Q1.

When negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its voltage gain

……………….
1. Is increased
2. Is reduced
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. The value of negative feedback fraction is always …………….
1. Less than 1
2. More than 1
3. Equal to 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV from the output is fed back to
the input, then feedback fraction is ………..
1. 10
2. 1
3. 01
4. 15
Answer : 3
Q4. The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 db. If a negative feedback of 3
db is applied, the gain of the amplifier will become …………..
1. 5 db
2. 300 db
3. 103 db
4. 97 db
Answer : 4
Q5. If the feedback fraction of an amplifier is 0.01, then voltage gain with negative
feedback is approximately………..
1. 500
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 5000
Answer : 2
Q6. A feedback circuit usually employs ……………… network
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. Inductive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known as ………….. gain
1. Resonant
2. Open loop
3. Closed loop
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance
………….
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its input impedance
…………..
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. Negative feedback is employed in ……………..
1. Oscillators
2. Rectifiers
3. Amplifiers
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. Emitter follower is used for …………
1. Current gain
2. Impedance matching
3. Voltage gain
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. The voltage gain of an emitter follower is ………..
1. Much less than 1
2. Approximately equal to 1
3. Greater than 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q13. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output
impedance ……..
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1

Q1. A differential amplifier ……………..

1. is a part of an Op-amp
2. has one input and one output
 3. has two outputs
4. answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 4
Q 2. When a differential amplifier is operated single-ended, …………
1. the output is grounded
2. one input is grounded and signal is applied to the other
3. both inputs are connected together
4. the output is not inverted
Answer : 2
Q3. In differential-mode, …………….
1. opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs
2. the gain is one
3. the outputs are of different amplitudes
4. only one supply voltage is used
Answer : 1
Q4. In the common mode, ……………
1. both inputs are grounded
2. the outputs are connected together
3. an identical signal appears on both the inputs
4. the output signal are in-phase
Answer : 3
Q5. The common-mode gain is ………..
1. very high
2. very low
3. always unity
4. unpredictable
Answer : 2
Q6. The differential gain is ………
1. very high
2. very low
3. dependent on input voltage
4. about 100
Answer : 1
Q7. If ADM = 3500 and ACM = 0.35, the CMRR is ……….
1. 1225
2. 10,000
3. 80 dB
4. answers (1) and (3)
Answer : 4
Q8. With zero volts on both inputs, an OP-amp ideally should have an output ………..
1. equal to the positive supply voltage
2. equal to the negative supply voltage
3. equal to zero
4. equal to CMRR
Answer : 3
Q9. Of the values listed, the most realistic value for open-loop voltage gain of an OP-
amp is ……
1. 1
2. 2000
3. 80 dB
4. 100,000
Answer : 4
Q10. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 μA. The input offset current is ……..
1. 700 nA
2. 99.3 μA
3. 49.7 μA
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Q11. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is …….
1. 90 V/μs
2. 0.67 V/μs
3. 1.5 V/μs
4. none of these
Answer : 2
Q12. For an Op-amp with negative feedback, the output is …….
1. equal to the input
2. increased
3. fed back to the inverting input
4. fed back to the noninverting input
Answer : 3
Q13. The use of negative feedback ………
1. reduces the voltage gain of an Op-amp
2. makes the Op-amp oscillate
3. makes linear operation possible
4. answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 4
Q14. Negative feedback ………..
1. increases the input and output impedances
2. increases the input impedance and bandwidth
3. decreases the output impedance and bandwidth
4. does not affect impedance or bandwidth
Answer : 2
Q15. A certain noninverting amplifier has Ri of 1 kΩ and Rf of 100 kΩ. The closed-
loop voltage gain is ………
1. 100,000
2. 1000
3. 101
4. 100
Answer : 3
Q16. If the feedback resistor in Q15 (above question) is open, the voltage gain …….
1. increases
 2. decreases
3. is not affected
4. depends on Ri
Answer : 1
Q17. A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 25. The Op-amp
has an open-loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an Op-amp with an open-loop voltage
gain of 200,000 is substituted in the arrangement, the closed-loop gain ……..
1. doubles
2. drops to 12.5
3. remains at 25
4. increases slightly
Answer : 3
Q18. A voltage follower ……….
1. has a voltage gain of 1
2. is noninverting
3. has no feedback resistor
4. has all of these
Answer : 4
Q19. The Op-amp can amplify
1. a.c. signals only
2. d.c. signals only
3. both a.c. and d.c. signals
4. neither d.c. nor a.c. signals
Answer : 3
Q20. The input offset current equals the ……….
1. difference between two base currents
2. average of two base currents
3. collector current divided by current gain
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Q21. The tail current of a differential amplifier is …….
1. half of either collector current
2. equal to either collector current
3. two times either collector current
4. equal to the difference in base currents
