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co

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1. Which one of the following gases is A. increase the pH of the soil

released mostly from landfills in urban B. lower the pH of the soil
areas? C. increase the phosphorus content of the
A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen soil
C. Methane D. Oxygen D. increase the nitrogen content of the
2. Which one of the following is most soil
sensitive to environmental change?
10. Deficiency of fluoride leads to Which one of
A. Amphibian B. Reptile the following health problems?
C. Mammal D. Insect
A. Tooth caries
3. Which one of the following is the largest
B. Mottling of tooth
source of electricity in India?
C. Bending of bones
A. Hydropower plants
B. Nuclear power plants D. Stiffening of joints
C. Thermal power plants 11. Excessive use of which of the following
D. Wind energy fertilizers may be responsible for the
presence of a toxic substance in
4. The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a
groundwater?
person because it destroys
A. mast cells B. platelets A. Nitrogen
C. erythrocytes D. lymphocytes B. Phosphate only
5. Which one of the following air pollutants C. Potassium only
combines with the haemoglobin of human D. Phosphate and potassium
blood and reduces its oxygen-carrying 12. Which one of the following elements does
capacity, leading to suffocation and may not form solid hydrogen carbonate?
cause even death? A. Sodium B. Potassium
A. Chlorofluorocarbon
C. Caesium D. Lithium
B. Fly ash
13. According to Census 2011, which one of
C. Carbon monoxide
the following is the correct sequence of
D. Sulphur dioxide States in decreasing order of their total
6. An irregular mode of reproduction resulting size of population?
in the development of an embryo without
A. Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab
fertilization is called
B. Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab
1. Parthenogenesis
C. Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam
2. Apogamy
3. Sporophytic budding D. Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam
Select the correct answer using the code 14. With reference to earthquakes, which of
given below. the following statements are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only A. Earthquakes largely occur along the
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 converging plate boundaries.
7. Which one of the following is not an B. Point of origin of earthquake in
allotrope of carbon? lithosphere is known as
A. Coal B. Diamond focus/hypocenter.
C. Graphite D. Graphene C. Intensity of earthquake decreases with
8. In paper manufacturing, degumming of the distance from the epicenter.
raw material is done using D. Epicentre of earthquake always
A. sulphuric acid remains over continents only.
B. bleaching powder Select the correct answer using the code
C. caustic soda given below.
D. nitric acid A. 1 and 2 only
9. Dolomite power is applied in some B. 1, 2 and 3
agricultural lands. The purpose of applying C. 2 and 3 only
it is to D. 1 and 4

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15. Which of the following pairs of Indian State A. Linear momentum

