Mcqs

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MCQs
Research Methodology (The German University in Cairo)
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ch06
ch06 Key
1. Research design strategy encompasses all of the components below except _____.
A. data collection design
B. sampling design
C. instrument development
D. data analysis
E. all of the above are part of the design strategy
Cooper - Chapter 06 #1
Level: easy
2. Which type of study is loosely structured and designed to expand understanding of a
topic and provide
insights?
A. Formal
B. Causal
C. Exploratory
D. Experimental
E. Descriptive
Level: easy
3. The goal of a formal study is to _____.
A. discover future research tasks
B. expand understanding of a topic
C. test hypotheses
D. provide insight
E. develop hypotheses
Level: moderate
4. All of the following are possible goals of an exploratory study except _____.
A. discover future research tasks
B. expand understanding of a topic
C. test hypotheses
D. provide insight
E. develop hypotheses
Level: moderate
5. A statistical study is one that _____.
A
.
attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's
characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses
B. emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their
interrelations
C. discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much
D. attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another
E. provides repeated measures over an extended period of time

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Level: moderate
6. A case study is one that _____.
A
.
interrelations
Level: moderate
7. In the book, In Search of Excellence, the authors examined the characteristics of highly
successful
companies by studying the full context of each organization, using multiple sources of
information,
and identifying the relationship between managerial decisions and success. This is an
example of a(n)
_____.
A. case study
B. exploratory study
C. descriptive study
D. statistical study
E. causal study
Level: moderate
8. A descriptive study is one that _____.
A.
interrelations
Level: moderate
9. A causal study is one that _____.
A
.
interrelations

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Level: moderate
10. A(n) _____ study explains what happened to a measured variable after-the-fact.
A. ex post facto
B. exploratory
C. experimental
D. statistical
E. causal
Level: moderate
11. A(n) _____ study involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the
effect on another
variable.
A. ex post facto
B. exploratory
C. experimental
D. statistical
E. causal
Level: moderate
12. An experimental study is one that _____.
A.
B. involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another
variable
Level: moderate
13. What type of study is being conducted when Land's End Home mails a catalog with a
fluffy set
of towels on the cover to one group of consumers and the same catalog with a cover
graphic of a
beautifully-made bed to another consumer group in order to test differences in response
between the
two groups?
A. Case study
B. Longitudinal study
C. Exploratory study
D. Experiment
E. Ex post facto study

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Level: moderate
14. InStyle magazine wants to examine the pull power of two types of copy in increasing
the level of
newsstand sales for a given month. The issue will feature Nicole Kidman but InStyle
wants to know
whether newsstand sales will be higher for a cover that mentions Kidman's love life or
one that
promises to share Kidman's style secrets. The issues are identical with the exception of
the copy
underneath the cover graphic of Kidman. Which type of study is this an example of?
A. Case study
B. Experimental study
D. Longitudinal study
Level: moderate
15. Kroger, a grocery store chain, wants to identify the ideal store layout for increasing
store sales.
Because it primarily uses two store designs, one a grid layout with vertical aisles divided
by a center
aisle and another using a traditional straight-aisle pattern, Kroger will match pairs of
stores that have
different designs but similar shopper demographics and location. Sales between each pair
will then be
compared to determine if store design is related to sales. Which type of study is this an
example of?
A. Case study
B. Experimental study
D. Longitudinal study
Level: moderate
16. Which of the following is not an example of a monitoring study?
A. Counting traffic at an intersection
B. Recording license plates in a parking lot
C. Mystery shopping in a competitor's store
D. Documenting interactions between customers and a call center
E. Telephone interview
Level: moderate
17. The primary difference between a monitoring study and a communication study is
that in a
communication study, the researcher _____.

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A. observes participants
B. documents activities without eliciting direct responses
C. asks questions of participants
D. collects data
E. records information over a period of time
Level: moderate
18. Which of the following is a type of monitoring study?
A. Telephone interview
B. Counting cars in a parking lot
C. Mall-intercept interview
D. E-mail survey
E. All of the above
Level: easy
19. InZone Research will survey fans attending one of the Final Four games to assess
preferences for
pricing and products offered at concession stands. What type of study is this an example
of?
A. formal
B. cross-sectional
C. longitudinal
D. monitoring
E. ex post facto
Level: moderate
20. When political researchers assess opinions towards President Bush's plan for social
security reform,
a(n) ______ study is used. However, when political researchers want to assess the change
in opinion
towards the war in Iraq from the initial deployment of troops to the elections in Iraq, a(n)
_____ study
should be used.
A. monitoring, communication
B. experimental, ex post facto
C. cross-sectional, longitudinal
D. exploratory, formal
E. laboratory, field
Level: moderate
21. HarrisInteractive surveys members of its KidZone, a group of consumers ages 12-17.
These
participants report consumption data on a variety of products and response to various
promotional
methods. The KidZone members are part of a(n) _____.
A. longitudinal panel

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B. cross-sectional study
C. monitoring study
D. cohort study
E. statistical study
Level: moderate
22. Longitudinal studies of cohort groups _____.
A. study the same people over time
B. use panel members as participants
C. study attitudes at a single point in time
D. use different participants for each sequenced measurement
E. occur under actual environmental conditions
Level: moderate
23. When studies are conducted under controlled conditions that do not simulate actual
environmental
conditions, the study is conducted _____.
A. experimentally
B. ex post facto
C. under field conditions
D. under laboratory conditions
E. via monitoring
Level: easy
24. Studies that are conducted in the field _____.
A. occur under actual environmental conditions
B. simulate environmental conditions
C. imitate reality
D. control for extraneous variables
E. facilitate measurement of the variables of interest
Level: difficult
25. Which of the following is true of studies conducted under laboratory conditions?
A. Occur under actual environmental conditions
B. Simulate environmental conditions
C. Imitate reality
D. Dependent variable naturally occurs
E. Facilitate measurement of the variables of interest
Level: difficult
26. A simulation is a study that is designed to _____.
A. occur under actual environmental conditions
B. imitate reality
C. facilitate measurement
D. control all possible variables
E. all of the above

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Level: moderate
27. A(n) _____ is a study in which the conditions of a system or process are replicated.
A. laboratory study
B. field study
C. mall-intercept study
D. simulation
E. mystery shopping study
Level: easy
28. Exploratory studies are particularly useful when researchers _____.
A. seek to describe a population's parameters based on the characteristics of a sample
B. seek to evaluate changes in attitudes over time
C. lack a clear idea of the study's problems
D. seek to test specific hypotheses
E. all of the above
Level: easy
29. Which of the following exploratory techniques is used most often in business
research?
A. Proxemics
B. Empathic research
C. Focus groups
D. Street ethnography
E. Surveys
Level: moderate
30. Exploratory research is finished in all of the following situations except when _____.
A. the range and scope of management decisions are established
B. the major dimensions of the research task are established
C. hypotheses are developed
D. additional research is necessary
E. investigative questions are defined
Level: difficult
31. Which of the following is not an objective of exploratory research?
A. Expand understanding of management dilemma
B. Gather background information
C. Identify information necessary for formulating investigative questions
D. Identify sources of measurement questions
E. All of the above
Level: easy
32. All of the following are part of an exploratory phase search strategy except _____.
A. discovery and analysis of secondary sources
B. expert interviews

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C. interviews with those involved with the problem

D. brainstorming
E. experiments
Level: easy
33. Discussions with those who are knowledgeable about the problem or its possible
solutions are called
_____.
A. brainstorming
B. experience surveys
C. focus groups
D. experiments
E. projection techniques
Level: easy
34. What other area of the research process is affected by the exploration phase?
A. Research design
B. Research proposal
C. Investigative questions
D. Measurement questions
E. All of the above
Level: moderate
35. The study of the use of space is called _____.
A. kinesics
B. proxemics
C. methodology
D. linguistics
E. feng shui
Level: easy
36. Street ethnography is used in exploratory research to _____.
A. gather information from well-informed people
B. describe the culture and structure of a group
C. examine underlying attitudes
D. study the use of space
E. evaluate body-motion communication
Level: moderate
37. An experience survey is a type of _____.
A. interview
B. survey
C. monitoring study
D. statistical study
E. observation

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Level: moderate
38. Which of the following is true of focus group interviews?
A. Typically made up of 3-5 participants
B. Led by a group leader who is chosen by the participants
C. Meet for 90 minutes to 2 hours
D. Provide quantitative data
E. Used in formal studies
Level: moderate
39. A correlation refers to the _____.
A. estimates of frequency with which a characteristic appears
B. establishing of the direction of causality between two variables
C. described characteristics associated with a subject population
D. relationship by which two or more variables covary
E. estimation of the proportion of a population with certain characteristics
Level: moderate
40. When two variables vary together but changes in the variables are not due to changes
in the other, a
_____ relationship is said to exist.
A. reciprocal
B. asymmetrical
C. causal
D. symmetrical
E. spurious
Level: moderate
41. Which of the following is not a type of evidence used to test causal hypotheses?
A. Covariation between variables A and B
B. Time order of events
C. Alternative causes
D. Disposition of variable B
E. All of the above can be used to test causal hypotheses
Level: moderate
42. The research experiment is superior to the ex post facto research design when the
researcher:
A. Must avoid influencing the variables under study and therefore avoid biasing the
results.
B. Needs to cause variables to be changed or held constant in keeping with specified
research
objectives.
C
.
Is limited to hold all factors constant by selection of subjects according to strict sampling
procedures and statistical manipulation of findings.

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D. Decides to use the design more common to research in the social sciences and
business.
Level: moderate
43. The basic method by which we determine equivalence between study and control
groups in an ex post
facto study is by
A. Matching
B. Definition
C. Induction
D. Random assignment
Level: easy
44. The basic method by which equivalence between experimental and control groups is
determined is
A. Matching
B. Definition
C. Frequency control
D. Cross-classifying
E. Random assignment
Level: easy
45. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the two-stage research
approach to a
management question? The two-stage approach:
A. Often uncovers evidence that a major study is unnecessary in the first stage.
B. Is particularly useful when the research is to be done on a fixed cost basis.
C. Is particularly useful when the complications and problems that will be encountered
are difficult to
anticipate.
D. Is less expensive and less in-depth than a one-stage research approach.
Level: easy
46. Which of the following can be classified as a causal research study? The researcher is
attempting to
find out:
A.
What percentage of the population believes consumer products are of the same or better
quality
today than 10 years ago.
B.
Which manufacturers in the U.S. contribute the highest percentage of their net income to
private
non-profit organizations.
C. How the murder rate in Detroit fluctuates with the economy and population trends.
D. Why unemployment is higher in Chicago than Houston.

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Level: moderate
47. Research designs may be viewed as being
A. Exploratory or experimental
B. Laboratory or ex post facto
C. Cross-sectional or case
D. Descriptive or causal
E. Longitudinal or statistical
Level: easy
48. The interactions between two sets of variables may reflect relationships that are
A. Symmetrical
B. Reciprocal
C. Asymmetrical
D. All of the above
Level: easy
49. "The introduction of a four day week leads to increased productivity particularly
among young
workers by improving job satisfaction." In this statement, improving job satisfaction is
the:
A. Independent Variable
B. Dependent Variable
C. Intervening Variable
D. Moderating Variable
Level: easy
50. The major relationships of interest to the research analyst are those which are
A. Asymmetrical
B. Exclusive
C. Independent
D. Reciprocal
E. Symmetrical
ch07
Student:
_______________________________________________________________________
____
1. Which type of research includes an array of interpretative techniques which seek to
describe, decode,
translate, and otherwise come to terms with the meaning of certain phenomena?
A. Quantitative
B. Qualitative
C. Statistical
D. Descriptive
E. Causal

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2. The primary concern with using qualitative techniques is that qualitative data are too
_____.
A. expensive
B. time-consuming
C. subjective
D. objective
E. structured
3. Which type of research attempts a precise measurement of some behavior, knowledge,
opinion, or
attitude?
A. Quantitative
B. Qualitative
C. Exploratory
D. Cross-sectional
E. Longitudinal
4. Qualitative research seeks to _____ theory while quantitative research _____ it.
A. examine, interprets
B. build, tests
C. test, understands
D. apply, builds
E. justify, applies
5. Which of the following research purposes are associated with qualitative research?
A. Description
B. Prediction
C. Theory building
D. Theory testing
E. Forecasting
6. Which of the following is true of quantitative research?
A. It uses a nonprobability sampling method
B. Results are generalizable
C. Data analysis is ongoing during the project
D. Sample sizes are generally small
E. It uses multiple data collection methods
7. Exercises that prepare participants for individual or group interviews on a topic are
called _____.
A. calisthenics
B. projection techniques
C. homework
D. pretasking
E. focused preparation
8. Which type of sampling technique involves selecting research participants with no
attempt at generating a
statistically representative sample?
A. Probability
B. Nonprobability
C. Random

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D. Systematic
E. Cluster
9. All of the following are types of nonprobability sampling techniques except _____.
A. purposive sampling
B. snowball sampling
C. convenience sampling
D. random sampling
E. all are types of nonprobability techniques
10. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants
arbitrarily for their
unique characteristics, experiences, attitudes, or perceptions?
A. Random sampling
B. Purposive sampling
C. Convenience sampling
D. Snowball sampling
E. Quota sampling
11. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants who
then refer others
with similar or different characteristics?
A. Random sampling
E. Quota sampling
12. Snowball sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.
A. participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or
attitudes
B. participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics
C. researchers select any readily available individuals as participants
D. researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame
E.
researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good
mix of
demographic characteristics
13. Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.
A. participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or
attitudes
B. participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics
C. researchers select any readily available individuals as participants
D. researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame
E.
researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good
mix of
demographic characteristics
14. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique is most useful when individuals
with the desired

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characteristics, experiences, or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?

