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ALL INDIA INTERNAL TEST SERIES

CHEMISTRY, MATHEMATICS & PHYSICS


SET – A
APT - 1 108579 Ai2TS - 9
Time Allotted : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 210
INSTRUCTIONS
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions

 Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
 This question paper contains Three Sections.
 Section – I is “Chemistry”, Section – II is “Mathematics” and Section – III is “Physics”.
 Each Section is further divided into two Parts: Part – A & Part – C.
CLASS XII (PAPER-2)

 Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
 Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices,
in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR
sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Parts.

(i) PART-A (01 – 10) contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Correct answer. Each
question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 2 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) PART-C (01 – 10) contains 10 Numerical Based questions with Single Digit Integer as answer, ranging from
0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of Candidate :

Batch ID : Date of Examination : / / 2 0 1

Enrolment Number :

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Ai TS – 9 (XII) | Paper-2 | | SET – A | APT – 1 | Page |1

SECTION- I: CHEMISTRY
PART– A (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 10 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.

1. The correct combination of names for isomeric alcohols with molecular formula C 4H10O is/are
(A) tert-butanol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(B) tert-butanol and 1, 2-methyl-2-propanol
(C) n-butanol and butan-1-ol
(D) isobutyl alcohol and 2-methylpropan-1-ol

2. Two flasks A and B have equal volumes. Flask A containing H2 gas is maintained at 300 K while B containing
an equal mass of C2H6 gas is maintained at 900 K. Assuming ideal behaviour for both the gases, identify the
correct statement(s) :
(A) Molecules in flask A are moving 5 times as fast as the molecules in flask B.
(B) Kinetic energy per mole in the flask B is 3 times the kinetic energy per mole in flask A
(C) Total kinetic energy in flask A is 5 times total kinetic energy in flask B
(D) Compressibility factor of the gas in flask A is equal to that of the gas in flask B.

3. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) wrong?


(A) at equilibrium concentration of reactant and product become constant because the reaction stops
(B) addition of catalyst speeds up the forward reaction more than the backward reaction
(C) equilibrium constant of an exothermic reaction decreases with increase of temperature
(D) Kp is always greater than Kc

4. The correct statement(s) for orthoboric acid is/are


(A) It behaves as a weak acid in water due to self ionization.
(B) Acidity of its aqueous solution increases upon addition of ethylene glycol.
(C) It has a three dimensional structure due to hydrogen bonding.
(D) It is a weak electrolyte in water.

5. Identify the correct statements about BF3 and PF3


(A) Hybridisation of central atom is same in both the molecules
(B) Both have resonating structures
(C) Both have double bond character
(D) Both have different type of  bonding

Space for rough work

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6. The correct statement(s) regarding, (i) HClO, (ii) HClO 2, (iii) HClO3 and (iv) HClO4, is (are)
(A) The number of Cl = O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is two
(B) The number of lone pairs of electrons on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together is three
3
(C) The hybridization of Cl in (iv) is sp
(D) Amongst (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (i)

7.
Cl

KCN(1 eq.)
(A) 
H2 /Pt
B
Cl
Correct statement for product B is
(A) It is gives positive carbyl amine test
(B) It gives coupling reaction with diazonium salt
(C) It gives alcohol on treatment with nitrous acid
(D) It forms dibromo derivative with bromine water

8. Select the incorrect statements:


(A) On dilution, pH of an acid generally increases
(B) pH of a solution formed by mixing equimolar quantities of HCOOH and HCl will be less than that of a
similar solution formed from HCOOH and HCOONa
(C) Ksp of a sparingly soluble salt increases with increase in concentration of ions
(D) pH cannot be more than 14

9. For solution of alkali metal (M) in liquid NH 3, identify which of the following equilibria would simultaneously
exist:
(A) M   x  y  NH3 MNH3 x  e NH3 y M2  am

(B) 2Mam  2e

(C) 2eam e22am (D) Mam  e22 Mam

10. In which of the following pair(s), the minerals are converted in to metals by self-reduction process?
(A) Cu2S, PbS (B) PbS, HgS
(C) PbS, ZnS (D) Ag2S, Cu2S

Space for rough work

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Ai TS – 9 (XII) | Paper-2 | | SET – A | APT – 1 | Page |3

PART – C: (Only Integer Value Correct Type)


This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9 (both
inclusive).

