Sec: SR BIPC (CHAINA&ELITE) Date: 27-01-2019

Time: 3 Hrs GRAND TEST-2 Max. Marks : 720

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MPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
 The Test is of 3 Hours Duration.
 The Test consists of 180 Questions. The Maximum Marks are 720.
 There are Four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and
Zoology.
 For each correct answer 4 Marks and each incorrect answer -1 Mark.
PHYSICS
1. Three rods of equal length  are joined to form an equilateral triangle PQR. O is
the mid point of PQ. Distance OR remains same of small change in temperature.
Coefficient of linear expansion for PR and RQ same, i.e.,  2 but that for PQ is 1

1)  2  31 2)  2  41 3) 1  3 2 4) 1  4 2
2. A black body radiates power P and maximum energy is radiated by it around a
wavelength 0 . The temperature of the black body is now changed such that it
radiates maximum energy around the wavelength 3 0 /4. The power radiated by
it now is
1) 256P/81 2) 16P/9 3) 64P/27 4) 4P/3
3. A body is thrown at an angle θ 0 with horizontal such that it attains a speed equal
2
to times the speed of projection when the body is at half of its maximum
3
height. Find the angle θ 0 .
1 1 1  1 
1) 0  cos 1   2) 0  sin 1   3) 0  sin 1   4) 0  cos 1  
3 3  3  3
4. If  is angle between the velocity and acceleration of a particle moving on a
circular path with decreasing speed, then

1)   90O 2) 0O    90O 3) 90O    180O 4) 0O    180O

5. An ideal gas undergoes a quasistatic, reversible process in which its molar heat
capacity C remains constant. If during this process the relation of pressure P and
volume V is given by PV n  const then n given by (C P  molar specific heat at
constant pressure, CV = molar specific heat at constant volume)
CP  CV C  CV CP C  CP
1) n  2) n  3) n  4) n 
C  CV C  CP CV C  CV

1|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
6. The P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are shown in the figure.
The graphs 1 and 2 should correspond respectively to

1) O2 and He 2) He and O2 3) O2 and CO 4) N2 and O2

7. Two identical sheets of a metallic foil are separated by d and capacitance of the
system is c and charged to a potential difference E. Keeping the charge constant,
the separation is increased by  , then the capacitance and potential difference
will be.
A 0 A 0 A 0   A 0  
1) ,E 2) ,E 3), E  1   4) , 1   E
d d  d   d  d  d
C
8. In the shown network charges in capacitors are same, then 1 is
C2

5
1) 2) 1:1 3) 1: 3 4) 1: 5
3
9. When both jaws touch to each other, but zero mark of vernier scale is right to
zero of main scale. Further 4th mark of vernier scale coincide with acertain mark
of main scale. While measuring the side of a cube, it gives 10 divisions on main
scale and 6th division of vernier scale coincide with main scale division. The side
length of cube. [least count  0.1 mm, 1main scale divison=1mm]
1) 10.6 mm 2) 11.0 mm 3) 10.2 mm 4) 10.4 mm
10. Sixteen resistors each of resistance 16  are connected in the circuit as
shown. The net resistance between AB is

1) 1  2) 2  3) 3  4) 4 
11. A battery consists of a variable number (n) of identical cells, each having an
internal resistance r connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-
circuited. The following graph represents current (I) in the circuit versus the
number of cells

2|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
12. A filament bulb (500 w,100 V) is to be used in a 240 V main supply. When a
resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500
W. The value of R is.

1) 28  2) 26  3) 230  4) 46 
13. The maximum peak to peak voltage of an AM wave is 24 mV and the minimum
peak to peak voltage is 8 mV. The modulation factor is
1) 10 % 2) 20 % 3) 25 % 4) 50%
14. Four pendulums A, B, C and D are suspended from the same elastic support as
shown in figure. A and C are of the same length, while B is smaller than A and D
is larger than A. If A is given a transverse displacement

1) D oscillates with maximum amplitude

2) C oscillates with maximum amplitude
3) B oscillates with maximum amplitude
4) All the four oscillate with equal amplitude
15. A block is kept on a rough horizontal plank. The coefficient of friction between
the block and the plank is 1/2. The plank is undergoing SHM of angular
frequency 10 rad/s. The maximum amplitude of plank in which the block does
 m
not slip over the plank is  g  10 2 
 s 
1) 4 cm 2) 5 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 16 cm
16. The transfer characteristics [output voltage V0  vs input voltage Vi  ] for a base
biased transistor in CE configuration is as shown in the figure. For using the
transistor as a switch, it is used

3|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
 1) in region (II) 2) in region (I)
3) in region (III) 4) both in region (I) and (III)
17. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is:

1) 2)

3) 4)
18. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100  . Base current is changed by
40  A which results a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used
as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4k  . The voltage gain of
the amplifier is
1) 4000 2) 1000 3) 2000 4) 3000
19. In the figure shown, the currents through the series resistance 5k and load
resistance 10k are respectively (Zener diode is used as voltage regulator)