and tribal population are correct? B. Angular momentum
A. Madhya Pradesh : Largest tribal C. Force
population D. Potential energy
B. Mizoram : Highest percentage of tribal 21. Which one of the following statements is
population out of the total population not correct?
of the State A. The response of the ear to sound of
C. Chhattisgarh : Second largest tribal increasing intensity is approximately
population after Madhya Pradesh logarithmic.
D. Arunachal Pradesh : Second highest B. The sensitivity of the human ear does
percentage of tribal population out of not vary with the frequency of the
the total population of the State after sound.
Mizoram C. When two or more waves traverse the
Select the correct answer using the code same medium, the displacement of any
given below. element of the medium is the algebraic
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 4 only sum of the displacements due to each
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4 wave.
16. The spring constant of a spring depends on D. Longitudinal waves can travel in all
its media- solids, liquids and gases.
22. Which one of the following hormones is
A. length only
essential for the uptake of glucose by cells
B. material only
in the human body?
C. length and its diameter
A. GH B. TSH
D. thickness, its diameter and its material
C. Insulin D. Cortisol
17. In the gamma decay of a nucleus
23. Which of the following cells do not contain
A. the mass number of the nucleus
nucleus?
changes whereas its atomic number
1. Root hair cells
does not change
2. Red blood cells
B. the mass number of the nucleus does
3. Platelets
not change whereas its atomic number
changes 4. Monocytes
C. both the mass number and the atomic Select the correct answer using the code
number of the nucleus change given below.
D. neither the mass number nor the A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only
atomic number of the nucleus changes C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
18. In a bipolar junction transistor 24. Biological catalysts are protein molecules
A. all the three regions (the emitter, the which
base and the collector) have equal 1. speed up a chemical reaction
concentrations of impurity 2. remain unchanged after reaction
B. the emitter has the least concentration 3. function optimally at 37oC
of impurity 4. do not have an enzymatic activity
C. the collector has the least Select the correct answer using the code
concentration of impurity given below.
D. the base has the least concentration of A. 1 only B. 1, 2 and 3
impurity C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 3 and 4
19. The pressure exerted by a 760 mm column 25. ‘Altitude sickness’ is caused at high altitude
of mercury at 0oC is known as due to
A. 1 pascal B. 1 atmosphere A. high partial pressure of oxygen
C. 1 bar D. 1 poise B. low partial pressure of oxygen
20. Which one of the following physical C. low level of haemoglobin
quantities has the same dimensions as that
D. high partial pressure of carbon dioxide
of Planck’s constant h?
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26. Match List-I with List-II and select the 4. First National Inland Waterway was
correct answer using the code given below between Haldia and Allahabad.
the Lists : Select the correct answer using the code
List-I List-II given below.
(Element) (Property/Use) A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3
A. Mg 1. Give red colour to flame C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 4
B. Ca 2. Sulphate compound used 31. If the latitude and longitudinal extent of an
in medicine to examine Indian State/UT is 15o48’00’’N to
the alimentary canal of a 14o53’15’’N and 74o20’13’’E to 74o40’33’’E,
patient then which one of the following is that
C. Sr 3. Traps the energy of sun- State/UT ?
light in photosynthesis A. Puducherry B. Chandigarh
D. Ba 4. Control of muscle C. Goa D. Delhi
contraction 32. Match List-I with List-II and select the
Code : correct answer using the code given below
A B C D the Lists :
(a) 2 4 1 3 List-I List-II
(b) 2 1 4 3 (Railway Zone) (Headquarters)
(c) 3 4 1 2 A. North Eastern 1. Kolkata
(d) 3 1 4 2
Railway
27. Which one of the following statements is
B. East Central Railway 2. Bilaspur
correct?
C. South East Central 3. Hajipur
A. The oxidation number for hydrogen is
always zero. Railway
B. The oxidation number for hydrogen is D. South Eastern 4. Gorakhpur
always + 1. Railway
C. The oxidation number for hydrogen is Code :
always - 1. A B C D
D. Hydrogen can have more than one (a) 4 2 3 1
oxidation number.
(b) 1 3 2 4
28. In case of a standard hydrogen electrode
(c) 1 2 3 4
A. absolute electrode potential is not zero
(d) 4 3 2 1
B. absolute electrode potential is zero
C. both absolute and standard electrode 33. Which of the following statements
potential values are zero concerning atmosphere of the Earth are
correct?
D. electrode potential is zero only at 25oC
29. The elemental composition of an adult 1. In stratosphere, temperature increases
human body by mass is with altitude.
A. C > O > H > N 2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases
B. O > C > H > O with altitude.
D. N > C > O > H 3. The lowest temperature of the
30. With regard to water transportation in atmosphere is recorded in the upper
India, which of the following statements part of mesosphere.
are correct? 4. Tropopause is an isothermal zone.
1. Headquarters of Central Inland Water Select the correct answer using the code
Transport Corporation is located at given below.
Delhi. A. 1 and 2 only
2. Headquarters of Inland Waterways B. 1, 2 and 3 only
Authority of India is located at Noida. C. 3 and 4 only
3. National Inland Navigation Institute is
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
located at Kolkata.

