1700 Mcqs Agriculture

1700 MCQs Geek
1. A man can develop:

A. 0.1 hp B. 0.5 hp
C. 0.75 hp D. 1.0 hp
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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2. The average force that a bullock can exert:
A. 1/5th of their body weight B. 1/10th of their body weight
C. 1/20th of their body weight D. 1/25th of their body weight
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

3. Medium size bullock can develop:
A. 0.50 to 0.75 hp B. 0.75 to 1.0 hp
C. 0.75 hp to 1.1 hp D. 1.0 to 1.5 hp
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

4. The thermal efficiency of diesel engine varies between:
A. 25 and 32 per cent B. 32 and 38 per cent
C. 32 and 40 per cent D. 40 and 45 per cent
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

5. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine varies between:
A. 25 and 32 per cent B. 30 and 35 per cent
C. 32 and 38 per cent D. 30 to 40 percent
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

6. The extra high speed engines used in knapsack sprayers are powered by:
A. Kerosene B. Diesel
C. Petrol D. Dual fuel
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

7. Broad base terrace is also known as:
A. Bench terrace B. Channel terrace
C. Drainage type terrace D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

8. The velocity required to operate wind mill is more than:
A. 5 km ph B. 10 km ph
C. 5 miles per hour D. 10 miles per hour
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

9. Bench terracing is also called as:
A. Hill farming B. Staircase farming
C. Erosion control farming D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

10. The power produced from a wind speed 6.4 to 37 km ph by windmill varies from:
A. 0.1 to 0.5 hp B. 0.1 to 0.9 hp
C. 0.5 to 1 hp D. 1 to 9 hp
Answer: Option B
Explanation
11. A ten human power equals to:

A. 0.1 hp B. 0.5 hp
C. 1.0 hp D. 10.0 hp
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

12. A pair of bullock develops power equivalent to:
A. 0.5 hp B. 1.0 hp
C. 1.5 hp D. 2.0 hp
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

13. Two wind mills equivalent to:
A. 1.0 hp B. 1.25 hp
C. 1.5 hp D. 2.0 hp
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

14. The land holding of small farmer is
A. Less than 4 ha land B. Less than 10 ha land
C. More than 4 ha land D. More than 10 ha land
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

15. A marginal farmer has land holding:
A. Less than 4 ha land B. Between 4 and 10 ha
C. Less than 10 ha D. More than 10 ha
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

16. The land holding of large farmer is:
A. Less than 4 ha land B. Between 4 and 10 ha
C. Less than 10 ha D. More than 10 ha
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

17. Grassed waterways are used as:
A. Diversion channels B. Outlets
C. Inlet to terrace system D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
18. Crop management system reduces the:
A. Detachment of soil particles B. Transport of soil particles
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

19. The primary objective of level bench terrace is to:
A. Conserve water and control erosion B. Reduce runoff
C. Make steeply land cultivable D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

20. The low speed engine runs at speed of:
A. 350 rpm B. Less than 350 rpm
C. More than 350 rpm D. More than 1000 rpm
Answer: Option B
Explanation
21. The speed range of medium speed engine is:

A. Less than 350 rpm B. Between 350 rpm and 1000 rpm
C. Less than 1000 rpm D. More than 1000 rpm
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

22. The speed of high-speed engine:
A. Less than 350 rpm B. Between 350 rpm and 1000 rpm
C. Less than 1000 rpm D. More than 1000 rpm
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

23. The single cylinder engine is generally used in:
A. Tractor B. Stationary engine
C. Motor cars D. Power tiller engine
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

24. The steam engine is
A. Single stroke engine B. Two stroke engine
C. Four-stroke engine D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

25. The two-stroke engine is:
A. Diesel engine B. Steam engine
C. Petrol engine D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

26. The diesel engine used on tractors are:
A. One-stroke engine B. Two-stroke engine
C. Four stroke engine D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

27. The carburetor is main part of:
A. Diesel engine B. Steam engine
C. Petrol engine D. Gas engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

28. Diesel engine works on principle of:
A. Diesel cycle B. Otto cycle
C. Carnot cycle D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

29. The injector and fuel pump are the heart of:
A. Diesel B. Steam engine
C. Petrol engine D. Gas engine
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

30. In two-stroke cycle engine, one power stroke is obtained after every:
A. Half revolution of crankshaft B. One revolution of crankshaft
C. Two revolution of crankshaft D. Three revolution of crankshaft
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
31. In four-stroke cycle engine, one power stroke is obtained after every:
A. Half revolution of crankshaft B. One revolution of crankshaft
C. Two revolution of crankshaft D. Three revolution of crankshaft
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

32. The carburetor of an engine is used to mix fuel with:
A. Air B. Water
C. Oil D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

33. The firing order of 4-stroke 4-cylinder engine is:
A. 1-3-2-4 B. 1-3-4-2
C. 1-4-3-2 D. 1-2-3-4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

34. The firing order of 4 strokes 6 cylinder engine is:
A. 1-5-3-6-2-4 B. 1-3-4-2-6-5
C. 1-3-2-5-4-6 D. 1-3-5-6-4-2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

35. The firing interval of 2-stroke two-cylinder engine is:
A. 180 B. 360
C. 120 D. 720
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

36. The firing interval of 2-strike two-cylinder engine is:
A. 90 B. 180
C. 360 D. 720
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

37. The compression ratio of diesel engine is:
A. 4 to 8:1 B. 14 to 20:1
C. 4 to 1:1 D. 14 to 22:1
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

38. The compression ratio of petrol engine is:
A. 4 to 8:1 B. 4 to 10:1
C. 8 to 15:1 D. 14 to 2:1
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

39. The air fuel ratio of diesel engine is:
A. 8:01 B. 15:01
C. 20:01 D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

40. The air fuel ratio of petrol engine is:
A. 10;1 B. 15;1
C. 20;1 D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation
51. The material used for construction of cylinder block is:

A. Cast iron and steel B. Cast iron and aluminum alloy
C. Brass and steel D. Steel and aluminum allow
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

52. The compression rings mounted on piston are generally made of:
A. Low carbon steel B. Aluminum
C. High carbon steel D. Chromium
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

53. In an engine, the angle between the cylinder axes and the crankshaft centre line is:
A. 60? B. 90?
C. 180? D. 120?
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

54. The gasket sealing is the most difficult problem at:
A. Head B. Oil pan
C. Intake manifold D. Timing cover
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

55. The camshaft in an engine is always mounted:
A. Perpendicular to the crankshaft B. Inclined to the crankshaft
C. Parallel to the crankshaft D. Inline to crank shaft
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

56. The piston skirt clearance at room temperature is:
A. 0.004 mm B. 0.04 mm
C. 0.55 mm D. 1.00 mm
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

57. The piston pin of some engine is offset to:
A. Major throust side B. Right side
C. Minor thrust side D. Lift side
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

58. The main purpose of piston rings is:
A. To control combustion pressure B. To control cylinder wall librication
C. To drain out excessive oil D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

59. The primary purpose of ring expander is to:
A. Make up for cylinder, wear B. Increase static ring tension
C. Decrease dynamic ring tension D. Reduce ring vibration
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

60. The connecting rod of an engine connects the crankshaft with:
A. Cylinder head B. Piston
C. Piston pin D. Cylinder liner
Answer: Option B
Explanation
61. The oil pan of an engine is made of:

A. Steel or aluminum B. Cast iron or brass
C. Steel or cast iron D. Cast iron or zinc
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

62. The counter weight on a crankshaft is located opposite to:
A. Small end bearing B. Big end bearing
C. Main bearing D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
63. The camshaft controls:
A. Valve closing B. Valve opening
C. Valve timing D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

64. The pushrod is located between:
A. Valve and rocker arm B. Tappet and rocker arm
C. Tappet and camshaft D. Valve and camshaft
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

65. The six-cylinder engine with possible number of firing orders is:
A. 6 B. 4
C. 3 D. 2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

66. Valve timing diagram is a function of:
A. Engine speed B. Engine compression
C. Engine torque D. I.M.E.P
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

67. The specific fuel consumption of diesel engine is:
A. 180 gm/bhp/hr B. 200 gm/bhp/hr
C. 150 gm/bhp/hr D. 290 gm/bhp/hr
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

68. The specific fuel consumption of petrol engine is:
A. 180 gm/bhp/hr B. 200 gm/bhp/hr
C. 150 gm/bhp/hr D. 290 gm/bhp/hr
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

69. What the stroke: bore rati of an engine increases, the volumetric efficiency of the engine:
A. Decreases B. Increases
C. Remains unchanged D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

70. The piston speed of an engine is equal to:
A. 2 LN B. ALN
C. 4 LN D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation
71. Oil pump is driven by:

A. Oil pump is driven by: B. Timing gear
C. Crankshaft D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

72. The compression pressure of diesel engine varies from:
A. 8-10 kg/sq. cm B. 10-40 kg/sq. cm
C. 35-50 kg/sq. cm D. 45-50 kg/sq. cm
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

73. Flywheel is made of:
A. Cast iron B. Aluminiumalloy
C. High carbon steel D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

74. The stroke bore ratio of tractor engines varies from:
A. 1.0 to 1.5 B. 1.0 to 1.25
C. 1.0 to 1.35 D. 1.0 to 1.45
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

75. The inlet valve of four-stroke engine opens at:
A. 5" before TDC B. 10" before TDC
C. 15" before RDC D. 20" before TDC
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

76. Working temperature of diesel engine ranges from:
A. 71-82?C B. 82-88?C
C. 75-80?C D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

77. Working temperature of petrol engine ranges from:
A. 71-82?C B. 82-88?C
C. 75-80?C D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

78. White smoke indicates:
A. Presence of water in fuel B. Burning of lubricant in cylinder
C. Presence of waer in lubricant D. Rich air and fuel mixter
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

79. Blue smoke indicates:
A. Presence of water in fuel B. Burning of lubricant in cylinder
C. Presence of waer in lubricant D. Rich air and fuel mixter
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

A. More than petrol engine B. Less than petrol engine
C. Equal to petrol engine D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation
81. The purpose of governor in the engine:

A. To increase the engine speed B. To regulate the engine speed
C. To decrease the engine speed D. None of these
82. The first IC engine was invented in the year:
A. 1876 B. 1890
C. 1900 D. 1905
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

83. The IHP of an engine is always:
A. Less than BHP B. More than BHP
C. Equal to the BHP D. Equal to the FHP
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

84. The clearance volume is the volume of air or mixture left in the cylinder when piston is at:
A. BDC B. TDC
C. Between TDC and BDC D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

85. The compression pressure of diesel engine inside the cylinder varies from:
A. 30-40 kg/cm2 B. 35-45 kg/cm2
C. 40-50 kg/cm2 D. 50-60 kg/cm2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

86. The compression pressure of petrol engine inside the cylinder varies from:
A. 6-10 kg/cm2 B. 10-15 kg/cm2
C. 8-12 kg/cm2 D. 12-15 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

87. The firing interval of 2-stroke engine is determined by:
A. 180?/No. of cylinder B. 270?/No. of cylinder
C. 360?/No. of cylinder D. 720?/No. of cylinder
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

88. The firing interval of 4-stroke engine is determined by:
A. 180?/No. of cylinder B. 270?/No. of cylinder
C. 360?/No. of cylinder D. 720?/No. of cylinder
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

89. The rate of doing work is equal to:
A. 75 kg n/min B. 4500 kg m/min
C. 27000 kg m/hr D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

90. The efficiency of IC engines varies from:
A. 25 to 32 per cent B. 30 to 40 per cent
C. 35 to 40 per cent D. 32 to 38 per cent
Answer: Option C
Explanation
91. The efficiency of external combustion engine ranges from:

A. 10 to 15 per cent B. 10 to 20 per cent
C. 15 to 30 per cent D. 30 to 40 per cent
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

92. The weight of diesel engine per horsepower is:
A. Lighter than petrol engine B. Equal to petrol engine
C. Heavier than petrol engine D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

93. The thermal efficiency of CI engine is:
A. Higher than SI engine B. Lower than SI engine
C. Equal to SI engine D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

94. Piston of an engine is made of:
A. Cast Iron B. Aluminium alloy
C. Nickel Iron alloy D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

95. Gudgeon pin of engine piston is made of:
A. Case hardened steel B. Cast iron
C. Aluminium alloy D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

96. Piston pin connected piston with:
A. Crankshaft B. Connecting rod
C. Camshaft D. Flywheel
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

97. Commecting rod converts:
A. Reciprocating motion piston into rotary motion crankshaft B. Rotary motion of piston into reciprocating motion of crankshaft
C. Rotary motion of piston into oscillatory motion of crankshaft D. Oscillatory motion of piston into rotary motion of crankshaft
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

98. Oil rings on the piston are located:
A. Below the compression ring B. Above the piston skirt
C. Above the compression ring D. Both (a) & (b)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

99. The work timing gear is to:
A. Control the ignition timing B. Control the fuel injection timing
C. Control the timing of opening and closing of valves D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

100. The fuel used in EC engines for generation of power is:
A. Petrol B. Diesel
C. Kerosene D. Steam
Answer: Option D
Explanation
101. Internal combustion engine was invented by:

A. Hudson B. Rudolf Diesel
C. James Watt D. Nicolas Otto
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

102. The work of crankshaft is to:
A. Power the piston B. Turn the flywheel
C. Operate valves D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

