Correlation Q

UNIVERSITY OF THE CORDILLERAS
College of Engineering and Architecture

Department of Civil Engineering
CE 434 – CE Correlation Course | Structural Engineering and Construction
Situation: The portable seat shown in the figure is braced by a

Situation: Three cylinders having identical dimensions and cable FG. Surfaces A, B, E are frictionless.
weighing 500 N are shown in the figure. Assume all contact
surfaces are smooth.
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at A?

a. 750.00 N c. 144.34 N
b. 288.68 N d. 500.00 N 10. If the allowable tension in cable FG is 1800 N, which of the
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at B? following most nearly gives the load “W” that the seat can
a. 500.00 N c. 750.00 N safely carry?
b. 288.68 N d. 144.34 N a. 500 N c. 1000 N
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at C? b. 1200 N d. 1400 N
a. 144.34 N c. 500.00 N 11. If the load “W” is equal to 1500 N, which of the following
b. 750.00 N d. 288.68 N most nearly gives the reaction at E?
a. 500 N c. 1000 N
Situation: A system of forces is shown in the figure. All length b. 1200 N d. 1400 N
units are in meters. 12. If the load “W” is equal to 1500 N, which of the following
most nearly gives the tension in cable FG?
a. 1000 N c. 1200 N
b. 1950 N d. 2250 N
Situation: The points B, C and D of the cantilever framework as

shown are attached to a vertical wall. The 400 N load is parallel
to z-axis and the 1200 N load is parallel to y-axis.
4. Which of the following most nearly gives the resultant of the

force system?
a. 70.91 kN c. 92.98 kN
b. 63.06 kN d. 77.14 kN
5. Which of the following most nearly gives the angle that the
resultant force makes with the horizontal?
a. 41.18˚ c. 57.06˚
b. 52.22˚ d. 46.77˚ 13. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in
6. Which of the following most nearly gives the distance from member AB?
the origin where the resultant force intersects the x-axis? a. 538.52 N c. 1134.89 N
a. 5.52 m c. 6.31 m b. 1615.55 N d. 2332.38 N
b. 6.06 m d. 6.80 m 14. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in
member AC?
Situation: A plane truss is loaded as shown in the figure. a. 538.52 N c. 1134.89 N
b. 1615.55 N d. 2332.38 N
15. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in
member AD?
a. 538.52 N c. 1134.89 N
b. 1615.55 N d. 2332.38 N
Situation: The uniform 50-KG plank in the figures is resisting on

rough surfaces at A and B. The coefficients of static friction are
shown. A 100-Kg man starts walking from A to B.
7. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at B?
a. 5.82 N c. 10.00 N
b. 19.18 N d. 15.29 N
8. Which of the following most nearly gives the force member
in CD?
a. 10.00 N c. 15.29 N
b. 19.18 N d. 5.82 N
9. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in
member FG? 16. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at A?
a. 5.82 N c. 10.00 N a. 770.84 N c. 689.44 N
b. 15.29 N d. 19.18 N
b. 816.79 N d. 732.51 N
a. 770.84 N c. 816.79 N
b. 732.51 N d. 689.44 N
18. Which of the following most nearly gives the distance X Situation: A timber joists 40 mm x 190 mm spaced at 0.3 m on
center carries a floor load of 2.4 kPa including the floor finish. The
when the plank will start to slide?
joist is supported by the girder at 3 m.
a. 1.73 m c. 1.37 m
b. 1.29 m d. 1.92 m
Situation: From the shear diagram as shown in the figure:
25. Compute the maximum flexural stress when L = 3m.

a. 3.37 MPa c. 4.32 MPa
b. 3.18 MPa d. 3.84 MPa
26. Compute the maximum flexural stress when L = 3.5m.

19. Which of the following most gives the maximum a. 3.37 MPa c. 3.52 MPa
concentrated load excluding the reactions? b. 3.18 MPa d. 3.84 MPa
A. 10 kN C. 15 kN
B. 40 kN D. 25 kN 27. Compute the maximum shear stress when L = 3m.
20. Which of the following gives the maximum negative a. 0.32 MPa c. 0.40 MPa
moment? b. 0.14 MPa d. 0.21 MPa
A. -25 kN-m C. -30 kN-m
B. -40 kN-m D. -15 kN-m 2
21. Which of the following gives the location of the point of Situation: Three steel wires, each 0.05 in in area, are used to lift
inflection from the right end? a load W = 1500 lb. as shown in the figure. Their unstressed
A. 1.75 m C. 2.25 m lengths are 74.98 ft. 74.99 ft., and 75.0 ft. Use E=29x106 psi for
B. 3.25 m D. 3.75 m the three wires.
Situation: To retain the backfill, treated timber piles braced by

horizontal struts are anchored to bedrock at 3 m spacing. The
piles are considered hinged at the base. Unit weight of water =
9.81 kN/m3. Allowable bending stress of the strut, F b =14.70 MPa;
allowable shearing stress of the strut, F v =1.48 MPa.
28. Which of the following most nearly gives the stress in the
shortest wire?
a. 5685.69 Psi. c. 9999.66 Psi.
b. 13867.89 Psi. d. 14455.66 Psi.
intermediate wire?
a. 6132.47 Psi. c. 13867.89 Psi
b. 9999.60 Psi. d. 4817.56 Psi.
longest wire?
a. 6132.47 Psi. c. 13867.89 Psi
b. 9999.60 Psi. d. 5685.69 Psi
31. Determine the stress in the shortest wire if W=500 lb.?
a. 6133.80 Psi. c. 9633.80 Psi.
b. 6311.80 Psi d. 6933.80 Psi
22. If the horizontal struts are hinged at the anchor rod locations,
determine the maximum design moment of the strut?
A. 134 kN-m C. 64 kN-m
32. The stress in either wire in the given figure is not to exceed
B. 91 kN-m D. 81 kN-m
30 ksi. The cross-sectional areas of wires AB and AC are 0.4
23. If the depth of the strut is 300 mm, determine the safe width
required in bending? in2 and 0.5 in2, respectively.
A. 300 mm C. 350 mm
B. 325 mm D. 275 mm
of the strut in shear?
A. 290 mm C. 350 mm
B. 300 mm D. 400 mm
Determine the maximum weight W that can be supported by the

two wires?
a. 18.39 kips c. 13.93 kips
b. 17.1 kips d. 11.7 kips
Situation: Classify the structures shown in the figure.
39. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective

slenderness ratio about the x-axis?
a. 35.98 c. 30.47
b. 37.66 d. 32.95
40. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective
slenderness ratio about the Y-axis?
a. 37.66 c. 35.98
b. 32.95 d. 30.47
41. Which of the following most nearly gives the axial load
capacity of the column?
a. 2,508.72 KN c. 2,736.20 K
33. Structure A b. 2,395.44 KN d. 2, 662.79 KN
a. Statically unstable c. Statically determinate
b. Statically determinate to 2˚ d. Statically determinate to
4˚ Situation: A plank 10 m long is placed on a horizontal position
34. Structure B with its two ends resting on two inclined planes as shown. The
angle of friction on all contact surfaces is 20˚.
6˚
35. Structure C
10˚
Situation: A compound shaft as shown in the figure is attached

to rigid supports. It is subjected to a concentrated torque at the
junction. For the aluminum segment AB, the diameter is 75 mm, 42. Which of the following most nearly gives the value of x
𝜏 ≤ 55 MPa, and G = 28 GPa. For the steel segment BC, the when the plank will start to slide?
diameter is 50 mm, 𝜏 ≤ 83 MPa, and G=83 GPa. For both a. 1.23 m c. 0.94 m
segments, the allowable rotation is 2°. The lengths a = 3 m and b b. 0.68 m d. 0.30 m
= 1.20 m. 43. If P = 100 kN, which of the following most nearly gives the
reaction at A?
a. 17.36 kN c. 42.80 kN
b. 71.44 kN d. 98.48 kN
44. If P = 100 kN, which of the following most nearly gives the
reaction at B?
c. 17.36 kN c. 42.80 kN
d. 71.44 kN d. 98.48 kN
36. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at
support A if the applied torque is T = 3.20 kN-m? Situation: A vertical cylindrical steel tank 3 m in diameter and 6
a. 1.30 kN-m c. 1.55 kN-m m high has a wall thickness of 12 mm.
b. 1.75 kN-m d. 1.90 kN-m 45. If the tank is filled with water, which of the following most
37. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum nearly gives the circumferential stress?
torque T that can be applied so that the allowable shearing a. 8.16 MPa c. 3.68 MPa
stresses for both segments are not exceeded? b. 7.36 MPa d. 4.08 MPa
a. 3.21 kN-m c. 3.43 kN-m 46. If the tank is filled with water, which of the following most
nearly gives the longitudinal stress?
b. 3.65 kN-m d. 3.79 kN-m
a. 4.08 MPa c. 7.36 MPa
38. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
b. 8.16 MPa d. 3.68 MPa
torque T that can be applied so that the allowable rotation for
47. If the stress is limited to 5 MPa, which of the following most
both segments is not exceeded?
nearly gives the maximum height of water up to which the
a. 2.98 kN-m c. 2.76 kN-m
tank may be filled?
b. 2.49 kN-m d. 2.30 kN-m
a. 7.36 m c. 8.16 m
b. 3.68 m d. 4.08 m
Situation: A built-up column 10 m long consist of W350x90 Situation: A rectangular concrete beam has a width of 300 mm
with two 12-mm plates welded to form a box section as shown. and an effective depth of 500 mm. It is reinforced with six-25 mm
The column is fixed at both ends and brace at midheight about the diameter bars. The compression strength of concrete fc′ = 28 Mpa
weak axis. Assume fy′ = 415 Mpa. Use the theoretical values of and the steel yield strength is fy′ = 415 Mpa
the effective length factors. 48. Which of the following most nearly gives the balance steel
ratio?
a. 2.62% c. 2.70:%
Properti es of W 350x90 b. 2.88% d. 2.95%
Flange width, bf = 250 mm 49. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum steel
area?
Flange thickness, tf = 16.40 mm
a. 3,321.68 mm2 c. 3,038.62 mm2
Overall depth, d = 350 mm b. 3,241.79 mm 2
d. 2,942.21 mm2
Web thickness, tw = 9.50 mm 50. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal
moment capacity of the beam?
Moment of Inertia, Ix = 266x106 mm 4
a. 506.52 kN-m c. 525.73 kN-m
Moment of Inertia, Iy = 14.54x106 mm 4 b. 473.16 kN-m d. 455.87 kN-m
Area, A = 11,550 mm 2
58. Which of the following most nearly gives the balance steel
ratio considering the contribution of the compression bars?
a. 0.0544 c. 0.0533
b. 0.0555 d. 0.0505
Situation: From the given truss, it is made up of Guijo 100 mm x 59. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum steel
150 mm it is subjected to a vertical load of 20 KN acting at C? area considering the contribution of the compression bars as
permitted by the code?
a. 6, 048.17 mm2 c. 5,934.84 mm2
2
b. 5,821.50 mm d. 5,538.17 mm2
Situation: A ladder 10 m long and weighing 35 kg is resting on a

horizontal floor at A and leaning on a vertical wall at B. The
ladder makes an angle of 60˚ with the floor. The coefficient of
friction between all contact surfaces is 0.25
60. Which of the following most nearly gives the farthest
distance that a 75-kg man could climb up the ladder without
causing the ladder to slide?
a. 3.43 m c. 2.17 m
Allowable stresses of wooden section b. 4.51 m d. 4.10 m
Shear parallel to grain = 1.0 MPa 61. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at A?
Shear longitudinal for joints = 1.45 MPa a. 261.72 N c. 1,048.88 N
Compression parallel to grain = 11 MPa b. 1,015.62 N d. 253.91 N
Compression perpendicular to the grain = 5 MPa 62. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at B?
a. 253.91 N c. 1,015.62 N
51. Compute the minimum value of x. b. 261.72 N d. 1,046.88 N
a. 160 mm c. 100 mm
b. 140 mm d. 120 mm Situation: A 300 mm square tied column carries a concentrated
52. Compute the minimum value of y. dead load of 250 kN and live load of 500 kN. Other significant
a. 13.22 mm c. 14.55 mm data are as follows: SBC = 140 kPa, fc’ = 20.68 MPa and
b. 16.32 mm d. 20.45 mm fy = 276 MPa. Consider weight of footing and soil above it to
53. Determine the axial stress of member AC. be 8% of the total service loads.
a. 1.54 MPa c. 0.97 MPa 63. Which of the following gives the dimension of the footing to
b. 1.26 MPa d. 1.67 MPa sustain the given loads?
a. 1.6 m x 1.6 m c. 2.5 m x 2.5 m
Situation: A 300-mm wide, 20 mm-thick steel plate is riveted to b. 2.1 m x 2.1 m d. 3.0 m x 3.0 m
two 10-mm thick plates as shown in the figure. The rivets have 64. Which of the following gives the effective depth of the
allowable shear stress of 150 MPa. The allowable tensile stress on footing as determined by wide beam shear?
the net area is 0.60Fy and the allowable bearing stress on the a. 146.93 mm c. 333.86 mm
plate is 1.35Fy . Use Fy = 248 MPa. The rivet b. 252.56 mm d. 371.62 mm
holes are 2 mm larger than the rivet diameter. 65. Which of the following gives the effective depth of footing
as determined by punching shear?
a. 156.93 mm c. 339.98 mm
b. 267.56 mm d. 370.26 mm
300 mm
Situation: A square column 400 mm x 400 mm rests on square

footing. The column supports a dead load of 1020 KN and a live
load of 790 KN. The soil bearing capacity is 280 kPa. The base of
the footing is 1.50 m below the ground. Assume unit eight of
concrete of 24 KN/m3 and unit weight of soil of 16 KN/m3. The
footing has a thickness of 590 mm and an effective depth of 490
t P mm.
t /2 /2
P 66. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective soil
bearing capacity?
P a. 220.58 kPa c. 251.28 kPa
/2
b. 236.79 kPa d. 256.00 kPa
54. Which of the following gives the rivet diameter such that the
67. Which of the following most nearly gives the dimensions of
joint capacity is maximum?
the footing rounded up to the nearest 0.10 m?
a. 26 mm c. 28 mm
a. 2.60 m c. 2.80 m
b. 27 mm d. 29 mm
b. 2.70 m d. 2.90 m
55. Which of the following most nearly gives the load P such
68. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal
that the allowable shearing stress is not exceeded?
punching shear stress?
c. 738.90 KN c. 792.62 KN
a. 1.52 MPa c. 1.67 MPa
d. 637.12 KN d. 687.07 KN
b. 1.60 MPa d. 1.76 MPa
56. Which of the following most nearly gives the safe load P ?
Situation: A rectangular reinforced concrete beam having a
a. 687.07 KN c. 708.29 KN
simple span of 4.50 m carries a service dead load of 20 kN/m and
b. 637.12 KN d. 714.24 KN
service live load of 35 kN/m all throughout its length. Steel
covering is 75 mm measured from the centroid of the tension
Situation: A rectangular beam has a width of 300 mm and an
steel. Concrete strength is fc’ = 28MPa and steel yield strength
effective depth of 460 mm. It is reinforced with two 28-mm
is fy = 415MPa.
compression bars placed 70 mm from the extreme compression
69. Which of the following gives the maximum moment due to
concrete. Use fc′ = 35 Mpa and is fy′ = 345 Mpa.
the factored load?
57. Which of the following most nearly gives the ratio of the a. 360.91 KN-m c. 245.33 KN-m
depth of the compression block to the distance of the neutral b. 310.15 KN-m d. 221.48 KN-m
axis to the extreme compression concrete fiber? 70. Which of the following gives the least dimension of the
a. 0.83 c. 0.81 beam using the maximum allowed reinforcement ratio?
b. 0.85 d. 0.76 a. 200mm x 400mm c. 300mm x 515mm
b. 225mm x 475mm d. 350mm x

450mm
71. Which of the following most nearly gives the steel area using
the dimensions obtained above?
a. 2492 mm2 c. 1795mm2
2
b. 1861 mm d. 1128 mm2
Situation: A rectangular beam has a width of 300 mm, an overall

depth of 480 mm, and an effective depth of 410 mm. The beam is
simply supported on a span of 5 m and carries a superimposed
dead load of 18 kN/m and a live load of 14 kN/m. Concrete
strength is fc’ = 27.60 MPa and steel yield strength is fy =
415 MPa. Unit weight of concrete is 23.50 kN/m3.

