Test I c) reciprocating cam 36.

A cam with a roller follower would constitute

d) tangential cam which type of pair?
1. It deals only with the motion of bodies 19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a a) close pair
without reference to the forces that cause four bar mechanism lies on b) higher pair
them. a) a point obtained by intersection c) lower pair
a) Kinetics of extending adjoining links d) open pair
b) Motion b) left side pivot of this link 37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that have
c) Kinematics c) right side pivot of this link a) elements of pairs not held together
d) Acceleration d) any of the choices above mechanically
2. Progressive change in position of a body is 20. A vector quantity that describes both how b) point or line contact between the
called: fast it is moving and the direction in which it is elements when in motion
a) Acceleration heated. c) surface contact between the two
b) Motion a) Acceleration elements when in motion
c) Force b) Displacement d) two elements that allow relative
d) Momentum c) Motion motion
3. Cam in general maybe divided into two d) Velocity 38. A Pantograph is a mechanism having
classes; uniform motion and _________motion 21. Which of the following is the rate at which the a) higher pairs
cam. velocity is changing? b) lower pairs
a) Reverse a) Acceleration c) rolling pairs
b) gravity b) Linear d) spherical pairs
c) decelerated c) Motion 39. The number of links in a pantograph is equal
d) accelerated d) Vertical to
4. Product of mass and linear velocity is known 22. The direction of the ________ is toward the a) 3
as: center of the circle in which, the study b) 4
a) Impulse moves. c) 5
b) Linear momentum a) Centripetal acc. d) 6
c) Angular momentum b) Centrifugal acc. 40. In elliptical trammels,
d) Impact c) Radial cam a) all four pairs are turning
5. It is the motion of an object d) Tangential b) one pair turning and three pairs
diminished/decreased speed. 23. It is a device that changes the magnitude, sliding
a) Deceleration direction or mode of application of a torque c) three pairs turning and one pair
b) Retarded motion or force while transmitting it for a particular sliding
c) Negative impulse purpose. d) two pairs and two pairs sliding
d) All of these a) Frame 41. The Klein’s method of construction for
6. It is a property of matter, which causes it to b) Machine reciprocating engine mechanism
resist any change in its motion or state of rest. c) Mechanism a) enables determined of coriolis
a) Brake d) Structure component
b) Friction 24. The process of obtaining the resultant of any b) is a simplified form of instantaneous
c) Inertia number of vectors. center method
d) Impulse a) Scalar quantity c) is based on acceleration diagram
7. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time b) Vector composition d) utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the
during which motion takes place is called: c) Vector quantity diagram of mechanism for
a) Deceleration d) Vector resolution reciprocating engine
b) Uniform motion 25. It has magnitude, direction and sense. 42. If a particle of a link has a velocity that
c) Acceleration a) scalar quantity changes both in magnitude and direction at
d) None of these b) absolute quantity any instant, then
8. Statement that a given body is in static c) vector quantity a) it must have only unidirectional
equilibrium means that the body cannot d) relative velocity acceleration
a) have any type of motion 26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a surface b) it must have two components of
b) be acted upon by more than one of contact so designed as to caused or acceleration e.g., centripetal and
force modify the motion of the piece. tangential
c) undergo any displacement a) Cam c) it must have three components of
d) have any type of acceleration b) Disc acceleration e.g., centripetal,
9. It is a science of motion that can be solved in c) Gear centrifugal and tangential
terms of scalar or vector algebra. d) Pulley d) it must have three components of
a) Kinematics 27. When acceleration is zero, the acceleration e.g., centripetal,
b) Curvilinear translation a) velocity is constant centrifugal and gravitational
c) Projectile b) velocity is negative 43. Select the one that is the highest pair.
d) Acceleration c) velocity is variable a) Crosby indicator mechanism
10. An object thrown upward will return to earth d) velocity is zero b) Hart’s straight line mechanism
the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal 28. When the velocity is changing, the c) Thomson indicator mechanism
to acceleration is d) Both gearing mechanism
a) zero a) constant 44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a
b) one-half the initial velocity b) not constant a) Cylindrical pair
c) twice the initial velocity c) variable b) higher pair
d) initial velocity d) zero c) lower pair
11. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a 29. Klein’s construction is used to determine the d) sliding pair
plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation of a) acceleration of various parts 45. The total number of instantaneous center for
the cam. b) angular acceleration of various parts a mechanism of N links is equal to
a) Radial cam c) displacement of various parts a) 2N
b) Cylindrical cam d) velocity of various parts b) (N-1)(N+1)
c) Cam curves 30. Klein’s construction can be used when c) 2N(N-1)
d) Tangential cam a) crank has a uniform angular d) N(N-1)/2
12. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a acceleration 46. A kinematics chain needs a minimum of
plane parallel to the axis of rotation. b) crank has a uniform angular velocity a) 2 links and 2 turning pairs
a) cam curves c) crank has a non uniform angular b) 3 links and 3 turning pairs
b) cylindrical cam velocity c) 3 links and 2 turning pairs
c) tangential cam d) b and c above d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
d) Radial cam 31. The cam angle is 47. For kinematics chains formed by lower pair
13. A cone formed by elements, which are a) the angle subtended by live portion of the relation between the number of joint J is
perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cam at the cam’s center given by
cone at the large end. b) the angle of rotation of the cam for a a) L = 2/3(J+2)
a) cone distance definite displacement of the follower b) L = 3/2(J+2)
b) back cone c) the angle subtended at the cam’s c) L = 2/3(L+2)
c) root cone center by the portion of cam during d) L = 3/2(L+2)
d) cone center which the follower moves 48. In case of an elliptical trammel,
14. The ability of moving body to perform work is d) the angle subtended by the cam at a) one pair turns and two pairs slide
called: the cam center when the follower b) two pairs and two pairs slide
a) Internal energy dwells c) three pairs turn and one pair slides
b) potential energy 32. The pitch point on a cam refers to d) all four pairs turn
c) kinetic energy a) any point on pitch curve 49. Coriolis component of acceleration is found
d) flow work b) a point at a distance equal to pitch in
15. A slider crank chain is made up of circle radius from the center a) four bar mechanism
a) one turning and one sliding pair c) the point of cam pitch circle that has b) mechanism of steam engine
b) one turning and two sliding pairs the maximum pressure angle c) higher pair
c) two turning and one sliding pair d) none of the above d) whitworth-quick-return
d) three turning and one sliding pair 33. For a kinematics chain to be considered as mechanism
16. A scott-Russell mechanism is made up of mechanism, 50. It is one that is not appreciably deformed by
a) rotating pair only a) none of the links should be fixed the action of any external force or load.
b) sliding and turning pairs b) one link should be fixed a) rigid body
c) turning and rotary pairs c) there is no such criterion b) structure
d) turning pair only d) two links should be fixed c) Frame
17. Ackerman steering gear is made up of 34. Hart mechanism has how many links? d) Mechanism
a) rolling and sliding pairs a) 4
b) rolling pairs b) 6
c) sliding and rotary pairs c) 8
d) turning pairs d) 12
18. A cam where the follower reciprocates or 35. Peaucellier mechanism has how many links?
oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of a) 4
the cam is called: b) 5
a) circular cam c) 6
b) cylindrical cam d) 8
 TEST 2 c) poisson’s ratio d) tensile strength
d) endurance limit 37. Which of the following is the different of the shear
1. At a given section of an I beam the maximum 19. The single force which produces the same effect equation?
bending stress occurs at the upon a body as two or more forces acting together is a) bending moment
a) max. shear stress area called: b) load on the beam
b) neutral axis a) Resultant force c) tensile strength of the beam
c) web joint near the flange b) co-planar force d) slope of the beam
d) outermost c) couple 38. The change in length per unit original length
2. The resultant of two or more forces is a d) non-coplanar force a) strain
a) couple of forces 20. The ability of metal to resist being crushed is called b) stress
b) concurrent of forces a) shearing strength c) deformation
c) momentum b) compressive stress d) elastic modulus
d) resolution of forces c) torsional strength 39. The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed
3. Two or more forces acting together, could be d) tensile strength is
replaced by a single force with same effect in a mass 21. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called: a) fatigue strength
called: a) co-planar b) bending strength
a) couple of forces b) non-coplanar forces c) torsional strength
b) resolution of forces c) Acceleration d) compressive strength
c) resultant d) composition of forces 40. The ability of a metal to withstand forces that causes
d) concurrent of forces 22. In general, the design stress and factor of safety are a member to twist.
4. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction related as follows a) shear strength
and a) design stress = ultimate stress times factor of b) tensile strength
a) torque safety c) bearing strength
b) weights of object b) design stress = ultimate stress divided by d) torsional strength
c) normal of force factor of safety 41. The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is
d) moment c) factor of safety = design stress divided called
5. Shear modulus is also known as: ultimate stress a) creep
a) Shear elasticity d) ultimate stress = factor of safety divided by b) modulus of rigidity
b) poisson’s ratio design stress c) modulus of elasticity
c) modulus of elasticity 23. Stresses that are independent to loads are known as: d) poisson’s ratio
d) modulus of rigidity a) Working stresses 42. The ability of metal to withstand loads without
6. The maximum stress induced in a material when b) Operating stresses breaking down is termed as
subjected to intermittent or repeated load without c) residual stresses a) strain
causing failure is called: d) shear stresses b) stress
a) Ultimate stress 24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to unit c) elasticity
b) Endurance limit longitudinal deformation is called: d) strength
c) Ultimate strength a) poisson’s ratio 43. The last point at which a material may be stretched a
d) Elastic limit b) willan’s line still return to its underformed
7. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist the action c) modulus of elasticity condition upon release of the stress.
of outside force is called: d) deformation a) rupture limit
a) Shearing stress 25. Separate forces, which can be so combined are b) elastic limit
b) tensile stress called: c) proportional limit
c) ultimate stress a) non-concurrent d) ultimate limit
d) compressive stress b) couple 44. The deformation that results from a stress and is
8. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will c) combined forces expressed in terms of the amount of
eventually fail if the load/stress is above the endurance d) concurrent forces deformation per inch.
for the steel under consideration. The endurance limit of 26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the a) elongation
the steel is therefore ultimate strength but not with b) strain
a) equal to the allowable stress of the module of a) yield strength c) poisson’s ratio
elasticity b) design stress d) elasticity
b) equal to half of the ultimate strength c) shear stress 45. The internal resistance a material offers to being
c) equal to module of elasticity d) all of these deformed and is measured in terms
d) equal to 80% of the elastic limit 27. The three moment equation may be used to analyze of applied load.
9. Moment of inertia is also called: a a) strain
a) Modulus of elasticity a) tapered column b) elasticity
b) Weep strength b) continuous beam c) stress
c) Radius of gyration c) endurance limit d) resilience
d) None of these d) tensile stress 46. The maximum stress induced in a material when
10. Defection of a beam is 28. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of subjected to alternating or repeated loading without
a) proportional to the modulus of elasticity and a) shear strain to compressive strain causing failure.
moment of inertia b) elastic limit to compressive strain a) Ultimate strength
b) proportional to the load imposed and c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain b) yield strength
inversely to the length squared d) elastic limit to proportional limit c) endurance strength
c) inversely proportional to the modulus of 29. The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a d) rupture strength
elasticity and moment of inertia body and the time that the resultant acts. 47. The maximum stress to which a material may be
d) inversely proportional to the weight imposed a) angular impulse subjected before failure occurs is called:
times the length b) angular momentum a) Rupture strength
11. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is c) Linear impulse b) ultimate strength
less than the yield point is called: d) linear momentum c) Yield strength
a) Plasticity 30. The system of forces and opposite collinear forces are d) proportional limit
b) Elasticity added, which of the following if any is true? 48. The total deformation measured in the direction of
c) Creep a) equilibrium is destroyed the line of stress.
d) Ductility b) equilibrium is maintained a) strain
12. It is opposite direction of parallel force. c) none of these is true b) elasticity
a) concurrent d) an unbalance of moment exist c) elongation
b) coplanar 31. What is the property of a material, which resists forces d) contraction
c) couple acting to pull the material apart? 49. The total resistance that a material offers to an
d) non coplanar a) shear strength applied load is called
13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross - b) tensile strength a) friction torque
section of the beam to the section c) torsional strength b) stress
modulus is d) compressive strength c) rigidity
a) equal to the radius of gyration 32. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces d) compressive force
b) equal to the area of the cross-section that causes twisting? 50. The ability of metal to withstand forces thus following
c) measure of a distance a) torsional strength a number of twist.
d) dependent on modulus of elasticity of beam b) modulus of elasticity a) shear strength
measure c) twisting moment b) bearing strength
14. The differential of the shear equation is which of the d) elasticity c) endurance limit
following: 33. The unit deformation is called d) deformation
a) bending moment of the beam a) torsion
b) tensile strength of the beam b) strain
c) slope of the elastic curve c) stress
d) load of the beam d) shear
15. Could be defined as simply push and pull is known as 34. The total amount of permanent extension of the
a) work gage length measured after specimen has fractured
b) force and is expressed as percentage increase of the original
c) inertia length.
d) power a) elongation
16. The changes in shape or geometry of the body due b) strain
to action of a force on it is called deformation or c) stress
a) shearing stress d) elastic limit
b) stresses 35. Strength of a material is that of a stress intensity
c) compressive stress determined by considering the maximum test load to
d) strains act over the original area of the test specimens called
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress is called: a) yield point
a) plasticity b) ultimate strength
b) all of these c) break strength
c) stiffness d) elastic limit
d) toughness 36. The maximum stress, which is reached during a
18. The property of a material that relates the lateral tension test is called
strain to longitudinal strain is called: a) stress
a) stress b) elasticity
b) strain c) strain
TEST 3 d) maximum load during test / original cross- a) is a ratio of the average stress on a section to
sectional area the allowable stress
1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress. 18. When a part is constrained to move and heated, it b) can not be evaluated for brittle materials
a) proportionality constant develops what kind of stress? c) is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden
b) strain a) compressive stress change of cross-section
c) Modulus b) principal stress d) is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in
d) Factor of safety c) shear stress a cross section to the average stress over the
2. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the d) tensile stress section
free end, the moment is 19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared 36. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the
a) constant along the beam to in tension is nearly a) unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal
b) maximum at the wall a) one-half deformation
c) ¼ maximum half way out on the beam b) one-third b) unit stress to unit strain
d) maximum at the free end c) one-fourth c) elastic limit to proportional limit
3. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously d) the same d) shear strain to compressive strain
withstand. 20. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known 37. Hooke’s law for an isotropic homogeneous medium
a) yield point as experiencing one dimensional stress is known as
b) bearing strength a) bulk modulus a) Stress = E (strain)
c) ultimate strength b) modulus of elasticity b) Strain = E (stress)
d) point of rupture c) modulus of rigidity c) (Force)(Area) = E (change in length/length)
4. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is d) unit stress d) strain energy = E (internal energy)
removed the strain disappears. From this information, 21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel, as compared 38. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is
which of the following can be deducted about this to its ultimate compressive stress will be a) a function of the length and depth
material? a) less b) defined as the unit shear stress divided by the
a) It is elastic. b) more unit shear deformation
b) It has a modulus of elasticity. c) more or less depending on the factors c) equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by
c) it is plastic d) same one plus Poisson’s ratio
d) it is ductile. 22. The relation between modulus of elasticity E and d) defined as the length divided by the moment
5. A cantilever beam having a uniformly increasing load modulus of elasticity in shear G, bulk modulus of elasticity of inertia
toward the fixed end K and Poisson’s ratio is given by 39. The maximum bending moment of a beam simply
a) has uniform shear a) E = Gu supported at both ends and subject to a total load 
b) has a reaction equal to the load b) E = G (u + 1) uniformly distributed over its length L is expressed by the
c) will have maximum bending moment c) E = 2g(u+1) formula
midway to the beam d) E = 4G (1+2u) a)  L/8
d) has a reaction is not equal to the load 23. When shear force is zero along a section, the b)  L2/8
6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces bending moment at that section will be c)  L/2
a) depends on the materials and the finish a) maximum d)  L2/2
condition of the surface b) minimum 40. In a column (slenderness ratio > 160), which of the
b) depends only on the finish condition pf the c) minimum or maximum following has the greatest influence on its tendency to buckle
surface d) zero under a compressive load?
c) does not depend on the materials 24. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test a) the modulus of elasticity of the material
d) depends on the composition of the materials is b) the compressive strength of the material
c) the radius of gyration of the column
only a) an irregular
d) the length of the column
7. The maximum stress to which a material may be b) a parabola
41. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any
subjected before failure occurs. c) a sudden break two points on the beam is equal to the
a) rupture stress d) a straight line a) change in shear between the two points
b) yield stress 25. The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear b) total shear beyond the two points
c) ultimate stress stress for a circular section is equal to c) average moment between the two points
d) allowable stress a) 2 d) change in moment between the two points
8. The total resistance that a material offers to an b) 2/3 42. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in
applied load. c) 3/2 a) the determination of capability of material for
a) flexure d) ¾ being shaped
b) stress 26. The ratio of bulk modulus for Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will b) the determination of capacity of a material for
c) elasticity be equal to plastic deformation with fracture
c) stress-strain relationships where stresses are
d) rigidity a) 3/2
applied in more than one direction
9. If the areas of cross-sections of square and circular b) 5/16
d) the determination of the endurance limit
beams are the same and both are put to equal bending c) 1
43. Modulus of resilience is
moment then the correct statement is d) 2
a) the same as the modulus of elasticity
a) both the beams are equally economical 27. The compression members tend to buckle in the b) a measure of a materials ability to store strain
b) both the beams are equally strong direction of energy
c) the circular beam is more economical a) axis of load c) the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
d) the square beam is more economical b) perpendicular to the axis of load d) a measure of the deflection of member
10. Ties are load carrying members that carry c) minimum cross-section 44. Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset
a) axial compressive loads d) least radius of gyration yield stress?
b) axial tension loads 28. The stress in an elastic material is a) it is elastic limit after which a measurable
c) prestressing thick cylinders a) inversely proportional to the material’s yield plastic strain has occurred.
e) d)relieving thick cylinders strength b) it is the stress at which the material plastically
11. Auto frottage is the method of b) inversely proportional to the force acting strains 0.2%.
a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders c) proportional to the displacement of the material c) it is the stress at which the material elastically
b) increasing life of thick cylinders acted upon by the force
strains 0.2%
d) inversely proportional to the strain
c) prestressing thick cylinders d) it is 0.2% below the fracture point of the
29. The slenderness ratio of a column is generally defined
d) relieving thick cylinders material.
as the ratio of its
12. Mohr’s circle can be used to determine _________ on 45. Under very low deformation and at high temperature
a) length to its minimum width
inclined surface. b) unsupported length to its maximum radius of it is possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a
a) principal stress gyration shear stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is this
b) normal stress c) length to its moment of inertia phenomenon called?
c) tangential stress d) unsupported length to its least radius of gyration a) Slip
d) all of the above 30. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel b) Twinning
13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of is known as c) Creep
a) linear stress to longitudinal strain a) modulus of elongation d) Shearing
b) shear stress to shear strain b) plastic range 46. In a stress-strain diagram what is the correct term for
c) shear to strain c) irreversible range the stress level at e = 0.20% offset?
d) shear stress to volumetric strain d) elastic range a) Elastic limit
14. The total strain energy stored in a body is called 31. Principal stresses occur on those planes b) Plastic limit
a) resilience a) where the shearing stress is zero c) Offset rupture stress
b) proof resilience b) which are 45 degrees apart d) Offset yield stress
c) modulus of resilience c) where the shearing stress is a maximum 47. Under which type of loading does fatigue occur?
d) toughness d) which are subjected only to tension a) Static load
15. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight 32. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross-section b) Plane
is equal to of a beam to the section c) High load
a) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of the same modulus is d) Repeated load
length a) equal to the radius of gyration
b) one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the same length 48. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is
b) equal to the area of the cross section
c) one third that of a prismatic bar of the same length removed, the strain disappears. From this information,
c) a measure of distance
d) that of a prismatic bar of the same length which of the following can be deduced about this
d) multiplied by the bending moment to
16. Which one is the incorrect statement about true material?
determine the stress
stress-strain method? a) It is elastic.
33. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop
e) it is more sensitive to changes in mechanical
what kind of stress? b) It is plastic.
conditions.
f) There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true a) bending stress c) It is has a high modulus of elasticity.
strain. b) compressive stress d) It is ductile.
g) This method can be used for compression tests as c) shearing stress 49. Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio of a
well. d) tensile stress material?
h) True stress is load per unit area and similarly true 34. The bending moment at a section of a beam is a) 0.45
strain is determined under actual conditions. derived from the b) 0.5
17. The tensile stress of a material is given by a) sum of the moments of all external forces on one c) 0.55
a) average load during the test / average at the side of the section d) 0.60
time of fracture b) difference between the moments on one side of 50. In pure torsion, the minimum torsional stress occurs at
b) average load during the test / original cross- the section and the opposite side the
sectional area c) sum of the moments of all external forces on both a) center
sides of the section
c) maximum load during test / area at the time b) long side
d) sum of the moments of all external forces between
of fracture c) medium side
supports
d) short side
35. The stress concentration factor
TEST 4 c) triaxial c) compressive stress
d) uniaxial d) tensile stress
1. In a specification schedule is used when the pipe 20. Under theories of failure for static loading of ductile 39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is a large
specified as “schedule 80”, the pipe corresponds to the material, the design stress is the increase in strain with little or no increase in stress is called
a) “ extra standard “ weight a) endurance strength / factor of safety a) Endurance strength
b) allowable stress b) factor of safety / yield stress b) Ultimate strength
c) internal pressure c) yield stress / factor of safety c) Rapture strength
d) “ old standard “ weight d) ultimate stress / factor of safety d) Yield strength
2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel usually falls 21. Under theories of failure, the value of shear stress is 40. A ________ member that carries loads transverse to its
between ________ million pounds per square inch. ______ that of tensile stress. axis.
a) 26 to 28 a) equal a) structure
b) 28 to 31 b) double b) column
c) 20 to 45 c) half c) beam
d) 50 to 30 d) three times d) frame
3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of 22. The theory of mechanics of materials shows that the 41. Which type of load that is applied slowly and is never
a) accuracy results from the octahedral shear stress theory and those removed?
b) quality from the maximum distortion energy theory are ________. a) Uniform load
c) stiffness a) more than b) Static load
d) rigidity b) less than c) Equilibrium load
4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in c) relevant d) Impact load
compression is usually taken as that in d) the same 42. When varying loads are applied that are not regular
a) tension 23. A kind of stress that is caused by forces acting along in their amplitude, the loading is called
b) bearing or parallel to the area is called a) Repeated loading
c) torsion a) Bearing stress b) Random loading
d) yield b) Shearing stress c) Reversed loading
5. The ratio of moment and stress is called: c) Tangential stress d) Fluctuating loading
a) Contraction d) tensile stess 43. A measure of the relative safety of a load-carrying
b) Proportional constant 24. Obtained by dividing the differential load dF by the component is termed as
c) Section modulus dA over which it acts. a) design factor
d) Strain a) Elasticity b) load factor
6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the flexural stress b) Elongation c) ratio factor
is _______ when the vertical shear is maximum. c) Strain d) demand factor
a) infinity d) Stress 44. The condition, which causes actual stresses in
b) maximum 25. The highest ordinate in the stress – strain diagram or machine members to be higher than nominal values
c) minimum curve is called predicted by the elementary direct and combined stress
d) zero a) elastic limit equations.
7. When tested in compression, ductile materials usually b) rapture strength a) Stress concentration factor
exhibit ________characteristics up to the yield strength as c) ultimate strength b) Stress factor
they do when tested in tension d) yield point c) Design factor
a) the same 26. A pair of forces equal in magnitude opposite in d) Load factor
b) less than direction, and not in the same line is called 45. The stress value, which is used, in the mathematical
c) more than a) couple determination of the required
d) approximately the same b) momentum size of the machine member.
8. It has been said that 80% of the failures of machine c) parallel forces a) Endurance stress
parts have been due to d) torque b) Design stress
a) compression 27. Framework composed of members joined at their c) Maximum stress
b) fatigue failures ends to form a rigid structure is known as : d) Normal stress
c) negligence a) Joists 46. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of cast iron is in the
d) torsion b) Machine range of
9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing Sn/Su ratios, c) Purlins a) 0.30 to 0.33
often called endurance ratio, from d) Truss b) 0.27 to 0.30
a) 0.23 to 0.65 28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile strain is c) 0.25 to 0.27
b) 0.34 to 0.45 called d) 0.35 to 0.45
c) 0.34 to 0.87 a) Bulk modulus 47. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of steel is in the range
d) 0.63 to 0.93 b) Hooke’s law of
10. The discontinuity or change of section, such as c) Shear modulus a) 0.30 to 0.33
scratches, holes, bends, or grooves is a d) Young modulus b) 0.27 to 0.30
a) stress raiser 29. The ratio of the volume stress to the volume strain is c) 0.25 to 0.27
b) stress functioning called the coefficient of volume elasticity or d) 0.35 to 0.45
c) stress raiser a) bulk modulus 48. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of aluminum and
d) stress relieving b) Hooke’s law titanium is in the range of
11. The degree of stress concentration is usually c) shear modulus a) 0.25 to 0.27
indicated by the d) Young modulus b) 0.27 to 0.30
a) power factor 30. The action of a force is characterized by c) 0.30 to 0.33
b) stress concentration factor a) its magnitude d) 0.35 to 0.45
c) service factor b) direction of its action 49. The angle of inclination of the planes on which the
d) stress factor c) point of application principal stresses act is called
12. In a part at uniform temperature and not acted upon d) all of the above a) normal plane
by an external load, any internal stress that exists is 31. At highest or lowest point on the moment diagram b) principal plane
called: a) shear is half, the maximum moment c) tangential plane
a) Control stress b) shear is maximum d) traverse plane
b) Form stress c) shear is negative 50. _________ provides a very accurate prediction of
c) Residual stress d) shear is zero failure of ductile materials
d) Superposed stress 32. The built-in or fixed support is capable of supporting under static loads or completely reversed normal, shear
13. The stress or load induced by the tightening a) an axial load or combined stresses.
operation. b) a traverse force a) Shear stress theory
a) Initial stress c) a bending moment b) Normal stress theory
b) Initial tension d) all of these c) Distortion energy theory
c) Residual stress 33. The modulus of elasticity in shear is commonly called d) Soderberg line theory
d) None of these a) Bulk modulus
14. A type of failure due to instability is known as b) deformation
a) Slenderness ratio c) Modulus of rigidity
b) Buckingham d) Young modulus
c) Buckling 34. The stress beyond which the material will not return to
d) Stability its original shape when unloaded, but will retain a
15. The ratio of the length of the column and the radius permanent deformation is termed as
of gyration of the cross-sectional area about a a) elastic limit
centroidal axis is called b) proportional limit
a) contact ratio c) yield point
b) constant ratio d) yield strength
c) power factor 35. Refers to the actual stress the material has when
d) slenderness ratio under load.
