1.

Study of remains of animals and plants which were living in past and have become incorporated
in earth's crust is called:

A. Palaeontology
B. Zoogeography
C. Animal biology
D. Fossils

2. During winter, a metabolic depression and inactivity usually occurs, known as:

A. Hibernation
B. Dormancy
C. Rest
D. Rigor mortis

3. If members of different species compete for resources, the phenomenon is called as:

A. Interspecific Competition
B. Competition
C. Autotrophs
D. Insectivorous

4. Identical species which are residing in same geographical area are known as:

A. Species
B. Population
C. Group
D. Community

5. All non-living content in environment is called:

A. Biotic factor
B. Abiotic factors
C. Tolerance range
D. Optimum range

6. Animal that deposits eggs and developmental stages on other animals, termed as:

A. Parasitoids
B. Parasites
C. Mutualism
D. Commensalism

7. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life?

A. O2
B. H2
C. CH4
D. NH3

8. Which of the following is a pair of homologous organs?

A. pectroral fin of rohu and fore limb of horse

B. wings of grasshopper and wings of crow
C. lungs of rabbit and gills of rohu
D. wings of bat and wings of butterfly

9. In which era reptiles were dominant?

A. coenozoic era
B. mesozoic era
C. archaeozoic era
D. paleozoic era

10. Homo sapiens (modern man) belong to which period?

A. Quaternary

B. Cretaceous

C. Silurian

D. Cambrian

11. Which evidence of evolution is related to Darwin's finches?

A. evidence from paleonotology

B. evidence from embryology
C. evidence from comparative anatomy
D. evidence from biogeographical distribution

12. Which of the following is correct order of the evolutionary history of man?

A. Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man

B. Peking man, Neanderthal man, Heidelberg man, Cromagnon man
C. Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon man
D. Peking man, Heidelberg man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal man

13.The earth orginated …………..

A) 4.6 billion years ago
B) 8.5 billion years ago
C) 2.6 billion years ago
D) 1.2 billion years ago

14. Identify the incorrect statement.

A. The first living cell orginated 3.8 billion years ago.

B. The first formed cells were photoautotrophs.

C. The first formed photosynthetic organisms were cyanobacteria.
D. The first formed organisms were unicellular prokaryotes.

15. The scientifically suggested reason for the extinction of dinosaurs is ….

A. volcanic eruption
B. massive storm
C. massive asteroid hit
D. massive flood

16. The atmosphere of primitive earth was ……

A. CO2 rich
B. O2 rich
C. both a and b
D. CO2 rich and free oxygen was absent

17. Which of the following is the widely accepted theory regarding origin of life on earth?

A. Cosmozoic theory
B. Theory of spontaneous generation
C. Theory of Chemical evolution
D. Theory of special creation

18. Evolution may be defines as ………

A. continuous genetic variation

B. discontinuous genetic variation
C. inheritance of acquired characters
D. all of these

19. The most important requirement for evolution is ………..

A. Mutation
B. Natural selection
C. Variations
D. Continuity of germplasm

20. The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced
in …………………

A. loss of body hair

B. walking upright

C. shortening of the jaws

D. remarkable increase in the brain size

21. Which of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man?

A. Homo habilis
B. Ramapithecus punjabicus
C. Austalopithecus
D. Homo neanderthalensis

22. Hominids originated during

A. Miocene
B. Pliocene
C. Oligocene
D. Palaecocene

23. The earliest fossil of prehistoric man is …………. discovered in 1932 in fossil deposits in
the Siwālik hills of northern India, as per the theory of American anthropologist Elwyn
Simons of Yale University .
A. Dryopithecus
B. Ramapithecus
 C. Sivapithecus
D. Australopithecus

24. The extinct representative of the present day living man is ………

A. Cro magnon man

B. Erect man

C. Java man

D. Neanderthal man

25. First evidence of ceremonial burial of dead body and believed in religious have been found with
fossil of ……..
A.Neanderthal
B.Cro magnon
C.Homo erectus
D.Homo habilis

26. The tailess primate is ……..

A. lemur
B. spider monkey
C. African baboon
D. Loris

27. The prehistoric man which lived on earth during pleistocene period ………
A. Cro magnon
B. Atlantic man
C. Neanderthal man
D. Austrlopithecus