Answer : 3
Q22. The node voltage at the top of the til resistor is closes to ……….
1. collector supply voltage
2. zero
3. emitter supply voltage
4. tail current times base resistance
Answer : 2
Q23. The tail current in a differential amplifier equals …….
1. difference between two emitter currents
2. sum of two emitter currents
3. collector current divided by current gain
 4. collector voltage divided by collector resistance
Answer : 2
Q24. The differential voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC divided by
…….
1. r’e
2. r’e/2
3. 2r’e
4. RE
Answer : 3
Q25. The input impedance of a differential amplifier equals r’e times ……
1. β
2. RE
3. RC
4. 2β
Answer : 4
Q26. A common-mode signal is applied to ……….
1. the noninverting input
2. the inverting input
3. both iputs
4. top of the tail resistor
Answer : 3
Q27. The common-mode voltage gain is ………
1. smaller than differentail voltage gain
2. equal to differential voltage gain
3. greater than differential voltage gain
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The input stage of an Op-amp is usually a ……….
1. differential amplifier
2. class B push-pull amplifier
3. CE amplifier
4. swamped amplifier
Answer : 1
Q29. The common-mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier is equal to RC divided
by ……..
1. r’e
2. 2r’e
3. r’e/2
4. 2RE
Answer : 4
Q30. Current cannot flow to ground through …….
1. a mechanical ground
2. an a.c. ground
3. a virtual ground
4. an ordinary ground
Answer : 3
Q1. An oscillator converts ……………..
1. c. power into d.c. power
2. c. power into a.c. power
3. mechanical power into a.c. power
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. In an LC transistor oscillator, the active device is ……………
1. LC tank circuit
2. Biasing circuit
3. Transistor
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. In an LC circuit, when the capacitor is maximum, the inductor energy is ……….
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Half-way between maximum and minimum
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillator is ……………. L or C.
1. Proportional to square of
2. Directly proportional to
3. Independent of the values of
4. Inversely proportional to square root of
Answer : 4
Q5. An oscillator produces……………. oscillations
1. Damped
2. Undamped
3. Modulated
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. An oscillator employs ……………… feedback
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Neither positive nor negative
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q7. An LC oscillator cannot be used to produce ……………….. frequencies
1. High
2. Audio
3. Very low
4. Very high
Answer : 3
Q8. Hartley oscillator is commonly used in ………………
1. Radio receivers
2. Radio transmitters
 3. TV receivers
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. In a phase shift oscillator, we use …………. RC sections
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. In a phase shift oscillator, the frequency determining elements are …………
1. L and C
2. R, L and C
3. R and C
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. A Wien bridge oscillator uses ……………. feedback
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. The piezoelectric effect in a crystal is ……………
1. A voltage developed because of mechanical stress
2. A change in resistance because of temperature
3. A change in frequency because of temperature
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q13. If the crystal frequency changes with temperature, we say that crystal has
………….. temperature coefficient
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to ………………. of the
crystal
1. Rigidity
2. Vibrations
3. Low Q
4. High Q
Answer : 4
Q15. The application where one would most likely find a crystal oscillator is
……………..
1. Radio receiver
2. Radio transmitter
3. AF sweep generator
 4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. An oscillator differs from an amplifier because it ………
1. Has more gain
2. Requires no input signal
3. Requires no d.c. supply
4. Always has the same input
Answer : 2
Q17. One condition for oscillation is ………….
1. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 180o
2. A gain around the feedback loop of one-third
3. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 0o
4. A gain around the feedback loop of less than 1
Answer : 3
Q18. A second condition for oscillations is ……………….
1. A gain of 1 around the feedback loop
2. No gain around the feedback loop
3. The attention of the feedback circuit must be one-third
4. The feedback circuit must be capacitive
Answer : 1
Q19. In a certain oscillator Av = 50. The attention of the feedback circuit must be
…………
1. 1
2. 01
3. 10
4. 02
Answer : 4
Q20. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must
initially be
1. 1
2. Greater than 1
3. Less than 1
4. Equal to attenuation of feedback circuit
Answer : 2
Q21. In a Wien-bridge oscillator, if the resistances in the positive feedback circuit are
decreased, the frequency……….
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 3
Q22. In Colpitt’s oscillator, feedback is obtained …………….
1. By magnetic induction
2. By a tickler coil
3. From the centre of split capacitors
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. The Q of the crystal is of the order of …………
1. 100
2. 1000
3. 50
4. More than 10,000
Answer : 4
Q24. Quartz crystal is most commonly used in crystal oscillators because ………….
1. It has superior electrical properties
2. It is easily available
3. It is quite inexpensive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. This question will be available soon