1) 9mA, 14mA 2) 14mA, 5mA 3) 1mA, 14mA 4) 1mA, 6mA

20. In an oscillating L-C circuit, maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge
on this capacitor, when the energy is stored equally between the electric and
magnetic fields is
Q Q Q
1) Q 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2
21. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to
the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photo
emission will be
4|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
 25 m 18 hR 24 hR 25 hR
1) 2) 3) 4)
24 hR 25 m 25 m 24 m
22. A capacitor of capacitance C=2.0  0.1  F is charged to a voltage V=20  0.2volt.
What will be the charge Q on the capacitor?
1)  40  1.8   10 6 c 2)  40  1.4   10 6 3)  40  2.4   106 c 4) 10  2.4   106 c
23. The mass ‘m’ is moving at a speed v perpendicular to a rod of length d and mass
M  6m which pivots around a frictionless axle running through its centre. If
strikes and sticks to the end of the rod .The moment of inertia of the rod about
its centre is Md 2 / 12 . Then the angular speed of the system just after the collision
is
M

O d

m v

2v 2v v 3v
1) 2) 3) 4)
3d d d 2d
24. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass M, length 2R and radius ‘R’
about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular to the axis of
cylinder I1 and about an axis passing through one end of cylinder and
perpendicular to the axis of cylinder is I 2 then
I 2 19
1) I 2  I1  MR 2 2) I 2  I 2 3)  4) I1  I 2  MR 2
I1 12
25. The pitch of an organ pipe is highest when the pipe is filled with
1) Air 2) Hydrogen 3) Oxygen 4) Carbon dioxide
26. 25 tuning forks are arranged in decreasing order of frequency. Any two
successive forks produce 3 beats/sec. If the frequency of the first tuning fork is
the octave of last, then frequency of 22nd fork is
1) 72 Hz 2) 288 Hz 3) 81 Hz 4) 87 Hz
27. If a torch is used in place of monochromatic light in Young's experiment what
will happen
(1) Fringe will appear for a moment then it will disappear
(2) Fringes will appear as for monochromatic light
(3) Only bright fringes will appear (4) No fringes will appear
28. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given E=100 sin  (t-x/c). Then
the intensity of wave is (nearly).
1) 13.3 w / m 2 2) 23.3 w / m 2 3) 31.3 w / m 2 4) 12.2 w / m 2
29. The stopping potential (V 0 )-frequency (v) graph for a given emitter surface is
given. Then the threshold wave length is

5|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
 1) 4500 A0 2) 6000 A0
3) 5000 A0 4) cannot be estimated from given data
30. In figure, the coefficient of friction between the floor and the block B is 0.1. The
coefficient of friction between the blocks B and A is 0.2. The mass of A is m/2 and
of B is m. The maximum horizontal force F can be applied to the block B so that
two blocks move together is …

1) 0.1 mg 2) 0.05 mg 3) 0.2 mg 4) 0.45 mg

31. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same material as shown in
figure. The thickest wire is represented by the line

1) OD 2) OC 3) OB 4) OA
32. The tension in a string holding a solid block below the surface of a liquid (density
greater than that of solid) is T0 when the system is at rest. If the system has an
upward acceleration ‘a’, tension in the string would be

 a  a
1) T0 2) T0  a  g  3) T0 1   4) T0  1  
 g   g 
33. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational
potential at a point on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is
4Gm 6Gm 9Gm
1) Zero 2)  3)  4) 
r r r

6|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
34. Two short magnets of equal magnetic moment of each M are fastened
perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. The magnetic induction at a
point p which is at distance d from the centre

0 M 5  2M  M 2  2 2M
1) 3
2) 0 3 3) 0 3
4) 0
4 d 4 d 4 d 4 d 3
35. A conducting wire of mass m slides down two smooth conducting bars, set at an
angle  to the horizontal as shown in figure. The separation between the bars is l
. The system is located in the magnetic field B, perpendicular to the plane of the
sliding wire and bars. The constant velocity of the wire is

mgR sin  mgR sin 2 

1) 2) 3) mgR 4) Zero
B 2l 2 Bl
36. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic filed with velocity that makes an
angle of 45O with the magnetic field. The pitch of the helical path followed by the
particle is p. The radius of the helix is
p 2p p
a) 2 p b) c) d)
2  2
37. According to kinetic theory of gases, for a diatomic molecule
1) The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to mean velocity of the molecule
2)The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the root mean velocity of the
molecule
3) The root mean square velocity of the molecule is inversely proportional to the
temperature
4) The mean translational kinetic energy of the molecule is proportional to the
absolute temperature.
38. In a car race, car A takes a time of ‘t’ seconds less than car B at the finish and
passes the finishing point with a velocity ‘v’ m/s more than the car B. Assume
that the cars start from rest and travel with constant acceleration a1 and a2
respectively. Then ‘v’ is equal to
t t t
1)  a1  a2  2) a1a2 3) a1a2 4) t a1a2
5 2 3
39. A 2.0 kg block is dropped from a height of 40 cm onto a spring of spring constant
k = 1960 N/m. The maximum distance by which spring compressed is

7|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
 1)0.080 m 2)0.20 m 3)0.40 m 4)0.10 m
40. Force acting on a particle varies with the distance travelled by the particle
1
as F 1/3
, then power due to this force varies with x as:
x
1) x1/3 2) x1/2 3) x1/ 3 4) x 0
41. An electric dipole of moment ‘p’ is placed in an electric field of intensity ‘E’. The
dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle  with
the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be
zero when   900 , the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will
respectively be.
1) pE sin  ,  pE cos  2) pE sin  , 2 pE cos 
3) pE sin  ,2 pE cos  4) pE cos  ,  pE cos 
42. In a coil resistance 5  , the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux
through it, is shown in Fig as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux
through the coil in weber is