factored moment of the beam?
a. 267.93 KN-m c. 167.93 KN-m
b. 153.13 KN-m d. 110.57 KN-m
73. If the design moment at ultimate loads is 220 KN-m, which
of the following most nearly gives the required number of
20-mm diameter tension bars?
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8
74. If the beam carries an additional factored concentrated load
of 80 KN at midspan, which of the following most nearly
gives the required number of 20-mm diameter bars?
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8
Situation: A simply supported rectangular concrete beam 6 m

long is reinforced with four 28-mm diameter tension bars at the
bottom and two 28-mm diameter compression bars at the top. The
beam has a width of 300 mm and an overall depth of 400 mm.
The steel covering to the centroid of reinforcements is 70 mm.
Concrete strength fc’ = 30 MPa and steel yield strength is
fy = 415 MPa.
75. Which of the following most nearly gives the depth of the
compression stress block?
a. 66.81 mm c. 82.91 mm
b. 74.88 mm d. 96.55 mm
76. Which of the following most nearly gives the ultimate

moment capacity of the beam?
a. 253.62 KN-m c. 281.80 KN-m
b. 266.02 KN-m d. 294.47 KN-m
77. Which of the following most nearly gives the additional

concentrated service load at midspan if the service dead load
including the weight of the beam is 20 KN/m?
a. 62.15 KN c. 51.99 KN
b. 61.10 KN d. 50.05 KN
Situation: The portable seat shown in the figure is braced by a

Situation: Three cylinders having identical dimensions and cable FG. Surfaces A, B, E are frictionless.
weighing 500 N are shown in the figure. Assume all contact
surfaces are smooth.
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at A?

a. 750.00 N c. 144.34 N
b. 288.68 N d. 500.00 N 10. If the allowable tension in cable FG is 1800 N, which of the
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at B? following most nearly gives the load “W” that the seat can
a. 500.00 N c. 750.00 N safely carry?
b. 288.68 N d. 144.34 N a. 500 N c. 1000 N
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at C? b. 1200 N d. 1400 N
a. 144.34 N c. 500.00 N 11. If the load “W” is equal to 1500 N, which of the following
b. 750.00 N d. 288.68 N most nearly gives the reaction at E?
a. 500 N c. 1000 N
Situation: A system of forces is shown in the figure. All length b. 1200 N d. 1400 N
units are in meters. 12. If the load “W” is equal to 1500 N, which of the following
most nearly gives the tension in cable FG?
a. 1000 N c. 1200 N
b. 1950 N d. 2250 N
Situation: The uniform 50-KG plank in the figures is resisting on

rough surfaces at A and B. The coefficients of static friction are
shown. A 100-Kg man starts walking from A to B.
4. Which of the following most nearly gives the resultant of the

force system?
a. 70.91 kN c. 92.98 kN
b. 63.06 kN d. 77.14 kN
5. Which of the following most nearly gives the angle that the 13. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at A?
resultant force makes with the horizontal?
a. 770.84 N c. 689.44 N
a. 41.18˚ c. 57.06˚
b. 52.22˚ d. 46.77˚ b. 816.79 N d. 732.51 N
6. Which of the following most nearly gives the distance from 14. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at B?
the origin where the resultant force intersects the x-axis? a. 770.84 N c. 816.79 N
a. 5.52 m c. 6.31 m b. 732.51 N d. 689.44 N
b. 6.06 m d. 6.80 m 15. Which of the following most nearly gives the distance X
when the plank will start to slide?
Situation: A plane truss is loaded as shown in the figure.
a. 1.73 m c. 1.37 m
b. 1.29 m d. 1.92 m
Situation: A plank 10 m long is placed on a horizontal position

with its two ends resting on two inclined planes as shown. The
angle of friction on all contact surfaces is 20˚.

a. 5.82 N c. 10.00 N
b. 19.18 N d. 15.29 N
8. Which of the following most nearly gives the force member 16. Which of the following most nearly gives the value of x
in CD? when the plank will start to slide?
a. 10.00 N c. 15.29 N a. 1.23 m c. 0.94 m
b. 19.18 N d. 5.82 N b. 0.68 m d. 0.30 m
9. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in 17. If P = 100 kN., which of the following most nearly gives the
member FG? reaction at A?
a. 5.82 N c. 10.00 N a. 17.36 kN. c. 42.80 kN.
b. 15.29 N d. 19.18 N
b. 71.44 kN. d. 98.48 kN.
Situation: The bolt shown in the figure is subjected to a tensile force

18. If P = 100 kN., which of the following most nearly gives the of 70 kN.
reaction at B?
c. 17.36 kN. c. 42.80 kN. 25. Which of the following
most nearly gives the
d. 71.44 kN. d. 98.48 kN.
tensile stress in the body
Situation: To retain the backfill, treated timber piles braced by of the bolt?
horizontal struts are anchored to bedrock at 3 m spacing. The
piles are considered hinged at the base. Unit weight of water = a. 50.53 MPa
9.81 kN/m3. Allowable bending stress of the strut, F b =14.70 MPa; b. 87.04 MPa
allowable shearing stress of the strut, F v =1.48 MPa. c. 61.72 MPa
d. 99.03 MPa
26. Which of the following most nearly gives the tensile stress at the
root of the bolt?
a. 50.53 MPa c. 61.72 MPa
b. 87.04 MPa d. 99.03 MPa
27. Which of the following most nearly gives the compressive stress at
the head as the bolt bears on the surface to resist the tensile force?
a. 50.53 MPa c. 42.15 MPa
b. 35.29 MPa d. 30.26 MPa
Situation: The circular table 1.8 m in diameter supports a load of

400 kN located along the diameter passing through at support A
and 0.3 m from the center on the opposite side from A as shown
in the figure. Supports A, B, and C are equally spaced along the
19. If the horizontal struts are hinged at the anchor rod locations, circumference of the table. Neglect the weight of the table.
determine the maximum design moment of the strut?
A. 134 kN-m C. 64 kN-m
B. 91 kN-m D. 81 kN-m
required in bending?
A. 300 mm C. 350 mm
B. 325 mm D. 275 mm
of the strut in shear?
A. 290 mm C. 350 mm
B. 300 mm D. 400 mm
Situation: A compound shaft as shown in the figure is attached to

rigid supports. It is subjected to a concentrated torque at the
junction. For the aluminum segment AB, the diameter is 75 mm,
𝜏 ≤ 55 MPa, and G = 28 GPa. For the steel segment BC, the
diameter is 50 mm, 𝜏 ≤ 83 MPa, and G=83 GPa. For both
segments, the allowable rotation is 2°. The lengths a = 3 m and 28. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at A?
b = 1.20 m. a. 44.44 kN. c. 66.67 kN
b. 133.33 kN. d. 177.78 kN

a. 44.44 kN. c. 66.67 kN
b. 133.33 kN. d. 177.78 kN
30. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at C?

a. 44.44 kN. c. 66.67 kN
b. 133.33 kN. d. 177.78 kN
22. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at
support A if the applied torque is T = 3.20 kN-m?
a. 1.30 kN-m c. 1.55 kN-m
b. 1.75 kN-m d. 1.90 kN-m
torque T that can be applied so that the allowable shearing
stresses for both segments are not exceeded?
a. 3.21 kN-m c. 3.43 kN-m
b. 3.65 kN-m d. 3.79 kN-m
torque T that can be applied so that the allowable rotation for
both segments is not exceeded?
a. 2.98 kN-m c. 2.76 kN-m
b. 2.49 kN-m d. 2.30 kN-m
MATHEMATICS – ALGEBRA CE 434 - CORRELATION COURSE
SYSTEM OF EQUATIONS log𝑥 𝑦

