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Instructions
Note:
1. The question paper contains 3 sections (Sec-1, Chemistry, Sec-II, Physics & Sec-III, Mathematics.)
2. Each section is divided into two parts, Part-A & C.
3. Part – A contains 16 questions which are further divided as follows:
❖ PART – A (01 – 10) contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Correct answer.
For each question in the group Q. 1 – 10 of PART – A you will be awarded
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result
in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in −2
marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
❖ PART – A (11 – 16) contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 Multiple Choice Questions. Each
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. Each question carries +4
marks for correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one(–1) mark
will be awarded.
4. PART-C (1 – 6) contains 6 Numerical Based questions with Single Digit Integer as answer, ranging from 0 to
9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all
other cases, minus two (–1) mark will be awarded.
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any form, are not allowed.
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IIT2020, (Two Year CRP(18-20)-RIT-III-CPM -2
Section – I (Chemistry)
PART – A
(Multiple Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.
4. In the reaction, C ( s ) + CO2 ( g) 2CO ( g) , the equilibrium pressure is 12 atm. If 50% of the
CO2 reacts, then
(A) KP will be equal to 16
(B) KP = KC
(C) The initial pressure = 8
(D) The partial pressure of CO2 = 4 atm at equilibrium
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8. Which of the following change(s) take(s) place by increasing the average energy of reactant
molecules?
(A) The activation energy of forward reaction decreases
(B) The value of rate constant increases
(C) Rate of reaction increases
(D) The fraction of molecules crossing the energy barrier increases
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for a zero order reaction?
(A) The unit of rate constant is mol L-1 sec-1
(B) The unit of half-life is time-1
(C) The half-life time is directly proportional to the initial concentration of reactant
(D) The rate of reaction is directly proportional to temperature
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13. The equilibrium constant KP for the following reaction is 1 at 27oC and 4 at 47oC.
A ( g) B ( g) + C ( g)
Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction B ( g) + C ( g) A ( g) (Given R = 2 cal/mol-K)
(A) -13.31 Kcal mol-1 (B) 13.31 Kcal mol-1 (C) -19.2 Kcal mol-1 (D) 55.63 Kcal mol-1
Radioactive disintegration is a first order reaction and its rate depends only upon the nature of nucleus and
does not depend upon external factors like temperature and pressure. The rate of radioactive
disintegration(activity) is represented as
dN
− = N
dt
Where = decay constant, N = no. of nuclei at time t, N0 = initial no. of nuclei
The above equation after integration can be represented as
2.303 N
= log 0
t N
14. Half life period of U237 is 2.5 105 years. In how much time will the amount of U 237 remaining be only
25% of the original amount?
(A) 2.5 105 years (B) 12.5 105 years (C) 5 105 years (D) 106 years
15. Calculate the half life period of a radioactive element which remains only 1/16 of its original amount in
4740 years.
(A) 1185 years (B) 2370 years (C) 52.5 years (D) none of these
16. What is the activity in Ci(curie) of 1.0 mole of Plutonium-239? (t1/2 = 24, 000 years)
(A) 1.49 Ci (B) 14.9 Ci (C) 5.13 1011 Ci (D) None of these
PART – C
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive)
1. 2X ( g) + 3Y ( g) ⎯⎯
→ 4Z ( g)
What would be the rate of above reaction in mol L-1 s-1 unit if the rate of formation of ‘Z’ is 8 mol L-1s-1?
space for rough work
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3. The frequency factor(A) of a chemical reaction with zero activation energy is 8 sec –1. What is the rate
constant of the reaction in sec–1 unit?
4. To the system,
LaCl3 (s) + H2O(g) LaClO(s) + 2HCl(g) − Heat
already at equilibrium, more water vapour is added without altering temperature or volume of the
system. When equilibrium is re-established, the pressure of water vapour is doubled. and the
pressure of HCl present in the system increases by a factor of 21/x, what is the value of X?
6. The Kp for the reaction N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) is 640 mm at 773 K. Then the pressure at which the
dissociation will be 50% is 120x. The value of x is :
space for rough work
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IIT2020, (Two Year CRP(18-20)-RIT-III-CPM -6
Section – II (Physics)
PART – A
(Multiple Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1. Two friends P and Q (each weighing 40 kg) are sitting on a frictionless platform at some distance d
apart. P rolls a ball of mass 4 kg towards Q which Q catches. Then, Q rolls the ball towards P and P
catches it. The ball keeps on moving back and forth between P and Q. The ball has a fixed speed 5
ms–1 on the platform. Choose the correct option(s).