28. The modern man differs from the apes in

A. absence of tail
B. sparse body hair
 C. broaden chest due to flattening of sternum
D. arms shorter than legs

29. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
A. Ramapithecus- Australopitheus- Homo habilis- Homo erectus
B. Ramapithecus- Homo habilis- Australopitheus- Homo erectus
C. Pithecanthropus pekinensis- Dryopithecus- Homohabilis- Homo erectus
D. Australopitheus- Homo erectus- Ramapithecus-Homo habilis

30. In human evolution, Java man and Peking man belong to ………..

A. Homo erectus
B. Homo habilis
C. Homo ergaster
D. Homo neanderthalensis

31. A species is produced by loss or disappearance of a few characters found in parents it is

termed as............
A) Progressive species
B) Retrogressive species
C) Successive species
D) Digressive species

32. The example of recapitulation theory is .............

A) Embryonic membranes of reptiles
B) Tadpole larva of frog
C) Placenta of mammals
D) Canine teeth of dog

33. Which one of the following was the contribution of de Vries ..........
A) Theory of natural selection
B) Law of segregation
C) Theory of mutation
D) Law of dominance
34. What is evolution?
A) Development of DNA from nucleotides
B) Development of organism through time
C) Development of a cell from chemicals
D) None of these

35. Evolutionary convergence is characterized by..................

A) Development of characteristics by random mating
B) Replacement of common characteristics in different group
C) Development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups
D) Development of a common set of characteristics in group of different ancestry

36. The existence of marsupials in Australia and New Zealand prove ...........
A) Genetic drift
B) Geological period
C) Continental drift
D) Both (b) and (c)

37. The life begins above which level?

A) Molecule
B) Amino acid
C) Mixture
D) Compound

38. Goldschmidt has classified evolution into micro, macro, and mega evolution. Which one of
the following is referred to as micro-evolution?
A) Evolution at population level
B) Evolution at sub species level
C) Evolution at species and genus level
D) Evolution at family level
39. Finding of Urey & Miller's experiment on origin of life has provided evidence for ...........

A) Theory of special creation

B) Theory of organic evolution

C) Theory of biogenesis

D) Big bang theory

40. If less sunlight falls on the pond’s surface, ...........

A) Size of fishes become larger

B) The size of fish population become smaller

C) The size of fish population is no way connected with amount of light falling on a pond

D) Mutation will take place in fishes

41. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, the ecosystem functioning
will be adversely affected because ............
A) Mineral movement will be blocked
B) Herbivores will not receive solar energy
C) Energy flow will be blocked
D) Rate of decomposition of other components will be very high

42. An ecosystem may be defined as ...........

A) A localised association of several plants and animals
B) Different communities of plants, animals and microbes together with their physico-chemical
environments
C) Different communities of plants and microbes plus their physicochemical environments
D) None of these
43. Mr. X is eating fried chicken. For this food intake, in a food chain, he should be considered
as occupying .........
A) First trophic level
B) Second trophic level
C) Third trophic level
D) Fourth trophic level

44. The number of individuals in each trophic level depends upon ...........
A) The number of individuals at the next lower trophic level
B) The number of individuals at the next higher trophic level
C) The number of food chains present
D) The amount of water available

45. The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited to 4 or 5 because . ..........................
as per the 10% law.
A) The amount of food produced by producer is limited
B) Consumer's demand is high
C) 90% of the food is lost as heat at each transfer between trophic levels
D) Activity of decomposer is poor

46. In the same geographical region, if new species evolve from a single ancestral species than
speciation, it is known as …………..

A. Sympatric speciation
B. Allopatric speciation
C. Parapatric speciation
D. Speciation

47. Which one below is NOT a reproductive isolating mechanism?

A. individual isolation

B. ecological isolation

C. behavioral isolation
 D. temporal isolation

48. The zygotes of all metazoans are single celled and quite comparable with the bodies of simple
protozoans. This fact indicates that ……

Origin of metazoans has been from

A. Metazoans formed protozoans B.
protozoan ancestors

Both protozoa and metazoa are not Protozoans after degeneration formed
C. D.
related to each other metazonas

49. Age of fossils is calculated by calculating the age of rock with the help of ……….

A. Chemical analysis
B. Chromatography
C. Carbon dating
D. All of the above

50. The reproductive isolating factor that occurs when an egg and sperm are incompatible is
refered to as ………

A. behavioral isolation

B. ecological isolation

C. gametic isolation

D. temporal isolation

51. Periods between origin of gaseous cloud and the earth’s crust is called:
A. Proterozoic era
B. Paleozoic era
C. Mesozoic era
D. Azoic era