1) 6 2) 4 3)1 4) 2
43. Image of an object approaching a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm
25 50
along its optical axis is observed to move from cm to cm in 5 second.
3 7
What is the average speed of the object?
1) 1 cm/s 2) 5 cm/s 3) 3 cm/s 4) 4 cm/s
o
44. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 75 into a medium having refractive index
 . The reflected and the refracted rays are found to suffer equal deviations in
 3  1
opposite direction . Then  equals to sin 750  .
 2 2 
3 1 3 1 2 2 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 1 2 3 1 2

8|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
45. Half lives of two isotopes X and Y of material are known to be 2  109 years and
4  109 years respectively. If a planet was formed with equal number of these
isotopes, then the current age of planet, given that currently the material has
20% of X and 80% of Y by numbers, will be
1) 2  109 years 2) 4  109 years 3) 6  109 years 4) 8  109 years

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following solution has maximum freezing point?
1) 0.01 M NaCl 2) 0.01 M BaCl 2 3) 0.01 M glucose 4) 0.001 M Urea
47. The standard reduction potentials of Cu 2 Cu and Cu 2 Cu  are 0.337 and 0.153 V
respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu  / Cu half cell is
1) 0.184 V 2) 0.827 V 3) 0.521 V 4) 0.490 V
48. An aqueous solution of urea containing 6g per 500 ml (density 1.05 g/ml) will
have the molality
1) 0.20 m 2) 0.10 m 3) 0.193 m 4) 0.0193 m

49. A compound which gives positive iodoform test is:

1) 1 – Pentanol 2) 2 – Pentanone 3) 3 – Pentanone 4) Pentanal

50. The number of P-O-P bonds present in P4O10 and P4O6 are
1) 6, 6 2) 6, 5 3) 5, 5 4) 8, 6
N
51. 2 grams of impure KMnO 4 is added to 100 ml of Oxalic acid solution in acidic
2
medium for complete reaction. The percentage purity of KMnO 4 sample is
1) 79% 2) 92.2% 3) 98.0% 4) 84%
52. The coefficients x, y and z in the following balanced equation:
xZn  yNO3  zZn 2  NH 4 (in basic medium)are:
1) 4, 1, 4 2) 2, 2, 2 3) 4, 2, 4 4) 4, 4, 4

53. A metallic carbide on treatment with water gives a colourless gas which burns
readily in air and gives a red precipitate with CuCl2 and NH 4OH . The metal
carbide is:
1) CaC2 2) Al4C3 3) SiC 4) All
54. When an excited state of H-atom emits a photon of wave length  and returns to
the ground state ,the principal quantum number of the excited state is given by

1)
  P  1 2)  R   R  1 3)
R
4)  R   R  1
P   R  1
55. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is
1) between 0 and 1 in all cases 2) between 2 and 4 in all cases
3) 1 in case of physical absorption 4) 1 in case of chemisorption
56. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample,
ammonia evolved from 0.75g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1M H2SO4 . The
percentage of nitrogen in the soil is:
1) 37.33 2) 45.33 3) 35.33 4) 43.33

9|Page You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
57. Chloroamphenicol is an
1) antifertility drug 2) antibiotic - narrow spectrum
3) antiseptic and disinfectant 4) antibiotic-broad spectrum
3 2
58. 0
E values for the couples Cr / Cr and Mn3 / Mn2 are -0.41 and +1.51 volts
respectively. These values suggest that
1) Cr 2 acts as a reducing agent where as Mn3 acts as an oxidizing agent
2) Cr 2 is more stable than Cr 3 3) Mn3 is more stable than Mn2
4) Cr 2 acts as an oxidizing agent where as Mn3 acts as a reducing agent
59. Solid NaCl melts at a temperature of 800ºC while solids NaBr melts at 750ºC.
Which of the following is an explanation for the higher melting point of NaCl.
1) Chloride ion has less mass than a bromide ion
2) Chloride ion has greater negative charge than a bromide ion
3) Chloride ion is smaller than a bromide ion
4) Chloride ion has less number of protons than bromide ion in their nuclei.
60. Which process of purification is represent by the following equation ?
0 0
250 C 1400 C
Ti  2 I 2   TiI 4   Ti  2 I 2
impure pure

1) Cupellation 2) Polling 3) Van Arkel process 4) Zone refining

61. An aqueous solution of potash alum is acidic in nature. This is due to the
hydrolysis of ____ ions
 3 2
1) K 2) Al 3) SO4 4) All of the above
62. pH of water is 7.0 at 25ºC. If water is heated to 70ºC, the
1) pH will decrease and the sample becomes acidic.
2) pH will increase but the sample will remain neutral.
3) pH will remain constant as 7.
4) pH will decrease but the sample will remain neutral.
63. Bond dissociation energy of XY, X2 and Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the
ratio 1:1: 0.5 and Hf of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of X2
will be:
1) 800 kJ mol–1 2) 200 kJ mol–1 3) 300 kJ mol–1 4) 400 kJ mol–1
64. The order of acidity of compounds I-IV, is-