11. =?
log𝑦 𝑥
1. Find the sum of the roots of the equation 5x² - 10x + 2 = 0 log 𝑦²
A. -2 A. C. (log 𝑦 𝑥)²
log 𝑥²
B. 1/2 B. (log 𝑥 𝑦)² D. log 𝑦 𝑥²
C. 2
D. 1/2 12. The logarithm of the product MN is equal to 1.62324929 and the logarithm of the quotient M/N is equal
2. In the equation x² – kx + 9 = 0, find k if the roots are equal. to -0.066946789. Find the value of N.
A. 8 C. 7 A. 6 C. 8
B. 6 D. 9 B. 7 D. 9
3. From the equation 7x² + (2k–1) x – 3k + 2 = 0, Determine the value of k so that the sum and product of
the roots are equal. PARTIAL FRACTION
A. 1 C. 3 𝑥² + 4𝑥 − 33 𝐴 𝐵 𝐶
B. 2 D. 4 13. Find the value of B in the equation: = + +
(𝑥+1)(𝑥−2)(𝑥−3) 𝑥 + 1 𝑥−2 𝑥−3
4. The equation whose roots are the reciprocals of the roots of the equation 2x² - 3x – 5 = 0
A. 2x² - 5x – 3 = 0 C. 5x² + 3x + 2 = 0
A. -3 C. 3
B. 5x² + 3x – 2 = 0 D. 3x² + 5x – 2 = 0
B. 7 D. -7
5. Solve for x: �𝑥 + 2√2𝑥 + 3 – 3 = 0
A. 3 C. 3 and 23 5𝑥−2 𝐴 𝐵 𝐶 𝐷
B. -23 D. -3 and -23 14. Find the value of C in the equation: = + + +
2𝑥(3𝑥−1)² 2 𝑥 3𝑥−1 (3𝑥−1)²
SYSTEM OF EQUATIONS A. 0 C. 3
6. Solve simultaneous equations: B. -1 D. -1/2
x+y+4=0
x+z–1=0 BINOMIAL THEOREM
y+z+1=0 15. Consider the expansion of (x² − 2y)10 , Find the middle term of the expansion.
A. x = -1, y = -5, z = 3 C. x = -1, y = -3, z = 2
A. −8064𝑥10 𝑦 5 C. 8064𝑥10 𝑦 5
B. x = 1, y = 2, z = -3 D. x = -2, y = -3, z = -1 12 5
B. −8064𝑥 𝑦 D. 8064𝑥12 𝑦 5
7. Solve for x in the following equations:
16. From the Previous problem, find the term involving y³
2x² - 3y² = 6
3x² + 2y² = 35 A. 960𝑥14 𝑦 3 C. 690𝑥14 𝑦 3
14 3
A. 4 and -4 C. 3 and -3 B. −960𝑥 𝑦 D. −690𝑥14 𝑦 3
5
B. 2 and -2 D. 1 and -1 17. In the expansion of the binomial (x − 2y) , the sum of the numerical coefficient is
8. Solve for x and y in the following equations: A. 25 C. 1
27 𝑥 = 9 𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 81𝑦 3−𝑥 = 243 B. (−2)5 D. -1
A. (1, 3) C. (3, 1) 18. In the expansion of the binomial (2x − 3)10 , the sum of the numerical coefficient is
B. (1, 3/2) D. (3/2, 1) A. -59408 C. 1
B. 59408 D. -1
1
LOGARITHMS 19. The constant term in the expansion of (𝑥 + 3/2)15 is:
𝑥
9. Solve for x in the equation log 5 356 = x A. 3003 C. 4653
A. 3.76 C. 3.65 B. 5005 D. 8565
B. 3.67 D. 3.56
10. If log 𝑥 6 = 1.2925 , find the value log 𝑥 11 REMAINDER THEOREM
A. 1.37 C. 1.49 20. If (4x³ + 7x² - 4) is divided by (x+4), compute the remainder
B. 1.73 D. 1.94 A. 162 C. -148
B. -126 D. 150
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21. When you divide 𝑥 4 – Ax³ + Bx² + 7x + 6 by x – 2, the remainder is 16, when you divide by x + 1, the 1
35. The sum of an infinite geometric progression is 2√2 + 2. If the common ratio is find the first term.
√2
remainder is 10 Determine A.
A. 2 C. 1
A. 5 C. 7
B. -5 D. 150 B. √2 D. √3
22. If x + 3 is a factor of 𝑥 5 + 3𝑥 4 + 2x + m, find m 36. The geometric mean and arithmetic mean of two numbers are 8 and 17 respectively. Find the 1st term.
A. 3 C. 8 A. 2 C. 16
B. 6 D. 10 B. 8 D. 34
37. The arithmetic mean of 6 numbers is 17. If two numbers are added, the new set of numbers will have an
ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION arithmetic mean of 21. What are the two numbers if their difference is 4
23. In a certain arithmetic progression, the 20th term is 32 and the common difference is 3. Find the 3rd term. A. 30 and 34 C. 31 and 35
A. 19 C. -22 B. 32 and 36 D. 33 and 38
B. -19 D. 16 38. Two numbers differ by 40 and their arithmetic mean exceeds their geometric mean by 2. What are the
numbers?
24. The 8th term of an arithmetic progression is 12 and 39th term is 43. What is the sum of its first 30 terms A. 61 and 101 C. 45 and 85
A. 585 C. 806 B. 81 and 121 D. 35 and 75
B. 475 D. 625
25. How many terms of the progression 3, 5, 7, … must be taken in order that their sum will be 2600 HARMONIC PROGRESSION
A. 20 C. 40 39. In the series: 0.5, 0.2, 0.125, …. Find the 20th term
B. 30 D. 50 A. 0.0161 C. 0.0179
26. Find the arithmetic mean of -14, -12, -10, -4, -1, 5 B. 1/59 D. 1/65
A. -6 C. -8 40. In the series: 1, 10/21, 5/16, 10/43, … Find the sum of the 1st 20 terms.
B. -5 D. -7 A. 3.4142 C. 4.123
27. There are seven arithmetic means between 3 and 35. Find the sum of all the terms B. 2.431 D. 1.341
1 1 1
A. 163 C. 171 41. If the given sequence below forms a harmonic progression, what is the value of x? 1, , ,
4 𝑥 10
B. 167 D. 175 A. 8 C. 6
B. 7 D. 5
GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION
28. The 3rd and 8th term of a geometric progression are 27 and 6561 respectively. Find the common ratio SECUENCE AND SERIES
A. 1 C. 3 42. Find the 5th term of the series whose sum of the first n term is 3𝑛+2 − 6
B. 2 D. 5 A. 3160 C. 2348
29. The 1st term of a geometric progression is 27 and the 4th term is 1, the 3rd term is: B. 1458 D. 4374
A. 2 C. 4 43. Find the summation of (5k – 3) from k = 1to k = 16
B. 3 D. 5 A. 632 C. 630
30. Determine the value of x, so that: x, 2x + 4, 10x – 4 will be a geometric progression B. 634 D. 636
A. 2 C. 5 44. From the sequence: 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, … What is the sum of the first 100 terms?
B. 4 D. 6 A. 10302 C. 46850
31. There are four geometric means between 3 and 729. Find the 4th term B. 353700 D. 259530
A. 9 C. 81
B. 27 D. 243 AGE PROBLEM
32. The sum of a geometric series are as follows: S = 1.0 + 1.1 + 1.21 + 1.331 + … up to 50th term. Find S 45. Two years ago, a boy is 2/3 as old as his sister, In 2 years, the boy will be ¾ as old as his sister. How old
A. 1613.19 C. 1163.91 are they now?
B. 3191.16 D. 6319.11 A. 11 and 16 C. 16 and 24
33. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the geometric progression 2, 4, 8, 16 B. 10 and 14 D. 15 and 18
A. 1023 C. 225 46. Ondoy is 5 years older than Peping. In 5 years, the product of their age is 1.5 times the product of their
B. 2046 D. 1596 present ages. How old will Peping be three years hence?
34. Find the sum of the infinite geometric series 1, -1/5, 1/25, …. A. 20 C. 25
A. 3/4 C. 6/7 B. 23 D. 50
B. 4/5 D. 5/6
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47. The ages of Mrs. Pining Garcia and her daughter are 45 and 5 years, respectively. How many years will VENN DIAGRAM
Mrs. Garcia be three times as old as her daughter? 58. In a club of 40 executives, 33 like to smoke Marlboro and 20 like to smoke Phillip Morris. How many
A. 5 C. 15 like both?
B. 10 D. 20 A. 10 C.12
48. The sum of the parent’s ages is twice the sum of the children’s ages. Four years ago, the sum of the B. 11 D. 13
parent’s age’s was thrice the sum of the children’s ages. In sixteen years, the sum of the ages of the 59. In a certain group of consumers, each one may drink beer, and/or brandy, and/or whiskey, or all. Also,
parents and the children will be equal. How many children are there? 155 drink brandy, 173 drink beer, 153 drink whiskey, 53 drink beer and brandy, 79 drink beer and
A. 4 C. 6 whisky, 66 drink brandy and whiskey. 21 of them drink beer, brandy, and whiskey. How many are there
B. 5 D. 7 in the group
49. If A is 11% older than B and B is 12% older than C, by how much is A older than C? A. 302 C. 303
A. 27.18% C. 24.32% B. 304 D. 305
B. 18.26% D. 36.25% 60. A survey concerning a group of TV viewers show that: 56% watch sports; 39% watch movies; 51%
watch news; 16% watch sports and movies; 19% watch movies and news; 30% watch sports and news;
WORK PROBLEMS 11% watch sports, movies and news. The rest are children who like watching cartoons only. How many
50. Mr. Tom Makki can wash his car in 15min. while his son Tim takes twice as long to do the same job. If of the TV viewers are children?
they work together, how many minutes can they do the washing? A. 15% C. 12%
A. 8 C. 12 B. 8% D. 10%
B. 10 D. 14
51. Pipes A and B can fill an empty tank in 6 and 3 hours respectively. Drain C can empty a full tank in 24
hours. How long will an empty tank be filled if pipes A and B run with drain C open? MIXTURE PROBLEMS
A. 1.218 hrs C. 5.128 hrs 61. 2000kg of steel containing 8% nickel is to be made by mixing steel containing 14% nickel with another
B. 2.182 hrs D. 3.821 hrs steel containing 6% nickel. How much of the steel containing 14% nickel is needed?
52. Ding can finish a job in 8 hours. Dong can do it in 5 hours. If Ding worked for 3 hrs and then Dong was A. 500kg C. 800kg
asked to help him finish it, how long Dong will have to work with Ding? B. 750kg D. 1500kg
A. 1.92 hrs C. 3.45 hrs 62. A 100kg salt solution originally 4% by weight salt. Salt in water is boiled to reduce water content until
B. 2.91 hrs D. 5.16 hrs the concentration is 5% by weight salt. How much water is evaporated?
53. Ping, Pong and Pang can mow a lawn in 4, 6 and 7 hours, respectively. What fraction of the yard can A. 10 C. 20
they mow in 1 hour if they all work together? B. 15 D. 25
A. 47/84 C. 37/84 63. Two gallons of 20% salt solution is mixed with 4 gallons of 50% salt solution. Determine the percentage
B. 45/84 D. 27/84 of salt solution in the new mixture
54. X and Y can do a piece of work in 42 days, Y and Z in 31 days, and X and Z in 20 days. Working A. 30% C. 25%
together, how many days can all of them finish the work? B. 40% D. 55%
A. 17.4 C. 19.6
B. 18.9 D. 20.1
CLOCK PROBLEMS
55. What time after 3 o’clock will the hands of the clock be at 90 degree angle?
A. 3:12:24 C. 3:32:44
B. 3:30:36 D. 3:00:00
56. It is now 3:06 PM. In how many minutes after the given time will the hands of the clock form a 20
degree angle for the 2nd time?
A. 6.73min C. 12.7min
B. 14.0min D. 20.0min
57. How soon after 3 o’clock will the angle between a minute hand and hour hand be bisected by the second
hand?
A. 5.57sec C. 7.57sec
B. 6.57sec D. 8.57sec
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MATHEMATICS – TRIGONOMETRY CE 434 /ECE 434 - CORRELATION COURSE
3 4
ANGLES 15. Find the exact value of cos(𝑥 + 𝑦), given sin 𝑥 = , cos 𝑦 = , x is an angle in Quadrant II, and y is an
5 5
1. What is the equivalent of 405° in mils?
angle in quadrant I.
A. 3600 mils C. 7200 mils
A. 0 C. 0.5
B. 5400 mils D. 10800 mils
B. 1 D. -1
2. What is the equivalent of 630° in the centesimal system?
16. Evaluate 𝑧 = csc{sec −1 [𝑐𝑜𝑡 (csc −1 2)]}
A. 800 grads C. 700 grads
A. 0.5773 C. 4.7556
B. 720 grads D. 630 grads
B. 1.2247 D. 5.7321
3. The terminal side of -1500° will lie in the quadrant:
A. I C. III
TRIGONOMETRIC IDENTITIES
B. II D. IV
17. Simplify: cos(x-π)
4. Which of the following pairs of angles in standard positions are co-terminal angles?
A. cos x C. -cos x
A. 710° & -10° C. -240° & 30°
B. sin x D. –sin x
B. 120° & 60° D. 315° & -40° sec 𝐴+csc 𝐴
5. If an angle is in the standard position and its measure is 215°, what is its reference angle? 18. Simplify the expression:
1+tan 𝐴
A. 25° C. 35° A. csc A C. cot A
B. 30° D.40° B. sec A D. sin A
6. If the supplement of an angle θ is 5/2 of its compliment, find the value of θ. 19. If A + B + C = 180° and tan A + tan B + tan C = 1.89, find the value of tan A tan B tan C.
A. 30° C. 20° A. 1.89 C. 6.75
B. 25° D. 15° B. 1.78 D. 5.67
7. Find the supplement of an angle whose compliment is 62°. x x 2
20. Simplify the expression: �sin − cos �
A. 28° C. 118° 2 2
B. 30° D. 152° A. 1 + sin x C. 1 + cos x
8. Convert 120 degrees to radians. B. 1 – sin x D. 1 – cos x
A. π/3 C. π/6 21. If θ is an acute angle of a right triangle where sin θ = x/2, find the expression for sin 2θ.
B. 2π/3 D. 5π/6 A. 2√4 − 𝑥 2 /𝑥 C. x√4 − 𝑥 2 / 2
B. x / 2√4 − 𝑥 2 D. x / √4 − 𝑥 2
TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS
1
32 TRIGONOMETRIC EQUATIONS
9. Find the value of arctan �2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 � 𝑎𝑟𝑐𝑠𝑖𝑛 ��
2 22. If sin2 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑚 and cos2 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑛, find y in terms of m and n
1 1
A. 30° C. 60° A. (𝑚 + 𝑛 + 1) C. (𝑚 + 𝑛) + 1
2 2
B. 45° D. 90° 1 1
3 8
B. (𝑚 + 𝑛 − 1) D. (𝑚 + 𝑛) − 1
2 2
10. Evaluate: cos �𝑎𝑟𝑐𝑠𝑖𝑛 + 𝑎𝑟𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛 � 𝑥
5 15 23. If arctan 𝑧 = , find cos x in terms of z.
A. 34/85 C. 36/85 2
1+𝑧 2 𝑧 2 +1
B. 35/85 D. 37/85 A. C.
1−𝑧 2 𝑧 2 −1
11. Evaluate: tan�𝑎𝑟𝑐𝑠𝑒𝑐√5 − 𝑎𝑟𝑐𝑐𝑜𝑡2� 1−𝑧 2 𝑧 2 −1
B. D. 2
A. 3/7 C. 3/4 1+𝑧 2 𝑧 +1
B. 3/5 D. 3/6 24. If a = 4sinθ + 6cosθ and 𝑏 = 4𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 − 6𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃, find the value a2 + b2.
12. If tan 4𝑥 = cot 6𝑦, then which of the following is true? A. 36 C. 52
A. 2x - 3y = 45° C. 4x - 6y = 90° B. 20 D. 24
B. 2x + 3y = 45° D. 6y - 4x = 90°
sin 𝑥∙tan 𝑦 SOLUTIONS OF RIGHT TRIANGLES
13. If x + y = 90°, then is equal to:
sin 𝑦∙tan 𝑥 25. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 34 cm. Find the length of the two legs, if one leg is 14 cm longer
A. tan x C. –tan x than the other.
B. cot x D. –cot x A. 18 cm and 32 cm C. 15 cm and 29 cm
14. Determine the value of x: 𝑥 = tan−1 {sin[tan−1 (cos 60°)]} B. 17 cm and 31 cm D. 16 cm and 30 cm
A. 240.10° C. 155.91°
B. -115.59° D. -210.40°
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26. Points A and B are 100 m apart and are on the same elevation as the base of the building. The angles of B. 80° D. 100°
elevation of the top of the building from points A and B are 21° and 32°, respectively. How far is A 35. In triangle ABC, A = 45° and C = 70°. The side opposite angle C is 40 m long. What is the side opposite
from the building? angle A?
A. 259.28 m C. 262.13 m A. 38.58 m C. 32.91 m
B. 258.70 m D. 255.07 m B. 36.47 m D. 30.10 m
27. A man observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a certain point on a level ground is 36. A tree growing on a hillside casts a 102-foot shadow straight down the hill. Find the vertical height of
30°. He then moves toward the tower by 25 m and observes that the angle of elevation becomes 40°. the tree if, relative to the horizontal, the hill slopes 15.0° and the angle of elevation of the sun is 62.0°.
How high is the tower? A. 158.9 m C. 133.1 m
A. 49.15 m C. 46.27 m B. 102.2 m D. 122.7 m
B. 43.79 m D. 52.61 m 37. A 20 m high mast is placed on the top of a cliff whose height above sea level is not known. An observer
at sea sees the top of the mast at an angle of elevation of 46°42’ and the foot of the mast at 38°23’.
28. An observer measures the angle of elevation of the top of a building to be 54°. The angle of depression Which of the following most nearly gives the height of the cliff?
of the base of the building from the same observer measures 9°. If the eye level of the observer is 12 m A. 58.88 m C. 54.22 m
from the ground which is on the same horizontal plane as the base of the building, find the height of the B. 56.55 m D. 51.33 m
building. 38. A pole casts a shadow of 15 meters long when the angle of elevation of the sun is 61°. If the pole has
A. 116.28 m C. 87.86 m leaned 15° from the vertical directly toward the sun, what is the length of the pole?
B. 104.28 m D. 75.76 m A. 53.24 m C. 52.43 m
B. 54.23 m D. 55.69 m
29. A flagpole 3 m high stands on top of a pedestal 2 m high above the ground. At a distance “x” meters 39. From a point outside of an equilateral triangle, the distances to the vertices are 10 m, 18 m, and 10 m,
from the base of the pedestal and on the same horizontal plane as the pedestal, the flagpole and pedestal respectively. What is the length of one side of the triangle?
subtends an equal angle. Determine the distance “x”. A. 17.75 m C. 19.95 m
A. 8.85 m C. 4.47 m B. 18.50 m D. 20.20 m
B. 13.37 m D. 20.00 m 40. The angle of elevation of the top of the mountain is 29°. At another point 100 m closer, the angle of
elevation then becomes 36°. Find the height of the mountain.
30. From a window 4.25 m above the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a building is 36.58° while A. 421.84 m C. 321.84 m
angle of depression of the foot of the same building is 26.63°. Find the height of the building. B. 333.83 m D. 233.83 m
A. 11.93 m C. 8.80 m 41. Two missiles are fired simultaneously from the same location to different directions. Their speeds are
B. 10.54 m D. 7.12 m 75.39 m/s and 83.26 m/s. The angle between their directions is 62.19°. How far apart are the missiles
after 0.75 seconds?
31. Points A and C 1000 m apart are plotted on a straight highway running East and West. From A, the A. 29.16 m C. 52.45 m
bearing of a tower B is 32° E of N. From C, the bearing of tower B is 64° W of N. Find the shortest B. 37.94 m D. 61.66 m
distance of tower B from the highway. 42. Two measurements for the angle of elevation of the top of an inaccessible cliff were made, one from
A. 364 m C. 384 m point A and another from point B. Point A has an elevation of 625.4 m above sea level. Point B is 425 m
B. 374 m D. 394 m nearer to the cliff and 25.6 m lower in elevation than point A. If the angles of elevation from A and B
32. A vertical wall and a tower 120.0 ft high stand on the same horizontal plane. From the top of the tower, are 18.65° and 36.20°, respectively, find the elevation of the top of the cliff.
the angles of depression of the top and bottom of the wall are 22.23° and 44.32°, respectively. Find the A. 313.70 m C. 913.51 m
height of the wall. B. 531.16 m D. 1156.56 m
A. 68.14 ft. C. 69.34 ft.
B. 68.48 ft. D. 69.76 ft. AMPLITUDE, PERIOD, PHASE SHIFT
33. A wheel 3 ft. in diameter rolls up an incline of 15°. When the point of contact of the wheel and the 43. Find the period of the graph of y = sin x.
incline is 4 ft. from the base of the incline, what is the height of the center of the wheel above the base of A. 2π C. π/2
the incline? B. 3π/2 D. π
A. 2.48 ft. C. 4.12 ft. 44. Find the period of the graph of y = 2tan (4x + 3π)
B. 3.48 ft. D. 5.64 ft. A. 90° C. 135°
B. 45° D. 180°
SOLUTIONS ON OBLIQUE TRIANGLES 45. A curve has the equation y = 8 sin2x. In comparison to this curve, which of the following functions has
34. Triangle ABC has sides a, b, and c. If a = 75, b = 100 and the angle opposite side a is 32°, find the angle twice the period and thrice the amplitude?
opposite side c. A. y = 24 cos2x C. y = 24 cos4x
A. 93° C. 103° B. y = 24 cosx D. y = 16 cos6x
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B. 220.28 m D. 170.18 m
COMPLEX NUMBERS 61. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:5:8. Find the area of the triangle if its shortest side is 23 cm.
46. What is the simplified value of the expression: N = 2i561 – 3i174 + i1999 ? A. 650.09 cm2 C. 560.09 cm2
2
A. 2i - 1 C. i + 3 B. 605.09 cm D. 506.09 cm2
B. 2i + 1 D. i - 3 62. A triangle has an area of 845 m2 and a perimeter of 136 m. If one of its side measures 48 m, find the
47. What is the polar form of the complex number z = -4 + 3i ? length of the longest side.
A. 5cis323.13° C. 5cis36.87° A. 27.95 m C. 36.86 m
B. 5cis143.13° D. 5cis216.87° B. 32.11 m D. 51.14 m
48. Change √2 ∠45° to rectangular form. 63. A lot is in the form of an equilateral triangle each of whose sides is 300 m. Compute the length of the
A. 1 + i C. i - 1 line parallel to one side that will divide the area into two parts.
B. 1 - i D. i A. 141.42 m C. 281.97 m
49. What is the exponential form of the complex number z = 4 + 3i ? B. 212.13 m D. 345.68 m
A. 7e0.9273i C. 5e0.9273i 64. Two triangles have equal bases. The altitude of one triangle is 3 units more than its base while the
0.6435i
B. 7e D. 5e0.6435i altitude of the other is 3 units less than its base. Find the altitudes if the areas of the triangles differ by 21
10 square units.
50. Simplify the expression: ( 1 + i )
A. 32i C. i A. 4, 10 C. 8, 15
B. 23i D. 1 B. 5, 12 D. 2, 9
51. What are the square roots of the complex number N = -11 – 60i ?
A. ± (6 – 5i) C. ± (5 + 6i)
B. ± (6 + 5i) D. ± (5 – 6i)
4+3𝑖
52. What is the simplified value of the expression N = ?
2−𝑖
A. 2 + 2i C. 1 – 2i
B. 2 – 2i D. 1 + 2i
53. What is the simplified value of the expression N = (3 – 2i)(4 + 3i)?
A. 18 + i C. 1 – 2i
B. 4 – 12i D. 1 + 2i
54. Find the value of log (-2)
A. 0.301 + 1.364i C. -0.301 + 1.364i
B. 0.301 – 1.364i D. -0.301 – 1.364i
55. What is the algebraic form of the complex number N = ln (5 + 12i) ?
A. 2.57 + 1.18i C. 5.63 + 2.11i
B. 2.37 – 0.26i D. 3.12 – 1.25i
AREA OF A TRIANGLE
56. The hypotenuse of right triangle is 73 m. If one of its legs is 48 m, find its area.
A. 1752 m2 C. 1320 m2
2
B. 1725 m D. 1230 m2
57. In triangle ABC, BC = 216 mm, AC = 301 mm and m ∠BAC = 30°. Find the area of the triangle.
A. 25,531.45 mm2 C. 11,233.64 mm2
2
B. 19,847.68 mm D. 7,956.63 mm2
58. The measures of the sides of a triangle are 42 cm, 51 cm, and 67 cm. Find the area of the triangle.
A. 1070.55 cm2 C. 992.68 cm2
B. 1032.44 cm2 D. 950.91 cm2
2
59. The area of a triangle is 8346 m and two of its interior angles are 37°25’ and 56°17’. What is the length
of the longest side?
A. 86.30 m C. 111.99 m
B. 181.20 m D. 18.87 m
60. Two sides of a triangle measure 67 m and 50 m. If its area is 1400 m2, determine its perimeter.
A. 229.18 m C. 191.78 m
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MATHEMATICS – PLANE GEOMETRY CE 434 - CORRELATION COURSE
TRIANGLES (PART I) Situation: A triangular lot ABC with BC = 400 m and B =50° is divided into two parts by the line DE = 150 m
which is parallel to BC. Points D and E are located on the sides AB and AC, respectively. The area of the segment
1. The area of a triangle is 8, 346 m2 and two of its interior angles are 37°25’ and 56°17’. What is the BCED is 50, 977 m2. (CE No. 2004)
length of the longest side? (CE Nov. 1994)
A. 214.02 m C.201.34 m 12. Find the area of ADE.
B. 181.54 m D.190.62 m A. 8,341.69 m2 C. 9,604.10 m2
2
2. In a triangle BCD, BC = 25 m and CD = 10 m. The perimeter of the triangle may be? (CE Nov. 1996) B. 10,784.77 m D. 6,199.47 m2
A. 69 m C. 71 m 13. Find the area of ABC.
B. 70 m D. 72 m A. 57,176.47 m2 C. 59,318.69 m2
3. What is the area of a triangle whose sides are 12 cm, 16 cm, and 21 cm? (CE Nov. 1997) B. 60,581.10 m 2
D. 61,761.77 m2
A. 95.5 sq. units C. 93.2 sq. units 14. Find the angle that the side AC makes with the side BC.
B. 97.3 sq. units D. 91.4 sq. units A. 64.29° C. 63.00°
4. In a triangle ABC, AB = 20 m and BC = 8 m. One possible dimension of CA is? (CE May. 1998)
B. 60.75° D. 65.48°
A. 7 cm C. 11 cm
B. 9 cm D. 13 cm
15. Two sides of a triangle measure 16 m and 51 m. Its area is 234.32 m2. Find its perimeter. (CE Nov.
5. The three sides of a triangle measure 100 cm, 150 cm, and 200 cm. find the area of the triangle.
2005)
(CE May. 1999)
A. 106 m C. 119 m
A. 6,699.57 cm2 C. 6,980.03 cm2
2 B. 112 m D. 125 m
B. 6,316.36 cm D. 7,261.84 cm2
16. The triangle ABC has a perimeter of 400 m. Two of its interior angle s are A=34° and B=58°.Find the
6. In a triangle ABC, AB = 22 m and AC = 8 m. The perimeter of the triangle may be? (CE Nov. 1999)
measurement of CA. (CE May. 2007)
A. 61 cm C. 59 cm
A. 125.33 m C. 140.95 m
B. 60 cm D. 62 cm
B. 70.89 m D. 92.94 m
7. Two sides of a triangle measures 6 cm and 18 cm. The third side may be? (CE May.2000)
A. 13 cm C. 11 cm 17. The perimeter of a triangle is 1,566 m. Its interior angles measure 50°, 60°, and 70°. Find the shortest
B. 12 cm D. 10 cm side of the triangle. (CE May. 2008)
8. A triangle ABC has sides measuring AB = 160 m and AC = 190 m. Point D is alongside AB and is 100 A. 466.46 m C. 401.58 m
m from A. Point E is alongside AC. If the area of triangle ADE is 3/5 of the area of triangle ABC, find B. 329.48 m D. 495.16 m
the distance of E from A. (CE Nov. 2001) 18. The two sides of a triangle measure 45 cm and 52 cm. If it has an area of 992.22 cm2, find the third side.
A. 142.80 m C. 128.40 m (CE May. 2008)
B. 182.40 m D. 148.20 m A. 77.61 cm C. 59.40 cm
9. A triangular lot has one side measuring 2 km. The lot is to be divided into two equal areas by a line B. 84.91 cm D. 46.42 cm
parallel to the given side. Find the length of the dividing line. (CE May.2002) 19. The perimeter of a triangle is 96 m. Two of its interior angles measure 42° and 76°. Find the longest side
A. 1.09 km C. 1.41 km of the triangle. (CE Nov. 2008)
B. 1.22 km D. 1.63 km A. 46.93 m C. 39.63 m
10. The vertices of a triangle have polar coordinates (0, 0°), (6, 30°), and (9, 70°). Find the perimeter of the B. 49.63 m D. 36.93 m
triangle. (CE May.2004)
A. 19.15 units C. 20.15 units Situation: A triangular lot is bounded by the points A, B, and C. Side AB has a length of 94 m and a bearing of
B. 19.85 units D. 29.85 units N45°E. Side AC has a length of 88 m due East. A dividing line runs along DE with D 43 m from A along AB and
11. A lot is bounded by the following three sides: AB N45°E, 160 m long; BC; and CA 190 m long in E on side AC. The area of triangle ADE is 1/7 of the area of triangle ABC.
clockwise direction. From point E, 100 m from A and on side AB, a dividing line runs to D which is on 20. Find the distance from A to E.
side CA. The area of ADE is to be 2/5 of the total area of the lot. Determine the length of DE if the total A. 27.48 m C. 30.55 m
area is 11, 643.88 m2. (CE May.2004) B. 33.29 m D. 29.06 m
A. 84.32 m C. 120.61 m 21. Find the length of the dividing line DE.
B. 95.68 m D. 111.93 m A. 29.06 m C. 33.29 m
B. 27.48 m D. 30.55 m
22. Find the bearing of the side BC.
A. N 19.75°W C. S 17.95°E
B. S 19.75°E D. N 17.95°W
BGG Page 1 of 4
SQUARE GENERAL QUADRILATERAL

