Answer - MME-ELECTRIAL-FRQ QUESTIONS-s With Correxct Answers Highlighted For MME Training Purposes - 2018 PDF

MME-ELECTRIAL-FRQ QUESTIONS-Electrical items
1. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and does not drive a
mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
 (c) synchronous condenser
(d) none of the above
2. What do we call Synchronous Motor working on a leading power factor at no load?
 a) static condenser
 (b) condenser
 (c) synchronous condenser
 (d) none of the above
3. A synchronous motor on load can be used as
static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
4. Synchronizing motor running at leading power factor can be used as
 (a) voltage booster
 (b) Phase Advancer
 (c) noise generator
 (d) mechanical synchronizer
5. A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when it is
(a) under-loaded
(b) over-loaded
(c) under-excited
(d) over-excited
6. An over excited synchronous motor is used for
(a) fluctuating loads
(b) variable speed loads
(c) low torque loads
(d) power factor corrections
7. An over-excited synchronous motor takes
(a) leading current
(b) lagging current
(c) both (a) and (b)
8. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when
(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
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9. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing current at lagging
power factor from constant voltage supply, its field excitation is increased, then its
power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
(c) remain constant
10. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation operates with such an
excitation that it takes power at lagging power factor. Now if the applied voltage of the
synchronous motor goes down, the power factor of the synchronous motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
11. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation. Now if the load on the
motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will increase
12. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor corresponds to operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading
13. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running with normal excitation
is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(b) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor
14. If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
15. For power factor correction, synchronous motors operate at
(a) no-load and greatly over-excited fields
(b) no-load and under-excited fields
(c) normal load with minimum excitation
(d) normal load with zero excitation
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16. A synchronous motor can operate at
(a) lagging power factor only
(b) leading power factor only
(c) unity power factor only
(d) lagging, leading and unity power factors
17. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
18. The percentage slip in case of a synchronous motor is
(a) 1%
(b) 100%
(c) 0.5%
(d) zero
19. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at

 (a) unity power factor
 (b) leading power factor
 © lagging power factor
 (Dd lagging to leading power factor.
20. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed,
then the
 (a) reactive component of the output is changed
 (b) active component of the output is changed
 (c) power factor of the load remains constant
 (d) power factor of the load reduces.
21. The number of electrical degrees passed through in one revolution of a six pole
synchronous alternator is
 (a)360:
 (b)720
 (c) 1080
 (d)2160 .
22. Which type of motor used in home ceiling fans?
 Capacitor Motor
23. Which type of motor is used in ceiling fans?
 Permanent Capacitor Run
24. Starting methods of motor used in household fans?
 Capacitor Start
25. Best starting for Single phase motor is?
 Connect Capacitor
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26. Which is the best economic way to start a single phase motor?
 Capacitive Method
27. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on
full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
28. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of
approximately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque
(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
29. Slip of an induction motor is negative when
(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the syn-chronous speed of the field and are in the
same direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the field and
are in the same direction
30. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the normal
speed, the phenomenon will be termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
31. Which of the following braking systems is used in Induction Motors?
Regenerative braking
, Plugging Braking,
Dynamic Breaking
All of the above
32. The 'crawling" in an induction motor is caused by
(a) high loads
(b) low voltage supply
(c) improper design of machine
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
33. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
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34. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will
be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
35. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally
(a) less than 1%
(b) 1.5%
(c) 2%
(d) 4%
36. In medium sized induction motors, the slip is generally around (a) 0.04%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 4%
(d) 14%
37. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
c) leading
(d) zero Ans:
38. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine
(a) core loss
(b) copper loss
(c) efficiency
(d) magnetizing current
(e) magnetizing current and loss
39. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to
(a) load changes
(b) oil in the transformer
(c) Magnetostriction
(d) mechanical vibrations
40. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer ?
(a) poor insulation
(b) Overload
(c) loose connections
(d) Core saturation
41. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be determined by
(a) short-circuit test
(b) back-to-back test
(c) open circuit test
(d) any of the above
42. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur at
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(a) 0.8 leading power factor
(b) 0.8 lagging power factor
(c) zero power factor
(d) unity power factor Ans: d
43. The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited under operating
conditions because it
(a) avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
(b) is safe to human beings
(c) protects the primary circuit
(d) none of the above Ans:
44. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in trans formers are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
45. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero
(a) on full-load
(b) on overload
(c) on leading power factor
(d) on zero power factor
46. Incandescent Lamp Flickering due to?
Voltage
47. Incandescent Lamp operating at a power factor of?
Unity
48. A synchronous motor at overexcited can be used of as?
Leading Power Factor
49. Alternator having –ve Voltage regulation when?
50. Voltage regulation of Synchronous motor is –ve for?
51. The heat loss inside a straight conductor is 60J upon applying current I for 5s. If the
resistance of the conductor is decreased to half, and the same current is applied for 5s.,
what will be the heat dissipation?
60J
30J
15J
120J
52. Braking for Induction Motor?
Regenerative braking, Plugging Braking, Dynamic Breaking
53. Which of the following braking system used for Induction Motor?
Regenerative braking, Plugging Braking, Dynamic Breaking
54. If fuse rating is 8amp. What does it mean?
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It will melt if Current increases above 8A
55. Main cause of transformer humming due to?
Vibration in Lamination
56. First line in Transmission is used for?
Ground
57. Circuit breaker is a --------------------- device?
Current Interrupting Device
58. Changing the excitation in grid having an alternator connected to it will have the effect?
Change in Reactive Component
59. If a sudden excitation happens to the alternator what will be its effect?
Power Factor Effects
60. How much is the slip for Synchronous Generators?
Zero
61. What is difference between inch and centimeter?
2.54
62. Common Breaker used in Distribution Level?
ACB- Air Circuit Breaker
63. Power Transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around?
Near Full Load
64. Minimum cross sectional area of earth continuity conductor in buildings used?
16 AWG= 1.5mm2
65. For power factor correction of power system which one is used?
Capacitor
66. High Voltage winding of Transformer has ____________ resistivity than the low
voltage side?
Equal
67. ABET stands for Accreditation Board of Engineering & technology? True or false?
68. What does the Power Factor stands for?
Cosine of the angle between Voltage and Current
69. Displacement Factor?
Cosine of the angle between Voltage and Current (same as Power
Factor)
70. Alternator connected on no load condition what affects the efficiency?
Armature Losses
71. What are the types of Losses for alternator?
Armature Losses (Core Losses-Hysteresis Loss & Eddy Current
Losses)
Friction & Windage Losses ( Bearing, Fan, rotor etc)
72. How much is the slip for Synchronous Generators?
Zero
73. If the induction motor at 50Hz, has a speed at no load 745 rpm what will be the
synchronous speed of the motor?
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N= 120F/P; =120x50/8=750, (since no load speed is 745rpm, and
frequency is 50Hz, the no. of poles shall be 8)
74. Which of the transmission voltages is not applied in Qatar Electrical Specs.?
66kV,
132kV,
220kV,
400kV
75. Ultrasound test used to determine:
Cracks,
Position of Cracks, and
Length of Cracks,
All of the above.
76. Major factor that has to be considered when designing a distribution system is?
Reliability
77. Transformer resistivity – High voltage ____________ low voltage
Equal
78. Transformer Saturation:-
High efficiency-Low no load losses
Low efficiency-Low no load losses
Low efficiency-high no load losses
High efficiency-high no load losses
79. Best type of Switchgear for distribution System:-
SF6,
CB,
OCB,
ACB
80. A 4 pole alternator runs in 750 rpm, what is the frequency?
N=120F/P; F=NP/120=750*4/120=25Hz
81. Earth Electrode shall be placed in earth pit:
Vertical,
Horizontal,
any angle
82. Which of the following is a weak power system?
a. Power system with high Short Circuit Capacity and high sensitivity to harmonics
b. Power system with high Short Circuit Capacity and Low sensitivity to harmonics
c. Power system with low Short Circuit Capacity and High sensitivity to
harmonics
d. Power system with low Short Circuit Capacity and Low sensitivity to harmonics
83. Once the transformer is saturated it’s no load current will be :
Increasing
Decreasing
No change
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Canceled
84. Harmonics in a system is mainly due to
Variable impedance load
Saturated magnetic Load
Power Electronics Load
All of the above
85. What is spinning Reserve?
The generating Capacity connected to the system (Grid) and
available to the system operator within a short interval of time to
meet demand
86. When a current I is passing through a resistance R, for a time period of t sec., then the
electrical energy generated will be:
I2Rt,
IR2t,
2IRt,
IR2/t
87. Ohms law question with choice none of the above
V/I=R,
V=IR,
I=V/R,
R=I/V
88. The best mix around an earth electrode :
Coal and Salt
89. In case of transformer saturation how the efficiency and no load current behave?
High efficiency-Low no load losses
Low efficiency-Low no load losses
Low efficiency-high no load losses
High efficiency-high no load losses
90. What is circuit breaker application?
Detect fault condition and interrupt current flow
91. Synchronous speed for motor 3000 rpm, 50Hz, calculates the number of poles?
N=120F/P; P=120F/N=120*50/3000=2nos.
92. Synchronous speed of motor is 4000rpm, rotor speed 3500rpm. Calculate slip?
S=(Ns-Nr)/Ns; (4000-3500)/4000=0.125
93. Flickering in Fluorescent Lamp is due to?
Increase in Frequency
Decrease in Frequency
Increase in Voltage
Decrease in Voltage
94. UPS is an equipment
Connected in parallel to work in normal condition
Connected in series to work in normal condition
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Connected in parallel to work in disturbance
Connected in series to work in disturbance
95. Voltage regulation of an Alternator may be ____________if connected to capacitive
load.
Negative
Positive
Zero
None of the above
96. ACSR conductor have 7 steel wires and 25 Aluminium wires can be specified as
7.25,
7/32,
25/32
7.32
97. The motor used in travelling crane is
Ward Leonard controlled DC Shunt Motor
Slip ring AC Induction Motor
AC Split Motor
DC Compound Motor
98. Number 34 in the following “N34”E is usually will be specified with
Temporary
Starting Point
Traverse
Bearing
99. Which of the following braking systems is used in Induction Motors?
Regenerative braking,
Plugging Braking,
Dynamic Breaking
All of the above
100. First line in Transmission is used for?
Ground
R-Phase
B-Phase
Neutral
101. Incandescent Lamp operating at a power factor of?
Leading
Lagging
Unity
Zero
102. Induction Motor running at synchronous speed the torque will be?
High
Low
Zero
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Full Load Torque
103. Induction Load running at stability the slip will be?
1
0
Less
high
104. How to change the power factor of a Generator?
Increase the Field Current
105. Which breaker used as the main circuit breaker of power distribution in
buildings?
ACB
VCB
OCB
SF6
106. Running along the top of transmission line is?
Ground Conductor (Wire)
107. What is the sum of the interior angles of a hexagon?
180
360
720
940
108. Value engineering has the purpose of?
Achieve the best results with least cost
109. If the Induction Motor runs at 1200rpm at 100 Hz, what will be the number of
poles?
5
8
10
12
110. Incandescent lamp flickering can be noticed in case of
a. Voltage Increasing
b. Voltage decreasing
c. Frequency Increasing
d. Frequency decreasing
111. Wire placed on top of Transmission line is?
Ground Wire
Neutral Wire
R-Phase Wire
Phase Wire
112. What will be the effect in system if we over excite a synchronous generator?
Unity Power Factor
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Lagging Power Factor
Machine will stop
113. If water to cement ratio used in a residential building higher, then what will be
the effect on the building
a. Strength will be low
b. Strength will be High
c. Pouring will be faster
d. Pouring will be slower
e. No effect
114. The starting capacitor of a single phase motor is
a. Electrolytic Type
b. Ceramic Type
c. Paper Type
d. None of the above
115. The starting torque of a capacitor start motor is
a. 0
b. Low
c. Same as rated torque
d. More than rated torque
116. Surge Voltage in a power system originate due to
a. Lightning
b. Switching Operations
c. Faults
d. Any of the above
117. Which motor is generally used for electric shavers
a. Reluctance motor
b. Shaded pole motor
c. Hysteresis motor
d. Universal motor
118. Which one of the following is not correct based on ohm’s law
a. Potential/current=Constant
b. Current / Potential=Constant
c. Current = Potential x resistant
d. Potential = Current x resistant
119. What is HRC fuse?
High Rupturing Capacity
120. What is system?
Group of elements making a function
121. A capacitor start single phase induction motor will usually have a power factor of
a. Unity
b. 0.8 leading
c. 0.6 leading
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d. 0.6 lagging
122. A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is basically a
a. AC series motor
b. DC series motor
c. 2 phase induction motor
d. 3 phase induction motor
123. The torque developed by a split phase motor is proportional to
a. Sine of the angle between Im and Is
b. Cosine of the angle between Im and Is
c. Main winding current Im
d. Auxiliary winding current Is
124. A capacitor start single phase induction motor is switched on the supply with its
capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent reactance value, it will
a. Not start
b. Start and run
c. Start and then stall
125. The number of turns in the starting winding of a capacitor start motor compared
to that for split phase motor is
a. Same
b. More than one
c. Less
126. In a split phase motor, the ratio of number of turns for starting winding to that
for running winding is
a. 2.0
b. More than 1
c. 1.0
d. Less than 1
127. A single phase motor generally used for small compressor is
a. Capacitor start capacitor run motor
b. Reluctance motor
c. Universal motor
d. Shaded pole motor
128. Out of the following motors which will give the highest starting torque?
a. Universal motor
b. Capacitor stat motor
c. Shaded pole motor
d. All have zero starting torque
129. Which of the following motors will you select for record players and tape
recorders?
a. Hysteresis motor
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b. Shaded pole motor
c. Reluctance motor
d. Two value capacitor motor
130. A universal motor is one
a. Which can run on any value of supply voltage
b. Which has infinitely varying speed
c. Which can operate on ac as well as dc voltage
d. Which can work as a single phase or 3 phase motor
131. Under normal operating conditions which motor can run at 5000rpm?
a. Synchronous motor
b. Induction motor
c. Universal motor
d. No motor can give 5000rpm
132. The motor used for household refrigerator is
a. DC series motor
b. DC shunt motor
c. Universal motor
d. Single phase induction motor
133. For operation and design of automobile factory
a. Mechanical Engineer
b. Civil Engineer
c. Chemical Engineer
d. Petroleum Engineer
134. Which of the following discipline is most suitable for doing a natural gas pipeline?
a. Mechanical Engineer
b. Petroleum Engineer
c. Chemical Engineer
d. Civil Engineer
135. Stress is defined as
a. Strain times force
b. Mass divided by Volume
c. Pressure times length
136. The best place to build an exhibition and convention Centre is?
Near Air Port
137. What is the function of barometer?
To measure atmospheric pressure
138. Uninterruptible Power System has to be connected to the network by
a. Series to feed electrical power at normal time
b. Parallel to feed electrical power at normal time
c. Series to feed electrical power at critical time
d. Parallel to feed electrical power at critical time
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139. What is the purpose of the neutral line at the 3 phase power system?
a. As a return path for normal Current
b. As a return path for normal Voltage
c. As a return path for fault Current
d. As a return path for fault Voltage
140. Final as built drawing for what purpose
a. To keep record for later maintenance
b. To give more work to architect
c. To be used for further renovation
d. --------
141. Gypsum board at residence and industrial building is used except
a. Low cost
b. Ease of installation
c. Recyclability
d. ----------
142. What is QSAS?
Qatar Sustainability Assessment System
143. Induction motor operating at frequency of 50Hz and no load speed 2900rpm.
What is the slip frequency?
S=3000-2900/3000=0.0333 so slip frequency 0.0333x50=1.67Hz
144. The compound which will be used around the earth rod is
a. SE Salt with sand
b. Carbon dust with sand
c. Metal with sand
d. Coral with sand
e. Coal and salt
145. What is good conductor in room temperature
a. Copper
b. Aluminium
c. Gold
d. Silver
146. Unit of Conductance
a. Ohm/m
b. Ohm
c. Mho/m
d. Mho
147. Synchronous motor working on lead power factor at no load?
a. Reluctance motor
b. Synchronous Condenser
c. Induction Motor
148. Incandescent lamp will work normally with best efficiency at the power factor is
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a. Unity
b. 0.5 lagging
c. 0.5 leading
d. 0.8 leading
149. What is HRC fuse?
High Rupturing Capacity
150. We have 2 resistances R1 & R2. Resistance value is 4.5Ω when connected in
series and 1Ω when connected in parallel. Find R1 & R2
a. 3Ω, 0.5Ω
b. 1.5Ω, 3Ω
c. 1.5Ω, 0.5Ω
d. 1Ω, 3Ω
151. What is engineering?
152. Who is Engineer?
153. Spinning Reserve is the
a. Generating capacity that is connected to the grid and ready to take the
load
b. Generating capacity that is available to a service but not in operation
c. Generating capacity under maintenance
154. For effective earthing which of the following mixture is preferred for filling
around the earth electrode?
a. Lime-sand mixture
b. Saw dust-sand mixture
c. Bone meal mixture
d. Coal-salt mixture
155. Increasing the current withdrawn from a battery has what effect on the battery
capacity and why?
a. Increased capacity which is caused by less internal heat loss
b. Increased capacity which is caused by less internal resistance
c. Decreased capacity which is caused by higher load voltage drop
d. Decreased capacity which is caused by increased polarization
156. Synchronous motor working on leading power factor but not driving any
mechanical load is known as
a. Universal Motor
b. Reluctance motor
c. Synchronous Condenser
157. The most economical method of starting a single phase motor is
a. Split phase method
b. Resistance start method
c. Inductance start method
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d. Capacitance start method
158. The Electrical flux passing out through a closed surface is equal to
a. The line integral of the surface
b. Zero
c. The flux density at the surface
d. The total charge enclosed by the surface.
159. Which one of the following statements does not represent ohm’s law?
a. Current / Potential difference = Constant
b. Potential difference /Current = Constant
c. Potential difference = Current x resistant
d. Current = resistant x Potential difference
160. The unit of current is _______________
a. Ampere
b. Watt
c. Volt
d. Coulomb
161. The potential difference required to pass a current of 0.2A in a wire of resistance
20Ω is
a. 100V
b. 4V
c. 0.01V
d. 40V
162. He resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2A current at 6.0V is _________
a. 0.5Ω
b. 5Ω
c. 0.2Ω
d. 2Ω
163. The unit of resistivity is ____________
a. Ohm
b. Ohm/m
c. Ohm-m
d. Mho
164. The resistance of 100Ω and zero Ω are connected in parallel; the overall
resistance will be
a. 100Ω
b. 50Ω
c. 25Ω
d. Zero Ω
165. Three resistances 2Ω, 3Ω and 4Ω are connected so that the equivalent resistance
is 9Ω. The resistors are connected ______________
a. All in series
b. All in parallel
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c. 2Ω and 3Ω in parallel and the combination in series with 4Ω
d. 2Ω and 3Ω in series and the combination in parallel with 4Ω
166.
In the figure
a. 6Ω, 3Ω and 9Ω are in series

