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This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches
operates. Most switches perform only one level of 802.1Q de- encapsulation, which
allows an attacker to embed a hidden 802.1Q tag inside the frame.
Select one:
a. Port Attack
b. Backdoor Attack
c. Switch boarding Attack
d. Double Tagging Attack
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Question 2
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Select one:
True
False
Question 3
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Select one:
a. Dividing Layer 1,2 and 3 networks into multiple physical workgroups reduces
unnecessary traffic on the network and boosts performance.
b. Groups that have sensitive data are separated from the rest of the network,
decreasing the chances of confidential information breaches.
c. Cost savings result from reduced need for expensive network upgrades and more
efficient use of existing bandwidth and uplinks.
d. VLANs make it easier to manage the network because users with similar network
requirements share the same VLAN.
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Question 4
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This is used between a network device and server or other device that is equipped with
an appropriate 802.1Q-capable NIC.
Select one:
a. Domain
b. Trunks
c. Tunneling
d. Access Point
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Question 5
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Select one:
a. cisco_vlan.dat
b. vlan.dat
c. cisco_vlan.ini
d. vlan.cfg
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Question 6
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Select one:
a. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is enabled by default.
b. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is a proprietary networking protocol developed by Cisco
Systems.
c. Switches from other vendors do not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol.
d. All of the choices
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Question 7
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A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has
received the entire frame and then checked the frame for errors.
Select one:
a. Store-and-forward switching
b. Cut-through switch method
c. Rapid Frame forwarding
d. Automatic-forward switching
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Question 8
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Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface so that the
router will combine a manually specified network prefix with an automatically generated
interface identifier?
Select one:
a. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64
b. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length
c. ipv6 enable
d. ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local
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Question 9
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Select one:
a. VLANs allow an administrator to segment networks based on factors such as
function, project team, or application.
b. VLANs are based on logical connections, instead of physical connections.
c. VLANs provide a way to group devices within a LAN.
d. A group of devices within a VLAN communicate as if they were attached to the same
wire.
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Question 10
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Select one:
a. Default VLAN
b. Data VLAN
c. Management VLAN
d. Native VLAN
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Question 11
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Select one:
a. Trunks
b. Tunneling
c. Access Point
d. None of the choices
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Question 12
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To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring,
what command to be used to check whether the local and peer native VLANs match?
Select one:
a. view trunk - match
b. show interfaces trunk
c. check vlan connection
d. check match vlan
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Question 13
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Select one:
a. 3 & 4
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 4
d. 4 & 5
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Question 14
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The following are switch port modes that DTP offers EXCEPT
Select one:
a. Remote
b. None of the choices
c. Dynamic auto
d. Dynamic desirable
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Question 15
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The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the
installation of different numbers of line card.
Select one:
a. Fixed configuration
b. Stackable configuration
c. Modular configuration
d. Server side configuration
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Question 16
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Select one:
a. Common domain
b. Broadcast domain
c. Shared domain
d. Collision domain
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Question 17
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If the port is assigned to the wrong VLAN, what command to be command to change the
VLAN membership on a particular port?
Select one:
a. configure port vlan
b. Switchport access vlan
c. set port vlan
d. vlan port default
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Question 18
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A switch forwarding method that begins the forwarding process after the destination
MAC address of an incoming frame and the egress port has been determined.
Select one:
a. Store-and-forward switching
b. Rapid Frame forwarding
c. Automatic-forward switching
d. Cut-through switch method
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Question 19
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Select one:
a. Shut down unused switch ports to prevent unauthorized access
b. None of the choices
c. Configure all the ports on all switches to be associated with VLANs other than VLAN
1.
d. Separate management and user data traffic.
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Question 20
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In this attack, the attacker exploits a flaw in the Telnet server software running on the
switch that renders the Telnet service unavailable. This sort of attack prevents an
administrator from remotely accessing switch management functions. This can be
combined with other direct attacks on the network as part of a coordinated attempt to
prevent the network administrator from accessing core devices during the breach.
