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Question 1

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This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches
operates. Most switches perform only one level of 802.1Q de- encapsulation, which
allows an attacker to embed a hidden 802.1Q tag inside the frame.

Select one:
a. Port Attack
b. Backdoor Attack
c. Switch boarding Attack
d. Double Tagging Attack
Clear my choice

Question 2
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TRUE or FALSE. Store-and-forward switching has two primary characteristics that


distinguish it from cut-through: error checking and automatic buffering.

Select one:
True
False

Question 3
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Which of the following is NOT a benefit of VLAN?

Select one:
a. Dividing Layer 1,2 and 3 networks into multiple physical workgroups reduces
unnecessary traffic on the network and boosts performance.
b. Groups that have sensitive data are separated from the rest of the network,
decreasing the chances of confidential information breaches.
c. Cost savings result from reduced need for expensive network upgrades and more
efficient use of existing bandwidth and uplinks.
d. VLANs make it easier to manage the network because users with similar network
requirements share the same VLAN.
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Question 4
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This is used between a network device and server or other device that is equipped with
an appropriate 802.1Q-capable NIC.

Select one:
a. Domain
b. Trunks
c. Tunneling
d. Access Point
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Question 5
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Configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called

Select one:
a. cisco_vlan.dat
b. vlan.dat
c. cisco_vlan.ini
d. vlan.cfg
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Question 6
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Which of the following describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol?

Select one:
a. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is enabled by default.
b. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is a proprietary networking protocol developed by Cisco
Systems.
c. Switches from other vendors do not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol.
d. All of the choices
Clear my choice

Question 7
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A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has
received the entire frame and then checked the frame for errors.

Select one:
a. Store-and-forward switching
b. Cut-through switch method
c. Rapid Frame forwarding
d. Automatic-forward switching
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Question 8
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Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the
router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated
interface identifier?

Select one:
a. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64
b. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length
c. ipv6 enable
d. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local
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Question 9
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Which of the following describes a VLAN?

Select one:
a. VLANs allow an administrator to segment networks based on factors such as
function, project team, or application.
b. VLANs are based on logical connections, instead of physical connections.
c. VLANs provide a way to group devices within a LAN.
d. A group of devices within a VLAN communicate as if they were attached to the same
wire.
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Question 10
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A type of VLAN that is configured to carry user-generated traffic.

Select one:
a. Default VLAN
b. Data VLAN
c. Management VLAN
d. Native VLAN
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Question 11
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This is a conduit for multiple VLANs between switches and routers.

Select one:
a. Trunks
b. Tunneling
c. Access Point
d. None of the choices
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Question 12
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To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring,
what command to be used to check whether the local and peer native VLANs match?

Select one:
a. view trunk - match
b. show interfaces trunk
c. check vlan connection
d. check match vlan
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Question 13
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The primary functions of a router are the following?


1. Packet switching
2. Flow control
3. Domain name resolution
4. Path selection
5. Microsegmentation

Select one:
a. 3 & 4
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 4
d. 4 & 5
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Question 14
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The following are switch port modes that DTP offers EXCEPT

Select one:
a. Remote
b. None of the choices
c. Dynamic auto
d. Dynamic desirable
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Question 15
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The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the
installation of different numbers of line card.

Select one:
a. Fixed configuration
b. Stackable configuration
c. Modular configuration
d. Server side configuration
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Question 16
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A collection of interconnected switches forms a _______________________.

Select one:
a. Common domain
b. Broadcast domain
c. Shared domain
d. Collision domain
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Question 17
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If the port is assigned to the wrong VLAN, what command to be command to change the
VLAN membership on a particular port?

Select one:
a. configure port vlan
b. Switchport access vlan
c. set port vlan
d. vlan port default
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Question 18
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A switch forwarding method that begins the forwarding process after the destination
MAC address of an incoming frame and the egress port has been determined.

Select one:
a. Store-and-forward switching
b. Rapid Frame forwarding
c. Automatic-forward switching
d. Cut-through switch method
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Question 19
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The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT?