16. Formula that applies to a very slender column is a) Allowable stress
called b) Factor of safety
a) Column formula c) Ultimate strength
b) Euler’s formula d) Working stress
c) Moment formula 36. The safe soil bearing pressure of diesel engine is
d) Slender formula about
17. If two principal stresses are zero, the state stress is a) 2000 kg per sq. cm
a) biaxial b) 4600 kg per sq. cm
b) monoaxial c) 4890 kg per sq. cm
c) triaxial d) 5633 kg per sq. cm
d) uniaxial 37. The machine foundation must have a factor of safety
18. If one principal stress is zero, the state stress is of
a) biaxial a) 3
b) monoaxial b) 4
c) triaxial c) 5
d) uniaxial d) 6
19. If all the principal stresses have finite values, the 38. The load acts over a smaller area, and the ________
system is continues to increase unit failure.
a) biaxial a) actual stress
b) monoaxial b) allowable stress
 TEST 5 18. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of b) after
shear stress c) parallel to
1. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in a) is uniform throughout d) adjacent to
the design of shaft and the limit should be in the range b) has maximum value at the axis 38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of _________
of ________ degrees/foot of length. c) has maximum value at the surface remain the same
a) 0.004 to 0.006 d) is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a a) primary and lay shafts
b) 0.08 to 1 maximum value at the surface of the shaft b) main and lay shafts
c) 0.006 to 0.008 19. The compression members tend to buckle in the c) primary and main shafts
d) 0.008 to 1 direction of d) secondary and main shafts
2. For a universal joint shaft angle should be _________ a) axis of load 39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in _________
degrees maximum and much less if in high rotational b) perpendicular to the axis of load direction.
speed. c) minimum cross-section a) in the same
a) 12 d) least radius of gyration b) different
b) 16 20. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be c) reverse
c) 15 made up of d) none of the above
d) 14 a) clad material 40. It is an integral part of a machine.
3. It is a good design practice for steel line shafting to b) composite material a) Spindle
consider a limit to the linear c) homogeneous material b) Axle
deflection of ________ inch/foot length maximum. d) heterogeneous material c) Counter shaft
a) 0.050 21. The column splice is used for increasing d) Machine shaft
b) 0.010 a) strength of the column 41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through
c) 0.020 b) cross-sectional area of the column a) torsional
d) 0.060 c) length of the column b) bending
4. It is a rotating machine member that transmits power. d) all of the above c) axial
a) Cam 22. A simply supported beam has a uniformly distributed d) all of these
b) Plate load on it, the bending moment is 42. What is the standard stock length?
c) Shaft a) triangle a) 16 ft
d) Flywheel b) parabola b) 20 ft
5. A stationary member carrying pulleys, wheels and etc. c) semi-circle c) 24 ft
that transmit power is called: d) rectangle d) all of the above
a) Axle 23. The power obtained by piston reaches flywheel 43. Centrifugal separators that operate at speeds
b) Propeller shaft through the ________ also employ these flexible
c) Turbine shaft a. countershaft shafts.
d) Machine shaft b. crank shaft a) 1000 to 3000 rpm
6. A line shaft is also known as c. transmission shaft b) 5000 to 10000 rpm
a) Counter shaft d. line shaft c) 15000 to 30000 rpm
b) Jack shaft 24. There are two types of crankshafts, namely d) 20000 to 50000 rpm
c) Main shaft a) single piece and built up 44. Which of the following material is used for shafting?
d) Head shaft b) forged and turned a) AISI 3240
7. Which of the following shaft intermediate between a c) rotary and stationary b) AISI 3150
line shaft and a driven shaft? d) none of these c) AISI 4063
a) Counter shaft 25. Engine valves get open by means of d) AISI 33000
b) Jack shaft a) cam shaft 45. The process of redistributing the mass attached to a
c) Head Shaft b) rocker shaft rotating body in order to reduce
d) All of the above c) crank shaft vibrations arising from a centrifugal force.
8. Short shafts on machines are called d) valve guard a) Shaft coupling
a) Core shafts 26. The value of allowable stresses which are generally b) Shaft balancing
b) Head shafts used in practice for main transmitting shafts is c) Shaft hooper
c) Medium shafts a) 282 kg/cm2 d) stator balancing
d) Spindles b) 423 kg/cm2 46. In many cases the _________ of the shaft is an import
9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at c) 599 kg/cm2 design feature.
the neutral plane where the d) 620 kg/cm2 a) deflections
normal stress is 27. The value of allowable stresses which are generally b) rigidity
a) constant used in practice for line shafts carrying pulleys is c) size
b) maximum a) 150 kg/cm2 d) strength
c) minimum b) 282 kg/cm2 47. Commercial shafting is made of
d) zero c) 423 kg/cm2 a) low carbon steel
10. Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary from d) 550 kg/cm2 b) cast iron
0.08 per foot of length for machinery shafts to _______ per 28. The value of allowable stresses which are generally c) brass
foot. used in practice for small, short shafts, countershafts is d) bronze
a) 1 a) 282 kg/cm2 48. What is the most common material for shafting?
b) 2 b) 599 kg/cm2 a) Wrought iron
c) 3 c) 650 kg/cm2 b) Cast iron
d) 4 d) 750 kg/cm2 c) Mild steel
11. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is one 29. Torsional deformation in transmission shafts should be d) Aluminum
degree in a length of limited to _______ in 20 diameters. 49. Cold drawing produces a ________ shaft that hot
_________ diameters. a) 1 rolling, but with higher residual stresses.
a) 10 b) 2 a) weaker
b) 15 c) 3 b) stronger
c) 20 d) 4 c) harder
d) 25 30. Lateral deflection caused by bending should not d) none of the above
12. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that exceed 50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to ________ are
the deflection should not exceed ____________ of a) in. per foot of length common in design of a shaft.
length between supports. b) 0.005 in. per foot of length a) 3000 to 5000 psi
a) 0.01 in. per foot c) in. per foot of length b) 4000 to 6000 psi
b) 0.02 in. per foot d) 0.05 in. per foot of length c) 5000 to 8000 psi
c) 0.03 in. per foot 31. Front axle should be live and d) 6000 to 10000 psi
d) 0.04 in. per foot a) weak
13. In general for machinery shafts, the permissible b) dead
deflection may be closer to c) strong
a) 0.02 in/ft d) none of these
b) 0.01 in/ft 32. The steering is coupled to the two front wheels by
c) 0.002 in/ft means of a
d) 0.030 in/ft a) connecting rod
14. The speed at which the center of mass will equal the b) tie rod
deflecting forces on the shaft with its attached bodies c) push rod
will then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force d) spindle
changes its direction as the shaft turns. 33. In the overdrive transmission system the rotation
a) Critical speed speed of ________ rest higher than that of engine’s
b) Geometrical speed speed.
c) Mean speed a) main shaft
d) Unit speed b) crank shaft
15. For shaft, the minimum value of numerical combined c) propeller shaft
shock and fatigue factor to be applied in every case to d) machine shaft
the computed bending moment is 34. A slip joint ________ the length of propeller shaft.
a) 1.0 a) increases
b) 1.3 b) decreases
c) 1.5 c) keeps appropriate
d) 1.8 d) none of these
16. It is suggested that the design factor on the yield 35. The transmission system incorporates clutch, gear
strength be about 1.5 for the smooth load, about 2 to box, and propeller shaft and
2.25 for minor shock loads, and _________ when the a) brake
loading reverse during operation. b) differential
a) 3.0 c) steering
b) 4.0 d) main shafting
c) 3.5 36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary shaft.
d) 4.5 a) equal to
17. A column is called short column when b) more than
a) the length is more than 30 times the diameter c) less than
b) slenderness ratio is more than 120 d) in the gear ratio
c) the length is less than 8 times the diameter 37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay shaft.
d) the slenderness ratio is more than 32 a) before
 TEST 6 members to prevent relative angular motion between b) used for collinear shafts
1. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of these mating. c) used for non-collinear shafts
torsional angular flexibility due to introduction with some a) Key way d) used only on small shafts rotating at low
elastic material cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in b) Key speed
the flange. c) Constant key 38. In flange coupling the weakest element should be
a) Simple elastic bonded coupling d) Variable key the
b) Elastic material bushed coupling 20. A feather key is one of the following types of a) bolts
c) Elastic material bonded coupling a) sunk b) flange
d) All of these b) tapered c) key
2. Which of the following keys that is square or flat and c) parallel d) shaft
tapered with head? d) tangent 39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are designed for
a) Pin key 21. Permanent keys made integral with the shaft and a) fatigue
b) Saddle key fitting into key ways broached b) shear forces
c) Gib-head keys into the mating hub. c) compression
d) None of these a) Square keys d) tensile forces
3. What are considered as the most common keys? b) Splines 40. Which of the following mechanical devices is used for
a) Flat key c) Woodruff keys uniting or connecting parts of a mechanical system?
b) Square key d) Kennedy keys a) Coupling
c) Saddle key 22. A type of square key with bottom two corners b) Keys
d) A & B above beveled is called c) Splines
4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a a) Flat key d) Flexible coupling
drive fit. b) Feather key 41. A coupling that employs a fluid to provide angular
a) Pin key c) Barth key flexibility between the input and output shafts.
b) Saddle key d) Woodruff key a) Rigid coupling
c) Gib-head key 23. The bearing load on feather keys should not exceed b) Flexible coupling
d) None of these a) 600 psi c) Hydraulic coupling
5. A key with one of several patented methods of keying b) 800 psi d) Oldham coupling
is driven or pressed into a hole that is small enough to c) 1000 psi 42. Which of the following type of coupling is used with
close the slit, assembled in radial direction. d) 1200 psi collinear shafts?
a) Fit key 24. The two keys are angularly spaced a) Collar coupling
b) Saddle key a) 45  b) Rigid coupling
c) Roll Pin b) 60  c) Flexible coupling
d) Pin key c) 75  d) Hydraulic coupling
6. Kennedy keys are also known as d) 90  43. A type of coupling used to connect shafts that have
a) Tangential keys 25. The three keys are angularly spaced lateral misalignment.
b) Normal keys a) 60  a) Compression coupling
c) Saddle keys b) 90  b) Collar coupling
d) Roll Pin c) 1200 c) Chain coupling
7. A key that allows the hub to move along the shaft but d) 1800 d) Oldham coupling
prevents the rotation of the shaft. 26. The permissible crushing stress is about _________ times 44. A coupling that is composed of two slotted members,
a) Woodruff key the permissible shear stress. which are connected by a continuous steel spring, and
b) Feather key a) 1.5 lies in the slots.
c) Gibbs key b) 1.7 a) Ajax coupling
d) Square key c) 1.9 b) Falk coupling
8. Which of the following type of fits used for involute d) 1.10 c) Lord coupling
spline? 27. Practical considerations required that the hub length d) Slip coupling
a) Close fit should be at least _________ to obtain a good grip. 45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several
b) Press a) 1.2D purposes. The most common purpose of shaft coupling is
c) Sliding b) 1.5D a) to provide for the connection of shafts of
d) All of these c) 1.7D units that are manufactured separately
9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to involute d) 1.9D b) to provide for misalignment of the shafts
splines except that the pressure angle is 14.5 deg. 28. For three keys, a _________ percent overload often is c) to reduce the transmission of shock loads
a) Separation load used. from one shaft to another
b) Stub serrations a) 10 d) all of the above
c) Spline shaft b) 15 46. Typical hub length falls between _________ where D is
d) Involute serrations c) 20 the shaft diameter
10. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is most likely to fall in d) 25 a) 1.2D and 1.8D
a) compression 29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on one b) 1.25D and 2.4D
b) shear end and a radial through hole in the other end. c) 1.30 and 2.5D
c) tension a) Clevis pins d) 1.35D and 3.0D
d) double shear b) Taper pins 47. The diameter of the large end of the pin should be
11. In case of sunk key, c) Dower pins ________ the shaft diameter.
a) the key is cut in both shaft and hub d) Taper pins a) ¼
b) the key way is cut in hub only 30. Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and similar b) 1/3
c) the key way is cut in shaft only devices onto shafts for light-duty service. c) ½
d) the key way is helical along the shaft a) Clevis pins d) 3/2
12. Splined shafts are generally for b) Cotter pins 48. The most common type of sliding action fastener and
a) air craft c) Dowel pins is widely used on doors is the
b) automobiles d) Taper pins a) Pawl fastener
c) bicycles 31. The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and b) Magnetic fastener
d) machine tools mating member is called c) Sliding fastener
13. Splines are used when a) Key way d) Screw fastener
a) the power to be transmitted is low b) Key path 49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides experience
b) the power to be transmitted is high c) Key hole has shown that, the permissible crushing stress is about
c) the torque is high d) None of these ____________ times the permissible shear stress.
d) axial relative motion between shaft and hub 32. Used as couplings, or in addition to overload, where a) 1.3
is necessary there is danger of injury to b) 1.5
14. Which key normally used in wristwatches? machines or to material in process. c) 1.7
a) Kennedy key a) Flange couplings d) 1.9
b) Sunk key b) Involute serrations 50. The mechanical fastening that connects shafts
c) Tangent key c) King pins together for power transmission.
d) None of the above d) Shear pins a) Coupling
15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the same 33. A coupling that transmits power via the frictional b) Key
material and of equal strength the forces induced by pulling the flanges toward each other c) Splines
length of key would be equal to over slotted tapered sleeves is known as d) None of the above
a) d a) Flange coupling
b) 0.75 d b) Flange compression coupling
c) 1.2 d c) Ribbed compression coupling
d) 1.5 d d) Rigid coupling
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning machine key 34. What is used for absorbing some shock and vibration
made by a side milling cutter in the form of a segment of that may appear on one shaft and of preventing the
a disk. occurrence of reversed stresses caused by the shaft
a) Kennedy key deflecting at the coupling?
b) Saddle key a) Flange coupling
c) Tangent key b) Flexible coupling
d) Woodruff key c) Rigid coupling
17. A female mating member that forms a groove in the d) None of these
shaft to which the key fits. 35. For a single Hooke’s coupling the shaft angle should
a) Key path not be greater than
b) Key way a) 10 
c) Key holder b) 12 
d) Key hole c) 15 
18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway of square d) 30 
section and driven from opposite ends of the hub is
known as
36. A universal coupling is
a) Barth key
a) A rigid coupling
b) Feather key
b) A type of flange coupling
c) Kennedy key
c) Used for collinear coupling
d) Saddle key
d) Used for non-collinear shafts
19. A machine member employed at the interface of a
37. A flange coupling is
pair of mating male and female circular cross-sectioned
a) flexible
 TEST 7 19. A kind of bolt, which has no head but instead has c) minor diameter
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is threads on bolts ends. d) none of the above
known as a) Stud bolt 38. Turn buckle has
a) Pitch b) Acme threaded bolt a) left hand threads on both ends
b) Top flank c) Square bolt b) left hand threads on one end and right hand
c) Top land d) Hex bolt threads on other end
d) Crest 20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that c) right hand threads on both ends
2. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface is a bounds the crest of an external thread. d) no threads
a) thread series a) Mean diameter 39. The diameter of a washer is generally
b) thread shear b) Stress diameter a) equal to the diameter of bolt
c) straight thread c) Minor diameter b) slightly more than the diameter of the bolt
d) taper thread d) Major diameter c) slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
3. The conical surface at the starting end of the thread is 21. The distance in inches a screw thread advances d) of any size that suits the application
called axially in one turn. 40. The stress concentration is maximum at _________ in a
a) Pitch cone a) Lead standard coarse thread.
b) Chamfer b) Circular pitch a) all over the surface
c) Crest c) Pitch b) flank
d) Flute d) Mean pitch c) root
4. The surface connecting the cast and roots of the 22. Which of the following type of threads d) top surface
screw thread. recommended for general use? 41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has
a) Lead angle a) UNC a) one small nut is tightened over main nut and
b) Length of engagement b) UNEF main nut tightened against smaller one
c) Top land c) UNF loosening, creating friction jamming.
d) Flank d) NC b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut partly in
5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a length of one 23. It is frequently used in automobile and aircraft work. middle of tightening of screw
pitch in the axial plane on which design forms of both a) UNC c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the
the external threads are based. b) UNEF nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
a) Basic form of thread c) UNF screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip.
b) Effective thread d) NC d) Through slots are made at top and a cotter
c) Basic profile of thread 24. Which of the following type of threads are useful in pin is passed through these and a hole in the
d) Design form of external thread aeronautical equipments? bolt and cotter pin splitted and bent in
6. The top and bottom-land for gears is similar formed as a) UNC reverse direction at other end
to crest and ________ for screw thread. b) UNEF 42. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and
a) flank c) UNF surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of
b) root d) NC a least ________ times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
c) flank tooth 25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe flanges, a) 1
d) top land cylinder head studs etc. b) 2
7. Some experiments made at Cornell University showed a) UNC c) 3
that experience mechanic could bread a ________ bolt b) UNEF d) 4
due to nut tightening. c) UNF 43. Foundation bolts should be at least ____________ times
a) 3/8 d) 8UN the diameter of the anchor bolt.
b) 5/8 inch 26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on it. a) 12
c) ½ inch a) Bolt b) 14
d) 7/16 inch b) Fastener c) 16
8. The angle included between the sides of the thread c) Rivet d) 18
measured in an axial plane in a screw thread. d) None of these 44. No foundation bolts shall be less than _________ mm
a) Angle of thread 27. Which one that has no nut and turns into a threaded diameter.
b) Angle between thread or 40 deg hole? a) 10
c) Helix angle thread a) Rivet b) 12
d) Half angle thread b) Screw c) 14
9. Length of contact between two mating parts in screw c) Stud bolt d) 16
and nut threads measured axially is called d) U-bolt 45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in concrete at
a) Arc of contact 28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished through bolt, least ___________ times the bolt diameter.
b) Depth of engagement comes with a square. a) 10
c) Length of engagement a) Coupling bolt b) 20
d) Axis of contact b) Machine bolt c) 30
10. Major and minor diameters are commonly used in c) Stud bolt d) 40
a) screw thread d) Automobile bolt 46. The screw thread commonly used for transmission of
b) bolt 29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, usually motion is one of the
c) gear having coarse threads? following types of ___________ threads.
d) all of these a) Coupling bolt a) acme
11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the b) Machine bolt b) vee
a) major diameter c) Stud bolt c) knuckle
b) minor diameter d) Automobile bolt d) British Association
c) stress area 30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the 47. The spindle of bench vises are usually provided with
d) mean diameter shank underneath the head being square or finned or a) buttress threads
12. A _________ is a kind of thread in which the width of ribbed. b) square threads
the thread and the space between threads are a) Carriage bolt c) acme threads
approximately equal. b) Coupling bolt d) v-threads
a) square thread c) Machine bolt 48. Any device to connect or joint more components.
b) acme thread d) Stud bolt a) Bolt
c) buttress thread 31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends that can be b) Screw
d) whit worth thread used where a through bolt c) Fastener
13. A kind of thread that is generally used. is impossible. d) None of the above
a) UNEC a) Carriage bolt 49. When the threads are of opposite hand, the driven
b) UNC b) Coupling bolt screw moves rapidly is known as
c) UNF c) Machine bolt a) Bearing screw
d) UNEF d) Stud bolt b) Compound screw
14. A type of bolt commonly used in the construction 32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in small sizes. c) Differential screw
that is threaded in both ends. a) Stud bolt d) Set screw
a) Stud bolt b) Carriage bolt 50. The threaded length is about _________ times the
b) Acme threaded bolt c) Stove bolt diameters.
c) Square threaded bolt d) Mini bolt a) 1.25
d) Hex bolt 33. A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery and b) 1.5
15. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts. equipment to a wooden base. c) 1.8
a) Shaver a) Lag screw d) 2.0
b) Tachometer b) Log screw
c) Tensor c) Wood screw
d) Torque wrench d) None of these
16. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting 34. The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a
threads in holes. minimum of about ___________
a) Tapping tap for cast iron.
b) Plug tap a) D
c) Taper tap b) 1.5D
d) Bottoming tap c) 1.2D
17. Type of bolt intended for use in bolting wooden parts d) 2D
together or wood to metal. It has a short portion of shank 35. When the location of bolt is such that it would
just underneath a round head, which is designed to normally be shear, it is better
keep the bolt from turning in the wood when the nut is practice to use a
tightened. a) dummy bolts
a) U-bolt b) mid-pins
b) Carriage bolt c) crank pins
c) Eye bolt d) dowel pins
d) Stud bolt 36. A locking device used to maintain pressure between
18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads formed around the threads of the bolt and nut.
it and grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it, a) Gasket
intersecting with the threads to form cutting edges. It is b) Lock nuts
used to cut internal threads. c) Lock washer
a) Groove d) Lock out
b) Lap 37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is the same as
c) Tap a) major diameter
d) Flute b) pitch diameter
 TEST 8 d) 8/7 b) copper
18. It is used in high-pressure cylinders. c) bronze
1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications is a) Thin-walled cylinders d) all of the above
a) 6 x 27 b) Thick-walled cylinders 37. The ratio of the strength of all the inside wires to the
b) 6 x 37 c) Solid-walled cylinders strength of all the wires in the rope
c) 6x9 d) Hard-walled cylinders a) excess strength
d) 6 x 21 19. To obtain safe working pressure the critical pressure, b) reserve strength
2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire rope should be at least ______ times the working pressure. c) factor of safety
arrangement except this ________ which deals with rope a) 3 d) ratio of factor
materials strength . b) 4 38. The chief usage of wire ropes at the present time is
a) performed c) 5 a) elevators
b) IWRC d) 6 b) cranes
c) Mps 20. The radial pressure between the cylinders at the c) tramways
d) Lang lay surface of contact depends on the ___________ of the d) all of the above
3. One of the following materials is not mentioned for materials. 39. Tests and theoretical investigations by J.F. Howe
wire rope pulley / sheave applications. a) strength indicate that for steel ropes of the ordinary constructions
a) Plastic b) hardness the value of modulus of elasticity is
b) Iron c) modulus of elasticity a) 10,000,000 psi
c) Paper d) modulus of rigidity b) 10,500,000 psi
d) Copper alloy 21. In cross or regular lay ropes the c) 11,000,000 psi
4. The factor of safety generally applied in wire rope a) direction of twist in strands is opposite to the d) 12,000,000 psi
design starts at 3-4 for standing rope application, 5-12 for direction of twist of strands 40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use drums
operating rope and __________ for hazard to life and b) direction of twist of wires and strands are the ______________ times the rope diameter.
properly application like foundry operation. same a) 60 to 70
a) higher value c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in b) 60 to 80
b) 7 – 10 opposite direction c) 60 to 90
c) 8 – 10 d) wires are not twisted d) 60 to 100
d) 10 – 18 22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible? 41. What is the recommended sheave diameter for
5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires a) 6 by 7 haulage rope?
and standards are arranged in the following manner b) 6 by 19 a) 70d
_________ c) 6 by 37 b) 71d
a) twisted in same direction d) 8 by 19 c) 72d
b) twisted in any direction 23. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in d) 73d
c) twisted in opposite direction opposite direction. 42. What is the recommended sheave diameter for
d) twisted in along direction standard hoisting rope?
6. A process of prestressing or over stressing a hollow a) Long lay a) 40d
cylindrical member beyond the elastic range by b) Lang lay b) 45d
hydraulic pressure. c) Regular lay c) 50d
a) Presstage d) Performed d) 55d
b) Stress relieving 24. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in 43. What is the recommended sheave diameter for
c) Auto frettage the same direction. extra-flexible hoisting rope?
d) Countersinking a) Long lay a) 30d
7. When two touching surface have a high contact b) Lang lay b) 31d
pressure and when these surfaces have minute relative c) Performed c) 32d
motion a phenomenon called d) Non-performed d) 33d
a) Carving 25. A type of rope used for haulages, rigging, and 44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are
b) Friction guardrails. first wrapped into
c) Fretting a) 6 x 35 IWRC a) pulp
d) Prestressing b) 6 x 25 IWRC b) strands
8. Pipes subject to high pressure are generally made by c) 7 x 7 IWRC c) helices
a) slush casting d) 6 x 8 IWRC d) hemp
b) pressure casting 26. A rope used for general-purpose. 45. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design
c) extrusion a) 6 x 15 IWRC factor of guy’s is
d) centrifugal casting b) 6 x 21 IWRC a) 3.0
9. Hoop stress refers to c) 6 x 19 IWRC b) 3.5
a) circumferential tensile stress d) 7 x 26 IWRC c) 4.0
b) compressive stress 27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers, overheated d) 5.0
c) longitudinal stress cranes, hoists. 46. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design
d) radial stress a) 6 x 34 IWRC factor of miscellaneous hoisting equipment is
10. Autfrettage is the method of b) 6 x 35 IWRC a) 3.0
a) calculating stress in thick cylinders c) 6 x 37 IWRC b) 5.0
b) increasing life of thick cylinders d) 6 x 45 IWRC c) 7.0
c) prestressing thick cylinders 28. The regular materials for wire rope are made of d) 9.0
d) relieving thick cylinders a) cast steel 47. An extra flexible rope is
11. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick b) chromium a) 6x7
cylinder is c) wrought iron b) 6 x 19
a) maximum at inner surface and decreases d) high-carbon steel c) 6 x 37
toward outer surface 29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow Steel is in the d) 7x7
b) minimum at inner surface and increases range of 48. The strength of the rope is always ____________ the
towards outer surface a) 200 and 400 ksi sum of the strength of wires
c) minimum at inner and outer surfaces and b) 240 and 280 ksi a) less than
maximum in middle c) 230 and 260 ksi b) more than
d) maximum at inner and outer surfaces and d) 400 and 500 ksi c) equal
minimum in middle 30. The minimum suggested design factor of ________ for d) the same
12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any ropes miscellaneous hoisting equipment. 49. One of the most popular rope style is
point in the thickness of the cylinder, the radial stress Sr a) 2 a) 6x7
and hoop stress Sh are related as b) 3 b) 6 x 19
a) Sr – Sh = constant c) 4 c) 6 x 37
b) Sr + Sh = constant d) 5 d) 7x7
c) Sr/Sh = constant 31. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended 50. The minimum factor of safety of small hoist is
d) Sr – Sh/Sr = constant limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for cast iron. a) 3
13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t a) 200 psi b) 5
when subjected to internal pressure P, if Poisson’s ratio of b) 300 psi c) 7
material is  , the circumferential or hoop strain is c) 400 psi d) 9
a) Pd(1-2)/2tE d) 500 psi
b) Pd(1-2)/ 32. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended
c) Pd(1/2 - )/2tE limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ________ for cast steel.
d) Pd(1/2-)/4tE a) 700 psi
14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall thickness to b) 900 psi
the inside diameter is ___________ may be called a thin c) 1000 psi
cylinder d) 1200 psi
a) less than 0.05 33. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended
b) less than 0. limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for
c) more than 0.05 manganese steel.
d) more than 0.07 a) 2000 psi
15. External pressure tubes in boilers are designed with an b) 2300 psi
apparent factor of safety of c) 2500 psi
a) 1 to 3 d) 3000 psi
b) 4 to 6 34. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are
c) 5 to 7 first wrapped into
d) 8 to 10 a) layer
16. Refers to a hollow product of round or any other cross b) segment
section having a continuous periphery. c) strands
a) Gear d) none of these
b) Flywheel 35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the rope is made of
c) Sphere six strands each containing
d) Tube a) 7 pieces
17. The thickness should be multiplied by _________ to b) 7 diameters
obtain the nominal wall thickness. c) 7 wires
a) 5/8 d) 7 strands
b) 8/5 36. Ropes are made of
c) 7/8 a) aluminum alloys
TEST 9 d) Relative strength b) Arc welding when reverse polarity is
17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety used
1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual may be taken as c) Gas welding
stress in the welding it is normally stress relieved of a) 2 d) Welding stainless steel
a) Quenching b) 3 35. Unlike materials or materials of different
b) Normalizing c) 5 thickness can be butt welded by
c) Tempering d) 5 a) Adjusting initial gap
d) Drawing 18. Are resistance welds, usually round in the b) Adjusting time duration of current
2. A of welding whereby a wire or powder from same form as the electrodes that press the sheets c) Control of pressure and current
the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a gas flame, together d) All of the above
arc or plasma jet and then molten particles are a) Edge joint 36. The phenomenon of weld decay takes place
projected in a form of a spray by means of b) MIG joint in
compressed air or gas is known a c) Spot joint a) Brass
a) Elector-slug building d) TIG joint b) Bronze
b) Electro-beam welding 19. Consists of short lengths (2 to 3 inches long) of c) Cast iron
c) Plasma-arc welding welds with space between as 6 inches on centers. d) Stainless steel
d) Metal spray welding a) Intermittent weld 37. Laser welding is widely used in
3. Weld metal impact specimen shall be taken b) MIG weld a) electronic industry
across the weld with one face substantially parallel c) Spot welds b) Heavy industry
to and within d) TIG welds c) Process industry
a) 3/4in 20. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the d) Structural work
b) 1/32 in. members in position for assembly purposes or for 38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger
c) ¼ in. principal welding preparation for welding is not needed?
