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NTA UGC-NET
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper (PSP)
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General Paper-I (July 2018)
General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude

Previous Year Solved Paper (July 2018) [Code - Q]
Time : 1 hours Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carries two (2)
marks. All questions are compulsory.
The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption
of rice in country P for the five year from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions 1 – 5 based on
the data contained in the table.
Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice

Production Exports Per Capita Consumption
Year
(in million kg) (in million kg) (in kg)
2012 186.5 114 36.25
2013 202 114 35.2
2014 238 130 38.7
2015 221 116 40.5
2016 215 88 42
Where, per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg)  (Population in million) and
consumption (in million kg) = Production – Exports.
1. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012–2016 ?
(1) 102.1 (2) 108
(3) 100.1 (4) 104
2. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million) ?
(1) 2.72 (2) 2.79
(3) 2.85 (4) 2.64
3. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year :
(1) 2013 (2) 2014
(3) 2015 (4) 2012
4. The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in
which year ?
(1) 2014 (2) 2015
(3) 2016 (4) 2013
5. In which year, the population of country was the highest ?

(1) 2014 (2) 2015
(3) 2016 (4) 2013
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6. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and
going down to the largest unit :
(a) Kilobyte (b) Byte
(c) Megabyte (d) Terabyte
(e) Gigabyte (f) Bit
Give your answer from the following code :
(1) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c) (2) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(3) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e) (4) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
7. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India ?

(1) Untreated sewage (2) Agriculture run-off
(3) Thermal power plants (4) Unregulated small scale industry
8. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when
he receives the message ?
To… ram@test.com
Cc… raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
Bcc… swami@test.com; rama@test.com
(1) ram@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
(2) ram@test.com; rama@test.com
(3) ram@test.com; rama@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
(4) ram@test.com
9. Assertion (A) : Indoor air pollution is a serious health hazard.

Reason (R) : The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
10. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph.D programme in :
(1) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs
(2) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities
(3) IITs and IISc
(4) State and Central Universities
11. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, identify the correct sequence
of energy sources - Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear
Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and
small hydropower projects.
(1) TPP > LHP > RE > NE (2) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
(3) LHP > TPP > NE > RE (4) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

12. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting ?
(a) It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
13. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous
Laptop models.
Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this ?
(1) Faster Random Access Memory (2) Blu Ray Drive
(3) Solid State Hard Drive (4) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
14. Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select :

(a) the Central Information Commissioner
(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner
(c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for Women
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
15. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end ?
(1) Landslides (2) Hurricanes
(3) Droughts (4) Earthquakes
16. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an eco friendly resource for use in :
(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient (b) wasteland development
(c) dam and water holding structures (d) brick industry
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
17. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India ?
(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

18. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after :
(a) The United States of America (b) Australia
(c) China (d) United Kingdom (U.K.)
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
19. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?
P : Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
Q : Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
R : Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory
(1) Q only (2) P and Q only
(3) P and R only (4) P only
20. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE ?
P : ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q : Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone
and computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) Q only (2) P and Q
(3) Neither P nor Q (4) P only
21. In the two sets given below Set-I indicates methods of teaching while Set-II provides the “basic
requirements for success/ effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer “by choosing
from the code :
Set-I Set-II
(Method of Teaching) (Basic Requirements
for Success/Effectiveness)
(a) Lecturing (i) Small step presentation with feedback
provided
(b) Discussion in groups (ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming (iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional (iv) Use of teaching-aids
procedure.
(v) Theme based interaction among participants
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

22. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively
greater ?
(1) Presenting a seminar paper
(2) Participation in research conference
(3) Participation in a workshop
(4) Preparing research summary
23. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching ?
Indicate your answer by selecting from the code.
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (e) (2) (a), (c) and (f)
(3) (d), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
24. There are two sets given below. Set - I specifies the types of research, while Set - II indicates
their characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Set-I Set-II
(Research types) (Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of
an intervention
(b) Applied research (ii) Developing an effective explanation through
theory building.
(c) Action research (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of
interventions
(d) Evaluative research (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in
various situations
(v) Enriching technological resources
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
25. The problem of 'research ethics' is concerned with which aspect of research activities ?
(1) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques
(2) Defining the population of research
(3) Evidence based research reporting
(4) Following the prescribed format of a thesis
26. Which of the following sequences of research steps is nearer to scientific method ?
(1) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition,
Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the
hypothesis in action.
(2) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing
a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
(3) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a
sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalizations and Conclusions.
(4) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving
the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.
27. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy ?
(1) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan (2) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(3) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect (4) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
28. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching ?
(1) Educational status of the parents of the learner
(2) Peer groups of the learner
(3) Family size from which the learner comes
(4) Prior experience of the learner
29. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ' formative
evaluation'. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code :
(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months
interval.
(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (e)
(3) (b), (d) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
30. Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R) : All learning results from teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 31 to 35 :

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological
imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the
strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension,
time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to
continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing
with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the
economy in the global context and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the
heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment
in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a
pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years
to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation's strategic strengths are becoming more
and more clear, especially since 1990s. India's own strength in a number of core areas still puts
it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a
developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to
continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well,
whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and
health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The
absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious
natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt
the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they
are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade
and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built
abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even
while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core
technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.
31. Envisioning a developed India requires :
(1) Dependence upon projects designed abroad
(2) Focus on short-term projects
(3) Development of core technological strengths
(4) Aspiration to become a major economic player
32. Absence of technology would lead to :

(a) Less pollution
(b) Wastage of precious natural resources
(c) Low value addition
(d) Hurting the poorest most
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
33. The advantage of technological inputs would result in :

(1) Importing plant machinery
(2) Sidelining environmental issues
(3) Lifting our people to å life of dignity
(4) Unbridled technological growth
34. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension ?
(a) Aspirations of people (b) Modern day dynamism
(c) Economy in the global context (d) Strategic interests
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
35. More productive employment demands :

(1) Limiting competitive market place (2) Geo-political considerations
(3) Large industries (4) Pervasive use of technology
36. Introducing Rakesh to her husband a women said, "His brother's father is the only son of my
grandfather". The woman is related to Rakesh as :
(1) Mother (2) Sister
(3) Daughter (4) Aunt
37. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication
process ?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea
(d) Communication cannot break-down
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Codes :
(1) (b), (d), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (d), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
38. Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be
critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what the
students are learning.
Codes :
39. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning ?

(1) Unchangeability in nature (2) Harmony in nature
(3) Uniformity of nature (4) Law of identity

40. The next term in the series

ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ____,
is :
(1) ZCA (2) ZKW
(3) KZU (4) ZKU
41. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1 :
2. The numbers are :
(1) 20, 50 (2) 28, 70
(3) 32, 80 (4) 16, 40
42. If the proposition 'domestic animals are hardly ferocious' is taken to be false, which of the
following proposition/ propositions can be claimed to be certainly true ? Select the correct code :
Propositions :
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) only (4) (a) and (b)
43. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication
process.
Codes :
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method ?
(1) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(2) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical
syllogism.
(3) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
(4) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
45. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way
as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.
What type of reasoning is entailed in the above statement ?
(1) Psychological (2) Analogical
(3) Deductive (4) Mathematical

46. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom

communication is the basis of :
(1) selective affiliation to peer groups
(2) selective attention
(3) selective morality.
(4) selective expectation of performance
47. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be :

(1) HLZEOOQ (2) ZELHOQO
(3) LQOOFZH (4) LOQOZEH
48. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R) : A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students' responses are
purposive.
Select the correct code for your answer :
49. The next term in the series

–1, 5, 15, 29, _____,
is :
(1) 47 (2) 59
(3) 63 (4) 36
50. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code
that states validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises :
(1) Most of the dancers are physically fit.
(2) Most of the singers are dancers.
Conclusions :
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers.
(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Codes :
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (d) and (a) (4) (a) and (b)

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 2 4 1 3 2 1 1 4 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 1 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 1

Law Paper-II (July 2018)
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper (July 2018)
Time : 2 hours Paper-II Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions, each question carries two
(2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution
of India ?
(1) Legislation (2) Customs
(3) Usage having no force of law (4) Ordinance
2. Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term ‘martial law' ?
(1) Article 33 (2) Article 34
3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being a member of
either House of Parliament if he holds any office of profit under the Government.
Reason (R) : If 'pecuniary gain' is receivable in connection with the office. Then it shall not
become an office of profit, irrespective of whether such gains are actually promised or not.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
4. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ? Give answer by using the code
given below :
(a) The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of single non-transferable vote.
(b) The President may resign, by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of
India.
(c) No resolution to remove the Vice-President of India from his office, shall be moves unless
at least thirty days notice has been given to him.
(d) Vice-President shall, not with standing the expiration of his term, continue to hold office
until his successor enters upon his office.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect (2) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
(3) Only (a) and (b) are incorrect (4) Only (a) is incorrect

5. Match List-I (name of the case) with List-II (related subject) and give correct answer by using the
code below :
List-I List-II
(a) K.M. Nanawati Vs. State of (i) Right to life
Bombay
(b) Ram Prasad Vs. State of U.P. (ii) Power to pardon
(c) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India (iii) Fundamental Duties
(d) Dr. P. Nalla Thampy Terah (iv) Disqualification of members
v. Union of India
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
6. Which of the following case is not related to “Theory of basic structure” under Article 368 of the
Constitution ?
(1) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
(2) Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
(3) L Chandra Kurnar Vs. Union of India
(4) T.K Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu
7. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by the
President under Article of the constitution ?
(1) It shall cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless approved by both Houses
of Parliament.
(2) Salary and allowances of persons serving in connection with affairs of state may be
reduced.
(3) It may be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation by President
(4) Salary and allowances of the Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts may be reduced.
8. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ? Give correct answer by using the
code given below :
(a) An ordinary Bill can only originate in council of states
(b) A Bill pending in House of people shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House
(c) A Bill pending in the council of state which has not been passed by the House of people
shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the people
(d) A Bill pending in the House of people shall not lapse by reason of the dissolution of the
House.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are correct (4) (b) and (d) are correct

9. In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list ?
(1) Consent of two states
(2) Implementing international agreements
(3) Emergency is in operation
(4) In the Public interest if so declared by council of states
10. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (related subject) and give correct answer by using the
code below :
List-I List-II
(a) Union of India Vs. (i) Power to do complete justice
Sankalchand Seth
(b) Leila David Vs. (ii) Foreign Precedent
State of Maharashtra
(c) B.S.E.S. Ltd. Vs. (iii) Power to punish for contempt
Fenner India Ltd.
(d) Darsan Gupta Vs. (iv) Appointment/Transfer of Judges
Radhika Gupta
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
11. Which of the following case is not related to the Parliamentary privileges ?
(1) M.S.M. Sharma Vs. Sri Krishna Sinha
(2) State of Karnataka Vs. Union of India
(3) Jatish Chandra Ghose Vs. Harisadhan Mukherjee
(4) State of Tamil Nadu Vs. K. Shyam Sunder
12. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ? Answer by using code given below:
(a) It shall the duty of every citizen to respect the country and abide by the constitution.
(b) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and
administer educational institutions of their choice.
(c) The state shall in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and
prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.
(d) No law here after enacted by the legislature of Jammu and Kashmir shall void on the
ground that it is inconsistent with any rights conferred on other citizens of India by any
provision of part - Ill of the Constitution.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

13. Which one of the following Jurists distinguished between ‘expositorial’ jurisprudence (What the
law is) and ‘Censorial’ jurisprudence (What the law ought to be) ?
(1) John Austin (2) Hans Kelsen
(3) Jeremy Bentham (4) H.L.A. Hart
14. ‘Now, natural law is not considered as absolute but as relative. It is natural law with variable
contents.’ This observation specifically relates to :
(1) Dabin (2) Stammler
(3) Finnis (4) Acquinas
15. According to Professor Hart the meaning of the term ‘Positivism’ includes :
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concepts is distinct from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Moral judgments cannot be established or defended by rational argument, evidence or
proof.
(d) The law as it is actually laid down, has to be kept separate from the law that ought to be.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
16. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Theory) (Jurist)
(a) Theory of social solidarity (i) Ehrlich
(b) Theory of categorical Imperative (ii) Duguit
(c) Imperative Theory of Law (iii) John Austin
(d) Theory of Living Law (iv) Immanuel Kant
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
List-I List-II
(Book) (Author)
(a) The Growth of the Law (i) Gray
(b) Foundations of Jurisprudence (ii) R. Dworkin
(c) The Nature and Sources of Law (iii) Cardozo
(d) Taking Rights Seriously (iv) Jerome Hall

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
18. Which one of the following are the two main theories of legal right ?
(1) Interest Theory and Fiction Theory
(2) Realist Theory and Will Theory
(3) Bracket Theory and Interest Theory
(4) Interest Theory and Will Theory
19. Which of the following is not a theory relating to corporate personality ?

(1) Fiction Theory (2) Realistic Theory
(3) Purpose Theory (4) Functional Theory
20. Match List-II and give the Jural correlatives by using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Claim (i) No claim
(b) Liberty (ii) Disability
(c) Power (iii) Duty
(d) Immunity (iv) Liability
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
21. “X”, a servant, finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over to “Y”, the owner of
the shop, who asks him to place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of :
(1) “X”, because he was the finder
(2) “Y”, because he was the owner of the shop.
(3) “y”, because in him there was corpus and animus.
(4) “X”, because he kept it in the almirah.’
22. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Laws are valid only if they are just.
Reason (R) : The aim of law is to secure justice.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation (A).
23. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
Assertion (A) : Judges must follow authoritative precedents.
Reason (R) : Authoritative precedents derive their authority from basic postulates of the legal
system itself.
Codes :
24. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

(a) Hobbes, Austin and Pufendorf subscribe to the view that law “Properly so called” in
command of the sovereign and enforced by a superior political authority and hence deny
legal character of International law.
(b) Oppenheim has remarked that International law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence.
(c) Holland subscribes to the view that International law is really law.
(d) Starke has expressed the view that International law is a “Weak law”.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a) and (d) both are correct
(3) (a), (b), (c) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all correct
25. “Triepel” and “Anzilloti” are the exponents of which of the following theory of Relationship between
International law and Municipal law ?
(1) Monism (2) Dualism
(3) Specific Adoption Theory (4) Delegation Theory
26. Which one of the following is one of the Chief Exponents of ‘Constitutive Theory’ of Recognition?
(1) Pit corbett (2) Kelson
(3) Hegel (4) Hall
27. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

(a) In accordance with the provisions of Article 7 of the United Nations Charter, the Security
Council is one of the Principal organs of the United Nations.
(b) The First Security Council came into being on 12th January, 1946.
(c) At Dumbarton proposals, it was finally decided to establish such as an organ in the form
of the Security Council
(d) Ten non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the General Assembly
for 5 years.
Codes :
(1) Only (c) is not correct
(2) (c) and (d) are not correct
(3) (a), (b), (c) are not correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct

List-I (Provisions) List-II (Articles of statute of court
of International Justice)
(a) Law applied by the International (i) Article 41
Court of Justice
(b) Binding force of the decision (ii) Article 62
of International Court of Justice
(c) Interim Measures or Relief (iii) Article 38
(d) International court’s power to (iv) Article 59
allow a state to intervene, in
case to which it is not a party
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
List-I List-II
(a) Cession (i) Acquisition of Nationality
(b) Reprisal (ii) Loss of Nationality
(c) Good offices (iii) Pacific means of settlement of International
Disputes
(d) Substitution (iv) Coercive means of settlement of International
Disputes
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
30. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both and give the correct answer by using the code given
below :
Assertion (A) : Article 10 of the U.N. charter confers upon the General Assembly very wide
deliberative functions except in respect of those matters which are being considered by the
Security Council.
Reason (R) : The Resolutions or declarations of the General Assembly are not binding upon the
states. They are merely recommendations.
Codes :
(3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.


(a) All members of the United Nations are ipso facto the members of the statute of the
International court of justice.
(b) The International court of justice consists of 25 judges. Which are elected by the General
Assembly.
(c) The judges of the International court of justice are elected for a term of 5 years.
(d) All the decisions of the International court of justice are on the basis of the majority of
judges.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are only correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
32. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given
below :
Assertion (A) : When a state behaves in discourteous manner with another state. International
law confers right upon the state affected to resort to ‘retorsion’ which means retaliation.
Reason (R) : If the International disputes are not resolved through ‘peaceful’, means then the
states resort to compulsive or coercive means.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
33. The ‘U.N. Commission on Human Rights’ was established in 1946 by :

(1) General Assembly (2) Security Council
(3) Economic and Social Council (4) International Court of Justice
34. Under Hindu law, the persons descended from a common ancestor but by different wives, are
known as :
(1) Full blood Relations (2) Half Blood Relations
(3) Uterine Blood Relations (4) No Blood Relations
List-I List-II
(a) Agnate (i) What was heard
(b) Shruti (ii) Related wholly through males
(c) Cognate (iii) What has been remembered
(d) Smriti (iv) Related not wholly through males
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

36. If the condition laid down under section 5(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is violated, such
marriage under the Act is :
(1) Void but not punishable (2) Valid and not punishable
(3) Void and Punishable (4) Valid but Punishable
37. Under sec. 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act 1939, the following grounds of divorce
are available to a wife :
(a) Where abouts of the have not been known for a period of four years.
(b) Four years imprisonment of the husband.
(c) Husband has treated her with cruelty.
(d) The husband has neglected her or has failed to pay her maintenance for a period of two
years.
Codes :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (d), (c) and (a)
(3) (d), (c), (b) and (a) (4) (a), (d), (b) and (c)
38. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : No person except the father or mother or guardian of a Hindu child has the
capacity to give such child in adoption.
Reason (R) : No re-adoption may take place under the Hindu Adoptions and maintenance Act.
1956.
Codes :
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is false (2) (A) is false but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
39. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and give
correct answer by using the code given below :
List-I : (Section) List-II : (Provision)
(a) Sec. 18 (i) Maintenance of dependants
(b) Sec. 19 (ii) Amount of maintenance
(c) Sec. 22 (iii) Maintenance of wife
(d) Sec. 23 (iv) Maintenance of widowed daughter-in law
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
40. “Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should be made
compulsorily registrable in their respective states where the marriage is solemnized”. This was
ruled by the supreme court in which of the following case :
(1) Sarla Mudgil v/s Union of India (2) Gurupad v/s Hirabai
(3) Shastri v/s Muldass (4) Seema v/s Ashwani Kumar
41. Give the correct answer with the help of code given below :
A 'Muta' marriage is :
(a) A temporary marriage (b) Recognized under sunni law
(c) Recognized under shia law (d) A marriage for a fixed period
Codes :
(1) (d), (b), (a) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
42. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, and give correct answer with
the help of code given below :
List-I : (Section) List-II : (Provision)
(a) Section 14 (i) Alternative Relief in divorce proceedings
(b) Section 13-A (ii) Restitution of conjugal Rights
(c) Section 9 (iii) Judicial separation
(d) Section 10 (iv) No petition for divorce within one year of
marriage
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Assertion (A) : A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance
is complete as against the proposer. But not afterwards.
Reason (R) : Section 5 of the Indian contract Act 1872, deals with the revocation of proposals
and acceptances.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not related to (A).
(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
44. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

Consideration is :
(a) a price for any promise.
(b) only a moral obligation.
(c) a motive for any promise.
(d) something of value in the eye of law.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) are correct (2) (a) and (d) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (c) and (d) are correct

45. Consider the following statements and give correct answer with the help of code below :
The case of Mohori Bibee Vs Dharmodas Ghose :
(a) has laid down that a minor's contract becomes valid when he attains majority.
(b) is the decision of the Supreme Court of India regarding minor’s contract.
(c) is the decision of Privy Council regarding voidness of minor’s contract.
(d) has laid down that contract without consideration is void.
Codes :
(1) (c) and (d) are correct, but (a) and (b) are incorrect.
(2) (a) and (b) are correct, but (c) and (d) are incorrect.
(3) (c) is correct, but (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect.
(4) (b) and (d) are correct, but (a) and (c) are incorrect.
46. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given
below :
Assertion (A) : Acceptance is to offer what a lighted match is to a train of gunpowder.
Reason (R) : Acceptance cannot be separated from offer.
Codes :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
47. The defence of 'non est factum' is available to the contracting party who has committed mistake
as to the :
(1) Identity of the other contracting party
(2) Nature of contract
(3) Quality of the subject matter of the contract
(4) Quality of the promise made by the other party
48. Under the Indian Contract Act 1872 Which one of the following does not fall in the meaning of
fraud :
(1) Active concealment of a fact.
(2) Suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true.
(3) Positive assertion of unwarranted statements.
(4) A promise made without any intention of performing it.
49. Special damages will be awarded in case of a breach of contract :

(1) Only when the contracting parties express the same specifically as the terms of the
contract.
(2) Always in the special circumstances leading to the formation of the contract.
(3) Only when the court of law thinks fit in the special circumstances of the case.
(4) Only when the special circumstances causing loss of profit resulting from the breach of
contract were brought to the notice of the party committing breach at the time of formation
of the contract.
code given below :
(a) Tort is a civil wrong for which remedy is a common law action.
(b) Tort is exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust.
(c) Tort is an infringement of a right in rem of a private individual.
(d) Tort is violation of a legal duty owed to people generally for maintenance of law and order.
Codes :
(1) Only (b) and (d) are correct (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (a) and (c) are correct (4) Only (a) and (d) are correct
51. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (name of defense) and give the correct answer by using
the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Samira Kohli Vs Prabha (i) Plaintiff a wrong-doer
Manchanda
(b) Sodan Singh Vs New Delhi (ii) Leave and Licence
Municipal Committee
(c) Bird Vs Holbrook (iii) Act of God
(d) Kallulal Vs Hemchand (iv) Necessity
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
52. Which of the following is correctly matched in relation to the defences of tort of defamation ?
(1) Fair comment - An expression of statement of fact rather than
expression of opinion
(2) Absolute privilege - Statements made by the members of either
House of parliament in the House or outside
the House
(3) Justification by truth - It is enough if the statement is substantially
true and may not be mathematically accurate
(4) Consent - Plaintiff has not consented to the publication
of defamatory words by the defendant
53. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Remoteness of Damage” ?

(1) Scott Vs Shepherd
(2) In re an Arbitration between Polemis and Furness, Withy and Co.
(3) Sirros Vs. Moore
(4) Overseas Tankship Ltd. Vs Morts Dock and Engineering Co.

54. Which of the following tort is not related to nuisance based on ‘Physical discomfort’ or interference
with another’s health and safety ?
(1) Obstruction of light (2) Injury to property
(3) Noise pollution (4) Pollution of water and air
55. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (capacity to sue) and give the correct answer by using
the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) State of Saurashtra Vs Memon (i) No right to Sue as an un-incorporarted
Haji Ismail association
(b) Delhi Transport Corporation Vs (ii) Municipal law does not apply
Kumari Lalita
(c) Brown Vs Lewis (iii) Suit against corporation
(d) Campbell Vs Paddington (iv) Suit by minor
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
56. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Negligence means a conduct which creates a risk of causing damage, rather
than a state of mind.
Reason (R) : It is safe to start a bus before passengers completely get into it.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(4) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
57. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to Consumer Courts ?

(1) National Commission has power to transfer a pending complaint from a District Forum to
another in the same State.
(2) State Commission has power to transfer a pending complaint from a District Forum to
another in the same State.
(3) National Commission can not have circuit benches except the permanent bench at New
Delhi.
(4) State Commission can not have circuit benches but can have two State Commissions.
58. Point out the correct statement :

(1) Crime is necessarily an immoral act.
(2) Crime is necessarily and anti-social act.
(3) Crime is necessarily an anti-communal act.
(4) Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act.

59. Four accused with common intention to kill, shot one B in the bona fide belief that B was A. In
this case :
(1) None of them is liable for the offence of murder.
(2) All accused are guilty of causing death.
(3) Section 34 of Indian Penal Code does not apply.
(4) All accused are guilty of causing death without invoking Section 34.
60. Under Section 65 of Indian Penal code, 1860, sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
shall be limited to :
(1) One-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(2) One-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(3) One-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(4) One-fifth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
61. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, promoting entry between
different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language etc, and doing
acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony is dealt with ?
(1) Section 153 (2) Section 153-A
(3) Section 153-AA (4) Section 153-B
62. A instigates B to murder D. B in pursuance of the instigation stabs D. D recovers from the wound.
Here A is guilty of :
(1) Instigating B to commit murder
(2) Instigating B to commit attempt to murder
(3) Instigating B to commit grievous hurt
(4) No offence
63. Under which of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an assault or criminal
force used in attempting to commit theft of property is punishable ?
(1) Section 356 (2) Section 378
64. “X” gives grave and sudden provocation to “Y”. "Y” on this provocation. Fires a pistol at “X” neither
intending nor knowing himself to likely to kill “Z”, who is near him, but out of sight. “Y” kills “Z”.
Here “Y” has committed :
(1) Death by negligence
(2) Murder
(3) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(4) No offence
List-I List-II
(a) Dishonest taking of property (i) Criminal breach of Trust
(b) Dishonestly inducing any person (ii) Extortion
to deliver property
(c) Entrustment of property (iii) Criminal Misappropriation
(d) Conversion of property (iv) Theft
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by
reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the exact nature of the act.
Reason (R) : Mistake of fact is a good defence and mistake of law is no defence.
Codes :
List-I List-II
(a) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor (i) Mens rea
(b) State of Maharashtra Vs. (ii) Intoxication
M.H. George
(c) Director of Public Prosecutions (iii) Common Intention
Vs. Beard
(d) R.V. Dudley Vs. Stephens (iv) Necessity
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
List-I List-II
(Provision for) (Sections of I.P.C.)
(a) Punishment for causing death or (i) Section 376-D
resulting in persistent vegetative
state of victim
(b) Sexual intercourse by husband (ii) Section 376-B
upon his wife during separation
(c) Sexual intercourse by a person (iii) Section 376-A
in authority
(d) Gang rape (iv) Section 376-C

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
69. Give the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) The workman has a right to approach the Labour court directly without waiting for the
conciliation proceedings and government reference.
(b) The appropriate government in respect of Corporations and Public Sector undertakings
owned or controlled by the central government will be the central government.
(c) Every industry employing 20 or more workmen is under legal obligation to Constitute and
have a Grievances Redressal Committee.
(d) The award passed by the Labour Court can be transmitted to a Civil Court for the effective
enforcement of the award.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct. (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.
below :
Assertion (A) : The strike or lockout as the weapon has to be used sparingly for redressal of
urgent and pressing grievances when no means are available or when available means have
failed to resolve it.
Reason (R) : The employment that workmen get and the profit the employer earns are both
generated by utilisation of the resources of the society in one form or other and they are to act
as Trustees of the said resources.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) A strike could be legal or illegal (i) Award
and illegal strike could be
justified one
(b) Right of the Workmen to approach (ii) Bharat Singh Vs Management of New Delhi
the Labour Court directly within a Tuberculosis Centre
period of three years
(c) Right of the workmen to payment (iii) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
of full wages pending proceedings
in the High Courts
(d) An interim or a final determination (iv) Section 2-A (2) Industrial Dispute
of any Industrial Dispute (Amendment) Act 2010
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
72. “Although the Judicial interpretation given to the expression” Industry” by Supreme Court in
Bangalore Water Supply Case was intended to settle the test to determine its scope, judicial
trends point out that it has done more damage than good, not merely to organisations but also
to employees by curtailment of employment opportunities”, The above trend is reflected through
one of the following case :
(1) Corporation of city of Nagpur Vs Employees
(2) State of Bombay Vs Hospital Mazdoor Sabha
(3) Coir Board Ernakulam, Cochin and another Vs Indira Devi P.S. and other
(4) Madras Gymkhana Club Employees Union Vs Gymkhana Club
73. Answer the following using the code given below :

The condition precedent to the order of Reference under section 10(1) of the Industrial Disputes
Act is the satisfactions of the appropriate government to the following :
(a) Existence of Industrial Dispute
(b) Apprehension of Industrial Dispute
Codes :
(1) Both (a) and (b) correct. (2) (a) alone is correct.
(3) (b) alone is correct. (4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.
74. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given
below :
Assertion (A) : (a) The unrecognised union has right to meet and discuss with the employer the
grievances of Individual workman with the employer and
Reason (R) : This is a statutory recognition of a unrecognised Union.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
75. Answer the following using the code given below :

