2k Questions

1
Table of contents
i. Subject code: crim
 Crim 1- intro to crim & and psychology of crimes
 Crim 2- Philippine criminal justice system
 Crim 3- police ethics & values
 Crim 4- juvenile delinquency & crime
 Crim 5- human behavior & crisis management
 Crim 6- criminological research & statistics
ii. Subject code: lea
 Lea 1- police organization & administration w/ police
planning
 Lea 2- industrial security management
 Lea 3- police patrol
 Lea 4- police intelligence
 Lea 5- police personnel records & management
 Lea 6- comparative police system
iii. Subject code: clj
 Clj 1- Criminal law book 1
 Clj2- criminal law book 2
 Clj 3- criminal procedure
 Clj 4- criminal evidence
 Clj 5- court testimony
iv. Subject code: crmlistics
 Crmlistics 1- personal identification
 Crmlistics 2- police photography
 Crmlistics 3- forensic ballistics
 Crmlistics 4- questioned documents examination
 Crmlistics 5- polygraphy
 Crmlistics 6- legal medicine
v. Subject code: cdi
 Cdi 1- fundamental of criminal investigation
 Cdi 2- traffic management & accident
 Cdi 3- special crime investigation
 Ccdi 4- organized crime investigation
 Cdi 5- drug education & vice control
 Cdi 6- fire technology & arson investigation
vi. Subject code: ca
SUBMITTED BY: WHED MARK REBUDAN
SUBMITTED TO: MR. EDZEL PEÑA

2
(CRIM 1)
Intro to Crim and
Psychology of Crimes
QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is not a victimless crime?

A. Vagrancy B. illegal gambling
C. illegal detention D. illegal possession of prohibited drugs
2. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology.

A. Retribution B. Reformation
C. Rejection D. Restitution
3. A doctrine which criminals were seen as distinct types of humans who could be distinguished from non
criminals by certain physical traits.
A. theory of biological inferiority B. theory of natural selection
C. theory of differential association D. theory of evolution
4.. Referred to as dementia praecox, this is a form of psychosis characterized by thinking disturbance and
regression.
A. Schizophrenia B. manic depression
C. paranoia D. psychopathy
5.. According to psychoanalysis, this refers to the conscience of man.

A. Ego B. Id
C. super ego D. spirit
6.. A type of crime in which the end result is destructive.

A. acquisitive crime B. extinctive crime
C. seasonal crime D. static crime
7. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.

A. Criminal epidemiology B. Criminal demography
C. Criminal psychology D. Criminal determinism
8. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search B. Seizure
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C. Detention D. Arrest
9.A valid warrant less arrest.

A. citizen’s arrest B. void arrest
C. illegal arrest D. juridical arrest
30. The authority of the court to hear or determine a case.

A. executive power B. jurisdiction
C. hearing D. decision
10. A component or pillar of the Criminal Justice System which is involved in the administration of appropriate
sanctions in keeping with the sentence handed down.
A. Corrections B. Prosecutions
C. law enforcement D. court
11. The reading of charges against the accused in the open court and the declaration of his plea of guilty or not
guilty.
A. Charging B. Sentencing
C. Arraignment D. Trial
12. The major function of the PROSECUTION component of the Criminal Justice System.
A. To enforce the laws of the land B. To rehabilitate prisoners
C. To represent the government in criminal cases D. All of these
13. The supreme law of the Land.

A. Bible B. Constitution
C. PNP Law D. Common Law
14. It means not only observed acts of crime but the results of a crime, which triggers the operation of the criminal
justice process.
A. commission of a crime B. solution of a crime
C. detection of a crime D. adjudication of a crime
15.The machinery of the State designed to enforce the law by arresting, prosecuting and adjudicating those
accused of violating it and by applying the proper sanctions to those found guilty.
A. Court B. Government
C. Criminal Justice System D. Due Process of Law
16. A law enforcement function in order to preserve social and public order.
A. Protection B. crowd control
C. order maintenance D. crime prevention
17. This defense in a criminal case is based on the claim that the act was the result, not of any intent on the part
of the accused, but of threats of loss of life, limb or a loved one.
A. defense of instigation B. defense of consent
C. defense of alibi D. defense of duress
18. The society’s primary instrument for making known what acts are crimes and what sanctions may be applied
to those who commit acts defined as crimes.
A. Law B. Ethics
C. Media D. Conduct
19. A function of the Prosecution, by representing the State in criminal cases and to present the case to the
judge.
A. trial advocacy B. pleading
C. rehabilitation D. charging
20. The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by
alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. law enforcement B. public services
C. opportunity denial D. order maintenance
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21. The society’s prime instrument for making known what acts are crimes and what sanctions may be applied to
those who commit acts defined as crimes.
A. Ethics B. Law
C. Conduct D. Justice
22. A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another, as a standard against which
actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or requirement that people act justly.
A. Law B. Justice
C. Ethics D. conduct
23.. It is the study of human society, its origin, structure, functions and direction.
A. Psychology B. Criminology
C. Sociology D. Anthropology
24. A person who has violated the penal law and has been found guilty by the court.
A. Accused B. Parolee
C. Suspect D. Criminal
25. A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.

A. criminal psychology B. criminal sociology
C. criminal law D. criminology
26.A claim by the accused that he or she was in another place when the crime occurred and therefore could not
have committed it.
A. defense of instigation B. defense of alibi
C. defense of consent D. defense of duress
27.. The informal component of the Criminal Justice System.

A. Community B. law enforcement
C. prosecution D. corrections
28. Maltreatment of a child is considered.

A. child misuse B. child delinquency
C. child defect D. child abuse
29.PD 603 is known as:

A. the Parole Law B. the Probation Law
C. the Child and Youth Welfare Code D. the Revised Penal Code
30. It refers to anti social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules and regulations
A. Recidivism B. Reiteracion
C. Delinquency D. Crime
31.A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.

A. neglected child B. abandoned child
C. dependent child D. abusive child
32. A twenty four hour child caring institution that provide short term resident care for youthful offenders.
A. Shelter care Institution B. Nursery
C. Foster Home D. Detention Home
33.. A local government together with society of individuals or institutions.

A. Family B. Community
C. Religion D. Prison
34.. A type of terrorism which is meant to incite the government to repression.

A. organizational terrorism B. provocative terrorism
C. symbolic terrorism D. Narco-terrorism
35. A type of terrorism which is aimed at a victim who symbolizes the State.
A. symbolic terrorism B. organizational terrorism
C. allegiance terrorism D. provocative terrorism
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36. The following are guidelines for police negotiators, except one.
A. Don’t raise the aspirations or expectations of the hostage takers
B. Give in to all of the terrorists’ demands
C. Conserve your concession
D. Make sure you get something in return for a concession
37. The following are qualities which must be possessed by a police negotiator except one:
A. Flexible B. Irrational
C. Patient D. knows psychology
38.. Phenomena in a hostage situation where the hostages become sympathetic to the hostage takers.
A. Oslo Syndrome B. Stockholm Syndrome
C. Hostage Syndrome D. Helsinki Syndrome
39. The following are characteristics common to terrorists except one

A. operate openly B. highly mobile
C. promote fear D. possess limited resources
40. The following are short range terrorists goal except one
A. obtain money, weapon or equipment
B. cause dramatic change in the government
C. satisfy vengeance
D. free prisoners
55. According to Frederick Hacker, these are terrorists who are using terrorism to change society.
A. Crusaders B. Crazies
C. Criminals D. Mercenaries
56. Which of the following is considered least among terroristic tactic?

A. noise barrage B. assassination
C. bombing D. kidnapping
57. The effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures and techniques for dealing with sudden violent acts
of terrorists.
A. Threat Analysis B. Crisis Management
C. Stress Management D. Hostage Negotiation
58. It is a method whereby an organized group or party seeks to achieve its avowed aims chiefly through the
systematic use of violence.
A. conventional warfare B. insurrection
C. terrorism D. insurgency
59. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation.

A. protection of life B. media coverage
C. protection of property D. capture of the hostage taker
60. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should not:
A. give his name B. give his rank and designation
C. give in to all demands D. look friendly or accommodating
61. In a hostage situation, this is a non-negotiable item.

A. Food B. media access
C. telephone D. firearm
62. The highest ranking field commander should not also be the chief negotiator because :
A. hostage takers will be afraid
B. he is not authorized to grant concessions
C. of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker
D. hostage takers will not trust him
63. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing.

A. validate
B. negotiate
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C. extricate
D. congregate
64. The last option in a hostage situation.

A. Negotiation B. crowd control
C. assault operation D. giving in to demands
65. The first step in a hostage situation.

A. Assault B. Control
C. crowd control D. negotiation
66. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment.

A. community relations B. ethics
C. logic D. psychology
67. It refers to the commitment, dignity and attitude of an individual towards work and his integrity and his practice
of the core moral value principles.
A. Conduct B. Morality
C. Professionalism D. Ethics
68. Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy?

A. Salute B. address/title
C. giving gifts D. courtesy call
69. The branch of moral science which treats of the duties which a police officer owes to the public and
community.
A. police philosophy B. police professionalism
C. police conduct D. police ethics
70. It is the essence of good manners, a manifestation of sportsmanship and an exposition of gentility and culture.
A. Courtesy B. Discipline
C. Loyalty D. Morale
71. A mental or moral training that makes a man willing to be subject to controls and regulations for the good of
the entire group of which he is a member.
A. Courtesy B. Discipline
C. Loyalty D. Morale
72. The concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact relevant to one’s office, or connected with the
performance of his duties.
A. gross misconduct B. incompetence
C. dishonesty D. disloyalty
73. The doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the police officer had no legal right to
do at all, as where he acts without any authority whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses his powers.
A. Incompetence B. Dishonesty
C. Misconduct D. Neglect of duty
74. The omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty, which is the officer’s legal
obligation to perform.
A. Incompetence B. Misconduct
C. Neglect of duty D. Bribery
75. As a general rule, police officers are not permitted or allowed to engage in any other business or calling.
A. Bribery B. Moonlighting
C. Neglect of duty D. Misconduct
76. Police officers shall treat official business as such, and shall not impart the same to anyone except those for
whom it is intended, or as directed by his superior officer, or as required by law.
A. criminal investigation B. admission
C. confession D. confidential information
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77. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.

A. Virtue B. Value
C. Dignity D. Conscience
78. Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates.

A. chain of command B. command responsibility
C. responsibility of post D. command by discipline
79. The courage to endure without yielding.

A. Perseverance B. Endurance
C. Fortitude D. Prudence
80. This refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves.
A. Human Relations B. Police Relations
C. Police Community Relations D. Police Public Relations
81. It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.

A. Public Information Program B. Public Relations
C. Civic Action programs D. Mass Communications Programs
82. A judicial tribunal designed to administer justice.

A. Office of the Ombudsman B. Jury
C. Court D. Department of Justice
83. The assessment of our own vulnerabilities, the evaluation of the threat, threat groups and probable targets.
A. crisis management B. hostage negotiation
C. threat analysis D. surveillance operation
84. A person who is held as a security for the fulfillment of certain demands or terms.
A. Victim B. Hostage
C. Negotiator D. Coordinator
85. The calculated use of violence or threat of violence to attain political, religious or ideological goals by instilling
fear or using intimidation or coercion.
A. Crisis B. Strike
C. Crime D. Terrorism
86. One which consists of several parts that interacts with each other to produce some results, serve some
functions or meet some objectives.
A. Justice B. System
C. Feedback D. Environment
87. The stage of the criminal justice process which involves the convicted person’s serving the sentence imposed.
A. Sentencing B. Corrections
C. Adjudication D. charging
88. The recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial investigation.

A. Bill of Rights B. Miranda Warning
C. Code of Ethics D. Policeman’s Code
89. This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles, bones and motor organs of the body.
A. Viscerotonic B. Mesomorphic
C. Endomorphic D. Ectomorphic
90. The author of “ Origin of Species” and “ The Descent of Man”.

A. Lombroso B. Darwin
C. Beccaria D. Garofalo
91. He is the primary advocate of the “Theory of Differential Association”.

A. Lombroso B. Sutherland
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92. The author of “On Crimes and Punishment” and the primary advocate of the Classical School of Criminology.
A. Lombroso B. Sutherland
93. The one who determines personally the existence of probable cause in the issuance of a search warrant.
A. Fiscal B. Police officer
C. Judge D. Victim
94. When an individual experience tension and anxiety increases making him/her helpless, thus he experience
negative feelings called
A. Crisis B. Frustration
C. Conflict D. Hallucination
95. Among the following, who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and suffer threats?
A. police B. parents
C. children D. old age
96. In the study of organized crimes, which of the following best defines the term “Costa Nostra”?
A. one thing B. two things
C. crime confederation D. crime syndicate
97. What is the strict code of conduct that governs the organized crime group behavior?
A. Omerta B. Camorra
C. Mob D. Tamero
98. Who defined White-collar crime as a criminal act committed by a person of respectability and high social
status in the course of his or her occupation?
A. E. Sutherland B. R. Quinney
C. E. Durkheim D. C. Darwin
99. Paul likes to buy stolen cellular phones. His act is an act of
A. None of these B. Forgery
C. Accessory to theft D. Fencing
100. In the Organized crime world, who bribes, buys, intimidates and negotiates into a relationship with the police
or public official?
A. Enforcer B. Instigator
C. Corrupter D. Corruptee
~END OF CRIM1 QUESTIONS~

9
(CRIM 1)
Intro to Crim and
Psychology of Crimes
ANSWERS
1. C 29. A
2. B 30. B
3. B 31. A
4. C 32. C
5. D 33. D
6. D 34. B
7. B 35.
8. B 36. C
9. B 37. D
10. C 38. A
11. B 39. A
12. A 40. B
13. B 41. A
14. B 42. D
15. C 43. C
16. D 44. C
17. A 45. A
18. B 46. A
19. A 47. B
20. B 48. B
21. C 49. A
22. B 50. B
23. A 51. B
24. A 52. B
25. C 53. A
26. B 54. B
27. B 55. A
28. D 56. A
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57. B 79. A
58. C 80. C
59. A 81. B
60. C 82. C
61. D 83. C
62. C 84. B
63. B 85. D
64. C 86. B
65. C 87. B
66. B 88. B
67. C 89. B
68. C 90. B
69. D 91. B
70. A 92. C
71. B 93. A
72. C 94. B
73. C 95. C
74. C 96. D
75. B 97. A
76. D 98. A
77. D 99. D
78. B 100. C
11
(CRIM 2)
Philippine Criminal
Justice System
QUESTIONS
1. What do you call the branch of Criminology deals with the management and administration of inmates?
a. Phrenology b. Penology c. Penalty d. Correction
2. Which of the following person convicted by final judgment?

a. Prisoner b. Detainee c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B
3. The suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of the law is known as _______;
a. Phrenology b. Penology c. Penalty d. Correction
4. What branch of administration of criminal justice charged with the responsibility for the custody, supervision
and rehabilitation of convicted offenders?
a. Corrections b. Prosecution c. Prisons d. Courts
5. Which of the following is not a prison facility?

a. Correctional Institution for Women c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d. Manila City Jail
6. Which of the following is not a type of jail?

a. Lock-up b. Ordinary Jail c. New Bilibid Prison d. Work House
7. What do you call to a disposition under which a defendant after sentenced and conviction is released subject
to the conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of probation officer?
a. Probation b. Pardon c. Parole d. Amnesty
8. Which of the following refers to the programs, services and institutions responsible for those individuals who
are accused and or convicted of criminal offenses?
a. Corrections b. Prosecution c. Prisons d. Courts
9. Refers to the suffering that is inflicted by the State for the violation of the law:
a. Punishment b. Sanction c. Consequenc d. Penalty
10.The basic law of the Philippine Prison System is found in the_____;
a. Revised Administrative Code c. Revised Penal Code
b. Revised Rules of Court d. Local Government Code
11.A theory justifying penalty which states that the criminal is punished to served as an example to discourage
others from committing crimes:
a. self-defense b. justice c. prevention d. exemplarity
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12.A theory justifying penalty which states that criminals are punished to prevent or suppress the danger to the
State and to the public arising from the criminal acts of the offender:
a. self-defense b. justice c. prevention d. exemplarity
13.A juridical condition of penalty that states that the penalty must be imposed only to the person who actually
committed the crime:
a. commensurate b. definite c. personal d. equal
14.A juridical condition of penalty that states that penalty must be imposed by virtue of a judgment by competent
authority and as prescribed by law:
a. judicial and legal b. definite c. equal d. personal
15.The national prisons are administered by the national government under what particular office?
a. BJMP b. BuCor c.DILG d. Office of the Governor
16.What penal institution established pursuant to Act No. 3579?

a. Correctional Institution for Women c. Davao Penal Colony
b. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm d.New Bilibid Prison
17.What law classifies prisoners?
a. RA 29 b. Batas Pambansa 29 c. PD 29 d. EO 29
18.Refers to the combination of public and private services with legal authority to provide for the care, custody
and control of those convicted of a criminal offense;
a. Conviction b. Corrections c. Courts d. Penalty
19.What do you call the postponement of the execution of a death sentence?

a. Amnesty b. Probation c. Commutation of Sentence d. Reprieve
20. What do you call a method by which a prisoner who has served a portion of his sentence is conditionally
released but remains in legal custody, the condition being that in case of misbehavior, he shall be imprisoned?
a. Amnesty b. Parole c. Probation d. Pardon
21.What do you call the statutory shortening of the maximum sentence of an inmate because of good behavior?
a. Commutation of sentence b. Judicial Reprieve c. Imposition
of Penalty d. Good Conduct time allowance
22.Who is the father of modern probation ?

a. John Howard b. John Augustus c. William Penn d. Sir Walter Crofton
23.Probation is derived from the Latin word “probare” which means ______?
a. to prove b. to permit c. to release d. to serve
24.What is Presidential Decree 968?

a. Probation and Parole Law of 1967 c. Adult and Juvenile Probation Act of 1976
b. Probation Law of 1976 d. Pardon and Parole Law of 1967
25.Refers to an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense usually granted
in favor of certain classes of persons who have committed crimes of a political character, such as treason, sedition
or rebellion is known as?
a. Reprieve b. Parole c. Executive Clemency d. Amnesty
26.Which of the following refers to an executive clemency changing a heavier sentence to a less serious one, or a
longer prison term to a shorter one?
a. Reprieve b. Commutation of Sentence
c. Deduction of Sentence d. Good Conduct time allowance
27. The following are the effects of pardon, EXCEPT one;

a. It removes penalties and disabilities and restores full civil and political rights.
b. It does not discharge the civil liability of the convict to the individual he has
wronged.
c. It does not restore offices, property or rights vested in others in consequence of
the conviction.
d. It extinguishes the civil and criminal liability of the convicted offender.
13
28.Refers to the confinement and treatment of adult offenders and juvenile delinquents;
a. Penalty b. Conviction c. Corrections d. Prison
29.What purpose of correction in which the State wants to protect the society by reducing crime and isolating and
segregating criminals through imprisonment?
a. Retribution b. Deterrence c. Isolation d. Rehabilitation
30.What purpose/ objective of correction that involves the use of punitive and disciplinary measures such as
solitary confinement, to modify or reform criminal behavior whose conduct and deportment is not totally
responding to rehabilitation programs?
a. Retribution b. Isolation c. Rehabilitation d. Reformation
31.Which of the following theoretical foundations in dealing with criminals believed in the concept or principle of
“Let the punishment fits the crime.”
a. Classical School b. Neo Classical School
c. Positivist School d. Demonological School
32.When an individuals commits a crime they let the person drink a pungent poison to drive away the evil spirit
inside his body which leads him in the commission of crime. What do you call of this early form of correction?
a. Trephination Method b. Grotesque Mask c. Pungent Poison d. Banishment
33.The cutting of some parts of the offenders’ body is known as ______?

a. Flogging b. Mutilation c. Exile d. Branding
34.What is the manifestation of punishment during the dominance of Roman Empire?

a. Flogging b. Transportation c. Banishment d. Slavery
35.In 1166 A.D. Assize of Clarendon (Constitution of Clarendon) constructed the first facility designed solely for
public incarceration. This facility was known as ________?
a. Prison b. Goal c. Workhouses d. Detention Cell
36.What is the name of the famous gaol in Europe?

a. Assize of Clarendon b. New Gate c. Workhouses d. Gaol
37. Who is the former prisoner and was released through parole became the first English prison reformer as he
was then appointed sheriff of Bedford Shire a local gaol in England?
a. John Howard c.. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Alexander Maconochie d. Rutherford Hayes
38.Refers to a concept that rejects hard labor as a form of punishment is known as _________?
a. Prison b. Detention c. Penitentiary d. Hospice
39.Who is the governor of the state of Pennsylvania initiated reforms in their prison system?
a. John Howard b. Walter Crofton c. Rutherford Hayes d. William Penn
40.The fifth pillar of criminal justice system is _______?

a. Police b. Prosecution c. Courts d. Community
41.This is known as the basic unit of soiety;

a. Family b. School c. Church d. Media
42.He is an English man was then in-charge of the Birth of the British Penal Colony in Norfolk Island and gained
the title of “Father of Parole.”
a. Alexander Maconochie c. John Howard
b. Rutherford Hayes d. William Penn
43.Prisoners were encouraged for good behavior for them to gain incentives that would lead to their early release.
This concept was called the __________ which became the forerunner of Parole.
a. Pennsylvania System c. Reformatory System
b. Mark System d. Ticket Leave System
44.The first prison to abandon the Pennsylvania system and introduced the congregate prison in silent system is
known as _____?
a. Pennsylvania System c. Ticket Leave System
b. Reformatory System d. Auburn System
14
45.Who established the Irish concept of ticket-of- leave system?

a. Sir Walter Crofton c. John Howard
b. Alexander Maconochie d. William Penn
46.The following are the early forms of punishment, EXCEPT one;
a. Branding b. Mutilation c. Public Humiliation d. Trephination Method
47.Refers to conditional release that could be revoked any time before the original sentence expired;
a. Ticket of leave b. Mark system c. Workhouses d. Parole
48.The first President of the National Prison Association that encourage the separation of offenders by age and
practice of indeterminate sentence, academic and vocational training for inmates;
a. Alexander Maconochie c. John Howard
b. Rutherford Hayes d. William Penn
49.It is the machinery of the state uses in the prevention of crime.

a. Criminal Law c. Criminal Procedure
b. Criminal Procedure d. Criminal Justice System
50.They serve as lawyer of the government in all criminal cases.

a. Prosecutor b. Defense Lawyer c. Judges d. Litigants
51.They initiate the process to make the criminal justice system works.
a. Defense Lawyer b. Courts c. Police d. Judges
52.An inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to determine the legality of the arrest made especially those arrests
made without warrant.
a. Preliminary Investigation c. Preliminary Hearing
b. Court Trial d. Inquest Procedure
53.The knowledge of facts, actual or apparent, strong enough to justify a reasonable man in the belief that the
lawful grounds for arresting the accused;
a. Proof b. Evidence c. Probable Cause d. Subpoena
54.An act or omission punishable by law;

a. Crime b. Arrest c. Culpa d. Deceit
55.It is a principle that a person should not be deprived of life, liberty or property without reasonable and lawful
procedures;
a. Equal protection c. Bill of Rights
b. Right against self-incrimination d. Due Process
56.Consists of district and circuit court in Muslims areas for the administration of the provisions of Muslims
Personal Law;
a. Sandiganbayan c. Supreme Court
b. Shari’a court d. Court of Appeals
57.The law that created the Katarungang Pambarangay;

a. RA 7160 b. RA 7106 c. RA 6170 d. RA 1760
58.The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
a. Detection b. Apprehension c. Adjudication d. Arrest
59.They are considered as the prime mover of the system.

a. Law Enforcement b. Prosecution c. Courts d. Correction
60.When was the first Philippine probation law enacted?

a. August 5, 1953 c. August 7, 1953
b. August 5, 1935 d. August 7, 1935
61. It is the first probation law of the Philippines;

a. Act No 4221 b. Act No 4122 c. Act No 1242 d. Act No 2241
15
62.Who is the father of Philippine probation?

a. Teodoro Natividad c. Teofilo Natividad
b. Teodolo Natividad d. Theodore Natividad
63.Refers to an act of the sovereign power granting oblivion or general pardon for a past offense usually granted
in favor of certain classes of persons who have committed crimes of a political character, such as treason, sedition
or rebellion;
a. Amnesty b. Repreive c. Probation d. Parole
64.Refers to the extinction of the criminal liability of an individual, within certain limits or conditions, from the
punishment which the law inflicts for the offense he has committed;
a. Parole b. Amnesty c. Absolute Pardon d. Conditional Pardon
65.The pardoning power is exercised by the _______?

a. President b. Commissioner c. Secretary of DOJ d. Speaker of the House
66.A collective term for absolute pardon, conditional pardon and commutation of sentence ;
a. Probation b. Amnesty c. Executive Clemency d. Pardon
67.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to six months;
a. Insular Prisoner c. Municipal Prisoner
b. Provincial Prisoner d. City Prisoner
68.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of six months and one day to three years;
69.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to three years;
70.One who is sentenced to serve a prison term of three years and one day to death;
71.Those held for security reasons; held for investigation; those awaiting final judgment; those awaiting trial are
referred as _____?
b. Detention Prisoners d. City Prisoner
72.Those convicted by final judgment referred as ______?

b. Provincial Prisoner d. Sentenced Prisoner
73.Security facility for the temporary detention of persons held for investigation or waiting preliminary hearing;
usually the period of detention does not exceed forty eight (48) hours is called _____?
a. Lock-up Jail b. Ordinary Jail c. Workhouse Jail d. Detention Cell
74.Refers to an institutions for confinement of convicted offenders sentenced to imprisonment of three (3) years or
less and offenders awaiting and/or undergoing trial;
75.Refers to farms or camps;

76. City and municipal jails are administered and supervised by the ________?
a. BJMP b. BUCOR c. NBI d. PNP
77.Provincial jails are administered and supervised by their respective ______?

a. Local Government c. Provincial Government
b. City Government d. National Government
16
78.Jails derived from the two Spanish words “_______”, “_______.”

a. jaulo and caula c. fault and culpa
b. deceit and dolo d. poena and gaol
79. The prison that established on 16 January 1973;

a. Sablayan Penal Colony c. National Bilibid Prison
b. San Ramon Penal Colony d. Leyte Regional Prison
80.The following are sub-colony of Sablayan Colony and Penal Farm, Except one;
a. Central b. Pasugul c. Yapang d. Panabo
81.How many hectares does the Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm measures?
a. 16,000 hectares b. 124 hectares c. 18 hectares d. 1,500 hectares
82.What prison established in 1870 by Capt. Ramon Blanco, of the Spanish Royal Army, and was named after
Capt. Blanco’s father’s patron saint?
83.It operates Tanglaw settlement for released prisoners as homesteaders;

b. Davao Penal Colony d. Leyte Regional Prison
84.What prison established on 16 November 1904 pursuant to Reorganization Act 1407?

a. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm c. National Bilibid Prison
85.What system of inmate labor used wherein materials were provide by private business its manufacturing
process was supervised inside the prison?
a. Leave system b. State-use-system c. Piece-price system d. Contract system
86.What system of inmate labor used wherein materials and the products and produced by the prisons and
brought by the private business?
a. Leave system b. State-use-system c. Piece-price system d. Contract system
87.Refers to treatment program in which the offender and the therapist develop a face-to-face relationship;
a. Individual Treatment c. Behavior therapy
b. Group Therapy d. Group Guided Interactions
88.Responsible for evaluating the evidence the law enforcement has gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient
to warrant the filing of charges against the alleged violator;
a. Judge b. Law Enforcement c. Prosecutor d. Courts
89.They are responsible in reforming the convicted person;

a. Correction b. Law Enforcement c. Prosecution d. Courts
90. In most cases, the only paperwork necessary to initiate prosecution of an accused is _________.
a. Complaint or Information c. Commitment Order
b. Affidavit d. Release Order
91.The criminal justice process begins with the _________.

a. Commission of a crime c.. Detection of crime
b. Apprehension of criminal d. Adjudication of the case
92.Comprises all means used to enforce the standards of conduct, which are deemed necessary to protect
individuals;
a. Criminal Law c. Criminal Procedure
b. Criminal Procedure d. Criminal Justice System
93.A court that covers two or more municipalities;

a. Regional Trial Court c. Supreme Court
17
b. Municipal Circuit Trial Court d. Court of Appeals
94. He is the warden of Sing Sing prison in New York who visited and studied the Prison System in England and
was impress the Irish system.
a. Alexander Maconochie c. Gaylord B. Hubbell
b. William Penn d. Ippo Maqonoche
95. This type of treatment program was used on highly aggressive inmates to control their destructive behavior;
a. individual treatment b.group therapy c. chemotherapy d. behavior therapy
96. What type of treatment program that is sought to calm disruptive offender to associate pain and displeasure
with a certain stimuli;
a. neurosurgery b. serisory deprivation c. GGI d. Individual treatment
97. The main purpose of this program is to increase the client knowledge on career choices or job qualification and
training needed for successful employment
a. Vocational Counseling c. crisis intervention
b. Behavioral Modification d. social group work
98. A prison located at Muntinlupa, Metro Manila;

a. Ihawig Penal Colony c. San Ramon Penal Farm
b. National Bilibid Prison d. Davao Penal Colony
99. In the preceding number it has a measurement of 55 hectares

a. Ihawig Penal Colony c. San Ramon Penal Farm
b. National Bilibid Prison d. Davao Penal Colony
100. Where does the Philippine Prison System patterned?

a. English Prison System c. US Federal Prison System
b. Irish Prison System d. Alcatraz Prison Sytem

18
(CRIM 2)
Philippine Criminal
Justice System
ANSWER
1. B 39. D
2. A 40. D
3. C 41. A
4. A 42. A
5. D 43. B
6. C 44. D
7. A 45. A
8. A 46. D
9. D 47. A
10. A 48. B
11. D 49. D
12. A 50. A
13. D 51. C
14. C 52. B
15. B 53. C
16. A 54. A
17. C 55. D
18. B 56. B
19. D 57. A
20. B 58. D
21. D 59. A
22. B 60. D
23. A 61. A
24. B 62. B
25. D 63. A
26. B 64. D
27. D 65. A
28. C 66. C
29. B 67. C
30. D 68. B
31. A 69. D
32. C 70. A
33. B 71. B
34. D 72. D
35. B 73. A
36. B 74. B
37. A 75. C
38. C 76. A
19
77. C 89. A
78. A 90. A
79. D 91. C
80. D 92. D
81. A 93. A
82. B 94. C
83. B 95. C
84. A 96. B
85. D 97. A
86. C 98. B
87. A 99. B
88. C 100. C
20
(CRIM 3)
Police Ethics and
Values
QUESTION
1. Derived from the Greek word “ethos” which means characteristic way of acting.
a. Ethics c. Code of Ethics
b. Professional Ethics d. Ethical behavior
2. Set of moral code that every profession subscribes to promote a high standard of ethics in public service,
because practice of profession cannot be regulated entirely by legislation.
a. Police Ethics c. Professional Ethics
b. Ethical Standards d. All of the above
3. Practical science that treats the principles of human morality and duty as applied to law enforcement.
a. Ethics c. Code of Ethics
b. Police Ethics d. Professional Standards
The basic mission for which the police exist is to________.
a. Prevent crime and disorder c. Arrest the criminal
b. Investigate crime d. All of the above
4. The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependent upon______________.
a. Willing cooperation of the public
b. People’s voluntary observance of the law
c. Public approval of police actions
d. Relationship with the public
5. The test of police efficiency is_________________________, not the visible evidence of police action in
dealing with it.
a. Arrest of a criminal c. Repression of criminal conduct
b. Prevention of crime d. Absence of crime and disorder
6. Ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of reason and sound judgment.
a. Prudence c. Fortitude
b. Temperance d. Justice
7. Courage to endure without yielding, except one.
a. Endurance c. Physical courage
b. Perseverance d. Perseverance
8. Mandated to establish a Code of conduct for the PNP members to foster their individual efficiency, behavioral
discipline and organizational effectiveness.
a. PNP Directorate for Plans
b. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
c. National Police Commission
d. Internal Affairs Service
9. The Code of Conduct for PNP members is necessary to________________.
a. Set the moral tone and norms of professional conduct in the police service
b. Ensure that PNP members adhere to the fundamental tenets of police service
c. Punish erring police officers
d. Make sure that all police officers live according to the PNP’s Code of Ethics
10. When does the PNP’s Ethics Day is celebrated?
21
a. July 23 c. March 12
b. January 7 d. May 19
11. It was culled from the PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards which is anchored on the
divine and moral precepts, the constitution, RPC, Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Law, Code of Conduct and
Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees and other special laws.
a. PNP Ethical Doctrine c. PNP Code of Ethics
b. PNP Ethical Standards d. PNP Professional Ethics
12. The Oath of commitment to the PNP Ethical Doctrine is done by the PNP Members on the following occasion,
except one-
a. Upon entry to the police service c. Upon promotion to the next
higher rank
b. Upon transfer from one office to another d. Upon assumption of
office/position
13. PNP COPCES is subject to review for possible revision every______.
a. 3 years c.5 years
b. 10 years d.4 years
14. PNP members are duty bound to uphold the ethical doctrine and live upon the customs and traditions of the
organization. In case of conflict in the practice of the customs and traditions and the performance of duties,
which shall prevail?
a. Performance of duties c. Obedience to superior order
b. Practice of customs and traditions d. Law
15. Violation of the PNP Ethical Doctrine shall be penalized under, except.
a. RPC, RA 6713 and other Special Laws
b. Rules and Regulations promulgated by the NAPOLCOM
c. Articles of War
d. CSC Rules and Regulations
16. PNP Core Values, except.
A. Love of God, respect for authority and selfless love and service for people
b. Sanctity of marriage and family life
c. Obedience to superior officer and supremacy of the law
d. Responsible dominion and stewardship over material things and truthfulness
17. An embodiment of the core values and principles which a police officer is sworn to uphold to win the hearts
and minds of the people, which is the ultimate objective of police community relations.
a. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
b. PNP Police Ethics Manual
c. Code of Conduct for Government Officials and Employees
d. Law Enforcement Code of Ethics
18. The police should realize that the test of law enforcement efficiency is the absence of crime and disorder, not
the visible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing with them. One of the following supports the
preceding statement.
a. The police must concentrate more on crime prevention effort
b. The police must work further to improve its crime solution efficiency
c. The police must always observe maximum tolerance in dealing with civil
disturbance
d. The police must at all times respect human rights
19. The reputation of any organization affects the esprit de’ corps, morale and welfare of the members and sense
of pride to the organization. Thus, all PNP members should act in a manner that would give best impression to
the organization by living to its core values to enhance its-
a. Integrity c. Efficiency
b. Credibility d. Image
20. In consonance with the requirements of honor and integrity in the service, PNP members must have the moral
courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle of_______________.
a. Honesty c. Delicadeza
b. Moral courage d. Palabra de honor
21. The PNP promotes to maintain modest and yet dignified life for its members. They are required to be free from
greed, corruption and exploitation.
a. Police Lifestyle c. Police Integrity
b. Police Life d. Police Fairness
22. PNP members are restraint to seek political influence on matters pertaining to assignment, award, training and
promotion.
a. Influence peddling c. Political patronage
22
b. Political corruption d. Politicking

23. Police_________________ is the performance of duties with integrity, intelligence and competence in the
application of specialized skills and technical knowledge with excellence and expertise.
a. Professionalism c. Efficiency
b. Competence d. Effectiveness
24. PNP members’ commitment to democratic way of life, valuing and maintaining the principle of accountability,
upholding the Constitution and loyalty to the country.
a. Love of Country c. Commitment to Democracy
b. Loyalty to the Flag d. Commitment to the Constitution
25. Police Officers should use government properties and resources effectively, honestly and efficiently.
a. Commitment to the government c. Commitment to public interest
b. Commitment to ethical standards d. Commitment to public duty
26. PSI Jocelyn Cruz was assigned as head of the Violence Against Women and Children Division of the Manila
Police District. The Mayor of Manila facilitated her designation in that office. One day a Barangay Chairman
known to be a critic of the city mayor went to her office to seek police assistance which she immediately
attended to. What police professional conduct did Cruz exercised?
a. Political neutrality c. Non-partisanship
b. Respect for human rights d. Non-political patronage
27. SPOIV Antonio Torres was elected twice as president of homeowners association in the barangay where he
resides. As homeowners association president, he is credited for maintaining order in the community. His
involvement in this civic organization has never prejudice his official duties as member of the PNP. Torres
exercise-
a. Social awareness c. Civic duties
b. Social responsibility d. Police community relations
28. Ethical Doctrine requires PNP members to perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness, efficiency,
enthusiasm, determination and manifest concern for public welfare. They are refrain to engage in any activity,
which would be in conflict with their duties as public servants.
a. Dedication to the police service c. Work ethics
b. Devotion to duty d. Hard work
29. Former PNP Chief DG Nicanor Bartolome required all PNP personnel to plant trees to help in the development
and conservation of our natural resources for ecological balance and posterity. This is in compliance with the
PNP Professional Conduct of-
a. Conservation of environment
b. Conservation of natural resources
c. Environmental protection
d. Maintenance of ecological balance
30. A common feeling of purpose, pride, loyalty and responsibility that unites a disciplined group of people.
a. Unity c. Solidarity
b. Camaraderie d. Esprit de’ corps
31. Logical procedures in accomplishing tasks to avoid wastage of time money and effort.
a. Orderliness c. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency d. Discipline
32. Taking of legitimate means to achieve the goal despite of internal and external difficulties that may be faced
which might weaken the resolve in the course of time.
a. Prudence c. Patience
b. Diligence d. Perseverance
33. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees.
a. RA 6713 c. PD 46
b. RA 7080 d. RA 3019
34. Higher level of professional police service is on demand in view of___________.
a. Higher pay rate due to salary standardization
b. Changing economic environment
c. Increasing number of police applicants
d. Changing role of the police
35. The police must generate citizens’ support and involvement in the maintenance of peace and order because
the police does not operate in a__________.
a. Isolation c. selected location
b. Vacuum d. alone
36. When a police officer is taught how to deal with people in a warm and friendly manner, he is trained
in________________.
a. Media relations c. Public relations
23
b. Community relation d. Human relations

37. Ideas, actions, habits or experiences that contribute to the promotion of human life.
a. Moral virtues c. Values
b. Virtues d. Moral values
38. Person’s choice of values.
a. Personality c. Reputation
b. Character d. Behavior
39. Formal act or set of formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to special occasions.
a. Ceremony c. Customs
b. Traditions d. Social Decorum
40. A symbol of public faith and public trust.
a. Police uniform c. Police logo
b. Philippine flag d. Police badge
41. Love of country is manifested with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the Constitution.
a. Nationalism c. Patriotism
b. Duty d. Loyalty
42. Manifested by instinctive obedience to lawful orders, thorough spontaneous actions towards attainment of
organizational objectives guided by moral, ethical and legal norms.
a. Respect for authority c. Gentlemanliness
b. Discipline d. Camaraderie
43. A set of norms and standards practiced by the PNP members during social activities and other functions.
a. Social Decorum c. Discipline
b. Customs d. Social Etiquette
44. The reciprocal attitudes between the police and the community.
a. Police public relations c. Police community relations
b. Human relations d. Community relations
45. Aspects of police community relations except-
a. Community involvement c. Community service
b. Community participation d. Public relations
46. Not among the activities of police community relations
a. Police Media Relations
b. Public relation and Inter-Agency Coordination
c. Civic Assistance and Development
d. Community Organization and Mobilization
47. PCRG is the office in the PNP which tasks to win the trust, confidence and support of the people in the
framework of____________________________.
a. Do good and tell the people about it
b. Be good and the people will like it
c. Tell the people of the good intention of the police
d. Involve the people in police work
48. What is the chief cornerstone of an effective police community relation program?
a. The individual police officer c. Law violators
b. The people in the community d. Complainants
49. Police community relations is designed to____________________.
a. Bring citizens’ support to criminal justice components, remove apathy, and cause total
community involvement
b. Encourage police officers to project better image
c. Promote a set of examples to citizens
d. Win the cooperation of the people
50. Uniformed PNP members shall commit themselves to the democratic way of life and values and maintain the
principle of_______.
a. Equality of the service c. Police lifestyle
b. Public accountability d. Social awareness
51. It greatly enhance personnel professionalism process with regards to procurement, training, promotion,
assignment, placement, awards and retirement.
a. Basic Management c. Management leadership
b. Career Pattern d. Career management
52. Member of the PNP shall serve with utmost responsibility, integrity, morality, loyalty, and efficiency with due
respect to human rights and dignity as hallmark of a __________.
24
a. Peace loving society c. Liberated society

b. Democratic society d. Friendly society
53. In case of conflict in the practice of customs and traditions on one hand and in the performance of duties on
the other, one that shall prevail is ________.
a. Customs c. Traditions
b. Performance of Duties d. Written orders
54. All PNP members in the performance of their duties shall abide by this _________.
a. Code of Conduct c. Ethical Doctrine
b. Behavioral Conduct d. Gentlemanliness
55. The test of the police efficiency is the absence of _______.
a. Police visibility c. Personal moral
b. Crime and disorder d. Adherence to the law
56. The use if which diminishes proportionality in achieving law enforcement objectives.
a. Dialogue c. Debate
b. Agreement d. Physical Compulsion
57. Application of which in the police work is necessary to avoid human rights violation and maintain respect of the
profession.
a. Applied principles c. Fundamental principles
b. Basic Principles d. Approved principles
58. Any other day suitable for the occasion, where PNP members gather together at their PNP club for a light
hearted jesting or airing minor gripes.
a. Happy Hours c. Lunch of time hours
b. Off hours b. After wok hours
59. It is taboo in the uniform service.
a. Flat stomach c. Bulging stomach
b. Thin Stomach d. Regular stomach
60. Usual greeting rendered by uniformed members upon meeting and recognizing person entitled to _______.
a. Salute c. Verbal Greeting
b. Shaking Hands d. Bowling of heads
61. Established usage of social practices carried on by tradition that have obtained the force of the law.
a. Authority c. Behavior
b. Customs d. Traits
62. Bodies of beliefs, stories, customs and usages headed down from generation to generation.
a. Habits c.Tradition
b. Manners d. Character
63. A manifestation or expression of consideration and respect.
a. Politeness c. Loyalty
b. Honesty d.Courtesy
64. A set of norms and Standards and practice by members during social and other functions.
a. Social Decorum c. Character traits
b. Personality development d. Human Behavior
65. Considered as the highest form of love in the PNP hierarchy of police values.
a. Love of women c. Love of God
b. Selfless love of people d. Love of power
66. Which of the following is prohibited from engaging in strikes, rallies, demonstrations and other similar
concerted activities?
a. Member of the first family
b. Family member of the officers of the PNP
c. Third degree of consanguinity relatives of the officers of the PNP
d. Members and officers of the PNP
67. The new PNP ethical doctrine is substantially based on ________.
a. PNP code of ethics
b. PNP Fundamental Doctrine and Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical
Standards
c. PNP code of conduct
d. R.A. 6713
68. Which of the following is the main purpose of the PNP ethical Doctrine?
25
a. Provide moral and ethical guidance to all PNP members

b. Established uniform behavior among PNP personal
c. Prescribe conduct that PNP organic and non-organic member be observed
d. Provide proper and standard behavior for PNP members and sanction on case of
violation.
69. The PNP ethical doctrine applies to both uniformed and non-uniformed personnel of the PNP.
a. True c. Either true or false
b. False d. Partially false
70. Which of the following occasions should the PP recited.
a. Flag Raising and Flag Retreat ceremonies, jointly with the Panunumpa sa
Watawat.
b. PNP training/course opening and closing ceremonies.
c. Seminar on moral values ceremonies and other ceremonies.
d. All of the above.
71. Rigid application of fundamental principles in police work is necessary to avoid human rights violation and
maintain respect of the profession.
a. True c. Partially true
b. False d. partially false
72. Which of the following is not false as far as fundamental principles of police work are concern?
a. Fulfillment of police functions is not depended upon community approval
because the latter is just a passive beneficiary of police service.
b. Cooperation and assistance of community diminishes proportionately the need of the
use of physical force and compulsion in achieving law enforcement.
c. Police officers are members of a regimented organization who are paid to render public
services due upon every citizen.
d. The test of police efficiency is the visible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing
crime and disorder.
73. The PNP ethical doctrine recognized that “The people are the peace maker, the police are the peace keeper,
and the local government is the peace observer.” If he goes beyond and above of his role, he must observe
the three (3) C’s in internal and external relations, except one. Which one?
a. Consult c. Contribute
b. Coordinate d. Cooperate
74. The oath of commitment to the ethical doctrine by all members of the PNP upon ________.
a. Entry into the PNP c. Assumption of office/position
b. Promotion to the net higher rank d. All of the above
75. How does the PNP members, uniformed or non-uniformed adhere to PNP ethical doctrine?
a. By Police Officers Pledge c. By Pledge of Covenant
b. By Police officers Creed d. all of the above
76. Recognized as ever “Magnificent Principle” of police service.
a. Love of God c. Respect the people
b. Honor the Government d. All of the Above
77. Assume that you are a criminologist member of the PNP. How can you sick and preserve public favor?
a. By soliciting public opinion
b. By effective public relation program
c. By constant demonstration of impartiality byreading offering of individual service and
congeniality.
d. All of the above
78. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge f allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the constitution.
a. Patriotism c. loyalty
b. Nationalism d. Valor
79. John Dean Ramos, a newly appointed police Inspector constantly speak and act with professionalism,
gaining him the admiration of his subordinates, he likewise follow geed deeds and work ethics of his superior
Sr/Insp. Eugene Velarde. Both officers stand on what basic issues?
a. PNP image c. Setting example
b. Delicadeza d. Police lifestyle
80. Known as an Act Creating the Board Examiners for Criminologists.
A. R.A. 8551 c. R.A. 6506
B. R.A. 6975 d. R.A. 4864
81. What law that regulated the Criminology profession in the Philippines?
A. R.A. 4864 c. R.A. 8551
26
B. R.A. 6975 d. R.A. 6506

82. What is the term of office of the Members of the Board of Criminology?
A. 3 years c, 6 years
B. 4 years d. 2 years
83. In order to pass the Licensure Examinations for Criminologists one must--
A. Obtain a general weighted average of 75%
B. Obtain a general weighted average of 80%
C. Obtain a general weighted average of 70%
D. Obtain a general average of 75% with no rating below 50% in any subject
84. A Criminologist is any person who?
A. Is a graduate of the degree of Criminology, who has passed the examination for Criminologist
B. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the Board Examination for Criminologists and is
registered by the Board
C. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the board and finished his Master of Science in
Criminology
D. All of the above
85. Which of the following is not a practice of Criminology?
A. As a teacher/professor of Criminology
B. As a technician in the Crime Laboratory
C. As a law enforcement officer
D. As a business adviser
86. When does R.A. 6506 was approved?
A. July 1, 1972 c. October 12, 1987
B. October 15, 1998 d. None of the above
87. How can a Criminologist improve his effectiveness in the exercise of his profession?
A. By faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
B. By diligent study and disseminating knowledge that will accrue to the benefit of the public
C. By accepting as sacred obligation to support the Constitution
D. None of the above
88. Known as Canon of Ethics for Registered Criminologists
A. Code of Ethics for Registered Criminologist
B. Ethics for Criminology Professional
C. Law Enforcement Ethics
D. P.N.P. Code of Ethics
89. What is the primary responsibility of Registered Criminologist?
A. Bear faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines and be loyal to his profession
B. Support the Constitution of the Philippines
C. Defend the principles of liberty
D. All of the above
90. Professional capacities in which Criminologist are governed by the Canon of Ethics
A. Private and Public Conduct
B. Conduct toward the Profession
C. Conduct towards fellow criminologist
D. All of the above
91. SPOI Jalandoni is known to have two families- one is in the Regional Police Office where he is assigned
as a CIDG operative and the other is in Manila where is maintaining a permanent abode. Which of the following
statement applies to him in regard to COPCES for police officer?
A. SPO1 Jalandoni is immoral
B. SPO1 Jalandoni does not practice the value of respect to woman and sanctity of marriage
C. SPO1 Jalandoni violated the police ethics
D. SPO1 Jalandoni does not follow the police professional conduct
92. PSI Mercado’s word is his bond, he stand by it and committed himself to uphold it. What police tradition
does inspector Mercado upholds?
27
A. Delicadeza c. Word of Honor

B. Camaraderie d. Honor Code
93. January is declared to be Police Community Relations Month under Proclamation Number-
A. 783 c. 738
B. 387 d. 873
94. A police officer who sacrificed his life and limb for the sake of his countrymen whom he pledged to serve
lives the tradition of________ among Filipino Law enforcers.
A. Physical courage c. Valor
B. Bravery d. Courage
95. Manifested by the PNP members’ deep commitment and concern to one another. This police tradition
binds spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the organization which is extended to the people the
police serves.
A. Loyalty c. Esprit de corps
B. Camaraderie d. Tradition
96. One of which is not a police social decorum. Which one?
A. Proper attire and table manners c. Marching
B. Social graces and appearance d. Manner of Walking
97. PSSupt Pinaglabanan is due to relinquish his position as Provincial Director of Laguna in favor of PSupt
Castor. What police customs on ceremony shall be observed?
A. Honor ceremony c. Transfer of position ceremony
B. Turn-over ceremony d. Farewell to the troops ceremony
98. What rank in the PNP is entitled to have an honor ceremony during arrival or departure from visits from
any police office?
A. P/SSupt c. Brigadier General
B. P/CSupt d. NCR Director
99. PCSupt Pedro Ruiz is an incumbent Regional Director of Region IV-A covering CALABARZON. His Police
Regional Office is visited by another Regional Director and the members of his group. What customs on
courtesy should Ruiz be observed?
A. Courtesy calls c. RHIP
B. Courtesy of the post d. entrance call
100. SPOIII Debayan refrains himself from patronizing houses of ill-refute and faithful to his legal spouse.
Debayan satisfies the ethical standard of-
A. Integrity c. Humility
B. Loyalty d. Morality