103. In diesel cycle engines air enters in the cylinder through the:
A. Inlet port B. Intake value
C. Injector D. Nozzles
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

104. The common face and seat angle of valve is:
A. 45? B. 60?
C. 90? D. 120?
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

105. The four-stroke engines are:
A. High speed engine B. Low speed engine
C. Medium speed engine D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

106. Two-stroke engine are:
A. High speed engine B. Low speed engine
C. Medium speed engine D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
107. The power develops by four-stroke engine for every one revolution of crankshaft is:
A. Half of two-stroke engineB. Equal to two-stroke engine
C. Twice two stroke engine D. Trice two stroke engine
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

108. In four-stroke diesel engines, the air enters in the cylinder during:
A. Suction stroke B. Power stroke
C. Compression stroke D. Exhaust stroke
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

109. F-type valves are used in engines has:
A. Pre-combustion chamber B. External combustion chamber
C. Don't have combustion chamber D. Both (a) & (b)
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

110. I-head type valves are generally used in:
A. Tractor engines B. Stationary engines
C. Steam engines D. Both (a) & (b)
Answer: Option D
Explanation
111. In T-head type engine, the valves are:

A. On one side B. Are opposite to each other
C. Are opposite but inline D. Both (b) & (c)
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

112. The cam lobes of camshaft helps in:
A. Opening and closing the valves B. Driving the timing gear
C. Driving flywheel D. Operated crankshaft
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

113. The teeth on the crankshaft gear is:
A. Half to camshaft gear B. Equal to camshaft gear
C. Double of camshaft gear D. Four times camshaft gear
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

114. When cam gear rotes one time the crankshaft gear will rotate:
A. Half time B. Two times
C. Same rotation of cam gear D. Three times
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

115. Firing order of an engine indicates:
A. Sequence of power stroke B. Sequence of all strokes
C. Interval of between two successive power strokes D. Interval between all power strokes
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

116. Engine is a device, which converts:
A. Chemical energy into mechanical B. Mechanical energy into chemical
C. Chemical energy into electrical energy D. Mechanical energy into electrical
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

117. To and fro motion of piston is converted to
A. Reciprocating motion B. Rotary motion
C. Oscillatory motion D. Vibrating motion
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

118. External combustion engine is more powerful than
A. Diesel engine B. Petrol engine
C. Internal combustion engine D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

119. The volume displaced by one-stroke of piston is:
A. Cylinder volume B. Swept volume
C. Clearance volume D. Total volume
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

120. Pre-combustion chamber is found in:
A. Petrol engine B. Diesel engine
C. Steam engines D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation
121. Distance travelled by piston from TDC to BDC is:

A. Stroke B. Bore
C. Piston displacement D. Piston speed
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

122. The diesel engine does not have:
A. Carburettor B. Spark plug
C. Ignition coil D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

123. As the 'cc' of engine increases, the power of engine will:
A. Decrease B. Increase
C. Remains same D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

124. Ratio of brake horsepower to indicated horsepower is:
A. Thermal efficiency B. Volumetric efficiency
C. Mechanical efficiency D. Brake efficiency
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

125. A gear used in timing gear is:
A. Spur ger B. Bevel gear
C. Helical gear D. Warm gear
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

126. Gaskets are made of:
A. Copper B. Asbestos
C. Fibre D. Both (a) & (b)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

127. The gaskets are used to:
A. Prevent leakage B. Prevent dust
C. Prevent wear D. All of above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

128. The total number of rings on piston may vary from:
A. 2?4 B. 3?5
C. 3?7 D. 2?7
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

129. A connecting rod of four-stroke engines is subjected to:
A. Compression and tension B. Compression and side thrust
C. Side thrust only D. Compression and twisting
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

130. The arrangements of valves used in the engine may be:
A. I-Head type B. T-head type
C. L-head type D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation
131. The firing order of eight-cylinder engine is:

A. 1?5?4?2?6?3?7?8 B. 1?2?6?3?4?7?5?8
C. 1?5?3?4?2?7?8 D. 1?2?4?6?7?3?5?8
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

132. The useful life of stationary engine is:
A. 10 years B. 15 years
C. 12 years D. 20 years
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

133. The expected life of stationary engine is:
A. 10,000 hrs B. 12,000 hrs
C. 15,000 hrs D. 20,000 hrs
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

134. The flywheel is mounted on:
A. Front end of crankshaft B. Rear end of crankshaft
C. Front end of camshaft D. Rear end of camshaft
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

135. Push rod is operated between:
A. Tappet and rocker arm B. Camshaft and tappet
C. Tappet and rocker arm D. Valve and piston
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

136. Constant speed engine is used in:
A. Tractor B. Power tiller
C. Motor car D. Electric generator
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

137. Variable-speed engines are used in:
A. Tractor B. Four wheel vehicles
C. Two wheel vehicles D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

138. Constant speed governor is used in:
A. Petrol engine B. Stationary engine
C. Tractor engine D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

139. If stroke: bore ratio of an engine increase, the thermal efficiency:
A. Increase B. Decrease
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

140. Black smoke indicates:
A. Burning of libricant in the cylinder B. Presence of water in fuel
C. Engine is overloaded D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation
141. The violent noise head in engine during process of combustion is:
A. Scavenging B. Detonation
C. Wearing D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

142. The process of removal of burnt gases from the engine cylinder is:
A. Scavenging B. Detonation
C. Knocking D. Burning
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

143. The indicated horsepower of an engine was measured by:
A. Dynamometer B. Tachometer
C. Indicator D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

144. The location of carburetor in tractor from front is in:
A. Center B. Left side
C. Right side D. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

145. The best hydrocarbons from detonation point of view are:
A. Paraffin B. Naphthenes
C. Aromatics D. Olefins
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

146. The calorific value of gasoline is:
A. 45 MJ/kg B. 45 Kj/kg
C. 45 J/kg D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

147. The temperature at which fuel flow ceases is:
A. Pour point B. Flash point
C. Cloud point D. Smoke point
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

148. The temperature at which fuel catches fire is:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

149. The lowest temperature at which fuel begins to crystallize is:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

150. The temperature at which fuel begins to vaporize is:
Answer: Option D
Explanation
151. The specific gravity of petrol at 15? is:

A. 0.73 B. 0.82
C. 0.9 D. 0.85
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

152. The specific gravity of powering is:
A. 0.82 B. 0.88
C. 0.91 D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

153. The specific gravity of high-speed diesel is:
A. 0.73 B. 0.87
C. 0.92 D. 0.95
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

154. The specific gravity of light diesel oil is:
A. 0.82 B. 0.85
C. 0.92 D. 0.95
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

155. The calorific value of high-speed diesel is:
A. 10,000 kcal/kg B. 12,000 Kcal/kg
C. 10,550 Kcal/kg D. 81,00 Kcal/kg
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

156. The calorific value of petrol is:
A. 10,000 Kcal/litre B. 11,000 Kcal/litre
C. 15,000 Kcal/litre D. 81,50 Kcal/litre
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

157. The calorific value of diesel oil is:
A. 9400 Kcal/litre B. 10,000 Kcal/litre
C. 11,000 Kcal/litre D. 12,000 Kcal/litre
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

158. The anti-knock quality of petrol fuel is determined by:
A. Cetane number B. Octane number
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

159. The anti-knock quality of diesel is determined by:
C. SAE number D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

160. The viscosity of oil denoted by a number is:
C. SAE number D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation
161. The temperature of cloud point is:

A. 5' above the pour point B. 10' above the pour point
C. 15' above the pour paint D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

162. Bomb calorimeter is used for determining:
A. Calorific value of fuel B. Gravity of fuel
C. Cetane number of fuel D. SAE number of fuel
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

163. Junker's calorimeter is used for determining the calorific value of:
A. Liquid fuels B. Solid fuels
C. Gaseous fuels D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

164. The boiling range of petrol is:
A. 30 to 180?C B. 30 to 200?C
C. 30 to 230?C D. 30 to 250?C
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

165. General formula of paraffin is:
A. Cn G2n+2 B. CnGn+2
C. Cn3n+1 D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

166. General formula of Nphthenes is:
A. CnH2n B. Cn H3n
C. Cn H2n+1 D. Cn H2n-1
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

167. General formula of armatics is:
A. Cn H2n-2 B. Cn H2n-6
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

168. General formula of olefins is:
A. Cn H2n B. Cn Hn
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

169. The boiling range of kerosene is:
A. 100 to 200?C B. 200 to 300?C
C. 300 to 400?C D. 400 to 500?C
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

170. The specific gravity of gasoline ranges from:
A. 0.70 to 0.72 B. 0.70 to 0.78
C. 0.72 to 0.82 D. 0.72 to 0.92
Answer: Option B
Explanation
171. Primary objective of graded terrace is to:

A. Reduce the field slope length B. Remove runoff with non-erosive way
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

172. The API gravity of light diesel oil is:
A. 22 B. 25
C. 40 D. 50
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

173. The API gravity of petrol is:
A. 61 B. 65
C. 70 D. 80
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

174. The API of high-speed diesel is:
A. 25 B. 31
C. 40 D. 50
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

175. The quality of fuel is judged by:
A. Colour B. Volatility
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

176. The volatility of fuel effects:
A. Efficiency of engine B. Power of engine
C. Speed of engine D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

177. The vaporizing temperature of petrol fuel is:
A. Higher than diesel fuel B. Lower than diesel fuel
C. Equal to diesel fuel D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

178. Molecular formula of diesel is:
A. C11H15 B. C11 H16
C. C12 H15 D. C11H14
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

179. High speed diesel is used in:
A. High speed diesel engine B. Low speed diesel engine
C. Petrol engine D. Aircraft engine
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

180. The specific gravity of fuel is measured by:
A. Hygrometer B. Thermometer
C. Hydrometer D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation
181. The API gravity of water is:

A. 8 B. 10
C. 15 D. 20
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

182. Lighter fuels have:
A. High API gravity B. Low API gravity
C. High density D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

183. If the volatility of fuel is high, it ignites:
A. Shortly B. Late
C. Will not ignite D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

184. A fuel has higher octone number its ignition quality of fuel will be:
A. Poor B. Better
C. Not affected D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

185. Detonation refers to the:
A. Engine knocking B. Engine speed
C. Engine efficiency D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

186. The detonation of fuel takes place during:
A. Combustion B. Injection
C. Exhaust D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

187. Distillation test measures the:
A. Calorific value B. SAE number
C. Voltility D. Power
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

188. The volatility quality of fuel indicates:
A. Specific gravity of fuel B. Density of fuel
C. Vaporizing ability of fuel D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

189. Cetane rating of commercial diesel fuel is:
A. 30-60 B. 30-70
C. 30-65 D. 30-80
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

190. The specific heat of petrol is nearly:
A. 2.1 KJ/Kg?C B. 2.5 KJ/Kg?C
C. 2.8 KJ/Kg?C D. 3.0 KJ/Kg?C
Answer: Option A
Explanation
191. The specific heat of diesel is nearly:

A. 1.5 KJ/Kg?C B. 1.9 KJ/Kg?C
C. 2.0 KJ/Kg?C D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

192. Effect of detonation is:
A. Loss of power B. Poor combustion
C. Overheating D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

193. Vapour lock is associated with:
A. Ignition system B. Cooling system
C. Fuel supply system D. Ignition system
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

194. The work of choke is:
A. Supply the air into cylinder B. Supply of electric spark
C. Supply of rich mixture D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

195. A pump, which supplies the fuel to different cylinder or multi cylinder engine is:
A. Centrifugal pump B. Oil pump
C. Fuel injection pump D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

196. Air injection pumps are mostly used in:
A. Tractor engine B. Railway engine
C. Aircraft engine D. Heavy duty stationary engine
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

197. The pipeline used to supply the fuel to the injector is:
A. Low pressure line B. High pressure line
C. Zero pressure line D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

198. In diesel engines, fuel injected in the cylinder is through:
A. Carburetor B. Fuel injection pump
C. Fuel injectorD. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

199. In Otto cycle engines, air fuel mixture comes in cylinder through:
A. Injector B. Carburetor
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

200. The first butterfly valve of carburets or controls the flow of:
A. Air fuel mixture B. Fuel supply
C. Oil supply D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation
201. The second butterfly valve of carburetor is:

A. Carburetor B. Choke
C. Plug D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

202. Choke controls the amount of:
A. Air B. Fuel
C. Water D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

203. Function of carburector is:
A. To mix the air and fuel B. To regulate air fuel ratio at different speed
C. To supply correct amount of mixture D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

204. Venturi tube is provided in carburet or for:
A. Producing low pressure B. Producing high pressure
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

205. A device for regulating the fuel supply in main jet of carburetor is:
A. Choke B. Throttle
C. Economizer D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

206. Fuel pump used in carburetor engines is:
A. Fuel injection pump B. Centrifugal pump
C. Gasoline pump D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

207. A pump that transfers fuel from the fuel line to the fuel injection pump is:
A. Fuel lift pump B. Feed pump
C. Transfer pump D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

208. A pump that delivers metered quantity of fuel to each cylinder at appropriate time under high pressure is:
A. Transfer pump B. Fuel injection pump
C. Centrifugal pumps D. Oil pump
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

209. The high-pressure pump used in diesel engine has pressure range of:
A. 120-300 kg/cm2 B. 120-350 kg/cm2
C. 120-380 kg/cm2 D. 120-400 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