A. Random sampling
E. Quota sampling
15. Jane is conducting interviews in order to develop a customer profile for her client.
She customizes each
interview to each participant and does not ask specific questions. What type of interview
format is Jane
using?
A. Structured
B. Semistructured
C. Unstructured
D. Closed-ended
E. Direct interviewing
16. _____ interviews have certain specific questions that are asked of all participants but
also allow the
interviewer freedom to probe the respondent based on his or her specific answers.
A. Structured
B. Semistructured
C. Unstructured
D. Closed-ended
E. Direct interviewing
17. Which of the following is true of structured interviews?
A. Permits direct comparability of responses
B. Encourages variation in questions
C. Interviewer probes may bias answers
D. Responses are closed-ended
E. All of the above
18. Jackson is conducting interviews to identify patterns in consumer decision making for
high-involvement
products. Which type of interview should he use if he needs a high degree of
comparability among
responses, no question variability, and to maintain his own neutrality during the
interviews?
A. Unstructured
B. Structured
C. Semistructured
D. Closed-ended
E. Briefing
19. Which type of interview requires the least amount of skill and creativity on the part of
the interviewer?
A. Unstructured
B. Structured
C. Semistructured

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D. Exploratory
E. Briefing
20. Which of the following channels of communication would not be used when
conducting interviews?
A. Face-to-face
B. Telephone
C. Chat room
D. Mail
E. Instant messaging
21. Qualitative methods that encourage participants to reveal hidden or suppressed
attitudes, ideas, emotions,
and motives are called _____ techniques.
A. deceptive
B. unstructured
C. projective
D. focus group
E. semistructured
22. Jack is participating in a research study. The interviewer asks Jack to say the first
word that comes to
mind when he hears a product's benefits. What type of projective technique is this an
example of?
A. Thematic apperception test
B. Sentence completion
C. Brand mapping
D. Laddering
E. Word association
23. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are asked to write the dialog
for a cartoon
picture.
A. word association
B. picture association
C. thematic apperception test
D. empty balloons
E. laddering
24. When using the _____, participants are confronted with a picture and asked to
describe how the person in
the picture feels and thinks.
A. word association
D. empty balloons
E. laddering
25. When using _____, participants are asked to relate the properties of one thing or
person or brand to
another.
A. imagination exercises

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C. the thematic apperception test
D. empty balloons
E. laddering
26. When using _____, participants are asked to assume that the brand and its users
populate an entire
universe, and to describe the features of this new world.
A. word association
B. imaginary universe
D. empty balloons
E. laddering
27. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are presented with flash
cards containing
component features and asked to create new combinations.
A. component sorts
D. sensory sorts
E. laddering
28. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are presented with scents,
textures and sounds,
and asked to arrange them by one or more criteria.
A. brand mapping
B. sensory sorts
D. component sorts
E. laddering
29. In a study of attitudes toward buying fake goods, participants are asked to complete
this
sentence: "People who buy fake Louis Vuitton handbags are ….." This is an example of
a(n) _____
projective technique.
A. picture association
B. empty balloons
C. sentence completion
D. imagination exercise
E. personification
30. Participants in a study designed to identify symbolic benefits associated with Sutter
Home wines are
shown a photograph of a man eating at an upscale restaurant. The man in the picture is
alone and has a
glass of wine with his mea. The participants are asked to describe how the person in the
picture feels and
thinks. This is an example of a(n) _____ projective technique.
A. picture association

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B. empty balloons
D. imagination exercise
E. personification
31. Which term below refers to a trained interviewer used for group interviews such as
focus groups?
A. Therapist
B. Inquisitor
C. Moderator
D. Discussion guide
E. Probe
32. Interview guides begin with _____ questions, following a hierarchical questioning
structure.
A. narrow issue
B. narrow topical
C. broad issue
D. narrow interest
E. any of the above
33. The semistructured or structured interview guide designed to qualify prospects for
participation in
research project is called a(n) _____.
A. pretasking exercise
B. recruitment screener
C. hierarchical question structure
D. computer-assisted interview
E. none of the above
34. American Airlines is conducting a qualitative study on preferences of business
travelers who fly
frequently. Before inviting an individual to participate, the researcher on the project
wants to ensure
that all participants travel for business more than pleasure and meet the American
Airlines' definition of
frequent flier. What is the best way for the researcher to ensure that participants will
meet these criteria?
A. Use a recruitment screener prior to inviting individuals to participate
B. Delete interviews after the study ends from those who don't meet the qualifications
C. Draw a sample from a list of people with an American Airlines affinity credit card
D. Draw a sample from a list of people with an affinity credit card associated with any
airline
E. Contact a travel agency for a list of prospects
35. When individual depth interviews are aided by the use of computer-generated visual
and auditory aids,
the method is known as _____.
A. computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI)
B. computer-assisted personal interviewing (CAPI)
C. online interviewing

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D. group interviewing
E. computer-aided design (CAD)
36. Research on service quality frequently uses a technique called _____ in which the
participant describes
what led up to an incident, what was effective or ineffective, and the outcome.
A. life histories
B. cultural interviews
C. sequential interviewing
D. critical incident technique
E. oral history
37. How many participants are typically in a mini-group interview?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 2 to 6
D. 6 to 10
E. Up to 20
38. A group interview seeking to understand spousal influence on decision making or the
influence of the
opinion of a sibling on brand preferences would likely utilize a _____.
A. dyad
B. triad
C. mini-group
D. small group
E. supergroup
39. Anne is moderating a focus group of university professors to understand how they
use multimedia in the
classroom. All of the participants teach classes with more than 100 students at large,
public universities.
The composition of this group could be described as _____.
A. heterogeneous
B. homogeneous
C. nonexpert
D. dyadic
40. Which statement below best reflects the general rule regarding how many group
interviews should be
conducted for a given research project?
A. Conduct interviews until no new insight is gained
B. Use at least 3 groups for every geographic region involved
C. Include groups of men only, women only, and men and women combined
D. The more homogeneous the groups, the more groups are needed
E. All of the above are true
41. All of the following statements about determining the number of group interviews are
true except
_____.
A. the broader the issue, the more groups needed

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B. the larger the number of distinct market segments of interest, the more groups needed
C. the greater the level of detail, the more groups needed
D. the more homogeneous the market segment, the more groups needed
E. the larger the number of new ideas desired, the more groups needed
42. The focus group moderator uses the principles of _____ to focus the group in an
exchange of ideas,
feelings, and experiences on a specific topic.
A. psychology
B. sociology
C. anthropology
D. group dynamics
E. communications
43. What is the typical length of a focus group?
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 90 minutes
D. 2 hours
E. 4 hours
44. A telephone focus group is a viable alternative to a traditional focus group when
_____.
A. participants need to handle a product
B. it is difficult to recruit desired participants
C. sessions will run long
D. participants are groups of children
E. all of the above
45. Focus groups should not be used when _____.
A. facing a high-risk decision
B. stimulating new ideas for products
C. obtaining general background about a topic
D. uncovering perceptions about a brand
E. diagnosing problems
46. The process for measuring semantic content of a communication to develop a
qualitative picture of the
respondents' concerns, ideas, attitudes, and feelings is called _____.
A. brand mapping
B. component sorts
C. ethnographic interpretation
D. word association
E. content analysis
47. The objective of a(n) _____ is to obtain multiple perspectives of a single
organization, situation, event, or
process at a point in time or over a period of time.
A. life history
B. oral history
C. case history
D. cultural history

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E. semantic map
48. Which type of research is designed to address complex, practical problems using
brainstorming, followed
by sequential trial-and-error attempts until the desired results are achieved?
A. Case history
B. Action research
C. Causal research
D. Grounded theory
E. Ethnography
49. The minimum number of cases used in a cross-case analysis is _____ case(s).
A. one
B. three
C. four
D. fifteen
E. twenty-five
50. Which term below is used to describe the combining of several qualitative methods or
combining
qualitative with quantitative methods?
A. Triangulation
B. Dyadic support
C. Inter-rater reliability
D. Projection
E. Component sorts
51. How can researchers increase the confidence business decision makers have in
qualitative data?
52. Explain the three types of nonprobability sampling techniques commonly used to
select samples for
qualitative research studies.
53. What are some of the responsibilities of interviewers aside from conducting the
actual interviews? Name
five of these responsibilities.
54. List and explain the factors affecting the decision of how many focus groups are
needed in a qualitative
research project.
ch07 Key
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. B
11. D

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12. B
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. E
23. D
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. C
31. C
32. C
33. B
34. A
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. D
42. D
43. D
44. B
45. A
46. E
47. C
48. B
49. C
50. A

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ch10
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. A communication approach to data collection involves _____.
A. observing behavior
B. recording trace evidence
C. surveying people
D. data mining
E. linguistic behavior analysis
2. Surveys are used in _____ research studies.
A. monitoring
B. communication
C. observation
D. behavioral observation
E. nonbehavioral observation
3. All of the following are sources of error in communication research except _____.
A. measurement questions
B. observers
C. survey instruments
D. interviewers
E. participants
4. Emma is responding to a survey about her experience using the NetFlix DVD delivery
service. One set of
questions on the survey asks questions such as "How satisfied are you with your overall
experience with
NetFlix?" The survey response options provided are Strongly Agree to Strongly
Disagree. Which of the
following sources of error in communication research is present in this example?
A. Measurement questions
B. Observers
C. Interviewers
D. Participants
E. All of the above
5. Rachel is conducting telephone interviews for Blockbuster on perceptions of its new
"No Late Fees"
program. When she interviews customers of the NetFlix service, she tends to change the
wording of the
question, "How loyal are you to using Blockbuster for your DVD rental needs?" to "So
you aren't loyal to
Blockbuster, are you?" Which of the following sources of error in communication
research is present in
this example?
B. Observers
C. Interviewers
D. Participants
E. All of the above

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6. Mike resents getting calls from telemarketers and pollsters. A research firm called
yesterday to question
him concerning his preference for radio stations. When Mike was asked to report his
household income,
he inflated his income to the highest range offered. He also misreported his age and
occupation. Which of
the following sources of error in communication research is presented in this example?
B. Observers
C. Interviewers
D. Participants
E. All of the above
7. The failure to secure full participant cooperation for a study can result in _____ error.
A. measurement
B. instrumentation
C. data entry
D. sampling
E. nonresponse
8. Interviewer error may be caused by _____.
A. an unwillingness to participate
B. participant faulty recall
C. the falsification of answers
D. social desirability responding
E. all of the above
9. Which type of error occurs when the interviewer summarizes or interprets participant
answers?
A. Measurement
B. Instrumentation
C. Data entry
D. Sampling
E. Nonresponse
10. Which of the following factors will tend to decrease participant motivation?
A. Prestige of research sponsor
B. Perceived importance of the topic
C. Interest in the topic
D. Competing activities
E. Conscientiousness
11. A study reported in the Journal of Management Research concluded that individuals
are more motivated
to respond to surveys when _____.
A. the topic is salient
B. incentives are offered
C. respondents have a strong social network
D. they can respond at work
E. they know others like themselves have already responded

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12. _____ occurs when the responses of participants differ in some systematic way from
the responses of
nonparticipants.
A. Measurement error
B. Data entry error
C. Sampling error
D. Response error
E. Nonresponse error
13. David's Bridal is conducting a survey of the trends in dress preferences among
women who will marry
sometime in the next year. Surveys were mailed to 100,000 women but only 1,000
responded resulting in
a response rate of 1%. This study is threatened by _____.
A. nonresponse error
B. response error
C. sampling error
D. measurement error
E. coverage error
14. A telephone survey asks participants whether they have donated money to the
Tsunami Relief Fund. This
type of question is subject to _____.
A. nonresponse bias
B. acquiescence
C. social desirability bias
D. satisficing
E. sampling error
15. The tendency for respondents to give answers that are perceived as being socially
desirable, whether or
not the answers are truthful, is known as _____.
A. nonresponse
B. item nonresponse
C. acquiescence
D. social desirability responding
E. impression management
16. The tendency for respondents to be agreeable is called _____.
A. social desirability responding
B. acquiescence
C. elaboration likelihood
D. agreeableness
E. conscientiousness
17. Self-administered questionnaires may be delivered via all of the following channels
except _____.
A. mail
B. fax
C. telephone
D. Internet

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E. disk-by-mail
18. Which type of communication data collection is typically the lowest-cost option?
A. Self-administered
B. Telephone interview
C. Personal interview
D. Record analysis
E. Observation
19. An instrument completed by the participant without additional contact with an
interviewer beyond the
initial delivery of the instrument is called a _____.
A. computer-assisted self-interview
B. disk-by-mail survey
C. mail survey
D. self-administered questionnaire
E. web survey
20. Which of the following is not a reason for the growth in web-based surveys?
A. Participant perceptions of anonymity
B. Ability to use visual stimuli
C. Speed of response
D. Cost efficiencies
E. Internet penetration rates
21. Surveys delivered via the Internet reduce costs by eliminating the costs associated
with _____.
A. interviewers
B. postage
C. data entry
D. printing
E. all of the above
22. Sample accessibility is generally maximized by the use of _____ surveys.
A. telephone
B. mobile phone
C. mail
D. Internet
E. fax
23. Which of the following types of telephone calls are forbidden for individuals
participating in the national
Do Not Call registry?
A. Political polling
B. Telephone surveys
C. Requests for charitable donations
D. Telemarketing
E. All of the above
24. The survey mode with the greatest perceived anonymity is the _____.
A. electronic mail survey
B. mail survey
C. telephone survey

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D. person-administered survey
E. intercept survey
25. The respondents' perceptions that the interviewer will not be able to discern their
identity refers to the
_____.
A. response rate
B. social desirability responding
C. perception of anonymity
D. refusal rate
E. incidence rate
26. One rule of thumb is that participants should be able to answer the questions in a self-
administered survey
in no more than _____.
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 45 minutes
E. there are no guidelines related to survey length
27. The _____ suggests that a participant's burden should be minimized in the survey
response process
by creating surveys that are easy to read, offer clear response directions, include
personalized
communication, notify the participant about the survey in advance, and encourage the
respondent to
participate.
A. Survey Design Bible
B. economic decision making literature
C. Total Design Method
D. Gallup organization
E. theory of reciprocation
28. Which type of incentive has been shown to consistently improve response rates to
surveys?
A. Free product samples
B. Money
C. Gift certificates
D. Prize draw chance
E. Receipt of post-study results
29. Response rates to self-administered surveys can be improved by using all of the
following techniques
except _____.
A. advance notification
B. reminders
C. promise of anonymity
D. monetary incentives
E. appeal for participation

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30. The presence of a(n) _____ is the primary difference between a computer-assisted
telephone interview
and a computer-administered telephone survey.
A. computer
B. human interviewer
C. supervisor
D. participant
E. recording device
31. Phoebe is working at a call center for a research company. She has a carrel with a
personal computer that
is networked to the phone system and to the central data processing unit. The computer
selects telephone
numbers, dials each number, and accepts responses as Phoebe enters what the
respondents tell her. A
software program prompts her with each question and precoded response options. Phoebe
is collecting
data using _____.
A. computer-assisted telephone interviewing
B. OTS software
C. computer-administered telephone surveys
D. computer-delivered surveys
E. computer-assisted personal interviewing
32. For which type of telephone interview is the refusal rate the highest?
A. Computer-assisted telephone interviewing
B. OTS
C. Computer-administered telephone surveys
D. Computer-delivered surveys
E. Computer-assisted personal interviewing
33. The ratio of participants who decline the interview to all eligible contacts is the _____
rate.
A. nonresponse
B. noncontact
C. incidence
D. refusal
E. reachable
34. Which term below refers to the ratio of potential contacts that were never reached to
all potential
contacts?
A. Nonresponse
B. Noncontact
C. Incidence
D. Refusal
E. Reachable
35. Which of the following trends is increasing the noncontact rate associated with
telephone surveys?
A. Penetration of mobile telephones

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B. Replacement of land line telephones with mobile telephones

C. Caller id systems
D. Voice mail
E. All of the above
36. Which of the following trends is increasing the refusal rate associated with telephone
surveys?
A. Penetration of mobile telephones
B. Replacement of land line telephones with mobile telephones
C. Caller id systems
D. Negative attitudes toward survey participation
E. Voice mail
37. Which limitation listed below can be overcome by the use of random digit dialing in
telephone surveys?
A. Inaccessible households
B. Inaccurate or private listings in the telephone book
C. Limited interview length
D. Ease of interview termination
E. Low participant involvement
38. Personal interviewing with computer-sequenced questions capable of employing
visualization techniques
is called _____.
A. computer-assisted telephone interviewing
B. computer-administered telephone interviewing
C. computer-assisted personal interviewing
D. computer-administered surveying
E. personal-assisted computer interviewing
39. Which of the following is not a type of personal interview data collection method?
A. In-home
B. Mall intercept
C. Computer-assisted personal interview
D. Electronic mail
E. All of the above are personal interview methods
40. An intercept interview is likely to occur at a _____.
A. mall
B. school
C. hospital
D. home
E. all of the above
41. Brittany is considering an intercept survey as the data collection mode for the
drinking behavior and
sexual activity study. To execute this type of study, she could _____.
A. email students
B. send a survey to a student's permanent address
C. approach students outside the dining hall
D. telephone students using cell phone numbers
E. text message students