d) 1/16 in. a) Edge weld a) 2 mm
4. A joint between to overlapping members in b) Tack weld b) 4 mm
whom the overlapped edge of one member is c) Back welds c) 8 mm
welded with a fillet weld is called d) Half welds d) 12 mm
a) A single welded lap joint 21. A welding operation that uses hot flame and 39. Grey cast iron is best welded by
b) Double welded lap joint metal rod is known as a) Arc
c) A single welded lap joint with backing a) Gas welding b) MIG
d) Track weld b) Arc welding c) Oxy- acetylene
5. A weld place in groove between two butting c) Resistance welding d) TIG
members is called d) Automatic welding 40. In resistance welding, the pressure is release
a) Full-fillet weld 22. The arc is covered with a welding a) Just at the time of passing the current
b) Tack weld composition and bare electrode wire is fed b) After completion of currents
c) Butt weld automatically c) After the weld cools
d) fillet weld a) Resistance welding d) During heating
6. A weld of approximately triangular cross- b) Submerged arc welding 41. Half corner weld is used
section that join two surfaces at approximately c) Induction welding a) Where severe loading is encountered
right angles as in lap joint, tee joint, corner joint. d) Spot welding and the upper surfaces of both pieces
a) Single welded lap joint 23. Treating the weld as a line, the amount or must be in the same plane
b) Fillet weld inertia about center of gravity of a circular weld or b) Where efficiency of joint should be 50%
c) Tack weld diameter d would b c) Where longitudinal shear is present
d) Butt weld a) 𝜋 d2/36 d) None of the above
7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the b) 𝜋d2/6 42. Projection welding is
thickness of the inner joint member is called c) 𝜋 d3/36 a) Continuous spot welding process
a) Butt joint d) 𝜋d3/4 b) Multi spot welding process
b) Butt weld 24. For butt welding of two plates each of which c) Used to form frameworks
c) Tack weld is 25 mm thick, the best process would be d) All of the above
d) Full-fillet weld a) TIG welding 43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxy- acetylene
8. A weld made to hold the parts of a b) MIG welding welding with
weldment in proper alignment until the final welds c) Gas welding a) Excess oxygen
are made of d) Electro slag welding b) Excess of acetylene
a) Butt weld 25. What should be the maximum size of the fillet c) Equal parts of both gases
b) Tack weld weld? d) Reduced acetylene
c) Fillet weld a) 2 mm 44. Brasses and bronzes are welded using
d) Full fillet weld b) 3 mm a) Carburizing flame
9. Test is designed primarily for application to c) 5 mm b) Neutral flame
electric-welded tubing for detection of lack of d) 7 mm c) Oxidizing flame
penetration or overlaps resulting from flash removal 26. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can d) Reducing flame
in the weld be made in single pass is 45. One of the following function is not
a) Butt weld a) 3 mm performed by coating on the welding electrodes is
b) Paste b) 6 mm to
c) Lap weld c) 8 mm a) Increase the cooling rate
d) Double butt weld d) 12 mm b) Provide protective atmosphere
10. The internal stresses existing in a welded 27. Which diamond riveted joint can be c) Refuse oxidation
connection are adopted? d) Stabilize the arc
a) Relieved by x-ray analysis a) Butt joint 46. Welding defect called arc blow occurs in
b) Maybe relieved when weld is penned b) Lap joint a) Arc welding using ac current
c) Not relieved when the weld is penned c) Double riveted lap joint b) Arc welding using dc current
d) Not relieved by heat treatment d) All types of joints c) Gas welding
11. A welding operation in which a non-ferrous 28. Wiping is the process of d) MIG welding
fillet metal at a temperature below that of the a) Applying flux during welding process 47. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to
metal joined but is heated above 450C b) Clearing the welded surface after the a) Increase fluidity of solder material
a) Spot welding welding operation is over b) Full up gaps in bad joint
b) Gas welding c) Connecting load pipes by soldering c) Prevent oxide formation
c) Brazing alloy d) Lower the melting temperature of the
d) Arc welding d) Low temperature welding solder
12. Uniting two pieces of metal by means of a 29. A collimated light beam is used for producing 48. The parts are lapped and held in place
different metal which is applied between the two heat in under pressure
in molten state a) Laser welding a) Butt welding
a) Casting b) MIG welding b) Spot welding
b) Welding c) Plasma welding c) Steam welding
c) Soldering d) TIG welding d) Projection welding
d) Brazing 30. During MIG welding the metal is transferred in 49. The parts are brought together lightly with
13. Joining metal by means of high current at the form of current flowing and then separated slightly
low voltage. During the passage of current, a) A fine spray of metal a) Mash weld
pressure by the electrodes produces a forge weld: b) Continuous flow of molten metal b) Steam welding
a) Spot welding c) Electron beam c) Flush welding
b) Resistance welding d) Solution d) Percussion welding
c) Steam welding 31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be spot 50. Which of the following produced a series of
d) Gas welding welded then electrode tip diameter is equal to spot welds made by circular or wheel type
14. A fusion process in which the metal is heated a) √𝑡 electrodes?
together into a solid joint. b) 1.5√𝑡 a) Steam welding
a) Electric arc welding c) 2.5√𝑡 b) Mash welding
b) Gas welding d) 2√𝑡 c) Spot welding
c) Spot welding 32. Weld spatter refers to d) Steam welding
d) Projection welding a) Flux
15. As one example, the ASME code for riveted b) Filler material
joints permits the design surface compressive stress c) Welding defect
to be about ________ higher than the design tensile d) Welding electrode
stress. 33. Which of the following metals can be suitably
a) 40% welded by TIG welding?
b) 50% a) Aluminum
c) 60% b) Magnesium
d) 70% c) A and B above
16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of minimum d) Stainless steel
strength of joint to the strength of solid joint is 34. Arc blow takes place in
known as a) Arc welding when straight polarity is
a) Efficiency used
b) Joint efficiency
c) Performance factor
TEST 10 b) Keeping the solder from running off the temperature above the recrystallization
metal temperature.
1. The soldering material commonly applied for c) Keeping the tip of the soldering iron a) Flash welding
automobile radiator cores and roofing seams. and clean b) Projection welding
a) 15/85 % tin and lead d) Remove and prevent oxidation of the c) Thermit welding
b) 50/50% tin and lead metals d) Resistance welding
c) 45/55% tin and lead 19. Soldering is the process of 35. A fusion welding process in which the
d) 20/80% tin and lead a) Holding two metals together by heating welding heat is obtained from an electric arc set
2. The flux that should be provided in soldering b) Joining two metals by a third soft metal up either between the base metal and one
electrical connection or commutator wires as its that is applied in a molten state electrode or between to electrodes.
tends to corrode the connectors called c) Holding two different kinds of metals a) Arc welding
a) Sal ammoniac together by heating b) Gas welding
b) Zinc chloride d) All of the above c) Fusion welding
c) Stearin 20. Brazing is used for joining d) Spot welding
d) Acid fluxes a) Tow ferrous material 36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to be
3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint. b) One ferrous and non-ferrous material joined by welding in a satisfactory manner.
a) Stronger than c) Two non-ferrous metal a) Flame plating
b) The same strength as d) Two non-metals b) Metal spraying
c) Three times as strong as 21. What is the most commonly used flux for c) Metalizing
d) Weaker than brazing? d) Weldability
4. Brazing requires a) Zinc chloride 37. A surfacing method of blasting particles of
a) Hard solder b) Zinc and tin tungsten carbide onto the surface of a piece of
b) Soft solder c) Zinc and copper metal.
c) More heat d) Zinc and lead a) Flame plating
d) Choices A and C 22. Multi spot welding process is also referred as b) Metal spraying
5. What is the reason why lead is used in _____welding c) Metalizing
solders? a) Tack d) Powder pouring
a) It has a high melting point. b) Fillet 38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be taken
b) It has a low melting point. c) TIG as equal to
c) It is cheap d) Projection a) 80%
d) Choices B and C 23. The maximum temperature developed for b) 60%
6. The higher the melting pint of the solder, the oxy-hydrogen welding is c) 90%
a) Harder the solder joint a) 1755 C d) 95%
b) Softer the solder joint b) 1965 C 39. When the tensile strength of steel shell plates
c) Stronger the solder joint c) 2565 C is not known it shall be taken as
d) Weaker the solder joint d) 3440 C a) 379. 31 N/mm2
7. Special solders used for aluminum usually 24. The maximum temperature developed for b) 565.71 N/mm2
require oxy-acetylene welding is c) 556.17 N/mm2
a) less heat a) 1965 C d) 671.55 N/mm2
b) More heat b) 2565 C 40. Minimum thickness for boiler plate shall be
c) The same heat as copper wire c) 3440 C a) 3.56 mm
d) The same heat as sheet metal d) 4565 C b) 5.36 mm
8. The flux usually used for hard solder is 25. A mixture of aluminum powder and a metal c) 6. 36 mm
a) Alum oxide powder is ignited by a special powder in a d) 6. 56 mm
b) Barium crucible. 41. The strength of iron rivets in single shear
c) Borax a) Thermit welding a) 262 N/mm2
d) Rosin b) Stud welding b) 303 N/mm 2
9. Soft solder melts at approximately c) Resistance welding c) 524 N/mm 2
a) 250 °F d) Gas welding d) 607 N/mm 2
b) 350 °F 26. A welding where an arc is struck between 42. The strength of steel rivets in single shear
c) 450 °F two tungsten electrodes into which a jet of a) 262 N/mm2
d) 550 °F hydrogen is directed b) 303 N/mm2
10. Soft solder is made of a) Atomic hydrogen welding c) 524 N/mm 2
a) Copper and zinc b) Electron beam welding d) 607 N/mm 2
b) Tin and copper c) Electro slug welding 43. When the longitudinal seams are of lap
c) Tin and lead d) Flash welding riveted construction the minimum factor of safety is
d) Tin and zinc 27. A common rule is to make the rivet hole a) 5
11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most popular diameter from ________ for rivets in single or double b) 6
but if you did not have any, you could use _____ as shear. c) 7
substitute a) 1.2 t to 1.4 t d) 8
a) Hydrochloric acid b) to 44. The maximum allowable working pressure of
b) Nitric acid c) to a non-code steel or wrought iron heating boiler of
c) Sulfuric acid welded construction shall not exceed.
d) to
d) Any of the above a) 0.5 bar
12. Hard solder is made of b) 1.0 bar
a) Copper and zinc 28. Fusion welding is the name frequently given c) 1.5 bar
b) Tin and copper to processes not requiring pressure. It is sometimes d) 2.0 bar
c) Tin and lead called 45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that the edge
d) Tin and zinc a) Flash welding distance must be not less than
13. Soldered will not unite with a metal surface b) Seam welding a) 1.5d
that has c) Spot welding b) 2.0d
a) Dirt on it d) Thermit welding c) 2.5d
b) Grease on it 29. The ratio of the load that will produce the d) 3.0d
c) Oxidation on it allowable stress in any part of the joint to the load 46. A method of resistance welding in which the
d) Any of the above that will produce the allowable tension stress in the heating and the pressure are localized at specified
14. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the soldered unpunched plate. points by providing embossed or coined
area must be cleaned thoroughly afterwards to a) Efficiency of the welded projections on the pieces to be joined.
prevent b) Efficiency of the jont a) Projection welding
a) Anyone touching it from getting burned c) Performance factor b) Flash welding
b) Remaining acid form eating the metal d) Load factor c) Seam welding
c) The acid form evaporating and the 30. Thicker plates usually require excessive rivet d) Resistance welding
solder disintegrating sizes and for practical reasons the rivet diameter is 47. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the
d) None of the above made approximately members in position for assembly purposes or for
15. Sweating is the process of a) 1.2t the principal welding.
a) Soldering two different kinds of metal b) 1.2 a) Spot weld
b) Separating two pieces of metal that c) 2t b) Tack weld
have been soldered together d) 2 c) Butt weld
c) Tinning two surfaces, applying flux 31. The process of joining metals by means by d) Fillet weld
them, holding the two together and heating to a temperature above the 48. What type of welding that the hot flame and
heating recrystallization temperature or to fusion with or a metal rod are used?
d) None of the above without the application or pressure a) Seam welding
16. A surface to be soldered should be prepared a) Brazing b) Gas welding
by b) Soldering c) Spot welding
a) Acid cleaning the surfaces c) Welding d) Resistance welding
b) Filing the surfaces d) Seaming 49. It used for joining members of approximately
c) Scraping the surfaces 32. The process of bonding two or more pieces equal in cross-section
d) Any of the above of metal together by means of another metal a) Mash welding
17. One of the most important factors that is whose melting point is below 800⁰F b) Butt welding
often overlooked when soldering is the fact that a) Brazing c) Upset welding
b) Seaming d) Choices B and C
a) The surfaces to be soldered must be c) Soldering 50. The melting point of the filler material in
clean d) Welding brazing is approximately or above.
b) The two metals to be soldered must not 33. The process of joining metal parts by means a) 420⁰F
be the same of a non ferrous fitter or alloy that melts at a b) 600⁰F
c) The two metals to be soldered must be temperature above 800⁰F. c) 800⁰F
the same a) Brazing d) 1000⁰F
d) All surfaces should be dipped in acid b) Seaming
first c) Soldering
18. When soldering, flux is used for d) Welding
34. The process of joining metals in which the two
a) Keeping the metal from getting too hot parts are joined by heating them electrically to a
TEST 11

1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing design, B. The greater the load capacity of C. Radial load
the clearance ratio/clearance should be the bearing D. Peripheral load
A. 0.01001 C. None of these 37. Conrad bearing is also known as
B. 0.0101 D. Variable A. Needle bearing
C. 0.0110 20. Which of the following is considered an B. Ball bearing
D. 0.0010 advantage for bearing materials? C. Roller bearing
2. Also called eccentrically loaded bearing A. Conformability D. Tapered bearing
A. Full bearing B. Embeddability 38. The combined effect of many of the
B. Offset bearing C. Compatibility variables involved in the operation of a bearing
C. Partial bearing D. All of these under hydrodynamic lubrication can be
D. Fitted bearing 21. For thrust bearing the speed at moderate characterized by the dimensionless number called:
3. Wahta type of bearing which totally encloses operating conditions is A. Reynolds Number
the shaft? A. 50<Vm>200 fpm B. Prandtl Number
A. Offset bearing B. 50<Vm>220 fpm C. Grashof Number
B. Central bearing C. 50<Vm>250 fpm D. Sommerfeld Number
C. Babbitt bearing D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm 39. It exits primarily to guide the motion of a
D. Full bearing 22. The 200 series bearing is called machine member without specific regard to the
4. All are functions of lubricating oil except A. Heavy direction of load application.
A. Adhesion B. Light A. radial bearing
B. Corrosion prevention C. Medium B. Journal bearing
C. Act as coolant D. None of these C. Thrust bearing
D. To tighten the load 23. The 300 series bearing is called D. Guide bearing
5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant A. Heavy 40. It carries a load collinear to the axis of
A. Lube oil B. Light possible rotation of the supported member.
B. Graphite C. Medium A. Guide bearing
C. Grease D. None of these B. Journal bearing
D. All of these 24. A type of roller bearing in which the balls are C. Thrust bearing
6. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in assembled by the eccentric displacement of the D. Radial bearing
itself inner ring. 41. The 400 series bearing is called:
A. Zinc A. Shallow-groove ball bearing A. Light
B. Antimony B. Self-aligning ball bearing B. Medium
C. Babbit C. Filling-slot ball bearing C. Heavy
D. Lead D. Deep-groove ball bearing D. Extra heavy
7. Which of the following materials is unsuitable 25. Which of the following is not a type of ball 42. The product of length and diameter of the
as a bearing? bearing? bearing is called:
A. Teflon A. Shallow-groove ball bearing A. Shearing area
B. Low carbon steel B. Self-aligning ball bearing B. Compressive area
C. Cast iron C. Fillet-slot ball bearing C. Projected area
D. Nylon D. Deep-groove ball bearing D. Cross-sectional area
8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which 26. Steel ball for ball bearing are manufactured 43. If the length over diameter of the bearing is
A. The lube oil is supplied under by unity, it is also known as
pressure A. Casting
B. Lube oil is not pressurized B. Cold headling A. Long bearing
C. There is no lube oil C. Rolling B. Short bearing
D. Bearing is lightly loaded D. Turning C. Medium bearing
9. At the same thermal and minimum film, 27. In hydrodynamic bearings D. Square bearing
thickness limitation as sleeve A. The oil film pressure is generated only 44. A bearing in which the length ratio
A. Ball bearing by the rotation of the journal Length/diameter is greater than 1.
B. Roller bearing B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil A. Short bearings
C. Thrust bearing under pressure B. Long bearings
D. Full bearing C. Do not need external supply of C. Square bearings
10. The desired between two surfaces having lubricant D. Medium bearings
relatively sliding motion is known D. Grease is used for lubrication
A. Lube oil 28. If P = bearing pressure on projected bearing 45. The product of absolute viscosity and
B. Graphite area, Z= absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = rotational speed divided by the unit loading.
C. Packing speed of journal, then the bearing characteristic A. Section modulus
D. Lubrication number is given by B. Bearing modulus
11. What bearing composed of two principal A. ZN/P C. Shear modulus
parts, namely the B. Z/ PN D. All of the above
A. Bearing and journal C. ZP/ N
B. Clearance and fitted D. P/ZN 46. From the line of radial loading on the bearing
C. Bolt and Babbitt 29. The rated life of a bearing changes to the position of the minimum oil-film thickness.
D. Bolt and cylinder A. Directly as load A. Attitude angle
12. When the line of action of the load bisects B. Inversely as fourth power of load B. Latitude angle
the arc of partial bearing it is said to be: C. Inversely as cube of load C. Longitude angle
A. Eccentrically loaded D. Inversely as square of load D. Altitude angle
B. Fit loaded
C. Centrally loaded 30. In oiless bearing 47. The radial distance between the center of
D. Surface loaded A. The oil film pressure is produced only by the the bearing and the displaced center of the
13. It is the difference in the radii of the bearing rotation of the journal journal is called.
and the journal B. The oil film I maintained by supplying oil under A. Concentricity
A. Even clearance pressure B. Eccentricity
B. Clearance ratio C. Do not need external supply of lubricant C. Embeddability
C. Fit clearance D. Grease is needed to be applied after some D. None of the above
D. Radial clearance intervals 48. Which of the following is an example of solid
14. It is one in which the radii of the journal and 31. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise direction at lubricant?
the bearing are the same slow speed inside a bearing will be A. Molybdenum disulfide
A. Clearance bearing A. At bottom most of bearing B. Graphite
B. Fitted bearing B. Towards left side of bearing and making
C. Full bearing metal to metal contact C. Tungsten disulfide
D. Partial bearing C. Towards left side of bearing and making no D. All of the above
15. The line that passes through centers of the metal to metal contact 49. The length ratio L/D typically varies between
bearing and the journal is called the D. Towards right side of bearing and making A. 0.1 to 0.5
A. Line of action no metal to metal contact B. 0.2 to 0.6
B. Line of centers 32. A machine part that supports another part, C. 0.2 to 0.8
C. Line of tangent which rotates, slides or oscillateds in or on it D. 0.25 to 1.0
D. Under cut A. Journal 50. The operating temperature of the Babbitt is
16. Length-diameter ration was a good B. Bearing limited to
compromise for the general case of hydrodynamic C. Roller A. 200°F
bearings. It is approximately equal to D. Casing B. 300°F
A. 1 33. The part of a shaft or crank which is C. 400°F
B. 2 supported by and turns in bearing. D. 500°F
C. 3 A. Casing
D. 4 B. Bushing
17. Operating temperature of oil film ranges C. Roller
_____________ or less D. Journal
A. 120 F to 190 F 34. It is also called anti-friction bearing.
B. 130 F to 160 F A. Rolling bearing
C. 140 F to 150 F B. Thrust bearing
D. 140 F to 160 F C. Tapered bearing
18. At higher temperature, the oil oxidizes more D. Single row bearing
rapidly above 35. Which of the following is a bearing material?
A. 120F A. Babbitt
B. 140F B. Bronze
C. 160F C. Plastics
D. 200F D. All of the above
19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by 36. It acts toward the center of the bearing
experiments is _____ that the smoother the surface. along a radius.
A. Constant A. Thrust load
B. Tangential load
TEST 12

1. A heavy rotating body which serves as a B. 0.40 to 0.50% C. Full spring

reservoir for absorbing and redistributing kinetic C. 0.50 to 0.60% D. Conical spring
energy. D. 0.60 to 0.70% 37. Cross wire grooves are types which
A. Gear 19. Experimental results indicate that the actual A. Decrease the danger of skidding
B. Brakes frequency of the spring is from B. Absorb shocks because of road
C. Flywheel A. 5 to 10% unevenness
D. Fan B. 10 to 15% C. Provide good faction
2. Which of the following is not a use of spring? C. 15 to 20% D. Provide better load carrying capacity
A. Absorbs energy D. 20 to 25% 38. The _____ of parallel connection of spring is
B. Measure weight 20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the critical always constant
C. Source of energy in clocks frequency of the spring should behold at least Elongation
D. Measure the thickness ________ times the frequency of application of a A. Load
3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to the coil periodic load. B. Thermal conductivity
diameter A. 5 C. Resistance
A. Wahl factor B. 10 39. Speedometer drive is generally taken from
B. Diameter ratio C. 15 A. Dynamo
C. Spring index D. 20 B. Flywheel
D. Lead angle 21. The actual number of coil is _________ in a C. Gear
4. The overall length of the spring when it is squared and ground ends. D. Front wheel
compressed until all adjacent coils touched. A. n 40. The device for smoothing out the power
A. Compressed length B. n+2 impulses from the engine is known as
B. Free length C. nd A. Clutch
C. Solid length D. ( n + 1) d B. Flywheel
D. None of these 22. The solid length of squared ends is C. Gearbox
5. The length of coil sprig under no load. A. (n+3)d D. Differential
A. Compressed length B. (n+1)d 41. Typical hub length falls between
B. Free length C. np A. 1.25D to 2.4D
C. Solid height D. n+2 B. 1.25D to 5D
D. None of these 23. The free length of ground ends is C. 1.3 D to 3.4D
6. In general, steel spring are made of relatively A. np + 3d D. D to 7D
high carbon steel usually B. np + 2d 42. The recommended coefficient of fluctuation
A. More than 0.5% C. np + d of flywheels for punching, shearing, and pressing
B. 5% D. np machine is
C. Less than 0.5% 24. the shortest length for the spring during A. 0.05 to 0.10
D. 10% normal operation B. 0.03 to 0.05
7. When heat treated wire is coiled cold, it A. compressed length C. 0.002 to 0.005
should be stress relieved for bending stresses after B. operating length D. 0.01 to 0.02
cooling by being heated at some at what C. solid length 43. Attached to the rear end of the crankshaft is
temperature D. free length the
A. 400F 25. the relationship between the force exerted A. Vibration damper
B. 500F by a spring and its deflection is called B. Flywheel
C. 600F A. spring index C. Drive pulley
D. 700F B. spring rate D. Timing gear
8. A low cost spring material, suitable where C. wahl’s factor 44. Flywheel is also known as
service is not severe and dimensional precision is D. Spring angle A. Steering wheel
not needed. 26. The ration of the mean diameter of the spring B. Front wheel
A. Hard drawn wire spring to the wire diameter is called C. Balance wheel
B. Helical spring A. Spring index D. Rear wheel
C. Stainless steel B. Spring ratio 45. What energy is stored in flywheels?
D. Helical tension spring wire C. Spring rate A. Kinetic energy
9. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but it is D. Spring constant B. Internal energy
made of high-grade steel 27. Refers to the axial distance from a point on C. Potential energy
A. Music wire one coil to the corresponding point on the next D. Rest energy
B. Oil tempered wire adjacent coil. 46. What is the function of the flywheel?
C. Song wire A. Lead A. To keep the speed fluctuation within the
D. Chromium- silicon B. Spring distance desired limits
10. A spring wire with good quality for impact C. Pitch B. To limit the momentary rise or fall in speed
loads at moderately high temperature D. Spring deflection during sudden changes of load
A. Hard drawn wire spring 28. The spring index for general industrial uses C. To keep the angular advance or retardation
B. Helical spring wire should be within prescribed limit as compared with a
C. Chromium-silicon A. 5 to 7 perfectly uniform angular speed
D. Helical tension spring wire B. 6 to 8 D. All of the above
11. A type of coil where the helical coil is C. 7 to 9 47. In many flywheel designs, about how many
wrapped into a circle forming an annular ring D. 8 to 10 percent of the weight is concentrated in the hub
A. Volute spring 29. What is the spring index of valve and clutch? and arms
B. Motor spring A. 3 A. 20
C. Hair spring B. 5 B. 30
D. Garter spring C. 7 C. 35
12. A type of spring where thin flat strip wound D. 9 D. 45
up on itself as a plane spiral, usually anchored at 30. Refers to the space between adjacent coils 48. A large rotary machine part whose function is
the inside when the spring is compressed to its operating to store energy and to produce uniform angular
A. Volute spring length velocity of the shaft or reciprocating engine.
B. Motor spring A. Coil allowance A. Cam
C. Hair spring B. Coil tolerance B. Idler
D. Garter spring C. Coil clearance C. Flywheel
13. A type of spring made in the form of dished D. None of these D. Chuck
washer 31. The most practical spring designs produce a 49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia assists in
A. Volute spring pitch angle is less than securing uniform motion of machinery by resisting
B. Motor spring A. 12° sudden changes of speed.
C. Hair spring B. 15° A. Linkage
D. Beleville spring C. 20° B. Crank
14. In laminated spring the strips are provided in D. 25° C. Planetary gears
different lengths for 32. Engine valves get shut by means of D. Flywheel
A. Economy A. Valve lock 50. The function of a flywheel is to
B. Reduction in weight B. Tappet A. Complete the unusual stroke
C. Improved appearance C. Valve spring B. Operated the engines
D. Space consideration of the utility D. Adjusting screw C. Keep the engines weight light
stage 33. Which of the following materials is used for D. None of theses
15. An elastic stored energy machine element leaf and coil spring?
that when released, will recover its basic form A. AISI 3140
A. Flywheel B. AISI 3150
B. Clutch C. AISI 3240
C. Brakes D. AISI 4063
D. Spring 34. The circumference of a coil spring times the
16. When a spring is made of ductile material, effective number of coils is called
the curvature factor would be A. Active length
A. Zero B. Solid length
B. Constant C. Compressed length
C. Unity D. Operating length
D. Positive 35. For spring subjected to light service, the
17. The solid length plus the clearance plus the factor of safety __________ is suggested
maximum deflection. A. 1.5
A. Free length B. 2.0
B. Height C. 2.5
C. Distance D. 3.0
D. Original length 36. Refers to a flat or curved made of thin
18. The majority of coils springs are made of coil superimposed plates and formin a cantilever or
tempered carbon steel wire containing beam of uniform strength.