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34. Match List-I with List-II and select the 41. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below correct answer using the code given below
the Lists : the Lists :
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Place) (Industry) (Strait) (Water Body)
A. Bongaigaon 1. Paper A. Strait of Hormuz 1. Java Sea
B. Koraput 2. Machine tools B. Strait of 2. Andaman Sea
C. Pinjore 3. Aircraft Bab-el-Mandeb
D. Sirpur 4. Petrochemical C. Strait of Malacca 3. Red Sea
Code : D. Strait of Sunda 4. Gulf of Persia
A B C D Code :
(a) 4 2 3 4 AB C D
(b) 4 3 2 1 (a) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 3 2 4 (c) 1 2 3 4
35. Which one of the following is not a (d) 4 3 2 1
tributary of the river Ganga? 42. Match List-I with List-II and select the
A. Son B. Mahananda correct answer using the code given below
C. Teesta D. Sharada the Lists :
36. Which one of the following pairs of lakes is List-I List-II
connected by Soo Canal? (Ocean current) (Country)
A. Superior and Michigan A. Agulhas Current 1. Peru
B. Superior and Huron B. Humboldt Current 2. South Africa
C. Huron and Ontario C. Labrador Current 3. Argentina
D. Huron and Erie D. Falkland Current 4. Canada
37. In total internal reflection, the light travel Code :
from AB C D
A. rarer to denser medium and it occurs (a) 3 4 1 2
with no loss of intensity (b) 2 1 4 3
B. denser to rarer medium and it occurs (c) 3 1 4 2
with no loss of intensity (d) 2 4 1 3
C. rarer to denser medium and it occurs 43. Which one of the following fishing banks is
with loss of intensity located off the coast of the United
D. denser to rarer medium and it occurs Kingdom?
with loss of intensity A. Great Fisher Bank
38. The energy of a photon, whose momentum B. Grand Banks
is 10 MeV/c, where c is the speed of light, C. Dogger Bank
is given by D. Reed Bank
A. 10 MeV B. 100 MeV 44. Match List-I with List-II and select the
C. 1 MeV D. 0.1 MeV correct answer using the code given below
39. Liquids and gases never show the Lists :
A. diamagnetic property List-I List-II
B. paramagnetic property (Power Plant) (State)
C. ferromagnetic property A. Satpura 1. Maharashtra
D. electromagnetic property B. Dhuvaran 2. Uttarakhand
40. Light travels in a straight line (rectilinear C. Tanakpur 3. Gujarat
propagation of light). This statement does D. Dabhol 4. Madhya Pradesh
hold if the medium of travel for light is Code :
A. of variable refractive index AB C D
B. made up of slabs of different refractive (a) 4 3 2 1
indices (b) 1 3 2 4
C. homogeneous and transparent (c) 1 2 3 4
D. inhomogeneous and transparent (d) 4 2 3 1

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45. Which of the following statements Direction :

regarding soil is/are correct? The following three (3) items consist of two
1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen statements, Statement I and Statement II.
content. Examine these two statements carefully and
2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but select the correct answer using the code given
deficient in nitrogen. below.
3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and Code :
aluminium but deficient in nitrogen and A. Both the Statements are individually
potassium. true and Statement II is the correct
Select the correct answer using the code explanation of Statement I
given below. B. Both the Statements are individually
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only true but Statement II is not the correct
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 explanation of Statement I
46. Which one of the following statements is
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is
not correct?
false
A. Position of the sun, Earth and Moon in
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is
a straight line of 180o angle is known
true
as syzygy.
51. Statement I :
B. Syzygy conjunction causes solar
eclipse. The Pahi-kashta peasants were non-
C. Syzygy opposition causes lunar eclipse. resident cultivators cultivating lands on a
D. Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time contractual basis.
of perihelion only. Statement II :
47. Which one of the following is not related to The Pahi-kashta peasants worked under
wind erosion ? the temptation of favourable terms of
A. Wind gap B. Zeugen revenue or the compulsion of economic
C. Dreikanter D. Demoiselle distress.
48. Which one of the following is correct? 52. Statement I :
A. Guindy National park is known for tiger The Zamindars were an exploitative class
reserve. in Mughal India.
B. Namdapha National Park is meant for Statement II :
lion conservation. The Zamindars often received the support
C. Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve. of the peasantry in a large number of
D. Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary. agrarian uprisings in North India in the
49. Which one of the following statements seventeenth century.
concerning the natural vegetation of India 53. Statement I :
is not correct? King Ashoka abolished capital punishment
A. Sal is found in moist deciduous forests. and disbanded his army.
B. Casuarina is largely found along the
Statement II :
coastal region of Tamil Nadu.
After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful
C. Deodar is a coniferous species of tree.
and become a Buddhist.
D. Shola forests are found mainly on the
54. Which one of the following does not signify
upper reaches of Himalaya.
a battle tank?
50. Which one of the following statements
concerning research centres in India is not A. T- 55 B. T- 155
correct? C. T- 72 D. T- 90
A. Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology 55. Which of the following Gods are also known
is located at Kolkata. as Lokapalas or the Guardians of the
B. Central Arid Zone Research Institute is Universe?
located at Jodhpur. A. Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera
C. Centre for social Forestry and Eco- B. Indra, Varuna, Skanda and Kubera
Rehabilitation is located at Allahabad. C. Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma
D. Institute of forest Productivity is D. Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra
located at Ranchi.

