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In a four stroke cycle aircraft engine when does ignition event take place
a. Before TDC on compression stroke
b. After piston reach TDC on the power stroke
c. After piston reach TDC on the compression sroke

2. A method commonly used to prevent carburetor icing to

a. preheat the intake air
b. mix alcohol with the fuel
c. electrically heat the venturi
3. Carburetor icing is most severe at
a. air temperature at 30 to 40 degree F
b. high altitude
c. low engine temperature

4. Carburetor icing on an engine equip with constant speed propeller can be

detected by
a. a decrease in power output with no change in manifold pressure
b. an increase in manifold pressure with constant rpm
c. a decrease in manifold pressure with a constant rpm

5. What part of an aircraft will begin to accumalate ice before any other
a. wing leading edge
b. propeller spinner or dome
c. carburetor

6. Carburetor icing may be eleminated by which of the following method

a. alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct
b. Ethelyne glycol spray and heated induction air
c. Alcohol spray and heated induction air

7. Where would a carburetor air heater be located in a fuel injection system?

a. At the air intake entrance
b. None is required
c. Between the air intake and the venturi

8. An increase in manifold pressure when carburetor heat is applied indicates

a. ice was foaming in the caburetor
b. mixture was too lean
c. overheating of cylinder heat

9. During full power output of an unsupercharged engine eqipped with a float

type carburetor, in which of the following area will the highest pressure exist
a. Venturi
b. Intake manifold
c. Carburetor air scoop

10. The used of carburetor air heater when it is not needed cause
a. a very lean mixture
b. excessive increase in manifold pressure
c. a decrease in power and possibily detonation

11. As the pressure increase in a reciprocating, the

a. volume of air in the cylinder increase
b. weigh of the air/fuel charge decrease
c. density of air in the cylinder increase

12. Bootstrapping of a turbocharger engine is indicated by

a. a over boost condition of an engine on take off
b. a transient increase in engine power
c. a maximum increase in manifold pressure

13. If the turbocharged waste gate is completely closed,

a. none of the exhaust gas are directed through the turbine
b. the turbocharger is inoff position
c. all exhaust gas are directed through the turbine

14. Boost manifold pressure is generally considerd to be any manifold pressure

a. 14.7” Hg
b. 50” Hg
c. 30” Hg

15. The purpose of density controller in a turbocharger system is to

a. limit the maximum manifold pressure that can be produced at

other than full throttle condition
b. limit the maximum manifold pressure that can be produced
by the turbocharger at full throttle condition
c. maintain constant air velocity at the carburetor inlet

16. The purpose of the rate change controller in a turbo charger system is to
a. limit maximum magnifold pressure that can be produced by
the turbocharger at full throttle condition
b. control the rate at which the turbocharger discharge pressure
will increase
c. control the position of the waste gate after the aircraft has reach
its critical altitude
17. The turbo charger speed is directly regulate by the
a. Turbine
b. Waste gate
c. Throttle

18. The purpose of turbocharger system for a small reciprocating engine is
a. compress the air to hold cabin pressure constant after the
aircraft has reach its critical altitude
b. maintain constant air velocity in the intake manifold
c. compress air to maintain manifold pressure constant from
sea level to the critical altitude of the engine

19. The differential pressure controller in the turbocharger system

a. reduced bootstrapping during part throttle operation
b. position the waste gate valve for maximum power
c. provide constant fuel to air ratio

20. The supercharger is drive by the

a. exhaust gas
b. gear train from crankshaft
c. belt drive through pulley arrangement

21. When starting an engine equip with carburetor air heater, the position of the
heater should be
a. hot
b. cold
c. nuetral

22. If carburetor or induction system icing is not present when carburetor heat is
applied with no change in throttle setting, the
a. mixture will become richer
b. manifold pressure will increase
c. engine rpm will increase

23. If fire start in the induction system during the engine stsrting procedure,
what should the operator do
a. turn off the fuel switch to stop the fuel
b. continue cranking the engine
c. turn off all the switch

24. In an engine equipped with alternate air system, if the main air duct air filter
become cloog or block,
a. system will automatically allow warm, unfiltered air to be drawn into
the engine
b. flow of air into the engine will be slowed or cut off unless alternate air is
c. system will automatically allow warm, filtered alternate air to be drawn into
the engine

25. What could be a result of undetected exhaust system leaks in a reciprocating
engine powered airplane?
a. Pilot/passenger incapacitation caused by carbon monoxide entering the
b. A rough-running engine with increased fuel consumption.
c. Too low exhaust back pressure resulting in the desired power settings not
being attained.
26. How may reciprocating engine exhaust system leaks be detected?
a. An exhaust trail aft of the tailpipe on the airplane exterior.
b. Fluctuating manifold pressure indication.
c. Signs of exhaust soot inside cowling and on adjacent components.
27. Compared to normally aspirated engines, turbocharged engine exhaust
systems operate at
a. similar temperatures and higher pressures.
b. higher temperatures and higher pressures.
c. similar temperatures and pressures.

