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2016 SOLVED PAPER 1

This “Solved Paper” is taken from our:

ISBN : 9789386146816
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INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
3. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to
10 are of 2-marks each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question
numbers 11 to 35 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-marks each.
4. Questions are of multiple choice type (MCQ)or numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four
choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number
and no choices will be given.
5. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in
1
NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
3
2
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer..
3
6. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

GENERAL APTITUDE 4. If ‘relftaga’ means carefree, ‘otaga’ means careful and

‘fertaga’ means careless, which of the following could mean
QUESTION 1 TO 5 CARRY ONE MARK EACH ‘aftercare’?
(a) zentaga (b) tagafer
1. Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable (c) tagazen (d) relffer
sentence with respect to grammar and usage. 5. A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit, After
(a) I will not leave the place until the minister does not it is built, one cubic block is removed from every corner of
meet me. the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in square
(b) I will not leave the place until the minister doesn’t meet units) after the removal is ______
(a) 56 (b) 64
me. (c) 72 (d) 96
(c) I will not leave the place until the minister meet me.
QUESTION 6 TO 10 CARRY TWO MARK EACH
(d) I will not leave the place until the minister meets me.
6. A shaving set company sells 4 different types of razors,
2. A rewording of something written or spoken is a Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive. Elegance sells at ` 48,
______________. Smooth at ` 63, Soft at ` 78 and Executive at ` 173 per piece.
(a) paraphrase (b) paradox The table below shows the numbers of each razor sold in
(c) paradigm (d) paraffin each quarter of a year.
3. Archimedes said, “Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum
Quarter \ Product Elegance Smooth Soft Executive
on which to place it, and I will move the world.”
Q1 27300 20009 17602 9999
The sentence above is an example of a ___________
statement. Q2 25222 19392 18445 8942
(a) figurative (b) collateral Q3 28976 22429 19544 10234
(c) literal (d) figurine Q4 21012 18229 16595 10109
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Which product contributes the greatest fraction to the revenue of (c) hyperbolic (d) none of these
the company in that year? 13. If the entries in each column of a square matrix M add up to
(a) Elegance (b) Executive 1, then an eigenvalue of M is
(c) Smooth (d) Soft (a) 4 (b) 3
7. Indian currency notes show the denomination indicated in (c) 2 (d) 1
at least seventeen languages. If this is not an indication of 14. Type II error in hypothesis testing is
the nation’s diversity, nothing else is. (a) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is false and
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the should be rejected
above sentences? (b) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is true and
(a) India is a country of exactly seventeen languages. should be accepted
(b) Linguistic pluralism is the only indicator of a nation’s (c) rejection of the null hypothesis when it is false and
diversity. should be rejected
(c) Indian currency notes have sufficient space for all the (d) acceptance of the null hypothesis when it is true and
Indian languages. should be accepted
(d) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of India’s 2
u u
diversity. 15. The solution of the partial differential equation
t x2
8. Consider the following statements relating to the level of
poker play of four players P, Q, R and S. is of the form
I. P always beats Q k/ x k/ x
II. R always beats S (a) Ccos(kt) C1e C 2e
III. S loses to P only sometimes
IV. R always loses to Q
k/ x x
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the (b) Cekt C1e C2 e
above statements?
(i) P is likely to beat all the three other players
(ii) S is the absolute worst player in the set (c) Cekt C1 cos k/ x C2 sin k/ x
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) neither (i) nor (ii) (d) Csin(kt) C1 cos k/ x C2 sin k/ x
9. If f(x) = 2x7 + 3x – 5, which of the following is a factor of f(x)?
(a) (x3 + 8) (b) (x – 1) 16. Consider the plane truss with load P as shown in the figure. Let
(c) (2x – 5) (d) (x + 1) the horizontal and vertical reactions at the joint B be HB and VB,
10. In a process, the number of cycles to failure decreases respectively and VC be the vertical reaction at the joint C.
exponentially with an increase in load. At a load of 80 units, A G
it takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load is halved, it L
takes 10000 cycles for failure. The load for which the failure
60°
will happen in 5000 cycles is ________. L 60°
(a) 40.00 (b) 46.02
(c) 60.01 (d) 92.02
E F
P
TECHNICAL SECTION L

QUESTION 11 TO 35 CARRY ONE MARK EACH

60° 60°
11. Newton-Raphson method is to be used to find root of B D C
equation 3x – ex + sinx = 0. If the initial trial value for the root L L
is taken as 0.333, the next approximation for the root would
Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of
be _________
VB, HB and VC?
(note: answer up to three decimal)
(a) VB = 0; HB = 0; VC = P
12. The type of partial differential equation (b) VB = P/2; HB = 0; VC = P/2
2
P 2
P 2
P P P (c) VB = P/2; HB = P (sin 60°); VC = P/2
3 2 0 is (d) VB = P; HB = P (cos 60°); VC = 0
2 2 x y x y
x y
17. In shear design of an RC beam, other than the allowable
(a) elliptic (b) parabolic shear strength of concrete ( c), there is also an additional
 4

check suggested in IS 456-2000 with respect to the maximum

permissible shear stress ( c max). The check for c max is 1.2
required to take care of
1
(a) additional shear resistance from reinforcing steel