CH 2 OH CO2 H OH SO3 H

I   II   III   IV 
1) I < III < II < IV 2) IV < I < II < III
3) III < I < II < IV 4) II < IV < III < I
65. From equations 1 and 2,
1
1). CO2( g )  CO( g )  O2( g )  K1  9.1 1012 at 10000 C  ;
2
1
2). H 2O(l )  H 2( g )  O2( g )  K 2  7.1 1012 at 10000 C 
2
The equilibrium constant for the reaction CO2( g )  H 2( g )  CO( g )  H 2O(l ) at the same
temperature, is
1) 0.78 2) 2.0 3) 16.2 4) 1.28
66. For the reaction A  B, H  7.5 KJ mol and S  25 JK mol 1 . The value of
0 1 0 1

G 0 and the temperature at which the reaction reaches equilibrium are,

respectively,
10 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
 1) 0 KJ mol 1 and 400 K 2) – 2.5 KJ mol 1 and 400 K
3) 2.5 KJ mol  and 200 K 4) 0 KJ mol 1 and 300 K
67. When 2 Moles of Zn(s) is oxidized at 298 K, in Daniel cell E0
cell  1.1V  , the
standard Gibbs free energy change  G 0 in kJ mol 1  , is closed to
1) -212.3 2) -106.2 3) -424.6 4) -53.1
68. Lattice energies of the oxides of Mg,Ca,Sr,Ba are in the order
1) BaO>SrO>CaO>MgO 2) CaO>BaO>SrO>MgO
3) MgO>SrO>CaO>BaO 4) MgO>CaO>SrO>BaO

69. When MnO4 oxidizes separately (i) oxalate ion in acidic medium (ii) HCl. The
ratios of  MnO4 : C2O42  in (i) and  MnO4 : HCl  in (ii), in the respective balanced
chemical equations are respectively
1) 1:5 and 2:5 2) 2:5 and 1:8 3) 2:5 and 1:5 4) 5:2 and 1:8
70. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to
the property written against it?
1) HF  HCl  HBr  HI : increasing acid strength
2) NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3 : increasing basic strength
3) B  C  O  N : increasing 1st ionization enthalpy
4) GeO2  SnO2  PbO2 : increasing oxidizing power
71. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and
1) Phthalic acid 2) m-Benzene dicarboxylic acid
3) p-Benzene dicarboxylic acid 4) Hexandioic acid
72 The oxidative cleavage of compounds Glucose (A) and Fructose (B) with
HIO 4 leads to the formation of acids and aldehydes. The ratio of formic acid to
formaldehyde for (A) and (B) respectively are
1) 5/1, 3/2 2) 5/2, 3/1 3) 3/2, 5/2 4) 4/2, 5/1
73. S-S bond is not present in
1) H2S2O4 2) H2S2O5 3) H2S2O7 4) H2S2O3
74 Major Product in the following reaction is,

CHCl KOH
 3 

1) 2) 3) 4)
(1) O
75. Product of the following reaction : CH 3C  CCH 2CH 3  3
(2) Hydrolysis
 ..... are :
CH 3COOH  CO2
1) 2) CH3COOH  HOOCCH 2CH 3
3) CH3CHO  CH3CH2CHO 4) CH3COOH  CH3COCH3
76. How many moles of Zn2+ carry a charge of 2  10 5 C ?
1) 10 4 2) 4  10 10 3) 4  10 5 4) 1.031010

11 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
77. The pair of reagents that doesn’t yield paramagnetic species, when reacted with
each other, is
1) Na and excess of NH 3 . 2) K and excess of O 2 .
3) Cu and dilute HNO3 . 4) O 2 and 2-ethylanthraquinol
78. Mixture (X) of 0.02 moles of Co  NH3  SO 4  Br and 0.02 mole of
 5 
Co  NH3  Br  SO4 was prepared in 2 litre of solution
 5 
1 litre of mixture (X) + excess AgNO3  no of moles of ppt formed (Y )
1 litre of mixture (X) + excess BaCl2  no of moles of ppt formed ( Z )
Y and Z are
1) 0.01, 0.01 2) 0.02, 0.01 3) 0.01, 0.02 4) 0.02, 0.02
2
79. The formation of O g  starting from O (g) is endothermic by 603 kJ mol –1 . If
electron affinity of O (g) is –141 kJ mol –1 , the second electron affinity of oxygen
would be
1) 744 kJ mol –1 2) –744 kJ mol –1 3) 462 kJ mol –1 4) –462 kJ mol –1
80. In Lassaigne’s test, which of the following organic compounds would produce a
blood red colour when its sodium extract is treated with FeCl3 solution

1) 2)

3) 4)

81. Improper match of the following is

a ) NaH
(1) OH 
b ) RX
 OR …. Williamson synthesis

a ) aqueousNaOH
(2) OH 
b )CO2 ,6 7 atm OH …. Kolbe’s reaction

COOH

H2
(3) COCl  
Lindlar ' s catalyst
 CHO …. Wolf – Kishner reduction

CO HCl
(4)   CHO …. Gattermann – Koch reaction
Cu2Cl2 / CH 2Cl2

82. Consider the following first order reactions:

k2
k1
X  A  B and Y  CD
If 50% of the reaction of ‘X’ has been completed when 96% of the reaction of ‘Y’
was completed, then the ratio of their rate constants (k2/k1) is
1) 2.34 2) 0.215 3) 1.1 4) 4.64

12 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
83.
CH3

*
NBS Mg (i) CO 2
A B + C
CCl4 Et2O (ii) H
The End Prodcut ‘C’ Is
*
HOOC CH3 OHC CH3 *
HOH2C CH3 HOOC CH3