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56. Which among the following Acts were B. Food Safety and Standards Authority of
repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution India recommended to the Health
of India? Ministry to remove potassium bromate
1. The Government of India Act, 1935 from the list of permissible food
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 additives.
3. The abolition of Privy Council C. The Union Government banned the use
jurisdiction Act, 1949 of potassium bromate as a food
4. The government of India Act, 1919 additive on the basis of the above
recommendation.
Select the correct answer using the code
D. Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin.
given below.
60. Which of the following voted for Brexit in
A. 1 and 2 only
June 2016?
B. 1 and 3 only
A. England and Scotland
C. 1, 2 and 3 only B. England and Wales
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. Scotland and Northern Ireland
57. On 26th November, 1949, which of the D. Wales and Northern Ireland
following provisions of the Constitution of 61. Which one of the following statements
India came into effect? about reusable space vehicle of ISRO is
1. Citizenship not correct?
2. Elections A. In June 2016, ISRO successfully
3. Provisional Parliament launched India’s first reusable space
4. Fundamental Rights vehicle.
Select the correct answer using the code B. The space vehicle was launched from
given below. Satish Dhawan Space Centre at
A. 2, 3 and 4 Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
C. The reusable launch vehicle climbed to
B. 1, 2 and 3
a height of 65 km before automatically
C. 1 and 3 only
steering back for landing.
D. 1 and 2 only
D. The vehicle was initially boosted by a
58. Which of the following statements rocket that contained liquid fuel.
regarding the Constituent Assembly of 62. Which one of the following statements is
India is/are correct? not correct?
1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by A. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile
the members of the Provincial made by India and Russian Federation.
Legislative Assemblies. B. The name BrahMos came from two
2. The elections were held on the basis of rivers, Brahmaputra of India and
Universal Adult Franchise. Moskva of Russia.
3. The scheme of election was laid down C. Indian military scientists were capable
by the Cabinet delegation. of integrating BrahMos cruise missile
4. The distribution of seats was done on with Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
the basis of the Mountbatten plan. D. Defence Research and Development
Select the correct answer using the code Organization is the manufacturer of
given below. Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only 63. Which one of the following sources tells us
C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 about women protesting against the
59. Which one of the following statements is infidelity of their husbands or the neglect of
not correct? the wife and children by the male head of
the household?
A. Centre for Science and Environment in
A. The Kitab-ul-Hind
a recent study found that a number of
B. Documents belonging to the Village
commonly available brands of
Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat and
prepackaged breads tested positive for
Maharashtra
potassium bromate and potassium
C. Sculptures from Mandor
iodate.
D. The Ain-i-Akbari of Abul Fazl

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64. The all India Census was 68. Which of the following fundamental rights
1. first attempted in 1872 as enshrined in the Constitution of India
2. regularly undertaken since 1881 belong only to the citizens?
3. always undertaken as a five-year 1. Article 19 (Protection of right to
exercise freedom of speech)
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Article 21 (Protection of life and
given below. personal liberty)
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only 3. Article 15 (Prohibition of
C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3 discrimination)
65. Match List-I with List-II and select the 4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity)
correct answer using the code given below Select the correct answer using the code
the Lists : given below.
List-I List-II A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4
(Historian) (Book) C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4 only
A. Sumit Sarkar 1. The Rise and Growth 69. A citizen of India will lose his or her
of Economic citizenship if he or she
Nationalism in India 1. renounces Indian citizenship
B. Shahid Amin 2. A Rule of Property
2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of
for Bengal
another country
C. Ranajit Guha 3. The Swadeshi
3. marries a citizen of another country
Movement in Bengal,
1903-1908 4. criticizes the Government
D. Bipan Chandra 4. Event, Metaphor, Select the correct answer using the code
Memory – Chauri given below.
Chaura, 1922-1992 A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4
Code : C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 4
A B C D 70. Which one of the following statements is
(a) 3 4 2 1 not correct with respect to protection of
(b) 3 2 4 1 individuals being tried for offences?
(c) 1 2 4 3 A. A confession can never be used as
(d) 1 4 2 3 evidence against the accused.
B. The accused must have violated an
66. What form of Shiva is most prominent in
existing law.
the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the
Chola dynasty? C. An accused cannot be tried and
punished for the same offence again.
A. Harihara B. Bhairava
D. The quantum of punishment must be
C. Rudra D. Tripurantaka
provided in law as it existed on the
67. The basic structure doctrine with regard to date of commission of an offence.
the Constitution of India relates to 71. Neil O’Brien, who died recently, was a
1. the power of judicial review famous
2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati A. journalist B. billiards player
case (1973) C. dramatist D. quiz master
3. the constraints on Article 368 of the 72. Consider the following statement :
Constitution of India “If you feel you are trapped in a black hole,
4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967) don’t give up. There is a way out “
Select the correct answer using the code Who among the following made the above
given below. statement?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only A. Albert Einstein
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. Stephen Hawking
C. 1 and 3 only C. C. V. Raman
D. Abdus Salam
D. 2 and 4 only