Discharge (m3/s)
(b) additional shear stress that comes from accidental 0.8
loading
0.6
(c) possibility of failure of concrete by diagonal tension
(d) possibility of crushing of concrete by diagonal 0.4
compression
18. The semi-compact section of a laterally unsupported steel beam 0.2
has an elastic section modulus, plastic section modulus and 0
design bending compressive stress of 500 cm3, 650 cm3 and 200 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Time (hours)
MPa, respectively. The design flexural capacity (expressed in
kNm) of the section is _________
19. Bull's trench kiln is used in the manufacturing of 25. The type of flood routing (Group 1) and the equation(s) used
(a) lime (b) cement for the purpose (Group II) are given below.
Group I Group II
(c) bricks (d) none of these
P Hydrologic flood routing 1. Continuity equation
20. The compound which is largely responsible for initial setting
Q Hydraulic flood routing 2. Momentum equation
and early strength gain of Ordinary Portland Cement is
3. Energy equation
(a) C3A (b) C3S
The correct match is
(c) C2S (d) C4AF
(a) P – 1; Q – 1, 2 & 3 (b) P – 1; Q – 1 & 2 only
21. In the consolidated undrained triaxial test on a saturated soil (c) P – l & 2; Q – 1 only (d) P – 1 & 2; Q – 1 & 2
sample, the pore water pressure is zero 26. The pre-jump Froude Number for a particular flow in a
(a) during shearing stage only horizontal rectangular channel is 10. The ratio of sequent
(b) at the end of consolidation stage only depths (i.e., post-jump depth to pre-jump depth) is _______.
(c) both at the end of consolidation and during shearing 27. Pre-cursors to photochemical oxidants are
stages (a) NOX, VOCs and sunlight
(d) under none of the above conditions (b) SO2, CO2 and sunlight
22. A fine grained soil is found to be plastic in the water content (c) H2S, CO and sunlight
range of 26-48%. As per Indian Standard Classification (d) SO2, NH3 and sunlight
System, the soil is classified as 28. Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused
(a) CL (b) CH by:
(c) CL-ML (d) C l (a) H2S (b) CO2
(c) CH4 (d) NH3
23. A vertical cut is to be made in a soil mass having cohesion c,
29. It was decided to construct a fabric filter, using bags of 0.45m
angle of internal friction , and unit weight . Considering Ka
diameter and 7.5m long, for removing industrial stack gas
and Kp as the coefficients of active and passive earth containing particulates. The expected rate of airflow into the
pressures, respectively, the maximum depth of unsupported filter is 10m3/s. If the filtering velocity is 2.0m/min, the
excavation is minimum number of bags (rounded to nearest higher integer)
4c 2c K p required for continuous cleaning operation is
(a) Kp (b) (a) 27 (b) 29
(c) 31 (d) 32
4c 30. Match the items in Group – I with those in Group – II and
4c K a choose the right combination.
(c) (d) Ka Group – I Group – II
24. The direct runoff hydrograph in response to 5 cm rainfall P. Activated sludge process 1. Nitrifiers and denitrifiers
excess in a catchment is shown in the figure. The area of the Q. Rising of sludge 2. Autotrophic bacteria
catchment (expressed in hectares) is _______ R. Conventional nitrification 3. Heterotrophic bacteria
S. Biological nitrogen removal 4. Denitrifiers
(a) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1 (b) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1
(c) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1 (d) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 3
31. During a forensic investigation of pavement failure, an
 5

engineer reconstructed the graphs P, Q, R and S, using partial

1 sin x
and damaged old reports. 37. The value of dx dx is
0 1 x2 0 x
Marshall Stability

(a) (b)
2
Q
P

Flow
3
(c) (d) 1
2
38. The area of the region bounded by the parabola y = x2 + 1
Bitumen Content Bitumen Content and the straight line x + y = 3 is
59 9
(a) (b)
6 2
with bitumen
Voids filled

R S
Air voids

10 7
(c) (d)
3 6
39. The magnitudes of vectors P, Q and R are 100 kN, 250 kN
and 150 kN, respectively as shown in the figure.
Bitumen Content Bitumen Content Q