210. For petrol engine, the maximum power obtained from one kg of fuel is:
A. 10.5-13.8 kg B. 11-15 kg
C. 12-16 kg D. 15-20 kg
Answer: Option A
Explanation
211. Chemically correct air mixture ratio for Otto cycle engine is:
A. 12;1 B. 14;1
C. 15;1 D. 20;1
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

212. In leanest mixture, the fair fuel ratio is about:
A. 12;1 B. 14;1
C. 15;1 D. 20;1
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

213. In richest mixture the air fuel ratio is about:
A. 4;1 B. 8;1
C. 15;1 D. 16;1
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

214. A primary fuel filter is made of:
A. Cloth B. Paper
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

215. Secondary fuel filter is made of:
A. Paper B. Thin wire
C. Wooden D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

216. Primary fuel filter is used to remove particles of size:
A. 5 Micron B. 8 Micron
C. 10 Micron D. 4 Micron
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

217. Secondary fuel filter is used to remove the particles of size:
A. 1 Micron B. 2 Micron
C. 3 Micron D. 4 Micron
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

218. The fuel injection pressure of CI engine ranges from:
A. 10 to 45 kg/cm2 B. 50 to 120 kg/cm2
C. 120 to 175 kg/cm2 D. 100 to 300 kg/cm2
219. The fuel injected through a nozzle of carburetor is at a pressure of:
A. 10 to 45 kg/cm2 B. 50 to 120 kg/cm2
C. 126 to 175 kg/cm2 D. 100 to 300 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

A. Less than in the petrol engine B. More than in the petrol engine
C. Same as a petrol engine D. Incomparable with petrol engine
Answer: Option A
Explanation
221. The carburetor employed on most of tractor engines is:

A. Down draft B. Middle draft
C. Updraft D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

222. Purpose of lubrication is:
A. Reducing frictional effect B. Cooling effect
C. Sealing effect D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

223. The lubricants are obtained from:
A. Animal fat B. Vegetables
C. Minerals D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

224. Animal far lubricants are:
A. Suitable for machine B. Less viscous
C. It is gummy and waxy type D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

225. Lubricants obtained from vegetables is suitable for:
A. Small and simple implements B. Tractor and stationary engines
C. All heavy implements D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

226. Mineral lubricants are most popular for:
A. Simple implements B. Engines and Machines
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

227. Petroleum lubricants are less expensive and suitable for:
A. Steam engines B. IC engines
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

228. A good lubricant should have:
A. Sufficient viscosity B. Remains stable under changing temperature
C. It whould not corrode metallic surface D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

229. The method used for testing of lubricating oil is:
A. Viscosity test B. Flash fire test
C. Pour point test D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

230. Say bolt viscometer is used for:
A. Flash point testq B. Viscosity test
C. Pour point test D. Colour and carbon residue
Answer: Option B
Explanation
231. The temperature at which vapour flashes momentarily is:

C. Fire point D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

232. The temperature at which flame persists approximately for 5 seconds is:
C. Fire point D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

233. Gravity test is done by using the:
A. Hydrometer B. Hygrometer
C. Thermometer D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

234. Splash system of lubrication is generally used in:
A. Single cylinder & stationary engine B. Multi-cylinder engines
C. Tractor engines D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

235. A pump used in force feed lubricating system is:
A. Positive displacement type B. Gear type
C. Vane type D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

236. Force-feed lubrication system is commonly used in:
A. High speed multi-cylinder engine B. Tractor engines
C. Truck and automobile engine D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

237. In force feed lubrication system pump is driven by:
A. Camshaft B. Crankshaft
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

238. Lubrication system of tractor engine develops pressure of about:
A. 3 kg/cm2 B. 5 kg/cm2
C. 8 kg/cm2 D. 12 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
239. Oil filters are made of:
A. Cloth B. Paper
C. Felt or wire screen D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

240. A type of oil filter used in tractor engine is:
A. Full flows type B. Bi-pass type
Answer: Option C
Explanation
241. Oil pressure gauge is used:

A. To check the quality of oil B. To indicate oil temperature in pipeline
C. To warn the operator of any irregularity D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

242. Grease is semi-fluid lubricant used for:
A. Slow moving parts B. Not easily accessible part
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

243. Lublication reduces:
A. Wear between two rubbing surfaces B. Friction effect in moving parts
C. Heat from moving part D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

244. Vegetable lubricants are made from:
A. Castor oil B. Cotton seed oil
C. Olive oil D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

245. Mineral lubricants are obtained from:
A. Castor and cotton seed oil B. Crude petroleum
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

246. Suitable lubricant for 2-stroke engines is:
A. Crude petroleum lubricant B. Vegetable lubricant
C. Mineral lubricant D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

247. Suitable lubricant for 4-stroke engines is:
A. Mineral lubricant B. Vegetable lubricant
C. Animal fat lubricant D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

248. A pump used in force-feed lubrication system is:
A. Centrifugal pump B. Reciprocating pump
C. Positive displacement pump D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

249. Excessive oil consumption in engines is due to:
A. High speed of engines B. Excess going of oil into combustion chamber
C. More pressure of line D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

250. Lubricants are available in the form of:
A. Fluid B. Semi-fluid
C. Semi-solid D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation
251. Semi-solid lubricant is:

A. Gear oil B. Engine oil
C. Grease D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

252. If the viscosity of fluid is high then flow will be:
A. Rapidly B. Slowly
C. Irregular D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

253. Lubrication oils are rated by:
A. Gravity B. Visocsity
C. Density D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

254. Grease is used as lubricant in the:
A. Engine liner B. Universal coupling
C. Bearings D. Both (b) & (c)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

255. Type of pump used in lubrication system:
A. Diaphragm type B. Gear type
C. Jet pump D. Plunger type
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

256. Crankcase breather is used for:
A. Cleaning the dust particles B. See the level of oil
C. Removing water vapour from crankcase D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

257. In force feed lubrication system, the gear used is:
A. Helical gear B. Spur gear
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

258. Oil filter of tractor engine is generally changed after:
A. 50 hours of work B. 100 hours of work
C. 120 hours of work D. 150 hours of work
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

259. The elements of oil filter is:
A. Cloth & felt B. Paper
C. Thin metal plate D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

260. The crankcase breather filter is mostly made of:
A. Paper B. Wire
C. Oil wetted screen D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation
261. American Petroleum Institute adopted the classification of engine oils in the year:
A. 1920 B. 1950
C. 1952 D. 1960
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

262. ML-light servvice, MM. medium service and MS- severe service are service classes for the:
A. SI engines B. IC engines
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

263. DG-general service, DM-moderately service and DS-very severe services are service classes for the:
A. Petrol engine B. Steam engine
C. Kerosene engines D. Diesel engines
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

264. DG and MS oils have high additive contents, which help in keeping:
A. Engine cool B. Engine clean
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
265. If diesel fuel contains high sulphur content the best class of lubricating oil for use is:
A. DS lubricating oil B. DM lubricating oil
C. DG lubricating oil D. MS lubricating oil
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

266. Lubrication reduces:
A. Wear and teat B. Abrasive elements
C. Noise D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

267. Viscosity of oil is measured in terms of:
A. Its resistance to flow B. Its cooling effect
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

268. Say bolt universal Seconds' is related with the:
A. Viscosity of oil B. Density of oil
C. Gravity of oil D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

269. Viscosity of oil expressed at two temperatures is:
A. ?18?C and 99?C B. ?20?C and 100?C
C. ?20?C and 120?C D. ?18?C and 150?C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

270. Viscosity measured in:
A. Centistokes B. Centipoises
C. Redwood seconds D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation
271. Smaller change in viscosity of oil with temperature indicates

A. High viscosity indes number B. Low viscosity index number
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

272. The variation in viscosity of oil with change in temperature is measured by:
A. High viscosity number B. Viscosity index
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

273. The density and specific gravity of lubricating oil is determined with the help of:
A. Hydrometer B. Specific gravity bottle
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

274. Viscosity of lubrication oil is measured by:
A. Hygrometer B. Thermometer
C. Viscometer D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

275. For engine bearings, a type of lubrication system adopted is:
A. Gravity feed lubrication B. Wick lubrication
C. Ring lubrication D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

276. For engine parts, a type of lubrication system adopted is:
A. Splash lubrication B. Pressure lubrication
C. Petrol lubrication D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

277. Wick lubrication is also called:
A. Siphon lubricator B. Hydrostatic lubricator
C. Mechanical lubricator D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

278. Ring lubrication system is generally used for lubrication of:
A. Vertical bearings B. Horizontal bearings
C. Inclined bearings D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

279. Petrol lubrication system generally is used in:
A. Two-stroke engines B. Four -stroke engines
C. Tractor and vehicles D. Aircraft
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

280. A type lubricator is used in steam engines is:
A. Siphon type B. Hydrostatic type
C. Mechanically operator lubricator D. Both (b) & (c)
Answer: Option D
Explanation
281. Purpose of cooling:

A. To maintain the optimum temperature of engine B. To dissipate surplus heat for protection
C. To maintain the lubricating property of oil D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

282. Air-cooled engine has:
A. Radiator B. Water jacket
C. Fins D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

283. Air cooling system is generally found in:
A. Single-cylinder engines B. Multi-cylinder engines
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

284. In the air-cooled engines, cylinder normally enclosed in a sheet metal casing is called:
A. Cowling B. Pre-combustion chamber
C. Fins D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

285. A disadvantage of air-cooling system is:
A. Uneven cooling of engine parts B. Engine temperature is high
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

286. The fan of radiator is driven with the help of:
A. V-belt B. Flat belt
C. Chain sprocket D. Gear
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

287. The fan of radiator is driven by:
C. Flywheel D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

288. In water-cooled engines the water pump used:
A. Centrifugal type B. Submersible type
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

289. In water-cooled engines, water pump is connected with:
A. Radiator B. Flywheel
C. Fins D. Combustion chamber
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

290. In radiator, hot water flows at the:
A. Top B. Bottom
C. Middle D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation
291. Radiator is generally fabricated as:

A. Tabular typeB. Cellular type
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

292. Honeycomb type radiator is also known as:
A. Cellular type B. Tabular type
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

293. Thermostat valve is used in:
A. Air-cooled engines B. Water-cooled engines
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

294. Thermostat valve begins open at:
A. 70-75?C B. 70-81?C
C. 65-75?C D. 75-81?C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

295. In petrol engines thermostat valve fully opens at:
A. 72?C B. 78?C
C. 82?C D. 85?C
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

296. In diesel engines, thermostat valve fully opens at:
A. 88-90?C B. 90-95?C
C. 90-100?C D. 75-110?C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

297. The liuid used in bellows types thermostat is known as:
A. Alcohol B. Ether
C. Mercury D. Both (b) & (c)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

298. In force-feed cooling system thermostat valve begins to open at:
A. 70?C B. 74?C
C. 78?C D. 80?C
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

299. Thermostat valve widely opens at about:
A. 78?C B. 80?C
C. 85?C D. 90?C
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
300. In most tractor engines, a cooling systems used is:
A. Splash cooling B. Pressure cooling
C. Gravity feed type coolingD. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation
301. The pressure of radiator cap is about:

A. 0.3 to 0.4 kg/cm2 B. 0.4 to 0.5 kg/cm2
C. 0.4 to 0.6 kg/cm2 D. 0.4 to 1.0 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

302. The boiling temperature of water in the radiator is raised to about:
A. 90?C B. 100?C
C. 110?C D. 120?C
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

303. The energy removed by cooling is about:
A. 10 per cent B. 20 per cent
C. 30 per cent D. 40 per cent
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

304. Heat losses by exhaust gases is about:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

305. Heat obtained to IHP of total heat generated is:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

306. Heat obtained to BHP of total heat is about:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

307. Heat losses by friction and compression etc. is that:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

308. The main drawback of thermo syphon cooling is that:
A. Cooling depends on only temperature and independent of engine B. Cooling depends on engine speed and independent of
temperature
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

309. Cooling independent of temperature is main drawback of:
A. Thermo Syphon cooling B. Forced pump system
C. Thermostat D. Air cooling system
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

310. In which cooling system, the engine warms up quickly after starting:
A. Thermo Syphon cooling B. Forced pump system
C. Thermostat D. Air cooling system
Answer: Option C
Explanation
311. In pressurized water cooling. The boiling point of coolant can be increased by increasing its:
A. Temperature B. Pressure
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

312. In pressurized water-cooling, increasing its pressure can increase the boiling point of coolant:
A. For 2 bar it is 121 ?C B. For 5 bar it is 153 ?C
C. For 10 bar it is 1180 ?C D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

313. In pressurized water-cooling the water pressure is kept between:
A. 1.5 and 2 bars B. 1.5 and 3 bars
C. 1.5 and 5 bars D. 1.5 and 10 bars
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

314. Evaporating cooling system is used for cooling of:
A. Steam engines B. Aircraft engines
C. Railway engines D. Industrial engines
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

315. Evaporating cooling is also called:
A. Steam of vapour cooling B. Water cooling
C. Air cooling D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

316. In evaporating cooling the temperature of cooling water is allowed to reach a temperature of:
A. 50?C B. 100?C
C. 110?C D. 130?C
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

317. In case of air-cooled engines, the reduction of weight of engines is about:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

318. Volumetric efficiency of air-cooled engines in comparison to water-cooled engines is:
A. Higher B. Lower
C. Equal D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