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42. Which term is used to describe the act of surveying prospects or customers who have
given permission
for such engagement?
A. Opt-in
B. Choice
C. Opt-out
D. Permission surveying
E. Direct surveying
43. Which data collection mode imposes the fewest time constraints on the participant?
A. Mail
B. Telephone
C. Computer-administered
D. CATI
E. CAPI
44. In considering the use of a Web survey for conducting polls of the general population,
the greatest
disadvantage of the mode is _____.
A. cost
B. time constraints
C. Internet coverage
D. dial-up modems
E. inability to use monetary incentives
45. Alex is responding to a computer-administered telephone survey. The computer
instructs Alex to respond
by choosing the appropriate answer using his telephone key pad such that 1 = yes and 2 =
no. This system
is using the _____ mode of computer-administered survey.
A. automatic speech recognition
B. voice recognition
C. automatic entry
D. touch-tone data entry
E. record analysis
46. When a computer-administered telephone survey is capable of recognizing and
recording a wide range of
verbal responses, it is capable of _____.
C. automatic entry
E. record analysis
47. Computer-administered telephone surveys that can recognize yes and no answers
spoken by respondents
are of the _____ mode.
C. automatic entry

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E. record analysis
48. The Internet is fastest growing survey data collection mode. Which of the following is
not a reason for the
growth in this mode?
A. Speed of response
B. Cost savings
C. Elimination of data entry
D. Ease of providing monetary incentives
E. All of the above are reasons
49. When a participant does not know the answer to a survey question, but there isn't a
"Don't Know"
response option offered, _____ will occur.
A. response bias
B. measurement error
C. sampling error
D. nonresponse bias
E. unit nonresponse
50. Which type of data collection mode is most appropriate for a survey requiring 45
minutes to complete?
A. Telephone
B. Computer-administered telephone
C. Mail
D. Online
E. Intercept
51. Identify the three sources of error in communication research. Explain how each
source can contribute to
error.
52. Explain the meaning of nonresponse error. How can researchers reduce the potential
for nonresponse
error?
53. Off-the-shelf Web survey software offers many advantages over traditional
programming for researchers
as they build surveys for deployment on the Internet. Identify five of these advantages.
54. Compare and contrast computer-assisted telephone interviewing with the use of
computer-administered
telephone surveys.
ch10 Key
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. D
11. A

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12. E
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. D
20. E
21. E
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. B
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. B
35. E
36. D
37. B
38. C
39. D
40. A
41. C
42. D
43. A
44. C
45. D
46. A
47. B
48. D
49. B
50. C

lOMoARcPSD|3758741
ch12
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Which of the following terms refers to a learned, stable predisposition to respond to oneself, other
persons, objects, or issues in a consistently favorable or unfavorable way?
A. Opinion
B. Attitude
C. Personality trait
D. Construct
E. Behavior
2. Which of the following characteristics is not true of attitudes?
A. Learned
B. Stable
C. Accessible
D. Enduring
E. Fluctuating
3. The adoption rate of cellular telephones continues to accelerate rapidly. This statement is an example of a
_____ attitude.
A. cognitive
B. affective
C. conative
D. behavioral
E. peripheral
4. It is so annoying when people use their cellular telephones in restaurants. What is the basis of the attitude
reflected in this statement?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Conative
D. Behavioral
E. Peripheral
5. I turn my cellular telephone off when dining in restaurants. What is the basis of the attitude reflected in
this statement?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Conative
D. Centrality
E. Peripheral
6. A cognitive basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a _____.
A. feeling
B. behavior
C. value
D. culture
E. belief
7. An affective basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a(n) _____.
A. feeling
B. behavior
C. opinion
D. culture
E. belief
8. A conative basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a _____.
A. feeling
B. behavior
C. value
D. culture
E. belief
9. All of the following may be used with graphic rating scales except _____.
A. icons
B. pictures
C. words
D. comparisons
E. numbers
10. Which of the following statements is true concerning the applicability of attitudes in understanding
behavior?

lOMoARcPSD|3758741
A. General attitudes are the best predictors of behavior

B.
Behavior is affected equally by those attitudes formed via social learning and those formed via
behavioral learning
C. Cognitive attitudes influence behavior better than affective-based attitudes
D. A single, global measure of attitude is necessary to predict behavior
E. All of the above are true
11. The assignment of numbers or symbols to a property of objects according to value or magnitude is called
_____.
A. measurement
B. scaling
C. weighing
D. sampling
E. coding
12. What term below refers to the process of assessing an attitudinal disposition using a number that
represents a person's score on an attitudinal continuum ranging from an extremely favorable disposition
to an extremely unfavorable one?
A. Attitudinal monitoring
B. Content analysis
C. Attitudinal scaling
D. Peripheral route processing
E. Attitudinal chain analysis
13. A _____ scale is a scale that scores an object or property without making a direct comparison to another
object or property.
A. ranking
B. rating
C. categorization
D. sorting
E. recording
14. A rating scale is a scale that _____.
A. scores an object without making a direct comparison to another object
B. scores an object by making a comparison and determining order among two or more objects
C. groups participants
D. groups concepts according to specific criteria
E. establishes relationships between two variables
15. Which type of scale is used when participants score an object according to its comparative order among
two or more objects?
A. Ranking
B. Rating
C. Categorization
D. Sorting
E. Recording
16. A ranking scale is a scale that _____.
B. scores an object by making a comparison and determining order among two or more objects
17. Participants are grouped using _____ scales.
A. ranking
B. rating
C. categorization
D. sorting
E. recording
18. A categorization scale is a scale that _____.
B. scores an objecting by making a comparison and determining order among two or more objects
19. Which type of scale is used when participants place cards into piles using criteria established by the
researcher?

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A. Ranking
B. Rating
C. Categorization
D. Sorting
E. Recording
20. When a scale seeks to measure only one attribute of the participant or object it is said to be _____.
A. conative
B. affective
C. unidimensional
D. multidimensional
E. balanced
21. The SERVQUAL scale seeks to describe perceptions of service quality with five dimensions. This scale
is _____.
A. unidimensional
B. multidimensional
C. balanced
D. unbalanced
E. valid
22. A(n) _____ scale seeks to simultaneously measure more than one attribute of the participant or
object.
A. multidimensional
B. unidimensional
C. balanced
D. unbalanced
E. valid
23. A scale that uses the response options "very bad, bad, average, good, very good" is a(n) _____ rating
scale.
A. unidimensional
B. multidimensional
C. balanced
D. unbalanced
E. valid
24. Which of the following is true of the following response scale: poor - fair - good - very good - excellent?
A. It is a balanced rating scale
B. It is a unforced-choice rating scale
C. It does not allow for expressions of intensity among participants with unfavorable opinions
D. It will result in an asymmetrical distribution
E. It will minimize halo effects
25. Which of the following situations favors the use of unbalanced rating scales rather than balanced rating
scales?
A. Participants' scores lean in one direction
B. Object being rating is familiar to participants
C. Participants are known to be easy raters
D. Participants are known to be hard raters
E. All of the above
26. Scales that allow participants to select a "don't know" or "no opinion" response are called _____.
A. unforced-choice
B. multidimensional
C. balanced
D. unbalanced
E. forced-choice
27. Which type of scale provides participants with an opportunity to express no opinion when they are unable
to make a choice among the alternatives offered?
A. Forced-choice
B. Multidimensional
C. Balanced
D. Unbalanced
E. Unforced-choice
28. What is the ideal number of points for a rating scale?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9

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D. 10
E. It depends
29. Which of the following statements about the number of scale points is not true?
A. Reliability increases as the number of scale points increase
B. Validity decreases as the number of scale points increase
C. Larger numbers of scale points provide the ability to extract more variance
D. Larger numbers of scale points increase accuracy in unidimensional scales
E. Additional scale points increase measurement sensitivity
30. Participants tend to _____ when they make an error of leniency.
A. be easy raters
B. give no opinion answers
C. choose the central or neutral point
D. rate objects consistently from question to question
E. procrastinate in making choices
31. Participants tend to _____ when they make an error of central tendency.
A. be easy raters
B. give extreme judgments
C. choose the central or neutral point
D. rate objects consistently from question to question
E. procrastinate in making choices
32. Which type of rater error occurs when a participant is reluctant to give extreme judgments?
A. Error of leniency
B. Error of central tendency
C. Halo effect
D. Demand effect
E. Socially desirable responding
33. Which type of rater error occurs when a participant consistently chooses the extreme position at one end
of the scale?
A. Error of leniency
B. Error of central tendency
C. Halo effect
D. Demand effect
E. Socially desirable responding
34. All of the following are ways of combating the halo effect except _____.
A. reveal only one trait at a time
B. reverse the terms that anchor the endpoints of the scale
C. adjust the strength of descriptive adjectives
D. all of the above
35. Which of the following is a multiple-choice, single-response scale?
A. Yes, no
B. Agree, disagree
C. Strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree
D. Important, unimportant
E. Male, female
Jason is designing a survey to measure the extent to which college students who own iPods will
recommend that others should also buy an iPod. He has created the following measures.
Question 1: Have you ever recommended an iPod to anyone? Response options: Yes or no
Question 2: If yes, to whom did you recommend an iPod? Check all that apply. Response options:
friends, family members, teachers, other
Question 3: How likely are you to recommend an iPod to someone in the future? Not at all likely,
somewhat unlikely, neither likely nor unlikely, somewhat likely, very likely
36. What type of scale is used in Jason's first question about the recommendation of iPods?
A. Dichotomous
B. Multiple-choice, single-response
C. Multiple-choice, multiple-response
D. Balanced
E. Unbalanced
37. What type of scale is used in Jason's second question about the recommendation of iPods?
A. Dichotomous

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D. Balanced
E. Unbalanced
38. What type of scale is used in Jason's third question about the recommendation of iPods?
A. Dichotomous
D. Unbalanced
E. Forced-choice
39. Jason's third question is designed to determine the likelihood that an iPod owner will recommend the iPod
to others. Which of the following choices captures the characteristics of the scale used for this question?
A. Balanced, unforced choice, multiple-choice, single-response
B. Balanced, forced choice, multiple-choice, single-response
C. Unbalanced, forced choice, simple category
D. Unbalanced, unforced choice, multiple-choice, multiple-response
E. Balanced, forced choice, dichotomous
40. Which type of scale consists of statements that express either a favorable or unfavorable attitude toward
an object of interest?
A. Multiple-choice, single-response
B. Summated rating
C. Semantic differential
D. Constant sums
E. Checklist
41. A _____ scale measure the psychological meanings of an attitude object using bipolar adjectives.
A. Likert
B. summated rating
C. Stapel
D. semantic differential
E. constant sums
42. What type of data is produced by simple category scales?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
E. Nominal and interval
43. What type of data is produced by summated rating scales?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
44. Checklists produce _____ data.
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
E. nominal and interval
45. What type of data is produced by constant-sum scales?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
46. The data obtained from a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as data obtained with a _____
scale.
A. dichotomous
B. constant sum
C. semantic differential
D. multiple-choice, multiple-response
E. graphic rating scale
47. In a _____ scale, the participant orders several objects of properties of objects.
A. comparative
B. constant sum

lOMoARcPSD|3758741
C. forced ranking
D. paired-comparison
E. semantic differential
48. Paired comparison scales result in _____ data.
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
E. absolute
49. All forms of ranking scales result in _____ data.
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
E. absolute
50. The purpose of _____ is to get a conceptual representation of a respondent's attitude toward the attitude
object and to compare the relationships between people.
A. Likert scales
B. comparative scales
C. forced rating
D. Q-sorts
E. Stapel scales
51. Explain the three bases for attitudes. Provide an example for each one.
52. Explain the researcher's dilemma in deciding whether to use forced-choice rating scales or unforcedchoice
rating scales?
53. What types of tactics can researchers use to minimize participant tendencies to avoid extreme judgments
or choose extreme positions on a scale?
54. What is the primary difference between rating scales and ranking scales? List two types of each scale.
ch12 Key
1. B
2. E
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. E
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. A
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. E
26. A
27. E
28. E
29. B
30. A
31. C
32. B
33. A

lOMoARcPSD|3758741
34. C
35. C
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. B
41. D
42. A
43. C
44. A
45. D
46. C
47. C
48. B
49. B
50. D

lOMoARcPSD|3758741
ch14
Student:
_______________________________________________________________________
____
1. Which term below refers to the individual participant or object on which a
measurement is taken?
A. Population
B. Target population
C. Population element
D. Sampling frame
E. Sample
2. A _____ is the total collection of elements about which the researcher wishes to make
inferences.
A. population
B. target population
C. population element
D. sampling frame
E. sample
3. When all the elements in a population are included in a study, the result is a _____.
A. poll
B. census
C. sample
D. sampling frame
E. probability sample
4. The list of elements in a population from which the sample is actually drawn is known
as the _____.
A. sampling frame
B. population extent
C. database
D. sampling base
E. population directory
Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among
Hilton Hotel
customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2, 600,000 Hilton Honors
club members are
loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may
choose other hotel
brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the
other 90% of
club members.
5. In the Hilton example, the individual club members represent the _____.
A. population
B. sample
C. sampling frame
D. population element
E. census

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6. In the Hilton example, the Hilton Honors membership list represents the _____.
A. sample
B. sampling frame
C. population
D. population element
E. target population
7. In the Hilton example, the population for the study is _____.
A. travelers requiring overnight lodging
B. guests at Hilton-brand hotels
C. Hilton Honors club members
D. the top 10% of Hilton Honors club members
E. the 90% of Hilton Honors club members who are not brand loyal
8. The Hilton organization is considering a survey about factors affecting brand loyalty
that will be sent to
all of its Hilton Honors club members. This is an example of a _____.
A. population
B. sample
C. extent
D. census
E. general population survey
9. In the Hilton example, the sampling frame is made up of the _____.
A. list of Hilton Honors club members
B. list of guests staying at any Hilton hotel during a designated period of time
C. list of the top 10% of Hilton Honors club members
D. list of the 90% of Hilton Honors members who are not brand loyal
E. list of guests at Hilton's top competitors
10. Hilton plans to send surveys to 10,000 Hilton Honors club members. This group of
people is known as
the _____.
A. sampling frame
B. population
C. census
D. sample
E. population element
11. Which of the following terms refers to the variation in measures due to some known
or unknown
influence that causes the scores to skew in one direction or another?
A. Precision
B. Standard error
C. Systematic variance
D. Sampling error
E. Random error
12. Assuming that the sampling frame is appropriate, systematic variance can be
minimized in a study by
_____.
A. decreasing the sample size

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B. increasing the sample size

C. contacting nonrespondents
D. increasing response rates
E. matching
13. Sampling error refers to _____.
A.
differences between the sample statistics and the population's parameters caused by
random
fluctuations inherent in the sampling process
B. bias caused by using a poor sampling frame
C. error created by systematic variance
D. differences between the results of a census and the population's parameters
E. error created by differences between those who respond to the survey and those who
do not
14. With what does one measure the degree of precision of a sample estimate?
A. Feasibility studies
B. Census comparisons
C. Unstandardized coefficients
D. Standard error of the estimate
E. Significance indicators
15. The standard error of the estimate is a type of measure of _____.
A. central tendency
B. accuracy
C. significance
D. confidence
E. standard deviation
16. Which word below best describes nonprobability sampling?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Random
D. Systematic
E. Generalizable
17. Which term below refers to a controlled procedure that assures that each population
element is given a
known nonzero chance of selection into the sample?
A. Nonprobability sampling
B. Random selection
C. Systematic selection
D. Judgment sampling
E. Statistical selection
18. Estimates of precision are possible with _____ samples.
A. nonprobability
B. probability
C. judgment
D. quota
E. all of the above