The following are the pre-condition for acquiring jurisdiction by the National Tribunal Under the
Industrial Disputes Act :
(a) Industrial Dispute must involve question of National importance in the opinion of the Central
Government
OR
(b) Industrial Dispute must involve question of State importance in the opinion of the State
Government
OR
(c) Industrial Disputes must be of such a nature that Industries situated in more than one
State and are likely to be interested in or affected by such disputes
OR
(d) Industrial Disputes must be of such a nature that Industries situated in more than five
States and are likely to be interested in or affected by such disputes.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) are correct. (2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (b) and (d) are correct. (4) (d) alone is correct.
76. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer by using code below :
Assertion (A) : Administrative law is a branch of public law in contradiction to Private law.
Reason (R) : Administrative law primarily deals with the relationship of individuals intense.
Codes :
(3) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect (R) is correct.
77. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (principle of natural justice) and give correct answer by
using the code below :
List-I List-II
(a) Hira Nath Mishra Vs Rajindra (i) Right to notice or requirement of notice
Medical College
(b) Union of India Vs Mohd. Ramzan (ii) No evidence should be taken at back or the
Khan other party
(c) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India (iii) Report of the enquiry to be shown to the other
party
(d) Union of India Vs Narendra Singh (iv) Reasoned decision or speaking order
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
78. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (name of writ) and give correct answer by using code
given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Sunil Batra Vs Delhi Administration (i) Quo Warranto
(b) U.N.R. Rao Vs Indira Gandhi (ii) Habeas Corpus
(c) Gujarat State Financial Corporation (iii) Certiorari
Vs Lotus Hotels
(d) Nalini Ranjan Vs Annada Shankar (iv) Mandamus
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
79. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India ruled that when the selection process
consists of only a veva-voce test without any written examination no limit need be imposed on
prescribing marks for the interview.
(1) A.K. Roy Vs Union of India
(2) A.P. State Financial Corporation Vs C.M. Ashok Raju
(3) Sambhu Nath Sarkar Vs State of W.B.
(4) P. Lakhanpal Vs Union of India
code given below :
(a) Absolute discretion is a ruthless master.
(b) Where reasonable conduct of government official is expected, the criterion of
reasonableness is subjective and not objective
(c) Every action of the executive government must be informed with excuse and should be
arbitrary.
(d) Exercise of discretion is an inseparable part of sound administration.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct. (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) Only (b) and (d) are correct. (4) Only (a) and (d) are correct.
81. Which of the following Acts shall be amended as per Section 58 of the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act,
2013 ? Give correct answer by using the code given below :
(a) Commission of Inquiry Act
(b) Central Vigilance Commission Act
(c) Code of Civil Procedure
(d) Central Bureau of Investigation Act
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct. (2) (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) (a) and (d) are correct. (4) (b) and (c) are correct.
82. Which one of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Montreal protocol is related to Hazardous Waste.
(2) The Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle are essential features of the
principles of sustainable development.
(3) The Stockholm Declaration of 1972 has been described as the Magna Carta of our
environment.
(4) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes
in the territory of another.
83. “The State is the trustee of all natural resources which are by nature meant for public use and
enjoyment and that Indian legal system includes the Public Trust Doctrine as a part of its
jurisprudence”
The Supreme Court of India has observed the above in one of the following case :
(1) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad Vs Union of India
(2) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action Vs Union of India.
(3) M.C. Mehtha Vs Union of India
(4) Shri Sachidananda Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
84. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using the code given below :
List-II List-II
(a) No state has a right to use or (i) Basel Convention
permit the use of its territory so
as to cause injury by fumes in
the territory of another
(b) The Economic Benefit must (ii) Trial Smelter Case
substantially exceed its
Environmental Cost
(c) The present generation has no (iii) Environment Impact Assessment
right to deplete all the existing
forest and leave nothing for the
next and future generation
(d) Transboundary Movements of (iv) Inter Generational Equity
Hazardous Wastesand their
Disposal
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
below :
Assertion (A) : It is the duty of the state to devise and implement a coherent and co-ordinated
programme to meet its obligation of Sustainable Development.
Reason (R) : Adherence to the principle of Sustainable Development is now a Constitutional
requirement.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

86. Which of the following do not come under the powers and functions of the Central Board is
provided Under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 ?
(1) Planning and execution of National programme for prevention, control and abatement of
Air Pollution.
(2) Co-ordinating activities of State Boards and resolving disputes among them.
(3) Fixing standards of Quality of Air.
(4) Making recommendations to the State government for removal of State Board which is
defaulter in discharging its duties under the Act.
87. In which one of the following case the Supreme Court of India held that right to access to drinking
water is fundamental to life and it is the duty of the State under Act 21 to provide clean drinking
water to its citizens ?
(1) Vellore Citizens Welfare forum Vs Union of India
(2) A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs M.V. Nayadu
(3) M.C. Mehtha Vs Union of India
(4) Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board Vs Shri C. Kenchappa
below :
Assertion (A) : The provisions concerning Human Rights run throughout the U.N. Charter ‘like
a golden thread”.
Reason (R) : Much of the credit for this goes to the determined lobbying by non-governmental
organisations at San Francisco Conference.
Codes :

Under its terms of reference, the UN Commission on Human Rights was directed to prepare
recommendations and reports on :
(a) An International Bill on Human Rights.
(b) International Conventions or declarations on civil liberties : the status of woman, freedom
of information and similar other matters.
(c) The protection of Minorities.
(d) The prevention of discrimination on the basis of race, sex, language or religion and other
matters concerning Human Rights.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct.
(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

List-I List-II
(a) Human Rights Council (i) 1993
(b) The Universal Declaration of (ii) 2006
Human Rights
(c) The International Covenant on (iii) 1948
Civil and Political Rights
(d) World Conference on Human (iv) 1966
Rights, Vienna
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(a) The position of U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights was created by the Economics
and Social Council.
(b) The High Commissioner was to be appointed by the Secretary. General subject to approval
by the General Assembly.
(c) The term of office of High Commissioner was five years.
(d) The High Commissioner’s principal location would be in New York.
Codes :
(1) Only (d) is not correct.
(2) (a), (c) and (d) all are not correct.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are not correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct.
92. Which of the following statement/statements are correct ?

(a) The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission shall be who has been the
Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
(b) The Chairperson and the other Members of National Human Rights Commission are
appointed by the President of India after consultation with Prime Minister.
(C) Chairperson and other Members of National Human Rights Commission are eligible for re
appointment.
(d) The Chairperson and the other Member of the Commission can be removed on the
Recommendation of the Law Minister of India.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

List-I List-II
(Provisions) (Sections of the Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993)
(a) Constitution of National Human (i) Section 10
Rights Commission
(b) Constitution of State Human (ii) Section 12
Rights Commission
(c) Functions of the National Human (iii) Section 3
Rights Commission
(d) Procedure of the Commission (iv) Section 21
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Under the Partnership Act, a minor who has been admitted to partnership when attains majority
should adhere to the following :
(1) Issue a public notice that he has elected to become or that he has elected not to become
a partner
(2) Option must be exercised within 2 months on attaining majority
(3) When the minor opted to become a partner his rights and liabilities as a minor continues
upto the date on which he become a partner
(4) When the minor opted not to become a partner his rights and liabilities shall continues
upto the date on which he gives a public notice.
95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Mutual Rights and Liabilities (i) Section 34 of Partnership Act
of Partners
(b) Dissolution of Partnership (ii) Section 13 of Partnership Act
(c) Retirement of a Partner (iii) Section 39 of Partnership Act
(d) Insolvency of a Partner (iv) Section 32 of Partnership Act
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

96. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given
below :
Assertion (A) : The surety has no right to restrain execution against him until the creditor
exhausted all his remedies against the Principal Debtor.
Reason (R) : The Liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the Principal Debtor, unless
it is otherwise provided by contract.
Codes :
(2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Under the Sale of Goods Act. to make the buyer liable for neglecting or refusing delivery of goods
the following conditions must be fulfilled :
(1) The seller was ready and willing to deliver the goods.
(2) The seller requested the buyer to take delivery.
(3) The seller informed the buyer to ignore the delay and take delivery.
(4) The buyer did not within a reasonable time after such request take delivery of the goods.
98. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code given below :
Assertion (A) : Under the Company Law, though any outsider is presumed to be aware of the
documents which are publicly accessible, but not the internal proceedings of which he can not
reasonably aware of, because those are not accessible to the public.
Reason (R) : The Doctrine of indoor management evolved as a partial exception to the Doctrine
of Constructive Notice and the rule was laid down in Royal British Bank Vs Turquand.
Codes :

Any mis-statement made in the Prospectus would attract the liability of the following persons
under the Companies Act :
(1) Every person who is a director of the company at the time of the issue of the prospectus.
(2) Every person who has authorised himself to be named and is named in the prospectus
either as director or as having agreed to become a director either immediately or after an
interval of time.
(3) Every person who is a promotor of the company.
(4) An expert, whose consent has not been endorsed to the registration and liable in respect
of every content in the prospectus.

100. Which one of the following is not the essential requirement to fulfil an instrument intended to be
a Promissory Note ?
(1) The instrument must contain a promise to pay.
(2) A mere acknowledgment of indebtedness is sufficient.
(3) The sum of money to be paid must be certain.
(4) Promise to pay must be unconditional.
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 4 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 4 3 2 4 3 2 4 4 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 4 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 2 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 4 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 3 3 2 1 4 2 2 2 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
2 1 1 3 2 2 3 3 4 1
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
1 3 1 1 2 3 4 3 2 4
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
1 1 1 3 1 4 2 1 4 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
2 1 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 2

General Paper-I (Nov. 2017)

Previous Year Solved Paper (Nov. 2017) [Code - B]
Time : 1¼ hours Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100
Answer the questions 1 to 5 based on the data given in the table below.
Table : Number of registered vehicles in India and India’s population.
Total Two Cars, Jeeps, Goods Population

Buses Others
Year vehicles wheelers Taxis Vehicles (India)
(Lakhs) (Lakhs)
(Lakhs) (Lakhs) (Lakhs) Lakhs) (Millions)
1961 6.65 0.88 3.1 0.57 1.68 0.42 439.23
1971 18.65 5.76 6.82 0.94 3.43 1.70 548.15
1981 53.91 26.18 11.60 1.62 5.54 8.97 683.32
1991 213.74 142.00 29.54 3.31 13.56 25.33 846.42
2001 549.91 385.56 70.58 6.34 29.48 57.95 1028.73
2011 1417.58 1018.65 191.23 16.04 70.64 121.02 1210.19
1. What was the per capita ownership of two wheelers in India in the year 2011 ?
(1) ~ 0.0084% (2) ~ 0.84%
(3) ~ 0.068% (4) ~ 0.084%
2. What was the average decadal growth in the number of cars during 1961 - 2011 ?
(1) ~ 68% (2) ~ 217%
(3) ~ 157% (4) ~ 131%
3. In the year 2001, out of total number of vehicles, the number of passenger vehicles (4 wheelers)
accounted for :
(1) ~ 24% (2) ~ 31%
(3) ~ 43% (4) ~ 14%
4. The maximum decadal growth in population of India is registered in the period :

(1) 1991-2001 (2) 2001-2011
(3) 1981-1991 (4) 1961-1971
5. In which year the decadal growth (%) in number of cars surpassed that of the two wheelers ?
(1) 2001 (2) 1981
(3) 2011 (4) 1991
6. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, ......... is :
(1) SBL (2) PSK
(3) RUH (4) NSA
7. Given below are four statements Among them two are related in such a way that they can both
be true but they cannot both be false. Select the code that indicates those two statements :
Statements :
(a) Honest people never suffer.
(b) Almost all honest people do suffer.
(c) Honest people hardly suffer.
(d) Each and every honest person suffers.
Code :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
8. In a classroom the probability of message reception can be enhanced by :

(1) Exposing the ignorance of students
(2) Increasing the information load
(3) Using high decibel audio tools
(4) Establishing a viewpoint
9. It is Truism to say that no one was there when life first appeared on earth. Any assertion about
life’s origin, thus, should be treated as a theory.
The above two statements constitute :
(1) A narrative (2) An argument
(3) A conjecture (4) A historical explanation
10. The spatial audio reproduction in a classroom can reduce the students :
(1) Respect for the teacher
(2) Motivation for excellence
(3) Interest in technology - orientation
(4) Cognitive load in understanding
11. A deductive argument is invalid if :

(1) Its premises and conclusion are all false.
(2) Its premises and all false but its conclusion is true.
(3) Its premises are all true but its conclusion is false.
(4) Its premises and conclusion are all true.
12. A good communicator begins his/her presentation with a :

(1) Non-sequitur (2) Repetitive phrase
(3) Ice-breaker (4) Complex question
13. In certain code, “COVALENT” is coded as BWPDUOFM. The code of “ELEPHANT” will be :
(1) QMUBIADH (2) QFMFUOBI
(3) EPHNTEAS (4) MFUIQRTW

14. In the series 1, 6, 15, 28, 45, ........... the next term will be :
(1) 76 (2) 56
(3) 84 (4) 66
15. Ajay is a friend of Rakesh. Pointing to an old man Ajay asked Rakesh who is he ? Rakesh said
“His son is my son’s uncle”. The old man is related to Rakesh as :
(1) Father-in-law (2) Father
(3) Uncle (4) Grandfather
16. The interaction between a teacher and students creates a zone of proximal :
(1) Confusion (2) Development
(3) Distortion (4) Difference
17. Given below are two premises (a and b). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii)
and (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusion/conclusions drawn validly (taking
the premises singularly or jointly).
Premises : (a) All bats are mammals.
(b) No birds are bats.
Conclusions : (i) No birds are mammals.
(ii) Some birds are not mammals.
(iii) No bats are birds.
(iv) All mammals are bats.
Code :
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only (4) (i) only
18. A postman walked 20 m straight from his office, turned right and walked 10 m. After turning left
he walked 10 m and after turning right walked 20 m. He again turned right and walked 70 m.
How far he is from his office ?
(1) 40 m. (2) 60 m.
(3) 20 m. (4) 50 m.
19. Just as melting ice-cubes do not cause a glass of water to overflow, melting sea - ice does not
increase oceanic volume.
What type of argument is it ?
(1) Hypothetical (2) Psychological
(3) Statistical (4) Analogical
20. The classroom communication should essentially be :

(1) Empathetic (2) Abstract
(3) Non-descriptive (4) Contrived

21. Which of the following set of statements best represents the nature and objective of teaching
and learning ?
(a) Teaching is like selling and learning is like buying.
(b) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act.
(c) Teaching implies learning whereas learning does not imply teaching.
(d) Teaching is a kind of delivery of knowledge while learning is like receiving it.
(e) Teaching is an interaction and is triadic in nature whereas learning is an active engagement
in a subject domain.
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (e) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (d) and (e)
22. From the list given below identify the learner characteristics which would facilitate teaching
learning system to become effective. Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(a) Prior experience of learner (b) learner’s family lineage
(c) Aptitude of the learner (d) Learner’s stage of development
(e) Learner’s food habits and hobbies (f) Learner’s religious affiliation
Code :
(1) (d), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (d) and (e)
(3) (b), (c) and (f) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
23. In finalizing a thesis writing format which of the following would form part of supplementary
pages ?
(1) Table of contents (2) Conclusions of the study
(3) Bibliography and Appendices (4) List of tables and figures
24. Which one of the following is a key behaviour in effective teaching ?

(1) Structuring
(2) Instructional variety
(3) Questioning
(4) Using student ideas and contribution
25. Which of the following research types focuses on ameliorating the prevailing situations ?
(1) Applied Research (2) Action Research
(3) Experimental Research (4) Fundamental Research
26. A researcher attempts to evaluate the effect of method of feeding on anxiety - proneness of
children. Which method of research would be appropriate for this ?
(1) Experimental method (2) Ex-post-facto method
(3) Survey method (4) Case study method
27. Which of the following is susceptible to the issue of research ethics ?

(1) Faulty research design
(2) Choice of sampling techniques
(3) Reporting of research findings
(4) Inaccurate application of statistical techniques
28. On the basis of summative tests, a teacher is interpreting his/her students, performance in terms
of their wellness life style evident in behaviour. This will be called :
(1) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
(2) Norm - referenced testing
(3) Criterion - referenced testing
(4) Formative testing
29. In which of the following arrangements a wider spectrum of ideas and issues may be made
possible ?
(1) Workshop mode (2) Conference
(3) Symposium (4) Research Article
30. Assertion (A) : All teaching implies learning.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be derived from teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
31. Occurrence of natural hazards is affected by :

(a) Land use changes (b) Drainage and construction
(c) Ozone depletion (d) Climate change
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
32. What is the name for a webpage address ?

(1) Directory (2) Protocol
(3) URL (4) Domain
33. Which of the following universities has received the Visitor’s Award for the best Central University
in India in Feb. 2017 ?
(1) Banaras Hindu University (2) Tezpur University
(3) University of Hyderabad (4) Jawaharlal Nehru University
34. Which of the following has been ranked the best college in the country (2017) as per the National
Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) ?
(1) St. Stephen’s College, Delhi (2) Fergusson College, Pune
(3) Maharaja’s College, Mysore (4) Miranda House, Delhi

35. Which of the following are the goals of higher education in India ?
(a) Access (b) Equity
(c) Quality and Excellence (d) Relevance
(e) Value based education (f) Compulsory and free education
(1) (a), (b), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (e) only
36. Among the following fuels of energy, which is the most environment friendly ?
(1) Biogas (2) CNG
(3) Hydrogen (4) Ethanol
37. Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced both naturally and as a result of industrial
activity ?
(1) Nitrous oxide (2) Methane
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Chlorofluoro carbons
38. Which of the following come(s) within the ambit of the term ‘corruption’ ?
(a) Misuse of official position
(b) Deviation from rules, laws and norms
(c) Non-action when action is required
(d) Harm to public good
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) only
39. Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution?
(1) Governor of a State
(2) Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(4) Judge of a High Court
40. Assertion (A) : In urban areas, smog episodes occur frequently in winters.
Reason (R) : In winters, a lot of biomass is burnt’ by people for heating purposes or to keep
themselves warm.
(2) (A) is true and (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
41. Which of the following represents billion characters ?

(1) Megabytes (2) Kilobytes
(3) Gigabytes (4) Terabytes
42. Which of the following pollutants is the major cause of respiratory diseases ?
(1) Nitrogen oxides (2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Volatile organic compounds (4) Suspended fine particles
43. Which of the following domains is used for - profit businesses ?

(1) .net (2) .edu
(3) .com (4) .org
44. The data storage hierarchy consists of :

(1) Bits, bytes, fields, records, files and databases
(2) Bits, bytes, records, fields, files and databases
(3) Bits, bytes, fields, files, records and databases
(4) Bytes, bits, fields, records, files and databases
45. What is the full form of USB as used in computer related activities ?
(1) Universal Security Block (2) Universal Serial Bus
(3) United Serial Bus (4) Ultra Security Block
Read the passage carefully and answer question numbers from 46 to 50.
Climate change is considered to be one of the most serious threats to sustainable development,
with adverse impacts on the environment, human health, food security, economic activity, natural
resources and physical infrastructure. Global climate varies naturally. According to the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the effects of climate change have already
been observed, and scientific findings indicate that precautionary and prompt action is necessary.
Vulnerability to climate change is not just a function of geography or dependence on natural
resources; it also has social, economic and political dimensions which influence how climate
change affects different groups. Poor people rarely have insurance to cover loss of property due
to natural calamities i.e. drought, floods, super cyclones etc. The poor communities are already
struggling to cope with the existing challenges of poverty and climate variability and climate
change could push many beyond their ability to cope or even survive. It is vital that these
communities are helped to adapt to the changing dynamics of nature. Adaptation is a process
through which societies make themselves better able to cope with an uncertain future. Adapting
to climate change entails taking the right measures to reduce the negative effects of climate
change (or exploit the positive ones) by making the appropriate adjustments and changes. These
range from technological options such as increased sea defences or flood - proof houses on
stilts to behavioural change at the individual level, such as reducing water use in times of
drought. Other strategies include early warning systems for extreme events, better water
management, improved risk management, various insurance options and biodiversity conservation.
Because of the speed at which climate change is happening due to global temperature rise, it
is urgent that the vulnerability of developing countries to climate change is reduced and their
capacity to adapt is increased and national adaptation plans are implemented. Adapting to
climate change will entail adjustments and changes at every level from community to national
and international. Communities must build their resilience, including adopting appropriate
technologies while making the most of traditional knowledge, and diversifying their livelihoods to
cope with current and future climate stress. Local coping strategies and knowledge need to be
used in synergy with government and local interventions. The need of adaptation interventions
depends on national circumstances. There is a large body of knowledge and experience within

local communities on coping with climatic variability and extreme weather events. Local communities
have always aimed to adapt to variations in their climate. To do so, they have made preparations
based on their resources and their knowledge accumulated through experience of past weather
patterns. This includes times when they have also been forced to react to and recover from
extreme events, such as floods, drought and hurricanes. Local coping strategies are an important
element of planning for adaptation. Climate change is leading communities to experience climatic
extremes more frequently as well as new climate conditions and extremes. Traditional knowledge
can help to provide efficient, appropriate and time - tested ways of advising and enabling
adaptation to climate change in communities who are feeling the effects of climate changes due
to global warming.
46. To address the challenge of climate change, developing countries urgently require :
(1) Implementation of national adaptation policy at their level
(2) Adoption of short-term plans
(3) Adoption of technological solutions
(4) Imposition of climate change tax
47. Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate change. Select the code
that contains the correct answer.
(a) Their dependence on natural resources
(b) Geographical attributes
(c) Lack of financial resources
(d) Lack of traditional knowledge
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
48. Adaptation as a process enables societies to cope with :

(a) An uncertain future
(b) Adjustments and changes
(c) Negative impact of climate change
(d) Positive impact of climate change
Select the most appropriate answer from the following code :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
49. The main focus of the passage is on :

(1) Co-ordination between regional and national efforts
(2) Adaptation to climate change
(3) Social dimensions of climate change
(4) Combining traditional knowledge with appropriate technology
50. The traditional knowledge should be used through :

(1) Improvement in national circumstances
(2) Synergy between government and local interventions
(3) Modern technology
(4) Its dissemination
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 4 4 4 3 1 3 4 2 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 3 2 4 2 2 2 4 4 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 3 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 4 3 1 2 1 4 4 2 2

Law Paper - II (Nov. 2017)
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper (Nov. 2017)
Time : 1¼ hours Paper-II Maximum Marks : 100
marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : The preamble to the constitution of India clearly indicates the ideals set before
the Nation.
Reason (R) : The ideals set before the Nation are Justice, Equity, Fraternity of the individual and
unity and integrity of the Nation.
Code :
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
2. Arrange the following leading cases in order, pronounced by the Supreme Court by using the
code given below :
(a) Selvi v. State of Karnataka
(b) Official Liquidator v. Dayananda
(c) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
(d) P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharastra
Code :
(1) (d), (a), (c), (b) (2) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(3) (c), (b), (d), (a) (4) (b), (c), (d), (a)
3. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) The Fundamental Duties are mandatory on all the persons
(2) The Fundamental Duties have always been a part of the Constitution of India
(3) The Fundamental Duties have been added through an amendment to the Constitution of
India
(4) The Fundamental Duties can be enforced by Writs
Assertion (A) : No person is eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India
and has completed the age of Thirty Five Years.
Reason (R) : He is debarred from holding any other office of profit during his term of office.
Code :

5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the provisions of the Constitution
of India ?
(1) Art 352… Effect of proclamation of Emergency
(2) Art 353… Application of provisions relating to distribution of revenues while a proclamation
is in operation
(3) Art 354… Determination of executive powers of the Union, during emergency
(4) Art 355… Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal
disturbance
6. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to constitutional amendment ?
(1) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act …… 1956.
(2) The Constitution (Fourteenth Amendment) Act…… 1962.
(3) The Constitution (Thirty First Amendment) Act…… 1973.
(4) The Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act…… 1975.
7. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below the lists :
List–I List–II
(a) The principles of constructive (i) Woman’s Education Trust V.State of
res judicata are also applicable Haryana
to writ petition
(b) Writ petition dismissed for want (ii) M. Nagabhushana V. State of Karnataka
of prosecution can be restored
(c) Direction given by the High Court (iii) Ratan Singh V. State of Rajasthan
under Article 226 cannot be
altered by the State Government
Rajasthan
(d) The disposal of several writ (iv) V. Porukutty Mannadissior V. State of Kerala
petitions in a batch by a single
order would be permissible if facts
of all cases are similar or almost
similar
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
8. “Judges do not make law, but only declare what has always been law.” This statement is of :
(1) Salmond (2) Blackstone
(3) Willis (4) Allen

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct in regard to a valid custom ?

(a) The custom has to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity.
(b) The custom must have been enjoyed ‘as of right’.
(c) The custom need not to be consistent with other custom in the same area.
(d) The custom must be certain and precise.
Code :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct. (2) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List–I : (Theory) List-II : (Jurist)
(a) Scientific Positivism (i) Herbert Spencer
(b) Social Solidarity (ii) Gierke
(c) Organic Theory of Society (iii) Auguste Compte
(d) Theory of reality of group (iv) Duguit
personality
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
11. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List–I List–II
(Jural correlatives)
(a) Right (i) Liability
(b) Privilege (ii) Disability
(c) Power (iii) Duty
(d) Immunity (iv) No-right
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
12. “Ownership denotes the relation between a person and an object forming the subject-matter of
his ownership.”
This observation was made by :
(1) Salmond (2) Pound
(3) Holland (4) Savigny

13. Read the following statements and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : A perfect duty is one which a person not merely ought to perform, but may be
justly compelled to perform.
Reason (R) : A perfect duty is one which is not merely recognised by law but enforceable.
Code :
(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
14. In which of the following cases Judge Alvarez has aptly remarked, “The fundamental principles
of international law are passing through a serious crisis and this necessitates its reconstruction.
A new international law is developing which embodies not only this reconstruction but also some
entirely new elements” ?
(1) Anglo–Norwegian Fisheries Case
(2) Aegean Sea Continental Shelf Case
(3) Conditions of admission of a State to the United States
(4) International Status of South West Africa

(a) The words ‘International Law’ were used for the first time by eminent British Jurist, Jermy
Bentham in 1780.
(b) J.S. Starke has remarked that international law is a “living and expanding code.”
(c) Prof. Oppenheim has remarked that international law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence.
(d) Holland has viewed that International law is mere a positive morality.
Code :
(1) Only (c) is incorrect. (2) (a) and (d) both are incorrect.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are only incorrect. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect.
16. Which of the following is not a theory of relationship between international law and municipal law?
(1) Specific Adoption Theory (2) Delegation Theory
(3) Declaratory Theory (4) Monism
17. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below the lists :
List–I List–II
(a) Decision given by the Permanent (i) The Right of Minorities in the upper Silesia
Court of Arbitration (Minority schools)
(b) The principle/doctrine of Forum (ii) Pious Fund case
Prorogatum was enunciated in
the case
(c) A leading case on “reprisal“ is : (iii) The Asylum (Colombia v. Peru) case
(d) Case decided by International (iv) Naulilaa Incident
Court of Justice under
‘Contentious Jurisdiction’
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
18. Which of the following cases are not related to “recognition” ?

(a) Civil Air Transport Incorporated Co. v. Central Air Transport Corporation
(b) The Azantzazu Mendi case
(c) Barcelona Traction case
(d) United States v. Schooner
Code :
(1) Only (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) both (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all

(a) The most important purpose of the United Nations is to maintain international peace and
security.
(b) The principles of the United Nations are provided under Article 2 of the U. N. Charter.
(c) Section 6 of the U. N. Charter provides for provisions to withdraw of a Member-Slate from
the United Nations.
(d) There are five (5) principal organs of the United Nations.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct. (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct. (4) Only (a) and (b) are correct.
20. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that “it is now well established that in the
absence of any rule of Hindu Law, the court have authority to decide cases on the principle of
justice, equity and good conscience” ?
(1) Gurunath v. Kamlabai (2) Lohar Amrit v. Doshi Janti Lal
(3) Sarastivali v. Jagadammbai (4) Munna Lal v. Rajkumar
21. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the code given below :
List–I List–II
(a) Vishwanath Agarwal vs Sarla (i) Divorce by mutual consent
Agarwal
(b) Geeta Maugalani v Jagdesh (ii) Saptapadi
Maugalani
(c) Manish Goel vs Rohini Goel (iii) Cruelty
(d) Vishnu Prakash v Sheela Devi (iv) Desertion

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
22. A Hindu Contracting Second Marriage during pendency of appeal against the decree of divorce
is :
(1) Valid (2) Invalid
(3) Factum valid (4) Void
23. A Married Hindu Contracting Second Marriage after professing Islam, would be guilty of offence
punishable under :
(1) Section 17 HM Act 1955 only
(2) Section 494 IPC only
(3) Section 17 HM Act read with S.494 IPC
(4) Neither S.17 nor S.494.IPC
24. Which is not the modern source of Hindu Law ?

(1) Precedent (2) Legislation
(3) Dharamshastra (4) Justice, equity and good conscience
25. In which of the following case, the Supreme court held that “Triple Talaq” would be treated as a
“Single Talaq” and not a valid talaq ?
(1) Bai Tahira Case (2) Fazlunbi Case
(3) Mohd Ahmad Khan Case (4) Shamim Ara Case
26. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code given below :
Assertion (A) : An agreement would be void if both the parties to the agreement were under a
mistake as to a matter of fact not essential to the agreement.
Reason (R) : Because Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act so provides.
Code :
(1) (R) is correct , but (A) is incorrect. (2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
List–I List–II
(a) Lapse of offer (i) Week v. Tybald
(b) General offers (ii) Henthorn v. Fraser
(c) Communication of proposal (iii) Coffee Board v. CCT
(d) Implied proposal (iv) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Datt

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
28. “Consideration is the recompense given by the party contracting to the other” :
Above definition is attributed to __________.
(1) Pollock (2) Justice Patterson
(3) Cheshire and Fifoot (4) Blackstone

(1) Acceptance may be made in the manner prescribed or indicated by the offerer.
(2) Acceptance has to be made in the manner prescribed or indicated by the offeree.
(3) Acceptance has to be made in the manner prescribed or indicated by the offerer.
(4) Acceptance need not be made in the manner prescribed or indicated by the offerer.
30. In which of the following cases law of frustration was applied ? Answer using code given below:
(a) Paradine v. Jane
(b) Taylor v. Caldwell
(c) Krell v. Henry
(d) Cricklewood Property and Investment Trust Ltd. v. Leighton’s Investment Trust Ltd.
Code :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) ,(c) and (d)
31. Which one of the following cases enshrine the present position of the doctrine of public policy in
India ?
(1) Ramchand Hirachand v. Askar Nawaz Jung
(2) Gherulal Parakh v. Mahadeodas
(3) Muniammal v. Raja
(4) Geeta Satish Gokarna v. Satish Shankarrao Gokarna
32. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code given below :
Assertion (A) : A contract is a property in the nature of a promise supported by some consideration
upon which either the remedy of specific performance or that of damages is available.
Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Sunrise Associates v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (4) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.

33. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? Answer by using the code below :
(a) In tort duty is imposed by law and is owed to the community at large.
(b) A tort is founded upon consent of parties.
(c) A tort is civil wrong for which the remedy is a common law action for liquidated damages.
(d) In tort ‘motive’ for the violation of right is immaterial.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct. (2) (a) and (b) are correct.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
34. Match List–I (Name of defence) with List–II (Related case) and give the answer by using the code
given below :
List–I List–II
(a) Plaintiff a wrongdoer (i) Nichols v. Marsland
(b) Act of God (ii) Bird v. Holbrook
(c) Inevitable accident (iii) Consolidated Co. v. Curtis
(d) Mistake (iv) Stanley v. Powell
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
35. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer with the help of code given below:
Assertion (A) : The relations of partners inter se is that of principal and agent.
Reason (R) : The rules of the law of agency does not apply in case of their liability.
Code :
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right
36. A servant is engaged by the master under __________.

(1) Contract of service (2) Contract for services
(3) Contract from services (4) Contract in services
37. Match List–I (Name of Rule) with List–II (Related case) and give correct answer by using code
given below :
List–I List–II
(a) Last opportunity (i) Bernina Mills v. Armstrong
(b) Apportionment of damages (ii) Davies v. Mann
(c) Alternative danger (iii) Shyam sunder v. State of Rajasthan
(d) Identification (iv) Vidya Devi v. M.P. Road Transport Corporation

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
38. Which of the following is an exception to the rule of strict liability ?

(1) Defendant’s own fault (2) Statutory authority
(3) Consent of third party (4) Act of defendant
39. Match the appropriate statements with that of its authors :

Statement Author
(a) The behaviour as criminal is part (i) Klare H. J.
of the political process
(b) Disobedience of law may be (ii) Huda
termed as a crime
(c) Crime is not absolute like sin (iii) Terence Morris
(d) Crime is an act committed or (iv) Blackstone law
omitted in violation of a public
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
40. In the absence of any evidence as to the mens rea, in which of the cases the criminal liability
can be fixed upon a person ?
(1) Where the consequences are not so harmful to the society.
(2) Where there is no violent presumption.
(3) The intended consequence is not injurious but conjointly injurious on other facts.
(4) Where an act is not performed wantonly.
41. In the application of the principle ‘Nemo debet proeadem causa bis vexari’, what enquiries are
relevant ?
(1) Whether the accused is not in jeopardy on the first indictment ?
(2) Whether there was final verdict ?
(3) Whether the previous charge was not the same as that of the present one ?
(4) Whether the statute directs not to have a second trial ?

42. Read the following statements and state where the principles of joint liability is applied instantly
flowing from mens rea ?
(1) When he himself commits a crime.
(2) When he shares in the commission of crime.
(3) When he, with a view to the commission of crime, sets some third agency to work.
(4) When he helps the offender after commission of the crime in screening the offence.
43. Acts done in moments of delusion are protected because :

(1) By virtue of absence of free will.
(2) Lack of intelligence to distinguish between good and evil.
(3) Expediency grounds says so.
(4) Circumstances are such that they are incompatible to the existence of Mens rea.
44. Which of the factors are essential for fixing criminal liability on importing girls from different
territory other than India for seduction ?
(1) That girl must be below the age of 21 years.
(2) That imported girl must be from Indian origin irrespective of age.
(3) That girl must be from Jammu and Kashmir or any other UN recognised country and is
brought forcefully to render domestic help.
(4) That girl is on a tourist Visa and above 21 years and is likely that she will be forced to
illicit intercourse.
Assertion (A) : There is a more continuous and systematic surveillance over industrial disputes
on the part of the government by resorting to compulsory adjudications as the tradition of free
collective bargaining has always been weak in India .
Reason (R) : With respect to the merits and demerits of collective bargaining Vis-a-Vis
compulsory adjudications there is a serious conflict and over lapping of views .
Code :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
46. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list :
List–I List–II
(a) Food corporation of India staff (i) Settlements are the “live wires” of the Act
union v. Food corporation of India for ensuring industrial peace and prosperity.
and others
(b) Virudhachalam v. Management of (ii) An unregistered trade union or trade union
Lotus Mills whose registration has been cancelled has
no right.
(c) B. Srinivasa Reddy v. Karnataka (iii) Reflection of recent judicial trends on the
water Supply and Drianage Board interpretation of definition of industry.
Employees Association
(d) Coir Board, Ernakulam, Cochin (iv) Norms and procedure to be followed for
and another v. Indira Devi P.S. assessing the representative character of
and others Trade Union by a secret ballot system
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
47. Which one of the following is wrong ?

(1) The right to strike or declare lock-out may be controlled or restricted by appropriate
industrial legislation.
(2) The conciliation officers under the industrial disputes Act are charged with the duty of
adjudication of disputes.
(3) An interim award is like a preliminary decree within the meaning of Section 2 (2) of Code
of Civil Procedure.
(4) The Works Committee is not authorised to consider real or substantial changes in the
conditions of service.
48. The Fifth Schedule, under the Industrial Disputes Act contains several unfair labour practices. In
which of the conditions of category I, it is required to establish that Employer Sponsored Trade
Union of workmen is said to be Unfair Labour Practice ?
(1) Employees or their Trade Union (2) Employee only
(3) Employers or their Trade Union (4) Employer and Employee Collectively
49. When a party to dispute under the Industrial Disputes Act is prevented from appearing at the
hearing, due to sufficient cause and is faced with exparte award, the Industrial Tribunal has :
(1) no power to set aside the exparte award.
(2) only duty to set aside the exparte award.
(3) both power and duty to set aside the exparte award which is based on the rule of statutory
construction.
(4) express provision in the Act or rules giving the tribunal the jurisdiction to set aside the
award.
50. “The concept of compulsory adjudication of industrial disputes was statutorily ushered with a view
to providing a forum and compelling the parties to resort to the forum for arbitration, so as to avoid
confrontation and dislocation in industry.”
The above observation was made by one of the justice in a case decided by the Supreme Court:
(1) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer (2) Justice O. Chinnappa Reddy
(3) Justice Desai (4) Justice Gajendragadkar

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 3 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 4 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 4 3 3 4 4 3 4 3 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 2 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 2 4 1 1 1 2 3 3 3

Law Paper - III (Nov. 2017)
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper (Nov. 2017)
Time : 2½ hours Paper-III Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions, each question carries
two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. Answer the following by using code given below.

‘Economic Justice’ is one of the objectives of the Constitution of India. It has been provided in
(a) Preamble (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Duties
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (a) and (c) are correct
(3) (b) and (c) are correct (4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
2. Arrange the following decided cases in a chronological order and answer by using the code given
below :
(a) Union of India v. N.S. Rathnam and others
(b) Basawaraj v. Special Land Acquisition Officer
(c) Usha Mehta v. Government of A.P
(d) City Industrial Development v. Platinum Entertainment
Code :
(1) (c), (b), (d), (a) (2) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(3) (d), (b), (c), (a) (4) (b), (c), (a), (d)
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India under Article 40 states that The State shall take steps
to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be
necessary to enable them to function as units of self government.
Reason (R) : This directive gives an assurance that every village where maximum people live,
has to be made an autonomous republic, self-sufficient, self-sustaining and capable of managing
its own affairs.
Code :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

4. Which of the following statements are correct ? Answer by using the code given below.
(a) Persons in Govt/Judicial service need not resign to participate in District Judge selection
process held in “Vijay Kumar Misra and another v. High court of Judicature at Patna” by
the Supreme Court of India
(b) The Supreme Court of India held in S. Kazi v. Muslim education society that “All Tribunals
are not necessary parties to the proceedings where legality of its orders challenged
(c) The Supreme Court of India observed in Cardamom Marketing Corporation and others v.
State of Kerala and others that Social Security to the legal profession becomes an essential
part of legal system
(d) The Supreme Court of India held in ‘Union of India v. Rajasthan High Court and others that
High Court Judges are exempted from Airport frisking.
Code :
(1) Only (b) is correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to the provisions of the Constitution
of India ?
(1) Art 118……Duration of parliament
(2) Art 119……Restriction on discussion in Parliament
(3) Art 120……Language to be used in Parliament
(4) Art 121……courts not to inquire into the Proceedings of Parliament
List–I List–II
(Constitutional Provision) (Subject)
(a) Article 249 (i) Power of Parliament to legislate for two or
more States by consent and adoption of such
legislation by any other State
(b) Article 250 (ii) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect
to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation
of Emergency is in operation
(c) Article 252 (iii) Legislation for giving effect to international
agreements
(d) Article 253 (iv) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect
to a matter in the State List in the national
interest
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill ? Give
correct answer by using the code given below :
(a) Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional Amendment
Bill in Parliament
(b) Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
(c) President is bound to give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both Houses of Parliament
and ratified, if required, by the Legislatures of not less than one–half of the States
(d) President may return the Bill to the Houses for reconsideration
Code :
(1) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
List–I List–II
(a) Article 324(1) (i) Composition of Election Commission
(b) Article 324(2) (ii) Appointment of Regional Commissioners
(c) Article 324(4) (iii) Powers vested in the Election Commission
(d) Article 324(5) (iv) Conditions of service and tenure of office of
Election Commission
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
9. Administrative Law as a separate branch of legal discipline, especially in India, came to be

recognised in the middle of :
(1) 17th century (2) 18th century
(3) 19th century (4) 20th century
Assertion (A) : Natural justice is justice of the nature where the lion devours the lamb and the
tiger feeds upon the antelope
Reason (R) : Above statement is taken from Union of India V. Tulsiram Patel
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct (2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
(3) (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
11. In which of the following cases, underwritten quotation is taken from ? “Principles of natural
justice must be read into the provision of law”.
(1) State of U.P. v. Vijay Kumar Tripathi
(2) P. Satyanarayana v. Land Reforms Tribunal
(3) I.T.C. v. State of Madras
(4) Manjula Manjari Devi v. Director of Public Instruction

12. Match List–I (Name of Principle) with List–II (Related Case) and answer by using the code below:
List–I List–II
(a) Res judicata (i) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
(b) Legitimate expectation (ii) Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of
Uttar Pradesh
(c) Promissory estoppel (iii) Daryao v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Locus standi (iv) Monnet Ispat and Energy Ltd. v. Union of India
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
13. Which of the following is a ground for judicially attacking the exercise of administrative discretion?
Answer by using code below :
(a) Ultra vires the law (b) Mala fide intent
(c) Arbitrariness (d) Irrelevant considerations
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (b) and (c) are correct
14. “Writ of certiorari can be issued to quash actions which are administrative in nature”.
Above principle was laid down in :
(1) Indian Rly. Construction Co. Ltd v. Ajay Kumar
(2) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
(3) Union of India v. Bashyan
(4) Rajesh Kumar v. C.I.T.
A. K. Kraipak & Ors. Etc vs Union Of India & Ors on 29 April, 1969
15. Which is the qualification of a judicial member of Lokpal ?

(1) A member of Parliament (2) A member of State Legislature
(3) A retired High Court judge (4) A retired Chief Justice of a High Court
16. “I think adherence to precedent should be the rule and not the exception”. This statement is of:
(1) Keeton (2) Blackston
(3) Cardozo (4) Paton
17. Which one of the following jurists was hostile to the natural law school ?
(1) Emmanuel Kant (2) John Rawls
(3) Jeremy Bentham (4) Stammeler

List–I List–II
(a) Utilitarian Individualism (i) Pound
(b) Social Utilitarian (ii) Bentham
(c) Scientific Positivism (iii) Ihering
(d) Social Engineering (iv) Comte
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
19. Which one of the following sources of law has the basis under Article 141 of the Constitution of
India ?
(1) Supreme legislation (2) Subordinate legislation
(3) Colonial legislation (4) Precedent
20. Which one of the following jurists is not related to Historical school ?
(1) Savigny (2) Ehrlich
(3) Henry Main (4) Hegel
21. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer using code given below :
Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally protected interest
Reason (R) : An element of advantage is essential to constitute right
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (R) is right but (A) is wrong
22. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
List–I List–II
(a) Inner morality of Law (i) Maine
(b) Minimum content of law (ii) Stammler
(c) Law with a variable Content (iii) Fuller
(d) ‘Status to contract’ Theory (iv) Hart
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

List–I : (Theory) List–II : (Subject)
(a) Will Theory (i) Legal Person
(b) Concession Theory (ii) Analytical School
(c) Declaratory Theory (iii) Legal Right
(d) Command Theory (iv) Precedent
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
24. The Self evident principle of criminal justice is based on :

(1) Nullum crimen sine lege, nulla poena sine lege
(2) Perils of his life and liberty on refusal of bail
(3) Simple Principles based on corrective law
(4) To avoid purposeless cruelty
25. What is the basic justification on the law of conspiracy ?

(1) It does not allow a preventive action because an act of conspiracy is derived when the
crime results
(2) It dispenses the difficult requirement of proximity in attempt
(3) The momentum justifies punishment
(4) The object is simply to make of a crime
26. Which one of the expressive factors does not constitute sedition ?
(1) Disapprobation of the government
(2) Excite disrespect against government
(3) Commenting on administrative actions of the government
(4) Attempting to excite disaffection against government
27. The right to private defence against an act done by a public servant is not available :
(1) When it is discharged in good faith
(2) When it is attempted to be done by him
(3) When it was done while he was not in his office
(4) When it is strictly to be justifiable by law
28. Which of the conditions are essential for enhanced punishment to an offender with previous
conviction ?
(1) The previous conviction must have been for not less than 3 years of imprisonment
(2) The subsequent offence is not punishable with imprisonment for more than 3 years
(3) The offence must be an offence relating to property or coin or government stamp
(4) The previous conviction was not in India
29. Non–Compos mentis denotes :

(1) Every person is considered to be sane unless contrary is proved
(2) When a criminal act is performed during derrangement
(3) When the cognitive facilities are such that he does not know what he has done
(4) Non–serene memory not from birth
30. In which of the conditions the act will not be wrongful confinement ?
(1) Circumscribing limits (2) Malice
(3) Moral force (4) Mistaken exercise of power

(1) A publisher is responsible for publishing a defamatory statement for first time only and not
for repeating it
(2) Only editor and not printer and publisher are responsible for that defamatory statement in
the newspaper
(3) Defamatory imputation concerning any person may be conveyed obliquely or indirectly, or
by way of question, conjecture, exclamation or by irony
(4) The court does not distinguish between “character” and “reputation” for fixing liability
against defamation
Assertion (A) : Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable
development and as such polluter in liable to pay the cost of the individual sufferers as well as
the cost of reversing the damaged ecology
Reason (R) : “Polluter pays principle” is part of the environmental jurisprudence of this country
Code :
33. Which one of the following principle is associated with “Trial Smelter” case ?
(1) Principle of sustainable development
(2) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes
in the territory of another
(3) Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable
development
(4) Placing a duty on the State to hold environmental resources in trust for the benefit of public

34. Match List–I with List–II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List–I List–II
(a) National Environmental Tribunal (i) Basel Convention, 1989
(b) “Doctrine of Sic utere tuo ut (ii) Rio Declaration
alienum non leadas”
(c) To stop and prevent the (iii) Kyoto Protocol, 1997
international traffic in dumping
and resultant accumulation of
toxic and dangerous products
and wastes
(d) Convention or climate change (iv) Principle 21 and 22 of Stockhalm
strengthened Declarations
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
35. Which one of the following statement is wrong ?

(1) Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment which is a facet of the right
to life guaranteed under Art 21 of the Constitution of India
(2) The power conferred under an Environmental Statute may be exercised only to advance
Environment Protection and not for a purpose that would defeat the object of the law
(3) Financial constraints of the government may be a reasonable factor to exonerate the
Government/Municipal bodies from performing its statutory liability
(4) Precautionary principle imposes the onus of proof on the developer to show his or her
action is environmentally benign
36. The Supreme Court in which one of the following cases observed that, “the issue of pollution
should not be resolved at the cost of the poor people’s livelihood“ ?
(1) Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India
(2) Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardichand
(3) M.C. Metha v. Union of India
(4) T.N. Godavarman Thimmulpaad v. Union of India
37. Under the Wild Life Protection Act, the boundaries of a National Park shall be made in one of the
following way :
(1) By passing a resolution in the Parliament
(2) By passing a resolution in the Legislature of a State
(3) By passing a resolution both in the Parliament and State Legislature
(4) By passing a resolution in the Municipal Body and State Legislature

38. ‘Basel Convention’ is associated with one of the following conventions on :

(1) International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(2) The control of transboundary movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal
(3) Climate Change
(4) Protection of the ozone layer
39. Which of the following jurists deny legal character of international law ?
(a) Hobbes (b) Pufendorf
(c) Oppenheim (d) Starke
Code :
(1) Only (a) (2) Both (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all
40. In which of the following cases the world court by majority has taken the view that the sources
of law are not hierarchical but are necessarily complementary and inter related ?
(1) Nicaragua v. U.S.A
(2) Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali)
(3) Portugal v. India
(4) Case concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear
41. Who of the following has viewed that there is legal duty on the part of the existing states to
recognise any community that has in fact acquired the characteristics of Statehood ?
(1) Oppenheim (2) Lauterpacht
(3) Philip C. Jessup (4) Anzilloti

(a) In Nottebohm’s case the International Court of Justice held that in respect of grant of
nationality there is no obligation of the states if that man has no relationship with the State
of Naturalisation
(b) In famous Re lynch case it was held that if a person is not a citizen of any state he will
be called Stateless
(c) Nationality is the principal link between an individual and international law
(d) The Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness was adopted in 1959 by the General
Assembly
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a) and (c) both are correct
below :
Assertion (A) : It is a very important principle of International Law that extradition for political
crimes is not allowed.
Reason (R) : Stoeck v. The Public Trustee is a leading case relating to non - extradition of
political criminals.
Code :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

(a) United Nations Declaration on Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted in 1977 by the
General Assembly
(b) Article 14 of the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights makes obligatory by states
to grant Asylum
(c) The international court of justice explained the distinction between ‘Territorial asylum’ and
‘diplomatic asylum’ in the Colombia v. Perus
(d) The Convention on the status of Refugees, 1951 entered into force on April 22, 1954
Code :
(1) Only (a) is not correct
(2) (a) and (d) are not correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) all are not correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct

(a) The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations. Each member
may not have not more than five representatives in the General Assembly
(b) China, Russia, America, Britain and Italy are the permanent members of the security
Council
(c) The members of the Economic and Social Council are elected by the security council,
one–third of its members are elected every year by the security council for a term of five
years
(d) All members of the United Nations are ipso facto the members of the Statute of International
Court of Justice
Code :
(1) Only (a) and (d) are correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
46. Advisory opinion can be given by the International Court of Justice on legal question :
(1) On the request of Security Council only
(2) On the request of the General Assembly only
(3) On the request of General Assembly or the Security Council both
(4) On the request of the Economic and Social Council if authorised by the Security Council
47. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : In Mithila, a widow cannot adopt at all, not even if she has the express authority
of her husband.
Reason (R) : A widow may adopt under the authority from her husband.
Code :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is correct

48. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that “We are not prepared to express
any definite opinion on the question whether there can be two Karta of a Joint Hindu Family”.
(1) Morarka Properties v. Biharilal Morarka
(2) Union of India v. Sree Ram Bohra
(3) Nopany Investment v. Santosh Singh
(4) Commissioner of Income Tax v. Govindram Sugar Mills
49. In which of the following case, the court held that, “Divorce is good in law through bad in
Theology” ?
(1) Shah Bano case (2) Bai Tahira case
(3) Shamim Ara case (4) Sarabai case
50. In Muslim law “Hizanat” related to :

(1) Father’s custody of child (2) Brother’s custody of child
(3) Mother’s custody of child (4) Sister’s custody of child
51. Match the List–I with List–II and indicate the correct answer using the code given below :
List–I List–II
(a) Nijhawan v Nijhawan (i) Dowry
(b) Daniel Latifi v Union of India (ii) Uniform civil code
(c) Husain Ara v Zubaida Begum (iii) Cruelty
(d) Gujarat Woman Workers (iv) Maintenance
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Assertion (A) : ‘Option of Puberty’ is an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu
Law.
Reason (R) : “Option of Puberty” is not an easy process to repudiate the marriage under
Muslim Law.
Code :
(3) (A) is correct (R) is false
(4) (A) is false (R) is correct
53. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 brought various grounds for dissolution of marriage
based on the principles of :
(1) Shia Schools (2) Hanafi School
(3) Shafai School (4) Maliki School

54. A muslim husband has E–mailed Talaq letter writing “I divorce you, I divorce you, I divorce you,”
without the signature of witnesses, Talaq will be :
(1) Valid (2) Voidable
(3) Void (4) Neither valid nor void or no talaq
55. Sec 2(d) of ‘The protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines ,”human rights” means the rights
relating to __________ of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the
International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. Fill in the blank.
(1) Life, Liberty, Equality and Dignity (2) Life, Equality, Liberty and Dignity
(3) Life, Equality, Dignity and Liberty (4) Life, Liberty, Dignity and Equality
56. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to National Human Rights
Commission of India, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 ?
(1) Sec 3……Appointment of chairperson and other members
(2) Sec 4……Removal of a member of the commission
(3) Sec 5……Member to act as chairperson in certain times
(4) Sec 6……Term of office of members
57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to the duration of the
position of the members/chairpersons of N.H.R.C of India ?
(1) Justice S. Rajendra Babu - 02.04.2007 to 31.05.2009
(2) Justice K.G. Bala Krishnan - 07.06.2010 to 11.05.2015
(3) Justice Ms.M. Fathima Beevi- 03.11.1993 to 24.01.1997
(4) Justice V.S. Malimath - 05.08.1994 to 12.10.1998
58. Match List–I with List–II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List–I List–II
(a) Optional Protocol to the (i) Proclaimed by the U.N General
Convention the Elimination of Assembly resolution 3318 (XXIX) of
All Forms of Discrimination Women 14 December, 1974
against
(b) Declaration on the Elimination of (ii) Adopted and opened for signature, ratification
violence against women and accession by the U.N. General Assembly
resolution 34/180 of 18 December, 1979
(c) Convention on the Elimination of (iii) Proclaimed by the U.N General of Assembly
All forms Discrimination against resolution 48/104 of 20 December, 1993
Women
(d) Declaration on the protection of (iv) Adopted by the U.N General
women and children in Emergency Assembly Resolution 54/4 of 6 october, 1999
and Armed conflict and opened for signature, ratification and
accession on 10 December, 1999

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
59. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?

(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Rights of the Child on the involvement of
Children in Armed Conflict was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession
by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 54/263 of 25 May, 2000
(b) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 (No.182) was adopted on 15 June, 1999
by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its eighty - seventh
session
(c) Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138) was adopted on 26 August, 1973 by the General
Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its Fifty Eighth session
(d) Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted and opened for signature, ratification
and accession by the United Nations General Council Resolution 44/25 of 20 November,
1989
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
(2) (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
(3) (a) and (b) are incorrect
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect
60. The division of Human Rights into three generations was initially proposed in 1979 by one of the
following Czech Jurist at the International Institute of Human Rights in Strasbourg ?
(1) Karel Vasak (2) Charles O. Lee
(3) Maurice Cranston (4) Frederic Bastial
61. Arrange the following decided cases on the right to health in a chronological order and choose
the answer by using the code given below :
(a) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal
(b) Paramananda Katara v. Union of India
(c) Social Jurists v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi
(d) Sahara House v. Union of India
Code :
(1) (b), (a), (c), (d) (2) (d), (a), (b), (c)
(3) (b), (d), (c), (a) (4) (c), (d), (a), (b)

62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to ‘absolute liability’ principle laid
down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India. Answer by using the code below :
(a) The principle was approved except as to quantum of damages in Charan Lal Sahu v.
Union of India
(b) The principle in determining compensation was applied in Union Carbide Corporation v.
Union of India
(c) The compensation to be awarded must have some broad correlation not only with
magnitude and capacity of the enterprise but also with the harm caused by it was held
in Deepak Nitrite v. State of Gujrat.
(d) The principle is not followed in India because Parliament could not pass yet Public Liability
Insurance Bill, 1991
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a) and (b) are correct
63. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?

(1) Defamation published in permanent form - Slander
(2) Libel is recognized as offence–England
(3) Truth of defamatory matter is no defence–Civil law
(4) Action lies for defamatory statement–Absolute Privilege
64. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code below :
Assertion (A) : The existence of a duty to take care is essential before a person can be held
liable in negligence.
Reason (R) : The standard of care required is not a matter of law and does vary according to
the individuals although it does not vary according to the circumstances.
Code :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
65. Match List–I with List–II with regard to tort of nuisance and answer by using code below :
List–I List–II
(a) Burden of proof, once nuisance (i) Prescription
is proved
(b) Remedy for the private nuisance (ii) Occupier
(c) Right to action for nuisance of a (iii) Abatement nature
temporary
(d) Right to commit a private (iv) Defendant be acquired
nuisance may

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
66. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code below :
Assertion (A) : According to the ‘law of tort’ every wrongful act for which there is no justification
or excuse to be treated as a tort.
Reason (R) : Theory of ‘pigeon - hole’ was propounded by Salmond.
Code :
67. The provisions of the Consumer Protection Act shall be :

(1) Only in derogation of other law
(2) No addition to other law
(3) Not in addition and in derogation of other law
(4) In addition to and not in derogation of other law
68. Section 19 – A of the Consumer Protection Act provides that State and National Commissions
shall hear as expeditiously as possible and an endeavour shall be made to finally dispose of the
appeal within ninety days from the date of its admission. The Section further empowers the
Commissions to make following orders ; answer by using code below :
(a) Ordinarily grant no adjournment unless sufficient cause
(b) To impose costs occasioned by adjournment
(c) Record the reason for delay while disposing of the appeal
(d) Dispose of the appeal ex parte
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
69. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using code below :
Assertion (A) : Where a bill is unintentionally cancelled by the holder or his agent and the
cancellation is not apparent thereon, the bill is discharged.
Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Section 82 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are wrong (2) Both (A) and (R) are right
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong (4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right

List–I List–II
(a) Partnership not created by status (i) CST v. K. Kelukutty
(b) Essentials of partnership (ii) Kshetra Mohan v. Commr. of Excess Profit
Tax
(c) Joint Hindu Family and partnership (iii) Rakesh Kumar Dinesh Kumar v. U.G. Hotels
and Resorts Ltd.
(d) Partnership between outsiders (iv) Ganpat v. Annaji
and joint family
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
List–I List–II
(Duties of partners) (Relevant section under the Indian
Partnership Act)
(a) Duty of absolute good faith (i) Section 16 (b)
(b) Duty not to compete (ii) Sections 12 (b) and 13 (f)
(c) Duty of due diligence (iii) Section 10
(d) Duty to indemnify for fraud (iv) Section 9
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Assertion (A) : “Goods” means every kind of movable property including actionable claims and
money and excludes stock and shares, growing crops, grass and things attached to or forming
part of the land which are agreed to be severed before sale or under the contract of sale.
Reason (R) : Above principle is laid down in Section 2 (7) of the Sale of Goods Act.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right (2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(3) (A) is wrong but, (R) is right (4) (A) is right but, (R) is wrong


(1) Notwithstanding any express contract the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until
the buyer applies for delivery
(2) Apart from any express contract, the seller of goods is not bound to deliver them until the
buyer applies for delivery
(3) Apart from any express contract the seller of goods is bound to deliver them until the
buyer applies for deliver
(4) Apart from any express contract, the buyer of goods is bound to deliver them when the
seller applies for delivery
74. “Directors are agents of the company”.

In which of the following cases above principle was laid down. Answer using code given below:
(a) Ferguson v. Wilson (b) Elkington and Co. v. Harter
(c) Hampshire Land Co, re (d) Allen v. Hyatt
Code :
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
75. Which of the following case is about doctrine of ultra vires ?

(1) Royal British Bank v.Turquand
(2) Premier Industrial Bank Ltd. v. Carlton Mfg. Co. Ltd.
(3) Rajendra Nath Dutta v. Shibendra Nath Mukherjee
(4) Attorney General v. Great Eastern Railway Co.
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 1 1 2 3 2 2 1 4 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 4 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 4 3 3 1 3 1 1 4 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 2 4 4 1 4 4 1 2 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1 3 2 3 4 2 4 2 1 1
71 72 73 74 75
2 2 2 4 4
Note : 9 = No option is correct or the question is wrong, A = 1 and 2, B = 1 and 3, C = 1 and 4, D = 1, 2 and
3, E = 1, 2 and 4, F = 1, 3 and 4, G = 1, 2, 3 and 4, H = 2 and 3, I = 2 and 4, J = 2, 3 and 4, K = 3 and 4.