(a) P, Q, R (b) P, Q, S
(c) Q, R, S (d) R, S, P P
32. In a one-lane one-way homogeneous traffic stream, the 45°
90°
observed average headway is 3.0 s. The flow (expressed in 60°
R x
vehicles/hr) in this traffic stream is______.
The respective values of the magnitude (in kN) and the
33. The minimum number of satellites needed for a GPS to
direction (with respect to the x-axis) of the resultant vector
determine its position precisely is
are
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 290.9 and 96.0° (b) 368.1 and 94.7°
(c) 4 (d) 24
34. The system that uses the Sun as a source of electromagnetic (c) 330.4 and 118.9° (d) 400.1 and 113.5°
energy and records the naturally radiated and reflected energy 40. The respective expressions for complimentary function and
from the object is called particular integral part of the solution of the differential
(a) Geographical Information System d4 y d2 y
(b) Global Positioning System equation 4
3 2
108x 2 are
(c) Passive Remote Sensing dx dx
(d) Active Remote Sensing
35. The staff reading taken on a workshop floor using a level is (a) c1 c2 x c3 sin 3 x c4 cos 3 x
0.645 m. The inverted staff reading taken to the bottom of a
and 3x 4 –12 x 2 c
beam is 2.960 m. The reduced level of the floor is 40.500 m. The
reduced level (expressed in m) of the bottom of the beam is
(a) 44.105 (b) 43.460 (b) c2 x c3 sin 3 x c4 cos 3 x
(c) 42.815 (d) 41.145
and 5 x 4 –12 x 2 c
QUESTION 36 TO 65 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH
36. Probability density function of a random variable X is given (c) c1 c3 sin 3 x c4 cos 3x
below
and 3x 4 –12 x 2 c
0.25 if 1 x 5
f (x) P(X 4) is
0 otherwise
(d) c1 c2 x c3 sin 3 x c4 cos 3 x
3 1
(a) (b) and 5 x 4 – 12 x 2 c
4 2
1 1 41. A 3 m long simply supported beam of uniform cross section
(c) (d) is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of w = 20 kN/m in
4 8
the central 1 m as shown in the figure.
 6

(d) MP, PL, HU, FT, UR

w = 20 kN/m
44. A rigid member ACB is shown in the figure. The member is
supported at A and B by pinned and guided roller supports,
EI = 30 × 106 N.m2 respectively. A force P acts at C as shown. Let RAh and RBh
P Q be the horizontal reactions at supports A and B, respectively,
1m 1m 1m and RAv be the vertical reaction at support A. Selfweight of
If the flexural rigidity (EI) of the beam is 30 x 106 N-m2, the the member may be ignored.
maximum slope (expressed in radians) of the deformed beam B
is P
2m
(a) 0.681 × 10–7 (b) 0.943 × 10–7
(c) 4.310 × 10–7 (d) 5.910 × 10–7 C
42. Two beams PQ (fixed at P and with a roller support at Q, as
shown in Figure I, which allows vertical movement) and XZ
(with a hinge at Y) are shown in the Figures I and II 6m
respectively. The spans of PQ and XZ are L and 2L
respectively. Both the beams are under the action of
uniformly distributed load (W) and have the same flexural
stiffness, EI (where, E and I respectively denote modulus of
elasticity and moment of inertia about axis of bending). Let
the maximum deflection and maximum rotation be max1 and
A
max1 , respectively, in the case of beam PQ and the
corresponding quantities for the beam XZ be max2 and max2, 1.5 m 1.5 m
respectively. Which one of the following sets gives the correct magnitudes
W of RAv, RBh and RAh ?
1 2
(a) RAv 0;RBh P; and R Ah P
3 3
P Q
L 2 1
Figure 1 (b) RAv 0;RBh P; and RAh P
3 3
W W
2 1.5
(c) R Av P; RBh P; and RAh P
Hinge 3 8
X Y Z 1.5 1.5
L L (d) R Av P; R Bh P; and R Ah P
8 8
Which one of the following relationships is true?
45. A reinforced concrete (RC) beam with width of 250 mm and
(a) max1 max2 and max1 max2 effective depth of 400 mm is reinforced with Fe415 steel. As
b max1 = max2 and max1 max2 per the provisions of IS 456-2000, the minimum and maximum
c max1 max2 and max1 = max2 amount of tensile reinforcement (expressed in mm2) for the
d max1 = max2 and max1 = max2
section are, respectively
43. A plane truss with applied loads is shown in the figure. (a) 250 and 3500 (b) 205 and 4000
(c) 270 and 2000 (d) 300 and 2500
20 kN 46. For M25 concrete with creep coefficient of 1.5, the long-term
J 10 kN static modulus of elasticity (expressed in MPa) as per the
10 kN H K 1m provisions of IS:456-2000 is ______
G L 1m
47. A propped cantilever of span L carries a vertical concentrated
F M 1m
1m load at the mid-span. If the plastic moment capacity of the
E N
T S R Q section is Mp, the magnitude of the collapse load is
8M p 6M p
2m 2m 2m 2m 2m 2m (a) (b)
L L
The members which do not carry any force are
4M p 2M p
(a) FT, TG, HU, MP, PL (c) (d)
(b) ET, GS, UR, VR, QL L L
(c) FT, GS, HU, MP, QL 48. Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size 10 mm and
subjected to tension, as shown in the figure. The thickness
 7

of each plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the ultimate Specific gravity of clay : 2.70
tensile stress of steel are 250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively. Bulk unit weight of sand : 17kN/m3
The welding is done in the workshop ( mw = 1.25). A compacted fill of 2.5 m height with unit weight of 20 kN/m3
P is placed at the ground level.
100 mm GL