319. A cooling system that requires more maintenance is:
A. Steam of vapour cooling B. Water cooling
C. Air cooling D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

320. The engine performing becomes more sensitive to climatic condition in case of:
A. Evaporation cooled engine B. Water cooled engine
C. Air cooled engine D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation
321. In tractor engines, a commonly used thermostat valve is:

A. Bimetallic type B. Bellows types
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

322. In forced circulation system, a thermostat valve is placed at:
A. Forward end of cylinder head B. Backward end of cylinder head
C. Between cylinder and radiator D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

323. In thermo siphon system, fan is operated by:
A. Crankshaft B. Camshaft
C. Flywheel D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

324. In IC engines, a commonly used cooling system is:
A. Splash B. Thermo Siphon
C. Force feed system D. Hopper system
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

325. Melting point of cast iron is about:
A. 100?C B. 200?C
C. 500?C D. 1100?C
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

326. Melting point of aluminium is about:
A. 100?C B. 500?C
C. 660?C D. 800?C
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

327. A metal having highest melting point is:
A. Aluminium B. Cast-iron
C. Copper D. Steel
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

328. A metal with lowest melting point is:
A. Aluminium B. Copper
C. High carbon steel D. Nickel
329. In air-cooled engine, purpose of fans is to:
A. Increase contact area B. Cooling the engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

330. In water cooling system, the cold water flows at the radiator from the:
A. Top B. Bottom
C. Middle D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
331. In IC engines the method used for ignition of fuel is:

A. Electric sparks B. Heat of compression
C. Open flame and hot tube D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

332. In spark ignition engines fuel is ignited by:
A. Battery ignition system B. Magneto ignition system
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

333. In battery ignition system primary cricuit includes:
A. Primary coil B. Secondary coil
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

334. Primary coil has:
A. Small number of turns of heavy wire B. More number of turns of thin wire
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

335. Ignition circuit gets current from the:
A. Spark plug B. Battery
C. Alternator D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

336. Battery consists of:
A. Positive plate B. Negative plate
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

337. Positive plate of battery is made of:
A. Lead B. Antimony
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

338. Negative plate of battery is made of:
A. Spongy Lead B. Antimony
C. Silicon D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

339. A chemical used in the battery for reaction is:
A. Electrolyte B. Distilled water
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

340. Electrolyte is consists of:
A. Sulphuric acid B. Distilled water
Answer: Option C
Explanation
341. Specific gravity of a fully charged battery is:

A. 1.27 B. 1.28
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

342. Specific gravity of a fully discharged battery is:
A. 1.50 or less B. 1.20 or more
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

343. Specific gravity measured by an instrument is:
A. Hydrometer B. Hygrometer
C. Thermometer D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

344. A container of battery is made of:
A. Steel B. Cast iron
C. Rubber D. Plastic
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

345. The battery used on tractor consists of:
A. Three or six cell B. Two or four cell
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

346. The voltage developed by each cell of battery is about:
A. 1.2 volt B. 2.2 volt
C. 1.5 volt D. 3.0 volts
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

347. Battery should be recharged when specific gravity:
A. 1.225 B. 1.25
C. 1.27 D. 1.26
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

348. Surface sealing problem is less on:
A. Steep slope B. Flate land
C. Vegetated surface D. Both (a) & (c)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

349. At greater temperature the infiltration rate is:
A. More B. Less
C. No effect D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

350. At steep slope the depth of flow is:
A. Less than the flat surface B. More than the flat surface
C. Same flow depth D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation
351. Bench terraces are constructed at slope gradient of:

A. 5 to 10% B. 10 to 20%
C. Less than 5% D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

352. Curve number method estimates the:
A. Runoff rate B. Director runoff
C. Sub-surface runoff D. Both (b) & (c)
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
353. Rainfall intensity is the ratio of:
A. Time to rainfall amount B. Rainfall amount to time
C. Rainfall amount to falling valocity D. Both (a) & (b)
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

354. Runoff coefficient is the ratio of:
A. Annual rainfall to annual runoff B. Runoff to rainfall
C. Runoff to rainfall intensity D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

355. A granular structured soil is:
A. Less erodible B. Least crodible
C. More Erodible D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

356. Most of diesel startingh motors are equipped with an:
A. Overrunning clutch B. Dog Clutch
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

357. Hot plugs are used in:
A. Diesel tractor B. Petrol tractors
C. Powerine tractors D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

358. Hot plugs used in tractor is operated by:
A. Light load B. Heavy load
C. No load D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

359. Cold plugs is used on:
A. Powering engine B. Petrol engine
C. Diesel engine D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

360. Spark plug gap setting should be kept between:
A. 0.50 and 0.85 mm B. 0.5 and 0.90 mm
C. 0.50 and 1.00 mm D. 0.50 and 1.20 mm
Answer: Option A
Explanation
361. In ignition system, magneto is used for:

A. Supply of fuel B. Supply of spark
C. Supply of air fuel mixture D. Supply of air
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

362. Diesel engine is:
A. Compression ignition engine B. Spark ignition engine
C. External combustion engine D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

363. Glow plug is used for:
A. To ignite the fuel B. To heat the air charge of engine
C. To ignite the diesel D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

364. Primary winding of ignition coil consists of:
A. Thin wire B. Thick wire
C. Steel wire D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

365. Primary winding of ignition cell consists of:
A. 200-300 turns B. 200-400 turns
C. 200-450 turns D. 200-500 turns
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

366. A primary winding wire has resistance of:
A. One ohm B. Two ohms
C. Three ohms D. Four ohms
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

367. Secondary winding consist of:
A. 10000-15000 turns B. 15000-2000 turns
C. 15000-25000 turns D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

368. The wire (standard wire gauge used in primary coil is of:
A. 10 SWG B. 15 SWG
C. 20 SWG D. 25 SWG
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

369. A wire (standard wire gauge) used in secondary coli is about:
A. 25 SWG B. 30 SWG
C. 40 SWG D. 50 SWG
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

370. A modern spark plug has an economical life of about:
A. 8000-10000 Km B. 8000-12000 Km
C. 10000-16000 Km D. 10000-20000 Km
Answer: Option C
Explanation
371. The gap of spark plug generally should be:

A. 0.1 mm B. 0.3 mm
C. 0.5 mm D. 0.6 mm
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

372. Magneto system is:
A. Rotating armature type B. Rotating magnet type
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

373. Contact breaker points is generally made have:
A. Steel B. Copper
C. Nickel D. Tungsten
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

374. The material commonly used for insulator of spark plug is:
A. Alumina B. Asbestos
C. Copper D. Steel
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

375. The life of spark plug used in 2-stroke engine as compared to 4-stroke engines is:
A. Same B. Twice
C. Thrice D. One-half
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

376. Spark plug having white centre insulator indicates:
A. Retarded ignition B. Leaded fuel
C. Over advaned ignition D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

377. A spark plug with a black center insulator indicates:
A. Over advanced ignition B. Retarded ignition
C. Stock-up choke valve in carburetor D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

378. Cold spark plug has:
A. Long insulator B. Short insulator
C. Very long insulator D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

379. Hot plug has:
A. Long insulator B. Small thread
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

380. Spark advance is associated to:
A. Low speed engine B. Medium speed engine
C. High sped engine D. Stemp engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation
381. Ignition temperature of IC engines varies from:

A. 300-500?C B. 500-700?C
C. 500-900?C D. 700-1000?C
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

382. In battery ignition system, the ignition fails due to:
A. Heavy speed of engine B. Heavy use
C. Not proper setting of breaker point D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

383. The common type of battery used in IC engines is:
A. Dry battery B. Lead acid battery
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

384. Lead mid battery is generally used in:
A. Tractors B. Aircraft
C. Light Motors D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

385. Charge of battery is measured in terms of:
A. Density of electrolyte B. Weight of electrolyte
C. Specific gravity of electrolyte D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

386. In lead acid battery, percentage of sulphuric acid is about:
A. 35% B. 50%
C. 65% D. 75%
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

387. Capacity of battery is expressed in tenns of:
A. Amp power B. Voltage
C. Amp-hour D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
388. Ignition timing depends on:
A. Engine speed B. Compression ratio
C. Valve timing D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

389. The period petween start of injection and ignition is called:
A. Ignition period B. Injection time
C. Ignition delay D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

390. Ignition delay of high-speed engine should be about:
A. 0.01 second B. 0.001 second
C. 0.0001 second D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation
391. Ignition delay of low-speed engine:

A. 0.01 second B. 0.002 second
C. 0.003 second D. 0.004 second
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

392. Starting motor consists of:
A. Alternate current B. Direct current
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

393. Starting motor is engaged with ring gear of engine with the help of:
A. Bevel gear B. Helical gear
C. Pinion gear D. Sliding pinion gear
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

394. Alternator of a tractor engine is driven by:
A. Gear system B. V-belt system
C. Flat belt D. Chain sprocket
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

395. Speed of alternator with respect to engine speed is:
A. One-half B. Equal
C. Twice D. Thrice
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

396. Main function of fuel injection system is:
A. To measure the correct amount of fuel as required by engine speed and load B. To maintain correct timing for beginning and end
of injection
C. To atomize the fuel in the cylinder D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

397. Air injection system is mostly used in:
A. Tractor's engines B. Petrol engines
C. Heavy dusty stationary D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

398. In solid injection system, fuel pump is used for:
A. Measure the quantity of fuel B. Forcing fuel into combustion chamber
C. Metered the fuel D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

399. In common rail system fuel is supplied by:
A. One pressure line to all injectors B. Separate pressure line to all injectors
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

400. In line system of injection, the pump used is:
A. Constant stroke type B. Lapped-plunger type
Answer: Option C
Explanation
401. Pump used in inline system of injection is driven by:

C. Belt-pulley D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

402. In individual pump system, fuel is delivered to injector at a high pressure of:
A. 500-1000 Kpa B. 1000-5000 Kpa
C. 5000-10000 Kpa D. 10000-20000 Kpa
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

403. Unit injector is also known as:
A. Nozzle B. Atomizer
C. Fuel valve D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

404. Fuel injector is also known as:
A. Nozzle B. Atomizer
C. Fuel valve D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
405. Hole type nozzle is generally used in:
A. Open type combustion chamber B. Swirl combustion chamber
C. Pre-combustion chamber D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

406. Pintle type nozzle is commonly used in:
A. Pre combustion chamber B. Swirl combustion chamber
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

407. Pressure in hole type nozzle varies from:
A. 15-20 MPs B. 15-25 MPs
C. 17-34 MPs D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

408. Pressure in pintle type nozzle varies as:
A. 5-10 Mpa B. 7-15 Mpa
C. 7-20 Mpa D. 10-25 Mpa
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

409. In air injection system, fuel pump develop:
A. High pressure B. Low pressure
C. Very high pressure D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

410. The advantage of air injection system is:
A. Good atomization B. Good mixing of air fuel
C. Injection of heavy and viscous fuels D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation
411. Solid injection system has:

A. Pressurizing unit B. Atomizing unit
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

412. Solid injection system is also known as:
A. Airless mechanical injection B. Air injection
C. Jerk pump system D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

413. Accumulator is used in:
A. Jerk pump system B. Unit injector system
C. Common rail system D. Distributor system
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

414. The work of accumulator is:
A. To develop high pressure B. To keep constant pressure
C. To develop low pressure D. To metered fuel
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

415. The size of hole of single hole nozzle is usually larger than:
A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

416. In multi hole nozzle, the number of holes varies as:
A. 2?5 B. 3?8
C. 4?10 D. 4?18
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

417. Governor is a device used in:
A. Tractor engine B. Stationary engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

418. The purpose of governor is:
A. To maintain the constant speed of engine at different loads B. To protect the engine and attached equipment against high speed
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

419. A governor automatically regulates:
A. Flywheel speed B. Engine speed
C. Speed of Rear wheel of tractor D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

420. Hit and miss system of governor is to regulate the:
A. Engine load B. Frequency of explosions
C. Power strokes D. Both (b) & (c)
Answer: Option D
Explanation
421. Throttle system controls the:

A. Engine load B. Amount of air fuel mixture
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

422. Pneumatic governor is used on:
A. Diesel engine B. Petrol engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

423. A governor based on the principle that the change of pressure in one part of system produces an opposite change of much greater magnitude in other
part is called:
A. Centrifugal governor B. Pneumatic governor
C. Hydraulic governor D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

424. Centrifugal governor is common in:
A. Tractor engine B. Stationary engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

425. The weight of centrifugal governor is to regulate the:
A. Fuel control of diesel injection pump B. Load of engine
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

426. The variation in engine speed is observed at full load and no load is approximate:
A. 100 rpm B. 150 rpm
C. 200 rpm D. 250 rpm
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

427. The governor is used on tractor engine is called:
A. Constant speed governor B. Variable speed governor
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

428. The governor used on stationary engine is:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

429. Of the following which type of governing system is used in the gas engines?
A. Hit and miss system B. Throttle system
C. Variable speed governor D. Constant speed governor
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

430. Throttle type governor is kind of:
C. Hit and miss-governor D. Hydraulic governor
Answer: Option D
Explanation
431. Variation in engine speed at full load and no load is called :
A. Pressure drop B. Speed drop
C. Pressure hike D. Speed hike
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

432. Centrifugal governor is directly connected with:
A. Accelerator B. Engine speed
C. Fuel injection pump D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