Select one:
a. Shut down unused switch ports to prevent unauthorized access
b. None of the choices
c. Configure all the ports on all switches to be associated with VLANs other than VLAN
1.
d. Separate management and user data traffic.
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Question 20
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In this attack, the attacker exploits a flaw in the Telnet server software running on the
switch that renders the Telnet service unavailable. This sort of attack prevents an
administrator from remotely accessing switch management functions. This can be
combined with other direct attacks on the network as part of a coordinated attempt to
prevent the network administrator from accessing core devices during the breach.

Select one:
a. Telnet DoS attack
b. Brute force password attack
c. Telnet password attack
d. Crack password attack
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Question 21
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A protocol that provides an encrypted connection to a remote device.

Select one:
a. HTTP
b. SSH
c. FTP
d. TCP/IP
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Question 22
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Which of the statements describe characteristic of load balancing?

Select one:
a. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by OSPF.
b. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot
support load balancing.
c. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination
networks.
d. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same
destination network.
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Question 23
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The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the
installation of different numbers of line card.

Select one:
a. Fixed configuration
b. Modular configuration
c. Stackable configuration
d. Server side configuration
Clear my choice

Question 24
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SSH protocol by default uses Port ______.

Select one:
a. 22
b. 23
c. 8080
d. 80
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Question 25
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True or False.
The best way to prevent a basic switch spoofing attack is to turn off trunking on all ports,
except the ones that specifically require trunking.

Select one:
True
False

Question 26
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The ________________ switches do not support features or options beyond those that
originally came with the switch.

Select one:
a. Fixed configuration
b. Server side configuration
c. Remote configuration
d. Modular configuration
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Question 27
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Which of the following describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol?

Select one:
a. Switches from other vendors do not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol.
b. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is a proprietary networking protocol developed by Cisco
Systems.
c. All of the choices
d. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is disable by default.
Clear my choice

Question 28
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Routers support three packet-forwarding mechanisms. These are

Select one:
a. Transmit, Receive, Store
b. Process, Fast, Cisco Express Forwarding
c. Cisco Forward, Receive, Cisco Process
d. Receive, Process, Transmit
e. Transmit, Receive, Distribute/Forward
Clear my choice

Question 29
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This is used to connect a PC to the console port of a switch for configuration.

Select one:
a. Asynchronous link cable
b. Cross cable
c. Console cable
d. UTP Network cable
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Question 30
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This is the arrangement of the cables, network devices, and end systems. It describes
how the network devices are actually interconnected with wires and cables.

Select one:
a. physical topology
b. TCP/IP
c. logical topology
d. internet topology
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Question 1
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Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets?


1. They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
2. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
3. They are used to determine the complete network topology.
4. They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
5. They are used to flood link-state information to all neighbors.

Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 4 & 5
Clear my choice

Question 2
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Refering to the network diagram above of RMS University. All hosts and router interfaces
are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1
and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?

Select one:
a. RIPv2 does not support VLSM.
b. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.
c. RIPv2 does not support discontiguous networks.
d. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.
e. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.
Clear my choice

Question 3
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,
when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. link bandwidth
b. hop count
c. link cost
d. link delay
e. administrative distance
Clear my choice

Question 4
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Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets?


1. They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
2. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
3. They are used to determine the complete network topology.
4. They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
5. They are used to flood link-state information to all neighbors.

Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 3 & 4
c. 2 & 4
d. 1 & 4
Clear my choice

Question 5
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Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is
highierthan the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on
the same router?

Select one:
a. To be the priority route in the routing table
b. To load-balance the traffic
c. To act as a gateway of last resort
d. To be used as a backup route
Clear my choice

Question 6
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A network administrator in Stark Industries is trying to add a new router into an


established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in
the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial
configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

Select one:
a. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
b. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
c. The network number is configured improperly.
d. The process id is configured improperly.
Clear my choice

Question 7
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Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when
a dynamic protocol is also being used?