1m
Sand
GWT

150 mm

1m
Clay
P
As per the Limit State Method of IS 800: 2007, the minimum Hard Stratum
length (rounded off to the nearest higher multiple of 5 mm) of Assuming unit weight of water as10 kN/m3, the ultimate
each weld to transmit a force P equal to 270 kN (factored) is consolidation settlement (expressed in mm) of the clay layer
(a) 90mm (b) 105 mm is ________.
(c) 110 mm (d) 115 mm 53. A seepage flow condition is shown in the figure. The
49. The Optimistic Time (O), Most likely Time (M) and saturated unit weight of the soil sat = 18 kN/m3. Using unit
Pessimistic Time (P) (in days) of the activities in the critical weight of water, w = 9.81 kN/m3, the effective vertical stress
path are given below in the format O-M-P. (expressed in kN/m2) on plane X-X is ______.
8-10-14 6-8-11 5-7-10 7-12-18
E F G H I
3m
The expected completion time (in days) of the project is
______. 1m
50. The porosity (n) and the degree of saturation (S) of a soil
sample are 0.7 and 40%, respectively. In a 100 m3 volume of Soil 5m
the soil, the volume (expressed in m3) of air is _______.
3
sat = 18 kN/m

51. A homogeneous gravity retaining wall supporting a X X

1m
cohesionless backfill is shown in the figure. 2m
The lateral active earth pressure at the bottom of the wall is
40 kPa. 54. A drained triaxial compression test on a saturated clay yielded
the effective shear strength parameters as c' = 15 kPa and ' = 22°.
Consolidated Undrained triaxial test on an identical sample
Cohesionless of this clay at a cell pressure of 200 kPa developed a pore
Gravity backfill water pressure of 150 kPa at failure. The deviator stress
Retaining
6m (expressed in kPa) at failure is ______.
Wall
55. A concrete gravity dam section is shown in the figure.
Assuming unit weight of water as 10 kN/m3 and unit weight
of concrete as 24 kN/m3, the uplift force per unit length of the
P
dam (expressed in kN/m) at PQ is _______.
4m
The minimum weight of the wall (expressed in kN per m length)
required to prevent it from overturning about its toe (Point
P) is 65 m
(a) 120 (b) 180 Drain
(c) 240 (d) 360 holes
52. An undisturbed soil sample was taken from the middle of a 5m
clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below GL), as shown in figure. The P Q
water table was at the top of clay layer. Laboratory test results 40 m
are as follows: 10 m
56. Seepage is occurring through a porous media shown in the
Natural water content of clay : 25%
figure. The hydraulic conductivity values (k1, k2, k3) are in
Preconsolidation pressure of clay : 60 kPa
m/day.
Compression index of clay : 0.50
Recompression index of clay : 0.05
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gas from a 200 MW thermal power plant. It was found that in

order to achieve 97 percent efficiency, the collector plate
area should be 6100 m2. In order to increase the efficiency to
Impervious 99 percent, the ESP collector plate area (expressed in m 2)
would be ______.
15 m P 10 m 62. The 2-day and 4-day BOD values of a sewage sample are 100
3m k1 = 2 k2 = 3 k3 = 1 3m mg/L and 155 mg/L, respectively. The value of BOD rate
20 m 10 m
Q
20 m 10 m
constant (expressed in per day) is ______.
63. A two lane, one-way road with radius of 50 m is predominantly
The seepage discharge (m3/day per m) through the porous carrying lorries with wheelbase of 5 m. The speed of lorries is
media at section PQ is restricted to be between 60 kmph and 80 kmph. The
mechanical widening and psychological widening required
7 1 at 60 kmph are designated as Wme, 60 , and W ps, 60 ,
(a) (b)
12 2 respectively. The mechanical widening and psychological
widening required at 80 kmph are designated as Wme, 80, and
9 3
(c) (d) Wps, 80, respectively. The correct values of Wme, 60, Wps, 60,
16 4 Wme, 80 Wps, 80 respectively are
57. A 4 m wide rectangular channel, having bed slope of 0.001 (a) 0.89 m, 0.50 m, 1.19 m, and 0.50 m
carries a discharge of 16 m3 /s. Considering Manning's (b) 0.50 m, 0.89 m, 0.50 m, and 1.19 m
roughness coefficient = 0.012 and g = 10 m/s2, the category (c) 0.50 m, 1.19 m, 0.50 m, and 0.89 m
of the channel slope is (d) 1.19 m, 0.50 m, 0.89 m, and 0.50 m
64. While traveling along and against the traffic stream, a moving
(a) horizontal (b) mild observer measured the relative flows as 50 vehicles/hr and
(c) critical (d) steep 200 vehicles/hr, respectively. The average speeds of the
58. A sector gate is provided on a spillway as shown in the moving observer while traveling along and against the stream
figure. Assuming g = 10 m/s2, the resultant force per meter are 20 km/hr and 30 km/hr, respectively. The density of the
length (expressed in kN/m) on the gate will be ______. traffic stream (expressed in vehicles/km) is _______.
65. The vertical angles subtended by the top of a tower T at two
instrument stations set up at P and Q, are shown in the figure.
The two stations are in line with the tower and spaced at a
Sector 5m distance of 60 m. Readings taken from these two stations on
gate a leveling staff placed at the benchmark (BM = 450.000 m) are
30° also shown in the figure. The reduced level of the top of the
30° tower T (expressed in m) is _______.
T