23. A piece of wire 72 cm long is cut into two unequal parts. Each part is bent to form a square. If the total 33. Find the area of a quadrilateral having sides AB=10cm, BC=5 cm, CD=14.14 cm, and DA=15 cm if the
area of the two squares formed is 164 cm2, find the difference in lengths of the two parts. sum of the opposite angles is equal to 225°.
A. 12 cm C. 9 cm A. 98 cm2 C. 96 cm2
2
B. 10 cm D. 8 cm B. 100 cm D. 94 cm2
34. The sides of a quadrilateral are 12 m, 8 m, 16.97 m, and 20 m, consecutively. Two opposite interior
Situation: A 1 km x 1 km square lot is divided into 5 equal parts. One part is a square at the middle and the other angles have a sum of 225°. Find the area of the quadrilateral.
four are congruent right triangles. A. 160.00 m2 C. 162.00 m2
2
24. Find the dimension of the square at the middle. B. 168.00 m D. 166.00 m2
A. 500.00 m C. 408.25 m CIRCLE, SECTOR & SEGMENT
B. 472.87 m D. 447.21 m 35. Three circles are mutually tangent to one another externally. Their centers are connected forming a
25. If the square at the middle is further divided following the same process, find the dimension of the next triangle whose sides are 16 cm, 20 cm, and 24 cm. Find the area of the largest circle.
smaller square. A. 615.75 m2 C. 314.16 m2
A. 166.67 m C. 200.00 m B. 804.25 m2 D. 452.39 m2
B. 250.00 m D. 223.61 m 36. A chord measuring 1.25 m is 0.65 m from the center of a circle. Find the area of the circle.
26. Find the ratio of the area of the smallest square to the area of the original square. A. 5.69 m2 C. 2.55 m2
A. 0.04 C. 0.03 B. 5.69 m2 D. 6.24 m2
B. 0.05 D. 0.06 2
37. A circle having an area of 50.30 cm is tangent to two perpendicular lines. A smaller circle is drawn
tangent to the given circle and to the lines. Find the area of the smaller circle.
RECTANGLE A. 0.92 m2 C. 1.84 m2
2
27. A 5 m by 12 m rectangular garden plot is to be provided with a footpath of uniform width around its B. 0.74 m D. 1.48 m2
perimeter. If the area of the footpath is 11.20 m2, find its width. 38. The sides of a square measure 13.60 cm. find the area between the inscribed and circumscribed circles
A. 0.56 m C. 0.34 m of the square.
B. 0.43 m D. 0.65 m A. 145.27 cm2 C. 133.96 cm2
2
B. 125.06 cm D. 158.33 cm2
PARALLELOGRAM 39. Six identical circles are arranged in a way that each circle is tangent to at least two other circles. If the
radius of each circle is 2 cm. find the perimeter of the polygon formed by connecting the centers of the
28. Two sides of a parallelogram are 63 cm and 84 cm and one of the diagonals is 48 cm. Solve for the circle.
smallest interior angle of the parallelogram. A. 24 cm C. 30 cm
A. 34.51° C. 34.54° B. 28 cm D. 32 cm
B. 35.14° D. 35.41° 40. A circle having a diameter of 8 cm is inscribed in a sector having a central angle of 80°. Find the area of
29. Two sides of a parallelogram are 68 cm and 83 cm and one of the diagonals is 42 cm. Solve for the the sector.
largest interior angle of the parallelogram. A. 72.96 cm2 C. 141.23 cm2
A. 149.73° C. 162.36° B. 212.05 cm2 D. 291.84 cm2
B. 156.28° D. 174.14° 41. A circle having an area of 452 cm2 is cut into two segments by a chord 6 m from the center of the circle.
Find the area of the larger segment.
RHOMBUS A. 350.28 cm2 C. 48.44 cm2
2
B. 336.70 cm D. 53.66 cm2
Situation: The area of a rhombus is 132 cm2. It has one diagonal equal to 12 cm. 42. A circle having an area of 201 cm2 is cut into two segments by a chord 3 m from the center of the circle.
30. Determine the length of the other diagonal. Find the area of the smaller segment.
A. 11 cm C. 10 cm A. 67.25 cm2 C. 48.44 cm2
2
B. 26 cm D. 22 cm B. 60.41 cm D. 53.66 cm2
31. Determine the length of the sides of the rhombus.
A. 12.53 cm C. 9.82 cm Situation: A swimming pool is constructed in the shape of two intersecting identical circles having a radius of 9
B. 13.62 cm D. 11.25 cm m. The distance between their centers is 9 m.
32. Determine the acute angle between the sides of the rhombus. 43. Find the common to the circles.
A. 46.42° C. 51.60° A. 107.11 m2 C. 73.85 m2
2
B. 48.24° D. 57.22° B. 99.50 m D. 80.27 m2
BGG Page 2 of 4
44. Find the area of the swimming pool.

A. 435.09 m2 C. 428.67 m2
B. 409.44 m2 D. 401.83 m2 55. In triangle ABC, AB = 15 m, BC = 18 m, and CA = 24 m. How far is the point of intersection of the
angular bisectors form vertex C?
45. Find the perimeter of the swimming pool. A. 9.66 m C. 14.30 m
A. 68.04 m C. 75.40 m B. 4.73 m D. 17.21 m
B. 72.19 m D. 66.80 m
56. The sides of a triangle ABC are AB = 15 cm, BC = 18 cm, and CA = 24 cm. Find the distance from the
46. A circle has an area of 1,017.88 cm2. It is divided into two parts by a chord 7 cm from the center. Find point of intersection of the angular bisectors to the side AB.
the ratio of the smaller segment to the larger segment. A. 4.18 cm C. 5.36 cm
A. 0.25 C. 0.35 B. 5.02 cm D. 4.73 cm
B. 0.46 D. 0.39
47. A circle having a radius of 9 cm is cut into two segments by a chord 5 m from the center of the circle. 57. In triangle ABC, AB = 30 cm, BC = 36 cm, and CA = 48 cm. Determine the distance from the
Find the area of the smaller segment. intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides of the triangle to the side BC.
A. 52.17 cm2 C. 55.33 cm2 A. 15.92 cm C. 1.20 cm
B. 49.58 cm2 D. 42.11 cm2 B. 9.44 cm D. 18.77 cm
ELLIPSE & PARABOLIC SEGMENT 58. The area of a triangle is 167 cm2 and its perimeter is 58 cm. Find the radius of the inscribed circle.
48. The perimeter of an ellipse is 67.82 units. If the major axis is 16 units long, find the length of the minor A. 5.76 cm C. 7.92 cm
axis. B. 3.96 cm D. 2.88 cm
A. 10 units C. 20 units
B. 26 units D. 13 units 59. The perimeter of a triangle is 120 cm and its area is 440 cm2. Find the diameter of the largest circle that
49. The area of a parabola having a base width of 10 cm and a height of 27 cm is can be inscribed in the triangle.
A. 210 cm2 C. 270 cm2 A. 11.00 cm C. 7.33 cm
2
B. 150 cm D. 180 cm2 B. 14.67 cm D. 3.67 cm
50. A parabolic hut has a base width of 16.10 m and a height of 12.40 m at the center. How high above the 60. The sides of a triangle measure 58 cm, 66 cm, and 88 cm. find the radius of the circle inscribed in the
base should a ceiling 12.20 m wide be built? triangle.
A. 7.12 m C. 10.79 m A. 16.08 cm C. 18.06 cm
B. 1.61 m D. 5.28 m B. 16.80 cm D. 18.60 cm
TRIANGLES (PART II) 61. What is the area of the circle circumscribed about an equilateral triangle with a side 10 cm long?
51. In triangle ABC, C = 70°, A = 45°, and AB = 40 m. What is the length of the median drawn from vertex A. 104.72 cm2 C. 103.50 cm2
A to side BC? B. 101.35 cm2 D. 102.26 cm2
A. 36.80 m C. 36.30 m
B. 37.17 m D. 37.41 m 62. The area of a circle circumscribed about an equilateral triangle is 254.47 m2. What is the area of the
52. The sides of a triangle measure 18 cm, 24 cm, and 36 cm. find the length of the median to the longest triangle?
side. A. 105.22 m2 C. 117.24 m2
A. 12.90 cm C.14.91 cm B. 109.16 m2 D. 120.78 m2
B. 11.22 cm D. 13.76 cm
53. The sides of a triangle are 10 cm, 24 cm, and 30 cm. Determine the length of the median to the longest 63. What is the radius of the circle circumscribing an isosceles right triangle having an area of 162 cm2?
side. A. 13.52 cm C. 12.73 cm
A. 18.87 cm C. 26.70 cm B. 14.18 cm D. 15.64 cm
B. 22.39 cm D. 10.63 cm
64. A circle having a radius of 9 cm circumscribes a triangle whose area is 43.23 cm2. If one side of the
54. The sides of a triangle are 16 m, 20 m, and 24 m. find the length of the median to the 20-m side. triangle is 18 cm, find the length of the shortest side of the triangle.
A. 27.62 m C. 19.22 m A. 3 cm C. 5 cm
B. 24.98 m D. 17.78 m B. 4 cm D. 6 cm
BGG Page 3 of 4
77. A regular hexagon having an area of 158 cm2 is inscribed in a circle. Find the area included between the
2
65. A circle having a radius of 8 cm circumscribes a triangle whose area is 50.36 cm . If one side of the hexagon and the circle.
triangle is 16 cm, find the length of one of the other sides of the triangle. A. 30.93 cm2 C. 37.34 cm2
A. 16.58 cm C. 14.39 cm B. 36.05 cm2 D. 33.05 cm2
B. 15.68 cm D. 13.94 cm Situation: A regular hexagon has sides measuring h.
66. A circle having a radius of 9 cm circumscribes a triangle whose area is 43.23 cm2. One side of the 78. Find the area of the largest circle that can be inscribed in the regular hexagon.
triangle measures 18 cm. find the measurement of one of the other two sides of the triangle. A. 2.63 h2 C. 3.41 h2
A. 16.22 cm C. 14.16 cm B. 2.36 h2 D. 3.14 h2
B. 15.91 cm D. 17.29 cm
79. Find the area of the largest equilateral triangle that can be inscribed in the regular hexagon.
POLYGONS A. 1.30 h2 C. 0.79 h2
2
B. 1.03 h D. 0.97h2
67. How many diagonals are there in an undecagon?
A. 65 C. 44 80. Find the area of the largest hexagon that can be inscribed in the regular hexagon.
B. 54 D. 35 A. 1.59 h2 C. 1.84 h2
2
68. How many diagonals are there in a polygon having 24 sides? B. 1.48 h D. 1.95h2
A. 209 C. 275
B. 230 D. 252 81. The cross section of a pipe is formed by two concentric circles such that the bigger one circumscribes a
69. A polygon has a 104 diagonals. How many sides does it have? regular hexagon of sides measuring 9.40 cm while the other one is inscribed in it. Find the cross-
A. 13 C. 14 sectional area of the pipe.
B. 16 D. 15 A. 64.90 cm2 C. 60.94 cm2
B. 60.04 cm2 D. 69.40 cm2
70. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon of n equal sides is 1,080°. Find n.
A. 10 C. 9
B. 7 D. 8
71. Find the sum of the interior angles of an octagon.
A. 900° C. 1,440°
B. 1,080° D. 1,260°
72. The area of a hexagon inscribed in a circle is 184 cm2.Find the area in the circle not covered by the
hexagon.
A. 41.95 cm2 C. 36.41 cm2
B. 38.49 cm2 D. 40.36 cm2
73. A circle is circumscribed about a hexagon. The area outside the hexagon but inside the circle is 15 m2.
Find the area of the hexagon.
A. 60.15 m2 C. 75.32 m2
2
B. 371.70 m D. 66.03 m2
74. A circle having an area of 224 m2 is inscribed in an octagon. Determine the area of the octagon.
A. 245.06 m2 C. 201.67 m2
B. 236.27 m2 D. 225.14 m2
75. Determine the area of the regular hexagon inscribed in a circle having an area of 170 cm2.
A. 149.04 cm2 C. 146.30 cm2
B. 140.59 cm2 D. 143.54 cm2
76. Determine the area of the regular octagon circumscribing a circle having an area of 126 m2.
A. 127.83 m2 C. 119.05 m2
2
B. 132.90 m D. 113.44 m2
BGG Page 4 of 4
MATHEMATICS – SOLID GEOMETRY CE 434 /ECE 434 - CORRELATION COURSE
CUBE 12. Find the waste in making the largest possible cylindrical rod from a bar of iron 3 feet long and whose
1. The numerical value of the volume of a cube is equal to the numerical value of its total surface area. base is an equilateral triangle of side 6 inches.
Find the edge of the cube. A. 129.45 in3 C. 221.89 in3
A. 3 units C. 4 units B. 324.18 in3 D. 196.33 in3
B. 6 units D. 8 units 13. A right prism having a hexagonal base has a total surface area of 987.422 cm2. If the height of the prism
2. A glass factory has an order for 1000 paper weights. Each to be in the form of a cube. If this order is equal to 12 cm, find the base edge.
requires 8000 cm3 of glass, what is the surface area of one of the cubes? A. 8.00 cm C. 8.50 cm
A. 12 cm2 C. 24 cm2 B. 9.00 cm D. 9.50 cm
B. 36 cm2 D. 64 cm2 14. A trough has triangle ends which lie in parallel planes. The top of the trough is a horizontal rectangle 20
3. Pass a plane to a cube so that the section formed will be a regular hexagon whose vertices are at the inches by 33 inches, and the depth of the trough is 16 inches. How many gallons does it contain when
midpoints of the sides of the cube having an edge of 4 cm. Find the area of the hexagon. the depth of water is 10 inches? (one gallon = 231 cubic inches)
A. 11.69 cm2 C. 20.78 cm2 A. 5.29 gallons C. 8.93 gallons
2
B. 25.15 cm D. 32.48 cm2 B. 12.86 gallons D. 16.63 gallons
RECTANGULAR PARALLELEPIPED TRUNCATED PRISM

