A Framework For Human Resource Management 7th Edition by Gary Dessler - Test Bank

A Framework For Human Resource Management 7th
Edition By Gary Dessler – Test Bank
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A Framework for Human Resource Management 7th Edition by Gary Dessler – Test Bank
Sample Test
A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)
Chapter 3 Personnel Planning and Recruiting
1) ________ is the procedure through which one determines the duties associated with positions and
the characteristics of people to hire for those positions.
A) Job description
B) Job specification
C) Job analysis
D) Job context
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60
Objective: Chapter objective 2
2) The information resulting from job analysis is used for writing ________.
A) job descriptions
B) work activities
C) work aids
D) performance standards
Answer: A
3) Which of the following types of information can be collected via a job analysis?
A) work activities
B) human behaviors
C) performance standards
D) All of the above.
Answer: D
4) Information regarding job demands such as finger dexterity or conscientiousness is included in the
information about ________ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
A) work activities
B) human behaviors
C) machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
D) performance standards
Answer: B
5) Which term refers to a written statement that describes the activities and responsibilities of the job?
A) job specification
B) job report
C) job description
D) job context
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61-65
6) A ________ summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and work behaviors required for getting
the job done.
A) job specification
B) job analysis
C) job report
D) job description
Answer: A
7) The framework for talent management includes ________.
A) deciding what positions to fill
B) building a pool of job candidates

C) using selection tools such as tests, interviews, and the like
Answer: D
Skill: AACSB: Analytical Skills
8) Which of the following may be included in a job specification?
A) traits
B) skills
C) required background
Answer: D
9) Which of the following methods is used to gather job analysis data?
A) interviews
B) questionnaires
C) observation
Answer: D
10) Who is interviewed by managers collecting job analysis data?
A) individual employees
B) groups of employees with the same job
C) supervisors who know the job
Answer: D
11) Which of the following is not an advantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
A) It is simple to use.
B) Some information may be exaggerated or minimized.
C) It is quick to collect information.
D) It can identify uncommon, but important activities.

Answer: B
12) For which of the following jobs is direct observation not recommended to collect data used in a job
analysis?
A) assembly-line worker
B) accounting clerk
C) design engineer
D) receptionist
Answer: C
13) Jane records every activity she participates in at work along with time in a log. This approach to data
collection for job analysis is based on ________.
A) diaries
B) interviews
C) direct observation
D) questionnaires
Answer: A
14) What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log?
A) interviews
B) diaries
C) direct observation
D) None of the above.
Answer: B
15) Most job descriptions contain sections that cover ________.
A) job summary
B) standards of performance
C) working conditions
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62, 64
16) One uses information from the ________ to write a job specification.
A) job summary
B) job identification
C) job description
D) standards for performance
Answer: C
17) What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description?
A) job title
B) job summary
C) major functions or activities
Answer: A
18) The job specification takes the job description and answers the question:
A) What human traits and experience are required to do this job well?
B) When will the supervisor be completely satisfied with a worker’s work?
C) What are the four main activities making up this job?
D) What are the performance standards for the job?
Answer: A
19) When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include ________.
A) quality of training
B) length of previous service
C) physical traits
Answer: C

20) When a manager takes a talent management approach, he or she:
A) understands the talent management tasks.
B) makes sure talent management decisions are goal-directed.
C) actively segments and manages employees.
Answer: D
21) Describing the job in terms of the observable competencies or skills necessary for good job
performance is called a ________.
A) competency-based job analysis
B) Department of Labor Procedure
C) functional job analysis
Answer: A

22) Competency analysis focuses on ________.
A) what is accomplished
B) what competencies or skills the worker must have to do the work
C) when work is accomplished
D) where the work is accomplished
Answer: B
23) Traditional job analysis focuses on ________.
A) job duties and responsibilities
B) how work is accomplished
C) who accomplishes the work
D) where the work is accomplished
Answer: A

24) Jane must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months. What activity is Jane
working on?
A) recruitment
B) selection
C) personnel planning
D) interviewing
Answer: C
25) ________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill.
A) Recruitment
B) Selection
C) Workforce planning
Answer: C
26) When a company decides on how to fill top executive positions, the process is called ________.
A) employment planning
B) succession planning
C) selection
D) testing
Answer: B
27) When planning for employment requirements, what must be forecasted?
A) personnel needs
B) supply of inside candidates
C) Both A and B.
D) Neither A nor B.
Answer: C