General Paper-I (Jan. 2017)

Previous Year Solved Paper (Jan. 2017) [Code - X]
Note : This paper contains sixty (60) objective type questions, each question carries two (2)
marks. Attempt any fifty (50) questions.
1. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe in:
(1) indeterminate messages (2) verbal messages
(3) nonverbal messages (4) aggressive messages
2. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being :

(1) Sedentary (2) Staggered
(3) Factual (4) Sectoral
3. Expressive communication is driven by :

(1) Passive aggression (2) Encoder’s personality characteristics
(3) External clues (4) Encoder-decoder contract
4. Positive classroom communication leads to :

(1) Coercion (2) Submission
(3) Confrontation (4) Persuasion
5. Classroom communication is the basis of :

(1) Social identity (2) External inanities
(3) Biased passivity (4) Group aggression
6. Effective communication presupposes :

(1) Non-alignment (2) Domination
(3) Passivity (4) Understanding
7. The next term in the following series :

YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? will be
(1) TLO (2) QOL
(3) QLO (4) GQP
8. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E and C as S, then

the code of COMPANIES will be :
(1) SPEINMOAC (2) NCPSEIOMA
(3) SMOPIEACN (4) SEINCPAMO

9. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data :

(1) Number of languages a person speaks
(2) Number of children in a household
(3) Population of cities
(4) Weight of students in a class
10. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays ` 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup,
two pencil boxes and a glass and pays ` 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glasses, a cup
and two pencil boxes and pays ` 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups will be :
(1) ` 40 (2) ` 60
(3) ` 80 (4) ` 70
11. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different.
Identify the odd one :
(1) Lucknow (2) Rishikesh
(3) Allahabad (4) Patna
12. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic
which is not of deductive reasoning :
(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.
(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.
(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.
(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.
13. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, … is :
(1) 30 (2) 49
(3) 125 (4) 81
14. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered
inferior or superior to the other, any more than a bird’s wings can be considered superior or
inferior to a fish’s fins. What type of argument it is ?
(1) Biological (2) Physiological
(3) Analogical (4) Hypothetical
15. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true
but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions.
Propositions :
(1) Every student is attentive.
(2) Some students are attentive.
(3) Students are never attentive.
(4) Some students are not attentive.
Codes :
(1) (1) and (2) (2) (1) and (3)
(3) (2) and (3) (4) (3) and (4)

16. Given below are two premises ((1) and (2)). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii),
(iii) & (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises
(taking singly or jointly.)
Premises : (1) Untouchability is a curse.
(2) All hot pans are untouchable.
Conclusions : (i) All hot pans are curse.
(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.
(iii) All curses are untouchability.
(iv) Some curses are untouchability.
Codes :
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)
17. If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false which of the following statements can
be claimed to be true ?
Select the correct code :
(1) All brave persons win the race.
(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.
(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.
(4) No person who wins the race is brave.
18. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are related in
such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what is their
relation?
(1) Contrary (2) Subcontrary
(3) Contradictory (4) Sub-altern
Direction (19-21) : The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (` in lakh) generated
by a publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and journals as
three categories of items. Answer questions 19 – 21 based on the data contained in the table.
Sales Revenue (` in lakh)

Year
2012 2013 2014 2015
Items 
Journals 46 47 45 44
Magazines 31 39 46 51
Books 73 77 78 78
Total
19. The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories of
items, is :
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

20. If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year 2015
over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately :
(1) ` 194 lakh (2) ` 187 lakh
(3) ` 172 lakh (4) ` 177 lakh
21. In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books ?
(1) 45% (2) 55%
(3) 35% (4) 25%
Direction (22-24) : A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance
and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer hard disk, but accidently some of it is lost
because of a computer virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Number of MCA Students

Performance
 Average Good Excellent Total
Gender 
Male 10
Female 32
Total 30
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that
the following facts were self evident :
(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.
(b) 40% of the students were females.
(c) One-third of the male students were average.
Answer questions 22-24 based on the data given above :
22. What proportion of female students are good ?
(1) 0 (2) 0.25
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.75
23. Approximately, what proportion of good students are male ?

(1) 0 (2) 0.73
(3) 0.43 (4) 0.27
24. How many female students are excellent ?

(1) 0 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32
25. Read the following two statements :

I : Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information
Technology (IT).
II : The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT ?
(1) Both I and II (2) Neither I nor II
(3) II only (4) I only

26. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed ?
(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers
(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?

S1 : The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
S2 : In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
(1) S1 only (2) S2 only
(3) Both S1 and S2 (4) Neither S1 nor S2
28. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a
publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged publication
is called :
(1) Electronic mail (2) Data sourcing
(3) Mail merge (4) Spam mail
29. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for
(1) Digital Vector Disc (2) Digital Volume Disc
(3) Digital Versatile Disc (4) Digital Visualization Disc
30. Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.
Reason (R) : Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural
resources.
Choose the correct code :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.
31. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOX) in urban areas is
(1) road transport (2) commercial sector
(3) energy use in industry (4) power plants
32. Which of the following is not a water-brone disease ?

(1) Typhoid (2) Hepatitis
(3) Cholera (4) Dengue
33. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web 2.0 applications ?

(1) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web 2.0 applications one by one.
(2) Web 2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share
information online.
(3) Web 2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to create it.
(4) Web 2.0 applications use only static pages.
34. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons
(HFCs) was signed ?
(1) Rwanda (2) Morocco
(3) South Africa (4) Algeria
35. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydrometeorological ?

(1) Snow avalanche (2) Sea erosion
(3) Tropical cyclone (4) Tsunami
36. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education ?
(A) Exposure to global curriculum
(B) Promotion of elitism in education
(C) Commodification of higher education
(D) Increase in the cost of education
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (A) and (D) (2) (A), (C) and (D)
(3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
37. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities ?
(A) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(B) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(C) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(D) They can grant degrees.
Codes :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
38. Indian government’s target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is :
(1) 1 Giga-Watt (2) 5 Giga-Watt
(3) 10 Giga-Watt (4) 15 Giga-Watt
39. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.
(B) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(C) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they
represent.
(D) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (D) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

40. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of
the President’s Rule in a State ?
(A) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(B) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(C) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(D) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (D) (2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (4) (D), (B) and (C)
41. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following
hold(s) office during good behaviour ?
(a) Governor of a State (b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court (d) Administrator of a Union Territory
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
42. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on :

(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.
(3) Concern for human values.
(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.
43. Assertion (A) : Learning is a life long process.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
44. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of :

(1) Course coverage (2) Students’ interest
(3) Learning outcomes of students (4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom
45. In which teaching method learner’s participation is made optimal and proactive ?
(1) Discussion method (2) Buzz session method
(3) Brainstorming session method (4) Project method
46. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the :
(1) Social system of the country (2) Economic status of the society
(3) Prevailing political system (4) Educational system

47. Assertion (A) : Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.
Reason (R) : As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable.
48. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching
learning relationships ? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) (4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
49. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps ?

(1) Reflect, observe, plan, act (2) Plan, act, observe, reflect
(3) Plan, reflect, observe, act (4) Act, observe, plan, reflect
50. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below ?
(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making,
Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis,
Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design, Collection
of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools, Formulation of
hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.
51. Below are given two sets - research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II). Match the
two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code :
Set-I Set-II
(Research Methods) (Data Collection Tools)
a. Experimental method i. Using primary and secondary sources
b. Ex post-facto method ii. Questionnaire
c. Descriptive survey method iii. Standardized tests
d. Historical method iv. Typical characteristic tests

Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) ii iv iii i
52. The issue of ‘research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which stage of research ?
(1) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition
(2) At the stage of defining the population of research
(3) At the stage of data collection and interpretation
(4) At the stage of reporting the findings.
53. In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed ?

(1) Doctoral level thesis (2) Conference of researchers
(3) Workshops and seminars (4) Symposia
54. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a view to
explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school programs. This endeavour may
be related to which type of research ?
(1) Evaluation Research (2) Fundamental Research
(3) Action Research (4) Applied Research
Direction (55-60) : Read the following passage carefully and answer questions.
The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little impact on
Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to the growing
disillusionment with the ‘humane pretensions’ of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagore’s
later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral
dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help sympathising with England’s dogged courage in the hour of
peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with
China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically
under military occupation of their own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the
opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties.
One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the
Allies’ victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South-East
Asia, would have released an upsurge of creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was soon
submerged in the great agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the uprooting
of millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies,
along with Pakistan’s invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a
poignant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri,
Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What
reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task
of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains
of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past.

55. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament ?

(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.
(2) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.
(3) Expressed loyalty to England.
(4) Encouraged the liberation of countries.
56. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war ?
(1) Indifference to Russia’s plight.
(2) They favoured Japanese militarism.
(3) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.
(4) They expressed sympathy for England’s dogged courage.
57. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.
(1) Military occupation of one’s own soil.
(2) Resistance to colonial occupation.
(3) Great agony of partition.
(4) Victory of Allies.
58. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh ?
(1) Suspicion of other countries (2) Continuance of rivalry
(3) Menace of war (4) National reconstruction
59. The passage has the message that :

(1) Disasters are inevitable.
(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.
(3) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.
(4) Literature has no relation with war and independence.
60. What was the impact of the last great war on Indian literature ?
(1) It had no impact.
(2) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence.
(3) It shook the foundations of literature.
(4) It offered eloquent support to the Western World.

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 3 2 4 1 4 2 4 4 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 1 3 3 2 1 2 4 3 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 2 2 1 2 3 2 3 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
1 4 2 1 4 3 2 2 2 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 3 1 3 4 4 3 2 2 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 3 1 3 2 4 3 4 2 2

Law Paper - II (Jan. 2017)
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper (Jan. 2017)
1. The Preamble to Constitution of India proclaims that, ‘we, the people of India,’ have established
(1) A Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic only
(2) A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Republic only
(3) A Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Republic only
(4) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
2. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
a. Article 16(3) Amended by i. 1st Amendment
b. Article 19(5) Amended by ii. 17th Amendment
c. Article 19(6) Amended by iii. 7th Amendment
d. Article 31A(2)(a) Amended by iv. 44th Amendment
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) iii i ii iv
(3) i ii iv iii
(4) ii iii i iv
below :
Assertion (A) : Under Art. 226 of the Constitution of India the High Court has discretionary remedy
to issue writs.
Reason (R) : If the High Court is satisfied that the aggrieved party can have an adequate remedy
elsewhere it can refuse to grant writ.
Codes :

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Cases) (Principles)
a. Indira Nehru Gandhi v/s. Raj i. Departmental bias
Narain
b. Gullapalli Nageswara Rao ii. Preventive detention
v/s A.P.R.T.C.
c. Fagu Shaw v/s. State of W.B. iii. Rights of inmates of protective homes
d. Upendra Baxi v/s. State of U.P. iv. Rule of law
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) ii iii i iv
5. “The Fundamental Duties incorporated in Article 51A of the Constitution of India are mere reminder
to the citizens, with no enforceability, to ensure their compliance” was said by
(1) Justice J.S. Verma (2) Justice O. Chinnapa Reddy
(3) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud (4) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
6. Justice Mukherjee C.J., speaking for the court, stated “that though the executive power is vested
in the president, the president is only a formal or constitutional head of the executive. The real
power is vested in the Council of Ministers on whose aid and advise the president acts in the
exercise of his functions,” in the following case :
(1) U.N.R. Rao v/s. Indira Gandhi
(2) Ram Jawaya Kapur v/s. State of Punjab
(3) Jayantilal Amratlal Shodan v/s. F.N. Rao
(4) Sardarilal v/s. Union of India
7. The right of a person to be appointed as a guardian of his minor children under the personal law
is not a fundamental right was decided by the Supreme Court in one of the following cases :
(1) Mohd-Aslam v/s. Union of India
(2) Sahifzada Saiyed Muhammed Amirabbas Abbasi v/s. State of Madyabharat
(3) Khatri v/s. State of Bihar
(4) Mohd. Faruk v/s. State of M.P.
8. According to Austin the positive law has following three attributes :

(1) command, sovereign, obedience (2) command, sovereign, sanction
(3) command, obedience, sanction (4) sovereign, obedience, sanction
9. “The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to contract.”
This statement is of
(1) Hegel (2) Savigny
(3) Henry Main (4) Puchta

10. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
a. The Concept of Law i. Austin
b. The Province of Jurisprudence ii. Bentham
Determined
c. Some Reflections on iii. Hart
Jurisprudence
d. Limits of Jurisprudence Defined iv. Buckland
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii ii i iv
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) iv i ii iii
11. Which one of the following is not a theory of corporate personality ?

(1) Fiction Theory (2) Interest Theory
(3) Bracket Theory (4) Will Theory
12. ‘A’ has a house and nobody should interfere with the enjoyment of proprietary right over the house.
This right is called
(1) Personal right (2) Imperfect right
(3) Right in rem (4) Right in personam
List-I List-II
a. Theory of Volksgeist i. Bentham
b. Theory of Social Interest ii. Ihering
c Theory of Utilitarian Individualism iii. Burke
d Gradual and organic process iv. Savigny
theory
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv ii iii i
(3) iv ii i iii
(4) iii i iv ii
14. Who has remarked that “It is both practically inconvenient and also contrary to the best juristic
thought to deny its (International law) legal character” ?
(1) H.L.A. Hart (2) J.G. Starke
(3) Edward Collins (4) J.L. Brierly

15. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given
below :
Assertion (A) : ‘Res Judicata’, ‘estoppel’, etc. are examples of the General Principles of Law
recognised by civilised states.
Reason (R) : In the case of diversion of water from Muese, the Permanent Court of International
justice applied ‘Res Judicata’ and ‘Estoppel’.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
16. Which of the following is not a “theory” propounded to explain the relationship between International
Law and Municipal Law ?
(1) Transformation Theory (2) Delegation Theory
(3) Fiction Theory (4) Specific Adoption Theory
17. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? Answer by using the codes below :
(a) The Charter of the United Nations came into force on October 24, 1945.
(b) The purposes of the United Nations are enshrined in Article 2 of the Charter.
(c) The seventh and the last principle of the United Nations states that nothing contained in
present Charter shall authorise the United Nations to intervene in matters which are
essentially within domestic jurisdiction of any state.
(d) The provision relating to suspension of a Member finds mention in Article 3 of the charter.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
18. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? Answer by using the codes below :
(a) “Mediation” is not “pacific means” of settlement of International Disputes.
(b) “Pious Fund Case” is an important decision given by the Permanent Court of Arbitration.
(c) “Retorsion” is a compulsive or ‘coercive’ means of settlement of international Disputes.
(d) A leading case on “Reprisal” is the “Naulilaa Incident”.
Codes :
(1) Only (b) is correct.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are only correct.

19. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect ? Answer by using the codes below :
(a) The Commission on Human Rights was established by the Economic and Social Council
in February, 1946.
(b) The General Assembly decided to replace U.N. Human Right Commission by Human
Right Council Vide Resolution 60/251 of 15 March, 2006.
(c) The Human Right Council concluded its first session at Hague on 30 June, 2007.
(d) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the General Assembly by a
vote of 48 to nil with eight abstentions.
Codes :
(1) Only (c) is incorrect.
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect.
20. Read the following statements and answer with the help of codes given below :
(a) Two persons are said to be related to each other by full blood when they are descended
from a common ancestor by the same wife.
(b) Two persons are said to be related to each other by uterine blood when they are descended
from a common ancestress but by different husbands.
(c) Two persons are said to be related to each other by half blood when they are descended
from a common ancestor by the same wife.
(d) Two persons are said to be related to each other by half blood when they are descended
from a common ancestor but by different wives.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct, but (c) and (d) are incorrect.
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct, but (c) is incorrect.
(3) (d) and (b) are correct, but (c) and (a) are incorrect.
(4) (b) and (c) are correct, but (a) and (d) are incorrect.
21. A person shall not be treated as Buddhist under sec. 2(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, if :
(1) Both of his parents were Buddhists.
(2) His father was Christian, mother was Buddhist and he was brought up as Buddhist child.
(3) His father was Christian, mother was Buddhist and he was brought up as Christian child.
(4) He was a Muslim and has converted to Buddhist religion.
22. Ancient sources of Hindu law are :

(1) Custom, Sruti, Precedent
(2) Sruti, Vedas, Custom, Legislation
(3) Smritis, Custom, Precedent
(4) Sruti, Smritis, Custom, Digests etc.

23. The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act 1937 is applicable to all kinds of property
except
(1) Agricultural land, testamentary succession and Charities other than wakfs.
(2) Testamentary succession and charities other than wakfs only.
(3) Agricultural land and testamentary succession only.
(4) Agricultural land and charities other than wakfs only.
24. Match List-I with List-II under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and give the correct answer using the
codes given below :
List-I List-II
a. Age of marriage i. Section 13(1-A)
b. Breakdown grounds of marriage ii. Section 8
c. Overriding effect of Act iii. Section 5(iii)
d. Registration of Marriage iv Section 4
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i iii ii iv
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iv iii i ii
25. Presently the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 recognizes the following theories of divorce :
(1) Fault and Mutual Consent
(2) Mutual Consent and Breakdown of Marriage
(3) Fault, Breakdown of Marriage, Mutual Consent and Customary
(4) Fault, Irretrievable Breakdown of Marriage and Mutual Consent
26. Talaq ahsan is

(1) Irrevocable
(2) Revocable during the tuhr in which it has been pronounced
(3) Revocable until the next successive tuhr
(4) Revocable during the period of iddat
List-I List-II
a. Proposal i. Grainger & Son V. Gough
b. Invitation to make an offer ii. Maharashtra Rajya Sahakari Kappas
Utpadak Panan Mahasabha Ltd. v.
Manga Bhaga Chaudhary
c. Communication of acceptance iii. Henthorn v. Fraser
of offer by acceptor himself
d. Revocation of offer iv. Powell v. Lee

Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iv iii
(2) i ii iv iii
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) iv iii i ii
28. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : An agreement made with consideration is void unless it is in writing and registered.
Reason (R) : Because Section 25(1) of the Indian Contract Act stipulates so.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(3) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.
(4) (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.
29. In which one of the following cases doctrine of frustration was laid down ?
(1) BOI Finance Ltd. v. Custodian
(2) Orissa Textile Mills Ltd. v. Ganesh Das
(3) Sachidananda Patnaik v. G.P. & Co.
(4) Taylor v. Caldwell

(1) A person who wrongfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage
which he has sustained through the non-fulfillment of the contract.
(2) A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is not entitled to compensation for any damage
which he has sustained through the non-fulfillment of the contract.
(3) A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage
which he has sustained through the non-fulfillment of the contract
(4) A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage
which he has not sustained through the non-fulfillment of the contract.
31. Every person is competent to contract

(1) who is of the age of minority according to law to which he is subject, and who is of sound
mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.
(2) who is of the age of majority according to law to which he is not subject, and who is of
sound mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.
(3) who is of the age of majority according to law to which he is subject, and who is of sound
mind, and is not qualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.
(4) who is of the age of majority according to law to which he is subject, and who is of sound
mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.

List-I List-II
(Types of Vitiating elements (Relevant case-law)
of a contract)
a. Undue influence i. Nursery Spg. and Wvg. Co. Ltd., Re
b. Misrepresentation ii. Jaggan Nath v. Secy of State for India
c. Fraud iii. Lancashire Loans v. Black
d. Mistake iv. Derry v. Peek
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iv iii i
(2) i iii iv ii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iii i ii iv
Assertion (A) : Compensation is recoverable for any loss or damage which the parties knew at
the time of the contract as unlikely to result from the breach of the contract.
Reason (R) : Because above rule is laid down in Hadley v. Baxendale case.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).
34. Match List-I (Name of case) with List-II (Decision of case) by using codes below :
List-I List-II
(Name of case) (Decision of cases)
a. Manju Bhatia v. New Delhi i. Liability of owner of free for an injury caused
Municipal Corporation by its falling
b. Municipal Corporation Delhi v. ii. Legal duty of Railway to assume reasonable
Sushila Devi safety at railway level crossing
c. Union of India v. Lalman iii. Teacher’s duty of care towards children when
they are taken out on a picnic for fun and
swim
d. M.S. Grewal v. Deepchand Sood iv. Liability of builder towards purchasers of flats
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) i ii iv iii
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii

Assertion (A) : Acts of state are directed against another sovereign state or its sovereign personally
or its subjects.
Reason (R) : Acts of executive Government in the name of President in normal course of
administration are acts of state and are not open to judicial scrutiny.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct reason of (A).
36. Which of the following is correct ? Answer by using the codes below :
(a) Corporation is vicariously liable for acts done by its employees.
(b) Minor is liable for the torts committed by him.
(c) Wife is liable under law of torts to her husband if she negligently fractures his legs.
(d) Tort committed by any partner in the ordinary course of business of firm all other partners
are liable.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
37. In which case the principle ‘ubi jin ibi remedium’ was recognized ?
(1) Rylands v. Flecher (2) Ashby v. White
(3) Ashdown v. Samuel Williams (4) Pema Chibber v. Union of India
38. State Government may notify that State Commission may perform its function at other places
other than state capital. Who needs to be consulted by the State Government for such notification
under Consumer Protection Act ?
(1) Central Government
(2) National Commission
(3) State Commission
(4) State Commission and High Court
39. Who among the following cannot file a complaint before the District Forum under Section 12 of
the Consumer Protection Act ?
(1) One consumer and not more than one consumer
(2) Any recognized consumer association
(3) Central and State Government
(4) One or more consumers

40. ‘The degree of cogence need not reach certainty but it must carry a high degree of probability.’
As per the statement answer using codes as to in which of the situations, in sequential order the
principle of natural justice is applied :
Codes :
(a) Alibi (b) Self-incrimination
(c) Presumption of innocence (d) Strict liability
Sequence of order :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (d), (c), (a), (b)
(3) (c), (b), (a), (d) (4) (b), (c), (d), (a)
41. The principle of ‘Quod necessitas non habet leegen’ is applied in circumstances of
(1) an act done in order to avoid consequence
(2) in a little harm that resulted in the consequence
(3) a harm resulted in order to do another evil
(4) self-preservation
42. Aggravated abetment can be found within the public

(1) when the act was done by any one of the ten or more members present.
(2) when the act was done by one of the seven members while collecting funds from other
public.
(3) while a person affixing a poster on the wall specially called attention of an assembly of
five persons to protest against police excesses.
(4) when an un-named member of a fluctuating population incite others to undertake a strike
to stop train movement.
43. In which of the matters it was held that disclosure of identity of victim either by printing or
publishing will not amount to penal liability ?
(1) In a judgement given by the Session’s Judge on the ground of social victimisation.
(2) In a judgement given by the High Court on the ground of Ostracism.
(3) In a judgement given either by High Court or Supreme Court on the ground of preventing
social victimisation or contracism.
(4) In a judgement given by the Supreme Court on the ground of prevention from social
victimisation.
44. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer the reasonableness using the ‘code’ given below :
Assertion (A) : Section 304-A is directed at offences outside the range of Sections 299 and 300.
Reason (R) : It contemplates those acts into which neither intention nor knowledge enters.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct as the act results from rash and negligence act.
(2) (A) is correct as certain acts are unjustifiable while (R) is not the correct reason as it falls
short of culpable homicide.
(3) (R) is correct while (A) is incorrect application to the rule of culpable homicide to cause
murder.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect statement as to imposing penalty.

Assertion (A) : Multiple Trade Unions in industries and the consequential necessity for selecting
one as the recognised union by the management devising a method on democratic principles is
necessary.
Reason (R) : The Union which represents the largest number of workmen working in the
undertaking must acquire the status as that would be in tune with the concept of Industrial
democracy.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
46. “The working class unfamiliar with the sophistications of definitions and shower of decisions,
unable to secure expert legal opinion, what with poverty pricing them out of justice market and
denying them the staying power to withstand the multi-decked litigative process, defacto is denied
social justice if legal drafting is vagarious, definitions indefinite and court rulings contradictory.”
The above remarks were made in support of an expensive definition of “Industry” by one of the
following justice :
(1) Justice O. Chinnappa Reddy (2) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(3) Justice Gajendragadkar (4) S.P. Bharucha

(1) Workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an industrial establishment and
who has completed one year of continuous service under an employer is laid off, whether
continuously or intermittently shall be paid by the employer for all days during which he
is so laid off except for such weekly holidays.
(2) Termination on the ground of misconduct or continued ill health of a workman is not a
retrenchment.
(3) Lock-out means the permanent closing of a place of employment, or the total suspension
or the refusal by an employer to continue to employ any number of persons employed.
(4) The right to close down the business, trade or undertaking is subject to payment of
compensation to the workers engaged in the business immediately before the closure.
List-I List-II
a. Kalinga Tubes Ltd. v. Their i. Deduction of wages for the period of strike
workmen
b. Bank of India v. T.S. Kelawala ii. Closure has to be genuine and bonafide
and others
c. Bombay Union of Journalist v. iii. Definition of industry
State of Bombay
d. Coir Board v. Indira Devi P.S. iv. Condition precedent to retrenchment of
and others workman
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii ii i iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) i ii iv iii
(4) iv ii iii i
49. Reference of an Industrial Dispute, the subject matter of which is covered by a settlement as
defined in Section 2(P) of the Act would be :
(1) valid during the operation of such settlement
(2) invalid during the operation of such settlement
(3) valid and subject to the importance of Industrial Dispute
(4) voidable at the option of the parties to the dispute during the operation of such settlement
Assertion (A) : The retention of Industrial Adjudication is necessary till all Trade Unions attain
sufficient strength to bargain with employers, from a position of equality.
Reason (R) : Collective Bargaining presently provides only lip services, whereas in practice it has
perpetuated Adjudication.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 3 3 4 1 3 1 3 1 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 1 3 1 1 2 3 2 2 1

Law Paper - III (Jan. 2017)
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper (Jan. 2017)
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions, each question carries
two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Kesavananda Bharati V. State of i. Basic structure doctrine new dimensions
Kerala added
b. Indira Nehru Gandhi V. Raj Narain ii. Basic structure doctrine created
c. Minerva Mills V. Union of India iii. Basic structure doctrine strengthened
d. I.R. Coelho V. State of tamil Nadu iv. Basic structure doctrine crystallised
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) iii iv ii i
below :
Assertion (A) : A State made law on any matter of Concurrent List prevails notwithstanding any
repugnancy with an earlier law made by the Parliament.
Reason (R) : The Parliament can make a law, on any matter in the Concurrent List that prevails
over any repugnant state law.
Codes :
below :
Assertion (A) : The President of India has a right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court
of India on a question of law or fact has arisen or likely to arise, which is of such nature and of
such public importance.
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India makes it obligatory for the President to accept the advice
rendered by the Supreme Court of India.
Codes :

4. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Art 136 i. Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in
regard to criminal matters.
b. Art 134 ii. Seat of Supreme Court
c. Art 131 iii. Special leave to appeal jurisdiction of the
Supreme court over any court or administrative
tribunal.
d. Art 130 iv. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i iii ii
(2) i iii iv ii
(3) ii iv i iii
(4) iii i iv ii
5. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Art 221 i. Transfer of a Judge from one High Court
to another
b. Art 222 ii. Appointment of acting Chief Justice of a
High Court
c. Art 223 iii. Appointment of additional and acting Judges
of the High Court.
d. Art 224 iv. Salaries etc of High Court Judges
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) iii i iv ii
below :
Assertion (A) : An accused person is guaranteed under the Constitution of India the right to be
informed of the nature and cause of his accusation.
Reason (R) : The accused person has to be produced before the nearest District Judge within
twenty four hours.
Codes :

below :
Assertion (A) : Subject to anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent
power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance
with the procedure laid down in this article.
Reason (R) : Above statement is Article 368(1) of the Indian Constitution.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).
(4) (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.
below :
Assertion (A) : No person to be eligible for election in, or to claim to be included in a special
electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
Reason (R) : Above statement is title of Article 325 of the Indian Constitution.
Codes :
(4) (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.
9. Discretion, when applied to a court of justice, means sound discretion guided by law. It must be
governed by rule, not by humour; it must not be arbitrary, vague and fanciful but legal and regular.
This observation was made in
(1) Union of India V. Kuldeep Singh
(2) Reliance Airport Developers (P) Ltd. V. Airports Authority of India.
(3) Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India
(4) National Insurance Co. Ltd V. Keshav Bahadur
10. Under which of the following condition(s) a writ of mandamus can be granted ? Give correct
answer by using the codes
a. There must be a public duty.
b. There must be a specific demand and refusal.
c. There must be a clear right to enforce the duty.
d. The right must be subsisting on the date of the petition.
Codes :
(1) All a, b, c and d are correct. (2) Only a, b and c are correct.
(3) Only a and c are correct. (4) Only a and b are correct.
11. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court made it explicit that ‘even when the
authority has statutory power to take action without hearing, it would be arbitrary to take action
without hearing and, thus, violative of Article 14 of the Constitution’ ?
(1) A.K. Kraipak V. Union of India (2) Union of India V. Satish Chandra
(3) A.K. Roy V. State of Punjab (4) H.L. Trehan V. Union of India