b. 9Ω and 6Ω in parallel and the combination in series with 3Ω
c. 6Ω, 3Ω and 9Ω are in Parallel
d. 3Ω and 6Ω in parallel and the 9Ω series with
167. The resistance across AB is
a.4Ω
b.1Ω
c.2Ω
d.0.5Ω
168. When a current I is passing through a resistance R, for a time period of t sec.,
then the electrical energy generated will be:
a. I2Rt,
b. IR2t,
c. 2IRt,
d. IR2/t
169. Kilowatt-hour is the unit of __________
a. Potential difference
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b. Electrical power
c. Electrical energy
d. Charge
170. When a fuse is rated 8A, it means _____________
a. It will not work if current is less than 8A
b. It has resistance of 8Ω
c. It will work only if current is 8A
d. It will melt if current exceeds 8A
171. The device used for measuring potential difference is known as _________
a. Potentiometer
b. Ammeter
c. Galvanometer
d. Voltmeter
172. The work done in moving a unit positive charge across two points in an electric
circuit is a measure of ________________
a. Current
b. Potential difference
c. Resistance
d. Power
173. The potential at a point is 20V. The work done to bring charge 0.5C from infinity
to this position will be ______________
a. 20J
b. 10J
c. 5J
d. 40J
174. Joule/Coulomb is same as _____________
a. Watt
b. Volt
c. Ampere
d. Ohm
175. The free electrons of a metal______________
a. Do not collide with each other
b. Are free to escape through the surface
c. Are free to fall into nuclei
d. Are free to move anywhere in the metal
176. The path of free electron in metal is _____________
a. Parabolic
b. Circular
c. A straight line
d. Zig zag
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177. The heat produced in a current carrying wire in 5s is 60J if the same
current is passed through another wire of half the resistance. The heat produced
in 5s will be
a. 60J
b. 30J
c. 15J
d. 120J
178. The current in a wire _________________
a. Depends only on the applied
b. Depends only on the resistance of the wire
c. Depends both on the resistance and potential difference
d. Does not depend on the resistance and potential difference
179. When there is an electrical current passing through a wire, the particles moving
are _______________
a. Electrons
b. Protons
c. Atoms
d. Ions
180. A positive charge released from rest __________________
a. Moves towards the region of lower potential
b. Moves towards the region of higher potential
c. Moves towards the region of equal potential
d. Does not move
181. Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90Ω. The
equivalent resistance when combined in parallel will be ______________
a. 270Ω
b. 30Ω
c. 810Ω
d. 10Ω
182. A battery is used to _________________
a. Maintain a potential difference
b. Measure electric current
c. Measure electric potential
d. Safe guard against short circuit
183. Ohms law relates potential difference with ____________
a. Power
b. Energy
c. Current
d. Time
184. Which of the following is an ohmic resistor
a. Diode
b. Germanium
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c. Nichrome
d. Diamond
185. The resistivity of a wire depends on
a. Length
b. Material
c. Area of cross section
d. Length, material and area of cross section
186. For which of the following substances, resistance decreases with temperature?
a. Copper
b. Platinum
c. Mercury
d. Carbon
187. Four cells each of emf “E” are joined in parallel to form a battery. The equivalent
emf of the battery will be _______________
a. 4E
b. E
c. E/4
d. E=0
188. Two electric bulbs have resistances in the ratio 1:2. If they are joined in series,
the energy consumed in them are in the ratio _____________
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 4:1
d. 1:1
189. The equivalent resistance of 2N branches in parallel, each having resistance N/2
ohms will be
(A) 4 ohms
(B) 2 ohms
(C) 1 ohm
(D) 1 / 4 ohm.
190. When n resistances each of value r are connected in parallel, then resultant
resistance is x. When these n resistances are connected in series, total resistance is
 (A) nx
 (B) rnx
 (C) x / n
(D) n2 x.
191. Resistance of a wire is r ohms. The wire is stretched to double its length, then its
resistance in ohms is
(A) r / 2
(B) 4 r
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(C) 2 r
(D) r / 4.
192. Two bulbs marked 200 watt-250 volts and 100 watt-250 volts are joined in series
to 250 volts supply. Power consumed in circuit is
 (A) 33 watt
(B) 67 watt
(C) 100 watt
(D) 300 watt
193. Resistance across A and B in the circuit shown below is
 (A) R
 (B) 3 R
 (C) 4 R
 (D) 5 R.
194. The resistance of a 150-scale voltmeter is 12000 ohms. The power consumed by
the voltmeter when it is connected across a 125 volt circuit, will be nearly
(A) 0.0013 W
(B) 0.013 W
(C) 0.13 W
(D) 1.3 W.
195. Resistance between X1 and X2 is
 (A) 10 ohm
 (B) greater than 10 ohm
 (C) 0
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 (D) less than 10 ohm.
196. A resistor has the value of 3 kohm and the current through it is measured to be 0.3
mA. The conductance is
 (A) 30000 mho
 (B) 30 mho
 (C) 0.33 milli mho
 (D) 30 micro mho.
197. A resistor is to be connected across a 45 V battery to provide 1 mA of current. The