28) Which term below means studying variations in a firm’s employment levels over time?
A) ratio analysis
B) trend analysis
C) graphical analysis
Answer: B
29) The process of making forecasts based on the ratio between some causal factor like sales volume
and the number of employees required is called ________.
A) ratio analysis
B) trend analysis
C) graphical analysis
D) computer analysis
Answer: A

30) Suppose a salesperson traditionally generates $500,000 in sales and the company wishes to increase
sales by $4 million dollars per year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople are required?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: D
31) A ________ shows graphically how two variables are related.
A) trend analysis
B) ratio analysis
C) scatter plot
D) correlation analysis
Answer: C

32) ________ contain data on employees’ performance records, educational background, and
promotion recommendations.
A) Computerized information systems
B) Replacement charts
C) Qualifications inventories
D) Trend records
Answer: C
33) When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they
will use ________.
A) replacement charts
B) qualifications inventories
C) trend records
D) personnel files
Answer: B

34) Recruiting is necessary to ________.
A) forecast the supply of outside candidates
B) develop an applicant pool
C) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates
D) develop qualifications inventories
Answer: B
35) Job posting refers to all of the following except:
A) publicizing the open job to employees.
B) listing the job’s attributes.
C) listing the job’s required qualifications.
D) listing the number of desired applicants.
Answer: D
36) Which of the following methods is not used to recruit outside candidates?
A) advertising
B) job postings
C) employment agencies
D) All of the above are used to recruit outside candidates.
Answer: B
37) Public state employment agencies are aided and coordinated by ________________.
A) private companies
B) region of the country
C) employers
D) the S. Department of Labor
Answer: D
38) Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities except:
A) reviewing the employer’s job requirements.

B) visiting employer work sites.
C) writing job descriptions.
D) Counselors perform all of the above activities.
Answer: D
39) State-run employment agencies provide ________ to employers.
A) recruitment services
B) training programs
C) reviews of employer job requirements
Answer: D
40) Who is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by private employment agencies when they
place qualified individuals in jobs?
A) the employer
B) the employee
C) the state employment commission
D) there are no fees
Answer: A
41) Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency?
A) It may be faster than in-house recruiting.
B) It does not require internal recruitment specialists.
C) Screening may not be as thorough.
D) It may be better for attracting minority candidates.
Answer: C
42) Which of the following is not another term for contingent workers?
A) part-time
B) just-in-time
C) collateral
D) temporary
Answer: C
43) Contingent workers are used in ________ occupations.
A) clerical
B) engineering
C) maintenance
Answer: D
44) Jackie works as a nurse on temporary assignments for hospitals throughout the region on an as-
needed basis. Jackie is ________.
A) a contingent worker
B) on job rotation
C) using job enlargement
Answer: A
45) ________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top-tier management
talent for their clients.
A) State-run employment agencies
B) Temporary agencies
C) Executive recruiters
D) Job banks
Answer: C
46) Executive recruiters are also called ________.
A) headhunters
B) staffers
C) alternative staffing companies
Answer: A
47) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an executive recruiter?
A) many contacts in field
B) adept at contacting candidates who are not on the job market
C) unfamiliar what the company truly wants in the ideal candidate
D) ability to keep identity of firm confidential
Answer: C
Skill: AACSB: Reflective Thinking
48) Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level executive to serve in its finance division. Qualified
candidates can be difficult to find because there is more demand than supply. Pamlico River Productions
should consider using a(n) ________ for recruitment.
A) state-run employment agency
B) executive recruiter
C) temporary agency
D) Any of the above.
Answer: B
49) Which of the following is an advantage of college recruiting?
A) access to a source of management trainees
B) schedules for recruitment visits set far ahead of time
C) access to candidates who are not looking for jobs
Answer: A