Select one:
a. link delay
b. link cost
c. link bandwidth
d. administrative distance
e. hop count
Clear my choice

Question 8
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What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface
associated with that route goes into a down state?

Select one:
a. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
b. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
c. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
d. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
Clear my choice

Question 9
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A network administrator has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the
entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this
letter signify?

Select one:
a. The route to this network is configured statically on the router.
b. The route source was learned dynamically.
c. The route to network 172.16.4.0/24 is directly connected.
d. That is the direct route for packets to that network.
Clear my choice

Question 10
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Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out
which interface will R1 forward the packet?
Select one:
a. Serial0/0/0
b. FastEthernet0/0
c. FastEthernet0/1
d. Serial0/0/1
Clear my choice

Question 11
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Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, supports manual route
summarization, and uses the multicast address 224.0.0.9?

Select one:
a. RIPv2
b. EIGRP
c. RIPv1
d. OSPF
Clear my choice

Question 12
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What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?

Select one:
a. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0. serial 0/0/0
b. Ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120
c. Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1
d. Ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0
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Question 13
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,
when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

Select one:
a. Administrative distance
b. Hop count
c. Link cost
d. Link delay
e. Link bandwidth
Clear my choice

Question 14
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OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces
operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be
learned by OSPF?
Select one:
a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
Clear my choice

Question 15
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Which protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?

Select one:
a. 802.11a
b. 802.11g
c. 802.1q
d. ISL
e. 802.11n
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Question 16
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VLANis a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.

Select one:
True
False

Question 17
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What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

Select one:
a. 170
b. 120
c. 90
d. 100
e. 130
f. 110
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Question 18
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Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15,
30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45
that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on
VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this
problem?
Select one:
a. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*
b. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
c. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
d. The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45
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Question 19
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Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
1. VTP
2. 802.1q
3. IGP
4. ISL
5. 802.3u

Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 2 & 4
Clear my choice
Question 20
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What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

Select one:
a. 110
b. 100
c. 120
d. 90
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Question 21
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,
when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

Select one:
a. hop count link cost
b. link bandwidth
c. administrative distance
d. link delay
Clear my choice

Question 22
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What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

Select one:
a. 110
b. 90
c. 100
d. 130
e. 170
f. 120
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Question 23
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Which are the 2 trunking protocols?

Select one:
a. 802.11g and 802.11n
b. 802.11a and 802.11b
c. ISL & IEEE 802.1q
d. ISL and 802.11g
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Question 24
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Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q?

Select one:
a. Data VLAN
b. Management VLAN
c. Default VLAN
d. Native VLAN
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Question 25
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Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is
highierthan the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on
the same router?

Select one:
a. To be used as a primary route
b. To be the priority route in the routing table
c. To be used as a backup route
d. To act as a gateway of last resort
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Question 26
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Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN
trunking?
1. one physical interface for each subinterface
2. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
3. a management domain for each subinterface
4. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
5. one subinterface per VLAN
6. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

Select one:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 6
d. 1, 5, 6
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Question 27
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Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?

Select one:
a. 802.1q & ISL
b. ISL & 802.1ab
c. VTP & ISL
d. 802.3u& 802.1c
e. IGP & VTP
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Question 28
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Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is
highier than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on
the same router?

Select one:
a. To be the priority route in the routing table
b. To act as a gateway of last resort
c. To load-balance the traffic
d. To be used as a backup route
Clear my choice

Question 29
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Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router
interface?

Select one:
a. ipv6 autoconfig
b. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
c. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
d. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
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Question 30
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What does administrative distance refer to?