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19. Which term below refers to a controlled, randomized procedure that assures that
each population element
is given a known, nonzero chance of selection into a study's sample?
A. Census
B. Nonprobability sampling
C. Probability sampling
D. Element selection
E. Purposive sampling
20. _____ are summary descriptors of variables of interest in the population.
A. Sample statistics
B. Population parameters
C. Systematic estimates
D. Standard errors
E. Standardized coefficients
21. Which term below refers to the descriptors of variables computed from sample data
used to estimate
those same variables in the population?
A. Sample statistics
B. Population parameters
C. Systematic estimates
D. Standard errors
E. Standardized coefficients
22. When the variables of interest are measured on nominal or ordinal scales, what
should be used to estimate
population proportion?
A. Standard error
B. Standard deviation
C. Sample proportion of incidence (p)
D. Sample proportion of incidence (p) * 1-(p)
E. Sample statistic
23. When the variables of interest are measured on nominal or ordinal scales, what
should be used to estimate
population variance?
A. Standard error
B. Standard deviation
C. Sample proportion of incidence (p)
D. Sample proportion of incidence (p) * 1-(p)
E. Sample statistic
24. The most frequent proportion measure is the _____.
A. mean
B. standard deviation
C. mode
D. correlation
E. percentage
25. Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among
Hilton Hotel

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customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2, 600,000 Hilton Honors
club members are
loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may
choose other hotel
brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the
other 90% of
club members.
In a follow-up survey to the Hilton study on brand loyalty, the organization plans to
focus solely on
estimating the attributes of the 10% of Hilton Honors members who are thought to be
brand loyal. In this
example, 10% is the _____.
A. sample statistic
B. population parameter
C. population variance
D. population proportion of incidence
E. sampling frame
26. In a study of college search behaviors among the families of college-bound high
school students, the
search behaviors are very different from family to family. In the situation described,
which guideline
below best explains why the researcher will use a larger sample size?
A. The greater the variance within the population, the larger the sample should be
B. The greater the desired precision of the estimate, the larger the sample should be
C. The smaller the error range, the larger the sample must be
D. The higher the level of confidence in the estimate, the larger the sample must be
E. The greater the number of subgroups of interest within a sample, the larger the
sample must be
27. All of the following are methods of probability sampling except _____.
A. systematic
B. simple random
C. stratified
D. cluster
E. purposive
28. If one selects a sample by beginning with a random start of an element and then
selecting every kth
element in the frame for inclusion in the sample, which type of sampling method is being
used?
A. Simple random
B. Systematic
C. Cluster
D. Stratified
E. Double
29. Which sampling method includes elements from each of several mutually exclusive
strata within a
population?

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A. Simple random
B. Systematic
C. Stratified
D. Cluster
E. Double
30. A survey that uses a sample of city blocks from a map as a way of sampling city
residents is based on the
_____ sampling technique.
A. convenience
B. quota
C. stratified
D. systematic
E. cluster
31. With which of the following sampling techniques is the practice of double sampling
typically found?
A. Simple random
B. Stratified
C. Systematic
D. Purposive
E. Quota
32. Which two sampling techniques employ subpopulations as a component of the
selection criteria?
A. Simple random, systematic
B. Systematic, stratified
C. Stratified, cluster
D. Quota, cluster
E. Quota, snowball
33. The random digit dialing (RDD) technique used commonly in conjunction with CATI
studies is based on
_____ sampling.
A. simple random
B. systematic
C. stratified
D. cluster
E. double
34. Which type of sampling technique can result in a skewed sample if periodicity exists
in the population?
A. Simple random
B. Systematic
C. Stratified
D. Cluster
E. Double
Brittany is developing a sampling plan for a study of alcohol consumption among college
students at
Metro University. She wants to ensure that students from each class level are
represented. She also

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wants to be able to compare students who are members of Greek organizations to non-
Greeks. Finally,
she wants to consider patterns by gender. Brittany plans to cross-reference Metro
University's student
directory with membership lists from each Greek organization on campus to develop a
sampling frame.
35. What type of sampling method should Brittany use?
A. Simple random
B. Systematic
C. Stratified
D. Cluster
E. Double
36. In the alcohol consumption study at Metro University, students who do not belong to
Greek organizations
outnumber those who do by 6 to 4. If Brittany draws the study sample such that 60% of
the sample is
made up of non-Greek-affiliated students and 40% of Greek-affiliated students, what type
of sampling
has she used?
A. Simple random
B. Quota
C. Systematic
D. Proportionate stratified
E. Disproportionate stratified
37. At Metro University, there are more female students than male students. However,
because Brittany
is particularly interested in male drinking behavior, she plans to include an equal
number of men and
women in the sample. What type of sampling will Brittany use?
A. Simple random
B. Quota
C. Systematic
D. Proportionate stratified
E. Disproportionate stratified
38. If Brittany drew a sample of class locations (buildings and classrooms) on campus,
and then sampled all
of the students in those buildings, what type of sampling technique was employed?
A. Convenience
B. Simple random
C. Area
D. Quota
E. Systematic
39. When selecting a convenience sample, element selection is based on _____.
A. accessibility
B. judgment
C. random selection

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D. area
E. all of the above
40. In which sampling technique, are participants in a study selected by referral?
A. Convenience
B. Judgment
C. Quota
D. Snowball
E. Area
A lakefront resort is planning for its summer busy season. It wishes to estimate with 95%
confidence the
average number of nights each guest will stay in a consecutive visit. Using a sample of
guests who stayed
last year, the average number of nights per guest is calculated at 5 nights. The standard
deviation of the
sample is 1.5 nights. The size of the sample used is 120 guests and the resort desires a
precision of plus or
minus .5 nights.
41. What is the standard error of the mean in the lakefront resort example?
A. .5
B. .065
C. .96
D. .13
E. 1.96
42. Within what range below can the resort expect with 95% confidence for the true
population mean to fall?
A. 3.12 to 6.88
B. 3.35 to 6.65
C. 2.42 to 7.58
D. 4.10 to 5.50
E. 4.65 to 6.65
43. A local restaurant is planning a study on demand for meals over holiday weekends.
In calculating the
desired sample size for the study, the restaurant's researcher decides to use a rule-of-
thumb calculation for
estimating the population dispersion. If the range of meals in the study is 0 to 30, what
standard deviation
does the rule-of-thumb method produce?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 10
44. A microbrewery plans to conduct a study on beer consumption among men between
the ages of 29 and
45. A pilot test indicated that men in this age category consume an average of 6 beers
per week with a

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standard deviation of 2.3. If the microbrewery seeks a 95% confidence level and a
precision of .5 beers,
what size sample should be used in the study?
A. 70
B. 120
C. 300
D. 456
E. 987
45. The pq ratio found in calculations of sample size for a proportion can never exceed
_____.
A. .10
B. .25
C. .50
D. .75
E. there are no such limitations on the pq ratio
46. In calculations of sample size for proportions, q refers to the _____.
A. calculated sample size
B. quota of required completes to refusals
C. the proportion of the population that does not have the attribute of interest
D. the proportion of the population that does have the attribute of interest
E. the desired precision
47. Which of the following symbols is used to refer to the sample standard deviation?
A. p
B.
C.
D.
E. s
48. What information below is necessary for computing sample size for questions
involving means?
A. Precision
B. Confidence level
C. Expected dispersion in the population
D. Size of the interval estimate
E. All of the above
49. When a calculated sample size must be adjusted due to the size of the population
relative to the size of the
sample, which of the following formulas should be applied?
A. Divide the calculated n by the standard error of the mean
B. Multiply the calculated n by the precision estimate
C. Reduce the calculated n by 5% of the population size
D. Multiply the calculated n by the square root of (N-n)/ (N-1)
E. Divide the calculated n by the standard deviation squared
50. Explain the rationale for sampling rather than using a census for every study.
51. What is the difference between a probability sample and a nonprobability sample?
Which one is preferred
by researchers? Explain.

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52. Compare and contrast stratified sampling and cluster sampling.

53. If a researcher must use a nonprobability sample because a list is not available,
should convenience
sampling or judgment sampling be used? Explain.
ch14 Key
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. E
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. C
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. D
24. E
25. D
26. A
27. E
28. B
29. C
30. E
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. D
37. E
38. C
39. A
40. D
41. C

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42. A
43. C
44. A
45. B
46. C
47. E
48. E
49. D

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Chapter 6
Research Design: An Overview
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Research design strategy encompasses all of the components below except _____.
A) data collection design
B) sampling design
C) instrument development
D) data analysis
E) all of the above are part of the design strategy
Answer: D Level: easy
2. Which type of study is loosely structured and designed to expand understanding of a topic
and provide insights?
A) formal
B) causal
C) exploratory
D) experimental
E) descriptive
Answer: C Level: easy

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3. The goal of a formal study is to _____.
A) discover future research tasks
B) expand understanding of a topic
C) test hypotheses
D) provide insight
E) develop hypotheses
Answer: C Level: moderate
4. All of the following are possible goals of an exploratory study except _____.
A) discover future research tasks
B) expand understanding of a topic
C) test hypotheses
D) provide insight
E) develop hypotheses

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5. A statistical study is one that _____.
A) attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's

B) emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their interrelations
C) discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where, or how much
D) attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another
E) provides repeated measures over an extended period of time
Answer: A Level: moderate
6. A case study is one that _____.

Answer: B Level: moderate
7. In the book, In Search of Excellence, the authors examined the characteristics of highly
successful companies by studying the full context of each organization, using multiple sources of
information, and identifying the relationship between managerial decisions and success. This is
an example of a(n) _____.
A) case study
B) exploratory study
C) descriptive study

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D) statistical study
E) causal study
8. A descriptive study is one that _____.

9. A causal study is one that _____.

Answer: D Level: moderate

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10. A(n) _____ study explains what happened to a measured variable after-the-fact.
A) ex post facto
B) exploratory
C) experimental
D) statistical
E) causal
11. A(n) _____ study involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on
another variable.
A) ex post facto
B) exploratory
C) experimental
D) statistical
E) causal
12. An experimental study is one that _____.

B) involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable

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13. What type of study is being conducted when Land's End Home mails a catalog with a fluffy
set of towels on the cover to one group of consumers and the same catalog with a cover graphic
of a beautifully-made bed to another consumer group in order to test differences in response
between the two groups?
A) case study
B) longitudinal study
C) exploratory study
D) experiment
E) ex post facto study

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14. InStyle magazine wants to examine the pull power of two types of copy in increasing the
level of newsstand sales for a given month. The issue will feature Nicole Kidman but InStyle
wants to know whether newsstand sales will be higher for a cover that mentions Kidman's love
life or one that promises to share Kidman's style secrets. The issues are identical with the
exception of the copy underneath the cover graphic of Kidman. Which type of study is this an
example of?
A) case study
B) experimental study
D) longitudinal study
15. Kroger, a grocery store chain, wants to identify the ideal store layout for increasing store
sales. Because it primarily uses two store designs, one a grid layout with vertical aisles divided
by a center aisle and another using a traditional straight-aisle pattern, Kroger will match pairs of
stores that have different designs but similar shopper demographics and location. Sales
between each pair will then be compared to determine if store design is related to sales. Which
type of study is this an example of?
A) case study
B) experimental study
D) longitudinal study
Answer: E Level: moderate
16. Which of the following is not an example of a monitoring study?

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A) counting traffic at an intersection
B) recording license plates in a parking lot
C) mystery shopping in a competitor's store
D) documenting interactions between customers and a call center
E) telephone interview
17. The primary difference between a monitoring study and a communication study is that in a
communication study, the researcher _____.
A) observes participants
B) documents activities without eliciting direct responses
C) asks questions of participants
D) collects data
E) records information over a period of time

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18. Which of the following is a type of monitoring study?
A) telephone interview
B) counting cars in a parking lot
C) mall-intercept interview
D) e-mail survey
E) all of the above
Answer: B Level: easy
19. InZone Research will survey fans attending one of the Final Four games to assess
preferences for pricing and products offered at concession stands. What type of study is this an
example of?
A) formal
B) cross-sectional
C) longitudinal
D) monitoring
E) ex post facto
20. When political researchers assess opinions towards President Bush's plan for social security
reform, a(n) ______ study is used. However, when political researchers want to assess the
change in opinion towards the war in Iraq from the initial deployment of troops to the elections
in Iraq, a(n) _____ study should be used.
A) monitoring, communication
B) experimental, ex post facto
C) cross-sectional, longitudinal

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D) exploratory, formal
E) laboratory, field
21. HarrisInteractive surveys members of its KidZone, a group of consumers ages 12-17. These
participants report consumption data on a variety of products and response to various
promotional methods. The KidZone members are part of a(n) _____.
A) longitudinal panel
B) cross-sectional study
C) monitoring study
D) cohort study
E) statistical study
22. Longitudinal studies of cohort groups _____.
A) study the same people over time
B) use panel members as participants
C) study attitudes at a single point in time
D) use different participants for each sequenced measurement
E) occur under actual environmental conditions

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23. When studies are conducted under controlled conditions that do not simulate actual
environmental conditions, the study is conducted _____.
A) experimentally
B) ex post facto
C) under field conditions
D) under laboratory conditions
E) via monitoring
24. Studies that are conducted in the field _____.
A) occur under actual environmental conditions
B) simulate environmental conditions
C) imitate reality
D) control for extraneous variables
E) facilitate measurement of the variables of interest
Answer: A Level: difficult
25. Which of the following is true of studies conducted under laboratory conditions?
B) simulate environmental conditions
C) imitate reality
D) dependent variable naturally occurs
E) facilitate measurement of the variables of interest
Answer: E Level: difficult

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26. A simulation is a study that is designed to _____.
B) imitate reality
C) facilitate measurement
D) control all possible variables
E) all of the above
27. A(n) _____ is a study in which the conditions of a system or process are replicated.
A) laboratory study
B) field study
C) mall-intercept study
D) simulation
E) mystery shopping study

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28. Exploratory studies are particularly useful when researchers _____.
A) seek to describe a population's parameters based on the characteristics of a sample
B) seek to evaluate changes in attitudes over time
C) lack a clear idea of the study's problems
D) seek to test specific hypotheses
E) all of the above
29. Which of the following exploratory techniques is used most often in business research?
A) proxemics
B) empathic research
C) focus groups
D) street ethnography
E) surveys
30. Exploratory research is finished in all of the following situations except when _____.
A) the range and scope of management decisions are established
B) the major dimensions of the research task are established
C) hypotheses are developed
D) additional research is necessary
E) investigative questions are defined
Answer: D Level: difficult

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31. Which of the following is not an objective of exploratory research?
A) expand understanding of management dilemma
B) gather background information
C) identify information necessary for formulating investigative questions
D) identify sources of measurement questions
E) all of the above
Answer: E Level: easy
32. All of the following are part of an exploratory phase search strategy except _____.
A) discovery and analysis of secondary sources
B) expert interviews
C) interviews with those involved with the problem
D) brainstorming
E) experiments

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33. Discussions with those who are knowledgeable about the problem or its possible solutions
are called _____.
A) brainstorming
B) experience surveys
C) focus groups
D) experiments
E) projection techniques
34. What other area of the research process is affected by the exploration phase?
A) research design
B) research proposal
C) investigative questions
D) measurement questions
E) all of the above
35. The study of the use of space is called _____.
A) kinesics
B) proxemics
C) methodology
D) linguistics
E) feng shui

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36. Street ethnography is used in exploratory research to _____.
A) gather information from well-informed people
B) describe the culture and structure of a group
C) examine underlying attitudes
D) study the use of space
E) evaluate body-motion communication
37. An experience survey is a type of _____.
A) interview
B) survey
C) monitoring study
D) statistical study
E) observation

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38. Which of the following is true of focus group interviews?
A) typically made up of 3-5 participants
B) led by a group leader who is chosen by the participants
C) meet for 90 minutes to 2 hours
D) provide quantitative data
E) used in formal studies
39. A correlation refers to the _____.
A) estimates of frequency with which a characteristic appears
B) establishes the direction of causality between two variables
C) describes characteristics associated with a subject population
D) relationship by which two or more variables covary
E) estimates the proportion of a population with certain characteristics
40. When two variables vary together but changes in the variables are not due to changes in the
other, a _____ relationship is said to exist.
A) reciprocal
B) asymmetrical
C) causal
D) symmetrical
E) spurious

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41. Which of the following is not a type of evidence used to test causal hypotheses?
A) covariation between variables A and B
B) time order of events
C) alternative causes
D) disposition of variable B
E) all of the above can be used to test causal hypotheses
42. The research experiment is superior to the ex post facto research design when the
researcher:
A) Must avoid influencing the variables under study and therefore avoid biasing the results.
B) Needs to cause variables to be changed or held constant in keeping with specified research
objectives.
C) Is limited to holding all factors constant by selection of subjects according to strict sampling
procedures and statistical manipulation of findings.
D) Decides to use the design more common to research in the social sciences and business.