______________ carbon. A. Laminated spring
A. 0.30 to 0.40% B. Graduated spring
TEST 13
1. A shaft that is used to connect or disconnect D. None of these D. Slip clutch
at will is called: 19. A hydraulic clutch doesn’t incorporate a: 38. Refers to the simplest type of brakes.
A. Clutch A. Clutch plate A. Differential brakes
B. Bearing B. Oil plate B. Block brakes
C. Brake Shaft C. Vacuum plate C. Band brakes
D. Lock Shaft D. None of these D. Brake shoe
2. The frictional forces depend on coefficient of 20. The lining of a brake shoe: 39. The practical length of shoe is limited to
friction and: A. Can be changed about:
A. Torque B. Cannot be fitted A. 75 o
B. Weights of object C. Can be fitted with spring B. 90 o
C. Normal Force D. None of these C. 120 o
D. Moment 21. Due to air effect, the hydraulic brakes D. 180 o
3. Friction devices used to regulate the motion become: 40. If the angle of contact is ______, the pressure
of bodies and with clutches A. More effective between the brakes shoe and the drum cannot be
A. Rollers B. Ineffective considered uniform:
B. Brakes C. Possible A. Less than 45 deg
C. Babbitt D. None of these B. Less than 60 deg
D. Holders 22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is: C. Greater than 60 deg
4. The part of the total frictional energy that is A. About 90 percent D. Greater than 120 deg
stored in the brake parts, principally in the drum or B. 60-80 percent 41. It is used to stop the motion of a moving
disk has been estimated at __________. C. 50-60 percent object.
A. 56% up D. 40-50 percent A. Clutch
B. 86% up 23. The SAE recommends an angle of ________ B. Brakes
C. 90% up for cone clutches faced with leather or asbestos or C. Band clutch
D. 75% up having cork inserts: D. Band brake
5. The part of an automobile disc clutch that A. 7.5 o 42. The effectiveness of the brake may greatly
presses against the flywheel is referred to as: B. 9.5 o decrease shortly after it begins to act continuously,
C. 12.5o a phenomenon called:
A. Contact plate D. 14.5o A. Creep
B. Friction plate 24. Why does a clutch create noise? B. Pressurized
C. Pressure plate A. Clutch release bearings is either dry or C. Fade
D. Sliding plate defective D. Worn-out
6. The brake capacity to absorb energy is B. Clutch spring is broken 43. Type of brake under the category of power
known as: C. Clutch is faulty brake is known as:
A. Energy D. All of these A. Servo brake
B. Resistance brake 25. What faults develop in the brakes? B. Band brake
C. A. Brakes do not work properly C. Differential brake
D. Braking torque B. Brakes do not disengage D. Brake shoe
7. If the band warps partly around the brake C. Brake make noise 44. Clutches which are designed to transmit
wheel or drum and brake action is obtained by D. All of these torque for one direction of rotation of the driver
pulling the band tight onto the wheel. This type of 26. Which of the following types of brakes are and then free-wheel or transmit essentially no
brake is known as: also changed while replacing brake lining? torque when the direction of the driver rotation is
A. Block brake A. Brake shoes reversed.
B. Band brake B. Shoe rivets A. Magnetic clutches
C. Clutch C. Shoe spring B. Trip clutches
D. Centrifugal brake D. Block brake C. Overrunning clutches
8. The brake lining operating at temperature 27. Power brakes require ______ power: D. Slip clutches
_____, sintered mixtures containing ceramics are A. Equal 45. The reason for noise at the time of engaging
used: B. Less brake:
A. 750 F to 1000 F C. More A. Back plate being loose or bent
B. 560 F to 900 F D. Pulsating B. Brake shoe being loose or bent
C. 800 F to 1200 F 28. That type of oil is used in the hydraulic brake C. Brake drum could be defective
D. 400 F to 789 F system? D. All of these
9. Hydrodynamic brake is the major type of: A. Engine oil 46. When the vehicle runs brake drum becomes
A. Air brake B. Gear oil hot because of friction of the shoe. This fault is
B. Fluid brake C. Brake oil known as _______
C. Electric brake D. Clutch oil A. Brake lining
D. Spot brake 29. The principal parts of a hydraulic brake B. Brake winding
10. Type of brakes that are capable of stopping system are the master cylinder and the: C. Back plate
the motion of a machine member as well as A. Multi-cylinder D. None of these
retarding its motion B. Wheel cylinder 47. The maintenance of mechanical brake is:
A. Electrical brake C. Brake wire A. Expensive
B. Fluid brake D. Brake shoe B. Economical
C. Air brake 30. In the mechanical brake system, the main C. Costly
D. Mechanical brake function is of: D. None of these
11. It is considered as the simplest type of A. Spring 48. What is the most common defect of clutch?
mechanical brake. B. Cam A. Slip of the clutch
A. Differential brake C. Shoe adjuster B. Clutch does not disengage
B. Block brake D. Shoe rivets properly
C. Band brake 31. In motor vehicles, there is a __________ in C. Clutch creates noise
D. Brake shoe addition of foot brake. D. All of these
12. The friction devices used to connect shafts: A. Hand brake 49. The act keeping some pressure on the clutch
A. Brakes B. Hydraulic brake pedal at the time of driving is known as:
B. Clutches C. Mechanical brake A. Hydraulic clutch
C. Spring D. Band brake B. Slip of the clutch
D. Holder 32. Which of the following is also used in the C. Riding on clutch
13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of heavier suspension system? D. Clutch adjustment
rotary masses. A. Shock absorbers 50. Which of the following shortcoming in the
A. Multiple disc clutch B. Brake shoes cone clutch because of which the clutch is not
B. Disc cluth C. Cams used?
C. Cone clutch D. Block brakes A. Clutch slips quickly
D. None of these 33. There are ______ plates in a multi-plate clutch B. It occupies more space
14. The overrunning clutch A. More than one C. Adjustment has to be done early
A. Should be oiled B. Less than four D. All of these
B. Should be repacked with grease C. More than ten
C. Cannot be lubricated D. Less than one
D. Contains no lubricant 34. Hydraulic clutches are used in _______
15. The overrunning clutch: vehicles.
A. Transmits cranking force to the A. Costly
engine flywheel B. Foreign made
B. Is one way clutch C. Cheap
C. Prevents the engine flywheel from D. Affordable
driving the starting motor 35. Which of the following is mounted inside the
D. All of these clutch?
16. Clutch gear box, differential etc. are the A. An engine
parts of: B. Gear box propeller shaft
A. Charging system C. Both the rear axle
B. Transmission system D. All of these
C. Cooling system 36. Which clutch is suitable for mine hoists and
D. None of these other services where heavy loads are
17. In motor vehicles, it is very common practice accompanied by severe shock?
to use a: A. Band clutch
A. Multiple clutch B. Block clutch
B. Hydraulic clutch C. Centrifugal clutch
C. Cone clutch D. Expanding ring clutch
D. Single plate clutch 37. It is used to protect a machine in case of
18. The clutch finger is pushed by jamming and for overload protection of motors
A. Clutch fork and engine
B. Clutch A. Dry fluid clutch
C. Clutch bearing B. Magnetic clutch
C. Eddy clutch
TEST 14

1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in sprocket B. 85% B. 7 in.

drive operation to choose _____ or more teeth. C. 88% C. 8 in.
A. 25 D. 100% D. 9 in.
B. 26 19. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal 37. According to the Goodrich company, the
C. 27 force increases rapidly above permissible net belt pull is ____ that it gives a simple
D. 28 A. 2500 fpm means for quick estimation
2. It is recommended for high speed B. 3000 fpm A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
application that the minimum number of teeth in C. 3500 fpm B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width
small sprocket should be: D. 4000 fpm C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width
A. 12 to 20 20. Experience suggests that the most D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 18 to 24 economical designs are obtained for a belt speed 38. Which type of chain is used in motorcycle?
C. 16 to 32 of: A. Bush roller
D. 14 to 28 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm B. Pintle
3. Consider a maximum safe center distance of B. 3000 to 4000 fpm C. Silent
should be _____ pitches. Very long center distance C. 4000 to 4500 fpm D. None of these
caused catenaries tension in the chain D. 4000 to 4000 fpm 39. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller
A. 70 21. For leather belts, recommended speed is: sprocket for low speeds is:
B. 80 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. 12
C. 90 B. 4000 to 5000 fpm B. 14
D. 100 C. 6000 to 7500 fpm C. 16
4. The recommended lubricant for the chain D. 7000 to 8000 fpm D. 18
drive operation is: 22. For fabric belts, recommended speed is: 40. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller
A. SAE 4140 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm sprocket for moderate speeds is:
B. Petroleum Oil B. 2000 and more fpm A. 15
C. Moly slip C. 3000 to 4000 fpm B. 17
D. Heavy grease D. 4000 to 4500 fpm C. 19
5. Type of leather belt being applied with 23. In high speed, centrifugal blowers, it has D. 21
waterproof cement is called: been observed that the arc of contact reduced 41. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller
A. Combination of Oak/Mineral from 180 deg at rest to _______ in motion sprocket for high speeds is:
Tanned A. 90 deg A. 19
B. Oak Tanned B. 95 deg B. 21
C. Mineral Tanned C. 100 deg C. 23
D. All of these D. 110 deg D. 25
6. What type of leather belting should be used 24. The recommended initial tension of belt is: 42. For maximum quietness, use sprockets with
at an ambient temperature above 149 deg F and A. 75 lb/in of width _____ or more teeth
possible acid liquid coming in contact with the B. 71 lb/in of width A. 21
belt? C. 73 lb/in of width B. 23
A. Mineral Tanned D. 80 lb/in of width C. 25
B. Combination of Oak 25. The recommended net belt pill for rubber belt D. 27
C. Oak Tanned is: 43. For the average application a center
D. None of these A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width distance equivalent to ____ pitches of chain
7. It is recommended not to have a direct drive B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width represents good practice.
and drive sprockets if the raio of their teeth C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width A. 10 to 20
exceeds _______ use two or more combination D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width B. 20 to 30
A. 10 times 26. If two intersecting shafts are to be belt C. 30 to 50
B. 8 times connected, how many guide pulley/s is used? D. 40 to 60
C. 5 times A. 1 44. The tension ratio of flat belt is:
D. 6 times B. 2 A. 2
8. Flat leather belting not recommended for use C. 3 B. 3
in a speed in excess of ________ fpm D. 4 C. 4
A. 3600 27. Two shafts at right angles to each other may D. 5
B. 4800 be connected by the _____ arrangement 45. The tension ratio of V-belt is:
C. 6000 A. Half turn A. 2
D. All of these B. Three-fourths turn B. 3
9. V-belts operate efficiently at speed of about: C. One turn C. 4
A. 4500 fpm D. Quarter turn D. 5
B. 4400 fpm 28. It offers long life, high efficiency and low cost 46. Balata belt is about _____ stronger than
C. 4200 fpm and low maintenance rubber
D. 3600 fpm A. Flat belt A. 10%
10. It is advised that in rubber belts application B. V-belt B. 15%
mounting, it should have an initial tesion of _______ C. Tooth belt C. 20%
A. 18 to 24 D. All of these D. 25%
B. 15 to 20 29. It is used to connect pulleys to convey 47. The coefficient of friction between the belt
C. 12 to 15 materials by transmitting motion and power and the pulley for leather belt running on steel
D. 10 A. Rope pulley is:
11. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we may B. Wires A. 0.1
use the date experience by Link-Belt for 1/8 inch C. Belt B. 0.2
pins and the breaking stress is __________ ksi. D. Flat C. 0.3
A. 40 30. A crossed belt wider than ______ inches D. 0.5
B. 55 should be avoided 48. The capacity of a crossed belt should be
C. 50 A. 7 reduced to _____ that of an open belt
D. 48 B. 8 A. 25%
12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving pulley C. 9 B. 50%
with a speed of 260 rpm and transmitting 5 hp D. 10 C. 60%
A. Type C belts 31. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the reduction D. 75%
B. Type B belts should be: 49. What is the usual factor of safety used with
C. Type A belts A. 25% leather belts?
D. Type D belts B. 50% A. 3
13. Belt slip may take place because of: C. 75% B. 5
A. Loose load D. 95% C. 7
B. Heavy Belt 32. The advantage of flat belt is that: D. 10
C. Driving pulley too small A. It can be used with high-speed 50. In practice, it is found that arcs less than
D. All of these drives ______ required high belt tensions.
14. A single ply leather belt running at a belt B. It can be used in dusty and A. 155o
velocity of 300ft/min is likely to transmit ____ per abrasive environments B. 165o
inch of width C. It allows long distances between C. 175o
A. 2.5 hp shafts D. 180o
B. 3.0 hp D. All of these
C. 4.0 hp 33. The best leather has an ultimate strength of
D. 5.0 hp about
15. What is the density of a leather belt? A. 3000 psi
A. 0.035 lb/in3 B. 4000 psi
B. 0.0253 lb/in3 C. 5000 psi
C. 0.046 lb/in3 D. 6000 psi
D. 0.074 lb/in3 34. Initial tensions should range from ___ for
16. What is the density of flat belt rubber leather belts and 10 to 12 lb/ply per inch of width
material? for rubber belts
A. 0.055 lb/in3 A. 200 to 240 psi
B. 0.045 lb/in3 B. 220 to 260 psi
C. 0.0725 lb/in3 C. 240 to 280 psi
D. 0..0726 lb/in3 D. 260 to 300 psi
17. The breaking strength of oak tanned belting 35. The density of a balata belt is:
varies from 3 to more than A. 0.031 lb/in3
A. 5 ksi B. 0.42 lb/in3
B. 6 ksi C. 0.51 lb/in3
C. 7 ksi D. 0.61 lb/in3
D. 8 ksi 36. In the selection of the proper belt, it is not
18. If the ends are joined by wire lacing with considered good practice to use single-ply leather
machine, the usual efficiency of joint is: belts more than ____ wide
A. 75% A. 6 in.
TEST 15
1. The minimum recommended worm pitch 18. The reciprocal of a diametrical pitch or the C. 340 – 350 normal
diameter is ¼ in and the maximum is: ratio of pitch diameter to number of teeth is called: D. All of these
A. 1 ¾ in A. Lead 35. The path of contact involute gears where the
B. 2 ¾ in B. Module force/power is actually transmitted, it is a straight
C. 3 in C. Involute imaginary line passing through the pitch point and
D. 2 in D. Clearance tangent to the base circle is known as _____.
2. Vertex distance is a term used in ____ gearing 19. For evenly distributed and uniform wear on A. Principal Reference Plane
A. Spiral each meshing gear tooth, the ideal design B. Pitch point
B. Worm practice is to consider a: C. Front Angle
C. Bevel A. Wear resistance alloy addition to D. Line of Action
D. Zerol tooth gear 36. _______ is the angle at the base cylinder of an
3. The arc of action to circular pitch or length of B. Heat treatment of the gears involute gear that the tooth maxes with the gear
action to base pitch C. Hardening of each axis
A. Approach D. Hunting tooth addition A. Base Helix Angle
B. Contact ratio 20. It is used to transmit power at high velocity B. Pressure Angle
C. Arc of action ratios between non-intersecting shafts that are C. Arc of Recess
D. Arc of approach usually but not necessarily at right angle. D. Arc of Approach
4. Recommended hardness of pinion for A. Helical gear 37. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually
helical/herringbone gear tooth should be _____ B. Bevel gear introduced to:
BHN point to sustain life: C. Worm gear A. Improve the look of the patch
A. 50-58 D. Spiral gear B. Reduce concentration of stress and
B. 48-65 21. In gear design, the ratio of pitch diameter, in extend life of the parts
C. 40-50 inches to the number of teeth is called: C. Avoid obstruction
D. 30-60 A. Module D. Necessary to lessen casting
5. In designing gears of power transmission, B. Diametral Pitch weight
consider and efficiency of _____ as recommended. C. English Module 38. A type of gear tooth cut inside a cylinder or
A. 96% or more D. Circular Pitch ring is termed as:
B. 89% or more 22. The concave portion of tooth profile where it A. Rack Gear
C. 85% or more joints the bottom of the tooth filler curve is called: B. Ring Gear
D. 98% or more A. Fillet curve C. Miter Gear
6. The surface of the gear between the fillets of B. Fillet radius D. Internal Gear
adjacent teeth is called: C. Bottom depth 39. The length of arc between the two sides of a
A. Bottom land D. Fillet gear tooth on the pitch circle.
B. Flank A. Circle Thickness
C. Top land 23. The distance of the tooth, which is equal to B. Axial Plane
D. Flank of tooth the sum of the addendum and dedendum is C. Helix Angle
7. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion and lightly known as: D. Chordal Curves
loaded are usually made of: A. Full depth 40. Which of the following materials to be utilized
A. Bronze B. Whole depth to reduce cost in the manufacture of large worm
B. Brass C. Working depth gears?
C. Duralumin D. Dedendum A. Alloyed Aluminum
D. All of these 24. It is used to change rotary motion to B. Bronze Rim with Cast Iron Spider
8. If a set of spur gears are made installed and reciprocating motion. C. Cast Iron Rim with Bronze Spider
lubricated properly, they normally may be A. Helical Gear D. All of these
subjected to failures like: B. Rack Gear 41. A circle bounding the bottom of the teeth
A. Tooth spalling C. Worm Gear A. Addendum Circle
B. Tooth penning D. Spur Gear B. Addendum Cylinder
C. Pitting 25. Tooth width measure along the chord at the C. Pitch Circle
D. Shearing pitch circle is known as: D. Dedendum Circle
9. Which of the following is an example of A. Flank 42. ______ is one in which angle is 90 degrees
rectilinear translation? B. Face Width that is the pitch cone has become a plane
A. Locomotive wheels C. Width of face A. Crown Gear
B. Rack gear D. Chordal Thickness B. Angular Gear
C. Piston of an engine 26. _______ is the difference of addendum and C. Miter Gear
D. Jack dedendum, which is equivalent to the whole depth D. Spiral Gear
10. For economical cost in the manufacturing less working depth. 43. A ______ formed by elements, which are
large worm gears, the following materials are A. Fillet Space perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at
usually applied: B. Fillet Radius the large end.
A. Bronze rim with cast steel spider C. Clearance A. Cone Distance
B. Cast iron rim with bronze spider D. Backlash B. Back Cone
C. Cast steel rim with brass spider 27. For moderate speed of mating gears, the C. Root Cone
D. Alloyed aluminum rim with cast ideal ratio contact is: D. Cone Center
iron spider A. 1.25 – 4.00 44. A bevel gear of the same size mounted on a
11. Intermediate gear is also called ____ gear in B. 1.20 – 1.45 shaft at 90 degrees is called:
a gear train engagement. C. 1.00 – 1.30 A. Crown Gear
A. Idler D. 1.35 – 1.45 B. Spur Gear
B. Pinion 28. The distance a helical gear or worm would C. Angular Gear
C. Third gear thread along its axis in one revolution if it free to D. Miter Gear
D. Mounted gear move axially is called: 45. Gearing in which motion or power that is
12. The distance of a helical gear or worm would A. Length of action transmitted depends upon the friction between the
thread along its axis in one revolution if it were to B. Length of contact surfaces in contact
move axially is called: C. Land A. Bevel Gears
A. Lead D. Lead B. Spur Friction wheels
B. Thread 29. Hyphoid gear is a special type of gear like: C. Evans Friction Cones
C. Pitch A. Worm Gear D. Friction Gearing
D. Land B. Spur Gear 46. Wheels are sometimes used for the
13. Range of helix angle on helical gear is C. Herring Gear transmission of high power when an approximately
_________. D. Bevel Gear constant velocity ratio is desired is called:
A. Less than 18 30. What type of gear is used for high-speed A. Bevel Cones
B. 15 - 25 operation? B. Friction Gearing
C. 20 - 35 A. Helical C. Spur Friction Wheels
D. 35 – 40 B. Spur D. Evans Friction Wheels
14. What will be the effect in bushing gears C. Bevel 47. The frustums of two cones used in a manner
without backlash? D. Worm to permit a variation of velocity ratio between two
A. Jamming 31. In a pair of gears, _____ is the plane parallel shafts are called:
B. Overheating perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to A. Evans Friction Cones
C. Overload the pitch surface. B. Bevel Cones
D. All of these A. Pitch C. Spherical Cones
15. The amount by which the width of a tooth B. Pitch Plane D. Friction
space exceeds the thickness of the engaging C. Pitch Circle 48. If gears cannot, parallel shafts, they are
tooth on the pitch circles D. Pitch point called:
A. Backlash 32. What type of gear, which can transmit power A. Cycloidal Gears
B. Clearance at a certain angle? B. Helical Gears
C. Undercut A. Helical Gear C. Spur Gears
D. Chordal thickness B. Worm Gear D. Toothed Gears
16. Height of tooth above pitch circle or radial C. Bevel Gear 49. ______ is used to transmit power between
distance between pitch circles and top land of the D. Herringbone Gear shafts axis of which it intersect
tooth is called: 33. _______ commonly used in a parallel shaft A. Spur Gears
A. Top tooth transmission especially when a smooth continuous B. Bevel Gears
B. Addendum action is essential as in high speed drives up to C. Helical Gears
C. Land 12,000 fpm. D. Straight Bevel Gears
D. Hunting A. Bevel Gear 50. The space between the adjacent teeth is
17. In involutes teeth, the pressure angle is often B. Herringbone Gear called:
defined as the angle between the line of action C. Spur Gear A. Tooth
and the line of tangent to pitch circle. It is termed D. Helical Gear B. Flank
as: 34. The hardness of helical and herringbone gear C. Backlash
A. Helix angle teeth after heat treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell D. Width
B. Angle of recess Hardness, for gear and pinion is at:
C. Angle of obliquity A. 360 Brinell minimum
D. Arc of action B. 400 Brinell maximum
TEST 16

1. Tooth width measurement along the chord at D. Tooth Space 35. _______ is the average tangential force on
the pitch circle 18. The portion of a gear tooth that projects the teeth is then obtained from the horsepower
A. Chord Space above or outside the pitch circle A. Total load
B. Chord Clearance A. Top Relief B. Separation load
C. Chordal Thickness B. Dedendum C. Pressure load
D. Chordal Length C. Addendum D. Tangential load
2. Herringbone gears are gears which: D. Tooth Space 36. The service factor of a gear may be taken as
A. Do not operate parallel shafts 19. The distance from the center of one tooth of ____ _is an electric motor drives a centrifugal
B. Have a line contact between the a gear to the center next consecutive tooth blower
teeth measured on the pitch. A. 1
C. Tend to produce and thrust on the A. Circular Pitch B. 2
shafts B. Module C. 3
D. Consists of two left handed helical C. Diametral Pitch D. 4
gears D. Circular Pitch 37. The kind of a wear occurs because of a
3. In usual spur gearing, the: 20. The number of teeth per inch of pitch fatigue failure of the surfaces material as a result of
A. Pitch circle and base circle are the diameter and which gives some indications of the high contact stresses is known as:
same size of the gear teeth A. Slotting
B. Working depth induces clearance A. Module B. Pitting
C. Tooth outline are always cycloidal B. Pitch Circle C. Involuting
curves C. Diametral Pitch D. Curving
D. Tooth outlines are usually involute D. Circular Pitch 38. ______ is caused by foreign matter such as
curves 21. An imaginary circle passing through the grit or metal particles or by a failure of the oil film at
4. _____ is a kind of gear used to transmit motion points at which the teeth of the meshing gears low speed
from one shaft to another shaft at angle to the first contact each other. A. Suction
A. Worm Gear A. Pitch Circle B. Scoring
B. Bevel Gear B. Addendum Circle C. Abrasion
C. Helical Gear C. Dedendum Circle D. Corrosion
D. Spur Gear D. Base Circle 39. _______ occurs when the oil film fails but in this
5. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the 22. If the lead angle of a worm is 22.5 degrees case, the load and speed are so high that the
bottom of the tooth spaces then the helix angle will be ______ surface metal is melted and the metal is melted
A. Pitch Circle A. 45 degrees and the metal is smeared down the profile.
B. Root Circle B. 67.5 degrees A. Abrasion
C. Base Circle C. 22.5 degrees B. Corrosion
D. Outside Circle D. 90 degrees C. Spalling
6. A circle the radius of which is equal to the 23. Refers to the smallest wheel of a gear train D. Scoring
distance from the gear axis to the pitch point A. Pinion 40. _______ is a surface fatigue of greater extent
A. Pitch Circle B. Idler than pitting that is the flakes are much larger. This
B. Root Circle C. Spur type of failure occurs in surface-hardened teeth.
C. Base Circle D. Driver A. Abrasion
D. Outside Circle 24. Spiral Gears are suitable for transmitting: B. Corrosion
7. Ratio of pitch diameter to the number of A. Small power C. Spalling
teeth B. Any power D. Scoring
A. Diametral Pitch C. Huge power 41. Buckingham says that mating phenolic gears
B. Module D. Pulsating power with steel of BHN less than ____ leads to excessive
C. Contact Ratio 25. Zero axial thrust is experienced in: abrasive wear
D. Helical Overlap A. Helical gears A. 200
8. A kind of gear used for duty works where a B. Herringbone gears B. 300
large ratio of speed is required and are extensively C. Spiral gears C. 400
used in speed reducer is known as: D. Bevel gears D. 500
A. Worm Gear 26. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary 42. ____ is the extra tooth in gear, which is used
B. Spiral Gear motion between two shafts whose axes are: to distribute the wear more evenly.
C. Helical Gear A. Parallel A. Hunting tooth
D. Bevel Gear B. Non-coplanar B. Tooth profile
9. The ratio of the number of teeth to the C. Non-intersecting C. Dummy tooth
number of mm of pitch diameter equals number of D. None of these D. Add tooth
gear teeth to each mm pitch diameter 27. According to the law of gearing: 43. The length of the hub should not be made
A. Diametral Pitch A. Teeth should be involute type ____ the face width of the gear.
B. Module B. Clearance between mating teeth A. Less than
C. Circular Pitch should be provided B. Equal
D. English Module C. Dedendum should be equal to 1.57 M C. Greater
10. The depth of tooth space below the pitch D. None of these D. None of these
circle 28. Gears for watches are generally 44. _____ is a gear that has teeth cut on the
A. Dedendum manufactured by: inside of the rim instead of on the outside
B. Working Depth A. Die casting A. External gear
C. Full Depth B. Machining on hobber B. Involute gear
D. Tooth Depth C. Machining on a gear shaper C. Stub gear
11. The total depth of a tooth space, equal to D. Stamping D. Annular gear
addendum plus Dedendum 29. In case of gears, the addendum is given by 45. To estimate fouling, let the minimum
A. Full Depth A. One module differences in tooth numbers between the internal
B. Working Depth B. 2.157 x module gear and pinion be _____ for 14.5 deg involute
C. Whole Depth C. 1.57 x module depth
D. Dedendum D. 1.25 x module A. 10 teeth
12. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the 30. In case of cross helical worm, the axes of two B. 12 teeth
bottom of the tooth space shafts are: C. 14 teeth
A. Root circle A. Parallel D. 16 teeth
B. Pitch circle B. Intersecting 46. The loss pair of spur, helical or bevel gears in
C. Addendum circle C. Non-parallel an ordinary train should not exceed:
D. Dedendum D. Non-parallel/non-intersecting A. 4%
13. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the 31. In case of spur gears, the flank of the tooth is: B. 6%
top of the teeth of an internal gear A. The part of the tooth surface lying below C. 2%
A. Pitch diameter the pitch surface D. 5%
B. Root diameter B. The curve forming face and flank 47. The typical helix angle ranges from _____ to
C. Internal diameter C. The width of the gear tooth measured _____
D. Central diameter axially along the pitch surface A. 10 deg to 12 deg
14. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical D. The surface of the top of the tooth B. 12 deg to 15 deg
