COLLES, CHRISTINE

Review questions: c. 5 years

d. 10 yrs
1. Which is the maximum volume of blood that can
be collected from a 110-lb donor, including
9. What is the minimum number of platelet
samples for processing?
required in an apheresis component?
a. 450 ml
a. 3x10^11
b. 500 ml
b. 4x10^11
c. 525 ml
c. 2x10^11
d. 550 ml
d. 3.5x10^11
2. how often can a blood donor donate whole
10. Whole blood and RBC units are stored at what
blood?
temperature?
a. Every 24 hrs
a. 1 C to 6 C
b. Once a month
b. 20 C to 24 C
c. Every 8 weeks
c. 37 C
d. Twice a yr
d. 24C to 27 C
3. When RBC are stored, there is a “shift to the
11. Additive solution are approved for storage of red
left” this means
blood cell for how many days?
a. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases,
a. 21
owing to an increase in 2,3 DPG
b. 42
b. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases,
c. 35
owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG
d. 7
c. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases
owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG
12. One criterion used by the FDA for approval of
d. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases
new preservation solutions and storage
owing to a increase in 2,3-DPG
containers is an average 24-hrs post-transfusion
RBC survival of more than:
4. The majority of platelet transfused in the United
a. 50%
States today are:
b. 60%
a. Whole blood-derived platelets prepared by
c. 65%
the platelet rich plasma method
d. 75%
b. Whole-blood-derived platelets prepared by
the buffy coated method
13. What is the lowest allowable Ph for a platelet
c. Apheresis platelets
component at outdate?
d. Prestorage pooled platelets
a. 6
b. 5.9
5. Which of the following anticoagulant
c. 6.8
preservatives provides a storage time of 35 days
d. 6.2
at 1Cto 6C for units of whole blood and
prepared RBC’s if an additive solution is not
14. Frozen and thawed RB’s processed in an open
added?
system can be stored for how many days/hours?
a. ACD-A
a. 3 days
b. CP2D
b. 6 hours
c. CPD
c. 24 hours
d. CPDA-1
d. 15 days
6. What are the current storage time and storage
15. What is the hemoglobin source for hemoglobin-
temperature for platelet concentrates and
based oxygen carriers in advanced clinical
apheresis platelet component?
testing?
a. 5 days at 1 degree C to 6 degree C
a. Only bovine hemoglobin
b. 5 days at 24 degree C to 27 degree C
b. Only human hemoglobin
c. 5 days at 20 degree C to 24 degree C
c. Both bovine and human hemoglobin
d. 7 days at 22 degree C to 24 degree C
d. None of the above
7. What is the minimum number of platelets
16. Which of the following occurs during storage
required in a platelet concentrate prepared from
blood cells?
whole blood by centrifugation (90 degree C of
a. Ph decreases
sampled units)?
b. 2,3-DPG increases
a. 5.5 x 10^11
c. ATP increases
b. 3 x 10^10
d. Plasma K+ decreases
c. 3 x 10^11
d. 5.5 x 10^10
17. Nucleic acid amplification testing is used to test
donor blood for which of the following
8. RBC can be frozen for:
infectious disease?
a. 12 months
a. Hepatitis C virus
b. 1 year
b. Human Immunodeficiency viruses
COLLES, CHRISTINE
c. West nile virus
d. All of the above
18. Which of the following is NOT an FDA-
approved test for quality control of platelets?
a. BacT/ALERT
b. Ebds
c. Gram stain
d. Pan Genera Detection( PGD test)
19. Pre-storage pooled platelets can be stored:
a. 4 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 5 days
d. 7 days
20. Which of the following is the most common
cause of bacterial contamination of platelet
products?
a. Entry of skin plugs into the collection bag
b. Environmental contamination during
processing
c. Bacteremia in the donor
d. Incorrect storage temperature
21. Which of the following statement best describes
mitosis?
a. Genetic material is quadruplicated, equally
divided between four daughter cells
b. Genetic material is duplicated , equally
divided between two daughter cells
c. Genetic material is triplicated, equally
divided between three daughter cells
d. Genetic materials is halved, doubled then
equally divided between two daughter cells
22. When a recessive trait is expressed, it means
that:
a. One gene carrying the trait was present
b. Two gene carrying the trait were present
c. No gene carrying the trait was present
d. The trait is present but difficult to observe
23. In a pedigree, the “index case” is another name
for:
a. Stillbirth
b. Consanquineous mating
c. Propositus
d. Monozygotic twins
24. Which if the following nitrogenous bases make