52. Homology and Analogy refer to:

 A. Study of organs similar in origin B. Study of organs similar in function

Studies of organs similar in origin and

C. D. None of these
similar in function respectively

53. Petrified fossils include:

Hard structure like teeth, shells and

A. Frozen bodies of animal B.
bones

C. Prints of leaves, feathers, skin etc D. None of these

54. Which of the following may be considered a fossil:

A. Coprolites B. Petrified

C. Casts, moulds, prints etc. D. All of these

55. The camel, horse, monkey, whale etc. originated during:

A. Eocene Epoch B. Oligocene epoch

C. Miocene epoch D. Pliocene epoch

56. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between:

A. Amphibians and reptiles B. Reptiles and birds

C. Birds and mammals D. Amphibians and birds

57. Wings of insects and bat are example of:

A. Homologous organs B. Analogous organs

C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these

58. Vestigial organs are the:

Organs fully developed at present but

A. Primordial organs B.
not developed earlier

Organs fully developed once but now

C. D. Organs marked only in embryonic stage
reduced due to disuse
59.Scientific names of Java man and modern man respectively are:

Home erectus erectus and homo sapiens Homo spiens neanderthalensis and
A. B.
sapiens Homo sapiens futuris

Homo sapiens heiderbergensis and Homo erectus pekinensis and Home

C. D.
Homo sapiens fossilis erectus mauritancus

60.Which is true for Homo sapiens sapiens?

A. Cranial capacity 1450cc B. Protruded mouth

C. Carnivorous diet D. None of these

61.Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

A.Caucasian races - Aryans

B. Caucasian races- Eskimos

C. Mongolian races- Tibetian
D. Negroid races- African

62. Which of the following correctly shows the Hardy-Weinberg Equation?

A. None of the below

B. p^2 + q = 1

C. p + 2pq + q = 1

D. p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

63. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by

a) P2
b) 2pq
c) pq
d) q2

64. The correct order in Era is

a) Palaeozoic---- Archaeozoic --- Coenozoic
b) Archaeozoic ---Palaeozoic------ Proterozoic
c) Palaeozoic--- Mesozoic ----- Coenozoic
d) Mesozoic ---- Archaeozoic---- Proterozoic

65. The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is .........
a) loss of body hair
b) walking upright
c) shortening of jaws
d) remarkable increase in the brain size.

66. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar
phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called .............
a) Natural selection
b) Convergent evolution
c) Non-random evolution
d) Adaptive radiation Human health and diseases

67. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in .......
a) Seagull
b) Crab
c) Algal Cell
d) Phytoplankton

68. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for ..........
a) Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
b) Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
c) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd on a commercial scales
d) Working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen

69. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in ..............

a) Drying of the lake due to algal bloom
b) Increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients
c) Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
d) Increases population of aquatic organisms due to excessive minerals

70. Rachel Carson’s famous book ‘Silent Spring’ is related to .........

a) Pesticide pollution
b) Noise Pollution
c) Population explosion
d) Ecosystem management

71. Which of the following is not one of the primary health risks associated with greater UV
radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
a) Increased skin cancer
b) Reduced immune system
c) Damage to eyes
d) Increased liver cancer
72. Increase in the concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as .........
a) Biodeterioration
b) Biotransformation
c) Biogeochemical cycling
d) Biomagnifications

73. Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms is correct?
a)UNEP : United Nations Environmental Policy
b)EPA : Environmental Pollution Agency
c)IUCN : International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
d)IPCC : International Penal for climate Change

74. In an area where DDT had been used extensively the population of birds declined
significantly because........
a) Birds stopped laying eggs
b) Earthworms in the area got eradicated.
c) Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds.
d) Many of the birds eggs, laid, did not hatch.

75. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?

a) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas.

b) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals.
c) Greenhouse effect is natural phenomenon
d) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies

76. Consider the following four conditions (1-4) and select the correct pair of them as
adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions:
1) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature.
2) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
3) Bask in sun when temperature is low
4) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis.

a) (1) and (3)

b) (2) and (4)
c) (1) and (2)
d) (3) and (4)

77. A biologist studies the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was
250, average mortality is 240, immigration is 20 and emigration to be 30. The net increase in
population is .................
a) 10
b) 15
c) 05
d) Zero
78. An association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having
functional interaction is ...........
a) Biotic community
b) Ecosystem
c) Population
d) Ecological niche

79. Select the correct statement about biodiversity .

a) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
b) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism
c) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fashion pursued by the developed countries.
d) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as
well as numerous rare animals.