50) College recruiters typically seek to ________.
A) determine whether a candidate is worthy of further consideration
B) fill the position
C) cut costs for the firm by reducing the need to for on-site interviews
D) develop a pool of applicants for future screening
Answer: A
51) Besides determining whether a candidate is worth further consideration, college recruiters also seek
to ________.
A) fill the position
B) develop a pool of applicants for future screening
C) attract good candidates
Answer: C
52) When it comes to on-campus recruiting, which of the items listed below should be assessed by the
campus recruiter?
A) motivation
B) commitment
C) appearance
Answer: A
53) One of the biggest challenges facing single parents in the job market is ________.
A) getting access to the Internet to search job sites
B) balancing work and family life
C) getting a sufficient salary
D) minimizing the commute to work
Answer: B

54) Once a firm has a pool of applicants, the first step in pre-screening is the ________.
A) in-person interview
B) on-site visit
C) application form
D) recommendation from recruiters
Answer: C
55) Which of the following is not a type of information that could be illegal on application forms?
A) education
B) experience
C) work stability
D) applicant’s age
Answer: D
56) Which of the following could be perceived as discriminatory when asked on an employment
application form?
A) race
B) religion
C) age
Answer: D
57) Mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements require ________.
A) disgruntled employees to contact the local EEOC office prior to filing formal complaints
B) applicants to agree to arbitrate certain legal disputes related to employment or dismissal
C) applicants to take unpaid leaves of absence during employment disputes
D) applicants agree not to dispute decisions of the company regarding their employment
Answer: B
58) There are ________ steps in expediting a job analysis process.

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Answer: C
59) A job description has all of the following elements except:
A) what the job holder does.
B) how the job holder does it.
C) under what conditions a job is done.
D) All of the above are included in a job description.
Answer: D
60) A relationships statement in a job description may contain all of the following except:
A) mentors.
B) reports to.
C) works with.
D) supervises.
Answer: A
61) The recruitment and selection process has ________ steps.
A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) 7
Answer: A
62) ________ planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill, and how to fill
them..
A) Workforce
B) Selection
C) Recruitment
D) Replacement
Answer: A
63) A big question in an organization is whether to fill an opening from the inside or with an outside
candidate.
Answer: TRUE
64) Job analysis produces information used for writing job descriptions and job specifications.
Answer: TRUE

65) The information gathered during a job analysis is used primarily for listing what the job entails and
what kind of people to hire for the job.
Answer: TRUE
66) Conducting the job analysis is the sole responsibility of the HR specialist.
Answer: FALSE
67) Interviewing is simple and lets workers report activities that might not otherwise surface.
Answer: FALSE
68) Observation as a data collection method in a job analysis is most appropriate for jobs entailing a lot
of mental activity.
Answer: FALSE
69) Employers may provide employees pocket dictating machines and iPads to record activities at
random times of the workday.
Answer: TRUE
70) A manager uses job description information to write a job specification that lists the knowledge,
abilities, and skills needed to perform the job.
Answer: TRUE
71) Competency-based job analysis is more job-focused than traditional job analysis.
Answer: FALSE
72) Competency-based job analysis means describing the job in terms of the observable competencies
(knowledge, skills, and/or behaviors) that an employee must have to do the job.
Answer: TRUE

73) Recruitment efforts should be an integral part of a firm’s strategic planning process.
Answer: TRUE
74) Some job descriptions have a “standards of performance” section.
Answer: TRUE
75) Personnel planning rarely utilizes techniques like ratio analysis or trend analysis to estimate staffing
needs.
Answer: FALSE

76) A job description shows the reporting relationship of a job.
Answer: TRUE
77) When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called succession
planning.
Answer: FALSE
78) A job analysis is a result of job specifications.
Answer: FALSE

79) “What are the major duties of your position?” is not a question used in a job analysis interview.
Answer: FALSE
80) Observing work is a valid means of analyzing a job that has a lot of mental activity.
Answer: FALSE
81) One step in gathering job analysis could be to briefly explain the job analysis process and reason,
and the participants’ roles in the process.
Answer: FALSE
82) Interviews are not a method of collecting job analysis information,
Answer: FALSE
83) Trend analysis assumes the productivity increases over time.
Answer: FALSE
84) The assumption shared by both trend analysis and ratio analysis is that productivity remains about
the same from year to year.
Answer: TRUE
85) Effective recruiting results in a large number of applicants.
Answer: FALSE
86) Local newspapers or the Web are the best source for blue-collar help and clerical employees.
Answer: TRUE