surface. 32. A reverted gear train is one in which: C. 14 deg to 20 deg
A. Outer gear A. The direction of rotation of first and last D. 15 deg to 25 deg
B. External gear gear is opposite 48. _____ is the advance of the tooth in the face
C. Spiral gear B. The direction of rotation of first and last width divided by circular pitch.
D. Helical gear gear is the same A. Face contact ratio
15. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth C. The first and last gear are essentially on B. Speed ratio
A. Cycloid separate but parallel shafts C. Profile ratio
B. Epicycloid D. None of these D. Advance ratio
C. Straight Rack 33. For best running conditions of a gear, the 49. The distance between the teeth measured
D. Involute contact ratio should be about: on the pitch surface along a normal to the helix
16. When meshed with a gear, it is used to A. 1.25 to 1.40 A. Lead
change rotary motion to reciprocating motion is: B. 1.20 to 1.45 B. Lead angle
A. Gear Shaft C. 1.34 to 1.56 C. Normal circular pitch
B. Gear Tooth D. 1.62 to 1.45 D. Pitch
C. Gear Rack 34. The _____ full depth teeth have the 50. The hardness of a helical and herringbone
D. Gear Motor advantages of the greater capacity and less teeth cut after heat treatment will generally fall
17. The portion of a gear tooth space that is cut interference trouble. between the limits of ______.
below the pitch circle and is equal to the A. 14.5o A. 210 and 300 Brinell
addendum plus the clearance B. 24o B. 147 and 300 Brinell
A. Root C. 20o C. 230 and 320 Brinell
B. Dedendum D. 30o D. 220 and 320 Brinell
C. Addendum
TEST 17
1. Helical gears mounted on non-parallel shafts 36. When the number of teeth in a pair of
are called _____ 19. If a big gear is moved by a small gear then meshing gears are such that they do not have a
A. Open gear the big gear common divisor.
B. Crossed helical gear A. Will not rotate
C. Closed helical gear B. Will rotate reverse direction A. Dummy
D. Herringbone gear C. Will not rotate fastly B. LCD
2. _____ is used to connect intersecting shafts, D. None of these C. Add it
usually but not necessarily at 90 degrees 20. ______ are bevel gears mounted on D. Hunting
A. Bevel gear intersecting shafts at angle other than 90 degrees. 37. For internal gears having a 20 degree
B. Helical gear A. Right angle gears pressure angle and full depth teeth, the difference
C. Spur gear B. Half gears between the number of teeth in a gear and pinion
D. Worm gear C. Inclined gears should not be less than ______.
3. Bevel gear teeth are built with respect to a D. Angular gears A. 10
____ rather than to a pitch cylinder as ion spur 21. The pitch angle is 90 degrees that is, the pitch B. 12
gears. has become a plane C. 14
A. Pitch pedal A. Atten gear D. 16
B. Pitch profile B. Crown gear 38. Zerol bevel gears angle should have a pinion
C. Pitch cone C. Cool gear either not less than:
D. Cylinder D. Hiphap gear A. 15 teeth
4. It refers to the length of pitch cone in a bevel 22. ____ is used to transmit power between non- B. 16 teeth
gear intersecting shafts, nearly always at right angle to C. 17 teeth
A. Cone center each other D. 18 teeth
B. Lead A. Spur gear 39. _______ are machine elements that transmit
C. Center distance B. Ordinary gear motion by means of successively engaging teeth.
D. Pitch C. Bevel gear A. Sprockets
5. Refers to the cone that is performed by the D. Worm gear B. Gears
elements of top lands 23. What are the two types of construction for C. Tooth belt
A. Face cone the worm? D. Annular
B. Root face A. Shell and cylindrical 40. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth
C. Dial face B. Shell and zigzag travels from the first point and contact with the
D. Pitch face C. Shell and integral mating tooth to the pitch point is called:
6. The cone formed by the elements of bottom D. Tube and integral A. Arc of contact
lands 24. The standard pressure angle for fine pitch B. Arc of approach
A. Face cone gears is ______ gears and is recommended for most C. Arc of recess
B. Root cone applications D. Arc of action
C. Back cone A. 14.5 degrees 41. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the
D. Rake cone B. 16 degrees distance between the pitch circle and the top of
7. An imaginary cone whose elements are C. 20 degrees the tooth is called:
perpendicular to the pitch cone elements at the D. 21 degrees A. Dedendum
large end of the tooth. 25. The contact ratio of a pair of mating spur B. Addendum
A. Front cone gears must be well over ____ to insure a smooth C. Working depth
B. Side cone transfer of load from one pair of teeth to the next D. Total depth
C. Rear cone pair. 42. The circle that bounds the outer ends of the
D. Back cone A. 1.0 teeth.
8. _____ is one whose tooth profiles consists of B. 2.0 A. Addendum circle
straight elements that converge to a point at the C. 3.0 B. Dedendum circle
cone center. D. 4.0 C. Pitch circle
A. Circular bevel gear 26. As general rule contact ratio should not be D. Root circle
B. Straight bevel gear less than: 43. The angle through which the gear turns from
C. Path bevel gear A. 1:1 the time a given pair of teeth are in contact at the
D. Herringbone gear B. 1:2 pitch point until they pass out the mesh
9. The desired quality in gear is C. 1:3 A. Pressure angle
A. Quietness D. 1:4 B. Angle of action
B. Durability 27. Surface roughness on active profile surfaces C. Angle of approach
C. Strength on gear is about ____ pitch D. Angle of recess
D. All of these A. 30 44. The angle through which the gear turns from
10. Straight and zerol bevel gears should not be B. 32 the time a particular pair of teeth comes into in
sued when the pitch line velocity is greater than: C. 34 contact until they go out the contact.
A. 800 rpm D. 36 A. Pressure angle
B. 850 rpm 28. Tooth breakage on gear is usually: B. Angle of action
C. 875 rpm A. A tensile fatigue C. Angle of approach
D. 900 rpm B. A contact stress D. Angle of recess
11. The spiral bevel gears are recommended C. A crack 45. The angle through which the gear tirns from
when the pitch line speed exceeds: D. None of these the time a particular pair of teeth come into in
A. 1000 fpm 29. AGMA means: contact until they are in contact at the pitch point
B. 1100 fpm A. American German Manufacturer Association A. Pressure angle
C. 1500 fpm B. Athletic Gear Main Association B. Angle of action
D. 2000 fpm C. American Gear Metal Association C. Angle of approach
12. When the pitch line speed is above 800 fpm D. American Gear Manufacturer Association D. Angle of recess
the teeth should be: 30. Which of the following does not belong to 46. Arc of the circle through which a tooth
A. Ground after hardening the group? travels from the point of contact with the mating
B. Should be cooled in air A. Tooth scoring tooth to the pitch point is called:
C. Should be quenched after B. Tooth breakage A. Arc of contact
D. None of these C. Pitting B. Arc of approach
13. ______ have curved teeth as in spiral bevels, D. Toughing C. Arc of recess
but with zero angle. 31. Well proportion commercial gears with a D. Arc of action
A. Spiral gears pitch line velocity of less than _____ will normally not 47. The ratio of the arc of approach to the arc of
B. Zerol bevel gears score if they have a reasonably good surface finish action
C. Zero bevel gears and are properly lubricated. A. Approach ratio
D. Straight bevel gears A. 6000 fpm B. Action ratio
14. ______ is a gear that has an advantage of B. 6500 fpm
smoother tooth engagement quietness of C. 7000 fpm C. Recess ratio
operation greater and higher permissible speeds. D. 8000 fpm D. Contact ratio
A. Zerol bevel gear 32. Experimental data from actual gear unit 48. In a pair of gear, it is the plane that contains
B. Straight bevel gear measurements are seldom repeatable within a plus two axes in a simple gear; it may be any plane
C. Hypoid bevel gear or minus ______ band containing the axes and the given point.
D. Spiral bevel gear A. 5% A. Axial plane
15. When the pair of bevel gears of the same size B. 10% B. Central plane
is on shafts intersecting at right angle, they are C. 15% C. Normal plane
called _____ D. 20% D. Transverse plane
A. Mold gear 33. Pitting is a function of the Hertzian contact 49. Arc of the pitch circle which a tooth travels
B. Helix angle stresses between two cylinders and is proportioned from its contact with the mating tooth at the pitch
C. Miter gear to the square root of the ______. point to the point where the contact ceases is
D. Tangent gear A. Applied load called:
16. The use of gearbox provides: B. The contact stresses A. Arc of contact
A. Gear leverage C. The stress B. Arc of approach
B. More torque D. Impact C. Arc of recess
C. More speed 34. When an excitation frequency coincides with D. Arc of action
D. None of these a natural frequency, this is known to be: 50. A single ply leather belt running at a belt
17. For equalizing the rotation of two gears, a A. Unity velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to transmit _____ per
gearbox employs” B. Resonance inch of width
A. Dog and clutch C. Obliquity A. 2.5 hp
B. Crown gear D. Sinusoidal B. 3.0 hp
C. Star pinion 35. The average tooth stiffness constant of face is C. 4.0 hp
D. None of these usually: D. 5.0 hp
18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the speed A. 1.5 to 2 psi
gears remain: B. 3 to 6 psi
A. Separate C. 3 to 4 psi
B. Joined to their couple D. 7.5 to 10 psi
C. Of the same measurements
D. None of these
TEST 18 b. Dedendum 37. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top of
c. Working depth the teeth on an internal gear.
1. The _____ from which an involute tooth is generated or d. Whole depth
developed. 20. The circle that bounds the bottom of the teeth. a. Pitch diameter
a. Root circle a. Addendum circle b. Internal diameter
b. Base circle b. Pitch circle c. Root diameter
c. Pitch circle c. Base circle d. Dedendum diameter
d. Dedendum circle d. Dedendum circle 38. A gear with teeth on the inner cylindrical surface.
2. The angle at the base cylinder if an involute gear, that 21. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number of a. Pitch gear
the tooth makes with the gear axis. millimeters of pitch diameter. b. Internal gear
a. Helix angle a. Diametral pitch c. Idler
b. Pressure angle b. Module d. Spur gear
c. Lead angle c. Circular pitch 39. The curve formed by the path of a point on a straight
d. Base Helix angle d. Base pitch line called their generatrix, as it rolls along a convex base
3. In an involute gear, _____ is the pitch on the base 22. The diametral pitch circulated in the normal plane curve.
circle or along the line of action. and is equal to the pitch dived by the cosine of the helix a. Involute
a. Base circle angle b. Cycloidal
b. Normal base pitch a. Normal diametral plane c. Cycloid
c. Base pitch b. Normal diametral pitch d. Trochoid
d. Pitch gear c. Normal plane 40. The top surface of the tooth.
4. The base pitch in the normal plane. d. Normal axial pitch a. Tooth face
a. Normal pitch 23. That portion of the face width that actually comes b. Tooth surfaces
b. Normal base pitch into contact with mating teeth, as occasionally one c. Top land
c. Axial plane member of a pair of gears may have a greater face d. Tooth flank
d. Central plane width than the other is called: 41. The surface of the gear between the fillets of
5. The base pitch in the axial plane. a. Effective face width adjacent teeth.
a. Axial base pitch b. Effective tooth face a. Space width
b. Axial pitch c. Effective tooth thickness b. Backlash
c. Normal pitch d. Effective tooth flank c. Bottom land
d. Base pitch 24. The actual torque of a gear set divided by its gear d. Tooth space
6. In a worm gear, _____ is a plane perpendicular to the ratio. 42. The distance of a helical gear or worm would thread
gear axis and contains the common perpendicular of a. Coefficient of performance along its axis one revolution of it was free to move axially.
the gear and the worm axis. b. Transmission ratio a. Lead
a. Central plane c. Ratio factor b. Helix
b. Normal plane d. Efficiency c. Length of action
c. Axial plane 25. When it rolls along the outer side another circle, is d. Line of action
d. Traverse plane called: 43. The path of contact in involute gears, it is straight line
7. The length of the chord subtended by the circular arc a. Cycloid passing through the pitch point and the tangent to the
is called: b. Hypocycloid base circles.
a. Backlash c. Epicycloid a. Length of action
b. Face width d. Trochoid b. Line of action
c. Chordal thickness 26. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface. c. Line of contact
d. Curve thickness a. Annular gear d. None of these
8. The height from the top of the tooth to the chord b. External gear 44. The distance on involute line of action through which
subtending the circular thickness arc. c. Idler the point of contact moves during the action of the
a. Curve thickness d. Spur gear tooth profile.
b. Chordal thickness 27. That surface of the tooth, which is between the pitch a. Length of action
c. Chordal addendum circles to the top of the tooth is known as _____. b. Line of action
d. Chordal dedendum a. Face width c. Line of contact
9. The length of the arc of the pitch circle between the b. Tooth flank d. None of these
centers or other corresponding points of the adjacent c. Face of tooth 45. The ratio of pitch diameter in millimeters to the
teeth. d. Top land number of teeth.
a. Circular pitch 28. The length of the teeth in axial plane. a. Addendum
b. Diametral Pitch a. Face of tooth b. Diametral pitch
c. Base pitch b. Face width c. Module
d. Normal pitch c. Circular pitch d. None of these
10. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the d. Chordal thickness 46. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces acts a point of
mating gear makes contact. 29. The surface of the tooth between the pitch cylinder contact and perpendicular to the pitch plane.
a. Contact ratio and the addendum cylinder. a. Axial plane
b. Contact diameter a. Face b. Central plane
c. Contact stress b. Flank c. Normal plane
d. None of these c. Top land d. Diametral
11. The maximum compressive stress within the contact d. Bottom land 47. The distance between similar equally spaced tooth
area between mating gear tooth profiles is called: 30. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it joins surfaces in a given direction and along a given curve or
a. Bearing stress the bottom of the toot space. line.
b. Contact stress a. Toot curve a. Module
c. Ultimate stress b. Involute b. Pitch
d. Internal stress c. Fillet radius c. Addendum
12. The curve formed by the path of a point on a circle d. Fillet curve d. Involute
as it rolls a straight line. 31. The maximum tensile stress in the gear tooth fillet. 48. The angle subtended by the arc on the pitch equal in
a. Trochoid a. Gear stress the length to the circular pitch.
b. Epicycloid b. Contact stress a. Pitch angle
c. Hypocycloid c. Fillet stress b. Pressure angle
d. Cycloid d. Fillet curve c. Helix angle
13. The circular pitch in the normal plane. 32. That surface which is between the pitch circle and d. Lead angle
a. Circular plane the bottom land is called: 49. Of meshing gears, _____ is the point of tangency to
b. Normal circular pitch a. Flank of tooth the pitch circle.
c. Central plane b. Face of tooth a. Pitch point
d. Circular base pitch c. Face of width b. Pitch of contact
14. The strength of the arc between the two sides of a d. Fillet of tooth c. Pitch
gear tooth on the pitch circles unless otherwise specified. 33. The surface of the tooth between the pitch and root d. Reference point
a. Face of tooth cylinders. 50. In a pair of gears, it is the plane perpendicular to the
b. Circular thickness a. Fillet axial plane and tangent to the axial plane and tangent
c. Tooth profile b. Face to the pitch surfaces.
d. Face width c. Flank a. Normal plane
15. The amount by which the dedendum exceeds the d. Bottom land b. Central plane
addendum of the mating tooth. c. Pitch plane
a. Tolerance 34. The number of teeth in the gear divided by the d. Tangent plane
b. Allowance number of teeth in the opinion.
c. Clearance
d. Backlash a. Ratio factor
16. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the b. Gear ratio
mating gear makes: c. Transmission ratio
a. Idler d. None of these
b. Pinion
c. Gear 35. The helical angle that a helical gear tooth makes the
d. Central diameter gear axis.
17. The ratio of the arc of action to the circular pitch is
known as: a. Helix angle
a. Contact ratio b. Lead angle
b. Action ratio c. Pressure angle
c. Recess ratio d. Tooth angle
d. Approach ratio
18. The curve that satisfy the law of gearing. 36. When it rolls along the inner side of another circle, it is
a. Tooth profile called:
b. Stub curve
c. Conjugate curve a. Cycloid
d. Involute curve b. Epicycloid
19. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle or c. Hypocycloid
the radial dimension between the pitch circle and the d. Trochoid
bottom of the tooth space.
a. Addendum
TEST 19
1. One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is the 18. A device for engaging and disengaging gears. 36. A type of gear of non-parallel and non-intersecting
unbalanced load on one end of breakage is the a. Gear shift and the teeth are straight.
unbalanced load on one end of the tooth that results in b. Gear train a. Hypoid gears
the higher stress than when the load is evenly distributed. c. Gear wheel b. Skew bevel gears
To minimize this problem, the face width “b” should not d. Gear motor c. Spiral bevel gears
be greater that the thickness of the tooth. In the 19. For spur gear, the speed ratio is customary to limit the d. Zerol bevel gears
absence of test values, the following can be guide. reduction of: 37. For worm gears, Buckingham recommends face
a. 2.5 Pc < b < 4 Pc a. 3:1 width.
b. 2.0 < b < 4 Pd b. 4:1 a. 0.2 Dwo
c. 2.5 Pd < b < 4 Pd c. 5:1 b. 0.3 Dwo
d. 2.0 Pc < b < 4 Pc d. 6:1 c. 0.4 Dwo
2. Any perpendicular to a gear axis is called: 20. For helical and herringbone gears, the speed ratio is d. 0.5 Dwo
a. Plane of action limited to: 38. For worm gears, circular pitch is equal to:
b. Plane of rotation a. 3:1 a. Axial pitch
c. Normal plane b. 5:1 b. Diametral pitch
d. Transverse plane c. 6:1 c. Normal pitch
3. The angle between the tooth profile and radial line at d. 10:1 d. Traverse pitch
its pitch point. Involute teeth the angle between the line 21. They are cylindrical in form operate on parallel axes 39. The service factor of heavy shock, rolling mill and
of action and line tangent to the pitch circle. and have straight teeth parallel to the axis. rock crushes.
a. Roll angle a. Helical gears a. 1.25 - 1.35
b. Pitch angle b. Bevel gears b. 1.35 - 1.50
c. Helix angle c. Spur gears c. 1.50 - 1.80
d. Pressure angle d. Worm gears d. 1.75 -2.00
4. The radial distance from the addendum circle to the 22. The design stress based upon the ultimate strength of 40. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis is called:
working depth circle. the material with a factor of safety of about _____. a. Transverse axis
a. Total depth a. 2 b. Conjugate axis
b. Full depth b. 3 c. Plane rotation
c. Whole depth c. 4 d. Axis of rotation
d. Working depth d. 5 41. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth spaces
5. The total depth of a tooth space equal to addendum 23. Safe working stresses for common gear materials is called:
plus dedendum also equal to working depth plus operating at very low velocities are usually assumed to a. Addendum circle
clearance. be _____ the ultimate strength. b. Base circle
a. Full depth a. One-fourth c. Pitch circle
b. Working b. One-third d. Root circle
c. Whole depth c. One-half 42. The surface between the flanks of adjacent teeth.
d. None of these d. Two-third a. Bottom land
6. It is a condition in generated gear teeth when any 24. To avoid charring by the heat of friction, rawhide b. Top land
part of the fillet curve lies inside of a line drawn to the gears should not be operated of pitch line velocities c. Pitch surface
working profile as the lowest point. greater than _____ d. Space width
a. Medium cut a. 2500 fpm 43. The usual ratio of miter gear is:
b. Under cut b. 3000 fpm a. 1:1
c. Over cut c. 35000 fpm b. 1:2
d. Hidden cut d. 4000 fpm c. 1:3
7. The curve formed by the path of a point on the 25. The outside diameter of the hubs of larger gears d. 1:4
extension of the radius of a circle as it rolls along the should be _____ the bore for steel. 44. The angle between the element of the face cone
curve or line. a. 1.5 times and its axis equals pitch angle plus addendum angle.
a. Cycloids b. 1.6 times a. Cutting angle
b. Epicycloids c. 1.7 times b. Face angle
c. Hypocycloid d.1.8 times c. Pitch angle
d. Trochoid 26. The couple diameter of the hubs of larger gears d. Front angle
8. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and to the should be _____ the bore for cast iron. 45. The apex of the pitch cone
pitch plane. a. 1.5 times a. Cone center
a. Norma plane b. 1.8 times b. Vertex
b. Pitch plane c. 2.0 times c. Pitch point
c. Tangent plane d. 2.5 times d. Apothem
d. Transverse plane 27. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for single 46. The portion of the tooth surface adjacent to the
9. The total width dimensions of a gear blank to the pitch helical gears. involute lying inside a radial line passing through an
plane. a. 10 and 18 imaginary intersection of an involute and the base
a. Total face width b. 12 and 20 circle/
b. Effective face width c. 15 and 23 a. Excessive cut
c. Addendum d. 18 and 28 b. Over cut
d. Transverse plane 28. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for double c. Under cut
10. The space between the teeth measured along the helical gears. d. None of these
pitch circle. a. 15 and 25 47. In spur gearing system, the preferred pressure angle
a. Tooth space b. 20 and 30 is:
b. Tooth thickness c. 25 and 40 a. 14- ½ deg
c. Backlash d. 30 and 45 b. 20 deg
d. Tooth face 29. A _____ is a spur gear of infinite diameter. c. 22- ½ deg
11. The width of tooth measured along the pitch circle. a. Hypoid d. 25 deg
a. Tooth space b. Herringbone 48. Hub length usually vary from:
b. Tooth thickness c. Annular a. 1.05 Ds to 1.7 Ds
c. Backlash d. Rack b. 1.25 Ds to 2 Ds
d. Tooth face 30. It is standard practice to assume that the thickness of c. 1.35 Ds to 2.5 Ds
12. An arbitrary modification of a tooth profile whereby a the tooth measured around the pitch circle is exactly d. 1.35 Ds to 3.0 Ds
small amount of material is removed near the tip of the _____ of a circular pitch. 49 The service factor for heavy shock is:
gear tooth. a. One-fourth a. 1 to 1.25
a. Chamber b. One-half b. 1.25 to 1.50
b. Tip relief c. One-third c. 1.50 to 1.75
c. Under cut d. Two-third d. 1.75 to 2.0
d. None of these 31. It occurs under heavy loads and in adequate 50. A gear wheel with cured teeth that mesh with a
13. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a point or line of lubrication. worm.
contact. a. Pitting a. Worm wheel
a. Normal plane b. Honing b. Rack gear
b. Pitch plane c. Scoring c. Spiral gear
c. Tangent plane d. Tooth breakage d. Herringbone gear
d. Axial plane 32. In order to get benefit helical-gear action the face
14. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the bottoms of width should be at least _____ the axial pitch.
the tooth spaces. a. Once
a. Addendum circle b. Twice
b. Pitch circle c. Thrice
c. Base circle d. Minimum
d. Root circle 33. The outside diameter of the worm gear measured on
15. The angle subtended at the center of the base circle the central plane.
from teeth origin of an involute to the point of tangency a. Addendum diameter
of the generation from any point of the same involute. b. Throat diameter
a. Root angle c. Pitch diameter
b. Roll angle d. Root diameter
c. Pitch circle 34. For worms mating with gears having 24 teeth or more
d. Base circle the _____ pressure angle is recommended.
16. _____ gear with teeth spaced along a straight and a. 14.5 degrees
suitable for straight line motion. b. 20 degrees
a. Helical c. 22.5 degrees
b. Bevel d. 25 degrees
c. Rack 35. The axes intersect and the teeth are curved and
d. Worm oblique is called:
17. The pitch plane, axial plane and transverse plane, all a. Skew bevel gears
intersect at a point and mutually perpendicular to the: b. Straight bevel gears
a. Principal reference plane c. Spiral bevel gears
b. Principal reference axis d. Zerol bevel gears
c. Principal reference point
d. Principal reference line
TEST 20 18. Gear pump used in hydraulic system are d. Circular pitch
used for: 35. The _________ is the arc of the pitch circle
1. Which type of gear is a cylinder, wheel or disk on a. Low and medium pressure where the tooth profile cuts the pitch circle when a pair
the surface of which is cut parallel teeth? b. Medium and high pressure of teeth first comes in contact until they are in contact as
a. Bevel gear c. Low and high pressure the pitch point.
b. Helical gear d. Medium and not high pressure a. Arc of recess
c. Spur gear 19. In machine tool drive, the modulus for gears is b. Arc of approach
d. Worm gear usually selected between: c. Arc of contact
2. Which type of gear has a ratio of 1:1? a. 10 ≥ μ ≥ 1 d. Arc of action
a. Herringbone gears b. 2≥μ1 36. The _________ traced by the outermost corner
b. Miter gear c. 20 ≥ μ ≥ 1 of one tooth on the plane of the other gear.
c. Internal gear d. 5≥μ≥1 a. Cycloid
d. Spur gear 20. The shape of the curve on the side of gear is b. Hypocycloid
3. The distance between similar sides of termed as: c. Epitrochoid
adjacent teeth measured on the pitch line is called: a. Stub d. Trochoid
a. Diametral pitch b. Involute 37. An imaginary circle passing through the
b. Linear pitch c. Trochoid points at which the tooth of the meshing gears contact
c. Circular pitch d. Cycloid each other.
d. Axial pitch 21. The distance in a straight line from one side of a. Pitch circle
4. In rack gear, circular pitch is called: a tooth to the side at points where the pitch circle passes b. Base circle
a. Linear pitch through the tooth. c. Addendum circle
b. Base pitch a. Circular pitch d. Dedendum circle
c. Diametral pitch b. Pitch 38. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical
d. Axial pitch c. Chordal thickness surface.
5. __________ is equal to twice the addendum. d. Tooth length a. Rack gear
a. Tooth flank 22. The _______ of a bevel gear is equal to the b. Zerol gear
b. Tooth thickness altitude of the pitch cone. c. Miter gear
c. Whole depth a. Length of cone d. External gear
d. Working depth b. Vertex distance 39. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the
6. The meaning of module in a gearing system c. Length of hub top of the teeth of an internal gear.
is: d. Thickness a. Dedendum diameter
a. Distance 23. The _______ of a worm is the distance b. Pitch diameter
b. Addendum between the center of one tooth and the center of an c. Base diameter
c. Measure adjacent tooth, measured perpendicular to the teeth. d. Internal diameter
d. a. Diametral pitch 40. It is standard practice to assume that the
7. Refers to the portion of the tooth surface b. Circular pitch thickness of the tooth measured sound the pitch circle is
adjacent to the involute lying inside a radial line passing c. Axial pitch exactly ________ the circle path.
through an imaginary intersection of the involute and the d. Normal pitch a. One half
base circle. 24. The _______ of a worm gear is the concave b. One third
a. Over cut surface of the gear tooth. c. One fourth
b. Under cut a. Radius d. One fifth
c. Tip relief b. Throat 41. The helix angles for the herringbone gears are
d. None of these c. Pitch used from ______for industrial gears.
8. In a pair of gears, spur or bevel, the smaller is d. Addendum a. 10 to 15
often called: 25. A type of gear, which is used for heavy duty b. 15 to 20
a. Rack work where a large ratio of speed is required. c. 20 to 30
b. Pinion a. Worm gear d. 25 to 45
c. Worn b. Bevel gear 42. The distance parallel to the axis from the
d. Idler c. Spur gear pitch circle to the face of the shoulder or hub.