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73. Recently the Government of India cleared 1. They follow Indian religious practices.
the proposal for the production of 18 2. Their language, called Romani, is an
indigenous ‘Dhanush’ artillery guns to be Indo-Aryan language.
produced in India by 3. They believe that they came from
A. Indian Army India.
B. US Army 4. Epigraphic evidence locates their
C. Indian Ordnance factory Board original home in Uttar Pradesh.
D. Indian and US Army jointly Select the correct answer using the code
74. Who among the following won the Men’s given below.
Singles Title in the Australian Open Tennis A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 only
Tournament, 2016? C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 2 and 3
A. Jamie Murray 78. The term Upari refers to which one of the
B. Bruno Soares following?
C. Novak Djokovic A. A category of proprietary tenure under
D. Andy Murray the Mughal rule
75. Which of the following statements about B. A category of tenancy tenure under the
the philosopher Shankara is/are true? Maratha rule
1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta C. A soldier in the Maratha army
called Advaita. D. A village headman in the Mughal
2. He elaborated on the philosophy of period.
Gaudapada. 79. The ‘water frame’ of Richard Arkwright was
3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that the a device for
Upanishads and Brahmasutras contain A. producing a new type of painting
a unified, systematic philosophy. B. irrigating fields for rice cultivation
4. Shankara founded the Amanaya C. producing strong threads of yarn
Mathas. D. the faster movement of steamships
Select the correct answer using the code 80. The ‘four great needs’ of the people as
given below. identified by the Guomindang were
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 3 A. clothing food, housing and
C. 3 and 4 D. 4 only transportation
76. Which of the following statements about B. education food, housing and health
the Deccan Riots of 1875 is/are true? care
1. The Deccan Riots resulted in protection C. food, housing, education and
for peasants through the Deccan employment
Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879. D. employment housing, education and
2. The riots did not spread to the whole of health care
Maharashtra because of prompt 81. Which one of the following was the earlier
suppression by the British. name of Tokyo?
3. The British were unable to contain the A. Osaka B. Kyoto
riots and they spread throughout C. Samurai D. Edo
Maharashtra. 82. The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the
4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that A. story of Rama
had been caused by the artificial
B. Jaina elements in the storyline
demand generated by the American
C. culture of Sri Lankan Buddhists
Civil War caused the impoerishment of
D. cult of Shakti worship
the peasants.
83. Rakshasa type of marriage is
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. A. marriage by purchase
A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 B. marriage by capture
c. 2 and 4 only D. C. marriage by giving dowry
77. Why are the Gypsies regarded as of Indian D. marriage by seduction
origin?