List-I List-II
a. Personal bias i. Jeejeebhoy V. Collector
b. Pecuniary bias ii. Krishna Bus Service (P) Ltd. V.
State of Haryana
c. Subject-matter bias iii. Manak Lal V. Dr. Prem Chand
d. Departmental bias iv. G. Nageswara Rao V. A.P.S.R.T.C.
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) iv i ii iii
13. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given
below :
Assertion (A) : A writ of prohibition can be issued on the same grounds on which the writ of
certiorari can be issued except in case of an error of law apparent on the face of the record.
Reason (R) : A writ of certiorari is issued at a stage when proceedings are in progress, to forbid
the authority from continuing the proceedings whereas a writ of prohibition is issued at a stage
when the authority has given a final decision, to quash the decision.
Codes :
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
List-I List-II
(Subject) (Provision of the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013)
a. The composition of Lokpal i. Section 3(2)
b. Establishment of Lokayukta ii. Section 6
c. Term of office of Chairperson iii. Section 37
and Members of Lokpal
d. Removal of Chairperson and iv. Section 63
Members of Lokpal
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) i ii iv iii

15. The appointment of Chairperson of Lokpal shall be made by the President after obtaining the
recommendation of a selection committee consisting of
(1) The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People and the Chief Justice of India.
(2) The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People; The leader of opposition in
the House of the people.
(3) The Prime Minister; The Leader of opposition in the House of the People and one eminent
jurist to be nominated by the President.
(4) The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People, The Leader of opposition
in the House of the People, The Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court
nominated by him and one eminent jurist to be nominated by the President.
16. “Law is not only a set of rules but is a method or technique for harmonizing conflicting interests.”
This statement is of
(1) Auguste Comte (2) Herbert Spencer
(3) Roscoe Pound (4) Leon Duguit
List-I List-II
(Meaning) (Jurists associated with)
a. Jurisprudence is a science of i. Salmond
just and unjust.
b. Jurisprudence is the science of ii. Gray
the first principle of civil law.
c. Jurisprudence is the philosophical iii. Ulpian
aspect of knowledge of law.
d. Jurisprudence is in truth no more iv. Cicero
a formal science than physiology.
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) iii iv ii i
18. Which one of the following requisites is not necessary to be fulfilled for a custom to be valid and
operative as a source of law ?
(1) Reasonableness
(2) Conformity with statute law
(3) Immemorial antiquity
(4) May not have been practiced continuously

List-I List-II
(Theory) (Jurist Associated with)
a. Inner Morality i. Comte
b. Concept of living law ii. Fuller
c. Organic concept of society iii. Burke
d. Gradual and organic process iv. Ehrlich
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iv i iii
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) i ii iii iv
20. If ‘A’ leaves his car with the driver, the driver’s possession will be
(1) Immediate whereas that of ‘A’ would be mediate.
(2) Mediate whereas that of ‘A’ would be immediate.
(3) Incorporeal whereas that of ‘A’ would be corporeal.
(4) Corporeal whereas that of ‘A’ would be incorporeal.
21. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The legislature can forge a sledge-hammer capable of cracking open the corporate
shell.
Reason (R) : Corporate personality cannot be used as a shield to harm national interest.
Codes :
below :
Assertion (A) : The most important power of an owner is the right to exclude others.
Reason (R) : The owner may grant to another many of his rights and yet remain owner.
Codes :
23. “Law is a social engineering to remove the existing imbalance and to further the progress, serving
the needs of the Socialist Democratic Bharat under the rule of Law.” This was the observation
of Justice K. Ramaswamy in
(1) Delhi Transport Corp. V. D.T.C. Mazdoor Congress
(2) Indra Sawhney V. Union of India
(3) State of Karnataka V. Appa Balu Ingale
(4) Parmanand Kataria V. Union of India
24. In which of the crimes retributive theory strikes the moral blameworthiness of the offender to
punish him ?
(1) Clamping prohibitory orders (2) Sexual harassment at workplace
(3) Wilful attempt to defame (4) Common intention to commit riot
25. In which of the circumstances the defense of necessity involves a collusion of interest and the
consequential judgement of values ?
(1) Stealing to avert hungers
(2) Absolute necessity for self-preservation
(3) Private homicide for keeping up the honour
(4) Acts done against anarchy
26. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below choose the appropriate
answer.
Assertion (A) : The apprehension of use of criminal force must emanate from the gesture of a
person to attract punishment.
Reason (R) : Mere advancing with a threatening attitude will not amount to criminal force.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are contradictory to each other.
(2) (A) is correct while (R) is not the cause of it.
(3) (A) is incorrect while (R) is appropriate.
(4) (A) is correct while (R) is the cause of it.
27. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below write the correct answer.
Assertion (A) : In a case of attempt to rape there must be an indecent assault or action with any
resistance from the victim.
Reason (R) : There was some action which shows that he was going to have sexual connection
with her.
Codes :
(1) (R) is correct explanation of (A) and both (A) and (R) are complementary to each
other.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not complementary to (A).
(3) (A) and (R) have no legal standing in view of change of burden of proof.
(4) (R) is essential to formulate (A) otherwise there may not be a crime.
28. Which of the factors fall under the limits within which the right of private defense should be
exercised ?
(1) Where there is time to have recourse to the protection of the public authorities.
(2) When a public servant performs an act in good faith.
(3) An act committed strictly in conformity with law.
(4) Where the act was irregular and outside the scope of power.

29. Dacoity with murder creates co-extensive responsibility of each participant because
(1) Collective liability is the core-essence whether it was culminated suddenly or not.
(2) Mere non-participation in dacoity will not exempt from criminal liability since there was pre-
concert.
(3) Planning was to commit only dacoity, but another person, for earlier enemity, abetted to
commit murder while there was no common object.
(4) There must be one or more participants for the constructive action by each member.
30. What offence, if any, has been committed by a married woman giving free consent to her own
abduction ?
(1) Abetting her own abduction
(2) Criminal conspiracy for abduction
(3) No criminal liability against her as the acts was not committed in deceitful manner.
(4) Attempt to abduction when there was failure to obtain clear consent.
31. A young man waves a currency note of rupees one thousand in front of a woman as if he offers
the money for an indecent favour from the woman, he may be criminally booked under
(1) Section 506 of IPC (2) Section 507 of IPC
32. One of the following International Convention is not related to wild life conservation. Give the
correct answer :
(1) Convention on International Trade In Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.
(2) Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in Transboundary Context.
(3) Convention on Migratory Species of Wild Animals.
(4) Convention on International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
33. The Montreal Protocol is related to

(1) Transboundary Air pollution (2) Ozone Layer
(3) Climate change (4) Hazardous waste
below :
Assertion (A) : Over 200 central and state statutes which have atleast some concern with
environmental protection, either directly or indirectly have unfortunately not resulted in preventing
environmental degradation, on the contrary has increased over the years.
Reason (R) : Unless the Government policy is backed by adequate budgetary allocation, changes
to the statutory regime and a bureaucratic will, the government’s intention are apt to remain on
paper.
Codes :

35. Match List-I and List-II find correct answer by using codes given below :
List-I List-II
a. Public Liability i. State of Bihar V. Murad Ali Khan
b. Sustainable Development ii. M.C. Mehta and Another V. Union of India
and Others
c. Wild life protection iii. Research Foundation for Science V. Union
of India and Other
d. Hazardous waste material iv. Narmada Bachao Andolan V. Union of India
Codes :
a b c d
(1) i iii iv ii
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iv ii iii i
36. Give correct answer by using codes given below :

The Environmental approach has led the Supreme Court to derive, adopt and apply a range of
principles to guide the development of environmental jurisprudence. Notable amongst the
fundamental norms recognised by the court are :
a. Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment, which is a facet of the right
to life guaranteed under Art. 21 of the Constitution.
b. Enforcement agencies are under an obligation to strictly enforce environmental laws.
c. Government agencies may not plead non-availability of funds, inadequacy of staff or other
insufficiencies to justify the non-performance of their obligations under environmental laws.
d. Stringent action ought to be taken against contumacious defaulters and persons who
carry on industrial or development activity for profit without regard to environmental laws.
Codes :
(1) only a and b (2) only a, b and c
(3) a, b, c and d (4) only a
37. In which of the following case the Supreme Court after referring to International Covenant of Civil
and Political Rights and Universal Declaration of Human Rights observed that, “It is almost an
accepted proposition of law that rule of customary international law which are not contrary to the
Municipal Law shall deemed to be incorporated in the domestic law” ?
(1) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India
(2) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra V. State of U.P.
(3) P.U.C.L. V. Union of India
(4) Church of God (Full Gospels) in India V. K.K.R. Majestic Colony Welfare Association
38. Which one of the following is correct ?

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981 was enacted
(1) by the Parliament under Art 252 (1) of the Constitution after securing enabling resolution
from the States.
(2) by the Parliament invoking the power under Art 253 to make laws implementing decisions
taken at International Conferences.
(3) by the states, as the executive functions under the Air Act are carried out by the State
Pollution Control Board.
(4) by the Parliament based on the directions given by the Supreme Court.
39. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are correctly matched ? Give correct answer by using the
codes given below :
i. J.G. Starke : An Introduction to International Law
ii. Hackworth : Digest of International Law
iii. J.L. Brierly : The Changing Structure of International Law.
iv. W. Friedman : The Basis of Obligation in International Law.
Codes :
(1) only ii (2) i and ii both
(3) i, ii and iii (4) i, ii, iii and iv
40. In which of the following cases the International Court of Justice pointed out that when in regard
to any matter or practice, two states follow it repeatedly for a long time, it becomes a binding
customary rule ?
(1) West Rand Central Gold Mining Company Ltd., V. R. Case
(2) South West Africa Case
(3) Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case (Portugal V. India)
(4) North Sea Continental Shelf Case
41. In International law a good example of the application of the principle sovereignty is the “Theory
of Auto Limitation”. According to this theory, states follow International law because they have by
their consent reduced their powers. This principle is based on the principle of state sovereignty.
The chief exponent of this principle was
(1) only Anzilotti (2) Anzilotti and Triepel both
(3) Salmond (4) Max Huber
42. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ? Give correct answer by using the
codes given below :
I. “Subjugation” is a mode of ‘acquisition’ of Nationality under the International Law.
II. Stock V. The Public Trustee is a case related to Double Nationality.
III. Articles 3 to 6 of the Hague Convention of 1930 provide the provisions for solving the
problem of Double Nationality of married women.
IV. “Cession” is a mode of ‘Loss’ of Nationality under the International Law.
Codes :
(1) only II is incorrect. (2) I, II and III are incorrect.
(3) II, III and IV are incorrect. (4) I, II, III and IV all are incorrect.
43. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both and give the correct answer by using the codes given
below :
Assertion (A) : The General Assembly is one of the principal organ of the United Nations which
consists of all the members of United Nations.
Reason (R) : The Resolutions or Declaration of the General Assembly are not binding upon the
States. They are merely recommendations.
Codes :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct individually, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

44. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists
List-I List-II
(Jurisdiction of the International (Cases decided)
Court of Justice)
i. Case decided under contentious a. Nicaragua V. United States of America
jurisdiction
ii. Under Advisory Jurisdiction b. North Sea Continental Shelf Case
iii. Courts’ competence in respect of c. Western Sahara Case
determination of its own
jurisdiction
iv. Transferred Jurisdiction d. Anglo-Iranian Oil Company Case
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iii iv i ii
45. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched ? Give correct answer by using the
codes given below :
i. Composition of the Security Council of U.N. – Article 23 of the U.N. Charter
ii. Composition of the Economic and Social Council – Article 61 of the U.N. Charter
iii. Composition of the General Assembly of the United Nations – Article 86 of the U.N. Charter
iv. Composition of Trusteeship Council – Article 28 of the U.N. Charter
Codes :
(1) only iv (2) iii and iv both
(3) i, ii and iii (4) i, ii, iii and iv all
46. Match List-I and List-II and find correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Case Law) (Decision)
a. Saroj Rani V/s. Sudarshan Kumar i. Uniform Civil Code
b. Jorden Diengdeh V/s. S.S. Chopra ii. Meaning of Hindu
c. Russell V/s. Muldas iii. Constitutionality of Section 9 of Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955
d. Shastri V/s. Muldas iv. Meaning of Cruelty
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) iv ii iii i
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) i iv iii ii

47. A marriage solemnized between any two Hindus who are Sapindas of each other shall be
(1) Valid, if the custom or usage governing any of them permits a marriage between the two.
(2) Valid, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.
(3) Voidable, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the
two.
(4) Void, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.
48. Read the following and give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
A married Hindu female can adopt a child
i. Only with the consent of her husband.
ii. In case of void marriage, consent of husband is necessary.
iii. In case of voidable marriage, consent of husband is not necessary.
iv. If husband has converted to Muslim religion, his consent is not necessary.
Codes :
(1) i and iv are correct, but ii and iii are incorrect.
(2) i, iii and iv are correct, but ii is incorrect.
(3) ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.
(4) iv and ii are correct, but iii and i are incorrect.
49. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce available to wife under section 13(2) of the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 ?
(1) Pre-Act bigamy of the husband
(2) Repudiation of marriage
(3) Cruelty by the husband
(4) Husband is guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality
50. Read the following statements and give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. A Muslim woman can marry a Kitabi.
ii. A Shia male can contract ‘Muta’ with a fire worshipper.
iii. Marriage of a Muslim woman with a Hindu would be irregular.
iv. A Muslim man cannot marry with his niece.
Codes :
(1) i and ii are correct, but iii and iv are incorrect.
(2) ii and iii are correct, but i and iv are incorrect.
(3) iii and iv are correct, but i and ii are incorrect.
51. Read the following statements in the light of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and give
correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. The obligation of husband to maintain his wife is co-extensive with his property.
ii. Sec. 18(2) provides for maintenance and separate residence of wife in some conditions.
iii. Father-in-law’s obligation to maintain widowed-daughter-in-law is a personal obligation.
iv. An unchaste and non-Hindu wife is not entitled to maintenance.
Codes :
(1) i and iv are correct, but ii and iii are incorrect.
(3) iii and iv are correct, but i and ii are incorrect.
(4) i and iii are correct, but ii and iv are incorrect.
52. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim
Marriage Act, 1939 ?
(1) 7 years imprisonment to the husband
(2) Failure of the husband to pay maintenance for the last two years.
(3) Where abouts of the husband have not been known for a period of 3 years.
(4) Failure of the husband to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a
period of three years.
53. Which of the following are not available to a Hindu husband as grounds of Judicial Separation ?
Answer with the help of codes given below :
i. Extra marital sex by wife
ii. Conversion of wife to a non-Hindu religion
iii. Wife’s pre-marriage pregnancy
iv. Non consummation of marriage owing to impotence of wife.
Codes :
(1) i and ii only (2) ii and iii only
(3) iv and i only (4) iii and iv only
54. Which Article of the U.N. Charter charges the U.N. to promote “Universal respect for, and observance
of, human rights and fundamental freedoms for all without distinction as to sex, race, language
or religion” ?
(1) Article 56 (2) Article 55(c)
(3) Article 62 (4) Article 76(c)
55. Match List – I and List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. The Commission on Human i. December 15, 1989
Rights was established by the
Economic and Social Council on
b. The General Assembly created ii. 20 December, 1993
the position of U.N. High
Commissioner for Human
Rights on
c. The General Assembly adopted iii. February, 1946
Second Optional Protocol to the
International Covenant on Civil
and Political Rights on
d. The Optional Protocol to the iv. March 23, 1976
International Law on Civil and
Political Rights, 1966 came into
force on
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii ii i iv
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) ii i iv iii
56. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched ? Give the correct answer by using
the codes given below :
i. The World Conference on Human Rights was held at Vienna – Year 1993
ii. International Conference on Human Rights at Tehran was held – Year 1958
iii. First World Conference on Women was held on Beijing in – 1985
iv. International Convention on Elimination of all forms of Racial Discrimination – 1973
Codes :
(1) only ii (2) i and ii
(3) ii, iii and iv (4) i, ii, iii and iv
57. Which of the following has commented on the legal significance of the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights thus, “The declaration is merely a statement of principles, not a legally binding
instrument; but it has become one of the best known international documents, and it has been
often referred to in resolutions of the U.N., the Specialised Agencies, regional arrangements and
other International Organisations, and in national constitutions; legislation and court decision. It is
a beacon light for all mankind even though it has been honoured more often in the breach than
in the observance” ?
(1) Starke (2) H. Lauterpacht
(3) Oppenheim (4) Palmer and Perkins
below :
Assertion (A) : The Universal Declaration of Human Rights does not define the term ‘Human
Rights’. It refers them as “the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the Humanity”.
Reason (R) : The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the concept of Human
Rights and guaranteed most of the Human Rights contained in the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights.
Codes :
(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.
59. To which of the following International Conventions on Human Rights, India has become party to
such conventions ? Give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
i. Convention on the Political Rights of Women.
ii. Convention on the Right of the Child.
iii. Convention for the Suppression of the Traffic in Person and of exploitation of the prostitution
of others.
iv. Convention on International Recovery of Child Support and Other Forms of Family
Maintenance.
Codes :
(1) only i (2) i and iv only
(3) i, ii and iii (4) i, ii, iii and iv all

60. Match List-I and List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Provision of Protection of (Relevant Sections)
Human Rights Act, 1993)
i. Removal of a Member of the a. Section 12
Commission
ii. Functions of the Commission b. Section 4
iii. Procedure with respect to Armed c. Section 5
Forces
iv. Appointment of Chairperson and d. Section 19
other Members
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iv i iii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii i ii iv
(4) iv iii i ii
61. In which among the following cases malice becomes relevant to determine a person’s liability in
law of torts. Answer by using codes below :
a. Malice may result in aggravation of damages.
b. In torts of deceit and conspiracy one of the essential is malice.
c. When act is lawful, intention can be gathered from past circumstances.
d. Causing of personal comfort by lawful means may turn lawful act into a tort.
Codes :
(1) a and b (2) a and c
(3) a, b and c (4) a, b, c and d
62. Match List-I (Maxims) with List-II (Cases) and give correct answer by using codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Maxims) (Cases)
a. Damnum sine injuria i. Padmavati Vs. Dugganika
b. Injuria sine damno ii. Vishnu Datt Vs. Board of Higher Secondary
and Intermediate Education, U.P.
c. Volenti non fit injuria iii. Bindra Devi Chauhan Vs. State of H.P.
d. Res ipsa loquitor iv. Bhim Singh Vs. State of Jammu and Kashmir
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iv iii i
(2) ii iii i iv
(3) ii iv i iii
(4) i ii iv iii

63. In which of following cases originator of defamatory statement will be liable for the damage
resulting from repetitive publication by third persons ? Answer by using codes below :
a. He himself authorized repetition.
b. Repetition was the natural and probable consequence of his act.
c. There was immoral obligation on the person in whose presence the slander was made
to repeat it.
d. There was moral obligation on the person in whose absence the slander was made to
repeat it.
Codes :
(1) a and b (2) a and c
(3) a and d (4) b and d
64. Which of the following is true in relation to nuisance ?

(1) An action for nuisance is actionable per se and no special damage need to be proved.
(2) It can be committed through the medium of intangible objects.
(3) It is direct interference with the possession of plaintiff.
(4) There is no interference with plaintiff’s use or enjoyment of land.
65. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using codes below :
Assertion (A) : The law takes no cognizance of carelessness in the abstract.
Reason (R) : Cause of action for negligence accrues when damage that is real damage is
suffered.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
66. Which of the following is not correct in relation to the Consumer Protection Act ?
(1) It extends to whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may by notification
appoint.
(3) This Act shall be in addition to and not in derogation of provisions of any other law for the
time being in force.
(4) This Act shall overside the provisions of Sale of Goods Act.
67. What is the period of limitation to file a complaint before the Consumer Dispute Redressal
Agencies ?
(1) Within one year from the date of cause of action.
(2) Within two years from the date of cause of action.
(3) Within three years from the date of cause of action.
(4) No limitation period to file a complaint.

68. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using codes below :
Assertion (A) : Salary drawn by a partner from the firm for his services rendered to it has been
treated different from his right to get an additional amount in the form of salary as his share of
the firm’s profit.
Reason (R) : Because R.M. Chidambaram Pillai Vs. Commissioner of Income tax case laid
down above principle.
Codes :
List-I List-II
(Principles of mutual rights (Relevant case-law)
and liabilities of partners)
a. Remuneration to a partner in i. Md. Abdul Sattar Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
absence of an agreement on
this matter.
b. Fixation of remuneration by ii. Ghisulal Vs. Ghumbirmal
agreement does not alter his
status as a partner
c. Interest on the capital of a iii. Shelat Brothers Vs. Nanalal Harilal Shelat
partner.
d. Action against a partner for iv. Bhagchand Vs. Kaluram @ Moolchand
balance due to another
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) iii i ii iv
(3) i iii iv ii
(4) iii i iv ii
Assertion (A) : Partner of an erstwhile unregistered partnership firm can bring a suit to enforce
a right arising out of a contract falling within the ambit of section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act.
Reason (R) : Because Judgement in case of Loonkaran Sethia Vs. Ivan E. John laid down above
judicial principle.
Codes :

71. Which of the following statement is correct according to section 2(9) of the Sale of Goods Act ?
“Mercantile Agent” means a mercantile agent
(1) having in the usual course of business as such seller authority either to sell goods, or to
consign goods for the purpose of sale, or to buy goods, or to distribute money for security
of goods.
(2) having in the customary business as such agent power either to sell goods, or to mortgage
goods for purpose of sale.
(3) having in the customary course of business as such agent authority to sell goods.
(4) having in the normal course of business as such agent authority to confine goods or to
raise goods for purpose of the security of money.
72. Which of the following statements are correct. Answer using the codes given below :
a. Ascertainment of goods for sale is done by buyer.
b. Appropriation of goods for sale is done by seller.
c. Distinction between ascertainment of goods and appropriation of goods that former involves
“the element of common intention between buyer and seller”, whereas later can be a
unilateral act by buyer.
d. Property in goods does not pass to buyer till appropriation.
Codes :
(1) only a, c and d are correct. (2) only b is correct.
(3) only d is correct. (4) only c is correct.
73. Which of the following are presumptions as to a negotiable instrument under section 118 of the
Negotiable Instruments Act ? Answer using codes given below :
a. Presumption of contractual capacity
b. Presumption of consideration
c. Presumption of maturity of instrument
d. Presumption of date
Codes :
(1) only a and c (2) only b and d
(3) only a and d (4) only a and b
74. Which of the following statement is correct ? Answer using codes given below :
a. Doctrine of indoor management apply in case of knowledge of irregularity in company.
b. Doctrine of indoor management does not apply in case of suspicion of irregularity.
c. Doctrine of indoor management apply in case of forgery.
d. Doctrine of indoor management does not apply if the act of an officer of a company is one
which would ordinarily be beyond the powers of such an officer.
Codes :
(1) only a is correct. (2) only b is correct.
(3) only c is correct. (4) only d is correct.

75. Find answer by using codes given below :

Director may be removed by
a. Other Directors b. Creditors
c. Central Government d. Shareholders in a general meeting
Codes :
(1) only a and b are correct. (2) only b and c are correct.
(3) only c and d are correct. (4) only d and a are correct.
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 1 3 4 1 4 2 2 2 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 2 3 2 4 3 2 4 1 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 2 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 3 4
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1 3 1 2 1 4 2 2 4 2
71 72 73 74 75
3 3 2 4 3


The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B during
the years 2011-15. Answer questions 1-3 based on the data contained in the table :
Profit Earned by Two Companies
Percentage Profit (%)

Year
A B
2011 20 30
2012 35 45
2013 45 35
2014 40 50
2015 25 35
Income  Expenditure
Where, percent (%) Profit = × 100
Expenditure
1. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of company A ?
(1) 2012 (2) 2013
(3) 2014 (4) 2015
2. If the total expenditure of the two companies was ` 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the expenditure
of A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, then what was the income of the company A in that year ?
(1) ` 9.2 lakh (2) ` 8.1 lakh
(3) ` 7.2 lakh (4) ` 6.0 lakh
3. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B ?

(1) 35% (2) 42%
(3) 38% (4) 40%
The following table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a
survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions that
follow : (Question 4-6) to the nearest whole percentage :
Number of people
Age  (Years) (Years) (Years)
Style of 15-20 21-30 31+
Music 
Classical 6 4 17
Pop 7 5 5
Rock 6 12 14
Jazz 1 4 11
Blues 2 3 15
Hip-Hop 9 3 4
Ambient 2 2 2
4. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favourite style other than classical
music ?
(1) 64% (2) 60%
(3) 75% (4) 50%
5. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30 ?

(1) 31% (2) 23%
(3) 25% (4) 14%
6. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their favourite style
of music ?
(1) 6% (2) 8%
(3) 14% (4) 12%
7. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as

(1) Burning (2) Zipping
(3) Digitizing (4) Ripping
8. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a

(1) Worm (2) Virus
(3) Threat (4) Spam
9. The statement “the study, design, development, implementation, support or management of

computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer Hardware”
refers to
(1) Information Technology (IT)
(2) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)
(3) Information and Data Technology (IDT)
(4) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
10. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the
decimal number 51 is given by
(1) 110011 (2) 110010
(3) 110001 (4) 110100
11. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human
beings.
(1) Particulate matter (2) Oxides of nitrogen
(3) Surface ozone (4) Carbon monoxide
12. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India ?
(1) Untreated sewage (2) Agriculture run-off
(3) Unregulated small scale industries (4) Religious practices

13. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

(1) 2022 (2) 2030
(3) 2040 (4) 2050
14. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
(1) 50 GW (2) 25 GW
(3) 15 GW (4) 10 GW
15. Assertion (A) : Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R) : Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true
16. World Meteorological Organisation’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths
due to hydrometeorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the
decade 1994-2003)
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 80%
17. ___________ is a type of memory circuity that holds the computer’s start-sup routine.
(1) RIM (Read Initial Memory) (2) RAM (Random Access Memory)
(3) ROM (Read Only Memory) (4) Cache Memory
18. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to

represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the
keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
(1) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(2) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
(3) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
(4) American Standard Code for Isolated Information
19. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by
(1) The Supreme Court of India
(2) The High Court
(3) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(4) The President of India

20. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ?
(a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) only
21. Which of the following are the fundamental duties ?

(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
22. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog ?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
23. Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are promoted by
the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) ?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
24. The best way for providing value education is through

(1) discussions on scriptural texts (2) lectures / discourses on values
(3) seminars / symposia on values (4) mentoring / reflective sessions on values

25. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive
dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets
of items Set-I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set-II comprising basic requirements
for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct
alternative from the code :
Set-I Set-II
(Levels of Cognitive Interchange) (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive
interchange)
a. Memory level i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples
and non-examples of a point.
b. Understanding level ii. Recording the important points made during
the presentations.
c. Reflective level iii. Asking the students to discuss various items
of information.
iv. Critically analyzing the points to the made
and discussed.
Codes :
a b c
(1) ii iv i
(2) iii iv ii
(3) ii i iv
(4) i ii iii
26. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-
learning systems ? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below :
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
27. Assertion (A) : The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking
abilities among students.
Reason (R) : These abilities ensure job placements.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true

28. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system.
Set-I Set-II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects
with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a
group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final learning outcomes
evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions
tests
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) i iii iv ii
29. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors :
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject
(b) Teacher’s socioeconomic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (c), (d) and (f)
(3) (b), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (c) and (f)
30. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

(1) attracting student’s attention in the class room
(2) minimising indiscipline problems in the classroom
(3) optimising learning outcomes of students
(4) effective engagement of students in learning tasks
31. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(1) preparation of a research paper/article
(2) writing of seminar presentation
(3) a research dissertation
(4) presenting a workshop / conference paper
32. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical ?
(1) Data collection with standardised research tools
(2) Sampling design with probability sample techniques
(3) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences
(4) Data gathering to take place with top-down systematic evidences
33. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research
ethics’ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary
studies.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (4) (i), (iii) and (v)
34. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in completing

school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices to influence stress-
proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of
research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01
level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis ?
(1) The research hypothesis will also be rejected
(2) The research hypothesis will be accepted
(3) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected
(4) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis
35. A researcher intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-
day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study ?
(1) Historical method (2) Descriptive survey method
(3) Experimental method (4) Ex-post-facto method
36. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research ?
(1) Developing a research design
(2) Formulating a research question
(3) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(4) Formulating a research hypothesis
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 37 to 42 :
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers
conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer-
electronics industries (e.g. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based
advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China
appears to the capitalizing best on the basis of labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive
in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no
longer sufficient for competitive advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries.
Today, a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to
India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing
technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other

countries, India, Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today
are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted
financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries
and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce
no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations
in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated
there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide.
Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour,
capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an
organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge
as a resource with atleast the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic
inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets
that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering,
pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas
provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips),
which are made principally of sand and common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic
devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and
fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive
resource in the semiconductor industry.
37. How can an organisation enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime ?
(1) Through regional capital flows
(2) Through regional interactions among business players
(3) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced
(4) By effective use of various instrumentalities
38. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets ?