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43. The basic method by which we determine equivalence between study and control groups in
an ex post facto study is by
A) Matching
B) Definition
C) Induction
D) Random assignment
Answer: A Level: easy
44. The basic method by which equivalence between experimental and control groups is
determined is
A) Matching
B) Definition
C) Frequency control
D) Cross-classifying
E) Random assignment
45. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the two-stage research approach
to a management question? The two-stage approach:
A) Often uncovers evidence that a major study is unnecessary in the first stage.
B) Is particularly useful when the research is to be done on a fixed cost basis.
C) Is particularly useful when the complications and problems that will be encountered are
difficult to anticipate.
D) Is less expensive and less in-depth than a one-stage research approach.

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46. Which of the following can be classified as a causal research study? The researcher is
attempting to find out:
A) What percentage of the population believes consumer products are of the same or better
quality today than 10 years ago?
B) Which manufacturers in the U.S. contribute the highest percentage of their net income to
private non-profit organizations?
C) How the murder rate in Detroit fluctuates with the economy and population trends.
D) Why unemployment is higher in Chicago than Houston.
47. Research designs may be viewed as being
A) Exploratory or experimental
B) Laboratory or ex post facto
C) Cross-sectional or case
D) Descriptive or causal
E) Longitudinal or statistical

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48. The interactions between two sets of variables may reflect relationships that are
A) Symmetrical
B) Reciprocal
C) Asymmetrical
D) All of the above
49. The introduction of a four day week leads to increased productivity particularly among
young workers by improving job satisfaction." In this statement, improving job satisfaction is
the:
A) Independent Variable
B) Dependent Variable
C) Intervening Variable
D) Moderating Variable
50. The major relationships of interest to the research analyst are those which are
A) Asymmetrical
B) Exclusive
C) Independent
D) Reciprocal
E) Symmetrical

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Chapter 8

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Qualitative Research
1. Which type of research includes an array of interpretative techniques which seek to describe,
decode, translate, and otherwise come to terms with the meaning of certain phenomena?
A) quantitative
B) qualitative
C) statistical
D) descriptive
E) causal
2. The primary concern with using qualitative techniques is that qualitative data are too _____.
A) expensive
B) time-consuming
C) subjective
D) objective
E) structured
3. Which type of research attempts a precise measurement of some behavior, knowledge,

lOMoARcPSD|3758741
opinion, or attitude?
A) quantitative
B) qualitative
C) exploratory
D) cross-sectional
E) longitudinal
4. Qualitative research seeks to _____ theory while quantitative research _____ it.
A) examine, interprets
B) build, tests
C) test, understands
D) apply, builds
E) justify, applies

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5. Which of the following research purposes are associated with qualitative research?
A) description
B) prediction
C) theory building
D) theory testing
E) forecasting
6. Which of the following is true of quantitative research?
A) it uses a nonprobability sampling method
B) results are generalizable
C) data analysis is ongoing during the project
D) sample sizes are generally small
E) it uses multiple data collection methods
7. Exercises that prepare participants for individual or group interviews on a topic are called
_____.
A) calisthenics
B) projection techniques
C) homework
D) pretasking
E) focused preparation

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8. Which type of sampling technique involves selecting research participants with no attempt at
generating a statistically representative sample?
A) probability
B) nonprobability
C) random
D) systematic
E) cluster
9. All of the following are types of nonprobability sampling techniques except _____.
A) purposive sampling
B) snowball sampling
C) convenience sampling
D) random sampling
E) all are types of nonprobability techniques

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10. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants arbitrarily
for their unique characteristics, experiences, attitudes, or perceptions?
A) random sampling
B) purposive sampling
D) snowball sampling
E) quota sampling
11. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants who then
refer others with similar or different characteristics?
A) random sampling
E) quota sampling
12. Snowball sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.
A) participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or attitudes
B) participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics
C) researchers select any readily available individuals as participants
D) researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame
E) researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good mix
of demographic characteristics

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13. Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which _____.
A) participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or attitudes
B) participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics
C) researchers select any readily available individuals as participants
D) researchers systematically select participants from a sampling frame
E) researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good mix
of demographic characteristics
14. Which type of nonprobability sampling technique is most useful when individuals with the
desired characteristics, experiences, or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?
A) random sampling
E) quota sampling

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15. Jane is conducting interviews in order to develop a customer profile for her client. She
customizes each interview to each participant and does not ask specific questions. What type of
interview format is Jane using?
A) structured
B) semistructured
C) unstructured
D) closed-ended
E) direct interviewing
16. _____ interviews have certain specific questions that are asked of all participants but also
allow the interviewer freedom to probe the respondent based on his or her specific answers.
A) structured
B) semistructured
C) unstructured
D) closed-ended
E) direct interviewing
17. Which of the following is true of structured interviews?
A) permits direct comparability of responses
B) encourages variation in questions
C) interviewer probes may bias answers
D) responses are closed-ended
E) all of the above

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18. Jackson is conducting interviews to identify patterns in consumer decision making for high-
involvement products. Which type of interview should he use if he needs a high degree of
comparability among responses, no question variability, and to maintain his own neutrality
during the interviews?
A) unstructured
B) structured
C) semistructured
D) closed-ended
E) briefing
19. Which type of interview requires the least amount of skill and creativity on the part of the
interviewer?
A) unstructured
B) structured
C) semistructured
D) exploratory
E) briefing

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20. Which of the following channels of communication would not be used when conducting
interviews?
A) face-to-face
B) telephone
C) chat room
D) mail
E) instant messaging
21. Qualitative methods that encourage participants to reveal hidden or suppressed attitudes,
ideas, emotions, and motives are called _____ techniques.
A) deceptive
B) unstructured
C) projective
D) focus group
E) semistructured
22. Jack is participating in a research study. The interviewer asks Jack to say the first word that
comes to mind when he hears a product's benefits. What type of projective technique is this an
example of?
A) thematic apperception test
B) sentence completion
C) brand mapping
D) laddering

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E) word association
23. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are asked to write the dialog for a
cartoon picture.
A) word association
B) picture association
C) thematic apperception test
D) empty balloons
E) laddering
24. When using the _____, participants are confronted with a picture and asked to describe
how the person in the picture feels and thinks.
A) word association
D) empty balloons
E) laddering

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25. When using _____, participants are asked to relate the properties of one thing or person or
brand to another.
A) imagination exercises
C) the thematic apperception test
D) empty balloons
E) laddering
26. When using _____, participants are asked to assume that the brand and its users populate
an entire universe, and to describe the features of this new world.
A) word association
B) imaginary universe
D) empty balloons
E) laddering
27. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are presented with flash cards
containing component features and asked to create new combinations.
A) component sorts
D) sensory sorts
E) laddering

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28. When using the _____ projective technique, participants are presented with scents,
textures and sounds, and asked to arrange them by one or more criteria.
A) brand mapping
B) sensory sorts
D) component sorts
E) laddering
29. In a study of attitudes toward buying fake goods, participants are asked to complete this
sentence: "People who buy fake Louis Vuitton handbags are ….." This is an example of a(n)
_____ projective technique.
A) picture association
B) empty balloons
C) sentence completion
D) imagination exercise
E) personification

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30. Participants in a study designed to identify symbolic benefits associated with Sutter Home
wines are shown a photograph of a man eating at an upscale restaurant. The man in the picture
is alone and has a glass of wine with his mea. The participants are asked to describe how the
person in the picture feels and thinks. This is an example of a(n) _____ projective technique.
A) picture association
B) empty balloons
D) imagination exercise
E) personification
31. Which term below refers to a trained interviewer used for group interviews such as focus
groups?
A) therapist
B) inquisitor
C) moderator
D) discussion guide
E) probe
32. Interview guides begin with _____ questions, following a hierarchical questioning structure.
A) narrow issue
B) narrow topical
C) broad issue
D) narrow interest

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E) any of the above
33. The semistructured or structured interview guide designed to qualify prospects for
participation in research project is called a(n) _____.
A) pretasking exercise
B) recruitment screener
C) hierarchical question structure
D) computer-assisted interview
E) none of the above
34. American Airlines is conducting a qualitative study on preferences of business travelers who
fly frequently. Before inviting an individual to participate, the researcher on the project wants to
ensure that all participants travel for business more than pleasure and meet the American
Airlines' definition of frequent flier. What is the best way for the researcher to ensure that
participants will meet these criteria?
A) use a recruitment screener prior to inviting individuals to participate
B) delete interviews after the study ends from those who don't meet the qualifications
C) draw a sample from a list of people with an American Airlines affinity credit card
D) draw a sample from a list of people with an affinity credit card associated with any airline
E) contact a travel agency for a list of prospects

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35. When individual depth interviews are aided by the use of computer-generated visual and
auditory aids, the method is known as _____.
A) computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI)
B) computer-assisted personal interviewing (CAPI)
C) online interviewing
D) group interviewing
E) computer-aided design (CAD)
36. Research on service quality frequently uses a technique called _____ in which the
participant describes what led up to an incident, what was effective or ineffective, and the
outcome.
A) life histories
B) cultural interviews
C) sequential interviewing
D) critical incident technique
E) oral history
37. How many participants are typically in a mini-group interview?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 2 to 6
D) 6 to 10
E) up to 20

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38. A group interview seeking to understand spousal influence on decision making or the
influence of the opinion of a sibling on brand preferences would likely utilize a _____.
A) dyad
B) triad
C) mini-group
D) small group
E) supergroup
39. Anne is moderating a focus group of university professors to understand how they use
multimedia in the classroom. All of the participants teach classes with more than 100 students
at large, public universities. The composition of this group could be described as _____.
A) heterogeneous
B) homogeneous
C) nonexpert
D) dyadic

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40. Which statement below best reflects the general rule regarding how many group interviews
should be conducted for a given research project?
A) conduct interviews until no new insight is gained
B) use at least 3 groups for every geographic region involved
C) include groups of men only, women only, and men and women combined
D) the more homogeneous the groups, the more groups are needed
E) all of the above are true
41. All of the following statements about determining the number of group interviews is true
except _____.
A) the broader the issue, the more groups needed
B) the larger the number of distinct market segments of interest, the more groups needed
C) the greater the level of detail, the more groups needed
D) the more homogeneous the market segment, the more groups needed
E) the larger the number of new ideas desired, the more groups needed
42. The focus group moderator uses the principles of _____ to focus the group in an exchange
of ideas, feelings, and experiences on a specific topic.
A) psychology
B) sociology
C) anthropology
D) group dynamics
E) communications

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43. What is the typical length of a focus group?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 90 minutes
D) 2 hours
E) 4 hours
44. A telephone focus group is a viable alternative to a traditional focus group when _____.
A) participants need to handle a product
B) it is difficult to recruit desired participants
C) sessions will run long
D) participants are groups of children
E) all of the above

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45. Focus groups should not be used when _____.
A) facing a high-risk decision
B) stimulating new ideas for products
C) obtaining general background about a topic
D) uncovering perceptions about a brand
E) diagnosing problems
46. The process for measuring semantic content of a communication to develop a qualitative
picture of the respondents' concerns, ideas, attitudes, and feelings is called _____.
A) brand mapping
B) component sorts
C) ethnographic interpretation
D) word association
E) content analysis
47. The objective of a(n) _____ is to obtain multiple perspectives of a single organization,
situation, event, or process at a point in time or over a period of time.
A) life history
B) oral history
C) case history
D) cultural history
E) semantic map

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48. Which type of research is designed to address complex, practical problems using
brainstorming, followed by sequential trial-and-error attempts until the desired results are
achieved?
A) case history
B) action research
C) causal research
D) grounded theory
E) ethnography
49. The minimum number of cases used in a cross-case analysis is _____ case(s).
A) one
B) three
C) four
D) fifteen
E) twenty-five

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50. Which term below is used to describe the combining of several qualitative methods or
combining qualitative with quantitative methods?
A) triangulation
B) dyadic support
C) inter-rater reliability
D) projection
E) component sorts

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Chapter 10
Surveys and Interviews
1. A communication approach to data collection involves _____.
A) observing behavior
B) recording trace evidence
C) surveying people
D) data mining
E) linguistic behavior analysis
2. Surveys are used in _____ research studies.
A) monitoring
B) communication
C) observation
D) behavioral observation
E) nonbehavioral observation

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3. All of the following are sources of error in communication research except _____.
A) measurement questions
B) observers
C) survey instruments
D) interviewers
E) participants
4. Emma is responding to a survey about her experience using the NetFlix DVD delivery service.
One set of questions on the survey asks questions such as "How satisfied are you with your
overall experience with NetFlix?" The survey response options provided are Strongly Agree to
Strongly Disagree. Which of the following sources of error in communication research is present
in this example?
B) observers
C) interviewers
D) participants
E) all of the above

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5. Rachel is conducting telephone interviews for Blockbuster on perceptions of its new "No Late
Fees" program. When she interviews customers of the NetFlix service, she tends to change the
wording of the question, "How loyal are you to using Blockbuster for your DVD rental needs?" to
"So you aren't loyal to Blockbuster, are you?" Which of the following sources of error in
communication research is present in this example?
B) observers
C) interviewers
D) participants
E) all of the above
Answer: C Level: difficult
6. Mike resents getting calls from telemarketers and pollsters. A research firm called yesterday
to question him concerning his preference for radio stations. When Mike was asked to report his
household income, he inflated his income to the highest range offered. He also misreported his
age and occupation. Which of the following sources of error in communication research is
presented in this example?
B) observers
C) interviewers
D) participants
E) all of the above
7. The failure to secure full participant cooperation for a study can result in _____ error.
A) measurement

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B) instrumentation
C) data entry
D) sampling
E) nonresponse
8. Interviewer error may be caused by _____.
A) an unwillingness to participate
B) participant faulty recall
C) the falsification of answers
D) social desirability responding
E) all of the above
9. Which type of error occurs when the interviewer summarizes or interprets participant
answers?
A) measurement
B) instrumentation
C) data entry
D) sampling
E) nonresponse