2.555 16.5°
10.5°
0.555
Q
BM 450.000
Spillway P
60 m

59. A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel section has a

uniform flow depth of 2 m. The bed width (expressed in m) of
the channel is ________.
60. Effluent from an industry 'A' has a pH of 4.2. The effluent
from another industry 'B' has double the hydroxyl (OH–) ion
concentration than the effluent from industry 'A'. pH of
effluent from the industry 'B' will be _______.
61. An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with 5600 m2 of collector
plate area is 96 percent efficient in treating 185 m3/s of flue
 9

1. (d) The use of double negatives in a single is unacceptable 9. (b)

according to the current English standard. Given f(x) = 2x7 + 3x – 5, putting x = 1 in f(x)
2. (a) Paraphrase means the rewording of something written 2(1)7 + 3(1) – 5 = 0
or spoken. Paradox means an absurd statement. 5–5=0
Paradigm means an example or pattern of something. (x – 1) is a factor of f(x).
Paraffin means a liquid made from coal or petroleum. 10. (b)
3. (a) The given statement is an example of figurative From the above data, we can say
statement which means words or phrases used not with Exponent = log(cycles) × load
their basic meaning but with a more imaginative x = log(10000) × 80 = 160
meaning to create a special effect. 160
4. (c) taga and care are a matching pair in every combination. load = 43.25
log 5000
So, taga surely represents care.
Since 40.00 < 43.25 < 46.02
fer less
(b) is correct.
o full
11. 0.4827
Also, after checking it is found that the second half of
Let f(x) = 3x – ex + sin x
the word in encoded value refers to the first half of the
given x0 = 0.333
word in the decoded value. Going by the same logic,
f (x) = 3 – ex + cos x and
the answer would be tagazen.
f (x0) = – 0.390
5. (d) The surface area of the body will remain unchanged as
f (x0) = 2.604
when a cube is removed, it exposes three faces, which
makes the number of exposed faces same as before According to Newton Raphson method
removal. f (x 0 )
So, surface area of the body after removal x1 = x 0
f (x 0 )
= 6 × side × side
= 6 × 4 × 4 = 96 0.390
So x1 = 0.333 = 0.4827
6. (b) Revenue from Elegance 2.604
= (27300 + 25222 + 28976 + 21012) × 48 (is the required next approximation)
= ` 4920480 12. (c) Comparing the given equation with the general form of
Revenue from Smooth = (20009 + 19392 + 22429 + 18229) second order partial differential equation,
× 63 = ` 5043717 We get A = 1, B = 3, C = 1
Revenue from Soft = (17602 + 18445 + 19544 + 16595) × 2
Which implies B – 4 AC = 5 > 0
78 = ` 56350508 Therefore the partial differential equation in hyperbola.
Revenue from Executive = (9999 + 8942 + 10234 + 10109) 13. (d) Sum of the elements in each row/column of a square
× 173 = ` 6796132 matrix is equal to ‘S’ then S is an eigen value of that
Total revenue = ` 22390837 matrix.
Fraction of Revenue for Elegance = 0.29 14. (a) Type II errors means acceptance of the null hypothesis
Fraction of Revenue for Smooth = 0.225 when it is false and should be rejected.
Fraction of Revenue for Soft = 0.251
Fraction of Revenue for Executive = 0.303 2
u
u
Hence (b) is the correct option. 15. (b) The given P.D.F. = = 2 ... (1)
t x
7. (d) The second sentence of the given para logically infer
that is called 1D heat equations.
‘Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of India’s solution of equation (1) is
P2 t
diversity’. u(x, t) = (A cos px + B sin px)C e
8. (d) Since S loses to P only sometimes no statement is true. Put –p2 = K which givens
 10

K K Ze
p = i So Md = Z f = Ze fbd
Zp p bd
(1) becomes
= 500 × 103 × 200 × 10–6
K K = 100 kNm.
u(x, t) = A cos h Bsin h ce kt
x x 19. (c) Bull trench kiln is a continuous kiln generally oval in
plan. It has a length ranging between 50 – 100 m and is
K K K K
1.5 – 2.5 m deep below the ground level. It has 8 – 12
x x x x sections which is used for manufacturing of bricks.
kt e e e e
= ce A B 20. (b) Tricalciums silicate (C3S) hardens rapidly and has the
2 2
major contribution to the initial set and early strength.
Early strength of portland cement conereted will be
high if the percentage of C3S is high.
K K 21. (b)
A B x A B
kt 22. (d) Given soil is plastic in the range of 26% to 48% of
= ce e e
2 2 water content.
So plastic limit = 26% & liquid limit = 48%
Since the given LL lies in between the standard
K K values 35% & 50% is 35% < LL < 50% the soil is
x x
kt intermediate compressible soil ie CI.
= ce c1.e c 2e
23. (d) The active earth pressure is given by