required resistance with a suitable wattage rating is
 (A) 45 ohm, 10 W
 (B) 4.5 ohm, 2 W
 (C) 450 kohm, 2 W
 (D) 45 kohm, 1/4 W
198. The current entering the terminal of an element is given by the equation i ( t ) =
10 t - 107t A. The total charge flowing, into the element between t = 1 s and t = 2 s
6 2
will be nearly
(A) 2.2 x 10-6C
 (B) 1.6 x 10 -6C
 (C) 0.6 x 10-8C
 (D) 0.6 x 10 -10C.
199. We have three resistances each of 1 ohm. How many different values of resistance
can be obtained by different series-parallel combinations if all the three resistances are to
remain in the circuit?
 (A) Three
 (B) Four
 (C) Five
 (D) Six.
200. The current at a given point in a certain circuit may be written as a function of time t,
as i ( t ) = -3 + t. The total charge passing a point between t = 99 and t = 102 sec will be
 (A) 112 coulombs
 (B) 242.5 coulombs
 (C) 292.5 coulombs
 (D) 345.6 coulombs.
201. A resistor has the value of 30 kohm and the current in it is measured to be 0.5 mA.
The conductance is
 (A) 15
 (B) 30000
(C) 3.33 x 10-5
 (D) 3.33 x 10-3
202. Certain substances lose their electrical resistance completely at finite low
temperatures. Such substances are called
 (A) dielectrics
 (B) super-conductors
 (C) semi-conductors
 (D) perfect conductors.
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203. In the circuit shown below, heat produced in 5 ohm resistance is 10 cal/sec. Heat
developed in 4ohm is
 (A) 1 cal/sec
 (B) 2 cal/sec
 (C) 3 cal/sec
 (D) 4 cal/sec.
204. When two alternators are running in parallel, their RKVA load share is changed by
changing their ................ while their kW load share is changed by changing their ..............
 (A) excitation, driving torque
 (B) driving torque, excitation
 (C) excitation, excitation
 (D) driving torque, driving torque
205. A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is above
 (A) 1 kW
 (B) 10 kW
 (C) 20 kW
 (D)100kW
206. In case of traveling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
 (A) AC slip ring motor
 (B) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
 (C) Synchronous motor
 (D) Single phase motor.
207. Reluctance motor is a
 (A) self-starting type synchronous motors
 (B) low torque variable speed motor
 (C) variable torque motor
 (D) low noise, slow speed motor.
208. Surge voltage originate in power systems due to
 (A) lightning
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 (B) switching operations
 (C) faults
 (D) any of the above
209. In 'plasma' state a gas
 (A) loses electrical conductivity
 (B) conducts electricity
 (C) becomes perfect insulator
 (D) attracts moisture.
210. Candela is the unit of
 (A) Luminous flux
 (B) Luminous intensity
 (C) Wavelength
 (D) None of the above.
211. One lumen per square meter is the same as
 (A) One lux
 (B) One candela
 (C) One foot candle
 (D) One lumen meter.
212. Melting temperature of tungsten is
 (A) 2000°K
 (B) 2500°K
 (C)2655°K
 (D) 3655°K.
213. Under the influence of fluorescent lamps sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery
appear to be stationary. This is due to the
 (A) fluctuations
 (B) luminescence effect
 (C) stroboscopic effect
 (D) low power factor.
214. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamp is more pronounced at
 (A) lower voltages
 (B) higher voltages
 (C) lower frequencies
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 (D) higher frequencies
215. The frequency of flickers in a fluorescent lamp at 220 V, 50 Hz supply will be
 (A) 25 per second
 (B) 50 per second
 (C) 100 per second
 (D) 220 per second.
216. If d is the distance of a surface from a source, the illumination of the surface will vary
as
 (A) d
 (B) 2d
 (C)1/d
 (D) 1/ d 2
217. A substance which changes its electrical resistance when illuminated by light is
called
 (A) photovoltaic
 (B) photoelectric
 (C) photo-conductive
 (D) none of the above.
218. Which of the following circuit breakers is preferred for EHT application
 (A) Air blast circuit breakers
 (B) Minimum oil circuit breakers
 (C) Bulk oil circuit breakers
 (D) SF6 circuit breakers.
219. In a HRC fuse the time between cut-off and final current zero, is known as
 (A) total operating time
 (B) arcing time
 (C) pre-arcing time
 (D) any of the above.
220. Fusing factor for a HRC fuse is
 (A) Minimum fusing current / Current rating
 (B) Minimum fusing current / Minimum rupturing time
 (C) Maximum fusing current / Minimum fusing current
 (D) Minimum fusing current / Prospective current of circui
221. Best protection is provided by HRC fuses in case of
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 (A) Open circuits
 (B) Short circuits
 (C) Overloads
 (D) None of the above
222. For extra high voltage lines which circuit breaker is preferred
 (A) Bulk oil circuit breaker
 (B) Vacuum circuit breaker
 (C) SF6 gas circuit breaker
 (D) Minimum oil circuit breaker.
223. The number of cycles in which a high speed circuit breaker can complete its
operation is
 (A) 3 to 8
 (B) 10 to 18
 (C) 20 to 30
 (D) 40 to 50.
224. When D is the diameter of fuse wire, the fusing current will be proportional to
 (A) 1/D
 (B) 1/D2
3/2
 (C) D
 (D) D1/2 .
225. Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is usually expressed in terms of
 (A) Amperes
 (B) Volts
 (C) MW
 (D) MVA.
226. Which of the following figure represents the voltage-current characteristics of arc in a
circuit breaker ?
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 (A) Figure A
 (B) Figure B
 (C) Figure C
 (D) Figure D.
227. HRC fuses are
 (A) High resistance and Capacitance fuses
 (B) Heat reflecting cool fuses
 (C) Holding and Resisting current fuses
 (D) High rupturing capacity fuses.
228. We have three resistances of values 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω. Which of the following
combination will give an effective resistance of 4 Ω?
 (A) All the three resistances in parallel
 (B) 2 Ω resistance in series with parallel combination of 3 Ω and 6 Ω
resistance
 (C) 3 Ω resistance in series with parallel combination of 2 Ω and 6 Ω resistance
 (D) 6 Ω resistance in series with parallel combination of 2 Ω and 3 Ω resistance
229. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of emf together dissipate
10 watts of power. What would be the power dissipated in the same resistors when they are
connected in parallel across the same source of emf?
 (A) 10 watts
 (B) 30 watts
 (C) 90 watts
 (D) 270 watts.
230. our identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant
resistance of the first combination to the second will be
 (A) 1 / 16 times
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 (B) 1 / 4 times
 (C) 4 times
 (D) 16 times.
231. Twelve wires of same length and same cross-section are connected in the form of a
cube as shown in figure below. If the resistance of each wire is R, then the effective
resistance between P and Q will be
 (A)R
 (B) 5 / 6 R
 (C) 3 / 4 R
 (D) 4 / 3 R.
232. Which of the following bulbs will have the least resistance?
 (A) 220 V, 60 W
 (B) 220 V, 100 W
 (C) 115 V, 60 W
 (D) 115 V, 100 W.
233. Three 3 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance
between any two of the corners?
 (A) 3 / 4 ohms
 (B) 3 ohms
 (C) 2 ohms
 (D) 4/3 ohm.
234. How many different combinations may be obtained with three resistors, each having
the resistance R ?
 (A) 3
 (B) 4
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 (C) 5
 (D) 6.
235. A wire of resistance R has it length and cross-section both doubled. Its resistance will
become
 (A) 4 R
 (B)2 R
 (C) R
 (D) R / 4.
236. Which of the following figures represents the effect of temperature on resistance for
copper ?
 (A) figure A
 (B) figure B
 (C) figure C
 (D) figure D.
237. Three elements having conductance G1, G2 and G3 are connected in parallel. Their
combined conductance will be
 (A) 1/( 1/G1 + 1/G2 + 1/G3)
 (B) (G1G2 + G2G3 + G3G1)/(G1 + G2 + G3)
 (C) 1/(G1 + G2+ G3)
 (D) G1 + G2 +G3
238. Least current will flow through
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 (A) 25 ohm resistor
 (B) 18 ohm resistor
 (C) 10 ohm resistor
 (D) 5 ohm resistor.
239. Three lamps are in circuit as shown in Figure given above. The lamp of 100 W will
have maximum brightness when
 (A) key k1 is closed, k2 is open and k3 is closed