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10. Which of the following factors will tend to decrease participant motivation?
A) prestige of research sponsor
B) perceived importance of the topic
C) interest in the topic
D) competing activities
E) conscientiousness
11. A study reported in the Journal of Management Research concluded that individuals are
more motivated to respond to surveys when _____.
A) the topic is salient
B) incentives are offered
C) respondents have a strong social network
D) they can respond at work
E) they know others like themselves have already responded
12. _____ occurs when the responses of participants differ in some systematic way from the
responses of nonparticipants.
A) Measurement error
B) Data entry error
C) Sampling error
D) Response error
E) Nonresponse error

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13. David's Bridal is conducting a survey of the trends in dress preferences among women who
will marry sometime in the next year. Surveys were mailed to 100,000 women but only 1,000
responded resulting in a response rate of 1%. This study is threatened by _____.
A) nonresponse error
B) response error
C) sampling error
D) measurement error
E) coverage error
14. A telephone survey asks participants whether they have donated money to the Tsunami
Relief Fund. This type of question is subject to _____.
A) nonresponse bias
B) acquiescence
C) social desirability bias
D) satisficing
E) sampling error

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15. The tendency for respondents to give answers that are perceived as being socially desirable,
whether or not the answers are truthful, is known as _____.
A) nonresponse
B) item nonresponse
C) acquiescence
D) social desirability responding
E) impression management
16. The tendency for respondents to be agreeable is called _____.
A) social desirability responding
B) acquiescence
C) elaboration likelihood
D) agreeableness
E) conscientiousness
17. Self-administered questionnaires may be delivered via all of the following channels except
_____.
A) mail
B) fax
C) telephone
D) Internet
E) disk-by-mail

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18. Which type of communication data collection is typically the lowest-cost option?
A) self-administered
B) telephone interview
C) personal interview
D) record analysis
E) observation
19. An instrument completed by the participant without additional contact with an interviewer
beyond the initial delivery of the instrument is called a _____.
A) computer-assisted self-interview
B) disk-by-mail survey
C) mail survey
D) self-administered questionnaire
E) web survey

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20. Which of the following is not a reason for the growth in web-based surveys?
A) participant perceptions of anonymity
B) ability to use visual stimuli
C) speed of response
D) cost efficiencies
E) Internet penetration rates
21. Surveys delivered via the Internet reduce costs by eliminating the costs associated with
_____.
A) interviewers
B) postage
C) data entry
D) printing
E) all of the above
22. Sample accessibility is generally maximized by the use of _____ surveys.
A) telephone
B) mobile phones
C) mail
D) Internet
E) fax

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23. Which of the following types of telephone calls are forbidden for individuals participating in
the national Do Not Call registry?
A) political polling
B) telephone surveys
C) requests for charitable donations
D) telemarketing
E) all of the above
24. The survey mode with the greatest perceived anonymity is the _____.
A) electronic mail survey
B) mail survey
C) telephone survey
D) person-administered survey
E) intercept survey

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25. The respondents' perceptions that the interviewer will not be able to discern their identity
refers to the _____.
A) response rate
B) social desirability responding
C) perception of anonymity
D) refusal rate
E) incidence rate
26. One rule of thumb is that participants should be able to answer the questions in a self-
administered survey in no more than _____.
A) 10 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 45 minutes
E) there are no guidelines related to survey length
27. The _____ suggests that a participant's burden should be minimized in the survey response
process by creating surveys that are easy to read, offer clear response directions, include
personalized communication, notify the participant about the survey in advance, and encourage
the respondent to participate.
A) Survey Design Bible
B) economic decision making literature
C) Total Design Method

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D) Gallup organization
E) theory of reciprocation
28. Which type of incentive has been shown to consistently improve response rates to surveys?
A) free product samples
B) money
C) gift certificates
D) prize draw chance
E) receipt of post-study results
29. Response rates to self-administered surveys can be improved by using all of the following
techniques except _____.
A) advance notification
B) reminders
C) promise of anonymity
D) monetary incentives
E) appeal for participation

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30. The presence of a(n) _____ is the primary difference between a computer-assisted
telephone interview and a computer-administered telephone survey.
A) computer
B) human interviewer
C) supervisor
D) participant
E) recording device
31. Phoebe is working at a call center for a research company. She has a carrel with a personal
computer that is networked to the phone system and to the central data processing unit. The
computer selects telephone numbers, dials each number, and accepts responses as Phoebe
enters what the respondents tell her. A software program prompts her with each question and
precoded response options. Phoebe is collecting data using _____.
A) computer-assisted telephone interviewing
B) OTS software
C) computer-administered telephone surveys
D) computer-delivered surveys
E) computer-assisted personal interviewing
32. For which type of telephone interview is the refusal rate the highest?
B) OTS
C) computer-administered telephone surveys

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D) computer-delivered surveys
E) computer-assisted personal interviewing
33. The ratio of participants who decline the interview to all eligible contacts is the _____ rate.
A) nonresponse
B) noncontact
C) incidence
D) refusal
E) reachable
34. Which term below refers to the ratio of potential contacts that were never reached to all
potential contacts?
A) nonresponse
B) noncontact
C) incidence
D) refusal
E) reachable

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35. Which of the following trends is increasing the noncontact rate associated with telephone
surveys?
A) penetration of mobile telephones
B) replacement of land line telephones with mobile telephones
C) caller id systems
D) voice mail
E) all of the above
36. Which of the following trends is increasing the refusal rate associated with telephone
surveys?
A) penetration of mobile telephones
B) replacement of land line telephones with mobile telephones
C) caller id systems
D) negative attitudes toward survey participation
E) voice mail
37. Which limitation listed below can be overcome by the use of random digit dialing in
telephone surveys?
A) inaccessible households
B) inaccurate or private listings in the telephone book
C) limited interview length
D) ease of interview termination
E) low participant involvement

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38. Personal interviewing with computer-sequenced questions capable of employing

visualization techniques is called _____.
B) computer-administered telephone interviewing
C) computer-assisted personal interviewing
D) computer-administered surveying
E) personal-assisted computer interviewing
39. Which of the following is not a type of personal interview data collection method?
A) in-home
B) mall intercept
C) computer-assisted personal interview
D) electronic mail
E) all of the above are personal interview methods

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40. An intercept interview is likely to occur at a _____.
A) mall
B) school
C) hospital
D) home
E) all of the above
41. Brittany is considering an intercept survey as the data collection mode for the drinking
behavior and sexual activity study. To execute this type of study, she could _____.
A) email students
B) send a survey to a student's permanent address
C) approach students outside the dining hall
D) telephone students using cell phone numbers
E) text message students
42. Which term is used to describe the act of surveying prospects or customers who have given
permission for such engagement?
A) opt-in
B) choice
C) opt-out
D) permission surveying
E) direct surveying

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43. Which data collection mode imposes the fewest time constraints on the participant?
A) mail
B) telephone
C) computer-administered
D) CATI
E) CAPI
44. In considering the use of a Web survey for conducting polls of the general population, the
greatest disadvantage of the mode is _____.
A) cost
B) time constraints
C) Internet coverage
D) dial-up modems
E) inability to use monetary incentives

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45. Alex is responding to a computer-administered telephone survey. The computer instructs

Alex to respond by choosing the appropriate answer using his telephone key pad such that 1 =
yes and 2 = no. This system is using the _____ mode of computer-administered survey.
A) automatic speech recognition
B) voice recognition
C) automatic entry
D) touch-tone data entry
E) record analysis
46. When a computer-administered telephone survey is capable of recognizing and recording a

wide range of verbal responses, it is capable of _____.
C) automatic entry
E) record analysis
47. Computer-administered telephone surveys that can recognize yes and no answers spoken
by respondents are of the _____ mode.
C) automatic entry

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E) record analysis
48. The Internet is fastest growing survey data collection mode. Which of the following is not a
reason for the growth in this mode?
A) speed of response
B) cost savings
C) elimination of data entry
D) ease of providing monetary incentives
E) all of the above are reasons
49. When a participant does not know the answer to a survey question, but there isn't a "Don't
Know" response option offered, _____ will occur.
A) response bias
B) measurement error
C) sampling error
D) nonresponse bias
E) unit nonresponse
Answer: B Level: difficult

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50. Which type of data collection mode is most appropriate for a survey requiring 45 minutes to
complete?
A) telephone
B) computer-administered telephone
C) mail
D) online
E) intercept

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Chapter 12
Measurement
1. Measurement in research consists of assigning numbers to _____ in compliance with a set of

rules.
A) events
B) objects
C) properties
D) activities
E) all of the above
2. A _____ is a scheme for assigning numbers of symbols to represent aspects of the event
being measured.
A) measurement tool
B) mapping rule
C) ruler
D) scale
E) property

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3. What is the goal of measurement in research?
A) to reflect both quantitative and qualitative concepts
B) to provide the highest-quality, lowest error data for data analysis
C) to describe, explain, and make predictions based on the information
D) to attach meaning to symbols
E) to specify the empirical information needed
4. A(n) _____ defines a variable in terms of specific measurement criteria.
A) operational definition
B) empirical definition
C) measurement rule
D) mapping rule
E) conceptual definition

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5. Which of the following is not an example of an object?
A) attitude
B) furniture
C) dog
D) class affiliation
E) weight
6. Weight, height, and temperature are all types of _____.
A) objects
B) physical properties
C) psychological properties
D) constructs
E) mapping rules
7. Attitudes are a type of _____.
A) object
B) physical property
C) psychological property
D) social property
E) mapping rule

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8. Socioeconomic class affiliation is a type of _____.
A) object
B) physical property
C) psychological property
D) social property
E) mapping rule
9. Which characteristic of mapping rules refers to the numbers used to group or sort responses
when no order to the numbers exists?
A) classification
B) order
C) distance
D) origin
E) exclusivity

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10. Which characteristic of mapping rules refers to ordered numbers in which one number is
greater than, less than, or equal to another number?
A) classification
B) order
C) distance
D) origin
E) exclusivity
11. Order, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers to _____.
A) the use of ordered numbers such that two is less than three but greater than one
B) the use of numbers used to group or sort responses when no order to the numbers exists
C) the use of a series of numbers in which each number is an equal distance from the next
D) the use of a series of numbers with a unique origin indicated by the number zero
E) the use of a number that is not used again
12. Which characteristic of mapping rules refers to a series of numbers in which each number in
the series is an equal distance from the next number?
A) classification
B) order
C) distance
D) origin
E) exclusivity

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13. Distance, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers to _____.
14. Origin, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers to _____.

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15. Which characteristics of data are exhibited by the variable, gender?
A) classification only
B) classification and order
C) classification, order, and distance
D) classification, order, distance, and origin
E) classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity
16. LeBron James wears the number 23 on his jersey. Which of the following characteristics is
exhibited by this number?
A) distance
B) order
C) classification
D) origin
E) exclusivity
17. To ride the roller coaster ride at an amusement park, customers must report their weight to
the ride attendant. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by weight?

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18. Attendance at raceways most recent two races have hit attendance records with 60,000
present at one and 65,000 present at another. Which of the following characteristics are
exhibited by these attendance measures?
19. The record low in Buffalo, New York for February 16 th is 20 degrees below 0. Which of the
following characteristics are exhibited by this temperature?

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20. The New York Times Dining Section rates the restaurants it reviews using a system such that
one star means good, two stars means very good, three stars means excellent, and four stars
means extraordinary. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by this rating scheme?
21. A nominal scale contains _____.
A) mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive categories as well as the property of order, but
not distance or unique origin
B) the properties of order, classification, and equal distance between points but no unique
origin
C) mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive categories, but without the properties of
order, distance, and origin
D) the properties of classification, order, equal distance, and unique origin
E) the four major sources of error
22. In a survey of football fans, each respondent is asked to indicate whether they have ever
attended an NFL game. This question can be categorized as a(n) _____ scale.
A) ratio
B) interval
C) ordinal

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D) nominal
E) semantic differential
23. When the groups are mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive, nominal scales must be
limited to _____ groups.
A) two
B) three
C) five
D) ten
E) there is no limit
24. When analyzing nominal data, which measure of central tendency is appropriate?
A) mean
B) mode
C) median
D) range
E) dispersion

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25. _____ describes how scores cluster or scatter in a distribution.
A) Mode
B) Mean
C) Median
D) Dispersion
E) Range
26. An ordinal scale contains _____.
origin
27. The New York Times Dining Section rates the restaurants it reviews using a system such that
one star means good, two stars means very good, three stars means excellent, and four stars
means extraordinary. This is a type of _____ scale.
A) ratio
B) interval
C) ordinal

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D) nominal
28. The appropriate measure of central tendency for an ordinal scale is the _____.
A) mode
B) mean
C) median
D) range
E) dispersion
29. An interval scale contains _____.
origin

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30. Calendar time is expressed on a(n) _____ scale while minutes, hours, and days are
expressed on a(n) _____ scale.
A) nominal, ordinal
B) ordinal, interval
C) interval, ratio
D) ordinal, ratio
E) nominal, interval
31. Which measure of central tendency is appropriate for interval scales?
A) mode
B) mean
C) median
D) range
E) dispersion
32. The _____ is the midpoint of a distribution.
A) mode
B) median
C) mean
D) range
E) dispersion

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Use the following to answer questions 33-35:
In the results of the most recent exam taken in the business research class, the average score
was a 74.4. More students earned a 78 than any other score and half the grades were above 72
and half the grades were below 72.
33. What is the mode for the business research exam scores?
A) 74.4
B) 78
C) 72
D) 50
E) between 50 and 100

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34. What is the median for the business research exam scores?
A) 74.4
B) 78
C) 72
D) 50
35. What is the arithmetic mean for the business research exam scores?
A) 74.4
B) 78
C) 72
D) 50
36. A ratio scale contains _____.
origin

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37. The population of a city is an example of _____ data.
A) ratio
B) interval
C) nominal
D) ordinal
E) dispersed
38. Random error in measurement is error that occurs _____.
A) erratically
B) due to bias
C) systematically
D) due to sampling

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39. The effects of fatigue, boredom, and social class on the measurement of an object are all
errors originating from the _____.
A) situational factors
B) respondent
C) interviewer
D) instrument
E) sample
40. Differences in respondent responses associated with where the interview took place, such
as at the mall, in a home, or over the telephone are errors originating from the _____ associated
with the study.
A) situational factors
B) respondent
C) interviewer
D) instrument
E) sample
41. _____ is the extent to which a measurement tool actually measures what we wish to
measure.
A) Reliability
B) Validity
C) Practicality
D) Significance

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E) Standardization
42. _____ is the extent to which a measurement is accurate and precise.
A) Reliability
B) Validity
C) Practicality
D) Significance
E) Standardization
43. Which of the following types of validity refers to the extent to which measurement scales
provide adequate coverage of the investigative questions?
A) external
B) content
C) criterion-related
D) construct
E) discriminant

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44. An attitude scale that correctly forecasts the outcome of a purchase decision has _____
validity.
A) discriminant
B) content
C) face
D) concurrent
E) predictive
Answer: E Level: difficult
45. Convergent validity and discriminant validity are components of _____ validity.
A) external
B) internal
C) criterion-related
D) construct
E) content
46. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which scores on one scale correlate with
scores on other scales designed to assess the same construct?
A) predictive
B) concurrent
C) convergent
D) discriminant
E) content

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The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic
reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the
same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and
again in June.
47. Which type of test is used in the U.S. News and World Report example to assess reliability?
A) split-half
B) test-retest
C) Cronbach's alpha
D) parallel forms