Pa = KA z – 2C K A
L at Z = Z0, Pa = 0
16. 0 A G
KA( z0) – 2C K A = 0
L
P
Ka ( z0) = 2C K A
L
D 2C K A
HB B C Z0 =
KA
L L
VB VC 2C
= KA
Taking moment about B
VC × 2L – P × 2L = 0 The maximum unsupported depth = 2 Z0
VC = P So Zcritical = 2Z0
FV = 0
2 2C 4C
VB + VC – P = 0 =
VB = 0 KA KA
FH = 0 24. 21.6
HB = 0 Area under the hydrograph = direct runoff volume
17. (d)
18. 100 1 5
1 6 60 60 = A
As per is 800, the design bending strength of laterally 2 100
unsupported beam as governed by lateral torsional
buckling is 100 6 60 60
A =
Md = B Zp . fbd 10

Ze = 216000 m2
b = Z for semi compact section = 21.6 × 104 m2
p
A = 21.6 hectares.
 11

25. (b) 32. 1200

26. 13.65 Average headway = 3 sec
We have 1
Flow of traffic stream =
headway
y2 1
= 1 8F12 1
y1 2 1
= = 1200 Veh/hr..
Where y1 is post jump depth 3
60 60
y2 is pre jump depth
33. (c) At least 4 satellites must be in view of the receiver for
y2 1 2 it to compute 4 unknown quantities like (3 position
So = 1 8 10 1
y1 2 coordinates and 1 for clock deviation from satellite time).
34. (c) Sun provides a very convenient source of energy for
1 remote sensing. Sun’s energy is either reflected or
= 27.3 = 13.65 absorbed and remitted. Remote sensing system
2
which measure energy naturally available are called as
27. (a) Photochemical smog is formed in the atmosphere passive remote sensing.
when per-cueror pollutants like Nitrogen Oxide (NOx) 35. (a) Height of instrument, HI = R.L. of floor + Staff reading
and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) undergoes from floor.
reaction in sunlight to form smog. = 40.500 + 0.645
= 41.145 m
28. (a) Bacteria present in the slime under flowing sewage
RL of bottom bf beam = HI + Inverted staff reaching
converts sulphates in the sewage into sulphides. taken from bottom of beam
Sulphides in the liquid moves to the surface and get = 41.145 + 2.960
reduced into hydrogen sulphide gas (H2S). Bacteria = 44.105 m
converts this hydrogen sulphide present in the 36. (a) P(x 4) =
sewer atmosphere to sulphuric acid which causes
4 1 4
corrosion in the crown of the pipe.
f (x)dx = (0)dx (0.25)dx (0)dx
29. (b) Surface area of one bag = d 1 4
= × 0.45 × 7.5 = 10.6028 m2
1 4 3
= [x]
10 60 4 1 4
Total area of filter = = 300 m2
2
1
37. (b) dx = tan 1 x = tan–1 – tan–1 0 =
Total area of filter 2
No. of fabric filter bags = Area of one bag 01 x 0 2

1
300 and L(sin x) = 2
s 1
= = 28.294
10.6028
So no. of bag required will be 29. sin x 1
Which gives L 2
dx
x
30. (a) ss 1
31. (b) The graph between VFB and Bitumen content is (using division by x)

1
= tan s = tan–1 – tan–1 s = cot–1 s
s
with bitumen
Voids filled

sin x
e sx dx = cot–1(s) =
x
0
(using definition of laplace transform)
Put s = 0, we get
Bitumen
 12

Fy 289.3
sin x tan = =
dx = cot 1 (0) Fx 159.6
x 2
0
= – 61.1°
with respect to x axis = 180 – 61.1 = 118.9°
1 sin x
dx dx d
2 x 40. (a) Differential equation is (D4 + 3D2)y = 108x2, D =
01 x 0 dx
38. (b) At the point of intersection, we have Auxilliary equation is m4 + 3m2 = 0
y =3–x m2 (m2 + 3) = 0
i.e. x2 + 1 = 3 – x m = 0, 0, 3i
x2 + x – 2 = 0 CF = (C1 + C2x) + C3 sin ( 3x) C4cos( 3x)
x = – 2, 1 and 3 – x x2 + 1
1
dy dx and P.I. = (108x 2 )
4
So required area is D 3D2
R
1
1 3 x 1 2 36 D2
= (108x ) 1 (x 2 )
= dy dx D2 D2 3
x 2 y x2 1 3D2 1
3