 (B) k1 is open, k2 is closed and k3 is open
 (C) k1 is open, k2 is closed and k3 is also closed
 (D) k1 is closed, k2 is open and k3 is also open.
240. Four resistances R1 , R2, R3 and R4 are connected in series against 220 V supply. The
resistances are such that R1 > R2 > R3 > R4. The least power consumption will be in
 (A) resistor R1
 (B) resistor R2
 (C) resistor R3
 (D) resistor R4.
241. 100 resistors of 100 ohms each arc connected in parallel. Their equivalent
resistances will be
 (A) 10,000 ohms
 (B) 100 ohms
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 (C) 1 ohm
 (D) 1/ 10000 ohm.
242. If the length and diameter of a conductor is tripped, the resistance will increase
approximately by
 (A) 66 2/3 %
 (B) 33 1/3 %
 (C)-66 2/3 %
 (D) -33 1/3 %.
243. The unit of conductance is
 (A) per ohm
 (B) ohm/m
 (C) mho/m
 (D) mho.
244. In which of the following circuits will the voltage source produce the most current?
 (A) 10 V across a 10 ohm resistance
 (B) 10 V across two 10 ohm resistance in series
 (C) 10 V across two 10 ohm resistances in parallel
 (D) 1000 V across Mohm resistance.
245. The unit of conductivity is
 (A) mho / m
 (B) mho / sq. m
 (C) ohm / m
 (D) ohm / sq. m.
246. In which figure the relationship between voltage V and current I is in accordance with
Ohm's law ?
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 (A) Figure A
 (B) Figure B
 (C) Figure C
 (D) Figure D.
247. A fixed resistance R is connected across a DC voltage source. If the voltage is
gradually and uniformly increased, the relationship between voltage and resistance is
correctly represented in which group?
 (A) Group A
 (B) Group B
 (C) Group C
 (D) Group D.
248. A variable resistance R is connected across a source of voltage V. If the value of the
resistance R is gradually varied, the relationship between I and R will be represented by
which curve ?
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 (A) Figure A
 (B) Figure B
 (C) Figure C
 (D) Figure D.
249. For the same voltage, the ratio Resistance of 100 W lamp Resistance of 25 W lamp
is:
 (A) 1
 (B) 4
 (C)16
 (D)1 / 4.
250. The equivalent resistance at the points X1 and X2 in the circuit shown below
 (A) 60 ohm
 (B) 40ohm
 (C) 80 ohm
 (D) 20ohm.
251. A drawn wire of resistance 25 ohm is further drawn so that its diameter becomes one
fifth. Its resistance will now be
 (A) 625 ohm
 (B) 125 ohm
 (C) 25 ohm
 (D) 1 ohm.
252. A resistor has the value of 30 k ohm and the current in it is measured to be 0.5 mA.
The conductance is
 (A) 15
 (B) 30000
 (C) 3.33 x 10-5
 (D) 3.33 x 10-3
253. In electronic micro-circuits, a resistor may be fabricated from a constant-thickness
layer of semi-conductor material with conductor connections at the edges as shown in Figure
given below. If the resistor shown has resistance R, then a similar resistor 0.2 millimeter by
0.2 millimeter has a resistance of
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 (A) 4 R
 (B) 2 R
 (C) R
 (D) R / 2
254. We have three resistances each of 1 ohm. How many different values of resistance
can be obtained by different series-parallel combinations if all the three resistances are to
remain in the circuit?
 (A) Three
 (B) Four
 (C) Five
 (D) Six.
255. A resistor has the value of 3 k ohm and the current through it is measured to be 0.3
mA. The conductance is
 (A) 30000 mho
 (B) 30 mho
 (C) 0.33 milli mho
 (D) 30 micro mho.
256. Resistance between X1 and X2 is
 (A) 10 ohm
 (B) greater than 10 ohm
 (C) 0
 (D) less than 10 ohm
257. Which of the following parallel resistances will have the highest value of equivalent
resistance?
 (A) 10 kohm and 25 kohm
 (B) 1 kohm, 2 kohm and 3 kohm
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 (C) Two 500 kohm resistors
 (D) Four 40 kohm and two 10 kohm resistors.
258. In series as well as parallel circuits the equivalent (total) value of certain parameter is
given by X = X1 + X2 + X3 + X4 + ... The parameter X could be
 (A) resistance
 (B) current
 (C) voltage
 (D) power.
259. Materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much
greater than that of typical insulators, are known as
 (A) thermistors
 (B) varistors
 (C) semi-conductors
 (D) Variable resistors.
260. Match the following :
Column 1 Column 2
Copper Resistors
Salt Solution Electrolytic Conductor
Germanium Good Conductor
Ferronickel alloys Semi-Conductors
 (A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d(iv)

 (B) a-(ii), b(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
 (C) a-(iiii),b-(i), c-(ii), d-(i)
 (D) a-(iii), b-(ii) c-(iv), d-(i).
261. In the circuit shown below, the current I is
 (A)1 / 45 A
 (B)1 / 15 A
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 (C)1 / 10 A
 (D)1 / 5 A.
262. Which value of resistance P shown in the circuit will allow 1080 Watts to be
dissipated
 (A) 19.5 ohms

 (B) 14.5 ohms
 (C) 9.75 ohms
 (D) 5.55 ohms.
263. Two batteries have an open-circuit voltage of 12.8 volts each and an internal
resistance of 0.08 ohms. The short circuit current of two batteries connected in parallel will
be
 (A) 80 A
 (B) 120 A
 (C) 160 A
 (D) 320 A.
264. Resistance across A and B in the circuit shown below is
 (A) R
 (B) 3 R
 (C) 4 R
 (D) 5 R.
265. In which of the following the resistance decreases with rise in temperature ?
 (A) LDR
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 (B) NTC thermistors
 (C) Nichrome conductors
 (D) ACSR conductors.
266. The equivalent resistance of 2N branches in parallel, each having resistance N/2
ohms will be
 (A) 4 ohms
 (B) 2 ohms
 (C) 1 ohm
 (D) 1 / 4 ohm.
267. Equivalent Resistance between X and Y is
 (A)50 ohm
 (B) 75 ohm
 (C)275 ohm
268. The power factor of an alternator depends on
 (A) Load
 (B) Speed of rotor
 (C) Core losses
 (D) Armature losses.
269. The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 8 poles and rotating at
250 rpm is
 (A) 60 Hz
 (B) 50 Hz
 (C) 25 Hz
 (D) 16 2/3 Hz.
 (A) unity power factor
 (B) leading power factor
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 (C) lagging power factor
 (D) lagging to leading power factor.
271. For an alternator when the power factor of the load is unity
 (A) the armature flux will have square waveform
 (B) the armature flux will be demagnetizing
 (C) the armature flux will be cross-magnetizing
 (D) the armature flux will reduce to zero.

272. For 50 Hz system the maximum speed of an alternator can be
 (A) approximately 3600 rpm
 (B) approximately 3000 rpm
 (C) 3600 rpm
 (D) 3000 rpm

273. In order that two alternators be put in parallel, which of the following factors should
be identical for both ?
 (A) Voltage
 (B) Frequency
 (C) Phase sequence
 (D) All of the above.
274. The power output of an alternators is 100 kW. In order that the tangent of pf angle
may be 0.8 lagging, the KVAR rating must be
 (A) 80 cosφ KVAR
 (B) 80 sin φ KVAR
 (C) 80 KVAR
 (D) -80 KVAR.
275. Alternators used in aircraft systems usually have frequency of
 (A) 25 Hz
 (B) 50 Hz
 (C) 100 Hz
 (D) 400 Hz.
276. High frequency on aircraft alternators is selected in order to
 (A) free the systems from external disturbance
 (B) compensate for high speeds
 (C) compensate for high altitudes
 (D) reduce the bulk.
277. A 20 pole ac generator rotates at 600 rpm. The periodic time of current in seconds
per cycle is
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 (A) 0.009
 (B) 0.004
 (C) 0.008
 (D) 0.01.
278. Magnetization curves for no load and full load unity power factor are shown in figure
below. Which is the magnetization curve for full load 0.8 power factor ?
 (A) curve A
 (B) curve B
 (C) curve C
 (D) curve D.
279. When two alternators are running in exactly synchronism, the synchronizing power
will be
 (A) zero
 (B) sum of the output of two
 (C) unity
 (D) 0.707.
280. Load characteristic curves for an alternator are shown. The curves are drawn for 0.8
pf lagging, 0.8 p.f. leading, 0.7 p.f. leading and 0.9 p.f. lagging. Which curve represents the
characteristics for 0.8 p.f. leading?
 (A) curve A
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 (B) curve B
 (C) curve C
 (D) curve D.
281. Load characteristic curves for an alternator are shown. The curves are drawn for 0.8
pf lagging, 0.8 p.f. leading, 0.7 p.f. leading and 0.9 p.f. lagging. Which curve represents the
data for 0.9 p.f. lagging?
 (A) curve A
 (B) curve B
 (C) curve C
 (D) curve D.
282. The permissible duration for which a generator of rated frequency 50 Hz can run at
46 Hz is
 (A) zero
 (B) one cycle
 (C) one second
 (D) one minute.
283. The regulation of an alternator is likely to be negative in case of
 (A) high speed alternators
 (B) slow speed alternators
 (C) lagging power factor of the load
 (D) Leading power factor of the load.
284. A phase, 50 Hz, 6600 V, alternator is rated at 6600 kW at 0.8 power factor and a full
load efficiency of 90%. kVA is rating of the alternator is
 (A) 750 kVA
 (B) 7500 kVA
 (C) 75000 kVA
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 (D) 750000 kVA.
285. The effect of cross magnetization in an alternator field is to make the output
 (A) true sinusoidal
 (B) non-sinusoidal
 (C) harmonic free
286. In order to reduce the harmonics in the emf generated in an alternator
 (A) slots are skewed
 (B) salient pole tips are chamfered
 (C) winding is well distributed
 (D) all of the above.
287. The maximum power in a synchronous machine is obtained when the load angle is
 (A) 0°
 (B) 85°
 (C) 120°
 (D) 135°.
288. Unbalanced 3-phase stator currents cause
 (A) double frequency currents in the rotor
 (B) healing of rotor
 (C) vibrations
289. Two alternators are running in parallel. If the field of one of the alternator is adjusted,
it will
 (A) reduce its speed
 (B) change its load
 (C) change its power factor
 (D) change its frequency.
290. All of the following losses for a synchronous machine are fixed EXCEPT
 (A) Bearing friction loss
 (B) Copper loss
 (C) Windage loss
 (D) Core loss.
291. The maximum current that can be supplied by an alternator depends on
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 (A) speed of the exciter
 (B) number of poles
 (C) exciter current
 (D) Strength of the magnetic field.
292. When a generator designed for operation at 60 Hz is operated at 50 Hz
 (A) operating voltage must be derated to (50/60) of its original value
2
 (B) operating voltage must be derated to (50/60) of its original value
 (C) kVA rating can be upgraded to (60/50) of the rated value
 (D) the generator will not take any load.
293. A synchronous generator is operating with excitation adjusted for unity power factor
current at constant load. When on increasing the excitation the power factor
 (A) will lag

 (B) will lead
 (C) will become zero

294. The power factor of an alternator is obtained from its
 (A) excitation
 (B) speed
 (C) load

295. A 3-phase synchronous generator, with its armature resistance and the leakage
reactance being neglected, is synchronized to an infinite bus and its field excitation is
kept constant thereafter. Now the machine is loaded by Supplying mechanical input
to the shaft so that the load-angle δ reaches a value of 60° Under this condition, the
operating power-factor would be
 (A) 0.866 leading
 (B) 0.866 lagging
 (C) 0.5 leading
 (D) 0.5 lagging.
296. In a synchronous generator operating at zero pf lagging, the effect of armature
reaction is
 (A) magnetizing
 (B) demagnetizing
 (C) cross-magnetizing
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 (D) both magnetizing and cross-magnetizing.
297. Which of the following limit the reactive power output of a synchronous generator ?
1. Armature current
2. Field current
3. Load angle
4. Prime mover input.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes
 (A) land 2
 (B) 2 and 3
 (C) 3 and 4
 (D) land 4.
298. Which of the following is not the transmission voltage in Qatar ?
 (A) 66 kV
 (B) l32kV
 (C) 264 kV
 (D) 400 kV
299. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
 (A) it gives bad odor
 (B) it corrodes the material
 (C) it transfers energy to the ground
 (D) reduces power factor.
300. ACSR conductor implies
 (A) All conductors surface treated and realigned
 (B) Aluminum conductor steel reinforced
 (C) Anode current sinusoidally run
 (D) Anodized Core Smooth Run.
301. Total load transmitted through a 3 phase transmission line is 10,000 kW at 0.8
power factor lagging. The I2 R losses are 900 kW. The efficiency of transmission line is
 (A) 60%
 (B) 90%
 (C) 95%
 (D) 99%.
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302. In case of open circuit transmission lines the reflection coefficient is
 (A) 1
 (B) 0.5
 (C) -1
 (D) Zero.
303. The most economic voltage for transmitting given power over a known distance by
overhead transmission line is approximately
 (A) 3.6 kV/km
 (B) 1.6 kV/km
 (C) 2.6 kV/km
 (D) 3.6 kVkm.
304. The reflection coefficient for a short circuit line is
 (A) 1
 (B) Zero
 (C) 0.5
 (D) - 1.
305. A 70/6 ACSR conduction is an Aluminium conductor steel reinforced, having
 (A) cross sectional area of Aluminium as 70 mm2 and the cross-sectional area of
steel as 6 mm2
 (B) cross-sectional area of steel as 70 mm2 and the cross-sections area of
Aluminium as 6 mm2
 (C) 70 Aluminium conductors and 6 steel conductors
 (D) 80 steel conductors and 6 Aluminium conductors.
306. Which distribution system is more reliable ?
 (A) Ring main system
 (B) Tree system
 (C) Radial system
 (D) All are equally reliable.