Select one:
a. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set .
b. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source .
c. the advertised cost to reach a network.
d. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers.
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Question 31
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Refer to the sample configuration below. Which (config-router) command will allow the
network represented on the interface to be advertised by RIP?

router rip
version 2
no auto summary
!
interface ethernet0
ip address 10.12.6.1
255.255.0.0

Select one:
a. Network ethernet0
b. Network 10.12.0.0
c. Redistribute 10.12.0.0
d. Redistribute ethernet0
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Question 32
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RouterA#debugip rip
RIP protocol debugging is on00:34:32: RIP: sending v2 flash update to 224.0.0.9 via
FastEthernet8/0 (172.16.1.1)
00:34:32: RIP: build flash update entries
00:34:32: 10.10.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.6, metric 1, tag 0
00:34:32: RIP: sending v2 flash update to 224.0.0.9 via Loopback (10.10.1.1)
00:34:32: RIP: build flash update entries
00:34:32: 10.0.0.0/8 via 0.6.0.0, metric 2, tag 0
00:34:32: 172.16.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.0, metric 1, tag 0
00:34:32: RIP: ignored v2 packet from 16.10.1.1 (sourced from one of our addresses)
06:34:33: RIP: received v2 update from 172.16.1.2 on FastEthernet0/6
66:34:33: 16.6.0.0/8 via 6.0.6.6 in 1 hops
66:34:44: RIP: sending v2 update to 224.6.6.9 via FastEthernet0/0 (172.16.1.1)
66:34:44: RIP: build update entries
66:34:44: 10.10.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.0, metric 1, tag 0

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be gathered from the output?

Select one:
a. One router is running RIPv1.
b. RIP neighbor is 224.0.0.9.
c. The network contains a loop.
d. Network 10.10.1.0 is reachable.
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Question 33
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What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface
associated with that route goes into a down state?

Select one:
a. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
b. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
c. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
d. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
Clear my choice

Question 34
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Which 3 series of commands will configure router R1 for LAN-to-LAN communication


with router R2? The enterprise network address is 192.1.1.0/24 and the routing protocol
in use is RIP.

1.
R1 (config)# interface ethernet 0
R1 (config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.129 255.255.255.192
R1 (config-if)# no shutdown
2.
R1 (config)# interface ethernet 0
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.1.1.97 255.255.255.192
R1 (config-if)# no shutdown
3.
R1 (config)# interface serial 0
R1 (config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.4 255.255.255.252
R1 (config-if)# clock rate 56000
4.
R1 (config)# interface serial 0
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.1.1.6 255.255.255.252
R1 (config-it)# no shutdown
5.
R1 (config)# router rip
R1 (config-router)# network 192.1.1.4
R1 (config-router)# network 192.1.1.128
6.
R1 (config)# router rip
R1 (config-router)# version 2
R1 (config-router)# network 192.1.1.0

Select one:
a. 2, 3, 6
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 1, 4, 6
d. 2, 3, 6
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Question 35
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Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router
interface?

Select one:
a. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
b. ipv6 autoconfig
c. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
d. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
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Question 36
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"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router.

Select one:
True
False

Question 37
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Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use
the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is
used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish
this goal.
Select one:
a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10
b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
d. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
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A network administrator in XYZ Telecom is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a


router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has
established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent
routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

Select one:
a. Router#showipeigrp neighbors
b. Router#showipeigrp interfaces
c. Router# show ipeigrp topology
d. Router# show ipeigrp adjacency
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Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true?
1. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
2. A routed port takes an IP address assignment.
3. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
4. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.
5. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN.
6. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.

Select one:
a. 3, 4, 6
b. 2, 3, 6
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 5
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Which are the 2 trunking protocols?

Select one:
a. 802.11g and 802.11n
b. 802.11a and 802.11b
c. ISL & IEEE 802.1q
d. ISL and 802.11g
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Which protocolis used to configure trunking on a switch?

Select one:
a. vlan
b. 802.11n
c. 802.1q
d. 802.11a
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What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table
contains no specific route to the destination network?

Select one:
a. Default route
b. Dynamic route
c. Generic route
d. Destination route
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What does administrative distance refer to?

Select one:
a. the advertised cost to reach a destination ip address.
b. the bandwidth of a link between two neighboring routers.
c. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set .
d. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.
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Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15,
30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45
that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on
VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this
problem?
Select one:
a. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
b. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
c. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45
d. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
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A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to
segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new
VLAN on the switch?