1
(3 x) (x 2 1) dx 36 D2 36 1
= = 1 ... (x 2 ) x2 (2) 0
2 3 2 3
2 D D

1 2 x4 2 x2
x3 x 2 9 = 36x 2 dx dx 36
= 2x 3 4 3 32 1
3 2 2
2
= 3x4 – 12x2
39. (c) 41. (*)

w/m
0 kN
Q = 25 P = 100 kN

RP Ra
15°
45° 1m 1m 1m
60°
Due to symmetrical loading.
x
w 1 w
RP = RQ =
R = 150 kN 2 2
x
Resolving components in the x direction w/m
Fx = P cos 60 + cos (60 + 45) + R cos (90 + 45 + 60)
= 100 cos 60 + 250 cos (95) + 100 cos 195 w/m
Fx = – 159.6 kN RP x RQ
Fy = P sin 60 + Q sin (60 + 45) + R sin (90 + 45 + 60) 1m
= 100 sin 60 + 250 sin 95 + 100 sin 195
w w
= 289.3 kN Mx = R p x (x 1)2 (x 2)2
2 2
|F| = Fx2 f y2 ( 159.6)2 (289.3) 2 = 330.4 kN.
According to Macaulay method
 13

d2 y w w 1.5P
EI = Rpx (x 1)2 (x 2) 2 RBh =
8
dx 2 2 2

After integrating once 1.5P

RAh =
8
dy R p x2 w w
EI = c1 (x 1)3 (x 2)2
dx 2 6 2 1.5P 1.5P
RAV = P RBh = , RAh =
Due to symmetrical loading slope will be zero at mid 8 8
section (x = 1.5 t)
dy
at x = 15 m, =0 P B
dx RBh
2m
C
R P (1.5) 2 w
0= c1 (1.5 1)3
2 6

9R P w 9w w 6m
= c1 c1
8 48 16 48
RAh
w 9w 26w 13w A
c1 = = 1.5 m
48 16 48 24
Equation slope. 1.5 RAV

dy R p x2 13w w w(x 2)3

EI = (x 1)3
dx 2 24 6 6 Is 456 : 2000, Clause
The slope will be max at the support 45. (b) As per 26.5.1.1 (a)
Minimum tension reinforcement is given by
913w 13 20 103
0max(x = 0) = As 0.85
24EI 24 30 106 = fy
bd
= – 0.361 × 10–3 rad
42. (d) By principle of superposition. 0.85bd 0.85 250 400
max1 = max2, max1 = max2 As = fy 4.15
43. (a) Conditions for zero force members are
(a) The member meets at a joint and they are non- = 204.819 205 mm2
collinear and no external force acts at that joint. From clause 26.5.1.2(b)
Both the members will be zero force members. Maximum tension reinforcement = 0.04 bd
(b) When the member meet at joint and two are = 0.04 × 250 × 400 = 400 mm2
collinear and no external force acts at the joint 46. 10000
then third member will be zero force member. Long term static modulus of elasticity is given by
So based on the above statements.
We can say that Ec 500 fck 500 25
E =
FT, TG, HU, MP and PL members are zero force 1 1 1 1.5
members. = 10000
44. (d) Fy = 0
RAV = P 47. (b) W
Fx = 0
RBh = RAh
MA = 0 L
RB h × 8 – P × 1.5 = 0
 14

DS = 1 = 37.8328
No. of plastic hinge required for complete collapse Vv
=1+1=2 50. 42 = 0.7 =
V

P Vw
S = 40% = 0.4 =
Vv
V = Va + Vw + Vs
L L Vv = 0.7V
2 2 MP
Vw
0.4 =
Vv
MP MP Vw = 0.4 Vv
Vv – Va = 0.4 Vv
Vv – 0.4 Vv = Va
PL
– Mp – Mp – MP + =0 Va = 0.6 Vv
2
Va = 0.6 × 0.7 V = 0.6 × 0.7 × 100
PL Va = 42m3
3MP = 51. (a)
2

6M P
P= W
L
P

48. (b) Maximum force carried by plates, H = 2m

3
Agfy 100 12 250 P ka H = 40
P= r 1.1
2m
mo
= 272.73 kN Since Ka H = 40
40
P Ka =
Load carried by each weld = = 136.36 kN H
2
For minimum length of weld, 1
So, Ka H 2 = 20H = 120 kN
Pa =
Strength of weld = load carried by weld. 2
Taking moment about P = 0
Iw fu
= 36.136 × 103 2Pa = w × 2
3rml Pa = w = 120 kN
52. 36.89
410
Iw (10 0.7) = 136.36 × 103
3 1.2 2.5 m r = 20 kN/m3
Iw = 102.9mm and r = 17 kN/m3
105 mm (next multiple of 5) 1m
49. 37.83
1m 0.5 m clay
8-10-14 6-8-11 5-7-10 7-12-18
E F G H I
w = 25%
8 4 10 14 6 8 4 11
te = 0 = 60 kPa
6 6 CC = 0.50
CR = 0.05
5 7 4 10 7 4 12 18
GS = 2.7
6 6
For clay
= 10.333 + 8.1666 + 7.1666 + 12.166 w = 25% = 0.25
 15

eSR = wG = 13.13 + 23.76 = 36.89 mm.