1) 2) 3) 4)
84. Dipole moment of HCl molecule is found to be 0.816D.Assuming HCl bond length
0
to be equal to 1 A , the % ionic character of HCl molecule is:
1)10% 2)17% 3)27% 4)37%
85. The ratio of average speed of an oxygen molecule to rms speed of a nitrogen
molecule at the same temperature is:
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
3  7  3  7 
1)   2)   3)   4)  
 7   3   7   3 
86. An element has successive ionization enthalpies as 940 (first), 2080, 3090, 4140,
7030, 7870, 16000 and 19500 kJ mol 1 . To which group of the periodic table does
this element belong?
1) 14 2) 15 3) 16 4) 17
87. Which are correct statements?
1) H 2O2 is less associated liquid than H 2O
2) H 2O2 is paramagnetic in nature
3) H 2O2 acts as oxidant and reductant both
4) H 2O2 reacts with K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium to give blue color solution
1)3,4 2)1,3,4 3)2,3,4 4)1,2,3
88. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 5000 C is as
2 4
follows: Al2O3  Al  O2 ;  r G  966kJ mol 1 . The potential difference needed for
3 3
electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 5000 C is at least:
1) 5.0 V 2) 4.5 V 3) 3.0 V 4) 2.5 V
89. Acetaldoxime reacts with P2O5 to give:
1) CH3CN 2) C2 H5CNO 3) C2 H5CN 4)all of these.
90. BCl3 is a planar molecule where as NCl3 is pyramidal because:
1) BCl3 has no lone pair of electrons but NCl3 has lone pair of electrons
2) B-Cl bond is more polar than N-Cl bond
3) nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
4) N-Cl bond is more covalent than B-Cl bond

13 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
 BOTANY
91. Pressure potential  P  of a flaccid cell is
(1) Zero (2) Very high
(3) Same as osmotic potential (4) Equal to water potential
92. There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of crossing over between a & b is 20, b
& c is 28 and a & c is 8. Correct sequence of genes on chromosome is
1) a, b, c 2) a, c, b 3) b, a, c 4) b, c, a
93. Lecithin is
A. Phospholipid B. Phosphorylated organic compound
C. The component of cell membrane D. Polysaccharide
1.A and B only 2. B and C only
3. A, B and C only 4.All of the above
94. Choose the correct set of Micro – nutrients
(1) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium (2) Iron, Sulphur, Copper
(3) Magnesium, Copper, Molybdenum (4) Manganese, Boron, Zinc
95. F 1 hybrid of a dihybrid cross is crossed with its dominant parental genotype and
also with its recessive parental genotype. How many types of total genotypes and
common types of genotypes are found in the resultant progeny
1) 7 & 1 2) 6 & 2 3) 6 & 1 4) 4 & 2
96. How many types of gametes will be produced from a microspore mother cell
with Bb and Ll genotype when there is 100% linkage between the characters
denoted by 'B' and 'L' genes
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6
97. Which one of the following is wrong statement ?
(1) Symbiotic N2 fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions
(2) Free living N2 fixers are all anaerobes
(3) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are nonpigmented autotrophs
(4) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also
98. Which one of the following structures determines the shape of the cell and
provides a strong structural support to prevent the bacterium from bursting?
(1) Cell membrane (2) Glycocalyx (3) Slime layer (4) Cell wall
99. Reticulate venation is the feature of dicots but some monocots also exhibit this
venation, like
(1) Calophyllum (2) Smilax (3) Eryngium (4) Corymbium
100. The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways
in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products.

Arrow numberd 4, 8 and 12 can all be :

(1) FAD  or FADH 2 (2) NADH (3) ATP (4) H 2O
101. In gymnosperms, the endosperm is formed by the :
(1) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with one polar nuclei
(3) Fusion of male gamete with the egg (4) Megaspore
14 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
102. Fungi resemble monerans on the basis of :-
(1) Structure of fruiting body (2) Mycelium
(3) Absorptive heterotrophy (4) Cellular structure
103. Heterothallism refers to :
(1) Fusion between the strains structurally, and physiologically similar
(2) Fusion between morphologically similar strain
(3) Fusion between the strains structurally similar but physiologically different
(4) Fusion between cytoplasm
104. Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which
includes all the correct ones only.
(A) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure
(B) Bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity
(C) Eubacteria have chlorophyll 'a' similar to green plants.
(D) Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.
Option :-
(1) Statements B, C and D (2) Statements A, C
(3) Statements B, D (4) Statements A, B and D
105. Match the column I with column-II:-
Diseases Canslaorganisms
(A) Citrus canker (i) Bacteria
(B) Little leaf of Brinjal (ii) Helminthosporium
(C) Brown leaf spot of rice (iii) Cephaluros
(D) Rust of tea (iv) Mycoplasma
A B C D A B C D
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
106. The figures below shows three phases of mitosis. Select the option giving correct
identification together with the correct event ?

(A) (B) (C)

(1) C – Telophase – Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.
(2) B – Anaphase – Segregation of homologous chromosomes.
(3) A – Prophase – Chromosomes get fully decondensed.
(4) C – Metaphase – Condensation of chromatin to form chromosome.
107. At which stage of meiosis, do these events occur ?
Bivalents Formation of Terminalisation
more synaptonemal of chiasmata
Clearly complex
visible
(1) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene
(2) Zygotene Pachytene Diakinesis
(3) Pachytene Zygotene Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene Diplotene Diakinesis

15 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
108. Given diagram represents T.S. of woody dicot stem passing through lenticel.
Which of the following statement is true about labellel parts A, B & D.