28
(CRIM 3)
Police Ethics and
Values
ANSWER
1. A 33. A
2. C 34. D
3. B 35. B
4. C 36. D
5. D 37. C
6. A 38. B
7. C 39. A
8. C 40. D
9. A 41. C
10. B 42. B
11. A 43. A
12. B 44. C
13. C 45. B
14. A 46. A
15. C 47. A
16. C 48. A
17. A 49. D
18. A 50. B
19. D 51. D
20. C 52. B
21. A 53. B
22. C 54. C
23. A 55. B
24. C 56. D
25. C 57. C
26. C 58. A
27. C 59. C
28. B 60. A
29. B 61. B
30. B 62. C
31. D 63. D
32. D 64. A
29
65. C 83. D
66. D 84. B
67. B 85. D
68. A 86. A
69. A 87. B
70. D 88. A
71. A 89. D
72. C 90. D
73. B 91. B
74. D 92. C
75. C 93. C
76. D 94. B
77. C 95. B
78. A 96. C
79. C 97. B
80. C 98. B
81. D 99. B
82. A 100. D
30
(CRIM 4)
Juvenile Delinquency
and Crime Prevention
QUESTION
1. A Person under the age of 18 years.
A. Child
B. Teenager
C. Adolescent
D. Adult
2. Refers to a Child who is vulnerable to and at the risk of
committing criminal offenses because of personal, family,
social circumstances.
A. Teenager at Risk
B. Minor at Risk
C. Child at Risk
D. Adolescent at Risk
3. Refers to a Child who is alleged as accused of or adjudged as
having committed an offense under Philippine laws.
A. Teenager In Conflict with the law
B. Minor In Conflict with the law
C. Child In Conflict with the law
D. Adolescent In Conflict with the law
4. Known as the Juvenile Justice Welfare Act of 2006.
A. R.A. No. 7610
B. R.A. No. 9165
C. R.A. No. 9344
D. R.A. No. 8344
5. Under the Juvenile Justice Welfare Act, Children under the
following age are exempted from criminal responsibility
A. 9 yrs. and below as well as over 9 yrs. but below 15.
B. 12 yrs. and below as well as over 12 yrs. but below 15.
C. 15 yrs. and below as well as over 15 yrs. but below 21.
D. 15 yrs. and below as well as over 15 yrs. but below 18.
6. The Mental Capacity of a child to understand the difference
between what is right or wrong and the consequences of
his acts.
A. Motive
B. Discernment
C. Intent
D. Knowledge
7. An Alternative child-appropriate process of determining the
responsibility and treatment of a CICL.
A. Diversion
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. Home Detention
8. Known as the Child and Youth Welfare Code.
31
A. R.A. No 9344
B. P.D. No. 603
C. R.A. No.7610
D. R.A. No. 8369
9. Known as the The Special Protection of Children againsts
Child abuse, Exploitation, and Discrimination Act of 1992.
A. R.A. No. 9344
B. R.A. No. 7610
C. R.A. No. 8369
D. P.D. No. 603
10. An Act establishing family courts which grants family courts
exclusive original jurisdiction over cases involving children.
A. R.A. No. 7610
B. R.A. No. 8369
C. R.A. No. 9344
D. P.D. No. 603
11. In applying the provisions of R.A. 9344, In case of a child in
conflict with the law, It shall be construed
A. Rigorously
B. Strictly
C. Liberally
D. Stringently
12. Refers to a principle which requires a process of resolving
conflicts with the maximum involvement of the victim, the
offenders, and the community.
A. Punitive Justice
B. Retributive Justice
C. Restorative Justice
D. Poetic Justice
13. Justice attained by punishing or sanctioning the offender.
A. Restorative Justice
B. Retributive Justice
C. Punitive Justice
D. Poetic Justice
14. A Person who acts illegally and is not old enough to be treated
as an adult under the laws of the community.
A. Juvenile Delinquency
B. Juvenile Delinquent
C. Young Criminal
D. Minor Criminal
15. The habitual committing of criminal acts or offenses by a young
person below the age at which ordinary criminal prosecution
is possible.
A. Juvenile Delinquency
B. Juvenile Delinquent
C. Children In Conflict With The Law
D. Child Offender
16. The Age at which the rights and privileges of an adult are
legally granted.
A. Manhood
B. Adolescence
C. Adulthood
D. Age Of Majority
17. An Action that is prohibited only to and most often applied
to offenses only committed by minors.
A. Minor Offenses
B. City Ordinances
C. Status Offenses
D. Misdemeanor
18. The Period following the onset of puberty during which a
young person develops from a child into an adult.
A. Adolescence
B. Adulthood
C. Teenager
32
D. Manhood
19. The Period during which adolescents reach sexual maturity and
become capable of reproduction.
A. Adulthood
B. Puberty
C. Teenager
D. Majority
20. A Category of Crime that includes among others crimes,
Robbery, Theft, Carnapping, Arson, Shoplifting, and Vandalism.
A. Minor Crimes
B. Status Offenses
C. Violent Crime
D. Property Crimes
21. A Crime in which the offender uses or threatens to use violent
force upon the victim.
A. Status Offenses
B. Violent Crimes
C. Serious Crimes
D. Major Crimes
22. Any Intentional Unauthorized absence from compulsory
schooling.
A. Truancy
B. Deviancy
C. Kickout
D. Dropout
23. What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used to deal with a young person alleged to have
committed an offense?
a. Rehabilitation
b. Alternative measures
c. Individual response against bad behavior
d. Extra judicial proceedings
24. What do we call the psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims and their
inability to respond effectively to repeated physical and psychological violence?
a. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
b. Battered Woman Syndrome
c. Violence against women
d. M Naughten Rule
25. What is the theory that tumors and seizures have been associated with aggression and violent behavior?
a. Brain lesion theory
b. Conspiracy theory
c. Neurotic Mind theory
d. Dementia praecox
26. A term used to describe a clinical condition in young children who have received non-accidental, inexcusable
violence or injury, ranging from minimal to severe or fatal trauma, at the hand of an adult in a position of trust,
generally a parent or guardian
a. Battered Child Syndrome
b. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
c. Abuse Trauma Syndrome
d. None of these
27. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or caretaker under circumstances indicating
harm or threatened harm to the child's health or welfare is known as
a. Child Abuse
b. Child Neglect
c. Child Dilemma
d. Child in conflict with the law
28. The exchange of sexual favors for money or other material goods without any emotional involvement
involving a person under the age of 18 years is called
a. Child prostitution
b. Child trafficking
c. Both A and B are correct
d. Both A and B are wrong
29. An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose, concealed, or underhanded is called
a. Clandestine abuse
b. Clinical abuse
33
c. Overt abuse
d. Abuse of authority
30. A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external reality and firmly sustained despite clear
evidence to the contrary, and which is not related to cultural or religious beliefs
a. False alarm
b. Wrong perception
c. Incoherence
d. Delusion
31. Which of the following is an act committed by a juvenile for which an adult could be prosecuted in a criminal
court?
a. Adult offense
b. Status offense
c . Delinquency offense
d. Children in conflict with the law
32. Among the following, what is the form of abuse where the use of the victim is for selfish purposes and or
financial gain?
a. Verbal Abuse
b. Exploitation
c. Racketeering
d. Khotongism
33. The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights, also a form of child abuse in most states.
Sporadic visits, a few phone calls, or birthday cards are not sufficient to maintain parental rights.
a. Exploitation
b. Abuse
c. Neglect
d. Abandonment
34. Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal caretaker that encompasses a broad range of
acts, and usually requires proof of intent.
a. Abuse
b. Exploitation
c. Neglect
d. Abandonment
35. The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult criminal court, except that juveniles have no
right to a jury trial, a public trial, or bail.
a. Acquittal
b. Conviction
c. Adjudication
d. Entertainment
36. A legal relationship between two people not biologically related, usually terminating the rights of biological
parents, and usually with a trial "live-in" period. Once it is finalized, the records are sealed and only the most
compelling interests will enable disclosure of documents.
a. Adoption
b. Foster parenting
c. Common law relationship
d. Brotherhood
37. What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of best environment for raising child which is an
alternative to the Parens Patriae Doctrine?
a. Rights of Society
b. Miranda Doctrine
c. Best interest of the Child Rule
d. Parental Obligation
38. What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult court for conviction in juvenile court which was
based on idea that first conviction was a "civil" matter?
a. Case Law
b. Breed v. Jones
c. Miranda v. Arizona
d. Matt v. Jeff
39. The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases decided by judges, as opposed to common
law which is developed from the history of judicial decisions and social customs.
a. Case Law
b. Breed v. Jones
c. Miranda v. Arizona
d. Matt v. Jeff
34
40. The filing of legal papers by a child welfare agency when its investigation has turned up evidence of child
abuse. This is a civil, rather than criminal, charge designed to take preventive action, like appointment of a
guardian for at-risk children before abuse occurs.
a. Child prosecution
b. Child protection action
c. Parens Patriae
d. Preliminary investigation
41. The act of being responsible for enforcing child support obligations is known as
a. Child’s care
b. Parental Guidance
c. Child at risk
d. Child support
42. A court order for placement in a secure facility, separate from adults, for the rehabilitation of a juvenile
delinquent.
a. Summon
b. Subpoena
c. Custodial confinement
d. Rehabilitation order
43. ___ is anyone under the care of someone else. A child ceases to be a dependent when they reach the age of
emancipation.
a. Delinquent
b. Dependent
c. Independent
d. Recognizance
44. It a phase of delinquency proceeding similar to "sentencing" phase of adult trial. The judge must consider
alternative, innovative, and individualized sentences rather than imposing standard sentences.
a. Preliminary investigation
b. Judgment
c. Disposition
d. Probationary period
45. The independence of a minor from his or her parents before reaching age of majority is known as
a. Enlightenment
b. Recognizance
c. Emancipation
d. Freedom from parental obligation
46. A clause requiring government to treat similarly situated people the same or have good reason for treating
them differently. Compelling reasons are considered to exist for treating children differently.
a. Bill of Rights
b. Equal Protection
c. Parens Patriae
d. Diversion
47. What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated children from suing their parents?
a. Parens Patriae Doctrine
b. Equal Protection
c. Family Immunity Doctrine
d. Poisonous Tree Doctrine
48. What is the legal doctrine holding parents liable for injuries caused by a child's negligent driving or other
actions?
a. Family Purpose Doctrine
b. Family Immunity Doctrine
c. Parens Patriae Doctrine
d. None of the above
49. Guardian ad litem means:
a. “For the Proceeding"
b. “Protection of child by the law”
c. “Guardians of the little children”
d. “Legal authority”
50. A court order giving an individual or organization legal authority over a child. A guardian of the person is
usually an individual and the child is called a ward. A guardian of the estate is usually an organization, like a bank,
which manages the property and assets of a child's inheritance. Guardians are usually compensated for their
services.
a. Guardianship
b. Order of Authority
c. In Loco Parentis
35
d. Parens Patriae
51. Teachers, administrators, and babysitters who are viewed as having some temporary parental rights &
obligations are considered
a. Guardianship
c. In Loco Parentis
d. Parens Patriae
52. What is the legal doctrine establishing "parental" role of state over welfare of its citizens, especially its
children?
a. Guardianship
c. In Loco Parentis
d. Parens Patriae
53. The emergency, temporary custody by a child welfare agency, police agency, or hospital for reasons of
immanent danger to the child is called
a. Preventive detention
b. Diversion
c. Witness protection program
d. Protective custody
54. What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom the child feels the greatest emotional
attachment to?
a. Psychological Parent
b. Maternity
c. Paternity
d. Parental Selection
55. An activity illegal when engaged in by a minor, but not when done by an adult. Examples include truancy,
curfew, running away, or habitually disobeying parents.
a. Adult Offenses
b. Minor Offenses
c. Status Offenses
d. Stubbornness
56. A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal rights or duties to the child other than those which have been
voluntarily accepted.
a. Maternity
b. Paternity
c. Stepparent
d. Foster parent
57. A parent who provided an egg, sperm, or uterus with an intent of giving the child up for adoption to specific
parties.
a. None of these
b. Stepparent
c. Foster Parent
d. Surrogate Parent
58. What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is "unfit", very young children should be placed in custody
with their mother following a divorce?
a. Tender Years Doctrine
b. Psychological Parent Doctrine
c. Unwed Mother’s Doctrine
d. Illegitimacy
59. What is declared of a temporary or permanent termination of parental rights in the best interest of the child
usually for reasons of abandonment, abuse, or neglect, but also including mental illness, addiction, or criminal
record?
a. Unfit Parent
b. Psychological Incapacitation
c. Mental Disturbance
d. Child at risk
60. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions most congenial to the survival, protection and
feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child’s physical, psychological and emotional
development.
a. Best interest of the child
b. Rights
c. Obligations
d. Child’s role
36
61. Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses because of personal, family and
social circumstances are considered
a. Abused Children
b. Neglected Children
c. Children in conflict with the law
d. Children at risk
62. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense under Philippine laws is
considered
a. Child at risk
b. Child in conflict with the law
c. Minor offense
d. Juvenile offender
63. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or
private citizens is termed as:
a. Arrest
b. Initial contact
c. Child custody
d. All of the above
64. One of the following is an act constituting exploitation and sex abuse among children in exchange of any form
of incentive.
a. Child trafficking
b. Child abuse
c. Child prostitution
d. Child racketeering
65. In the study of juvenile delinquency, which of the following projects paved the way for a reassessment of
existing treatment and prevention programs for delinquents?
A. Chicago Area Project of 1930
B. Illinois Legislature
C. Boston Child Guidance Clinic
D. President’s Commission on Law Enforcement in theU.S.
66. One family background predictors in juvenile delinquency is broken home. The term broken home is
ambiguous but can be characterized by:
A. Inadequate type of family structure
B. Anti-social type of family structure
C. Discordant or disturbed family structure
D. Disrupted or incomplete family structures
67. Parental discipline appears relation to delinquency. Harsh discipline in the home may result in more
delinquencies than consistent and reasoning forms of discipline. Aside from this, screaming at the child, calling the
child insulting names, excessive criticizing or generally ignoring the child is also contributory to delinquency. These
actions simply refers to:
A. Physical Abuse
B. Emotional abuse
C. Unfair parent
D. Parental neglect
68. There are many pathways to delinquency and a variety of family circumstances contribute to negative
behavior in children. Which of the following developmental pathways to delinquency begins with stubborn
behavior, then defiant behavior, and developing later into avoidance of authority figures like truancy, running away,
staying out late, etc.?
A. Authority conflict pathways
B. Covert pathway
C. Overt pathway
D. None of these
69. Which of the following refers to juveniles who have doli incapax?
A. Children aging from 7 to 12 years
B. Children above 9 that below 15 years old
C. Children at puberty age
D. Children in conflict with the law
70. Recent research and legal literature suggest that a useful away of classifying juvenile crime is to distinguish
between serious and non-serious acts and between serious and non-serious offenders. Among the following,
which is not considered a serious juvenile act?
A. Forcible sexual intercourse
B. Larceny
C. Homicide
D. Vagrancy
37
71. Maltreatment of a child is considered0

A. child misuse
B. child delinquency
C. child defect
D. child abuse
72. PD 603 is known as:
A. the Parole Law
B. the Probation Law
C. the Child and Youth Welfare Code
D. the Revised Penal Code for children
73. It refers to anti social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules and regulations
A. Recidivism
B. Reiteracion
C. Delinquency
D. Crime
74. A parent who provided an egg, sperm, or uterus with an intent of giving the child up for adoption to specific
parties.
a. None of these
b. Stepparent
c. Foster Parent
d. Surrogate Parent
d. Illegitimacy
record?
a. Unfit Parent
d. Child at risk
development.
b. Rights
c. Obligations
d. Child’s role
a. Abused Children
d. Children at risk
79. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.
A. neglected child
B. abandoned child
C. dependent child
D. abusive child
80. An Action that is prohibited only to and most often applied
to offenses only committed by minors.
A. Minor Offenses
B. City Ordinances
C. Status Offenses
D. Misdemeanor
81. The Period following the onset of puberty during which a
young person develops from a child into an adult.
A. Adolescence
B. Adulthood
C. Teenager
D. Manhood
38
82. The Period during which adolescents reach sexual maturity and
become capable of reproduction.
A. Adulthood
B. Puberty
C. Teenager
D. Majority
83. A Category of Crime that includes among others crimes,
Robbery, Theft, Carnapping, Arson, Shoplifting, and Vandalism.
A. Minor Crimes
B. Status Offenses
C. Violent Crime
D. Property Crimes
84. A Crime in which the offender uses or threatens to use violent
force upon the victim.
A. Status Offenses
B. Violent Crimes
C. Serious Crimes
D. Major Crimes
85. Any Intentional Unauthorized absence from compulsory
schooling.
A. Truancy
B. Deviancy
C. Kick out
D. Dropout
86. Among the following, what is the form of abuse where the use of the victim is for selfish purposes and or
financial gain?
a. Verbal Abuse
b. Exploitation
c. Racketeering
d. Khotongism
87. The most common legal grounds for termination of parental rights, also a form of child abuse in most states.
Sporadic visits, a few phone calls, or birthday cards are not sufficient to maintain parental rights.
a. Exploitation
b. Abuse
c. Neglect
d. Abandonment
88. Which of the following is defined as acts or omissions by a legal caretaker that encompasses a broad range of
acts, and usually requires proof of intent.
a. Abuse
b. Exploitation
c. Neglect
d. Abandonment
89. The phase of a delinquency hearing similar to a "trial" in adult criminal court, except that juveniles have no
right to a jury trial, a public trial, or bail.
a. Acquittal
b. Conviction
c. Adjudication
d. Entertainment
90. A legal relationship between two people not biologically related, usually terminating the rights of biological
parents, and usually with a trial "live-in" period. Once it is finalized, the records are sealed and only the most
compelling interests will enable disclosure of documents.
a. Adoption
b. Foster parenting
c. Common law relationship
d. Brotherhood
d. Illegitimacy
39
record?
a. Unfit Parent
d. Child at risk
development.
b. Rights
c. Obligations
d. Child’s role
a. Abused Children
d. Children at risk
95. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense under Philippine laws is
considered
a. Child at risk
b. Child in conflict with the law
c. Minor offense
d. Juvenile offender
96. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or
private citizens is termed as:
a. Arrest
b. Initial contact
c. Child custody
d. All of the above
97. What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used to deal with a young person alleged to have
committed an offense?
a. Rehabilitation
b. Alternative measures
c. Individual response against bad behavior
d. Extra judicial proceedings
98. What do we call the psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and deficits of women victims and their
inability to respond effectively to repeated physical and psychological violence?
a. Woman Menopausal Syndrome
b. Battered Woman Syndrome
c. Violence against women
d. MNaughten Rule
99. What is the theory that tumors and seizures have been associated with aggression and violent behavior?
a. Brain lesion theory
b. Conspiracy theory
c. Neurotic Mind theory
d. Dementia praecox
100. A term used to describe a clinical condition in young children who have received non-accidental, inexcusable
violence or injury, ranging from minimal to severe or fatal trauma, at the hand of an adult in a position of trust,
generally a parent or guardian
a. Battered Child Syndrome
b. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
c. Abuse Trauma Syndrome
d. None of these

40
(CRIM 4)
Juvenile Delinquency
and Crime Prevention
ANSWER
1. A 40. B
2. C 41. D
3. C 42. C
4. C 43. B
5. D 44. C
6. B 45. C
7. A 46. B
8. B 47. A
9. B 48. C
10. B 49. A
11. C 50. A
12. C 51. C
13. B 52. D
14. B 53. D
15. A 54. A
16. D 55. C
17. C 56. C
18. A 57. D
19. B 58. A
20. D 59. B
21. B 60. A
22. A 61. D
23. B 62. B
24. B 63. B
25. A 64. C
26. A 65. A
27. C 66. D
28. B 67. B
29. A 68. A
30. D 69. B
31. C 70. B
32. C 71. D
33. D 72. C
34. A 73. C
35. C 74. D
36. A 75. A
37. C 76. B
38. B 77. A
39. A 78. D
41
79. A 90.A
80. A 91.A
81. C 92.B
82. B 93.A
83. D 94.D
84. B 95.B
85. A 96.B
86. C 97.B
87. D 98.B
88. A 99.A
89. C 100. A
42
(CRIM 5)
Human Behaviour and
Crisis Management
QUESTION
1. In terms in handling during hostage situation, usually the easiest to deal with considered
relatively rational thinker after assessing the situation and weighting the odds, in most cases comes to terms which
the police, refrain from unnecessary violence or useless killings.
A. Psychotic individual C. Unprofessional Criminal
B. Professional Criminal D. Neurotic criminal
2. This must be used to asses potentially dangerous situation and bring the parties together in good time to
discuss how to resolve
the problems before they become critical.
A. Police management techniques C. Crisis management techniques
B. Personal management techniques D. Tactical Management Technique
3. The process of dealing with pressurized situation in a way, which plans, organizes, directs, and controls a
number of unrelated
operations and deciding the decision making process of those in charge to a rapid but unhurried
resolution of the acute problem
faced by the organization.
A. Stress management C. Police management
B. Crisis Management D. Personnel Management
4. It can be used deliberately by people attempting to enforce their point of view or accidentally by Some colossal
misjudgment or
long history of compound errors.
A. Conflict C. Crisis
B. Negotiation D. Critics
5. It is very important in dealing with hostage situation by police negotiator.
A. Physical training
B. Knowledge in sociology
C. Knowledge in different dialects from the major dialects in our country.
D. A and C only
6. It is one of the negotiators action.
A. Establish contact with hostage taker
B. Know the identity of the hostage taker
C. time lengthening
D. A and C only
7. It is a rule in crisis management
A. Commander shall always be the negotiator
B. Commander does not negotiate
C. Negotiator does not command
D. B and C only
8. Controlling the area with persons directly involved also means
A. Time lengthening action of the negotiator
B. Containment
C. B and C only
D. Involvement
43
9. If the hostage taker refused to talk, the following should be done by the negotiator.
A. Recommend attack
B. Decide to introduce the negotiators real name and rank position
C. Continue to talk and negotiate
D. Proceed to another plan
10. It must be done whenever a demand from the hostage taker is given.
A. Don’t get concession at once, subject interpretation that every demand could be achieved easily
B. Give it immediately to the hostage taker
C. Delay the giving of the demand to impress the hostage taker that even simple demand are hard to get.
D. A and C only
11. It must be done during face to face negotiation.
A. Maintaining distance with the object is not necessary, what is important is that the negotiator had a face
to face meeting with the object.
B. Be very more anxious
C. Enter the premises without gun pointed at you.
D. B and C only
12. A positive effect of time.
A. Hostage taker rationally increases.
B. The relationship of the subject and negotiator improves.
C. Emotional and psychological problems of of the subject further increases.
D. A and B only
13. It must be taken into consideration in conducting assault.
A. Hostage state of mind C. Negotiators appearance
B. Negotiators State of mind D. Hostage taker state of mind
14. During the surrender approach, the following must be done
A. Start with Positive approach
B. Its better to the negotiator to talk and talk.
C. Gradually ask the subject to surrender
D. A and C
15. It is an advantage of communication between the hostage taker and negotiator E
A. It lessens tension of the hostage taker
B. Gives more time for authorities to plan and coordinate course of action
C. It is impersonal
D. A and B only
16. They are viewed as psychopaths with a cause, under a leader or group. When caught they rationalize by
claiming to be revolutionaries.
A. Professional criminals C. Terrorist
B. Psychotic individual D. Neurotic
17. It is a kind of sociopath personality which is unable to deny gratification, so if hostage is a human rape is
probability.
A. Sociable personality C. Paranoid
B. Impulsive personality D. Temperament attitude
18. A person who believes threatened, persecuted with deeply ingrained suspicion of people.
A. Paranoid C. Professional criminal
B. Sociopath D. Neurotic
19. During hostage situation this person presents different and somewhat complex problem. He harbors great
inner conflicts and frustrations. He may even feel a degree of pleasure from his precarious predicament, as he
finds himself important being at the
center of attraction a position in his unique life.
A. Professional individual C. Psychotic individual
B. Terrorist D. Neurotic
20. A type of hostage taker whose want is vindication or relief.
A. Psycho case ( deviant ) C. Prisoners
B. Professional Criminal D. Terrorist
21. A type of hostage taker whose want is vindication or relief.
A. Terrorist C. Mentally drained
B. Professional criminal D. Neurotic Criminal
22. A type of hostage taker whose wants is political, economic leverage.

A. Prisoners C. Terrorist
B. Psycho case ( Deviant) D. Neurotic
23. A type of hostage taker whose want is to escape, better treatment.
A. Professional criminal C. Prisoners
B. Psycho case ( deviant ) D. Neurotic
44
24. A type of hostage taker who suffers from delusion, Hallucination, or sets out his own mission, which he
himself does not know.
A. Terrorist C. Professional criminal
B. Mentally deranged D. Neurotic
CHOICES FROM QUESTIONS NO. 25 TO 29
A. Negotiator
B. Personality disorder
C. Severe depression
D. Mentally deranged
E. Sociopath personality
25. Person charged with establishing communication with hostage
26. Reacts on overwhelming stress to take action to relieve stress. He is exempted from criminal liability.
27. Suffers from mental aberration. He takes hostage to enforce irrational desires
( with no acceptable meaning )
28. Anti-Social. Deeply imagined maladaptive patterns of behavior ( products of child abuse ) Unsocialized ,
incapable of loyalty to individuals and group.
29. Traits of character bereft of conscience.
30. A type of sociopath personality who is easy going and spend thrift.
A. Impulsive C. Sociable
B. Paranoid D. Mentally Deranged
31. Priorities in this situation are the preservation of life and apprehension of the subject to recover and protect
property.
A. Principle to police management
B. Principle of hostage negotiation and recovery
C. Principle of patrol supervision
D. Principle of personnel management
32. The person who holds other people as a hostage.
A. Professional criminal C. Hostage negotiator
B. Hostage taker D. Lunatic person
33. To arrange or settle by conferring discussions.
A. Conference C. Negotiate
B. Hostage taker D. Discussion
34. Persons hold as security during a hostage taking situation.
A. Abduction C. Hostage Taker
B. Hostage D. Negotiator
35. It is one of the detailed plans to be prepared during a hostage taking situation.
A. Time scales C. Scope for cooling period.
B.. Discipline yourself to listen D. A and C only
From the following write A if both statements are correct; B if the first statement is correct and second is
incorrect; C if both statement is incorrect; D If the first statement is incorrect and second is correct
36. The phase crisis management was coined by Robert McNamara at the time of the Panamian
Missile crisis. Crisis management is a phrased used commonly in diplomatic circles but it is
Something that happens in any organization where the pressure of events, external forces
Management into making urgent decision.
37. Crisis is caused not by actions of human beings nor by natural disorders, fire, flood, earthquake
And etc. Crisis is not a sudden unforeseen events which perhaps could have not been
Anticipated.
38. The most important thing to do in a crisis is to keep cool. Draw up the preliminary plan of action
Set it out step by step and prepare other contingency plans to deal with eventualities.
39. A detailed plan in crisis management include s contingency plans to deal with new development
Or emergencies. A good crisis manager is very indecisive.
40. Crisis management is no more than good management under pressure and they are the good crisis
managers.
41. In a hostage situation in any case it become violent, the authorities must always come out as
A. Aggressor C. Negotiator
B. Victor D. None of the above
42. Priorities in hostage situation are the preservation of life and _____________.
A. Apprehension of the hostage taker
B. Preservation of crime scene
C. Recover and protect property
D. A and C only
43. It is an attitude of the negotiator which is a must for him to process.
A. Hospitable attitude C. Calm attitude
45
B. Violent attitude D. Passive attitude

44. In a hostage situation, where the hostage taker is suffering from severe depression, Personality disorder,
paranoid and sociopath personality, the commander in order to build Rapport should ____________________-.
A. Get negotiator of the same race
B. Get a negotiator residing on the same locality
C. Get negotiator of the same nationality religion or education
D. A & C only
45. It is a critical rule in hostage taking situation.
A. Commander does not negotiate, negotiator does not command
B. Hostage takers demand should always be adhered to
C. Hostage Life is the only concern of the police
D. Hostage taker should be assaulted
46. Controlling situation and area of people involved.
A. Surrender approach C. Containment
B. Establish contact D. Time Lengthening
47. Start with position approach act as if the hostage taker will surrender. Do not talk too much. Gradually ask
hostage taker to surrender.
A. Time lengthening C. Surrender approach
B. Establish contact D. Containment
48. Give more time for police to organize and coordinate the plan of action.
A. Surrender approach C. Containment
B. Time Lengthening D. Establish contact
49. Immediately, after positioning at advantage position communicate with the hostage taker
A. Containment C. Time Lengthening
B. Establish contact D. Surrender approach
50. Be the caller, planed and be prepared be ready with graceful exit and discipline yourself to listen.
A. Surrender approach C. Establish Contact
B. Containment D. Telephone Negotiator Technique
51. During face to face negotiation, the personal distance of the negotiator with the hostage taker should be
A. 1- 5 feet C. 1-10 feet
B. 1-3 feet D. 1 foot
52. The intimate distance of the negotiator with the hostage taker should be
A. About 12 inches C. About 6 inches
B. About 24 inches D. About 1 foot
53. It is a positive effect of time
A. Hostage takers nationality
B. Hostage Taker- negotiator relationship improves
C. hostage taker will wear down emotionally, psychologically
D. Hostage taker will have more time to think
E. All of the above
54. It’s a negative effect of time
A. Hostage takers demand maybe reduced
B. Hostage will have more demand for food and water
C. Anxiety reduced, hostage taker given the chance to organize his true self
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
55. During face to face negotiation, the negotiator should ________________.
A. Introduced him self as a commander
B. Maintain distance
C. Wear body armor
D. B and C only
CHOICES FROM QUESTIONS NO. 56 – 60

A. Field commander D. Patrol personnel
B. Operation aide E. Assault team
C. Administrative aide
56. Maintains record operation and units at scene
57. Establish contact with hostage taker
58. Coordinate assignments of off- duty personnel arriving at scene. Relay orders/information to personnel
involved.
59. Sharpshooters ( with high powered arms, on flak vest)
60. Contain hostage takers and help evacuate civilians out of the scene
61. The implementation of methods to deal with hostage situation is composed of how many phases
46
A. Two C Five
B. Three D. Six
CHOICES FROM QUESTIONS NO. 62 – 70
A. Phase I ( Scene of incident)
B. Phase II ( transit Route)
C. Phase III at destination
D. Disadvantage of telephone conversation
62. Begins Upon establishment of position at the scene, done before arrival of convoy
63 After establishing situation, contain hostage takers and civilians evacuated out of the area of incident.
64. Contain the convoy on the way to destination under negotiator, giving instructions through walkie -talkie.
65. Do not ask demands , hostage takers may not have demand.
66. Helicopter to serve surveillance.
67. Set up communication with hostage taker.
68. Brief assault team and rush them to destination to secure place.
69. Give room to negotiate- do not cramp-, avoid disturbance
70. Conserve concessions, hold giving in to demand; if given in at once; demand may come more more delay
works in favor of authorities.
CHOICES FROM QUESTIONS 71 - 80
A. Telephone negotiator technique
B. Advanced telephone conversation
C. Disadvantage of telephone conversation
D. Advantage of communication ( between hostage taker and negotiator)
71. Gives more time for authorities to plan and coordinate course of action
72. Cannot see the hostage reaction
73. Conversation is quicker
74. It is impersonal
75 Be the caller ( Talk with the leader only )
76. Plan and prepare
77. If hostage taker wont talk, continue negotiating don’t loose hope
78. Caller has the advantage
79. Lessens tension of hostage taker
80. Easier to say no.
From the following questions write A, if both sentences are correct; B if both sentences is incorrect; C if
the first sentence is correct and second is incorrect; D if first sentence is incorrect and second is correct.
81. Physical training- physical conditioning includes weapon disarming method and unarmed
Self defense. Rescue efforts should run from top.
82. If negotiation fails, final move must be made swiftly with no looking back. In life and
Death negotiation show of force is unnecessary if there are several hostage takers.
83. Keep in mind that one hostage taker, shoe off force may be necessary. Patrol units,
assault units should know exactly whose command they are under.
84. Containment is one way to ensure hostage negotiation unit is capable of establishing control
Over situation. During face to face negotiation, it is not necessary for the negotiator to
Wear armor body.
85. It is a disadvantage of telephone conversation because it is easier to conclude the conversation.
Important items are more easily committed and this is an advantage of telephone conversation.
86. It is a rule in hostage negotiation to get something in return for every concession granted like
Aged, sick or youngest hostages. Don’t get concession at once, its subject to interpretation that
You could get easily.
87. During face to face negotiation, have weapon and tactical back up ( snipers). You can enter as
Negotiator even if gun of the hostage taker is pointed at you.
88. It is one of the qualities of crisis manager.
A. They are good leaders providing inspiration to their team
B. They keep cool
C. Good manager under pressure
D. A and C only
E. All of the above
89. It is more important during hostages situation.
A. Improved communication
B. Efficiency of the police personnel in unarmed combat
47
C. Efficiency of the police responding to call emergency

D. A and C only
90. It is a negative effect of time during hostage negotiation.
A. Exhilarations and boredom may have creeping effects or both hostages takers and authorities
B. Hostage takers demand may be reduced
C. Anxiety reduced, hostage taker given chance to0 organize his true self
D. All of the above
91. It is one way to ensure hostage negotiation is capable of establishing control over situation.
A. Containment C. Time Lengthening
B. Dry run D. Establishing contact
92. The commander is given the opportunity to choose the members who will constitute the team.
A. Screening C. Establishing contact
B. Dry run D. Time Lengthening
93. In Life and death negotiation, the negotiator should not be friendly; it may be interpreted as ___.
A. Over confidence C. Over zealousness
B. Weakness D. Surrender
94. In conducting assault, the team leader must take into consideration the ____________.
A. Number of the hostage takers their mentality
B. The serviceability of their weapons
C. Hostage state of mind
D. A and C only
95. In Life and death negotiation, It is necessary if there are several hostage takers
A. Presence of plenty media personnel
B. Show of force
C. Presence of relatives of the hostage taker to help police negotiate]
D. Display of sophisticated weapons
96. The hostage taker should not be driven to _________ instead he should be given hope, security and etc.
A. Desperation C. Suicidal attempts
B. Hopelessness D. All of the above
97. If negotiation fails, ( situation permits) any assaults must proceed with _____________.
A. Skills C. Accuracy
B. Professionalism D. All of the above
98. During the surrender approach, the negotiator should_________________.
A. Know whose command the men and under
B. Not impose never go to the hostage taker at once
C. Not talk too much and make sure that hostage taker understand
D. B and C only
99. During the hostage negotiation, It is one thing which may be considered negotiable.
A. Media coverage C. Transportations
B. Weapons D. A and C
100. In hostage situation, the function of the patrol personnel is _______________.
A. To establish contact with hostage taker
B. Contain hostage taker
C. Help evacuate civilians out the scene
D. B and C only
END OF CRIM5 QUESTIONS~

48
(CRIM 5)
Human Behaviour and
Crisis Management
ANSWER
1. B 40. A
2. C 41. B
3. B 42. D
4. C 43. C
5. D 44. D
6. D 45. A
7. D 46. C
8. B 47. C
9. C 48. B
10. D 49. B
11. C 50. D
12. D 51. B
13. A 52. C
14. D 53. E
15. C 54. E
16. B 55. D
17. A 56. C
18. A 57. A
19. C 58. B
20. A 59. E
21. B 60. D
22. C 61. B
23. C 62. C
24. B 63. A
25. A 64. B
26. D 65. A
27. C 66. B
28. B 67. A
29. E 68. B
30. C 69. A
31. B 70. A
32. B 71. D
33. C 72. C
34. C 73. B
35. B 74. C
36. D 75. A
37. D 76. A
38. A 77. A
39. B 78. B
49
79. D 90. A
80. B 91. B
81. A 92. A
82. C 93. B
83. D 94. D
84. B 95. B
85. D 96. D
86. A 97. D
87. C 98. D
88. E 99. D
89. D 100. D
50
(LEA 1)
Police Organization
and Administration
with Planning
QUESTIONS
1. The regular daily formation of policemen assigned in patrol and traffic operations where the shift or watch
supervisor conducts inspection, checks attendance, and gives briefing, instructions and assignment, is known in
the police service as ____.
A. Roll-call training C. Drill formation
B. Attendance Seminar D. Morning inspection
2. A management principle holding that a subordinate should report to only one supervisor.
A. Supervision C. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Direction
3. It refers to the capability of a police commander to establish strategic and tactical alliances with the different
sectors of the community including churches, schools, local government units and civic organizations in pursuit of
peace and order.
A. Community relation C. Resourcefulness
B. Inter-operability D. Liaisoning
4. Also known as the Jail Bureau.
A. Bureau of Corrections C. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Bureau of Prisons D. PNP Jails
5. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Police Commission?
A. President C. Secretary, DILG
B. Vice President D. Chief, PNP
6. One of the powers vested upon the mayors by RA 6975 is to choose the chief of police from five (5) eligibles
recommended by the ____.
A. Regional Director C. Provincial Director
B. Chief, PNP D. NAPOLCOM
7. It is the primary job of this government agency to promptly respond and suppress “Conflagration”.
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology C. Local Government
B. Bureau of Fire Protection D. Volunteer Fire Brigade
8. The Local Government Executive authorized by law to take responsibility over the anti-illegal gambling
operations in their respective jurisdiction.
A. Mayor C. Governor
B. Congressman D. Barangay Captain
9. The highest rank in the hierarchy of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology is:
A. Fire Director C. BJMP Chief
B. Fire Director General D. Fire Chief Superintendent
10. The head or highest official in a City/Municipal Fire Station is known as ____.
A. Fire Marshall C. Fire Chief
B. Fire Warden D. Fire Commander
11. The law that governed the local police forces prior PC/INP merging.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 4864 D. PD 1184
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12. He is the chairperson of the Board of Trustees of the Philippine Public Safety College.
A. SILG C. BJMP Chief
B. PNP Chief D. BFP Chief
13. Which is NOT a training institute under the Philippine Public Safety College?
A. Philippine National Police Academy C. PhilippineMilitary Academy
B. National Police College D. National Forensic Science Training Institute
14. He leads a manageable number of police personnel who are assigned to perform a specific job like patrol,
traffic, investigation, and other functions, and tasked to take responsibility of seeing that they perform their
respective duties.
A. Police Subordinate C. Police Superior
B. Rank and File D. Police Supervisor
15. This is a requirement for every line officer where he can write down all important data pertaining to arrest
made by him and other information that may help him in making report and in testifying in court. This is regularly
inspected by his police supervisor.
A. Police Diary C. Logbook
B. Blotter D. Official Notebook
16. It is said that police personnel work twenty-four hours a day which means that even if they are on off-duty they
can be summoned when there are emergencies. In a police department where members regularly work for eight-
hour duty, how many shifts or watches are in effect?
A. One C. Three
B. Two D. Four
17. The highest position title in the Bureau of Fire Protection is what?
A. Fire Chief C. Fire Director
B. Fire Marshall D. Fire Warden
18. Which among the following is NOT under the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
A. District Jail C. City Jail
B. Provincial Jail D. Municipal Jail
19. A police station should have a ____ plan which includes every step that has been outlined and officially
adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by members of the police organization.
A. Tactical plan C. Procedural plan
B. Management plan D. Operational plan
20. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for plans
B. PNP directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
21. All police stations in the National Capital Region are headed by a Chief of Police who in accordance with the
law should hold the rank of ____.
A. Chief Superintendent C. Superintendent
B. Senior Superintendent D. Chief Inspector
22. Plans can be changed to meet future requirements which were not considered during the planning stages.
This indicates _____ in planning.
A. Responsiveness C. Flexibility
B. Efficiency D. Effectiveness
23. In the planning process, the skill involved in knowing what should be done first refers to:
A. Forecasting C. Documenting
B. Monitoring D. Prioritizing
24. Which among the following is INCORRECT?
A. The highest rank in the PNP is Director General
B. There are three deputy chief, PNP who hold the rank of Police Deputy Director General
C. The Command Group is composed of the four top officials of the PNP
D. The PNP is a directorial type of organization
25. It is referred to as turning point of event which needs to be addressed promptly.
A. Unusual occurrence C. Emergency
B. Crisis D. Contingency
26. It is likewise known as plan “B”, Back-up plan or Worst-case-scenario plan.
A. Tactical plan C. Urgent plan
B. Contingency plan D. Operation plan
27. Refers to plans whose timelines are usually between one (1) to three (3) years.
A. Strategic plan C. Medium-term plan
B. Tactical plan D. Management plan
28. Which among the following is considered to be the employer of the members of the PNP?
A. Local government C. National government
52
B. DILG D. NAPOLCOM
29. This plan answers the question, “How do we get there?”
A. Strategic plan C. Medium-term plan
B. Tactical plan D. Procedural plan
30. The operations plan and budget is an example of what PNP plans?
A. Strategic C. Tactical
B. Medium-term D. Procedural
31. What is that category of tactical plans which is developed as a result of crisis?
A. Reactive plan C. Miscellaneous plan
B. Proactive plan D. Administrative plan
32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are _____ personnel.
A. Staff C. Supervision
B. Management D. Line
33. Often called the primary management function.
A. Planning C. Organizing
B. Budgeting D. Delegating
34. ____ Plans are developed in anticipation of problems.
A. Proactive C. Intelligence
B. Reactive D. Long-term
35. The government agency tasked by law to administer and control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG C. NAPOLCOM
B. Civil Service Commission D. Local government units
36. A type of plans used to guide line officers in routine and field operations, and in some special operations.
A. Procedural C. Contingency
B. Functional D. Reactive
37. The military rank of Major General is the equivalent of what PNP rank?
A. Police Director General C. Police Director
B. Police Deputy Director General D. Police Chief Superintendent
38. In police operations, when a specific situation goes wrong, what kind of plan should be executed?
A. Procedural C. Contingency
B. Tactical D. Operational
39. The founder of professional policing.
A. Robert Peel C. O.W. Wilson
B. J. Edgar Hoover D. Henry Fielding
40. The only government agency in the Philippines which is authorized to issue firearm licenses, licenses for
security guards as well as permit to operate security agencies.
A. Armed Forces of the Philippines C. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Philippine National Police D. National Police Commission
41. Supplies procurement plan and personnel recruitment plan are example of:
A. Operational plan C. Administrative plan
B. Intelligence plan D. Forecast plan
42. As an external disciplinary authority in the PNP the peoples Law Enforcement Boards are empowered to
investigate and decide citizen’s complaints against PNP members. These boards are created by ____.
A. National Police Commission C. City/municipal mayors
B. Sangguniang Panglungsod/Bayan D. PNP
43. In criminal investigation before taking the sworn statement of a suspect, the investigator should inform the
former of:
A. The name of complainant and witnesses
B. His constitutional rights
C. The evidence collected against him
D. His identity as officer on case
44. A plan of every local government (Provinces and towns) to address any crisis that may occur in their
respective jurisdiction is known as:
A. Fire plan C. Defense plan
B. Multi-purpose plan D. Integrated Area/Community Public Safety Plan
45. The number of persons one individual can effectively supervise best describes the organizational principle of
____.
A. supervision C. Unity of command
B. Span of control D. Leadership
46. Includes motivating subordinates, guiding others, selecting the most efficient communication channels, and
resolving conflicts best described ____ as a management function.
A. Controlling C. Directing
B. Leading D. Delegating
47. A plan of coping upon an attack against buildings equipped with alarm system is an example of:
53
A. Extra-departmental plan C. Management plan

B. Procedural plan D. Tactical plan
48. A police station should have a ____ plan which includes every step that has been outlined and officially
adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by members of the police organization.
A. Tactical plan C. Procedural plan
B. Management plan D. Operational plan
49. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10 years is called:
A. Annual plan C. Strategic plan
B. Long-term plan D. Mid-term plan
50. The National Police Commission is attached to the Department of the Interior and Local Government for
____.
A. Administrative control C. Operational supervision
B. Administration and control D. Policy and program coordination
51. The ex-officio member of the National Police Commission is the ____.
A. Secretary, DILG C. NBI Director
B. Chief, PNP D. AFP Chief
52. _____ plan relates to the problems of equipping, staffing and preparing the police station to do the job rather
than the actual operation of the organization.
A. Management plan C. Tactical plan
B. Procedural plan D. Operational plan
53. All are summary dismissal authority over administrative cases against uniformed PNP personnel EXCEPT:
A. PLEB C. Chief, PNP
B. PNP Regional director D. IAS
54. It includes every procedure that has been outlined and officially adopted as the standard method of action to
be followed by members of the police organization.
A. Progress plan C. Procedural plan
B. Operational plan D. tactical plan
55. The PNP Directorate tasked to address the peculiar problems affecting the peace and security of adjacent
areas or regions with common culture and situation specifically on insurgency and terrorism.
A. Directorate for Operations
B. Directorate for Integrated Police Operations
C. Directorate for Intelligence
D. Directorate for Investigation and Detective Management
56. What operational support unit of the PNP determines if a person is qualified to possess firearm, processes
applications for firearms and issues licenses to qualified individuals?
A. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group C. Intelligence Group
B. Logistics Service D. Civil Security Group
57. He exercises the power to revoke, for cause, licenses issued to security guards.
A. Chief, PNP C. Secretary, DILG
B. Undersecretary for Peace and Order D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
58. What operational support unit of the PNP conducts identification and evaluation of physical evidence related to
crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Health service C. Crime laboratory
B. PNP General hospital D. CIDG
59. The early English police system which adopted the so-called “Tithings”.
A. Frankpledge system C. Metropolitan Constabulary of London
B. Parish constable system D. Bow street runners
60. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)
61. The Provincial Governor shall choose the Provincial Director from a list of ____ eligibles recommended by the
Regional Director.
A. Six (6) C. Five (5)
B. Three (3) D. Four (4)
62. Which one of the following is least often considered a staff function?
A. Recruitment C. Training
B. Juvenile division D. Planning
63. The ex-officio chairman of the National Police Commission is the ____.
A. Chief, PNP C. NAPOLCOM Executive Officer
B. DILG Secretary D. Vice Chairman
54
64. The law that established the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department of the Interior and
Local Government.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 6795 D. RA 8515
65. There are how many Police Districts in the National Capital Regional Police Office?
A. Three C. Five
B. Four D. Six
66. Under Republic Act 8551, it is provided that the PNP should be strengthened and evolved into a highly efficient
and competent police force that is ____ and fully accountable in the performance of its functions.
A. Business-oriented C. Military-oriented
B. Mission-oriented D. Community and service-oriented
67. The law that established the Philippine Constabulary/Integrated National Police as the National Police of
the Philippines. It was issued by President Ferdinand Marcos in 1975 during the Martial Law regime.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. PD 765 D. Act 175
68. The Chief, PNP, his two deputies and the Chief, Directorial Staff composed the so-called:
A. Internal Affairs Service C. Lateral Entry Board
B. Command Group D. Promotion Board
69. The PNP Internal Affairs Service which is tasked to ensure the operational readiness of the different PNP units
and personnel through the conduct of scheduled and unannounced inspections and audit, and to investigate
infractions of rules and regulations, is headed by ____.
A. Director General C. Director
B. Inspector General D. Auditor General
70. The rank-and-file of the PNP is composed mainly of low-ranked personnel. What is the lowest commissioned
rank in the PNP organization?
A. Police Officer 1 C. Senior Police Officer 1
B. Police Inspector D. Police Chief Superintendent
71. He coined the most familiar acronym “POSDCORB” which explains the functions of management.
A. Richard Sylvester C. Joan Urwich
B. Luther Gulick D. Douglas McGregor
72. Police personnel performing field duties like patrol, traffic, investigation, intelligence, etc. belong to what unit of
the police agency?
A. Staff units C. Line units
B. Auxiliary units D. Administrative units
73. A member of the Police Force who works at an organizational level where personal oversight of tasks
assigned to small group is assumed in order to assure satisfactory performance.
A. Police supervisor C. Police manager
B. Police investigator D. Police leader
74. The law that governed the local police forces prior PC/INP merging.
A. RA 6975 C. RA 8551
B. RA 4864 D. PD 1184
75. The management of people and things is being done primarily to:
A. Make them organized and nice to see
B. Attain the organizational objectives
C. Effect change for the better
D. Implement policies and regulations
76. Rural police established in 1836 through a Royal decree from Spain
A. Guardrilleros C. Guardia civil
B. Local police D. Carabineros de seguridad publica
77. The term “Police” originated from the Greek word:
A. Politeia C. Polizia
B. Polis D. Policia
78. The President of the Philippine when the PNP was established.
A. Joseph Estrada C. Ferdinand Marcos
B. Corazon Aquino D. Fidel Ramos
79. The early version of mounted riflemen in the history of Philippine policing.
A. Guardia civil C. Guardrilleros
B. Local police D. Carabineros de Seguridad Publica
80. The Insular Constabulary was organized in 1901 during the American Occupation by virtue of:
A. Act No. 255 C. Act No. 157
B. RA 4864 D. Act No. 175
81. Director General in the PNP is a ____ rank.
A. 5-star C. 4-star
55
B. 3-star D. 2-star
82. General policing in the Philippines is the primary task of what agency?
A. National Bureau of Investigation C. Philippine National Police
B. National Police Commission D. Armed Forces of the Philippines
83. The highest non-commissioned rank in the PNP.
A. Police Officer 3 C. Senior Police Officer 4
B. Senior Police Officer 3 D. Police Officer 4
84. How many rank of Director General is authorized in the PNP?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
85. The police system established by the English parliament thru the initiative of Robert Peel.
A. Bow street runners C. Metropolitan Constabulary for London
B. Frankpledge system D. Parish constable system
86. Republic Act 6975 is known as:
A. The PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998
B. The Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
C. The Police Act of 1966
D. The Merging of the Philippine Constabulary and the Integrated National Police
87. The Philippine National Police as described by the 1986 Philippine Constitution should be ____.
A. Directorial type C. Operationally under the DILG
B. Line and Staff Organization D. National in Scope and Civilian in Character
88. The highest official or head of a highly urbanized city police station like Olongapo,
Angeles, Cebu and Bacolod, is called a ____.
A. Chief of Police C. City Director
B. City Commander D. CityMarshall
89. The equivalent PNP rank of a Second Lieutenant in the Armed Forces of the Philippines.
A. Police Inspector C. Senior Police Officer 4
B. Police Senior Inspector D. Police Officer 3
90. The right vested upon a superior officer to give orders and the power to exact obedience from subordinate
officers.
A. Command C. Authority
B. Supremacy D. Police power
91. He chooses the PNP Provincial Director in a province from a list of three (3) eligibles recommended by the
Regional Director.
A. Governor C. Congressman
B. DILG Regional Director D. NAPOLCOM Regional Director
92. The PNP National Support Unit that is primarily responsible in enforcing the Anti-Carnapping Law of the
country.
A. Highway Patrol Group C. Special Action Force
B. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group D. Intelligence Group
93. ____ is the primary operating arms of the police station responsible for the general maintenance of peace and
order.
A. SWAT C. Police Precincts
B. Intelligence units D. Traffic units
94. The American police system rooted from ____.
A. France C. Egypt
B. England D. Philippines
95. The personal staff of the Chief, PNP responsible for the annual audit and inspection of the different field units
and personnel. It has also the power to investigate police anomalies.
A. Chief of Staff C. Legal Officer
B. Command Executive Senior Police Officer D. Inspector General
96. In policing or patrolling, the elimination of the opportunity of future offenders to commit crimes is the definition
of:
A. Criminal etiology C. Crime Suppression
B. Patrol Deployment D. Crime Prevention
97. The merging of the Philippine Constabulary and the Integrated National Police or PC/INP became effective
pursuant to:
A. PD 421 C. PD 531
B. PD 641 D. PD 765
98. Direction that is provided on a one-on-one basis is called _____.
A. Administration C. Management
B. Supervision D. Organization
99. When a group of people interact to achieve stated purposes, this is most nearly ____.
A. Management C. Control
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B. Delegation D. Organization
100. The President of the Philippines when the Philippine Constabulary and the INP were merged to serve as the
national police of the country.
A. Joseph Estrada C. Ferdinand Marcos
B. Corazon Aquino D. Fidel Ramos
~END OF LEA1 QUESTIONS~

57
(LEA 1)
Police Organization
and Administration
with Planning
ANSWER
1. A 34. A
2. B 35. C
3. B 36. A
4. C 37. C
5. C 38. C
6. C 39. A
7. B 40. B
8. A 41. C
9. A 42. B
10. A 43. B
11. B 44. D
12. A 45. B
13. C 46. B
14. D 47. D
15. D 48. C
16. C 49. C
17. A 50. D
18. B 51. B
19. C 52. A
20. B 53. D
21. B 54. C
22. C 55. B
23. D 56. D
24. C 57. A
25. A 58. C
26. D 59. A
27. C 60. D
28. C 61. B
29. B 62. B
30. B 63. B
31. A 64. A
32. D 65. C
33. A 66. D
58
67. B 84. A
68. B 85. C
69. B 86. B
70. B 87. D
71. B 88. C
72. C 89. A
73. A 90. C
74. B 91. A
75. B 92. A
76. A 93. C
77. A 94. B
78. B 95. D
79. D 96. D
80. D 97. D
81. C 98. B
82. C 99. D
83. C 100. C
59
(LEA 2)
Industrial Security
Management
QUESTIONS
1. Ethical Standard: Constantly endeavour to raise quality __________ of private security services ;
a. Authority b. Services c. Function d. Standard
2. Endeavour to fulfill their ____________ duties in accordance with the highest moral principles ;
a. Private b. Public c. Professional d. Standard
3. Contribute to the ______________ welfare by securing and preserving industrial facilities of the country ;
a. Private b. Public c. National d. Filipino
4. Constantly work with and assist the law enforcement agencies in the ___________ of peace and order in the
country;
a. Reservation b. Communication c. Preservation d. Cooperation
5. With faith and diligence , perform their __________ obligations for the protection of life, limb and property;
a. Civil b. Private c. Public d. Contractual
6. Code of Conduct: They shall all times adhere to professional ________ and refrain from practices that negate
the best interest;
a. Authority b. Services c .Ethics d. Standard
7. They shall not indulge in _____________ competition by undercutting the existing contract rates.;
a. Asset b. Financial c. Cut throat d. Private
8. They shall not ______ means or misrepresentations in all their business transactions;
a. Quarrel b. Deceitful c. Clandestine d. Practical
9. They shall ___________ an adequate library of books, magazines and other publications on security subject. ;
a. Control b. Serve c. Structure d. Establish
10. They shall at all times exercise ___________ and be prepared to prevent the use of their guards or the agency;
a. Diligence b. Vigilance c. Respect d. Integrity
11. They shall always be truthful and ____________ in reports;
a. Standard b. Accurate c. Narrative d. Direct
12. To _____ all calls from post more distant from the security house where I am stationed;
a. Quit b. Report c. Repeat d. sound
13. To _____ all violations of order I am instructed to enforce;
14. To _____ my post only when properly relieved;
15. To _____ or call the alarm in case of fire or disorder;
a. Quit b. Report c. Repeat d. Sound
16. To _____ to no one except in the line of duty;
a. Walk b. Talk c. Receive d. Salute
17. To _____ , obey and pass on to the relieving guard all order form company officers;
18. To _____ in an alert manner during my tour of duty and observing everything that takes place within sight or
hearing;
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19. To _____ all company officials superiors in the agency, ranking public officials, and commission officer of the AFP;
20. To _____ charge of the post and all companies properties in view and protect the same with utmost diligence;
a. Walk b. Take c. Receive d. Salute
21. A special key capable of opening a series of locks;
a. Master key b. Sub master key c. Original key d. Grand master key
22. A key to a single lock within a master keyed system;
a. Master key b. Sub master key c. Change key d. Grand master key
23. It is the devices holding a door closed by magnetism;
a. Code lock b. Combination Lock c. Lever lock d. Electromagnetic lock
24. This not the purpose of security survey;
a. determine existing state of security
b. locate criminals
c. Produce recommendations establishing a total security program
d. determine the conclusion and probabilities
25. Planning the security survey except for one;
a. Obtain organizational support
b. Verify the need
c. Develop alternatives
d. Implement the managers policy
26. All of this is types of security inspection except for one;
a. Formal b. Structured c. Continuous d. Valuable
27. Results of a long and firmly entrenched inspection program understood by all and accepted;
a. Formal b. Structured c. Continuous d. Informal
28. One security inspections that moves systemically.;
a. Formal b. Structured c. Continuous d. Informal
29. It is the work of a manager performs to assess and regulate work in progress and to assess the results;
a. Planning b. Organizing c. Controlling d. Leading
30. It is the work of a manager performs to effect active participation from his subordinates ;
a. Planning b. Organizing c. Controlling d. Leading
31. A system use in big installation whereby keys can open groups of locks;
a. Key master b. Master Keying System c. Master Lock d. Key System
32. Example of terrorism;
a. Riot b. Unfair competition c. Tornado d. Assassination
33. Physical Environment Probability Factors;
a. Age Groups b. Composition c. Planning d. Social History
34. Specifications regarding the use of Chain Link fences;
a. Be constructed of 6 foot
b. Be constructed of 7 foot
c. Be constructed of 8 foot
d. Be constructed of 9 foot
35. Types of perimeter barrier which is not belong;
a. Wire Fences b. Vault c. Bodies of water d. Buliding walls
36. Inter relationship of Security personnel to PNP;
a. Security personnel always subordinate to the members of PNP
b. All evidence gathered in the said investigation should be turnover to the PNP unit concerned
c. All violations in the said company enforcing by the security personnel should be reported to the PNP
d. Harmonious relationship for curtailing law less elements.
37. Storms is a sample of _______ hazards;
a. Natural b. Man made c. Mechanical d. Physical
38. This probabilty ratings has Insufficient data are available for an evaluation ;
a. Virtually Certain
b. Highly Probable
c. Moderately Probable
d. Probability Unknown
39. Grounds for cancellation of Security Agency License; which one is not belong;
a. When the agency submits a falsified license to prospective client for bidding
b. When the agency practice “KABIT SYSTEM”
c. When the agency fail to employ a minimum of 200 gainfully employed security guards
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d. When the agency coordinate with the law enforcement agency.

40. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission;
a. Private Benjamin
b. Intelligence officer
c. Private Detective
d. Private Intel
41. Stated in the Security Guard Creed which is not belong;
a. Maka Dios b. Maka Bayan c. Makata d. Makatao
42. Hardware is what type of physical barrier? ;
a. Energy b. Structural c. Human d. Animal
43. Geese are what type of physical barrier? ;
44. Roadblocks are what type of physical barrier? ;
45. Electronic device are what type of physical barrier? ;
46. Canyons are what type of physical barrier? ;
a. Natural b. Structural c. Human d. Animal
47. Walls are what type of physical barrier? ;
a. Natural b. Structural c. Human d. Animal
48. Barbed Tape is composed of 3 things except for one ;
a. Barbed tape b. Barbed Dispenser c. Barbed Concertina d. Barbed wire
49. Any person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission;
a. Intelligence Officer
b. Detective Officer
c. Secret Agent
d. Private Detective
50. A key that will open all the lock within a particular area or grouping in a given facility;
a. Master key b. Sub master key c. Original key d. Grand master key
51. It is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with establishment security policies
and procedures;
a. Security Survey
b. Security Inspection
c. Security education
d. Security Protection
52. It is given to employees of an installation by lecture and other means pertaining to measures and safeguards to be
taken to protect ;
a. Security information
b. Security awareness
c. Security education
d. Security Preparation
53. Security Guards Creed – As a security guard my __________ duty;
a. Basic b. Honorable c. Fundamental d. Sacred Protection
54. Security guard duty is to serve the interest and mission of his ________;
a. Manager b. Client c. Consultant d. Agency Protection
55. Shall carry with him at all times during his tour of duty his license ID ;
A .Ethical Standard b. Code of Conduct c. General order d. Operators Creed
56. Security Consultant qualifications; choose which one is not belong;
a. Filipino and Alien Citizen
b. Physically Fit
c. Holder of a Master’s Degree, MNSA or Industrial Security Management
d. At least 10 years experience in the field of security.
57. Shall not read newspaper, magazines, books while actually performing his duties;
a. Ethical Standard b. Code of Conduct c. General order d. Operators Creed
58. Shall not compromise with criminals and other lawless elements to the prejudice of the customers;
59. Security force maintained and operates by any private company utilizing any of its employees to watch, secure or
guard;
a. Security guard
62
b. Company guard force

c. Government guard unit
d. Private guard
60. Shall talk to no one except in the line of duty;
61. It is the protection resulting from the application of various measures which safeguards cash and assets which in
storage, in transit and during transaction.;
a. Bank Security
b. Hotel Security
c. Corporate Security
d. Communication Security
62. It is resulting from the protection of processes, formulas, patents and industrial and manufacturing activities from
espionage ;
a. Document Security
b. Operational Security
63. It is resulting from the protection of application of various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or
unauthorized person in gaining information;
64. It is resulting from the protection classified papers and vital records from loss, access to unauthorized persons,
damage , theft and etc, ;
65. The providing of sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness to insure visibility and to act as a
deterrent to the intruders;
a. Security Alarm system
b. Security Lighting
c. Security Surveillance
d. Security Flash light
66. It is resulting from the protection top ranking officials of the government or visiting persons of illustrious standing;
d.VIP Security
67. It is the sum total of all physical safeguards employed or installed to secure the assets;
a. Physical Security
b. Document Security
c. Personnel Security
d. Internal Security
68. What line of defense is grills? ;
a.1st line of defense b. 2nd line of defense c. 3rd line of defense d. Barrier Line
69. What line of defense is cabinets? ;
70. What line of defense is guard? ;
71. What line of defense is doors? ;
72. What line of defense is gate? ;
73. What line of defense is vaults? ;
74. Any structure or physical device capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access;
a. Physical Barrier b. Perimeter barrier c. Barrier d. Protective Barrier
63
75. Any medium or structure which define the physical limits of an installation or area to restrict or impede access
thereto;
a. Physical Barrier b. Perimeter barrier c. Barrier d. Protective Barrier
76. Private Security Agency Law;
a. R.A.5487 b. R.A.5847 c. R.A.6975 d. R.A.8551
77. Sometimes called private security guard or watchman shall include any person who offers or renders personal
service to watch;
a. Security Officer
b. Security Guard
c. Detachment commander
d. Security manager
78. A corporate and executive responsibility. It involves knowing the objectives of the security and the means and
methods to reach these objectives;
a. Security Management
b. Security Planning
c. Security Survey
d. Security Audit
79. The process of conducting an exhaustive physical examination and thorough inspection of all operation system
and procedures of a facility;
a. Security Survey
b. Security Audit
c. Security Inspection
d. Security Surveillance
80. The Three Aspects of Security except in one;
a. Personnel b. Document c. Physiological d. Information
81. The sum total of protection scheme encompassing the entire security spectrum, designed to eliminate, reduce or
control threats, hazards, risk or dangers to company assets;
a. Holistic protection
b. Asset Protection
c. Life protection
d. Security Protection
82. SG duties during strikes and lockouts;
a. Carry only heavy firearms
b. Indirect confrontation
c. Avoid direct contact
d. Stay in their perimeters
83. This probability ratings has the likelihood of occurrence;
a. Virtually Certain b. Highly Probable c. Moderately Probable d. Improbable
84. In Natural Authority “The highest is the law of self ___________”;
a. Protection b. Defense c. Preservation d. Control
85. Security unit maintained and operated by any government entity other than military or police for the purpose of
securing the office of such government entity;
a. Presidential Security Guard
b. Private Guard
c. Government guard unit
d. Security guard
86. A written order /schedule issued by a superior officer usually the private security agency assigning the
performance of private security agency;
a. Court Order b. Duty detail order c. Mission order d. Post order
87. Any act or condition which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life, loss or destruction of property
or disruption of the objectives;
a. Security Risk b. Security Hazard c. Security Threat d. Security Vulnerability
88. Added protection of important vital papers, plans, data, special correspondence, cash and other essentials
documents;
a. Security barrier b. Security Vault c. Security Box d. Security cabinet
89. Example of Conflict of interest;
a. Sabotage b. Insurrection c. Bribery d. Flood
90. License certificate document issued by the chief, PNP or his duly authorized representative to operate Security
Agency;
64
a. Driver’s License b. PNP License c. License to Operate d. Operation License

91. This probability ratings has more likely to occur that not to occur ;
a. Virtually Certain b. Highly Probable c. Moderately Probable d. Improbable
92. __________ is protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by various method and advise;
a. Guard b. Security c. Authority d. Asset protection
93. Shall include not only natural but also juridical persons ;
a. Employer b. Military c. Person d. Police
94. Shall cover those in the legitimate business of providing private security and detective services ;
a. Agency b. Public Enforcers c. Private Security Industry d. VIP Body guard
95. Sometimes called watchman;
a. Witness b. Security Guard c. Supervisor d. Manager
96. Shall be natural persons which private security guards, private detectives, security consultants, security officers
and others that may be classified;
a. Security Personnel b. Watch Man c. Juridical persons d. Asset Protector
97. _____________ is charged with directing the work and observing the behavioural performance of the guard under
his unit;
a. Owner b. Operation Manager c. Security manager d. Security supervisor
98. Social Environment Probability Factors;
a. Climate b. Income levels c. Composition d. Latitude
99. A security guard always protect the interest of _________;
a. Agency b. Country c. Law d. Client
100. The Security Guard uniform symbolism of ___________ and confidence;
a. Public Office b. Respect c. Public Trust d. Standard
~END OF LEA 2QUESTIONS~

65
(LEA 2)
Industrial Security
Management
ANSWER
1. D 41. C
2. C 42. A
3. C 43. A
4. C 44. D
5. D 45. B
6. C 46. A
7. C 47. A
8. C 48. D
9. D 49. D
10. B 50. B
11. B 51. B
12. C 52. B
13. B 53. C
14. A 54. C
15. D 55. B
16. B 56. A
17. C 57. B
18. A 58. A
19. D 59. B
20. B 60. C
21. A 61. A
22. C 62. B
23. D 63. D
24. B 64. A
25. D 65. B
26. D 66. D
27. D 67. A
28. B 68. B
29. C 69. C
30. D 70. A
31. B 71. B
32. D 72. A
33. B 73. C
34. B 74. C
35. B 75. B
36. C 76. A
37. A 77. B
38. D 78. B
39. D 79. A
40. C 80. C
66
81. B 91. C
82. A 92. B
83. B 93. C
84. C 94. C
85. C 95. B
86. B 96. A
87. B 97. D
88. D 98. B
89. A 99. D
90. C 100. C
67
(LEA 3)
POLICE PATROL
OPERATION W/
POLICE
COMMUNICATION
SYSTEM
QUESTION
1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the same on all three (3) shifts. It is
therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower at the time the police service is of greatest demand.
This is organization by:
A. Clientele B. Purpose
C. Time D. Process
2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is
called
A. patrol deployment program B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program D. police patrol program
3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III D. Senior Inspector
4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since
there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend:
A. Horse patrol B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol D. Helicopter patrol
5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of all available information
which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to police
planning.
A. Investigation B. Information
C. Data D. intelligence
6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the workload and the
availability of resources.
A. administrative plan B. operational plan
C. strategic plan D. tactical plan
7. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel.
68
A. Philippine Military Academy B. Development Academy of the Philippines

C. Philippine College of Criminology D. Philippine Public Safety College
8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of ___________________.
A. a driver and intelligence agent B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. It must have
A. the building itself B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers D. window barriers
10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the
community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of the Barangay
Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)
11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection B. Surveillance
C. Survey D. Casing
12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary considerations in the ______________.
A. two-party system B. evaluation system
C. promotional system D. spoils system
13. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss which of the following:
A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence
14. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting, determine, or delaying
illegal access to an installation.
A. alarm B. wall
C. barrier D. hazard
15. What form of intelligence is involved when information is obtained without the knowledge of the person against
whom the information or documents may be used, or if the information is clandestinely acquired?
A. covert B. overt
C. active D. underground
16. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director from a list of ___________ eligible recommended
by the PNP Director, preferable from the same province, city, municipality.
A. six (6) B. three (3)
C. five (5) D. four (4)
17. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be
approximately in accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700) inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred (1,500) inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500) inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000) inhabitants.
18. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a ___________ where telephones or any means of
communication shall ensure open lines of communication.
A. command post B. operations center
C. field room D. safe house
19. Registration of a security agency must be done at the _______________________.
A. Securities and Exchange Commission B. National Police Commission
C. Department of National Defense D. PNP Criminal Investigation Group
20. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they can be operated very quietly and
without attracting attention.
A. reduced speed and greater area covered. B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter travel time and faster response D. Mobility and stealth
21. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure requirements.
A. tactical plan B. financial plan
C. work plan D. control plan
22. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A. rabbit B. surveillant
C. traffic enforcement D. patrol
23. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of police stations, there is
a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance.
A. vice control B. criminal investigation
69
C. traffic management D. patrol

24. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A. managers B. Barriers
C. Personnel D. inspections
25. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor I formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander B. adequacy of resources of the police station
C. rank of the patrol commander D. salary rates of police personnel
26. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?
A. District Director B. Provincial Director
C. Chief of Police D. Chief, PNP
27. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats.
Which of the following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats
which are not covered by foot patrol
28. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan D. Frederick the Great
29. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer can give information to the police?
A. wants to be known to the policeman B. monetary reward
C. as a good citizen D. revenge
30. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work D. define authority and responsibility
31. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes,
with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Logistics Service B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service D. Finance Center
32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are ________.
A. staff B. supervision
C. management D. line
33. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the
latter is:
A. cut out B. sold out
C. burnt out D. get out
34. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol D. helicopter patrol
35. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection D. retrace steps
36. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information comes from:
A. business world B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant D. communications media
37. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and graduates of forensic sciences can enter the
police service as officers through:
A. regular promotion B. commissionship
C. lateral entry D. attrition
38. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn
closer to the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo D. Complan Pagbabago
39. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive security program for
his industrial plan?
A. security conference B. security check
C. security survey D. security education
40. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-visibility patrol
techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol D. high-visibility patrol
41. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians and attain an
orderly traffic.
70
A. Civil Relations Unit B. Traffic Operations Center

C. Traffic Management Command D. Aviation Security Command
42. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses.
A. observation B. casing
C. research D. interrogation
43. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent D. if burnt out, drop subject
44. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.
The thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police officer but the _______________ for
successful theft is.
A. ambition B. feeling
C. intention D. opportunity
45. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1 D. Superintendent
46. 48.PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptroller ship
47. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information from persons within the vicinity. In
the police work, this is called:
A. data gathering B. field inquiry
C. interrogation D. interview
48. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal
drugs.
A. smell B. hearing
C. eating D. drinking
49. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic information because law enforcement
officials must know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking D. Economic resources
50. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle B. helicopter
C. patrol car D. bicycle
51. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research B. undercover operation
C. casing D. surveillance
52. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission, other than members of the AFP,
BJMP, provincial guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the government.
A. Secret Agent B. “Tiktik” C. Private detective
D. Undercover E. All of these
53. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is
referred to as
A. integrity B. loyalty C. discretion
D. moral E. all of these
54. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and turning right after
reaching the other end of the road and again turning right until you completed the cycle by reaching back to your
origin of patrolling. What patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise B. straightway C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling E. criss-cross
55. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing
them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence D. team policing
56. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas
requires the use of
A. bike patrol B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol D. helicopter patrol
57. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?
A. Intermediate B. Strategic
C. Medium D. short
58. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year around needs is called
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A. meeting unusual needs B. extra office

C. regular operating programs D. special operating programs
59. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
A. horse B. foot
C. canine D. police
60. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition B. squadron
C. eviction D. tear down
61. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?
A. Inspector B. senior superintendent C. asst. chief
D. chief superintendent E. all of the above
62. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility?
A. ability B. capacity C. believability
D. vulnerability E. all of these
63. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?
A. observation B. crime prevention
C. called for service D. criminal apprehension
64. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol B. records
C. investigation D. traffic
65. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so element of surprise is lost which is one of the
______________ of air patrol:
A. advantages B. features C. disadvantages
D. importance E. errors
68. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly
crowds and riots?
A. foot B. horse
C. bicycle D. dog
69. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487 B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174 D. R.A. 6975
70. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?
A. general B. investigator C. patrol officer D. traffic office
E. The Chief of Police
71. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
A. trumpet B. horn
C. radio D. siren
72. What type of cover uses actual or true background?
A. artificial B. multiple cover
C. natural D. cover within a cover
73. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and
downward through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command D. Delegation of Authority
74. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service?
A. 15 years B. 25 years
C. 30 years D. 20 years E. 35 years
75. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are automatically deputized
as representatives of the
A. NAPOLCOM B. DND
C. PLEB D. none of these
76. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM D. DFA
77. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB D. IAS E. Ombudsman
78. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in relation to
the performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility D. span of control E. responsible parenthood
79. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of peace and
order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System C. Police Visibility
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B. Comparative Police System

C. Police Visibility
D. Police Pangkalawakan System
E. Community Oriented Policing System(COPS)
80. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group objective. Also, no one
should exercise all the authority for making decisions. This refers to
A. chain of command B. command responsibility
C. unity of command D. delegation of authority E. span of control
81. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to how many percent (%) of his
monthly basic salary for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of his original appointment in the
police, fire, jail or other allied services?
A. 2 percent B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent D. 15 percent E. 20 percent
82. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty B. off limits
C. on call D. on duty E. on the way
83. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his police duties in consequence of an
offense and violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal B. restriction
C. suspension D. reprimand E. incarceration
84. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police service.
A. police credibility B. police visibility C. Criminology Board Examination D. police
patrol examination E. police eligibility
85. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
86. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing education of
all the personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA B. PCCR
C. PNTC D. PPSC E. NSTC
87. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __.
A. Inspector B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector D. Superintendent E. Chief Superintendent
88. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent B. Director General
C. Director D. Deputy Director General E. Senior Superintendent
89. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.
A. BJMP B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice D. Provincial Government
90. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent B. Director General
C. Director D. Deputy Director General E. Senior Superintendent
91. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal jails.
A. BJMP B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice D. Local Government
92. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP recruitment is __.
A. 25% B. 5%
C. 10% D. 20%
93. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk D. Homicide Division
94. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision and control over
PNP units.
A. Chief of Police B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives D. Fiscals
95. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members
outside of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police D. Mayors
96. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge B. chief of police
C. mayor D. governor
97. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties,
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enforcement of laws and maintenance of peace and order.

A. employment B. deployment
C. assignment D. designation
98. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP.
A. employment B. deployment
C. assignment D. designation
99. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections.
A. NBI B. Ombudsman C. COMELEC D. DILG
100. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend for Provincial Director to the governor
is __.
A. 2 B. 3
C. 5 D. 4
~END OF LEA 3 QUESTIONS~

74
(LEA 3)
POLICE PATROL
OPERATION W/
POLICE
COMMUNICATION
SYSTEM
ANSWER
1. C 27. B
2. C 28. D
3. B 29. D
4. C 30. D
5. D 31. B
6. B 32. B
7. D 33. B
8. C 34. D
9. B 35. C
10. D 36. A
11. D 37. A
12. C 38. C
13. D 39. C
14. C 40. A
15. A 41. C
16. C 42. A
17. A 43. C
18. B 44. A
19. D 45. C
20. A 46. D
21. B 47. D
22. D 48. B
23. B 49. A
24. B 50. A
25. D 51. C
26. C 52. B
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53. D 77. C
54. D 78. C
55. A 79. E
56. A 80. D
57. C 81. C
58. D 82. D
59. B 83. C
60. C 84. E
61. B 85. A
62. C 86. D
63. C 87. C
64. C 88. C
65. C 89. D
66. B 90. C
67. C 91. A
68. D 92. C
69. D 93. C
70. C 94. C
71. A 95. D
72. C 96. C
73. A 97. A
74. D 98. B
75. A 99. D
76. C 100. B
76
(LEA 4)
POLICE
INTELLIGENCE
QUESTION
1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “If you know your enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the
result of a hundred battles”.
A. Confucius
B. Chiang Kai Shek
C. Sun Tzu
D. Wong Mhan Fei Hong
2. Maybe defined as the product resulting from the collecting information concerning an actual and potential
situation and condition relating to foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
A. Interrogation
B. Information
C. Intelligence
D. Investigation
3. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning organized crime and other major police
problems.
A. Military Intelligence
B. Military Information
C. Police Intelligence
D. Police Investigation
4. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of establishing terror or corruption in the
city/community or section of, either a monopoly, of virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field that provides a
continuing financial profit.
A. Organized Crime
B. Criminal Syndicate
C. Criminal World
D. Mafia
5. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes from the hobo to the moneyed gangsters or
racketeers.
A. Criminal World
B. Mafia
C. Organized Crime
D. Criminal Syndicate
6. It is the stable business with violence applied and directed at unwelcome competitors.
A. Mafia
B. Criminal World
C. Criminal Syndicate
D. Organized Crime
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7. A form of intelligence which concerns with the various types of confidential information that filter into the
possession of the police, and the techniques employed in developing these lines of information.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Departmental Intellignce
C. Undercover Intelligence
D. Strategic Intelligence
8. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most indispensable tools of management; it is derived
from organized information available in the police records division which concerned with the nature, size and
distribution of the police problems of crime, vice and traffic?
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence
9. Intelligence which primarily long-range in nature with little or no immediate practical value.
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Counter Intelligence
C. Departmental Intelligence
D. Undercover Intelligence
10. The type of intelligence activity that deals with the defending of the organization against its criminal enemies.
A. Counter Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. None of these
11. It is the evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or possible enemy or theatre of operations,
including weather and terrain, together with the conclusions drawn there from.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
D. Covert Operation
12. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary for more effective police planning.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
D. Overt Operation
13. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of the
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation
B. Evaluation
C. Covert Operation
D. Interpretation
14. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent interpretation, which includes determining
the pertinence of information, the reliability of the source and agency through which the information was derived
and its accuracy.
A. Interpretation
B. Tasks
C. Evaluation
D. Operations
15. Is the proper, economical and most productive use of personnel, resources and equipment employed and/or
utilized in planning the collection of information, processing of information and disseminations of intelligence.
A. Cardinal Principle of Intelligence
B. Assets and Liability Intelligence
C. Economic Intelligence
D. Income and expenditure Intelligence
16. Refer to the uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and freedom from moral
delinquencies.
A. Integrity
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B. Loyalty
C. Discretion
D. Moral
17. Principles or standards of conduct of an individual, his ethical judgment in human relations and his respect to
superiors.
A. Character
B. Reputation
C. Moral
D. Integrity
18. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
A. 1 yr
B. 3 yrs
C. 2 yrs
D. 4 yrs
19. Maximum security measures applied to prevent possible decryption of encrypted data on radio
communication.
A. Transmission
B. Cryptographic security
C. Operation security
D. Computer security
20. Final security measures undertaken prior to the entry into a communication area.
A. control of operations area
B. control of communications area
C. area access control
D. perimeter control
21. An encrypted message complete with heading of a message written in an intelligence text or language
which conveys hidden meaning.
A. Cryptogram
B. Cryptography
C. Codes
D. Ciphers
22. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
A. Classify
B. Reclassify
C. Upgrading
D. Declassify
23. Security of the command is the responsibility of:
A. Headquarters commandant
B. Members of the Base Platoon
C. Regional Director
D. Everybody
24. The authority and responsibility for the classification of classified matter rest exclusively with the:
A. head of office
B. receiving unit
C. Regional Director
D. originating unit
25. Information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave damage to
the nation, politically, economically or militarily.
A. Restricted
B. Confidential
C. Top Secret
D. Secret
26. Among the following, who has authority to classify Top Secret matters?
A. Chief of Police
B. Regional Director
C. Sec of DND
D. Provincial Director
27. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and residence of the individual being
investigated.
A. CBI
B. PBI
C. LAC
D. NAC
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28. Applied methods of security for the purpose of super-imposing camouflage radio transmission on
communication network.
A. transmission security
B. physical security
C. cryptographic security
D. operation security
29. Final measures undertaken prior to the entry into an operating room.
A. Control of operations area
B. Area access control
C. perimeter control
D. control of communications area
30. It is a system in which individual letters of a message are represented.
A. Ciphers
B. Cryptogram
C. Codes
D. Cryptography
31. This motivation regarding agent control applies to those whose main desire is for power.
A. ideological belief
B. material gain
C. revenge
D. personal prestige
32. Consist of LAC supplemented by investigation of the records and files of national agencies.
A. LAC
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. NAC
33. The following are operational security methods except for:
A. cut-out device
B. communication
C. cover
D. proper operational planning
34. Maximum security measures undertaken to preserve secrecy of classified operations.
A. transmission security
B. computer security
C. cryptographic security
D. operations security
35. Control measures undertaken to prevent entry of unauthorized persons inside the premises of communication
facility.
A. perimeter control
B. control of operations area
C. control of communications area
D. area access control
36. Among the following, who is not authorized to classify Top Secret matter?
A. Secretary of National Defense
B. Chief, PNP
C. Chief of Staff, AFP
D. Chief of Police Station
37. Top Secret matter shall not be transmitted through:
A. direct contact to officers concerned
B. thru DFA Diplomatic Pouch
C. official courier
D. mail
38. The barrier established to protect the surrounding of an installation.
A. Animal
B. Human
C. Energy
D. Structural
39. In the security industry and in large areas, the standard height of a fence is
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 9 meters
D. 8 meters
40. The barrier that requires the employment of the guard and guard system is ___ barrier.
A. Energy
80
B. Animal
C. Structural
D. Human
41. Which of the following composed the PNP under its creation on R.A 6975?
A. member of the INP
B. members of the PC
C. jail guards
D. all of them
42. The largest organic unit with in large department is a __.
A. Bureau
B. Division
C. Section
D. Unit
43. What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?
A. Deputy Dir General
B. Police Director
C. Police Chief Superintendent
D. Police Senior Superintendent
44. Which is known as the Police Act of 1966 and created the office of the NAPOLCOM?
A. R.A. 6975
B. R.A. 8551
C. P.D. 765
D. R.A. 4864
45. What is the kind of promotion granted to candidates who meet all the basic qualification for promotion?
A. Special
B. Meritorious
C. Regular
D. Ordinary
46. The mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is the __.
A. Officers Basic Course
B. Officer’s Advance Course
C. Officers Candidate Course
D. Senior Leadership Course
47. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty is called
A. on duty
B. special duty
C. leave of absence
D. off duty
48. PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:
A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Commission on Appointment
D. President of the Philippines
49. How many deputies do the PNP has?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
50. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned such as designated desk or office or spot is called
A. Post
B. Route
C. Beat
D. Sector
51. MNSA or Master’s in National Security in Administration is offered and administered by this institution.
A. PPSC
81
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. National Defense College
52. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specific post or position.
A. Department rule
B. Code of Ethical Standard
C. Duty Manual
D. Code of Conduct
53. The staff directorate in charge of providing the necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units is the
A. Research Development Office
B. Logistics Office
C. Plans
D. Comptrollership
54. In the history of our police force, who was the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
A. Capt. Henry T. Allen
B. Col. Lamberto Javallera
C. Gen. Rafael Crame
D. Capt. Nicholas Piatt
55. Among the following. he is known as the father of Modern Policing System.
A. William Norman
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. King Henry III
D. John Westminster
56. Japanese Military Police during the Japanese occupation in the Philippines were known as
A. Kamikaze
B. Kempetai
C. Konichiwa
D. Okinana
E. Hara Kiri
57. How many years of satisfactory service must a PNP member renders before he can apply for optional
retirement?
A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 15 years
D. 25 years
58. Decision of the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced
resignation may be appealed before the
A. Regional Appellate Body
B. Office of the President
C. National Appellate Board
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
59. In the physical environment of the patrol division, the shift that receives most of the call of the public which are
directly related to police function are made on the;
A. Afternoon shift
B. midnight shift
C. day shift
D. A and C only
60. The statistical reports of patrol officers regarding the rate of crime, types of crime an d places of crimes in each
beat is very important in the implementation of the;
A. preventive enforcement
B. selective enforcement
C. traffic enforcement
D. emergency call for service
61. A patrol activity that is directed towards the elimination of hazards in each respective beat is called
A. patrol and observation
82
B. called for service

C. attending to complaints
D. none of the above
62. According to the father of modern policing system, the soundest of all criminological philosophies is
A. prevention of crime
B. elimination of crime
C. control of crime
D. suppression of crime
63. Patrol hazard would include the following except
A. Stress
B. Open manhole
C. suspicious persons
D. ordinances
64. In the history of patrol, the first recorded organized police that utilized dog patrol was the so called _.
A. Medjays
B. Vigiles
C. Ancient police
D. Jacobians
65. The Chief magistrate at bow street in London that organized the Bow Street Runners is
A. King Charles II of London
B. Henry Fielding of London
C. King Richard of London
66. The responsibility of police that involves peacekeeping on community service role or social services is referred
to as
A. crime prevention
B. prevention of crime
C. order maintenance
D. crime investigation
67. The effort of reduction of elimination of desire and opportunity to commit crime is known as
A. order maintenance
B. law enforcement
C. prevention of crime
D. arrest of criminals
68. In the history of patrol US, the first daytime and paid police service was organized in
A. New York
B. Boston
C. San Francisco
D. Philadelphia
69. The government agency that issue license for private and government security guard is __
A. the PNP SAGSD
B. Mayor’s Office
C. Security and Exchange Commission (SEC)
D. the Local Police Office
70. Which of the following is not a function of a Private Detective?
A. background investigation
B. locating missing persons
C. controlling traffic flow
D. surveillance work
71. It is a document issued by the chief PNP or his duly authorize representative recognizing a person to be
qualified to perform his duties as security guard or detective?
A. Certificate of incorporation
B. License to Operate
C. Warrant
D. None of these
83
72. Perimeter fence is what type of perimeter defense?

A. first line
B. second line
C. third line
D. None of these
73. An additional overhang of barbed wires place on vertical perimeter fences is commonly called __
A. Hangover
B. guard control
C. tower guard
D. none of these
74. The attempt to determine whether there are parties with in the police candidate’s family who might negatively
influence performance of official duties can be best verified by conducting:
A. Performance Evaluation
B. Character Investigation
C. Written Examination
D. Oral Interview
75. In cases of altered marital status in the police selection procedure, careful investigation on matters upon which
such alteration should be conducted for purpose of
A. Promotion
B. Appointment
C. Disqualification
D. Dismissal from Service
76. The aspect of police selection cannot be accurately assessed by other steps in the selection process can be
measured through the conduct of:
A. Polygraph Examination
B. Neighbourhood Check
C. Oral Interview
D. Psychological Screening
77. To prevent hiatus (break in continuity) in the discharge of official police function by authorizing a person to
discharge the same pending the selection of another appointee, is the main reason of:
A. Dismissal
B. Permanent Appointee
C. Temporary Appointment
D. Suspension
78. Verification of academic accomplishment, standardized exam and affiliation with organization of police
applicants are information required in the:
A. Written Examination Procedure
B. Character investigation procedures
C. Appointment Procedures
D. Eligibility Requirements
79. The following are information desired in verifying educational history of a police applicant, except:
A. Courses Taken
B. Demonstrated Leadership
C. Debt, loans and savings
D. Anti – Social behaviors or Juvenile records.
80. The method by which testing procedures can be best insure job performance predictability is through a process
known as:
A. Test Validation
B. Job Performance
C. Job Analysis
D. Retesting
81. Physical and mental excellence is an essential quality for individuals who are to be employed as police officers
and this can only be determined by administering rigid
A. Oral examination
B. Character Investigation
C. Vicinity Check
84
D. Medical Examination
82. Physical Test is designed to furnish data, which will indicate the extent to which an applicant maybe able to
perform required responsibilities. Applicants maybe required climbing over a fence of 5 feet and 6 inches high
without the aid of another person. This physical test is called:
A. Body Drag
B. Obstacle Clearance
C. Foot Pursuit
D. Body Pull Ups
83. Planning is a management function concerned with the following, except:
A. visualizing future situations
B. making estimates concerning them
C. making money
D. identifying issues
84. Police administrators sometimes do not appreciate the importance of planning because
A. of their pattern of career development
B. people do not admire them
C. influential politicians involved in planning
D. of positive view about planning
85. Police Planning is an integral element of good management and
A. Business administration
B. good police decision-making
C. prediction
D. performance
86. According to Hudzik and Cordner, planning is
A. Visioning
B. All of these
C. thinking what is right and doing what is best
D. thinking about the future and what we need to do now to achieve it B
87. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Threats
C. Intelligence
D. Win
88. What is the principle which states that subordinate should be under the control of only one superior?
A. Principle of Chain of Command
B. Principle of unity of command
C. Span of Control Principle
D. Principle of Objectivity
89. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank and position is called
A. Command and Control
B. Authority
C. Order
D. All of these
90. Which among the following is not included in the 6 Master Plans of the PNP
A. Sandigang-Milenyo
B. Sandugo
C. Banat
D. Pagpapala
91. It refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of special activity and addresses immediate
need which are specific.
A. Operational Plan
B. Strategic Plan
C. Synoptic Plan
D. Guideline
92. To properly achieve the administrative planning responsibility within in the unit, the commander shall develop
unit plans relating to, except
A. Policies or procedure
B. Tactics and operations
85
C. Extra-office activities
D. Interpersonal problems
93. SOP in police parlance means
A. Standard Operation Procedure
B. Special Operating Procedure
C. Standard Operating procedure
D. Special Operation procedure
94. These are procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds shall be outlined as a guide to officers
and men in the field.
A. SOPs
B. HQ Procedures
C. Field Procedures
D. None of these
95. Strictly speaking, one of the following is not a police field operation
A. Patrol
B. Investigation
C. Intelligence
D. Traffic Operations
96. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to
A. Neutralization of wanted persons
B. Anti-illegal gambling
C. Anti-carnapping plan
97. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What will be his first action?
A. Arrest the pickpocket
B. Call for a criminal investigation
C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department
D. Just continue his beat
98. The police must endeavor to establish and impress upon the law abiding citizens and would be criminals alike
that the police are always available to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just around the
corner at all times. What does this situation indicate?
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Discretion
C. Police Control
D. Police Interaction
99. A person, thing or situation which possesses a high potential for criminal attack or for creating a clamor for
police service is considered as
A. Patrol Hazards
B. Patrol Effort
C. Police discretion
D. None of these
100.What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and community interests into a working
relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team policing
D. Directed Patrol

86
(LEA 4)
POLICE
INTELLIGENCE
ANSWER
1. C 40. D
2. C 41. D
3. C 42. A
4. B 43. B
5. B 44. D
6. B 45. C
7. C 46. D
8. C 47. D
9. A 48. C
10. A 49. B
11. A 50. A
12. A 51. D
13. A 52. C
14. C 53. B
15. A 54. A
16. A 55. B
17. C 56. B
18. A 57. B
19. B 58. C
20. C 59. A
21. A 60. B
22. D 61. A
23. D 62. A
24. A 63. D
25. C 64. A
26. C 65. B
27. C 66. C
28. A 67. C
29. A 68. D
30. D 69. A
31. D 70. C
32. D 71. D
33. D 72. A
34. A 73. D
35. C 74. B
36. D 75. C
37. D 76. C
38. D 77. C
39. B 78. D
87
79. A 90. D
80. C 91. A
81. D 92. D
82. A 93. C
83. C 94. C
84. C 95. C
85. B 96. A
86. A 97. A
87. B 98. A
88. A 99. C
89. B
88
(LEA 5)
POLICE PERSONNEL
AND RECORDS
MANAGEMENT
QUESTION
1. What is the principle of organization suggesting that
communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
2. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of
the police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
3. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such,are automatically deputized as representatives
of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
4. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and
control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA
5. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint
against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
6. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any
act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
89
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
7. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the
community in the maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)
8. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for
accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all
the authority for making decisions.This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
9. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay
equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary
for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of
his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied
services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
10. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
11. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of
performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and
violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
12. The credential extended by the Civil Service
Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
13. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
14. The premier educational institution for the training, human
resource development and continuing education of all the
personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
15. Under the law,the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank
of __.
A. Inspector
90
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
16. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
17. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government
18. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
19. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal
jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government
20. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the
PNP
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
21. Which of the following administers and attends to cases
involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk
D. Homicide Division
22. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM
representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP
units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
23. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial
Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside
of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
24. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor
25. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the
purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of
laws and maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
26. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or
units of the PNP.
91
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
27. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the
PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombusdman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
28. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may
recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
29. Who is the current Chief of the PNP?
A. Nicanor Bartome
B. Nicanor Bartomeo
C. Nick Bartolome
D. Nicanor Bartolome
30. The current PNP deputy director General for Administration is
A. Arturo Cacdac Jr.
B. Emilito Sarmiento
C. Rommel Heredia
D. Alexander Roldan
31. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be
processed at what particular government agency.
A. PNP SAGSD
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
D. SEC
32. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of
a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old
33. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to
security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary
34. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service
A.Clientele
B.Purpose
C.Time
D. Process
35. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of
policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program
36. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence
with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector
37. It is the premier educational institution for the police,
fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy
92
B. Development Academy of the Philippines

C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College
38. All of the following are members of the People’s Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality
concerned chosen by the association of the
Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the
Philippines (IBP)
39. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary
considerations in the
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system
40. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss
which of the following:
A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious
affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence
41. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director
from a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the
Regional Director, preferable from the same province, city,
municipality.
A. three (3)
B. five (5)
C. four (4)
D. Two (2)
42. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide,
the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700)
inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred
(1,500) C.inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500)
inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000)
inhabitants.
43. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a
______where telephones or any means of communication
shall
A.ensure open lines of communication.
B.command post
C.operations center
D.field room
44. Registration of a security agency must be done at the______.
A.Securities and Exchange Commission
B.National Police Commission
93
C.Department of National Defense

D.PNP Criminal Investigation Group
45. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure
requirements.
A.tactical plan
B.financial plan
C.work plan
D.control plan
46. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A.managers
B.Barriers
C.Personnel
D.inspections
47. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers
over errant police members?
A.District Director
B.Provincial Director
C.Chief of Police
D.Chief, PNP
48. What administrative support unit conducts identification and
evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes, with
emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center
49. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the
agency’s mission are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
C. management
D. line
50. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information
comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media
51. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and
graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as
officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition
52. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a
municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to
the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which
of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago
53. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can
prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial
plan?
94
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education
54. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1
Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.The thief’s
desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police
officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity
55. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are
automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent
56. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of
the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
57. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get
information from persons within the vicinity.In the police work,
this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview
58. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial
guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the
government.
A. Secret Agent
B. “Tiktik”
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
59. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,
honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
60. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization
under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
61. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?
A. investigator
B. patrol officer
C. traffic officer
D. The Chief of Police
95
62. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees

making them security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar
63. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
64. The government agency that issues licenses for private and
government security guard is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayors office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD
65. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this
particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
66. First measure undertaking before a comprehensive security
program for an industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection
67. A security of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other
terms except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit
68. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to
the blue army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Body guards
69. The management of keys used in plant office or business
organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
70. It is defined as system of barriers placed between the matters
protected and the potential intruder
A. Computer security
B. Personnel security
C. Document security
D. Physical security
71. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside
the compound
A. Auxiliary system
B. Proprietary system
C. Central alarm system
96
D. Local alarm system

72. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000
cubic meters of essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with
enough ventilation and fire proof of at least one hour.
A. Protective cabinet
B. File room
C. Vault
D. Safe
73. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to
damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality
74. It refers to the importance of the establishment with
reference to the national economy and security.
A. Risk analysis
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Relative criticality
75. The association of all licensed security agencies operators
A. POAPAD
B. PADPAO
C. PODPAO
D. PAOPAD
76.Who among below can own or operate security agency?
A. A Filipino citizen
B. Anyone provided he knows the job
C. An alien but living in the Philippines
D. All of them
77. A licensed issued to operate security agency or company
forces.
A. Business license
B. License to engage in business
C. License to operate
D. All of them
78. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of
A. Private detective
B. Company security
C. Private security forces/agencies
D. All of them
79. A fact-finding prove to determine a plant adequacy and
deficiency all aspects of security with the corresponding
recommendation.
A. Security audit
B. Security survey
C. Security inquiry
D. Security operations
80. The revised rules and regulations governing the organization
and operation of private detective and private security
agencies and company security forces throughout the
country.
A. Private security law
B. International law
C. Private law
D. Security law
97
81. It is an inquiry into the character,reputation,discretion and

loyalty of individual in order to determine a persons suitability
to be given security clearance.
A. BI
B. LAC
C. NAC
D. PSI
82. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual
but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal
life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
83. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspect of a persons life is conducted.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
84. Among the following,which is the least expensive and least
secure personnel control identification system?
A. Multiple pass system
B. Group pass and badge system
C. Spot magnetized identification pass
D. Single pass or badge system
85. Factors considered in background investigation except:

A. Integrity
B. Character
C. Personal prestige
D. Loyalty
86. Cosnsist of the investigation of the background of a person
particularly all the circumstances of his personal life
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
87. Any person, association, partnership, firm or private
corporation, who contracts recruits, trains ,furnishes or post
any security guards to do its functions.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security agency
88. What is the principle of organization suggesting that
communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
89. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of
the police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
98
90. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such,are automatically deputized as representatives
of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
91. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and
control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA
92. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint
against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
93. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any
act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
94. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the
community in the maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)
95. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for
accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all
the authority for making decisions.This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
96. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay
equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary
for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of
his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied
services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
97. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
98. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of
performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and
violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
99
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
99. The credential extended by the Civil Service
Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
100. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento

100
(LEA 5)
POLICE PERSONNEL
AND RECORDS
MANAGEMENT
ANSWER
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. D
8. D
9. C
10. D
11. C
12. E
13. A
14. D
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. A
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. B
101
37. D
38. D
39. C
40. D
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. D
45. B
46. C
47. D
48. B
49. D
50. B
51. C
52. A
53. C
54. A
55. C
56. C
57. B
58. C
59. A
60. D
61. B
62. B
63. D
64. D
65. B
66. C
67. B
68. D
69. C
70. D
71. C
72. B
73. C
74. D
75. B
76. A
77. C
78. D
79. B
80. A
81. D
82. B
83. D
84. D
85. C
86. C
87. D
88. A
89. D
90. A
91. C
92. C
93. C
94. D
95. D
96. C
97. D
98. C
99. E
100. A
102
(LEA 6)
COMPARATIVE
POLICE SYSTEM
QUESTION
1. This Philippine-based terrorist group is listed by the United States of America as one of the major terrorist
organizations in the World today. This renegade faction of a bigger organization working to have an independent
state in the Southern Philippines is involved in atrocities like kidnapping for ransom, ambuscades, raids and the
like. It is referred to as the ____.
a. Moro Islamic Liberation Front c. New People’s Army
b. Abu Sayaf Group d. Jemmayah Islamiya
2. Its primary concern is to support the different police agencies in the world particularly the member-countries in
term of intelligence-sharing, investigative assistance and other police matters. This organization known as
INTERPOL which is principally aimed to fight transnational crime and terrorism is based in ____.
a.Lyons, France c. New York City
b. Lyons, Australia d. Scotland Yard
3. INTERPOL stands for:
a. International Police
b. International Criminal Police Organization
c. International Police Organization
d. International Criminal Police Organization League
4. This component of the Netherlands Armed Forces is given police duties and considered a law enforcement
agency.
a. The Netherlands Police Agency (KLPD) c. The Regional Police Forces
b. The Royal Marechausee (KMar) d. The Local Police Forces
5. The rank qualification for a PNP Police Commissioned Officer to be admitted to the UN Peacekeeping Force
should be ____.
a. At least an inspector c. At least a Senior Inspector
b. At least a Chief Inspector d. At least a Superintendent
6. PNP Applicant for the UN Peacekeeping Force must have attained at least how many years of active police
service as of the first day of UNSAT examination?
a. Two (2) c. Four (4)
b. Three (3) d. Five (5)
7. This term best captures the profound transformation of the world economy since the beginning of the 1980s. It
refers primarily to the progressive elimination of barriers to trade and investment and unprecedented international
mobility of capital.
a. Liberalization c. Globalization
b. Economic cooperation d. Capitalization
8. This police force in Spain is headed by an officer with the rank of Chief Superintendent. It is a civilian agency
operating purely in urban areas.
a. Policia Nacional c. Guardia civil
b. Mossos d'Esquadra d. Policía Foral
9. The Ministry of Public Security is the principal police authority of this country.
a. China c. Italy
b. United Kingdom d. Israel
10. It is a crime which is now pervasive around the world and said to be the modern equivalent of “slavery”?
a. Human trafficking c. Exploitation
103
b. Human smuggling d. Money-laundering

11. The police force of this Southeast Asian country is headed by a Director General holding the rank of Police
General. Its rank structure is patterned to the military model and its headquarters is based in the city of Bangkok.
a. Royal Thai Police c. Royal Malaysian Police
b. Royal Brunei Police Force d.South Korea
12. A civilian law enforcement agency formed in 1954 and is known as Keisatsu-chō.
a. Japan National Police Agency c. Indonesian National Police
b. Cambodian National Police d. The Netherlands National Police
13. The Palermo Convention adopted in December 2000 by the Heads of States in Italy is aimed to fight or
address the problem of ____.
a. Transnational organized crimes c. Terrorism
b. Environmental crimes d. Economic crimes
14. The selection of PNP personnel for Secondment to international organizations, deployment to UN
Peacekeeping missions and for other purposes is primarily based on ____.
a. Experience c. Merit and Fitness
b. Training acquired d. Political connection
15. The famous patrol system of Japan is known as ____.
a. Crime Stopper c. Koban
b. Neighborhood Police Center d. Police Community Precinct
16. Except for one, the competencies needed by a PNP applicant to qualify for UN peacekeeping mission are the
following:
a. English communication skill c. Vehicle driving skill
b. Martial arts skill d. Firearms proficiency
17. The only Filipino who became a president of the INTERPOL.
a. Teodulo Natividad c. Alfredo Lim
b. Jose Lukban d. Jolly Bugarin
18. The civilian national police of Italy with patrol, investigative and law enforcement duties. It patrols the express
highway network and oversees the secuirity of railways, bridges and waterways.
a. Polizia di Stato c. Arma dei Carabinieri
b. Guardia Costiera d. Polizia Penitenziaria
19. ASEANAPOL was established in 1981 as an association of Chiefs of Police of how many countries-members?
a. Eight c. Twelve
b. Ten d. Fifteen
20. As a policy of the Philippine government, the deployment/detail to the UN and other International
Peacekeeping Missions /Organizations of PNP personnel as well as the members of the Armed Forces of
the Philippines is ____.
a. A matter of right c. A priority
b. A matter of discretion d. Only a privilege
21. The movement of an employee from one department or agency to another which is temporary in nature and
which may or may not require issuance of an appointment but may either involve reduction or increase in
compensation is referred to as ____.
a. Detail c. Transfer
b. Reassignment d. Secondment
22. PNP personnel with UNSAS eligibility and has no previous UN Mission deployment is the ____ priority in the
selection process.
a. Last c. Third
b. Second d. First
23. The INTERPOL is focused in investigating what classification of crime?
a. Public crime c. Cross-border crime
b. Private crime d. Sensational crime
24. Under the Federal Republic of Germany, the ____ is being implemented by the local agencies.
a. Neighborhood Crime c. Compstat
b. Neighborhood Watch Program d. Crime Stoppers
25. The age qualification of PNP applicant for UN Peacekeeping mission is ____.
a. Not less than 21 years old and not more than 30 years old
b. Not less than 25 years old and not more than 35 years old
c. Not less than 25 years old and not more than 53 years old
d. Not less than 21 years old and not more than 35 years old
26. Law enforcement in this part of Europe is provided by eight separate police forces, six of which are national
groups. What is this country?
a. Spain c. Germany
b. Italy d. The Netherlands
27. The Hellenic Police which was the result of the fusion of Gendarmerie and the city police forces, is the national
police force of what country?
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a. Greece c. East Germany

b. The Netherlands d.West Germany
28. A PNP applicant for UN Peacekeeping Force should have a ____ appointment for his/her current rank.
a. Temporary c. Provisional
b. Permanent d. Semi-permanent
29. ASEANAPOL is an association of what?
a. Heads of State c. Chiefs of Police
b. Chiefs of ASEAN Law Enforcement Agency d. Police Attaches’
30. At least what PNP non-commissioned officer’s rank qualifies an applicant to become a UN peacekeeper?
a. Police Officer 1 c. Police Officer 3
b. Police Officer 2 d. Senior Police Officer 1
31. In breaking equal rating for UN Peacekeeping missions, the priority criterion to be considered is the ____ of
the applicant.
a. Rank c. Length of service
b. Educational attainment d. Eligibility
32. The eligibility needed for admission in the UN peacekeeping deployment is ____.
a. UNSAS eligibility c. UNSAT eligibility
b. NAPOLCOM eligibility d. CSC eligibility
33. Among the following, which is not an objective of the ASEANAPOL?
a. To patronize the products of ASEAN member-countries
b. To Enhance police professionalism
c. To forge stronger regional cooperation in police work
d. To promote lasting friendship amongst the police officers of ASEAN countries
34. The Japanese Police follow what rank model?
a. Military c. European
b. British d. Dutch
35. The recommendation of ____ is a requirement for admission of the applicant to the UN Peacekeeping mission.
a. Mayor c. Chief, PNP
b. Congressman d. Unit commander
36. Immediately preceding the UNSAT examination, the applicant must have Performance Evaluation Rating of at
least ____ for two (2) consecutive rating periods.
a. Outstanding c. Satisfactory
b. Very satisfactory d. Average
37. Except for one, the PNP applicant for UN Peacekeeping mission must be able to pass the following:
a. Physical fitness test c. Neuro-psychiatric examination
b. Medical and dental examination d. Background investigation
38. It is the blurring of geo-political boundaries between nations so that the world has flattened facilitating greater
mobility of people and other resources from one geographical location to another making the world as one village.
a. World modernization c. Global adventurism
b. Economic prosperity d. Globalization
39. It is a government agency tasked to establish a shared central data base among law enforcement units in
the Philippines for all information affecting peace and order to address the global threat to national and
international security.
a. Armed Forces of the Philippines c. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Philippine Center for Transnational Crime d. Philippine National Police
40. Its motive is chiefly ideological and/or a desire for political change.
a. Organized crime c. Criminal syndicate
b. Terrorism d. MAFIA
41. To be accused of money laundering, the amount involved or transacted must be in excess of:
a. 1 Million c. 2 Million
b. 4 Million d. 5 Million
42. In Arabic, It is known as “The Base”. It is the terrorist group responsible for the September 11, 2001 attacks of
the Pentagon in Washington DC and the World Trade Center in New York.
a. El Tigre c. Hezbollah
b. Al Qaeda d. Al Capone
43. The prime-mover of Globalization.
a. United States c. Canada
b. China d. England
44. It is known as the Philippine Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
a. Republic Act 9165 c. Republic Act 9160
b. Republic Act 9208 d. Republic Act 6423
45. The Philippine government agency mandated to formulate policies, strategies and programs on drug
prevention and control.
a. National Police Commission c. Dangerous Drugs Board
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b. Philippine Center forTransnational Crime d. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency

46. The deliberate killing of top-ranking government officials and/or prominent personalities is known as ____.
a. Hostage-taking c. Assassination
b. Kidnapping d. Hijacking
47. In the world of organized crime, ____ is the ultimate motive.
a. Fame c. Profit
b. Change of government d. Vanity
48. Which among the following terms is not associated with “Terrorism”?
a. Violence c. Fear
b. Coercion d. Protection racket
49. The United Nations Convention defined it as a structured group of three or more persons existing for a period
of time and acting in concert with the aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses in order to obtain,
directly, or indirectly, a financial or other material benefit.
a. Organized crime group c. Terrorist group
b. Bank robbery group d. Fundamentalist group
50. “Right-wing” as a political party refers to the ____.
a. Military c. Communists
b. Ruling government d. Religious groups
51. It is the leading anti-drugs agency in the Philippines which is under the Office of the President.
a. Philippine Center forTransnational Crime c. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
b. Dangerous Drug Board d. Philippine National Police
52. The PDEA is headed by a ____.
a. Chief of Staff c. Director General
b. Commissioner d. Chairman
53. Which among the following is a transnational organized crime group?
a. Pentagon group c. Kuratong-Baleleng group
b. Lexus carnaping group d. Triads
54. Which is not a characteristic of globalization?
a. Free or open market c. Internet revolution
b. Restricted policies on import and export d. Villagization
55. When a communist-leaning group overthrows a ruling government, it is considered as ____.
a. Right-wing terrorism c. Nationalist-separatist terrorism
b. Left-wing terrorism d. Religious fundamentalist terrorism
56. One of its characteristics is the indiscriminate use of violence against non-combatants for the purpose of
gaining publicity for a group, cause or individual.
a. Warfare c. Terrorism
b. Gangsterism d. Revolution
57. The basic age qualification to become a PDEA drug enforcement officer is ____.
a. 21 to 30 years old c. 21 to 35 years old
b. 18 to 25 years old d. 25 to 35 years old
58. Dumping and illicit trade in hazardous waste is classified as ____.
a. Cybercrime c. Environmental crime
b. Economic crime d. None of them
59. Underground criminal societies based in Hongkong which are often involved in money-laundering and drug
trafficking.
a. Yakuza c. Triads
b. Heijin OCG d. Red Wa OCG
60. It is the Philippine law that defines and penalizes human trafficking.
a. RA 9208 c. RA 8043
b. RA 6955 d. RA 9194
61. The primary objective of Globalization as conceptualized by Advocates is ____.
a. To combat transnational crime and terrorism
b. To integrate economies of different countries leading to a world economy
c. To adopt to American culture
d. To focus on industrialization rather than agriculture
62. An extremist Islamic group that is believed to be linked to Al Qaeda and responsible for the bombing of a
nightclub in Bali in 2002 that killed 192 people. It is a terrorist group that is reportedly training the MILF elements
in Mindanao.
a. Abu Sayyaf group c. Jemaah Islamiyah
b. Al Qaeda d. Gama’a Islamiyya (Islamic Gro
63. As far as combating crimes that cross national borders is concerned, what government agency in
the Philippines takes the lead?
a. Philippine National Police c. National Bureau of Investigation
b. INTERPOL d. Philippine Center for Transnational Crime
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64. The law that established the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency.
a. Republic Act 6423 c. Republic Act 9165
b. Republic Act 6975 d. Republic Act 9160
65. What country in South East Asia where the police force is under the military establishment?
a. Myanmar c. Cambodia
b. Laos d. Brunei
66. The general policing in the Australian Capital Territory are the primary responsibility of the ____.
a. State Police c. Local Police
b. Special Police d. Federal Police
67. The Chief of Staff of the Singapore Police Force holds the rank of Senior Assistant Commissioner. What is its
equivalent rank in the Philippine National Police?
a. Chief Superintendent c. Director
b. Deputy Director General d. Senior Superintendent
68. The ____ is India's premier investigative agency and the counterpart of the US Federal Bureau of
Investigation.
a. India’s Federal Bureau of Investigation c. National Bureau of investigation
b. Central Bureau of Investigation d. National Investigation Agency
69. Aside from keeping law and order, the police force of this country takes charge of prisons and fire services.
a. Korea c. Japan
b. Brunei d. Vietnam
70. “Private” is the lowest rank of this Asian country.
a. Myanmar c. Singapore
b. Brunei d. Japan
71. The Singapore Police Force is headed by ____.
a. Commissioner of Police c. Superintendent of Police
b. Director of Police d. Inspector General of Police
72. What country in South East Asia undertakes the police-community outreach program known as “Rakan Cop”?
a. Brunei c. Malaysia
b. Indonesia d. Myanmar
73. The first line of police response in the Philippine National Capital Regional Police Office is the ____.
a. Police Community Precinct c. Police District
b. SWAT d. Police Station
74. Which among the following describes the Singapore Police Force?
a. Centralized Single Police Force c. Fragmented Police System
b. Decentralized Single Police Force d. Localized Police Force
75. The lowest commissioned officer in the PNP is ____.
a. Police Officer 1 c. Senior Police Officer 4
b.Inspector d. Superintendent
76. Generally, policing in the United States of America is largely a responsibility of the ____.
a. Federal police c. State police
b. Local police d. Private police
77. The Hellenic Police force is headed by ____.
a. Chief of Police c. Commissioner of Police
b. Director General d. Brigadier General
78. It is a government agency tasked to establish a shared central data base among law enforcement units in
the Philippines for all information affecting peace and order to address the global threat to national and
international security.
a. Armed Forces of the Philippines c. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Philippine Center for Transnational Crime d. Philippine National Police
79. The Singapore Police Force is divided into two major functions: the staff and line units. If the staff function is
the equivalent of administration in the PNP, what is the equivalent of the line units?
a. Investigation c. Operation
b. Logistics d. Auxiliary
80. A sub-organization or unit of the National Police Agency of Japan which providespersonal security for the
Emperor, Crown Prince and other members of the Imperial Family as well as the physical security of imperial
properties including the Imperial Palaces, Villas, and Repository.
a. Imperial guard c. Imperial army
b. Prefectural police d. Security bureau
81. What is the primary subdivision of the Philippine National Police?
a. Municipal Police Stations c. City Police Stations
b. Police Provincial Offices d. Police Regional Offices
82. The first and the largest police force in Australia. Its personnel are the highest paid police force in the country.
a. Queensland Police c. Victoria Police
b. New South Wales Police d. Tasmania Police
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83. The American Police System is:

a. Single Centralized c. Fragmented
b. Single Decentralized d. Unified
84. “Prefecture” in Japan is the equivalent of ____ in the Philippines.
a. Region c. Town
b. Province d. City
85. Inspector General is the highest rank in the Royal Brunei Police Force. What agency in the Philippines is
headed by the Inspector General?
a. Philippine National Police c. Internal Affairs Service
b. National Police Commission d. People’s Law Enforcement Board
86. The crime reduction program runs in each state of Australia which involved the citizens to collect information
about crime and passes it on to the police is referred to as ____.
a. Crime Stoppers c. CompStat System
b. Koban d. Crime Watch
87. Which among the following countries with federal structure is given general policing functions?
a. America c. Australia
b. India d. West Germany
88. The ranks of superintendent and inspector are patterned from the ____.
a. American model c. Australian model
b. French model d. British model
89.In West Germany, the responsibility of general policing is on the hand of the ____.
a. Federal Police c. State Police
b. Bundespolizei d. Gestapo
90. This world organization was founded in 1945 and was formerly known as the League of Nations. Its primary
task is to stop wars between countries, and to provide a platform for dialogue.
a. United Nations c. United States of America
b. Vatican State d. World Federation of Nations
91. ____ is the US federal agency which is the counterpart of the Philippine’ Presidential Security Group, in-
charge of protecting the US President and his family (including past presidents). It works under the structure of the
Department of the Treasury and is also in-charge of the detection and prevention of counterfeiting.
a. FBI c. Secret Service
b. US Marshals d. Imperial Guard
92. The community policing program in Singapore which is the counterpart of Japan’s residential boxes is known
as ____.
a. Koban c. Police Community Precinct
b. Police Detachment d. Neighborhood Police Center
93. The Volkspolizei is the centralized paramilitary police force of what part of Germany?
a. East Germany c. West Germany
b. North Germany d. South Germany
94. The Myanmar Police known as the People’s Police Force is headed by a Director General with the rank of
Brigadier General. In the Philippines, the PNP is headed by the Chief, PNP with the rank of what?
a. Chief Superintendent c. Director
b. Director General d. Brigadier General
95. The residential police boxes in Japan’s police system are known as ____.
a. Chuzaisho c. Cops on the Block
b. Neighborhood watch d. Rakan Cop
96. This government agency is tasked to administer and control the Philippine National Police.
a. DILG c. NAPOLCOM
b. AFP d. Office of the President
97. The use of violence for political ends, and includes any use of violence for the purpose of putting the public, or
any section of the public, in fear is one among the definitions of ____.
a. Terrorism c. Organized crime
b. Revolution d. Coup d’tat
98. Which among the following Federal Police Agencies do general policing in its jurisdiction?
a. US Federal Police c. Australian Federal Police
b. Indian Federal Police d. German Federal Police
99. It is a multi-layered dynamic approach to crime reduction, quality of life improvement, and personnel and
resource management conceptualized by the New York Police Department.
a. Crime Watch c. Neighborhood Watch
b. CompStat System d. Crime Stopper
100. The United Nations Organization (UNO) has how many member-countries?
a. 192 c. 188
b. 292 d. 288
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(LEA 6)
COMPARATIVE
POLICE SYSTEM
ANSWER
1. B 44. A
2. A 45. C
3. B 46. C
4. B 47. C
5. C 48. D
6. D 49. A
7. C 50. A
8. A 51. C
9. A 52. C
10. A 53. D
11. A 54. B
12. A 55. B
13. A 56. C
14. C 57. C
15. C 58. C
16. B 59. C
17. D 60. A
18. A 61. B
19. B 62. C
20. D 63. D
21. D 64. C
22. D 65. A
23. C 66. D
24. A 67. B
25. C 68. B
26. B 69. B
27. A 70. A
28. B 71. A
29. C 72. D
30. C 73. A
31. A 74. A
32. A 75. A
33. A 76. B
34. B 77. A
35. D 78. B
36. B 79. C
37. D 80. A
38. D 81. D
39. B 82. B
40. B 83. C
41. B 84. B
42. B 85. C
43. A 86. A
109
87. C 94. B
88. D 95. A
89. C 96. C
90. A 97. A
91. C 98. C
92. D 99. B
93. A 100. A
110
(CLJ 1)
CRIMINAL LAW
(BOOK 1)
QUESTION
1. In case of the conviction of the accused, who will pay the cost of the proceedings.
A. Relatives of the accused C. The winning party
B. The accused D. The State
2. If the property of the accused is not sufficient for the payment of all the pecuniary liabilities, which will be given
the first priority to be paid?
A. The cost of the proceedings
B. the fine
C. The indemnification of the consequential damages
D. The reparation of the damaged cause
3. What is the equivalent rate of the subsidiary personal liability if the accused has no property with which to pay
the fine in the decision of the court.
A. One day of each Ten Pesos C. One day for each Fifteen Pesos
B. One day for each Eight Pesos D. One day for each twenty Pesos
4. If the accused was prosecuted for grave or less grave felony and the principal penalty imposed is only a fine,
how
long shall be the subsidiary imprisonment of the accused.
A. Three (3) months C. Four (4) months
B. Six (6) months D. Five (5) months
5. If the accused was prosecuted for light felonies only, and the principal penalty is only fine, how long shall be the
subsidiary imprisonment of the accused.
A. Ten (10) days C. Six (6) days
B. Twelve (12) days D. Fifteen (15) days
6. It is a subsidiary personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property with which to meet the fine.
A. Pecuniary penalty C. Subsidiary penalty
B. Administrative penalty D. Correctional penalty
7. What is the accessory penalty of reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal.
A. Civil interdiction for life C. Suspension of the right of suffrage
B. Suspension of the right to hold office. D. No accessory penalty
8. What is the accessory penalty of Destierro.
A. Civil interdiction for life
B. Suspension from public office, profession or calling
C. Suspension of the right to suffrage
D. No accessory penalty
9. Every penalty imposed for the commission of a felony shall carry with it the ___________ of the proceeds of
the crime and the instruments or tools with which it was committed.
A. Destruction C. Auction
B. Forfeiture D. Removal
10. The proceeds and instruments or tools of the crime shall be taken in favor of the __________.
A. Victim C. Third party
B. Accused D. Government
11. When can confiscation of the proceeds or property or instruments of the crimes be ordered by the court.
A. When it submitted in evidence
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B. When it is not placed at the disposal of the court