1. The acid catalysed hydrolysis of an organic compound ‘A’ at 303 K has a time for half change of 100 minute
when carried out in a buffer solution at pH = 5, and 10 minute when carried out at
pH = 4. Both times of half change are independent of the initial concentration of A. If the rate constant ‘K’ is
d  A 
 K  A  H  . The value of ‘y’ is.
x y
given by
dt

2. Among PbS, CuS, HgS, MnS, Ag2S, NiS, CoS, Bi2S3 and SnS2, the total number of BLACK coloured
sulphides is

3. What is the total number of elements which have their single oxidation state (other than zero) in their
corresponding stable compounds?
Cs, Ba, F, Zn, Be, Al, Sr, Ga, Pb

4. If the freezing point of a 0.01 molal aqueous solution of a cobalt (III) chloride-ammonia complex (which
0
behaves as a strong electrolyte) is – 0.0558 C, the number of chloride(s) in the coordination sphere of the
complex is
–1
[Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol ]
th
5. How many visible lines are emitted during transition from 5 orbit to ground state in hydrogen emission
spectrum?

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3+ – –
6. For the octahedral complexes of Fe in SCN (thiocyanato-S) and in CN ligand environments, the difference
between the spin-only magnetic moments in Bohr magnetons (When approximated to the nearest integer) is
[Atomic number of Fe = 26]

7. In the following reaction: xZn  yHNO3  very dil   aZn NO3 2  bH2O  cNH4NO3
What is the sum of the coefficients (a + b + c)?

8. When CH3CHO is treated with excess of HCHO in aqueous solution of Na 2CO3, a product, used in making
explosive, is obtained finally. Find the number of primary alcoholic groups present in one molecule of the
product.

9. In Rutile (TiO2) structure

If the number of effective number of molecules in each unit cell is x and coordination number of oxygen in
each unit cell is y. What is the value of x + y? In the figure given above dark ball represents oxygen atoms and
grey ball represents titanium atoms.
o
10. 4.48 L of an ideal gas at STP requires 12 cal to raise the temperature by 15 C at constant volume. Find the CP
of the gas in cal.

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Ai TS – 9 (XII) | Paper-2 | | SET – A | APT – 1 | Page |5

SECTION II: MATHEMATICS


PART – A (One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 10 multiple choice type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.

2 2
1. Let RS be the diameter of the circle x + y = 1, where S is the point (1, 0). Let P be a variable point (other
than R and S) on the circle and tangents to the circle at S and P meet at the point Q. The normal to the circle
at P intersects a line drawn through Q parallel to RS at point E. Then the locus of E passes through the
point(s)
1 1   1 1
(A)  ,  (B)  , 
 3 3  4 2
1 1   1 1
(C)  ,   (D)  ,  
3 3 4 2

2. A tangent drawn to the curve y = f(x) at P(x, y) cuts the x-axis and y-axis at A and B respectively such
that AP : BP = 3 : 1, given that f(1) = 1, then
dy
(A) equation of curve is x  3y  0 (B) normal at (1, 1) is x + 3y = 4
dx
dy
(C) curve passes through (1/8, 2) (D) equation of curve is 3x y0
dx