87) Every state has a public, state-run employment service agency.
Answer: TRUE
88) Contingent workers are primarily clerical positions filled with temps.
Answer: FALSE
89) Employers have to formulate plans for attracting minorities and women, including reevaluating
personnel policies and developing flexible work options.
Answer: TRUE

90) A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and
graduation from various schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant’s age.
Answer: TRUE
91) The EEOC is generally opposed to the use of mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements,
which are required by many employers.
Answer: TRUE
92) The O*NET system provides valuable job specification information for untrained personnel only.
Answer: FALSE
93) Explain why generating large applicant pools is not always desirable for a firm. What implications
exist for recruitment methods?
Answer: An employer seeks to attract qualified applicants rather than unqualified applicants. Some
recruitment methods result in large pools but the applicants are unqualified. Larger pools raise costs of
correspondence and screening. It also extends the time necessary to fill vacant positions because of the
additional time necessary to sort through the large pool of applicants. The implication is that managers
should evaluate different recruitment methods to determine which ones work best for the firm. These
methods should be evaluated in terms of the number of applicants produced and the quality of
applicants.
94) Why are current employees often the best source of candidates for vacant positions?
Answer: Using internal sources of candidates means that the firm is already aware of the candidates’
strengths and weaknesses. Inside candidates may also be more committed to the company. Morale may
rise if employees see others promoted as rewards for loyalty and competence. Inside candidates may
also require less orientation and training than outsiders.

95) Why do employers turn to private employment agencies for assistance in recruiting? Provide at least
four reasons for the use of such employment agencies.
Answer: There are five key reasons for using an employment agency. The firm does not have to have
internal human resource specialists for recruiting and screening. The firm may have had difficulties in
the past recruiting a qualified pool of applicants. The firm may need the position filled very quickly.
There is a perceived need to recruit more minority and female applicants. When the best candidates are
employed elsewhere, it is more comfortable to have an agency approach the candidates. Use of an
agency reduced recruiting time.
Skill: AACSB: Communication
96) Give examples of items that can be found in the working conditions and physical environment
section of a job description.
Answer: Some items that might be listed include noise level, hazardous conditions, heat, and cold.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62-63 (sample form)

97) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using an employee referral campaign for recruitment
purposes?
Answer: Employee referral campaigns offer incentives and rewards to employees who refer qualified
applicants. Employees like the opportunity to earn extra money while recommending friends and
colleagues. Current employees can and usually will provide accurate information about job applicants
they refer. The new employees typically come with a realistic picture of what working in the firm is like.
It can also be useful for hiring workers with diverse backgrounds. However, the program can result in
poor morale if someone’s friend is rejected. Further, the program can result in a discriminatory situation
if most current employees are white males.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75, 77, 83
98) What four types of information can be learned about a job candidate from the application form?
Answer: One can determine whether the applicant has the education and experience necessary to do
the job. One can draw conclusions about the applicant’s previous progress and growth. One can draw
conclusions about the applicant’s stability based on previous work record. One may be able to use the
information provided to predict which candidates will succeed on the job and who will not.

99) Explain how job analysis provides information useful in recruitment and selection, compensation,
and performance appraisal.
Answer: Job analysis provides information for recruitment and selection by laying out what the job
entails and what human characteristics are required to perform these activities. This information helps
management decide what sort of people to recruit and hire. Job analysis information is also crucial for
estimating the value of each job and its appropriate compensation. A performance appraisal compares
each employee’s actual performance with his or her performance standards. Managers use job analysis
to determine the job’s specific activities and performance standards.
100) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using interviews to collect job analysis data?
Answer: Interviews are a relatively simple and quick way to collect data. Skilled interviewers can gather
information that might otherwise go undiscovered. Some activities might occur only occasionally or be
more informal in nature. Interviews can discover these types of activities. The interview also offers an
opportunity to explain the need for a job analysis. The biggest drawback is the chance for information to
be distorted either to outright falsification or honest misunderstanding.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59, 60, 75

A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)
Chapter 5 Training and Developing Employees
1) Employee ________ provides new employees with the basic background information required to
perform their jobs satisfactorily.
A) recruitment
B) selection
C) orientation
D) development
Answer: C