(1) They are collenchymatous (2) They are sclerenchymatous

(3) They are parenchymatous (4) They are chlorenchymatous
109. A T.S. of young monocot root can be distinguished from that of a young dicot
stem by presence of :–
(1) Intra fascicular cambium
(2) Inter fascicular cambium
(3) Radial arrangement of xylem and phloem
(4) Collateral arrangement of xylem and phloem
110. Axillary bud is derived from :-
(1) Root apical meristem (2) Shoot apical meristem
(3) Lateral merisetem (4) Leaf primordium
111. Identify the family from the below given floral diagram and which technical term
used for androecium :-

(1) Solanaceae – Monoadelphous (2) Papilionoideae - Diadelphous

(3) Papilionoideae – Didynamous (4) Cruciferae – Tetradynamous
112. Which one is the correct average composition of cell in respect of % of total
cellular mass ?
Water Protein Carbohydrates Lipid Nucleic Ions
acid
(1) 70-90 10-15 3 2 5-7 1
(2) 70-90 3 10-15 2 5-7 1
(3) 70-90 10-15 2 2 1 5-7
(4) 70-90 3 10-15 2 5-7 1
113. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocysts for nitrogen fixation
(2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water bodies
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in nature
(4) The cell wall of Mycoplasma are made up of chitin

16 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
114. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Thylakoids (i) The inner compartment of mitochondria
b. Cristae (ii) In foldings in mitochondria
c. Cisternae (iii) Disc-shaped sacs in golgi apparatus
d. Matrix (iv) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
115. In protein synthesis, which of the following are required for the synthesis of
charged tRNA?
(1) Amino acid, GTP, initiation codon, ribosome
(2) Amino acid, ATP, Mg  , enzyme, tRNA
(3) Amino acid, ATP, K  , enzyme, mRNA
(4) Aminoacyl tRNA, ribosome, initiation codon, release factor
116. Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of three steps
(ABC) of Respiration ?
A B C
Glycolysis TCA-cycle ETS
(1) Matrix Cytosol Cristae
(2) Pyruvate 2, CO2 34 ATP
(3) PS-I 3 NADH 2 Matrix
2 FADH 2
(4) 10step 12 ATP With out O 2
117. A bacterium divides every 20 minutes. If a cultures containing 10 6 cells per ml is
grown for 120 minutes, what will be the cell concentration per ml after 120
minutes?
(1) 32 × 10 6 cells (2) 64 × 10 6 cells
(3) 16 × 10 6 cells (4) 120 × 10 6 cells
118. Which of the following feature is correct for bacteria?
(1) Presence of intervening sequences in DNA
(2) DNA does not show coiling
(3) Linear ss-DNA representing single chromosome
(4) DNA can be chromosomal as well as extrachromosomal
119. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is :-
(1) Oak  Lantana  Volvox  Hydrilla  Pistia  Scirpus
(2) Oak  Lantana  Scirpus  Pistia  Hydrilla  Volvox
(3) Volvox  Hydrilla  Pistia  Scirpus  Lantana  Oak
(4) Pistia  Volvox  Scirpus  Hydrilla  Oak  Lantana

17 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
120.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) A–Rooted submerged, B–forest, C–Crustose,D–Typha
(2) A–Herb, B–forest, C–Rooted submerged,D–Herb
(3) A–Rooted submerged, B–forest, C–Crustose,D–Herb
(4) A–Rooted submerged, B–moss, C–Crustose,D–Shrub
121. In an experiment, individual homozygous for 'ab' gene, were crossed with wild
type. The F1 hybrid was test crossed and progenies produced in following ratio :-
++ / ab  896
ab / ab  880
+ a / ab  108
+ b/ab  116
Calculate the distance between a and b gene
(1) 22.4 cM (2) 44 cM (3) 11.2 cM (4) 45 cM
122. Given below is a DNA segment showing components of lac operon :-

In this lac operon :

(1) z, y, a structural genes are transcribed in presence of lactose
(2) RNA polymerase binds to operator site
(3) Glucose induce the expression of structural genes
(4) Binding of RNA polymerase to promoter is inhibited by allolactose
123. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) During DNA-replication, deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate serve dual purposes
(2) DNA-dependent-DNA polymerase catalyse the polymerisation only in one
direction i.e.5'-3'
(3) A failure, in cell division after DNA replication results into polyploidy
(4) In DNA of E.Coli only 4.6 × 10 6 bp are present
124. In transcription process a strand which does not code for anything is known as :-
(1) Coding strand (2) Template strand
(3) Antisense strand (4) Non coding strand

18 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
125. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR322.
Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s) :-