3. A line L passing through the origin is perpendicular to the lines


L 1 : r   3  t  ˆi   1  2t  ˆj   4  2t  kˆ ,   < t < , L 2 : r   3  2s  ˆi   3  2s  ˆj   2  s  kˆ ,   < s < 
Then, the coordinate(s) of the point(s) on L2 at a distance of 17 from the point of intersection of L and L 1 is
(are)
7 7 5
(A)  , ,  (B) (1, 1, 0)
3 3 3
7 7 8
(C) (1, 1, 1) (D)  , , 
9 9 9

x2 y2
4. The value(s) of m for which y = mx + 6 is a tangent to the hyperbola  = 1 is
100 49
17 20
(A) (B)
20 17
20 17
(C)  (D) 
17 20
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x e x
5. Let f(x)  and g(x)  , where [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then
1 x 2 1  [x]
(A) dom (f + g) = R - [2, 0) (B) dom (f - g) = R - [1, 0)
 1
(C) range f  range g =  2,  (D) range f  range g = R - {0}
 2

-1 2 2
6. If f(x) = (tan x) + , then f is increasing in
x 1
2

(A) (0, ) (B) [1, 10]


(C) [3, 5] (D) [2, 5]

7. If the equation x2  9y2  4x  3  0 is satisfied for real values of x and y, then


(A) 1  x  3 (B) 2  x  3
1 1 1
(C)   y  (D)  x 1
3 3 3

  cos  sin  
Let  =   sin  cos   , then B = A  A + A  A is
4 3 2
8. and A =
5  
(A) singular (B) non-singular
(C) symmetric (D) |B| = 1
m n 2
9. For natural number m, n if (1 – y) (1 + y) = 1 + a1y + a2y + . . . . and a1 = a2 = 10 then
(A) m < n (B) m > n
(C) m + n = 80 (D) m – n = 20

10. If in the adjacent figure, the three circles are of same size, in P(0, 3)
equilateral triangle of side 2 units, then
(A) sum of circumference (of all circles) is 3( 3 – 1)
(B) sum of circumference (of all circles) is 3( 3 + 1)
(C) radius of circle is ( 3 – 1)
 3  1
(D) radius of circle is  
 2 

Q(–1, 0) (0, 0) R(1, 0)

Space for Rough work

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Ai TS – 9 (XII) | Paper-2 | | SET – A | APT – 1 | Page |7

PART – C (Only Integer Value Correct Type)

This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

1. The number of integer values of m, for which the x–coordinate of the point of intersection of the lines
3x + 4y = 9 and y = mx + 1 is also an integer, is ______

e37
 sin   lnx 
2. The value of  x
dx is _______
1

3. Of the three independent events E1, E2, and E3, the probability that only E1 occurs is , only E2 occurs is
 and only E3 occurs is . Let the probability p that none of events E1, E2 or E3 occurs satisfy the equations
(  2) p =  and (  3) p = 2. All the given probabilities are assumed to lie in the interval (0, 1). Then
Probability of occurrence of E1
= ___________
Probability of occurrence of E3

Normals are drawn from a point P with slopes m 1, m2 and m3 to the parabola y = 4x. For m1m2 = , if the
2
4.
locus of the point P is a part of the parabola itself, then the value of  is _______

 x2  1 
5. The value of constant a such that lim   ax  b   0 is ________
x  x  1 
 
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6. The total number of selections of atleast one thing at most r things from (2r + 1) different things is 255. Then
the value of r is _______

1  sin2 x cos2 x 4 sin 2x


7. Let f(x)  sin2 x 1  cos2 x 4 sin 2x . Then the maximum value of f(x) is ________
2
sin x 2
cos x 1  4 sin 2x

|x|
8. The number of solutions of the equation sin x  are _______
10

9. Let y = g(x) be the image of f(x) = x + sin x about the line x + y = 0. If the area bounded by y = g(x),
A
x-axis, x = 0 and x = 2 is A, then 2 is __________.

2 2 2
10. If a  2, b  3, and c  4 and maximum of a  b  b  c  c  a = 10 p + q where p, q  {0, 1, 2, 3, …..
9} then |p – q| is ________
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SECTION – III: PHYSICS


PART – A (Straight Objective Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.