307. A section of a single bus scheme is shown in the figure. In this figure B represents
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 (A) Isolator
 (B) Circuit breaker
 (C) Current transformer
 (D) Inductance.
308. A section of a single bus scheme is shown in the figure An isolator is represented by
 (A) A
 (B) B
 (C) C
 (D) A and D.
309. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of operations of isolator
circuit breaker and earthing switch while opening a circuit
 (A) Close earthing switch - open circuit breaker open isolator
 (B) Open isolator - close circuit breaker - open earthing switch
 (C) Open circuit breaker - open isolator - close earthing switch
 (D) Close circuit breaker - close isolator - open earthing switch.

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310. Which of the following correctly presents the sequence of operations of isolator
circuit breaker and earthing switch while closing a circuit
 (A) Ensure circuit breaker is closed - close isolator - open earthing switch
 (B) Ensure circuit breaker is open - close isolator - open earthing switch if
any close circuit breaker
 (C) Ensure circuit breaker is open - open isolator - open earthing switch if any -
close circuit breaker.

311. In a balance 3 φ , 4 wire AC system, the phase sequence is RYB. If the voltage of R
phase is. 230 < 0° V, then for Y phase
 (A) 230 < 0 V
 (B) 230 < 60° V
 (C) 230 < 90°V
 (D) 230 < 120° V.

312. A 10 MVA generator has power factor 0.866 lagging. The reactive power produced
will be
 (A) 10 MVA
 (B) 8 MVA
 (C) 5 MVA
 (D) 1.34 MVA.

313. ACSR conductor having 7 steel stands surrounded by 25 aluminum conductor will be
specified as
 (A) 7/25
 (B) 7/32
 (C) 25/7
 (D) 25/32.
314.
315. For overhead transmission line when the conductors are supported between two
supports, the variation of tension T will temperature is represented by
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 (A) Curve A
 (B) Curve B
 (C) Curve C
 (D) Curve D.

316. The shape of heat rate (HR) versus power (P) curve for a power station will be as
shown in
 (A) figure A
 (B) figure B
 (C) figure C
 (D) figure D
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317. The reflection coefficient for the voltage wave in case of overhead lines is given by
 (A) (RL - R0 )/ (RL+ R0)
 (B) (RL + R0 )/ (RL- R0)
 (C) (RL + R0 )/ (RL+ R0)
 (D) (RL R0 )/ (RL- R0)

318. System grounding is done
 (A) so that the floating potential on the lower voltage winding for a transformer is
brought down to an insignificant value
 (B) so that arcing faults to earth would not set up dangerously high voltage on
healthy phases
 (C) so that inductive interference between power and communication circuits can
be controlled
 (D) for all above reasons

319. A string efficiency of 100% implies that
 (A) shunt capacitance is 1 MF
 (B) potential across each disc is same
 (C) potential across each disc is zero
 (D) one of the insulator disc is shorted.

320. Which section can lie used for bus bar ?
 (A) bars
 (B) rods
 (C) tubes

321. The mean value of half wave rectified sine wave is
 (A) 0.707 im
 (B) 0.66 im
 (C) 0.5 im
 (D) 0.318 im.

322. The form factor for half wave rectified sine wave is
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 (A) 1.0
 (B) 1.11
 (C) 1.44
 (D) 1.57.

323. For full-wave rectified sine wave, rms value is
 (A) 0.707 im
 (B) 0.6036 im
 (C)0.5 im
 (D) 0.318 im .

324. For full-wave rectified sine wave, mean value is
 (A) 0.70 im
 (B) 0.636 im
 (C) 0.5 im
 (D) 0.318 lm.

325. For full-wave rectified sine wave, form factor is
 (A) 1.5
 (B) 1.41
 (C) 1.28
 (D) 1.11.

326. The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit compared to that of a half wave rectifier
circuit without filter is
 (A) half of that for a half 'wave rectifier
 (B) less than half that for a half-wave rectifier circuit
 (C) equal to that of a half wave rectifier.
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327. A silicon controlled rectifier is a
 (A) Unijunction device
 (B) Device with three junction
 (C) Device with four junctions

328. The RMS value of a half wave rectifier current is 10 A. Its value for full wave
rectification would be
 (A) 10 A
 (B) 14.14 A
 (C) (20/π) A
 (D) 20 A.

329. For single phase supply frequency of 50 Hz, ripple frequency in full wave rectifier is
 (A) 25
 (B) 50
 (C)100
 (D) 200.

330. For a waveform more peaky than a sine wave, the form factor will be
 (A) more than 1.11
 (B) less than 1.11
 (C) 1.11
 (D) 1.

331. Peak inverse voltage for a diode is the
 (A) voltage corresponding to rated maximum voltage
 (B) maximum voltage that can be applied across the diode in the conducting
direction
 (C) maximum voltage that can be applied across the diode in the non-
conducting direction

332. When voltage applied to a diode is more than PIV, it is likely to result in
 (A) More distortion on output side
 (B) Poor regulation
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 (C) Conduction in both direction
 (D) Breakdown at the junction.
333. PIV of a diode is usually
 (A) Half the dc voltage
 (B) Same as dc voltage
 (C) Twice the dc output voltage
 (D) Hundred times the dc output voltage.
334. The most commonly used connection for joining the six secondaries of a transformer
used for 3 phase to 6 phase conversion is
 (A) Diametrical
 (B) Zig-Zag
 (C) Double delta
 (D) Double star.
335. A rectifier is a
 (A) Bilateral device
 (B) Linear device
 (C) Non-linear device
 (D) Passive device.
336. Ripple frequency of full wave rectifier working on 50 Hz supply will be
 (A) 25 Hz
 (B) 50 Hz
 (C) 6 anode rectifier with inter phase transformer
 (D) All will have identical power factor.
337. The rms value of half wave-rectified sine wave with im as peak value is
 (A) 0.707 im
 (B) 0.66 im
 (C) 0.5 im
 (D) 0.318 im.
338. thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is a
 (A) Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)
 (B)Triac
 (C) Diac
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339. Which of the following is known as metal rectifier
 (A) Selenium disc rectifier
 (B) Copper oxide rectifier
 (C) Gas tube diode
340. The advantage of motor generator set is
 (A) dc output voltage is practically constants
 (B) dc output can be controlled by adjusting shunt field regulator
 (C) unit is self-starting
341. Which motor is used in tramways
 (A) AC single phase capacitor start motor
 (B) AC three phase motor
 (C) DC series motor
 (D) DC shunt motor.

342. A drive suitable for mines where explosive gas exist, is
 (A) Diesel engine
 (B) Steam engine
 (C) Battery locomotive
 (D) Any of the above.
343. The advantage of electric braking is
 (A) it is instantaneous
 (B) more heat is generated during braking
 (C) it avoids wear of track
 (D) motor continue to remain loaded during braking.
344. Which braking system on the locomotives is costly
 (A) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
 (B) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives
 (C) Regenerative breaking on electric locomotives
 (D) All breaking systems are equally costly.
345. For supply on 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase, suitable motor for electric traction is
 (A) ac single phase split phase motor
 (B) ac single phase universal motor
 (C) dc shunt motor
 (D) dc series motor
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346. Method of speed control used on 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase traction is
 (A) Tap changing control of transformer
 (B) Reduced current method
 (C) Series parallel operation of motors
347. When the speed of the train is estimated taking into account the time of stop at a
station in addition to the actual running time between stops, is known as
 (A) Average speed
 (B) Schedule speed
 (C) Notching speed
 (D) Free running speed.
348. A schedule speed of 45 km, per hour is required between two stops 1.5 km apart.
The duration of stop is 20 seconds. The acceleration is 2.4 km phps and retardation is 3.2
km phps. For a simplified trapezoidal curve the maximum speed over the mil will be
 (A) 40 km per hour
 (B) 48 km per hour
 (C) 74 km per hour
 (D) 90 km per hour.
349. The specific energy consumption for suburban services is usually
 (A) 18 to 25 watt-hours per tonne km
 (B) 50 to 75 watt-hours per tonne km
 (C) 125 to 150 watt-hours per tonne km
 (D) 155 to 200 watt-hours per tonne km.
350. Specific energy consumption is least in
 (A) urban service
 (B) sub-urban service
 (C) main-line service
 (D) equal for all types of services.
351. A train has a schedule speed of 36 km per hour on a level track. If the distance
between the stations is 2 km and the stoppage is 30 seconds the actual time of run will be
 (A) 260 seconds
 (B) 230 seconds
 (C) 200 seconds
 (D) 170 seconds.
352. The speed time curve for a local train is shown in Figure. In this AB represents
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 (A) Coasting
 (B) Acceleration
 (C) Braking
 (D) Regeneration.
353. The percentage of silicon in transformer stampings is usually limited to
 (A) 0.4%
 (B) 1.4%
 (C) 4%
 (D) 14%.
354. Which variety of copper is used for overhead conductors ?
 (A) Hard drawn copper
 (B) Native copper
 (C) Annealed copper
 (D) Purest form of copper.
355. Annealed copper is used in
 (A) low voltage cables
 (B) flexible wires
 (C) machine windings
 (D) all of the above
356. A ACSR conductor has central core of steel surrounded by a bunch of Aluminium
wires. In such conductors
 (A) Current flows through Aluminium conductors only
 (B) Current flows through steel wire only
 (C) Current flows through both steel as well as Aluminium conductors
 (D) Majority of current flows through Aluminium and negligible amount flows
through steel.
357. Which property of copper enables it to be drawn into thin wires and sheets ?
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 (A) Ductility
 (B) Elasticity
 (C) Toughness
 (D) Tenacity.
358. Hysteresis loss varies with frequency (f) as
 (A) f
 (B) f 1.6
 (C) f 2
 (D) f 2.6
359. Hysteresis loss varies with maximum flux density (B) as
 (A) B
(B) B1.6
 (C) B2
 (D) B2.6.
360. Magnetostriction
 (A) grain oriented magnetic properties
 (B) represents the upper limit to which magnetic properties can be induced
 (C) change in dimensions resulting from magnetization of ferromagnetic
materials
361. Dielectric strength of PVC is around
 (A) 5 kV/mm
 (B) 10 kV/mm
 (C) 15 kV/mm
 (D) 30 kV/ mm.
362. When I is the current in amperes, the temperature rise at which fuse wire will melt is
proportional to
 (A) I
 (B) I 2
 (C) 1/ I
 (D) 1/ I2
363. The fusing current depends on
 (A) diameter of fuse wire
 (B) number of strands of wire
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 (C) length of the fuse wire
364. When V is the voltage applied across the insulation, the dielectric loss for an
insulating material will be proportional to
 (A) V
 (B) V2
 (C) 1/ V
 (D) 1/ V2
365. Open circuit test on a transformer is conducted to obtain
 (A) the leakage impedances
 (B) the ohmic loss
 (C) hysteresis loss only
 (D) core loss only
 (E) eddy current loss only.
366. While considering hysteresis loss in a transformer, under which of the following the
loss will not increase?
 (A) when flux density is increased by 10%
 (B) when thickness of lamination is caused by 10%
 (C) when frequency is increased by 10%
 (D) when both thickness and frequency are increased by 10
367. The force exerted by a lifting magnet varies with distance (D) as
 (A) D
 (B) D2
 (C) 1/D
 (D) 1/D2
368. The force-stroke curve for a lifting magnet will be of the shape shown in
 (A) figure A
 (B) figure B
 (C) figure C
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 (D) figure D.
369. When B is the flux density ; A is the area of the working gap and μ is the
permeability, the force exerted by the attractive type magnets is given by
 (A) μA / 2B
 (B μ B / A2
 (C) A2B1/ 2μ
 (D) B A2/ 2μ
370. Transformer-core laminations are made of
 (A) cast iron
 (B) wrought iron
 (C) silicon steel
 (D) cast steel.
371. The harmonics in rotating machines are generated due to
 (A) non-sinusoidal field form
 (B) slotting of the stator core
 (C) both (A) and (B) above
372. The effect of harmonics in rotating machines can be minimized by
 (A) use of longer air gap
 (B) skewing the poles
 (C) use of distributed winding
373. Which of the following measure will not help in reducing the effect of harmonics ?
 (A) connecting 3 phase winding in star or delta without neutral
 (B) use of short pitch coils or fractional slot windings
 (C) chamfering the pole shoes of salient pole machines
 (D) reducing the number of slots per pole per phase.
374. Transformer action requires a
 (A) constant magnetic flux
 (B) increasing magnetic flux
 (C) alternating magnetic flux
 (D) alternating electric flux.
375. Which component of the no load current of the transformer is opposite in phase to
the induced emf ?
 (A) magnetizing component
 (B) core loss component
 (C) both (A) and (B) above
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376. In transformers, the cylindrical winding with rectangular conductors is generally used
for
 (A) low voltage winding
 (B) high voltage winding
 (C) tertiary voltage winding
377. For transformer laminations
 (A) hot rolled silicon steel is preferred
 (B) cold rolled silicon steel is preferred
 (C) grain oriented silicon steel is preferred
 (D) any of the above steel can be used.
378. The percentage of silicon in the core steel is
 (A) 1 to 2 percent
 (B) 2 to 3 percent
 (C) 4 to 6 percent
 (D) 8 to 10 percent.
379. Which of the following is the least desired property in magnetic materials for electrical
engineering applications?
 (A) High magnetic permeability
 (B) High electrical resistivity
 (C) Large hysteresis loop
380. Which of the following is a paramagnetic material?

