FIRST PERIODICAL TEST IN MAPEH 9 =

S.Y. 2019-2020
60
NAME: _______________________________________________ Total Score: ___________
GRADE AND SECTION: ____________________________ DATE: ___________________

DIRECTION: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the correct answer and write it on the space provided
before each item. Strictly avoid erasures.

MUSIC Score: _________

_____ 1. What era was known as the middle ages or “Dark Ages” that started with the fall of the Roman Empire?
A. Baroque Period B. Classical Period C. Medieval Period D. Renaissance Period
_____ 2. There are five main sections of the Mass. Which of the following is the only section of the Mass with Greek text?
A. Kyrie B. Messiah C. Credo D. Sanctus and Benedictus
_____ 3. What is a fact about Giovanni Pierluigi da Palestrina?
A. He composed “Fire, Fire, Fire My Heart”. C. He was the most famous secular music composer
B. Masses was his first book. D. Came from a family of musician.
_____ 4. Who composed “Fire, Fire, Fire My Heart”?
A. Thomas Morley C. Johann Sebastian Bach
B. George Friedrich Handel D. Giovanni Pierluigi da Palestrina
_____ 5. Who made the approved music of the Catholic Church where Monophonic plainchant was named after him?
A. Pope Francis B. Pope Benedict XVI C. Pope Gregory I D. Pope John Paul II
_____ 6. Who is said to be the greatest Master of Roman Catholic Church music during the Renaissance Period?
A. Antonio Vivaldi C. Johann Sebastian Bach
B. Adam de la Halle D. Giovanni Pierluigi da Palestrina
_____ 7. Which is not the meaning of the term Renaissance?
A. rebirth B. revival C. rediscovery D. revolution
_____ 8. What era was also known as the “golden age” of a Capella choral music?
A. Baroque Period B. Classical Period C. Medieval Period D. Renaissance Period
_____ 9. Who was the composer lost both of his eyesight in 1753 and Messiah is his most famous creation?
A. Thomas Morley C. Johann Sebastian Bach
B. George Friedrich Handel D. Giovanni Pierluigi da Palestrina
_____ 10. Baroque music is known for its grandiose and elaborate ornamentation. Which of the following Baroque Music forms was
developed through imitative counterpoint?
A. Fugue B. Oratorio C. Chorale D. Concerto Grosso
_____ 11. Which is the meaning of the Portuguese word barroco?
A. pearl of the orient seas C. pearl of irregular shape
B. pearl of the ocean D. pearl of regular shape
_____ 12. Why did Antonio Vivaldi nickname as “The Red Priest”?
A. Because he lost both of his eye sight. C. Because he was recognized as best Baroque composer.
B. Because of his red hair. D. Because he loved wearing red clothes.
_____ 13. Which of the following does not describe Baroque Period?
A. Melodies are easy to sing or remember.
B. Dynamic contrast of loud and soft sounds.
C. This period highlighted grandiose and elaborate ornamentation.
D. New instrumental techniques and changes in musical notation were developed.
_____ 14. What would happen to a vocal music composition if you have through-composed it, wrote and expressed in a poetic text?
A. It will become a mass C. It will become a madrigal
B. It will become a troubadour Music D. It will become an oratorio
_____ 15. What do you think be the result if you perform a song with one voice and one melody which stands out from background
accompaniment?
A. It becomes homophony C. It becomes monophony
B. It becomes polyphony D. Both A and C