1. An ammeter has a resistance of 50  and a full scale deflection current of 50 A. It can be used as a
voltmeter or as a higher range ammeter provided that a resistance is added to it. Choose the correct range
and resistance combinations from the following.
(A) 20 V range with approximately 400 k resistance in series.
(B) 100 V range with approximately 2  10  resistance in series.
6

(C) 1 mA range with 50  resistance in parallel.


(D) 0.1 mA range with 50  resistance in parallel.

2. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are placed on a horizontal table m m F


with coefficient of friction  and are joined by a spring. Initially, the 2 1

spring has its natural length. If F is minimum force which, when


applied on m1, will make the other block m2 just move. (k is the
spring constant) and x is elongation in spring at that instant.

m1g m2 g
(A) F  m2 g  (B) x
2 k
m2 g 2m 2 g
(C) F  m1g  (D) x  .
2 k

3.  
A charged particle of mass 2 kg and charge 2 C moves with a velocity v  8iˆ  6jˆ m/s in a magnetic field
B  2kˆ T. Then
2 2
(A) The path of particle may be x + y = 25.
2 2
(B) The path of particle may be x + z = 25.
(C) The time period of particle will be 3.14 s.
(D) None of these.

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4. A particle of mass m and velocity v0 is fired at a solid cylinder of mass M and radius R. The cylinder is initially
at rest and is mounted on a fixed horizontal axle that runs through the centre of mass. The line of motion of
the particle is perpendicular to the axle and at a distance d, less than R, from the centre and the particle sticks
to the surface of the cylinder, then
2mv 0 d
(A) Angular speed of the system just after the particle sticks is 2 .
R M  2m 
(B) Mechanical energy is conserved.
mv 0 d
(C) Angular speed of the system just after the particle sticks is .
R M  2m 
2

(D) Mechanical energy is not conserved.

5. Three coherent sound sources producing plane wave fronts S1 S2 S3 P


towards right of same amplitude and wavelength (  = 3 cm)
are situated on a line as shown in the diagram. If an d1 d2 D
observer P also lies on
the same line and observes no sound when sources S1, S2 and S3 are switched on simultaneously. Taking all
suitable approximations and d1 & d2 <<< D,
(A) d1 must be 3 cm (B) d1 may be 1 cm
(C) d2 may be 4 cm (D) d1 must be 1 cm

6. In the figure, if F = 4 N, m = 2kg, M = 4 kg then (take g = 10 m/s )


2 
k=0
.08
z
2
(A) the acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is m/s 2 F
3 =0
.1
m 
=0
2 s
(B) the acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is 1.2 m/s M
2
(C) acceleration of M is 0.4 m/s
G
ro
und
2
(D) acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is m/s 2
3

7. Inside a uniform sphere of mass M and radius R, a cavity of radius R/3 is A


made in the sphere as shown.
(A) Gravitational field inside the cavity is uniform.
R
(B) Gravitational field inside the cavity is non–uniform.
88GM B
(C) The escape velocity of a particle projected from point A is . R /3
45R C
(D) Escape velocity is defined for earth and particle system only.

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8. The position vector of a particle that is moving in three dimensions is given by


r  (1  2cos 2t)iˆ  (3sin 2 t)ˆj  (3t)kˆ
in the ground frame. All units are in SI. Choose the correct statement (s) :
 3 
(A) The particle executes SHM in the ground frame about the mean position  1, ,3t  .
 2 
(B) The particle executes SHM in a frame moving along the z–axis with a velocity of 3 m/s.
5
(C) The amplitude of the SHM of the particle is m.
2
4 3 
(D) The direction of the SHM of the particle is given by the vector  ˆi  ˆj  .
5 5 
9. A neutron having kinetic energy E collides head on with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state, which is
initially at rest but free to move. Assume the mass of the neutron to be equal to that of H atom. Use the
energy of the nth state for H atom as E1 = – 13.6eV; E2 =–3.4eV; E3 = –1.5eV. (whether collision is elastic or
inelastic, depends on the energy of the neutron, and in case of elastic collision they can be treated as ordinary
particles) now choose the correct options:
(A) The collision will be perfectly elastic if E is less than 20.4 eV.
(B) If E = 24.2 eV, the H atom may get excited to n = 4.
(C) If E < 20.4eV the kinetic energy of the neutron will become zero after the collision.
(D) If E > 20.4eV the kinetic energy of the neutron will become zero after the collision.