(1) Access to capital (2) Common office buildings
(3) Superior knowledge (4) Common metals
39. The passage also mentions about the trend of

(1) Global financial flow
(2) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
(3) Regionalisation of capitalists
(4) Organizational incompatibility
40. What does the author lay stress on the passage ?

(1) International commerce
(2) Labour-Intensive industries
(3) Capital resource management
(4) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage
41. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades ?
(1) South Korea (2) Japan
(3) Mexico (4) Malaysia
42. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and
service sectors ?
(1) Due to diminishing levels of skill
(2) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads
(3) Because of new competitors
(4) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries
43. What are the barriers to effective communication ?

(1) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation
(2) Dialogue, summary and self-review
(3) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude
(4) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration
44. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

(1) Proximity, utility, loneliness (2) Utility, secrecy, dissonance
(3) Secrecy, dissonance, deception (4) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance
45. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.
(1) Use of peer command
(2) Making aggressive statements
(3) Adoption of well-established posture
(4) Being authoritarian
46. Every communicator has to experience

(1) Manipulated emotions (2) Anticipatory excitement
(3) The issue of homophiles (4) Status dislocation
47. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which
method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context ?
(1) Horizontal communication (2) Vertical communication
(3) Corporate communication (4) Cross communication
48. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in
a classroom.
(1) Avoidance of proximity (2) Voice modulation
(3) Repetitive pause (4) Fixed posture
49. Two railway tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost ` 177. Three tickets
from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost ` 173. The fare for city B from city A will
be `
(1) 25 (2) 27
(3) 30 (4) 33

50. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks
5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point ?
(1) 20 m (2) 15 m
(3) 10 m (4) 5 m
51. A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is

related to D as
(1) Grand daughter (2) Daughter
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Sister
52. In the series

AB, EDC, FGHI, ... ?..., OPQRST, the missing term is
(1) JKLMN (2) JMKNL
(3) NMLKJ (4) NMKLJ
53. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the
other. Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code :
Propositions :
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes :
(1) (1) and (2) (2) (1) and (4)
(3) (3) and (4) (4) (1) and (3)
54. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANJS will be
(1) YKCPGAYLQ (2) BNFSJDBMR
(3) QLYAGPCKY (4) YQKLCYPAG
55. In the series 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ........ The next term will be
(1) 63 (2) 73
(3) 83 (4) 93
56. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram :
(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes
(2) It can provide clear method of notation
(3) It can be either valid or invalid
(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity
57. Select the code which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises:
(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid
(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid
(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid
(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid
58. Given below are two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or
together). Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn.
Premises : (i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusions : (a) Ram is emotional
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (c) only
59. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed
certainly to be true ?
Propositions :
(1) Some thieves are poor (2) Some thieves are not poor
(3) No thief is poor (4) No poor person is a thief
60. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument
involved in it :
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to
assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(1) Astronomical (2) Anthropological
(3) Deductive (4) Analogical
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 2 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 1 2 4 2 2 3 1 1 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 3 2 1 3 2 2 1 4 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 4 4
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 3 4 1 3 3 2 3 2 4

Law Paper - II (July 2016)
Law
1. In Golaknath Vs State of Punjab Justice K. Subba Rao observed—

(1) The Preamble contains in a nutshell ideals and aspirations of the Constitution.
(2) The Preamble is the key to open the minds of the Constitution makers.
(3) The Preamble is enforceable by the Judiciary.
(4) The Preamble of our Constitution is of great importance and it should be implemented.
2. The Five Judges Constitution Bench held that ‘Imparting Education cannot be treated as a Trade
or Business’ in which of the following cases?
(1) Unnikrishnan Case (2) Mohini Jain Case
(3) Dinesh Kumar Case (4) P.A. Inamdar Case
3. As per the Constitution of India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) The state may make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work.
(b) The state shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all the
children until they complete the age of six years.
(c) The state shall not endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code in the territory
of India.
(d) The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the
forests and wildlife of the country.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)
4. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): No minimum age is prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court
of India nor is there any fixed period of office.
Reason (R): The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is dealt within Article132 of the
Constitution of India.
Codes:
(1) (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.

5. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India had invalidated a Constitutional
Amendment for non-compliance with the procedure contained in the proviso to clause (2) of
Article-368?
(1) Kihoto Hollohan V. Zachillhu and others
(2) Keshavanand Bharati V. State of Kerala
(3) Golaknath V. State of Punjab
(4) State of West Bengal V. Union of India
6. If the President of India is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India
or any part of the territory thereof is threatened whether by war or external aggression or armed
rebellion he may by proclamation make a declaration to that effect. Here the ‘satisfaction’ of the
President of India means:
(1) The personal satisfaction of the President of India.
(2) The personal satisfaction of the Prime Minister and all the Council of Ministers and
informing to the President of India.
(3) The decision of the Union Cabinet that such a proclamation may be issued, has been
communicated to him in writing.
(4) The decision of the Union Cabinet, that such a proclamation may be issued, has been
communicated to him in writing along with 2/3rd Parliament Member’s signature.
7. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List–I List-II
(a) Hari Krishna Bhargav Vs (i) Conditional Legislation
Union of India
(b) Godfrey Philips India Ltd. Vs (ii) Principles of Interpretation to avoid over
State of U.P. lapping
(c) K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo (iii) Power of Parliament to levy taxes on income
Vs. State of Orissa other than Agricultural Income
(d) In re : The Delhi Laws Act (iv) Colourable Legislation
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
8. “The task of social engineering is to build as efficient structure of the society as possible with
minimum friction and waste.”
This statement is of:
(1) Kelsen (2) Roscoe Pound
(3) Savigny (4) Karl Marx
9. Ratio decidendi may be defined as:

(1) Statement of law applied to the legal problems disclosed by facts.
(2) Finding of material facts, direct and inferential, based on earlier case law.
(3) The rule of law which others regard as being of binding authority.
(4) All of the above

10. Which one of the following groups indicate the four sanctions as enumerated by Bentham for
various kinds of pleasure and pain?
(1) Physical, Moral, Ethical and Political
(2) Physical, Political, Moral and Religious
(3) Moral, Social, Legal and Political
(4) Legal, Ethical, Moral and Social
11. The three defects in the simple social structure of primary rules as enunciated by Hart are:
(1) Their inadequacy, immobility and efficiency
(2) Their uncertainty, static and inefficiency
(3) Their mobility, easiness and simplicity
(4) Their abnormality, violability and unsoundness
12. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List–I (Book) List-II (Author)
(a) The Concept of Law (i) Gray
(b) The Nature and Sources of (ii) Julius Stone
the Law
(c) Some Reflections on Jurisprudence (iii) Buckland
(d) The Province and Function of Law (iv) H.L.A. Hart
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
13. Which one of the following is not a theory of the nature of ‘Legal Persons’?
(1) Purpose Theory (2) Fiction Theory
(3) Interest Theory (4) Bracket Theory
14. “International law must be continuously developed by revision in content, expansion of scope and
improvement of the means of securing compliance, so that it is kept in accordance with the
changing needs of the international community.”
This statement is made by:
(1) Starke (2) Edward Collins
(3) L. Oppenheim (4) W. Friedman
15. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?

(a) Decisions or determinations of the organs of International Institution does not find mention
in Article-38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
(b) West Rand Central Gold Mining Company Ltd. V. R is related to general principles of law
recognised by civilized states.
(c) Frontier Dispute (Barkina Faso Vs Mali) is a case related to International customs as a
source of law.
(d) The importance of the works of the jurists has been stressed by Justice Gray in Barcelona
Traction Case.

Codes:
(1) Only (a), (b) and (c) are not correct.
(2) Only (b), (c) and (d) are not correct.
(3) Only (c) and (d) are not correct.
16. Read the following statements and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): According to the exponents of Monism Theory, law is a Unified branch of knowledge,
no matter whether it applies on persons or other entities.
Reason (R): In view of the Monistic writers, in the ultimate analysis of the law we find that man
is at the root to all laws.
Codes:
(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct.
17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) According to the constitutive theory of recognition, statehood or the authority of the new
government exists as such prior to and independently of recognition.
(b) De Jure recognition is by nature provisional and may be made dependent on conditions
with which the new entity has to comply.
(c) The principle that there is no distinction between de facto and de jure recognition for the
purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognised authority was laid down in
Luther Vs. Sagar.
(d) De jure recognition is final and once given cannot be withdrawn.
Codes:
(1) Only (b) is correct.
(2) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
18. The principle of self-determination has been incorporated in the Charter of United Nations under:
(1) Article 2(7) (2) Article 5
(3) Article 6 (4) Articles 1(2), 55 and 56
19. The Commission on Human Rights was replaced by Human Rights Council by the General
Assembly vide its Resolution:
(1) 60/251 of 15 March, 2006 (2) 61/260 of 15 March, 2008
(3) 60/251 of 20 March, 2006 (4) 60/251 of 30 March, 2006
20. ‘Sapinda Relationship’, which prohibits marriage among Hindus with near relatives on paternal
and maternal sides, is based on the principle of—
(1) Monogamy (2) Endogamy
(3) Exogamy (4) Polygamy

21. Match List–I with List–II under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and give the correct answer with
the help of codes given below:
List–I List–II
(a) Ceremonies for a Hindu marriage (i) Sec. 15
(b) Restitution of Conjugal Rights (ii) Sec. 7
(c) Remarriage of divorced persons (iii) Sec. 16
(d) Legitimacy of Children (iv) Sec. 9
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
22. Read the following statement and answer with the help of the codes given below:
The guilt theory of divorce, on the one hand, implies a guilty party and on the other, it implies
that the other party is innocent. In view of this which of the following is/are correct?
(a) If cruelty is provoked, divorce will be refused.
(b) If innocent party condones the acts of the guilty party, no divorce can be granted.
(c) If both parties were guilty, divorce would not be granted to either.
(d) Unreasonable delay in filing petition is no bar for the relief of divorce.
Codes:
(1) Only (a) and (c) are correct. (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (4) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
List-I (Veda) List-II (Deals with)
(a) Yajurveda (i) Praise of forces of nature
(b) Samveda (ii) Magic, Spell and Incantation
(c) Atharvaveda (iii) Rituals
(d) Rigveda (iv) Dance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
24. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to ‘muta’ marriage?
(a) It is a temporary marriage.
(b) It is recognised under Sunni law.
(c) It is recognised under Shia law.
(d) It is a marriage for a fixed period.
Codes:
(1) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct. (2) Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) Only (b) is correct. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Assertion (A): The Shariat Act, 1937 makes Muslim law applicable expressly to all Muslims.
Reason (R): The Act has abrogated almost all the customs (except relating to agricultural land)
applicable to Muslims.
Codes:
(1) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(3) (R) is right but (A) is wrong.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct reason of (A).
26. The remedy of Restitution of Conjugal Rights has its roots in—
(1) Jewish Law (2) French Law
(3) English Law (4) Indian Law
Assertion (A): A juvenile delinquent may have physical capacity to commit crime, while he has
no contractual capacity to do so.
Reason (R): According to Section-11 of the Indian Contract Act, a juvenile has no contractual
capacity to commit crime.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct answer for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) wrong.
(3) (A) is wrong but (R) is right.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not correct answer for (A).
28. “Consideration means a reasonable, equivalent or other valuable benefit passed on by the
transferor to the transferee. Similarly, when the word ‘consideration’ was qualified by the word
‘adequate’ it makes the consideration stronger so as to make it sufficient and valuable having
regard to the facts, circumstances and necessities of the case.”
Above Principle was laid down in—
(1) Sonia Bhatia Vs State of U.P.
(2) LIC of India Vs Pushpa P. Mansukhani
(3) Dipraich Sugar Mills Ltd. Vs Mazdur Union
(4) A.B.C. Laminart Pvt. Ltd. Vs A.P. Agencies, Salem
29. Which of the following statements is right?

(1) An agreement not to do an impossible act in itself is void.
(2) An agreement to do a possible act is void.
(3) An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void.
(4) A contract to do an act, which after the contract is made, becomes impossible, or, by
reason of some event which the promisor could not prevent to be unlawful, becomes
valid, when the act becomes impossible or unlawful.

List–I List–II
(a) Remoteness of damage (i) Chief Secretary, State of Gujarat Vs Kothari
and Associates
(b) Proof of loss to be given to (ii) Madras Railways Co. Vs Govind Rau
claim special damages
(c) Loss of profit is special loss (iii) Karsandas H. Thacker Vs Saran Engg. Co.
Ltd.
(d) Consequences of delays in transit (iv) Union of India Vs Steel Stock Holders
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
31. Which of the following aspects are the parts of undue influence?
Answer using codes given below:
(a) Inability to dominate will of other.
(b) A party unduly influencing and another party being unduly influenced are on equal footing.
(c) A relationship involving trust and confidence.
(d) In a relationship, one party is a person in mental distress.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only
32. Which of the following statements are wrong?

Answer using the codes given blow:
(a) Fraud renders a contract void.
(b) Misrepresentation renders a contract voidable.
(c) Misrepresentation is more or less an intentional wrong, whereas fraud may be quite
innocent.
(d) Damages for loss caused by innocent misrepresentation are assessed on the same
principles as in the case of a deliberate fraud.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (a) and (b) only
33. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the law of torts in India?
(1) It is based on morality that no one has a right to injure or harm other intentionally or even
innocently.
(2) It is a civil wrong for which remedy is a common law action for liquidated damages.
(3) It is based on law which in the constitutional context means judicially developed equity,
covers everything which is covered by a statute.
(4) It is an act and not omission suffered by a determinate person.

List–I List-II
(Defences in Tort) (Related cases)
(a) Volenti non fit injuria (i) Olga Tellis Vs Municipal Corporation, Bombay
(b) Judicial acts (ii) Samira Kohli Vs Prabha Manchanda
(c) Acts of State (iii) Anwar Hussain Vs Ajoy Kumar
(d) Necessity (iv) Vinod Kumar Shantilal Gosalia Vs Gangadhar
Narsinghadas Agarwal
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
35. The police officers failed to observe the provisions of U.P. Police Regulations in taking care of
the gold seized. The injury had been committed by the employees of the state during the course
of its employment, but the employment was in special category of sovereign power, so the claim
was not sustainable. It was held by the Supreme Court in—
(1) Mohammad Murad Vs Govt. of U.P.
(2) Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain Vs State of U.P.
(3) State of U.P. Vs Hindustan Lever Ltd.
(4) State of U.P. Vs Tulsiram
36. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India applied the principle of absolute
liability?
Give answer by using codes below:
(a) M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India
(b) Charan Lal Sahu Vs Union of India
(c) Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action Vs Union of India
(d) M.C. Mehta Vs State of MP
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
37. What remoteness of damage mean in relation to liability of defendant?

(1) The defendant is not liable for all direct consequences of the tortuous acts if he could
foresee them.
(2) Foreseeability is no test of remoteness of damages.
(3) Liable in Law only for consequences which are not remote.
(4) Directness of the consequences is the only test for the remoteness of the damages.
38. Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation Vs K. Hemlatha and Municipal Corporation
Greater Bombay Vs Laxman Iyer are important cases decided by the Supreme Court on the rule
of—
(1) Act of God (2) Contributory Negligence
(3) Nuisance (4) Trespass

39. Read the following Principle:

“There is always an imposed duty on a person to act on moral necessity to preserve one’s life,
yet there may be justifiable occasions of causing harm on innocent persons.” In the light of the
above, in which of the following circumstances the accused can claim doctrine of self-preservation
under the provisions of Sec. 81 of IPC?
(1) When necessity is pleaded as a means of defence under sections 96 to 106.
(2) Self-preservation is not an absolute necessity, so killing the weaker is justifiable by the
stronger.
(3) Arresting a drunken person moving in great danger at a public place.
(4) When there is no choice of evil affecting the accused.
40. In the absence of any cogent definition of unsoundness of mind, the world wide acceptance of
its equivalent to insanity was propounded by—
(1) Stephan (2) Harris
(3) Kenny (4) Davis
41. The underlying principle covering the law on ‘consent’ is based on absolute and unconditional
prohibition on the gravity of the offence relating to:
(1) Simple hurt
(2) Death
(3) Theft from an unlocked house
(4) Submission for detaining indecent liberties
42. The right of private defence is not allowed in which of the facts leading to:
(1) The death was consequence of the assault.
(2) More harm was done than necessary.
(3) When the fact is clearly based on conjectures.
(4) When the fact reveals about imminent danger to self or property.
43. When a person tries to escape from lawful custody while being taken to a Magistrate to furnish
security for good behaviour could be punished under the provision of—
(3) Section 225A of IPC (4) Section 225B of IPC
44. The distinction between intentional killing in hot blood and intentional killing when the blood was
cool may be inferred through—
(1) Provocation (2) Self-control
(3) Passion (4) Resentment
Assertion (A): In an illegal termination of workman the reinstatement of workman in service
does not appear to be an acceptable option in all cases. The monetary compensation may
sufficiently meet the ends of justice.
Reason (R): The compensation in lieu of reinstatement is the normal rule.

Codes:
46. An arbitration award is binding on—

(1) All parties to the dispute.
(2) All the workmen employed on the date of dispute and subsequent to the dispute.
(3) The parties to the arbitration agreement.
(4) All parties summoned to appear as parties to the dispute.
47. The Supreme Court referred the ILO instruments to reiterate the workers participation in the
industrial process as enshrined in the constitution and other labour legislations in one of the
following case:
(1) Chandra Bhavan Boarding & Lodging, Bangalore Vs State of Mysore
(2) Monogram Mills Ltd. Vs State of Gujarat
(3) University of Delhi Vs Ramnath
(4) K.V.S. Ravi Vs Bangalore Metropolitan Transport Corporation
48. Where an undertaking is closed for any reason whatsoever, every workman is entitled to
compensation if such workman has been in the continuous service—
(1) for not less than 90 days (2) for not less than 6 months
(3) for not less than one year (4) for not less than two years
49. “A strike could be legal or illegal and an illegal strike could be a justified one” was opined by
Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer in one of the following case.
(1) Bharat Kumar K. Palicha Vs State of Kerala
(2) Gujarat Steel Tubes Vs Its Majdoor Sabha
(3) Monogram Mills Ltd. Vs State of Gujarat
50. A Seven Judges Bench of the Supreme Court exhaustively considered the scope of the definition
‘Industry’ and laid down the ‘Triple test’ in one of the following case:
(1) State of Bombay Vs Hospital Mazdoor Sabha
(3) Management of Safdurjung Hospital, Delhi Vs Kuldip Singh
(4) Bangalore Water Supply Vs A. Rajappa

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 1 3 3 1 3 1 2 4 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 1 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 3 4 1 4 1 2 1 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 1 1 2 4 3 2 3 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 2 4 1 1 3 2 3 2 4

Law Paper - III (July 2016)
Law
1. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) The ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution of India cannot be amended.
(b) Parliamentary Democracy is included in the list of ‘Basic structure’ of the Constitution of
India.
(c) According to convention of Parliamentary Democracy, the Prime Minister has to be from
the House of People
(d) Article 83 of the Constitution of India deals with the duration of Houses of Parliament.
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.
2. From the following statements select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(i) In India at the head of the entire judicial system stands the Supreme Court of India.
(ii) Under the Supreme Court of India stands the high courts of various states.
(iii) District and Sessions Court functions under the concerned high court.
Codes:
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using codes given below:
List–I List II
(a) Article 13 (i) protection in respect of conviction for offences.
(b) Article 15 (ii) prohibition of traffic in human beings and
forced labour.
(c) Article 20 (iii) prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
(d) Article 23 (iv) laws inconsistent with or in derogation of
Fundamental Rights.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

4. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees in India acts as ‘watch dog’ on departmental
expenditure and irregularities?
(1) Committee on public undertakings
(2) Committee on public assurances
(3) Estimates Committee
(4) Public Accounts Committee
Assertion (A): Both houses of Parliament as well as of a State Legislature have similar privileges
under the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): In general the position of the speaker is similar to that of the speaker of English
House of Commons.
Codes:
6. Which of the following are included in the list of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?
Answer using codes given below:
i. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India and the states
ii. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
iii. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
iv. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
Codes:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
7. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List–I List–II
(Articles) (Provisions)
(a) 40 (i) Separation of judiciary from executive
(b) 42 (ii) Organisation of village panchayats
(c) 44 (iii) Provision for just and human conditions of
work and maternity relief
(d) 50 (iv) Uniform civil code
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

8. Which one of the following was not a recommendation of the Dinesh Goswami Committee on
electoral reforms?
(1) State assistance to National political parties for elections.
(2) Maintenance of proper accounts of elections.
(3) Strict enforcement of model code of conduct.
(4) Video coverage of polling booths to check booth capturing.
9. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The system of Droit Administratif is not at all based on the doctrine of separation
of powers.
Reason (R): The most original aspect of the French Administrative Law is the independence of
the administration from judicial control.
Codes:
10. Which of the following is not an essential element of the doctrine of audi alteram partem?
(1) Person affected adversely must be heard.
(2) Fair and transparent procedure must be provided by authority.
(3) Reasoned decision must not be based on the satisfaction of the concerned authority.
(4) Authority concerned must dispose off the matter by a speaking order.
List–I List-II
(Name of Case) (Decision)
(a) Hira Nath Mishra (i) The inquiry was vitiated as class IV employee
v. Rajendra Medical College has to defend himself against officers, hence
denial of principles of natural justice.
(b) Bhagat Ram v. State of H.P. (ii) Principle of natural justice can be exempted
for the security of girl students and girls could
be testified in the absence of miscreants.
(c) A.K. Roy v. Union of India (iii) No deprivation of existing right enjoyed by
government servant without giving him
opportunity of being heard.
(d) H.L. Trehan v. Union of India (iv) Principles of natural justice are not rigid
norms of unchanging context, they have to
be tailored to suit the nature of the proceeding.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

12. A statute confers discretionary powers on an official for his use, by denoting expressions like:
(a) Reasonable (b) Appropriate
(c) Equitable (d) Sufficient
Codes:
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) Only (a) and (b) are correct
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
13. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The court can direct competent authority to exercise discretion in accordance with
law but court cannot direct to exercise the discretion in a particular manner.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court strikes down a decision of competent authority on ground of
‘extraneous consideration’ and ‘improper purpose’.
Codes:
14. What is the objective of the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013?
(1) To investigate the charges of corruption against public and private companies.
(2) To substitute the Central Vigilance Commission by the institution of Lokpal.
(3) To repeal the Lokayukta and establish Lokpal.
(4) To inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries.
15. Which of the following declarations relating to assets and liabilities by a public servant are to be
made under the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013?
Answer by using the codes given below:
a. Assets of which he, his spouse and his dependent children are jointly or severally, owner
or beneficiary.
b. Assets of which he, his parents and children are owner or beneficiary.
c. His liabilities and that of his spouse and his dependent children.
d. His liabilities and that of his spouse, parents and children.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
16. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) In Jurisprudence we are concerned to derive rules from authority and apply them to
problems.
(2) In Jurisprudence we are concerned to reflect on the nature of legal rules.
(3) In Jurisprudence we are concerned on the underlying meaning of legal concepts.
(4) In Jurisprudence we are concerned on the essential features of legal systems.

17. Which of the following requisites are necessary to be fulfilled for a custom to be valid source
of law?
(a) Reasonableness, antiquity and conformity with statute law.
(b) Immemorial antiquity, conformity with statute law and observance as of right.
(c) Specificity, efficacy and reasonableness.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) all
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (b) only
below:
Assertion (A): Judges must follow authoritative precedents.
Reason (R): Authoritative precedents derive their authority from basic postulate of the legal
system itself.
Codes:
19. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Assertion (A): A person in possession of a thing is deemed to be the owner of the thing
possessed.
Reason (R): Possession is as good as ownership.
Codes:
below:
Assertion (A): A claim to recover a debt barred by lapse of time is an imperfect right.
Reason (R): The statute of limitations does not provide that after a certain time a debt shall
become extinct.
Codes:

21. The fundamental principle of legal positivism is to draw a clear-cut demarcation between law and
morals, between law as it is and law as ought to be wherein the former is essential in the nature
of ‘command’ and latter being merely:
(1) routine and normal (2) persuasive and non-obligatory
(3) non-persuasive and obligatory (4) directive and non-persuasive
22. Which one of the following is not a theory of corporate personality?

(1) Fiction theory (2) Will theory
(3) Realist theory (4) Bracket theory
23. Match List–I with List–II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List–I (Theory) List–II (Jurist associated with)
(a) Interest theory of legal rights (i) Duguit
(b) Realist theory of corporate (ii) Ihering
personality
(c) Doctrine of social solidarity (iii) Gierke
(d) Doctrine of social engineering (iv) Pound
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
24. Doli Capax is the principle which decides—

(1) Immunity from punishment as there is no understanding of the consequences.
(2) That there was discern between good and evil for which punishment would be justified.
(3) Proof of innocence would ipso facto be an answer for imposing a sentence.
(4) Before punishing a person his immaturity of intellect is to be assessed.
25. The law is clear that consent of the party becomes immaterial when the very act itself is unlawful.
In which of the cases there could be an exception?
(1) Prize fight
(2) Advantage taken in a game of fencing
(3) Aiding and abetting in a game of boxing
(4) Negligent while sky-diving
26. The apprehension of the use of criminal force must be from the person making the gesture, but
if it arises from some other person, then what offence, if any, has been caused?
(1) Common intention to cause assault
(2) Common object to cause assault
(3) Criminal force
(4) No offence

27. For convicting a person the state must rule out the possibility of an accidental death in a case
of dowry harassment because the law requires:
(1) That the death occurred otherwise than in normative circumstances.
(2) The demand for dowry is not evidenced as the following consequence of death.
(3) The mitigating factor of death do not reveal any demand as to dowry but there was
breach of promise to provide dowry.
(4) The rule of presumption, in the absence as to the demand of dowry provides contrary
jurisprudence for convicting the accused.
28. In the eventuality of grievous hurt becomes culpable homicide not amounting to murder the injury
which is actually found should itself be such that it may put the life of the injured is danger, was
decided in the case of:
(1) Maung Po Yi. V. Mo E Tin
(2) Government of Bom. V. Abdul Wahab
(3) Muhammad Rafi V. King
(4) Bishnovnam Surma V. King
29. A snatcher cut the nostrils of a woman and committed grievous hurt and later she died. What
offence if any, he has committed?
(1) Voluntary causing grievous hurt of serious nature
(2) Grievous hurt and murder
(3) Accidental death while extortion was committed
(4) No knowledge as to the condition of the deceased, so offence
30. The restrainment of a person in a place or compelling the person to go in a particular direction
with an exterior motive will amount to:
(1) visit to shrine
(2) custodial imprisonment
(3) wrongful confinement
(4) confinement against the will of a person to administer enema by the doctor
31. Which offence is outside the range of culpable homicide in view of the fact that the accused had
neither intention nor knowledge about the consequence, yet it is punishable?
(1) When the injury results due to carelessness
(2) When the mishap happens due to rash and negligent act
(3) When the contributory act was voluntarily done
(4) When the act resulted in course of exasperation
32. The total forest cover in our country is far less than the ideal minimum of 1/3 of the total land.
Therefore the Parliament by 42nd Amendment to the Constitution has added two more Articles
to ensure improvement of environment and impose duty on every citizen.
They are:
(1) Art 31 C and 51 A (a) (2) Art 48 A and 51 A (g)
(3) Art 39 A and 51 A (4) Art 31 D and 51 A (d)

33. The Supreme Court held that, “the precautionary principle has no applicability in this case as the
gains and losses of building a big dam are predictable and certain”, in one of the following case:
(2) Narmada Bachao Andolan V. Union of India
(3) State of M.P. V. Krishna Das Tuka Ram
(4) S. Jaganath V. Union of India
34. Which one of the following has been described as the “Magna-Carta” of the environment?
(1) Rio declaration (2) Tbilisi declaration
(3) The Stockholm declaration (4) Environment product declaration
35. Match the item in List-I with the item in List-II using the codes given below:
List–I List–II
(a) No reason to compel non- (i) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India V. K.K.R.
smokers to be helpless victims Majestic Colony Welfare Association
of air pollution
(b) Noise pollution cannot be tolerated (ii) S. Jagannath V. Union of India
even if such noise was a direct
result of and was connected with
religious activity
(c) Duty to protect the natural (iii) Murli Deora V. Union of India
resources applying the principle
of public trust
(d) Pay compensation for reversing (iv) M.C. Mehta V. Kamalnath and others
the ecology and compensate the
individual for loss suffered
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
36. The Supreme Court constituted Bhure Lal Committee to examine and report the low sulphur
diesel as a clean fuel to be used by vehicles in one of the following case:
(1) Research Foundation for Science, Technology and Natural Resources Policy V. Union of
India
(2) M.C. Mehta V. Kamalnath
(3) M.K. Sharma V. B.E.L
(4) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India and others

37. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): All natural resources are held in trust by the government. The doctrine enjoins
upon the government to protect the resources for the enjoyment of general public rather than
to permit their use for private ownership or commercial purpose.
Reason (R): The public has a right to expect certain lands and natural resources to retain their
natural characteristic in finding its way into the law of the land.
Codes:
38. “Cases involving issues of environmental pollution, ecological destruction and conflict over natural
resources are on the increase and hence setting up of environmental courts on the regional basis
with one professional judge and two experts drawn from Ecological Science Research Group is
necessary”, was observed in one of the following case:
(2) Bittu Sehgal V. Union of India
(3) T.N. Godavarman Thirulmulpad V. Union of India
(4) A.P. Pollution Control Board V. Prof. M.V. Nayudu
39. Who has remarked that International Law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence because in his
view, rules of International Law are followed by courtesy and hence they should not be kept in
the category of law?
(1) Prof. H.L.A. Hart (2) J.G. Starke
(3) Louis Henkin (4) Holland
40. In which of the following cases the World Court by majority has taken the view that the sources
of international law are not hierarchical but are necessarily complementary and inter-related?
(1) Nicaragua V. U.S.A. (2) In North Sea Continental Shelf case
(3) In the Barcelona Traction case (4) Frontier dispute (Burkina Faso V. Mali)
41. Who has remarked that the wide acceptance of declaratory theory is due to the reaction against
the traditional conception of recognition as a political act purely and simply. There is a legal duty
on the part of the state to recognise any community that has in fact acquired the characteristics
of statehood?
(1) L. Oppenheim (2) Hans Kelson
(3) Lauterpacht (4) Anzilloti
42. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court clarified the distinction between ‘expulsion’
and ‘extradition’ following international norms?
(1) Mobarak Ali Ahmad V. State of Bombay
(2) Hans Muller of Nuremberg V. Supdt, Presidency Jail, Calcutta and Others
(3) Dharam Teja’s case
(4) Ram Babu Saxena V. State

43. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) By asylum we mean shelter and active protection extended to a political refugee from
another state which admits him on his request.
(b) Under Article 14 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, Right to asylum is
recognised.
(c) International Court of Justice explained the distinction between territorial and extraterritorial
asylum in the Asylum Case (Colombia V. Perus).
(d) In 1966, the United Nations declaration on territorial asylum was unanimously adopted by
the General Assembly.
Codes:
(1) Only (a) is correct. (2) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) Only (c) and (d) both are correct. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
44. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct in reference to the Economic and
Social Council (ECOSOC)?
(a) The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) consists of 54 members which are elected
by General Assembly.
(b) Half of its members are elected each year for a term of two years.
(c) India is one of the members of the council.
(d) President of ECOSOC is elected for two year term.
Codes:
(1) Only (d) is not correct.
(2) (b) and (d) both are not correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are not correct.
45. Under which Article of the United Nations Charter, the Security Council is empowered to implement
the judgements of the World Court in case one of the parties fails to implement it and other party
to the dispute brings the matter to the Security Council?
(3) Article 62 (4) Article 36(5)
46. Read the following propositions and give correct answer with the help of codes given below :
Propositions are:
(i) A voidable Hindu marriage is regarded as a valid marriage until a decree annulling it has
been passed by a competent court.
(ii) A void Hindu marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree
annulling it.
(iii) A void Hindu marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a
competent court.
(iv) Children of void and voidable Hindu marriages are legitimate.
Codes:
(1) Only (i) and (iii) are correct, but (iv) is incorrect.
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct, but (iii) is incorrect.
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(4) (i) and (iv) are correct, but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect.