-Shelley B. Vibal
ARTS Score: __________
TEST A
_____ 16. Art is also known as the totality of human activities. Which of the following is NOT the importance of Arts to human?
A. Express feeling of love.
B. Give satisfaction to talented people.
C. Develop character, proper attitudes, and values.
D. Encourage budding sportsmen.
_____ 17. Which is NOT true about paintings from the Pre-historic Era?
A. The paintings were found inside the caves C. The paintings has 2, 000 figures
B. The paintings were large animals D. Shows life of the king while he was still alive
_____ 18. Your group was tasked to do a mural painting in your school using the colors made with grind pigment in pure water to make
the painting become an integral part of the wall. Which technique of painting is ideal for mural painting using the above-mentioned
materials?
A. fresco B. encaustic C. acrylic D. chiaroscuro
_____ 19. You were asked by your Art teacher to paint using melted beeswax and mineral pigment to varnish your work of art. What
medium of painting is the best to apply?
A. fresco B. encaustic C. acrylic D. chiaroscuro
_____ 20. Cave paintings encompasses any parietal arts which involves the application of color pigments on the wall.
In what era did these types of art dominate as the people’s means of communication?
A. Ancient Egypt B. Byzantine Era C. Pre-historic Era D. Classical Greek Era
_____ 21. What is the meaning of the Latin word “ARS” where Art is derived from?
A. imagine B. skill C. creative D. active
_____ 22. What is an art process where an image is created using an assemblage of small pieces of colored glass, stones, or other
materials?
A. Stained glass B. Painting C. Printmaking D. Mosaic
_____ 23. In Greek Architecture, temples were designed either of the three architectural styles or orders. Which of the following Greek
architectural style is characterized by two opposed volutes in the capital?
A. Doric B. Tonic C. Ionic D. Corinthian
_____ 24. If you were an architect and you want to build the Dolmens, what is the best characteristic of this megalith stone that you
should consider?
A. It is a circle of standing stones.
B. It is a huge stone standing vertically on the ground.
C. It is a form of table with two huge stones supporting a horizontal giant stone.
D. All of the above
_____ 25. Which is NOT true about the characteristic of Architecture from the Early Age?
A. Architectures were based on megaliths.
B. Architecture is made of huge stone blocks which were intended for burial.
C. Has thick sloping walls with few openings to obtain stability.
D. Provided plenty of legends and superstitions.
II- Choose the letter to when these Western Classical architecture was modeled.

_____ 26. _____ 27. _______ 28.

A. Gothic A. Gothic A. Gothic

B. Roman B. Roman B. Roman
C. Romanesque C. Romanesque C. Romanesque

_____29. _____ 30.

A. Gothic A. Roman
B. Byzantine B. Romanesque
C. Romanesque C. Byzantine

-Shelley B. Vibal
PHYSICAL EDUCATION Score: _________

_____ 31. What injury is a break in the bone that can occur from either a quick, one-time injury to the bone or from repeated stress to
the bone over time?
A. Knee Injuries B. Fractures C. Dislocations D. Sprains
_____ 32. What injury might happen to Gerald when his two bones in knees become separated?
A. Knee Injuries B. Fractures C. Dislocations D. Sprains
_____ 33. If an athlete suffers from a stretch or tear of a ligament (the band of connective tissues that joins the end of the bone with
another), what could have happened to him?
A. He might suffer from knee Injuries C. He might suffer from dislocations
B. He might suffer fractures D. He might suffer from sprains
_____ 34. What injury is a result from a blow or twist to the knee, from improper landing after a jump or from running too hard, too
much or without proper warm-up?
A. Knee Injuries B. Fractures C. Dislocations D. Sprains
_____ 35. What is the meaning of R.I.C.E Method?
A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation C. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elimination
B. Rest, Ice, Comprehension, Elevation D. Rest, Isolate, Cooperation, Elevation
_____ 36. Which of the following is an immediate and temporary care given to a person who has been injured or suddenly taken ill?
A. Rescue B. Self-help C. Medical assistance D. First aid
_____ 37. Aside from improper eating habits, which habit also causes diabetes?
A. Genetics B. Sedentary Lifestyle C. Environment D. Jogging
_____ 38. What capacity is being manifested of an individual if he/she performs his or her daily tasks without undue fatigue and still has
extra energy for recreation and emergencies?
A. Physical Health B. Physical Qualities C. Physical Fitness D. Physical Attribute
_____ 39. What is not true about First Aid?
A. It alleviates suffering C. It adds injury or danger
B. It prolongs life D. It promotes recovery
_____ 40. When the referee crosses his forearms and blows whistle simultaneously, what hand signal is being shown?
A. Time-out B. Beckoning-In C. Visible Count D. Substitution
_____ 41. There are different ethical and legal standards of officiating. How does an official show accuracy and effectiveness in officiating
sports?
I. Arrive in good time for the competition and report immediately to the official in charge.
II. Be fully prepared to do the job assigned to them.
III. Alter competition records to reflect inaccurate results.
IV. Educate the players on a regular basis about rule changes that may affect their specialty.
A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. I, III and IV D. III only
_____ 42. What do you call the system in sports which used to maintain order and fairness in implementing rules?
A. Sports Psychology B. Sports Science C. Sports Officiating D. Sports Youth
_____ 43. What are these gestures used by sports officials to communicate to the players and audiences specifically game related events,
like fouls, points and the like?
A. Body Language B. Hand Signals C. Whistle Blowing D. Flag Raising
_____ 44. In doing push-ups, what fitness component will be developed?
A. Flexibility B. Agility C. Coordination D. Strength
_____ 45. How do knowledge and skills in sports officiating be of least help to our community?
A. It saves money during sports competition.
B. t increases the case of delinquent youth in the communities.
C. It trains youth in sports related activities like as athletes and sports official.
D. It prevents the youth from unhealthy activities like vices and prohibited drugs.