Select one:
a. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
b. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
c. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
d. More collision domains will be created.
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,
when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

Select one:
a. Hop count
b. Administrative distance
c. Link bandwidth
d. Link delay
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A network engineer for a semiconductor company wants to use the primary ISP
connection for all external connectivity. Refer at the diagram below. The backup ISP
connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands
would accomplish this goal?
Select one:
a. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10
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A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local
network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and
without decreasing network performance?

Select one:
a. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
b. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.
c. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.
d. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.
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Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router
interface?

Select one:
a. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
b. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
c. ipv6 autoconfig
d. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
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What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface
associated with that route goes into a down state?

Select one:
a. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
b. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
c. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
d. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
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As a network administrator of RMS Aerospace Industries, you


have been instructed to prevent all traffic originating on the LAN
from entering the R2 router. Which the following command
would implement the access list on the interface of the R2
router?

Select one:
a. ip access-group 101 in
b. access-list 101 out
c. ip access-group 101 out
d. access-list 101 in
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A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an


established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new
router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF
routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown
below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

Select one:
a. The network number is configured improperly.
b. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
c. The process id is configured improperly.
d. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
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What two functions describe uses of an access control list?


Select one:
a. 2 & 3
b. 4 & 5
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 5
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Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4


ACLs?

Select one:
a. They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source
IP addresses and source ports.
b. They can be created with a number but not with a name.
c. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
d. They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
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What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

Select one:
a. 120
b. 110
c. 100
d. 90
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a


static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being
used?

Select one:
a. link bandwidth
b. hop count
c. link cost
d. administrative distance
e. link delay
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The following configuration line was added to router R1


Access-list 101 permit ip 10.25.30.0 0.0.0.255 any
What is the effect of this access list configuration?

Select one:
a. Permit all packet matching the last octet of the destination
address and accept all source addresses
b. Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source
address to all destinations
c. Permit all packet from the third subnet of the network address
to all destinations
d. Permit all packet matching the host bits in the source address
to all destinations
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Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output
and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will
OSPF use as its router ID?

Select one:
a. 172.16.1.1
b. 2.2.2.2
c. 192.168.1.1
d. 1.1.1.1
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The ip helper-address command does what?

Select one:
a. Assigns an IP address to a host
b. Relays a DHCP request across networks
c. Resolves an IP address overlapping issue
d. Resolves an IP address from a DNS server
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OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the three
characteristics of OSPF areas?
1. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be
configured
2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535
3. Area 0 is called the backbone area
4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas
5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1

Select one:
a. 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 2, 4
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What is the default number of equal-cost paths that can be


placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router?

Select one:
a. 2
b. unlimited
c. 4
d. 16
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Which two statements about static NAT translations are true?


1. They are always present in the NAT table.
2. They allow connection to be initiated from the outside.
3. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or
more connections to be initiated from the outside.
4. They require no inside or outside interface markings because
addresses are statically defined.
Select one:
a. 2 & 5
b. 1 & 4
c. 1 & 2
d. 3 & 4
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A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so


that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP
address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the
main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve
the task?

1. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit


host 192.168.15.23
2. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit
192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
3. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit
192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255
4. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit
192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0
5. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit
192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

Select one:
a. 2 & 3
b. 4 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 3 & 4
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A network associate in Genesis Aerospace Industries has


configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that
not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF.Which three of
the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF
according to this configuration statement?
1. FastEthernet0/0
2. FastEthernet0/1
3. Serial0/0
4. Serial0/1.104
5. Serial0/1.103
6. Serial0/1.102

Select one:
a. 2, 3, 5
b. 3, 4, 6
c. 2, 3, 6
d. 1, 2, 4
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If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6
traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?

Select one:
a. 12
b. 6
c. 4
d. 8
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Refer to the diagram below. The network administrator of RMS


Overseas and Employment Agency that has the IP address of
10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP
server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that
is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the
10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this
server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic,
and how would this ACL be applied?