(1) Ori-original restriction enzyme (2) Rop-reduced osmotic pressure

(3) Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers (4) amp R , tet R – antibiotic resistance genes
126. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA ?
(1) Plasmid (2) Cosmid
(3) Bacterial artificial chromosome (4) Yeast artificial chromosome
127. Read the following statements :-
(A) Cyclosporin A is used as a clot buster
(B) Whisky, brandy & rum are produced by distillation of fermented broth
(C) NPV are the major baculoviruses used as biological control agents
(D) The biogas production technology in India in developed by ICAR
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(1) A & B (2) B & C (3) C & D (4) A & D
128. Match the following
Column I Column II
(a) Cuscuta (i) Hygroscopic root
(b) Rhizophora (ii) Stilt root
(c) Vanda (iii) Haustorial root
(d) Pandanus (iv) Respiratory root
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
129. The term xenia denotes the effect of pollen on the:-
(1) Seed coat (2) Endosperm (3) Flower (4) Root
130. Leafless stem of onion which produces cluster of terminal flowers is called as
(1) Peduncle (2) Floral axis (3) Scape (4) Rachis
131. List of the structures given below are related to life cycle of a typical angiosperm
:-
Endosperm, Perisperm, Nucellus, Endothecium, Carpel, Stamen, Embryo,
Aleurone layer, Egg apparatus of embryosac.
Cells of how many structures are diploid ?
(1) Six (2) Seven (3) Five (4) Three
132. Synthesis of auxin in plants require:-
(1) Zinc (2) Manganese (3) Boron (4) Copper

19 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
133. What will be the direction of flow of water in the given pair of cells below :-

(1) A to B (2) B to A (3) Informations incomplete (4) Any of direction

134. Which of the following organelles lack membrane?
A. Centriole B. Flagella
C. Ribosome D. Microbodies
E. Vacuoles F. Lysosomes
(1) A & B (2) D & E (3) A & C (4) D & F
135. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces,
Saccharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolfia
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three
ZOOLOGY
136. Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it
1) increases vigour in every generations 2) Produces a cross breed
3) increase heterozygosity 4) increases homozygosity
137. DNA finger printing involves identifying difference in some specific region in
DNA sequence called as:
1)SNP’s 2)Repetitive DNA 3)EST’s 4)Sequence annotation
138. Allelic sequence variation has been described as DNA polymorphism, if one
variant allele at a locus in human population with
1)A frequency greater than 0.01 2) A frequency greater than 0.1
3) A frequency equals to 0.1 4) A frequency greater than 10
139. Technique involved in DNA finger printing is
1)Northern Blotting 2)Southern Blotting 3)Western Blotting 4)Eastern Blotting
140. Protooncogenes when mutated with the carcinogen will be transformed into
1)Proto oncogenes 2)Cellular oncogenes
3)Oncogenic transformation cells 4)V-onc genes
141. Which oof the following are biological response modifiers.
1)  -interferons 2)  -interferons 3)  -interferons 4)Lymphokines
142. Use of drugs like antihistamines, adrenalin & steroids
1)Increase the symptoms of allergy
2)Quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy
3)Used in treatment of emphysaema
4)Used in treatment of cardiovascular disease
143. Embryological support for evolution of ontogeny repeats phylogeny was
proposed by
1) Ernst Haeckel 2) Raymod Lindmann 3) Charles Darwin 4) Robert koch
144. Oxytocin is synthesized in
1)Adenohypophysis 2)Neurohypophysis
3)Hypothalamas 4)Epiphysis
145. A decrease in blood pressure /volume will not cause the release of:
1)Atrial natriuretic factor 2)Aldosterone 3)ADH 4)Renin
20 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
146.

Diagram showing the different receptors present on cell X and Y

Which group of hormone intract with ‘y’
1)Testosterone , estrogen 2)Thyroxine , FSH
3)FSH and Estrogen 4)FSH and LH
147. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. structure/cell and its hormone concerned.
1)  -cells of pancreas-insulin
2)Zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex-cortisol
3)Follicular cells of thyroid gland-thyrocalcitionin
4) Posterior pituitary stores vasopressin
148. Oval depression or fossa is observed over
1) interatrial septum 2) interventricular septum
3) right auriculoventricular septum 4) left auriculoventricular septum
149. Which statement is correct for muscle contraction ?
1) Length of H-zone decreases 2) Length of A-band remains constant
3) Length of I-band increases 4) Both (1) and (2)
150. During depolarization of the neuronal membrane
1) Na  ions rapidly move to the inside of the cell
2) Na  ions rapidly move to the outside of the cell
3) K  ions rapidly move to the outside of the cell
4) Na  and K  ions rapidly move to the outside of the cell
151. Go through the following characterization of sympathetic and parasympathetic
Nervous system.
I. Dilates pupil
II  Heart rate,  BP(Vasoconstriction)  Glycogenolysis, dilates bronchi
III. Constrict pupil
IV. Induces ejaculation.
V.  Gastric secretion,  salivary secretion,  peristalsis
VI. Erection and urination.
1)Sympathetic-III,V,VI;Parasympathetic-I,II,IV;
2) Sympathetic-I,II,IV;Parasympathetic-III,V,VI
3) Sympathetic-II,IV,VI;Parasympathetic-I,III,V
4) Sympathetic-I,III,V;Parasympathetic-II,IV,VI
152. Interferons are :
1) Antibacterial protein 2)Anti-viral protein
3)Complex protein 4)Anti-clotting proteins
153. Vertebrate voluntary muscle store energy in the form of
1) magnesium phosphate 2) Creatine phosphate
3) Calcium phosphate 4) Arginine phosphate
154. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas
exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls:
1)Asthma 2)Pleurisy 3)Emphysema 4)Pneumonia
21 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
155. Each of the following statements concerning the gastric glands is true except
1)Endocrine cells secrete gastrin 2) Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid
3) Argentaffin cells secrete mucous 4) Chief cells secrete pepsinogen
156. Mark the right statement among the following:
1)Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme
2)Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
3)Enterokinase is secreted by pancrease
4)Bile contain trypsin
157. The Endometrium is maintained during the embryonic development of foetus by
which of the following hormone
1)Relaxin 2)Oxytocin 3)Progesterone 4)ACTH
158. Write one of the following correctly matched sexually transmitted Disease (STD)
with its pathagon?
1)AIDS-----Bacillus anthracis 2)Syphillis----Treponema pallidum
3)Urethritis----Entamoeba 4)Gonorrhoea-----Leishmania donovani
159. The human beings having XXY or XXXY chromosomes develop :
1)Klinefelter’s syndrome 2)Turner’s syndrome
3)Down syndrome 4)None of the above
160. In case of haemophilia, if the carrier daughter marries a normal man , then
among their daughter
1)25% are carrier only 2)50% carrier and 50% hemophilic
3)50% are carrier only 4)75% carrier and 25% hemophilic
161. Which body of the Government of India regulations GM research and safty of
introducing GM organisms for public service?
1)Indian Council of Agricultural Research
2)Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
3)Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
4)Bio-safety Committee.
162. the number of unequal cytoplasmic divisions occurring during oogenesis are
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
163. The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of:
1)AIDS 2)Cancer 3)Cystic fibrosis 4)SCID
164. The condition in which kidneys fail to conserve water leading to water loss and
dehydration due to impaired ADH synthesis or release is
1) Graves ‘disease 2) Addisson disease
3) Diabetes insipidus 4) Cretinism
165. Which correctly pairs an ECG phase with the cardiac event responsible?
1) P-wave-Depolarisation of the ventricles
2) P-wave-Depolarisation of the AV node
3) QRS wave-Depolarisation of the ventricles
4) T-wave – depolarisation of the atria
166. Read the following statements:
S1)Tropics harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
S2)Colombia located near the equator has nearly 1400 species of birds.
S3)India has less than 105 species of birds.
1) S1 and S2 are incorrect 2) S2 and S3 are incorrect
3) S1 and S3 are incorrect 4) Only S3 is incorrect