Select one:
a. Telnet DoS attack
b. Brute force password attack
c. Telnet password attack
d. Crack password attack
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Question 21
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Select one:
a. HTTP
b. SSH
c. FTP
d. TCP/IP
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Question 22
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Select one:
a. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by OSPF.
b. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot
support load balancing.
c. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination
networks.
d. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same
destination network.
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Question 23
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The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the
installation of different numbers of line card.
Select one:
a. Fixed configuration
b. Modular configuration
c. Stackable configuration
d. Server side configuration
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Question 24
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Select one:
a. 22
b. 23
c. 8080
d. 80
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Question 25
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True or False.
The best way to prevent a basic switch spoofing attack is to turn off trunking on all ports,
except the ones that specifically require trunking.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
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The ________________ switches do not support features or options beyond those that
originally came with the switch.
Select one:
a. Fixed configuration
b. Server side configuration
c. Remote configuration
d. Modular configuration
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Question 27
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Select one:
a. Switches from other vendors do not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol.
b. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is a proprietary networking protocol developed by Cisco
Systems.
c. All of the choices
d. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is disable by default.
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Question 28
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Select one:
a. Transmit, Receive, Store
b. Process, Fast, Cisco Express Forwarding
c. Cisco Forward, Receive, Cisco Process
d. Receive, Process, Transmit
e. Transmit, Receive, Distribute/Forward
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Question 29
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Select one:
a. Asynchronous link cable
b. Cross cable
c. Console cable
d. UTP Network cable
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Question 30
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This is the arrangement of the cables, network devices, and end systems. It describes
how the network devices are actually interconnected with wires and cables.
Select one:
a. physical topology
b. TCP/IP
c. logical topology
d. internet topology
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Question 1
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Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 4 & 5
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Question 2
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Refering to the network diagram above of RMS University. All hosts and router interfaces
are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1
and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?
Select one:
a. RIPv2 does not support VLSM.
b. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.
c. RIPv2 does not support discontiguous networks.
d. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.
e. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.
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Question 3
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,
when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. link bandwidth
b. hop count
c. link cost
d. link delay
e. administrative distance
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Question 4
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Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 3 & 4
c. 2 & 4
d. 1 & 4
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Question 5
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Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is
highierthan the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on
the same router?
Select one:
a. To be the priority route in the routing table
b. To load-balance the traffic
c. To act as a gateway of last resort
d. To be used as a backup route
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Question 6
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Select one:
a. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
b. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
c. The network number is configured improperly.
d. The process id is configured improperly.
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Question 7
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Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when
a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. link delay
b. link cost
c. link bandwidth
d. administrative distance
e. hop count
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Question 8
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What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface
associated with that route goes into a down state?
Select one:
a. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
b. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
c. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
d. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
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Question 9
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A network administrator has examined the routing table of a router and noted that the
entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this
letter signify?
Select one:
a. The route to this network is configured statically on the router.
b. The route source was learned dynamically.
c. The route to network 172.16.4.0/24 is directly connected.
d. That is the direct route for packets to that network.
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Question 10
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Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out
which interface will R1 forward the packet?
Select one:
a. Serial0/0/0
b. FastEthernet0/0
c. FastEthernet0/1
d. Serial0/0/1
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Question 11
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Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, supports manual route
summarization, and uses the multicast address 224.0.0.9?
Select one:
a. RIPv2
b. EIGRP
c. RIPv1
d. OSPF
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Question 12
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Select one:
a. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0. serial 0/0/0
b. Ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120
c. Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1
d. Ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0
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Question 13
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,
when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. Administrative distance
b. Hop count
c. Link cost
d. Link delay
e. Link bandwidth
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Question 14
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OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces
operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be
learned by OSPF?
Select one:
a. 2
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
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Question 15
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Select one:
a. 802.11a
b. 802.11g
c. 802.1q
d. ISL
e. 802.11n
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Question 16
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Select one:
True
False
Question 17
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Select one:
a. 170
b. 120
c. 90
d. 100
e. 130
f. 110
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Question 18
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Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15,
30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45
that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on
VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this
problem?