up DNA?
a. Adenine,leucine, guanine, thymine
b. Alanine, cytosine, guanine, purine
c. Isoleucine, lysine, uracil , leucine
d. Adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine
25. Proteins and peptides are composed of:
a. Golgi bodies grouped together
b. Paired nitrogenous bases
c. Nuclear basic particles
d. Linear arrangements of amino acids
26. Which phenotype could not results from the
mating of Jk (a+b+) female and a Jk (a-b+)
male?
a. Jk (a+b-)
b. Jk (a+b+)
c. Jk (a-b+)
d. Jk (a-b-)
27. Exon refers to:
a. The part of gene that contains nonsense
mutations
b. The coding region of a gene
c. The noncoding region of a gene
d. The enzyme used to cut DNA into fragments
28. PCR technology can be used to:
a. Amplify small amounts of DNA
b. Isolate intact nuclear RNA
c. Digest genomic DNA into small fragments
d. Repair broken pieces of DNA
29. Transcription can be defined to:
a. Introduction of DNA into cultured cells
b. Reading of MRNA by the ribosome
c. Synthesis of RNA using DNA as a template
d. Removal of external sequences to form a
mature RNA molecule
30. When a male possesses a phenotypic traits that
he passes to all his daughters and none of his
sons, the trait is said to be :
a. X-linked dominant
b. X-linked recessive
c. Autosomal dominant
d. Autosomal recessive
31. DNA is replicated:
a. Semiconservatively from DNA
b. In a random manner from RNA
c. By copying protein sequences from RNA
d. By first copying RNA from protein
32. RNA is processed:
a. After RNA is copied from DNA template
b. After protein folding and unfolding on the
ribosome
c. Before DNA is copied from DNA template
d. After RNA is copied from protein on
ribosomes
33. Translation of proteins from RNA takes place:
a. On the ribosomes in the cytoplasm of the
cell
b. On the nuclear membrane
c. Usually while attached to nuclear pores
d. Inside the nucleolus of the cell
34. Meiosis is necessary to:
a. Keep the N number of the cell consistent
within populations
b. Prepare RNA for transcription
c. Generate new DNA sequences in daughter
cells
d. Stabilizes proteins being translated on the
ribosome
COLLES, CHRISTINE
35. When a female possesses a phenotypic traits that 9. Rh antibodies have been associated with which
he passes to all her sons and none of her of the following chemical conditions?
daughters, the trait is said to be a. Erythroblastosis fetalis
a. X-linked dominant b. Thrombocytopenia
b. X-linked recessive c. Hemophilia A
c. Autosomal dominant d. Stomatocytosis
d. Autosomal recessive
10. What do Rh null cells lack?
Review Question: a. Lewis antigen
1. The Rh system was first recognized in a case b. Normal oxygen carrying capacity
report of: c. Rh antigen
a. A hemolytic transfusion reaction d. MNSs antigen
b. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
c. Circulatory overload 11. What antigen system is closely associated
d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia phenotypically with Rh?
a. McCoy
2. What antigen is found in 85% of the white b. Lutheran
population and is always significant for c. Duffy
transfusion purpose? d. LW
a. d
b. c 12. Anti- LW will not react with which of the
c. D following ?
d. E a. Rh- positive RBCs
b. Rh-negative RBCs
c. Rh null RBCs
3. How are weaker-than- expected reactions with d. Rh: 33 RBCs
anti-D typing reagents categorized?
a. Rh mod 13. Convert the following genotypes from Wiener
b. Weak D nomenclature to Fisher-Race and Rosenfield
c. DAT positive nomenclatures, and list the antigens present in
d. D w each halotype
a. R1r
4. Cells carrying a weak-D antigen require the use b. R2R0
of what test to demonstrate its presence? c. R2R1
a. Indirect antiglobulin test d. Ryr
b. Direct antiglobulin test
c. Microplate test 14. Which Rh phenotype has the strongest
d. Warm autoadsorption test expression of D?
a. R1r
5. How are Rh antigens inherited? b. R1R1
a. Autosomal recessive alleles c. R2R2
b. Sex-linked genes d. D-
c. Codominant alleles
d. X-linked 15. Which of the following most commonly causes
an individual to type RhD positive yet possess
6. Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules anti-D?
are Rh antigens? a. Genetic weak D
a. Glycophorins b. Partial D
b. Simple sugars c. C in trans to RHD
c. Proteins d. D epitopes on RhCE protein
d. Lipids
16. An individual has the following Rh phenotype:
7. Rh antibodies react best at what temperature( D+C+E+c+e+. Using Fisher-Race terminology ,
C)? what is their most likely Rh genotype?
a. 22 a. DCE/Dce
b. 18 b. DCE/dce
c. 15 c. DCe/dcE
d. 37 d. DCe/DcE