433. Centrifugal governor is also termed as:
A. Maximum speed governor B. Minimum speed governor
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

434. All speed governors is directly connected with:
A. Accelerator pedal B. Pump control rack
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

435. The main part of pneumatic governor is:
A. Venturi unit B. Diaphragm unit
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

436. Venturi unit is connected to the:
A. Fuel injection pump B. Engine inlet manifold
C. Engine exhaust manifold D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

437. Diaphragm unit is fitted on:
A. Fuel injection pump B. Engine inlet manifold
C. Exhaust manifold D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

438. Venturi unit and diaphragm unit are connected by:
A. Accelerator B. Vacuum pipe
C. Fuel pipeline D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

439. An angular moment of front wheels is governed by operator through a system is known as:
A. Steering wheel B. Steering gearbox
C. Steering mechanism D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

440. Of the following, which is the essential part of steering mechanism?
A. Tie rod B. Steering wheel
C. Drag link D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation
441. A gear used in steering system is:

A. Helical gear B. Spiral gear
C. Spur gear D. Warm gear
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

442. A pump used a power steering system is:
A. Gear pump B. Vane pump
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

443. The sequence of gears and shafts through which the engine power transmitted to tractor wheel is called:
A. Gear system B. Transmission
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

444. The complete path of power from engine to wheel is called:
A. Power system B. Power train
C. Gear unit D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

445. Function of transmission system is:
A. To transmit the power from engine to rear wheel B. To reduce the crankshaft speed to give desired speed
C. To transmit power through right angle D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

446. Clutch is a device used to:
A. Connect or disconnect the engine power from transmission system B. Reduce the engine power
C. Brake the engine power D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

447. Essential feature of good clutch is:
A. Ability to taking load without dragging and chattering B. Capacity to transmit maximum load without slipping
C. High resistant to friction and easy control by hand or pedal lever D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

448. Pressure plate is an essential part of:
A. Transmission system B. Clutch
C. Gear reduction D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

449. Friction plate is part of:
A. Clutch B. Final drive
C. Differential D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

450. The power of engine transmitted to rear wheel of tractor is connected and disconnected by:
A. Flywheel B. Clutch
C. Gear D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation
451. The main shaft of an engine is also called:

A. Output shaftB. Input shaft
C. Lay shaft D. Counter shaft
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

452. Lay shaft is also termed as:
A. Output shaftB. Input shaft
C. Counter shaft D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

453. The gear used in constant mesh type system is:
A. Spur gear B. Bevel gear
C. Warm gear D. Helical gear
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

454. The device that permits one of the rear wheels of tractor to rotate faster than the other at the turning is called:
A. Power train B. Clutch
C. Differential lock D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

455. Crown wheel is a part of:
A. Clutch system B. Steering system
C. Differential system D. Cooling system
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

456. The main function of crown wheel is:
A. To transmit power at right angle B. To reduce the speed of rotation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

457. The device used for reduction of speed and multipliication of torque immediately before rear wheel of tractor is called:
A. Differential B. Final drive
C. Power train D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

458. A splined shaft used for taking off power from engine is:
A. Final drive B. Drawbar
C. Power takes off D. Differential
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

459. Gear drive is recommended when two shafts are:
A. Close B. At 90 degree
C. At 45 degree D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

460. Single disc or single plate type clutch is:
A. Dry type B. Wet type
Answer: Option A
Explanation
461. Multiple disc clutches is:

A. Wet type B. Dry type
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

462. Multiple disc type clutches are mostly used in:
A. General purpose tractor B. Crawler tractor
C. Power tillersD. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

463. Gears are generally made of:
A. Cast iron B. High crabon steel
C. Aluminium alloy D. Alloy steel
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

464. Lubricant used in gearbox is:
A. SAE 30 B. SAE 40
C. SAE 90 D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

465. Transmission oil should be changed after:
A. 750 hours B. 800 hours
C. 1000 hours D. 1200 hours
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

466. Reduction of engine speed through transmission gearbox ranges between:
A. 1 and 1/5th highest and lowest B. 1 and 1/6th
C. 1 and 1/8th D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

467. Generally tractor speed in the top gear varies from:
A. 12-18 kmph B. 12-25 kmph
C. 18-24 kmph D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

468. Forward speed of crawler tractor is restricted to about:
A. 5 kmph B. 6 mph
C. 10 kmph D. Both (b) & (c)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

469. Differential lock helps to:
A. Developing full traction in both drive & wheel B. Developing full traction in one drive wheel
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

470. Speed reduction ratio of final drive ranges from:
A. 3 to 5:1 B. 2 to 4:1
C. 3 to 6:1 D. 2 to 5:1
Answer: Option A
Explanation
471. PTO shaft gets drive from:

A. Engine B. Transmission
C. Output shaftD. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

472. PTO drive taken from output shaft, the speed of PTO is:
A. Proportional to speed of tractor B. Directly proportional to engine speed
C. Inversely proportional to engine speed D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

473. PTO shaft drive taken from engine transmission the speed of PTO will be:
A. Directly proportional to engine speed B. Inversely proportional to engine speed
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

474. A PTO shaft with diameter 3.6 cm and 6 splined, standard PTO rpm will be:
A. 540 B. 540
C. 1000 D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
475. A pro with 21 splined has speed of:
A. 540 B. 1000 rpm
C. 1500 rpm D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

476. The rear-mounted pulley of tractor gets speed of a full throttle is:
A. 950 metre per minute B. 950 rpm
C. 950 kmph D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

477. Tractor pulley is made of:
A. Cast iron B. Cast steel
C. Compressed paper D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

478. Advantages of swinging drawbar is:
A. Taking short turns B. Reduces side draft
C. Leaves only small area uncovered on croners of field D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

479. Spline of PTO is used for:
A. Joining two shafts in lineB. Joining of two drfferent kind of shaft and pulley
C. Transmit power at 120 degree D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

480. In gliding gear transmission system, the gear used is:
A. Spiral B. Spur
C. Bevel D. Helical
Answer: Option B
Explanation
481. In constant mesh transmission system, the gear used to control the noise is:
A. Spur gear B. Bevel gear
C. Helical gear D. Spiral gear
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

482. The hydrostatic transmission system is popular in:
A. tractors B. Combines
C. Power tillersD. Crawlers
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

483. Spur and helical gears transmit power between two:
A. Parallel shafts B. Parallel shafts with intersecting axis
484. Bevel gears transmit power between two shafts are:
A. Intersecting axis B. Parallel shaft
C. Inline shaft D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

485. Spline shafts are used when the torque transmission is in:
A. Small amount B. Large amount
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

486. Hydraulic pump develops a pressure of about:
A. 150 kg/cm2 B. 180 kg/cm2
C. 200 kg/cm2 D. 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

487. Hydraulic system in tractor is mainly used for:
A. Operating three point hitch B. PTO drive
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

488. A gear used in the tractor hydraulic system normally is:
A. Spiral type B. Helical type
C. Bevel type D. Spur type
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

489. A pump used in the tractor hydraulic is:
A. Internal gear pump B. Gyrator gear pump
C. Vane type pump D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

490. An accumulator used in hydraulic system is for:
A. Storing energy B. Increasing pressure
C. Operating pump D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation
491. An accumulator also serves as:

A. Shock absorber B. Pump
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

492. A type of valve used in hydraulic system is:
A. Control valve B. Relief valve
C. Priority valve D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
493. Mass per unit volume of substance is called :
A. Specific gravity B. Density
C. Mass density D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

494. Ratio of mass density of substance at certain temperature to the mass density of water at same temperature is called:
A. Specific gravity B. Density
C. Specific weight D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

495. Specific gravity of petroleum-based hydraulic fluid is:
A. 0.5 B. 0.7
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

496. Mass density increases as:
A. Pressure increase B. Pressure decrease
C. Temperature increase D. Temperature decreases
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

497. Mass density decreases with:
A. Temperature increase B. Temperature decrease
498. Amount of het required to raise the temperature of a unit mass by one degree is called:
A. Specific gravity B. Thermal conductivity
C. Specific heat D. Viscosity
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

499. Nudging system is used for:
A. Rising implement B. Lower the implement
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

500. An automatic position control system is associated with:
A. Two point hitch B. Three point hitch
Answer: Option B
Explanation
501. Average body surface area of a man will be:

A. 122 m2 B. 1.5 m2
C. 2.0 m2 D. 25 m2
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

502. The frequency range of human ear extends from as low as:
A. 10 Hz B. 16 Hz
C. 20 Hz D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

503. The frequency range of human ear extends from as high as:
A. 10000 Hz B. 15000 Hz
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

504. Unit of noise is:
A. Kg per sq.cm B. Decible
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

505. For air bone sounds the reference sound pressure is:
A. 0.001 N/m2 B. 0.00002 N/m2
C. 0.0003 N/m2 D. 0.00004 N/m2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

506. Maximum noise level from a tractor mear the operator's ear should not exceed:
A. 85 dB B. 90dB
C. 95 dB D. 100 dB
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

507. The upper safe noise level is:
A. 80 dB B. 85 dB
C. 90 dB D. 92 dB
508. A noise level for eight hours of working is:
A. 85 dB B. 90 dB
C. 95 dB D. 100 dB
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

509. A noise level for six hours of working is:
A. 80 dB B. 85 dB
C. 90 dB D. 92 dB
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

510. A noise level for four hours of working is:
A. 90 dB B. 95 dB
C. 100 dB D. 105 dB
Answer: Option B
Explanation
511. An oscillatory motion of mechanical system is called:

A. Noise B. Vibration
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

512. Vibration is measured by:
A. Accelerometer B. Tachometer
C. TensiometerD. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

513. It six-cylinder engine rated at 2200 rpm will generate a fundamental sound frequency of:
A. 150 Hz B. 220 Hz
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

514. A spring mass damper system vibrates with:
A. 5 degree of freedom B. 6 degree of freedom
C. 7 degree of freedom D. 8 degree of freedom
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

515. Tractor seat suspension should have its natural frequency of:
A. 0.5 to 1.5 cycles per second B. 0.5 to 2.0 cycles per second
C. 1 to 2.5 cycles per second D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

516. Ratio of output vibration to input vibration is called:
A. Vibration intensity B. Transmissibility
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

517. Range of transmissibility for satisfactory performance is:
A. 0.5 to 0.65 B. 0.5 to 0.75
C. 0.5 to 1.0 D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

518. In proper seat suspension design, the transmissibility should be:
A. Less than unity B. More than unity
C. Less than 2 D. More than 2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

519. In general tractor, frequency should be:
A. 3.10 Hz B. 3.12 Hz
C. 5.15 Hz D. 5.20 Hz
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

520. The un-damped natural frequency of seat suspension system with mzximum travel of 76 mm should be:
A. 1.0 Hz B. 1.5 Hz
C. 2.0 Hz D. 1.5 Hz
Answer: Option B
Explanation
521. A cylinder block is normally made of:

A. Aluminium B. Cast iron
C. High carbon steel D. Mild steel
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

522. A connecting rod of tractor is made of:
A. High carbon steel B. Cast iron
C. Mild steel D. Forged steel
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

523. The standard speed of a 21 spline PTO shaft is:
A. 540 B. 540 rpm
C. 1000 rpm D. 10000 rpm
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

524. The type of starting aid generally used in the diesel power tiller is called:
A. Decompression lever B. Hot plug
C. Cold plug D. Choke
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

525. Toe-in provide in tractor is approximately:
A. 7 - 10 mm B. 10 - 15 mm
C. 12 - 16 mm D. 15 - 20 mm
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

526. The first tractor company, which introduced air-cooled tractor:
A. Eicher B. Toyota
C. Escort D. Ford
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

527. In Cl engine of tractor injection pressure is in range of:
A. 5-10 kg/cm2 B. 20-100 kg/cm2
C. 120-200 kg/cm2 D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

528. Traction coefficient is maximum in a field when:
A. It is dry B. It is cultivated
C. It is irrigated D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

529. Farm tractor is:
A. Prime mover B. Traction engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

530. The first tractor demonstration was held at:
A. Nebraska B. Germany
C. Russia D. China
Answer: Option A
Explanation
531. Which soil is more resistant to erosion?