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48. Which statistical technique listed below would be used to compare the results of the March
survey to the results of the June survey in the U.S. News and World Report's assessment of
reliability?
A) mean
B) dispersion
C) correlation
D) regression
E) ANOVA
49. If the U.S. News and World Report seeks to assess equivalence of alternate forms of
measuring academic reputation, it should utilize a _____ type of test.
A) test-retest
B) Cronbach's alpha
C) parallel forms
D) split-half
E) KR20
50. In the U.S. News and World Report study of school rankings, academic reputation is
measured with five questions about each university. Which test will assess the extent to which
those five items reflect academic reputation?
A) test-retest
B) Cronbach's alpha
C) parallel forms

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D) split-half
E) KR20

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Chapter 13
Measurement Scales
1. Which of the following terms refers to a learned, stable predisposition to respond to oneself,
other persons, objects, or issues in a consistently favorable or unfavorable way?
A) opinion
B) attitude
C) personality trait
D) construct
E) behavior
2. Which of the following characteristics is not true of attitudes?
A) learned
B) stable
C) accessible
D) enduring
E) fluctuating

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3. The adoption rate of cellular telephones continues to accelerate rapidly. This statement is an
example of a _____ attitude.
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) conative
D) behavioral
E) peripheral
4. It is so annoying when people use their cellular telephones in restaurants. What is the basis
of the attitude reflected in this statement?
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) conative
D) behavioral
E) peripheral

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5. I turn my cellular telephone off when dining in restaurants. What is the basis of the attitude
reflected in this statement?
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) conative
D) centrality
E) peripheral
6. A cognitive basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a _____.
A) feeling
B) behavior
C) value
D) culture
E) belief
7. An affective basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a(n) _____.
A) feeling
B) behavior
C) opinion
D) culture
E) belief

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8. A conative basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a _____.
A) feeling
B) behavior
C) value
D) culture
E) belief
9. All of the following may be used with graphic rating scales except _____.
A) icons
B) pictures
C) words
D) comparisons
E) numbers

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10. Which of the following statements is true concerning the applicability of attitudes in
understanding behavior?
A) general attitudes are the best predictors of behavior
B) behavior is affected equally by those attitudes formed via social learning and those formed
via behavioral learning
C) cognitive attitudes influence behavior better than affective-based attitudes
D) a single, global measure of attitude is necessary to predict behavior
E) all of the above are true
11. The assignment of numbers or symbols to a property of objects according to value or

magnitude is called _____.
A) measurement
B) scaling
C) weighing
D) sampling
E) coding
12. What term below refers to the process of assessing an attitudinal disposition using a
number that represents a person's score on an attitudinal continuum ranging from an extremely
favorable disposition to an extremely unfavorable one?
A) attitudinal monitoring
B) content analysis
C) attitudinal scaling

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D) peripheral route processing
E) attitudinal chain analysis
13. A _____ scale is a scale that scores an object or property without making a direct
comparison to another object or property.
A) ranking
B) rating
C) categorization
D) sorting
E) recording
14. A rating scale is a scale that _____.
A) scores an object without making a direct comparison to another object
B) scores an object by making a comparison and determining order among two or more objects
C) groups participants
D) groups concepts according to specific criteria
E) establishes relationships between two variables

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15. Which type of scale is used when participants score an object according to its comparative
order among two or more objects?
A) ranking
B) rating
C) categorization
D) sorting
E) recording
16. A ranking scale is a scale that _____.
B) scores an objecting by making a comparison and determining order among two or more
objects
17. Participants are grouped using _____ scales.
A) ranking
B) rating
C) categorization
D) sorting
E) recording

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18. A categorization scale is a scale that _____.
B) scores an objecting by making a comparison and determining order among two or more
objects
19. Which type of scale is used when participants place cards into piles using criteria established
by the researcher?
A) ranking
B) rating
C) categorization
D) sorting
E) recording

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20. When a scale seeks to measure only one attribute of the participant or object it is said to be
_____.
A) conative
B) affective
C) unidimensional
D) multidimensional
E) balanced
21. The SERVQUAL scale seeks to describe perceptions of service quality with five dimensions.
This scale is _____.
A) unidimensional
B) multidimensional
C) balanced
D) unbalanced
E) valid
22. A(n) _____ scale seeks to simultaneously measure more than one attribute of the
participant or object.
A) multidimensional
B) unidimensional
C) balanced
D) unbalanced
E) valid

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23. A scale that uses the response options "very bad, bad, average, good, very good" is a(n)
_____ rating scale.
A) unidimensional
B) multidimensional
C) balanced
D) unbalanced
E) valid
24. Which of the following is true of the following response scale: poor – fair – good – very good
– excellent?
A) it is a balanced rating scale
B) it is a unforced-choice rating scale
C) it does not allow for expressions of intensity among participants with unfavorable opinions
D) it will result in an asymmetrical distribution
E) it will minimize halo effects

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25. Which of the following situations favors the use of unbalanced rating scales rather than
balanced rating scales?
A) participants' scores lean in one direction
B) object being rating is familiar to participants
C) participants are known to be easy raters
D) participants are known to be hard raters
E) all of the above
26. Scales that allow participants to select a "don't know" or "no opinion" response are called
_____.
A) unforced-choice
B) multidimensional
C) balanced
D) unbalanced
E) forced-choice
27. Which type of scale provides participants with an opportunity to express no opinion when
they are unable to make a choice among the alternatives offered?
A) forced-choice
B) multidimensional
C) balanced
D) unbalanced
E) unforced-choice

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28. What is the ideal number of points for a rating scale?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 9
D) 10
E) it depends
29. Which of the following statements about the number of scale points is not true?
A) reliability increases as the number of scale points increase
B) validity decreases as the number of scale points increase
C) larger numbers of scale points provide the ability to extract more variance
D) larger numbers of scale points increase accuracy in unidimensional scales
E) additional scale points increase measurement sensitivity

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30. Participants tend to _____ when they make an error of leniency.
A) be easy raters
B) give no opinion answers
C) choose the central or neutral point
D) rate objects consistently from question to question
E) procrastinate in making choices
31. Participants tend to _____ when they make an error of central tendency.
A) be easy raters
B) give extreme judgments
C) choose the central or neutral point
D) rate objects consistently from question to question
E) procrastinate in making choices
32. Which type of rater error occurs when a participant is reluctant to give extreme judgments?
A) error of leniency
B) error of central tendency
C) halo effect
D) demand effect
E) socially desirable responding

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33. Which type of rater error occurs when a participant consistently chooses the extreme
position at one end of the scale?
A) error of leniency
B) error of central tendency
C) halo effect
D) demand effect
E) socially desirable responding
34. All of the following are ways of combating the halo effect except _____.
A) reveal only one trait at a time
B) reverse the terms that anchor the endpoints of the scale
C) adjust the strength of descriptive adjectives
D) all of the above

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35. Which of the following is a multiple-choice, single-response scale?
A) yes, no
B) agree, disagree
C) strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree
D) important, unimportant
E) male, female
Jason is designing a survey to measure the extent to which college students who own iPods will
recommend that others should also buy an iPod. He has created the following measures.
Question 1: Have you ever recommended an iPod to anyone? Response options: Yes or no
Question 2: If yes, to whom did you recommend an iPod? Check all that apply. Response
options: friends, family members, teachers, other
Question 3: How likely are you to recommend an iPod to someone in the future? Not at all
likely, somewhat unlikely, neither likely nor unlikely, somewhat likely, very likely
36. What type of scale is used in Jason's first question about the recommendation of iPods?
A) dichotomous
B) multiple-choice, single-response
C) multiple-choice, multiple-response
D) balanced
E) unbalanced

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37. What type of scale is used in Jason's second question about the recommendation of iPods?
A) dichotomous
D) balanced
E) unbalanced
38. What type of scale is used in Jason's third question about the recommendation of iPods?
A) dichotomous
D) unbalanced
E) forced-choice

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39. Jason's third question is designed to determine the likelihood that an iPod owner will
recommend the iPod to others. Which of the following choices captures the characteristics of
the scale used for this question?
A) balanced, unforced choice, multiple-choice, single-response
B) balanced, forced choice, multiple-choice, single-response
C) unbalanced, forced choice, simple category
D) unbalanced, unforced choice, multiple-choice, multiple-response
E) balanced, forced choice, dichotomous
40. Which type of scale consists of statements that express either a favorable or unfavorable
attitude toward an object of interest?
A) multiple-choice, single-response
B) summated rating
C) semantic differential
D) constant sums
E) checklist
41. A _____ scale measure the psychological meanings of an attitude object using bipolar
adjectives.
A) Likert
B) summated rating
C) Stapel
D) semantic differential

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E) constant sums
42. What type of data is produced by simple category scales?
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
E) nominal and interval
43. What type of data is produced by summated rating scales?
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio

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44. Checklists produce _____ data.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
45. What type of data is produced by constant-sum scales?
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
46. The data obtained from a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as data obtained
with a _____ scale.
A) dichotomous
B) constant sum
C) semantic differential
D) multiple-choice, multiple-response
E) graphic rating scale

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47. In a _____ scale, the participant orders several objects of properties of objects.
A) comparative
B) constant sum
C) forced ranking
D) paired-comparison
48. Paired comparison scales result in _____ data.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
E) absolute

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49. All forms of ranking scales result in _____ data.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
E) absolute
50. The purpose of _____ is to get a conceptual representation of a respondent's attitude

toward the attitude object and to compare the relationships between people.
A) Likert scales
B) comparative scales
C) forced rating
D) Q-sorts
E) Stapel scales

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Chapter 14
Questionnaires and Instruments
1. All of the following questions must be answered prior to designing a questionnaire except
_____.
A) What type of scale is needed to perform the desired analysis to answer the management
question?
B) What data collection mode will be used?
C) Should the question be structured, unstructured, or some combination?
D) Should the questioning be disguised or undisguised?
E) How will the results be translated into managerial recommendations?
2. A(n) _____ question is one designed to conceal the question's and the study's true purpose.
A) undisguised
B) disguised
C) unstructured
D) structured
E) projective

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3. In which of the following situations should a study's objective be disguised?
A) when the study's objective is unlikely to affect the participants' responses
B) when requesting willingly shared, conscious-level information
C) when requesting reluctantly shared, conscious-level information
D) when requesting knowable, conscious-level information
E) when requesting willingly shared, knowable information
4. A _____ describes how the analysis will be structured once the data have been collected.
A) dummy table
B) analysis table
C) analysis flowchart
D) dummy variable
E) branching design

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5. Which of the following goals should a good survey instrument accomplish?
A) encourage each participant to provide accurate responses
B) encourage participants to be succinct in their responses
C) encourage participants to answer only those questions they are comfortable answering
D) encourage participants to end the survey when they feel they have contributed enough
information
E) ask as much as possible from the respondents
6. Which of the following terms is used to refer to questionnaires used in personal interviews?
A) administrative questions
B) interview schedules
C) moderator guides
D) survey schedules
E) interview guides
7. What type of questions identifies the participant, interviewer, interview location, and
conditions?
A) classification questions
B) target questions
C) administrative questions
D) structured questions
E) supervisory questions

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8. All of the following question types are asked of the survey participant except _____.
B) target questions
C) supervisory questions
D) administrative questions
E) disguised questions
9. Which of the following types of data are collected using a classification question?
A) gender
B) purchase behavior
C) attitude toward the brand
D) personality
E) behavioral intent

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10. What type of question seeks to group participants' answers so that patterns can be revealed
and studied?
B) target questions
11. Classification questions seek to _____.
A) identify the participant, interviewer, interview locations, and conditions
B) measure the core investigative questions
C) measure sociological-demographic variables that allow participants' answers to be grouped
D) frame the context of target questions
E) address the primary management issue being studied
12. What type of question seeks to address the investigative questions of a specific study?
B) target questions

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13. When target questions present the participants with a fixed set of choices, they are _____.
A) unstructured
B) undisguised
C) structured
D) disguised
E) open-ended
14. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?
A) Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.
B) Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.
C) Unstructured questions tend to be less biasing influence on response than structured

questions.
D) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
E) Unstructured questions require the use of content analysis.

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15. Which of the following questions is not useful for the instrument designer when selecting
appropriate question content and writing questions?
A) Should this question be asked?
B) Is the question of proper scope and coverage?
C) Can the participant answer this question as asked?
D) Will the participant willingly answer this question as asked?
E) What data collection mode will be used?
16. A study of donor behavior for the Tsunami Relief Fund seeks to identify participation from
consumers through indirect gifts such as purchasing items of which a portion of proceeds will
benefit Tsunami victims. Because such purchases do not record whether an individual made the
purchase decision as a form of donation, a survey will be used to identify this behavior. In
writing the target questions for the study, the instrument designer should be aware of errors
arising from the issue of _____.
A) precision
B) time for though
C) sensitive information
D) recall and memory decay
E) presumed knowledge
17. In a question related to approval of President George W. Bush's plan to save social security,
the interviewer asks, "Don't you agree that something must be done to save social security?"
This question suffers from _____.
A) sensitive information

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B) double-barreled question
C) biased wording
D) frame of reference
E) recall and memory decay
18. Choosing between the questions "Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is adequate?"
(Incorrect) and "Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you want to buy them?"
(Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to _____.
A) avoiding leading questions
B) avoiding biased words
C) presuming knowledge
D) ensuring the right frame of reference
E) providing time for thought

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19. Which issue related to the design of measurement questions addresses whether it is
reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question?
A) precision
B) frame of reference
C) time for thought
D) biased wording
E) adequate alternatives
20. When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word means
what he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more than one
pronunciation; or if a simpler phrase is suggested then, he/she is probably concerned with
_____.
A) avoiding leading questions
B) avoiding double-barreled questions
C) choosing shared vocabulary
D) personalizing the questionnaire
E) providing a frame of reference
21. The issue of frame of reference in the design of questions and questionnaires asks _____.
A) does the question contain wording that implies the researcher's desire for the participant to
respond in one way rather than another?
B) is the question worded from the researcher's perspective or the participant's perspective?
C) does the question ask the participant for information that relates to thoughts or activity too
far in the participant's past to be remembered?

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D) does the question use words that have no meaning or a different meaning for the
participant?
E) is it reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question?
22. The issue of biased wording in the design of questions asks _____.
participant?

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23. The issue of time for thought in the design of questions asks _____.
participant?
24. The issue of memory decay in the design of questions asks _____.
participant?
25. The issue of shared vocabulary in the design of questions asks _____.