9. Which of the following gears that are of the d. Miter gear a. Back one
same and transmit motion at right angles? 26. A _________ is a cylinder with teeth resembling b. Backing
a. Herringbone gears those of acme thread. c. Crown height
b. Spur gears a. Pinion d. Apex distance
c. Miter gears b. Spur 43. A machine that makes gear teeth by means
d. Rack gears c. Worm of a reciprocating cutter that rotates slowly with the
10. The cone, which represents in bevel gears d. Bolt work.
the original friction surfaces are called 27. The _________ is the angle at which the teeth a. Gear forming
a. Back cone of a helical gear are slanted across the face of the gear. b. Gear hobber
b. Length of cone a. Lead angle c. Gear shaper
c. Pitch cones b. Helix angle d. Gear cutter
d. Cone distance c. Pressure angle 44. A type of gear wheels connecting non-
11. Which of the following angles equal the pitch d. Pitch angle parallel, non-intersecting shafts usually at right angles.
angle? 28. A __________ is one thicker in proportion to its a. Helical gear
a. Back angle length than the involute tooth. b. Herringbone gear
b. Front angle a. Hypoid c. Hypoid gear
c. Face angle b. Cycloidal tooth d. Bevel gear
d. Root angle c. Stub tooth 45. The angle between the plane of the pitch
12. The surface between the flanks of adjacent d. Spiral circle and a plane tangent to the end of the tooth.
teeth. 29. Which gears are used to connect parallel a. Foot angle
a. Top land shafts lying in the same plane? b. Back angle
b. Tooth flank a. Worm gears c. Dedendum angle
c. Tooth face b. Bevel gears d. Face angle
d. Bottom land c. Herringbone gears 46. The circle containing the bottoms of the
13. The portion of the common tangent to the d. Spiral gears tooth spaces.
base circles along which contact between mating 30. Which of the following is used to connect the a. Root circle
involutes occurs. shafts at an angle but lying in the same plane? b. Working depth circle
a. Line of action a. Helical gears c. Base circle
b. Pitch line b. Worm and worm wheel d. Pitch circle
c. Arc of action c. Spur gears 47. The depth of the tooth inside of the pitch line is
d. Angle of action d. Herringbone gears called:
14. The intersection between the axes of the line 31. The product of circular pitch and diametral a. Working depth
of centers and the common tangent to the base circles, pitch is: b. Dedendum
a. Pitch line c. Total depth
a. 2π
b. Pitch circle d. Whole depth
b. π
c. Pitch point c. 3π
48. The amount by which the dedendum in a given
d. Pitch surface d. 4π gear exceeds the addendum of its mating gear.
15. The angle between the element of the face 32. A line drawn through all the points at which a. Whole depth
cone and its axis. the teeth touch each other. b. Clearance
a. Face angle a. Angle of contact c. Backish
b. Back angle b. Arc of contact d. Working depth
c. Front angle c. Path of contact
d. Increment angle d. Arc of approach 49. The outside diameter of the worm measured on
16. Refers to a portion of the small end of the 33. The length of the gear tooth measured along the central plane.
tooth. an element of the pitch surface is called: a. Dedendum diameter
a. Heel b. Addendum diameter
a. Acting flank
b. Toe c. Throat diameter
b. Face width
d. Pitch diameter
c. Sole c. Flank of the tooth
d. Corner d. Tooth space 50. The circle from which the involute is generated.
17. The apex of the pitch cone. 34. The ________ is equal to the tooth thickness a. Base circle
a. Cone vertex plus the space width. b. Pitch circle
b. Cone distance a. Normal pitch c. Working depth circle
c. Cone radius b. Axial pitch d. Addendum circle
d. Cone center c. Diametral pitch
 TEST 21 A. f C. Chuck Taper
B. 5 D. Tapered Key
1. Fast process of analyzing all elements and a C. 20 34. It is the best instrument for measuring a thousand of an
chemical components of steel casting is: D. F.A.O inch.
A. Pyrometer 18. Safety features that must be placed and A. Micrometer
B. Tachometer
B. Carbon analyser maintained at machine, black welding and
C. Caliper
C. Wet analyser foundry shops called:
D. Pyrometer
D. Spectrometer A. Walkway shops
35. What tool will be used in making wood pattern in the
2. Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel? B. Safety goggles foundry shop?
A. Expanded C. Safety notices A. Band Saw
B. Extended D. Safety notices in Markers / Boards B. Drill Machine
C. Contraction 19. It is axially located rectangular groove in a hub C. Saw and Chisel
D. Taper and shaft. D. Hammer
3. A cutting tool angle between the side cutting A. Key Seat 36. The usual ration of water to soluble oil used as cutting
edge and the plane perpendicular to direction of B. Cotter Pin Seat fluid is _________.
feed travel is _______ angel. C. Flute A. 50% water to 50% oil
A. Side relief D. Set Screw Point B. 2 water to 1 oil
C. 3 water to 1 oil
B. Side cutting edge 20. In a cutting tool, the cutting end can also be
D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oi
C. Lead generally called:
37. Machine tool used for laying straight lines on metal
D. Side rake A. End cutting edge surfaces made of sharp tool steel is called:
4. A section in a machine shop operation is called: B. Nose A. Plain Scriber
A. Core making C. Back rake B. A Trammel
B. Machining D. Side rake C. Hermaphrodite caliper
C. Fitting 21. What factors can modify the recommended D. Divider
D. Pattern cutting speed of known work piece? 38. A lathe machine threading mechanism is called:
5. The tool bit made of tool blank consists of face, A. Rough cutting of work piece A. Reverse Gear and lever
nose, shank, and ________. B. Modify the shape of the cutting tools B. Spindle Gear
A. Cutting edge C. Use correctly shape of the cutting tools C. Changed Stud Gear
B. None of these D. Depth of cut D. All of these
39. Which of the following is not used to resemble the
C. Round nose 22. Machine shop equipment that can flatter
shape of tool bit?
D. Nose horizontally, vertically or angular plane called:
A. Round nose
6. The cutting tool used the shaper are similar to A. Shaper Machine
B. Center cut
turning tools _______ machine. B. Welding Machine C. Thread cutting
A. Planer C. Drill Machine D. Square nose
B. Broaching D. Power Saw 40. A lathe with multiple cutting stations is called:
C. Boring 23. It is a petroleum by-product used as electrodes in A. Turret lathe
D. Lathe an electric arc furnace melting operation. B. Engine lathe
7. The blades for hacksaw have number of teeth A. Anthracite coke C. Manual lathe
range of: B. Foundry coke D. None of these
A. 15 – 38 teeth C. Graphite Electrode 41. Device used to measure accurately speed called:
B. 14 – 32 teeth D. Bituminous coke A. Speedometer
B. Dial Indicator
C. 12 -30 teeth 24. Which of the following is an unsafe condition in
C. Tachometer
D. 12 – 32 teeth operating a lathe machine?
D. Dial gage
8. __________ no part of the headstock. A. Wearing denim pants/safety shoes
42. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a
A. Back gear B. Wearing a canvass apron machine tool is called:
B. Spindle C. Operating with safety gloves A. Universal chuck
C. Anvil D. Wearing safety goggles/hearing aid B. Slooter
D. Motor 25. Relief angle of a single-point cutting mild steel cast C. Dividing head
9. __________ is a lathe carriage part the bridge iron and another average work as recommended D. Indexing
across the bed to carry the cross slide and tool rest. should be in the range of _________ degrees for 43. Recommended best cutting angle of drill for work on
A. Automatic feed high speed tools. steel or cast iron is ___________ degrees.
B. Apron A. 8 to 12 A. 48
C. Compound rest B. 10 to 5 B. 63
C. 59
D. Saddle C. 5 to 7
D. 50
10. What is the recommended cutting speed range for D. 12 to 16
44. What is the common shop practice to prevent solder
bronze in fpm? 26. Tap not used for cutting thread ___________.
from running away from surface to be joined?
A. 60/70 A. Tapping tap A. All of these
B. 200/250 B. Bottoming tap B. Surround the work with clay
C. 80/60 C. Plugging tap C. Introduce around the work rolled wet cloth
D. 100/110 D. Taper tap D. Put asbestos sheeting around the work
11. For ordinary turning drilling and milling on low 27. Which of the following tools does not belong to the 45. Name the type of chuck commonly used for holding
strength steel the cutting fluid applied have soluble group? work piece in a lathe operation. Example 3-jaw
oil with consistency of part oil to _______ parts A. Hermaphrodite caliper universal chuck, 4-jaw independent chuck.
water. B. Divider
A. 10 to 30 C. Double VEE block A. Magnetic jaw chuck
B. 2-jaw independent
B. 10 D. Trammel
C. 8-jaw-universal
C. 5 to 10 28. In Machine Shop had forging operation of
D. Combination
D. 10 to 20 lengthening a piece of stock while reducing the
46. A machinery operation whereby done with the work
12. The five principal parts of the shaper are the table, cross-sectional area of work is called: accurately fastened has a reciprocating motion and
tool slide, base, ram and _______. A. Bloating the tool head is stationary is called:
A. Column B. Upsetting A. Shaping
B. Vise C. Spreading B. Planning
C. Drive motor D. Draining C. Turning
D. Apron 29. Which of the following services is not considered to D. Reaming
13. In drilling soft materials use cutting angle as low as be a work of a machinist? 47. What happens to a drill if the operating speed is too
40 degrees but for extremely hard material up to A. Reboring fast?
_____________ degree is recommended. B. Grinding A. Drill will crack
B. Drill will become overheated and will blend
A. 80 C. Over Hauling
C. Drill will become overheated and will
B. 65 D. Honing
drawn from steel
C. 75 30. Type of chuck wherein the work piece with
D. Drill will become very dull and wear dust
D. 70 standard diameter or size could be attached fast 48. Which do not belong to foundry or metal casting shop?
14. An act of cutting out a piece of metal at a desired and quick specially small size work of mass A. Shake – Out Machine
shape and size. production called: B. Molding Machine
A. Broaching A. Lathe Drive Plate C. Core making
B. Blanking B. Clamp Toe Dog D. Forging
C. Slitting C. Collet Attachment 49. It is an arbitrary modification by moving a small portion
D. Dinking D. Steady Center Rest of a tooth material at the tip of the gear tooth.
15. A research agency handling assistance to all 31. This particular cutting tool material could with stand A. Tip removal
foundry, machine shop and metallurgical plant cutting temperature of 1800 F and higher at cutting B. Tip under cut
speed beyond possible with other cutting tool materials C. Tip relief
operation.
called: D. Pressure angle cut
A. MIRDCC
A. Titanium carbide 50. What is the difference between the shaper and the
B. NOI
B. Ceramic planer?
C. DOST
C. Carbide grade
D. All of these A. The tool of the shaper moves while the
D. Cubic boron nitride
16. Web is a part of drill and is usually thicker 32. Common defects encountered in a foundry shop steel plane is stationary
__________. casting operation and also in welding practices. B. The shaper can perform slotting operation
A. Beside the land A. Cracks while planer cannot
B. Nearing the shank B. Cold shot C. The shaper handles large pieces while the
C. Close to the future C. Parting line planer handles only small pieces
D. At the tip portion D. Blow / pin holes D. The tool of the shaper moves in
17. It is a symbol ___________ that the work surfaces 33. Lathe operator to remove the taper shank from the reciprocating motion while the tool in the
taper hole uses drift. It is also called: planer move in rotary motion.
should be machine-finished and placed on the line
that represents the surface to be machined. A. Tong
B. Morse Taper
TEST 22
1. Safety features that must be placed and maintained D. Grinding Machine B. Broaching
at machine, blacksmith, welding and foundry shop is 20. A machine tool in which an abrasive wheel is used C. Milling
called: as cutting tool to obtain a very smooth finish. D. Boring
A. Safety Goggle A. Broaching Machine 38. The operation of making a cone-shaped
B. Walkway Guide B. Planer enlargement of the end of a hole, as for a recess for a
C. Safety Notices in Markings C. Tool Grinder flat head screw.
D. All of these D. Milling Machine A. Counter Sinking
2. Test sometimes referred to as upsetting test called: 21. A machine tool used principally to machine flat or B. Knurling
A. Bend plane surfaces with a single pointed tool C. Squaring
B. Flaring A. Shaper D. Performing
C. Flange B. Planer 39. It is an operation of sizing and finishing a hole by
D. Crush C. Drill means of cutting tool having several cutting edges.
3. The machine used for testing of very thin steel or D. Power Saw A. Notching
surface layers 22. A tool with hardened steel points used for scribing or B. Piercing
A. Charpy Test laying of distances. C. Turning
B. Izod Test A. Plain Scriber D. Reaming
C. Description Test B. Divider 40. The hop term used to include the marking of
D. Rockwell Test C. Trammel inscribing of center points circles area of straight lines
4. _____ is a test for pipe used for coiling in sizes 2 inches. D. Hermaphrodite upon metal surfaces, either curve or flat, for the
A. Flaring 23. _____ used to machine flat or curved surfaces with a guidance of the worker called:
B. Crush tool, which moves in a reciprocating motion. A. Shaping
C. Flange A. Planer B. Hobbing
D. Bend B. Shaper C. Laying Out
5. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a single point C. Grinder D. Shaping
cutting tool called D. Lathe 41. It is used to true and align machine tools fixtures and
a. Dividing Head 24. _____ used in the production of flat surfaces on works to test and inspect size trueness of finished work,
b. Slotting Attachment pieces too large or too heavy to hold in a shaper. and to compare measurements either heights or
c. Circular Pitch a. Planer depths or many other measurements.
d. Circular Milling Attachment b. Shaper A. Dial Gage
6. Milling machine accessories are used to hold milling c. Grinder B. Dial Indicator
cutter in the milling machine called: d. Shaver C. Tachometer
a. Spindel – Nose Tooling 25. A machine tool used to produce a variety of D. Speedometer
b. Milling Machine Size surfaces by using a circular type cutter with multiple 42. A toll used for measuring diameters.
c. Vertical Milling Attachment teeth called: A. Caliper
d. Milling Machine Arbors A. Lathe Machine B. Manometer
7. An important accessory of milling machine. B. Milling Machine C. Tachometer
A. Milling Machine Vise C. Broaching Machine D. Pyrometer
B. Cutter D. Grinding 43. The process of forming metals by the use of dies
C. Ram 26. A cutting tool used to finish internal and external after the metal is heated to its plastic range.
D. Vertical Milling Attachment surfaces by the use of a cutter called broach, which A. Rolling
8. A machine used in testing steel generally strikes the has a series of cutting edges of teeth B. Forging
specimen with an energy from 22- t0 265 ft-lb/ a. Lathe Machine C. Turning
A. Izod Test b. Broaching Machine D. Casting
B. Charpy Test c. Planer 44. A machine tool used to out metal parts a lift,
C. Rockwell Test d. Shaper medium and large section using a reciprocating
D. Test Blocks 27. The method of cold working by compression. hacksaw blade.
9. The area of the machine shop whose metal is being A. Broaching A. Tool Grinder
melted to form a new shape is the: B. Lapping B. Shaper
A. Foundry Area C. Piercing C. Planer
B. Tool and Die Area D. Reaming D. Power Saw
C. Welding Area 28. A group of thin steel strips used for measuring 45. A cold chisel is made of:
D. Mass Production Area clearances. A. Cast Iron
10. Which of the following is not the work of a A. Feeler Gage B. German Silver
machinist? B. Tachometer C. High Carbon Steel
A. Reboring C. Micrometer D. High Speed Steel
B. Overhauling D. Caliper 46. Trimming is a process associated with:
C. Grinding 29. The process of working metals by the application of A. Electroplating
D. Boring sudden blows or by a steady pressured called: B. Forging
11. The machine, which can flatter surface on A. Rolling C. Machining of Metals
horizontal, vertical or angular plane. B. Forging D. Press Work
A. Drilling Machine C. Casting 47. Foundry crucible is made of
B. Shaper Machine D. Turning A. Graphite
C. Power Saw 30. A kind of chuck, which should not be used where B. German Silver
D. Lathe Machine accuracy is required called: C. Lead
12. Which of the following is not part of a lathe A. Collet Chuck D. Mild Steel
machine? B. Magnetic Chuck 48. Formed milling operation of cutting gears can be
a. Fan C. Four Jaw Chuck used for cutting which type of gears?
b. Carriage D. Universal Chuck A. Spur
c. Headstock 31. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, which B. Worm
d. Tail Stock could be adjustable separately called: C. All of the above
13. One important skill that operates of machine tools A. Collet Chuck D. Bevel
must have an understanding of measurements, which B. Independent Chuck 49. Select the one that is gear finishing process.
demands: C. Four Jaw Chuck A. Gear Shaving
A. Speed D. Magnetic Chuck B. Gear Shaping
B. Precision 32. A tool which when pressed into a finished hole in a C. Gear Hobbing
C. Sociability piece of work, provides centers on which the piece D. Gear Milling
D. Neatness may be turned or otherwise machines called: 50. Broaching operation is generally used in automobile
14. Which tool does not belong to the group? A. Mash industry as:
A. Vice Grip B. Butt A. It is a mass production machine
B. Feeler Gage C. Mandrel B. It is an automatic machine
C. Torque Wrench D. Wobble C. Operation is completed in one stroke
D. Adjustable Wrench 33. A machine tool, which is very similar to a shaper D. Semi-skilled operators can be employed
15. A machinery operation whereby the tool rotates except that the ram reciprocates vertically rather than
while the feed is stationary. horizontally.
A. Shaping A. Lathe
B. Milling B. Grinder
C. Turning C. Planer
D. Reaming D. Slotter
16. Which of the following is not part of the headstock? 34. A cylindrical bar of steel with threads formed
A. Anvil around it and grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it,
B. Spindel intersecting with the threads to form cutting edges. It is
C. Motor used to cut internal threads.
D. Back Pressure A. Grooves
17. A machining operation whereby the tool B. Lap
reciprocates while the feed is stationary. C. Tap
A. Planing D. Flute
B. Shaping 35. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a
C. Turning machine tool called:
D. Reaming A. Slotter
18. ____ is a kind of center, which is being attached B. Chuck
and meshed to the tailstock spindle, which is also static C. Dividing Head
while the rack is rotating. D. Indexer
A. Dead CenterLive Center 36. The operation of machining the end of a work
B. Focal Center piece to make the end square with the axis.
C. Work Center A. Squaring
19. A machine used in shaping metal by means of B. Buffing
abrasive wheel of the removal of metals with an C. Lapping
abrasive is called: D. Honing
A. Planer Machine 37. The operation of enlarging a hole by means of an
B. Power Saw adjustable cutting tool with only one cutting edge.
C. Shaper Machine A. Drilling
TEST 23

1. Point angle of 135° on drills is used for: D. More/less depending on size 34. Raping allowance is provided on a pattern to
A. Bakelite hard rubbers and fibrous 17. The pressure of inoculation is used: take care of
plastics A. To clean the casting
B. Hard steels and nickel alloys B. To decrease the melting temperature A. Shrinkage
C. Thin sheets metal of a cast metal B. Machining
D. B and C C. To change the chemical composition C. Distortion
2. A twist drill is specified by: of a cast metal D. Easy withdrawal
A. Its diameter and lip angle D. To modify the structure and properties 35. Upsetting is the term used in one of the
B. Its shank and diameter of a cast metal following operations
C. Shank, material and diameter 18. Tumbling is done so as to: A. Casting
D. Shank, material and flute size A. Clean the surface of small parts B. Drilling
3. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is: B. Get surface finish C. Forging
A. 30° C. Stress relieve the components D. Turning
B. 60° D. Plate the surface 36. One of the material used for making surface
C. 110° 19. What is referred to as gate? plate is:
D. 120° A. A passage through which metal is A. Brass
4. The helix angle on a high speed steel twist drill for poured into mould B. Granite
drilling cast iron is the order of: B. A passage through which metal rises C. Stainless steel
A. 12-22° the mould is filled D. Wood
B. 24-32° C. A passage that finally leads molten 37. Feeler gages are used for measuring the:
C. 35-40° metal from the runner into the mould A. Clearance between mating parts
D. 40-45° cavity B. Pitch of screw threads
5. Dressing is D. A vent hole to allow for the hot gases to C. Radius of curvature
A. An inspection method for castings escape D. Thickness of plates
B. A method of cleaning the castings 20. A sprue is: 38. Chuck used on turret lathe is
C. A method of deoxidizing of molten a. A tool used in mould repairing A. Collet chuck
metal b. A process of cleaning casting B. Four jaw self-centering chuck
D. The formation of oxides on them molten c. A chemical that is added to molten C. Magnetic chuck
metal surface materials for sound castings D. Three jaws independent chuck
6. Sweep pattern is used for molding parts having: d. A vertical passage through the cope 39. Routing prescribes
A. Complicated shape having intricate and joining the pouring basin to the A. Inspection of final product
details runner B. Proper utilization of machine
B. Rectangular shape 21. Hacksaw blade that has the same number of C. Proper utilization of man power
C. Uniform symmetrical shape teeth as given below are available. Which one D. The flow of materials in the joint
D. None of the above would you chose for cutting brass? 40. Cope foundry practice refers to
7. Which of the following processes that hydraulic A. 18 teeth A. Bottom half of molding box
fluid acts as transfer media. B. 24 teeth B. Coating on the mold face
A. Electron Beam Machining C. 28 teeth C. Middle portion of the molding box
B. Electro – discharge Machining D. 31 teeth D. Top half of molding
C. Iron Beam Machining 22. A plug gauge is used to measure 41. A vent wire is used in
D. Water Jet Machining A. Cylindrical bores A. Foundry
8. Wiping is the process of B. Screw thread B. Hot forging
A. Applying flux during welding process C. Spherical holes C. Cold forging
B. Cleaning the welded surface after the D. Taper bores D. Fitting
welding operation is over 23. When large number of components are turned 42. The purpose of chaplets is to:
C. Connecting load pipes by soldering and parted off a bar the chuck generally used is A. Ensure directional solidification
alloy the _____. B. Function a lower and upper parts of the
D. Low temperature welding A. Collet chuck molding box
9. Ornaments are cast by: B. Four Jaw chuck C. Provide efficient venting
A. Continuous Casting C. Magnetic chuck D. Support the cores
B. Die Casting D. Two jaw chuck 43. Angle plate is used for
C. Gravity Casting 24. Which of the following is the cutting speed of A. Cutting tapers in a lathe
D. Presses Casting brass? B. Cutting gears in a shaper
10. In such casting process: A. 30 m/min C. Cutting gears in a milling
A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in B. 40 m/min D. Fixing job outs angle in a grinder
metallic mould by gravity C. 50 m/min 44. Cores are used in mould to make it
B. Metal is poured into die cavity and after D. 60 m/min A. Hollow
a predetermined time the mould is 25. Under cutting is: B. Smooth
inverted to permit a part of metal still in A. An operating of cutting extra deep C. Strong
the molten state to flow out of cavity groove D. Symmetrical
C. Cavity is filled with a pre- calculated B. An operation of cutting a groove next 45. Pipes subjected to high pressures are generally
quantity of metal and core or plunger to a shoulder on a piece of work made by
inserted to force the metal into cavity C. Cutting from the of work piece A. Centrifugal casting
D. Metal is forced into mould under high D. An operation of cutting extra wide B. Extrusion
pressure threads C. Pressure casting
11. In Carthias process 26. Permeability of foundry sand is: D. Slush casting
A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in A. The capacity to hold moisture 46. In a typical lathe machining, discontinuous
metallic mould by gravity B. Distortion of binder in sand chips of _____ are formed when machining
B. Metal is poured into die cavity and C. Fineness of sand A. Carbon steel
after a predetermined time the mould is D. Porosity to allow the escape of gases B. Copper steel
inverted to permit a part of metal still in 27. Quick return mechanism is used in a C. Copper
the molten state to flow out of cavity A. Drilling machine D. Steel at high speeds
C. Cavity is filled with a pre- calculated B. Grinder 47. Permeability, in relation to molding sands, is
quantity of metal and core or plunger C. Lathe high for
inserted to force the metal into cavity D. Shaper A. Coarse grains
D. Metal is forced into mould under high 28. Draft on a pattern is provided for. B. Fine grains
pressure A. Facilitating pattern making C. Medium grains
12. What is the purpose of riser? B. Easy lifting of the casting D. Round grains
A. Feed the casting at a rate consistent C. Facilitating withdrawal of the pattern 48. The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe is to:
with the rate of solidification from the mould A. Cut gears
B. Act as a reservoir for molten metal D. Providing for shrinkage of the coating B. Cut threads
C. Help feed the casting until all 29. Mandrel are used to hold C. Give desired direction of movement to
solidification takes place A. Cutting tools the lathe carriage
D. Feed molten metal from pouring basin B. Drill bits D. Reduce spindle speeds
to gas. C. Face plate 49. For machining the flange elbow on a lathe
13. The mould for casting ferrous materials D. Hollow work pieces which of the following holding devices is used?
A. Copper 30. The operation of enlarging a hole is called: A. Angle plate
B. High carbon steel A. Boring B. Catch plate
C. Low carbon steel B. Counter Sinking C. Face plate
D. Medium carbon steel C. Drilling D. lathe plate
14. Dilatometer is use to find out which property of D. Reaming 50. Which of the following is not part of
molding sand? 31. In up cut milling the work piece is fed combination set?