53. 65.475
wG 0.25 2.7
e= S = 0.675 Effective stress at X-X is given by
R 1
3
rsub = rsat – rw –u =5× sub +
5 w
6
G e = 5(18 – 9.81) + 2.5 × 9.81
= rw rw = 40.95 + 24.5 = 65.475 kN/m2
1 e
54. 104.39
G 1 Given effective shear strength parameters are
= rw C = 15 kPa c = 200 kPa = 22°
1 e
u = 150 kPa
2.7 1 c = c – u = 200 – 150 = 50 kPa
= 10 1 = c + d
f
1 0.675
3f = c = 50 kPa
= 10.15 kN/m3. f=
– (before 3fN + 2c N
compaction) = 17 × 1 + 0.5 × 10.15
= 22.075 kN/m3 2 22
N = tan 45 tan 2 45 = tan2 (45 + 11)
< pre consolidation pressure (60 kPa) 2 2
Hence over consolidation stage = tan2 (56) = 2.198

CR H 0 log 1f
= 50 × 2.198 + 2 × 15 × 2.198
c
Total settlement is given by = 1 e = 109.9 + 30 × 1.483
0 0
= 109.9 + 44.49 = 154.39
1f = 154.39
CC H
log 0 cf + df = 154.39
1 e0 c d = 154.39 – c
= 154.39 – 50
CR = 0.05 Deviator stress d = 104.39
55. 10500
e 2
w × H1 = 10 + 65 = 650 kN/m
CR = log 2
1
1 w H2 rw (H 2 H1 )
3

60 1
e = 0.05log = 50 10 60
22.075 3
= 250 kN/m2
e = 0.0217
0.675 – e0 = 0.0217 1 1
P= (650 250) 10 (250 50) 40
0 = 0.653
2 2
This is for over consolidation stage = 4500 + 6000
= 10500 kN/m
0.05 1000 60
H= log
1 0.653 22.075

0.5 1000 72.075 65 m

log
1 0.675 60 5m

60 72.075 10 m 40 m
= 30.25 log 298.5log
22.075 60
= 30.25 × 0.434 + 298.5 × 0.0796
 16

56. (b) Flow is normal to bedding plane

1 1000 10 52
zi 20 30 10 FH = kN
Kavg = 2 1000
zi 20 30 10 = 2m/day
= 125 kN
ki 3 3 1
5
head difference 15 10 5 1 FH acts at a distance 1.67 m = 1.67 m from the base
i= = = 3
length 60 60 12 FV = weight of water anclosed on supported (actual or
Seepage discharge q = Kavg × i × A imaginary) by the curved surface
1 g × Vaccum portion of ABC
= 2 3 1
12 1 60 1 5 5 3
= 0.5 m3/day/m = 100 10 2 25 180 2
2 2 2
57. (b) Given Q = 16 m3/s
Bed slope s = 0.001 25
n = 0.012 = 1000 10 1.25 5 3
6
Channel is wide rectangular.
Area A = B × y = 1000 × 10 × 2.27 × 1
= 22.7 kN
A By
Hydraulic Radius R= y 2 2
P B FR = FH FV
1
Q= AR 2 / 3S1/ 2 = (125)2 (22.7) 2 = 127 kN
n
59. 2.3
1
16 = (4 y)y 2 / 3s1/ 2
0.02

16 0.012
y5/3 = 30°
4 0.001 y=2m
y = 2.95 m
1
q2 3 B
yc =
g For hydraulically efficient channel,
2 2 2 4
1 B= y = 2.31 m
42 3 3 3 3
= 60. (*) Case A
10
pH = 4.2, pOH = 9.8
Q 16 [OH–] = 10–9.8 mol/L
q= =4 Case B
B 4
yc = 1.169 m [OH–] = 2 × 10–9.8 mol/L
y > yc channel is mild slope pOH = 9.8 – log10
2 = 9.5
H
p = 4.5
58. 127
61. 8011.8
A Q
A= ln(1 0)
we
2.5 m
A1 A1
38° so,
B n(1 1 ) = n(1 2 )
30°
2.5 m 5600 A
=
n(1 9.6) n(1 0.99)
C A = 8011.8m2
 17

62. 0.3 BOD2 = L0 × (1 – e– k × 2) 64. 3

100 = L0 (1 – e– 2k) ... (1) 65. 476.9
Also 155 = L0 (1 – e– 4k) ... (2) T
(1)/(2)

1 e 2k 2.555 16.5°
100 T
= 0.555
R 10.5° S
155 1 e 4k T

1–e–4k = 1.55 – 1.55 e– 2k

e–4k – 1.55 × e– 2k + 0.55 = 0 Q
Let e–2k = x P
x2 – 1.55x + 0.55 = 0
x = 0.55 60 m x
e–2k = – 0.55 TT
k = 0.3 day–1 TST = tan (16.5°) =
x
... (1)
n 2 2 52
63. (b) Wme for 60 kmph = = 0.5 m
TT TT 2
2R 2 50 TST tan (10.5°) = =
x 60 x 60
V 60 ... (2)
Wps, for 60 kmph = = 0.89 m
9.5 R 9.5 50 From (1) & (2)
x tan 16.5 = (x + 10) tan (10.5) – 2
2 52 x × 0.296 = (x + 10) 0.185 – 2
Wme, for 80 kmph = = 0.50 m x = 82.25 m
2 50
So T T = 82.25 × 0.296
80 = 24.35 m
Wps, 80 = = 1.19 m. So, RL top of tower = 450 + 2.555 + 24.35
9.5 80
= 476.905 m