1. access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23


host 10.0.54.5
2. access-list 105 permit tcp any host
10.0.54.5 eq www
3. access-list 105 permit ip any any
4. access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5
any eq www
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23
host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23
host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
5. access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23
host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23
host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0
0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit ip any any
6. R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in
7. R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
8. R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

Select one:
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 4
c. 1 & 5
d. 3 & 5
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Which command would you place on interface on a private


network?

Select one:
a. ipnat outside
b. ipnat inside
c. ip outside global
d. ip inside local
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A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so


that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP
address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the
main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve
the task?

1. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host


192.168.15.23
2. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit
192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
3. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit
192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255
4. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit
192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0
5. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit
192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

Select one:
a. 1 & 5
b. 2 & 4
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 2
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Which router command allows you to view the entire contents


of all access lists?

Select one:
a. Show interface
b. Show all access-lists
c. Show ip interface
d. Show access-lists
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What is the purpose of the DHCP server?

Select one:
a. to provide an IP configuration information to hosts
b. to translate URLs to IP addresses
c. to provide storage for email
d. to translate IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
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Which command would you place on interface on a private


network?
Select one:
a. ip nat inside
b. ip inside local
c. ip nat outside
d. ip outside global
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All hosts in the networks have been operational for several


hours when the DHCP server goes down. What happens to the
hosts that have obtained service from the DHCP server?

Select one:
a. The hosts will only be able to communicate with otherhosts by
IP address not by hostname
b. The hosts will not be able to communicate with any
otherhosts.
c. The hosts will continue to communicate normally for a period
of time.
d. The hosts will be able to communicate with hosts outsides
their own network
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Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is


enabled on a particular interface?

Select one:
a. Show ip interface
b. Show access-lists
c. Show interface access-lists
d. Show interface
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What two functions describe uses of an access control list?

1. ACLs assist the router in determining the


best path to a destination.
2. Standard ACLs can restrict access to
specific applications and ports.
3. ACLs provide a basic level of security for
network access.
4. ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon
the MAC address originating on the router.
5. ACLs can control which areas a host can
access on a network.

Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 5
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Which two commands are required to properly configure a


router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to
OSPF area 0?

1. Router(config)#router ospf 1
2. Router(config)#router ospf 0
3. Router(config)#router ospf area 0
4. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0
0.0.0.255 area 0
5. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0
0.0.0.255 0
6. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0
255.255.255.0 area 0

Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 3 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1 & 4
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As a network administrator, you have been instructed to


prevent all traffic originating on the LAN from entering the R2
router. Which the following command would implement the
access list on the interface of the R2 router?
Select one:
a. ip access-group 101 in
b. access-list 101 out
c. access-list 101 in
d. ip access-group 101 out
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the
loopback address that is configured on RouterB?

1. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.


2. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
3. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
4. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from
RouterB.
5. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the
LAN.

Select one:
a. 1 & 5
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 3
d. 4 & 5
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What are two benefits of using NAT?


1. NAT protects network security because private networks are
not advertised.
2. NAT accelerates the routing process because no
modifications are made on the packets.
3. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the
network.
4. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is
enable.
5. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require
external access.
6. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level
multiplexing.

Select one:
a. 3 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 4
d. 2 & 5
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The following configuration line was added to router R1


Access-list 101 permit ip 10.25.30.0 0.0.0.255 any
What is the effect of this access list configuration?

Select one:
a. Permit all packet matching the last octet of the destination
address and accept all source addresses
b. Permit all packet from the third subnet of the network address
to all destinations
c. Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source
address to all destinations
d. Permit all packet matching the host bits in the source address
to all destinations
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Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use
when there is an IP address conflict?

Select one:
a. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is
resolved.
b. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
c. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
d. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the
pool.
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Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and


extended ACLs?