8. Rh antibodies are primarily of which 17. Which of the following is the most common Rh
immunoglobulin class? phenotype in African Americans?
a. IgA a. Dce/dce
b. IgM b. DcE/dce
c. IgG c. DCe/dce
d. IgD d. Dce/dCe
Review questions:
COLLES, CHRISTINE
1. The following phenotype are written incorrectly c. The Le(a+b-) phenotype is found in
except for: secretors
a. Jka+ d. None of the above
b. Jk+
c. Jka(+)
d. Jk(a+) 9. Which of the following genotypes would explain
RBCs typed as group A Le(a+b-)
2. Which of the following characteristics best a. A/O Lele HH Sese
describes Lewis antibodies? b. A/A Lele HH sese
a. IgM, naturally occurring, cause HDFN c. A/O LeLe hh SeSe
b. IgM, naturally occurring, do not cause d. A/A LeLe hh sese
HDFN
c. IgG, in vitro hemolysis, cause hemolytic 10. Anti-Le bH will not react or will react more
transfusion reactions weakly with which of the following RBCs?
d. IgG, in vitro hemolysis, do not cause a. Group O Le (b+)
hemolytic transfusion reactions b. Group A2 Le(b+)
c. Group A1 Le(b+)
3. The Le gene codes for a specific d. None of the above
glycosyltransferase that transfer a fucose to the
N-acetylglucosamine on: 11. Which of the following best describes MN
a. Type 1 precursor chain antigens and antibodies?
b. Type 2 precursor chain a. Well developed at birth, susceptible to
c. Type1 and type 2 precursor chain enzymes, generally saline reactive
d. Either type 1 or type 2 in any one individual b. Not well developed at birth, susceptible to
but not both enzyme, generally saline reactive
c. Well developed at birth, not susceptible to
4. What substances would be found in the saliva of enzyme, generally saline reactive
a group B secretor who has Lele genes? d. Well developed at birth, susceptible to
a. H, Lea enzymes, generally antiglobulin reactive
b. H, B, Lea
c. H, B, Lea, Leb 12. Which autoantibody specificity is found in
d. H., B, Leb patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?
a. Anti-I
5. Transformation to Le b phenotype after birth b. Anti-i
may follows: c. Anti-P
a. Le(a-b-) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a- d. Anti- P1
b+)
b. Le(a+b-) to Le(a-b-) to Le(a-b+) to 13. Which of the following is the most common
Le(a+b+) antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and
c. Le(a-b+) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a+b+) to Le(a-b- Rh antibodies?
) a. anti- Fya
d. Le(a+b+) to Le(a+b-) to Le(a-b-) to Le(a- b. anti-k
b+) c. anti- Jsa
d. anti- K
6. In what way do the Lewis antigens change
during pregnancy? 14. Which blood group system is associated with
a. Lea antigen increases only resistance to P. vivax
b. Leb antigen increases only a. P
c. Lea and Leb both increases b. Kell
d. Lea and Leb both decreases c. Duffy
d. Kidd
7. A type 1 chain has:
a. The terminal galactose in a 1-3 linkage to 15. The null K0 RBC can be artificially prepared by
subterminal N-acetylglucosamine which of the following treatments?
b. The terminal galactose in a 1-4 linkage to a. Ficin and DTT
subterminal N-acetylglucosamine b. Ficin and glycine-acid EDTA
c. The terminal galactose in a 1-3 linkage to c. DTT and glycine-acid EDTA
subterminal N-acetyl galactosamine d. Glycine-acid EDTA and sialidase
d. The terminal galactose in a 1-4 linkage to
subterminal N-acetly galactosamine 16. Which antibody does not fit with the others with
respect to optimum phase of reactivity ?
8. Which of the following best describes Lewis a. Anti-S
antigens? b. Anti-P1
a. The antigens are integral membrane c. Anti-Fya
glycolipids d. Anti- Jkb
b. Lea and Leb are antithetical antigens
COLLES, CHRISTINE
17. Which of the following Duffy phenotypes is a. Anti-C
prevalent in blacks but virtually nonexistent in b. Anti-At a
white? c. Anti-Hy
a. Fy( a+ b+) d. All of the above
b. Fy( a-b+)
c. Fy(a-b-) 27. Which of the following antigens is not in a blood
d. Fy(a+b-) group system?
a. Doa
18. Antibody detection cells will not routinely detect b. Vel
which antibody specificity? c. JMH
a. Anti-M d. Kx
b. Anti-Kp a
c. Anti-Fy a 28. A weakly reactive antibody with a titer of 128 is
d. Anti-Lu b neutralized by plasma. Which of the following
could be the specificity?
19. Antibodies to antigens in which of the following a. Anti-JMH
blood groups are known for showing dosage? b. Anti-Ch
a. I c. Anti-Kn a
b. P d. Anti-Kpa
c. Kidd
d. Lutheran 29. An antibody reacted with untreated RBCs and
DTT-treated RBCs but not with ficin-treated
20. Which antibody is most commonly associated RBCs . Which of the following antibodies could
with delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction? explain this pattern of reactivity?
a. Anti-s a. Anti-JMH
b. Anti-k b. Anti-Yt a
c. Anti-Lu a c. Anti-Kp b
d. Anti-Jk a d. Anti- Ch