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84. Who among the following was defeated by D. The period in which a bank creates
Chile to won the Copa America Football highest credit in the market
Championship, 2016? 90. Which of the following will be the outcome
A. Colombia B. Argentina if an economy is under the inflationary
C. Ecuador D. Peru pressure?
85. Which one of the following is the highest 1. Domestic currency heads for
altitude zoo in the world? depreciation.
A. Cheyenne Mountain Zoo 2. Exports become less competitive with
B. Pandit G. B. Pant High Altitude Zoo imports getting costlier.
3. Cost of borrowing decreases.
C. Himalayan Zoological park, Gangtok
4. Bondholders get benefitted.
D. Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological
Select the correct answer using the code
Park
given below.
86. Which one of the following statements
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
about the Missile Technology Control
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 3 and 4
Regime is not correct?
91. According to the Classical Theory of
A. The Missile Technology Control Regime Employment, deviations from the state of
is an informal and voluntary full employment are
partnership initially formed among G-7 A. Purely temporary in nature
countries. B. permanent in nature
B. Members of the Missile Technology C. imaginary situations
Control Regime prevent the D. normal situations
proliferation of missile and unmanned 92. Capital deepening refers to
aerial vehicle technology capable of A. going for more fixed capital per worker
carrying above 500 kg payload for B. emphasis on social overhead capital
more than 300 km. C. constant capital-output ratio
C. China applied to join the Regime but D. increasing capital-output ratio
members did not offer the 93. Which one of the following statements is
membership. not correct with respect to Article 32 of the
D. No other country outside the Constitution of India?
membership follows the Regime A. It provides remedies to citizens for the
rules. enforcement of fundamental rights.
87. The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force B. It is a part of fundamental rights.
consists of C. The Supreme Court cannot refuse a
A. 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve writ petition under Article 32 on the
B. 100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve ground of delay.
C. 20 aircrafts with no reserve D. Protection under Article 32 also applies
D. 25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve to the enforcement of ordinary law
which has nothing to do with the
88. The headquarters of ‘Economic and Social
fundamental rights.
Commission for Asia and the Pacific’ is
94. Which one of the following writs is issued
located at
by the Supreme Court to secure the
A. Singapore B. Manila
freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?
C. Bangkok D. Hong Kong
A. Habeas Corpus B. Mandamus
89. Which one of the following with regard to C. Certiorari D. Quo Warranto
the term ‘bank run’ is correct? 95. According to the provisions of the
A. The net balance of money a bank has Constitution of India, which one of the
in its chest at the end of the day’s following is not a fundamental duty?
business A. To respect the National Flag
B. The ratio of bank’s total deposits and B. To defend the country
total liabilities C. To provide education to one’s child
C. A panic situation when the deposit D. To promote village and cottage
holders start withdrawing cash from industries
the banks