Q26. This question will be available soon

Q27. ………….. is a fixed frequency oscillator

1. Phase-shift oscillator
2. Hartely-oscillator
3. Colpitt’s oscillator
4. Crystal oscillator
Answer : 4
Q28. In an LC oscillator, if the value of L is increased four times, the frequency of
oscillations is …………
1. Increased 2 times
2. Decreased 4 times
3. Increased 4 times
4. Decreased 2 times
Answer : 4
Q29. An important limitation of a crystal oscillator is ……………
1. Its low output
2. Its high Q
3. Less availability of quartz crystal
4. Its high output
Answer : 1
Q30. The signal generator generally used in the laboratories is ………….. oscillator
1. Wien-bridge
2. Hartely
3. Crystal
4. Phase shift
Answer : 1
Q1. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal number …………..
1. 19
2. 12
3. 27
4. 21
Answer : 4
Q2. The universal gate is ………………
1. NAND gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. The inverter is ……………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resulting circuit is
………….
1. OR gate
2. AND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q5. The NOR gate is OR gate followed by ………………
1. AND gate
2. NAND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. The NAND gate is AND gate followed by …………………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of ………………
1. OR gates
2. NOT gates
3. NAND gates
 4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. The only function of NOT gate is to ……………..
1. Stop signal
2. Invert input signal
3. Act as a universal gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. When an input signal 1 is applied to a NOT gate, the output is ………………
1. 0
2. 1
3. Either 0 & 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates ………………..
1. OR operation
2. AND operation
3. NOT operation
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. The resolution of an n bit DAC with a maximum input of 5 V is 5 mV. The
value of n is …….
1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
4. 11
Answer : 3
Explanation:
(5/2N-1)1000 = 5 or N = 10
Q12. 2’s complement of binary number 0101 is ………..
1. 1011
2. 1111
3. 1101
4. 1110
Answer : 1
Explanation: 1’s complement of 0101 is 1010 and 2’s complement is 1010+1 = 1011.
Q13. An OR gate has 4 inputs. One input is high and the other three are low. The
output is …….
1. Low
2. High
3. alternately high and low
4. may be high or low depending on relative magnitude of inputs
Answer : 2
Explanation: In OR any input high means high output.
Q14. Decimal number 10 is equal to binary number ……………
1. 1110
 2. 1010
3. 1001
4. 1000
Answer : 2
Explanation: 1010 = 8 + 2 = 10 in decimal.
Q15. Both OR and AND gates can have only two inputs.
1. True
2. False
Answer : 2
Explanation: Any number of inputs are possible.
Q16. A device which converts BCD to seven segments is called ……..
1. Encoder
2. Decoder
3. Multiplexer
4. None of these
Answer : 2
Explanation: Decoder converts binary/BCD to alphanumeric.
Q17. In 2’s complement representation the number 11100101 represents the decimal
number ……………
1. +37
2. -31
3. +27
4. -27
Answer : 4
Explanation:
A = 11100101. Therefore Ā = 00011010 and A’ = Ā + 1 = 00011011 = 16 + 8 + 2 + 1
= 27. Therefore A = -27.