C. When it is owned by the victim
D. When it is owned by the accused
12. Articles which are forfeited, when the order of forfeiture is already final cannot be returned even in case an
__________
A. Revival of the case C. Appeal
B. Acquittal D. Refilling of the case
13. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the _______ in the
commission of the felony.
A. Accessories C. Principals
B. Accomplices D. Co- accused
14. It is the penalty which cannot be imposed when the guilty party is more than seventy years of age.
A. Reclusion Perpetua C. Death penalty
B. Prison correctional D. Arresto Mayor
15. A single out act constitute two or more grave or less grave felonies is a ____________ crime.
A. Grave offense C. Less grave offense
B. Complex crime D. Continuing crime
16. In defense of relatives, one of the relatives that can be defended are those relatives by consanguinity within
the fourth civil degree, such as _____________.
A. Brothers and sisters C. First cousin
B. Uncle and niece D. Second cousin
17. When somebody defended a very distant relative, he is committing ________.
A. Self defense C. Defense of stranger
B. Defense of relative D. Fulfillment of duty
18. A person considered as _________ is exempt in all cases from criminal liability.
A. Insane C. Feebleminded
B. Imbecile D. Epileptic
19. During this lucid interval, an insane person acts with _________.
A. Emotions C. Intelligence
B. Anxiety D. Depression
20. It is the __________ who has the burden of proof to show insanity.
A. Prosecution C. Court
B. Defense D. Prosecutor
21. It is a single crime, consisting of a series of acts but all arising from one criminal resolution.
A. Plural crime C. Habitual crime
B. Continuing crime D. Revolving crime
22. A person shall be deemed to be ________ if within a period of ten years from the date of his release or last
conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, estafa, or falsification, he is found guilty of any
of said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist C. Ex – convict
B. Habitual delinquent D. Pardonee
23. In imposing fines, the court may fix any amount within the limits established by law; in fixing the amount in
each case attention shall be given, not only to the mitigating and aggravating circumstances, but more particularly
to the ________ of the defendant.
A. Education C. Health
B. Wealth and means D. Age
24. Whenever any prisoner shall have served the ________ penalty imposed on him, it shall appear to the Board
of Indeterminate Sentence that such prisoner is fitted for release, said Board may authorize the release of such
prisoner on parole, upon such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Board.
A. Medium C. Minimum
B. Maximum D. One half
25. It is the disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence is released subject to conditions
imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
A. Parole C. Probation
B. Recognition D. Pardon
26. A person placed on probation.
A. Parolee C. Pardonee
B. Probationer D. Ex- convict
27. One who investigate for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both
A. Parole officer C. Probation officer
B. Police officer D. Administrative officer
28. No penalty shall be executed except by virtue of a _________ judgment.
A. In terim C. De Jure
B. Final D. Temporary
112
29. When a convict becomes insane or imbecile after final sentence has been pronounced, the execution of said
sentence is __________ only as regards the personal penalty.
A. Continued C. Extinct
B. Suspended D. Enforced
30. If the convict becomes insane or imbecile after the final sentence, the payment of his ________ shall not be
suspended.
A. Criminal liability C. Civil or pecuniary liabilities
B. Administrative liability D. Personal liability
31. Whenever a minor or either sex under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of a grave or less grave
felony, is accused thereof, the court, after hearing the evidence in the proper proceedings, instead of pronouncing
judgment of conviction, shall ___________ all further proceedings and shall commit such minor to the custody and
care of a public or private charitable institution.
A. Proceed C. Set aside
B. Suspend D. Prolong
32. If the minor has behaved properly or has complied with the conditions imposed upon him during his
confinement, in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 he shall be returned to the ____________ in order that
the same may order his final release.
A. DSWD C. Court
B. Parents D. Relatives / guardians
33. In case the minor fails to behave properly or to comply with the regulations of the institution to which he was
committed, or he was found to be incorrigible he shall be returned to the court in order that the same may
_________ corresponding to the crime committed by him.
A. Render the judgment C. Order extension of his commitment
B. Order his release D. Order his rehabilitation
34. The expenses for the maintenance of the minor delinquent confined in the institution to which he has been
committed, shall be borne totally or partially by _________ or those persons liable to support him, if they are able
to do so in the discretion of the court.
A. DSWD C. Institution
B. Parents or relatives D. State
35. Under the new law, the age of majority is ___________.
A. 21 years old C. 18 years old
B. 15 years old D. 16 years old
36. Any person sentenced to ___________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or places designated in the
sentenced, nor within the radius therein specified.
A. Arresto Mayor C. Destierro
B. Aresto Menor D. Prision Mayor
37. The radius specified in the penalty of destierro shall be _____________.
A. Not less than 25kms. But not more than 200 kms.
B. Not less than 20 kms. But not more than 225 kms.
C. Not less than 5 kms. But not more than 125 kms.
D. Not less than 25 kms. But not more than 250 kms.
38. The penalty of ____________ shall be served in the municipal jail or in the house of the defendant under the
surveillance of an officer of the law.
A. Arresto Mayor C. Prision correccional
B. Arresto Menor D. Prision Mayor
39. As the personal penalties, criminal liability of the accused is totally extinguished upon his _________.
A. Incarceration C. Death
B. Conviction D. Confinement
40. The pecuniary liabilities of the convict is extinguished only when the death of the offender occurs _______.
A. After the final judgment C. During the pendency of the case
B. Before the final judgment D. During the hearing of the case
41. It is not one of the grounds of extinction of criminal liability of the accused.
A. By voluntary surrender
B. By service of sentence
C. By absolute pardon
D. By prescription of the crime
42. Amado was change with homicide during the pendency of the case Amado died what will happen to the Case
filed against him.
A. The case will continue to be heared.
B. The case will be suspended.
C. The case will set aside.
D. The case will be dismissed.
43. Berto was sentenced in the regional trial court. He appealed the case to the court of appeals. During the
pendency of his appeal, Berto died. What will happen to his civil and criminal liability?
113
A. The civil and criminal liability is not extinguished?

B. The civil and environmental liability is extinguished?
C. The civil and criminal liability will be suspended.
D. The civil and criminal liability is set a side.
44. It is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of the laws which the individual
on whom it is bestowed from the punishment the law inflicts for the crime he has committed.
A. Parole C. Prescription of penalty
B. Pardon D. Prescription of crime
45. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain time.
A. prescription of crime C. Parole
B. Prescription of penalty D. Probation
46. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain
time.
A. Amnesty C. Prescription of penalty
B. Pardon D. Prescription of criminal
47. Crimes punishable by reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall prescribed in _____
A. 10yrs C. 20yrs
B. 12yrs D. 15yrs.
48. Crimes punishable by other affective penalties shall prescribe in _____
A. 15 years C. 5 years
B. 10 years D. 20 years.
49. Crimes punishable b correctional penalty shall prescribed in _____
A. 5 years C. 15 years
B. 10years D. 6 years
50. The crime of libel on other similar offenses shall prescribed in _____
A. Two years C. One year
B. Five years D. Ten years
51. The 0ffense of oral deformation and slander by deed shall prescribed in _____.
A. Six month C. One year
B. One month D. Five years
52. In computing the period of ______ the first day is to be excluded and the last day included.
A. Judgment C. Conviction
B. Prescription D. Confinement
53. The prescriptive period of offenses punishable under special laws and municipal and ordinances, such as
offenses punished only by a fine or by imprisonment for not more than one month, or both prescribed after
______.
A. Four years B. One years
C. Five years D. Eight years
54. The term of prescription shall not run when the offender is _____.
A. Absent from the Phil. Archipelago. B. Under rehabilitation
C. Confined D. Arrested
55. The period of prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date when the offender should _____
the service of this sentence.
A. Start serving C. Commence
B. Evade D. Interrupt
56. It is a change of the decision of the court made by the Chief Executive by reducing the degree of the penalty
inflicted upon the convict, or by decreasing the length of the imprisonment of the amount of the fine
A. Reprieve C. Suspension of sentence
B. Commutation of sentence D. Enforcement of sentence
57. It is considered a contract between the sovereign power of the executive and the convict that the sovereign
power will release convict upon compliance with the condition.
A. Amnesty C. Conditional Pardon
B. Probation D. Reprieve
58. Any person who has been granted conditional pardon shall incurr the obligation of _____ otherwise, his non
compliance shall result in the revocation of the pardon.
A. Strictly complying the condition B. Ignoring the condition
C. Evading the condition D. Questioning the condition
59. It is the prerogative of the Executive to extend this to the offender at any time after the imposition of the final
judgment.
A. Parole C. Probation
B. Amnesty D. Conditional Pardon
60. It is an Executive clemency given to the convicted offender after the offender has served the minimum penalty
through the Board of Pardons and Parole.
A. Parole C. Amnesty
114
B. Pardon D. Probation
61. Every person criminally liable for a felony is also _____ liable.
A. Administratively C. Personally
B. Civily D. Socially
62. It is one of the extinguishment o9f civil liability.
A. Serving of sentence C. Amnesty
B. By compensation D. Parole
63. It is included in civil liability.
A. Restitution C. Indemnification for damages consequential
B. Reparation of the damage caused D. All of the above
64. The civil liability for acts committed by a youthful offender shall be paid by the offenders _____.
A. Parents C. Relative
B. Guardians D. All of the above
65. A prisoner who showed good conduct inside the penal institution shall be allowed a deduction of his penalty for
a period of _____ for each month of good behavior during the first two years of his imprisonment.
A. Five days C. Eight days
B. Ten days D. Fifteen days
66. During the 3rd to 5th year of his imprisonment the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction of _____ for each
month of good behavior.
A. Fifteen days C. Five days
B. Eight days D. Ten days
67. During the 6th year until the tenth year, of his imprisonment, the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction of
_____for each month of good behavior.
A. Eight days C. Ten days
B. Five days D. Fifteen days
68. During the eleventh and successive years of his imprisonment, the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction of
_____ for each month of good behavior.
A. Five days C. Ten days
B. Eight days D. Fifteen days
69. Ana was charged with the crime of adultery together with his boyfriend. Ana, the married woman after
conviction, her husband pardoned her alone is the pardon effective?
A. Yes because she was pardoned by her husband
B. No, the pardon should include the man to be effective.
C. Yes, because it is voluntary given by the husband,
D. No, because pardon can only be given by the Chief Executive
70. When a single act constitute two or more grave or less grave felonies, or when an offense is necessary means
for committing the other, the penalty for _____ shall be imposed in its maximum.
A. The less serious crime C. The most serious crime
B. The light offense D. The most common crime
Questions 71 to 85
Write A if both statements are correct; B if first statement is correct and the second is incorrect. C if the first
statement is incorrect and the second is correct; D if both statements are incorrect.
71. Subsidiary imprisonment is not an accessory penalty. It is a penalty for it is imposed upon the
accusedand served by him in lieu of the fine which he fails to pay on account of insolvency.
72. One of the pecuniary penalties of the offender is reparation of the damaged caused. The pecuniary
Liabilities applies only in case the property of the offender is sufficient for the payment of all his pecuniaryliabilities.
73. The subsidiary personal, liability of the offender is at the rate of one day for each ten pesos. The
convictwho served subsidiary penalty may still be required to pay the fine.
74. When the court merely imposes a fine, the subsidiary liability shall not exceed one year. The
proceeds ofthe crime as well as the tools and instruments shall be forfeited and confiscated in favor of the victim.
75. The confiscation of the proceeds or tools or instruments of the crime can be ordered only if they
submitted in evidence or placed at the disposal of the court. Articles which are forfeited, when theorder of
forfeiture is already final, cannot be returned even in case of acquittal.
76. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the principals in
thecommission of such felony. According to Art. 47 of the RPC death penalty may be imposed when the guilty
person be more than 70 years of age.
77. A complex crime is not considered as one crime. One of the kinds of complex crime is when an
offense isa necessary means for committing another crime.
78. A continuing crime is not a single crime consisting of series of acts but all is not arising from one
criminal resolution. In continuing offense, although there is a series of acts, there are several crimes committed.
79. Indeterminate Sentence Law is an act which provide for an indeterminate sentence and parole for
allpersons convicted of certain crimes by the courts of the Philippine Island. The act shall not apply topersons
convicted of offenses punished with death penalty of life imprisonment.
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80. The court must, instead of single fixed penalty, determine two penalties, referred to in the
Indeterminate Sentence Act as the Maximum and Minimum terms. Indeterminate Sentence Law does not apply to
those who are habitual delinquents.
81. Probation may be granted whether the sentence imposes a term of imprisonment or a fine only. The
Probation law does not apply to offenders sentenced to serve a maximum of more than six years.
82. If the convict is sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one year, the period of
probation shall not exceed two years. In all other cases, if he is sentenced to more than one year, said probation
period shall not exceed six years
83. Minor delinquents are not confined in a penitentiary to prevent their association with matured and
hardened criminals. Their confinement in a charitable institution is considered a penalty.
84. Art. 80 of the RPC (Suspension of sentence of minors) is applicable only to light felonies. If a light
felony is committed by a minor, he is not subject to imprisonment, because he is entitled to a penalty of one
degree lower at least
85. The criminal liability is totally extinguished by service of sentence. It is also extinguished by means of
parole.
86. It is an exception to the General Characteristic of Criminal Laws.
A. Consul C. Chief of State
B. Commercial representative D. Senators and Congressmen
87. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.
A. Bill of Lading C. Special Law
B. Bill of attainder D. Criminal Law
88. It is a branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature, and provides for their punishment.
A. Remedial Law C. Political Law
B. Civil Law D. Criminal Law
89. It is not one of the sources of our Criminal Law.
A. Revised Penal Code C. Courts
B. Special Laws D. Executive Department
90. A body of principles, usages and rule of action, which do not rest for their authority upon any express and
positive declaration of the will of the legislature.
A. Legislative Law C. Remedial Law
B. Common Law D. Political Law
91. It means that as a rule, penal laws are enforceable only within the territory of the Philippines,
A. Territoriality principle C. Retroactivity Principle
B. Generality Principle D. Prospectively Principle
92. According to the classical theory, it states that the purpose of the penalty is ___________
A. Revenge C. Remuneration
B. Retribution D. Pardon
93. In self defense, the burden of proof rest upon the ____________
A. Relative C. Victim
B. Accused D. State
94. In defense of relatives, one of the relatives that can be defended are those relatives by consanguinity within
the fourth civil degree such as ___________
A. Brothers and sisters C. First cousin
B. Uncle and niece D. Second cousin
95. Relationship by blood refers to relatives by _____________
A. Affinity C. Legislation
B. Consanguinity D. Naturalization
96. A person considered as ___________ is exempt in all cases from criminal liability
A. Insane C. Feebleminded
B. Imbecile D. Epileptic
97. As a rule, ______________ is mitigating in the crimes against property.
A. Intoxication C. Relationship
B. Education D. Sex
98. It is a circumstances present in a crime where it may increase or decrease the criminal liability.
A. Exempting circumstances C. Alternative circumstances
B. Justifying circumstances D. Mitigating circumstances
99. It is a kind of aggravating circumstance that changes the nature of the crime. Example treachery qualifies the
killing of a person to murder.
A. Qualifying aggravating C. Specific aggravating
B. Generic aggravating D. Inherent aggravating
100. They are persons criminally liable due to their direct participation in the commission of the crime.
A. accessories C. Principals
B. Accomplices D. Co-accomplices
~END OF CLJ 1 QUESTIONS~
116
(CLJ 1)
CRIMINAL LAW
(BOOK 1)
ANSWER
1. B 42. D
2. D 43. B
3. B 44. C
4. B 45. A
5. D 46. C
6. C 47. C
7. A 48. A
8. D 49. B
9. B 50. C
10. D 51. A
11. A 52. B
12. B 53. B
13. C 54. A
14. C 55. B
15. B 56. B
16. C 57. C
17. C 58. A
18. B 59. D
19. C 60. A
20. B 61. B
21. B 62. B
22. B 63. D
23. B 64. D
24. C 65. A
25. C 66. B
26. B 67. C
27. C 68. D
28. B 69. B
29. B 70. C
30. C 71. A
31. B 72. B
32. C 73. C
33. A 74. D
34. B 75. A
35. C 76. B
36. C 77. C
37. D 78. D
38. B 79. A
39. C 80. A
40. B 81. A
41. A 82. A
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83. B 92. B
84. C 93. B
85. B 94. C
86. C 95. B
87. B 96. B
88. D 97. C
89. C 98. C
90. B 99. A
91. A 100. D
118
(CLJ 2)
CRIMINAL LAW 2
(BOOK 2)
QUESTION
1. What crime is committed when a person, through force, inserts his penis into another person’s mouth or anal
orifice?
A. Simple rape C. Qualified rape
B. Rape by sexual assault D. Acts of Lasciviousness
2. If a person wounds, assaults or beats another person causing deformity on the latter, the crime committed is:
A. Serious physical injuries C. Slight physical injuries
B. Less serious physical injuries D. Mutilation
3. What crime is committed when a person, without intent to kill, inflicts upon another any serious physical injury, by
knowingly administering to him any injurious substances or beverages?
A. Serious physical injuries
B. Less serious physical injuries
C. Mutilation
D. Administering injurious substances or beverages
4. MAGDA, a prostitute, agreed to have sex with a customer for the amount of P1,000.00. While in the motel, the
customer started kissing MAGDA. MAGDA noticed that the customer has bad breath. Eventually, she pulled away
from the customer and refused to have sex with him. Angered by the refusal, the customer forced himself on
MAGDA who was able to accomplish his carnal desires on the latter. What crime, if any, did the customer commit?
A. Rape C. Acts of lasciviousness
B. Seduction D. No crime was committed
5. Republic act no. 8353 is also known as:
A. Comprehensive dangerous drugs act of 2002 C. Anti-rape law of 1997
B. Anti-torture law D. None of these
6. NENE, a 10-year old girl, consented to have sex with her 20-year old neighbor HOMER who looks like John Lloyd
Cruz. What crime, if any, did HOMER commit?
A. Simple rape C. Qualified rape
B. Violation of child abuse law D. Qualified Seduction
7. What crime is committed when a police officer takes advantage of his position to rape another person?
A. Simple rape C. Sexual assault
B. Qualified rape D. None of these
8. Any private person who shall enter the dwelling of another against the latter’s will commits the crime of:
A. Qualified trespass to dwelling C. Trespass to property
B. Simple trespass to dwelling D. Violation of domicile
9. Due to the passage of the Anti-rape law of 1997, Rape is now classified as:
A. Crime against chastity C. Crime against liberty
B. Crime against persons D. None of these
10. If the person kidnapped or detained shall be a female, the crime is:
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Slavery
B. Slight illegal detention D. Arbitrary detention
11. It is a crime committed by anyone who, under the pretext of reimbursing himself of a debt incurred by an
ascendant, guardian or person entrusted with the custody of a minor, shall, against the latter’s will, retain him in
his service.
A. Slavery C. Exploitation of minors
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B. Abandoning a minor D. Exploitation of child labor

12. It is committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence against or intimidation of persons nor
force upon things, shall take personal property of another without the latter’s consent
A. Robbery C. Theft
B. Estafa D. Piracy
13. It is a felony committed by any person who shall threaten another with the infliction upon the person, honor,
property of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime
A. Grave coercion C. Grave threats
B. Light coercion D. Light threats
14. Any person who shall deliberately cause to the property of another any damage that does not constitute arson
shall be guilty for what crime?
A. Unjust vexation D. Damage to property
B. Malicious mischief D. None of these
15. A criminal complaint for adultery can be filed only by whom?
A. Offended spouse C. Both A and B
B. Guilty spouse D. The State
16. Any person who, having found lost property, shall fail to deliver the same to the local authorities or to its owner
shall be liable for what crime?
A. Theft C. Robbery
B. Estafa D. No crime was committed
17. LOLO ROMEO fondled the breast of her 15 year-old granddaughter WENDY. WENDY did not resist the advances
of her LOLO and in fact, she stated to him to continue what he is doing. What crime, if any, did LOLO ROMEO
commit?
A. Acts of Lasciviousness C. Seduction
B. Acts of Lasciviousness with the consent D. Attempted Rape
18. Acts of lasciviousness (Art.336) can be committed against:
A. female only C. Either male or female
B. male only D. None of these
19. A person who engages in the business of prostitution is liable for what felony?
A. Prostitution C. White slave trade
B. Slavery D. Vagrancy
20. While walking within the premises of a coconut plantation owned by JOEY, ROLAND saw a piece of coconut on
the ground. ROLAND decided to get the coconut and bring it home as a “pasalubong” to his son. What crime, if
any, did ROLAND commit?
A. Simple theft C. Robbery
B. Qualified theft D. Estafa
21. It is the seduction of a woman who is single and of good reputation, over twelve but under eighteen years of age,
and committed by means of deceit
A. Simple seduction C. Forcible abduction
B. Qualified seduction D. Acts of Lasciviousness
22. KURT has a longstanding grudge against his neighbor JIMI. One day, while JIMI was away, KURT surreptitiously
poisoned the cow of JIMI resulting in the death of the cow. What crime, if any, did KURT commit?
A. Malicious mischief C. Unjust vexation
B. Violation of PD 533 (Anti-cattle rustling law) D. Physical injuries
23. MICHELLE MASIPAG worked as a housemaid and yaya of the one-week old son of the spouses PETER and
PAULA. When MICHELLE learned that her 70 year-old mother was seriously ill, she asked PETER for a cash
advance of P1,000.00, but PETER refused. One morning, MICHELLE gagged the mouth of PETER’s son with
stockings; placed the child in a box; sealed it with masking tape and placed the box in the attic. Later in the
afternoon, she demanded P5,000.00 as ransom for the release of his son. PETER did not pay the ransom.
Subsequently, MICHELLE disappeared. After a couple of days, PETER discovered the box in the attic with his
child already dead. According to the autopsy report, the child died of asphyxiation barely three minutes after the
box was sealed. What crime/s did MICHELLE commit?
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Kidnapping with homicide
B. Slight illegal detention with homicide D. Kidnapping and homicide
24. Unjust vexation is a:
A. Crime against security C. Crime against chastity
B. Crime against property D. None of these
25. Malicious mischief is a:
A. Crime against property C. Crime against persons
B. Crime against liberty D. None of these
26. SARAH and NONITO are sweethearts. As a birthday gift, NONITO gave SARAH a BlackBerry cell phone. Two
days later, SARAH broke up with NONITO because she caught the latter cheating on her. SARAH decided to burn
the cell phone that NONITO gave her. What crime, if any, did SARAH commit?
A. Arson C. Damage to property
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B. Malicious mischief D. No crime was committed

27. In an interview aired on television, DINA uttered defamatory statements against CARMEN, a successful and
reputable businesswoman. What crime, if any, did DINA commit?
A. Slander C. Incriminating innocent persons
B. Libel D. No crime was committed
28. It consists in voluntarily, but without malice, doing or failing to do an act from which material damage results by
reason of inexcusable lack of precaution on the part of the person performing or failing to perform such act.
A. Reckless imprudence C. Offense
B. Simple imprudence D. None of these
29. It is the abduction of any woman against her will and with lewd designs
A. Consented abduction C. Kidnapping
B. Forcible abduction D. None of these
30. SIMON entered the house of another without employing force or violence upon things. He was seen by a maid who
wanted to scream but was prevented from doing so because SIMON threatened her with a gun. SIMON then took
money and other valuables and left. What crime, if any, did SIMON commit?
A. Theft C. Trespass to dwelling
B. Qualified theft D. Robbery
31. Seduction is a:
A. Crime against honor C. Crime against chastity
B. Crime against persons D. Crime against liberty
32. Libel is a:
A. Crime against persons C. Crime against chastity
B. Crime against property D. Crime against honor
33. A fire broke out in a department store. SID, taking advantage of the confusion, entered the store and carried away
goods, which he later sold. What crime, if any, did SID commit?
A. Robbery C. Qualified theft
B. Theft D. Estafa
34. Any person who shall defraud another with unfaithfulness or abuse of confidence shall be liable for what crime?
A. Theft C. Qualified theft
B. Robbery D. Estafa
35. DANTE and DIEGO ate at a restaurant near Our Lady of Fatima University in Valenzuela City. Because it is lunch
time, the restaurant was crowded. Realizing that they can leave the restaurant unnoticed without having their bill
for the food they ate, paid, the two clandestinely left the place. After two days, the police apprehended the two.
What crime, if any, did DANTE and DIEGO commit?
A. Theft C. Estafa
B. Qualified theft D. No crime was committed
36. Kidnapping may be committed by:
A. Private persons C. Either A or B
B. Public officers/employees D. None of these
37. It is a crime committed by any person who, in any case other than those authorized by law, or without reasonable
ground therefore, shall arrest or detains another for the purpose of delivering him to the proper authorities.
A. Arbitrary detention C. Illegal detention
B. Unlawful arrest D. Kidnapping
38. It is committed by any person who, without authority of law, shall by means of violence, threats or intimidation,
prevent another from doing something not prohibited by law, or compel him to do something against his will,
whether it be right or wrong.
a. Grave coercions c. Light coercions
b. Grave threats d. Light threats
39. Any person who shall orally threaten to do another any harm not constituting a felony is liable for what crime, if
any?
A. Coercion C. Unjust vexation
B. Other light threats D. No crime was committed
40. A private individual who, in order to discover the secrets of another, shall seize his papers or letters and reveal the
contents thereof is liable for what felony?
A. Infidelity in the custody of documents C. Theft
B. Discovering secrets through seizure of D. Estafa
41. Vex means
A. Annoyance C. Deceit
B. Asportation D. Fraud
42. To constitute a band under Art. 296 of the Revised Penal Code, there must be how many armed persons taking
part in a robbery?
A. More than three C. Three or more
B. Three D. Less than three
43. A person who possesses a picklock without lawful cause is liable for what crime, if any?
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A. Theft C. Fencing
B. Possession of picklocks D. No crime was committed
44. A person who uses a picklock or other similar tools in the commission of robbery shall be guilty of what crime?
A. Robbery C. Fencing
B. Possession of picklocks D. Robbery and possession of picklocks
45. CAROL and CINDY are sisters. Both are college students in the College of Criminology of Our Lady of Fatima
University in Valenzuela City. They both live with their parents. CAROL has a cute shih tzu dog; one day while
CAROL was away on a date, CINDY took the dog without the consent of CAROL and sold it to her classmate.
What crime did CINDY commit?
A. Robbery C. Malicious mischief
B. Estafa D. Theft
46. In question no. 45, is CINDY criminally liable?
A. Yes, because she committed theft
B. Yes, because she sold the dog without the permission of her sister
C. No, because she is exempted under Art. 332 of the Revised Penal Code
D. No. Although a crime was committed, she is exempted under Art. 332 of the
Revised Penal Code
47. When more than three armed persons form a band of robbers for the purpose of committing robbery in the
highway, the felony committed is:
A. Brigandage C. Piracy
B. Robbery D. None of these
48. To be liable for violation of the Anti-Fencing law of 1979 (PD No. 1612), a person who, with intent to gain for
himself or another, shall buy, receive, possess, keep, acquire, conceal, sell, or dispose of, or shall buy and sell,
any item, article, object which he knows, or should be known to him, to have been derived from the proceeds of
the crime of:
A. Robbery or Theft C. Theft only
B. Robbery only D. Robbery, Theft, or Estafa
49. A person who shall contract a second or subsequent marriage before the former marriage has been legally
dissolved is liable for what crime?
A. Adultery C. Bigamy
B. Concubinage D. None of these
50. HERCULES kidnapped ACHILLES and subsequently detained him in a rented property somewhere in Valenzuela
City. After detaining ACHILLES for 10 hours, HERCULES called ACHILLES’ wife to ask for the payment of P2
million in exchange for the liberty of her husband. ACHILLES’ wife immediately agreed and deposited the P2
million in HERCULES’ bank account. Five hours have passed before HERCULES was able to receive the money.
Thereafter, he quickly released ACHILLES. What crime is committed?
A. Slight illegal detention C. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention
B. Grave coercion D. Forcible abduction
51. It is the taking, with intent to gain, of a motor vehicle belonging to another without the latter’s consent, or by means
of violence against or intimidation of persons, or by using force upon things
A. Robbery C. Carnapping
B. Qualified theft D. Brigandage
52. IVAN entered the house of DIEGO through the chimney, just like what Santa Claus does. While inside, he took a
laptop computer on the table and immediately left the house without anyone seeing him. What crime, if any, did
IVAN commit?
A. Robbery C. Theft
B. Trespass to dwelling D. Malicious mischief
53. It is a crime committed by any married woman who shall have sexual intercourse with a man not her husband and
by the man who has carnal knowledge of her, knowing her to be married.
A. Concubinage C. Seduction
B. Bigamy D. Adultery
54. DENNIS and CARMEN were legally separated. Their child FRANCIS, a minor was placed in the custody of
CARMEN, subject to monthly visitations by DENNIS. On one occasion, when DENNIS had FRANCIS in his
company, DENNIS decided not to return FRANCIS to his mother. Instead, DENNIS took FRANCIS with him to
Spain where he intended for them to reside permanently. What crime, if any, did DENNIS commit?
A. Kidnapping and serious illegal detention C. Kidnapping and failure to return a minor
B. Kidnapping and slight illegal detention D. Corruption of minors
55. A public officer or employee acting in his private capacity is considered a:
A. Public officer C. Either A or B
B. Private individual D. Person in authority
56. Which of the following is no longer a crime/s, according to the decision of the Supreme Court in Valenzuela vs
People (GR No. 160188, June 21, 2007):
A. Frustrated theft c. Both a and b
B. Frustrated robbery d. None of these
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57. If someone was killed in the course of the commission of robbery, the crime committed is:
A. Robbery and homicide C. Homicide
B. Robbery D. Robbery with homicide
58. A person who, by means of violence, shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying
the same to the payment of the debt is liable for what felony?
A. light threats C. Light coercions
B. Fraudulent insolvency D. None of these
59. By using a slingshot, RONNIE deliberately hit the favorite duck of his LOLA TASYA. As a consequence, the
duck died. RONNIE was charged with malicious mischief. RONNIE contended that he is exempt from criminal
liability pursuant to Art.332 of the Revised Penal Code. Is RONNIE correct?
A. Yes, because RONNIE is a descendant of his LOLA, thus exempt under Art. 332 of the Penal
Code
B. Yes, because RONNIE is a minor
C. No, because RONNIE committed a crime
D. No, because RONNIE intended to kill the duck of his LOLA
60. It is an essential element of estafa:
A. Destruction C. Negligence
B. Damage D. None of these
61. DANNY burned to death his enemy FLORANTE. What crime is committed?
A. Arson C. Arson with homicide
B. Murder D. Murder and arson
62. JOAN and JANE are college classmates. They are both of legal age. JOAN burned the pen of JANE worth
P10.00 because JANE did not allow JOAN to copy her assignment in school. What crime, if any, did JOAN
commit?
A. Malicious mischief C. Unjust vexation
B. Arson D. No crime was committed
63. Which of the following is not a crime:
A. Attempted rape C. Attempted robbery
B. Frustrated rape D. Frustrated robbery
64. Which of the following is a private crime:
A. Rape C. Bigamy
B. Malicious mischief D. Adultery
65. Which of the following is a crime against security:
A. Libel C. Unjust vexation
B. Malicious mischief D. Theft
66. DONDON, a tricycle driver, plied his usual route using a Suzuki motorcycle with a sidecar. One evening, JOJO
rode on the sidecar, poked a knife at DONDON and instructed him to go near the bridge. Upon reaching the
bridge, JOJO alighted from the motorcycle and suddenly stabbed DONDON several times until he was dead.
JOJO fled from the scene taking the motorcycle with him. What crime/s did JOJO commit?
A. Homicide C. Carnapping with homicide
B. Carnapping and murder D. Carnapping and homicide
67. At about 11:00 in the evening, LANDO forced his way inside the house of ROGER. TIBURCIO, ROGER’s son,
saw LANDO and accosted him. LANDO pulled a knife and stabbed TIBURCIO on his abdomen. ROGER heard
the commotion and went out of his room. LANDO, who is about to escape, assaulted ROGER. TIBURCIO suffered
injuries, which were not for the timely medical attendance, would have caused his death. ROGER sustained
injuries that incapacitated him for 25 days. How many crime/s did LANDO commit?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
68. In question no. 67, what kind of physical injuries did ROGER sustain?
A. Serious physical injuries C. Slight physical injuries
B. Less serious physical injuries D. Mutilation
69. In the crime of qualified seduction, the offended party should be a virgin. What kind of virginity does the law
contemplate?
A. Physical virginity C. Both a and b
B. Moral virginity D. None of these
70. Lewd designs mean:
A. Deceit C. Lustful
B. Prejudice D. Intent
71. NOAH proposed to his friend MARLON to kidnap ALLIE so that they can rape her. MARLON agreed. On the
date of their plan, the two had a change of heart and did not push through with the scheme. What crime, if any, did
NOAH and MARLON commit?
A. Attempted kidnapping C. Attempted rape
B. Attempted forcible abduction D. No crime was committed
72. It is the essence of adultery:
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A. Sexual intercourse C. Violence

B. Relationship D. Intimidation
73. After raping the complainant in her house, the accused struck a match to smoke a cigarette before departing
from the scene. The brief light from the match allowed him to notice a watch in her wrist. He demanded that she
hand over the watch. When she refused, he forcibly grabbed it from her. What crime/s did the accused commit?
A. Robbery with rape C. Rape and theft
B. Rape and robbery D. Qualified rape
74. An accused charged with violation of PD No. 1612 (Anti-fencing law of 1979) would have been
an____________ in theft or robbery had not the charge filed against him been fencing.
A. Principal C.Accessory
B. Accomplice D. None of these
75. It is a common element in the crime of robbery or theft:
A. Intent to gain C. Violence
B. Force D. Deceit
76. Which of the following is not a crime:
A. Frustrated arson C. Frustrated parricide
B. Frustrated robbery D. Frustrated infanticide
77. RA No. 6539, otherwise known as the Anti-carnapping law is:
A. Part of the Revised Penal Code C. Either A or B
B. A special penal law D. None of these
78. PD No. 533, otherwise known as the Anti-cattle rustling law of 1974 is:
A. Part of the Revised Penal Code C. Either a or b
B. A special penal law D. None of these
79. It is the taking of personal property out of the possession of the owner
A. Robbery C. Asportation
B. Seizure D. None of these
80. If a person enters the dwelling or property of another without the consent of the owner, but the purpose of
such entry is to render some aid to humanity or justice, what crime, if any, did the person who entered commit?
A. Trespass to dwelling C. Violation of domicile
B. Trespass to property D. No crime was committed
81. TT kidnapped KK in a dimly lit street. XX, a passerby saw what happened. TT noticed that XX witnessed
his act. As a consequence, TT killed XX. What is the crime committed?
A. Kidnapping with homicide C. Kidnapping and murder
B. Kidnapping and homicide D. None of these
82. A 7-year old child was raped by the friend of her father. What crime is committed?
A. Qualified rape C. Simple rape
B. Rape by sexual assault D. Seduction
83. By using a picklock, ABET ALINLANGAN successfully entered the house of POPOY. As ABET was about
to get the ipad and iphone on top of the table, he noticed POPOY descending from the stairs. Alarmed, he went to
POPOY and killed him. What is the crime committed?
A. Attempted robbery with homicide c. Attempted theft with homicide
B. Attempted robbery and homicide d. Attempted theft and homicide
84. What is the effect if the offender marries the offended party in rape, granting all the requisites for a valid
marriage are present?
A. The crime is extinguished C. both A and B
B. The criminal liability is extinguished D. No effect
85. DOY, a gigolo from Manila raped SISA, a barrio lass in Nueva Ecija. At the time of the commission of the
rape, DOY had no knowledge that SISA was a mental retardate. What is the crime committed?
A. Simple rape C. Sexual assault
B. Qualified rape D. Seduaction
86. AUBREY, a gorgeous ‘colegiala’ but a shoplifter went to SM Valenzuela and proceeded to the women’s
wear section. The saleslady was of the impression that she brought to the fitting room three (3) pieces of
swimsuits of different colors. When she came out of the fitting room, she returned only two (2) pieces to the
clothes rack. The saleslady became suspicious and alerted the store security. AUBREY was stopped by the
security before she could leave the store and brought to the office of the store manager. The security and the
manager searched her and found her wearing the third swimsuit under her blouse and pants. What is the crime
committed?
A. Attempted theft C. Consummated theft
B. Frustrated theft D. Robbery
87. The main difference between kidnapping and forcible abduction is the presence or absence of:
A. Taking of a person C. detention
B. Lewd design D. None of these
88. Batas Pambansa bilang 22 (BP 22) is also known as:
A. Bouncing checks law C. Anti-terrorism act
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B. Anti-voyeurism act D. None of these

89. It is one of the essential elements of libel:
A. Damages C. Malice
B. Deceit D. intent to gain
90. It is not an element of acts of lasciviousness:
A. Sexual intercourse C. Intimidation
B. Force D. None of these
91. Act No. 3815 is otherwise known as:
A. The revised penal code C. The new arson law
B. Criminal law D. None of these
92. SIMPLICIO is married to the sister of DOLLY, and the three (3) live together in a house located in Malabon
City. On several occasions, DOLLY’s dog would bark at SIMPLICIO every time he arrives at past midnight. One
time, after arriving in the house at around 2 o’ clock in the morning, DOLLY’s dog barked continuously at
SIMPLICIO. In a fit of anger, SIMPLICIO entered the house, took a bolo and killed the dog. What is the crime
committed?
A. Malicious mischief C. Mutilation
B. Unjust vexation D. None of these
93. In question no. 92, is SIMPLICIO criminally liable?
A. Yes, because he committed malicious mischief
B. Yes, because he committed unjust vexation
C. No, because he is exempt under the law
D. No, because killing of a dog is not a crime
94. In question no. 92, is SIMPLICIO civilly liable?
A. Yes, since he is also criminally liable
B. Yes, the law states that even though he is not criminally liable, he is civilly liable
C. No, because he is not criminally liable
D. No, because he is exempt under the law
95. JERRY set the house of RAMONA on fire by way of revenge against the latter. JERRY did not know that
RAMONA was inside. RAMONA died because of the fire. What crime or crimes did JERRY commit?
A. Arson C. Arson with homicide
B. Homicide D. Arson and homicide
96. In question no. 95, suppose JERRY knew that RAMONA was inside, what crime/crimes did JERRY
commit?
A. Homicide C. Arson and murder
B. Murder D. Arson and homicide
97. In question no. 95, suppose before setting it on fire, JERRY entered the house and killed RAMONA. Then
JERRY set the house on fire to hide the body of RAMONA. What crime/crimes did JERRY commit?
A. Murder C. Arson with homicide
B. Arson D. Murder and arson
98. Which of the following is an example of a complex crime?
A. Robbery with homicide C. Kidnapping with homicide
B. Forcible abduction with rape D. All of these
99. Which of the following is an example of a special complex crime or composite crime?
A. Robbery with homicide C. Estafa through falsification of a public document
B. Direct assault with murder D. All of these
100. It is a law that defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their punishment?
A. Criminal law C. Special penal law
B. Criminal jurisprudence D. Civil law

125
(CLJ 2)
CRIMINAL LAW 2
(BOOK 2)
ANSWER
1. B 45. D
2. A 46. D
3. D 47. A
4. A 48. A
5. C 49. C
6. A 50. C
7. B 51. C
8. B 52. A
9. B 53. D
10. A 54. C
11. D 55. B
12. C 56. A
13. C 57. D
14. B 58. C
15. A 59. A
16. A 60. B
17. B 61. B
18. C 62. B
19. C 63. B
20. B 64. D
21. A 65. C
22. B 66. C
23. C 67. C
24. A 68. B
25. A 69. B
26. C 70. C
27. B 71. D
28. A 72. A
29. B 73. B
30. D 74. C
31. C 75. A
32. D 76. A
33. C 77. A
34. D 78. A
35. C 79. C
36. C 80. D
37. B 81. B
38. A 82. C
39. B 83. A
40. B 84. B
41. A 85. A
42. A 86. C
43. B 87. B
44. A 88. A
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89. C 95. C
90. A 96. B
91. A 97. D
92. A 98. B
93. C 99. A
94. B 100. A
127
(CLJ 3)
CRIMINAL
PROCEDURE
QUESTION
1. It is a provisional remedy issued upon an order of the court where an action is pending to be levied upon the
property of the defendant, the same can be held thereafter by the sheriff as security for the satisfaction of
whatever judgment might be secured in said action by the attaching creditor against the defendant.
A. Preliminary Injunction C. Preliminary Attachment
B. Motion for Prohibition D. Judgment
2. The provision remedies, in so far as there are applicable, may be availed of in connection with the civil action
deemed instituted in _________________ .
A. Civil Case C. Administrative Action
B. Criminal Action D. Remedial Action
3. When the civil action is properly instituted in the criminal action, the offended party may have the property of
the accused attached as security for the satisfaction of any judgment that may be recovered from the accused in
the following cases:
A. When the accused is about to leave from the Philippines
B. When the accused has concealed, removed or disposed of his property or is about to do so.
C. When the accused is out on bail.
D. When the criminal action is based on a claim for money or property embezzled or fraudulently
misapplied or converted to the use of the accused who is a public officer, officer of a corporation, attorney de
facto, broker or agent or clerk in the course of his employment as such.
4. This doctrine means that an unlawful search taints not only the evidence obtained there at but also facts
discovered by reason of unlawful search.
A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt. C. Fruits of the poisonous tree.
B. Burden of proof D. Border Search
5. This rule commands that evidence obtained by an unreasonable search and seizure is excluded from
evidence.
A. Consented warrantless Search C. Exclusionary Rule
B. Stop and frisk on Terry search. D. Inspection Search
6. The filing of the petition for __________is considered a waiver of the accused’s right to appeal, makes his
conviction final the moment he files said application.
A. New Trial C. Motion for Reconsideration
B. Probation D. Appeal
7. It is a ground for new trial except:
A. Error of Law
B. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused have been committed during the trial.
C. Failure to conduct preliminary Investigation
D. Newly discovered evidence has been discovered which accused could not with reasonable diligent
have discovered and produced at the trial and submitted would probably changed the judgment.
8. It is a motion which can interrupt the running of the fifteen (15) day period to perfect an appeal.
A. Motion for new trial C. Motion for Reconsideration
B. Motion in Quash D. Motion for probation
9. How long is given to the accused to make his appeal before the judgment will become final and executor?
A. 30 days C. 15 days
B. 45 days D. 20 days
10. Who may appeal?
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A. Only the accused C. Any party

B. Only the complainant D. The prosecutor
11. In cases divided by the Metropolitan Trial Court, where should the appeal be filed?
A. To the court of Appeals C. To the Supreme Court
B. To the Regional Trial Court D. To the Municipal Trial Court
12. It is a ground for new trial except:
A. Errors of law
B. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the accused have been committed during the
trial.
C. New and material evidence has been discovered which the accused could not with reasonable
diligence have discovered and produced at the trial and which if introduced and admitted would probably change
the judgment
D. minority of the accused
13. It may be granted by the court where the incompetency of the counsel for the defense is so great that the
defendant was
prejudicial and prevented from fairly presenting his defense.
A. New Trial C. Dismissal of the case
B. Reconsideration D. Judgment
14. Requisites of newly discovered evidence to be a valid ground for new trial, except:
A. The evidence was discovered after the trial
B. Such evidence could not have been discovered and produced at the trial even with existence of
reasonable diligence.
C. The evidence violates the Principle of Double Jeopardy.
D. The evidence must go to the merits and not rest on merely a technical defense.
15. It is a motion which may be filed after judgment but within period for perfecting an appeal.
A. Motion for reconsideration C. Motion for new trial
B. Motion to Quash D. Motion to file an appeal
16. It is a motion which may be presented only after either or both parties have formally offered and closed their
evidence, but before judgment.
A. Motion to re-open trial C. Motion for reconsideration
B. Motion to file an appeal D. Motion to Quash
17. In all cases, when the court grants new trial, what happens to the original judgment?
A. The judgment is set aside or vacated
B. The judgment is retained
C. The judgment become final and executory
D. The judgment may be appealed
18. When a new trial is granted on the ground of newly discovered evidence, what happen to the original
evidence already presented?
A. The evidence already presented remains
B. The evidence already presented will be discard
C. The evidence already presented will be set aside
D. The evidence already presented will not be given weight.
19. When criminal actions are brought to the Court of Appeals or to the supreme court, who must represent the
people of the Philippines.
A. Public of the Philippines
B. The private prosecutor with the conformity of the Assistant Provincial Prosecutor
C. The judge
D. The Solicitor General
20. In cases decided by the Metropolitan Trial Court, Where should the appeal be filed?
A. Regional Trial Court C. To the Supreme Court
B. To the Court of Appeals D. to the Municipal Circuit Court
21. In cases decided by the court of Appeal where should the appeal be filed.
A. To the Supreme Court C. To the Solicitor General
B. To the Sandigan Bayan D. To the Court of Appeals itself
22. If the criminal case is dismissed by the court, or there is acquittal, can the complainant or the offended party
make an appeal.
A. No, because it is only the accused who can appeal in case of conviction.
B. No, the offended party or complainant cannot appeal the criminal aspect of the case.
C. Yes,the complainant or offended party may appeal the civil aspect of the case only.
D. Yes, the complainant and the accused are both given by law the right to appeal either the criminal
aspect or civil aspect of the case.
23. What is the remedy of the accused in case a final judgment of conviction was rendered by the court?
A. File an appeal C. File a motion to Quash the information
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B. File a motion to set aside judgment D. File a motion for new trial
24. Who may appeal from a judgment or final order of the court?
A. Prosecution only C. Any Party
B. Defense only D. The judge
25. For purposes of determining appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases is the __________of the penalty is taken
account
A. Minimum of the penalty C. Maximum of the penalty
B. Medium of the penalty D. None of the above
26. When can a final judgment becomes final?
A. Upon the expiration of the period to appeal therefrom if no appeal has been duly perfected.
B. Upon the expiration of the period of 30 days
C. Upon the expiration of the period of 10 days
D. Upon the expiration of the period of 20 days
27. Pedro was sentence to suffer five years imprisonment by final judgment. Before the period of appeal lapsed,
Pedro escaped.
Can he appeal his case?
A. Yes, because his right to appeal is provided in our constitution
B. Yes, because he opted to file an appeal because the period of appeal had not yet lapses
C. No, because he escaped; hence, he waived his right to appeal
D. Yes, his right to appeal is mandatory right.
28. The appeal to the Court of Appeal in cases decided by the Regional Trial Court in the exercise of its appellate
jurisdiction shall be by ____________
A. Petition by Motion for Reconsideration C. Petition to re-open the trial
B. Petition for new trial D. Petition for review
29. How should be the service of the notice of appeal be secured if it cannot be made upon the adverse party or
his counsel.
A. By e-mail service C. By registered mail service
B. By telephone service D. By telegraph service
30. When is an appeal be taken?
A. Within fifteen (15) days from promulgation of the judgment
B. Within five (5) days from promulgation of the judgment
C. Within Thirty (30) days from promulgation of the judgment
D. Within twenty (20) days from promulgation of the judgment
31. Pedro is the complainant against Berto in a criminal case. Berto was convicted and the judgment was
promulgated. Before the judgment became final the complainant filed an appeal. Does Pedro have the right to
appeal in a criminal case.
A. No, only the accused/convicted accused can appeal
B. Yes, the complainant can appeal on the civil aspect only of the case.
C. No, because he is the complainant, not the accused.
D. No, because such appeal made by the complainant will place the accused in double jeopardy.
32. Mario was convicted on the complaint of Noel for homicide. Mario was sentenced to four years and six months
and one day. Noel the complainant appealed on the ground that the penalty imposed was not proper. And Noel
prayed that it be increased. Was the appeal of Mario Proper?
A. Yes, because he has also the right to appeal even if he is the complainant.
B. Yes, because the penalty imposed is really not proper.
C. No, the appeal of Noel would constitute a violation on the right of the accused for it will fall under
Double jeopardy.
D. Yes, because under the law, Rule 122, Sec.1, provides that any party may appeal from a judgment
or final order.
33. John was convicted by final judgment for the crime of murder. He was sentenced with an imprisonment of
Reclusion Perpetua. He did not appeal. The judgment became final and executor. The Supreme Court by its own
power (motu propio) reviewed the judgment. Is the Supreme Court correct?
A. No, because John did not appeal his judgment
B. No, because the proper person in interest (John) no longer wants to appeal his case.
C. Yes, the Supreme Court has the power to review judgment with maximum penalty of Reclusion
Perpetua, automatically.
D. No, it is only the accused who can appeal his case.
34. When may the period for perfecting an appeal shall be suspended?
A. From the time a motion to re-open the trial is filed
B. From the time a motion for reconsideration is filed
C. From a time a motion to Quash the information is filed.
D. From the time a motion to dismiss is filed.
35. The world “Promulgation” refers to ___________.
A. Case Record C. Order
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B. Judgment D. Trial
36. The word “ Notice” refers to ___________.
A. Judgment C. Trial
B. Case Record D. Order
37. Within how many days should the clerk of court with whom the notice of appeal was filed must transmit to the
clerk of court of the appellate court the complete record of the case together with the said notice.
A. Ten days C. Five days
B. Fifteen days D. Twelve days
38. In all cases where the death penalty is imposed by the Trial Court, the records shall be forwarded to the court
of appeals for automatic review within how many days from the promulgation of the judgment.
A. Within fifteen days but not earlier than ten days from the promulgation of the judgment or notice of
denial of a motion
for new trial or reconsideration.
B. Within twenty days but not earlier than fifteen days from the promulgation of the judgment or notice
of denial of a
motion for new trial or reconsideration.
C. Within ten days but not earlier than seven days from the promulgation of the judgment or notice of
denial of a
motion for new trial or reconsideration
D. Within seven days but not earlier than five days from the promulgation of the judgment or notice of
denial of a
motion for new trial or reconsideration
39. Juanito was convicted by the trial court. A Counsel de Oficio was appointed to him by the court for his appeal
since he is confined in prison. To cut short the proceedings of appeal,the counsel de oficio of Juanito withdraw the
appeal. Is the action of the consel de oficio proper?
A. Yes, because the counsel de oficio wishes to cut short the proceedings of the appeal since he is not
being paid by
Juanito.
B. Yes, because it is his right (counsel de oficio) to terminate the appeal at any time even without the
consent of Juanito.
C. No, he (counsel de oficio) cannot withdraw the appeal without the consent of Juanito.
D. Yes, considering that it was not Juanito who choose him (counsel de oficio) to be his lawyer for his
(Juanitos’) appeal.
40. There is a uniform procedure in the Municipal Trial Courts except:
A. In the municipal circuit trial court’s
B. Metropolitan Trial Courts
C. Municipal trial courts in cities
D. In criminal cases governed by the revised Rules on summary procedures.
41. In all criminal cases appealed to the Court of Appeals the property appealing the case shall be called the
_______________
A. Complainant C. Appellee
B. Appellant D. Respondent
42. The adverse party of the aprty appealing the case is called the ______________
A. Appellant C. Plaintiff
B. Accused D. Appellee
43. The court of appeals may dismiss the appeal on the following ground except:
A. If appellant escapes from prison
B. If appellant escapes from confinement
C. If appellant jumps bail
D. If appellant files a motion for reconsideration
44. It is one of the scope of judgment of the Court of Appeals except:
A. Reverse the judgment imposed by the trial court.
B. Affirm the judgment imposed by the trial court.
C. Increase or reduce the penalty imposed by the trial court.
D. Forward the case to the Supreme Court.
45. Trials and hearings in the court of appeals must be continuous and must be completed within such period,
unless extended by the chief justice.
A. Within six (6) months C. Within three (3) months
B. Within ten (10) months D. Within twelve (12) months
46. Arturo was sentenced by the trial court with death penalty when death penalty is still on effect. There was an
automatic review by the Supreme Court. While the case is still in the Supreme Court, the death penalty was out
lowed. The supreme Court affirm the decision of the trial court. What should be the proper penalty to be
imposed upon the accused by the supreme court.
A. Death Penalty C. Reclusion Perpetua
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B. Reclusion Temporal D. Prison Correctional