A. Sandy soil B. Cay soil
C. Loamy soil D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

532. Pressure due to radiator caps:
A. Lower the boiling point B. Raise the boiling point
C. Cools water D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

533. A power tiller operates most satisfactory with:
A. Reaper B. M.B plough
C. Disc harrow D. Rotary tillage tool
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

534. The maximum torque in a tractor is generated at:
A. Rated rpm B. Rated horsepower
C. Less than rated rpm D. More than rated rpm
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

535. Weight transfer in a tractor implement system is caused by:
A. Application of pull B. Tractive force
C. Traction coefficient D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

536. Coefficient of traction is defined as:
A. Ratio of BHP to IHP B. Ratio of dbhp to PTO hp
C. Ratio of drawbar pull to dynamic loads D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

537. Turning radius is affected by:
A. Centre of gravity B. Wheel base
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
538. Crawler tractor is also known as:
A. Chain type tractor B. Track type tractor
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

539. For hot climate the suitable type of tractor is:
A. Water cooled B. Air cooled
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

540. Power train indicates:
A. PTO drive B. Injection system
C. Complete power transmission path D. Reduction unit
Answer: Option C
Explanation
541. Clutch and differential are part of:

A. Injection system B. Power transmission system
C. PTO drive D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

542. Final drive is a:
A. Speed increasing unit B. Speed reduction unit
C. Torque increasing unit D. Torque reduction unit
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

543. Clutch works on principle of:
A. Friction B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

544. Highest tractive efficiency occurs in a:
A. Irrigated soil B. Compact and firm soil
C. Ploughed soil D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

545. Pain in eardrum starts at a noise level of:
A. 65 dB B. 95 dB
C. 110 dB D. 115 dB
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

546. Tractor brake test should be carried out at speed of:
A. 15 kmph B. 20 kmph
C. 25 kmph D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

547. Range of pressure angle in spur gear is:
A. 5?8 B. 5?12
C. 14?20 D. 20?25
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

548. Cold spark plug is used in:
A. IC engine B. CI engine
C. Light duty engine D. Heavy duty engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

549. Valve timing diagram is a function of:
A. Torque B. Engine speed
C. Air fuel ratio D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

550. In a tractor centre of gravity is located at:
A. 1/3 of wheelbase ahead of rear axle B. 2/3 of wheelbase ahead of rear axle
C. 1/4 of wheelbase ahead of rear axle D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation
551. Friction clutch is most commonly used in:

A. Two wheel drive tractor B. Four wheel drive tractor
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

552. A clutch used in power tiller is:
A. Single disk clutch B. Double disk clutch
C. Dog clutch D. Dual plate clutch
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

553. Single plate clutch is also known as:
A. Single disk clutch B. Double disk clutch
C. Dog clutch D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

554. Pitman arm is part of:
A. Gear system B. Hitch system
C. Brake system D. Steering system
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

555. drag link is component of:
A. Clutch system B. Fuel supply system
C. Transmission system D. Streering system
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

556. Hydraulic brake works on the principle of:
A. Newton's Law B. Pascal's Law
C. Boyles Law D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

557. In tractor three-point hitch is operated by:
A. Clutch system B. Gear system
C. Hydraulic system D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

558. Top link of trctor is also known as:
A. Tension link B. Mast
C. Pressure link D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

559. Lower links of tractor reduces:
A. Side draft B. Unit draft
C. Total draft D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

560. If strokes bore ratio increases then thermal efficiency:
A. Decreases B. Increses
Answer: Option B
Explanation
561. Tractor operation in lower gear causes:

A. Less torque B. More pull
C. Less pull D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

562. Muffler is provided on tractor to control:
A. Noise B. Fuel supply system
C. Fuel consumption D. Vibration
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

563. Optimum engine temperature is about:
A. 50?C B. 62?C
C. 72?C D. 82?C
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

564. Supercharger of an engine is driven by:
C. Exhaust gases D. Flywheel
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

565. Turbocharger of an engine is driven by:
A. Dynamo B. PTO shaft
C. Exhaust gas D. Air
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

566. One bar is equal to:
A. 1 Kpa B. 5 Kpa
C. 10 Kpa D. 100 Kpa
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

567. Bar is the unit of:
A. Work B. Pressure
C. Viscosity D. Energy
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

568. Fluctuation of engine speed during a cycle depends upon:
A. Crankshaft B. Governor
C. Mass of flywheel D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

569. Camshaft controls:
A. Valve opening B. Valve closing
C. Both (a) & (b) D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

570. Engine requires overhauling in case of:
A. Poor compression B. Mechanical failure
C. Both (a) & (b) D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation
571. Coolant pump is:

A. Vane type B. Gear pump
C. Centrifugal pump D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

572. Radiator core is made of:
A. Cast iron B. Steel
C. Plastic D. Brass
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
573. The grade of oil used during summer season is:
A. SAE 90 B. SAE 110
C. SAE 30 D. SAE 40
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

574. The grade of oil used in winter season is:
A. SAE 30 B. SAE 90
C. SAE 110 D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

575. A function of drawbar in tractors is to:
A. Lift the load B. Hitch the implement
C. Both pull load D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

576. In tractor weight transfer is greater when:
A. Speed is greater B. Speed is less
C. Pull is higher D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

577. Weight transfer in tractor is affected by:
A. Hitch height B. Wheel base
C. Centre of gravity D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

578. Dbhp of tractor indicates:
A. Power on flywheel B. Power on drawbar
C. Power on PTO D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

579. PTO hp indicates:
A. Power on piston B. Power on crankshaft
C. Power on PTO shaft D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

580. Ballasting is done by:
A. Water B. Oil
C. Calcium chloride D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation
581. Ballasting in front tyre of tractor is done for:

A. Increasing traction B. Decreasing load
C. Increasing stability D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

582. Ballasting in rear tyre of tractor is done for:
A. Increasing traction B. Reducing tractor vibration
C. Increasing weight of tractor D. Prevent overturning of tractor
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

583. Inflation pressure of rear tyre of tractor is:
A. 0.8 to 1.2 kg/cm2 B. 0.1 to 1.5 kg/cm2
C. 1.2 to 2.0 kg/cm2 D. 2.0 to 2.5 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

584. Inflation pressure of front tyre of tractor is:
A. 1.2 to 2.0 kg/cm2 B. 2.0 to 2.5 kg/cm2
C. 2.0 to 2.8 kg/cm2 D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

585. Front wheel of tractor is smaller than rear wheel that helps:
A. More pull of load B. Increasing turning
C. Sharp turning D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

586. Ply rating of tyre indicates:
A. Load-bearing capacity B. Load-pulling capacity
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

587. Toe-in and toe-out are related to:
A. Front axle of tractor B. Rear axle of tractor
C. Tractor steering D. Transmission system
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

588. Angle between centre line of kingpin of trctor and vertical line is called:
A. Tilt angle B. Camber angle
C. Caster angle D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

589. Angle between centerline of tyre and vertical line is called:
A. Camber angle B. Disc angle
C. Helix angle D. Relief angle
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

590. The oil from oil pump delivers directly to:
A. Oil strain B. Oil filter
C. Mall bearing D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation
591. Detonation results in:

A. Interruption in lubrication B. Delay in ignition
C. Loss of power D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

592. An indication of ignition quality of diesel fuel is given by:
A. Octane number B. Cetane number
C. SAE number D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

593. Removal of burnt gases from engine cylinder is called :
A. Pre-ignition B. Detonation
C. Scavenging D. Supercharging
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

594. Lean air fuel mixture is required for:
A. Starting B. Cruising
C. Idling D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

595. Cage wheel used in tractor for:
A. Incresing the weight B. Improving traction
C. Reducing load D. Weight transfer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

596. Depreciation of machine value depends on:
A. Capital investment B. Nos. of working hour/year
C. Savage value D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

597. Depreciation of machine is computed on its:
A. Fixed cost B. Operating cost
C. repair and maintenance cost D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

598. The most accurate dynamometer is:
A. Prony brake B. Hydraulic type
C. Swinging field type D. Eddy current type
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

599. Brake mean effective pressure of an engine depends upon its:
A. Speed B. Power
C. Torque D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

600. Spark occurs when:
A. Points open B. Points close
Answer: Option A
Explanation
601. The colour of positive plate of a lead-acid battery is:
A. White B. Grey
C. Brown D. Black
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

602. The colour of negative plate of lead acid battery is:
A. Black B. Grey
C. White D. Brown
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

603. Positive plate of lead-acid battery is made of:
A. PbO2 B. Pb
C. PbSO4 D. H2SO4
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

604. Negative plate of lead-acid battery is made of:
A. PbSO4 B. H2SO4
C. PbO2 D. Pb
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

605. In an alternator the magnetic field is produced in the:
A. Frame B. Stator
C. Regulator D. Rotar
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

606. The number of winding in the stator of alternator is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

607. The output of an alternator is controlled by:
A. Current regulator B. Voltage regulator
C. Cutout device D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
608. The ratio of output power to input power for a traction device is called:
A. Mechanical efficiency B. Thermal efficiency
C. Tractive efficiency D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

609. Ratio of net pull produced for the dynamic normal load on traction device is called:
A. Tractive force B. Traction constant
C. Net traction coefficient D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

610. In 4WD tractors power occurs in:
A. Both front wheels B. Both rear wheels
C. One front and one rear wheel D. All four wheels
Answer: Option D
Explanation
611. The power required to run the engine at any given speed without production of useful work is called:
A. Drawbar power B. Indicated horsepower
C. PTO horsepower D. Friction power
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

612. Brake horsepower of an engine can be measured by:
A. Spring dynamometer B. Brake dynamometer
C. Strain gauge dynamometer D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

613. Revolution of an engine (engine speed) is measured by:
A. Tachometer B. Spring Dynamometer
C. Eddy current dynamometer D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

614. Drawbar pull is measured by the:
A. Prony brake dynamometer B. Brake dynamometer
C. Hydraulic dynamometer D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

615. Useful life of stationary engine is:
A. 8 years B. 10 years
C. 12 years D. 15 years
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

616. Engine oil should be changed at every:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

617. Tractor transmission oil should be changed at every:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

618. Slogging or lugging ability is associated with:
A. Engine speed B. Engine torque
C. Engine load D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

619. A device to control the engine speed within specific limit is called:
A. Carburetor B. Governor
C. Radiator D. Differential
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

620. The useful life of tractor is:
A. 8,000 hours B. 10,000 hours
C. 12,000 hours D. 15,000 hours
Answer: Option B
Explanation
621. A part that connects piston with connection rod is:

A. Piston ring B. Gudgen pin
C. Safety pin D. Camshaft
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

622. Power tiller operates most satisfactorily with:
A. Rotary tools B. Ploughs
C. Transport wheel D. Harrows
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

623. In an adiabatic process system:
A. Temperture is constant B. Pressure is constant
C. Heat is constant D. Volume is constant
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

624. Weight transfer of tractor is directly affected by:
A. Pull B. Hitch height
C. Both (a) & (b) D. Wheel base
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

625. Compression ratio of diesel engine is:
A. 4;1 B. 6;1
C. 15;1 D. 25;1
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

626. Maximum torque in a tractor is generated at:
A. Rated rpmb B. Less than rated rpm
C. Rated horsepower D. Maximum idling
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

627. Brake works on principle of:
A. Friction B. Vibration
C. Sliding D. Suction
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

628. Soil texture represent the:
A. Size and proportion of particles making a soil B. Arrangement of soil particles
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

629. Brake fluid used in hydraulic brake is a mixture of:
A. Glycerin and alcohol B. Alcohol and methane
C. Glycerin and methane D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

630. When brake is applied the kinetic energy of body is converted into:
A. Electrical energy B. Heat energy
C. Chemical energy D. Mechanical energy
Answer: Option B
Explanation
631. The optimum engine temperature is about:

A. 60 deg. B. 82 deg.
C. 100 deg. D. 120 deg.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

632. Cetane number for commercial diesel fuel varies from:
A. 20-40 B. 30-60
C. 60-90 D. 90-100
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

633. Loss of value of machine with passage of time is:
A. Depreciation B. Interest
C. Hiring cost D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
634. Pressure due to radiator cap:
A. Raises boiling temperature B. Reduces boiling temperature
C. Cools the water D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

635. The voltage in spark plug at the time of spark is:
A. 300-400 V B. 100-200 V
C. 1000-10000 V D. 20000 V
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

636. Heavy smoking in an engine during operation may be due to:
A. Rich mixture B. Overloading
C. Late injection D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

637. Relative movement of the wheel in direction of travel for given distance under load and no load condition is:
A. Wheel slip B. Coefficient of traction
C. Coefficient of rolling resistance D. Tractive efficiency
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

638. BHP of the engine indicates:
A. Power in cylinder B. Power on flywheel
C. Power drawbar D. Power at PTO pulley
639. Which of the following is transmission dynamometer?
A. Torsion dynamometer B. Froude's hydraulic dynamometer
C. Belt dynamometer D. Prony brake dynamometer
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

640. Turbo chargers are driven by:
A. Engine B. Dynamo
C. Exhaust D. PTO shaft
Answer: Option C
Explanation
641. Centre of gravity of tractor is determined by:

A. Suspension method B. Balancing method
C. Weighing method D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

642. The PTO HP of a tractor is:
A. Less than drawbar B. More than engine HP
C. More than drawbar HP D. Less than friction HP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

643. The most commonly used method for determination of centre of gravity of tractor is:
A. Suspension method B. Balancing method
C. Weighing method D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

644. Main constitute is:
A. Methane B. Ethane
C. Butane D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

645. In SI engine, intake opens about:
A. 10 deg before TDC B. At TDC
C. 10 deg after TDC D. 20 deg after TDC
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

646. The base function of governor in an engine is to regulate the:
A. Fuel consumption B. Power development
C. Engine speed D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

647. The ratio of rolling resistance to dynamic load is:
A. Coefficient of traction B. Tractive efficiency
C. Coefficient of rolling resistance D. Rolling resistance
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

648. The power developed by an average pair of bullocks varies from:
A. 0.0-5 hp B. 0.5-1.0 hp
C. 1.0-1.5 hp D. 1.5-2.0 hp
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

649. Ratio of total force output of the traction device in direction of travel to dynamic weight on traction device is:
A. Tractive efficiency B. Coefficient of traction
C. Coefficient of rolling resistance D. Wheel slip
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

650. The rear part of a tractor is heavier than the front part of tractor to get:
A. Higher tractive efficiency B. Lower tractive efficiency
C. Less wheel slip D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation
651. An engine is called I head engine when:

A. Valves are immediately above the cylinder B. Both valves are on one side
C. Valves are in opposite direction D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