 (A) Palladium
 (B) Lead
 (C) Pure iron
 (D) All of the above
381. By adding silicon to ferromagnetic , materials

 (A) electrical resistivity increases and also magnetic permeability increases
 (B) electrical resistivity decreases and also magnetic permeability increases
 (C) electrical resistivity decreases and magnetic permeability increases
 (D) electrical resistivity increases and magnetic permeability decreases.
382. Which of the following is the characteristic of ceramic insulators?

 (A) These are hard, strong and dense
 (B) These are stable at high temperatures
 (C) These are unaffected by commercial acids and alkalies
383. When δ is the dielectric loss angle, the value of tan δ increases with
 (A) decrease in temperature
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 (B) presence of moisture
 (C) voltage
384. Silicon steel E330 indicates that

 (A) it has 33% silicon
 (B) it has normal specific loss at 50 Hz
 (C) it is cold rolled grain oriented
385. In silicon steel designation like E320 the first figure 3 indicates
 (A) the percentage of silicon
 (B) the specific loss at 50 Hz
 (C) the specific lose at 100 Hz
 (D) the grain oriented cold rolled variety.
386. In silicon steel designation like E320 , the second figure 2 represent
 (A) specific loss
 (B) direction of grain orientation
 (C) magnetic variety
 (D) non-magnetic variety
387. Iron losses of a machine are

 (A) directly proportional to flux density
 (B) directly proportional to the square of flux density
 (C) inversely proportional to flux density
 (D) inversely proportional to the square of flux density.
388. The shaft of electric motors is generally made of

 (A) mild steel
 (B) cast iron
 (C) copper
 (D) Aluminium alloy.
389. The shaft of electric motors is generally supported in

 (A) magnetic bearings
 (B) bush bearings
 (C) ball or roller bearings
 (D) cast iron bearings.
390. When commutation is obtained by increasing the current density at the leading edge
and decreasing the same at trailing edge, it is known as
 (A) under commutation
 (B) over commutation
 (C) straight commutation
 (D) sinusoidal commutation.
391. Skewing of rotor slots helps in

 (A) improving beat transfer
 (B) reducing noise
 (C) suppressing undesirable harmonics
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392. In dc machines the number of poles is generally decided by
 (A) frequency of flux reversals
 (B) weight of iron parts
 (C) weight of copper
393. In dc machines by increasing the number of poles, all of the following reduce except:
 (A) weight of copper
 (B) weight of iron parts
 (C) frequency of flux reversals
 (D) overall size of the machine.
394. In static transformers mechanical forces are produced due to

 (A) vibrations
 (B) gap between laminations
 (C) interaction of current flowing in the conductor and leakage flux around
it.
395. The thickness of laminations of the core of a power transformer usually

 (A) 0.003 to 0.05 mm
 (B) 0.03 to 0.05 mm
 (C) 0.03 to 0.5 mm
 (D) 3 to 5 mm.
396. Transformer action requires a

 (A) short circuiting
 (B) increasing resistivity
 (C) reducing resistivity
397. In an oil filled transformer, oil is provided for

 (A) Cooling
 (B) Insulation
 (C) Lubricating
 (D) Both cooling and insulation
 (E) Preventing accumulation of dust.
Questions 355-359
The various losses of a 60 HP, 220 V 850 rpm dc motor are as follows: - Copper losses 3.2 kW, core
losses 0.8 kW, mechanical losses 0.1 kW. Now let us consider another dc machine otherwise similar
to this machine but having its linear dimensions 1.5 times. Then
398. The copper losses of new machine will be

 (A) 1.5 x 3.2 kW
 (B) (1.5)2 x 3.2 kW
 (C) (1.5 )3 x 3.2 kW
 (D) 1/(1.5)2 x3.2 kW
399. The iron losses of new machine will be

 (A) (1.5) x 0.8 kW
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 (B) (1.5)2 x 0.8 kW
(C) (1.5)4 x 0.8 kW
 (D) (1.5)5x 0.8 k
400. The mechanical losses will be
 (A) 1.5 x 0.1 kW
 (B) (1.5)2 x 0.1 kW
 (C) (1.5)3 x 0.1 kW
 (D) 1/ (1.5)2 x 0.1 kW
401. The rating of the new machine will be
 (A) 1.5 x 60 HP
 (B) (1.5)2 x60 HP
 (C) (1,5)3 x 60 HP
 (D) (1.5)4 x 60 HP.
402. The efficiency of the new machine will be
 (A) 88.8%
 (B) 91.7%
 (C) 94.5%
 (D) 96.7%.
403. Tap changing facility is generally provided on
 (A) high voltage transformers
 (B) distribution transformers
 (C) current transformers
 (D) step up transformers
404. In case of air natural cooling, the cooling surface increases as the __________ of the
size
 (A) inverse
 (B) inverse square
 (C) square
 (D) cube.
405. In case of air natural cooling the losses increase as the __________ of the size
 (A) inverse
 (B) inverse square
 (C) square
 (D) cube.
406. The heat generated in the transformer is dissipated to the surroundings mainly by
 (A) conduction
 (B) convection
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 (C) radiation
407. The heat transfer by convection least depends on

 (A) temperature difference
 (B) air velocity
 (C) surface area
 (D) color of the paint.
408. Oil for transformer cooling should have low

 (A) dielectric strength
 (B) viscosity
 (C) flash point.
409. Oil for transformer cooling should have high

 (A) flash point
 (B) viscosity
 (C) sludging tendencies
 (D) moisture content.
410. The oil selected for transformer cooling should be free from
 (A) alkalies
 (B) acids
 (C) sulphur
411. Normally for the design of transformer the ambient temperature is taken as
 (A) 20°C
 (B) 25°C
 (C) 45°C
 (D) 75°C.
412. A transformer is designed for certain ambient temperature. If it actually operates at a

temperature 10°C above the design temperature its kVA rating should be
 (A) increased by 10%
 (B) reduced by 5%
 (C) reduced by 10%
 (D) reduced by 20%.
413. The overload capacity of a transformer depends on

 (A) ratio of full load copper losses to its iron losses
 (B) size of the core
 (C) frequency
414. Which surge will be most damaging for a transformer ?

 (A) steeper front flatter tail
 (B) flatter front steeper tail
 (C) uniform
 (D) all will be equally damaging.
415. A transformer is considered to have a network of series capacitance due to

 (A) inter-turn insulation
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 (B) earthing
 (C) laminated core
 (D) surrounding tanks.
416. In a transformer the shunt capacitance is decreased and series capacitance is

increased by the use of
 (A) shielded windings
 (B) inter-leaved winding
 (C) layer type winding
417. An air core transformer as compared to iron-core transformer has

 (A) Less magnetic core loss
 (B) More magnetic core loss
 (C) No magnetic core loss
 (D) Less ohmic loss.
418. In case of thyrite the resistance is

 (A) inversely proportional to the applied voltage
 (B) directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage
 (C) directly proportional to the cube of the applied voltage
419. The 'hum' in a transformer is due to

 (A) vibrations in cooling oil
 (B) vibration in laminations
 (C) sinusoidal voltage waveform
420. Which test is conducted on transformers to check its ability to withstand the transient
voltages due to lightening etc.?
 (A) Induced over voltage test
 (B) Partial discharge test
 (C) Impulse test
421. The density of transformer oil is around

 (A)1.2gm / cc
 (B) 1.0 gm/cc
 (C) 0.95 gm/cc
 (D) 0.80 gm/cc.
422. The flash point of transformer oil is usually

 (A) 50°C
 (B) 75°C
 (C) 160°C
 (D) 150°C.
423. The maximum permissible water content in transformer oil is

 (A) zero
 (B) 10 ppm
 (C) 25 ppm
 (D) 50 ppm
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424. The kinetic viscosity of transformer oil should be
 (A) 5 cst
 (B) 2.5 cst
 (C) 50 cst
 (D) 125 cst.
425. The maximum pour point of transformer oil should be

 (A)10°C
 (B) 0°C
 (C) 4°C
 (D) 14.4°C.
426. The dielectric strength of transformer oil' should not be less than
 (A)10kV
 (B) 20 kV
 (C) 30 kV
 (D) 50 kV.
427. The specific resistance of the transformer oil is of the order of

 (A) 104 ohms cm
 (B) 106 ohms cm
 (C) 1012 ohms cm
 (D) 1024 ohms cm.
428. Phase spread in ac machines is almost always

 (A) 90°
 (B) 60°
 (C)120°
 (D) 50°
429. The electric motor provided on refrigerators is usually

 (A) open type
 (B) protected type
 (C) screen protected type
 (D) totally enclosed type.
430. Flame proof motors are used in