47. Match List–I and List–II and find correct answer by using codes given below:
List–I List–II
(Case Law) (Decision)
(a) Seema V/s Ashwani (i) Cruelty as a ground of divorce
(b) Githa Hariharan V/s Reserve (ii) Maintenance of Muslim wife
Bank of India
(c) V. Bhagat V/s D. Bhagat (iii) Compulsory registration of marriages
(d) Mohd. Ahmed Khan V/s Shah (iv) Mother as natural guardian
Bano
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
48. Which of the following is not a condition for a marriage under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955?
(1) No Sapinda and prohibited degree relationship
(2) Mental capacity
(3) Monogamy
(4) Free consent of the parties
49. Read the following and answer with the help of codes given below:
A married Hindu male can adopt a child:
(i) Only with his wife’s consent.
(ii) If he has more than one wife, consent of all the wives is necessary.
(iii) In case of void marriage, consent of wife is necessary.
(iv) In case of voidable marriage, the wife’s consent is necessary.
Codes:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
(2) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct, but (i) is incorrect.
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (ii) is incorrect.
50. The most proper or approved form of divorce among Muslims is—
(1) Triple talak (2) Ahsan talak
(3) Hasan talak (4) Talak-al-biddat
51. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(1) Leprosy (2) Insanity
(3) Epilepsy (4) Veneral disease

52. In default of the mother and female relatives, the following persons are entitled to the custody
of a Muslim child:
(i) Nearest paternal grandfather
(ii) Father
(iii) Full brother
(iv) Consanguine brother etc.
Among the aforesaid the correct order of priority is:
Codes:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
53. Under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, besides the former-
husband of Muslim woman, the following relatives etc. are also liable to pay maintenance to her:
(i) Children
(ii) Other relatives
(iii) State Wakf Board
(iv) Parents
Give the correct order of liability of the above with the help of codes given below:
Codes:
(1) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i) (2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) (4) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
54. The Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action on Human Rights was adopted by the World
Conference on—
(1) 25th June, 1993 (2) 10th June, 1994
(3) 15th June, 1995 (4) 25th June, 1996
55. Which one of the following slogan was adopted for the Fiftieth Anniversary of UDHR?
(1) ‘All Human Rights for All’
(2) ‘Save the Child’
(3) “Women Empowerment”
(4) “Clean Environment For All”
56. Which one of the following countries originally suggested the idea of an International Treaty on
the Rights of the Child?
(1) United States of America (2) China
(3) Poland (4) India
57. ‘It is my aspiration that health will finally be seen not as a blessing to be wished for, but as a
Human Right to be fought for’. It was said by—
(1) Dr. Lee Jong-Wook (2) Dr. Boutros Ghali
(3) Barack Obama (4) Kofi Annan

List–I List–II
(a) Convention relating to the status (i) 1948
of Refugees
(b) American Convention on Human (ii) 1963
Rights
(c) American Declaration of the (iii) 1950
Rights and Duties of Man
(d) International Convention on the (iv) 1969
Elimination of All Forms of Racial
Discrimination
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
59. The General Assembly of the United Nations created the office of UN High Commissioner for
Human Rights in the year:
(1) 1993 (2) 1994
(3) 1995 (4) 1996
60. Under Section 3(2) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 the Chairperson shall be—
(1) one who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(2) one who has been a Chairperson of a National Tribunal or Commission.
(3) an Eminent jurist in the field of Human Rights.
(4) a judge of the Supreme Court who served not less than five years.
List–I (Case) List–II (Maxim)
(a) Bhim Singh V. State of J & K (i) Damnum sine injuria
(b) Municipal Corporation of Delhi (ii) Injuria sine damnum
V. Subhagwanti
(c) Nichols V. Marsland (iii) Res ipsa loquitur
(d) Mogul Steamship Co. V. (iv) Vis major
McGregor Gow and Co.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

62. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): Making statement of fact on matters of public interest is a defence to an action
for defamation.
Reason (R): If defendant in a newspaper publishes a statement of facts making serious allegations
of dishonesty against the plaintiff, and subsequently could not prove the truth, the plea of fair
comment shall fail as based on untrue facts.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
63. The prescriptive right of easement of access and use of light and air can be acquired if it has
been:
(a) Enjoyed with interruption
(b) As a matter of concession
(c) Enjoyed without interruption as right
(d) For twenty years
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b) are incorrect and (c) and (d) are correct
(2) (a) and (d) are incorrect and (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (c) are correct and (b) and (d) are incorrect
(4) (b) and (a) are correct and (d) and (c) are incorrect
64. Which of the following is not true about the slander form of defamation?
(1) Statement is made in some transient form.
(2) It is addressed to ear.
(3) Slander is always a criminal offence.
(4) It is not actionable in absence of proof of actual damage.
65. Arrange the following cases in the chronological order by using codes:
(a) Municipal Corporation of Delhi V. Sushila Devi
(b) Shyam Sunder V. State of Rajasthan
(c) Pushpabai V. Ranjit Ginning and Pressing Co.
(d) Syad Akbar V. State of Karnataka
Codes:
(1) (d), (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c), (d) and (a)
(3) (b), (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
66. What are the rights of consumers which are to be protected and promoted by Consumer Councils
under the Consumer Protection Act?
Answer by using codes below:
(a) Protection against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and
property.
(b) Information about quality, quantity and price of goods and services.
(c) Access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices.
(d) Consumer education.
Codes:
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
67. If a complaint is found frivolous or vexatious under the Consumer Protection Act, complainant
shall pay to opposite party the cost:
(a) As specified by orders of the court.
(b) Dismissal of complaint without any cost.
(c) Not exceeding ten thousand rupees.
(d) One-tenth of the amount claimed as relief.
Codes:
(1) Only (a) and (c) are correct. (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) Only (b) and (d) are correct. (4) Only (a) and (b) are correct.
Assertion (A): It shall not be a defence in a prosecution for an offence under Section 138 of
the Negotiable Instrument Act that the drawer had no reason to believe when he issued the
cheque that the cheque may be dishonoured on presentment for the reason stated in that
Section.
Reason (R): Above assertion is laid down in Section 140 of the Negotiable Instrument Act.
Codes:
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
List–I List–II
(Consequences of ultra (Judgement)
vires transaction)
(a) Right of a member of company to (i) Jahangir R. Modi V. Shamji Ladha
get injunction against ultra vires
transaction
(b) Personal liability of directors (ii) Attorney General V. Great Eastern Railway
Company
(c) Breach of warranty of authority to (iii) Coltman V. Coltman
induce a third party to enter into
ultra vires transaction with company
(d) Ultra vires acquired property (iv) Weeks V. Property
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

List–I List – II
(Exceptions to doctrine of (Judgement)
indoor management)
(a) Knowledge of irregularity (i) T.R. Pratt Ltd. v. M.T. Ltd.
(b) Suspicion of irregularity (ii) Ruben V. Great Fingall Consolidated
(c) Forgery (iii) Anand Behari Ltd. V. Dinshaw & Co.
(d) Acts outside apparent authority (iv) Morris V. Kanssen
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Assertion (A): Payer alone, whether a corporeal person or incorporeal person, shall be competent
in case of dishonour of cheque.
Reason (R): Because Section 138 of Negotiable Instrument Act mandates so.
Codes:
72. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) A condition is a stipulation essential to any purpose of the contract.
(2) A warranty is a stipulation collateral to any purpose of the contract.
(3) When a buyer waives a warranty, it becomes a condition.
(4) Where a contract of sale is not severable and the buyer has accepted the goods or part
thereof, the breach of any condition to be fulfilled by the seller can only be treated as a
breach of warranty and not as a ground for rejecting the goods and treating the contract
as repudiated, unless there is a term of the contract, express or implied to that effect.
List–I List–II
(a) Goods in sale of goods (i) Bhopal Sugar Industries Ltd. V. STO
(b) Consideration for a sale of goods (ii) Instalment Supply Ltd. V. STO
(c) Sale and agreement to sale (iii) R.D. Goyal V. Reliance Industries Ltd.
(d) Difference between contract of (iv) Aldridge V. Johnson
sale and contract of agency
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

74. Which of the following partnerships are legal? Answer using the codes given below:
(a) Twelve members forming a banking firm.
(b) A partnership to create a monopoly.
(c) Twenty members forming a firm for tea trade on a railway platform.
(d) Trustees carry on business of a firm in their own name.
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) and (d) only
Assertion (A): Notwithstanding a contract between the partners, a partner shall not indemnify
the firm for any loss caused to it by his wilful neglect in the conduct of the business of the firm.
Reason (R): Because Section 13(f) of Indian Partnership Act stipulates so.
Codes:
(3) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(4) (R) is right and (A) is wrong.

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 4 4 4 2 3 2 4 4 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 4 1 4 3 1 4 1 3 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 1 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 4 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 2 2 2 1 2 3 4 1 2
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 2 4 1 1 3 4 1 1 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
3 4 1 3 2 4 1 1 1 4
71 72 73 74 75
2 4 1 4 2

General Paper-I (Dec. 2015)

Previous Year Solved Paper (Dec. 2015)
1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the education institutions, greater the demand on
the :
(1) Family (2) Society
(3) Teacher (4) State
2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation ?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
3. What of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher ?

(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a, (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. Which one of the following statements is correct is the context of multiple-choice type questions ?
(1) They are more objective than true-false type questions
(2) They are less objective than essay type questions
(3) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions
(4) They are more subjective than true-false type questions
5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO

was titled :
(1) International Commission on Education Report
(2) Millennium Development Report
(3) Learning : The Treasure Within
(4) World Declaration on Education for All

6. What are required for good teaching ?

(a) Diagnosis (b) Remedy
(c) Direction (d) Feedback
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)
7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research ?
(1) It recognizes knowledge as power
(2) It emphasizes on people as experts
(3) It is a collective process of enquiry
(4) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge
8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis ?
(1) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested
(2) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested
(3) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested
(4) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested
9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format ?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert author’s names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar ?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area.
What tool should he prefer for the study ?
(1) Rating scale (2) Interview
(3) Questionnaire (4) Schedule
12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for :

(1) Thesis format (2) Copyright
(3) Patenting policy (4) Data sharing policies
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 13 to 17.
I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself, especially
as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a
rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing.
Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write : “Good luck,
best, Joel”.
It was the that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is
“tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I
need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m
struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable
height for me to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never
written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a
thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have letter paper at
home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most
a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.
Bic, have you heard of mobile phones ? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting
? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.
“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance
as other art form such as sketching, painting or photography.”
13. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”.
What does this phrase mean ?
(1) A state of confusion (2) A state of pleasure
(3) A state of anxiety (4) A state of pain
14. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit ?
(1) Handwriting (2) Photography
(3) Sketching (4) Reading
15. The entire existence of the author revolves round :

(a) Computer (b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (b) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (c) only
16. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen ?
(1) 800 (2) 560
(3) 500 (4) 100
17. What is the main concern of the author ?

(1) That the teens use social networks of communication
(2) That the teens use mobile phones
(3) That the teens use computer
(4) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting
18. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are :

(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a) only
19. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern
of ideas is referred to as :
(1) Systemisation (2) Problem – orientation
(3) Idea protocol (4) Mind mapping
20. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as :
(1) Physical language (2) Personal language
(3) Para language (4) Delivery language
21. Every type of communication is affected by its :

(1) Reception (2) Transmission
(3) Non-regulation (4) Context
22. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered
as :
(1) Verbal (2) Non-verbal
(3) Impersonal (4) Irrational
23. Most often, the teacher - student communication is :

(1) Spurious (2) Critical
(3) Utilitarian (4) Confrontational
24. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by :

(1) the use of hyperbole (2) the change of voice level
(3) the use of abstract concepts (4) eye contact
25. The next term in the series 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, _______ is :
(1) 50 (2) 57
(3) 62 (4) 72
1
26. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of rd of students of found to be 60.
3
The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be :
(1) 80 (2) 76
(3) 74 (4) 72

27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong
direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach
his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is :
(1) 20 km (2) 14 km
(3) 12 km (4) 10 km
28. The next term in the series :

B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, _________ is :
(1) J56I (2) I62Q
(3) Q62J (4) J58Q
29. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, four sons, their wives and one son and two
daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is :
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 18 (4) 24
30. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R
(1) Son (2) Brother
(3) Uncle (4) Father
31. Consider the argument given below:

‘Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who
are now employed had to face such a testing.’
What type of argument it as ?
(1) Deductive (2) Analogical
(3) Psychological (4) Biological
32. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they can both be true
although they cannot both be false, Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code.
Propositions :
(a) Some priests are cunning
(b) No priest is cunning
(c) All priests are cunning
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes:
(1) (a) an d (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
33. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called :
(1) An inference (2) An argument
(3) An explanation (4) A valid argument
34. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:
Assertion (A) : No man is perfect.
Reason (R) : Some men are not perfect.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A)
(4) (A) is false but (R) true
35. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called :
(1) Lexical (2) Precising
(3) Stipulative (4) Persuasive
36. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/
propositions can be claimed certainly to be true ?
Propositions :
(1) All men are honest (2) Some men are honest
(3) Some men are not honest (4) No honest person is man
Based on the below table, answer the questions from SL No. 37 to 42

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a
country.
Year Population (million) Electrical Power Production (GW)*

1951 20 10
1961 21 20
1971 24 25
1981 27 40
1991 30 50
2001 32 80
2011 35 100
* 1 GW = 100 million watt
37. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population ?
(1) 1961 - 1971 (2) 1971 - 1981
(3) 1991 - 2001 (4) 2001 - 2011
38. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:

(1) ~ 12.21% (2) ~ 9.82%
(3) ~ 6.73% (4) ~ 5%
39. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021 ?
(1) 40.34 million (2) 38.49 million
(3) 37.28 million (4) 36.62 million
40. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person ?
(1) 100 W (2) 200 W
(3) 400 W (4) 500 W
41. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum ?
(1) 1981-1991 (2) 1991-2001
(3) 2001-2011 (4) 1971-1981
42. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011 ?
(1) 100% (2) 300%
(3) 600% (4) 900%
43. NMEICT stands for:

(1) National Mission on Education through ICT
(2) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
(3) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(4) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
44. Which of the following is an instant messaging application ?

(a) WhatsApp (b) Google Talk
(c) Viber
(3) (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
45. In a Computer a byte generally consists of :

(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits
(3) 16 bits (4) 10 bits
46. Which of the following is not an input device ?

(1) Microphone (2) Keyboard
(3) Joystick (4) Monitor
47. Which of the following is an open source software ?

(1) MS Word (2) Windows
(3) Mozilla Firefox (4) Acrobat Reader
48. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word ?
(1) Mail join (2) Mail copy
(3) Mail insert (4) Mail merge
49. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be :
(a) Unvented gas stoves (b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters
(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

50. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans ?

(1) Pesticides (2) Mercury
(3) Lead (4) Ozone
51. Assertion (A) : People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking
environmental degradation.
Reason (R) : The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is
rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard ?

(1) Wildfire (2) Lightning
(3) Landslide (4) Chemical contamination
53. As part of National Climate Change Policy. Indian government is planning to raise the installed
capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to:
(1) 175 GW (2) 200 GW
(3) 250 GW (4) 350 GW
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
(1) Brazil > Russia > China > India (2) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(3) Russia > China > Brazil > India (4) China > Russia > Brazil > India
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) ?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally

prohibited are :
(a) Religion (b) Sex
(c) Place of birth (d) Nationality
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary constituencies is determined by the Election
Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in:

(1) the Union List (2) the State List
(3) the Concurrent List (4) the Residuary Powers
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is :

(1) 4 years
(2) 5 years
(3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(4) not fixed
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) West Bengal
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 1 1 4 2 4 4 2 4 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 2 3 4 1 4 4 4 2 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 4 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 4 1 4 2 4 3 4 4 1
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 4 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 1

Law Paper - II (Dec. 2015)
Law
Assertion (A) : The preamble of the constitution of India defines the ideal philosophy of Indian
democracy and its key-concepts are laid down as Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
Reason (R) : A democracy to be real must be characterised by two features.
2. Which of the following statements is wrong to issue Writ of Quo warranto ?

(1) The office in question should be a public office
(2) The office should be held by an usurper without legal authority
(3) The petition is barred by res-judicata
(4) It is necessary for the petitioner to show that he himself suffered a personal injury nor “it
is necessary to show that he is seeking redress of a personal grievance
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(a) S.R. Chaudhuri vs. State of Punjab (i) Ban on smoking at public places
(b) Murali S. Deora vs. Union of India (ii) Two extra increments to the existing
employees on earning Higher Qualification
(c) Food Corporation of India vs. (iii) Classifications based on the number of
Bhartiya Khadya Nigam children for elected post in Panchayat
Karmchari Sangh
(d) Javed vs. State of Haryana (iv) Non-member cannot be re-appointed as
minister if he fails to get elected within six
months.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

4. Which of the following statements are correct; use the codes and answer ?
Freedom of press includes :
(a) Right to print and publish news (b) Distribution of printed matter
(c) Criticism of public affairs (d) Pre-censorship
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
5. During a Financial Emergency, the executive authority of the union exercises control over state
finances through the following measures.
(a) It can issue directions to states to observe certain cannons of financial propriety
(b) It can ask the states to reserve their money bills for the consideration of the President
(c) It can direct the states to reduce the salaries and allowances of all the persons serving
in connection with the affairs of the states, including the judges of the Supreme Court and
High Courts.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
6. Justice Pasayat held that ‘pardon obtained on the basis of manifest mistake or fraud can be
rescinded or cancelled’ in the following case :
(1) G. Krishta Goud vs. State of A.P. (2) Maru Ram vs. Union of India
(3) Epuru Sudhakar vs. Govt. of A.P. (4) Kehar Singh vs. Union of India
Assertion (A) : The administrative control over the Subordinate Judiciary in the State lies with the
Governor.
Reason (R) : The High Court has a power of Superintendence over all courts and tribunals
throughout the territory in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, except military tribunals.
8. Who has described Jurisprudence as “The lawyer’s extraversion. It is lawyer’s examination of the
precepts, ideals, and techniques of the law in the light derived from present knowledge in disciplines
other than the law” ?
(1) Paton (2) Holland
(3) Austin (4) Julius Stone
9. Who may be regarded as the leading contemporary representative of British Positivism ?

(1) Holland (2) Salmond
(3) Hart (4) Hohfeld

10. Match List-I with List-Il and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Justice is realised only through (i) Jerome Hall
good law
(b) Moral value needs to be included (ii) John Finnis
in a definition of positive law
(c) Natural law with a variable content (iii) Morris
(d) A sophisticated version of Natural (iv) Stammler
Law has been put forward in the
tradition of Aristotle and Aquinas
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
11. According to whom, whenever a person looked like an owner in relation to a thing, he had
possession of it, unless possession was denied him by special rules based on practical
convenience. The ‘Animus’ element was simply an intelligent awareness of the situation ?
(1) Salmond (2) Pollock
(3) Ihering (4) Savigny
List-I List-II
(a) Social Solidarity (i) Roscoe Pound
(b) Social Utilitarian (ii) Grotius
(c) Social Engineering (iii) Duguit
(d) Social Contract (iv) Ihering
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

13. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes below :
List-I List-II
(a) No one has any other ‘right’ (i) Gray
than always to do his duty.
(b) ‘Right’ is power over an object (ii) Holland
which by means of this
right he subjected to will of the
person enjoying the right.
(c) Legal right means, “A capacity (iii) Duguit
residing in one man of controlling
with the assent and assistance
of the state, the acts of the other”.
(d) ‘Right’ is not the interest by (iv) Pachta
itself but it is a mean by
which enjoyment of interest
is secured.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
14. Who has stated that “As a matter of fact International law is neither a myth on the one hand nor
a panacea on the other, but just one institution among others which we can use for the building
of a better international order” ?
(1) Prof. Louis Henkin (2) J.L. Brierly
(3) J.G. Starke (4) Oppenheim
15. Which one of the following sources of International Law does not find or mention in Article 38 of
the status of the International Court of Justice but it has now become a well recognised source?
(1) International conventions
(2) General Principles of Law Recognised by Civilized Nations
(3) Decisions of Judicial or Arbitral Tribunals and Juristic Works
(4) Decisions or Determinations of the Organs of International Institutions
16. Whichof the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

(a) Custom is the oldest and the original source of International as well as of law in general.
(b) In Barcelona Traction case, the International Court applied the general rule of subrogation.
(c) In Chorzow factory (Indemnity) case the Permanent Court of Justice ruled that the
International law is based on justice, equity and good conscience.
(d) In Nicaragua vs. U.S.A. The World Court has taken the view that the sources of International
law are not hierarchical but are necessarily complementary and inter related.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a), (b), (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are both correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
17. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ?

(a) There are five prominent theories of relationship between International law and Municipal
law
(b) According to Dualism Theory law is a unified branch of knowledge
(c) ‘Monism’ and ‘Dualism’ are diametrically opposed to each other
(d) Wright, Kelson and Duguit are prominent exponents of Dualism Theory
Codes :
(1) (b) and (d) are incorrect (2) (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect
(3) Only (d) is incorrect (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect
18. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Provisions) (Articles of Statute of International Court)
(a) Law applied by the (i) Article 62
International Court of Justice
(b) Transferred Jurisdiction (ii) Article 59
(c) Court power to allow a state (iii) Article 38
to intervene in case to which
it is not a party
(d) Binding Force of the decisions (iv) Article 36(5)
of the International Court of Justice.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
19. Assertion (A) : When a state wants to delay the de jure recognition of any state, it may, in the
first stage grant de-facto recognition.
Reason (R) : There is no distinction between ‘de facto’ and ‘de jure’ recognition for the purpose
of giving effect to the Internal Acts of the Recognised Authority.
Use the codes below and give the correct answer.
(3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong (R) is correct
20. Two persons are said to be related to each other by uterine blood when they are descended from:
(1) a common ancestor by the same wife
(2) a common ancestor but by different wives
(3) a common ancestress by the same husband
(4) a common ancestress but by different husbands

21. Match the List-I with List-II under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and give the correct answer with
the help of codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Restitution of Conjugal Rights (i) Section – 5
(b) Marriageable Age (ii) Section 29(2)
(c) Customary Divorce (iii) Section – 9
(d) Ceremonies of Marriage (iv) Section – 7
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
22. In which of the following cases, a child could be a Hindu ? Answer with the help of codes :
(a) Only one parent is a Hindu and the child was brought up as a Hindu
(b) Only one parent is a Hindu and the child was not brought up as a Hindu
(c) If after the birth of child, father converts to non-Hindu religion
(d) Both the parents are Hindu
Codes :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (c) and (d) only
23. Under the provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the decree of Judicial Separation :
(a) dissolve the marriage.
(b) does not dissolve the marriage bond but only suspends marital rights and obligations
during the subsistence of the decree.
(c) the parties continue to be husband and wife but not obligated to live together and neither
party is free to marry.
(d) if after a decree of judicial separation the parties have not resumed cohabitation for a
period of one year, either party may seek divorce.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (a) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
below :
Assertion (A) : The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 makes Muslim Law
applicable expressly to all Muslims.
Reason (R) : The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 has abrogated the customs
and restored to Muslims their own personal law in almost all cases.
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
25. Observance of ‘Iddat’ is necessary :

(1) Where Cohabitation is lawful i.e. consummation of marriage.
(2) Where Cohabitation is unlawful i.e. illicit intercourse and the pregnancy follows the illicit
intercourse.
(3) In both (1) and (2)
(4) Only in (1) and not in (2)
26. Modern sources of Hindu law are :

(1) Legislation, Precedents and Digests
(2) Legislation, Precedents, Equity etc.
(3) Precedents, Smritis, Legislation
(4) Legislation, Customs, Precedents and Commentaries
List-I List-II
(Heads of Public Policy) (Case - Law)
(a) Trading with enemy (i) Girdhari Singh vs. Neeladhar Singh
(b) Trafficking in public offices (ii) Espostiv vs. Bowden
(c) Interference with administration (iii) Shivsaran Lal vs. Keshav Prasad
of justice
(d) Marriage brokage contracts (iv) Nand Kishor vs. Kunj Behari Lal
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Assertion (A) : Compensation is recoverable for any loss or damage arising unnaturally in the
unusual course of things from breach of contract, or which the parties did not know at the time
of the contract as likely to result from the breach.
Reason (R) : Because Section - 73 of the Indian Contract Act stipulates so.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(3) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
(4) (R) is right, but (A) is wrong
29. Doctrine of frustration was laid down for the first time in :
(1) Krell vs. Henry
(2) Taylor vs. Caldwell
(3) Paradine vs. Jane
(4) Cricklewood Property and Investment Trust Ltd. vs. Leighton’s Investment Trust Ltd.

30. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) A contract is voidable because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force in India.
(2) A mistake as to law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of fact.
(3) A contract is voidable merely because it was caused by one of the parties to it being under
a mistake as to a matter of fact.
(4) Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact
essential to the agreement, the agreement is not void.
31. An agreement without consideration is valid, unless :

(1) It is in writing and registered
(2) Is a promise to compensate for something done
(3) It is made by two minors
(4) Is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law
32. A proposal is revoked :

(1) By the notice of revocation of the proposal
(2) By the lapse of a reasonable time if the time is prescribed in the proposal
(3) By acceptance of a condition precedent to acceptance
(4) By the death or insanity of the proposer, if the fact of his death or insanity comes to the
knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance
33. In order to bring an action for tort, the plaintiff has to prove that :
(1) There has been a legal damage caused to him
(2) Violation of a legal right not vested in him
(3) There has been no legal damage caused to him
(4) Violation of no legal right and has not resulted in harm to him
34. In which case it was held by the Supreme Court that state was not liable on the ground that police
were acting in discharge of statutory powers and power of the police in keeping the property in
the police Malkhana was a sovereign power ?
(1) Ramawati Kaur vs. State Bihar
(2) Radha Aggarwal vs. State of U.P.
(3) Kasturi Lal vs. State of U.P.
(4) State of Bihar vs. Rameshwar Prasad
35. Match the List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Name of defence) (Name of Case - Law)
(a) Act of State (i) Buron vs. Denman
(b) Consent (ii) Hail vs. Brookland and Auto Racing Club
(c) Act of God (iii) Metropolitan Asylum Board vs. Hills
(d) Statutory authority (iv) Nicholas vs. Marsland

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
36. In which of the following cases, is the occupier of a house liable for ‘negligence’ ?
(1) Keeping a dog, which may bite trespassers
(2) Fixing broken glass pieces on the top of a wall to prevent trespassers
(3) Setting spring guns in the premises to prevent trespassers
(4) Constructing a compound wall to prevent trespassers
37. Read Assertion (A) Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Mental element is an essential element in most of the torts.
Reason (R) : State of mind of the defendant is not relevant to ascertain his liability in all branches
of law of torts.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true
38. Which one of the following is not an exception to the rule of volenti non fit injuria ?
(1) Surgeon amputates a limb of a patient to save his life
(2) Injury is caused while play-fighting with naked swords at a religion function
(3) Injury is caused while doing lawful acts under contract
(4) Injury is caused to a player in football match
39. Which of the facts do not include within the principle of joint liability ?
(1) The actuated act need not be a crime or when it was foisted.
(2) An act done in a pre-arranged plan between more than one person.
(3) Mere participation in some manner in the act constituting the offence.
(4) An act done in furtherance of an intention to cause harm
40. ‘Imposing punishment implies that some one should be legally authorised to impose it upon the
offender’. In which of the following cases a private person can impose such punishment ?
(1) Where the law recognises moral blame worthiness.
(2) Where there is justification for punishing any person provided the offender had broken a
law.
(3) Where one can establish the connection between punishment and crime.
(4) Where the act falls within a retroactive penal legislation.

41. The Apex court has shown as to how compromise is not a free choice of the rape survivor but
a hidden secret of law where justice is reduced to a bargain between the victim’s kin, state
authorities and the accused. Identify the case law :
(1) Ravindra vs. State of M.P.
(2) Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
(3) Sanskar Marathe vs. State of Maharashtra
(4) Khursheed Ahmed Khan vs. State of U.P.
42. There is a specific provision that the intention to screen the offender must be primary and the
role object of the accused. This provision is provided in ____________.
43. Which of the following offences fall under causing hurt as well as assault ?
(1) Digging a pit in the public path
(2) Flinging boiling water over a person
(3) Mixing deleterious poison in a liquid and placing the same on another table
(4) Pulling hair of a woman
44. There must be dishonest intention which should co-exist while taking a thing for an offence of
theft. In which of the following situations it will not amount to theft ?
(1) Taking a stick from the person to beat him
(2) Taking a sugar packet from another person in good faith while his own packet was at the
shop
(3) A senior student snatching some books from a junior student with promise to return on
the next day
(4) Not finding the helmet hanged on a bike, a person takes away a similar helmet from the
adjacent bike, but afterwards repenting on his fault returns the same to the owner
45. The Constitution of Works Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act is to :
(1) Remove causes of friction between the employer and workmen in the day to day waking
of the establishment
(2) Remove causes of friction between the employer and workmen relating to wage settlement
(3) Remove causes of fiction between the employer and workmen relating to standing orders
(4) Remove causes of friction between the employer and workmen relating to implementation
of award
46. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, a reference to an Industrial tribunal will be :
(1) Only where both the parties to an Industrial Dispute apply for such reference
(2) Only where the appropriate government considers it expedient to do so
(3) Only where both the parties to an Industrial Dispute apply for such reference and also
where the appropriate government considers it expedient to do so
(4) Only where the affected party to the dispute apply for such reference

47. To which settlement machinery can the central government refer the dispute under Rule 81-A ?
(1) Conciliation (2) Arbitration
(3) Adjudication (4) Supreme Court
48. A settlement under the Industrial Disputes Act arrived at in the course of conciliation proceeding,
between the employer and a recognised majority union will be binding on :
(1) parties to the settlement
(2) all workmen of the establishment
(3) all workmen of a recognised majority union
(4) all workmen of a registered Trade Union
49. The permission applied for by the government shall be deemed to have been granted if the
appropriate government does not communicate the order under I. D. Act, granting or refusing to
grant permission within a period of :
(1) 15 days (2) 30 days
(3) 60 days (4) 90 days
50. “The right to strike may be controlled or restricted by appropriate industrial legislation and the
validity of such legislation would have to be tested not with reference to the criteria laid down in
clause (4) of Article 19 but by totally different considerations”, was observed by the Supreme
Court in :
(1) Syndicate Bank vs. Umesh Nayak
(2) All India Bank Employees Association vs. I.T.
(3) Management of Churakulam Tea Estate (P) Ltd vs. The workmen and another
(4) Ramnagar cane and sugar Co. vs. Jatin Chalin
ANSWER KEYS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 1 2 4 3 4 4 3 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 4 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 4 1 3 2 3 4 4 1 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 3 2

Law Paper - III (Dec. 2015)
Law
1. Match List-I and List-II and find correct answer by using codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) To renounce practices derogatory (i) Surya Narain Choudhary Vs. Union of India
to the dignity of women
(b) Mandamus cannot be sought (ii) Union of India Vs. Naveen Jindal
against an individual who does
not observe a fundamental duty
(c) Respect to National Anthem (iii) Bijoe Emmanuel Vs. State of Kerala
(d) Respect and dignity to National (iv) Union of India Vs. Naveen Jindal
Flag
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
2. Match List-I with List-II according to the provisions of the Constitution of India. Give correct answer
by using the codes given below :
(Provision) (Articles)
(a) Power of Parliament to legislate (i) Article 253
with respect to a matter in the
state list in the national interest
(b) Legislation for giving effect to (ii) Article 247
international agreements
(c) Power of Parliament to provide (iii) Article 252
for the establishment of certain
additional courts
(d) Power of Parliament of legislate (iv) Article 249
for two or more states by consent
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Assertion (A) : The rule making power of the Supreme Court of India is not subject to any law
made by the Parliament.
Reason (R) : Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of Individual
without fear or favour.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false hut (R) is true
4. Who among the following shall be disqualified as a member of either house of Parliament ?
Give answer by selecting codes given below :
(a) Who is not a citizen of India.
(b) Who has acquired the citizenship of a foreign state.
(c) Who is under any acknowledgment to a foreign state.
(d) Who is under acknowledgment of adherence to a foreign state.
Codes :
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
5. Under Article 324 of the Constitution the Election Commission of India shall be responsible to
conduct elections to :
Give answer by using the codes given below :
(a) Parliament and State Legislature
(b) President and Vice - President
(c) Zilla Parishad and Panchayats
(d) Municipal Corporations and Municipal Committees
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
6. Who among the following can establish additional court for better administration of any existing
law with respect to a matter concerned in union list :
(1) Chief Justice of India
(2) Parliament
(3) The Concerned State Legislature
(4) High Court of the State Concerned
7. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Article 368 of the Constitution of India lays down
(1) Procedure for amendment of the constitution only.
(2) Power of parliament to amend the constitution only.
(3) Power of parliament to amend the constitution and procedure therefore.
(4) Limitation on the power of the parliament to amend the constitution.

8. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court held that, ‘No election can be challenged
on the ground of defect in electoral rolls’?
(1) Indrajit Barua Vs. Election Commission of India
(2) N.P. Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer
(3) Kalyan Lal Omar Vs. R.K. Trivedi
(4) Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. Chief Election Commissioner
9. Who defined administrative law as; “Law relating to the Administration. It determines the organisation,
powers and duties of administrative authorities” ?
(1) Sir Ivor Jennings (2) A.V. Dicey
(3) Kenneth Cuip Davis (4) Griffith and Strut
10. What was specifically declared by the Supreme Court in the Delhi Laws Act case ?
Answer using codes given below :
(a) Legislature should not delegate its essential function.
(b) Excessive delegation of powers can be struck down by courts.
(c) Extension of laws with certain modification and by changing the underlying policy of
legislation is allowed.
(d) Legislature should itself lay down standard in the delegating Act learning the delegate with
the power to make rules to execute the policy laid down in the Legislation
Codes :
(1) (c), (a), (d) (2) (b), (d), (a)
(3) (d), (c), (b) (4) (a), (b), (d)
11. Which of the following is not true regarding the application of ‘doctrine of promissory estoppel’ ?
(1) The court may refuse to apply promissory estoppel against the government if the’ public
interest’ suffers in fulfilling the promise.
(2) The government cannot be compelled to carry out a promise which falls outside its power
and contrary to law.
(3) The promise in question may be tentative or uncertain and it need not to be unambiguous
and unequivocal.
(4) There can be no promissory estoppel against the Legislature in the exercise of its legislative
functions.
12. Match List-I with List-II in the light of cases decided by the Supreme Court :
List-I List-II
(Case Law) (Principles)
(a) Canara Bank Vs. V.K. Awasthy (i) Duty to act fairly – in administrative
(2005) functions as well
(b) Gullapalli Nageswara Rao Vs. (ii) Post decisional hearing
A.P. StateRoad Transport
Corporation, 1959
(c) Swadeshi Cotton Mills Vs. (iii) Exclusion of rule of hearing
Union of India (1981)
(d) A.K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India (iv) One who decides must hear
(1970)

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Assertion (A) : A high Court may decline to exercise its extra - ordinary jurisdiction under Article
226 and dismiss the writ summarily or in limine.
Reason (R) : It would be proper for the High Court to dispose of the petition summarily or in
limine, when no important question of law are raised in a writ petition.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not correct reason of (A)
14. When a writ is issued to a public authority in respect of any type of administrative, legislative,
Quasi-judicial or judicial functions, it is called a writ of :
(1) Mandamus (2) Quo - warranto
(3) Certiorari (4) Prohibition
Assertion (A) : In judicial review of administrative actions, generally the court would not interfere
with the merits of the case by embarking upon inquiry into the facts.
Reason (R) : Courts can review the procedure through which a decision has been taken by the
administrative authority but courts cannot supplement its own decision and act as appellate court
over the administrative authority.
Codes :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is wrong hut (R) is right
16. “The polemical version of legal realism has wielded enormous influence on the entire judicial
system”. Who propounded such philosophy ?
(1) Gray (2) Holmes
(3) Salmond (4) Waismann
17. The liberum arbitrium of the courts depends upon what is right, justice, equitable or reasonable
and is dependent upon :
(1) Evidence and demonstration of public
(2) Arguments submitted with reason
(3) Discovering the right or justice of the matter
(4) Pure intellectual process

18. Obiter dicta has no binding authority but it helps to:

(1) Rationalise legal sanctions
(2) Encourages providing solution to future litigations
(3) It allows greater prestige to the judge
(4) It makes the acceptability of precedents more flexible
19. The statement “equitable ownership of a legal right is different from the ownership of an equitable
right” shows that law and equity differ with regard to:
(1) Only the existence of right
(2) Only the ownership of rights
(3) Both existence and ownership of rights
(4) The existence of a right but not regarding the consistency of a right
20. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer using codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The relation of morality to a concept of law cannot be stated simply in the form
of a stark alternative that the former is either externally or internally related to the later.
Reason (R) : It is depending upon time-frame of reference
Codes :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
(3) (A) is wrong and (R) is right
(4) (A) is right and (R) is wrong
21. The House of Lords upheld the Attorney General’s political discretion in refusing to invoke the law
in face of a threatened criminal offence in deliberate defiance of an Act of Parliament, in the case
of :
(1) Gouriet Vs. Union of Post Office Workers
(2) Francome Vs. Mirror Group Newspaper Ltd.
(3) R. Vs. Bourne
(4) Johnson Vs. Phillips
22. Modern doctrine of bindingness of precedents was first laid down in:
(1) London Transways Co. Vs. LCC
(2) Young Vs. Bristol Aeroplane Co. Ltd.
(3) Mirehouse Vs. Rennel
(4) Sirros Vs. Moore
Assertion (A) : Shareholders are not, in the eye of law, part owners of a company. The company
is something different from the totality of the shareholders.
Reason (R) : Shareholders are collective owners of the company.
Codes :
(1) Both (R) and (A) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
(3) (A) is right, hut (R) is wrong
(4) (R) is right, hut (A) is wrong
24. An idea of inducement by exciting hope or desire on the other is known as _________
(1) Seduction (2) Enticing
(3) Inciting (4) Abduction
25. A takes his own suit from the tailor without his knowledge but had the intention of returning it to
the tailor later. What offence, if any has been committed by A ?
(1) Stealing (2) Dishonest taking
(3) Theft (4) Unlawful retention
Assertion (A) : That the act is imminently dangerous or that in all probability it will cause death.
Reason (R) : Such specific principle apply to punish a person although there is no intention to
cause death.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are concurrent as per Sec. 299(c) and 300(4) respectively.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are intravivos as per Sec. 300 and Sec. 302
(3) Both (A) and (R) are dependant upon facts based as per Sec. 299(b) and Sec. 302.
(4) Both (A) and (R) must co-exist as per Sec. 300(2) and Sec. 301
27. The aggravated form of perjury is known from:

(1) False statement on oath
(2) False evidence in a judicial proceeding
(3) Administering oath to speak truth
(4) False affidavit before honorary Magistrate
28. Which of the following is not a crime in order to provide protection to currency ?
(1) A war medal (2) Gold Mohur
(3) Current Coin (4) Genuine specimen of antique coin
29. Which of the following cases does not amount to robbery ?

(1) Taking away ornaments from the body of a lady while she was in coma.
(2) Removal of ornaments after death of a lady.
(3) Voluntary disposition of valuables.
(4) While theft is committed along with assault.
30. Criminal liability for abandonment of a child is based on the principle of loco - parentis who else
could be responsible for that offence ?
(1) Adoptive father before the completion of formalities of adoption
(2) When a mother leaves the house for her husband’s ill-treatment and abandons the children
to the care of husband
(3) When the school master who has been teaching infants placed under him for education
(4) A mother leaves a blind child on a foot path promising to return after fetching food but
never returned

31. Which of the following do not constitute an offence of forgery ?

(1) The intention to induce a belief that the document was duly signed.
(2) The intention to induce a belief that the document was duly sealed.
(3) The intention to induce a belief that the document was executed by the authority of a
person.
(4) Knowingly makes false entries initially in the public record on his own authority by a public
officer.
32. “Where directive principles have found statutory expression in do’s and dont’s the court will not
sit idle and allow government to become a statutory mockery for protection of environment. The
law will relentlessly be enforced and the plea of poor finance will be poor alibi when people in
misery cry for justice”. The above was observed in Municipal Council of Ratlam Vs. Vardhichand
by :
(1) Justice Chinnappa Reddy (2) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyyer
(3) Justice P.N. Bhagavati (4) Justice Ranganath Misra
33. Protection and Improvement of Environment and safeguarding forest and wild life is :
(1) A Fundamental Right.
(2) One of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(3) One of the Fundamental Duties.
(4) Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty.
34. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down and demolition of
shrimp Industries in coastal regulation zone and implement the “Precautionary principle” and “the
polluter pays principle” and held them liable for payment of compensation for reversing the
ecology and compensate the individual for loss suffered ?
(1) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
(2) S. Jaganath Vs. Union of India
(3) Church of God (Full Gospels) in India Vs. K.K.R. Majestic Colony Welfare Association
(4) Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum Vs. Union of India
35. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : The right to dean drinking water and right to pollution free air to breath are
attributes of “Right to Life”.
Reason (R) : Because they are the basic elements which sustain life.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is good explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, But (R) is not a good explanation of (A)
36. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of public trust that the state
as a trustee of all natural resources is under a legal duty to protect the natural resources. These
natural resources are meant for public use and cannot be converted into private ownership ?
(1) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India (Ganga Water Pollution Case)
(2) M.C. Mehta Vs. Kamalnath and others
(3) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India (Replacing diesel vehicles by CNG vehicles)
(4) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs. State of U.P.

37. What is the main objective of the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their
Rehabilitation Act, 2013 ? Give answer by using codes below:
(a) To prohibit employment of manual scavengers
(b) To rehabilitate manual scavengers
(c) To rehabilitate manual scavengers and their families
(d) To rehabilitate manual scavengers only and not their families
Codes :
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
38. Which one of the following is the main objective of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 as
amended upto 2003 ?
(1) To check on poaching and illegal trade in domestic and wild animals.
(2) To check on poaching and on illegal trade in ivory.
(3) To check on poaching and legal trade in dog.
(4) To check on hunting and legal trade in elephant.
39. Whose observations are these on the point that whether International law is a mere positive
Morality ?
“If International Law were only a kind of morality, the framers of State papers concerning foreign
policy would throw all their weight on moral arguments, But, as a matter of fact, this is not what
they do. They appeal not to the general feeling of moral rightness, but to precedents, to treaties
and to opinion of specialists”.
(1) H.L.A. Hart (2) Oppenheim
(3) Edward Collins (4) Frederick Pollock
40. Which of the following statement/Statements is/are not correct ?

(a) Principle of law which is recognised by domestic law of a large number of states does
not automatically become a ‘Principle’ of International Law.
(b) Para (1) (G) of Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of justice lists “General
Principles of Law Recognised by Civilized States” as the Second Source of International
Law.
(c) General Principles of law recognised by civilized states include only substantive principles
provided they have received geoeral recognition of Civilized States.
(d) The development of general principles of law recognised by civilized states as an important
source of law, has given a death-knell to the positivism.
Codes :
(1) only (b) is incorrect
(2) both (b) and (c) are incorrect
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
(4) all (a), (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect

41. Which one of the following cases is not a case on the point that there is no distinction between
‘De Facto’ and ‘De - Jure’ recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the
recognized authority ?
(1) Bank of Ethopia Vs. National Bank of Egypt and Liquori
(2) Luther Vs. Sagor
(3) Civil Air Transport Incorporated Co. Vs. Central Air Transport Corporation
(4) The Arantzazu Mendi Case
42. In which one of the following cases the International Court of Justice has held that in respect of
grant of nationality there is no obligation of the states if a man has no relationship with the state
of Naturalisation and the court has applied the ‘Principle of effective nationality’ ?
(1) Re Lynch Case (2) Stoeck Vs. The Public Trustee
(3) Nottebohm’s Case (4) Paneyezys Soldutisk
43. Which one of the following institution is not authorised for requesting for ‘Advisory Opinion’ of the
International Court of Justice ?
(1) Economic and Social Council
(2) The Trusteeship Council
(3) The International Atomic Energy Agency
(4) Secretariat
below :
Assertion (A) : International Law is not potent enough to restrain a powerful state which has no
respect for public opinion.
Reason (R) : Sanctions behind International Law are weak
Codes :
45. Consider the following :

The Recommendation of the Security Council made to the Member under Article 42 of U.N.
Charter becomes an obligation for them which none can shirk ?
(a) If the Security Council decides to take action no time is given for further declarations by
the General Assembly.
(b) When the Security Council decides for taking enforcement measures, it also determines
the part to be played by each member state.
(c) All or only some members may be requested to participate but every member is to join
in mutual assistance.
(d) The legal requirements for military action are still not satisfied even after the council has
acted.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct ?
(1) (a), (b), (d) are correct (2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) only (a), (b) and (c) are correct (4) (c), (d) and (a) are correct
List-I List-II
(Provisions) (Article of UN Charter)
(a) Voting procedure of the General (i) Article 23
Assembly
(b) Composition of Security Council (ii) Article 96
(c) Composition of Trusteeship (iii) Article 4
Council
(d) Provisions regarding Membership (iv) Article 18
in the United Nations
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
47. Which of the following is not a ground of Judicial Separation under the Hindu Marriage Act,
1955 ?
(1) Renunciation of the world
(2) Seven years absence
(3) Conversion to Non - Hindu religion
(4) Desertion for one year
48. Grounds of divorce meant exclusively for wife under section 13(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
are :
(a) Pre - Act bigamy by husband.
(b) Husband is guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality.
(c) Non-payment of maintenance and no cohabitation for one year or upwards.
(d) Repudiation of marriage by wife.
Codes :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (c), (d) (a) and (b)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
49. Under the provisions of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 an adopted child :
(a) Can be given in adoption generally
(b) Cannot be given in adoption
(c) Can be given in adoption with the consent of natural parents
(d) Can be given in adoption only with the prior permission of the court
Codes :
(1) (b) and (d) are correct but (a) and (c) are incorrect
(2) (d) is correct and (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
(3) (b) is correct and (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect
(4) (a) and (b) are correct and (c) and (d) are incorrect

50. Match List-I with List-II in relation to the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and give the
correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(a) Maintenance of wife (i) Sec. 19
(b) Maintenance of widowed (ii) Sec. 22
daughter-in-law
(c) Maintenance of parents (iii) Sec. 18
and children
(d) Maintenance of dependants (iv) Sec. 20
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
51. After the petition is presented under section 13-B of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the parties have
to wait for a minimum period of:
(1) One year (2) Eighteen months
(3) Two years (4) Six months
52. Talaq ‘ahsan’ is :

(1) Revocable during the tuhr in which it has been pronounced
(2) Revocable until the next successive tuhr
(3) Revocable during the period of iddat
(4) Irrevocable
53. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 and give the
correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Provision) (Section)
(a) Notice to heirs of the husband (i) Sec. 4
when his where about are not
known
(b) Effect of conversion to another (ii) Sec. 3
faith
(c) Rights to dower not to be (iii) Sec. 2(v)
affected
(d) Impotence of the husband as (iv) Sec. 5
a ground of divorce
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
54. Match List-I with List-II under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act 1956 and give the correct
answer with the help of the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Provision) (Section)
(a) Testamentary guardian and their (i) Sec. 6
powers
(b) Natural guardians of a Hindu Minor (ii) Sec. 9
(c) Welfare of minor to be paramount (iii) Sec. 11
consideration
(d) De facto guardian not to deal with (iv) Sec. 13
minor’s property
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
55. Read both statements (A) and (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : The member state of United Nations Organisation have committed to promote
and the respect for observance of Human Rights.
Reason (R) : The Human Rights are Inalienable, Natural, Interdependent and Indivisible. They are
means to achieve human dignity.
Codes :
(3) (A) is false hut (R) is true
56. The International covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights came into force on:
(1) January 3, 1976 (2) January 13, 1976
(3) June 30, 1977 (4) June 13, 1977
57. UNICEF was created by the UN General Assembly to help:

(1) Children after World War I
(2) Children after World War II in Europe
(3) Children of third world countries
(4) Children of suffering from malnutrition
(a) Mr. Jose Ayala Lasso (i) President International Court of Justice
(b) Justice Nagendra Singh (ii) Secretary General U.N.O.
(c) Kofi Annan (iii) Chairperson Commission on Human Rights
(d) Mrs. F.D. Roosevelt (iv) U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
59. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948 contains provisions relating to:
(1) Operationalization of human Rights.
(2) Establishment of human Rights Institutions.
(3) Establishment of Human Rights Committee.
(4) Conceptualization of Human Rights.

(1) The U.N. Convention on Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)
was adopted by the General Assembly in 1979 but, India ratified it in June 1993.
was adopted by the General Assembly in 1979 but, India ratified it in December 1997.
(3) The U.N. Convention on Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDA
was adopted by the General Assembly in 1981 but India ratified it in June 1993.
was adopted by the General Assembly in 1981 but, India ratified it in December 1997.
61. The correct chronological order of the following Human Rights documents be chosen using the
codes given below:
(a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.
(b) Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women.
(c) Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
(d) Convention on tbe Rights of the Child.
Codes :
(1) (c), (b), (a), (d) (2) (c), (a), (b), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (a), (b) (4) (c), (d), (b), (a)
62. Who defined law of tort as “tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by the
law : this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for
unliquidated damages” ?
(1) Salmand (2) Lord Denning
(3) Fraser (4) Winfield
63. Which of the following is not a form of damnum sine injuria ? Choose the correct answer from
the codes below :
(a) There is no right of action for damages for contempt of court.
(b) Loss inflicted on individual traders by competition.
(c) Damage is done by a man acting under necessity to prevent a greater evil.
(d) Damage caused by defamatory statements made on any occasion.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) None of the above
64. Facts: “The defendant was a plaintiff’s landlord and was living in the same building on the floor
above him. Some rats damaged a rain water box maintained by the defendant for the benefit both
of himself and plaintiff and the water running through injured plaintiffs goods below.” What action can
be taken on the above mentioned facts in view of the exceptions to the theory of ‘strict liability’ ?
(1) No action lie because of plaintiffs own fault
(2) Action lie because it is not act of God
(3) No action lie because of the consent of plaintiff
(4) Action lie because it is not an act of stranger
below:
Assertion (A) : A master is liable for the torts committed by his servant while not acting in the
course of his employment.
Reason (R) : Liability of the master for the act of his servant is based on the maxim respondent
superior.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) are (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
List-I List-II
(Case Laws) (Principles)
(a) Re Polemis and Furners, (i) Vicariom liability of the state
Wilhy and Co. Ltd
(b) Saheli Vs. Commissioner (ii) Remoteness of damages
of Police. Delhi
(c) Municipal Corporation of Delhi (iii) Duty of case to plaintiff
Vs. Subhagwanti
(d) South Wales Miners Federation (iv) Malice in fact
Vs. Glamorgan Coal Company
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
67. What is the period of limitation under section 24 A of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (as
amended w.e.f 18.6.1993) for filing a complaint from the date of the cause of action?
(1) No period of limitation (2) Three years
(3) Two years (4) One year

68. Match the List-I with List-II and give answer by using the codes below :
(Re : Tort of Defamation)
List-I List-II
(Name of Case Law) (Principle)
(a) Tolley Vs. J.S. Fry and (i) Publication of statement
Sons. Ltd.
(b) Williamson Vs. Frier (ii) Innuendo
(c) Alexander Vs. North (iii) Fair Comment
Estern Railways
(d) Merivate Vs. Carson (iv) Defence of truth
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(a) Kundan Lal Rallaram (i) Presumption under section 118 of the
Vs. Custodian Negotiable Instrument Act arises only if the
execution of the document is proved as true.
(b) C.T. Joseph Vs. I.V. Phillip (ii) Burden of proof of failure of consideration
for a negotiable instrument.
(c) A.V. Murthy Vs. B.S. (iii) A negotiable instrument is presumed to be
Nagabasavanna drawn for consideration
(d) Beni Madhavnath Vs. Jugandra (iv) The statutory presumption envisaged
Nath Balwan under section 118(a) of the Negotiable
Instrument Act is rebuttable.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
70. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) A cheque is a bill of exchange. but every bill of exchange is not a cheque.
(2) A cheque is always payable on demand.
(3) A cheque is a conditional order from the drawer of a cheque to the drawee bank to make
payment of money only.
(4) A post dated cheque cannot be considered as a valid cheque till the date of maturity.

71. Which of the following cases is about doctrine of indoor management ?

(1) Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. Ltd. Vs. Riche
(2) Rama Corpn. Vs. Proved tin and General Investment Co.
(3) London Country Council Vs. Attorney - General
(4) A. Lakshrnana swamy Mudaliar Vs. L.I.C.
Assertion (A) : For the proper exercise of the functions of a director, it is essential that he be
disinterested, that is, be free from any conflicting interest.
Reason (R) : Conflict is injurious to mental and physical health.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is correct reason of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct legal reason of (A).
73. Which are essentials of a partnership ? Answer using codes given below:
(a) A contract of two or more competent persons
(b) Agreement to share profits
(c) Mutual agency
(d) Lawful business
Codes :
(1) Only (a), (b), (c) (2) Only (a), (b), (d)
(3) Only (b), (c), (d) (4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
List-I List-II
(a) Section 54 of the Sale of (i) Risk where goods are delivered at
Goods Act distant place
(b) Section 40 of the Sale of (ii) Delivery of wrong quantity
Goods Act
(c) Section 37 of the Sale of (iii) Sale by description distant place
Goods Act
(d) Section 15 of the Sale of (iv) Rights of unpaid seller against the goods
Goods Act
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
75. Which of the following cases is about performance of contract ?

(1) Maruti Udyog Ltd. Vs. Susheel Kumar Gabgetra
(2) Great Northern Railway Co. Vs. Harrison
(3) Joyce Vs. Swann
(4) Behn Vs. Burness

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 1 3 4 2 2 3 1 1 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 3 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 3 4 1 3 9 4 2 3 1
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
4 3 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
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2 4 4 2 2

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NTA UGC-NET

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General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude

Time : 1 hours Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100

Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice

5. In which year, the population of country was the highest ?

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7. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India ?

9. Assertion (A) : Indoor air pollution is a serious health hazard.

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14. Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select :

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30. Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

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Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 31 to 35 :

32. Absence of technology would lead to :

33. The advantage of technological inputs would result in :

35. More productive employment demands :

39. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning ?

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40. The next term in the series

43. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

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46. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom

47. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be :

48. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.

49. The next term in the series

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Time : 2 hours Paper-II Maximum Marks : 200

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19. Which of the following is not a theory relating to corporate personality ?

24. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

27. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

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31. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

33. The ‘U.N. Commission on Human Rights’ was established in 1946 by :

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44. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

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49. Special damages will be awarded in case of a breach of contract :

53. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Remoteness of Damage” ?

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57. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to Consumer Courts ?

58. Point out the correct statement :

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73. Answer the following using the code given below :

75. Answer the following using the code given below :

82. Which one of the following is incorrect ?

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89. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

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91. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

92. Which of the following statement/statements are correct ?

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94. Which one of the following is incorrect ?

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97. Which one of the following is incorrect ?