-Shelley B. Vibal
HEALTH Score: ___________

_____ 46. What is defined as a sociological group in a large place sharing one environment, therefore includes the individual and the
family?
A. Community B. Community Health C. Environmental Health D. Primary Health Care
_____ 47. What comprises those aspects of human health that are determined by physical, chemical, biological, social and psychosocial
factors surrounding environment?
A. Community B. Community Health C. Environmental Health D. Primary Health Care
_____ 48. Which is defined as the art and science of maintaining, protecting and improving the health of all members of the community
through organized and sustained community efforts?
A. Community B. Community Health C. Environmental Health D. Primary Health Care
_____ 49. If it consists of human waste, normally wrapped and thrown into sidewalks and streets, what kind of refuse is that?
A. Garbage B. Rubbish C. Special Wastes D. Street Night Soil
_____ 50. What environmental problem reduces the ability of soil to store water and support plant growth?
A. Soil Erosion B. Oil Spill C. Illegal Mining D. Deforestation
_____ 51. What program of Department of Health promotes community health?
A. Maternal Health Care C. Primary Health Care
B. Child Health Care D. Control of Communicable Diseases
_____ 52. How can you best describe a community health program?
A. It maintains, protects, and improves the health of all members of the community.
B. It protects and improves the health of all members of the community through organized and sustained community efforts.
C. It maintains and improves the health of all members of the community through organized and sustained community efforts
D. It maintains, protects and improves the health of all members of the community organized and sustained community efforts.
_____ 53. Which one does NOT describe a healthy community?
A. A clean and safe environment.
B. An environment that meets everyone’s needs.
C. An environment that demotes social harmony and actively involves everyone.
D. A community that participates in identifying local solutions to local problems.
_____ 54. Which one best describes the benefits of a healthy environment?
A. Less disease, less health care cost C. More community projects for community development
B. Active community involvement D. More budget for health problems
_____ 55. Which least describes the benefits of a healthy environment?
A. Active community involvement
B. More disease, more health care costs
C. Less budget for health problems, low supply of medicines
D. Active and productive citizenry
_____ 56. Which of the following is a perennial community health problems?
A. Human Excreta and Sewage B. Oil Spill C. Deforestation D. Flashfloods
_____ 57. What do you call the dump, food waste or discarded materials?
A. Refuse B. Garbage C. Waste D. Pollution
_____ 58. Which of the following does not describe a healthy community?
A. A clean and safe environment
B. An environment that meets everyone’s basic needs
C. An environment that promotes social harmony and actively involves everyone
D. An environment that is fully aware of its daily opportunities.
_____ 59. Which is not an effect of Climate Change?
A. Dead trees from oil spillage C. More health related illness and disease
B. Increased risk of drought, fire and floods D. Economic losses
_____ 60. Why do we need to ensure community health in planning for community development?
A. To attain a luxury of life C. To live in a clean, safe and comfortable home
B. To keep the safety of the community D. To maintain an enjoyable lifestyle

GOD BLESS!!!

-Shelley B. Vibal