 (A) explosive atmosphere
 (B) moisture free atmosphere
 (C) dust free atmosphere
 (D) moisture and dust free atmosphere.
431. Which of the following machine is invariably provided with forced ventilation ?
 (A) Fractional horse power slow speed motor
 (B) Fractional horse power high speed motor
 (C) Hermetically sealed motor of refrigerator
 (D) 50 MW generator in a power plant.
432. Since hydrogen is 14 times lighter than air its use as cooling medium is mainly to
 (A) reduces noise
 (B) reduces windage losses
 (C) increase maintenance
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433. If the fault current is 2000 A, the relay setting is 50% and CT ratio is 400 : 5, then
plug setting multiplier will be
 10.
 15.
 25.
 50.
The current transformer ratio is 400 / 5. So, the CT can be provided a rated current of 5
Amps to the relay coil. Thereby the rated relay current is 5 Amps. If the relay setting is 50%,
then the relay can be operated for 5 × ( 50 / 100 ) = 2.5 Amps. This is the pick-up current
of that relay. We know that the fault current is 2000 Amps. Hence, the fault current in the
secondary of the CT is 5 × ( 2000 / 400) = 25 Amps. Hence, the plug setting multiplier = 25
/ 2.5 = 10. That means the fault current in the secondary of the CT is ten times greater than
the operating current of relay coil.
434. A transmission line has a reactance of 1 Pu is operating at Vs = Vr = 1 Pu. The

generator is connected at source end which is delivering 0.5 Pu of active power. Find the
load angle?
 35°
 30°
 45°
 60°
Vs = sending end voltage Vr = receiving end voltage P = 0.5 pu δ = load angle
435. Under excited Synchronous phase modifier works as

 shunt capacitor
 series capacitor
 shunt reactor
 any of the above
Synchronous phase modifier is basically a synchronous motor operating under no load and
by adjusting the excitation it is used for controlling reactive power, so that power factor and
voltage are controlled.
If synchronous phase modifier is used under over excitation it works similar to a shunt
capacitor delivering reactive power and absorbing leading reactive power.
If synchronous phase modifier is used as under excitation it works similar to shunt reactor
which absorbs lagging reactive power and delivers leading reactive power. This is used for
Ferranti effect.
436. Four identical alternators each are rated for 20 MVA, 11 KV having a subtransient
reactance of 16% are working in parallel. The short circuit level at the busbar is
 500 MVA
 400 MVA
 125 MVA
 100 MVA
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437. ACSR means
 Aluminium conductor steel reinforced
 Aluminium core steel reinforced
 Aluminium copper steel reinforced
 all conductor steel reinforced
ACSR means Aluminium Core Steel Reinforced. The inner layer is done by Steel. The outer
layer is done by the Aluminium. Steel provides the additional mechanical strength.
438. Condition for maximum voltage regulation
 tanφ = X/R
 tanφ = R/X
 cosφ = X/R
 cosφ = R/X

439. Condition for zero voltage regulation is
 tanφ = X/R
 tanφ = R/X
 cosφ = X/R
 cosφ = R/X

440. Zero voltage regulation is possible only for

 lagging power factor
 leading power factor
 unity power factor
 all of the above
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
 Therefore, zero voltage regulation is possible only for leading power factor .
441. A 1-phase transmission line has an impedance (3+4j) Ω . Find the power factor of the
load for achieving maximum and zero voltage regulation?
 0.6 lag and 0.6 lead

442. A transmission line has an impedance of (2+j6) Ω has voltage regulation of 10% at a
load power factor of 0.8 lag. Find the voltage regulation for a load of 0.6 lead
 6.92%
 10%
 -6.92%
 -10%
443. ․ Find the surge impedance of a line when inductance is 160 mH and capacitance is
1µF?
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 200 Ω
 400 Ω
 160 Ω
 800 Ω
 Characteristic impedance Zc = V(x)/I(x) = √(Z/Y) = √(R + jωL)/(G + jωC)

 For loss less line. R = G = 0
 Surge impedance Zs = √(L/C)
 Zs = √((160 * 10^-3)/(1*10^-6))
 Zs = 400 Ω
444. Reflection coefficient of voltage is Rv

 2Zs/(Zs + Zl)
 2Zl/(Zs + Zl)
 (Zs - Zl)/(Zs + Zl)
 (Zl - Zs)/(Zs + Zl)
 Transmitted voltage V" = V + V' Transmitted current I" = I + I' Where,
V' = Reflected voltage V = Incident voltage I' = Reflected current I =
Incident current Transmission or reflection coefficient of voltage Tv =
V"/V Transmission or reflection coefficient of current Ti = I"/I I" =
V"/Zl, I = V/Zs, I' = -V'/Zs V"/Zl = V/Zs - V'/Zs V' = V" - V Therefore, Tv =
V"/V = 2Zl/(Zl + Zs) Tv = V"/V = 2Zl/(Zl+Zs) Reflection coefficient of
voltage is Rv = Tv - 1 Rv = (Zl - Zs)/(Zs + Zl)
445. A 3-phase, 110 kV coaxial XLPE insulated power cable delivering power at 50 Hz,
has a capacitance of 125 nF/km. If the dielectric loss tangent of XLPE is 2*10^-4, then
dielcetric power loss in this cable in W/km/phase is
 23.9
 38.6
 35.45
 31.7
 tanδ = dielectric loss tangent Vph = phase voltage C = capacitance
446. A cable has the following characteristics, L = 0.201 µH/m and C = 196.2 pF/m. The
velocity of wave propagation through cable is
 32 m/s
 159.24 m/s
 0.0312 m/s
 159.24 m/µs
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
 Where, L = inductance of the line C = capacitance of the line
447. A power generating station has a plant capacity of 200 MW and maximum power
demand is 150 MW. If average power generation is 110 MW, then find the load factor and
capacity factor respectively?
 0.55 and 0.733
 0.733 and 0.55
 0.733 and 0.65
 0.65 and 0.55

448. A thermal generating station has an installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a daily
load of 10 MW for 12 hours and 5 MW for remaining 12 hours. The plant capacity factor for
the station is
1
 0.75
 0.6
 0.5
 Plant capacity factor (Pcf) is defined as the ratio of average power to the plant
capacity. Pcf = Average power/ Plant capacity Pcf = Energy produced by the plant/
(Energy that can be able to produce as per plant capacity during total hours)
449. A thermal generating station has an installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a daily
load of 10 MW for 12 hours and 5 MW for remaining 12 hours. If the load factor is 0.8. Find
the reserve capacity of the station?
 5 MW
 9 MW
 10 MW
 18 MW
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450. The maximum demand of a consumer is 2 kW and corresponding daily energy
consumption is 30 units. What is the corresponding load factor?
 25%
 50.5%
 62.5%
 75%
 From given data,
 30 units = 30 kWh
451. A power generating station has a maximum demand of 1000 MW. The annual load
factor is 75% and plant capacity factor is 60%. Calculate the reserve capacity?
 1250 MW
 750 MW
 250 MW
 500 MW

452. A generator has a rating of 10 MVA, 5 kV has a reactance of 0.02 pu. Find the
reactance at a new base values of 50 MVA, 10 kV?
 0.02
 0.025
 0.05
 0.25
 Zpu = ZΩ* (MVA)b/(KV)²b Where, Zpu = Per unit impedance ZΩ =
Impedance in Ω (MVA)b = Base MVA (KV)b = Base voltage Zpun = Zpuo *
(MVA)bn/(MVA)bo * (KV)²bo/(KV)²bn Here, "n" represents the new values
"o" represents the old values Zpun = 0.02 * 50/10 * 5²/10² = 0.025
453. A 10 MVA generator has reactance of 0.2 pu. Find the new reactance value for 50
MVA base?
 5 pu
 0.2 pu
 0.25 pu
 1 pu
 Zpun = Zpuo * (MVA)bn/(MVA)bo Where, Zpu = Per unit impedance ZΩ =
Impedance in Ω (MVA)b = Base MVA (KV)b = Base voltage Here, "n"
represents the new values "o" represents the old values Zpun = 0.2 *
50/10 = 1 pu
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454. The voltage and current instantaneous values are given as 5 sin (ωt + 30°) pu and 2
sin (ωt - 15°) pu respectively. Find the per unit active power?
 5 pu
 3.535 pu
 5.353 pu
 7 pu
 The voltage and current instantaneous values are given as
 V = Vm sin (ωt + θ1) pu I = Im sin (ωt + θ2) pu
 Apparent power in pu (Spu) = (Vm *Im )/2
 Active power in pu (Ppu) = (Vm *Im )/2*cos (θ1-θ2)
 Reactive power (Qpu) = (Vm *Im )/2*sin (θ1-θ2)
 From given data, Active power in pu
 (Ppu) = 5*2/2 * cos (30+15) = 3.535 pu
455. The per unit impedance Z(pu) is given by

 ZΩ* (kVA)b/(KV)²b
 ZΩ* (MVA)b/((KV)²b *100)
 ZΩ* (MVA)b*100/(KV)²b
 ZΩ* (MVA)b/(KV)²b
 Zpu = ZΩ* (MVA)b/(KV)²b
 Where,
 Zpu = Per unit impedance
 ZΩ = Impedance in Ω
 (MVA)b = Base MVA
 (KV)b = Base voltage
456. The per unit impedance of a circuit element is 0.30. If the base kV and base MVA are
halved, then the new value of the per unit impedance of the circuit element will be
 0.30
 0.30
 0.0030
 0.0060
 Zpu = ZΩ* (MVA)b/(KV)²b Where, Zpu = Per unit impedance ZΩ = Impedance in Ω
(MVA)b = Base MVA (KV)b = Base voltage Zpun = Zpuo * (MVA)bn/(MVA)bo *
(KV)²bo/(KV)²bn Here, "n" represents the new values "o" represents the old values
Zpun = 0.30* 1/2 *4 = 0.60 pu
457. The per unit value of a 2 ohm resistor at 100 MVA and 10 kV base voltage is
 4 pu
 2 pu
 0.5 pu
 0.2 pu
 Zpu = ZΩ* (MVA)b/(KV)²b Where, Zpu = Per unit impedance ZΩ =
Impedance in Ω (MVA)b = Base MVA (KV)b = Base voltage Zpu = 2 *
100/10² = 2 pu
Page 72 of 81
458. If in a line, resistance and reactance are found to be equal and regulation is zero,
then load will have
 unity power factor
 zero power factor
 0.707 leading power factor
 0.707 lagging power factor
 Voltage regulation= (Vs - Vr)/Vr = Ir(R cosφ ± X sinφ)/Vr
 For lagging load: Voltage regulation = Ir(R cosφ + X sinφ)/Vr
 For leading load: Voltage regulation = Ir(R cosφ - X sinφ)/Vr
 For unity load power factor: Voltage regulation = Ir(R cosφ)/Vr
Therefore, zero voltage regulation is possible only for leading power
factor. From given data Cosφ = X/Z = 1/√2 = 0.707 leading
459. Three generators rated 100 MVA, 11 kV have an impedance of 0.15 pu each. If in
the same plant, these generators are being replaced by a single equivalent generator, the
effective impedance of equivalent generator will be
 0.15 pu
 0.45 pu
 0.05 pu
 0.25 pu
 Given impedance value = 0.15 pu When three generators are replaced
by a single generator, their impedance are connected parallelly. So,
their equivalent impedance will be one-third of each impedance. New
impedance = 0.15/3 = 0.05 pu
460. For symmetrical network, the neutral current is
 zero
 infinity
 maximum
 any of the above
 For a symmetrical network only the positive sequence component are
present. Neutral current IN = IR + IY + IB Where IR, IY and IB are currents
passing through three phases. Neutral current IN = 3 IR0 For
symmetrical network IR1 ≠ 0 IR2 = IR0 = 0
 Therefore, neutral current IN = 0 for symmetrical network.
461. The line currents of 3-phase supply are: IR = 3 + j 5 A IY =2 + j 2 A IB = -2 - j 1 A The