10 –1
(A) Speed of P after he catches the ball for the first time is ms
11
10 –1
(B) Speed of P after he catches the ball for the first time is ms
9
(C) The centre of mass of the system remains stationary irrespective of the direction of motion of the
ball.
(D) P can roll the ball only for 6 times.
3. A ball moving with velocity v hits a massive wall moving towards the ball with a velocity u. An elastic
impact lasts for time t
m( u + v )
(A) the average elastic force acting on the ball is
t
2m ( u + v )
(B) the average elastic force acting on the ball is
t
(C) the kinetic energy of the ball increases by 2mu ( u + v )
(D) the kinetic energy of the ball remain the same after the collision
4. Four bricks each of length l are put on the top of one another in such
a way that part of each extends beyond the one beneath. The largest
equilibrium extension are I
II
III
(A) top brick over hanging the one below by IV
2
(B) second brick from top over hanging the one below
4
(C) third brick from top overhanging by bottom one by
6
11
(D) the total overhanging length on the edge of the bottom brick is
12
space for rough work
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5. If the external forces acting on a system have zero resultant, the centre of mass
(A) must not move (B) must not accelerate (C) may move (D) may accelerate
A
6. Three particle A,B and C of equal masses move with equal speeds v
along the medians of an equilateral triangle . After collision A comes
to rest while B retraces its path with speed v. Then
(A) the speed of C is V
(B) direction of motion of C OA
O
(C) the speed of C is 2V
(D) direction of motion of C BO
B C
7. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into two equal parts
at its highest point, one part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will falls at a distance R beyond target (B) will falls at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target (D) have nine times kinetic energy of first
8. A particle of mass ‘m’ is moving towards a body of infinite mass at rest. If the particle collides
elastically and head on then,
(A) momentum of the particle will change
(B) momentum of the body of infinite mass will change
(C) momentum of the system containing particle and infinite mass body will change.
(D) none of these
10. Suppose a cannon of mass M fires a shell of mass m with initial velocity u (relative to cannon) at an
angle to the ground. In the process cannon recoils freely (friction neglected). Then:
u2 sin 2 M u2 sin 2
(A) Range of the projectile is (B) Range of the projectile is
g m g
M u2 sin 2 M u2 sin 2
(C) Range of the projectile is (D) Range of the projectile is
M+m g M−m g
space for rough work
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IIT2020, (Two Year CRP(18-20)-RIT-III-CPM -8
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type Q. No. 11 - 16)
Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question nos. 11 – 13
1
between them is . Then answer the following questions.
2
13. The angle of deviation of the motion of the small particle due to collision will be
3 3 3 3
(A) sin−1 (B) cos−1 (C) 30° (D) none of these
14 14
Paragraph for question nos. 14 – 16
M
A
A small block of mass M moves on a frictionless surface of
v
an inclined plane, as shown in figure. The angle of the incline 60o B
suddenly changes from 60o to 30o at point B. The block is initially at
rest at A. Assume that collisions between the block and the incline
are totally inelastic (g = 10 m/s2). 30o C
3m 3 3m
14. The speed of the block at point B immediately after it strikes the second incline is
(A) 60 m / s (B) 45 m / s (C) 30 m / s (D) 15 m / s
15. The speed of the block at point C, immediately before it leaves the second incline is
(A) 120 m / s (B) 105 m / s (C) 90 m / s (D) 75 m / s
16. If collision between the block and the incline is completely elastic, then the vertical (upward)
component of the velocity of the block at point B, immediately after it strikes the second incline is
(A) 30 m / s (B) 15 m / s (C) 0 (D) − 15 m / s
space for rough work
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IIT2020, (Two Year CRP(18-20)-RIT-III-CPM -9
PART – C
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive)
M
3. A block of mass M is placed on the top of a bigger block of mass 10
M as shown in figure. All the surfaces are frictionless. The system is
released from rest, then find the distance (in metre) moved by the
10 M
bigger block at the instant the smaller block reaches the ground:
22 m
4. A sphere of mass m collides elastically with another stationary sphere of mass m/2 obliquely. Both the
spheres are smooth and there are no external forces acting on them. Maximum angle through which
sphere of mass m can be deflected wrt its initial direction of motion is . Value of x is
x
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x4 + 1
1. x6 + 1 dx is equal to
1 1
(A) tan−1 x − cot −1 x3 + c (B) tan−1 x + tan−1 x3 + c
3 3
1 1
(C) tan−1 x3 − cot −1 x + c (D) − tan−1 x − tan−1 x3 + c
3 3
sin x − cos x
2. If I = ( sin x + cos x ) sin x cos x + sin x cos x
2 2
dx = cosec–1(g(x)) + c x R, then
(A) g(x) = 1 + sin2x (B) g(x) = 1 – sin2x (C) g(x) 0 (D) – 1 g(x) 1
1
dx
3. If I = then
0 4 − x 2 − x3
(A) I (B) I (C) I (D) I
6 6 4 2 4
1 1
5. Let the function f(x) be thrice differentiable and satisfies f(f(x)) = 1 − x for all x [0,1], If J = f(x)dx
0
and f " ()
4 =0
5
, then which of the following is(are) true?