Select one:
a. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*
b. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
c. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
d. The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45
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Question 19
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Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
1. VTP
2. 802.1q
3. IGP
4. ISL
5. 802.3u
Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 2 & 4
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Question 20
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Select one:
a. 110
b. 100
c. 120
d. 90
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Question 21
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,
when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. hop count link cost
b. link bandwidth
c. administrative distance
d. link delay
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Question 22
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Select one:
a. 110
b. 90
c. 100
d. 130
e. 170
f. 120
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Question 23
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Select one:
a. 802.11g and 802.11n
b. 802.11a and 802.11b
c. ISL & IEEE 802.1q
d. ISL and 802.11g
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Question 24
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Select one:
a. Data VLAN
b. Management VLAN
c. Default VLAN
d. Native VLAN
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Question 25
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Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is
highierthan the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on
the same router?
Select one:
a. To be used as a primary route
b. To be the priority route in the routing table
c. To be used as a backup route
d. To act as a gateway of last resort
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Question 26
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Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN
trunking?
1. one physical interface for each subinterface
2. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
3. a management domain for each subinterface
4. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
5. one subinterface per VLAN
6. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 6
d. 1, 5, 6
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Question 27
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Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
Select one:
a. 802.1q & ISL
b. ISL & 802.1ab
c. VTP & ISL
d. 802.3u& 802.1c
e. IGP & VTP
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Question 28
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Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is
highier than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on
the same router?
Select one:
a. To be the priority route in the routing table
b. To act as a gateway of last resort
c. To load-balance the traffic
d. To be used as a backup route
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Question 29
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Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router
interface?
Select one:
a. ipv6 autoconfig
b. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
c. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
d. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
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Question 30
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Select one:
a. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set .
b. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source .
c. the advertised cost to reach a network.
d. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers.
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Question 31
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Refer to the sample configuration below. Which (config-router) command will allow the
network represented on the interface to be advertised by RIP?
router rip
version 2
no auto summary
!
interface ethernet0
ip address 10.12.6.1
255.255.0.0
Select one:
a. Network ethernet0
b. Network 10.12.0.0
c. Redistribute 10.12.0.0
d. Redistribute ethernet0
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Question 32
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RouterA#debugip rip
RIP protocol debugging is on00:34:32: RIP: sending v2 flash update to 224.0.0.9 via
FastEthernet8/0 (172.16.1.1)
00:34:32: RIP: build flash update entries
00:34:32: 10.10.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.6, metric 1, tag 0
00:34:32: RIP: sending v2 flash update to 224.0.0.9 via Loopback (10.10.1.1)
00:34:32: RIP: build flash update entries
00:34:32: 10.0.0.0/8 via 0.6.0.0, metric 2, tag 0
00:34:32: 172.16.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.0, metric 1, tag 0
00:34:32: RIP: ignored v2 packet from 16.10.1.1 (sourced from one of our addresses)
06:34:33: RIP: received v2 update from 172.16.1.2 on FastEthernet0/6
66:34:33: 16.6.0.0/8 via 6.0.6.6 in 1 hops
66:34:44: RIP: sending v2 update to 224.6.6.9 via FastEthernet0/0 (172.16.1.1)
66:34:44: RIP: build update entries
66:34:44: 10.10.1.0/24 via 0.0.0.0, metric 1, tag 0
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be gathered from the output?
Select one:
a. One router is running RIPv1.
b. RIP neighbor is 224.0.0.9.
c. The network contains a loop.
d. Network 10.10.1.0 is reachable.
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Question 33
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What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface
associated with that route goes into a down state?
Select one:
a. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
b. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
c. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
d. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
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Question 34
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1.
R1 (config)# interface ethernet 0
R1 (config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.129 255.255.255.192
R1 (config-if)# no shutdown
2.
R1 (config)# interface ethernet 0
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.1.1.97 255.255.255.192
R1 (config-if)# no shutdown
3.
R1 (config)# interface serial 0
R1 (config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.4 255.255.255.252
R1 (config-if)# clock rate 56000
4.
R1 (config)# interface serial 0
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.1.1.6 255.255.255.252
R1 (config-it)# no shutdown
5.
R1 (config)# router rip
R1 (config-router)# network 192.1.1.4
R1 (config-router)# network 192.1.1.128
6.