zero sequence current will be
1+j2A
5+j7A
1+j4A
 -2 - j 1 A
Page 73 of 81

462. In a 3-phase, 5 kV, 5 MVA system, what is the base impedance?
 5 ohms
 500 ohms
 0.5 ohm
 50 ohms
463. An over current relay, having a current setting of 125% connected to a supply circuit
through a current transformer of ratio 400/5. The pick up value is
 15 A
 10 A
 6.25 A
 12.5 A
 Relay pick up current = % current setting * current transformer
secondary current Relay pick up current = 1.25*5 = 6.25 A
464. An over current relay, having a current setting of 125% connected to a supply circuit
through a current transformer of ratio 500/5. The plug setting multiplier for a fault current of 5
kA is
6
5
2
8
 Plug setting multiplier = Fault current/(Pick up current * CT ratio)
Relay pick up current = % current setting * current transformer
secondary current = 1.25*5 = 6.25 A Plug setting multiplier =
5*1000/(6.25*500/5) = 8
465. a 50 Hz, 3-phase synchronous generator has inductance per phase of 15 mH. The
capacitance of the generator and circuit breaker is 0.002 µF. What is its natural frequency?
 29 MHz
 29 kHz
 290 kHz
 2.9 kHz
 Natural frequency f = 1/(2π*√(LC)) f
 = 1/(2π*√(15*10-3*0.002*10-6)) f = 29 kHz
Page 74 of 81
466. A fuse wire of circular cross-section has a radius of 0.8 mm. The wire blows off at an
current of 8 Amp. Calculate the radius of wire that will blow off at an current of 1 amp?
 0.2 mm.
 0.4 mm.
 4 mm.
 2 mm.
467. MCB stands for

 miniature circuit breaker.
 minimum capacity breaker.
 molded circuit breaker.
 maximum capacity breaker.
 MCB is miniature circuit breaker. Miniature circuit breaker
construction is very simple, robust and maintenance free. Generally
an MCB is not repaired or maintained, it just replaced by new one
when required.
468. A 3-phase breaker is rated at 2000 MVA, 33 kV, its making current will be
 35 kVA.
 49 kVA.
 70 kVA.
 89.22 kVA.

469. Which of the following figure represents the voltage-current characteristics of arc in a
circuit breaker?
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 (A) Figure A
 (B) Figure B
 (C) Figure C
 (D) Figure D.
470.
 A. 18 Sin ωt
 B. 06 Sin ωt
 C. 04 Sin ωt
 D. 08 Sin ωt
471. Match the following:
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 a - (i), b -(ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)
 (B) a - (ii). b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
 (C) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii)
 (D) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i).
472. Match the following :
Material used in circuit breaker Application
(a) Poly tetra (i) Bearing surfaces fluoro-ethylene and sliding parts
(b) SF6 gas (ii) Insulating medium
(c) Electrolytic (iii) Main contacts copper
(d) Dielectric oil (iv) Quenching medium
 (A) a- (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)

 (B) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (iv)
 (C) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv)
 (D) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i).
473. In an alternator, voltage drops occurs in
 (A) armature resistance only
 (B) armature resistance and leakage reactance
 (C) armature resistance, leakage reactance and armature reaction
 (D) armature resistance, leakage reactance, armature reaction and earth
connections
474. The magnitude of various voltage drops that occur in an alternator, depends on
 (A) power factor of the load
 (B) load current
 (C) power factor x load current
 (D) Power factor x (load current)2.
475. In an alternator, at lagging power factor, the generated voltage per phase, as
compared to that at unity power factor
Page 77 of 81
 (A) must be same as terminal voltage
 (B) must be less than the terminal voltage
 (C) must be more than the terminal voltage
 (D) must be 1.41 time the terminal voltage.
476. The power factor of an alternator depends on
 (A) Load
 (B) Speed of rotor
 (C) Core losses
 (D) Armature losses.
477. Which kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo alternators which are designed to run at
high speed ?
 (A) Salient pole type
 (B) Non-salient pole type
 (C) Both (A) and (B) above
478. Salient poles are generally used on
 (A) high speed prime movers only
 (B) medium speed prime movers only
 (C) low speed prime movers only
 ( D) low and medium speed prime movers.
479. The frequency of voltage generated in an alternator depends on
 (A) number of poles
 (B) rotative speed
 (C) number of poles and rotative speed
 (D) number of poles, rotative speed and type of winding.
480. The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 8 poles and rotating at
250 rpm is
 (A) 60 Hz
 (B) 50 Hz
 (C) 25 Hz
 (D) 16 2/3 Hz.
481. An alternator is generating power at 210 V per phase while running at 1500 rpm. If
the need of the alternator drops to 1000 rpm, the generated voltage per phase will be
 (A) 180 V
 (B) 150 V
 (C) 140 V
 (D) 105 V.
482. 10 pole AC generator rotates at 1200 rpm. The frequency of AC voltage in cycles per
second will be
 (A)120
 (B) 110
 (C) 100
 (D) 50.
483. The number of electrical degrees passed through in one revolution of a six pole
synchronous alternator is
 (A)360:
 (B)720
 (C) 1080
Page 78 of 81
 (D)2160 .
484. Fleming's left hand rule may be applied to an electric generator to find out
 (A) direction of rotor rotation
 (B) polarity of induced emf
 (C) direction of induced emf
 (D) direction of magnetic field
485. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is
changed, then the
 (A) reactive component of the output is changed
 (B) active component of the output is changed
 (C) power factor of the load remains constant
 (D) power factor of the load reduces.
 (A) unity power factor
 (B) leading power factor
 (C) lagging power factor
 (D) lagging to leading power factor.
487. When an alternator is running on no load the power supplied by the prime mover is
mainly consumed
 (A) to meet iron losses
 (B) to meet copper losses
 (C) to meet all no load losses
 (D) to produce induced emf in armature winding.
488. As the speed of an alternator increases
 (A) the frequency increases
 (B) the frequency decreases
 (C) the frequency remains constant but power factor decreases
489. For an alternator when the power factor of the load is unity
 (A) the armature flux will have square waveform
 (B) the armature flux will be demagnetizing
 (C) the armature flux will be cross-magnetizing
 (D) the armature flux will reduce to zero.
490. The driving power from the prime mover driving the alternator is lost but the
alternator remains connected to the supply network and the field supply also remains on.
The alternator will
 (A) get burnt
 (B) behave as an induction motor but will rotate in the opposite direction
 (C) behave as a synchronous motor and will rotate in the same direction
 (D) behave as a synchronous motor but will rotate in a reverse direction to that
corresponding to generator action.
Page 79 of 81
491. If the input of the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is
changed, then
 (A) the active component of the output is changed
 (B) the reactive component of the output is changed
 (C) power factor of the load remains constant
 (D) power factor of the load changes from lagging to leading.
492. For 50 Hz system the maximum speed of an alternator can be
 (A) approximately 3600 rpm
 (B) approximately 3000 rpm
 (C) 3600 rpm
 (D) 3000 rpm.
493. Voltage characteristic of an alternator is shown in figure. Which curve
represents the characteristics for leading power factor?
 (A) A
 (B) B
 (C) C
 (D) D.
494. In the above figure, the characteristic for unity power factor is represented by
the curve maked
 (A) A
 (B) B
 (C)C
 (D )D.
Questions 452 to 455 refer to the following data:
In a 50 kVA, star connected 440 V, 4-phase 50 Hz alternator, the effective armature
resistance is 0.25 ohm per phase. The synchronous reactance is 3.2 ohm per phase and
leakage reactance is 0.5 ohm per phase.
495. Full load output current at unity power factor will be
 (A) 65.6 A
 (B) 55.4 A
Page 80 of 81
 (C) 45.6 A
 (D) 35.4 A.
496. Full load line voltage will be
 (A) 500 V
 (B) 471 V
 (C) 450 V
 (D) 435 V.
497. No load line voltage will be
 (A) 600 V
 (B) 599 V
 (C) 592V
 (D) 580 V.
498. Percentage regulation of the alternator is approximately
 (A) 55%
 (B) 45%
 (C) 35%
 (D) 25%.
499. In order that two alternators be put in parallel, which of the following factors
should be identical for both ?
 (A) Voltage
 (B) Frequency
 (C) Phase sequence
500. When two alternators are running in parallel, their KVAR load share is
changed by changing their ................ while their kW load share is changed by
changing their ..............
 (A) excitation, driving torque
 (B) driving torque, excitation
 (C) excitation, excitation
 (D) driving torque, driving torque.
Page 81 of 81

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MME-ELECTRIAL-FRQ QUESTIONS-Electrical items

19. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at

a. 6Ω, 3Ω and 9Ω are in series

193. Resistance across A and B in the circuit shown below is

195. Resistance between X1 and X2 is

197. A resistor is to be connected across a 45 V battery to provide 1 mA of current. The

 (A) key k1 is closed, k2 is open and k3 is closed

 (A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d(iv)

 (A) 19.5 ohms

 (A) will lag

380. Which of the following is a paramagnetic material?

381. By adding silicon to ferromagnetic , materials

382. Which of the following is the characteristic of ceramic insulators?

384. Silicon steel E330 indicates that

387. Iron losses of a machine are

388. The shaft of electric motors is generally made of

389. The shaft of electric motors is generally supported in

391. Skewing of rotor slots helps in

394. In static transformers mechanical forces are produced due to

395. The thickness of laminations of the core of a power transformer usually

396. Transformer action requires a

397. In an oil filled transformer, oil is provided for

398. The copper losses of new machine will be

399. The iron losses of new machine will be

407. The heat transfer by convection least depends on

408. Oil for transformer cooling should have low

409. Oil for transformer cooling should have high

412. A transformer is designed for certain ambient temperature. If it actually operates at a

413. The overload capacity of a transformer depends on

414. Which surge will be most damaging for a transformer ?

415. A transformer is considered to have a network of series capacitance due to

416. In a transformer the shunt capacitance is decreased and series capacitance is

417. An air core transformer as compared to iron-core transformer has

418. In case of thyrite the resistance is

419. The 'hum' in a transformer is due to

421. The density of transformer oil is around

422. The flash point of transformer oil is usually

423. The maximum permissible water content in transformer oil is

425. The maximum pour point of transformer oil should be

427. The specific resistance of the transformer oil is of the order of

428. Phase spread in ac machines is almost always

429. The electric motor provided on refrigerators is usually

430. Flame proof motors are used in

434. A transmission line has a reactance of 1 Pu is operating at Vs = Vr = 1 Pu. The

Vs = sending end voltage Vr = receiving end voltage P = 0.5 pu δ = load angle

435. Under excited Synchronous phase modifier works as

440. Zero voltage regulation is possible only for

 Characteristic impedance Zc = V(x)/I(x) = √(Z/Y) = √(R + jωL)/(G + jωC)

444. Reflection coefficient of voltage is Rv

455. The per unit impedance Z(pu) is given by

461. The line currents of 3-phase supply are: IR = 3 + j 5 A IY =2 + j 2 A IB = -2 - j 1 A The

467. MCB stands for

471. Match the following:

 (A) a- (i), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (iv)

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