(A) f ( ) + f ( ) = 1
1 2
3 3
1
(B) J =
2
1 3
(C) f "(x) = 0 has at least one root in x ,
4 4 ( )
1 4
(D) f ”(x) = 0 at least one root in x ,
2 5 ( )
space for rough work
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IIT2020, (Two Year CRP(18-20)-RIT-III-CPM -11
4
dx
6.
3
3 log x
is
1
(A) less than 1 (B) less than 2 (C) greater than (D) none of these
2
1
7. If I =
0
(1 + x ) (1 + x3 )dx , then
15 15
(A) I (B) I
8 8
(C) the integral is not evaluable (D) none of these
x2
dt
8. If f(x) = (log t)
x
2
, x 0 , then f(x) is
9. Let f ( x ) be a continuous and positive function in [0, 5] and the area bounded by the graph of
y = f ( x ) and x-axis for 0 x 5 is 8. A(c) denotes the area between the graph of y = f ( x ) and x-
axis for 0 x c and B(c) denotes the area between the graph of y = f ( x ) and x-axis for c x 5 .
A (c ) dR
Also R ( c ) = , R ( 3 ) = 1 and = 7 at c = 3,, then
B (c ) dc
(A) The value of A3 = 4 (B) Value of A' (5) + B' (5) = 0
(C) Value of f (3) = 16 (D) The value of f (3) = 14
−x2
Consider a circle x 2 + ( y − 1) = 1 and the parabola y =
2
10. . The common tangents to the two
4
curves constitute a triangle ABC, the point A and B being on the x-axis and C on the y-axis. CA
produced touches the parabola at P and CB produced touches the parabola at Q, then which of the
following statements are correct?
−x2
(A) Area enclosed by the parabola y = , the x-axis and the lines AP and BQ is 3 sq. units.
4
(B) Area of the portion between the upper arc of the circle and the common tangents QC and PC is
3 − 6 sq. unit
(C) Equation of common tangent BC is 3x − y + 3 = 0
(D) Equation of common tangent BC 3y − x + 3
space for rough work
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IIT2020, (Two Year CRP(18-20)-RIT-III-CPM -12
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type Q. No. 11 - 16)
Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question nos. 11 – 13
Consider the integrals of the form: I = ex ( f(x) + f (x)) dx .
By product rule considering exf(x) as first integral and ex f(x) as second one, we get
I = ex f(x) − ex f (x)dx + ex f (x)dx = e x f(x) + c .
1 + sin x cos x
e
x
14. is equal to
cos2 x
(A) ex sec2x + c (B) ex tan x + c (C) ex log |secx| + c (D) none of these
1 1
15. ln x − (ln x) 2 dx is equal to
x
(A) ln(lnx) + c (B) x + ln x + c (C) +c (D) none of these
ln x
space for rough work
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e (tan x − logcos x)dx = F(x) , where F(x) = f(x) log |sec x| with F(0) = 0, then range of f(x) is
x
16. If
(A) (−, ) (B) R+ (C) R− (D) R − {1}
PART – C
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive)
x f (x)
1. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying the condition f = ( y 0, f ( y ) 0 )
y f (y)
x, y R and f ' (1) = 2 . If the smaller area enclosed by y = f ( x ), x2 + y2 = 2 is A, then find [A],
where [.] represents the greatest integer function.
1− x
2
2. dx is equal to _______
−2
k k
3. Let f be a positive function. Also let I1 = xf ( x (1 − x ) ) dx, I2 = f ( x (1 − x ) ) dx , when
1−k 1−k
I2
2k − 1 > 0. Then is equal to ________
I1
x
1 2 ln t
4. If F (x) = f ( x ) + f , where f (x) = 1 + t dt , then 2F (e) equals ________
x 1
/2
2
6. For a positive integer n, let In = 2 − | x | cos 2nx dx . If nlim ( I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 + ... + In ) = , then the
− /2 → k
1 1 1 1 1 2
value of ‘k’ by using rule + + + + + ... = , is _______
12 22 32 42 52 6
space for rough work
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