Q18. A decade counter skips ………..

1. binary states 1000 to 1111
2. binary states 0000 to 0011
3. binary states 1010 to 1111
4. binary states 1111 to higher
Answer : 3
Explanation: A decade counter counts from 0 to 9. It has 4 flip-flops. The states
skipped are 10 to 15 or 1010 to 1111.
Q19. BCD input 1000 is fed to a 7 segment display through a BCD to 7 segment
decoder/driver. The segments which will lit up are ………….
1. a, b, d
2. a, b, c
3. all
4. a, b, g, c, d
Answer : 3
Explanation: 1000 equals decimal 8 Therefore all segments will lit up.
Q20. A ring counter with 5 flip flops will have ………. states.
1. 5
 2. 10
3. 32
4. Infinite
Answer : 1
Q21. For the gate in the given figure the output will be ………..

1. 0
2. 1
3. A
4. Ā
Answer : 4
Explanation: If A = 0, Y = 1 and A = 1, Y = 0 Therefore Y = Ā.
Q22. In the expression A + BC, the total number of minterms will be ………
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Answer : 4
Q23. The circuit in the given figure is a ………… gate.

1. positive logic OR gate

2. negative logic OR gate
 3. negative logic AND gate
4. positive logic AND gate
Answer : 2
Explanation: Since V(1) is lower state than V(0) it is a negative logic circuit. Since
diodes are in parallel, it is an OR gate.
Q24. Which of the following is non-saturating?
1. TTL
2. CMOS
3. ECL
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer : 3
Q25. The number of digits in octal system is ………
1. 8
2. 7
3. 9
4. 10
Answer : 1
Explanation: The octal system has 8 digits 0 to 7.
Q16.
Answer : 2
Explanation:
Q26. The access time of a word in 4 MB main memory is 100 ms. The access time of
a word in a 32 kb data cache memory is 10 ns. The average data cache bit ratio is 0.95.
The efficiency of memory access time is ………
1. 9.5 ns
2. 14.5 ns
3. 20 ns
4. 95 ns
Answer : 2
Explanation: Access time = 0.95 x 10 + 0.05 x 100.
Q27. The expression Y = pM (0, 1, 3, 4) is …………..
1. POS
2. SOP
3. Hybrid
4. none of these
Answer : 1
Explanation: This is a product of sums expression.
Q28. An 8 bit DAC has a full scale output of 2 mA and full scale error of ± 0.5%. If
input is 10000000 the range of outputs is ………….
1. 994 to 1014 μA
2. 990 to 1020 μA
3. 800 to 1200 μA
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Explanation:

Q29. Decimal 43 in hexadecimal and BCD number system is respectively……. and

……..
1. B2 and 01000011
2. 2B and 01000011
3. 2B and 00110100
4. B2 and 01000100
Answer : 2
Explanation:

Q30. The circuit of the given figure realizes the function …………
Answer : 1
Explanation:

Q31. An AND gate has two inputs A and B and one inhibit input 3, Output is 1 if
1. A = 1, B = 1, S = 1
2. A = 1, B = 1, S = 0
3. A = 1, B = 0, S = 1
4. A = 1, B = 0, S = 0
Answer: 2
Explanation: All AND inputs must be 1 and inhibit 0 for output to be 1.
Q32. The greatest negative number which can be stored is 8 bit computer using 2’s
complement arithmetic is ……..
1. -256
2. -128
3. -255
4. -127
Answer: 2