R1 (config)# router rip
R1 (config-router)# version 2
R1 (config-router)# network 192.1.1.0
Select one:
a. 2, 3, 6
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 1, 4, 6
d. 2, 3, 6
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Question 35
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Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router
interface?
Select one:
a. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
b. ipv6 autoconfig
c. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
d. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
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Question 36
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Select one:
True
False
Question 37
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Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use
the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is
used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish
this goal.
Select one:
a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10
b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
d. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
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Question 38
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Select one:
a. Router#showipeigrp neighbors
b. Router#showipeigrp interfaces
c. Router# show ipeigrp topology
d. Router# show ipeigrp adjacency
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Question 39
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Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true?
1. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
2. A routed port takes an IP address assignment.
3. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
4. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.
5. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN.
6. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.
Select one:
a. 3, 4, 6
b. 2, 3, 6
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 5
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Question 40
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Which are the 2 trunking protocols?
Select one:
a. 802.11g and 802.11n
b. 802.11a and 802.11b
c. ISL & IEEE 802.1q
d. ISL and 802.11g
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Question 41
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Select one:
a. vlan
b. 802.11n
c. 802.1q
d. 802.11a
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Question 42
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What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table
contains no specific route to the destination network?
Select one:
a. Default route
b. Dynamic route
c. Generic route
d. Destination route
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Question 43
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Select one:
a. the advertised cost to reach a destination ip address.
b. the bandwidth of a link between two neighboring routers.
c. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set .
d. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.
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Question 44
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Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15,
30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45
that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on
VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this
problem?
Select one:
a. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
b. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
c. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45
d. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
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Question 45
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A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to
segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new
VLAN on the switch?
Select one:
a. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
b. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
c. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
d. More collision domains will be created.
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Question 46
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup,
when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. Hop count
b. Administrative distance
c. Link bandwidth
d. Link delay
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Question 47
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A network engineer for a semiconductor company wants to use the primary ISP
connection for all external connectivity. Refer at the diagram below. The backup ISP
connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands
would accomplish this goal?
Select one:
a. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10
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Question 48
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A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local
network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and
without decreasing network performance?
Select one:
a. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
b. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.
c. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.
d. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.
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Question 49
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Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router
interface?
Select one:
a. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
b. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
c. ipv6 autoconfig
d. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
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Question 50
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What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface
associated with that route goes into a down state?
Select one:
a. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
b. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
c. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
d. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
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Question 1
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Select one:
a. ip access-group 101 in
b. access-list 101 out
c. ip access-group 101 out
d. access-list 101 in
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Select one:
a. The network number is configured improperly.
b. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
c. The process id is configured improperly.
d. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
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Select one:
a. They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source
IP addresses and source ports.
b. They can be created with a number but not with a name.
c. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
d. They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
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Select one:
a. 120
b. 110
c. 100
d. 90
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Question 6
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Select one:
a. link bandwidth
b. hop count
c. link cost
d. administrative distance
e. link delay
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Select one:
a. Permit all packet matching the last octet of the destination
address and accept all source addresses
b. Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source
address to all destinations
c. Permit all packet from the third subnet of the network address
to all destinations
d. Permit all packet matching the host bits in the source address
to all destinations
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Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output
and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will
OSPF use as its router ID?
Select one:
a. 172.16.1.1
b. 2.2.2.2
c. 192.168.1.1
d. 1.1.1.1
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Select one:
a. Assigns an IP address to a host
b. Relays a DHCP request across networks
c. Resolves an IP address overlapping issue
d. Resolves an IP address from a DNS server
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OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the three
characteristics of OSPF areas?
1. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be
configured
2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535
3. Area 0 is called the backbone area
4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas
5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1
Select one:
a. 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 2, 4
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Select one:
a. 2
b. unlimited
c. 4
d. 16
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Select one:
a. 2 & 3
b. 4 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 3 & 4
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Select one:
a. 2, 3, 5
b. 3, 4, 6
c. 2, 3, 6
d. 1, 2, 4
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If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6
traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
Select one:
a. 12
b. 6
c. 4
d. 8
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Select one:
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 4
c. 1 & 5
d. 3 & 5
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Question 17
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Select one:
a. ipnat outside
b. ipnat inside
c. ip outside global
d. ip inside local
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Select one:
a. 1 & 5
b. 2 & 4
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 2
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Question 19
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Select one:
a. Show interface
b. Show all access-lists
c. Show ip interface
d. Show access-lists
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Select one:
a. to provide an IP configuration information to hosts
b. to translate URLs to IP addresses
c. to provide storage for email
d. to translate IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
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Select one:
a. The hosts will only be able to communicate with otherhosts by
IP address not by hostname
b. The hosts will not be able to communicate with any
otherhosts.
c. The hosts will continue to communicate normally for a period
of time.
d. The hosts will be able to communicate with hosts outsides
their own network
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Select one:
a. Show ip interface
b. Show access-lists
c. Show interface access-lists
d. Show interface
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Question 24
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Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 5
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1. Router(config)#router ospf 1
2. Router(config)#router ospf 0
3. Router(config)#router ospf area 0
4. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0
0.0.0.255 area 0
5. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0
0.0.0.255 0
6. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0
255.255.255.0 area 0
Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 3 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1 & 4
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the
loopback address that is configured on RouterB?
Select one:
a. 1 & 5
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 3
d. 4 & 5
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Question 28
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Select one:
a. 3 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 4
d. 2 & 5
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Select one:
a. Permit all packet matching the last octet of the destination
address and accept all source addresses
b. Permit all packet from the third subnet of the network address
to all destinations
c. Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source
address to all destinations
d. Permit all packet matching the host bits in the source address
to all destinations
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Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use
when there is an IP address conflict?
Select one:
a. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is
resolved.
b. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
c. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
d. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the
pool.
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Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 2
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Select one:
a. 10
b. 40
c. 30
d. 20
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Question 33
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Select one:
a. Link bandwidth
b. Administrative distance
c. Hop count
d. Link delay
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Question 34
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Select one:
a. router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
b. router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
c. router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
d. router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
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Select one:
a. Static NAT
b. Dynamic NAT
c. Port forwarding
d. PAT
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Question 36
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Select one:
a. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
b. access-list 110 permit ip any any
c. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
d. access-list 102 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
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Select one:
a. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the
server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
b. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end
of period, a new quest for an address must be made, and
another address is then assigned.
c. Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the
same address by periodically contacting the DHCP sever to
renew the lease.
d. Addresses are assigned for 24hrs. At the end of period, a new
quest for an address must be made, and another address is
then assigned.
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Question 38
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Select one:
a. 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
b. 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255
c. 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255
d. 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
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Select one:
a. Traffic will be dropped, because of the implicit deny all at the
end of the ACL.
b. Traffic will be dropped per line 30 of the ACL.
c. Traffic will be accepted per line 40 of the ACL.
d. Traffic will be accepted, because the source address is not
covered by the ACL.
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Select one:
a. 3 & 5
b. 1 & 3
c. 3 & 6
d. 2 & 6
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interfaces.
5. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the
designated router.
It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are
running OSPF.
Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 3
c. 1 & 5
d. 3 & 5
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Select one:
a. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from
the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.
b. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
c. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
d. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP
server.
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Select one:
a. Run the debug all command.
b. Call Cisco.
c. Check your interfaces for the correct configuration.
d. Reboot.
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Which task does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
perform?
Select one:
a. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
b. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
c. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
d. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
e. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
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Question 45
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If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6
traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
Select one:
a. 12
b. 8
c. 4
d. 6
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Question 46
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Select one:
a. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the
server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
b. Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the
same address by periodically contacting the DHCP sever to
renew the lease.
c. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end
of period, a new quest for an address must be made, and
another address is then assigned.
d. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses
the same address at all times.
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Question 47
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Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link
states?
Select one:
a. show ipospf neighbors
b. show ipospflsa database
c. show ipospf database
d. show ipospf link-state
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Question 48
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Select one:
a. show ip nat statistics
b. show ip nat translations
c. clear ip nat translations *
d. debug ip nat
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Question 49
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Select one:
a. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP
server.
b. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
c. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
d. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from
the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
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Question 50
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Select one:
a. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP
server.
b. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
c. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
d. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from
the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
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