47. A motion for reconsideration shall be filed within such period from notice of the decision or final order of the
court of Appeals, with copies thereof served upon the adverse party, setting forth the grounds in support thereof.
A. Within fifteen (15) days C. Within twenty (20) days
B. Within ten (10) days D. Within thirty (30) days
48. Unless otherwise provided by the constitution or by law the procedure in the ____________in original and in
appealed cases shall be the same as in the Court of Appeals.
A. Regional Trial Court C. Municipal Trial Court
B. Supreme Court D. Municipal Circuit Trial Court
49. The procedure for the review by the supreme court of decisions in criminal cases rendered by the court of
appeals shall be the same in _____________________
A. Civil Cases C. Corporate cases
B. Administrative cases D. Quash criminal cases
50. When the Supreme Court en banc is equally divided in opinion or the necessary majority cannot be had on
whether to acquit the appellant, the case shall again be deliberated upon and if no decision is reached after re-
deliberation the judgment of of the lower court shall be ___________.
51. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to
a peace officer, him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
A. Warrant of Arrest C. Information
B. Complaint D. Search Warrant
52. It refers to person and places particularly described thoroughly investigated or searched.
A. Seizure C. Confiscation
B. Search D. Take into custody
53. It refers to things particularly described to be taken away or confiscated or to be seized.
A. Search C. Looking for something
B. Seizure D. Thorough investigation
54. If the criminal action has already been filed where should the application for search warrant be filed?
A. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction of a crime was committed.
B. Any court within the judicial region where the crime was committed.
C. Any court within the judicial region where the warrant shall be enforced
D. In the court where the criminal action is pending
55. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure for this kind of property.
A. Real Property C. Personal property
B. Paraphernal Property D. Capital property
56. A __________________ shall not issue except upon (57)__________ in connection with one specific offense
to be determined personally by the (58) ____________after examination under(59)______________ or affirmation
of the (60)_________________ and the witnesses he may produce, and particularly describing the place to be
searched and the things to be seized.
A. Search warrant C. Judge E. Complainant
B. Probable cause D. Oath
61. During the arraignment, the accused must be ______________.
A. Represented by a proxy C. Out of the country
B. Present personally D. Represented by the prosecutor
62. What plea is recorded or entered for the accused if he refuses to plead?
A. Plea of guilty C. No plea is entered
B. Plea of not guilty D. Improvident plea of guilty
63. The reading of the complainant or information during the arraignment shall be done in what dialect or
language?
A. In English only C. In Spanish
B. In Tagalog only D. In the dialect or language known by the accused
64. Total criminal liability is extinguished except by:
A. By service of sentence C. By prescription of crime
B. By absolute Pardon D. By conditional pardon
65. It is the Loss or waiver of the State of its right to prosecute an act prohibited and punished by law.
A. Prescription of jurisdiction C. Prescription of crime
B. Prescription of venue D. Prescription of penalty
66. It is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the prosecutor or fiscal and filled
with the court.
A. Arrest C. Complainant
B. Information D. Warrant of Arrest
67. It is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any
peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. Information C. Complaint
B. Search Warrant D. Warrant of Arrest
132
68. He shall have the direction and control in the prosecution of all criminal actions either commenced by
complaint or by Information.
A. Public Prosecutor or fiscal C. Judge
B. Clerk of Court D. Investigator on case
69. It has the power to order a change of venue or place of trial to avoid a miscarriage of justice.
A. Congress C. Supreme Court
B. Court of Appeals D. Senate
70. The proper officer who issues a warrant of arrest.
A. Public Prosecutor C. Judge
B. Chief of Police D. Clerk of Court
71. It is defined as such facts and circumstances which would lead a reasonable discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed and that the objects sought in connection with the offense are in the
place sought to be searched.
A. Personal Knowledge C. Probable Cause
B. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Principle of innocence
72. Requisites of a valid search warrant except:
A. It must be upon probable cause
B. The search warrant must particularly describe the place to be search and the things to be seized
C. The search warrant must be issued in connection with the specific offense
D. The search warrant must involved real properties
73. It is a warrant which fails to sufficiently specify the place or person to be searched or things to be seized.
A. Search Warrant C. Provisionary Search Warrant
B. General Search Warrant D. Probationary Search Warrant
74. The officer, enforcing the search warrant if refused admittance to the place of directed search after giving
notice of his purpose and authority, what may be his legal; move?
A. May break open any outer or inner door of a house
B. May break open any outer or inner window of a house
C. May liberate himself when unlawfully detained.
D. All of the above
75. How should a search of a house, room, or any other premises be made?
A. Presence of the lawful occupant C. Two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion
B. Presence of any member of the occupant’s family D. All of the above
76. PO1 Reyes was enforcing a search warrant, he introduced himself to the occupant of the house and
mentioned his purpose, however he was refuse admittance. What should be the legal move of PO1 Reyes?
A. May break open the door C. May break any part of the house to make an entry
B. May break open the window D. All of the above
77. The validity of the search warrant.
A. Ten (10) days from its date C. Seven (7) days from its date
B. Fifteen (15) days from its date D. Five (5) days from its date
78. To whom the officer who served the search warrant return the property seized?
A. To the prosecutor C. To the complainant
B. To the judge who issued the warrant D. To the clerk of court
79. Berto was seen and observed by PO2 Peralta in the act of picking the wallet of Carlos. Berto successfully
took possession of the wallet of Carlos. At this instance PO2 Peralta arrested Berto and when PO2 Peralta search
Berto a bladed weapon was found in his possession. Berto was charged with theft and illegal possession of deadly
weapon. He countered that the search made by PO2 Peralta on his person is illegal. Is Berto correct?
A. Yes, because PO2 Peralta have no search warrant when he searched Berto.
B. Yes, the deadly weapon cannot be used as evidence against Berto because it was illegally searched.
C. No, because the search made by PO2 Peralta is incidental to a lawful arrest.
D. Yes, because PO2 Peralta abused his authority when he searched Berto without a warrant.
80. The rule that searches and seizures must be.supported by a valid search is not absolute. The exception is:
A. Search incidental to a lawful arrest C. Stop and Frisk
B. Plain view seizure D. all of the above E. None of the above
81. A valid search warrant was issued against Roberto. When the warrant was served on the house of Roberto,
an unlicensed firearm was found in his room which is not included in the search warrant. He was charged for
illegal possession of unlicensed firearm. Will the case against Roberto prosper?
A. Yes, because he was in possession of an unlicensed firearm
B. Yes, because seizure of the unlicensed firearm is incidental to a lawful search.
C. No, because the firearm is not one of those personal properties ordered to be seized by the court,
and thereforeillegally obtained evidence.
D. Yes, although it is not included in the search warrant, the firearm which is unlicensed is illegal and
therefore can be confiscated and seized
82. This doctrine means that an unlawful search taints not only the evidence obtained during the search but also
facts discouraged by reason of said unlawful search
133
A. Principle of double jeopardy C. Proof of beyond reasonable doubt principle

B. Principle of a fruit a Poisonous tree D. Search incidental to a lawful arrest principle
83. It is defined as the vernacular designation of the right of a police officer to stop a citizen on the street,
interrogate him and put him for weapons,
A. Stop & Frisk C. Waiver
B. Plain view seizure D. Consented warrantless search
84. This rule commands that evidence obtained by an unreasonable search and seizure is excluded from
evidence.
A. Exclusionary rule C. Plain view doctrine
B. Fruit of a poisonous tree doctrine D. Stop & Frisk Principle
85. In this principle, the law requires that there be fist a lawful arrest before a search can be made.
A. Plain view doctrine C. Search incidental to lawful arrest
B. Stop & Frisk Doctrine D. Inspection search
86. The purpose of search incidental to A lawful arrest, except:
A. Protect the arresting officer against physical harm from the person being arrested
B. The person being arrested might be concealing weapons to be used against the officer
C. To protect the person arrested from destroying evidence within his reach.
D. To know the identity of the arrested person.
87. The search warrant was issued on February 01, 2012, up to what date will it be valid?
A. Feb 09, 2012 C. Feb 12, 2012
B. February 11,2012 D. February 10,2012
88. The officer after the conduct of search and seizure must do the following except:
A. Give a detailed receipt of the property seized to the lawful occupant.
B. Leave a detailed receipt of the property in the place in which he found the seized property in the
presence of at least two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality.
C. Deliver immediately the property seized to the issuing judge together with the true and duly verified
under oath inventory thereof
D. Deliver immediately the property seized in a bonded warehouse for safekeeping even without the
approval of thecourt.
89. The extent of warrantless search may be made on the person of the suspect and immediate vicinity or
surrounding area of the place of arrest, except:
A. In his room
B. Confined place within the accused’s immediate control
C. In his house situated 150 kmtrs away from the place of arrest
D. Premises of surroundings under his immediate control.
90 Routine inspection are not regarded as violative of an individual’s right against unreasonable search, except:
A. Where the occupants are subjected to a physical or body search
B. Where the officers flashes a light therein without opening the car’s door
C. Where the inspection of the vehicle is limited to a visual search or visual inspection
D. Where the routine check is conducted in a fixed area
QUESTION 91 TO 100
Write A, if both statements are correct; B if the first statement is correct and the second is incorrect; C if the first
statement is incorrect and the second is correct; D if both statements are incorrect:
___91. The frisk and search of a person is a permissible precautionary measure to protect the officer from such
person who might be armed with dangerous weapon. Warrantless search or incoming and outgoing passengers at
the arrival and departure areas of an international airport is universally allowed.
___92. Stop and frisk is limited protective search of outer clothing for weapons. A waiver of an illegal warrantless
also mean a waiver of the inadmissibility of evidence seized during an illegal warrantless arrest.
___93. Warrantless search incidental to s lawful arrest may be made on the person only of the suspect and not in
the immediate vicinity or surrounding area of the place of arrest. Warrantless search incidental to a lawful arrest
may be made on the premises or surroundings under the persons immediate control.
___94. Where the search is made pursuant to a lawful arrest, there is always need to obtain a search warrant.
When the accused was caught inflagrante (in the act) there must be a search warrant to search him and a warrant
of arrest for his arrest
___95. The search warrant is valid for ten days from its date. The warrant must direct that it be served in the day
time unless the affidavit asserts that the property is on the person or in the place ordered to be searched, in which
case a direction may be inserted that it be served at any time of the day or night.
___96. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property. An application for
search warrant may be filed in any court within which whose territorial jurisdiction a crime was committed.
___97. Search refers to persons and places particularly described to be searched. A warrant of arrest is an order
in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by the judge and directed to a place of officer,
commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
___98. A motion to re-open trial maybe filed after judgment but within the period for reconsideration can interrupt
the running of the 15 day period to perfect an appeal.
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99. Decisions of cases in the court of appeals is appealable to the Regional Trial Courts. Cases decided by the
regional trial courts are appealable to the Metropolitan Trial Courts.
___100. For the purpose of determining appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases, the maximum of the penalty and
not the minimum is taken into account. The period within which to perfect an appeal is fifteen (15) days.

135
(CLJ 3)
CRIMINAL
PROCEDURE
ANSWER
1. C 43. D
2. B 44. D
3. C 45. C
4. C 46. C
5. C 47. A
6. B 48. B
7. C 49. A
8. C 50.
9. C 51. D
10. C 52. B
11. B 53. D
12. D 54. B
13. A 55. C
14. C 56. A
15. C 57. B
16. A 58. C
17. A 59. D
18. A 60. E
19. D 61. B
20. A 62. B
21. A 63. D
22. C 64. D
23. A 65. C
24. C 66. B
25. C 67. C
26. A 68. A
27. C 69. C
28. D 70. C
29. C 71. C
30. A 72. D
31. B 73. B
32. C 74. D
33. C 75. D
34. B 76. D
35. B 77. A
36. D 78. B
37. C 79. C
38. B 80. D
39. C 81. C
40. D 82. C
41. B 83. B
42. D 84. A
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85. A 93. C
86. D 94. D
87. B 95. A
88. D 96. A
89. C 97. B
90. A 98. C
91. A 99. D
92. B 100. A
137
(CLJ 4)
CRIMINAL
EVIDENCE
QUESTION
1. A kind of evidence which shows that a best evidence existed as to the proof of the fact is in question
A. Real Evidence
B. Secondary Evidence
C. Best Evidence
D. Res gestae
2. What crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies or when an
offense is a necessary means for committing the other?
A. Complex
B. Composite
C. Continuing
D. compound
3. What must be considered in determining whether the crime committed is only attempted, frustrated or
consummated?
A. All of these
B. The elements constituting the felony
C. The nature of the offense
D. The manner of committing the felony
4. A person who gives testimonial evidence to a judiciary tribunal
A. Witness
B. Defense
C. Prosecution
D. Clerk of Court
5. What crime can be charged of one who retains a minor in his service against the minor’s will and under
the pretext of reimbursing himself of a debt incurred by the child/s parents?
A. white slavery
B. exploitation of child labor
C. inducing a minor
D. kidnapping
6. A, a notary public, issued a supposed copy of a deed of sale, when in fact no such deed oæ sale was
prepared by him. A is liable for
A. Estafa
B. falsification
C. Forgery
D. All of these
7. Refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another
A. Pedigree
B. Inheritance
C. Tradition •Heritage
8. What kind of presumption involves the mental process by which the existence of one fact is inferred from
proof of some other facts?
138
A. Conclusive
B. of law
C. Disputable
D. of fact
9. During the pendency of his criminal case, A died due to heart attack. His untimely death resulted in
A. termination of proceedings
B. suspension of the case
C. postponement of the case
D. dismissal of the case for lack of respondent
10. How may an ordinary citizen give his opinion regarding the handwriting of a person?
A. when he has to testify only as to the mental and emotional state of the one who authored the
handwriting
B. when it is the handwriting of one whom he has sufficient familiarity
C. when he is a questioned document examiner
D. when he is a graduate of criminology
11. Obligations imposed upon a party to establish their alleged fact by proof are termed as "burden of proof" what
is its Latin translation?
A. Factum probans
B. Factum probandum
C. Owe probandi
D. Owes probandi
12. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case?
A. yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished
B. yes, under the law she is a competent witness
C. no,she is incompetent as a witness
D. yes, because crime charge is one committed by the wife
13. Logical necessity which resists upon a party at any particular time during the trail to create a prima facie case
in his own favor or to overthrow one created against him.
A. Res gestae
B. Burden of Evidence
C. Burden of Proof
D. Estoppel
14. A is a supply officer of a municipality. He entered into an agreement with B. to supply the municipality with
some office forms at a price grossly disadvantageous to the municipality. The agreement was that part of the
purchase price must be given to A. The transaction did not materialize. A may be liable for
A. attempted estafa
B. frustrated estafa
C. attempted fraud
D. consummated fraud
15. The probative value or credit given by the court to a particular evidence
A. Preponderance of evidence
B. Evidentiary fact
C. Ultimate Fact
D. Weight of Evidence
16. Which among the following may disqualify a witness
A. Capacity of observation
B. Capacity of recollection
C. Capacity of Knowledge
D. Capacity of communication
17. That kind of evidence which can not be rebutted or overcome
A. Primary
B. Real
C. Best
D. Conclusive
18. Which in the following enumeration is an example of an afflictive penalty?
A. Fine
B. arresto mayor
C. prison mayor
D. destierro
19. A detained prisoner is allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant on several occasions. He is, however,
well-guarded at all times. The warden allowed him to go out of his cell without any consideration whatsoever. The
warden may be charged with
A. negligence of duty
B. leniency or laxity
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C. dereliction of duty
D. infidelity
20. Cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take as fact because they are already known to him
A. Cognizance
B. Judicial Admission
C. Judicial Knowledge
D. Judicial Notice
21. What if the offended party is a corporation, how do you indicate it in the complaint or information?
A. state the name of the corporation
B. leave it blank as error is merely clerical and can be corrected during trial
C. aver it in the charge sheet
D. aver that it is legally organized pursuant to SEC rules
22. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death.
A. Parole Evidence
B. Ante-mortem statement
C. Dean man statute
D. Post mortem statement
23. What crime is committed against mankind, and whose jurisdiction consequently recognizes no territorial
limits?
A. Piracy
B. Felonies
C. Theft
D. Suicide
24. Heads of State or Ambassadors can NOT be held criminally liable in another state or place of assignment
under the principles of international law. This is an EXCEPTION to the general characteristic of Criminal Law
which is
A. Prospectivity
B. Generality
C. Territoriality
D. Immunity
25. Refers generally to acts made criminal by special laws
A. Felony
B. Mala Inse
C. Mala Incest
D. Mala prohibita
26. When several persons are co-accused for a crime committed, what is that requirement that must be satisfied
in order that one or more of those accused can qualify as state witness?
A. he appears to be the least guilty
B. he does not appear to be the most guilty
C. not more than two accused can be state witness
D. he seems to be not guilty
27. Ignorantia Facti Excusat means:
A. Ignorance of the law
B. Mistake of facts
C. Mistake of the blow
D. Mistake in identity
28. Under this Rule, crimes are not triable in the courts of that country, unless their commission affects the peace
and security of the territory or the safety of the state is endangered.
A. French Rule
B. Spanish Rule
C. American Rule
D. English Rule
29. What should the court do when the offense is less serious physical injuries and the offense proved is serious
physical injuries and the defendant may be convicted only of the offense as charged?
A. do not dismiss the action
B. do not dismiss the action but should order the filing of a new information
C. dismiss the action
D. stay with the action and decide accordingly to avoid double jeopardy
30. When the law attaches capital punishment or afflictive penalties the felony is said to be
A. Grave
B. Light
C. Less grave
D. Serious
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31. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility considered relevant to the issue?
A. when it is not excluded by the rules
B. when it has direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issue
C. when it is not repugnant in taste
D. when it is not immoral
32. Infractions to the law punishable by Aresto Menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both.
A. Grave
B. Light
C. Less grave
D. Serious
33. What circumstance can be considered aggravating with the slaying of an 80 year old woman?
A. abuse of confidence
B. disregard of age and sex
C. neglect of elders
D. disrespect of rank
34. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so that such person is deemed not to have
transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability.
A. Justifying circumstances
B. Mitigating Circumstance
C. Exempting circumstances
D. Aggravating circumstances
35. The rule on summary procedure applies to criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by the law for the
offense charged does not exceed
A. 3 years
B. six years
C. 6 months imprisonment
D. 4 years and 2 months
36. In case of oral defamation, where the priest is the only available witness, can a priest testify as to the alleged
defamatory words given to him by the accused during confession?
A. privilege given by a patient to a doctor
B. privilege given to a husband to a wife
C. privilege communication given to an attorney by a client
D. privilege communication given by a penitent to a priest
37. An aggravating circumstance which generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling, night time or recidivism.
A. Generic
B. Specific
C. Qualifying
D. Inherent
38. Who are criminally liable, when having knowledge of the commission of the crime, without having principally
participated therein, takes part subsequent to the commission, either in profiting by the effects of the crime or by
concealing or destroying the body of the crime?
A. Witnesses
B. Accessories
C. Principals
D. Accomplices
39. They are aggravating circumstance which change the nature of the crime, e.i. homicide to murder in case of
treachery
A. Generic
B. Specific
C. Qualifying
D. Inherent
40. Which of the following aggravating circumstances may not be offset by mitigating circumstances?
A. Treachery
B. Night time
C. Ignominy
D. Taking advantage of superior strength
41. What are the infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the
affairs of society?
A. Mala prohibita
B. Felonies
C. Violation of ordinance
D. Mala in se
42. What doctrine allows evidence obtained by police officers in an illegal search and seizure to be used against
the accused?
141
A. Silver platter
B. Exclusionary doctrine
C. Fruit of the poisonous tree
D. Miranda ruling
43. Mr. Santos went to the United States. While he was there, he courted Ms. Jane an American. They eventually
got married. When Mr. Santos returned to thePhilippines his wife, Alona filed an action against him for violating
their marriage. What is the liability of Mr. Santos, if any?
A. None of these
B. Adultery
C. Concubinage
D. Bigamy
44. What is the liability of the jail guard if the evasion of a prisoner should take place through his negligence?
A. delivering prisoners from jails
B. evasion through negligence
C. reckless imprudence
D. conniving with or consenting to evasion
45. A treasury warrant was payable to A or his representative. B took possession of the warrant, wrote the name
of A, endorsed it at the back and was able to encash it. B is liable for
A. Estafa
B. all of these
C. falsification
D. forgery
46. A person who has within a period of 10 years from the date of release or last conviction is said to have been
found guilty of the same offense particularly those of physical injuries, estafa, theft and robbery is considered as a:
A. recidivist
B. habitual Delinquent
C. delinquent
D. quasi-recidvist
47. What is the means sanctioned by the rules of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a
matter of fact?
A. Evidence
B. Procedure
C. Investigation
D. Trial
48. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an offense it is
deemed to have been committed by:
A. Group
B. Band
C. Brigands
D. Team
49. What is that statement made by a wounded person shortly after he received several bolo stabs narrating
therein the whole incident to another which is admissible in evidence as part of
A. res nullus
B. res ipsa loquitur
C. res judicata
D. res gestae
50. A, B, C are boardmates of D. A, B and C conspire to kill X, a witch, because he is perceived to cause misery
among many in the barangay. D knew about it all along. After the conspiracy but made no move to report to the
authorities. In this case, D
A. is liable for murder
B. is an accessory to the crime
C. is a conspirator
D. incurs no criminal liability
51. “Aberratio ictus” in which the perpetrator is criminally liable means
A. mistaken identity
B. mistake in the blow
C. results are less than intended
D. result is greater than intended
52. What acts punishable by law are either intended to directly impute to an innocent person the commission of
crime or which are calculated to blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of intrigue?
A. oral defamation
B. blackmail
C. slander
D. incriminatory machinations
142
53. A, with intent to kill, fired a revolver at B. He inflicted a fatal wound. A brought B to a hospital, and due to
timely medical assistance, B survived. What crime did A commit?
A. physical injuries
B. attempted felony
C. frustrated felony
D. no criminal liability
54. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
A. Treason
B. Adherence to the enemy
C. Espionage
D. Levying war
55. What is the order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and
directed to a peace officer commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before
the court?
A. warrant of arrest
B. Search warrant
C. Subpoena
D. Summons
56. It requires the concurrence of two things, that there being an actual assembly of men and for such purpose of
executing a treasonable design by force
A. Aid or comfort
B. Adherence to the enemy
C. Levying war
D. All of the foregoing
57. Under the new Constitution, who is empowered to order or change the venue or place of trial in order to avoid
miscarriage of justice?
A. executive judge
B. supreme court
C. regional trial courts
D. regional state prosecutor
58. What rule is observed when generally, there can be no evidence of a writing, the contents of which is the
subject matter of inquiry
A. secondary evidence
B. parole evidence
C. corollary evidence
D. best evidence
59. What kind of executive clemency wipes away the guilt of the convicted person, subject to the three limitations
to be executed by the President?
A. Pardon
B. Amnesty
C. Reprieve
D. penalty
60. A person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails to disclose such information to the
governor, fiscal or mayor is guilty of what crime?
A. Treason
B. Conspiracy to commit treason
C. Espionage
D. Misprision of Treason
61. What crime is committed when the offender, acting under a single criminal resolution, commits a series of acts
in the same place at about the same penal provision?
A. Composite
B. Compound
C. Continuing
D. complex
62. In what instance can alibi (the weakest defense) acquire commensurate strength in evidential value?
A. when it changes the burden of proof
B. when evidence for the prosecution is strong
C. where no positive and proper identification has been satisfactorily made
D. when questions on whether or not accused committed the offense is clear
63. It is a forcible depredation on the high seas without lawful authority and done with animo furandi and in the
spirit and intention of universal hostility
A. Mutiny
B. Piracy
C. Espionage
143
D. Sedition
64. What is that rule where an offended party may intervene in the proceeding personally or through a counsel?
A. Miranda Rule
B. rule of facilitation
C. rule of intervention
D. rule of reservation
65. Refers to resistance to a superior officer, or the raising of commotions and disturbance on board a ship
against authority of the commander
A. Mutiny
B. Piracy
C. Espionage
D. Sedition
66. What kind of motion may be availed of anytime before arraignment?
A. motion to dismiss
B. motion for review
C. motion for reconsideration
D. motion to quash
67. Which among the following instances is an example of a qualifying circumstance to a crime of murder?
A. Recidivism
B. Insanity
C. Treachery
D. Intoxication
68. What would be the nature of action for a person over nine years of age and under fifteen to incur criminal
liability?
A. act with discernment
B. act carelessly or negligently
C. show criminal intent
D. show malice
69. Who is a person in authority among the following:
A. Policeman
B. MMDA enforcer
C. barangay captain
D. barangay tanod
70. What kind of aggravating circumstance is present when a person commits any of the crimes against person,
employing such means, methods or forms in the execution thereof which tend specially to ensure its execution
without risk to himself arising from the defense which the offended partly might make?
A. capital punishment
B. complex crime
C. continuous offense
D. civil interdiction
71. A is known for writing obscene material. One of his writings, entitled “Hayop”, was stolen from his office and
was published by someone. The authorities got hold of the obscene magazine. A is
A. not liable at all
B. liable for obscene publication (as co-publisher)
C. liable for pornography
D. liable for the obscene publications (as author)
72. What should be done in cases of offenses against property where the name of the offended party is
unknown?
A. court must cause the true name to be inserted
B. what is pivotal is the name and description of the offender
C. the police must label the property in a way that will distinguish it from others
D. describe the property subject matter with such particularity as to properly identify, the particular
offense charged
73. How should the plea to a complaint or information be made by the accused?
A. personally, in open court and of the record
B. by the approval of the court and upon written request by the accused
C. through counsel in open court and on the record
D. personally by written motion
Situation 1 – A and B are neighbors. During a drinking spree, A punched B without any provocation. B’s
injury required medical attendance for a period of seven (7) days. Immediately thereafter SP01 T. Anga whose
help was sought by B, took the statement of B and did not know what to do.
74. What crime was committed by A?

144
A. slight physical injury

B. serious physical injuries
C. ill treatment
D. less serious physical injury
75. Considering the nature of the offense committed by A, SP01 T. Anga should:
A. file the case directly with the court
B. instruct B to file the matter first before the barangay C
C. file the case before the prosecutor’s office
D. file the case himself before the barangay court
76. Assuming that the result of the action of A was death, instead of mere physical injuries against B, SP01 T.
Anga should, in his investigation and report concentrate and stress on:
A. whether or not A was drunk at the time
B. the Barangay Court has no jurisdiction over the case
C. whether or not B was also drunk
77. Assuming that A was drunk at the time that he committed the offense, his drunkenness would be considered
as:
A. mitigating circumstance
B. aggravating circumstance
C. exempting circumstance
D. alternative circumstance
Situation 2 – A and B who are brother-in-laws, are also mortal enemies. One time, A threatened to kill B. A
has a common reputation of being a killer. One night in a lighted place, A suddenly stabbed B from behind. Before
A could escape, B was able to identify him. As B lay wounded, SP01 Mahabagin responded and to whom B
pointed to A as the one who attacked him. SP01 arrested B on the basis of such declaration.
78. Based on situation # 2, which of the following best describes the statement of A?
A. Circumstantial
B. Corroborative
C. Hearsay
D. Direct
79. What crime was committed by A that night time of the stabbing?
A. Parricide
B. Grave threats
C. Homicide
D. Murder
80. Assuming that B was dying at the time that he informed SP01 Mahabagin of the identity of his notorious
assailant and believing that he was dying at the time, but he did not actually die, what basis could be used to
establish the identify of A?
A. Common reputation
B. res gestae
a. dying declaration
b. declaration against interest
81. In the foregoing case, B’s statement identifying A as his assailant may not be considered a dying declaration
because:
A. B’s death is indispensable
B. The declaration was not written
C. No mention was made that B’s wound was fatal
D. B has a grudge against A
Situation 3 – During custodial investigation at the Central Police District in Quezon City, “A” was informed
of his constitutional right, to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. He decided to waive
his right to counsel and proceed to make a statement admitting commission of a robbery.
82. A’s statement is inadmissible in evidence against him because

A. The right to remain silent and to counsel cannot be waived
B. it was not made in the presence of the counsel
C. The waiver was not made in writing and in the presence of the counsel
D. It was not made in writing
83. Assuming that all conditions in the waiver were properly observed except the right to counsel which was
waived because A could not afford the service of one, A’s statement will be
A. Admissible because A was informed of his right to counsel but he could not afford to hire one
B. Inadmissible because A must be provided with counsel free of charge
145
C. admissible because A did not insist on his right to counsel and he voluntarily waived it
D. admissible in evidence against him because all the conditions were present in the waiver
84. Assuming that the public persecutor on the basis of the now written confession of A, who waived his right of
counsel because he could not afford one, filed the information against him and the judge after trial, convicted A on
the basis of his written confession. A would like to appeal his case to a higher court. The appeal should be filed -
A. with 30 days from the time A’s counsel de oficio who was absent of the time of the promulgation
received a written copy of the judgment of conviction.
B. within 30 days from the date the case was submitted for resolution
C. within 15 days from the promulgation of judgment
D. within 15 days from the date of pre-trial conference
85. Assuming that A’s appeal was filed 30 days after his counsel de oficio learned of the judgment, the appeal
should
A. Not be given due course, because the judgment which were rendered after trial was obviously correct
anyway
B. be given due course because it was filed within the reglamentary period
C. not be given due course because the confession was really inadmissible against A and the judgment
of conviction must be reversed
D. None of these
86. The Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1980 (BP Blg 129) took effect on
A. January 17, 1983
B. August 1, 1983
C. January 1, 1983
D. December 1, 1980
87. Criminal jurisdiction over the subject matter shall be determined by the
A. law enforced at the time of the commission of the offense
B. law enforced at the time of trial
C. law enforced at the time of the institution/filing of the offense
D. law enforced at the time of the discovery of the offense
88. Criminal procedure is a
A. substantive law
B. constitutional law
C. administrative law
D. procedural or remedial law
89. The stage of a judicial proceeding whereby the accused shall be informed of the nature and cause of the
accusation against him, in compliance of the mandate of the consultation and the rules and in order to fix the
identity of the accused is
A. criminal investigation
B. pre-trial conference
C. preliminary investigation
D. arraignment and plea
90. Defined as the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense
A. None of these
B. Custody
C. Detention or imprisonment
D. Investigation
91. Under the law, the warrant of arrest shall remain valid unless
A. after the lapse of ten days from its issuance
B. it is served or lifted
C. after the lapse of the period for the police to execute the same
D. after the lapse of the period for the police to make his report
92. The procedure which allows the affidavit or counter-affidavit of the parties or their witnesses to constitute as
their direct oral testimony in the case, subject however to cross examination
A. Revised Rule on Summary Procedure
B. Revised Rules on Criminal Procedure
C. Revised Rules on Evidence
D. Revised Penal Code
93. The right of an accused to bail is a matter of right in those cases -
A. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC before or after conviction, except capital offenses
B. falling within the jurisdiction of the MTC before or after conviction
C. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC where the penalty for the offense does not exceed twenty
years imprisonment
D. all of these
146
94. Preliminary investigation is required in those criminal cases where the penalty provided by law for the offense
charged is
A. over 6 years imprisonment regardless of the amount of fine
B. exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine
C. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day of imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine
D. not exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine
95. Violation of City or municipal ordinance are within the
A. concurrent jurisdiction of the RTC and MTC
B. exclusive original jurisdiction of the RTC
C. exclusive jurisdiction of the Family Court
D. exclusive original jurisdiction of the MTC
96. The process of adjudication of disputes in barangay level whereby the Punong Barangay or the Pangkat
members shall endeavor to convince or encourage the parties to settle their dispute amicably.
A. Arbitration
B. Confrontation
C. Compromise
D. Mediation/conciliation
97. The power or authority of a court to try, hear and decide a class of criminal case brought before it
A. criminal jurisprudence
B. criminal jurisdiction
C. criminal procedure
D. criminal due process of law
98. If no criminal action has yet been instituted, a motion to quash a search warrant and/or suppress evidence
obtained thereby by the police shall be filed in and resolve by the
A. court which has jurisdiction over the place where the offense was committed
B. court that issued the search warrant
C. court where the suspects reside
D. court within the judicial region of the place where the crime was committed
99. The personnel of a court who shall take charge of the business of the court, supervises all the other staff of
the court or the alter ego of the judge in all official businesses of the court in his absence.
A. court interpreter
B. clerk of court
C. legal researcher
D. personal secretary of judge
100. The law providing the rights of person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation is
A. RA No 7691
B. RA No 8493
C. RA No 7438
D. RA No 7659
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148
(CLJ 4)
CRIMINAL
EVIDENCE
ANSWER
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. B
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. C
36. D
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. A
149
43. D
44. B
45. B
46. B
47. A
48. B
49. D
50. C
51. A
52. D
53. C
54. A
55. B
56. C
57. B
58. A
59. A
60. D
61. C
62. B
63. B
64. A
65. A
66. C
67. C
68. A
69. A
70. A
71. A
72. D
73. B
74. B
75. C
76. C
77. D
78. C
79. A
80. B
81.
82. A
83. A
84. A
85. A
86. D
87. A
88. D
89. D
90. A
91. A
92. A
93. A
94. C
95. D
96. D
97. B
98. B
99. B
150
(CRMLISTICS 1)
PERSONAL
IDENTIFICATION
QUESTION
1. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward
flow of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the
thumb of radius bone of the hand of origin.
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop
2. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
A. Ridge
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
3. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of
the divergence of the type lines.
A. Divergence
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
4.The following are considerations used for the identification
of a loop except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
C. a sufficient recurve
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
5.The process of recording fingerprint through the use of
fingerprint ink.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
6. It is an impression left by the friction ridges of a human finger.
A. Dermatoglyphics
B. Latent Print
C. Friction Ridge
D. fingerprint
7. The fingerprint method of identification.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
151
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
8.Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and
surround the pattern area.
A. Ridges
B. Delta
C. Type line
D. Bifurcation
9.A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas
and ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
10.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are
not clearly visible.
A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
11.The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on
various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints
12.Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
A. Arch
B. Accidental
C. Loop
D. Whorl
13.The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity
between two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
14.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of
spirals around core axes.
A. whorl
B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
15.A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side
of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side
where the ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
16. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint is called:
A. Dactylography
B. All of the these
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Palmistry
17. Some scientific methods of identification are the following, except:
A. Fingerprinting
B. Handwriting
152
C. Dental identification
D. Identification by close friends and relatives
18. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater the
probability for the conclusion to be correct is found in the
A. Law of Municipality of Evidence in Identification
B. All of the these
C. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
D. Law of Super Imposition
19. Among the following, which has the greatest value in scientific examination/identification?
A. Dental examination
B. Fingerprinting
C. Photography
D. Pictures Parle
20. Determination of individuality of a person or thing:
A. Description
B. Perception
C. Identification
D. All of these
21. Types of fingerprint patterns, except:
A. Arches
B. Ordinary
C. Loop
D. Whorl
22. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the American occupation in the Philippines, a modern
and complete fingerprint file has been established for the Philippine commonwealth. In 1937, the first Filipino
fingerprint technician employed by the Phil. Constabulary was
A. Mr. Generoso Reyes
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C. Mr. Calixto Solis
D. None of these
23. It is an impression left by the friction ridges of a human finger.
A. Dermatoglyphics
B. Latent Print
C. Friction Ridge
D. fingerprint
24. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine jurisprudence on the science of fingerprinting was the case
of
A. People vs Medina
B. People vs Pineda
C. People vs Amador
D. People vs. Rosas
25. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free of any appendage, and a butting at right angle.
A. Complete curve
B. Sufficient Recurve
C. Straight arrow
D. Core
26. The term use to refer to a single recurving ridge enclosing one or more rods or bars of a fingerprint.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
27. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a fingerprint which maybe compared with the low area
in a tire
tread.
A. None of these
153
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
28. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It was valued for purposes of identification since time immemorial as found
on a Chinese clay seal made not later than the 3rd Century B.C.
A. Hua Chi
B. Mah Whang
C. Wong Cho
D. Tiang Hin
29. Who has given the fame title as “Father of Dactyloscopy”?
A. Johannes Purkinje
B. Leonard Keeler
C. Charles Darwin
D. Sir Francis Galton
30. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he used fingerprints to prevent fraudulent collection of army pay account
and for identification of other documents. He was known as the Father of Chiroscopy.
A. William Herschel
B. Francis Galton
C. Gilbert Thompson
D. Alphonse Bertillon
31. A noted British anthropologist who began observation which led to the publication in 1882 of his book
“Fingerprints.” That established the individuality of classifying fingerprint patterns.
A. Francis Galton
B. Gilbert Thompson
C. Wayne Kate
32. The notorious gangster and a police character, who attempted to erase his fingerprints by burning them with
acid but as time went by the ridges were again restored to their “natural” feature.
A. John Fielding
B. Johanes Curie
C. John Dellinger
D. Billy the Kid
33. What is the science of palm print identification?
A. Chiroscopy
B. Poroscopy
C. Podoscopy
D. Astrology
34. A single ridge which splits into two ridges forming a “Y” shape formation or structure is commonly known as
A. Diverging ridges
B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Loop
D. Delta
35. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification. It is a fingerprint pattern which there are two deltas and
in which at least one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl
B. Central pocket loop whorl
C. Accidental loop
D. Ulnar loop
36. Father of Criminalistics.
A. Dr. Hans Gross
B. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
C. Dr. John Reid
D. Dr. John Larson
37. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary
line drawn between the core and the delta.
A. Ridge counting
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
D. All of these
154
38. It refers to a point on the ridge formation location at the center as heart of the pattern.
A. Delta B. CoreC. Radial loop D. Ulnar loop
39. What is the symbol of center pocket loop whorl?
A. cB. DC. XD. w
40. Can latent footprints be seen by naked eye?
A. NoB. Yes, at all timesC. Yes but not at all timesD. Once in a while
41. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint is called:
A. Dactylography
B. All of the these
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Palmistry
42. Some scientific methods of identification are the following, except:
A. Fingerprinting
B. Handwriting
C. Dental identification
D. Identification by close friends and relatives
43. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater the
probability for the conclusion t be correct is found in the
A. Law of Municipality of Evidence in Identification
B. All of the these
C. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
D. Law of Super Imposition
44. Among the following, which has the greatest value in scientific examination/identification?
A. Dental examination
B. Fingerprinting
C. Photography
D. Pictures Parle
45. Determination of individuality of a person or thing:
A. Description
B. Perception
C. Identification
D. All of these
46. Types of fingerprint patterns, except:
A. Arches
B. Ordinary
C. Loop
D. Whorl
47. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the American occupation in the Philippines, a modern and complete
fingerprint file has been established for the Philippine commonwealth. In 1937, the first Filipino fingerprint
technician employed by the Phil. Constabulary was
A. Mr. Generoso Reyes
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C. Mr. Calixto Solis
D. None of these
48. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine jurisprudence on the science of fingerprinting was the case of
A. People vs Medina
B. People vs Pineda
C. People vs Amador
D. People vs. Rosas
49. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free of any appendage, and a butting at right angle.
A. Complete curve
B. Sufficient Recurve
C. Straight arrow
D. Core
50. The term use to refer to a single recurving ridge enclosing one or more rods or bars of a fingerprint.
A. None of these
155
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
51. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a fingerprint which maybe compared with the low area in a
tire tread.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
52. Who has given the fame title as “Father of Dactyloscopy”?
A. Johannes Purkinje
B. Leonard Keeler
C. Charles Darwin
D. Sir Francis Galton
53. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he used fingerprints to prevent fraudulent collection of army pay account and for
identification of other documents. He was known as the Father of Chiroscopy.
A. William Herschel
B. Francis Galton
C. Gilbert Thompson
D. Alphose Bertillon
54. A noted British anthropologist who began observation which led to the publication in 1882 of his book “Fingerprints.”
That established the individuality of classifying fingerprint patterns.
A. Francis Galton
B. Gilbert Thompson
C. Wayne Kate
55. The notorious gangster and a police character, who attempted to erase his fingerprints by burning them with acid
but as time went by the ridges were again restored to their “natural” feature.
A. John Feilding
B. Johanes Curie
C. John Dellinger
D. Billy the Kid
56. What is the science of palm print identification?
A. Chiroscopy
B. Poroscopy
C. Podoscopy
D. Astrology
57. A single ridge which splits into two ridges forming a “Y” shape formation or structure is commonly known as
A. Diverging ridges
B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Loop
D. Delta
58. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification. It is a fingerprint pattern which there are two deltas and in
which at least one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl
B. Central pocket loop whorl
C. Accidental loop
D. Ulnar loop
59. Father of Criminalistics.
A. Dr. Hans Gross
B. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
C. Dr. John Reid
D. Dr. John Larson
60. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line
drawn between the core and the delta.
A. Ridge counting
156
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
D. All of these
61. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the
thumb of radius bone of the hand of origin.
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop
62. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
A. Ridge
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
63. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of the divergence of the type lines.
A. Divergence
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
64. The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
C. a sufficient recurve
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
65. The process of recording fingerprint through the use of fingerprint ink.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
66. The fingerprint method of identification.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
67. Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround the pattern area.
A. Ridges
B. Delta
C. Type line
D. Bifurcation
68. A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
69. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are not clearly visible.
A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
70. The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints
157
71. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
A. Arch
B. Accidental
C. Loop
D. Whorl
72. The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
73. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes.
A. whorl
B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
74. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on
the same side where the ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
75. The abrupt end of a ridge.
A. Ridge ending
B. Independent ridge
C. Ridge bifurcation
D. Island A
76. A single ridge that divide into two ridges.
A. Ridge ending
B. Bridge
C. Spur
D. Ridge bifurcation
77. A Ridge that commences, travels a short distance and then ends.
A. Ridge ending
B. Spur
C. Short ridge
D. Delta
78. A single small ridge inside a short ridge or ridge ending that is
nor connected to all other ridges.
A. Delta
B. Spur
C. Short ridge
D. Island
79. A single ridge that bifurcates and reunites shortly afterwards
to continue as a single ridge.
A. Cross-over
B. Ridge enclosure
C. Independent ridge
D. Island
80. A bifurcation with short ridge branching off a longer ridge.
A. Core
B. Independent ridge
C. Spur
D. Delta
81. A short ridge that runs between two parallel ridges.
A. Bridge
B. Short ridge
158
C. Ridge enclosure
D. Ridge bifurcation
82. A Y shaped ridge meeting.
A. Delta
B. Cross-over
C. Core
D. Spur
83. A U turn in the ridge pattern.
A. Delta
B. Cross-over
C. Core
D. Spur
84. Major features of a fingerprint.
A. Minutiae
B. Bridge
C. Divergence ridge
D. Cross-over
85. Fingerprint pattern.
A. Fingerprint
B. Fingerprint Identification
C. Fingerprint Sensor
D. Electronic Recording
86. It refers to the identification of humans by their characteristics
or traits.
A. Fingerprint
B. Fingerprint Identification
C. Fingerprint Sensor
D. Biometrics
87. A U-turn in the ridge pattern.
A. Island
B. Delta
C. Bridge
D. Core
88. A Y-shape ridge meeting.
A. Delta
B. Island
C. Cross-over
D. Core
89. A short ridge that runs between two parallel ridges.
A. Ridge Enclosure
B. Bridge
C. Ridge Ending
D. Cross-over
90. A bifurcation with a short ridge branching off a longer ridge.
A. Spur
B. Ridge Bifurcation
C. Ridge Enclosure
D. Island
91. A single ridge that bifurcates and reunites shortly afterwards to continue as a single ridge.
A. Spur
B. Ridge Bifurcation
C. Ridge Enclosure
D. Island
92. A single small ridge inside a short ridge or ridge ending that is not connected to all other ridges.
A. Ridge Ending
B. Island
C. Cross-over
D. Spur
93. A ridge that commences, travels a short distance and then ends.
159
A. Short Ridge
B. Ridge Ending
C. Spur
D. Cross-Over
94. Short Ridge is also known as
A. Spur
B. Bridge
C. Island
D. Independent Ridge
95. A bridge is also called
A. Spur
B. Island
C. Independent Ridge
D. Cross-Over
96. A single ridge that divides into two ridges.
A. Cross-Over
B. Delta
C. Ridge Bifurcation
D. Island
97. The abrupt end of a ridge.
A. Ridge Ending
B. Short Ridge
C. Island
D. Core
98. Major Features of a fingerprint, using which comparisons of one print with another can be made.
A. Minutiae
B. Friction Ridge
C. Latent Print
D. Fingerprint Identification
99. A Short Ridge is also known as
A. Spur
B. Core
C. Island
D. Dots
100. Ridges which are significantly shorter than the average ridge length on the fingerprint.
A. Delta
B. Dot
C. Spur
D. Bridge
~END OF CRIMLISTICS1 QUESTIONS~

160
(CRMLISTICS 1)
PERSONAL
IDENTIFICATION
ANSWER
1. D 42. D
2. D 43. A
3. C 44. B
4. B 45. C
5. B 46. B
6. D 47. A
7. C 48. A
8. C 49. B
9. C 50. B
10. D 51. C
11. D 52. A
12. B 53. A
13. D 54. A
14. A 55. C
15. C 56. B
16. C 57. B
17. D 58. A
18. A 59. A
19. B 60. A
20. C 61. D
21. B 62. D
22. A 63. C
23. D 64. B
24. A 65. B
25. B 66. C
26. B 67. C
27. C 68. C
28. A 69. D
29. A 70. D
30. A 71. B
31. A 72. D
32. C 73. A
33. B 74. C
34. B 75. A
35. A 76. D
36. A 77. C
37. A 78. D
38. B 79. B
39. D 80. C
40. A 81. A
41. C 82. A
161
83. C 92. B
84. A 93. A
85. C 94. D
86. D 95. D
87. D 96. C
88. A 97. A
89. B 98. A
90. A 99. D
91. C 100. B
162
(CRMLISTICS 2)
POLICE
PHOTOGRAPHY
QUESTION
1. Once the light hits a mirror and it bounce back. This called
A. Reflected
B. Refracted
C. Diffracted
D. Absorbed
2. Which of the following film is considered to be the fastest in terms of their exposure?
A. ASA 100
B. ASA 200
C. ASA50
D. ASA 400
3. What part of the camera that controls the depth of field?
A. Shutter
B. View Finder
C. Focusing Scale
D. Diaphragm
4. Is that surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the light sensitive materials and which
appears glossy in a developed material?
A. Base
B. Emulsion
C. Anti halation backing
D. Silver halide
5. What is that range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object that is sharp when the lens is set
or focused at a particular distance?
A. Focal length
B. Depth of field
C. Focal distance
D. Hyper-focal distance
6. Film shave a variety of ranges of sensitivity. Which of the following film is sensitive from ultraviolet color to all
colors of white light?
A. Orthochromatic film
B. Panchromatic film
C. Blue sensitive film
D. X-ray film
7. What type of lens is thicker at the center and thinner at the side, which has the ability to enlarge the size of the
object being photograph?
A. Converging lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex lens
D. A and C only
8. The application of the principles of photography in relation to the police work and in the administration of
justice refers to
A. Police photography
163
B. Police investigation
C. Forensic
D. Photography
9. The mechanical and chemical result of Photography is called
A. Police photography
B. Police investigation
C. Photograph
D. Photography
10. Which of the following lens defects will produce a sharp center object but with a blurred sides?
A. Lateral aberration
B. Chromatic aberration
C. Spherical aberration
D. Distortion
11. The part of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the area coverage of a given lens
is called
A. Scale bed
B. Focal length
C. View finder
D. Depth of field
12. The characteristics of a lens which controls the degree of sharpness of a given object refers to
A. Scale bed
B. Ground glass
C. Split image focus
D. Focusing
13. The Outmost use of photography in criminal investigation is
A. Identification purposes
B. Record purposes
C. Investigation purposes
D. Sketching purposes
14. What type of a camera is best suited for police photography due to its flexibility for adoption to any type of
photographing due to its replaceable lens?
A. View finder type
B. Twin lens reflex
C. Single lens reflex
D. View or press
15. The distance between the optical centers of the lens to the film plane once the camera is focus in an infinite
position is refers to
A. Focal distance
B. Focal length
C. Hyper focal distance
D. Depth of field
16. What part of the sensitized material is responsible for absorbing excess light does preventing light reflects?
A. Base
B. Anti halation backing
C. Emulsion
D. Gelatin coating
17. The taking of a magnified photograph of small object through attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound
microscope so as to show minute details of the physical evidence refers to
A. Photomicrography
B. Photomacrography
C. Microphotography
D. Macrophotography
18. The average speed of the light is:
A. 187,000miles/sec
B. 185,000miles/sec
C. 186,000miles/sec
D. 188,00miles/sec.
19. How many essential parts do a camera?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Three
20. Which of the following makes up the emulsion layer of the colored film?
A. Blue- green-red
164
B. Blue-yellow-red
C. Green-blue-red
D. Yellow-blue-red
21. A camera and a human eye have a lot in common. What is that part of the human eye, which is almost,
corresponds to the shutter of a camera?
A. Pupil
B. Eyelid
C. Retina
D. Eyelashes
22. What unit of film sensitivity is expressed in both arithmetic and logarithmic form?
A. ASA
B. DIN
C. ISO
D. ASO
23. Which of the following film speed indicator is expressed in arithmetic form?
A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GRO
24. If the normal exposure of the given film at bright sunlight using ASA 100 is1/125, f-11, what will be the normal
exposure of the same film under hazy sunlight?
A. 1/125,f-5.6
B. 1/250,f-5.6
C. 1/250,f-8
D. 1/125, f-8
25. Lens has been classified according to their focal length, which of the following lens has a variable focal length?
A. Short focus lens
B. Medium focus lens
C. Telephotolens
D. Zoom lens
26. The type of lens defects in which light of various wavelength are focus in irregular proportion, thus producing
color blurredness. This refers to
A. chromatic aberration
B. Lateral aberration
C. Astigmatism
D. Flare
27. Which of the following lens opening will admit more light to pass through in its medium?
A. f-8
B. f-5.6
C. f- 11
D. f-4
28. Which of the following prefix or suffix would indicate that a film is a black and white?
A. Ortho
B. Chrome
C. Pan
D. A and C only
29. A focusing method, which is done by actual measurement or estimation of the lens of camera to subject
distance refers to
A. Scale Bed
B. Co- Incident Image
C. Split Image
D. Ground Glass
30. These are lights in which their wavelengths are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human
eye. This refers to
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
C. Invisible light
D. Artificial light
31. A photographic filter is used to _____ light or color during the picture taking.
A. Add
B. Divide
C. Subtract
D. Multiply
165
32. The type of radiation having a wavelength of 400 to 700 milli-microns designed for ordinary photographing
purposes is called
A. Sunlight
B. Visible light
C. Invisible light
D. Artificial light
33. Which of the following lens defects does not affect the degree of sharpness of the object rather affects the
shape of the object due to the bending of the light passing the side of the lens?
A. Flare
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
D. Curvature of field
34. What is the basic exposure of a film ASA 200 at bright sunlight 1/125?
A. F5.6
B. F11
C. F 8
D. F16
35. The distance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane refers to
A. Focal Distance
B. Depth of Field
C. Focal Length
D. Hyper focal Distance
36. What type of lens is that whose center is thinner and the sides are thicker?
A. Concave
B. Diverging
C. Micro lens
D. Positive lens
37. What lens has the focal length that is not more than twice the diagonal half of the negative?
A. Telephoto
B. Wide angle lens
C. Zoom
D. Normal
38. In taking photograph it is important to know the various views necessary for recording. What is that part of the
camera that provides means of determining better perspective?
A. Focusing
B. Light meter
C. View finder
D. Lens
39. The type of lens designed for surveillance work where the photographer must be far from the object being
photograph to avoid being detected is called
A. Wide angle lens
B. Telephoto lens
C. Normal lens
D. Shot focus lens
40. Camera has variety of classifications depending upon its application. What is the type of camera, which has
the ability to produce an instant photograph upon exposure?
A. Fixed focus camera
B. Variable focus camera
C. Polaroid camera
D. Miniature camera
41. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing the sensitized
material?
A. Range finder
B. Exposure
C. Shutter
D. View finder
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42. Which indicates the speed of the lens or the amount of light passing through the lens in proportion to its focal
length?
A. Flash meters
B. F numbers
C. Exposure
D. Electronics Flash
43. What kind of diaphragm opening must one used to get the wider depth of field?
A. Smaller
B. Wider
C. Longer
D. Shorter
44. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp or clear image refers to
A. Focusing
B. Exposure
C. Viewing
D. Parallax error
45. How would the photographer adjust or set shutter speed of his camera if his objective is to freeze the action of
moving objects?
A. Medium
B. Fast
C. Slow
D. Normal
46. That part of the camera that works like pupil of the eye, it may be enlarged or contracted. This refers to
A. Diaphragm opening
B. Lens aperture
C. Lens opening
D. All of these
47. The controlling factor of the sharpness of the image in photography is called
A. Focal distance
B. Focusing
C. Focal length
D. Hyper focal distance
48. To get the maximum depth of field of the lens, we look for the:
A. Hyper focal distance
B. Focal length
C. Scale bed
D. Focal distance
49. The most difficult lens defect line is known as the:
A. Coma
C. Distortion
D. Astigmatism
50. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography to:
A. Record the image
B. Exclude all unwanted lights
C. Makes the image visible
D. Makes the image permanent
51. Which of the following is not a factor in the computation for exposure?
A. ASA ratio of the film
B. Type of camera
C. Lighting condition
D. Type of subject
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52. What part of the camera is responsible for determining the intensity of light coming from the object being
photograph?
A. Guide number
B. Light meter
C. Wattage
D. Luminescence
53. What camera accessory is designed to effectively augment the adverse lighting condition of the object being
photograph?
A. Light meter
B. Flash units
C. Extension tube
D. Cable release
54. A type of lens defect whereby light passing the sides of the lens is either bended inward or outward thus
producing deformed image refers to
A. Spherical aberration
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
D. Lateral aberration
55. The type of lens defects in which lens is unable to focus both horizontal and vertical axis on the same place,
thus producing either the sharp horizontal with blurred vertical lines or vice versa is called
A. Coma
C. Astigmatism
D. Curvature of field
56. Why must the taking of photograph from unusual camera position be avoided?
A. It distorts focus
B. It distorts magnification
C. It distorts perspective
D. It distorts the texture
57. Kodalith film is also known as
A. Orthochromatic
B. Panchromatic
C. Infrared
D. Pan-X Plus
58. A film that is sensitive to ultraviolet light up to green colors only is called
A. Panchromatic
B. Infrared film
C. Orthochromatic
D. Blue sensitive film
59. The best source of light for outdoor photography refers to
A. Invisible
B. Sunlight
C. Visible light
D. Artificial light
60. That part of the film that is capable of retaining the latent image is called
A. Coating of animal gelatin
B. Base
C. Emulsion
D. Anti-halation backing
61. Hazy sunlight will cast object in open space:
A. Transparent shadow
B. Double shadow
C. No shadow
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D. Deep and prominent shadow