4. The areas of three adjacent surfaces of a rectangular block are 8 cm2, 10 cm2, and 20 cm2. Find the 15. The base of a truncated prism is a triangle with sides 8 cm, 12 cm, and 10 cm. If the heights are 20 cm,
volume of the rectangular block. 18 cm, and 12 cm respectively, compute the volume in cm3.
A. 200 cm3 C. 40 cm3 A. 341.23 C. 661.43
B. 20 cm3 D. 10 cm3 B. 531.13 D. 361.63
5. A solid material in the form of a rectangular parallelepiped 3 m x 4 m x 5 m is painted blue. How many 16. The base of a truncated prism is rectangle with length twice its width. The edges perpendicular to the
cubes will have 2 blue faces if the block is to cut to form cubes 1 m x 1 m x 1 m? base are 12 m, 12 m, 16 m, and 16 m, consecutively. If the volume of the truncated prism is 8200 m3,
A. 6 C. 8 find the length of its base.
B. 22 D. 24 A. 43.23 m C. 42.33 m
B. 34.23 m D. 24.33 m
CYLINDER
6. Find the base diameter of a cylindrical tank open at the top if its height is 1.5 times the base diameter. PYRAMID
The total surface area of the tank is 53.4 cm2. 17. A regular triangular pyramid has an altitude of 9 m and a volume of 187.06 m3. What is the length of the
A. 4.54 cm C. 2.92 cm base edge?
B. 3.12 cm D. 5.24 cm A. 18 m C. 16 m
7. A right cylindrical tank has a lateral area of 28.08 m2 and a base area of 5.94 m2. Find its volume. B. 14 m D. 12 m
A. 19.31 cm3 C. 18.51 cm3 18. A regular hexagonal pyramid whose base perimeter is 60 cm has an altitude of 30 cm. Determine the
3
B. 17.60 cm D. 16.27 cm3 volume of the pyramid.
8. A closed right cylinder 1 m in diameter and 2 m tall is partially filled with water. When lying A. 2598.08 cm3 C. 2058.22 cm3
3
horizontally, the depth of the water is two-thirds the diameter. How high will the water be when the B. 2859.66 cm D. 2589.98 cm3
cylinder is vertical? 19. The volume of a pyramid whose base is a square is 551.67 m3. If the altitude of the pyramid is 16.55 m,
A. 1.55 m C. 1.42 m find the slant height of the lateral sides.
B. 1.12 m D. 0.97 m A. 21.04 m C. 17.29 m
9. Find the volume of the largest right circular cylinder that can be circumscribed about a rectangular B. 14.35 m D. 11.67 m
parallelepiped of dimensions 2 feet by 3 feet by 4 feet. 20. The roof of a water is composed of eight equal isosceles triangles whose vertices meet at the center of
A. 40.84 ft3 C. 37.79 ft3 the roof. If the inclined edges measure 15 feet and the height of the roof is 10 feet, determine the surface
3
B. 39.27 ft D. 47.12 ft3 area of the roof.
A. 102.94 ft2 C. 940.21 ft2
POLYGONAL PRISM B. 210.49 ft2 D. 492.10 ft2
10. A right prism with an octagonal base has a volume of 2085.55 cm3. If the height of the prism is 12 cm, 21. The volume of a regular tetrahedron is 20.70 m3. Determine the dimension of its lateral edge.
find the base edge. A. 5.2 m C. 5.4 m
A. 6 cm C. 7 cm B. 5.6 m D. 5.8 m
B. 8 cm D. 9 cm
11. A right hexagonal prism is inscribed in a right circular cylinder. The difference between the perimeters
of the two bases is 4 cm. Determine the volume of the hexagonal prism if it has an altitude of 20 cm.
A. 10, 367 cm3 C. 10, 867 cm3
3
B. 11, 367 cm D. 11, 867 cm3
BGG Page 1 of 3
CONE 33. Find the volume of a sphere that circumscribes a cylinder whose altitude and diameter are each 6 inches.
22. Find the volume of a cone in cubic meters, to be constructed from a sector having a diameter of 72 A. 319.89 cu. in. C. 276.45 cu. in.
centimeters and a central angle of 150°. B. 125.76 cu. in D. 555.25 cu. in.
A. 0.00771 C. 0.00229 34. Two balls, one 6 inches in diameter and the other 4 inches in diameter are placed in a cylindrical jar with
B. 0.01257 D. 0.00458 base diameter of 9 inches. Find the volume of water necessary to cover the two balls.
23. The axis of a cone makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal. If the length of the axis is 40 cm and its A. 112.54 cu. in. C. 362.23 cu. in.
base radius is 15 cm, compute the volume of the cone. B. 450.25 cu. in. D. 756.32 cu, in.
A. 8162.10 cu. cm. C. 8423.5 cu. cm. 35. A cone and a hemisphere share base that is a circle with radius 3 cm and the cone is inscribed in the
B. 9234.60 cu. cm. D. 7245.9 cu. cm. hemisphere. Find the volume of the region outside the cone and inside the hemisphere.
24. A right circular cone has a volume of 134.04 cm3 and an altitude of 8 cm. What is its lateral area in cm2? A. 24.87 cm3 C. 27.28 cm3
A. 112.4 C. 421.1 B. 28.27 cm3 D. 42.78 cm3
B. 357.2 D. 139.7
25. The upper portion of a sherbet glass in the form of a right circular cone with a base of radius 2 inches SPHERICAL SEGMENT/ZONE
and a slant height of 4 inches (inner dimensions). Find the volume of liquid it contains when full. 36. The volume of water in a spherical tank having a diameter of 4 m is 5.236 m3. Determine the depth of
A. 51.41 in3 C. 14.51 in3 the water in the tank.
B. 24.98 in3 D. 33. 33 in3 A. 1.0 m C. 1.2 m
26. Each face of a cube measures 1 m. Find the volume of a cone inscribed in the cube if the base of the B. 1.4 m D. 0.8 m
cone is on one face of the cube. 37. A hemispherical bowl of radius 10 cm is filled with water to such a depth that the water surface area is
A. 0.20 m3 C. 0.33 m3 equal to 75𝜋 sq. cm. Compute the volume of water.
3
B. 0.47 m D. 0.26 m3 A. 625/3 cc C. 625𝜋/3 cc
B. 625/𝜋 cc D. 625𝜋/2 cc
FRUSTUM OF A PYRAMID/CONE 38. A sphere of radius 18 m is cut by two parallel planes which are 16 m apart. One of the two cross
27. The volume of a frustum of a rectangular pyramid is 79.17 cm3. Its upper base is 2.50 m x 4.0 m and its sections has a radius of 15m. Find the volume included between these cutting planes.
altitude is 5m. Find the area of the lower base. A. 11142.80 m3 C. 13580.92 m3
A. 22.50 cm2 C. 32.50 cm2 B. 14668.64 m 3
D. 15022.61 m3
B. 42.50 cm2 D. 62.50 cm2 39. One meter curved strip around and above the base of a hemispherical dome is to be painted with two
28. The frustum of a regular triangular pyramid has equilateral triangles for its bases. The lower and upper coats of enamel which has a spreading capacity of 200 ft2 per gallon. Determine the number of gallons
base edges are 9 m and 3 m, respectively. If the volume is 118.20 cu. m, how far apart are the bases? of paint needed if the diameter of the dome is 16 m.
A. 7 m C. 8 m A. 2.70 gal C. 3.21 gal
B. 9 m D. 10 m B. 5.39 gal D. 6.42 gal
29. The volume of a frustum of a right circular cone is 1176𝜋 cm3. The altitude of the frustum of the cone is 40. How far from the center of a sphere of radius 10 cm should a plane be passed so that the ratio of the
18 cm. Determine the radius of the smaller base if the product of the radii is 60 cm2. areas of two zones is 3:7?
A. 3 cm C. 6 cm A. 3 cm C. 4 cm
B. 10 cm D. 12 cm B. 5 cm D. 6 cm
30. A lampshade is in the shape of a frustum of a cone. The vertical height of the shade is 25 cm and the
diameters of the ends are 20 cm and 10 cm, respectively. Determine the area of the material needed to SPHERICAL WEDGE/ LUNE
form the lampshade. 41. Find the volume of a spherical wedge whose central angle is 𝜋/5 radians on a sphere of radius 6 cm.
A. 1421.6 cm2 C. 1334.5 cm2 A. 64.82 cm3 C. 76.52 cm3
2
B. 1201.4 cm D. 1016.2 cm2 B. 83.46 cm 3
D. 90.48 cm3
42. Find the area of the Lune whose central angle is 30° on a sphere of radius 8 cm.
SPHERE A. 67.02 cm2 C. 52.65 cm2
31. Find the surface area of a sphere whose volume is 45𝜋 cm3. B. 48.42 cm 2
D. 40.27 cm2
A. 113.09 cm2 C. 131.24 cm2
2
B. 145.12 cm D. 122.97 cm2 SPHERICAL CONE
32. A solid spherical ball has a volume of 1500 cm3. Find the thickness of a hollow spherical ball of the 43. Find the volume of a spherical sector with a central angle of 60° in a sphere of radius 15 cm.
same volume such that it’s inside diameter is the same as the diameter of the solid ball. A. 850.87 cm3 C. 8891.44 cm3
3
A. 1.85 cm C. 1.58 cm B. 947.00 cm D. 974.39 cm3
B. 2.17 cm D. 2.71 cm
BGG Page 2 of 3
SIMILAR FIGURES
44. Each side of a cube is increased by 1%. By what percent is the volume of the cube increased?
A. 1.21% C. 2.80%
B. 3.03% D. 4.15%
45. A pyramid has a square base 8 cm x 8 cm and altitude of 20 cm. It is cut by a plane parallel to the base.
If the distance of the cutting plane from the base of the pyramid is 7 cm, find the volume of the smaller
pyramid formed.
A. 166.82 cm3 C. 277.33 cm3
B. 117.17 cm3 D. 309.49 cm3
46. A right circular cone has a radius of 1.20 m at the top and an altitude of 4.80 m. It contains oil at a depth
of 2.40 m. What will be the depth of oil if the cone is inverted?
A. 0.21 m C. 0.32 m
B. 0.44 m D. 0.60 m
47. The surface areas of two spheres are 24 cm2 and 96 cm2, respectively. What is the ratio of their volume?
A. 1:4 C. 1:6
B. 1:8 D. 1:9
48. If the surface area of a sphere increases by 21%, what is the % increase in its volume?
A. 27.1% C. 26.2%
B. 33.1% D. 41.6%
49. If a child 2.5 feet in height weighs 30 lbs., what would be the weight of a man 5 feet tall of the same
proportions?
A. 60 lbs. C. 120 lbs.
B. 240 lbs. D. 360 lbs.
SPHEROID
50. Given an ellipse whose major radius is 6 cm and minor radius is 3 cm. Find the volume generated if it is
revolved about the minor axis.
A. 36𝜋 cm3 C. 72𝜋 cm3
3
B. 98𝜋 cm D. 144𝜋 cm3
SOLID OF REVOLUTION
51. A rectangular area 3 x 6 is to be revolved about the y-axis. The longer dimension is parallel to y-axis.
The coordinate of the centroid of the area is at (8, 14). Compute the volume generated.
A. 405.62 cu. units C. 502.65 cu. units
B. 741.15 cu. units D. 904.78 cu. units
52. Find the volume generated by the circle x2 + y2 + 4x - 6y – 12=0 if it is revolved about the line
2x – 3y – 12 =0
A. 3241.67 cu. units C. 3331.67 cu. units
B. 3421.67 cu. units D. 3591.67 cu. units
53. A wedge is cut from a cylinder of radius 3 m by two planes, one perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder
and the other passing through a diameter of the section made by the first plane and inclined to this plane
at an angle of 45°. Find the volume of the wedge.
A. 12 m3 C. 16 m3
3
B. 18 m D. 21 m3
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MATHEMATICS – ANALYTIC GEOMETRY CE 434 /ECE 434 - CORRELATION COURSE
DISTANCE BETWEEN TWO POINTS PERPENDICULAR LINES