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participant?
26. When a question asks a respondent to recall an experience or decision that happened a long
time ago, the data may be affected by _____.
A) the sensitivity of the question
B) memory decay
C) lack of precision
D) an insufficient frame of reference
E) lack of balance

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27. A measurement question whose wording suggests to the participant the desired answer is
a(n) _____ question.
A) double-barreled
B) leading
C) open-ended
D) forced-choice
E) free-response
28. A measurement question where the participant chooses the words to frame the answer is
a(n) _____ question.
A) double-barreled
B) leading
C) free-response
D) structured
E) multiple-choice
29. Which type of measurement question poses more than two response choices but seeks a
single answer?
A) free-response
B) open-ended
C) dichotomous
D) multiple-choice
E) checklist

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30. A question that asks "What sources of information do you consider when making purchase
decisions?" is a(n) _____ question.
A) rating
B) free-response
C) double-barreled
D) checklist
E) ranking
31. A measurement question that includes two or more questions in one is said to be _____.
A) double-barreled
B) leading
C) sensitive
D) subjective
E) unfocused

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32. In a study of grocery shopping behavior, one of the questions on the instrument asked, "To
what extent are you comfortable with and willing to use self-serve checkout lines at grocery
stores?" This question should be redesigned because it is _____.
A) leading
B) sensitive
C) subject to memory decay
D) too general
E) double-barreled
33. In a study of grocery shopping behavior, one of the questions asked, "Why do you shop at
this grocery store?" The question was a multiple-choice, closed ended question and offered the
following response options: a) it is near my home, b) it is on my way home from work, c) the
prices are reasonable, d) it offers a good selection, and e) it stocks the items I like to buy. This
question should be redesigned because _____.
A) it is double-barreled
B) the response options are not mutually exclusive
C) it suffers from memory decay
D) it requests sensitive information
E) it is too general
34. In surveys conducted with telephone interviews or in-person interviews, which form of
order bias is likely to occur?
A) recency effect
B) primacy effect

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C) halo effect
D) demand effect
E) leniency
35. In mail and in web-based surveys, which form of order bias is likely to occur?
A) recency effect
B) primacy effect
C) halo effect
D) demand effect
E) leniency

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36. Which form of order bias occurs when a participant tends to choose the first alternative
presented as his or response to a closed-ended question?
A) recency effect
B) primacy effect
C) halo effect
D) demand effect
E) leniency
37. Which form of order bias occurs when a participant tends to choose the last alternative
presented as his or response to a closed-ended question?
A) recency effect
B) primacy effect
C) halo effect
D) demand effect
E) leniency
38. How can an instrument designer counteract biases arising from primacy and recency
effects?
A) randomize the question order
B) utilize the split-ballot technique
C) include questions designed to measure a participant's susceptibility to order bias
D) provide an other option in the response choices
E) all of the above

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39. Questions in Web surveys often use drop-down boxes as a manner of displaying the
response choices for a question. This type of display method is particularly prone to _____.
A) halo effects
B) leniency effects
C) primacy effects
D) recency effects
E) presumption effects
40. Checklists with several items to be considered by respondents may be subject to _____.
A) halo effects
B) leniency effects
C) primacy effects
D) recency effects
E) presumption effects

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41. Every time a Netflix customer returns a DVD, Netflix asks the customer to evaluate the DVD
on a scale of one to five. A five means that the customer thoroughly enjoyed the DVD while a
one means that the customer hated the DVD. Netflix is using a(n) _____ question to learn
customer preferences.
A) administrative
B) checklist
C) ranking
D) rating
42. Every time a Netflix customer returns a DVD, Netflix asks the customer to evaluate the DVD
relative to other DVDs on a scale of one to five. A five means that the customer thought this
DVD was better than most others while a one means that the DVD is among the worst. In this
example, Netflix is using a(n) _____ question to learn customer preferences.
A) administrative
B) checklist
C) ranking
D) rating
43. How many answer choices are provided in a free-response question?
A) 2
B) 3-10
C) 10 or fewer

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D) none
E) it depends on the question
44. A question that is used to qualify a participant's knowledge about the questions of interest
or experience necessary to participate is a(n) _____ question.
A) administrative
B) screen
C) target
D) branched
E) classification
45. A survey of preferences among frequent air travelers will be conducted at airports
nationwide. Prior to asking target questions regarding respondent preferences, which of the
following should occur?
A) screen questions should ensure that participants are frequent air travelers
B) socio-economic questions should be asked
C) questions about terrorist concerns should be asked
D) branching questions can distinguish between frequent air travelers and less frequent
travelers
E) free-response questions should be asked

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46. A(n) _____ question is a measurement question the sequence of which is determined by the
participant's previous answers.
A) administrative
B) screen
C) target
D) branched
E) classification
47. Where in a survey should personal or potentially sensitive questions be placed?
A) at the beginning
B) in the middle
C) near the end
D) after screen questions
E) it doesn't matter
48. What type of measurement question is designed to establish rapport with the participant?
A) screen
B) branch
C) target
D) buffer
E) administrative

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49. The term, funnel approach, means to _____ in questionnaire design.
A) begin with general questions to more specific questions
B) branch from buffer questions to target questions
C) begin with buffer questions and end with screen questions
D) move from screen questions to buffer questions to classification questions
E) ask sensitive questions early

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Chapter 15
Sampling
1. Which term below refers to the individual participant or object on which a measurement is
taken?
A) population
B) target population
C) population element
D) sampling frame
E) sample
2. A _____ is the total collection of elements about which the researcher wishes to make
inferences.
A) population
B) target population
C) population element
D) sampling frame
E) sample

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3. When all the elements in a population are included in a study, the result is a _____.
A) poll
B) census
C) sample
D) sampling frame
E) probability sample
4. The list of elements in a population from which the sample is actually drawn is known as the
_____.
A) sampling frame
B) population extent
C) database
D) sampling base
E) population directory

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Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton
Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2, 600,000 Hilton Honors club
members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members
may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase
loyalty among the other 90% of club members.
5. In the Hilton example, the individual club members represent the _____.
A) population
B) sample
C) sampling frame
D) population element
E) census
6. In the Hilton example, the Hilton Honors membership list represents the _____.
A) sample
B) sampling frame
C) population
D) population element
E) target population

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7. In the Hilton example, the population for the study is _____.
A) travelers requiring overnight lodging
B) guests at Hilton-brand hotels
C) Hilton Honors club members
D) the top 10% of Hilton Honors club members
E) the 90% of Hilton Honors club members who are not brand loyal
8. The Hilton organization is considering a survey about factors affecting brand loyalty that will
be sent to all of its Hilton Honors club members. This is an example of a _____.
A) population
B) sample
C) extent
D) census
E) general population survey

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9. In the Hilton example, the sampling frame is made up of the _____.
A) list of Hilton Honors club members
B) list of guests staying at any Hilton hotel during a designated period of time
C) list of the top 10% of Hilton Honors club members
D) list of the 90% of Hilton Honors members who are not brand loyal
E) list of guests at Hilton's top competitors
10. Hilton plans to send surveys to 10,000 Hilton Honors club members. This group of people is
known as the _____.
A) sampling frame
B) population
C) census
D) sample
E) population element
11. Which of the following terms refers to the variation in measures due to some known or
unknown influence that causes the scores to skew in one direction or another?
A) precision
B) standard error
C) systematic variance
D) sampling error
E) random error

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12. Assuming that the sampling frame is appropriate, systematic variance can be minimized in a
study by _____.
A) decreasing the sample size
B) increasing the sample size
C) contacting nonrespondents
D) increasing response rates
E) matching
13. Sampling error refers to _____.
A) differences between the sample statistics and the population's parameters caused by
random fluctuations inherent in the sampling process
B) bias caused by using a poor sampling frame
C) error created by systematic variance
D) differences between the results of a census and the population's parameters
E) error created by differences between those who respond to the survey and those who do not

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14. With what does one measure the degree of precision of a sample estimate?
A) feasibility studies
B) census comparisons
C) unstandardized coefficients
D) standard error of the estimate
E) significance indicators
15. The standard error of the estimate is a type of measure of _____.
A) central tendency
B) accuracy
C) significance
D) confidence
E) standard deviation
16. Which word below best describes nonprobability sampling?
A) subjective
B) objective
C) random
D) systematic
E) generalizable

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17. Which term below refers to a controlled procedure that assures that each population
element is given a known nonzero chance of selection into the sample?
A) nonprobability sampling
B) random selection
C) systematic selection
D) judgment sampling
E) statistical selection
18. Estimates of precision are possible with _____ samples.
A) nonprobability
B) probability
C) judgment
D) quota
E) all of the above

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19. Which term below refers to a controlled, randomized procedure that assures that each
population element is given a known, nonzero chance of selection into a study's sample?
A) census
B) nonprobability sampling
C) probability sampling
D) element selection
E) purposive sampling
20. _____ are summary descriptors of variables of interest in the population.
A) Sample statistics
B) Population parameters
C) Systematic estimates
D) Standard errors
E) Standardized coefficients
21. Which term below refers to the descriptors of variables computed from sample data used to
estimate those same variables in the population?
A) sample statistics
B) population parameters
C) systematic estimates
D) standard errors
E) standardized coefficients

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22. When the variables of interest are measured on nominal or ordinal scales, what should be
used to estimate population proportion?
A) standard error
B) standard deviation
C) sample proportion of incidence (p)
D) sample proportion of incidence (p) * 1-(p)
E) sample statistic
23. When the variables of interest are measured on nominal or ordinal scales, what should be
used to estimate population variance?
A) standard error
C) sample proportion of incidence (p)
D) sample proportion of incidence (p) * 1-(p)
E) sample statistic

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24. The most frequent proportion measure is the _____.
A) mean
C) mode
D) correlation
E) percentage
Use the following to answer question 25:
Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton
Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2, 600,000 Hilton Honors club
members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members
may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase
loyalty among the other 90% of club members.
25. In a follow-up survey to the Hilton study on brand loyalty, the organization plans to focus
solely on estimating the attributes of the 10% of Hilton Honors members who are thought to be
brand loyal. In this example, 10% is the _____.
A) sample statistic
B) population parameter
C) population variance
D) population proportion of incidence
E) sampling frame

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26. In a study of college search behaviors among the families of college-bound high school
students, the search behaviors are very different from family to family. In the situation
described, which guideline below best explains why the researcher will use a larger sample size?
A) the greater the variance within the population, the larger the sample should be
B) the greater the desired precision of the estimate, the larger the sample should be
C) the smaller the error range, the larger the sample must be
D) the higher the level of confidence in the estimate, the larger the sample must be
E) the greater the number of subgroups of interest within a sample, the larger the sample must
be
27. All of the following are methods of probability sampling except _____.
A) systematic
B) simple random
C) stratified
D) cluster
E) purposive

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28. If one selects a sample by beginning with a random start of an element and then selecting
every kth element in the frame for inclusion in the sample, which type of sampling method is
being used?
A) simple random
B) systematic
C) cluster
D) stratified
E) double
29. Which sampling method includes elements from each of several mutually exclusive strata
within a population?
A) simple random
B) systematic
C) stratified
D) cluster
E) double
30. A survey that uses a sample of city blocks from a map as a way of sampling city residents is
based on the _____ sampling technique.
A) convenience
B) quota
C) stratified
D) systematic

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E) cluster
31. With which of the following sampling techniques is the practice of double sampling typically
found?
A) simple random
B) stratified
C) systematic
D) purposive
E) quota
32. Which two sampling techniques employ subpopulations as a component of the selection
criteria?
A) simple random, systematic
B) systematic, stratified
C) stratified, cluster
D) quota, cluster
E) quota, snowball

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33. The random digit dialing (RDD) technique used commonly in conjunction with CATI studies is
based on _____ sampling.
A) simple random
B) systematic
C) stratified
D) cluster
E) double
34. Which type of sampling technique can result in a skewed sample if periodicity exists in the
population?
A) simple random
B) systematic
C) stratified
D) cluster
E) double
Brittany is developing a sampling plan for a study of alcohol consumption among college
students at Metro University. She wants to ensure that students from each class level are
represented. She also wants to be able to compare students who are members of Greek
organizations to non-Greeks. Finally, she wants to consider patterns by gender. Brittany plans to
cross-reference Metro University's student directory with membership lists from each Greek
organization on campus to develop a sampling frame.

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35. What type of sampling method should Brittany use?
A) simple random
B) systematic
C) stratified
D) cluster
E) double
36. In the alcohol consumption study at Metro University, students who do not belong to Greek
organizations outnumber those who do by 6 to 4. If Brittany draws the study sample such that
60% of the sample is made up of non-Greek-affiliated students and 40% of Greek-affiliated
students, what type of sampling has she used?
A) simple random
B) quota
C) systematic
D) proportionate stratified
E) disproportionate stratified

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37. At Metro University, there are more female students than male students. However, because
Brittany is particularly interested in male drinking behavior, she plans to include an equal
number of men and women in the sample. What type of sampling will Brittany use?
A) simple random
B) quota
C) systematic
D) proportionate stratified
E) disproportionate stratified
38. If Brittany drew a sample of class locations (buildings and classrooms) on campus, and then
sampled all of the students in those buildings, what type of sampling technique was employed?
A) convenience
B) simple random
C) area
D) quota
E) systematic
39. When selecting a convenience sample, element selection is based on _____.
A) accessibility
B) judgment
C) random selection
D) area
E) all of the above

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40. In which sampling technique, are participants in a study selected by referral?
A) convenience
B) judgment
C) quota
D) snowball
E) area
A lakefront resort is planning for its summer busy season. It wishes to estimate with 95%
confidence the average number of nights each guest will stay in a consecutive visit. Using a
sample of guests who stayed last year, the average number of nights per guest is calculated at 5
nights. The standard deviation of the sample is 1.5 nights. The size of the sample used is 120
guests and the resort desires a precision of plus or minus .5 nights.

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41. What is the standard error of the mean in the lakefront resort example?
A) .5
B) .065
C) .96
D) .13
E) 1.96
42. Within what range below can the resort expect with 95% confidence for the true population
mean to fall?
A) 3.12 to 6.88
B) 3.35 to 6.65
C) 2.42 to 7.58
D) 4.10 to 5.50
E) 4.65 to 6.65
43. A local restaurant is planning a study on demand for meals over holiday weekends. In
calculating the desired sample size for the study, the restaurant's researcher decides to use a
rule-of-thumb calculation for estimating the population dispersion. If the range of meals in the
study is 0 to 30, what standard deviation does the rule-of-thumb method produce?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6

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E) 10
44. A microbrewery plans to conduct a study on beer consumption among men between the
ages of 29 and 45. A pilot test indicated that men in this age category consume an average of 6
beers per week with a standard deviation of 2.3. If the microbrewery seeks a 95% confidence
level and a precision of .5 beers, what size sample should be used in the study?
A) 70
B) 120
C) 300
D) 456
E) 987

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45. Colonial Williamsburg is conducting a study on the characteristics of tourists who drive to
some nearby location for a weekend getaway. Previous studies indicate that approximately 70%
of all short vacations are vacations in which people decide to drive to a destination for a long
weekend. Past research indicates that this group of tourists will drive up to 4 hours for a
weekend getaway. If the researcher leading the study desires a 99% confidence level and an
interval range of plus or minus 10%, what size should the sample be?
A) 120
B) 210
C) 330
D) 1450
E) 2258
46. The pq ratio found in calculations of sample size for a proportion can never exceed _____.
A) .10
B) .25
C) .50
D) .75
E) there are no such limitations on the pq ratio
47. In calculations of sample size for proportions, q refers to the _____.
A) calculated sample size
B) quota of required completes to refusals
C) the proportion of the population that does not have the attribute of interest

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D) the proportion of the population that does have the attribute of interest
E) the desired precision
48. Which of the following symbols is used to refer to the sample standard deviation?
A) p
B) 
C) 
D) 
E) s
49. What information below is necessary for computing sample size for questions involving
means?
A) precision
B) confidence level
C) expected dispersion in the population
D) size of the interval estimate
E) all of the above

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50. When a calculated sample size must be adjusted due to the size of the population relative to
the size of the sample, which of the following formulas should be applied?
A) divided the calculated n by the standard error of the mean
B) multiply the calculated n by the precision estimate
C) reduce the calculated n by 5% of the population size
D) multiply the calculated n by the square root of (N-n)/ (N-1)
E) divide the calculated n by the standard deviation squared

Mcqs

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Cooper - Chapter 06 #13

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Cooper - Chapter 06 #26

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C. interviews with those involved with the problem

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characteristics, experiences, or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?

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B. Replacement of land line telephones with mobile telephones

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D. touch-tone data entry

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A. General attitudes are the best predictors of behavior

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B. increasing the sample size

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52. Compare and contrast stratified sampling and cluster sampling.

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