A. Fineness A. Against the rotating cutter A. Bevel protractor
B. Hot Strength B. At an angle 60° to the center B. Dial gage
C. Moisture Content C. At right angle to the cutter C. Scale
D. Permeability D. In the direction of the cutter D. Try square
15. Select the one that is not an angle measuring 32. Sprue is the passage provided for the
device A. Out flow
A. Angle Iron B. In flow
B. Bevel protector C. Smooth flow
C. Combination D. Solidification of the molten material
D. Sine bar 33. Feed in a lathe is expressed in
16. The darft allowance on metallic pattern as A. mm
compared to wooden ones is: B. mm per degree
A. More C. mm per revolution
B. Same D. rpm
C. less
TEST 24

1. A sine bar cannot be used without a/an B. Cold-rolled steel 33. A hacksaw blade with 32 TPI is best suited for
A. Angle gage C. Hot-rolled steel cutting
B. Micrometer D. Top steel A. Small tubing
C. Slip gage 17. Copper is annealed by hunting to a cherry red B. Conduit
D. Vernier Caliper color and C. Sheet metal under 18 gage
2. The tooth life is affected to the maximum extent A. Cooling slowly in air D. Any of these
by B. Dousing in cold water 34. A coolant is usually used when cutting material in
A. Gear grinding C. Dousing in hot water a power hacksaw to
B. Gear Shaping D. Dousing in oil A. Absorb heat of friction
C. Gear shaving 18. When drilling a hole in a piece of work held in a B. Prevent the blade from overheating
D. Milling lathe chuck one would use the C. Prevent the blade from losing
3. The operation of finishing a drilled hole to the A. Head stock D. All of the above
correct size is known as B. Compound rest 35. A hacksaw blades with 18 teeth per inch is best
A. Counter boring C. Cross-feed suited for cutting
B. Counter sinking D. Tailstock and drill chuck A. Aluminum
C. Reaming 19. When using a drill press, the work should be held B. Cast iron
D. Spot facing with C. Solid iron
4. When the extreme outer corners of the cutting A. A pair of pliers D. Any of these
edges of a drill wear away too rapidly, it is an B. A vise clamp 36. When cutting a long thing piece of metal
indication of C. Gloves on A. Set the blade in the frame with the teeth
A. Not enough speed D. The hand facing toward you
B. Too much rake angle 20. When a lathe is put into back gear, it will go B. Turn the blade at right angles to the frame
C. Too high a speed A. At a slower speed backwards C. Turn the blade upside down in the frame
D. B or C B. At the same speed backward D. Use a blade with fewer teeth per inch
5. Carbon steel drill should be operated at C. Faster 37. The hacksaw blade should be placed in the
A. Speed greater than that when using a high D. Slower frame with
speed drill 21. On a lathe, the dead center is used after A. One end looser than the other end
B. Speeds less than that when using a high A. Boring B. The teeth facing in any direction
speed drill B. Center-drilling C. The teeth pointing backward
C. The same speed as that using a high speed C. Drilling D. The teeth pointing forward
drill D. Reaming 38. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch should
D. None of the above 22. To remove metal stock rapidly the file to use is a be used for cutting
6. Removing the sharp edges from a piece of stock A. Double-cut bastard A. Brass
is referred to as B. Double - cut coarse B. Cast iron
A. Polish material C. Rasp C. Heavy
B. Roughen Material D. A and C D. Thin wall tubing
C. Sharpen Material 23. The best file to use when finishing sharp corners or 39. The best instrument for measuring thousandths of
D. Smooth Material slots and grooves is the an inch is the:
7. Knurling is done to __________. A. Jeweler’s file A. Caliper
A. Boring B. Knife file B. Micrometer
B. Chamfering C. Mill file C. Pyrometer
C. Planning D. Square file D. Tachometer
D. Turning 24. Never use a file 40. All hard hacksaw blade is best suited for work on
8. When cutting material in a lathe, the harder the A. That is dirty A. Brass
material being cut, the tool bit should have B. With a tang B. Cast iron
A. Less side rake C. Without a handle C. Tool steel
B. More side rake D. Without oiling D. Any of these
C. More top rake 25. Which of the following information is necessary 41. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best suited for
D. No side rake when ordering a file cutting
9. When turning a piece of round metal in a lathe, A. Size A. Cold rolled steel
the front clearance should be smaller for B. Shape B. Hot rolled steel
A. Cutting angles C. Type of teeth C. Structural steel
B. Large-diameter cutting D. All of the above D. Any of these
C. Small-diameter cutting 26. When filling a piece of metal in a lathe if short 42. Files are divided into two general classes, namely
D. None of these quick strokes are used the finished piece will A. Flat shapes and round shapes
10. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting edge should probably B. Large and small
be A. Be out of round C. Rough and smooth
D. Single – cut and double - cut
A. Case hardened B. Be perfect
43. A hacksaw blade can be placed in a frame in
B. Rubbed with emery cloth C. Have small flat areas on the surfaces
A. One position
C. Rubbed with crocus cloth D. A and C
B. Two positions
D. Stoned with an oilstone 27. the best procedure when filling a piece of metal C. Three positions
11. When cutting material in a lathe, the softer the in a lathe is to take _________ D. Four positions
material being cut, the tool bit should have A. A long fast stroke 44. All hard hacksaw blade is one that
A. Any of these B. Long slow stroke A. Has a hard back and flexible teeth
B. Double top rake C. Short even stroke B. Has a flexible back and hard teeth
C. Less top rake D. Short fast stroke C. Has the entire blade hardened
D. More top rake 28. The safe edge of a file is D. Will only fit a solid frame hacksaw
12. A piece of cast iron hold against an emery wheel A. The end opposite the handle 45. Hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best suited for cutting
will give of B. The one with a handle A. Brass and copper
B. Sheet metal over 18 gages
A. Bright shiny sparks C. The edge with the handle
C. Tubing
B. Dull yellow sparks D. None of these
D. Any of these
C. Red sparks 29. Small pieces of metal clogged between the
46. Hacksaw blades are made of
D. No sparks teeth on a file are called A. High speed
13. The alignment of coupling faces can be checked A. Bumps B. Tool steel
by B. Clogs C. Tungsten alloy steel
A. Inserting a feeler gage between the C. Flats D. Any of these
coupling faces at various points around the D. Pins 47. A flexible back hacksaw blade is one that has
circumference 30. Finishing off a piece of metal with a real smooth A. A movable back
B. Inserting a thermometer finish can be done by B. Flexible ends
C. Rotating and measuring to nearest A. Draw – filing C. Only the back hardened
permanent fitting B. Fat – filing D. Only the teeth hardened
48. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best suited to work
D. Using an inside micrometer C. Milling – filing
on
14. A drill bit has D. Side – filing
A. Aluminum
A. No flutes 31. For finishing a piece of work to size the file to use is
B. Channel
B. 2 flutes the C. Tubing
C. 3 flutes A. Crossing file D. Any of these
D. 4 flutes B. Double – cut fine – tooth file 49. When lathe tool bit burns, it means that the
15. Before applying layout for blue on a piece of C. Mill file A. Speed is too low
metal, it must be D. Single – cut fine – tooth file B. Speed is too fast
A. Cleaned 32. For filing lead or babbit, use a C. Material is too hard
B. Cold A. Lead float life D. Material cannot be cut
C. Heated B. Mile file 50. The lathe compound is used for
D. Roughened C. Vixen file A. Angle cutting
B. Grooving
16. A scriber is made from D. A or C
C. Facing
A. Carbon steel
D. Any of these
 TEST 25 17. If you use a dry grinding wheel for sharpening tool C. The hole will take longer to drill and more
bits, dip the end of the bit in water frequently to power is required to drive the drill
1. A universal chuck cannot be used to cut prevent D. The drill will not center properly
A. An eccentric A. Annealing the cutting edge of the bit 34. The name of a taper shank used to drill is
B. A round stock B. Burning your fingers A. Miller
C. A cam C. Hardening of the tip B. Morse
D. A and C D. The tip from crystallizing C. Starrett
2. The jaw of a standard vise is 18. The tool used to check internal pipe threads is D. Stanley
A. Hard called 35. The tool used to cut threads on pipe is called a
B. Semi – hard A. Gear center A. Pipe tool
C. Semi-soft B. Gear cutter B. Pipe stock
D. Soft C. Gear hob C. Pipe vise
3. When facing off a piece of material in the lathe D. Gear threader D. Pipe cutter
chuck the bit must be set 19. The tool used to check internal pipe threads is 36. The instrument used for reshaping a grinding
A. Above center called wheel that is grounded or cut of round is called
B. At the center A. Pitch gage A. Wheel aligner
C. Below the center B. Plug gage B. Wheel dresser
D. Off center C. Ring gage C. Wheel emery
4. Before applying layout blue on a piece of metal, D. Thread gage D. Wheel cutter
it must be 20. The tool used to check external pipe threads is 37. The instrument used to remove old packing from
A. Cleaned called a packing glands and stuffing boxes are called
B. Cold A. Pitch gage A. Packing tools
C. Hot B. Plug gage B. Packing bits
D. Roughened C. Ring gage C. Gland box clearance
5. Tool steel can be hardened by D. Thread gage D. Packing screw
A. Heating red hot and plunging into a water 21. The operation of truing a grinding wheel is known 38. Before drilling a hole in a pipe of metal it should
B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of as be
dry air A. Centering A. Center punched
C. Heating red hot and plunging into line seed B. Dressing B. Marked with chalk
or cotton seed oil C. Rounding C. Protracted
D. Any of the above, depending on the type D. Sizing D. Scribed
and use 22. The cutting angle on a drill for mild steel should be 39. When measuring a drill for size, measure across
6. A piece of mild steel held against an emery A. 39° the
wheel give off B. 49° A. Flutes
A. Bright shiny sparks C. 59° B. Margins
B. Green sparks D. 69° C. Points
C. Light straw – colored sparks 23. Which of the following is not a common drill shank D. Shanks
D. No sparks A. Bit 40. The tool used in precision work to smooth on
7. Another name for hydrochloric acid is B. Fluted enlarge holes is called a
A. Acetic acid C. Straight A. Drift pin
B. Muriatic acid D. Taper B. Reamer
C. Nitric acid 24. Tapered shanks are used on a large drill presses C. Round out
D. Sulfuric acid so that D. Protractor
8. A flexible hacksaw blade has a tendency to A. The drill can be centered more easily 41. The size of a drill is stamped on the
A. Snap easy B. The drill can be easily forced out of the sleeve A. Flute
B. Buckle or run out of line when too much with a drift B. Margin
pressure is supplied C. The shank can be reground when worn C. Point
D. The shank will not turn when cutting D. Shank
C. Cut too fast
25. When using a drill press the work should be held 42. The tool used for cleaning files is called
D. Cut on a slant
with A. File cleaner
9. A pillar file is used for
A. The hand B. File card
A. Filing against a shoulder
B. A gloved hand C. File oilstone
B. Filing keyways
C. A vise or clamp D. Scraper
C. Filing slots
D. Pliers 43. The metal cutting wedge is fundamental to the
D. Any of these
26. A tool bit for cutting an American National geometry of
10. The length of a file is measured from
Thread should be ground with a A. Head of tools only
A. End to end
A. 30° angle B. Power driven tools only
B. Heel to end
B. 45° angle C. Sheet metal cutting tools only
C. Point to end
C. 60° angle D. All cutting tools
D. Point to heel
D. 90° angle 44. Continuous chips are formed when cutting
11. In general, files are divided into two classes,
27. Center drilling is the operation of A. Brittle materials
namely:
A. Drilling a center in an odd-shaped of metal B. Ductile materials
A. Fine and coarse
B. Drilling and countersinking with a tool C. Amorphous plastic materials
B. Rough and smooth
C. Centering with one tool and drilling with D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
C. Single – cut and double – cut
another 45. What is the function of rake angle of a cutting
D. Shapes and sizes
D. Drilling a center in a piece of stock in a drill tool?
12. A pillar file has
press A. To control the chip formation
A. One safe edge
28. When cutting a drill , it will squeal due to B. To prevent rubbing
B. Three safe edges
A. Drill being ground improperly C. To determine the profile of too
C. Two safe edges
B. Drill being too hot D. To determine whether the cutting action is
D. A and C
C. Insufficient lubrication oblique or orthogonal
13. The tang of a file is the part that
D. Any of these 46. Back rake angle for a high speed steel point
A. Does the cutting
29. The correct cutting angle on a drill for ordinary cutting tool to machine free cutting brass is
B. Fits into the handle
work is A. 0°
C. Has no teeth
A. 45° B. 5°
D. Is opposite the handle
B. 50° C. 10°
14. One of the factors involved in the choice of a
C. 59° D. 15°
grinding wheel is
D. 65° 47. The chip removal process is called
A. The kind of material to be ground
30. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut at different A. Extruding
B. The amount of stock to be removed
angles B. Forging
C. The kind of finish required
A. The drill will not cut C. Rolling
D. All of these
B. The hole will be larger than the drill D. Broaching
15. The main difference between a planer and a
C. The hole will be smaller than the drill 48. The non chip removal process is called
shaper
A. The planer has offset table and the shaper has D. None of these A. Grinding
a horizontal table 31. If a drill speed is too great, it will B. Spinning on lathe
B. The shaper has a rotating table and the planer A. Cut faster C. Thread cutting
has a horizontal table B. Close its temper D. Drilling
C. The table of a planer has a reciprocating C. Out slower 49. A twist drill has its point thinned in order to
motion past the total head while the table of the D. Not cut A. Reduce the hole diameter
shaper is stationary and the tool head has a 32. Soda added to water is used for cooling instead B. Increase the rake angle
reciprocating motion of plain water because C. Locate in the center punch mark
D. One is larger than the other A. It reduces the amount of heat generated D. Reduce the axial feed pressure
16. A piece of tool steel held against an emery wheel B. It improves the finish 50. A reamer is used to correct the
will give off C. It overcomes rusting A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
A. White sparks with stars on the end D. All of these B. Size and position of a drilled hole
B. Yellow sparks 33. If the angle on a drill is less than 59° C. Finish and position of a drilled hole
C. No sparks A. The drill will make a larger hole D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole
D. Green sparks B. The drill will make a smaller hole
TEST 26

1. _____________ to prevent leakage in dynamic A. Low and medium pressure C. Lateral

seal. B. Medium and high pressure D. None of these
A. Gaskets C. Low and high pressure 34. A tolerance where the size of a part may be
B. Seals D. None of the above larger only or smaller only, than the given
C. Packing 18. Electron beam machining process is quite dimension
D. Felts suitable for a material having A. Bilateral
2. Plus or minus of the tolerance is also called: A. High melting point and high thermal B. Unilateral
A. Total Tolerance conductivity C. Lateral
B. Unilateral Tolerance B. High melting point and low thermal D. None of these
C. Bilateral Tolerance conductivity 35. _________ are generally used on those dimensions
D. None of these C. Low melting point and low thermal involved in a fit
3. Is the permissible variation of the size of a conductivity A. Bilateral
dimension. D. Low melting point and high thermal B. Unilateral
A. Tolerance conductivity C. Lateral
B. Allowance 19. Energy is a/an D. None of these
C. Clearance A. Artificial abrasive 36. The ASA fits are based on the
D. Interference B. Natural abrasive A. Basic Number System
4. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take C. Type of cloth B. Basic Hole System
pressure to put the parts together. The allowance D. None of these C. Basic Size System
is said to be negative and is termed 20. Grinding is what type of operation? D. Unit System
A. Negative tolerance A. Metal fusing operation 37. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take
B. Negative allowance B. Metal powdering operation a force or pressure to put the cold part together.
C. Negative fits C. None of these The allowance is said to be negative and is
D. Interference of metal D. Metal finish operation termed as:
5. It is used in conjunction with circular cross 21. Grinding is done wherever A. Negative fits of metal
sectional members to retain oil and prevent dirt, A. Other machining operations cannot be B. Positive fits
foreign particles and moisture and to permit carried out C. Interchangeable
pressure differential between exterior and interior B. A large amount of materials is to be D. Interference of metal
of the applied part. removed 38. Is the relatively finely spaced irregularities on the
A. Seal C. High accuracy is required surface
B. Gasket D. None of these A. Smoothness
C. Safety shield 22. Laser beam machining process is used to B. Lay
D. Packing machine __________. C. Waviness
6. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids, A. Thicker materials D. Roughness
normally under dynamic condition. B. Thinner materials 39. It is the irregularities or departures from the
A. Nylon C. Heavier materials nominal surface of greater spacing than
B. Seal D. None of these roughness
C. Teflon 23. The size of abrasive grains in an abrasive jet A. Roughness
D. Packing machining varies from B. Lay
7. Which of the following is not a common term A. 60 to 100 microns C. Smoothness
relating to the classification of fits? B. 10 to 50 microns D. Waviness
A. Tunking C. 1 to 5 microns 40. It is the direction of the predominant surface
B. Snug D. 110 to 150 microns pattern
C. Medium Force Fit 24. The Young’s modulus of carbide tools is about A. Lay
D. Bound ________. B. Roughness
8. The total permissible variation in the size of a A. Three times than for steel C. Smoothness
dimension the difference between the limits of B. Six times than for steel D. Waviness
the size. C. Nine times than for steel 41. The surface finish of micrometer anvils in ______
A. Tolerance D. None of these rms.
B. Fits 25. Twist drills are usually considered suitable for A. 1
C. Allowance machining holes having a length less than B. 8
D. Clearance A. Two times their diameter C. 16
9. A device used to prevent leakage of media. B. Five times their diameter D. 32
A. Seal C. Ten times their diameter 42. The surface finish of heavy cuts and coarse feed
B. Packing D. Fifteen times their diameter A. 80 rms
C. Teflon 26. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for B. 200 rms
D. Graphite grinding C. 400 rms
10. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if A. Hard materials D. 500 or greater rms
A. Lips of drill are of unequal length B. Soft materials 43. The outbreak of fire can be avoided by preventing
B. Fed is too high C. Both hard and soft materials A. Fuel
C. Insufficient coolant is used D. None of these B. Heat
D. Cutting speed is too high 27. The relative motion of work piece in planning is C. Oxygen
D. Any of these
11. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine A. Rotary
44. The square head of a combination set is used for
metal even when their cutting elements get B. Translator
marking or checking the engine.
healed up to the temperature of ___________. C. Rotary and translator
A. 90° only
A. 1650 C D. None of these B. 90° and 45°
B. 1400 C 28. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine C. 45° only
C. 1000 C the ram stroke length is proportional to D. Any angle between 0-180°
D. 1800 C A. Slotter arm length 45. Angle plate is made of
12. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided B. Crank length A. Cast steel
with C. Ram length B. Closed grain cast iron
A. Positive back rake angle D. None of these C. High speed steel
B. Neutral back rake angle 29. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in D. Tool steel
C. Negative back rake angle quick return mechanism of shaping machine is 46. The eye hole of a hammer head is made in an oval
shape and taper towards center because
D. Depth of cutter A. 3:2
A. It is easy for production
13. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced B. 6:8
B. It is specifically design by experts
by C. 3:1
C. It accommodates the handle and a wedge for
A. Increased sliding viscosity D. 5:2 preventing it
B. Increased shear angle 30. The amount of metal removed by honing process D. None of the above
C. Use of low tool finish is less than __________. 47. The jaws of a long vice are opened
D. None of these A. 0.125 mm A. Parallel to each other
14. The studs used as a coolant in general machine B. 0.255 mm B. In V form
stop consist of C. 0.015 mm C. In both “A” and “B”
A. A solution of detergent and water D. 0.315 mm D. Neither “A” nor “B”
B. A straight mineral oil 31. The type and number of bearing to be used for 48. For general work the cutting angle of a cold fist chisel
C. An emulsion of oil and water spindles of machine tool depend on is ground at an angle of
A. 35°
D. A chemical solution A. Type of spindle
B. 60°
15. Milling cutter is sharpened on B. Type of machine tool
C. 70°
A. Tool and cutter grinder C. Load on the bearing
D. 80°
B. Center less grinder D. None of these 49. A new hacksaw blade should not be used to old cut
C. Cylindrical grinder 32. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of the order because
D. Surface grinder _______ in machining work could be permitted. A. The blade is very costly
16. Two major factors, which determine the rpm of A. -+0.020 B. The blade has very sharp teeth
milling cutter, are the material being cut and B. -+0.010 C. The space is not sufficient to play the new blade
_________. C. -+0.09 in the old cut
A. Number of teeth in cutter D. -+0.05 D. None of these
B. Diameter less grinder 33. A tolerance where the size of a part is permitted 50. Which part of the file is not hardened
C. Time allowed to complete the job to be either large or smaller than the given A. Body
B. Heel
D. Depth of cutter dimension.
C. Point
17. Gear pumps used in hydraulic system are used for A. Bilateral
D. Tang
_________. B. Unilateral
TEST 27 A. Opposite direction D. None of these
1. In case of a flat scraper, the depth of cut s B. Same direction 35. Amount of automatic feed in shaper is increased
verified C. Will not rotate by taking the crank pin
A. Changing its inclination D. None of these A. At the center of crack disc
B. Changing the convexity of the cutting edge 19. While soldering the flux is used because B. Towards the center of crack disc
C. Changing its weight A. It assists for quick melting and increasing the C. Away from the center of crack disc
D. None of thesE fluidity of solder D. none of these
2. Generally spiral fluted reamer has spirals of B. It saves the part from oxidation 36. In a shaper the feed (metric) is usually expressed
A. Left hand C. It takes the molten metal on all surfaces in
B. Right hand D. All of these A. mm/ stroke
C. Straight 20. A usual ration of soluble oil and water used in B. mm/revolution
D. None of these coolant is C. meter/minute
3. In which screw thread the side = width of flat = A. 1:10 D. none of these
width of space = 0.5p is termed as B. 1:20 37. for cutting gear teeth in a shaper, the _________
A. Acme C. 10:1 tool is use
B. Buttress D. 20:1 A. form
C. Knuckle 21. For a given rpm, if the diameter of a twist drill B. “V” shape
D. Square increases, then cutting speed will C. Round nose
4. A stud is one which: A. Decrease D. Gooseneck
A. Has threads on one end B. Increase 38. Shaper tool bit should not exceed in tool holder
B. Inserted in a plane hole C. Same beyond
C. Requires a nut D. None of these A. 5mm
D. None of these 22. An advance motion along the longitudinal axis of B. 15mm
5. 18-8” stainless steel means: a twist drill is called C. 25mm
A. 18% Tungsten and 8% Chromium A. Speed D. 50mm
B. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel B. Feed 39. The standard ratio of cutting in return stroke in
C. 18% Nickel and 8% Chromium C. Cutting speed shaper is
D. 18% Chromium and 8% Cobalt D. None of these A. 3:1
6. Which is the lightest metal 23. In internal cylindrical grinding, the grinding wheel B. 1:3
A. Aluminum and the work rotate in C. 2:3
B. Cast iron A. Sam direction D. 3:2
C. G. I. sheet B. Opposite direction 40. A tipped tool is more useful than H.S.S. tool
D. Lead C. Neither A or B because
7. Hardened steel parts have D. Both A and B A. It can resist more heat
A. Coarse grain 24. For grinding materials having low tensile strength B. It can keep the cutting point sharp
B. Fine grains which abrasive is used C. Cutting speed can be increased
C. Medium grains A. Corrundum D. All of these
D. None of these B. Aluminum oxide 41. The feed in shaper takes place at
8. Concentricity of an outside diameter can be C. Emery A. At the beginning of return stroke
checked by D. Silicon carbide B. The beginning of cutting stroke
A. Dial test indicator 25. The size of a grinding wheel is taken from C. The middle of return stroke
B. Outside micrometer A. Diameter of wheel D. The end of return stroke
C. Vernier caliper B. Bore size 42. Which of the following quick return mechanisms is
D. Tube micrometer C. Width of face most widely used in most of the slotters
9. Which micrometer has no anvil D. All of these A. Slotter linl and gear mechanism
A. Depth micrometer 26. Which center is used for supporting open end of B. Slotter disc mechanism
B. Outside micrometer pipes, shells etc. while turning or thread cutting in C. Hydraulic mechanism
C. Screw thread micrometer a lathe D. Whitworth mechanism
D. Digit micrometer A. Ball center 43. In a slotter the cutting speed depends upon
10. Which micrometer is available with extension rods B. Half center A. Material to be cut
A. Outside micrometer C. Female center B. Material of the slotter tool
B. Inside micrometer D. Pipe center C. Finish required
C. Screw thread micrometer 27. When outside diameter of a job is turned in D. All of these
D. Combi micrometer relation to the internal hole, the job should be 44. Convex shaped slotter tools are used for
11. Which gauge is used to check the internal held machining
threads A. In three jaw chuck A. Concave surface
A. Plug gauge B. Between center B. Conical surface
B. Ring gauge C. On face plate C. Flat surface
C. Thread plug gauge D. On lathe mandrel D. Convex surface
D. Thread ring gauge 28. The included angle of a dead center is 45. The clamping block to be used in a slotter to
12. Limit gauge is made to the _________ sizes of the A. 30° support the end of the strap is made of
work to be measured B. 45° A. H. S. S.
A. Actual and nominal C. 60° B. High carbon steel
B. Minimum and maximum D. 90° C. Lead
C. Nominal and lower limit 29. Main alloying element to H.S.S is D. Wood
D. Nominal and upper limit A. Chromium 46. The table of the slotter has feeding movements
13. Lapping is done B. Tungsten A. Longitudinal
A. To finish the job to a fine degree of C. Vanadium B. Cross
accuracy D. Nickel C. Rotary
B. To get high quality of surface finish 30. The value of one micron is D. All of thesE
C. To control the size A. 1.00 mm 47. Divided table planer has
D. All of these B. 0.10 mm A. One table
14. In which method a bore is finished to a very close C. 0.001 mm B. One housing
tolerance D. 0.001 mm C. Two tables
A. Lapping 31. For the accurate measurement of bores , the best D. Two housing
B. Honing instrument is 48. In a planer the feed is provided
C. Grinding A. Vernier caliper A. At forward stroke
D. Turning B. Inside micrometer B. At return stroke
15. Jig bushing are generally made of C. Plug gauge C. In between forward stroke
A. Mild steel D. Dial test indicator D. In between return stroke
B. Cast iron 32. Under sine principle the length of sine bar takes 49. In a planer the cutting speed depends upon
C. Brass the place of A. Material of job, material of tool and feed
D. Tool steel A. Opposite side rate
16. Fixture clamps are generally made of B. Adjacent side B. RPM of ball gear
A. High carbon steel C. Hypotenuse C. Depth of cut
B. Case hardened mild steel D. Height D. None of these
C. High speed steel 33. In a hydraulic driven shaper the metals is 50. The planer tool differs from lathe tool because it
D. Alloy steel removed at has
17. Successfully designing of jigs and fixtures depend A. Lower speed A. Less front and side clearance
upon B. Higher speed B. More front and side clearance
A. Clamping arrangement C. Average speed C. Less rake angle
B. Tool guiding elements D. None of these D. More rake angle
C. Manufacturing conditions 34. In a shaper the cutting speed (metric) is
D. All of these expressed in
A. Meter per minute
18. When an external gear is meshed with an internal B. Meter per second
gear the gears will rotate in C. Meter per hour
TEST 28 B. Flutes A. It is easy for machinery
C. Diameter B. It is cheaper
1. A planer which has a cutting action in both D. Relief C. It has less wear and tear
18. Grinding fluids are used to D. All of these
strokes in
A. Reduce the friction between the wheel face
A. Open side planer 36. The common measuring tools are
and the job
B. Double housing planer A. Steel rule
B. Lubricate
C. Pit planer B. Vernier caliper
C. Prevent loading of wheel
D. universal planer D. All of these C. Micrometer
2. the straddle milling is done by means of two: 19. Balancing of grinding wheel is done to: D. All of these
A. side milling cutters A. Make the outside diameter concentric with the 37. It is an operation of stretching or spreading over
B. plain milling cutters bore the metal by means of the plane of the hammer
C. face milling cutters B. Make the sides of the wheel parallel A. Peening
D. form cutters C. Equalize the weight in very portion of the wheel B. Swaging
3. in a standard dividing head the ration between D. None of these C. Bending
the worm wheel and the worm is 20. A grinding wheel which has got the marking °C, is D. Upsetting
made with the abrasive 38. The good quality of a measuring tool
A. 10:1
A. Aluminum oxide
B. 20:1 A. Should be easy to handle
B. Silicon carbide
C. 30:1 B. Should be easy to read
C. Combination of A and B
D. 40:1 C. Should be wear resistance
D. Corrundum
4. In a standard dividing head 3 inches in 27 holes 21. Which bond is suitable for wet grinding D. All of these
circle will index: A. Rubber 39. The flatness of surface can be checked
A. 1° B. Shellac A. By using a straight edge
B. 4° C. Silicate B. By using a surface plate
C. 2° D. None of these C. By using a dial test indicator
D. 6° 22. Which kind of bond is commonly used D. All of these
5. There are two different movements of the crank A. Vitrified 40. It is an operation in which round rod is placed
in: B. Rubber between the top and bottom swages and
C. Shellac hammered to remove the bends and marks
A. Simple indexing
D. Silicon
B. Compound indexing A. Bending
23. The grade is of grinding wheel depends upon:
C. Differential indexing B. Peening
A. Grain size
D. Angular indexing C. Swaging
B. Hardness of bond
6. In a vertical milling machine the spindle is C. Kind of abrasive D. Upsetting
attached ________ to the work table D. Structure 41. A notching/ holding device which is used to hold,
A. Horizontal 24. One of the causes of grinding wheel glazing is or grip work place while filing, chipping or any
B. Angular A. Grain size is too fine other bench work or when machining or drilling
C. Vertical B. Wheel is hard them
D. None of the above C. Wheel speed is too fast A. Vise
7. Planer type milling machine is built up for D. “A” and “B” both B. Clamp
__________ work of: 25. Which of the following is used in cleaning the gage C. Grip
blocks before and after use D. Pressed
A. Heavy duty
A. Brush
B. Light duty 42. A multi pointed hand anything tool used to
B. Chamois leather or linen cloth
C. Medium duty remove material from metallic non- metallic work
C. Cotton waste
D. None of these places to match withdrawing shape and size
D. None of these
8. In a straddle milling operation how many cutters 26. Internal and external taper on cylindrical jobs are
A. Cold chisel
are used to mill the work ground in B. File
A. One A. Plain cylindrical grinding machine C. Hacksaw
B. Two B. Universal cylindrical grinding machine D. none of these
C. Three or more C. Internal grinding machine 43. a side cutting tool used for accurately finishing
D. Any one of these D. Centerless grinding machine the straight or tapered holes already drilled or
9. For gear cutting which cutter is used 27. Mark the cutter which works simultaneously with the bored
A. End mill cutter up cut and down cut process A. Reamer
A. Side milling cutter B. Swaging
B. Form relief cutter
B. Shell and milling cutter
C. Plain milling cutter C. Peening
C. Semi – circular milling cutter
D. All of these D. Tapping
D. Plain milling cutter
10. In a slotter, the table gets ______ different feeds 44. A device used to fix two or more parts
28. What happens if the job is loosely fitted between
A. One centers in cylindrical grindings? A. Jigs
B. Two A. The job will be out of round B. Fixtures
C. Three B. The job will be oversize C. Fastener
D. None of these C. The job will be thrown out D. Clamp
11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is 5°, the lip D. The job will not rotate 45. A machine element inserted parallel to the axis of
(wedge) angle in 75°, the rake angle will be 29. Where does the relieved cutters are reground a shaft
A. 10° A. On the circumstances A. Fastener
B. 70° B. Relieved cutters are not reground B. Cotter
C. 80° C. On the flank C. Key
D. None of these D. On the side faces D. None of these
12. The approximate hardness of HSS end mill cutter 30. Used for scribing large radius of circles and arcs 46. A machine element inserted at right angle to the
is: A. Compass axis shaft is known as
A. 45 HRC B. Protractor A. Fastener
B. 52 HRC C. Ruler B. Cotter
C. 62 HRC D. Trammel C. Key
D. 72 HRC 31. Which of the following has its angle 30° and is D. Clamp
13. The over arm of a milling machine is used to used for giving impression on soft metals? 47. The process of extracting iron in a blast is called
support A. Center punch A. Sintering
A. Arbor B. Dot punch B. Smelting
B. Spindle C. Prick punch C. Casting
C. Column D. Hollow punch D. Manufacturing
D. Table 32. Which of the following has its angle 60° and is 48. Which of the following is a product of blast
14. Where does the feed motion takes place in a used for dotting after marking the lines on general furnace
slotting machine works? A. Wrought iron
A. During the cutting motion A. Center punch B. Cast iron
B. After each forward stroke B. Dot punch C. Pig iron
C. At the end of the return motion C. Hollow punch D. Gray iron
D. After each double stroke D. Prick punch 49. A type of iron, which contains 3 to 3.5 % carbon
15. Which of the following conditions may cause error 33. Which of the following has its angle 90° and is either in combined form or in free state
during knurling used to give deep marks to the location of drill A. Wrought iron
A. Surface speed too low A. Center punch B. Cast iron
B. Clamped length and toll too short B. Dot punch C. Pig iron
C. Too much longitudinal feed C. Hollow punch D. Gray iron
D. Unnecessary support with tool stock center
D. Prick punch 50. Which of the following furnace is used for
16. Mark the milling method during which the formation
34. It is used on soft metals and non-metals for manufacture of cast iron
of chatter marks is very likely:
making holes A. Cupola furnace
A. During down cut milling with a straight tooth
cutter
A. Center punch B. Crucible furnace
B. During face milling with a straight tooth cutter B. Dot punch C. Electric furnace
C. During up cut milling with a straight tooth cutter C. Hollow punch D. all of these
D. When using spiral tooth cutter D. Prick punch
17. Taps are re-sharpened by grinding 35. Reasons why cast iron is selected for the
A. Threads manufacture of surface plate
TEST 29 D. Effective size 34.) What is used to connect the shafts whose axes are
17.) The size in relation to which all limits of variation is intersecting
1.) A product of padding furnace, which contains made. A. Rigid coupling
A. Actual size B. Oldham coupling
less than 0.10% carbon, is called
B. Basic size C. Flexible coupling
A. Wrought Iron
C. Effective size D. Universal coupling
B. Cast Iron
D. Nominal size 35.) It is generally used on high speed with light load
C. Pig Iron 18.) The relation between two mating parts with reference because it has point contact
D. Gray cast Iron to ease the assembly is called A. Ball bearing
2.) Which of the following is a property of wrought A. Allowance B. Roller bearing
iron? B. Clearance C. Metal bearing
A. Ductile C. Tolerance D. Wood bearing
B. Brittle D. Fits 36.) It is generally used on high speed with heavy load
C. Cannot be forged 19.) Two extreme permissible sizes of a dimension because it has line contact
D. Can be easily cast into different shapes A. Boundary A. Plastic bearing
3.) Which of the following gives greater hardness, B. Limits B. Metal bearing
C. Tolerance C. Roller bearing
cutting toughness and fine grain structure?