1. The distance between points (8, 7) and (3, y) is 13 units, what is the value of y? 14. Determine B such that 3x + 2y – 7 = 0 is perpendicular to 2x – By + 2 = 0.
A. -19 C. 5 A. 5 C. 4
B. 19 or -5 D. 5 or -19 B. 3 D. 2
2. The distance between two points A (3x, 5) and B (5x, -3) is equal to 10. What is the probable value of x?
A. 3 C. 5 15. Find the equation of the line through (-1, 3) and is perpendicular to the line 5x – 2y + 3 = 0.
B. 6 D. 8 A. 2x + 5y – 11= 0 C. 2x + 5y – 12 = 0
B. 2x + 5y – 13 = 0 D. 2x + 5y – 10 =0
SLOPE OF A LINE 16. Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points (2, 6) and (-4, 3).
3. Find the inclination of the line passing through (-5, 3) and (10, 7). A. x + 2y – 8 = 0 C. 4x + 2y – 5 = 0
A. 0.2606 rad C. 0.6062 rad B. x – 2y + 10 = 0 D. 4x + 2y – 13 = 0
B. 0.3665 rad D. 0.7854 rad
4. Find the value of y given that the slope of line joining the points (3, 1) and (5, y) is 2. PARALLEL LINES
A. 2 C. 3 17. The equation of two lines are 3y – 2x = 6 and 3x + ky = -7. For what value k will the two lines parallel?
B. 4 D. 5 A. -9/2 C. -7/3
5. Line L1 passes through (-1, -2) and (3, 5) and another line L2 passes through (3, 5) and (1, -3). B. 9/2 D. 7/3
Determine the angle between L1 and L2. 18. Find the equation of a line passing through (2, -1) and parallel to line 2x – 4y = -5.
A. 18.23° C. 32.45° A. 3x – y – 7 = 0 C. 2x + 3y + 5 = 0
B. 15.71° D. 21.56° B. 4x – 3y – 6 = 0 D. 2x – 4y – 8 = 0
DIVISION OF A LINE SEGMENT DISTANCE BETWEEN A POINT AND A LINE

6. A line connecting the points with coordinates (x, 7) and (10, y) is bisected at (8, 2). Find the value of x 19. The distance from the point (2, 1) to the line 4x – 3y + 5 = 0 is equal to:
and y. A. -2 C. 2
A. x = -3, y = 6 C. x = 6, y = -3 B. -3 D. 4
B. x = 3, y = 6 D. x = -6, y = -3 20. Find the equation of the line parallel to 3x – 4y – 14 = 0 and is 2 units away from the point (1, 5).
7. Find the point of division in the first quadrant of the line segment joining the points (-3, -2) and (4, 5) if A. 3x – 4y + 27 = 0 C. 3x – 4y – 22 = 0
it is divided into two segments one of which is thrice as long the other. B. 3x – 4y + 10 = 0 D. 3x – 4y + 7 = 0
A. (4/5, 2/3) C. (2/3, 3/4)
B. (2/5, 1/5) D. (9/4, 13/4) DISTANCE BETWEEN TWO LINES
STRAIGHT LINE 21. Find the distance between the two parallel lines: x – y = 16 and 2x – 2y = 15.
8. A line with the equation y = mx + b passes through the points (-1/3, -6) and (2, 1). Find the value of m. A. 6 units C. 7 units
A. 1 C. 3 B. 8 units D. 9 units
B. 2 D. 4
9. If the slope of the line (k + 1) x + ky – 3 =0 is -2, find the value of k. CIRCLE
A. 2 C. 1 22. What is the coordinates of the center x2 + y2 – 18x + 10y + 25 = 0.
B. -3 D. -2 A. (9, 5) C. (-9, 5)
10. Find the angle that the line 2y – 9x – 18 = 0 makes with x-axis. B. (-5, 9) D. (9, -5)
A. 75.5° C. 45.0° 23. Find the value of k so that the circle x2 + y2 – kx + 6y – 3 = 0 has a radius equal to 4 units.
B. 48.95° D. 77.5° A. 3 C. 4
11. What is the equation of a line with x-intercept -6 and y-intercept 3? B. 5 D. 6
A. x – 2y – 6 = 0 C. x + 2y + 6 = 0 24. Find the equation of a circle which has the points (4, 7) and (2, -3) as ends of its diameter.
B. x – 2y + 6 = 0 D. x + 2y – 6 = 0 A. (x – 3)2 + (y – 2)2 = 26 C. (x – 3)2 + (y – 2)2 = 27
2 2
12. If the points (-3, -5), (x, y), and (3, 4) lie on a straight line determine the equation of the locus of points. B. (x – 2) + (y – 3) = 26 D. (x – 3)2 + (y + 2)2 = 27
A. 3x + 2y – 1 = 0 C. 2x – 3y + 1 = 0 25. Find the equation of the circle which is tangent to both the x and y axes and having a radius of 3 units.
B. 2x + 3y – 1 = 0 D. 3x – 2y – 1 = 0 A. x2 + y2 – 6x – 6y + 9 = 0 C. x2 + y2 + 6x + 6y + 9 = 0
13. Find the equation of a line passing through the intersection of the lines x – y + 5 = 0 and x + 5y – 4 = 0 B. x2 + y2 – 9 = 0 D. x2 + y2 – 18 = 0
and passing through the points (1, 0). 26. A circle has its center at (3, -2) is tangent to the line 3x + 4y – 26 = 0. Determine the equation of the
A. 2x – 5y – 1 = 0 C. 3x – 4y + 5 = 0 circle.
B. x + 3y – 1 = 0 D. 2x + 5y – 9 = 0 A. x2 + y2 + 4y + 6x = 12 C. x2 – y2 – 6x + 4y = 12
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B. x2 + y2 – 4y – 6x = 12 D. x2 + y2 – 6x + 4y = 12 B. (4, 5) D. (1, 2)
27. A curve has an equation of x2 + y2 – 6x + 10y + 5= 0. Find the equation of the tangent line at (1, 0). 40. Given the ellipse 16x2 + 9y2 = 144, what is its eccentricity?
A. 2x + 5y + 2 = 0 C. 2x – 5y – 2 = 0 A. 1.34 C. 2.59
B. 5x – 2y + 2 = 0 D. 5x + 2y – 2 = 0 B. 0.66 D. 1.03
28. A curve has an equation x2 + y2 = 25. The tangent line has a slope of 3/4 and located in Quadrant II. 41. The eccentricity of an ellipse is 0.50 and the distance between its foci is 8. Find the distance between
Determine the sum of the lengths of sub-tangent and sub-normal. directrices.
A. 5.33 C. 6.33 A. 12 C. 16
B. 8.33 D. 10.33 B. 24 D. 32
29. What is the equation of the normal to the curve x2 + y2 = 25 at (4, 3)? 42. Find the equation of the ellipse given the following conditions: foci (-3, 2) and (5, 2), major axis is 10.
A. 5x + 3y = 0 C. 3x – 4y = 0 A. 9x2 + 25y2 – 18x –100y – 116 = 0 C. 9x2 + 25y2 – 18x +100y – 116 = 0
2 2
B. 5x – 3y = 0 D. 3x + 4y = 0 B. 9x + 25y – 18x –100y + 116 = 0 D. 9x2 + 25y2 – 18x +100y + 116 = 0
43. Find the equation of the ellipse with the foci at (-6, 0) and (6, 0) and passes through (9, 0).
30. Find the center of the circle touching the lines 3x + 4y = 12 and 4x + 3y = 9, and having its center on the A. 9x2 + 5y2 – 405 = 0 C. 9x2 + 5y2 – 450 = 0
2 2
line 3x + y = 7. B. 5x + 9y – 450 = 0 D. 5x2 + 9y2 – 405 = 0
A. (1, 4) C. (-1, -4) 44. Lines drawn from the foci to any point on an ellipse are called focal radii of the ellipse. Determine the
B. (2, 1) D. (-2, -1) equations of the focal radii drawn to the point (2, 3) on the ellipse 3x2 + 4y2 = 48.
31. Determine the equation of the radical axis of the two circles x2 + y2 + 10x – 18y + 25 = 0 and A. x = 2, 3x – 4y + 6 = 0 C. x = 2, 4x – 3y + 6 = 0
x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y + 1 = 0. B. x = -2, 3x – 4y + 6 = 0 D. x = 2, 3x + 4y + 6 = 0
A. 6x – 11y + 12 = 0 C. 2x + 3y – 3 = 0 45. Point P(x, y) moves with a distance from point (0, 1) one half of its distance from the line y = 4, the
B. 3x + 4y -5 = 0 D. x – y + 2 = 0 equation of the locus is:
A. 4x2 – 3y2 = 12 C. 4x2 + 3y2 = 12
PARABOLA B. x2 – 2y2 = 4 D. 2x2 + 5y2 = 3
32. The vertex of the parabola y2 – 2x + 6y + 3 = 0 is located at:
A. (-3, 3) C. (3, 3) HYPERBOLA
B. (3, -3) D. (-3, -3) 46. A hyperbola has an equation of 16x2 – 9y2 – 128x – 90y -113 = 0. Determine the coordinates of the
33. What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x2 = 20y? center of the hyperbola.
A. √20 C. √5 A. (4, 5) C. (4, -5)
B. 20 D. 5 B. (-4, 5) D. (-4, -5)
34. Determine the equation of the parabola with axis vertical, vertex is at (-1, -1) and passing through (2, 2). 47. The length of the latus rectum of a hyperbola is equal to 18 and the distance between the foci is 12.
A. x2+ 2x – 3y – 2 = 0 C. x2 – 4x + 2y – 1 = 0 Determine the distance between the directrices of the hyperbola.
2
B. x + 4x – y – 2 = 0 D. x2 – 5x + 2y – 6 = 0 A. 3 C. 4
35. Determine the equation of the parabola where the vertex is at (4, 3) and the focus is at (4, -1). B. 5 D. 6
A. y2 – 8x + 16y – 32 = 0 C. y2 + 8x – 16y – 32 = 0 48. The length of the latus rectum of a hyperbola is equal to 18 and the distance between the foci is 12.
2
B. x + 8x – 16y + 32 = 0 D. x2 – 8x + 16y – 32 = 0 Determine the equation of the curve if the conjugate axis is parallel to the y-axis.
36. A chord passing through the focus of parabola y2 = 8x has one end at the point (8, 8). What is the A. y2 –3x2 = 27 C. y2 – 2x2 = 15
coordinate of the other end of the chord? B. 3x2 – y2 = 27 D. 2x2 – 3y2 = 27
A. (1/2, -3) C. (1/3, -2) 49. Find the equation of the hyperbola with foci at (-4, 0) and (4, 0) and passes through (2, 0).
B. (1/3, -4) D. (1/2, -2) A. 3x2 – y2 – 12 = 0 C. 3x2 – y2 + 12 = 0
37. Find the equation of the parabola with axis parallel to Oy and passing through (1, 9), (-2, 9) and (-1, 1). B. x2 – 3y2 – 4 = 0 D. x2 – 3y2 + 12 = 0
A. 4x2 + 4x – y + 1 = 0 C. 3x2 + 3x – y + 1 = 0 50. Find the equation of the hyperbola with vertices at (4, 0) and (-4, 0) and whose asymptotes are y = 2x
2
B. 4y + 4y – x + 1 = 0 D. 3y2 + 3y – x + 1 = 0 and y = -2x.
x2 y2 𝑥2 𝑦2
38. Find the equation of the curve passing through the center of the circles which are tangent to the x-axis A. − =1 C. − =1
64 16 16 64
and fixed circle having a radius of 6. The center of the fixed circle is at (5, 9).
A. x2 + 6x + y2 – 3y + 9 = 0 C. y2 – 4y + 4x + 45 = 0 y2 x2 𝑦2 𝑥2
B. x2 – 10x – 30y + 70 = 0 D. x2 + 8x – 26y + 55 = 0 B. − =1 D. − =1
64 16 16 64
ELLIPSE 51. A point moves so that the difference between its distance from (0, 5) and (0, -5) is 8, what is the
39. Find the location of the center of the ellipse: 16x2 + 25y2 – 64x – 50y – 311 = 0. equation of its locus?
A. (3, 2) C. (2, 1) A. 9y2 – 16x2 = 144 C. 16x2 – 9y2 = 144
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B. 4y2 – 9x2 = 36 D. 9x2 – 4y2 = 36
POLAR CURVES
52. A point has a polar coordinate of (7, 38°). Determine its equivalent rectangular coordinate.
A. (5.52, 4.31) C. (79.56, 38.64)
B. (38.64, 79.56) D. (4.31, 5.52)
53. What is the equivalent Cartesian form of the polar curve r = 2 sinθ?
A. x2 + y2 = 2y C. x – y = 3
B. x2 = 4y D. y2 = 4x
54. Convert the polar equation r = 3 secθ to rectangular form.
A. x – 3 = 0 C. y – 3 = 0
B. x – 3y = 0 D. 3x – 2y = 0
55. Find the polar equation of the circle of radius 3 units and center at (3, 0).
A. r = 3 cosθ C. r = 3 sinθ
B. r = 6 cosθ D. r = 9 sinθ
56. Express y3 = 4x2 in its polar form.
A. r = 4cot2θ cscθ C. r = 4cotθ cscθ
B. r = 4cot2θ csc2θ D. r = 4cotθ cscθ
57. Transform the rectangular equation (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )3 = 4𝑥 2 𝑦 2 into its equivalent polar form.
A. r = 3 sinθ C. r = sin2θ
B. r = 2 cosθ D. r = cos2θ
4
58. Determine the coordinates of the vertex of the curve 𝑟 = .
1−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
A. (2, 0) C. ( 0, 2)
B. (-2, 0) D. (0, -2)
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MATHEMATICS – DIFFENTIAL EQUATION CE 434 /ECE 434 - CORRELATIONCOURSE
ELIMINATION OF CONSTANTS LINEAR EQUATION