80. Sacred groves are specially useful in..........

a) Preventing soil erosion
b) Year-round flow of water in rivers
c) Conserving rare and threatened species
d) Generating environmental awareness

81. In which of the following both pairs have correct combination?

a) In situ conservation: National Park
Ex situ conservation: Botanical Garden
b) In situ conservation: Cryopreservation
Ex situ conservation: Wildlife Sanctuary
c) In situ conservation: Seed Bank
Ex situ conservation: National park
d) In situ conservation: Tissue culture
Ex situ conservation: Sacred groves

82. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be
referred to as ..........
a) In situ conservation of biodiversity
b) Advanced ex situ conservation of biodiversity
c) In situ conservation by sacred groves
d) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity

83. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as ....
a) Alien
b) Endemic
c) Rare
d) Keystone

84. Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangal?
a) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh
b) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh
c) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
d) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur

85. There are mainly three types of natural selection, of which one is Stabilising Selection . It is
also called as ...............
A. Centipetal selection
B. Centrifugal selection
C. Directional selection
D. Disruptive selection

86. Which of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesised in Miller’s Experiment?
a) Alanine
b) Glycine
c) Asparatic acid
d) Glutamic acid

87. The first life on earth originated ............

a) in air
b) on land
c) in water
d) on mountain

88. Who published the book “Origin of species by Natural Selection” in 1859?
a) Charles Darwin
b) Lamarck
c) Weismann
d) Hugo de Vries

89. The phenomenon of “ Industrial Melanism” demonstrates ............

a) Natural selection
b) induced mutation
c) reproductive isolation
d) geographical isolation

90. Darwin’s finches are an excellent example of ............

a) connecting links
b) seasonal migration
c) adaptive radiation
d) parasitism

91. Who proposed the Germplasm theory?

a) Darwin
b) August Weismann
c) Lamarck
d) Alfred Wallace
92. Fossils are generally found in ...........
a) igneous rocks
b) metamorphic rocks
c) volcanic rocks
d) sedimentary rocks

93. Evolutionary history of an organism is called ............

a) ancestry
b) ontogeny
c) phylogeny
d) paleontology

94. The golden age of reptiles was ...........

a) Mesozoic era
b) Cenozoic era
c) Paleozoic era
d) Proterozoic era

95. Which period was called “Age of fishes”?

a) Permian
b) Triassic
c) Devonian
d) Ordovician

96. Modern man belongs to which period?

a) Quaternary
b) Cretaceous
c) Silurian
d) Cambrian

97. The Neanderthal man had the brain capacity of .............

a) 650 – 800cc
b) 1200cc
c) 900cc
d) 1400cc

98. Choose the correct answer after reading the following facts.

Assertion: The Environmental conditions of the tropics are favourable for speciation and
diversity of organisms.
Reason: The climate seasons, temperature, humidity and photoperiod are more or less stable
and congenial.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion correctly.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
 c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

99. Which of the following forests is known as the lungs of the planet earth?
a) Tundra forest
b) Rain forest of north east India
c) Taiga forest
d) Amazon rain forest

100. Which one of the following are at high risk extinction due to habitat destruction?
a) Mammals
b) Birds
c) Amphibians
d) Echinoderms

101. Which of the following is considered as hotspots of biodiversity in India?

a) Western ghats
b) Indo-gangetic plain
c) Eastern Himalayas
d) A and C

102. The organization which published the red list of species is ............
a) WWF
b) IUCN
c) ZSI
d) UNEP

103. Who introduced the term biodiversity?

a) Edward Wilson
b) Walter Rosen
c) Norman Myers
d) Alice Norman

104.Right to Clean Water is a fundamental right, under the Indian Constitution ...........
a) Article 12
b) Article 21
c) Article 31
d) Article 41

105. With which of the following, the Agenda 21’ of Rio Summit, 1992 is related to?
a) Sustainable development
b) Combating the consequences of population
c) Mitigation norms of Green House Gases (GHGs) emission.
d) Technology transfer mechanism to developing countries for ‘clean-energy’ production.

