions?
a. 26.4, 36.6 b. 24.6, 36.6 c. 26.4, 63.6 d. 24.6, 63.6
65. What is the maximum shear?
a. 26.4 b. 36.6 c. 24.6 d. 63.6
66. What is the maximum moment?
a. 87.32 b. 86.27 c. 82.73 d. 83.72
67. If the Reynold’s Number (R) has a value less than 2000, the flow is?
a. Turbulent b. Laminar c. Viscous d. All of the above
68. Any body immersed in a fluid is acted upon by an unbalanced upward force called the buoyant force, which is
equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
a. Pascal’s Principle b. Torricelli’s c. Archimedes’ d. Lambert’s Theory
Principle Principle
69. The mass of air in a room which is 3m x 5m x 20m is known to be 350 kg. Find its density.
a. 1.167 kg/𝑚3 b. 1.176 kg/𝑚3 c. 1.617 kg/𝑚3 d. 1.715 kg/𝑚3
70. One hundred (100) grams of water are mixed with 150 grams of alcohol (density=790 kg/cu.m). what is the
specific gravity of the resulting mixtures, if the two fluids mix completely?
a. 0.96 b. 0.82 c. 0.63 d. 0.86
71. The pressure 34 meters below the ocean is nearest to:
a. 204 KPa b. 222 KPa c. 344 KPa d. 362 KPa
72. What is the atmospheric pressure on a planet where the absolute pressure is 100 KPa and the gage pressure is 10
KPa?
a. 100 KPa b. 90 KPa c. 80 KPa d. 110 KPa
73. An iceberg having specific gravity of 0.92 is floating on salt water of sp.gr. of 1.03. if the volume of the ice above
the water surface is 1000 cu.m, what is the total volume of the ice?
a. 8523 b. 7862 c. 9364 d. 6325
74. What is the rate of flow of water passing through a pipe with a diameter of 20 mm and speed of 0.5 m/sec?
a. 1.24 x 10−4 𝑚3 /𝑠 b. 2.51 x10−4 𝑚3 /𝑠 c. 1.57 x 10−4 𝑚3 /𝑠 d. 1.87 x 10−4 𝑚3 /𝑠
75. The theoretical velocity of flow through an orifice 3m below the surface of water in a tall tank is:
a. 8.63 m/s b. 9.85 m/s c. 5.21 m/s d. 7.67 m/s
76. Find the total pressure on a vertical circular gate, 2 meters in diameter, with its top 3.5 meters below the water
surface?
a. 138.7 KN b. 107.9 KN c. 169.5 KN d. 186.5 KN
−6 2
77. Water having kinematic viscosity v=1.3 x 10 𝑚 /𝑠 flows in a 100-mm diameter pipe at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. The
Reynold’s Number is:
a. 298,750 b. 258,250 c. 387,450 d. 346,150
78. A 20-mm diameter commercial steel pipe, 30 m long is used to drain an oil tank. Determine the discharge when
the oil level in the tank is 3m above the exit of the pipe. Neglect minor losses and assume f=0.12.
a. 0.000256 𝑚3 /𝑠 b. 0.000179𝑚3 /𝑠 c. 0.000113 𝑚3 /𝑠 d. 0.000869 𝑚3 /𝑠
Situation 2 (79-81) An open cylindrical tank one meter in diameter and 2.5 m high is 3/5 full of water. If the tank is
rotated about its vertical axis, what speed should it have in rpm so that:
79. The water could just react the rim of the tank without water being spilled out?
a. 116.94 b. 114.96 c. 119.64 d. 110.96
80. The depth of water at the center is zero?
a. 133.76 b. 117.36 c. 163.73 d. 167.33
81. There is no water at the bottom within 20 cm from the vertical axis?
a. 196.43 b. 149.63 c. 143.96 d. 169.43
Situation 3(82-84). The tangents of a spiral curve form an angle of intersection of 25 degrees at station 2 + 058. Design
speed is 80 km/hr. for a radius central curve of 300m and a length of spiral of 52.10 m :
82. Find the stationing at the point where the spiral starts.
a. 1 + 965.36 b. 1 + 695.36 c. 1 + 569. 63 d. 1 + 639.35
83. Stationing of the start of central curve
a. 2 + 001. 24 b. 2 + 008. 24 c. 2 + 100.84 d. 2 + 017.46
84. Length of the central curve
a. 87.8 b. 88.7 c. 78.8 d. 88.8
Situation 4 (85-87) From the given data of a closed traverse, find the the following:
Line Bearing Distance
AB N 60⁰30’W 68.75
BC N 80⁰ 30’E 125.90
CA -------------- -------------
85. Compute the bearing of the line CA.
a. S 50⁰03’W b. S 65⁰15’W c. S 75⁰25’W d. S 40⁰30’W
86. Compute the distance of line CA
a. 88.05 b. 80.85 c. 85.08 d. 83.85
87. Compute the area enclosed by the traverse
a. 2237.58 b. 2773.85 c. 2337.87 d. 2723.58
Situation 5 (88-90) A solid steel post is subjected to pure torsion. Post diameter is 75 mm, length is 2.5 m, E=78 Gpa
88. What is the torsional rigidity of the post?
a. 2.42 b. 3.55 c. 5.34 d. 4.22
89. What is the torsional stiffness?
a. 96.9 b. 69.9 c. 99.6 d. 66.9
90. What is the maximum shear stress in the post if it is subjected to a torque of 540 N.m
a. 1.65 b. 6.15 c. 5.61 d. 2.65
91. What is the moment of inertia of a hollow circular beam with outside diameter of 400 mm and thickness of 25
mm?
a. 6899951156 b. 520019487.1 c. 987413432.1 d. 1245876215.5
92. What is the moment of inertia if the hollow part of the beam in problem 91 is changed to a hollow square with
side equal to 150mm?
a. 211115943587 b. 694212121457 c. 1214449561 d. 98954120144
Situation 6 (93-95). Four cables used to lift a precast concrete slab with dimensions 3m x 3m and 76 mm thick. The
cables are attached to a hook above the center point of the slab. Height from the top surface of the precast to the
center line of the hook is 2m, area of each cable is 79 sq.mm and concrete unit weight is 24 KN/cu.m
93. What is the tensile force in each of the cables?
a. 9.58 KN b. 5.98 KN c. 8.95 KN d. 6.95 KN
94. Determine the normal stress in each of the cables.
a. 75.7 MPa b. 77.5 MPa c. 57.7 MPa d. 67.5 MPa
95. If the cables elongated by 1mm, what is the vertical displacement of the precast slab?
a. 2.5745mm b. 4.1756mm c. 1.4575mm d. 1.04756mm
Situation 7 (96-98). An 8 mm thick steel tank has an outside diameter of 600mm and a length of 3m. It is subjected to
an internal pressure of 2 MPa.
96. Determine the circumferential stress in the tank.
a. 75 MPa b. 57 MPa c. 73 MPa d. 37 MPa
97. Find the longitudinal stress in the tank.
a. 63.5 MPa b. 65.3 Mpa c. 35.6Mpa d. 36.5 Mpa
98. To what value could the internal pressure be increased if the allowable design stress is 120 MPa.
a. 2.38Mpa b. 3.28Mpa c. 8.23Mpa d. 5.8 Mpa
99. The stress is proportional to the strain within the elastic region for deformations of axially loaded material.
a. Hooke’s Law b. Young’s Modulus c. Poisson’s Ratio d. St. Venant’s Principle
100. The deformation of axially loaded members, the ratio of the lateral to the longitudinal strain is constant.
a. Hooke’s Law b. Young’s Modulus c. Poisson’s Ratio d. St. Venant’s Principle