62. Film and photographic paper is considered as
A. Transparent material
B. Sensitized material
C. Translucent material
D. Opaque material
63. Bright sunlight is:
A. When object in open space casts transparent shadow
B. When object in open space casts no shadow
C. When object in open space casts a deep and prominent shadow
D. All of the above
64. There are two kinds of colored film; the negative type and the reversal, which of the following prefix will
indicate that a colored fill is negative type?
A. Ortho
B. Pan
C. Chrome
D. Color
65. The light sensitivity of the film is known as;
A. Emulsion content
B. Spectral sensitivity
C. Emulsion speed
D. Reversal negative
66. What is the use of thin coat of animal gelatin on a film?
A. To prevent halation
B. To retain the latent image
C. It supports the emulsion
D. To protect the emulsion from abrasion
67. All, except one, are essentials of photography.
A. Light
B. Developing
C. Sensitized material
D. F numbers
68. That part of film that supports the emulsion refers to
A. Base
B. Anti-halation backing
C. Emulsion
D. thin coat of animal gelatin
69. Which of the following film has the longest spectral sensitivity?
A. Blue sensitive film
B. Panchromatic film
C. Orthochromatic
D. Infrared film
70. That sensitized material that produces positive print is called
A. Translucent material
B. Photographic paper
C. Film
D. Silver chloride
71. Which of the following is considered as the two main layers of the film?
A. Base and coat of gelatin
B. Base and emulsion
C. Anti halation and base
D. Emulsion and anti-halation backing
169
72. The surface of the sensitized material which actually contains the light sensitive materials and which appears
glossy in a developed material is called
A. Base
B. Anti-halation backing
C. Emulsion
D. Coat of animal gelatin
73. The photographic rays with the longest wavelength ranging from 700 to 1000 millimicrons refers to
A. X-ray
B. Infrared rays
C. Ultraviolet ray
D. Visible light
74. The combination of blue and green produces what color?
A. Cyan
B. Magenta
C. Yellow
D. Orange
75. The combination of green and red produces what color?
A. Cyan
B. Magenta
C. Yellow
D. Orange
76. The combination of red and blue produces what color?
A. Cyan
B. Magenta
C. Yellow
D. Orange
77. All, Except One, are secondary colors of light?
A. Cyan
B. Magenta
C. Yellow
D. Red
78. All, Except One, are primary colors of light?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Green
79. A lens that produce a virtual image refers to
A. Convergent
B. Concave
C. Positive
D. Convex
80. A lens with focal length of less than the diagonal length of its negative material is called
A. Wide Angle
B. Telephoto
C. Normal
D. Zoom
81. The person coined the word photography was
A. Sir John F. W. Herschel
B. Sir Alphonse Bertillon
C. Sir Henry Fox Talbot
D. Sir Mande Daguerre
82. The art and science of reproducing image by means of light through some sensitized material with the aid of a
camera, Lens and its accessories and the chemical process refers to
170
A. Photograph
B. Photography
C. Police Photography
D. Forensic Photography
83. The application of the principles of photography in relation to the police work is called
A. Police Photography
B. Forensic Photography
C. Photography
D. Crime Scene Photography
84. A generic term refers to all kinds of formed image is called
A. Picture
B. Image
C. Photograph
D. Photo
85. The first application of photography is police work is refers to
A. Personal Identification
B. Record Purposes
C. Police Training
D. Crime Prevention
86. The first police who utilized photography in police work as a supplementary identification in his Anthropometry
system was
A. Alphonse Bertillion
B. Henry Fox Talbot
C. William Herschel
D. Mande Gaguerre
87. One of the most universal methods of communication considering that no other language can be known
universally than ____________.
A. Photograph
B. Letter
C. Verbal
D. Radio
88. The utmost used of photography in police work is for
A. Crime Prevention
B. Record Purposes
C. Police Training
D. Personal Identification B
89. The view in taking photograph shows direction and location of the crime scene is called
A. Extreme Close-up view
B. Close-up view
C. Medium view
D. General View
90. The taking of the photograph of the scene of the crime by dividing it into section. This view will best view the
nature of the crime. This refers to
A. General View
B. Medium View
C. Close-up view
D. Extreme close-up view
91. The taking of individual photograph of the evidence at the scene of the crime. It is design to show the details
of the crime. This refers to
A. General view
B. Medium view
C. Close-up View
D. Extreme Close-up View
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92. Once the light hits a mirror and it bounce back. This called
A. Refracted
B. Diffracted
C. Reflected
D. Transmitted
93. When the light hits a transparent glass whichwould allow the light to pass through its medium. This refers to
A. Transmitted
B. Refracted
C. Reflected
D. Diffracted
94. When the light hits a dark colored object and prevents it from either bouncing or passing through. This refers
to
A. Absorbed
B. Reflected
C. Transmitted
D. Refracted
95. The type of light that produces different sensation when reach the human eye. It is the type of light, which is
capable of exciting the retina of the human eye. This refers to
A. Invisible Light
B. Visible light
C. Infra-red light
D. White light
96. Lights in which their wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human eye i.e. X-ray,
Ultra-violet and Infra-red lights. This refers to
A. Invisible light
B. Visible light
C. Infra-red light
D. White light
97. ASAis also known as
A. AssociationStandards American
B. American Standards Association
C. America StandardsAssociation
D. AmericanStandard Associations
98. ISOis also known as
A. InternationalStandards Organization
B. International Standard Organization
C. InternationalStandard Organizations
D. InternationalStandards Organizations
99. The means by which the object’s distance is estimated or calculated to form a sharp or clear image refers to
A. Focusing
B. Exposure
C. Viewing
D. Parallax error
100. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing the
sensitized material?
A. Range finder
B. Exposure
C. Shutter
D. View finder
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~END OF CRIMLISTICS 2 QUESTIONS~

173
(CRMLISTICS 2)
POLICE
PHOTOGRAPHY
ANSWER
1. A 44. A
2. D 45. B
3. D 46. D
4. B 47. B
5. C 48. A
6. B 49. A
7. D 50. B
8. A 51. B
9. C 52. B
10. C 53. B
11. C 54. C
12. D 55. C
13. B 56. C
14. C 57. A
15. B 58. C
16. B 59. B
17. A 60. C
18. C 61. A
19. B 62. B
20. A 63. C
21. B 64. D
22. C 65. C
23. C 66. D
24. D 67. D
25. D 68. A
26. A 69. D
27. D 70. B
28. D 71.
29. A 72. C
30. D 73. B
31. C 74. A
32. B 75. C
33. C 76. B
34. C 77. D
35. C 78. D
36. B 79. B
37. D 80. A
38. C 81. A
39. B 82. B
40. C 83. A
41. C 84. A
42. B 85. A
43. A 86. A
174
87. A 94. A
88. B 95. B
89. D 96. A
90. B 97. B
91. C 98. B
92. C 99. A
93. A 100. B
175
(CRMLISTICS 3)
FORENSIC
BALLISTICS
QUESTION
1. The instruments especially designed to permit the firearm examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity
between two fired bullets or two fired shell.
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope b. Bullet Microscope
c. Bullet Comparison Microscope d. Bullet Microscope
2. Itis generally used in the preliminary examination of fired bullets and fired shells to determine the relative
distribution of the class characteristics.
a. Stereoscopic Microscope b. Sterioscopic Microscope
c. Stereouscopic Microscope d. Stereuoscopic Microscope
3. A battery operated instruments generally used for the examination of the internal surface of the gun barrel to
determine the irregularities that caused microscopic markings on the peripheral surface of the fired bullets.
a. Onoscope b.Onosecope
c. Onscope d. Onoescope
4. This contains a series of microscopic lenses of different magnifications that can be used in examining fired
bullets and fired shells to determine its class characteristics.
a. Shadowgraph b. Shadawgraph
c. Shadowgrap d. Shadawgrap
5. An instruments designed to measure velocity of the bullets
a. Cronograph b. Cronograp
c. Chronograph d. Chronograp
6. Type of a weapon fired from the shoulder.
a. Pistol b. Revolver
c. Machine gun d. Rifle
7. Instrument used in test firing suspected firearm or firearms to obtain test bullets for comparative purposes
a. Bullet Recovery Bax b. Bullet Recavery Box
c. Bullet Recovery Box d. Bullet Recoviry Box
8. The depressed portion of the rifling as you looked inside a barrel of a gun
a. Grooves b. Lands
c. Bore d. Pitch
9. The elevated rifling of the barrel of the gun.
a. Grooves b. Lands
c. Bore d. Pitch
10.Caliber .38 fired bullet found at the crime scene having 5 lands 5 grooves and right hand twist indicate that it
was fired from.
a. Colt b. Browning
c. Remington d. Smith and Wesson
11. Colt firearms has
a. 5 lands 5 grooves, left hand twist b. 5 lands 5 grooves, right hand twist
c. 6 lands 6 grooves, left hand twist d. 6 lands 6 grooves, right hand twist
12. Is the study of the firearms identification by means of the ammunition firedthrough them or fired through
submitted suspected firearm.
a. Ballistics b. Forensic Ballistics
c. Terminal Ballistics d. Internal Ballistics
13. Instruments used for making measurement such as bullet diameter, bore diameter and barrel length.
a. Caleper b. Caliper
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c. Calleper d. Calliper
14. Firearms which propels projectiles of less than one inch in diameter are generally classified as;
a. Artillery b. Small arms
c. Cannon d. Rifle
15. The still block which closes the rear of the bore against the forced of the charge is;
a. Breech face b. Breech block
c. Chamber d. Bore
16. Characteristic which are determinable only after the manufacture of the firearm. They are characteristics
whose existence is beyond the control of man and which have random distribution. Their existence in a firearm is
brought about through wear and tear, abuse, mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous causes;
a. Forensic Ballistics b. Rifling
c. Class Characteristics d. Individual Characteristics
17. When the bullet enters the rifle bore from the stationery position and is forced abruptly into the rifling its
natural tendency is to go straight forward before encountering the regular rifling twist, is called;
a. Shaving marks b. Skid marks
c. Individual Characteristics d. Slippage marks
18. The practice of pulling the trigger to snap and unload firearm.
a. Firing gun b. Dry firing
c. Aiming gun d. Pointing gun
19. Characteristics of 9mm. Browning pistol.
a. 5 lands 5 grooves, right hand twist b. 3 lands 4 grooves, right hand twist
c. 6 lands 6 grooves, right hand twist d. 7 lands 7 grooves, right hand twist
20. When a cartridge fails to explode on time or there is a delayed in combustion due to faulty functioning of the
primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is;
a. Misfired b. Recoil
c. Hang fire d. Velocity
21. A ring or serrated grooves around the body of the bullet which contain substance in order to minimize friction
during the passage of the bullet inside the bore.
a. Lead bullet b. Wad cutter bullet
c. Bullet cannelure d. Plated bullet
22. A firearm having six land six grooves with right hand twist
a. Smith and weson b. Browning type
c. Colt type d. Webby type
23. Instrument used for the propulsion of the projectiles by the expansive force of gases coming from the
burning powder.
a. Micrometer b. Firearms
c. Stereoscopic Microscope d. Comparison
24. The part of the mechanism in a firearm which causes empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown from the
gun is called;
a. Extractor b. Ejector
c. Hammer d. Trigger
25. The part of cartridge that ignites the main powder charge when struck by the firing pin.
a. Shell b. Base
c. Primer d. Bullet
26.Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released the hammer.
a. Single action b. Trigger
c. Hammer d. Double action
27. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger released the hammer that must be manually cocked is called.
a. Automatic b. Repeating Arm
c. Single action d. Ejector
28. A policeman arriving at the crime scene, found a revolver. In reference to this, he should be most careful
a. T see that it is not loaded b. To put the safety lock
c. Not to handle it unnecessarily d. To mark it readily to the barrel
29. Lesser caliber firearm but considered as powerful.
a. 9mm b. .38
c. .357 d. .45
30. The part of .45 caliber semi automatic pistol found at the crime scene , normally marked for identification in
the;
a. Trigger b. Ejector
c. Slide d. Barrel
31. It is the part of mechanism in a firearm that withdraws the shell or cartridge from the chamber
a. Ejector b. Primer
c. Striker d. Extractor
32. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a pistol or rifle barrels is called;
177
a. Land b. Grooves
c. Extractor marks d. One complete rotation of the bullet inside the bore
33.The term double action with reference to revolver means most nearly that;
a. The revolver has both safety and automatic firing action
b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the hammer
c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell ejection
d. The shell of the fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge is pushed from the magazine at the same time
34. The secret of a good shooting form is;
a. Proper sighting of the target b. Relaxed and natural position
c. Firing slowly d. Keeping the thumb along the hammer
35. Of the following the best method to use in firing a revolver is to keep
a. Both eyes closed b. Only the right eye is open
c. Both eye is open d. Only left eye is open
36. A policeman should fire his pistol.
a. At no time at all b. Primarily to stop at quarrel
c. To impress upon citizen d. Only at the last resort
37.The science dealing with the motion of the projectiles from the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to the time
it riches the muzzle of the barrel, iscalled.
a. Posterior ballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics d. Terminal ballistics
38. The science that deals with the effect of the impact of the projectiles on target is called;
a. Exterior ballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Anterior ballistics d. Terminal ballistics
39. The science which deals with the motion of the projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle up to the time it
shot the target, is known as;
a. Terminal ballistics b. Interior ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics d. Forensic ballistics
40. Class Characteristics are determinable even blank the manufacture of the firearm
a. During b. After
c. Before d. Never
41. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination
a. Pitch b.Twist
c. Lands and Grooves d. Cannelure
42. A completed unfiredunit ammunition is inserted into the chamber of a firearm for firing is referred to as;
a. Bullet b.Shell
c. Primer d. Cartridge
43. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from;
a. Revolver b. Pistol
c. Rifle d. Pistol and Revolver
44. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the lands have been worn down or through a bore which is
slightly oversized. The marks, is called;
a. Skid marks b. Slippage marks
c. Rifling marks d. Shearing marks
45. A magnified photograph of a small object produce by connecting a camera with the ocular of a compound
microscope
a. Photo Microphotograph b. Microfilm
c. Photomicrograph d. Photograph
46. Commonly, these marks are found on bullets fired from are volver due to poor alignment of the cylinder of a
bore
a. Shaving marks b. Skid marks
c. Pivot marks d. Landmarks
47. To impart a motion or rotation of a bullet during its passage inside the barrel , to insure gyroscopic stability in
its flight is called;
a. Range b. Gauge
c. Rifling d. Center fire
48. A metallic cup charged with priming composition ,usually made up of potassium chlorate, antimony sulfide and
fulminate of mercury.
a. Primer b. Gunpowder
c. Cartridge d. Primer cup
49. A type of firearm which the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the hammer.
a. Automatic b. Single action
c. Double action d. Slide action type
50. Part of Exterior ballistics which refers to the sound created at the muzzle end of the barrel.
a. Muzzle energy b. Muzzle blust
178
c. Muzzle noise d. Range

51. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin onthe bullet that pass through it.
a. Land Rifling b. Rifling
c. Grooves d. All of these
52. Raised portion between the grooves found inside the barrel
a. Land b. Caliber
c. Gauge d. Rifling
53. It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by side position
a. Drag marks b. Positively matched
c. Juxtaposition d. Pseudomatch
54. A part of ballistics dealing with firearms identification
a. Interior ballistics b. Exterior ballistics
c. Terminal ballistics d. Forensic ballistics
55. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target sideways
a. Key hole shot b. Ricochet
c. Hang fire d. Misfire
56. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to prevent leading.
a. Jacketed bullet b. Metal cased bullet
c. Metal point bullet d. Plated bullet
57. A smooth boremilitary firearm which has no rifling
a. Shotgun b. Rifle
c. Pistol d. Revolver
58. This part of the firearm strike the primer causing the firing pin of the cartridge
a. Hammer b. Ejector
c. Trigger d. Firing pin
59. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to land
a Gauge b. Mean diameter
c. Caliber d. Rifling
60. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed into gun chamber
a. Cartridge b. Primer
c. Bullet d. Shell
61. Failure of a cartridge to discharge
a. Misfire b. Hang fire
c. Ricochet d. Key hole shot
62. Most common individual characteristics that are visible on the base portion of then fired cartridge
a. Firing Pin impression b. Ejector marks
c. Extractor marks d. Chamber marks
63. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete unfired unit
a. Bullet b. Primer
c. Gunpowder d. All of these
64. Distance that the rifling advances to make one complete turn
a. Pitch of rifling b. Choke
c. Trajectory d. Recoil
65. A rearward movement of a firearm from firing
a. Recoil b. Force
c. Back fire d. Shot force
.66. Refer to the channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel
a. Rifling b. Land
c. Groove d. Cannelure
67. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore against the force of the charge
a. Breechblock b. Breech face
c. Ejector d. Breech face marks
68. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of lead pellets in one charge
a. Shotgun b. Rifle
c. Musket d. Pistol
69. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead ball
a. Shotgun b. Rifle
c. Musket d. Pistol
70. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin
a. Trigger b. Hammer
c. Sear d. Main spring
71. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile on the target
c. Terminal ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
179
72. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles of the same time it leaves the muzzles of the firearm to
the time it hits the target
c. Terminal ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
73. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet
a. Projectile b. Ball
c. Shell d. Missile
74. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles
a. Caliper b. Chronograph
c. Test bullet d. Bullet recovery box
75. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce
what kind of marking?
a. Slippage marks b. Skid marks
c. Rifling marks d. Shearing marks
76. It literary means delay in discharge or the cartridge failure to explode on time
a. Misfire b. Hang fire
c. Ricochet d. Key hole shot
77. The most reliable of all individual characteristics when fired cartridges are concerned.
a. Extractor marks b. Ejector marks
c. Chamber marks d. Breech face mark
78. When looking a fired bullet, the mark used to identify it is placed on
a. Its base b. Its side
c. Its side and base d. Its nose
79. It is produced when the muzzle is held against the target or body when fired
a. Smudging b. Tattooing
c. Contact burn d. Contact wound
80. It is result when the firearm is shot a around 2 to 8inches to the target
a. Smudging b. Tattooing
c. Contact burn d. Contact wound
81. A barrel of any firearm is legally classified as
a. Part of the firearm b. Nomenclature
c. Accessory d. Complete firearm
82. Scientific examinations of bullets and firearms presumably used in the commission of a crime
c. Terminal ballistics d. Forensic ballistics
83. Rifling in the bore of small arms is primary designed for.
a. Increase the speed of the bullet b. Decrease the amount of recoil
c. Increase impact knowledge d. Prevent the bullet from turning end over in the air
84. The type of the cartridge whose case has a well defined upstanding rim around the base or simply with rim
diameter greater than the body.
a. Rimmed type b. Semi-rimmed type
c. Rim less type d. Rebated type
85. The cartridge has a rimless form, but with a closer look the rim is slightly greater than the body.
86. Refer to the cartridge with a rimless pattern, which has a rim diameter smaller than the body of the case.
87. A type of a cartridge with a case having a rim diameter equal to diameter of the body with an extraction
grooves cut around the base.
88. A cartridge with a prominent raise belt around its body just in front of the extraction grooves.
c. Rim less type d. Belted type
89. It is very carefully made replica of a cartridge, usually a tool steel and carefully dimensioned to be used as
weapons by instructor and repairman.
a. Dummy b. Drill ammunition
c. Blank ammunition d. Live ammunition
90. This type of ammunition is used in mill training topractice loading and manipulation of the gun.
B
91. A cartridge without a bullet, containing gunpowder that is designed to generate a loud noise to indicating firing
180

92. Is the term applied for complete unit of unfired cartridge.
93. The projectiles propelled through the barrel by the expansive force of heated gas, sometimes called slug.
a. Bullet b. Cartridge case
c. Gunpowder d. Primer
94. The container for the gunpowder, sometimes called shell
95. Sometimes called Propellant or powder charge when ignited by the primer flash.
96. The chemical compound or priming mixture contained in the primer cup. This mixture is highly susceptible to
friction.
97. Instrument usedin determining more or less weight of bullets and shotgun pellets.
a. Analytical Ballance b. Torsion Ballance
c. Analytical Balance d. Tursion Balance
98. Father of the Percussion of powder
a. Alexander John Forsyth b. Alexander Forsyth
c. Edward Colt d. Henry Colt
99. Similar in used like calipers
a. Micrometer b. Mecrometer
c. Micrommeter d. Mecrommeter
100. It is used primarily forthe examination an interior surfaces of the gun barrel
a. Halexometer b. Helixometer
c. Hallexometer d. Hellixometer
~END OF CRIMLISTICS 3 QUESTION

181
(CRMLISTICS 3)
FORENSIC
BALLISTICS
ANSWER
1. A 44. A
2. A 45. C
3. A 46. A
4. A 47. C
5. C 48. A
6. D 49. C
7. C 50. B
8. A 51. C
9. B 52. B
10. D 53. C
11. C 54. A
12. B 55. D
13. B 56. A
14. B 57. A
15. B 58. D
16. D 59. C
17. D 60. A
18. B 61. A
19. C 62. A
20. C 63. D
21. C 64. A
22. B 65. A
23. B 66. C
24. B 67. A
25. C 68. A
26. D 69. C
27. C 70. C
28. A 71. B
29. C 72. C
30. D 73. A
31. D 74. B
32. D 75. A
33. B 76. B
34. B 77. D
35. C 78. A
36. D 79. D
37. A 80. A
38. D 81. D
39. C 82. D
40. C 83. D
41. C 84. A
42. D 85. B
43. B 86. D
182
87. C 94. C
88. D 95. C
89. A 96. D
90. B 97. C
91. C 98. A
92. D 99. A
93. A 100. B
183
(CRMLISTICS 4)
QUESTION
DOCUMENTS
EXAMINATION
QUESTION
1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skillfulclass of forgery

A. simulated or copied forgery
B. simple forgery
C. traced forgery
D. carbon tracing
2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate and proper, should contain a cross
section of the material from known sources.
A. disguised document
B. questioned document
C. standard document
D. requested document
3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples
C. Exemplars
D. Documents
4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its contents or the circumstances or the stories of
its production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document
D. questioned document
5. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Gothic
6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established.
A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
D. Document
184
7. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny.

A. Void Document
B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document
D. Questioned Document
8. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance
9. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and for the purpose of comparison with
the questioned document.
A. relative standards
B. collected standards
C. extended standards
D. requested standards
10. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
A. shading
11. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of acknowledgement.
A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Signature
D. Handwriting
12. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public, or
of competent public official, by which some disposition of agreement is proved.
A. commercial document
B. official document
C. public document
D. private document
13. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a
questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven.
A. simulated document
B. forged document
D. compared document
14. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment
15. A document which contains some changes either as anMaddition or deletion.
A. inserted document
B. altered document
C. disputed document
D. obliterated document
16. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking instrument.
A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure
17. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink stroke.
A. Shading
B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis
D. pen pressure
185
18. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarized by competent
officials.
A. private document
B. commercial document
C. public document
D. official document
19. Who was the noted British Examiner of questioned documents said that an intelligent police investigator can
detect almost 75% of all forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple magnifiers and measuring
tools?
A. Dr. Arthur Stoll
B. Dr. Aristotle Curt
C. Dr. William Harrison
D. Dr. Benjamin Jones
20. In the study of questioned documents, what do you call the quality of paper that does not allow light to pass
through or which prevents dark objects from being seen through the paper?
A. Opacity
B. Watermarks
C. Skid marks
D. Invisibility
21. What is the oldest ink material known?
A. Ball point pen ink
B. Chinese Ink
C. Aniline Ink
D. White Ink
22. One in which the facts appearing therein may not be true, and are contested either in whole or part with
respect to its authenticity, Identity, or origin.
A. Questioned document
B. Illegal document
C. Falsified document
D. Disputed facts
23. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which, if adequate and proper, should contain a cross
section of the material from a known source for questioned document examination.
A. Basis products
B. Standards
C. Handwriting
D. Signatures
24. A term used by some document examiners and attorneys to characterize known material.
A. Basis
B. Exemplar
C. Xerox copies
D. Reproduced
25. When a document is issued and notarized by a notary public or competent public official with solemnities
required by law, it is called
A. Official document
B. Public document
C. Commercial document
D. Private Document
26. What is known as the blotting out or shearing over the writing to make the original invisible to as an addition?
A. Obliteration
B. Obscuration
C. Forged
D. None of these
27. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner's conclusion. In Court, he may not only express it but
demonstrates the reasons for arriving at his conclusion.
A. Remarks
B. Testimony
C. Opinion
D. Reasoning
186
28. In this kind of document examination, the document is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the
light passing through the paper.Documents are subjected to this type of examination todetermine the presence of
erasures, matching of serrations and
some other types of alterations.
A. Microscopic examination
B. Ultra violet examination
C. Photographic examination
D. Transmitted light examination
29. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just below the visible blue-violet end of the
spectrum (rainbow). These visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is reflected, a phenomenon
known as
A. Prism
B. Fluorescence
C. Infrared
D. Radiation
30. It is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as whole, combination of certain forms of
visible mental and muscular habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort. Some
defined it as “visible speech.”
A. Typewriting
B. Money Bills
C. Handwriting
D. All of these
31. In document examination, what is the relation of parts of the whole of writing or line of individual letters in
words to the baseline?
A. Proportion
B. Alignment
C. Lining
D. Letter forms
32. Any property or mark which distinguishes and in document examination commonly called to as the identifying
details si called
A. Standard
B. Characteristics
C. Attribute
D. Form
33. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their identifying qualities; it refers not only a visual
but also the mental act in which the element of one item are related to the counterparts of the other.
A. Collation
B. Analysis
C. Comparison
D. Recording
34. In the study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the writer is called
A. Downstroke
B. Backstroke
C. Sidestroke
D. None of these
35. It is a signature, signed at a particular time and place, under particular conditions, while the signer was
at particular age, in a particular physical and mental condition, using particular implements, and with a
particular reason and purpose for recording his name.
A. Fraudulent Signature
B. Freehand forged signature
C. Guided Signature
D. Evidential Signature
36. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins and banknotes. Literally, it means to make a copy
of; or imitate; to make a spurious semblance of, as money or stamps, with the
intent to deceive or defraud.
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Forgery
D. Fake money bills
187
37. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.

A. Pen
B. Ink
C. Coal
D. Chalk
38. In 1884, who was this insurance agent in New York who patented the first practical fountain pen containing its
own ink reservoir
A. Lewis Waterman
B. John Loud
C. Peter Reynolds
D. Henry Ball
39. This is an indication that the writer is writing using his natural writings habits and style and no intention on his
part to alter his writing.
A. Carelessness C. Hesitation
B. Patching D. Blunt starts and stops
40. Who was the noted British Examiner of questioned documents said that an intelligent police investigator can detect
almost 75% of all forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple magnifiers and measuring tools?
A. Dr. Arthur Stoll
B. Dr. Aristotle Curt
C. Dr. William Harrison
D. Dr. Benjamin Jones
41. In the study of questioned documents, what do you call the quality of paper that does not allow light to pass through
or which prevents dark objects from being seen through the paper?
A. Opacity
B. Watermarks
C. Skid marks
D. Invisibility
42. What is the oldest ink material known?
A. Ball point pen ink
B. Chinese Ink
C. Aniline Ink
D. White Ink
43. One in which the facts appearing therein may not be true, and are contested either in whole or part with respect to
its authenticity, identity, or origin.
A. Questioned document
B. Illegal document
C. Falsified document
D. Disputed facts
44. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which, if adequate and proper, should contain a cross
section of the material from a known source for questioned document examination.
A. Basis products
B. Standards
C. Handwriting
D. Signatures
45. A term used by some document examiners and attorneys to characterize known material.
A. Basis
B. Exemplar
C. Xerox copies
D. Reproduced
46. When a document is issued and notarized by a notary public or competent public official with solemnities required
by law, it is called
A. Official document
B. Public document
C. Commercial document
D. Private Document
47. What is known as the blotting out or shearing over the writing to make the original invisible to as an addition?
188
A. Obliteration
B. Obscuration
C. Forged
D. None of these
48. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner's conclusion. In Court, he may not only express it but
demonstrates the reasons for arriving at his conclusion.
A. Remarks
B. Testimony
C. Opinion
D. Reasoning
49. In this kind of document examination, the document is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the
light passing through the paper. Documents are subjected to this type of examination to determine the presence
of erasures, matching of serrations and some other types of alterations.
A. Microscopic examination
B. Ultra violet examination
C. Photographic examination
D. Transmitted light examination
50. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum
(rainbow). These visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is reflected, a phenomenon known as
A. Prism
B. Fluorescence
C. Infrared
D. Radiation
51. It is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as whole, combination of certain forms of visible
mental and muscular habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort. Some defined it as “visible speech.”
A. Typewriting
B. Money Bills
C. Handwriting
D. All of these
52. In document examination, what is the relation of parts of the whole of writing or line of individual letters in words to
the baseline?
A. Proportion
B. Alignment
C. Lining
D. Letter forms
53. Any property or mark which distinguishes and in document examination commonly called to as the identifying details
si called
A. Standard
B. Characteristics
C. Attribute
D. Form
54. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their identifying qualities; it refers not only a visual but
also the mental act in which the element of one item are related to the counterparts of the other.
A. Collation
B. Analysis
C. Comparison
D. Recording
55. In the study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the writer is called
A. Downstroke
B. Backstroke
C. Sidestroke
D. None of these
56. It is a signature, signed at a particular time and place, under particular conditions, while the signer was at particular
age, in a particular physical and mental condition, using particular implements, and with a particular reason and
purpose for recording his name.
A. Fraudulent Signature
189
B. Freehand forged signature

C. Guided Signature
D. Evidential Signature
57. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins and banknotes. Literally, it means to make a copy of; or
imitate; to make a spurious semblance of, as money or stamps, with the intent to deceive or defraud.
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Forgery
D. Fake money bills
58. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.
A. Pen
B. Ink
C. Coal
D. Chalk
59. In 1884, who was this insurance agent in New York who patented the first practical fountain pen containing its own
ink reservoir
A. Lewis Waterman
B. John Loud
C. Peter Reynolds
D. Henry Ball
60. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful class of forgery
A. simulated or copied forgery
B. simple forgery
C. traced forgery
D. carbon tracing
61. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate and proper, should contain a cross section
of the material from known sources.
A. disguised document
B. questioned document
D. requested document
62. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples
C. Exemplars
D. Documents
63. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its contents or the circumstances or the stories of its
production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document
D. questioned document
64. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Gothic
65. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established.
A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
D. Document
D
66. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
A. Hans Gross
190
B. Charles Waite
C. Albert Osborne
D. Calvin Goddard
67. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny.
A. Void Document
B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document
D. Questioned Document
68. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:
A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance
69. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the
questioned document.
A. relative standards
B. collected standards
C. extended standards
D. requested standards
70. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
D. shading
71. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of acknowledgement.
A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Signature
D. Handwriting
72. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public, or of
competent public official, by which some disposition of agreement is proved.
A. commercial document
B. official document
C. public document
D. private document
73. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a questioned document, its origin is known and can be
proven.
A. simulated document
B. forged document
D. compared document
74. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment
75. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.
A. inserted document
B. altered document
C. disputed document
D. obliterated document
76. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking instrument.
A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
191
D. chemical erasure
77. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink stroke.
A. Shading
B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis
D. pen pressure
78. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarised by competent officials.
A. private document
B. commercial document
C. public document
D. official document
79. based on his or her handwriting is called.

A. Calligraphy
B. Graphlogic
C. Graphology
D. Caligrapher
80. The art of writing letters and words with decorative strokes is called
A. Calligraphy
B. Graphlogic
C. Graphology
D. Caligrapher
81. Handwriting samples made at the request and under thesupervision of lawyers, the police,
document examiners aninvestigators for the purpose of comparison with questioned
writing.
A. Collected writings
B. Stolen writings
C. Request writings
D. Forced writings
82.Made in exact imitation of something valuable or important with the intention to deceive or defraud.
A. Counterfeiting
B. simulation
C. Forgery
D. Imitating
83. generally in the course of their day to day activities.
A. Collected writings
B. Stolen writings
C. Request writings
D. Forced writings
84. An attempt to disguise one's handwriting or copy someone else's i
A. Simulated
B. Evaluated
C. Disguised
D. Compared
85. Any signature, handwriting, typewriting or other mark whose source or authenticity is in dispute or doubtful.
A. Requested Document
B. Disputed Document
C. Collected document
D. Questioned document
86. Any abnormal repetitive shaking movement of the body usually the hands which affects handwriting.
A. Tremor
B. Epilepsy
C. Convulsion
D. Parkinson
87. One of the following is not an indicator of forgery.
A. Smoothness of paper
B. Penlifts and hesitation
192
C. Tremor
D. Patching
88. The action producing a copy of a document, signature banknote, or work of art with intent to deceive.
A. Counterfeiting
B. Simulation
C. Forgery
D. Deceiving
89.Made in exact imitation of something valuable or important with the intention to deceive or defraud.
A. Counterfeiting
B. simulation
C. Forgery
D. Imitating
90. The place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and theangle at which he holds it is called
A. Pen lift
B. Pen hold
C. Print script
D. Pren pressure
91. One that is executed in accordance with the Code of Commerce or any Mercantile Law containing disposition
of commercial rights or obligations.
A. Commercial document
B. Holographic wills
C. Notarial wills
D. Private document
92. The term "insertion" and "interlineations" include the addition of writing and other material between lines or
paragraphs or the addition of whole page to a document.
A. Insertion or interlineations
B. Integration
C. Obliteration
D. None of these
93. In questioned document examination, what is an "OFF-HANDOPINION"?
A. A conclusion that is not based on scientific examination
B. A mere speculation of facts contained in the document
C. A scientific findings as to the content of document
D. All of these
94. It is a kind of handwriting that is characterized by being connectedin which one letter is joined to the next.
A. Script
B. Block
C. Vigorous
D. Cursive
95. A writer may deliberately try to alter his usual writing habits inhopes of hiding his identity. The
results, regardless of theireffectiveness are termed as ___.
A. Down stroke
B. Gestalt
C. Disguised writing
D. Graphology
96. The element of the writing movement which is marked by regular or periodic recurrences. It may be classed as
smooth, intermittent, or jerky in its quality.
A. Shading
B. Simplification
C. Slope slant
D. Rhythm
97. What do we call the series of lines or curves written in a singleletter; one of the lines of an alphabet or series of
lines or curves within a single letter; the path traced by the pen on the paper?
A. Pen lift
B. Slope
C. Delta
D. Stroke
98. One is not a type of handwriting "Standards"
A. Collected Standards
193
B. Requested standards
C. Post litem motan exemplars
D. All of these
99. The act/process of making the content/s of a document not theintended content.
A. falsification
B. counterfeiting
C. forgery
D. erasure
100. The study of handwriting to determine one's personality traits is called
A. handwriting analysis
B. graphology
C. dactyloscopy
D. fecalysis

194
(CRMLISTICS 4)
QUESTION
DOCUMENTS
EXAMINATION
ANSWER
1. A 38. A
2. C 39. C
3. C 40. C
4. D 41. A
5. B 42. B
6. D 43. A
7. D 44. B
8. A 45. B
9. D 46. B
10. C 47. A
11. C 48. C
12. D 49. D
13. C 50. B
14. D 51. C
15. B 52. B
16. A 53. B
17. D 54. C
18. C 55. A
19. C 56. D
20. A 57. A
21. B 58. B
22. A 59. A
23. B 60. A
24. B 61. C
25. B 62. C
26. A 63. D
27. C 64. B
28. D 65. D
29. B 66. D
30. C 67. D
31. B 68. A
32. B 69. D
33. C 70. C
34. A 71. C
35. D 72. D
36. A 73. C
37. B 74. D
195
75. B 88. C
76. A 89. A
77. D 90. B
78. C 91. A
79. C 92. A
80. A 93. A
81. C 94. D
82. A 95. C
83. A 96. D
84. A 97. D
85. D 98. B
86. A 99. A
87. A 100. B
196
(CRMLISTICS 5)
POLYGRAPHY
(LIE-DETECTION)
QUESTION
1. A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a
given scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge
2.The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the
detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.
A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics
3. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the
breathing of the subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
4.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the
blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
5.A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that
drives or pulls the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
6.The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of
the questions in a polygraph test except one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the
subject can easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C. Questions must be as short as possible.
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusations
197
7. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “ examination” means a

detection of
A. Forgery
B. Emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
8. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which
appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
A. Fear
B. Stimuli
C. Response
D. Reaction
9. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
B. Obtain confession
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
10. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant
question.
A. positive response
B. specific response
C. normal response
D. reaction
11. The scientific detection of deception.
A. Polygraphy
B. Dactyloscopy
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
12. To find out the truth is an essential requirement for the
administration of Justice. Which of the following is the commonly
used method of deception detection?
A. Lie detection method
B. Hypnotism
C. Use of drugs
D. Confession
13. In the practice of polygraphy, what do you call questions
unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar
nature although less serious as compared to those relevant
questions under investigation?
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Interrogative questions
14. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed
of the details of the offense for which he is being interrogated by
the investigation, or by other persons or from other sources like
the print media?
A. Peak of Tension test
B. Control test
C. IQ Test
D. Guilt Complex Test
15. What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in
the breathing of the subject?
A. Pneumograph
B. Cardiograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
198
16. It is the standard number of questions in polygraph examinations.

A. 12 C. 13
B. 10 D. 8
17. To find out the truth is an essential requirement for the administration of Justice. Which of the following is the
commonly used method of deception detection?
A. Lie detection method
B. Hypnotism
C. Use of drugs
D. Confession
18. In the practice of polygraphy, what do you call questions unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of
similar nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation?
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Interrogative questions
19. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed of the details of the offense for which he is
being interrogated by the investigation, or by other persons or from other sources like the print media?
A. Peak of Tension test
B. Control test
C. IQ Test
D. Guilt Complex Test
20. What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in the breathing of the subject?
A. Pneumograph
B. Cardiograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
21. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the breathing of the subject.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
22. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
23. A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that drives or pulls the chart paper under the
recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
24. The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the questions in a polygraph test except
one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject can easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C. Questions must be as short as possible.
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusations
25. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “ examination” means a detection of
A. Forgery
B. Emotion
C. the mind
D. deception
26. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive
power.
199
A. Fear
B. Stimuli
C. Response
D. Reaction
27. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
B. Obtain confession
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
28. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
A. positive response
B. specific response
C. normal response
D. reaction
29. A portion of rice spit from a person’s mouth revealed whether he or
she was lying. Spitting out dry rice indicated the dry mouth of a
liar.This form of lie detection originated in
A. India
B. China
C. England
D. Africa
30. During the Middle Ages, torture was used as a means of forcing a
person to tell the truth.This was prevalent in what continent?
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. South America
D. Europe
31. In the early 1700s, He was the first to move away from torture by
suggesting that deception could be evaluated by monitoring the
heart rate.
A. Ceasar Lombroso
B. Daniel DeFoe
C. William Marston
D. Ken Adler
32. In 1764, He wrote of torture, “By this method, the robust will
escape, and the feeble be condemned.
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Daniel DeFoe
C. Cesare Beccaria
D. William Marston
33. He became the first person to use science as a method of detecting
deception.
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Daniel DeFoe
C. Cesare Beccaria
D. William Marston
34. The Father of Modern Criminology Cesare Lombroso, became the
first person to use science as a method of detecting deception in
the year
A. 1895
B. 1925
C. 1896
D. 1926
35. He developed a method of measuring the amount of sweat a
suspect produced during interrogation. This was determined by the
electrical conductibility of the suspect’s skin.
A. B. Sticker
B. C. Lombroso
200
C. D. Sticker
D. C. Beccaria
36. The first “polygraph” machine was actually a copy machine invented
in
A. 1801
B. 1803
C. 1802
D. 1804
37. In the early 1900s, He invented what he called the “ink polygraph”.
This was used to monitor cardiovascular responses by measuring
pulse and blood pressure.
A. Ken Adler
B. Vittorio Benussi
C. James MacKenzie
D. Cesare Lombroso
38.In 1914, He used pneumatic tubing to study an individual’s
breathing rates. The device wrapped around the person’s chest and
measured depth and rate of breath.
A. Vittorio Benussi
B. Ken Adler
C. James MacKenzie
D. Cesare Lombroso
39. The First Polygraph school.
A. Keeler Institute
B. Scherers Institute
C. Marston Institute
D. Larsons Institute
40. The First Full Time professional polygraph examiner.
A. Leonarde Keeler
B. William Marston
C. John Larson
D. Ron Decker
41. It measures systolic blood pressure as a means of determining
whether a suspect was lying during an interrogation.
A. Sphygmomanometer
B. Emotograph
C. Kymograph
D. Psychogalvanometer
42. A U.S case wherein the examiners testimony regarding a defendants
fact of passing the polygraph test was not accepted in evidence.
A. U.S vs. Ohio
B. Keeler vs. U.S
C. Frye vs. U.S
D. Larson vs. U.S
43. He invented the modern polygraph machine in 1921.
A. Leonarde Keeler
B. William Marston
C. John Larson
D. Ron Decker
44. Polygraph literally means
A. Many Writings
B. Different Writings
C. Various Writings
D. Cursive Writings
45. The first to discover the phenomenon we now know as electrodermal
response.
A. Leonarde Keeler
B. Ron Adler
C. John Larson
D. Marie Gabriel Vigouroux
46. Cesare Lombroso was the first to experiment with a device measuring
blood pressure and pulse to detect deception in criminal
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suspects,He called it
A. Sphygmograph
B. Hydrosphygmograph
C. Cardiograph
D. Pneumograph
47. The First Polygraph machine suitable for use in criminal investigation
was invented by
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Leonarde Keeler
C. Vittorio Venussi
D. John Larson
48. An instrument for recording variations in pressure, e.g., in sound
waves or in blood within blood vessels, by the trace of a stylus on
a rotating cylinder.
A. Kymograph
B. Galvanograph
C. Pheumograph
D. Cardiograph
49. An Italian scientist who in 1895, theorized that when in emotional
stress or tension, blood would rush to the head.
A. Mosso
B. Cesare Becarria
C. Cesare Lombroso
D. William Marston
50. He built a delicately balanced board with a center fulcrum.A person
lying on this board was placed under stress and blood would rush
to his head causing the board to tilt down at the head.
A. Mosso
B. Cesare Becarria
C. Cesare Lombroso
D. Dr. William Marston
51. In 1895, he used measurements of blood pressure changes during
interrogations using a water pressure apparatus.
A. Mosso
B. Cesare Becarria
C. Cesare Lombroso
52. This water pressure apparatus is known today as
A. Cardiograph
B. Cardiosphygmograph
C. Pneumograph
D. Hydrosphygmograph
53. He established in 1915 the relevance of blood pressure changes in
the systolic blood pressure.
A. Mosso
B. Cesare Becarria
C. Cesare Lombroso
54.He developed the first instrument to record simultaneously a person's
blood pressure,pulse rate and respiration changes.
A. Mosso
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Dr. John Larson
55. He found out in 1914, that distinct changes occur in the respiratory
patterns during attempt to deceive.
A. John Larson
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Vittorio Benussi
56. He conducted experiments in lie detection by measuring and
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recording the rate and depth of the subject's respiration.

A. John Larson
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Vittorio Benussi
57. An Italian physiologist accidentally discovered that a dissected frog
leg would twitch and contract spasmodically at the touch of a
scalpel charged with electricity.
A. Mosso
B. Luigi Galvani
C. Vittorio Benussi
58.He had found that current or "galvanic Electricity" flowed through
animal tissue.
A. Mosso
B. Luigi Galvani
C. Vittorio Benussi
D. John Larson
59. In 1897, He was one of the first to suggest the use of the (EDA)
Galvanic Skin Response as an indicator of deception.
A. Mosso
B. Larson
C. Sticker
D. Marston
60. He was the first to make word association test using the galvanometer.
A. Veraguth
B. Mosso
C. Sticker
D. Marston
61. Many scientist have studied human behavior in relation to lie
detection. Among them was this man who did not use an instrument
approach but many of his theories in the psychology of deception are
embodied in polygraph procedure today.
A. Veraguth
B. A. R. Luria
C. Sticker
D. Mosso
62. In 1932, He wrote, the criminal is certainly far from being indifferent to
his experience,but on the contrary,he puts himself in an active relation
to his experience,its trauma,urging him into activity - conditions the
dynamics of his behavior.
A. Veraguth
B. A.R. Luria
C. Sticker
D. Mosso
63. He developed in 1926, the metal recording bellows.He also incorporated
the kymograph and the rolled chart paper.He used these developments
together with the cardio and pneumo components,developing the
first polygraph instrument known today.
A. Leonard Keeler
B. Veraguth
C. Cesare lombroso
D. A.R. Luria
64. He is the father of polygraph.
A. Leonard Keeler
B. William Marston
C. John Larson
D. Cesare Lombroso
65. He devised the first structured test questions.The test is made up
203
using relevant questions interspersed with irrelevant questions.The R

and I test.
A. Leonard Keeler
B. William Marston
C. Sticker
D. John Larson
66. He used Keeler's technique and after testing numerous subjects, he
found that in using that technique he was getting too many
inconclusive result and an unacceptable error rate.
A. A.R Luria
B. Mosso
C. Veraguth
D. John Reid
67.In the detection of deception,He developed a structured technique
using comparison questions.
A. A.R. Luria
B. Mosso
C. Veraguth
D. John Reid
68.He operates the National School of Lie Detection and developed
his known lie and probable lie question technique and the guilt
complex question.
A. Leonard Keeler
B. Mosso
C. John Reid
D. Dick Arther
69. He introduced the symptomatic question or myth to
disclose whether or not an outside issue is bothering the subject.
A. Dick Arther
B. Leonard Keeler
C. John Reid
D. Cleve Backster
70. Manufactured the first commercial polygraph instrument
for Leonard Keeler.
A. Associated Press Inc.
B. Associated Research Inc.
C. Associated manufacturing Inc.
D. Associated Detection Inc.
71. The name of the first manufactured polygraph instrument.
A. Keeler polygraph instrument
B. Associated Detecting instrument
C. Larson polygraph instrument
D. Marston polygraph instrument
72. If a subject looked down and moved his toe in a circular motion while
being interrogated, he was taugh to be deceptive.This ancient
deception detection is known as
A. Nervous behaviorism
B. The ordeal of the sacred donkey
C. The ordeal of rice
D. The sacred ass
73. If the suspect's tongue was not burned,he was judged innocent.
If the suspect's tongue was burned,he was judged guilty.This
ancient deception detection is known as
A. The hot iron test
B. Bear the hot iron test
C. The ordeal of the hot iron
D. The ember test
74. What company is the leader in the manufacture of polygraph?
A. Lafayette instrument company
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B. Axciton
C. Stoelting
D. Limestone
75.Where is the largest polygraph market in the world?
A. Russia
B. Ukraine
C. U.S.A
D. Georgia
76. Depending on the complexity of the case and the number of issues
being tested a polygraph examination generally takes
A. 1-2 hours
B. 3-4 hours
C. 2-3 hours
D. 4-5 hours
77. What is the longest phase of the polygraph examination?
Ans:
78.Who is the most prominent polygraph examiner of all time?
A. Leonarde Keeler
B. John Larson
C. William Marston
D. Cleve Backster
78. The Father of Modern Criminology Cesare Lombroso, became the
first person to use science as a method of detecting deception in
the year
A. 1895
B. 1925
C. 1896
D. 1926
79. He developed a method of measuring the amount of sweat a
suspect produced during interrogation. This was determined by the
electrical conductibility of the suspect’s skin.
A. B. Sticker
B. C. Lombroso
C. D. Sticker
D. C. Beccaria
80. The first “polygraph” machine was actually a copy machine invented
in
A. 1801
B. 1803
C. 1802
D. 1804
81. The First Polygraph machine suitable for use in criminal investigation
was invented by
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Leonarde Keeler
C. Vittorio Venussi
D. John Larson
82. An instrument for recording variations in pressure, e.g., in sound
waves or in blood within blood vessels, by the trace of a stylus on
a rotating cylinder.
A. Kymograph
B. Galvanograph
C. Pheumograph
D. Cardiograph
83. An Italian scientist who in 1895, theorized that when in emotional
stress or tension, blood would rush to the head.
A. Mosso
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B. Cesare Becarria
C. Cesare Lombroso
D. William Marston
84. This ordeal was base from a well known phenomenon that “sense of guilt can make the mouth dry”.
A.Ordeal of balance C. Ordeal of red water
B.Red-hot iron ordeal D. Boiling water ordeal
85. Who invented the plethysmograph?
A.Francis Frank C. Cesar Lombroso
B.Francis Galton D. John A. Larson
86. Jokes and small lies are examples of;
A. White lie C. Black lies
B.Red lie D. Malicious lie
87. 1st.Subject cannot be forced to undergo polygraph examination.
2nd.Dryness of the mouth is a symptom of guilt.
A.Both statements are incorrect
B.Both statements are correct
C.The 1st statement is correct and the 2ndstatement is incorrect
D.The 1st statement is incorrect and the 2nd statement is correct
88. An Italian Criminologist who developed a scientific cradle for the study of fear?
A. John A. Larson C. Cesar Lombroso
B.Angelo Mosso D. Leonard Keeler
89. A machine that is often connected to the term “lie detector”.
A.Expert C. Pneumograph
B.Hydrosphymograph D. Polygraph
90. He made an experimental proof that the secretion of sweat is closely linked to psychological process that
leads Sticker to experiment with the galvanic skin phenomenon and the development of first psychogalvanometer.
A. Adamkiewics C. Precision
B.Adaptability D. Errors
91. In interrogation the belief that man is a fallible human being should not be overlooked and therefore polygraph
examiner are always subject to?
A.Certainty of interpretation C. Precision
B.Adaptability D. Errors
92. 1st.Polygraph test MUST be conducted to physically fit subject
2nd.Subject can be forced to take polygraph exam.
A.Both statements are incorrect
B.Both statements are correct
C.The 1ststatement is correct and the 2nd statement is incorrect
D.The 1ststatement is incorrect and the 2nd statement is correct
93. In polygraph exam, what is the receptor of the subject?
A. Instinct C. Eyes
B.Ear D. Nose
94. He is known as the Father of Criminalistics?
A. Cesar Lombroso C. Hans Gross
B.John A Larson D. Angelo Mosso
95. An instrument in which the hydrosphymograph was derived?
A. Pneumograph C. Cardiosphymograph
B.Plethysmograph D. Galvonograph
96. The first person who uses the term Polygraph?
A. Cesar Lombroso C. Thomas Jefferson
B.Dr. Hans Gross D. Sir Francis Galton
97. Who invented the plethysmograph?
A.Leonard Keeler C. Cesar Lombroso
B.Veragutti D. Francis Frank
98. A witness who by reason of his special technical training or experience is permitted to express opinion
regarding theissue, or a certain aspects of the issue, that is involved in legal proceedings?
A. Ordinary witness C. Polygraph examine
B.Police investigator D. Expert witness16.
99. The part of our brain that controls our unconscious activities such as digestion and sleep, also considered as
ourinternal regulator?
A. Pituitary glands C. Cortex
B.Hypothalamus D. Left side of the brain
100. In polygraph exam, what is the receptor of the subject?
A. Instinct C. Eyes
B.Ear D. NosE
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(CRMLISTICS 5)
POLYGRAPHY
(LIE-DETECTION)
ANSWER
42. C
1. B 43. C
2. D 44. A
3. B 45. D
4. A 46. B
5. D 47. D
6. D 48. A
7. D 49. A
8. A 50. A
9. A 51. C
10. A 52. D
11. A 53. D
12. A 54. C
13. C 55. C
14. A 56. C
15. A 57. B
16. A 58. B
17. A 59. C
18. C 60. A
19. A 61. B
20. A 62. B
21. B 63. A
22. A 64. A
23. D 65. A
24. D 66. D
25. D 67. D
26. A 68. D
27. A 69. D
28. A 70. B
29. C 71. A
30. D 72. A
31. B 73. C
32. C 74. A
33. A 75. B
34. A 76. C
35. A 77. Pre-test interview
36. D 78. A
37. C 79. A
38. A 80. D
39. A 81. D
40. A 82. A
41. A 83. A
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84. 93.
85. 94.
86. 95.
87. 96.
88. 97.
89. 98.
90. 99.
91. 100.
92.
(CRMLISTICS 6)
LEGAL MEDICINE
QUESTION
1. The Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered DNA testing and
fingerprinting.
A. Alec Jeffries
B. Lowell C. Van Berkom
C. William Reynolds
D. Henry Van Dyke
2. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of
lack of oxygen for around 3 to five minutes.
A. Stroke
B. Asphyxia
C. Stupor
D. Exhaustion
3. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones,
causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in
the body and massive infection.
A. First Degree Burn
B. Second Degree Burn
C. Third Degree Burn
D. Sunburn
4. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends
to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portions
of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is
completed by 12 hours.
A. livor mortis
B. primary flaccidity
C. maceration
D. rigor mortis
5. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will
endanger one’s life.
A. mortal wound
B. trauma
C. coup injury
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D. superficial wound
6. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.
A. incised wound
B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound
D. punctured wound
7. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without
external wounds.
A. Hematoma
B. Fracture
C. Sprain
D. Dislocation
8. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of
the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body.
A. immersion foot
B. trench foot
C. frostbite
D. gangrene
9. A condition of women who have had one or more sexual
experience but not had conceived a child.
A. virgo-intacts
B. demi-virginity
C. moral virginity
D. physical virginity
10. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels
or has diffused to different parts of the body.
A. hypostatic lividity
B. diffusion lividity
C. hyper lividity
D. rigor mortis
11. Things used by a person in the commission of a crime, or objects
left in a crime scene which are the subjects of criminalistics.
A. testimonial evidence
B. hearsay evidence
C. circumstantial evidence
D. physical evidence
12. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes.
A. Forensic Science
B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Forensic Ballistics
D. Forensic Medicine
13. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature.
A. Endometer
B. Barometer
C. Thermometer
D. ananometer
14. The following statements are important in death determination.
Which is not valid?.
A. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by
death
B. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs, if
not, to the government
C. The death of the partner is one of the causes of
dissolution of partnership agreement
D. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by death
15. The following are kinds of death, which one is not?
A. Somatic or Clinical Death
209
B. State of Suspended Animation

C. Cellular or Molecular Death
D. Regulated Death
16. Of the following kinds of death, which one is relevant to Organ
Transportation?
A. Somatic or clinical Death
C. Molecular Death
D. Cellular Death
17. In molecular or cellular death, death of individual cells is with in
A. 3-6 minutes
B. 3-6 hours
C. 20-30 minutes
D. 20-30 hours
18. Post-mortem lividity has the following mechanisms:
A. Hypostatic pressure
B. Diffusion
C. Gravitational pressure
D. All of the above
19. Hanging is asphyxia due to the constriction of the neck as a result
of suspension in which the weight of the body pulls upon the
ligature.What differentiates it from strangulation by a ligature
therefore is:
A. The factor of suspension
B. Hanging raises a presumption of suicide
C. Strangulation is usually homicidal
D. All of the above
20. Distinctions between ante-mortem from post-mortem clot are the
following. Which one is not valid?
A. Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B. Clot is homogenous in construction so it cannot be
stripped into layers
C. Clot with varied colors
D. Surface of the blood vessels are raw after the clots are
removed
21. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the following, except:
A. Hypostasis
B. Autolysis
C. Diffusion
D. Suggillation
17. Comprehensive study of dead body, performed by a trained
Physician, to determine the cause of death:
A. Autopsy
B. Biophsis
C. Dissection
D. Physicians
22. Articles and materials found in the crime scene:
A. Physical evidence
B. Associative evidence
C. Evidence
D. Tracing evidence
23. Circumscribed extravation of blood or subcutaneous tissue or
underneath the mucous membrane.
A. Contusion
B. Petechia
C. Abrasion
D. All of them
210
24. One is a condition that can approximate the time of death.