2) To improve the orientation process some firms provide their incoming managers with ________.
A) preloaded personal digital assistants
B) disks containing discussions of corporate culture
C) a free breakfast
D) A and B only
Answer: D
3) Who performs the initial orientation?
A) an HR specialist
B) the supervisor
C) Neither A nor B
D) Both A and B
Answer: D

4) Orientation typically includes information on ________.
A) employee benefits
B) daily routine
C) safety measures
Answer: D
5) ________ is the continuing process of instilling in all employees the attitudes, standards, and values
that the organization expects.
A) Socialization
B) Training
C) Development
D) Orientation
Answer: A

6) A successful orientation should achieve which of the following?
A) The new employee should feel welcome.
B) The new employee should understand the organization in a broad sense.
C) The new employee should have clear understanding of what is expected.
D) The new employee should begin the process of socialization.
Answer: A
7) The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are
called ________.
A) orientation
B) training
C) development
D) appraisal
Answer: B

8) The first step in creating a training program is to ________.
A) assess the program’s successes or failures
B) design the program content
C) analyze employees’ training needs
D) train the targeted group of employees
Answer: C
Objective: Chapter objective 1,2
9) What is the second step in the training process?
B) present the program to a small test audience
C) design the training program
D) conduct a needs analysis
Answer: C

10) The third step in the training process is to ________.
A) develop the program or course
B) design the program content
C) conduct a needs analysis
Answer: A
11) The fourth step in the training process is to ________.
D) implement the program or course
Answer: D

12) What is the final step in the training process?
A) evaluate the program’s successes or failures
Answer: A
13) Which of the following characterizes training today?
A) training is increasingly more strategic
B) training is more prevalent in the higher levels of an organization
C) training is developing a great reputation for getting results
D) training is being evaluated extensively
Answer: A

14) James is currently identifying the specific job performance skills needed, analyzing the skills of
prospective trainees, and developing knowledge and performance objectives based on the deficiencies
he finds. James is working on the ________ step in the training and development process.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fifth
Answer: A
15) ________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires.
A) Needs analysis
B) Task analysis
C) Performance analysis
D) Training strategy
Answer: B
16) The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiency
should be corrected through training or through some other means is called ________.
A) needs analysis
B) task analysis
C) performance analysis
D) development planning
Answer: C
17) Which of the following is not a source of identifying performance deficiencies?
A) supervisor, peer, self-, and 360-degree performance reviews
B) observation by supervisors or other specialists
C) individual employee daily diaries
Answer: D
18) All of the following are sources of identifying training needs except:
A) skills gapping.
B) assessment centers.
C) tests of things like job knowledge, skills, and attendance.
Answer: D
19) Performance analysis means:
A) verifying that there is a performance deficiency.
B) determining whether a deficiency should be rectified through training or some other means.
C) conducting a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills are required.
D) Only A and B.
Answer: D
20) ________ means having a person learn a job by actually doing it.
A) Practice
B) On-the-job training
C) Social learning
D) Modeling
Answer: B
21) Which of the following training methods is the most familiar?
A) on-the-job training
B) apprenticeship training
C) informal learning
D) lectures
Answer: A
22) On-the-job training can be accomplished through the use of all of the following techniques except:
A) coaching.
B) programmed learning.
C) understudy.
D) job rotation.
Answer: B
23) All of the following about teamwork or team training is true except:
A) teamwork always comes naturally.
B) team training may be used to support a new organization.
C) team training focuses on technical, interpersonal, and team management issues.
Answer: A
24) ________ is a form of management training in which trainees to learn by making realistic decisions
in simulated situations
A) Developmental solutions
B) Improvisation
C) Spontaneity
D) Quick time
Answer: B
25) In the ________ method, a manager is presented with a written description of an organizational
problem to diagnose and solve.
A) case study
B) diagnose and learn
C) action learning
D) job rotation
Answer: A
26) Rebekah was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program.
She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is utilizing the
________ form of training.
A) job rotation
B) understudy
C) coaching
D) special assignments
Answer: A
27) Jack hopes to be promoted to head of his department next year. In the meantime, he has been
assigned to spend a year as assistant to the current department head. This is an example of the
________ form of training.
A) job rotation
B) job instruction
C) coaching
D) informal learning
Answer: C

28) A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom
instruction and on-the-job training is called ________.
A) job instruction training
B) understudy training
C) programmed learning
D) apprenticeship training
Answer: D
29) What percentage of learning on the job comes from informal learning?
A) 80
B) 75
C) 90
D) 45
Answer: A

30) Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a
master craftsperson?
A) job instruction training
B) understudy training
C) programmed learning
D) apprenticeship training
Answer: D
31) Which of the following goals is the focus of diversity training?
A) to create cross-cultural sensitivity
B) to foster harmonious working relationships
C) to improve interpersonal skills
Answer: D
Skill: AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity

32) Another term for vestibule training is ________ training.
A) apprenticeship
B) computer-based
C) cubicle
D) simulated
Answer: D
33) ________ training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are
trained away from the job.
A) Vestibule
B) Apprenticeship
C) Cubicle
D) Job instruction
Answer: A

34) Pilots train on flight simulators for safety, learning efficiency, and cost savings. This is an example of
________.
A) apprenticeship training
B) on-the-job training
C) simulated training
D) programmed learning
Answer: C
35) Bobby demonstrates the correct way to do a job. He is using which training technique?
A) behavior modeling
B) demonstrational prowess
C) instruction by example
Answer: A

36) Which of the following is not a step in behavioral modeling?
A) modeling
B) role playing
C) social reinforcement
Answer: D
37) ________ allows people in one location to communicate live with people in another location.
A) Videoconferencing
B) Televising
C) Internet
D) Internet televising
Answer: A

38) ________ allows trainees to use a computer-based system to increase their knowledge and skills
interactively.
A) Computer-based training
B) Point-to-point training
C) Videoconferencing
D) Telelearning
Answer: A
39) ________ is a section of an employer’s Web site that offers employees online access to many or all
of the training courses employees need to succeed at their jobs.
A) Videospace
B) A learning portal
C) A training portal
Answer: B

40) Delivering learning content on demand via electronic devices when needed is termed ________
learning.
A) mobile
B) cell-based
C) demand driven
Answer: A
41) Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or
increasing skills is called ________.
A) diversity training
B) on-the-job training
C) performance improvement programs
D) management development
E) coaching
Answer: D

42) ________ is the inability to handle basic reading, writing, and arithmetic.
A) Functional illiteracy
B) Illiteracy
C) Handicapped literacy
D) Redundant literacy
Answer: A
43) The ________ process includes improving the firm’s future performance and make sense in terms of
the firm’s strategy and goals.
A) management development
B) management skills inventory
C) action planning
D) performance support
Answer: A

44) Which of the following is meant to counteract potential problems associated with a diverse
workforce?
A) improve interpersonal skills
B) improving math skills
C) understanding/valuing cultural differences
Answer: D
45) Which on-the-job training method is used for managerial positions?
A) job rotation
B) coaching
C) outside seminars
Answer: D

46) Which of the following is not a motivational guideline?
A) make the learning meaningful
B) make skills transfer easy
C) reinforce the learning
Answer: D
47) Gathering data about the organization and its operations and attitudes, with an eye toward solving a
particular problem is ________ research.
A) action
B) progressive
C) proactive
D) team-building
Answer: A

48) An outside consultant who questions an executive’s boss, peers, subordinates, and family in order to
determine weaknesses and strengths is a(n) ________.
A) executive coach
B) full time coach
C) a personality modifier
Answer: A
49) ________ is a training technique by which management trainees are allowed to work full time
analyzing and solving problems in other departments.
A) Action learning
B) Off the job training
C) Assessment centers
Answer: A

50) In a case study training exercise, the discussion should involve ________.
A) the discussion leader subtly guiding the trainees
B) an analysis of the case
C) the trainees presenting their conclusions
Answer: D
51) In ________, trainees learn by making realistic decisions in simulated situations.
A) improvisation
B) management games
C) case studies
D) action learning
Answer: B

52) ________ is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees diagnose and
formulate the change that’s required and implement it.
A) Managerial development
B) Action research
C) Succession planning
D) Organizational development
Answer: D
53) The basic aim of ________ is to increase the participant’s insight into his or her own behavior and
the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer-guided group.
A) sensitivity training
B) action research
C) group therapy
D) coaching
Answer: A