10. Light from a monochromatic source is incident normally on a small photo sensitive surface S having work
function . If power of the source is W and a is the distance between the source and S, then
–19
(here e = 1.6  10 C, which is magnitude of charge of one electron)
 w S 
(A) the number of photons striking the surface per unit time will be  2 
 4hca 
1
(B) the maximum energy of the emitted electrons will be (hc  )

1
(C) the stopping potential needed to stop the most energetic photons will be (hc  )
e
hc
(D) photo emission occurs only if 0   

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PART – C (Integer Type)


This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

1. The xz plane is the boundary between two transparent medium. Medium –I with y  0 has refractive index 
and medium –II with y  0 has a refractive index 1. A ray of light in medium-I, given by vector n  ˆi  3ˆj is
incident on the plane of separation. If the reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 90 with each other,
then the value of  is k . Find the value of k.

2. ABCDECA is a planar body of mass m of uniform thickness and a


A B
same material. The dimensions are as shown in the figure. The
moment of inertia of the body about an axis passing through a
point A and perpendicular to planar body is I1 and that of about
an axis passing through C and perpendicular to planer body is C

I2. If I1/I2 is k. Find the value of k. a

E D
a

3. A resistance R = 12  is connected across a source of emf as E(v) R = 12


shown in the figure. Its emf changes with time as shown in the 24
graph. The heat developed in the resistance in the first four E
seconds is K  8J. Find the value of K. 4 Source
t(s)

2
4. A particle starts from rest and moves with an acceleration of a = {2 + |t – 2|} m/s , the velocity of the particle at
t = 4 sec is 6K m/s. Find the value of K.

5. A particle of mass m = 2 kg is placed on the top of a smooth m


y
hemisphere of mass M = 4 kg. The hemisphere is placed on smooth
ground. The particle is displaced gently. Then ratio of magnitude of 
x
normal reaction and pseudo force (seen from the hemisphere-frame) M
acting on the particle at an angle  = 30(see figure). (Assume that the
particle remains in contact with the hemisphere)

Space for rough work

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2
Ai TS – 9 (XII) | Paper-2 | | SET – A | APT – 1 | P a g e | 13

 
6. When two progressive waves y1 = 4 sin(2x - 6t) and y2 = 3 sin  2x  6t   are superimposed, the amplitude
 2
of the resultant wave is

7. Average life of a radioactive sample is 4 ms. Initially the total number of nuclei is N 0. Also at that time a
Nuclei remaining
charged capacitor of capacitance 20 F is connected across a resistor R. The ratio
Charge on capacitor
remains constant with time. Find the value of R/(40).
d/2
8. A certain series RC circuit is formed using a resistance R, a capacitor without
dielectric having a capacitance C = 2 F and a battery of emf E = 3 V. The circuit
is completed and it is allowed to attain the steady state. After this, at t = 0, half
K=2
the thickness of the capacitor is filled with a dielectric of constant K = 2 as shown
in the figure. The system is again allowed to attain a steady state. What will be
the heat generated (in joule) in the capacitor between t = 0 and t = ?
d

A solid sphere of radius R has a charge Q distributed in its volume with a charge density  = kr , where k and
a
9.
a are constants and r is the distance from its centre. If the electric field at r = R/2 is 1/8 times that at r = R,
find the value of a.
4
10. Two spherical stars A and B emit blackbody radiation. The radius of A is 400 times that of B and A emits 10
times the power emitted from B. The ratio (A/B) of their wavelengths A and B at which the peaks occur in
their respective radiation curves is

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
Website: www.fiitjee.com, Mail : aiits@fiitjee.com

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