652. A steam engine is an:
A. Spark ignition engine B. Compression ignition engine
C. External combustion engine D. IC engine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

653. In hydraulically control hitching system, the equpment vibrates due to:
A. Lower oil level B. Clogging of oil filter
C. Trapping of air in oil filter D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

654. Engine in which heat is taken at one constant pressure and rejected at another constant pressure is:
A. Otto cycle B. Auto cycle
C. Diesel cycle D. Petrol cycle
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

655. The total swept volume of all pistons during power strokes occurring in one minute is:
A. Piston volume B. Clearance volume
C. Displacement volume D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

656. When crankshaft of the engine completes one cycle, the camshaft completes:
A. Two revolution B. Half revolution
C. Equal revolution of crankshaft D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

657. The camshaft gear is called:
A. Two time gear B. One time gear
C. Halftime gear D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

658. Tractive efficiency is affected by:
A. Slope of land B. Wheel size
C. Height of hitch D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

659. In hydraulically controlled hitching system, the implement does not remain in lifted position due to:
A. Defective valve B. Oil leakage
C. Both (a) & (b) D. Lower oil lever
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

660. The stroke bore of tractor engine varies from:
A. 1 to 1.45 B. 1 to 2
C. 1.45 to 2 D. 2 to 2.45
Answer: Option A
Explanation
661. The permissible slip for wheel type tyre during slippage testing is:
A. 3 to 5% B. 7 to 10%
C. 15 to 20% D. 20 to 30%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

662. The permissible slip for crawler tractor during slippage testing is:
A. 3 to 5% B. 7 to 10%
C. 15 to 20% D. 20 to 30%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

663. Traction can be be increased by:
A. Rubber tyre with grooves B. Placing chain
C. Putting Luigs D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

664. The operation to perform to open any cultivable land is:
A. Primary tillage B. Secondary tillage
C. Minimum tillage D. Reduced tillage
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

665. Finer operation performed for seedbed preparation is:
A. Primary tillage B. Secondary tillage
C. Strip tillage D. Rotary tillage
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

666. Indigenous plough is:
A. Primary tillage tool B. Secondary tillage tool
C. Multi-purpose tool D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

667. Of the following, which are the primary tillage implements?
A. Chisel plough and disc harrow B. Chisel plough and subsoiler
C. Disc plough and disc harrow D. Leveler and clod crusher
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

668. A cultivar wholw tynes swings back when obstacle encounter is:
A. Spike tooth cultivator B. Spring type cultivator
C. Rigid type cultivator D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

669. A bullock drawn implement has:
A. Higher speed and higher working capacity B. Lower speed and lower working capacity
C. Higher speed and lower working capacity D. Lower speed and higher working capacity
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

670. Tractor drawn implements have:
A. High speed and higher working capacity B. Lower speed and lower working capacity
C. Higher speed and lower working capacity D. Lower speed and higher working capacity
Answer: Option A
Explanation
671. An implement that pulled and guided by single hitch point of a tractor is:
A. Trailed implement B. Mounted implement
C. Semi mounted implements D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

672. An implement that attached to a tractor along hinge axis and controlled directly by tractor steering unit is:
A. Trailed implements B. Mounted implements
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

673. An implement that fully supported by the tractor is:
A. Trailed implement B. Mounted implement
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

674. Ploughing is done to
A. Improve soil aeration B. Destroy weeds
C. Increase water-holding capacity D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

675. The plough bottom as combined unit consists of:
A. Share, landside, frog and MB B. Coulter, jointer and frog
C. Beam, handle and MB D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

676. Jointer and coulter are the parts of:
A. Disc plough B. Harrow plough
C. Indigenous plough D. MB Plough
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

677. The part of plough that penetrates into the soil and cuts the oil in horizontal direction is:
A. Share B. Coulter
C. Mould boardD. Land side
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

678. The forward end of cutting edge that actually penetrates into the soil and cuts the soil is:
A. Share point B. Cutting edge
C. Wing of share D. Gunnel of share
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

679. The front edge of the shre which makes horizontal cut in the soil is:
A. Gunnel of share B. Cutting edge
C. Wing of share D. Shin of share
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

680. The share of MB plough is made of:
A. Cast iron B. High carbon steel
C. Chilled cast iron D. White metal
Answer: Option C
Explanation
681. The MB plough works on the principle of:

A. Friction B. Rolling
C. Suction D. Scouring
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

682. The power consumed in secondary tillage operation per unit area is:
A. Less compared to primary tillage operation B. More compared to primary tillage operation
C. Same as the primary tillage operation D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

683. A single piece share with curved cutting edge is:
A. Slip nose share B. Bar point share
C. Shin shared D. Slip share
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

684. A type of share provided with adjustable bar is:
A. Slip nose share B. Bar point share
C. Shin shared D. Slip share
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

685. In the bar point share, the bar serves as:
A. Share only B. Landside only
C. Share and landside D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

686. The stubble type of mould board is mostly suitable for:
A. Grassy land B. Tough soil
C. Sticky soil D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
687. The slat type of mould board is used in:
A. Grassy land B. Sod soil
C. Sticky soil D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

688. A long mould board with gentle curvature used in tough soil full of grasses is:
A. Stubble type MB B. Breaker type MB
C. Slat type MB D. General purpose
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

689. The part of MB plough to which all other parts of plough bottom is attached is:
A. Mould boardB. Land side
C. Frog D. Coulter
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

690. In MB plough, a small irregular piece of metal has similar shape to ordinary plough bottom is:
A. Jointer B. Coulter
C. Gunnel D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation
691. A device mould to cut the furrow slice vertically from a land ahead of bottom is:
A. Jointer B. Coulter
C. Gunnel D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

692. A part of mould board plough which lifts, turns and break furrow slice is:
A. Share B. Mould board
C. Landside D. Jointer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

693. A wheel used for maintaining uniform depth of ploughing in different soils is:
A. Transport wheel B. Land wheel
C. Furrow wheel D. Gauge wheel
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

694. The part of MB plough that resists the side pressure exerted by the furrow slice on the mould board is:
A. Mould boardB. Gunnel
C. Landside D. Frog
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

695. In MB plough, the perpendicular distance from wing of share to the line joining the point of the share and heel of landside is:
A. Width of furrow B. Size of plough
C. Plough width D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

696. The size of mould board plough is expressed by:
A. Width of cut B. Depth of cut
C. Size of furrow D. Plough width
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

697. A point at which the resultant of all horizontal and vertical forces acts is:
A. Centre of gravity B. Centre of resistance
C. Centre of pull D. Line of pull
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

698. A straight line passing through the centre of the pull, the point of hitch and the centre of resistance are:
A. Centre of gravity B. Centre of resistance
C. Centre of pull D. Line of pull
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

699. According to Colling, the draft of mould board plough on the ground is:
A. 34% B. 18%
C. 48% D. Above 48%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

700. According to colling, the draft of MB plough due to furrow slice is:
A. 34% B. 48%
C. 68% D. Above 68%
Answer: Option A
Explanation
701. According to colling, the draft to MB plough due to cutting slice is:
A. 34% B. 48%
C. 68% D. Above 68%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

702. The part of indigenous plough that helps in stabilizing and blancing the plough while operation is:
A. Share B. Shoe
C. Body D. Handle
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

703. The part of MB plough to which the plough bottom and handle attached is:
A. Beam B. Standard
C. Frog D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

704. The maximum clearance under the landside and horizontal surface when the MB plough is resting on ground surface is:
A. Horizontal suction B. Vertical suction
C. Throat clerance D. All are correct
705. In MB plough, the maximum horizontal clearance between the landside and furrow wall is:
A. Horizontal suction B. Vertical suction
C. Throat clerance D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

706. The vertical clearance of the BM plough ranges from:
A. 2 to 5 mm B. 2 to 5 cm
C. 3 to 5 mm D. 3 to 5 cm
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

707. Vertical clearance of MB plough influences:
A. Depth of cut B. Width of cut
C. Both depth and width of cut D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

708. The horizontal suction of MB plough is:
A. 5 mm B. 3 cm
C. 5 cm D. Above 5 cm
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

709. The horizontal suction of MB plough influences:
C. Both depth and width of cut D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

710. The horizontal clevis of MB plough helps in:
A. Adjusting line of draft B. Adjusting line of pull
Answer: Option A
Explanation
711. Centre of resistance of plough lie at a distance of:

A. 1/3rd size of plough from share wing B. 3/4rd size of plough from share wing
C. 1/2 size of plough from share wing D. All fire correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

712. A MB plough that throws furrow slice on one side to the direction of travel is:
A. One-way plough B. Two-way plough
C. Turn wrest plough D. Irreversible plough
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

713. The part plough that transmit the animal power to the plough is:
A. Standard B. Beam
C. Handle D. Body
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

714. A MB plough that throws furrows slice to both the direction of travel is:
A. One-way plough B. Irreversible plough
C. Reversible plough D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

715. A MB plough whose plough bottom turns through 180? about a longitudinal axis is:
A. One-way plough B. Irreversible plough
C. Turn wrest plough D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

716. The size of light MB plough is:
A. Below 100 mm width of cut B. Between 100 mm and 150 mm width of cut
C. Above 100 mm width of cut D. Above 150 mm width of cut
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

717. The size of medium plough is:
A. Below 100 mm width of cut B. Above 150 mm width of cut
C. Between 150 mm and 200 mm width of cut D. Above 200 mm width of cut
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

718. The size of heavy MB plough is:
A. Below 150 mm width of cut B. Above 150 mm width of cut
C. Between 150 mm and 200 mm width of cut D. Above 100 mm width of cut
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

719. In standard disc plough, all the discs are:
A. Fitted on a single shaft B. Fitted on separate standard
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

720. In disc plough, the angle at which the plane of cutting edge of disc is inclined to the direction of travel:
A. Disc angle B. Tilt angle
C. Gang angle D. None of above
Answer: Option A
Explanation
721. In disc plough, the angle at which the plane of cutting edge of disc is inclined to the vertical line is:
C. Gang angle D. None of above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

722. Disc angle of standard disc plough varies from:
A. 15-25? B. 25-35?
C. 35-42? D. 4-45?
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

723. Tilt angle of standard disc plough varies from:
A. 15-25? B. 25-35?
C. 35-42? D. 4-45?
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

724. In disc plough, a device used to prevent disc from clogging is:
A. Spacer B. Scraper
C. Standard D. Spool
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

725. Back furrow and dead furrows are left while ploughing with:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

726. A MB plough, which is suitable for ploughing along hillsides, is:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

727. The tilt angle of wheat plough is:
A. 0? B. 15-25?
C. 35-42? D. 42-45?
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

728. Tillage system, which is suitable for dry land agriculture, is:
A. Till plant system B. Zero tillage
C. Minimum tillage D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

729. A tillage system in which the field is ploughed and followed by row crop planter directly is:
A. Zero tillage system B. Plough plant
C. Rotary tillage system D. Till plant system
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

730. The depth measured at the centre of the disc by placing its concave side down on a flat surface is:
A. Convexity B. Concavity
Answer: Option B
Explanation
731. In disc harrow, a device used to provide a distance between two discs mounted on same gang axle is:
A. Scraper B. Gang
C. Spool D. Arbor bolt
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

732. A shaft of disc harrow on which the number of discs is mounted is:
A. Standard B. Arbor bolt
C. Spacer D. Scraper
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

733. The increase in tilt angle of disc plough influences:
A. Penetration of disc B. Width of cut
C. Reduce penetration of disc D. Reduce width of cut
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

734. The tilt angle of disc plough influences:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

735. The disc angle of disc plough influences:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

736. In disc plough, the penetration of disc improves but width of cut reduces due to:
A. Increasing tilt angle B. Reducing tilt angle
C. Increasing disc angle D. Reducing disc angle
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

737. The method of ploughing in which the plough works round a strip of unploughed land is:
A. Gathering B. Casting
C. Head land D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

738. The method of ploughing in which the plough works round the strip of ploughed land is:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

739. An open trench left between two adjacent strips of land alter the plouging is:
A. Furrow wall B. Dead furrow
C. Back furrow D. Furrow slice
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
740. An undisturbed soil surface of furrow:
A. Furrow slice B. Furrow wall
C. Furrow crown D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation
741. A strip of unploughed land that is left at each end of the field for tractor turning is:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

742. The top portion of a turned furrow slice is:
A. Furrow slice B. Crown
C. Ridge D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

743. A harrow with two gangs placed end to end is:
A. Offset disc harrow B. Tandem disc: harrow
C. Single action disc harrow D. Double action disc harrow
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

744. S disc harrow with four gangs in which set of two gangs follow behind the set of other two gang is:
A. Offset disc harrow B. Tandem disc: harrow
C. Single action disc harrow D. Triangular harrow
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

745. A raised left at centre of the strip of land when ploughing is started from center to side is:
A. Furrow wall B. Dead furrow
C. Back furrow D. Furrow slice
746. A harrow, which is based on a principle that side thrust of rear gang:
A. Offset disc harrow B. Tandem disc harrow
C. Spike tooth harrow D. Spring tyne harrow
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

747. A hrrow whose tynes swing back when obstacle encountered is:
A. Spike tooth harrow B. Spring tyne harrow
C. Patela harrow D. Triangular harrow
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

748. A special type of harrow with curved knives is:
A. Spike tooth harrow B. Spring type harrow
C. Patela harrow D. Acme harrow
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