1. Both kinds of ACLs can filter based on


protocol type.
2. Both can permit or deny specific services by
port number.
3. Both include an implicit deny as a final ACE.
4. Both filter packets for a specific destination
host IP address.
5. Both can be created by using either a
descriptive name or number.

Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 2
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What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a


Cisco router sends hello packets on a multiaccess network?

Select one:
a. 10
b. 40
c. 30
d. 20
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a


static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being
used?

Select one:
a. Link bandwidth
b. Administrative distance
c. Hop count
d. Link delay
Clear my choice
Question 34
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What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF


and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?

Select one:
a. router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
b. router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
c. router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
d. router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
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Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private


network to simultaneously use a single inside global address
for connecting to the Internet?

Select one:
a. Static NAT
b. Dynamic NAT
c. Port forwarding
d. PAT
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Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

Select one:
a. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
b. access-list 110 permit ip any any
c. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
d. access-list 102 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
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How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to


host?

Select one:
a. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the
server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
b. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end
of period, a new quest for an address must be made, and
another address is then assigned.
c. Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the
same address by periodically contacting the DHCP sever to
renew the lease.
d. Addresses are assigned for 24hrs. At the end of period, a new
quest for an address must be made, and another address is
then assigned.
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Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match


the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask
0.0.1.255?

Select one:
a. 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
b. 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255
c. 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255
d. 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
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Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to HTTP traffic coming


from the Internet that is destined for 172.12.12.10 if the traffic is
processed by this ACL?
router#show access-lists
Extended IP access list 110
10 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq
telnet
20 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq smtp
30 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq http
40 permit tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any

Select one:
a. Traffic will be dropped, because of the implicit deny all at the
end of the ACL.
b. Traffic will be dropped per line 30 of the ACL.
c. Traffic will be accepted per line 40 of the ACL.
d. Traffic will be accepted, because the source address is not
covered by the ACL.
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When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses


should never be assignable to hosts?

1. Designated IP address to the DHCP server


2. IP address leased to the LAN
3. Network or subnetwork IP address
4. Manually assigned address to the clients
5. IP address used by the interfaces
6. Broadcast address on the network

Select one:
a. 3 & 5
b. 1 & 3
c. 3 & 6
d. 2 & 6
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The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following


tasks?

1. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery.


2. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90
second intervals.
3. It maintains neighbor relationships.
4. It negotiates correctness parameters
between neighboring interfaces.
5. It uses timers to elect the router with the
fastest links as the designated router.
6. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the
internetwork to discover all routers that are
running OSPF

1. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery.

2. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals.


3. It maintains neighbor relationships.

4. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring

interfaces.

5. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the

designated router.

It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are

running OSPF.

Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 3
c. 1 & 5
d. 3 & 5
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Question 42
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Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Select one:
a. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from
the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.
b. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
c. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
d. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP
server.
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Which of the following would be a good starting point for


troubleshooting if your router is not translating?

Select one:
a. Run the debug all command.
b. Call Cisco.
c. Check your interfaces for the correct configuration.
d. Reboot.
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Question 44
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Which task does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
perform?

Select one:
a. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
b. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
c. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
d. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
e. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
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Question 45
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If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6
traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?

Select one:
a. 12
b. 8
c. 4
d. 6
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Question 46
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How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to


host?

Select one:
a. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the
server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
b. Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the
same address by periodically contacting the DHCP sever to
renew the lease.
c. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end
of period, a new quest for an address must be made, and
another address is then assigned.
d. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses
the same address at all times.
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Question 47
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Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link
states?

Select one:
a. show ipospf neighbors
b. show ipospflsa database
c. show ipospf database
d. show ipospf link-state
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Question 48
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Which command will show you all the translations active on


your router?

Select one:
a. show ip nat statistics
b. show ip nat translations
c. clear ip nat translations *
d. debug ip nat
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Question 49
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Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Select one:
a. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP
server.
b. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
c. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
d. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from
the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
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Question 50
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Question text

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Select one:
a. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP
server.
b. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
c. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
d. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from
the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
Clear my choice

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