54) According to Kurt Lewin, in order for a change to occur, which stage must first take place?
A) unfreezing
B) moving
C) refreezing
D) shifting
Answer: A
55) Which of the following is not one of Lewin’s processes for overcoming resistance?
A) unfreezing
B) refreezing
C) moving
D) disjointing
Answer: D
56) Which of the following is not measured to evaluate a training program?
A) organizational productivity
B) participants’ reactions to the program
C) what trainees learned from the program

D) results achieved
Answer: A
57) All of the following are training outcomes categories that can be measured except:
A) reaction.
B) learning.
C) results.
D) likability.
Answer: D
58) ________ evaluates trainees as to whether they thought the training was worthwhile.
A) Reaction
B) Learning
C) Behavior
D) Results
Answer: A
59) ________ tests the trainees to determine whether they learned principles, skills, and facts.
A) Reaction
B) Learning
C) Behavior
D) Results
Answer: B
60) ________ focuses on whether on the job actions have changed.
A) Reaction
B) Learning
C) Behavior
D) Results
Answer: C
61) ________ focus on whether training had an effect on the organization’s objectives.
A) Reaction
B) Learning
C) Behavior
D) Results
Answer: D
62) About _____ percent of firms collecting end-of-class evaluation data use paper-and-pencil surveys.
A) 90
B) 80
C) 60
D) 50
Answer: A
63) Orientation refers to the methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to
perform their jobs.
Answer: FALSE
64) The main task in analyzing current employees’ training needs is to determine what the job entails,
break the job down into subtasks, and then teach each subtask to the employee.
Answer: FALSE
65) Performance analysis is a detailed study of a job to determine what specific skills the job requires.
Answer: FALSE
66) A disadvantage of on-the-job training is its expense.

Answer: FALSE
67) Estimates are that only about 20% of what employees learn on the job is learned through informal
means while the rest is learned through formal training programs.
Answer: FALSE
68) Lewin’s change process consists of unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.
Answer: TRUE
69) Managerial development is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees
themselves formulate the change that is required and implement it.
Answer: FALSE
70) In a controlled experiment, the researchers totally influence what is going to happen.
Answer: FALSE
71) Overcoming resistance is perhaps the hardest part of leading a change.
Answer: TRUE

72) Technology hampers efforts at orienting employees.
Answer: FALSE
73) The HR specialist usually starts the orientation.
Answer: TRUE
74) Learning objectives should address rectifying the performance deficiencies that you identified with
needs analysis.
Answer: TRUE

75) Once you have a properly designed training program, motivation is not an issue.
Answer: FALSE
76) Formal learning provides the bulk of on the job learning.
Answer: FALSE
77) University-based executive education is becoming more realistic, relying more on active learning,
business simulations, and experiential learning.
Answer: TRUE

78) Vestibule training’s attractiveness is because of its lower costs or increased safety.
Answer: TRUE
79) Behavior modeling involves showing trainees, or modeling, the right way of doing something, letting
each person practice the right way to do it, and providing feedback regarding performance.
Answer: TRUE
80) Simulated training combines the advantages of on- and off-the-job training.
Answer: TRUE

81) Lifelong learning refers to the need for employees to learn things that they will use for their entire
lifetime.
Answer: FALSE
82) Mobile learning lends itself particularly well to training that needs a lot of graphics.
Answer: FALSE
83) One study called the American workforce “ill-prepared.”
Answer: TRUE

84) Teamwork at work comes naturally.
Answer: FALSE
85) Companies devote many hours to training new employees to listen to each other and cooperate.
Answer: TRUE
86) The ultimate aim of managerial development programs is to enhance the organization’s future
performance.
Answer: TRUE
87) The case study method aims, first, to give trainees realistic experience in identifying and analyzing
complex problems in an environment wherein their discussion leader can subtly guide their progress.
Answer: TRUE
88) Employee orientation programs range from brief, informal introductions to lengthy, formal courses.
Answer: TRUE
89) Organizational development usually involves action research.

Answer: TRUE
90) Sensitivity training seeks to increase participants’ insight into their own behavior and the behavior of
others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer guided t-group.
Answer: TRUE
91) Survey feedback is a convenient way to unfreeze a company’s management and employees by
crystallizing the fact that the organization does have problems to solve.
Answer: TRUE
92) When a training program is evaluated by measuring the outcomes of a group who receives the
training and another group that receives no training, it is called a time-series design.
Answer: FALSE

93) The four categories of training outcomes are reactions, learning, behavior, and results.
Answer: TRUE
94) What four things should a successful orientation program accomplish?
Answer: New employees should feel welcome and at ease. New employees should understand the
organization in a broad sense including its past, present, culture, and vision for the future. They should
be clear about what is expected in terms of work and behavior. They should have begun the
socialization process into the firm’s way of doing things.