A. Cadaver
B. Magnus test
C. Rigor mortis
D. None of these
25. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior including habitual,
preference and completing need for sexual gratification by any
means except sexual intercourse which results to bodily
excitement
A. Virginity
B. Sexual intercourse
C. Prostitution
D. Sexual deviation
26. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is
characterized by a small opening of the wound.
A. Gunshot wound
B. Stab wound
C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound
27. A physical injury wherein the offended victim is incapacitated for
work or requires medical assistance for 10 days or more but not
A. Slight physical injury
B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injury
28. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays and which is difficult to
remedy:
A. Thermal burn
B. Electric burn
C. Chemical burn
D. Radiation burn
29. The body of the crime.
A. Evidence
B. body of the victim
C. criminology
D. corpus delicti
30. The detection and identification of poisons.
A. Bacteriology
B. Posology
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
31. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of
abused drugs in the body.
A. blood
B. saliva
C. body fluid
D. urine
32. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature
and composition of the following except one:
A. Fingerprint
B. Explosives
C. Blood
D. Body fluids
33. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?
A. defense lawyer
B. judge
C. prosecutor
D. the chemist himself/herself
211
34. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as

A. Coke
B. LSD
C. Heroin
D. “shabu”
35. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred.
A. crime scene
B. police line
C. area of operation
D. area of responsibility
A. Evidence
C. criminology
D. corpus delicti
37. One of the following is a derivative of the opium poppy.
A. Demerol
B. Caffeine
C. Morphine
D. nicotine
38. Number restoration is necessary in determining whether there is
tampering of serial number in
A. Typewriter
B. Firearm
C. Prisoners
D. Bank notes
39. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to
determine if it was
A. Bend
B. Folded
C. Stretched
D. Cut
40. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol
in the human body except one:
A. Saliva test
B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal test
D. Blood test
41. The application of chemical principles and processes in the
examination of evidence.
A. Forensic Medicine
B. Forensic Evidence
C. Criminalistics
D. Forensic Chemistry
42. Volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this process.
A. Dialysis
B. Dilution
C. Distillation
D. Extraction
43. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.
A. Casting
B. Cementing
C. Moulage
D. Sticking
44. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly
in stained clothing.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberio’s Test
C. Microscopic Test
212
D. Ultra-Violet Test
45. The test used to determine the presence of blood in stained
material.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberio’s Test
C. Takayama Test
D. Phenolphtalein Test
46. It is the major component of a glass.
A. Lime
B. Soda
C. Silica
D. Gel 47. Poisons which produce
stupor and less feeling.
A. Narcotics
B. Irritants
C. Depressants
D. Stimulants
48. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
A. dry ice
B. cartridge case
C. gel
D. glass
49. The study and identification of body fluids.
A. Pharmacology
B. Serology
C. Posology
D. Immunology
50. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.
A. Blood typing
B. Precipitin Test
C. Confirmatory Test
D. Preliminary Test
51. The circulating tissue of the body.
A. Blood
B. Cells
C. Muscles
D. Liver
52. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration,
circulation and almost all brain function of an organism.
A. Apparent death
B. Molecular death
C. Cellular Death
D. Somatic death
53. The approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA
Testing.
A. minimum of eight weeks
B. minimum of six weeks
C. minimum of four weeks
D. minimum of two weeks
54. DNA stands for
A. Deonatural Acid
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
C. Denaturalized Acid
D. Deoxy Nucleic Acid
55. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is
composed of elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils which cohere? They
contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the
type of hair.
A. Medulla
213
B. Cortex
C. Core
D. Cuticle
56. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application
of chemical and physical knowledge.
A. Cryptography
B. Metallurgy
C. Casting
D. Matalisky
57. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic
classification and identification of rocks, rock forming minerals and
soil.Also includes study of dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and
other such materials, both natural and artificial.
A. Petrography
B. Serology
C. Anthropology
D. Ecology
58. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. All of these
59. Which evidence offers least resistance to decomposition?
A. Semen
B. Urine
C. Hair
D. Blood
60. For many years the most commonly used preliminary test for blood
A. Plasma count
B. Serum test
C. Benzidine test
D. Barberio’s test
61. One is considered “dead drunk” if the level of alcohol in his body
Is approximately:
A. 0.5%B.0.3%C. 0.02%D. 0.1%
1. Generally, spermatozoa may persist in the vagina up to:
A. 6 hours D. 3 days
B. 8 hours E. 5 days
C. 1 day
62. The following are types of medical evidence, except:
A. Photographic evidence
B. Experimental evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Autoptic evidence
63. In the strict sense of the word, Forensic Medicine means
A. application of medicine to legal cases
B. application of medical science to elucidate legal problems
C. knowledge of law in relation to practice of medicine
E. all of the above
64. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the following, except
A. Magnus test
B. Diaphanous test
C. I card’s test
D. Winslow’s test
214
65. The following officials of the Philippine Government are authorized to conduct death investigation, except -
A. Public Prosecutor
B. Judges of the regional trial court
C. Director PNP
D. SOCO team
66. The following statements are important in death determination. Which is not valid?
A. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by death
B. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs, if not, to the government
C. The death of the partner is one of the causes of dissolution of partnership agreement
D. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by death
67. The following are kinds of death, which one is not?
A. Somatic or Clinical Death
C. Cellular or Molecular Death
D. Regulated Death
68. Of the following kinds of death, which one is relevant to Organ Transportation?
A. Somatic or clinical Death
C. Molecular Death
D. Cellular Death
69. In molecular or cellular death, death of individual cells is with in
A. 3-6 minutes
B. 3-6 hours
C. 20-30 minutes
D. 20-30 hours
70. Post-mortem lividity has the following mechanisms:
A. Hypostatic pressure
B. Diffusion
C. Gravitational pressure
D. All of the above
71. Hanging is asphyxia due to the constriction of the neck as a result of suspension in which the weight of the
body pulls upon the ligature. What differentiates it from strangulation by a ligature therefore is:
A. The factor of suspension
B. Hanging raises a presumption of suicide
C. Strangulation is usually homicidal
D. All of the above
72. Distinctions between ante-mortem from post-mortem clot are the following. Which one is not valid?
A. Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B. Clot is homogenous in construction so it cannot be stripped into layers
C. Clot with varied colors
D. Surface of the blood vessels are raw after the clots are removed
73. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the following, except:
A. Hypostasis
B. Autolysis
C. Diffusion
D. Suggillation
74. Comprehensive study of dead body, performed by a trained Physician, to determine the cause of death:
A. Autopsy
B. Biophsis
C. Dissection
D. Physicians
75. Articles and materials found in the crime scene:
A. Physical evidence
B. Associative evidence
215
C. Evidence
D. Tracing evidence
76. Dead body of an animal.

A. Carcass
B. Cadaver
C. Lividity
D. Cadaveric spasm
77. Superficial wounds in which the top most layer of the skin is
scrapped off.
A. Laceration wound
B. Incised wound
C. Abrasion
D. Punctured wound
78. Circumscribed extravation of blood or subcutaneous tissue or underneath the mucous membrane.
A. Contusion
B. Petechia
C. Abrasion
D. All of them
79. One is a condition that can approximate the time of death.
A. Cadaver
B. Magnus test
C. Rigor mortis
D. None of these
80. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior including habitual, preference and completing need for sexual
gratification by any means except sexual intercourse which results to bodily excitement
A. Virginity
B. Sexual intercourse
C. Prostitution
D. Sexual deviation
81. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is characterized by a small opening of the
wound.
A. Gunshot wound
B. Stab wound
C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound
82. A physical injury wherein the offended victim is incapacitated for work or requires medical assistance for 10
days or more but not more than 30 days.
A. Slight physical injury
B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injury
83. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays and which is difficult to remedy:
A. Thermal burn
B. Electric burn
C. Chemical burn
D. Radiation burn
84. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is composed of elongated, spindle-shaped
fibrils which cohere? They contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the type of hair.
A. Medulla
B. Cortex
C. Core
D. Cuticle
85. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application of chemical and physical knowledge.
A. Cryptography
216
B. Metallurgy
C. Casting
D. Matalisky
86. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic classification and identification of rocks, rock forming
minerals and soil. Also includes study of dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and other such materials, both
natural and artificial.
A. Petrography
B. Serology
C. Anthropology
D. Ecology
87. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. All of these
88. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon called
A. attraction
B. diffraction
C. light curve
D. light fingerprint
89. Under the law of reflection, The angle of reflection depends upon the angle of the light striking the material,
which is referred to as the
A. angle of incidence
B. angle of biometry
C. angle of light
D. none of these
90. Which evidence offers least resistance to decomposition?
A. Semen
B. Urine
C. Hair
D. Blood
91.For many years the most commonly used preliminary test for blood is the
A. Plasma count
B. Serum test
C. Benzidine test
D. Barberio’s test
92. A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a given scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge
93. The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the detection of crime and apprehension of
criminals.
A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics
94. The detection and identification of poisons.
A. Bacteriology
B. Posology
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
95. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of abused drugs in the body.
A. blood
B. saliva
217
C. body fluid
D. urine
96. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and composition of the following except one:
A. Fingerprint
B. Explosives
C. Blood
D. Body fluids
97. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?

A. defense lawyer
B. judge
C. prosecutor
D. the chemist himself/herself
98. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as
A. Coke
B. LSD
C. Heroin
D. “shabu”
99. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred.
A. crime scene
B. police line
C. area of operation
D. area of responsibility
A. Evidence
C. criminology
D. corpus delicti

218
(CRMLISTICS 6)
LEGAL MEDICINE
ANSWER
1. A 51. A
2. B 52. D
3. C 53. C
4. A 54. B
5. A 55. B
6. C 56. B
7. D 57. A
8. C 58. D
9. A 59. C
10. B 60. C
11. D 61. B
12. D 62. A
13. C 63. B
14. B 64. C
15. D 65. B
16. A 66. B
17. A 67. D
18. D 68. A
19. E 69. A
20. C 70. D
21. B 71. E
22. A 72. C
23. A 73. B
24. A 74. A
25. C 75. C
26. D 76. A
27. D 77. C
28. D 78. A
29. D 79. C
30. C 80. D
31. D 81. D
32. A 82. D
33. B 83. D
34. D 84. B
35. A 85. B
36. D 86. A
37. C 87. D
38. B 88. B
39. D 89. A
40. C 90. C
41. D 91. C
42. C 92. A
43. C 93. D
44. A 94. C
45. C 95. D
46. C 96. A
47. A 97. B
48. D 98. D
49. B 99. A
50. B 100. D
219
(CDI 1)
CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
QUESTION
1. Preliminary Conduct
A. Attitude &Demeanor of Interrogator
b. The Interrogation Room
c. Techniques of Interrogation
d. Physiological Symptoms of Guilty Knowledge
2. Privacy
A. Attitude & Demeanor of Interrogator
b. The Interrogation Room
c. Techniques of Interrogation
d. Physiological Symptoms of Guilty Knowledge
3. Emotional State.
A. Usual Stages of Interview
B. Setting of interview
C. Requisites of Interview
D. Attitude and Demeanor of Interrogator
4. Language
5. Forcefulness of Personality
6. Warm-Up
B. Techniques in Controlling Digression
C. Typical Classes of Interviewees
D. Personalities of Interviewees
7. Precise Questioning
8. Middle age Person
9. Sound & motion Picture
A. Method of Recording Interview
B. Goals of Criminal Investigation
220
C. Successful Investigator
D. Responsibility of Criminal Investigator
10. Addressing Problem
A. Method of Recording Interview
B. Goals of Criminal Investigation
C. Successful Investigator
D. Responsibility of Criminal Investigator
11. The identification may be established indirectly by providing other facts or circumstances.
a. Eye witness b. Motive c. opportunity d. Circumstantial evidence.
12. It must have been physically possible for the suspects to commit the crime.
a. Opportunity b. form c. intent d. corpus delicti.
13. Motivated by a desire for revenge or personal gain.
a. opportunity b. eyewitness c. motive d. associative evidence
14. The suspect could have been in the vicinity of the crime scene in the sense that it was not improbable for him
to have been there.
A. opportunity b. motive c. associative evidence c. none of the above
15. The perpetrator may leave some clue at the scene.
a. opportunity b. associative evidence c. motive d. confession
16. Facts that the crime has been committed.
a. Corpus Delicti b. form c. intent d. role of reason
17. It must be shown that the accused knew what he was doing
a. Possibility of chance b. intuition c. intent d. none of the above
18. To acquire knowledge of the elements of criminal of offenses, the investigator must study the penal law.
a. Form b. corpus delicti c. opportunity d. motive
19. Both inductive and deductive reasoning are applicable to investigation.
a. representative approach b. role of reason c. possibility of chance d. none of the above
20. Consideration must also be given to the fact that chance often plays an important part in the solution of crimes.
a. possibility of chance b. exploiting intuition c. representative approach d. art of interview
2 1. A self – incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Confession b. coercion c. witnesses d. admission
22. Is the testimony of a witness reduced to writing under oath or affirmation.
a. Statement b. deposition c. recalcitrant d. affirmative
23. The foremost requirement upon which later admissibility of an admission or confession depends.
a. Voluntariness b. fourfold warning c. record d. waiver
24. To forego these rights, an affirmative statement ofrejection is required.
a. Fourfold warning b. proof of waiver c. proof of voluntariness d. record of conduct
25. Encompasses all interrogation practices which are likely to exert such pressure on an individual as to disable
him from making a free and rational choice.
a. Coercion b. proof of voluntariness c. record conduct d. awareness of the accusation
26. It should reflect the continuous availability of protective devices for the suspects rights.
a. Intent b. record conduct c. duress d. psychological constraint
27. It connotes the idea of physical force, it is the direct application of illegal physical methods.
a. Employment of trickery b. coercion c. duress d. psychological constraint
28. It is taken in the legal sense to mean the imposition of restriction on physical behavior.
a. Confession against another b. duress c. awareness of the accusation d. employment of promises
29. The free action of the will may be unlawfully restrained by threats or another other method of instilling fear.
a. Existence of forces b. psychological constraints c. lighter sentence d. pardon
30. The person under investigation must be mentally or visually aware of an accusation.
a. Confession against another b. awareness of the accusation c. confession of several crimes
d. identity of the offender
31. It is the place where the essential ingredients of the criminal act took place.
a. Investigation scene b. victims scene c. crime scene d.interrogation scene
32. The first step in the crime scene search.
a. Collecting evidence b. photograph the crime scene c. preservation of its original condition
d. markings of evidence
33. It means protecting all the physical evidence and clue materials.
a. Complete crime scene b. avoid contamination of crime scene c. protecting the crime scene
d. controlling the crime scene
34. Upon arrival at the crime scene the ------------should immediately ascertain the identity of personswho may be
valuable to the investigation.
a. Investigator b. witness c. first responder d. suspect
35. The ----------- should collects, preserves, and tags articles of evidence and maintains custody of evidence.
a. Team leader b. photographer c. evidence man d. master note taker
36. Implements the directions of the officer – in – charge .
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a. Master note taker b. evidence man c. assistant officer –in- charge d. photographer e. sketcher
37. At this stage of the investigation, prohibition and negative advice are most useful.
a. Preliminary survey b. preliminary action c.preliminary crime scene survey
d. preliminary investigation survey
38. it can be prepared in a variety of ways a hand written notes, audio tape recording and videotaping.
a. narrative search b. narrative interview c. narrative description d.narrative investigation
39. The Presence of__________ may deter a hesitant subject.
a. stenographer b. witness c. victim d. investigator
40. The crime scene provides a major opportunityto locate ------------------.
a. perpetrator b. evidence c. physicalevidence d. none of the above
41. qualification and traits of the interrogator
a. written notes b. general knowledge and interest c. privacy d. subject
42. Attitude anddemeanor of interrogator.
a. perseverance b. distracting mannerism c.privacy d. know nothing type
43. Responsibilities of Criminal investigators.
a. Eyewitness b.Motive c. Locate & apprehend the perpetrator d.Intent
44. Phases of Criminal Investigation.
a. opportunity.b. eyewitness testimony c.confession d. traced and located
45. Clue materials, personal property or the characteristicspattern of procedure.
a. providing evidence of guilt b. locating the criminal offenders c. intent d. associativeevidence C
46. The available information is arrange and correlated.
a. role of reason b. elements of the offense c. possibility of chance d.representative approach e. form B
47. The elements of the offense
a. corpus delicti b. art of interview c. type of interview d. elements of the offense
48. Both inductive and deductive reasoning .
a. intent b.form c. corroborating d.exploiting intuition
49. Asking question to a person who is believed to possessknowledge & cooperative in the conduct of
investigation.
a. witness b. information c. personality d. interview
50. Qualities of a salesman, an actor, and psychologist.
a. requisites of interview b. background interview c. setting interview d. qualifications of interviewer
51. The relationship between the interviewer and the subjectdetermines the success of the investigation.
a. setting of interview b. formal interview c. on the scene interview d. establish rapport
52. Normal, group and pretext interview.
a. on the scene interview b. formal interview c. background d.approach
53. It may be conducted by any law enforcement officer whofirst appears on the scene.
a. formal interview b. back ground interview c. routine d. on the sceneinterview
54. Usual stage of interview
a. preparation b. appropriate time c. inaccuracies d. positive attitude
55. A multiplicity of the questions tends to confuse theperson being interviewed.
a. One question at a time b. inaccuracies c.guiding conversation d. saving face
56. Long, complicated, and legalistic questions only serveto confuse and irritate.
a. simplicity of question b. saving face c. yes or no question d. precise questioning
57. This technique consist in asking a question whichrelates to the digression from original line of questioning.
a. shunting b. precise questioning c. guessing d.
58. Personalities of interviewees.
a. know nothing type b.breadth of interest c. art of interview d. intent
59. Every interrogation requires a great deal of patience ifcomplete and accurate information is to be obtained.
a. alertness b. integrity c. perseverance d. logic mind
60. The ________ of the interrogator should adapt to thesubjects cultural level.
a. dress b. attitude c, language d, privacy
61. ______ should be designed for simplicity with the viewof enhancing the concentration of both the interrogator
and the subject.
a. extenuation b. mutt and jeff c. the interrogation room d. line up
62. It is desirable to have facilities for others to observeand hear the suspect during the interrogation.
a. interrogation log b. seating arrangement c. technical Aids d.extenuation
63. In addition to his regular facilities for taking notesit is well for the investigator to have an available _________.
a. technical aid b, seating arrangement c. interrogation Log d.control the interview
64. The investigator must create a mood that is conducive toa confession.
a. kindness b. sympathetic approach c. friendliness d. emotional appeal
65. the investigator does not take too serious a view of thesubject’s indiscretion,
a. mutt and jeff b. shifting the balance c. knowledge bluff d. extenuation
66. The device is especially useful when dealing with aperson usually calm or nervous.
222
a. indifference b. stern approach c.indifference d. jolting

67. The subject conviction is treated as a fait accomplice.
a. jolting b. stern approach c. bluff d.indifference
68. In the beginning of the typical interrogation, theinvestigator has little need for control, the subject should be
permitted totell his story in his own way without interruption.
a. questioning b. emotional control c. strategic interruption d. initial phase
69. Branch of forensic science concerned with the recording,scientific examination, and interpretation of the
minute details.
a. fingerprint b. ballistic c. questioneddocument d. polygraphy
70. _______ is more likely to inspire confidence andfriendship in a criminal than a uniform.
a. barong c. gown c. formal dress d. civilian dress
71. Must be able to convince the subject that it is futileto resist since the interrogator obviously has sources of
knowledge.
a. Knowledge bluff b.line up c. reverse line up d.initial phase
72. The procedure is business like, but the interrogatorpauses meaningfully as if to give the suspect one more
chance to tell thetruth.
a. questioning as a formality b.indifference c. stern approach d.helpful adviser
73. ________ uses instrumentation and sophisticatedlaboratory techniques to detect the presence of substances
in the victim.
a. forensic science b. role of crime lab c. facts of the case d. forensic medicine
74. A criminalist ultimate task is the presentation oflaboratory findings to the court.
a. expert testimony b. clue material c. witness d. facts of the case
75. Reconstruct how the crime was committed.
a. Role of the crime laboratory b.time element c. element of crime d.facts of the case
76. The subject and the investigator should be seated withno large furniture between them.
a. seating arrangement b.technical aids c. interrogation log d.simplicity
77. It is desirable for several reasons, to restrict thenumber of persons present at an interrogation.
a. presence of other people b. attitude of other people c. presenceof investigator d. control theinterview
78. Every interrogation requires a great deal of patience ifcomplete and accurate information is to be obtained.
a. perseverance b. integrity c. alertness d. logical mind
79. Patience andflattery are necessary in dealing with the vain or self centered person.
a. boasting witness b. timid witness c. deceitful witness d. honest
80. the suspect is instate of emotional confusion, he is unable to think logically and clearly.
a. anxiety b. helpful adviser c.extenuation d. helpful adviser
Kindly choose and shade letter A if the answer is TRUE, B if FALSE, C if Partly True, D ifPartly False
81. Color change is the frequent swallowing and wetting oflips

82. Blood is a common clue material in many of the moreserious crimes against properties.
83. Information, Interrogation, and Investigation are the 3basic mechanism for controlling the behavior of those
engaged in crime.
84. 5H and 1W are the six cardinal points of criminalinvestigation.
85. Grid method is a modification of the strip method.
86. Information is used here to describe the knowledge whichthe investigator gathers from other person.
87. Forgetting all the details of information is one goodtraits of an investigator.
88. Interview means skillful questioning of witnesses andsuspects.
89. The presence of stenographer may deter a hesitant subject .
90. An interview may not be consider a success unless it isfaithfully recorded.
91. The disc, tape or wire recording are parts of writtennotes.
92. The investigator should appear anger and egoistic duringthe conduct of interview.
93. A Direct approach is most effective with willingwitnesses.
94. Before questioning a suspect the investigator shouldrefresh his knowledge of the law.
95. During the interview the investigator is not advisableto form a judgment regarding the credibility of his witness.
96. Do not explain to the suspect the general terms of thenature of offense under investigation.
97. The investigator should carefully observe any unusualreaction to questions.
98. The investigative process begins at the end ofinvestigation.
99. Locality is used to show the general area of the crimescene.
100. All camera position should not be recorded except forspecial attention.
~END OF CDI 1 QUESTIONS~

223
(CDI 1)
CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
ANSWER
1. B 46. B
2. B 47. A
3. A 48. C
4. C 49. D
5. D 50. D
6. A 51. D
7. B 52. B
8. C 53. D
9. A 54. A
10. B 55. A
11. A 56. D
12. C 57. C
13. C 58. A
14. C 59. C
15. B 60. C
16. B 61. C
17. C 62. C
18. A 63. C
19. A 64. D
20. D 65. D
21. D 66. A
22. A 67. C
23. D 68. D
24. B 69. C
25. B 70. A
26. C 71. A
27. B 72. A
28. D 73. A
29. A 74. A
30. B 75. A
31. C 76. A
32. B 77. A
33. C 78. A
34. C 79. A
35. C 80. A
36. C 81. B
37. D 82. A
38. D 83. A
39. D 84. A
40. C 85. A
41. B 86. A
42. A 87. B
43. C 88. B
44. A 89. A
45. C 90. A
224
91. A 96. B
92. B 97. A
93. A 98. B
94. A 99. A
95. A 100. B
225
(CDI 2)
TRAFFIC
MANAGENENT AND
ACCIDENT
INVESTIGATION
QUESTION
1. The traffic law enforcement is performed bythe court through Prosecution, Adjudication and Penalization of
cases.
a. Court TrafficLaw Enforcement b. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
c. Enforcement System d. Road Users System
2. Theenforcement of traffic laws deterrent to law violators, special assistance toprosecutors and courts and
incidental service to highway users.
a. Court Traffic Law Enforcement b.Road User System
c. E.O. 266 Enforcement System d. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
3. The Systemspecifies correct and incorrect road user behavior.
a. Road Users System b. Road System
c. EnforcementSystem d. Court System
4. If the plate number of a motor vehicle isAVC 536, what week of the month should it be registered?
a. 1st b. 2nd
c. 3rd d. 4th
5. If a driver is involved in a trafficaccident, he must report to the nearest police station.
a. within 48 hours b.within 72 hours
c. at once d. after 3 hours
6. What is the most common traffic violationcommitted by road users?
a. overloading b. expired license
c. illegal parking d. intoxicated driver
7. This element includes pedestrians, pedalcyclist, drivers, passengers and others
a. Enforcement System b. Road users Systems
c. Road System d. Court System
8. On a highway, a traffic sigh reads 80 kph asthe maximum speed. While the area isvery foggy, a man
Drivers on 80 Kph. If you are a trafficpatrol officer assigned at the area, you may apprehend the driver
For:
a. Overspeeding b. underspeeding
c. reckless driving d. failure to slow down
9. As a general rule, you should overtake on theleft side, except when:
a. the coming traffic is free from anyobstruction
b. the opposite traffic is free fromoncoming motor vehicles
226
c. c.traversing on a two-way lane highway

d. cruising along a four lane two way traffic way.
10.Which of the following is a safe place for overtaking?
a. commercial places b. expressway c. ruralhighways d. dry paved
11John was issued with a new professional drivers license on March 16,2005. when should john renewhis
License?
a. March 16, 2006 b. March 16, 2007
c. March 16 2008 d. March 16, 2009
12.Parking is allowed in the following places, except:
a. within an intersection. b. ona one-way street.
c. none of these d. on a two-way street
13.Many traffic congestion are caused by slow drivers or poor driving habits,pedestrian mistakes, officers errors,
poor planning, poor legislation.
a.physical inadequacy b. poor control measures
c. human errors d. poor maintenance
14. Joe was issued a studentdrivers permit on January 25, 2009. when can he be qualified to apply for Non-
professionaldrivers license?
a. after June 25,2009 b. on orafter June 25, 2009
c. after May 25,2009 d. after February 25,2009.
15. Empowering the LandTransportation Commission to control and supervise the operations of motorvehicle
driving schools.
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125
16.The color of the background for regulatory sign is-
a. blue b.green
c. yellow d. white
17.The color of the traffic light which is on after the green light is-
a. amber b. red
c. brown d. green
18.From the bottom, what is the arrangement of color of the traffic light?
a. red, yellow, green b. green, red, yellow
c. green, yellow, red d. red, green, yellow
19.The double solid white line-
a. doesn’t allow lane changing b. allows lane changing
c. allows overtaking d. allows parking
20. What Memorandum Circular, Clarificatory guidelines for theregistration/operation of new private vehicles
particularly in the use ofconduction sticker?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. MemorandumCircular 94-002
c. Memorandum Circular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-209
21.When the vehicle in the collision are damaged, the photograph should emphasizethe-
a. the direction of the motor vehicles b.the general view of the road or intersection
c. close-up view of the damage d. none of the above
22.This area is composed of the entire road and vehicles complex, as well as alltraffic rules and regulations
a. Road System b.Enforcement System
c. Court System d. Road User System
23. What Memorandum Circular, Sanctions on operators arising from theviolations of their drivers.?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011. b. Memorandum Circular 94-209
24.Means of transportation balanced on one shoulder is a popular carrying device.
a. manpower b. carrying pole
c. back load d. sledge on rollers
25.How should a driver approach an intersection?
a. be at the right of way b. give a signal
c. be at full stop d. overtake other vehicles
26.Means of transportation the load is held on the back by a strap passing overthe chest.
a. manpower b.carrying pole
c. back load d. sledge on rollers
27. What Memorandum Circular, Enjoining all public utility operators to usegarage instead of public places or side
streets in parking their vehicles?
227

28. What Memorandum Circular, Directing all public land transportationservice operators and drivers to display in
any conspicuous place of theirvehicles the authorized fare matrix for the specific route granted them toavoid
conflict?
c. MemorandumCircular 90-020. d. Memorandum Circular 94-002
29.What is that movement of persons, goods and vehicles either powered by animalor are animal-drawn vehicles
on by combustion system from one place to another?
a. engineering b. Traffic management
c. traffic d. construction
30.What traffic formation facilities safe movement of vehicles and pedestrian intraffic?
a. Traffic Control b. Management
c. supervision d. enforcement d. construction
31. What Memorandum Circular, Issuance of driver’s license to disabledpersons?
32.What is the proof that one is given permission by the Land transportationOffice (LTO) to operate a
Vehicles on public highways?
a. driver’s ID b. franchise
c. driver’s license d. operator’s license
33.What is the traffic engineering system that employs prescribed traffic rulesand regulations and devices
Such as signals, and markings, to relievevehicular congestion and to promote safety and pedestrian
Mobility?
a. traffic direction b.traffic engineering
c. traffic control d. traffic rules and regulations
34. What P.D. Declaring thesyndicated printing, manufacture, distribution, possession or use of fakeofficial Bureau
of Land Transportation form, documents, plates and stickers asoffenses involving economics sabotage
a. P.D. No. 1730 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
35. What P.D. Requiring compulsory insurance for all typesof Motor Vehicles against third party liability as an
additional prerequisitefor registration by the LTO
a. P.D. No. 612 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
36 What P.D. Imposing a tax on every motor vehicleequipped with air conditioner
a. P.D. No. 1686 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
37.What is that point or place where two or more, either single or double ormulti-lanes certainly meet at a
Point?
a. parallel b. corner
c. intersection d. crossfire
38. What P.D. Providing for the abatement of air pollutionfrom motor vehicles and for other purposes?
a. P.D. No. 1181 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
39. What P.D. Granting theMetropolitan Manila Commission certain powers related to traffic Management
andcontrol in Metropolitan Manila providing penalties, and for other purposes?
a. P.D. No. 1605 b. P.D. 1506
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
40. What P.D. Regulating the issuance of licenseplates of all motor vehicles?
a. P.D. No. 1605 b. P.D. 1506
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
41.What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
a. ‘keep to the left b. “keep to the right“
c. none of these d. “watch out”
42. What Executive OrderCreating the Land Transportation Franchising and Regulatory Board ( LTFRB)?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125
43. What Executive Order Reorganizing the DOTC,defining its powers and functions and for other purposes?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
228
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125

44.The conveying of persons, goods and things from one place to another isreferred to as-
a. transportations b. traffic
c. traffic management d. a and b arecorrect
45. What Letter of Instruction, Prohibiting freight and cargo trucksfrom using roads, highways and bridges whose
load capacities are in excess ofspecific allowable limits?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b. Letter of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter ofInstruction No. 716
46.The application of the processes of planning, organizing, directing andcontrolling to traffic affairs is
Referred to as-
a. traffic administration b. traffic management
c. traffic operation d. traffic supervision
47.What is the slang term used in referring a narrow portion of the roadway due totraffic congestion or
Where “to build Up” usually occurs?
a. gridlock b.congestion
c. traffic jam d. bottleneck
48.R.A. 8750 is otherwise known as-
a. clean air act b. Philippine Land TransportationCode
c. seatbelt law d.anti-car napping act
49. . What Letter ofInstruction, Directing the law enforcement agencies to implement the PollutionControl
Program?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b.Letter of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No. 716
50.If the plate number of the motor vehicle is top 688, what month should it beregistered?
a. January b. March
c. August d.September
51.It refers to the movement of persons, goods and vehicle either powered byanimals by animals or
Animal-drawn vehicles or by combustionsystem from one place to another for purpose of save travel?
a. traffic management b. traffic
c. traffic engineering d. trafficenforcement
52.This is belong to the 5’ E Pillars of Traffic Management, it refers to theprocess of giving training and
Travel and practice in the actual application of trafficsafety knowledge.
a. traffic enforcement b. traffic education
c. traffic engineering d. traffic economics
53. What is Letter ofInstruction No.______ Prohibiting freight and cargo trucks from using roads,highways and
bridges whose load capacities are in excess of specific allowablelimits?
a. Letter of Instruction No. 112 b. Letter of Instruction No.551
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d. Letter of Instruction No.716
54.This is belong to the 5’ E Pillars of Traffic Management, it refers to thescience of measuring traffic and
Travel?
55. This is belong to the 5’E Pillars of Traffic Management, it is the study dealing with potentiallydisastrous
disastrous population explosions. Changesin urban environment due to scale.
c. ecology or environment d. traffic economics
56. What LTC MemorandumCircular No. ______,dated 12 September 1972. Providing guidelines in the
apprehension ofillegally parked motor vehicles?
a. LTC M.C. No. 33, b. LTC M.C. No. 15,
c. LTC M.C. 92-146 d.LTC M.C. 94-199
57. What LTC MemorandumCircular No.______,dated 19 January 1972. Regulating and laying instructions in the
use ofSpecial Commemorative Motor Vehicle Plates?
a. LTC M.C. No. 15 b. LTC M.C. No. 18,
c. LTC M.C. 92-146 d. LTC M.C. 94-199
58. This study is centered inthe urban environment which was change because the scale and density of the
New urban concentrations and the natureof the new activities carried out there.
a. DPWH b. traffic education
c. traffic ecology and environment d.Public works / engineering offices
59. It is device mounted oron a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words or
229
Symbols officially erected or installedfor the purpose of regulating, warning or guiding traffic.
c. traffic ecology and environment d. traffic signs
60. It define as a signaloperated manually, electrically by which traffic is alternatively commanded tostop
And permitted to proceed.
a.DPWH b. traffic education
c. traffic light signals d. traffic signs
61. This were the areaswithin the roadway constructed in a manner to establish physical channels through
Which vehicular traffic guided.
c. traffic light signals d. traffic island
62. What is Letter ofInstruction, Requiring all motor vehicles owners,users, or drivers to have in their possession
at all times while driving atleast one (1) pair of every warning device ( EWD ) for use when the vehicle isdisabled
on roads, streets and highways or other emergencies compelling thevehicle to be on stop position?
63. It is represented by 3 color, red, yellow, green.
a. saturation flow b. traffic signal
c. traffic light signals d. traffic island
64 What is Letter of Instruction,Every motor vehicle to equip at least a pair of early warning device?
c. Letter of Instruction No. 229 d.Letter of Instruction No. 716
65. It belong to the trafficsignal that permit the driver to proceed into the intersection, but requiresthat the
intersection furthest crosswalk be cleared before the red lightappears
a. saturation flow b red
c. yellow or amber d. green
66.What Executive Order Providing for two service units in the Office of the Asst.Sec. for Land Transportation in
the DOTC( Law Enforcement Services and TrafficAdjudication Services), defining the powers and functions
thereof and for otherpurposes?
a. E. O. 202 b. E. O. 248
c. E.O. 266 d. E. O. 125
67. It coordinated with thered signal and the green signal. A flashing pedestrian signal indicates theyellow (amber)
as warning period.
a. green b red
c. yellow or amber d. pedestrian signal
68. What Presidential DegreeRegulating the use of sirens, bells, hors, etc.,, by prohibiting the attachmentof any
siren, horn bell, etc. on motor vehicles which produce unusual orstarting sounds as well as brinkers and other
similar devices unless thevehicle belongs to the AFP, NBI, LTO, PNP, BJMP, Hospitals and Fire Departmentand
are specifically intended for use in emergencies.
a. P.D. No. 96. b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
69. It is created when anytwo or more signals or any traffic routes or roadway are coordinated with afixed time
relationships among the several intervals.
a. signal system b timing
70. It is complete electricaltiming mechanism mounted on a cabinet with control operation.
a. signal system bTraffic signal control
71. What R.A. thebasic law regulating land transportation in the Philippines?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A. 5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749
72.What R.A. which is knownas the “ Anti Carnapping Act of 1972” The act preventing and penalizingcarnapping?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749
73. What R.A. imposing a tax on privately owned passengerautomobiles, motorcycles and scooters?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A. 5448
c. R.A. 6539 d.R.A 8749
74. What R.A. Also known asthe “ Clean air Act which regulates emission of toxic gases of both gasolineand
diesel engines?
230
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448

c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A 8749
75. What R.A. It provides forthe attachment of seat belts for all types of motor vehicles and imposespenalty for the
non-compliance thereof?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A . 8750
76. What R.A. The Actcreating the Metropolitan Manila Development Authority, defining its powers and functions,
providingfunds therefore and for other purposes?
a. R.A. 4136 b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539 d. R.A . 7924
77. A condition on thetraffic way characterized by slow movement of roadway users due to theovercrowding of
motor vehicles, pedestrians and other road users.
a. traffic enforcement b. traffic congestion
c. traffic engineering d.traffic economics
78. It refers to reduced riskof accident or injury on the roads, achieved through multidisciplinaryapproaches
involving road engineering, and traffic management , education andtraining of road users, and vehicle design.
a. traffic enforcement b. roadsafety
79. This is means of havingtraffic violators appears in court with out physical arrest.
a. Traffic Citation b.Traffic Warning
c. Reprimand d. Traffic Arrest
80. The court after dueprocess imposes the penalty upon the accused if found guilty
a. Penalization b Detection
c. Prosecution d.Apprehension
81. An elevated orunderground structure built for the safety of the pedestrians in crossing busyhighways?
a. median barriers b Pedestrian over/underpass
c. offset d.guardrail
82. What P.D. Expediting the methods of prescribing,redefining or modifying the lines and modes of operations of
public utilitymotor vehicles in the Philippines?
a. P.D. No. 101 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
83. What P.D. Declaring as part of the laws of the Philippines theviennaConvention on Road Traffic Signs and
Signals?
a. P.D. No. 207 b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D. 98 d. P.D. 1729
84. It is used to increasevisibility of traffic way at night?
a. median barriers b street light
c. Fence d. drainage
85. It is an enforcementaction which consists of taking a person into custody for the purpose ofholding or detaining
him to answer a charge of law violation before a court.
a. Traffic Arrest b Traffic Citation
c. Traffic Warning d.Reprimand
86. It is highlyunsystematic, this is usually carried out in the home through parentaleducation and in kindergarten
and day nurseries.
a. noise barriers b traffic safety for children
c. Fence d.drainage
87. It is safety educationfor elder pedestrians and drivers is relatively easier compared to theeducation designed
for younger children?
a. traffic safety for adults b traffic safety forchildren
c. Fence d.drainage
88. In general driverinstruction aims primarily to teach the rudiments of driving.
a. traffic safety for adults btraffic safety for children
c. driver’s education dLTO
89. Who administrate theissuance of driver’s license?
a. traffic safety for adults b LTO
c. driver’s education d traffic safety for children B
90. It is under the 2 generalclassification of licenses, this license affords the holder thereof theprivilege to make
driving a means of livelihood?
a. Professional Driver’s License bLTO
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c. driver’s education d traffic safety forchildren

91. It is under the 2 generalclassification of licenses, this license only entitles the holder to drive hisown vehicles
and not to earn a livelihood.
a. Professional Driver’s License b LTO
c. Non-Professional Driver’s License dtraffic safety for children C
92. It is under the specialtype of license, issued by the Phil. Motor’s Assn., the basis of which is thelocal license.
a. Professional Driver’s License b LTO
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safety for children C
93. It is under the specialtype of license, issued by the PNP / AFP to police or military personnel andauthorized the
holder to thereof, to drive only police or military vehicles?
a. Government or Police Driver’s License b LTO
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safety for children
94. This license issued to aperson who is 16 years old of age and valid for one year?
a. Government or Police Driver’s License b Student’s Driver’s Permit
c. International Driver’s License d traffic safetyfor children
95. What is Letter ofInstruction NO.______ Owners and/oroperators of motor vehicles are authorized to pay the
annual premiums for theinsurance of their motor annual premiums for the insurance of their motorvehicles on
quarterly
96. It refers to executivefunctions such as planning, organizing, directing, supervising, coordinating,operating,
recording, and budgeting traffic affairs?
a. traffic management b. traffic
c. traffic engineering d. traffic enforcement
97. What is Letter of Instruction NO._______ Providing for the removal of all impedimentson roads, streets and
highways such as constructions, stalled or parkedvehicles and other movables property that obstruct free
passage?
98. The step that determinesthe guilt or innocent of the accused.
a. Prosecution b. Adjudication
c. Detection d. Apprehension
99. It is also a whole police function which involves the actualtaking of enforcement actions.
a. Detection b. Apprehension
c. Prosecution d. Adjudication
100. A whole policeresponsibility that entails looking for defects in the behavior of motorist,pedestrians, vehicle,
equipment and roadway condition.
a. Detection b. Apprehension
c. Prosecution d. Adjudication

232
(CDI 2)
TRAFFIC
MANAGENENT AND
ACCIDENT
INVESTIGATION
ANSWER
1. A 35. A
2. D 36. A
3. C 37. C
4. A 38. A
5. C 39. A
6. C 40. C
7. B 41. B
8. C 42. A
9. D 43. D
10. C 44. A
11. A 45. A
12. A 46. B
13. C 47. D
14. D 48. C
15. B 49. B
16. D 50. C
17. A 51. B
18. C 52. B
19. A 53. A
20. D 54. C
21. C 55. C
22. A 56. A
23. D 57. A
24. B 58. C
25. B 59. D
26. C 60. C
27. A 61. D
28. C 62. C
29. C 63. B
30. A 64. D
31. D 65. C
32. C 66. C
33. C 67. D
34. A 68. A
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69. A 85. A
70. B 86. B
71. A 87. A
72. C 88. C
73. B 89. B
74. D 90. A
75. D 91. C
76. D 92. C
77. B 93. A
78. B 94. B
79. A 95. B
80. A 96. A
81. B 97. B
82. A 98. B
83. A 99. B
84. B 100. A
234
(CDI 3)
SPECIAL CRIME
INVESTIGATION
QUESTION
1. An Act in which an individual kills one or more other persons immediately before or
at the same time as him or herself is called
A. Suicide
B. Murder-suicide
C. Mass suicide
D. Suicide attack
2. The branch of jurisprudence that uses scientific theories and principles in the
detection and investigation of crimes is called
A. Criminal Jurisprudence
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
3. A person who’s case was forwarded to the office of the prosecutor and filed in
court is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
4. A person who is convicted by final judgment is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
5. A circumstance, event or occurrence as it actually exists or existed refers to
A. Event
B. Occurrence
C. Phenomena
D. Fact
6. The means by which facts are proved is called
A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Fact
D. Circumstance
7. The geographical area where the crime was committed refers to
235
A. Venue
B. Site
C. Scene
D. Crime scene
8. The most reliable means of preserving the crime scene or evidence is referring to
A. Recording
B. Sketching
C. Photography
D. Documenting
9. The investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training to fully
understand their broad significance refers to
A. Special Investigation
B. Special Crime
C. Special Crime Investigation
D. Specific Crime Investigation
10. The general term referring to the knowledge acquired by criminal investigator from
various sources is called
A. Information
B. Data
C. Facts
D. Intelligence
11. The simple friendly questioning of people who have the information officially needed
by investigators is called
A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Instrumentation
D. Information
12. The vigorous or aggressive questioning of person suspected of having committed an
offense or a person who is reluctant or willing to make a full disclosure of information in
his possessions, which is pertinent to the investigation of a criminal case is called
A. Investigation
B. Interrogation
C. Interview
D. Inquiry
13. An act defining certain rights of person under custodial investigation is known as
A. RA 7348
B. RA 7438
C. RA 7843
D. RA7834
14. The application of instrument and method of physical science in the detection and
investigation of crime is called
A. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation
C. Interview
D. Information
15. The legal taking of a person into a custody in order that he may be bound to answer
for the commission of an offense is called
A. Apprehend
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Take custody
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16. An order in writing issued in the name of the Philippines commanding or directing a
peace officer to arrest the person described therein and brings it before the court
refers to
A. Search Warrant
B. Arrest Warrant
C. Warrant
D. Order
17. The warrant of arrest is to be served within a statutory period of
A. 5 Days
B. 10 Days
C. 15 Days
D. 20 Days
18. The warrant of arrest validity continues unless:
A. Recalled by the issuing court
B. The respondent has been arrested
C. Respondent voluntary submitted himself
D. All of these
19. An object is located by making a measurement at right angles from each of two
walls. Works well for indoor measurements. This method of obtaining measurement
refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
20. This locating object is particularly useful in large, irregularly shaped outdoor areas.
This method is called
A. Polar coordinate
B. Baseline
C. Rectangular coordinate
D. Compass direction
21. These measurements are taken from two fixed points at the scene to the object you
desire to locate. This is refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
22. A simple diagram that creates a mental pictures of the scene to those who are not
present is called
A. Sketch
B. Crime Scene Sketch
C. Photograph
D. Rough Sketch
23. The first pencil-drawn outline of the scene and the location of objects and evidence
within this outline refers to
A. Rough Draft
B. Finished Sketch
C. Rough Sketch
D. Final Sketch
24. Any statement of fact made by a party which is against his interest or unfavorable
to the conclusion for which he contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged by him is
called
A. Confession
B. Admission
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C. Conclusion
D. Testimony
25. An express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal prosecution of the truth of
his guilt as to the offense charged, while admission refers to statements of fact not
directly constituting an acknowledgment of guilt is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Declaration
D. Testimony
26. Latin for the “body of the crime” is also called as
A. Corpuz Delicti
B. Corpus Delecti
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Corpuz Delecti
27. A venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event has been committed is
called
A. Crime
B. Venue
C. Scene
D. Crime Scene
28. The collection of facts in order to accomplish the three-fold aims – to identify the
guilty party; to locate the guilty party; and to provide evidence of his (suspect) guilt is
called
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Crime Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
29. A well-trained, disciplined and experienced professional in the field of criminal
investigation duties and responsibilities refers to
A. Investigator
B. Agent
C. Inquisitor
D. Criminal Investigator
30. One that defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for their punishment is
called
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Jurisprudence
C. Jurisprudence
D. Law
31. Investigation conducted by law enforcement officers after a person has been
arrested or deprived of his freedom of action. It includes invitation to a person who is
being investigated in connection with an offense. This is called
A. Crime Investigation
B. Criminal Investigation
C. Investigation
D. Inquest
32. An inquiry, judicial or otherwise, for the discovery and collection of facts
concerning the matter or matters involved is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
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33. The process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and getting vital

information/facts/circumstances in order to establish the truth is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
34. The principle on the rights of a suspect from forced self-incrimination during police
interrogation is called
A. Golden Doctrine
B. Cardinal Doctrine
C. Miranda Principle
D. Miranda Doctrine
35. Data gathered by an investigator from other persons including the victim himself
and other sources refers to
A. Information
B. Data
C. Intelligence
D. Raw data
36. Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instrument and methods of
the physical sciences in detecting crime is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Information
D. Instrumentation
37. The skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Investigation
D. Instrumentation
38. Any person who shall kill his father shall guilty of what crime?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Paternicide
39. Donald Bright an illegitimate son of Peter Bright and Lou Wang. Peter Bright shot
Lou Wang with a revolver resulted to the latter’s death; Peter Bright is liable for what
crime?
A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Sorroricide
40. The killing of a human being by the act, procurement or negligence of another shall
guilty of what crime?
A. Homicide
B. Infanticide
C. Murder
D. Parricide
41. Kanto Boy a 23 years old killed a 3 years old boy, kanto boy is liable for what crime?
A. Infanticide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
D. Fraternicide
239
42. The collection of basic facts establishing that a crime has been committed and that
some other person is responsible is called?
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus delicti
43. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide except:
A. That the person was killed
B. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior strength, and
premeditation
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is presumed
44. The following are categories of modes of death except:
A. Suicidal death
B. Homicidal death
C. Artificial death
D. Accidental death
45. The officer responsible for recording a crime scene and recognizing and preserving
physical evidence is refers
A. Criminalists
B. Evidence technician
C. Forensic pathologist
D. Forensic anthropologist
46. The taking of personal property belonging to another, with the intent to gain, by
means of violence against, or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things is
called
A. Theft
B. Larceny
C. Robbery
D. Burglary
47. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery except:
A. That there must be personal property
B. That personal property belonging to another
C. That the taking must be with intent to gain
D. That there be no violence against or intimidation of person or force upon
things
48. This characterized as having a long-term commitment to crime as a source of
livelihood, planning and organizing crimes before committing them and pursuing money to
support a particular lifestyle is called
A. Opportunist Robber
B. Drug Addict Robber
C. Professional Robber
D. Alcoholic Robber
49. These types of robbers view themselves as lifetime robbers and commits infrequent
robbery offenses, often recklessly. They are called
A. Amateur Intermittent Offender
B. Specific-Objective Offender
C. Professional Robber
D. Opportunist Robber
50. This involves the use of weapons such as firearm, a knife or other dangerous
weapons.
A. Strong-Arm Robbery
B. Armed Robbery
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C. Professional Robbery
D. Amateur Robbery
51. The following are types of robbery except:
A. Armed Robbery
B. Street Robbery
C. Residential Robbery
D. Commercial Robery
52. Mando Rugas entered the house of Manny Bog by climbing into the window of the
house of the latter and take personal properties. Mando Rugas is liable for what crime?
A. Tress Passing
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
53. Ben Tong smashed the windshield of the car that was parked at the parking area
and took the car stereo. Ben Tong is liable for what crime?
A. Malicious Mischief
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
54. The Anti-Rape Law of 1997 is also known as
A. RA NO. 8533
B. RA NO. 8353
C. RA NO. 8355
D. RA NO. 8535
55. Sexual intercourse carried out against a person’s will by the use of physical violence
is sometimes refers to
A. Acquaintance Rape
B. Forcible Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. Consented Rape
56. The rapist who psychologically doubt his masculinity and seeks to dispel this doubt
by exercising power and control over women.
A. Power-Reassurance Rapist
B. Power-Assertive Rapist
C. Opportunistic Rapist
D. Sadistic Rapist
57. The unlawful use of threat of violence against person or property to further
political or social objectives is called
A. Terrorism
B. Political terrorists
C. Nationalist terrorist
D. Socialist terrorists
58. An act of willfully and maliciously damaging or destroying a building or other
property by fire or explosion is called
A. Malicious mischief
B. Murder
C. Arson
D. Destruction of property
59. The Fire Code of the Philippines is also known as:
A. PD 1185
B. RA 9514
C. PD 1613
D. RA 9495
241
60. The use of force or the fear of force to achieve a political end is called
A. Political terrorists
B. Nationalist Terrorists
C. Terrorism
D. Socialist terrorists
61. The terms, necropsy, postmortem, or postmortem examination, dissection and
examination of a dead body to determine the cause of death refers to
A. Necropsy
B. Postmortem
C. Postmortem examination
D. Autopsy
62. The following are the three fold aim of criminal investigation except:
A. Identify the perpetrator
B. Convict the perpetrator
C. Locate the perpetrator
D. Provide evidence
63. Modus Operandi means?
A. Methods of Operation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Manner of the committing the crime
D. All of these
64. A generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by law is called
A. Crime
B. Offense
C. Felony
D. Misdemeanor
65. A person arrested for a crime is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
II. TRUE OR FALSE
If both statements are TRUE WRITE A
If the first statement is TRUE and the second statement is FALSE WRITE B
If the first statement is FALSE and the second statement is TRUE WRITE C
If both statements are FALSE WRITE D
66. The photographer upon arrival at the crime scene will photograph the entire
area. The Team Leader prepares photograph log and photographic sketch.
67. The police officer of the station who first received the report of the
incident shall record the time of report/complaint was made. Interview the person who
first notifies the police.
68. Collect evidence immediately after location. Consider anything and everything
at the scene as evidence.
69. The Medico legal officer is indispensable in the composition of SOCO Team
in incident involving deaths.
70. Upon location of evidence it must be photographed immediately with
markings. Chalk line is placed around the body of the victim immediately upon arrival at
the crime scene.
71. Crime Investigation is the investigation of cases that are unique and often
require special training. Homicide, rape, robbery etc are one of these.
72. Crime reconstruction simply means re-enacting how the crime was committed.
Modus Operandi is the Modes of Operation.
242
73. The 5Ws and 1H is the Golden Rule in criminal investigation. “Do not touch,
move, or alter any evidence at the crime scene unless it was properly recorded and
photographed is the Cardinal Rule in Criminal Investigation.
74. The success of an investigation is sole upon the effort of the criminal
investigation. One of good qualities of an investigator is the knowledge of law.
75. The investigator must be familiar with the elements of crimes. He must at
least knowledgeable on crimes defines in the revised penal code.
76. Discover all facts and collect physical evidence is one responsibility of a
criminal investigator. The recovery of stolen property has no significance on the parallel
identification of the perpetrator.
77. One of the roles of an investigator is to identify the perpetrator. After
identification the investigator shall prosecute the perpetrator of the crime.
78. The crime scene is the area surrounding the place where the crime occurred.
The processing of the area at the scene includes all direct traces of the crime. And this
is determined by the type of crime committed and the place where the act occurred.
79.Interrogation is the skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects who is willing
to provide information. Interview is the skillful question of witness and suspect who are
reluctant to provide information.
80.Criminal Investigation is an art because it involves systematic method of
inquiry. It is a science because it does not follow rigid rules.
81.Criminal investigation is a process because involves systematic process of
identifying, locating and providing evidence of the perpetrator’s guilt. It is a systematic
plan facilitates a logical flow of investigation.
82. At the crime scene, the First Responder shall check the condition of the
victim. While the other members of the first responders shall simultaneously secure the
area by putting a police line or any material (like rope, straw and etc).
83. Criminal Investigation objective is to determine the truth and what transpired
in a particular incident. Criminal Investigation is an art and science.
84. Felony is generic term referring to many types of misconduct forbidden by
law. Crime is punishable by public law.
85.The success of the investigation depends largely on the actions taken by the
first responder. He should follow correct procedures not to make errors.
86. If the victim is still alive the investigator should exert effort to gather
information from the victim himself regarding the circumstances of the crime. Post-
mortem statement is also called dying declaration.
87. Only a medico-legal examiner shall remove the dead body unless an unusual
circumstance justifies its immediate removal. Autopsy is a post-mortem examination
without dissection on the body of the victim.
88. The investigator should record the time when he was initially notified prior to
his arrival at the crime scene. Each crime is different, according to the physical nature
of the scene and the crime or offense involved.
89.The investigator places his initials, the date and time of discovery on each item
for proper identification. Sketches are substitute for notes or photos.
III. Matching Type
Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) consists of a combination of letters and numbers.
Match the meaning of each number and letters combination of VIN in Column A with
Column B by shading the corresponding letter in your answer sheet.
Number 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
VIN 1 J 3 J 4 5 A 0 C R 335521
243
Letter and Number The meaning of letter or number combination of

combination of V.I.N. the V.I.N.
(1J3J45A0CR335521)
90. 1 A. Specific Name of the Vehicle
B. Type of Restraint System
C. Name of Manufacturer
D. Nation of Origin
91. J A. Name of Manufacturer
B. Type of Restraint System
C. Specific Name of the Vehicle
D. Nation of Origin
92. 3 A. Specific Name of the Vehicle
B. Name of Manufacturer
C. Type of Restraint System
D. Car Line Series and Body Type
93. J A. Engine Description
B. Specific Name of the Vehicle
C. Car Line Series and Body Type
D. Type of Restraint System
94. 4 A. Check Digit
B. Car Line Series and Body Type
C. Name of Manufacturer
D. Engine Description
95. 5 A. Engine Description
B. Model Year
C. Sequential Production Number
D. Car Line Series and Body Type
96. A A. Car Line Description
B. Assembly Plant Location
C. Check Digit
D. Model Year
97. 0 A. Assembly Plant Location
B. Check Digit
C. Model Year
D. Sequential Production Number
98. C A. Check Digit
B. Model Year
C. Engine Description
D. Assembly Plant Location
99. R A. Check Digit
B. Assembly Plant Location
C. Engine Description
D. Model Year
100. 335521 A. Sequential Production Numbers
B. Number Series
C. Production Number Series
D. Check Digits
244