22 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
167. Findout the incorrectly matched set in the following
1) David Tilman’s - Long term ecosystem outdoor plots
2) Paul Ehrlich- Rivet popper hypothesis
3) Paul Ehrlich– Long term ecosystem outdoor plots
4) Connells elegant field experiments
168. Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for products of economic
importance is called
1) Biofortification 2) Biomagnification
3) Bioinformatics 4) Bioprospecting
169. Which of the following is referred as “Evil Quartet’’ with reference to loss of
biodiversity?
1) Species richness, extinctions, deforestation, erosion
2) Habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, Alien species invasion, co-
extinction
3) Over exploitation grazing, decomposition, extinction
4) Habitat destruction, co-extinction, deforestation, species richness
170. Electrostatic precipitator has electrode wires that are maintained at several
thousand volts, which
1) Produce a scrubber to remove SO2 gas
2) Attract the harmless gases
3) Produce a corona that releases electrons
4) release a net of positive charge.
171. If both ovaries are removed at the fifth month of pregnancy
1)Embryo will develop normally till birth 2) Abortion will occur after sometime
3) Development of embryo becomes abnormal 4) none of these
172. The El Nino effect is related to
1) Unusual climatic changes due to rise in temperature
2) Formation of an area of thin ozone, called ozone hole
3) Accidental leakage of radio-active substance
4) Consequences of Thermal pollution
173. Read the following statements :
(A) Heroin, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
(B) Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
(C) Acetylcholine is produced by SNS path ways
(D) Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
Mark the option which includes both correct statements :
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) C and D (4) A and D
174. Arrange the periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order n a geological time
scale:
1) Cambrian  Ordovician  Silurian  Devonian  Carboniferous  Permian
2) Cambrian  Devonian  Ordovician  Silurian  Carboniferous  Permian
3) Cambrian  Ordovician  Devonian  Silurian  Carboniferous  Permian
4) Silurian  Devonian  Cambrian  Ordovician  Permian  Carboniferous
175. Which of the following way is suggested to overcome inbreeding depression
1) Selected animals should be mated with related superior animals of same breed
2) Selected animals should be mated with unrelated superior animals of different breed
3) Selected animals should be mated with related superior animals of different breed
4) Selected animals should be mated with unrelated superior animals of same breed

23 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.
176. In earthworm, testis are present in segment-
1)10&11 2)11&12 3)12&13 4)13&14
177. In addition to malpighian tubules,which of the following also helps in excretion
in cockroach-
1)Nephrocytes 2)Uricose glands 3)Fat body 4)All
178. Fructose & some amino acids are absorbed in the small intestine by
1)Active transport 2)Diffusion 3)Facilitated transport 4)chylomicrons
179. In which one of the following the genus name, its two character and its phylum
are not correctly matched ,whereas the remaining three are correct?
Genus name Two charcters Phylum
1)Pila i)Body Segmented; ii)Mouth with Mollusca
Radula
2)Asterias i)Spiny Skinned;Water vascular system Echinodermata
3)Sycon i)Pore bearing;ii)Canal system Porifera
4)Periplaneta i)Jointed appendages;ii)Chitinous Arthropoda
exoskeleton
180. Functional residual capacity is equals to
1)ERV+RV 2)IRV+ERV 3)RV+TV 4)IRV+RV

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24 | P a g e You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them.