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96. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of
India, an emergency can be declared if
security of any part of India is threatened
by
1. war
2. external aggression
3. armed rebellion
4. internal disturbance
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 2 only
97. Which one of the following statements is
not true of Protection of Women from
Domestic violence Act, 2005?
A. This Act provides civil remedies to
protect a woman subjected to domestic
violence.
B. Only women can make a complaint
under this legislation.
C. Relief may be sought only against the
husband or a male live-in partner with
whom the woman has lived in a
domestic relationship.
D. The Act includes not just wives but also
women in marriage-like relationships.
98. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
A. Creation of National Investment and
Infrastructure Fund (NIIF)
announced in the Union Budget, 2015-
16.
B. NIIF is a fund for enhancing
infrastructure facility in the country.
C. NIIF and NIF (National Investment
Fund) are the names of the same
organization.
D. NIIF can have more than one
alternative investment fund.
99. Which one of the following is not correct in
respect of Andaman and Nicobar
Command?
A. It is the first integrated theatre
command in India.
B. Its headquarters is at Port Blair.
C. It is commanded by a three-star
officer.
D. It was set up by the British during the
Second World War.
100. Who is the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff
Committee?
A. The Chief of Army Staff
B. The Chief of Naval Staff
C. The Chief of Air Staff
D. The member who has been the longest
on the Committee
101. Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is
A. an infantry regiment of the Indian
Army
B. a battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles
C. the name of the Armed Police of the
State of Jammu and Kashmir
D. a paramilitary force under the Ministry
of Home Affairs
102. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Infantry Regiment is also known as the
Mechanized Infantry Regiment.
B. Corps of Electrical and Mechanical
Engineers is subsumed in the corps of
Engineers.
C. Army Medical Corps and Army Dental
Corps are two divisions of the Army
Service Corps.
D. Army has its own Corps of Air Defence.
103. Which one of the following is not one of
the Commands of the Indian Army?
A. South Western Command
B. North Eastern Command
C. Central Command
D. Army Training Command (ARTRAC)
104. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
was A. The rank of Second Lieutenant has
been abolished.
B. The Chief of Army Staff carries the
rank of Field Marshal.
C. All officers posted to Andaman and
Nicobar Islands wear the ranks of the
Indian Navy.
D. The rank of Major General is higher
than the rank of Lieutenant General.
105. Which one of the following is not an Air
Defence Missile system?
A. Akash B. Trishul
C. Tatra D. Astra
106. Which one of the following statements is
correct with respect to the composition of
national income in India?
A. The share of manufacturing sector has
declined
B. The share of services sector has
increased sharply.
C. The share of agriculture has remained
static.
D. The share of services sector has
declined.
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107. In India, the term ‘hot money’ is used to B. Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and
refer to Mizoram
A. Currency + Reserves with the RBI C. Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and
B. Net G D R Tripura
C. Net Foreign Direct Investment D. Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and
D. Foreign Portfolio Investment Arunachal Pradesh
108. Which of the following is/ are credit rating 114. Which one of the following statements with
agency/ agencies in India? regard to the Ninth Schedule of the
A. CRISIL B. CARE Constitution of India is not correct?
C. ICRA D. All of the above A. It was inserted by the Constitution
109. Who among the following is the Chairman (First Amendment) Act, 1951.
of the Fourteenth Finance Commission? B. The Acts and Regulations specified in
A. C. Rangarajan B. Vijay Kelkar the Ninth Schedule shall become void
on the ground that it violates a
C. Y. V. Reddy D. Rakesh Mohan
fundamental right in Part III of the
110. The members of NAFTA are.
Constitution.
A. USA, Canada and Mexico
C. The Supreme Court has the power of
B. USA, Canada and India
judicial review of an Act included in the
C. USA, Canada and Japan Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic
D. USA, UK and India structure.
111. Which of the following are constitutional D. The appropriate Legislature can repeal
provisions and laws for the protection of or amend an Act specified in the Ninth
the rights of the Scheduled Castes in Schedule.
India? 115. Consider the following statements about
1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India Harappan cities :
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 1. Roads were not always absolutely
3. The Scheduled Castes and the straight and did not always cross one
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of another at right angles.
Atrocities) Act, 1989 2. A striking feature is the uniformity in
Select the correct answer using the code the average size of the bricks for
given below. houses and for city walls.
A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 3 only correct?
112. Which one of the following is not true A. 1 only B. 2 only
about the powers of the Supreme Court? C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. The Supreme Court has original and 116. Match List-I with List-II and select the
exclusive jurisdiction in inter- correct answer using the code given below
governmental disputes. the Lists :
B. The Supreme Court has advisory
jurisdiction on a question of law or fact List-I List-II
which may be referred to it by the (Term) (Meaning)
President of India.
A. Kurinchi 1. Pastoral region
C. The Supreme Court has the power to
B. Palai 2. Seashore
review its own judgment or order.
C. Neytal 3. Arid region
D. The Supreme Court has the exclusive
D. Mullai 4. Mountainous region
power to issue writs to protect the
Code :
fundamental rights of the people.
A B C D
113. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of
India pertains to the administration of (a) 1 2 3 4
tribal areas in which of the following (b) 1 3 2 4
States? (c) 4 3 2 1
A. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and (d) 4 2 3 1
Mizoram
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117. Which of the following statements with C. The Commission, while investigating
regard to the conduct of elections in India any matter, has all the powers of a
is/are not correct? Civil Court.
1. The responsibility for the preparation of D. The Commission has the power to
the electoral rolls is vested in the regulate its own procedures.
Election Commission of India. 119. The right to form associations and unions is
2. The model Code of Conduct comes into a right
existence as soon as the date of the A. guaranteed to everybody
election is announced. B. to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
3. The laws relating to delimitation of C. to equality before law
constituencies are made by the Election D. to life and personal liberty
Commission of India. 120. Some Indian territory was transferred in
4. No election shall be called in question 2015 to Bangladesh by following which
except by an election petition. procedure?
Select the correct answer using the code A. By an agreement between the
given below. Government of India and the
A. 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 Government of Bangladesh
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 4 only B. By a legislation passed by the
118. Which one of the following statements with Parliament amending Schedule 1 to the
regard to the National Commission for Constitution of India
Scheduled Tribes is not correct? C. By amending Schedule 1 to the
A. The Union and every State Government constitution of India by exercising
shall consult the Commission on all amending power of the Parliament
major policy matters affecting D. By amending Schedule 1 to the
Scheduled Tribes. constitution of India by exercising
B. All the reports of the Commission and amending power of the Parliament and
its recommendations shall be laid only ratification by sixteen State
before Lok Sabha. Legislatures

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