749. The internal angle between the gangs of single action disc harrow is:
A. Less than 90? B. Exactly 90?
C. More than 90? D. None of above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

750. In disc harrow the angle made by the axis of the arbor bolt with the direction of travel is:
C. Gang angle D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation
751. The offset disc harrow are mostly suitable for working in:
A. Garden B. Orchard
C. Field D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

752. The spacing between discs in light duty harrow is:
A. 5-6 inch B. 6-9 inch
C. 10-12 inch D. Above 12 inch
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

753. The bearing used on disc harrows are subjected to:
A. Heavy radial load B. Thrust load
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

754. The bearing used on disc harrows are:
A. Ball bearing B. Taper roller bearing
C. Wooden bearing D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

755. The size of disc harrow is determined by:
A. Maximum width of cut B. Maximum depth of cut
C. Number of disc D. Number of gangs
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

756. A bullock drawn harrows mostly have:
A. Rigid tynes B. Flexible tynes
C. Both rigid and flexible tynes D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

757. Acme harrows are mostly used for:
A. Clod crushing B. Mulching
C. Levelling D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
758. Blade harrows are used for seed bed preparation in:
A. Sandy soil B. Hard soil
C. Sticky soil D. Clayey soil
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

759. The spacing between discs in heavy-duty harrow is:
A. 5-6 inch B. 6-9 inch
C. 10-12 inch D. Above 12 inch
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

760. A tractor-drawn harrow mostly has:
A. Rigid tynes B. Flexible tynes
C. Both rigid and flexible tynes D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation
761. A ridger is used for:

A. Clod crushing B. Making channel
C. Mulching D. Seed bed preparation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

762. Heavy draft of a disc harrow is due to:
A. Blunt disc B. Furrow too wide
C. Loose bearing D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

763. Macermic cultivator is a:
A. Bullock drawn B. Tractor drawn
C. Manually operated none of these D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

764. Animal drawn patela is:
A. Clod crusher B. Leveller
C. Clod crusher D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

765. A stubble type mould board of MB plough gives:
A. Less pulverization B. Medium pulverization
C. Tharow pulverization D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

766. Sweeps are used for:
A. Seedped preparation B. Ridging
C. Earthing plants D. Mulching
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

767. A mould board of MB plough is made of:
A. Cast iron B. Chilled cast iron
C. Mild steel D. Soft centre steel
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

768. A mormal ploughing depth is:
A. 15 cm B. 30 cm
C. 40 cm D. 100 cm
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

769. A subsoiler is used to break a hard pan of soil upto a depth of:
A. 15 cm B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm D. 100 cm
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

770. Rotary tillers art used for:
A. Shallow cultivation and weed control B. Deep cultivation and weed control
Answer: Option A
Explanation
771. The lower penetration of disc plough is due to:

A. Blunt disc B. Plough too hight
C. More tilt angle D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

772. The uneven furrow formation in disc ploughing is due to:
A. Disc angle is not uniformB. Loose bearing of disc
C. Hitching defects of disc plough D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

773. The excessive side drft in disc plough is due to:
A. Disc angle is not uniformB. Loose bearing
C. Hitching defect D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

774. In disc harrow, the penetration of disc improves by:
A. Increasing disc angle B. Lowering hitch point
C. Regulating optimum speed D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

775. The gang angle of disc harrow is adjusted in the range of:
A. 0-30? B. 30-60?
C. 60-90? D. Above 90?
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

776. The width and depth of cut of disc harrow is controlled by:
A. Weight of the implement B. Gang angle mechanism
C. Diameter of discs D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

777. The condition of soil that determines the optimum condition for tillage is:
A. Plastic B. Hard
C. Crumbly D. Cemented
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

778. The type furrow opener used in zero tillage implement is:
A. Reversible type B. Inverted type
C. Shoe type D. Hoe type
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

779. In vertical disc plough, the numbers of disc varies from:
A. 2?12 B. 2?22
C. 2?32 D. 2?42
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

780. The shape of furrow cut by indigenous plough is:
A. V-shape B. Rectangular shape
C. Trapezoidal shape D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation
781. The shape of furrow cut by MB plough is:

A. V-shape B. L-shape
C. W-shape D. M-shape
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

782. The indigenous plough is used for:
A. Ploughing B. Paddling
C. Harvesting tuber crop D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

783. The draft per unit cross-section area of furrow is called:
A. Draft B. Unit draft
C. Side draft D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

784. The horizontal component of pull parallel to the direction of travel is:
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

785. The horizontal component of pull perpendicular to the direction of travel is:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

786. An instrument used to measure soil compaction is:
A. Hydrometer B. Cone penetrometer
C. Tachometer D. Hygrometer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

787. A tractor mounted on rotary tillers are used for:
A. Seed bed preparation B. Puddling
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

788. The L-shaped blade of rotary tillers are used for seed bed preparation in:
A. Hard and sticky soil B. Stony and trashy soil
C. Trashy and sandy soil D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

789. The C-shape blade of rotary rillers are used for seedbed preparation in:
A. Sticky soil B. Stony soil
C. Trashy soil D. Sandy soil
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

790. The true point of hitch of the implement is called:
A. Line of pull B. Centre of pull
C. Centre of resistance D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation
791. An implement that is used in till plant system is:

A. Ridger B. Sweeps
C. Furrower D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

792. The purpose of ploughing is:
A. To improve soil aeration B. To prevent soil erosion
C. To add fertility to soil D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

793. No till system reduces runoff by:
A. 25% B. 50%
C. 7% D. 90%
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

794. The conservation of moisture is not possible when working with:
A. Chisel plough B. Sub surface
C. MB plough D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

795. The uneven fields are left when working with:
A. Chisel plough B. Rotary plough
C. MB plough D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

796. Area covered per day of 8 hours by 4 bottoms, 35 cm tractor plough if the speed of ploughing is 6 Km/h is:
A. 626 m3 B. 6.26 ha
C. 62.6 m3 D. 62.6 ha
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

797. The purpose of harrowing is to:
A. Pulverize soil B. Destroy weeds
C. Break clods D. All are correct
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

798. A vertical plate that is used to control depth and adjust line of pull in plough is:
A. Vertical suction B. Vertical clevis
C. Horizontal suction D. Horizontal clevis
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

799. A device that is used to adjust the lateral movement of plough is:
A. Vertical suction B. Vertical clevis
C. Horizontal suction D. Horizontal clevis
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

800. A draft required to pull 4-botton 30 cm tractor plough working to a depth of 15 cm operated at speed of 6 Km/h. The soil resistance is 0.7 kg/cm2:
A. 12.6 kg B. 126 kg
C. 1260 kg D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation
801. The group of number of discs that is mounted on a gang axle is:
A. Gang B. Gang axle
C. Arbor bolt D. Gang bolt
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
802. The forces acting on MB plough are:
A. Plastic B. Parasitic
C. Elastic D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

803. A two-way plough eliminates:
A. Back Furrow B. Dead furrow
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

804. One-way plough requires laying out a field land, starting with:
A. Back Furrow B. Dead furrow
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

805. Two-way plough is advantageously working in:
A. Levelled field B. Contour field
C. Undulated field D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

806. A two-way plough left field nearly level for:
A. Drainage and Irrigation B. Runoff and Erosion
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

807. The two-way plough are designed to turn furrow slices to:
A. Right and left B. Only right
C. Only left D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

808. Pain coulter are used in relatively:
A. Trashy field B. Heavy trashy field
C. Clean field D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

809. Notched coulter work well in:
A. Trashy field B. Heavy trashy field
C. Clean fields D. All are correct
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

810. Share of mould board plough is made of:
A. Cast iron B. Mild steel
C. C-1095 sold steel D. All are correct
Answer: Option C
Explanation
811. The coulter of MB plough is generally mounted:

A. Above share point B. Little ahead of share point
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

812. One-way plough requires laying out a field in lands, ending with:
A. Dead furrow B. Back Furrow
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

813. A plough that works effectively in hard, dry and sticky soil is:
A. Mould board plough B. Disc plough
C. Harrow plough D. Indigenous plough
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

814. The mould board plough absorb side forces mainly through the:
A. Share B. Mould board
C. Land disc D. Frog
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

815. The bearing used in most of disc harrow is about:
A. Sealed ball bearing B. Unsealed ball bearing
C. Sealed taper roller bearing D. Unsealed taper roller bearing
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

816. The maximum operating depth for disc harrow is about:
A. One-half of the disc diameter B. One -third of the disc diameter
C. One-fifth of the disc diameter D. One-fourth of disc diameter
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

817. Puddling is done mainly for:
A. Reducing seepage of water B. Reducing deep percolation of water
C. Smoothing seed bed D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

818. Land shaping becomes necessary where often the following implement is used:
A. 2-5 cm B. 5-10 cm
C. 25-30 cm D. Abov 40 cm
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

819. Land shaping becomes necessary where often the following implement is used:
A. MB plough B. Disc harrow
C. Cultivators D. Rotary plough
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

820. Land plane is ideally suited for
A. Land leveling B. Earth moving
C. Final grading D. Top finishing
Answer: Option D
Explanation
821. Two bullocks weighing 750 Kg each are pulling an implement with speed of 2 km/h. The hp that required pulling an implenment is:
A. 1.11 hp B. 11.1 hp
C. 6.66 hp D. 66.66 hp
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

822. A coulter attachment is used with:
A. Disc harrow B. Seed drill
C. MB plough D. Subsoiler
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

823. Plough share is made up of:
A. Mild steel B. Cast iron
C. Gun metal D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

824. The spike of MB plough is expressed in:
A. Width of cut B. Depth of cut
C. Length of share D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

825. The spike tooth harrows are used mainly for:
A. Primary tillage B. Intercultivation
C. Surface finishing D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

826. Puddling is done to achieve:
A. Soft soil bed B. Non-leaching of water
C. Size reduction of clods D. Conservation of moisture
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

827. Dead furrow is made by:
A. One-way MB plough B. Two-way MB plough
C. Rotary plough D. Disc harrow
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

828. A low mould board with gradual twist comparatively inverts the furrow slice with a minimum of break up thus covering vegetative thoroughly is called:
A. Sod bottom B. Stubble bottom
C. Slated mould board D. General purpose bottom
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

829. Till plant equipment which are used for seed bed are:
A. MB plough B. Sweeps
C. Cultivators D. Subsoiler
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

830. Surface planting with conservation feature of contour listing is:
A. Flat plantingB. Furrow planting
C. Ridge planting D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation
831. Ridge planting is most suitable for:

A. Low rainfall areas B. Average rainfall areas
C. High rainfall areas D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

832. The minimum tillage method is termed as:
A. Furrow plant method B. Plough plant method
C. Ridge plant method D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

833. The disc force into the ground by:
A. Suction B. Slicing
C. Scouring D. Weight
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

834. The disc plough is advantageous over MB plough in respect of:
A. Suitable for deep ploughing B. Complete covering of trashes and weeds
C. Leaves field levelled D. All are correct
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

835. The implement suitable for terraced hilly land and do not upset the slope of land is:
C. Ridger D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

836. The plough that does not leave any back as well as dead furrow is:
A. One-way plough B. Disc plough
C. Two--way plough D. Shabas plough
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
837. The plough bottom of wrest plough turn through:
A. 90? B. 120?
C. 180? D. 360?
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

838. Mould board plough works on the principle of:
A. Suction B. Scouring
C. Sliding D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

839. The mould board used on tractor plough for general farm use is:
A. Stubble MB B. Breaker MB
C. General purpose MB D. High speed MB
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

840. The coulters used for cutting heavy trashes are:
A. Plain coulter B. Rolling plain coulter
C. Notch coulter D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation
841. The draft requirement in MB plough compared to disc plough for same depth of ploughing is:
A. Less B. More
C. Equal D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

842. The plough used for deep ploughing is:
A. MB plough B. Standard disc plough
C. Vertical disc plough D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

843. The vertical disc plough is:
A. Harrow plough B. Wheat plough
C. Both (a) & (b) D. None of above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

844. The centre of plough load in a single bottom plough is:
A. 7.5 cm to left of shin B. At the shin
C. 7.5 cm to right of shin D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

845. The hitching of plough is done by placing the plough:
A. Few centimeters below ground level B. On the ground level
C. Few centimeters above ground level D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

846. The useful life of walking type ploughs may take about:
A. 1000 hrs B. 1500 hrs
C. 2000 hrs D. 2500 hrs
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

847. The tillage practice is desirable in the areas of having hard or compacted layers below the plough depth is:
A. Minimum tillage B. Conservation tillage
C. Sub soiling D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

848. The versatile implement used for seed bed preparation, ridge-making and channel shaping is:
A. Indigenous plough B. MB plough
C. Hoe D. Cultivator
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

849. The harrow used for smoothening and levelling the soil after ploughing is:
A. Spring tyne harrow B. Spike tooth harrow
C. Offset disc harrow D. Tandem disc harrow
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

850. The random scattering of seed on the surface of seedbed is:
A. Dibbling B. Broadcasting
C. Hill dropping D. Check row planting
Answer: Option B
Explanation

1700 Mcqs Agriculture

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1. A man can develop:

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11. A ten human power equals to:

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21. The speed range of medium speed engine is:

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51. The material used for construction of cylinder block is:

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61. The oil pan of an engine is made of:

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71. Oil pump is driven by:

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