1. For the given general solution, determine the differential equation by eliminating the arbitrary constant 10. Find the general solution of (x4 + 2y) dx – xdy = 0.
y=C 1 e3x+C 2 e-x? A. 2y = x4 + Cx2 B. y = 2x4 + Cx2
4
C. 2y = x + C D. y = x4 + C
A. y” + 2y’ + 3y = 0 B. y’’- 2y’ - 3y = 0
C. y” + 2y – 3y = 0 D. y’’- 2y’+ 3y = 0 HIGHER ORDER DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
2. The equation y2=Cx is the general solution of: 11. Find the general solution of ( D3 – 4D2 + D + 6) y= 0
2𝑦 𝑦 A. y = C 1 ex + C 2 e-2x + C 3 e3x C. y = C 1 ex + C 2 e-2x+ C 3 e-3x
A. y’= B. y’=
𝑥 2𝑥 -x -2x 3x
D. y =C 1 e-x + C 2 e2x + C 3 e3x
P
2𝑥 𝑥 C. y = C 1e e + C 2 e +C 3 e
C. y’= D. y’= 12. Find the general solution of ( D4 + 6D3 + 9D2) y = 0
𝑦 2𝑦
A. y = C 1 + C 2 X + C 3 X2 + C 4 X3x B. y = C 1 + C 2 X + C 3 X2 + C 4 X-3x
SEPARATION OF VARIABLES C y = C 1 + C 2 X + (C 3 + C 4 ) e3x D. y = C 1 + C 2 X + (C 3 + C 4 X) e3x
3. Obtain the general solution of: (1-x)y’= y2 13. Find the general solution of ( D2 – 2D + 5) y = 0
A. ln (1-x) - Cy = 1 B. yln(1-x) – Cy = 0 A. y = (C 1 cos2x + C 2 sin2x) ex C. y = (C 1 cosx + C 2 sinx) e2x
C. yln (1-x) – Cy = 1 D. ln (1-x) – Cy = 0 B. y = C 1 cos2x + C 2 sin2x D. y = C 1 cosx + C 2 sinx
4. Solve the differential equation: x(y-1) dx + (x+1) dy= 0. If y = 2 when x = 1, determine y when x = 2 EXPONENTIAL GROWTH AND DECAY
A. 1.80 B. 1.55 14. The population of a certain community increase at the rate proportion to the population itself. If in the
C. 1.48 D. 1.63 present time the population of the community is 144,000 and ten years ago it was 100,000, after how
many year relative as of the present time will the population be duplicated?
FAMILY OF CURVES A. 8 years B. 19 years
C. 32 years D. 55 years
5. What is the particular equation of a given families of curve whose slope at any point P(x,y) is always 15. Radium decomposes approximately at a rate proportional to the amount present. If 50 mg now will be 48
equal to the negative of twice the abscissa of that point and also that it pass through (1,1) one century later, how many centuries will elapse before the radium will weigh 45 mg?
A. y = -x2 + 2 B. y = -x3 + 3 A. 1.65 B. 3.47
C. y = -x4 + 4 D. y= -x2 – 3 C. 2.58 D. 4.89
6. if dy = x2dx , what is the equation of the curve that passes through (1,1)? NEWTONS LAW OF COOLING
A. 3y = x3 + 2 B. y = x3 + 1 16. According to Newton’s Law of Cooling the rate at which a body cools is proportional to the difference
in temperature between the body and the surrounding atmosphere. If the air at 60̊̊ C, a body cools from
3
C. 3y = x – 2 D. y = x3 - 1
90̊ C to 80̊ C in 10 minutes, find its temperature 10 minutes later.
HOMOGENEOUS EQUATION A. 57.77̊ C B. 49.99̊ C
C. 66.66̊ C D. 73.33̊ C
7. Solve: (x2 + y2) dx – xydy = 0 17. If a thermometer is taken outdoors where the temperature is 5̊ C from a room where the temperature is
A. 2x2lnx – y2 = Cx2 C. 2x2lnx +y2 = Cx2 20̊ C, the reading drops to 10̊ C in one minute. How long after its removal from the room will be 6̊ C.
B. x2 + y2 = C D. -2x2lnx + y2 = C A. 2.46 𝑚𝑖𝑛 B. 4.27 min
C. 3.56 min D. 5.36 min
EXACT EQUATION
MOTION PROBLEMS
8. Solve the equation: (x + 2y) dx + (2x + y) dy = 0 18. An object falls from rest in a medium offering a resistance. The velocity of the object it reaches the
A. x2 + 4xy + y2 = C 2
C. x – 4xy + y = C 2
ground is given by the differential equation dV/dt + V/10 =32, ft/sec. What is the velocity of the object
B. x2 + y2 = C D. x2 – y2 = C one second after it falls?
A. 40.54 B. 30.45
9. Solve for the equation: (2x3 – xy2 – 2y +3) dx – (x2y + 2x)dy = 0 C. 38.65 D. 34.12
19. When a bullet is fired into a sand bank, it will be assumed that its retardation is equal to the square root
A. x4 – 6x – x2y2 – 4xy = C C. x4 – 6x + x2y2 – 4xy = C of its velocity. For how long will it travel if its velocity, before entering the bank 49 m/sec coming to
C. x4 + 6x + x2y2 – 4xy = C D. x4 + 6x – x2y2 – 4xy = C rest.
A. 12 sec. B. 14 sec.
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MATHEMATICS – DIFFENTIAL EQUATION CE 434 /ECE 434 - CORRELATIONCOURSE
C. 11 sec. D. 13 sec
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Permutation Combination and Probability CE 434 - CORRELATIONCOURSE
Permutation 11. How many 3-digit numbers are odd if no digit may be repeated?
- grouping of things where arrangement is important A. 52 C. 36
B. 48 D. 24
Linear Permutation 12. How many 3-digit numbers are even if no digit may be repeated?
- Permutation in a straight line A. 36 C. 52
B. 45 D. 68
1. How many permutations can be formed from the letters A, B and C if all are taken at a time 13. From the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, how many three-digit numbers greater than 330 can be formed if
A. 6 C. 4 each digit can be used only once?
B. 8 D. 5 A. 75 C. 90
2. How many committees consisting of one boy and one girl can be selected from a group of 3 boys and 2 B. 105 D. 120
girls?
A. 5 C. 8 Situation
B. 6 D. 12 Given the following digits: 4, 3, 5, 8, 9 and 1.
3. In how many ways can 5 students line up to enter the classroom?
A. 20 C. 100 14. How many three-digit numbers less than 500 can be made without repeating any digit?
B. 120 D. 200 A. 180 C. 120
4. Three people A, B and C rode in a minibus that has six vacant seats on each side. In how many ways B. 60 D. 100
can they be seated if A insists on sitting at the right side of the minibus? 15. How many four-digit numbers greater than 8500 can be made without repeating any digit?
A. 660 ways C. 670 ways A. 60 C. 72
B. 650 ways D. 60 ways B. 124 D. 84
5. There are four balls of different colors. Two balls are taken and arranged. How many permutations are
possible? Circular Permutation
A. 6 C. 8 - Arrangement in a circle
B. 10 D. 12
6. How many permutations can be made out of the letters in the word ISLAND taking four letters at a 16. How many circular arrangements can be made from 7 different objects if all are taken at a time?
A. 120 C. 720
time?
B. 250 D. 100
A. 360 C. 720
17. In how many ways can you arrange 8 chairs in a circular table if 3 of them are identical?
B. 120 D. 540
A. 720 C. 840
7. How many permutations can be made out of the letters of the word ENGINEERING?
B. 120 D. 250
A. 39,916,800 C. 55,440
B. 277,200 D. 3,326,400
Permutation by Group
8. A college plays 12 football games in a season. In how many ways can the team end the season with 7
— defined as the collection of things arranged in peculiar way
wins, 3 losses and 2 ties?
A. 2430 C. 7920
18. In how many ways can 5 people line up to pay their water bills if two particular persons refuse to
B. 1450 D.4550
follow each other?
Number Problem A. 120 C. 72
B. 90 D. 140
Note: Zero may not occupy the first digit's position.
19. In how many relative orders can 7 people sit at a round table with a certain 3 people side by side?
A. 144 C. 540
Situation B. 720 D. 108
How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 if: 20. There are 15 books. Of these, there are 5 mathematics, 7 Physics and 3 books of Chemistry. In how
many ways can they be arranged in a shelf if three subjects are to be together?
9. No digit may be repeated in a given number. A. 21,277,800 C. 21,727,800
A. 100 C. 150 B. 21,778,200 D. 21,772,800
B. 150 D. 80 21. In how many ways can 3 men and 4 women be seated on a bench if the women are to be together?
10. Digits may be repeated in a given number. A. 720 C. 1024
A. 100 C.120 B. 220 D. 576
B. 150 D. 180
BGG Page 1 of 3
Combination 30. A jar of candies contains 4 mints, 6 toffees and 3 chocolates. Find the probability of getting a mint
— grouping of things where arrangement is not important. in one candy is picked at random?
A. 6/13 C.4/13
B. 10/13 D. 3/13
22. How many ways can a committee of 6 members may be selected from an organization with 20 31. A box contains 4 red balls, 3 yellow balls and 5 orange balls. Determine the probability of not
members? getting a red ball in the first draw.
A. 38760 C. 23450 A. 1/2 C. 2/3
B. 21520 D. 32015 B. 1/8 D. 1/3
23. From a group of professionals consisting of 5 Engineers and 4 Architects, find the number of
committees that can be formed consisting of 5 professionals. Situation
A. 162 C. 216 A can contains 3 blue balls and 5 red balls. If two balls are drawn in succession without replacement:
B. 126 D. 261
24. In how many ways can 7 scientists be assigned one triple and two double hotel bedrooms? 32. What is the probability that both balls are red?
A. 210 C. 230 A. 5/28 C. 5/16
B. 220 D. 240 B. 5/32 D. 5/14
25. A company will hire 7 men and 4 women. In how many ways can the company choose from 9 men 33. What is the probability that one ball is blue and the other is red?
and 6 women who are qualified for the positions? A. 15/26 C. 15/28
A. 720 C. 240 B. 1/4 D. 225/784
B. 120 D. 540
34. What is the probability that all are of the same color?
26. In how many ways can you fill a box with book(s) if you can choose from three different books?
A. 13/30 C. 14/29
A. 6 C. 5
B. 13/28 D. 15/28
B. 7 D. 3
35. A box contains 3 green, 4 red and 5 white balls. If 2 balls are picked at random without replacement,
27. How many ways can you invite any one or more of your five classmates to your graduation? what is the probability that both are of different colors.
A. 5 C. 30 A. 19/66 C. 43/66
B. 16 D. 31 B. 47/66 D. 35/65
28. There are 12 persons attending a meeting. In how many ways can 7 among them be seated on a 36. If three balls are drawn in succession from 5 white and 6 black balls in a bag, find the probability that
circular arrangement of 7 seats? all are of one color, if the first ball is replaced immediately while the second is not replaced before the
A. 570,042 C. 570,240 third draw.
B. 570,024 D. 570,420 A. 10/121 C. 18/121
29. How many circular permutations of 4 objects can be made out of 6 objects, four which are different B. 28/121 D. 180/121
and two are identical?
A. 48 C. 56
B. 64 D. 44 Situation
Box A contains 5 blue pens and 10 red pens and Box B contains 20 blue pens and 10 red pens. The experiment
Probability consists of selecting a box and then drawing a pen from the selected box.
— Level of expectation in number form (0% to 100%) that certain outcome will happen. 37. Find the probability of drawing a blue pen in Box A.
A. 5/6 C. 2/3
𝐃
Probability 𝐏= B. 1/6 D. 1/3
𝐓
38. Find the probability of drawing a blue pen.
D = permutation/combination with certain restrictions A. 1/3 C. 1/6
= number of desired events B. 1/2 D.1/8
39. One box contains four cards numbered 1, 3, 5 and 6. Another box contains three cards numbered 2, 4
T = permutation/combination without any restriction and 7. One card is drawn from each box. Find the probability that the sum is even
= total number of possible outcomes. A. 5/12 C. 3/7
B. 7/12 D. 5/7
BGG Page 2 of 3
40. One letter is taken from each of the words PARALLEL and LEVEL at random. What is the probability 53. Find the probability of getting exactly 12 out of 30 questions in a true or false examination.
of getting the same letter? A. 0.091 C. 0.071
A. 1/5 C.1/20 B. 0.081 D. 0.021
B. 3/20 D. 3/4 54. A janitor with bunch of 9 keys is to open a door but only one key can open. What is the probability
41. A committee of three is to be chosen from a group of 5 men and 4 women. If the selection is made at that he will succeed in 3 trials if the keys drawn are returned before drawing the next key?
random, find the probability that two are men. A. 0.298 C.0.398
A. 1/2 C.15/32 B. 0.289 D. 0.389
B. 10/21 D. 16/27
42. On a TV show, a contestant is asked to pick an integer at random from the first 100 consecutive
integers, that is, the integer from 1 to 100. If the number picked is divisible by 9 or 12, the contestant
will win a free trip to Boracay. What is the probability that the contestant will win?
A. 11/100 C.19/100
B. 13/100 D. 17/100
43. Determine the probability of getting either red card or a picture card if a single card is chosen from a
pack of playing cards.
A. 8/13 C.10/13
B. 13/26 D. 18/15
44. In poker game consisting of 5 cards, what is the probability of holding 2 kings and 2 queens?
A. 5/52 C.5/26
B. 33/54145 D. 1264/45685
45. A pack of 52 playing cards is well shuffled. Determine the probability that the first four cards dealt
from the pack will be the four kings.
A. 3.69x10-6 C. 3.21x10-6
-6
B. 2.31x10 D. 4.65x10-6
46. If a pair of dice is tossed, find the probability of getting a total or 6 or 12.
A. 2/3 C. 5/6
B. 1/3 D. 1/6
47. Luffy and Zoro each throw two dice. If Luffy gets a sum of 4, what is the probability that Zoro will get
less?
A. 1/2 C. 5/6
B. 9/11 D. 1/12
48. A pair of dice is thrown. What is the probability that the sum is divisible by 5?
A. 7/36 C. 1/9
B. 1/12 D. 1/4
49. If 6 coins are tossed simultaneously, find the probability that they will just have three heads.
A. 5/16 C.23/128
B. 35/128 D.20/53
50. If 6 coins are tossed simultaneously, find the probability that there will be at least 5 tails.
A. 13/28 C. 2/7
B. 7/64 D. 4/27
51. An archer hits 75% of all his targets. What is the probability that he will exactly hit 4 out of his next 10
targets?
A. 0.01622 C. 0.4050
B. 0.00405 D. 0.00162
52. Each question in a multiple-choice type of exam contains 4 possible answers. The professor gave a
short exam of 10 questions. In order to pass the exam, a student must obtain a grade of 70% or higher.
Find the probability of a student in passing the exam if he relies on guessing.
A. 0.0024 C. 0.0035
B. 0.0042 D. 0.0053
BGG Page 3 of 3
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
1. A body weighing 100 kg is hanging at the end of a 9. Which of the following most nearly gives the force
rope 5 m long. What horizontal force is needed to in member AC?
move the body a horizontal distance of 1 meter? a. 538.52 N c. 1134.89 N
a. 15.75 kg c. 20.4 kg b. 1615.55 N d. 2332.38 N
b. 25.6 kg d. 32.8 kg
10. Which of the following most nearly gives the force
2. A 5 kg weight hanging on a 3 m long rope from a in member AD?
point of anchor on a vertical wall, is pulled away a. 538.52 N c. 1134.89 N
from the wall by a horizontal force so that the rope b. 1615.55 N d. 2332.38 N
makes an angle of 30O with the vertical. Find the
value of the horizontal force.
a. 2.19 kg c. 2.89 kg 11. Three identical cylinders are stacked within a rigid
b. 1.97 kg d. 2.32 kg bin as shown in the figure. Weight of each
cylinder is 500 N. There is no friction at any
3. The members of a truss are pin connected at joint contact surface. Which of the following most
O as shown. When F 2 = 6 kN, determine the nearly gives the force at C?
magnitude of F 1 and its angle θ for equilibrium.

500 N
500 N 500 N
A
B
a. 4.31 kN, 4.69°

C
b. 5.12 kN, 6.82°
c. 3.91 kN, 3.75°
d. 7.03 kN, 8.27° a. 288.7 N c. 425.1 N
b. 144.3 N d. 750.0 N
PROBLEM:
The coplanar force system shown consists of two forces PROBLEM:
and a couple. All coordinates are in meters. A homogeneous ladder 20 ft long weighing 50 lbs is
leaning against a wall makes an angle of 15° with the
wall. Assuming that the coefficient of friction at all
contacts surfaces is 0.20.
12. What horizontal force (F) will cause the ladder to
slip outward?
a. 4.56 lbs c. 3.39 lbs
b. 5.67 lbs d. 6.54 lbs
13. What horizontal force (F) will cause the ladder to

slip inward?
a. 16.45 lbs c. 15.98 lbs
b. 17.36 lbs d. 19.45 lbs
4. Determine the y-component of the resultant of the
force system. 14. How far up the ladder will a climbing man
a. 6N c. 8 N weighing 150 lbs, before slipping of the ladder
b. 13 N d. 15 N impends?
a. 16.8 ft c. 15.7 ft
5. Compute the value of the moment about point O. b. 14.6 ft d. 13.2 ft
a. -24 N-m c. -32 N-m
b. 24 N-m d. 32 N-m 15. A 300 kg box impends to slide down a ramp
O
inclined at angle of 25 with the horizontal. What
6. Which of the following gives the x-intercept of the is the frictional resistance?
resultant force? a. 2341.76 N c. 1243.76 N
a. 4.6 m c. 2.5 m
b. 1234.67 N d. 1432.67 N
b. 3.2 m d. 5.3 m
7. A concurrent force system in space is composed 16. A block is resting on a plane surface. The
of three forces that act through the origin and the coefficient of friction between the block and the
following points. P 1 = 126 kN (-1, 5, -3), P 2 = 93 surface is 0.28. At what angle can the plane be
kN (5, -4, 6), and P 3 = 38 kN (4, 1, -3). Which of inclined so that the block starts to slide?
the following most nearly gives the magnitude of a. 14.56° c. 14.65°
the resultant force? b. 15.46° d. 15.64°
a. 82.5 kN c. 73.4 kN
b. 97.0 kN d. 61.8 kN
PROBLEM:
PROBLEM: A 500 kg block is resting on a 30° inclined plane with a
The points B, C and D of the cantilever framework as µ = 0.3.
shown are attached to a vertical wall. The 400 N load is 17. Find the required force P acting horizontally that
parallel to z-axis and the 1200 N load is parallel to y- will prevent the block from sliding.
axis. a. 1020 N c.1160 N
b. 4236 N d.5205 N
18. Find the required force P acting horizontally that

start the block to move up the plane.
a. 4236 N c.1160 N
b. 5205 N d.2570 N
19. If the tension developed in each of the four wires

is not allowed to exceed 600 N, determine the
maximum mass of the chandelier that can be
supported.
8. Which of the following most nearly gives the force