106. Which among the following awards instituted by the Government of India for individuals
or communities from rural areas that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in
protecting Wildlife?
a) Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar
b) Medini Puruskar Yojana
c) Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award
d) Pitambar Pant National Award

107. The ‘thickness’ of Stratospheric Ozone layer is measured in/on ......

a) Sieverts units
b) Dobson units
c) Melson units
d)Beaufort Scale

108. The Ozone Day is observed every year on September 16 as on this day in 1987 the
_________was signed for launching efforts to arrest the depletion of the fragile ozone layer in
the stratosphere that prevents the harmful ultra-violet rays of the sun from reaching the earth.
Fill the correct word in blank.
a) Montreal Protocol
b) Geneva Protocol
c) Kyoto Protocol
d)Nagoya Protocol

109. As per 2017 statistics, the highest per capita emitter of Carbon dioxide in the world is .....
a) USA
b) China
c) Qatar
d) Saudi Arabi

110. The method of nuclear waste management that prevents reaction or degradation of
nuclear waste for extended periods of time and encased in dry cement caskets is...........
a) Vitrification
b) Geological Repositories
c) Spent Fuel Pools
d) None of the above

111. The grizzled squirrel and lion tailed macaque are endemic to ............
a)North east India
b)Deccan plateau
c)Western Ghats
d)Indo gangetic plains

112. The ................... is the biogeographical ‘Gateway’ for much of India’s fauna and flora and
also biodiversity hotspot, which includes the Indian rhinoceros, leopard and golden langur.
a) North east
b)Himalayas
c)Andaman & Nicobar
d)Coastal regions
113. Identify the correctly matched geographical region with the fauna.
a)Eastern Himalayas- Red panda
b)Deccan- Chiru
c)Western Ghats- Nilgiri Tahr
d) Both a and c

114. Identify the incorrect sentence regarding Instinctive and Learned Behaviour of Animals.
A) Instinctive learning forms a sort of species memory and is passed generation after
generation through the genes.

B) Sensitization is increased responsiveness to a repeated stimulus and is opposite of

habituation.

C) Learned behaviour is linked to the development of the animal’s nervous and muscular
systems.

D) Filial imprinting involves activities that are learned by the young ones from their parents in
early stages of life.

115. White tailed deer flashing a visual alarm call to warn others of potential danger, risking its
own life to save the group is an example of …………
A)Aggression
B)Altruism
C)Agnostic behavior
D)Alpha behaviour

116. Wolf packs, for example, are known for their clear ………… relationships. When two group
members meet, the dominant animal adopts an upright stance, with raised ears and tail, while
the subordinate flattens its body to the ground with the ears against the head and the tail
lowered, a submissive posture that serves to protect it from attack.
A) Hierarchical
B) Agnostic
C)Altruistic
D) None of the above

117. The male species of Bowerbird builds a "bower" (nest) of collected objects. This is an
example of ………….. behavior.
A) Aggressive
B) Courtship
C) Territorial
D) Kin selection

118. Identify the incorrect explanation.

A) Polyethism- castes are specialized to carry out specialized duties in the animal colony
B) Prosimians - mostly nocturnal and highly arboreal primates
 C) Stridulatory organs- emit strong sign stimuli of some insects, such as cicadas and crickets
during breeding season
D) Copulin- the sex pheromone secreted by the male during breeding

11119.Tropholaxis is a phenomenon in which food is offered by one individual to the other which

is not its own offspring. This is commonly seen in ……….

A) Mosquitoes
B) Honeybees
C) Housefly
D) Cockroaches

120. Organisms often exhibit rhythmic behaviour in association with daily alterations of
................... This is termed as Circadian Rhythm.
A) Heat and Cold
B) Light and Darkness
C) Both A & B
D) Neither A nor B
 ANSWER KEY:

1.A 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.A 7.A 8.A 9.B 10.A

11.D 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.C 16.D 17.C 18.A 19.C 20.D

21.C 22.A 23. 24.A 25.A 26.D 27.C 28.D 29.A 30.A

31.B 32.B 33.C 34.B 35.D 36.D 37.B 38.B 39.B 40.B

41.A 42.B 43.C 44.A 45.C 46.A 47.A 48.B 49.C 50.C

51.D 52.C 53.B 54.D 55.A 56.B 57.B 58.C 59.A 60.A

61.B 62.D 63.B 64.C 65.D 66.B 67.A 68.A 69.C 70.A

71.D 72.D 73.C 74.D 75.B 76.A 77.D 78.A 79.B 80.A

81.A 82.B 83.B 84.C 85.A 86.D 87.C 88.A 89.A 90.C

91.B 92.D 93.C 94.A 95.C 96.A 97.D 98.A 99.D 100.C

101.D 102.B 103.B 104.B 105.B 106.C 107.B 108.A 109.B 110.A

111.C 112.A 113.D 114.C 115.B 116.A 117.B 118.D 119.B 120.B