28. Most exhaust system failures result from thermal fatigue cracking in the areas
of stress concentration. This condition is usually caused by
a. the drastic temperature change which is encountered at altitude.
b. improper welding techniques during manufacture.
c. the high temperatures at which the exhaust system operates.
29. What is the purpose of a slip joint in an exhaust collector ring?

a. to aids in alignment and absorbs expansion

b. It reduces vibration and increases cooling.
c. It permits the collector ring to be installed in one piece.

30. Sodium-filled valves are advantageous to an aviation engine because they

a. are lighter.
b. dampen valve impact shocks.
c. dissipate heat well.

31. Which of the following are recommended markers for reciprocating engine
exhaust systems except
a. India ink.

b. lead pencil.
c. Prussian blue.

32. The area of the augmenter will reduced by______________ if the augmentor vane
is fully closed
a. 35 %
b. 40%
c. 45%
33. The end of a collector ring is cut tapered is to
a. reduced noise
b. get free thrust
c. produce extra cooling
34. One way to check exhaust system for leak is through
a. performing compression test
b. pressurizing and apply soap and water
c. soaking the component in water
35. If exhaust gas leak into the induction system the engine will
a. overheat and lost of power
b. pre-ignition will occur
c. engine will dies off immediately
36. The short stack system are normally used on
a. non supercharged and low powered engine
b. supercharged and high powered engine
c. supercharged and low powered engine
37. The disadvantage of the collector system is
a. decrease back pressure of the exhaust system
b. increase back pressure of the exhaust system
c. too little or no back pressure in the exhaust system
38. Positive displacement pump means
a. it gives specific quantity per revolution
b. it gives constant amount per revolution
c. the cable is connected in series to the engine

39. Where is the reservoir situated in a wet sump lubrication system?

a. The lowest part of the engine
b. In the gear box
c. In the rocker cover

40. What is the size of scavenge pump compared to pressure pump?

a. Same
b. Double
c. Triple

41. What type of pump is normally used in modern type aircraft reciprocating
a. Gear type
b. Gerotor type
c. Piston type

42. Pressure relief valve is to

a. To relief excess pressure in the system in case of oil filter clog
b. To relief excess pressure in the system which can damage the
c. There is no oil pressure relief in a reciprocating engine. I t is only true to
turbine engine

43. What is the size of oil tank expansion space?

a. 25% of the tank capacity or 5 gallon or whichever greater
b. 10% of the tank capacity or .5 gallon or whichever greater
c. 105 % of the tank capacity or 5 gallon or whichever smaller

44. The purpose of scupper drain is to

a. To keep extra oil for long range flight
b. Used to filled the oil tank in flight
c. To prevent overfilling of the expansion space

45. When the pressure relief valve seat open excess oil will be drained to
a. oil tank
b. oil pump inlet
c. oil cooler

46. During adjusting the oil pressure adjustment turning the adjustment screw
clockwise will
a. decrease oil pressure
b. increase oil pressure
c. fuel pressure and oil pressure will be the same

47. The purpose of extreme pressure lubricants is

a. provide protection under high loads
b. to provide lubricant at high heat area
c. to provide lubricant where normal lubricant is inaccessible

48. Synthetic oil has high resistance to

a. thermal breakdown and oxidation
b. high loads and neutralization
c. neutralization H2o

d. internal and external breakdown

49. One reason why reciprocating engine used high viscosity oil is
a. it has large operational clearance and high operating temperature
b. it has less ramp air entering the engine and the only way to cool the
engine is by using high viscosity oil
c. it depend entirely on oil to cool the engine

50. What does SAE number indicate

a. Oil specific gravity
b. Oil flash point
c. Oil viscosity

51. Most manufacture recommended the used of straight mineral for new or
newly overhaul engine for the first 10-50 hrs or
a. Until first schedule inspection
b. Until oil consumption stabilized
c. Until next filter change

52. What is multi viscosity oil?

a. An oil that flow more quickly in cold weather and keep from thinning
in hot weather
b. It is sometimes called grease
c. this oil can only be used in tropical countries

53. What type of pump is used in pressure type of oil distribution?

a. Centrifugal pump
b. Electrical driven pump
c. Engine driven pump

54. What the sized oil tank if compared to fuel tank?

a. 1: 30 with transfer system
b. 1: 30 without transfer system
c. 1: 40 without transfer system

55. What should be written on oil filler cap?

a. The word “OIL”
c. Capacity of the tank

56. In the dry sump system the oil pump is situated ________
a. at the lowest point of the engine
b. at the lowest point of the reservoir
c. depend on manufacturer

57. What is a constant displacement pump?
a. A pump that is driven by an engine
b. A pump that is driven by electrical power
c. A pump that moves a fix volume of fluid per pump revolution

58. What are two types filtration system that may be installed on an aircraft?
a. Half flow system partial flow system
b. Full flow system and partial flow system
c. Rated flow system and unrated flow system
59. To ensure a full supply of oil to the engine in case of oil filter clogged what
installed to the full system?
a. bypass valve
b. pressure bypass valve
c. auxiliary bypass valve

60. The filter in partial flow bypass system is installed____________

a. in series with the bearing
b. parallel with the bearing
c. both answers are correct