95) There are several sources of information an employer can use to identify a current employee’s
training needs. List five of these sources of information.
Answer: The possible sources of information include performance reviews (supervisor, peer, self-, and
360-degree); job-related performance data such as productivity, absenteeism and tardiness, accidents,
short-term sickness, grievances, waste, late deliveries, product quality, downtime, repairs equipment
utilization, and customer complaints; observation by supervisors or other specialists; interviews with the
employee or the supervisor; skill tests; attitude surveys; employee task diaries; and assessment center
results.
96) Trainers often try to solve employee performance deficiencies with training, but some deficiencies
can’t be overcome with training. What other causes might exist for performance deficiency from an
employee?
Answer: Training is appropriate if the problem is caused by the employee failing to understand how to
do something, what to do, or what the standards for performance are. However, if employees are not
provided with the proper resources for doing a job well, then training cannot solve this problem.
Likewise, if employees have the necessary knowledge and resources, then they may not be motivated to
improve performance.

97) There are several types of on-the-job training. Identify and describe three types. Which one is used
most often? Why?
Answer: The types of on-the-job training include the coaching or understudy method, the job rotation
method, and the special assignments method. Using the understudy method, an experienced worker or
the trainee’s supervisor trains the employee. At lower levels, the trainee might observe the supervisor,
but this is also used at higher levels. Job rotation means that an employee moves from job to job at
planned intervals. This is common in management training programs. Special assignments give
employees firsthand experience in working on actual problems. The coaching or understudy method is
used most often. It is the simplest to execute and still offers the advantages of OTJ training.
98) Changing employee attitudes, skills, and behaviors can be difficult. Explain how Lewin’s Change
Process proposes how change should be implemented.
Answer: According to Lewin, all behavior in organizations is a product of two kinds of forces—those
striving to maintain the status quo and those pushing for change. Implementing change means either
weakening the status quo forces or building up the forces for change. Lewin’s change process consists of
three steps: 1) unfreezing the forces that seek to maintain the status quo, 2) moving to develop new
behaviors and attitudes, and 3) refreezing the organization into its new system to prevent it from
reverting to its old ways.

99) List five main managerial development techniques.
Answer: Students are free to list any of the following to satisfy the requirement: managerial on-the-job
training, action learning, case study, management games, outside seminars, university-related programs
and in-house learning and development centers.

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A Framework for Human Resource Management, 7e (Dessler)

Chapter 3 Personnel Planning and Recruiting

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60

Objective: Chapter objective 2

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 60

Objective: Chapter objective 2

D) All of the above.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60

Objective: Chapter objective 2

C) machines, tools, equipment, and work aids

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65

Objective: Chapter objective 2

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61-65

Objective: Chapter objective 2

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65

Objective: Chapter objective 2

7) The framework for talent management includes ________.

A) deciding what positions to fill

B) building a pool of job candidates

D) All of the above.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 59

Skill: AACSB: Analytical Skills

Objective: Chapter objective 1

8) Which of the following may be included in a job specification?

D) All of the above.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 65

Objective: Chapter objective 2

9) Which of the following methods is used to gather job analysis data?

D) All of the above.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60-61

Objective: Chapter objective 2

10) Who is interviewed by managers collecting job analysis data?

B) groups of employees with the same job

C) supervisors who know the job

D) All of the above.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61

Objective: Chapter objective 2

B) Some information may be exaggerated or minimized.

C) It is quick to collect information.

D) It can identify uncommon, but important activities.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61

Objective: Chapter objective 2

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61

Objective: Chapter objective 2

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 61

Objective: Chapter objective 2

D) None of the above.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61

Objective: Chapter objective 2

15) Most job descriptions contain sections that cover ________.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62, 64

Objective: Chapter objective 2

D) standards for performance

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65

Objective: Chapter objective 2

C) major functions or activities

D) All of the above.

Objective: Chapter objective 2