in member AB?
a. 538.52 N c. 1134.89 N
b. 1615.55 N d. 2332.38 N
a. 48.2 kg c. 83.7 kg
b. 68.5 kg d. 32.1 kg
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS –CORRELATION 2018 PART III
SHEAR AND MOMENT IN BEAMS
Situation: A cantilever beam is fixed at the left end and free at the right end
has a length of 6 m. It carries a concentrated couple of 10 kN-m acting 1 m 13. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum w so that
from the left end and a uniformly distributed load of 5 kN/m at a length of 3 m allowable tensile stress will not be exceeded?
starting at 3 m from the left end. a. 11.25 kN c. 12.5 kN
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the moment reaction at the b. 15.00 kN d. 37.5 kN
support? 14. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum w so that
a. 87.50 kN-m c. 67.5 kN-m allowable compressive stress will not be exceeded?
b. 57.5 kN-m d. 47.5 kN-m a. 11.25 kN c. 12.5 kN
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the shear 3 m from the left b. 15.00 kN d. 37.5 kN
end? 15. Which of the following most nearly gives the safest value of w?
a. 10.0 kN c. 15.0 kN a. 11.25 kN c. 12.5 kN
b. 17.5 kN d. 20.5 kN b. 15.00 kN d. 37.5 kN
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the moment at 3 m from the
left end? HORIZONTAL SHEARING STRESS IN BEAMS
a. 17.5 kN-m c. 19.5 kN-m Situation: A rectangular beam 100 mm x 200 mm carries a uniformly
b. 28.5 kN-m d. 22.5 kN-m distributed load of 5kN/m over its simple span of 5 m.
16. Which of the following most nearly gives the shear 1 m from the left
Situation: A beam 26 m long is simply supported by a roller at the left support?
support and hinge at the right support. It carries a concentrated load of 500 a. 5.00 kN c. 7.50 kN
kN, 5 m from the left end; a clockwise moment of 800 kN-m at midspan; and b. 8.75 kN d. 12.50 kN
a uniformly distributed load of 50 kN/m over the entire 10 m segment from 17. Which of the following most nearly gives the shear stress 1 m from the
the right support. left support at a point 30 mm from the top of the beam?
4. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at the left a. 0.48 MPa c. 0.33 MPa
support? b. 0.29 MPa d. 0.19 MPa
a. 469.23 kN c. 500.50 kN 18. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum shear stress in
b. 530.77 kN d. 570.49 kN the beam?
5. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum shear? a. 0.94 MPa c. 0.66 MPa
a. 469.23 kN c. 500.50 kN b. 0.56 MPa d. 0.38 MPa
b. 530.77 kN d. 570.49 kN
6. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum moment? Situation: A T-section is formed by joining two plates. One plate is 200
a. 2100.00 kN-m c. 2346.51 kN-m mmm by 400 mm as flange and the other is 20 mm by 100 mm as web. The
b. 2607.69 kN-m d. 2900.00 kN-m section is subjected to maximum shear of 60 kN.
Situation: From the shear diagram as shown in the figure: 19. Which of the following most nearly gives the moment of inertia of the
section about the neutral axis?
a. 10.9333 x106 mm4 c. 10.3333 x106 mm4
b. 10.6667 x106 mm4 d. 10.5733 x106 mm4
20. Which of the following most nearly gives the shearing stress at the
neutral axis?
a. 3.36 MPa c. 3.25 MPa
b. 3.28 MPa d. 3.17 MPa
21. Which of the following most nearly gives the shearing stress on the web
at the junction of the flange and the web?
a. 30.73 MPa c. 31.78 MPa
b. 32.52 MPa d. 31.50 MPa
7. Which of the following most gives the maximum concentrated load COMBINED STRESSES
excluding the reactions? Situation: A hollow circular pole having a height of 3 m, an outside diameter
a. 10 kN c. 15 kN of 300 mm, and a wall thickness of 6 mm, weighs 150 N/m. The pole carries
b. 40 kN d. 50 kN a compressive load of 3 kN. at an eccentricity of 100 mm and a lateral load
8. Which of the following gives the maximum negative moment? of 0.45 kN. at its top.
a. -25 kN-m c. -30 kN-m
b. -40 kN-m d. -15 kN-m 22. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum compressive
9. Which of the following gives the location of the point of inflection from stress at the base of the pole due to the combined loadings.
the right end? a. 4.673 MPa c. 4.75 MPa
a. 1.75 m c. 2.25 m b. 3.361 MPa d. 2.249 MPa
b. 3.25 m d. 3.75 m 23. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum tensile stress at
the base due to the combined loadings?
BENDING STRESS IN BEAMS a. 4.673 MPa c. 3.509 MPa
Situation: A cantilever beam 6-m long carries a load that varies uniformly b. 1.361 MPa d. 1.249 MPa
from 1000 N/m at the free end to zero at the fixed end. The beam section is 24. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum shear stress at
60 mm wide and 200 mm high. the base if the hollow is replaced by a solid circular wooden pole of
diameter 250 mm?
10. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum bending stress? a. 0.0122 MPa c. 0.0259 MPa
a. 20 MPa c. 30 MPa b. 0.0390 MPa d. 0.0451 MPa
b. 40 MPa d. 50 MPa
11. Which of the following most nearly gives the bending at section 2.4 m
from the fixed end?
a. -2496 N-m c. -5184 N-m
b. +2496 N-m d. +5184 N-m
12. Which of the following most nearly gives the magnitude and type of
stress in a fiber 30 mm from the bottom of the beam at section 3.6 m
from the free end?
a. 9.07 MPa (compression) c. 9.07 MPa (tension)
b. 4.53 MPa (compression) d. 4.53 MPa (tension)
Situation: For the beam loaded as shown. Allowable tensile stress is 60

MPa and allowable compressive stress is 100 MPa. I x = 30 x 106 mm4.
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS –CORRELATION 2018 PART 1
1. The block of weight W in the figure hangs from the pin at A. The 4. How many 19 mm-diameter rivets are required to fasten member
bars AB and AC are pinned to the support at B and C. The areas BC to the gusset plate?
2 2
are 400 mm for AB and 200 mm for AC. Neglecting the weight of a. 4 c. 7
the bars, determine the safe W if the stress in AB is limited to 100 b. 5 d. 8
MPa and that in AC to 150 MPa. 5. What is the largest average tensile stress in truss member BC?
a. 120 MPa c. 150 MPa
b. 128 MPa d. 45 MPa
6. How many 19 mm-diameter rivets are required to fasten member

BE to the gusset plate?
a. 4 c. 7
b. 5 d. 8
7. What is the largest average compressive stress in truss member
a. 61.7 kN c. 34.11 kN BE?
b. 173.0 kN d. 61.28 kN a. 44.92 MPa c. 150.94 MPa
b. 128.94 MPa d. 75.92 MPa
2. A rectangular piece of wood, 50 mm by 100 mm in cross section,
is used as a compression block as shown in the figure. Determine Situation: A vertical steel tank 3 m in diameter and 6 m high has a wall
the maximum axial force P that can be safely applied to the block thickness of 12 mm.
if the compressive stress in the wood is limited to 20 MN/m2 and 8. If the tanks is filled with water, which of the following most nearly gives the
the shearing stress parallel to the grain is limited to 5 MN/m2. The circumferential stress?
grain makes an angle of 20° with the horizontal, as shown. a. 8.16 MPa c. 7.36 MPa
b. 4.08 MPa d. 3.68 MPa
9. If the tanks is filled with water, which of the following most nearly gives the
longitudinal stress?
a. 8.16 MPa c. 7.36 MPa
b. 4.08 MPa d. 3.68 MPa
10. If the stress is limited to 5 MPa, which of the following most nearly gives
the maximum height of water up to which the tank may be filled?
a. 8.16 m c. 7.36 m
b. 4.08 m d. 3.68 m
Situation: A 12 mm thick steel tire has a width of 110 mm and an internal

diameter of 800 mm. It is heated and shrunk onto a steel wheel 800.50 mm
a. 100 kN c. 77.79 kN in diameter. The modulus of elasticity of steel is 200 GPa.
b. 173.0 kN d. 54.64 kN 11. Which of the following most nearly gives the tensile stress in the tire?
a. 110 MPa c. 125 MPa
b. 130 MPa d. 145 MPa
3. A plate with width of 130 mm and thickness of 25 mm is to be
connected to a plate of the same width and thickness by three 20 12. Which of the following most nearly gives the compressive pressure
between the tire and the wheel?
mm diameter bolts rivets, as shown in the figure. Allowable stress
a. 4.35 MPa c. 3.90 MPa
are: τ(rivets) ≤ 60 MPa ; σb (plate) ≤ 110 MPa; σ(plate) = 140 b. 3.75 MPa d. 3.30 MPa
MPa. 13. If the tire has an allowable tensile stress of 124 MPa and is to resist a
pressure of 1.50 MPa, which of the following most nearly gives its
Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum load, in kN thickness?
that can be applied to the connection without exceeding the a. 5.16 mm c. 4.84 mm
allowable stresses indicated. b. 2.58 mm d. 2.42 mm
a. 56.5 kN c. 385 kN
b. 165 kN d. 400 kN
Situation: The figure shows a roof truss and the detail of the riveted
connection at joint B. Using allowable stresses of 𝜏= 70 MPa and
𝜎𝑏 =140 MPa.
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS –CORRELATION 2018 PART II
a. 226.81 kN c. 210.00 kN
Situation: A composite bar is rigidly attached to the wall at A as shown in b. 170.85 kN d. 189.00 kN
the figure. Axial loads are applied at the positions indicated. 12. If the allowable strain for both materials is 0.0005, which of the
following most nearly gives the maximum load the member can carry
so that this allowable strain is not exceeded?
a. 162 kN c. 175 kN
b. 185 kN d. 205 kN
Situation: The lower ends of the three bars shown in the figure are at the
same level before the rigid homogeneous W = 176 kN block is attached.
Each steel bar has a length of 1.00 m, an area of 500 mm2, and E=200Gpa.
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the axial stress in member For the bronze bar, the length is 1.60 m, the area is 900 mm2, and E = 83
AB? GPa.
a. 179.05 MPa c. 152.79 MPa 13. Which of the following most nearly gives the stress developed in the
b. 114.66 MPa d. 38.20 MPa bronze?
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the deformation in member a. 27.52 MPa c. 37.01 MPa
AB? b. 50.33 MPa d. 66.67 MPa
a. -1.3806 mm c. 2.2381 mm 14. Which of the following most nearly gives the stress developed in the
b. -0.7460 mm d. 4.1419 mm steel bar?
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the displacement of joint C? a. 142.69 MPa c. 120.32 MPa
a. +0.8575 mm c.+0.7855 mm b. 79.27 MPa d. 62.58 MPa
b. -0.8575 mm d. -0.7855 mm 15. Which of the following most nearly gives the elongation of each bar?
a. 0.195 mm c. 0.468 mm
Situation: A steel rod having a length of 50 m is suspended vertically from b. 0.652 mm d. 0.713 mm
one end. It supports a tensile load P = 250 kN at the lower end. The unit
weight of the steel is 7850 kg/m3. The allowable tensile stress for steel is 140
MPa. Use E = 200 GPa.
4. Which of the following most nearly gives the required diameter of the
steel rod if its allowable stress is not exceeded?
a. 48.35 mm c. 52.03 mm
b. 47.38 mm d. 50.19 mm
5. Using the value obtained in the previous requirement, which of the
following most nearly gives the deformation caused by the applied load
P?
a. 29.40 mm c. 31.59 mm
b. 34.04 mm d. 35.50 mm Situation: A horizontal rod 2.50 m long and 1200 mm2 in cross-sectional
6. Which of the following most nearly gives the total deformation of the area is secured between two walls. The rod is stress-free at 20°C. Use α =
steel rod? 11.7x10-6 m/(m-°C) and E = 200 GPa.
a. 35.48 mm c. 34.52 mm 16. Which of the following most nearly gives the stress on horizontal rod
b. 35.07 mm d. 29.66 mm when the temperature has dropped to - 20°C?
a. 93.60 MPa c. 60.93 MPa
Situation: Six steel cables support a circular moulding of diameter 2 m. the b. 90.63 MPa d. 63.90 MPa
cables are spaced equally along the perimeter of the moulding. The 17. Which of the following most nearly gives the stress on the horizontal
moulding weighs 2.50 kN/m. rod when the temperature has dropped to - 20°C and the walls yield a
total distance of 0.50 mm?
a. 93.60 MPa c. 69.30 MPa
b. 35.60 MPa d. 53.60 MPa
Situation: The lower ends of the three bars shown in the figure above are at
the same level before the rigid homogenous W = 100 kN block is attached.
The properties of the bars are shown in the table.
Steel Bronze
Length, L 1.00 m 1.60 m
Area, A 500 mm2 900 mm2
7. Which of the following most nearly gives the tension in each cable? Modulus of elasticity, E 200 GPa 83 GPa
a. 2.76 kN c. 2.67 kN -6
Coefficient of thermal expansion,α 11.7 x10 /°C 18x10-6/°C
b. 2.62 kN d. 2.55 kN
8. Which of the following most nearly gives the minimum diameter of each
cable if the allowable stress is 124 MPa? The temperature of the bars is then increased by 80°C. The block is
a. 5.12 mm c. 5.19 mm assumed to remain horizontal after all deformations have occurred.
b. 5.24 mm d. 5.32 mm 18. Which of the following most nearly gives the stress developed in the
9. Which of the following most nearly gives the vertical displacement of bronze bar?
the moulding if the diameter of each cable is 10 mm? a. 36.51 MPa c. 78.69 MPa
a. 0.53 mm c. 0.59 mm b. 115.17 MPa d. 132.86 MPa
b. 0.64 mm d. 0.67 mm 19. Which of the following most nearly gives the stress developed in the
steel bar?
Situation: A composite section consisting of copper and steel carries an a. 36.51 MPa c. 78.69 MPa
axial compressive force P. The properties of the materials are as follows: b. 115.17 MPa d. 132.86 MPa
20. Which of the following most nearly gives the temperature rise to cause
Steel Copper all the applied loads to be supported by the steel rods?
2
a. 20.82°C c. 29.24°C
Area, A 900 mm 1200 mm2 b. 37.44°C d. 43.28°C
Modulus of Elasticity, E 200 GPa 120 GPa
Allowable Compressive Stress,𝜎 140 MPa 70 MPa Situation: A solid steel shaft 60 mm in diameter is subjected to torques as
shown in the figure. The modulus of rigidity of the steel, G = 83 GPa.
Both materials have equal lengths of 200 mm.
10. Which of the following most nearly gives the load, in percent, carried by
the copper?
a. 66.67% c. 55.56%
b. 44.44% d. 33.33%
11. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum load the
member can carry so that the allowable stresses are not exceeded?
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS –CORRELATION 2018 PART II
21. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at the rigid
support?
a. 1200 N-m c. 900 N-m
b. 1000 N-m d. 1500 N-m
22. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum torsional stress
in the shaft?
a. 35.37 MPa c. 23.58 MPa
b. 28.29 MPa d. 21,22 MPa
23. Which of the following most nearly gives the angle of twist at the free
end?
a. 1.79° c. 2.08°
b. 2.22° d. 1.90°
Situation: A compound shaft as shown in the figure is attached to rigid
supports. For the aluminum segment AB, the diameter is 75 mm, 𝜏 ≤ 55
MPa, and G = 28 GPa. For the steel segment BC, the diameter is 50 mm,
𝜏 ≤ 83 MPa, and G=83 GPa. For both segments, the allowable rotation is
2°. The lengths a = 3 m and b = 1.20 m.
24. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at support A if the
applied torque is T = 3.20 kN-m?
a. 1.30 kN-m c. 1.55 kN-m
b. 1.75 kN-m d. 1.90 kN-m
25. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum torque T that
can be applied so that the allowable shearing stresses for both
segments are not exceeded?
a. 3.21 kN-m c. 3.43 kN-m
b. 3.65 kN-m d. 3.79 kN-m
26. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum torque T that
can be applied so that the allowable rotation for both segments is not
exceeded?
a. 2.98 kN-m c. 2.76 kN-m
b. 2.49 kN-m d. 2.30 kN-m
Situation: Two steel springs arranged in series support a load P. The upper
spring has 12 turns of 25 mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 100 mm.
The lower spring consists of 10 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on a mean
radius of 75 mm. Use G = 83 GPa.
27. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum value of P if the
allowable shearing stress is 200 MPa?
a. 3926.99 N c. 4503.33N
b. 4866.67 N d. 5774.88 N
28. Which of the following most nearly gives the value of the total
elongation of the assembly?
a. 245.12 mm c. 217.26 mm
b. 189.51 mm d. 172.86 mm
29. Which of the following most nearly gives the equivalent spring constant
of the assembly?
a. 21.50 kN/m c. 22.72 kN/m
b. 25.16 kN/m d. 28.89 kN/m

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UNIVERSITY OF THE CORDILLERAS

College of Engineering and Architecture

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SYSTEM OF EQUATIONS log𝑥 𝑦

SQUARE GENERAL QUADRILATERAL

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