21. Anti-U will not react with which of the 30. The following antibodies are generally
following RBCs? considered clinically insignificant because they
a. M+N+S+s- have not been associated with causing increased
b. M+N-S-s- destruction of RBCs, HDFN, or HTRs
c. M-N+S-s+ a. Anti-Doa and Anti-Coa
d. M+N-S+s+ b. Anti-Ge3 and anti-Wra
c. Anti-Ch and anti-Kna
22. A patient with an M. pneumoniae infection will d. Anti-Dib and anti-Yt
most likely develop a cold autoantibody with
Review questions:
specificity to which antigen?
a. I 1. An ABO type on a patient gives the following
b. i reactions:
c. P
d. P1 Patient Cell with
Patient Serum with
23. Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes? Anti-A Anti-B A1 cells B cells
a. P1 4+ 4+ Neg Neg
b. Js a
c. Fy a What is the patient’s blood type?
d. Jk a a. O
24. The antibody to this high-prevalence antigen b. A
demonstrates mixed-field agglutination that c. B
appears shiny and refractile under the d. AB
microscope: 2. The major immunoglobulin class of anti-B in a
a. Vel group A individual is (are):
b. JMH a. IgM
c. Jr a b. IgG
d. Sd a c. IgM and IgG
d. IgM and IgA
25. Which of the following has been associated with
causing severe immediate HTRs? 3. What are the possible ABO phenotypes of the
a. Anti-JMH offspring from the matting of a group A to a
b. Anti-Lu b group B individual?
c. Anti-Vel a. O,A,B
d. Anti-Sd a b. A,B
c. A,B,AB
26. Which of the following antibodies would more d. O,A,B,AB
likely be found in a black patient?
COLLES, CHRISTINE
4. The immunodominant sugar responsible for Anti-A Anti- A1 B O Autocontrol
blood group A specificity is: B cells cells cells
a. L-fucose 4+ Neg 2+ 4+ 2+ Neg
b. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine These result are most likely due to:
c. D-galactose
a. ABO alloantibody
d. Uridine diphosphate-N-acetyl-D-galactose
b. Non-ABO alloantibody
c. Rouleaux
5. What ABH substance would be found in the
d. Cold autoantibody
saliva of a group B secretor?
a. H
b. H and A
c. H and B
d. H,A and B

6. An ABO type on a patient gives the following

reactions:

Patient Cell with

Patient Serum with
Anti-A Anti-B Anti- A1 B cells
A1 cells
4+ 4+ Neg 2+ Neg

The reactions above may be seen in a patient

who is;
a. A1 with acquired B
b. A2B with anti-A1
c. AB with increased concentrations of
proteins in the serum
d. AB with an autoantibody

7. Which of the following ABO blood groups

contain the least amount of H substance?
a. A1,B
b. A2
c. B
d. O

8. You were working on a specimen in the lab that

you believe to be a Bombay phenotype. Which
of the following reactions would you expect to
see?
a. Patient’s cell + Ulex europaeus= no
agglutination
b. Patient’s cell + Ulex europaeus=
agglutination
c. Patient’s srum + group O donor RBCs =no
agglutination
d. Patient’s serum + A1 and B cells= no
agglutination

9. An example of a technical error that can result in

an ABO discrepancy is :
a. Acquired B phenomenon
b. Missing isoagglutinins
c. Cell suspension that is too heavy
d. Acriflavine antibodies

10. An ABO type on a patient gives the following

reactions:

Patients Cell with Patients Serum

with