245
(CDI 3)
SPECIAL CRIME
INVESTIGATION
ANSWER
1. A 43. B
2. D 44. C
3. A 45. A
4. B 46. C
5. C 47. D
6. B 48. C
7. D 49. A
8. A 50. B
9. A 51. A
10. A 52. C
11. B 53. B
12. B 54. B
13. B 55. B
14. B 56. A
15. C 57. A
16. B 58. C
17. B 59. B
18. D 60. A
19. A 61. D
20. B 62. B
21. B 63. D
22. B 64. A
23. C 65. C
24. B 66. B
25. A 67. A
26. C 68. C
27. D 69. A
28. D 70. D
29. D 71. D
30. A 72. A
31. B 73. D
32. A 74. A
33. A 75. A
34. D 76. B
35. A 77. B
36. D 78. A
37. B 79. D
38. B 80. D
39. C 81. A
40. A 82. A
41. B 83. A
42. A 84. C
246
85. A 93. Car line series and body type

86. B 94. Car line series and body line
87. B 95. Car line series and body line
88. A 96. Model year
89. B 97. Check digit
90. Nation of origin 98. Engine description
91. Name of manufacturer 99. Assembly plant location
92. Specific name of the vehicle 100. Sequential production number
247
(CDI 5)
DRUG EDUCATION
AND VICE CONTROL
QUESTION
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the bestanswer.
1. One of the coverage on the Rules of Anti-Drug Operations is Buy-bust operations.Buy-bust operation is a
form:
a. Entrapment operation
b. Surveillance operation
c. Casing operations
d. Search and Seizure operation
2. Itis a general rule in Anti-Drug Operations that all drug law-enforcement andprevention operation prior to
actual conduct should be covered with:
a. Warrant
b. Pre-operation report
c. Post-operation report
d. None of these
3. WhatNational Anti-Drug Campaign strategy is carried out by preventive education andinformation drive?
a. Supply Reduction Strategy
b. Demand Reduction Strategy
c. International Coordination
d. All of these
4. Whatanti-drug operation is used to build-up relevant and competent evidence, whichare vital in the
development of a drug case?
a. Buy-bust operation
b. Mobile Checkpoints
c. Controlled delivery
d. None of these
5. Inthe conduct of dangerous drug death investigation where the cause of deathnoted is petechial hemorrhage,
the drug possibly taken is:
a. Cocaine
b. Amphetamine drug
c. Barbiturate drug
d. Hallucinogen drug
6. Manydrug seizures are made as a result of a raid. Raid involving dangerous drugseizures are usually
covered by:
a. Search Warrant
b. Warrant of Arrest
c. Memorandum Order
d. Documentary Evidence
7. Whena drug evidence is transferred from one investigator to another, the process ofevidence transfer is
called:
a. Evidence Gathering
b. Evidence Protection
c. Chain of Custody
d. Chain of Evidence Transfer
248
8. Whatis the technique in anti-drug operation that is carried out by allowing suspectconsignment of illegal
drugs, psychotropic substances substituted for them topass out into one or more country with knowledge of their
competent authoritieswith a view to identify persons involved in the commission of drug relatedoffenses?
a. Buy-bust operations
b. Controlled delivery
c. Undercover operations
d. Airport/Seaport Interdictions
9. Ifthe increasing local supply of shabu is the major concern of the lawenforcement pillar in the drug control
effort, what about the court pillar?
a. Lack of community support
b. Unabated marijuana cultivation
c. Undue delay in the disposition ofdrug cases
d. Lack of integrity of the policeand prosecution in the presentation of evidence
10. In drug control and preventionefforts, the mission of the law enforcement pillar is to:
a. Reduce the incidence of dangerousdrug cases through proper administration of justice
b. Enforce the drug laws inaccordance with existing national legislation
c. Provide a highly specialized andproperly motivated prosecution service
d. Provide comprehensive and moreeffective programs and services of treatment and rehabilitation process
11. When the anti-drug investigatortakes a sample of the seized drug, the desired sample should be place in
asuitable container. It should then be sealed in such a way as to preventtampering preferably with the signature of
the suspect and the officerappearing on the seal. Such process is called:
a. Transfer of evidence
b. Evidence gathering
c. Evidence marking
d. Evidence protection
12. To conduct a sustainable,comprehensive and integrated drug prevention education program in thePhilippines,
the community pillar should target groups such as the:
a. Family
b. Youth
c. Community leaders
d. All of these
13. The unabated marijuanacultivation and or production in some parts of the country is caused by:
a. Cultivation is clandestine
b. Danger of operation due topresence of hostile forces
c. Costly eradication due todifficulty of accessibility
d. All of the above
14. Is a person suffering from anysigns and symptoms of drug abuse? This question guides the investigator
todetermine whether the person
a. is an addict or not
b. has just used any drug or not
c. is intoxicated of alcohol or not
d. is under the influence of drug ornot
15. Which among the pillars of theCriminal Justice System is considered the weakest pillar with respect toanti-
drug operation?
a. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Correction
d. Court
16. In the conduct of custodialinvestigation, one of the rights provided for by law is the protection againstself-
incrimination and rights is found on the grounds of:
a. Public policy and morality
b. Humanity and conscience
c. Public policy and humanity
d. All of the above
17. When does the court acquirejurisdiction over a case filed by the anti-drug operatives?
a. The moment the case is filed with theprosecutor office
b. The moment that it is filed withthe court
c. The moment that the trial or thecase begins
d. The moment that the partiespresents their evidence
18. What should be conducted in orderto determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction of the Regional
TrialCourt?
a. Inquest Proceeding
b. Preliminary Investigation
c. Search and Seizure
249
d. Preliminary Conference
19. The presence of drugparaphernalia at the drug scene in the form of syringe and needle, tourniquet,spoon or
bottle top “cookies” and tinfoil packet reveals that the drug beingadministered are:
a. liquid drugs
b. tablet drugs
c. capsule drugs
d. leaves for smoking
20. The body sign in dangerous drugdeath investigation of bluish discoloration of the face and or fingernails dueto
insufficient oxygenation of the blood caused by increase in carbon dioxidein the body is called?
a. Asphyxia
b. Cyanosis
c. Hematoma
d. Petechial hemorrhage
21. The burning of a small quantityof the suspected substance and determining the odor or smell having similar
toburnt banana leaves or has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal thedrug as:
a. Opium
b. Coca leaves
c. Marijuana
d. Peyote Cactus
22. To beef up intelligencecapability to interdict extensive manufacture of shabu, the law enforcementpillar
should:
a. Conduct extensive intelligenceoperations
b. Motivate public to be vigilantand assistive
c. Provide attractive reward system
d. All of the above
23. The physical desire to repeat theuse of drugs intermittently or continuously is commonly known as:
a. Addiction
b. Habituation
c. Potency
d. Toleration
24. The drug addict or user generallyacquires the drug habit because of being:
a. Powerlessand less self-control
b. Emotionallyunstable
c. Socially maladjusted
d. Allof these
25. It refers to the state of mind inwhich a person has lost the power of self-control in respect of a drug.
a. Drug addiction
b. Drug toleration
c. Drug habituation
d. Drug experimentation
26. One who uses drug to keepwakefulness or additional energy in performing an important work is a:
a. Habitual drug user
b. Situational drug abuser
c. Spree user
d. None of these
27. On the part of the drug user, thelost of interest to study, failure in school works, shifting from one course
toanother, transfer of school of lower standards and eventually dropped is anindication of:
a. Changes in physical appearance
b. Changes of mood
c. Changes of interest
d. Changes in behavior
28. In acute cases withdrawal ofdrugs causes serious physical illness also called abstinence syndrome. It isalso
otherwise known as:
a. Psychological dependence
b. Physical dependence
c. Addiction
d. Withdrawal syndrome
29. What kind of drug examination ismade during the initial investigation conducted by the first
respondingofficers?
a. Filed Testing
b. Color Reaction Testing
c. Laboratory Analysis
d. All of these
250
30. In detecting drug abusers, oneshould consider appearance and associations of the suspected person.
Thepresence of linear scars in the arms, forearms or abdomen is a good indicationthat the:
a. Subject is a marijuana user
b. Subject is a syrup user
c. Subject is a cocaine user
d. Subject is liquid drug user
31. What drug is known as the “kingof all drugs” for being the most abused drug in the world?
a. Hallucinogen
b. Solvent
c. Amphetamine
d. Alcohol
32. Among the group of hallucinogendrugs, which of them is considered the most powerful?
a. Demerol
b. DMT
c. LSD
d. STP
33. The reaction produced by a drugin addition to the desired effects is called:
a. Overdose
b. Side effects
c. Tolerance
d. Idiosyncrasy
34. Traditionally, the term drugabuse referred to the use of any drug that is:
a. Prohibited by law
b. Natural in origin
c. Chemically synthesized
d. Prescribed by a physician
35. What color reaction test is usedto identify a substance as cocaine?
a. Cobalt Thiocyanate
b. Marquis Test
c. Nitric Acid Test
d. PABA
36. What drug was considered to bethe first local anesthetic to be discovered?
a. Cocaine
b. Opium
c. Morphine
d. Heroin
37. The chemical name of the drugheroin is:
a. Diacetylmorphine
b. Dimorphine hydrochloride
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
38. According to effects, thedangerous drugs are classified into:
a. Stimulant-depressant-narcotics
b. Depressant-narcotics-hallucinogen
c. Hallucinogen-depressant-stimulant
d. None of these
39. For the tentative identificationof the barbiturates, the ______ test is used:
a. Marquis test
b. Zwikker Test
c. KN Test
d. Nitric Acid Test
40. What is the chemical name of thedrug shabu?
a. Amphetamine Hydrochloride
b. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
c. Methamphetamine Hydrosulfate
d. None of these
41. What group of drugs is alsocalled the Deliriant?
a. Inhalant
b. Solvent
c. Volatile Substance
d. All of these
42. What is the active ingredient oralkaloid of the marijuana plant?
a. Hul Gil
b. THC Canabinnol
251
c. Hashis
d. None of these
43. One of the following slang termsrefers to the drug cocaine.
a. Beer
b. Extra
c. Ice
d. Strong
44. Duquenois-Levine test is formarijuana; Symone’s test is for:
a. Cocaine
b. Barbiturates
c. Opium derivatives
d. Shabu
45. The substance known as the“miracle drug” refers to:
a. Cocaine
b. Codeine
c. Morphine
d. Heroin
46. What is called the “visualevidence” in drug related cases?
a. Asphyxiation
b. Skin diseases
c. Internal body signs
d. Needle marks/tracks
47. Marijuana plant is scientificallyknown as:
a. Hashis
b. Hashasan
c. Cannabis Sativa
d. Papaver Somniferum
48. What is called the “poor man’scocaine”?
a. Codeine
b. Cocaine
c. Marijuana
d. Methamphetamine hydrochloride
49. Chemically known as methamphetaminehydrochloride.
a. Valium
b. LSD
c. Ketamine
d. Shabu
50. What drug is known as the“assassins of the youth”?
a. Cannabis sativa
b. Methamphetamine hydrochloride
c. Diacetylmorphine
d. None of these
II. MATCHING TYPE: Match Column A to Column B.Choose the best answer from the
Given options.
Column A Column B
51. Philippine Drug EnforcementAgency a. Narcotics Law of 1953
52. Dangerous Drugs Board b. policy-making andstrategy-formulating
body
53. Republic Act 9165 c. Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972
54. Republic Act 6425 d.Implementing arms of DDB
55. Republic Act 953 e. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of
2002
Column A ColumnB
56. Section 1, Art I, RA 9165 a. possession of dangerous drugs
57. Section 4, Art II, RA 9165 b. comprehensive dangerous drugs act of 2002
58. Section 11, Art II, RA 9165 c. use of dangerous drugs
59. Section 15, Art II, RA 9165
60. Section 21, Art II, RA 9165 d. Custody and Disposition of
Confiscated, Seized,and/or Surrendered Dangerous Drugs, Plant Sources of Dangerous Drugs,Controlled
Precursors and Essential Chemicals, Instruments/Paraphernalia and/orLaboratory Equipment
e.importation of dangerous drugs/Controlled Precursors and Essential Chemicals
252
Column A ColumnB
61. Employees and Visitors of a Den,Dive, Resort a. Section 5, Article II, RA 9165
62. Possession of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus
and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs. b.Section 7, Article II, RA 9165
63. Possession of Equipment, Instrument, Apparatus
and Other Paraphernalia for Dangerous Drugs c.Section 12, Article II, RA 9165
During Parties, Social Gatherings or Meetings.
64. Unnecessary Prescription of Dangerous Drugs. d.Section 14, Article II, RA 9165
65. Sale, Trading, Administration, Dispensation,
Delivery, Distribution and Transportation of e. Section 18, Article II, RA 9165
Dangerous Drugs and/or Controlled Precursors
and Essential Chemicals.
Column A Column B
66. A rapid test performed to establish potential/ a. dispense
presumptive positive result
67. Any act of giving away, sellingor distributing
medicine and/or dangerous drugswith or without b. screening test
the use of prescription.
68. Any act of knowingly planting,growing, raising,
or permitting the planting,growing, or raising of c. clandestine laboratory
any plant which is the source ofa dangerous drug.
69. An analytical test using adevice, tool or equipment
with a different chemical orphysical principle that d. cultivation and culture
is more specific which willvalidate and confirm
the result of the screening test.
70. Any facility used for the illegalmanufacture of e.confirmatory test
any dangerous drug and/orcontrolled precursor and
essential chemical.
ColumnA Column B
71. Minimum of six (6) months rehabilitation a. Section 5(Selling), Article II, RA 9165
in agovernment center for the first offense
72. Life imprisonment to death and a fine ranging b.Section 7, Article II, RA 9165
From P 500,000.00 to P10,000,000.00
73. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years of imprisonment c.Section 12, Article II, RA 9165
and a fine ranging fromP100,000.00 to P500,000.00
74. Imprisonment ranging from 6 months and 1 day to
4 years and a fineranging from P10,000.00 to d. Section 15, Article II, RA 9165
P50,000.00
75. Imprisonment ranging from 12 years and 1 day to
20 years and a fine ranging from P100,000.00 to e.Section 5 (Protector/Coddler),
P500,000.00 ArticleII, RA 9165
ColumnA ColumnB
76. Qualifying Aggravating Circumstances in a.Section 24, Article II, RA 9165
the Commission of a Crime by an Offender
under the Influence of Dangerous Drugs. b. Section 25, Article II,RA 9165
77. Criminal Liability for ‘Planting’ of Evidence.
78. Responsibility and Liability of Law c. Section 29,Article II, RA 9165
Enforcement Agencies and other Government
Officials and Employees in Testifying as d. Section 91, Article X, RA 9165
Prosecution Witnesses in Dangerous Drugs Cases.
79. Delay and Bungling in the Prosecution of DrugCases.
80. Non-Applicability of the Probation Law for e. Section 92,Article X, RA 9165
Drug Traffickers and Pushers
III. MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE. Blackenthe circle of the letter that best corresponds to your answer. The
conditionsare given below:
A – If the twostatement are both true</a>

B – If the first statement istrue; while the second is false
C – If the first statement isfalse; while the second is true
D – If the two statement are bothfalse
81. Plant of joy is Opium. Sacredtree is Marijuana.

253
82. Depressant means “downer.”Hallucinogen means “narcotic”.

83. “Ma Huang” is the plantephedrine. “Hashish” is known as Marijuana.
84. Diacetylmorphine is Heroin.Methamphetamine hydrochloride is Shabu.
85. Erythroxylon Coca is known asCocaine. Diacetylmorphine is known as Heroin.
86. Pistillate is the female plant ofmarijuana. Staminate is the male plant of marijuana.
87. RA 9165 was signed into law on June 4, 2002. RA 9165 tookeffect on July 4, 2002.
88. Pres Gloria Macapagal Arroyosigned into law RA 9165. Pres Diosdado Macapagal signed into law RA 6425.
89. Papaver Somniferum is thescientific of Opium Poppy plant. Cannabis Sativa is the scientific name ofMarijuana
plant.
90. Withdrawal syndrome is a suresign that a drug is dependency producing. Drug dependence may lead to
drugabuse.

254
(CDI 5)
DRUG EDUCATION
AND VICE CONTROL
ANSWER
1. A 46. B
2. B 47. C
3. B 48. A
4. D 49. C
5. A 50. D
6. C 51. B
7. B 52. C
8. C 53. D
9. B 54. E
10. C 55. A
11. D 56. B
12. D 57. A
13. A 58. D
14. B 59. E
15. B 60. C
16. D 61. D
17. A 62. A
18. B 63. E
19. C 64. C
20. B 65. B
21. A 66. B
22. D 67. C
23. C 68. D
24. C 69. E
25. A 70. A
26. C 71. A
27. A 72. B
28. C 73. A
29. B 74. A
30. B 75. A
31. D 76. A
32. B 77. C
33. C 78. B
34. D 79. A
35. D 80. A
36. D 81. C
37. C 82. A
38. D 83. B
39. D 84. C
40. D 85. C
41. D 86. A
42. B 87. A
43. C 88. B
44. C 89. A
45. A 90. B
255
(CA 1)
INSTITUTIONAL
CORRECTIONS
QUESTION
1.It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence
and extinguish criminal liability.
A.Parole B.Pardon
C.Executive clemency D.President’s clemency
2. B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
A. Executive Department .B.D.I.L.G.
C.P.N.P D. none of theses3
3. Casework techniques applied by the parole officer, which oneis not.
A. The trick and treat techniques
B.The executive techniques
C. The guidance counseling and leadership techniques
D. The manipulative techniques
4.The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.
A .Penology School B.Neo-classical
C .Classical School D.Positivist
5.This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems
A.Meeting B.Recreation
C.Working D. Counseling
6.Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming, budgeting,accounting, and other activities related
to financial services. It consolidates andprepares financial reports and related statements of subsistence outlays
anddisbursements in the operational of the jail.
A.Budget and finance branch B.Property and supply branch
C.General services branch D.Mess services branch
7.Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at anytime. His beddings, lockers and
personal belongings may also be opened atanytime, in his presence, whenever possible. This practice is known
as:
A.Check and balance B.Inventory
C.S.O.P D.Operation Greyhound
8.Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A.Murder B.Rape
C.Brigandage D.Impeachment
9.It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous
offense.
A.Recidivism B .Quasi-recidivism
C.delinquency D. City prisoner
10.A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not beenconvicted is a –
256
A.Detention Prisoner B.Municipal Prisoner

C.Provincial Prisoner D.City Prisoner
11.Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
A.commutation B.amnesty
C.reform model D.probation
12.It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System charged with theres ponsibility for the custody,
supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
A.conviction B.penalty
C.corrections D.punishmen
13.Pardon cannot be exercised in which of the following instances
A.before conviction B.after conviction
C.before trial D.before conviction and before trial
14.This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his normal job duringthe week and return to the jail
to serve his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.
A.amnesty C.good conduct time allowance
B.probation D.delayed sentence
15.The following are the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT
A.Retribution C.deterrence
B.Happiness D.expiration or atonement
16.Pardon is exercised when the person is ___________________________.
A.already convicted C.not yet convicted
B.about to be convicted D.serve the sentence
17.This kind of punishment will be given to the offender by showing to others whatwould happen to them if they
have committed the heinous crime.
A.Protection C.Deterrence
B.Lethal injection D.Stoning
18.For a convicted offender, probation is a form of ______________________.
A.Punishment C.Treatment
B.Enjoyment D.Encarceration
19.For amnesty to be granted, there should be ____________________.
A.Recommendation from U.N. C.Recommendation from C.H.R.
B.Application D.Concurrence of the congress
20.The highest official of the bureau of corrections.
A.Director C.Secretary of the DND
B.Chief of Executive D.Prison Inspector
21.It plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual regeneration of man
A.vocation C.work
B.education D.religion
22.It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted to enter theplace designated in the sentence
or within the radius therein specified, whichshall not be more than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers from the
placedesignated.
A.P 30.00/day C.P 25.00/day
B.P 22.00/day D.P 19.00/day
23.Punishing a criminal to serve as example to others is a theory of ______________.
A.Self-defense C.Social defense
B.Exemplary D.Equality
24.The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to
A.provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender which might be less probable if he were
to serve a prison sentence
B.Prevent the commission of offenses
C.Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender byproviding him with individualized treatment
D.All of these
25.The most common problem of the National prison is
A.Excessive number of escapes C.Overcrowding
B.Disagreement about their mess D.Lack of adequatefunding
26.Nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others.
A.Justice C.Persona
B.Legal D.Certain
27.These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;
257
A.Age of offenders C.Mother of offender

B.Sex of offenders D.Medical condition
28This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, makes foodstuff purchases, prepares and cooks
the food and serves it to the inmates. Itmaintains a record of daily purchases and consumption and submits a
dailyreport to the Warden.
A.General Services Branch C. Mittimus Computing Branch
B.Budget and Finance D.Mess services Branch
29.Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines Constitution,pardoning power is vested with the
A.Department of Justice C.Judiciary
B.Chief Executive D.Legislative
30.It is a temporary stay of execution of sentence.
A.reprieve C.pardon
B.communication D.amnesty
31.Parole is not matter of _____________________.
A.privilege C.right
B.grace D.requirement
32.This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super security prisoners. They are
not allowed to work outside the institution.
A.maximum security prisoners C.super security prisoners
B.minimum security prisoners D.medium security prisoners
33.Parole is granted by the
A. President C.Board of Pardons and Parole
B.Director of Prison D.Court
34.A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed upon himby the sentence.
A.partially exempted C.exempted
B.conditionally exempted D.not exempted
35.It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious oneor a longer term to a shorter
term.
A.Amnesty C.commutation
B.Reprieve D.none of these
36.____________ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
A.pardon C.parole
B.probation D.none of these
37.In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual hasthe ability to _________ and to
modify his anti-social behavior with the right kindof help.
A.challenge C.none of these
B.change D.aggravate his behaviour
38.The Bureau of Corrections is under the _________________.
A.Department of Social Welfare and Development
B.Department of Justice
C.Department of the Interior and Local Government
D.Department of Health
39.A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a _________________.
A.Municipal prisoner B.Detention prisoner
C.National or Insular prisoner D.City prisoner
40.The Head of Bureau of Corrections is known as –
A.Chief of the Bureau of Corrections B.Director of the Bureau of Corrections
C.Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections D.None of these
41.What are the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?
A.Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails B.City and Municipal Jails
C.District Jails D.Insular Jails
42.Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the American Regime. Atpresent, who supervises and
controls the said jails?
A.BJMP C.Provincial Government
B.DOJ D.LGU
43.What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?
A.Rehabilitation and Reformation C.to stand trial
B.Punishment D.socialization
258
44.A place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or curt action and where theconvicted offenders serve short
sentences or penalty of imprisonment is knownas:
A.Jail C.Lock-up
B.Penitentiary D.Detention Cells
45.A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directingthe jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention is known as –
A.Mittimus C.Detention Mittimus
B.Sentence Mittimus D.Detention Warrant
46.The maintenance of care and protection accorded to people who by authority of law are temporarily
incarcerated for violation of laws and also those who weresentenced by the court to serve judgment is called –
A.custody C.safe-keeping
B.classification D.caringE.protection
47.Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their sentence, gender, age,
nationality, health, criminal record, etc.?
A.classification C.custody
B.security D.safe-keeping
48.The open institution usually a penal farm or camp is known as the
A.NBP C.Medium SecurityInstitution
B.Maximum Security Institution D.Minimum SecurityInstitution
49.What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state whichexempts an individual from the
punishment which the law imposes or prescribesfor his crime, extended by the President thru the recommendation
of the Board of Parole and Pardon?
A.Amnesty C.Parole
B.Pardon D.Probation
50.Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is –
A.Orange C.Yellow E. Stripe Orange
B.Blue D.Pink
51.When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it meant
.Process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph
B.Examination for contraband
C.His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
D.All of these
52.An inmate maybe granted parole if he –
A.earned good conduct time allowance credit
B.serve minimum sentence
C.earned good behavior while serving prison term
D.all of these
53.Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest objective, the –
A.reformation of offenders C.Deterrence
B.segregation of offender D.Confinement of Offenders
54.In the New Bilibid Prison, the medium security prisoners are confined at –
A.NBP Main Prison C.Camp Bukang Liwayway
B.Camp Sampaguita D.Medium Security Prison5
55.Who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary cased in prison?
A.Classification Board C.Parole Board
B.Administrative Board D.Disciplinary Board
56.The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served aportion of his sentence in a
correctional
A.Conditional pardon C.Probation
B.Parole D.Commutation
57.Which of the following is the function of the Custodial Division?
A.Supervision of prisoners C.escort
B.Keep records D.all of the above
58.The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and atthe same time rehabilitating
them by requiring the latter to undergo institutionaltreatment program is referred to as:
A.imprisonment C.trial
B.conviction D.detention
59.The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippinesunder the BUCOR is located in
_________________.
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A.Palawan C.Zamboanga
B.Davao D.Occidental Mindoro
60.In Babylon, about 1990 BC, credited as the oldest code prescribing savagePunishment but in fact ____ is
older.
A.Hammurabic Code C.Sumerian Code
B.Justinian Code D.Code of Draco
61.The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:
A.The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
B.No one must escape its effect
C.It must be equal for all persons
D.The consequence must be in accordance with law.
62.The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except:
A.Censor offender’s inmate
B.Escort inmates
C.Inspect security devices
D.Conduct disciplinary hearing
63.When a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just been perpetuated inthe jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately:
A.Sound the alarm C.locked prisoners in their respective cells
B.Notify the nearest police precinct D.call the warden or the director
64.In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall be immediatelyissued firearms and assigned
to critical posts to:
A.plug off the escape routes C.to shoot the escape
B.protect the other inmates D.to give warning shots
65.Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which grants probation toprisoner sentenced to term in
prison of not more than six (6) years –
A.PD 603 C.RA 6127 E. PD 968
B.PD 869 D.PD 698
66.The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is knownas –
A.Affiliation Guidance C.Pre-sentenced Investigation
B.Supervision D.Probation Guidance
67.Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
A.are qualified to apply for probation
B.are disqualified to apply for probation
C.may be granted for another probation
D.should be confined in prison
68.This pillar/component of our criminal justice system is responsible in theconfinement, rehabilitation and
reformation of convicted offenders.
A. law enforcement C. prosecution
B. court D. Corrections
69.The traditional and most basic goal of corrections.
A. retribution C. deterrence
B. incapacitation D. Rehabilitation
70.The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment.
A. retribution C. Deterrence
71.The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not commitanother crime in the future.
72.This refers to the phased reentry of an offender into society rather than the usual abrupt reentry at the end of a
prison sentence.
A. reintegration C. Deterrence
73.They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and served as trainingschools for delinquent youths,
provided housing and support for older and poorer persons, and detained vagrants.
A. House of Corrections C. workhouses
B common jails D. penal colonies
74.It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation of all district, city and municipal jails to
implement a better system of jail management nationwide
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A. Bureau of Prisons C. Department of Justice

B. Bureau of Corrections D. Parole and Probation Administration
75.It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.
A, BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections
B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration
76.An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody and rehabilitation of national
offenders, that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years
A.BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections
77.The New Bilibid Prison,The Correctional Institution for Women (CIW),IwahigPrison and Penal Farm, and
Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm are all under thisagency.
A. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections
78.An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less costlyalternative to imprisonment of
offenders who are likely to respond toindividualized community based treatment programs.
A. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections
79.Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to death penalty.
A. municipal prisoners C. provincial prisoners
B. city prisoners D. insular prisoners
80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months.
A. municipal prisoners C. provincial prisoners
B. city prisoners D. insular prisoners
81.A prison model which sought penitence ( hence the termpenitentiaries) throughtotal individual isolation and
silence.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model C. Auburn Prison Model
B. Work Release D. Halfway Houses
82.Incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside the institution that housesthem.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model C. Auburn Prison Model
B. Work Release D. Halfway Houses
83. An alternative granted after a convicted person served a part of his sentence andis allowed to complete a
sentence at large, subject to restrictions andsupervision.
A. probation C. work release
B. parole D. halfway houses
84.An alternative to incarceration and allows convicted persons to remain atlarge under varying degrees of
restriction and supervision and certainconditions.
A. probation C. work release
B. parole D. halfway houses
85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons awaiting trialor adjudication or confine
convicted offenders for a short period of time.
A. halfway house C. penal colony
B. jail D. farm
86.A correctional institution that has the authority to detain convicted offenders for a longer or extended period of
time, including those who are waiting their deathsentence.
A. halfway house C. halfway house
B. jail D. prison
87.The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP). A. RA 8551C. RA 9165B. RA 6975D.
BP 2288.Who among the following is the provincial prisoner?
A.A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B.A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up
C.A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years
D.A prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day up
89. This theory in criminology states that are totally responsible for their behaviors andthe stress in more on the
effect of their felonious act than upon the criminalhimself.
A.Positivist Theory C. Biological Theory
B.Biological Theory D. Classical Theory
90. Which of the following is exercised by executive elementary with the concurrence of congress?
A.Probation C. Pardon
B.Amnesty D. Parole
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91. The Parole and Probation Administration administers a ________corrections program.

A.Institutional C. Integrated
B.Community – based D. Traditional
92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to us _______
A.A corporal punishment C. A determinate sentence
B. An indeterminate sentence D. A capital punishment
93. Juana was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by the victim. What is the type of
sentence?
A.Payment C. Retribution
B.Restitution D. Fines
94. ________ program employs prisoners in various product or good producing tasks
A.Agricultural C. Operational
B.Industrial D. Administrative
95. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
A.Complex Crime C. Organized crimes
B.Blue Collar crimes D. Victimless crimes
96. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and qualifications for the grantof pardon or parole?
A.Punishment, confinement retribution, treatment
B.Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C.Deterrence, retribution, punishment treatment
D.Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
97. Which of the following should be a probationer NOT DO?
A.Make periodic report
B.Go and play in the gambling den
C.Work regularly to support family
D.Stay away from bad associates.
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted outthe penalty of
A.12 years 6 months and one day C. Death
B.Life imprisonment D. 6 years one month and one day
99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomesirregularity and
abnormal brain activity.
A.Age Reform C. Age of Discernment
B.Age of Rehabilitation D. Age of Reason
100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?
A.Rehabilitation center C. Jail
B.Halfway house D. Prison
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(CA 1)
INSTITUTIONAL
CORRECTIONS
ANSWER
1. B 45. D
2. C 46. D
3. B 47. B
4. A 48. A
5. C 49. C
6. A 50. C
7. D 51. B
8. C 52. C
9. B 53. B
10. B 54. B
11. C 55. C
12. A 56. D
13. A 57. C
14. D 58. D
15. B 59. C
16. B 60. A
17. C 61. A
18. D 62. A
19. B 63. B
20. C 64. D
21. B 65. C
22. B 66. D
23. B 67. A
24. D 68. A
25. A 69. B
26. C 70. B
27. C 71. D
28. B 72. A
29. A 73. D
30. D 74. C
31. B 75. C
32. D 76. D
33. D 77. D
34. B 78. C
35. A 79. D
36. A 80. A
37. B 81. C
38. D 82. C
39. D 83. B
40. D 84. C
41. C 85. A
42. C 86. B
43. B 87. D
44. C 88. A
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89. D 95. D
90. D 96. D
91. A 97. C
92. B 98. B
93. C 99. C
94. C 100. A
264
(CA 2)
NON-
INSTITUTIONAL
CORRECTIONS
QUESTION
1. Probation is granted to _______ who are sentenced to a prison term of not more than six (6) years.
A. recidivist C. fist time offenders
B. second time offenders D. senior citizens
2. The child and youth welfare code of 1974 was promulgated on December 10, 1974by virtue of what Presidential
decree?
A. P.D. 613 C. P.D. 916
B. P.D. 603 D. R.A. 9344
3. What are emphasized under the custodial model of correctional institutions?
A. reintegration into society
B. security, discipline and order
C. rehabilitation and correction
D. physical and mental upliftment
4. What is the security classification of inmates who have two (2) or more escape records but have served 8 years
since recommitment?
A. minimum security C. optimum security
B. maximum security D. medium security
5. What is the security classification of an inmate who is criminally insane or with severe personality or emotional
disorder and is dangerous to others?
A. minimum security C. maximum security
B. optimum security D. medium security
6. ________ program employs prisoners in various product or good productions tasks.
A. agricultural C. operational
B. industrial D. administrative
7. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. a parolee may be authorized by the parole and probation officer to travel outside his operational
jurisdiction for a period of not more than thirty (30) days.
B. Outside travel for a cumulative duration of more than thirty (30) days within a period of one (1) year
shall be considered transfer of residence
C. It is not mandatory for the parolee to comply with the terms and conditions appearing in the release
document
D. A parolee cannot transfer to a residence other than that indicated in the release document without
prior written approval of the board of pardon and parole
8. What is referred to as hustling inside the prison?
A. befriending a prison guard
B. selling illegal commodities
C. doing assigned prison assignment
D. reporting illegal activities
9. Juanito is 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply for probation under the adult
probation system?
265
A. no, because he is entitled for parole

B. no, because his crime is theft
C. no, because he is only 17 years old
D. no, because he is convicted of a crime
10. It is a correctional model wherein criminals are punished because they have infringed the rights of others and
the security of the sanction should fit the seriousness of the crime.
A. benefit of the clergy C. rehabilitation model
B. custodial model D. just desert model
11. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603?
A. Eduardo who is 30 years old
B. Peter who is 10 years old
C. Ronald who is 25 years old
D. Jack who is 20 years old
12. What document is issued to a parolee when the maximum period of his prison term has expired?
A. certificate of final discharge
B. certificate of prison term completion
C. certificate of final release
D. certificate of final release and discharge
13. It was an age of response to the industrialization, urbanization, technological change and advancement of
science that had revolutionalized the landscape.
A. age of reform C. age of correction
B. age of reason D. age of enlightenment
14. Which model underscores the assumption that criminal behavior is caused by biological or psychological
conditions that require treatment?
A. reform model C. community model
B. rehabilitation model D. medical model
15. What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction from the official records?
A. exoneration C. expungement
B. restriction D. mitigation
16. The judge will base the grant of probation on the report of the _____.
A. social worker C. prosecutor
B. probation officer D. police officer
17. When can a drug user or one who is in possession of drugs be placed on probation?
A. first time offender
B. first time offender and less than 21 years old
C. second time offender and less than 21 years old
D. second time offender
18. Which of the following is considered in the grant of conditional pardon?
A. good conduct shown
B. discipline of the prisoner
C. old age provided that he was not yet 60 years old at the time of his commitment to prison
D. length of time spend in prison
19. What do you call the pathway between a two towers?
A. catwalk C. pathway
B. hall way D. none of these
20. To what penal farm were political prisoners in the 1870’s confined?
A. sablayan penal colony
B. san ramon prison penal farm
C. iwahig penal colony
D. davao penal colony
21. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they are granted time for their marital sexual obligations. This
privilege is called?
A. conjugal partnership C. conjugal incentive
B. conjugal vacation D. conjugal visit
22. What is the movement in 1790 which held that offenders were out of touch with God thus, they were given
bibles and placed in isolation?
A. reformatory movement C. quaker reform movement
B. church reform movement D. crime prevention movement
23. Where shall Laureta be confined if his sentence is six (6) months or less?
A. provincial jail C. city jail
B. municipal jail D. new bilibid prison
24. It is a judicial action or legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community subject to
conditions imposed by court order.
A. commutation C. reprieve
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B. probation D. parole
25. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoners fitness and qualifications for the grant of parole and
pardon?
A. National police commission
B. Board of pardon and parole
C. Department of social welfare and development
D. National bureau of investigation
26. Which of the following institutions is included under the corrections sub- system?
A. drug rehabilitation center
B. police
C. jails
D. drug enforcement units
27. The theory which affords the society or the individual who was wronged the opportunity to impose upon the
offender such suitable punishment as may be enforced?
B. reformation D. expiation
28. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603?
A. Pablo who is 25 years old
B. Juan who is 10 years old
C. Martin who is 20 years old
D. Pedro who is 19 years old
29. Sonny is convicted for a crime that carries a prison sentence of more than eight (8) years and one (1) day. Can
Sonny avail of probation?
A. No
B. He will be pardoned
C. He will served 1/ 2 of the sentence in jail
D. Yes
30. The target of behavior change effort for inmate is not criminality per se but the variety of problem behavior
surrounding criminal lifestyles. Which of the following is NOT a problem behavior?
A. ability to relate with others
B. ability to control anger and frustration
C. ability to logically and rationally think
D. deficiency in social skills
31. Which among the following are the major goals of corrections?
A. punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
B. retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C. deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
D. deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
32. Which of the following should NOT a probationer do?
A. make periodic office report
B. go and play in a gambling den
C. work regularly to support his family
D. stay away from bad associates
33. Force is used only by correctional institutions to:
A. exact respect
B. enforce discipline
C. show physical strength and power
D. perform assignments
34. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out the penalty of:
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. life imprisonment
C. death
D. 6 years, one month and 1 day
35. Presidential Decree No. 968 established the __________ system.
A. civilian police C. juvenile justice
B. family welfare D. adult probation
36. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?
A. rehabilitation center C. jail
B. halfway house D. prison
37. The following are identified as correctional dilemmas EXCEPT
A. ambivalent correctional strategies and technique
B. unclear statement of correctional mission
C. government support for funding requirement
D. inadequacy of correctional personnel
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38. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes irregularity and
abnormal brain activity.
A. psychological theory C. sociological theory
B. biological theory D. political theory
39. This was the period when concepts of liberalism, nationality, equality and individualism dominated social and
political thinking in the 18th century in England.
A. age of reform C. age of discernment
B. age of rehabilitation D. age of reason
40. What does the classical theory provide?
A. criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could be controlled by regulating the production of families
B. criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in a process of communication
C. crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and penalty disorders
D. the basis for criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
41. What correctional goal is referred to when the offender is rendered physically unable to commit a crime in the
future?
A. deterrence C. rehabilitation
B. incapacitation D. retribution
42. Under the UN standard minimum rules for the treatment of prisoners, which of the following are the two (2)
basic principles under the rules of general application to prisoners?
1. There shall be not discrimination on grounds of race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion,
national or social origin, birth or other status
2. It is necessary to respect the religious beliefs and moral precepts of the group to which a prisoners belongs
3. The treatment of prisoners should emphasize not their exclusion from the community, but their continuing part in
it.
4. Unconvicted prisoners are presumed to be innocent and shall be treated as such
A. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4 D. 4 and 1
43. When does punishment have a deterrent effect?
A. punishment reduces the capacity of an individual to commit a crime
B. punishment is serious compared with the nature of offense
C. punishment disgraces the offender before the public
D. punishment serves as an example to the public thus, discouraging the commission of offense
44. Who espoused the idea that criminality increases in proportion as one approaches the equator?
A. Lombroso C. Ferri
B. Garofalo D. Montesquieu
45. This is an investigation of behavior based on subject’s responses to questions concerning activities in which
they have engaged.
A. victimization study C. social study
B. self- report study D. criminological research
46. Antonio Lava was sentenced to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of not more than six (6) years. He
applied for probation but his application will not be considered if:
1. he was convicted of subversion of any crime against national security or public interest
2. he was previously convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by imprisonment of not less than one (1)
month and one (1) day and / or a fine of not less than Php 200.00
3. he was previously granted probation
4. he was previously granted parole
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3, and 4
B. any of those listed D. 3, 4, and 1
47. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to be the best and “prison without walls”?
A. Sablayan penal colony
B. Iwahig penal colony
C. San Ramon prison and penal farm
D. Davao penal farm
48. Among the following factors, which would best determine the extent to which prison functions are subdivided?
A. operating programs
B. adequacy of resources
C. inmate population and size of the prison/ jail
D. number of prison staff
49. What law is very supportive for the convicted prisoner after he completely served the minimum sentenced of
his indeterminate prison term of his incarceration can be eligibility for his early release;
a. Executive Clemency b. PD 968 c. RA 4103 d. RA 4130
268
50. Aside from the name, offense committed and the court imposing the sentence, what information about an alien
offender should be reported to the Commissioner of Immigration?
A. his educational background and profession
B. name of his wife and children
C. his age, weight and height
D. his nationality and number of his alien certificate of registration
51. What theory provides that criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other persons in the process of
communications?
A. strain theory
B. psychoanalytical theory
C. social disorganization theory
D. differential association theory
52. How are habitual offenders who have been involved in prostitution, drugs, numbers and shoplifting called?
A. “Punk” C. “Cool”
B. “The life” D. “Square”
53. Who said that punishment should not be more secure than necessary to deter crime because excessive
punishment is unjustified?
A. Charles Goring C. Raffaeli Garofalo
B. Robert Peel D. Jeremy Bentham
54. What idea was advocated by John Howard?
A. Corporal punishment is more effective than other punishment
B. Prisons should be under the control of the police
C. Public labor by offenders should be abolished
D. Reformation will not occur inside penitentiary
55. When can some prisoners have disciplinary authority over their co- inmates?
A. When they show “macho” image
B. When they are of senior age over those to be supervised
C. When they are of good behavior, more technically skilled and properly trained
D. When they have grease money
56. What is the action of the court in case a probationer violated his/ her probation conditions?
A. Court revokes probation and probationer goes to prison
B. Court directs probationer to re- apply for probation
C. Court releases the probationer to the community
D. Court orders the continuation of probation
57. You are a legislator who would like to help in the resolution of the labeling problem of ex- convicts. Which of
the following is the best legislative proposal to prepare?
A. A bill that would expunge all criminal records pertaining to all released prisoners
B. A bill that would penalize business establishment or offices which will not accept released prisoners as
long as they qualify to the vacant position
C. A bill that would grant automatic absolute pardon to those who have served atleast 90% of their
sentence
D. A bill that would grant automatic parole to those who have served atleast 80% of their sentence
58. There are four (4) concepts of lifestyle in prison. What concept is referred to when inmates aspire for
leadership within the prison subculture and such positions and power in the prison society?
A. disorganized criminals C. doing time
B. jailing D. gleaning
59. How do inmates know that they have letters?
A. An inmate trustee delivers the letters to addresses
B. A list with mails for inmates is posted
C. Inmates with letters are called to the Jail Warden’s office
D. A jail officer delivers the letters personally
60. The RA 4103 known as;
a. Probation law b. Executive Clemency
c. Parole d. Indeterminate Sentence Law
61. The correctional principle that “the basis of all social action must be the utilitarian conception of the greatest
happiness for the greatest number” was se forth by:
A. Montesquieu C. Becarria
B. Locke D. Voltaire
62. Female prison reform during the 19th century had the following principles EXCEPT
A. separation of women prisoners from male
B. suspension of sentence
C. control of women’s prison by female management and staff
D. provision for differential feminine care
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63. How are inmates called when they are of low intelligence or afflicted with psychological or physical disabilities
and who have difficulty in functioning within the prison society?
A. psychotic criminals C. adult criminals
B. disorganized criminals D. juvenile offenders
64. A convict is in a __________ if he is placed inside one (1) cell alone and without anybody to talk to or be seen
with.
A. individual confinement C. corporal punishment
B. capital punishment D. solitary confinement
65. After release from the jail or prison, when does the parolee present himself to the parole and probation
officer?
A. atleast one (1) month from release
B. within three (3) months from release
C. atleast three (3) weeks from release
D. within the period prescribed in the release document
66. One of the purposes of Adult Probation Law is to:
A. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender
by providing him with personalized, community based program
B. Place the offender outside the police power of the state
C. Coordinate the workings of the agencies of the criminal justice system
D. Foster closer relationship between the offender and the judge who promulgated the probation order
67. Is Mario qualified for probation if his prison term is arresto mayor?
A. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
B. No, his sentence is 12 years
C. No, his sentence is 8 years
D. Yes, his sentence is 6 months
68. Under this correctional goal, the criminal is rendered physically unable to commit crime in the future.
A. retribution C. incapacitation
B. deterrence D. rehabilitation
69. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?
A. a prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. a prisoner serving a term of six (6) years up
C. a prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years
D. a prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day and up
70. What theory in criminology states that criminals are totally responsible for their behaviors. The stress is more
in the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal himself.
A. classical theory C. biological theory
B. positivist theory D. physiological theory
71. Which two (2) of the following unusual offenders should be under the close supervision of the Jail Physicians?
1. mentally- ill
2. sex deviates
3. infirm or sick
4. escape prone prisoners
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
72. Who said that “criminal acts are signals of distress, signals of failures, the spasms of struggles and
convulsions of a sub marginal human being trying to make it in our complex society with inadequate equipment
and preparation”?
A. John Howard C. James Wilson
B. Karl Menninger D. Jeremy Bentham
73. The parole and probation administration administers a _________ correctional program.
A. institutional C. integrated
B. community based D. traditional
74. Changing criminals through non-punitive means is referred to as _________.
A. retribution C. restitution
B. reformation D. rehabilitation
75. Hubert Webb was sentenced to imprisonment on September 30, 2002. OnOctober 5, 2002 the judge who
promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to the service of Alfonso’s sentence?
A. He will have to serve his sentence
B. His sentence will be suspended
C. His sentence will nit be binding anymore
VD. His sentence will be reduced
76. Placido was convicted to a prison term of prision correctional. Will he qualify for probation?
A. no, his sentence is three (3) years and 1 day
270
B. no, his sentence is six (6) years and 1 day

C. yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and 1 day
D. no, his sentence is more than six (6) years and 1 day
77. What was the system of money compensation in which harm could be atoned for by a money payment to the
injured party?
A. lex taliones C. wergild
B. wite D. fine
78. It is an arrangement where a prisoner goes out of the institution to attend educational classes.
A. Vocational program C. Work Furlough
B. Guidance counseling D. study release
79. What the right to be tried in an ecclesiastical court during the middle ages?
A. inquisition C. social contract
B. benefit of the clergy D. secular prosecution
80. Prison work assignments are given to prisons usually _________.
A. at early morning hours
B. after recreational hours
C. before sleeping hours
D. during middle hours of the day
81. Which among the following strategies should be developed in order to enhance corrections in the country?
A. Development of clear vision, mission, objective
B. Management of correction efficiency
C. Integration of correction services
D. Encouragement of private sector to assist correction
82. Which among the following factors are considered in petition for executive clemency?
1. age of the petitioner
2. gravity of the offense
3. manner in which offense was committed
4. petitioner’s institutional conduct or behavior
5. previous criminal record, if any
A. 2, 3, 4 and 5 C. all these listed

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 3, 4, 5 and 1
83. Joan Pamintuan was convicted of the crime of theft at age 10. What law provides that she should be released
to her family?
A. Presidential Decree No. 1184
B. Presidential Decree No. 968
C. Presidential Decree No. 603
D. Republic Act no. 9344
84. Who among the following prisoners is a national prisoner?
1. One who is sentenced to a maximum term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years or to a fine of more than
Php 5,000.00
2. Regardless of length of sentence, one sentence for violation of customs law or other laws within the jurisdiction of
the Bureau of Customs
3. Regardless of length of sentence, one sentence for violation of Immigration laws and Election laws
4. One sentenced to serve two (2) or more prison sentences in the aggregate exceeding the period of three (3) years
A. 3, 4 and 1 C. 2, 3, and 4
B. all those listed D. 1, 2 and 3
85. One of the following criminologists espoused the idea that the certainty of punishment outweighs its severity
as a deterrent against crime?
A. Cesare Becarria C. Charles Goring
B. Jeremy Bentham D. William Sheldon
86. Who was the sheriff of Bedfordshire, England whose writings served to bring about changes that resulted in the
development of the penitentiary?
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Becarria D. John Howard
87. Which of the following is encouraged to give the inmate a respite from the strain of prison life?
A. Report unruly behavior of fellow inmates
B. Maintain wholesome contact with friends and relatives through correspondents
C. Perform prison assignments/ works diligently
D. Write his autobiography for others to read
88. Which of the following is exercised by executive clemency with the concurrence of Congress?
A. probation C. pardon
B. amnesty D. parole
271
89. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous
offense.
A. recidivism C. delinquency
B. quasi- recidivism D. concurso de delito
90. It is responsible for carrying out the treatment programs of the prisoners in jails.
A. Warden C. Chaplain
B. Classification board D. disciplinary board
91. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A. murder C. brigandage
B. rape D. impeachment
92. He introduced the “Progressive or Mark” system of penal management, which granted privileges and good
conduct time gradually culminating to the offenders release and an improvement of the ticket of leave. Who was
he?
A. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
B. Alexander Machonochie
C. Sir Walter Crafton
D. Zebulon Brockway
93. The features of this prison system were confinement of the prisoners in their cells day and night.
A. Auburn C. Pennsylvania system
B. pre- classical D. Judea Christian theory
94. A model of correctional history that had been successful for young boys and girls in the earlier house or refuge
and training that was adopted for older offenders.
A. family model C. reform model
B. penitence model D. rehabilitation model
95. A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment for not more than three (3) years or to pay a fine of not
more than Php 1,000.00 or both fine and imprisonment.
A. city prisoner C. insular prisoner
B. national prisoner D. municipal prisoner
96. This prison system was considered more advantageous because it had been observed that prisoners could
finish more articles when they work in groups than working alone in their individual cells.
A. Maison de force C. Auburn system
B. none of these D. Pennsylvania system
97. What law was passed by the U.S. Congress which ended the industrial prison movement?
A. a law which prohibited the increase of delinquency in prisons
B. none of these
C. a law which encouraged the prisoners to be more industrious in the works
D. a law which prohibited the sale of prison made articles to the public and limited their use to
government owned or controlled institutions
98. Which of the following types of jail is under the supervision of Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
(BMJP)?
A. Provincial jail
B. City and municipal jail
C. District jail
D. Insular jail
99. What is called as the mechanical device, contrivance or tools used to hold back, keep in check or under
control a prisoner?
A. instrument of restraint
B. iron leg lock
C. handcuffs
D. metallic chains
100. Under the prison service manual, what is the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum-security prison?
A. blue C. yellow
B. white D. orange
272
~END OF CA 2 QUESTIONS~
(CA 2)
NON-
INSTITUTIONAL
CORRECTIONS
ANSWER
1. C 18. A
2. B 19. A
3. B 20. B
4. B 21. C
5. C 22. B
6. A 23. C
7. D 24. C
8. C 25. C
9. C 26. C
10. B 27. D
11. B 28. B
12. D 29. A
13. A 30. B
14. B 31. A
15. A 32. B
16. B 33. B
17. A 34. C
273
35. D 99. C
36. C 100. D
37. B
38. A
39. A
40. D
41. B
42. D
43. D
44. B
45. C
46. B
47. B
48. A
49. C
50. D
51. A
52. A
53. A
54. C
55. C
56. A
57. B
58. D
59. B
60. D
61. A
62. C
63. A
64. A
65. D
66. A
67. D
68. C
69. C
70. D
71. B
72. B
73. B
74. D
75. A
76. C
77. D
78. D
79. B
80. A
81. A
82. B
83. C
84. A
85. C
86. B
87. C
88. B
89. B
90. D
91. D
92. A
93. A
94. D
95. A
96. D
97. C
98. A

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1

SUBMITTED BY: WHED MARK REBUDAN

SUBMITTED TO: MR. EDZEL PEÑA

1. Which of the following is not a victimless crime?

2. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology.

5.. According to psychoanalysis, this refers to the conscience of man.

6.. A type of crime in which the end result is destructive.

7. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.

9.A valid warrant less arrest.

30. The authority of the court to hear or determine a case.

13. The supreme law of the Land.

25. A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.

27.. The informal component of the Criminal Justice System.

28. Maltreatment of a child is considered.

29.PD 603 is known as:

31.A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.

33.. A local government together with society of individuals or institutions.

34.. A type of terrorism which is meant to incite the government to repression.

39. The following are characteristics common to terrorists except one

56. Which of the following is considered least among terroristic tactic?

59. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation.

61. In a hostage situation, this is a non-negotiable item.

63. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing.

64. The last option in a hostage situation.

65. The first step in a hostage situation.

66. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment.

68. Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy?

77. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.

78. Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates.

79. The courage to endure without yielding.

81. It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.

82. A judicial tribunal designed to administer justice.

88. The recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial investigation.

90. The author of “ Origin of Species” and “ The Descent of Man”.

91. He is the primary advocate of the “Theory of Differential Association”.

~END OF CRIM1 QUESTIONS~

2. Which of the following person convicted by final judgment?

5. Which of the following is not a prison facility?

6. Which of the following is not a type of jail?

16.What penal institution established pursuant to Act No. 3579?

19.What do you call the postponement of the execution of a death sentence?

22.Who is the father of modern probation ?

24.What is Presidential Decree 968?

27. The following are the effects of pardon, EXCEPT one;

33.The cutting of some parts of the offenders’ body is known as ______?

34.What is the manifestation of punishment during the dominance of Roman Empire?

36.What is the name of the famous gaol in Europe?

40.The fifth pillar of criminal justice system is _______?

41.This is known as the basic unit of soiety;

45.Who established the Irish concept of ticket-of- leave system?

49.It is the machinery of the state uses in the prevention of crime.

50.They serve as lawyer of the government in all criminal cases.

54.An act or omission punishable by law;

57.The law that created the Katarungang Pambarangay;

59.They are considered as the prime mover of the system.

60.When was the first Philippine probation law enacted?

61. It is the first probation law of the Philippines;

62.Who is the father of Philippine probation?

65.The pardoning power is exercised by the _______?

72.Those convicted by final judgment referred as ______?

75.Refers to farms or camps;

77.Provincial jails are administered and supervised by their respective ______?

78.Jails derived from the two Spanish words “_______”, “_______.”

79. The prison that established on 16 January 1973;

78.Jails derived from the two Spanish words “_”, “_.”