D. Allowance D. Ball bearing
A. Chromium
20.) __________ is the difference between the high and low 37.) It is a process by which the length of a work place is
B. Nickel
limit of size increased by reducing its cross section area.
C. Tungsten A. Drawing out
A. Clearance
D. Vanadium B. Allowance B. Drifting
4.) Which of the following gives greater hardness, C. Tolerance C. Jumping
cutting toughness and resistance to wear and D. Fits D. Upsetting
tear? 21.) It is the intentional difference in the sizes of mating 38.) It is a process by which the length of a work piece is
A. Chromium parts reduced
B. Tungsten A. Allowance A. Upsetting
C. Nickel B. Clearance B. Drawing out
D. Vanadium C. Limits C. Drifting
D. Tolerance D. Jumping
5.) Which of the following raises the tensile strength,
22.) It is an operation of finishing the flat and cylindrical 39.) Refers to the process of bulging on one end of a work
protects from corrosion and improves wearing
surfaces to a fine degree of accuracy piece to bring a required shape
property?
A. Lapping A. Bending
A. Cobalt B. Upsetting
B. Shaping
B. Nickel C. Planing C. Drifting
C. Molybdenum D. Honing D. Jumping
D. Tungsten 23.) It is an operation of finishing the flat and cylindrical 40.) It is a process of enlarging and smoothening the
6.) ___________ gives greater hardness and resistance surfaces to a fine degree of accuracy by means of punched hole by means of tapered drifts of various
to forging and drawing abrasive sticks sizes and shapes
A. Molybdenum A. Lapping A. Drifting
B. Vanadium B. Planing B. Jumping
C. Tungsten C. Shaping C. Drawing out
D. Honing D. Upsetting
D. Cobalt
24.) It is a device, which hold the job in position and guide 41.) It is a machine tool used to remove metal from a work
7.) __________ improves the cutting quality and gives
the cutting tool. piece to give it the required shape and size
excellent magnetic property in the steel
A. Clamp
A. Cobalt A. Drill press
B. Jig
B. Molybdenum C. Vise B. Lathe
C. Nickel D. Grip C. Shaper
D. Chromium 25.) It is a device, which hold the job firmly D. Planer
8.) It is an operation involving heating and cooling of A. Clamp 42.) It is a set of gears fitted in different positions on a
metals to change the properties B. Grip plate, which are controlled by a lever
A. Annealing C. Fixture A. Gear train
B. Nitriding D. Jig B. Stud Gear
C. Tempering 26.) The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer C. Tumbler Gear
of the driver and driven pulleys within the area of arc D. Differential Gear
D. Heat Treatment
of contact is called 43.) It moves on the lathe bed with cutting tool according
9.) It is a process to impact maximum hardness to the
A. Slip to the rotation of lead screw or by hand traversing
steel part.
B. Creep wheel
A. Hardening A. Apron
C. Crowning
B. Tempering D. Dressing B. Compound rest
C. Annealing 27.) If the belt is loosely fitted on pulleys, _________ slips C. Saddle
D. Normalizing down. D. Mandrel
10.) It is a process to reduce some brittleness and to A. Creep 44.) It acts the carriage or compound rest through the
induce some toughness in the steel part B. Crowning mechanism lifted inside the __________
A. Case Hardening C. Dressing A. Saddle
B. Normalizing D. Slip B. Apron
C. Annealing 28.) It is the outer surface of face or rim of the pulley and C. Compound
made in convex form to keep the belt in center when D. Mandrel
D. Tempering
it is in motion 45.) It gives the cutting tool longitudinal feed, cross feed
11.) It is a process to soft the steel part by removing
A. Crowning or angular feed
the internal stress
B. Dressing A. Compound rest
A. Normalizing B. Apron
C. Creep
B. Annealing D. Slip C. Saddle
C. Tempering 29.) To avoid slip or creep, the resin powder or paste is D. Carriers
D. Hardening poured in between the outer surface of pulley and 46.) A holding device used to hold the job properly when
12.) It is process to make the steel part to its normal range belt for increasing at tension. This process is known as turning the outer surface truly with the finished hole
A. Annealing A. Crowning called
B. Normalizing B. Dressing A. Clamp
C. Case Hardening C. Creep B. Fixture
D. Tempering D. Slip C. Jig
13.) It is the process for making the outer surface harder of 30.) It is used to transmit motion at high speed without D. Mandrel
the steel parT producing noise
A. Flame Hardening A. Bevel gears 47.) The center that is fitted in headstock spindle called
B. Hardening B. Hypoid Gears A. Dead Center
C. Case Hardening C. Helical Gears B. Live Center
D. Carburizing D. Worm Gears C. Above Center
14.) It is a case hardening process by which the carbon 31.) It is used to transmit motion at high speed with heavy D. Below Center
content of the steel near the surface of a part is load without producing noise 48.) A center, which is fitted in tailstock spindle called
increased A. Worm gear A. Dead Center
A. Nitriding B. Herring bone gear B. Live Center
B. Tempering C. Bevel gear C. Above Center
C. Carburizing D. Spur gear D. Below Center
D. Flame Hardening 32.) It is used to connect and disconnect the driving and 49.) It is a machine tool used to produce flat surfaces,
15.) It is a case hardening process in which work piece is driven units which may be horizontal, vertical or inclined
heated in a stream of ammonia at 500 to 550°C A. Brake A. Planer
A. Carburizing B. Spring B. Slotter
B. Nitriding C. Clutch C. Shaper
C. Tempering D. Coupling D. Milling
D. Normalizing 33.) It connects the shafts with soft materials such as 50.) Which of the following gives shearing action
16.) The size by which it is referred to as a matter of rubber, leather and canvas A. Slide rake
convenience called A. Universal coupling B. Top rake
A. Basic size B. Flexible coupling C. Side clearance
B. Actual size C. Rigid coupling D. Front clearance
C. Nominal size D. Oldham coupling
TEST 30 16.) The angle formed between the face of a tool C. 3% to 7%
and the work surface or tangent to the work at a D. 5% to 10%
1.) What supports the top rake? point of contact with the tool called 34.) It is done to decrease the brittleness and to increase
A. Clearance angle the toughness
A. Front Clearance
A. Annealing
B. Side Clearance B. Cutting angle
B. Normalizing
C. Slide Rake C. Rake angle
C. Tempering
D. None of these D. Wedge angle
D. Nitriding
2.) What supports for free feeding 17.) It is a device, which is used to change the shape 35.) Ratchet stop is attached with micrometer to measure
of a piece by removing material in the form of the accurate reading by applying _______ pressure
A. Side rake chips irrespective of users skill and strength
B. Side clearance A. Cutting tool A. Atmospheric
C. Front clearance B. Machine tool B. Gage
D. Top rake C. Chisel C. Uniform
3.) Which of the following reduces the rubbing D. Hacksaw D. Variable
action? 18.) The angle formed the face and the normal to the 36.) A hole, which is drilled for a particular size of a tap, is
work piece at the point of contact with the tool called
A. Front clearance
A. Clearance angle A. Drilling hole
B. Side clearance
B. Cutting angle B. Reaming hole
C. Slide rake
C. Wedge angle C. Tapping hole
D. Top rake D. Plugging hole
D. Rake angle
4.) It is a type of reciprocating type machine tool 37.) A ___________ gage is used to check the clearance
19.) The angle formed between the face and the
used for machining flat, cylindrical, and irregular clearance surface between the mating parts
surfaces. A. Wedge angle A. Feeler
A. Planer B. Rake angle B. Plug
B. Shaper C. Clearance angle C. Tap
C. Slotter D. Cutting angle D. Dial
D. Lathe 20.) The angle formed between the clearance surface 38.) A __________ gage is used to check the size of
5.) Which of the following is used for all general and the work surface or the tangent to the work hole/bore
piece at the point of contact with the tool A. Feeler
purposes?
A. Clearance angle B. Plug
A. Production process
B. Wedge angle C. Tap
B. Puncher slotter
C. Rake angle D. Dial
C. Tool room slotter 39.) The difference between the high limit and the low
D. Cutting angle
D. None of these limit of a size is called
21.) The best method of avoiding accident is by observing
6.) A machine tool used for large construction __________ related to job, machine and work piece. A. Allowance
A. Planer A. Emery B. Clearance
B. Shaper B. Opponent C. Boundary
C. Slotter C. Safety precautions D. Tolerance
D. Lathe D. Cleanliness 40.) An intentional difference between the hole and the
7.) It is a machine tool used to machine plane 22.) The size of try square is measured from the inner edge shaft dimension for any type of fit is called
curved surfaced, slots, grooves, teeth, with fast of stock to the end of its _______. A. Allowance
A. Base B. Clearance
rotating multipoint cutter
B. Blade C. Tolerance
A. Milling
C. Edge D. Range
B. Planer
D. Body 41.) The material for taps should always be _________ than
C. Shaper the material of part to be tapped
23.) Angle of center punch is
D. Grinder A. Harder
A. 30°
8.) It is also known as conventional milling in which B. 45° B. Shorter
the rotation of the cutter is in the direction C. 60° C. Softer
opposite to the direction of the table movement D. 90° D. Longer
A. Down-milling 24.) Mallets are made of ________. 42.) Jigs are generally used for holding the job and
B. Up-milling A. Hardwood __________ the tool
C. Standard milling B. Soft wood A. Support
D. Gang milling C. Steel B. Guide
D. Cast iron C. Control
9.) It is also known as climb milling in which the
25.) The size of the bench vise is measured from the ______ D. Regulate
rotation of the cutter and the movement to the
of its jaws 43.) Measuring and other selling methods can be
table is in the same direction
A. Width eliminated by using _________ and fixtures
A. Gang milling A. Guide
B. Length
B. Down milling B. Support
C. Thickness
C. Up milling D. Curvature C. Jigs
D. Straddle milling 26.) For cutting oil grooves in bearing _____ chisel is used D. Structure
10.) It is an operation of milling the complex surfaces A. Full round nose 44.) When two or more tools are to be used through the
with the help of a group of cutters mounted on B. Half round nose same hole then __________ bushes are used in jigs
the same arbor C. Square nose A. Positive slip
A. Gang milling D. Rectangular B. Negative slip
B. Straddle milling 27.) Staggering of hacksaw blade teeth on both sides C. Friction
alternatively is called D. Slip
C. Climb milling
A. Positioning to teeth 45.) The __________ gears are used for changing the plane
D. Down milling
B. Arrangement of teeth direction
11.) It is an operation of milling two opposite sides of
C. Setting of teeth A. Spur
work piece at a time by using two side milling B. Helical
D. None of these
cutters on the same arbor C. Worm
28.) The size of a flat file is measured from ________ to heel
A. Gang milling of the file D. Bevel
B. Straddle milling A. Edge 46.) Solder is an alloy of _________
C. Side milling B. Base A. Lead and zinc
D. Face milling C. Tip B. Lead and tin
12.) It is an attachment to the milling machine, which D. Body C. Lead and tungsten
helps to divide the job periphery into a number of 29.) The triangular scraper has _______ sharp cutting edges D. Lead and antimony
equal divisions A. One 47.) Flash point is the __________ at which the sufficient
B. Two vapor is given off from the oil without actual setting
A. Index
C. Three fire to the oil
B. Dividing head
D. Four A. Gage temperature
C. Slotting
30.) Reamer should also be turned in _________ direction B. Lower temperature
D. Universal spiral C. Higher temperature
when taking it out
13.) It is an operation to produce narrow slots or D. Absolute Temperature
A. Same direction
grooves using a slitting saw milling cutter B. Opposite direction 48.) When hard material is to be drilled, the cutting angle
A. Saw milling C. Clockwise direction of the drill should be _____ 118°
B. Form milling D. Counterclockwise A. Less than
C. End milling 31.) It is the distance measured to the axis from a point on B. Equal to
D. Side milling a screw thread to the corresponding point on the C. More than
14.) It is an operation to produce irregular contours next thread D. Either more than or less than
using a form cutter A. Lead 49.) If the taper shank of the drill is too large as compared
B. Pitch to the spindle hole, the __________ is used.
A. Face milling
C. Linear A. Drill socket
B. Form milling
D. Chord B. Planer
C. Side milling
32.) Cupola furnace is used to produce _______. C. Electric drill
D. End milling D. Copping saw
A. Cast iron
15.) It is an operation to divide the periphery of the 50.) What is the lip clearance angle of twist drill for
B. Cast steel
job into number of equal parts accurately C. Aluminum generated work?
A. Dividing head D. Stainless steel A. 3 – 6°
B. Indexing 33.) Percentage of carbon in high carbon steel is B. 8 – 10°
C. Slotting A. 0.10% to 0.50% C. 12 – 15°
D. None of these B. 0.70% to 1.5% D. 18 – 22°
TEST 31 15. A machine used for forcing an arbor or a mandrel into A. Mercury
drilled or bored parts preparatory to turning or grinding B. Oil
1. A machine for shaping a work piece by gripping it in A. Automatic press C. Water
B. Bladder press D. Alcohol
a holding device and rotating it under power against a
C. Arc press 33. A job, which is fixed away from the table, can be
suitable tool for turning, boring facing or threading.
D. Arbor press machined by
A. Shaper
16. A solids grinder and the product is a fine powder A. Running head
B. Lathe A. Atomizer mill B. Moving head
C. Planer B. Autogenous mill C. Traveling head
D. Engine Lathe C. Attrition mill D. Static head
2. A machine for the removal of metal by feeding a D. Ball mill 34. The stroke positioning lever is located on the _________ of
work piece through the periphery of a rotating circular 17. A machine in which material are pulverized between shaper.
cutter. two toothed metal disks rotating in opposite directions. A. Lever
A. Milling Machine A. Attrition mill B. Table
B. Milling Planer B. Tumbling mill C. Ram
C. Milling Cutter C. Ball mill D. Chunk
D. Beater mill 35. The length of a shaper stroke is the length of the job plus
D. Milling Shaper
18. A straight brace for bits whose shank comprises a _________.
3. It is a machine tool used for cutting flat-on-flat an-
coarse-pitch screws sliding in a threaded tube with a A. Displacement
toured surfaces by reciprocating a single-point tool
handle at the end of the device is operated by pushing the B. Tolerance
across the work piece. C. Allowance
handle called
A. Planer A. Automatic capacity D. Clearance
B. Shearing machine B. Automatic drill 36. Rocker arm is a _______ part of shaper
C. Shaper C. Automatic regulator A. Oscillating
D. Slab cutter D. Automatic stocker B. Reciprocating
4. It is the machine used for shaping of long, flat or flat 19. A press in which mechanical feeding of the work is C. Moving
contoured surfaces by reciprocating the work piece synchronized with the press action. D. Running
under a stationary single-point tool or tools. A. Dial press 37. In a shaper, the _______ strokes takes place.
A. Planer B. Punch press A. Backward
C. Automatic press B. Forward
B. Shaper
D. Manual press C. Return
C. Lathe
20. A supporting member that carries a wheel and either D. Cutting
D. Turret Lathe
rotates with the wheel to transmit mechanical power to or 38. In shaper, the tool is fed at the end of _______ stroke.
5. It is the machine used for shaping of metal or plastic A. Cutting
from it, or blows the wheel to rotate freely on it is called
by pushing or pulling a broaching across a surface or A. Shaft B. Return
through an existing hole in a work piece. B. Axle C. Backward
A. Planning C. Bushing D. Forward
B. Shaping D. Coupling 39. Generally, shaper tool cuts metal on the ______ stroke.
C. Broaching 21. A portable sanding tool having a power-driven abrasive A. Backward
D. Milling coated continuous belt is called B. Cutting
6. It is a device, usually motor-driven, fitted with an end A. Bench sander C. Forward
cutting tool that is rotated with sufficient power either B. Belt heightener D. Return
C. Gear sander 40. Generally, shaper is used for machining ________
to create a hole to enlarge an existing hole in a solid
D. Belt sander surfaces.
material.
22. A machine for bending a metal or wood part by A. Curve
A. Drill jigs
pressure is known as B. Flat
B. Drill press C. Rough
A. Pressing machine
C. Drill chuck B. Bending machine D. Smooth
D. Drilling machine C. Forming machine 41. Shaper tools are made of
7. It is a machine tool designed to machine internal D. Shaping machine A. Mild steel
work such as cylinders, holes in castings, and dies, types B. Cast iron
are horizontal, vertical jig, and single. 23. A machine, which simultaneously molds and cures a C. High speed steel
A. Boring machine pneumatic tire is called D. Wrought iron
B. Broaching machine A. Bladder press 42. For machining cast iron in shaper, the tool ground with
C. Drilling machine B. Crank press ______ rake angle.
C. Automatic press A. Negative
D. Boring mill
D. Manual press B. Positive
8. It is a milling method in which parts placed in a row
24. A file whose edges are parallel is known as C. 30°
parallel to the axis of the cutting tool end are milled
A. Crochet file D. 45°
simultaneously. 43. Which of the following best describe a milling machine?
B. Cross cut file
A. Abreast milling C. Equaling file A. It is a machine equipment
B. Angular milling D. Blunt file B. It is a machine tool
C. Helical milling 25. Slightly rounding a cutting edge to reduce the C. It is a machine device
D. None of these probability of edge chipping is referred to as D. It is a machine apparatus
9. A core drill with hardened steel shot pellets that A. Broaching 44. The quick return mechanism is slotter is provided in order
revolve under the rim of the rotating tube, employed in B. Butting to save the time in ________ stroke.
rotary drilling in every hard ground. C. Blunting A. Backward
A. Automatic drill D. Bleaching B. Forward
26. A rigid tool holder to machine internal surfaces is called: C. Cutting
B. Double core barrel drill
A. Boring bar D. Return
C. Flat drill
B. Boring mill 45. An arbor is used to _______ an drive the milling cutter.
D. Adamantine Drill
C. Broaching machine A. Guide
10. The part of a machine for wood planning that B. Hold
D. Corrugated bar
carries the cutters. 27. Which of the following is a boring machine tool used C. Control
A. Adz stock particularly for large work piece, types are horizontal and D. Support
B. Adz block vertical? 46. A puncher slotter is used for ______ stock removal.
C. Head stock A. Boring mill A. Light
D. Heel block B. Burrstone mill B. Heavy
11. A grinding mill of large diameter with either lumps of C. Cage mill C. Small
ore, pebbles, or steel balls as crushing bodies the dry D. Chile mill D. Large
lead is swept to remove mesh material. 28. A flat-ended twist drill designed to convert a cone at the 47. Snagging is the form of ________ grinding.
A. Aero fall mill bottom of a drilled hole into a cylinder is called
A. Churn drill A. Hard
B. Aero motor
B. Core drill B. Rough
C. Aerial speed
C. Bottoming drill C. Soft
D. Ball mill D. Smooth
D. Spiral drill
12. A tool-steel cutter used for finishing surfaces of 29. A tap with a chamfer 1-1½ threads in length 48. Carbide and ceramic tools are ground on ______
angles greater or less than 90° with its axis of rotation is A. Center tap grinding wheel.
called ________. B. Bottom tap A. Fine grain
A. Circular cutter C. Taper tap B. Hard
B. Helical cutter D. Plug tap C. Soft
C. Angle cutter 30. A small portable hand drill customarily used by hand D. Diamond
D. Asphalt cutter setters to drill holes in breast called 49. The term ________ means that particle of metal are
13. Milling surfaces that are flat and at an angle to A. Diamond drill adhering to the cutting faces of the grinding wheel.
the axis of the spindle of the milling machine called B. Spiral drill A. Loading
A. Hammer milling C. Churn drill B. Feeding
B. Helical milling D. Breast drill C. Rating
C. Angular milling 31. In _________ type shaper, the reciprocating movement of D. Grinding
D. Circular milling the arm is affected by means of a rack and pinion. 50. In ________ jaw chuck each jaw can be adjusted
14. It is a hole in revolving cutter or grinder wheel for A. Gear independently.
mounting it on an arbor. B. Thread A. Five
A. Hole saw C. Screw B. Two
B. Arbor hole D. Bolt C. Three
C. Star drill 32. In hydraulic shaper the reciprocating movement of the D. Four
D. Peep hole arm is obtained through ______ pressure.
TEST 32 B. Land A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
C. Flute B. Size and position of a drilled hole
1. Refers to the unit that can be moved D. Thread relief C. Finish and position of a drilled hole
longitudinally along the swivel table and is 17. The process of cutting internal threads by D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole
35. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if
clamped in position by two bolts one on either side means of a cutting tool.
A. Lips of drill are of unequal length
of the base. A. Tapping
B. Feed is too high
A. Foot stock B. Reaming
C. Insufficient coolant is used
B. Head stock C. Chamfering D. Cutting speed is too high
C. Tail stock D. Honing 36. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine
D. Cross stock 18. The operation of producing a circular hole by metal even when their cutting elements get heated up
2. An instrument used for determining the relative removing solid metal. to a temperature of
hardness of materials by a drop and rebound A. Knurling A. 1650°C
method. B. Reaming B. 1000°C
A. Scleroscope C. Boring C. 1400°C
B. Rockwell Hardness Tester D. Drilling D. 1800°C
C. Universal Testing Machine 19. The surface below the cutting edge 37. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with:
A. Positive back rake angle
D. Brinell Hardness Tester A. Face
B. Neutral back rake angle
3. An instrument used for measuring the degree of B. Flank
C. Negative back rake angle
surface roughness in micro inches. C. Nose
D. None of these
A. Caliper D. Side relief 38. The point angle of twist drill to machine is
B. Micrometer 20. The surface below over which the chip flows. A. 112°
C. Profilometer A. Face B. 116°
D. Scleroscope B. Flank C. 118°
4. Refers to the portion of the circumference of a C. Nose D. 120°
D. None of these
grinding wheel touching the work being ground. 39. The cutting speed of HSS twist drill to machine gray
21. It measures the downward slope of the top surface cast iron is
A. Area of contact
of the tool from the nose to the rear along the A. 10-20 m/min
B. Arc of contact
longitudinal. B. 15-25 m/min
C. Angle of contact A. Side cutting edge angle C. 20-30 m/min
D. Contact ratio B. End relief angle D. 25-40 m/min
5. The spindle of the grinding machine on which C. Side rake angle 40. The recommended value of rake angle for
the wheel is mounted D. Back rake angle machining aluminum with cutting tools made up of
A. Bushing 22. Which one is the hardness material? diamond tool.
B. Arbor A. Steel A. 0°
C. Bearing B. Diamond B. 15°
D. Fluting C. Bronze C. 35°
6. A device for holding grinding wheels of special D. Brass D. 45°
23. It measures the slope of top surface of the tool to
shape or the working piece being grounded. 41. The cutting speeds of HSS milling cutter to machine
the side in a direction perpendicular to the longitudinal aluminum is
A. Head stock
axis. A. 140-200 m/min
B. Fixtures
A. Side rake angle B. 160-220 m/min
C. Jigs B. Side cutting edge angle C. 180-240 m/min
D. Chuck C. Side relief edge angle D. 200-260 m/min
7. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or tap. D. End relief angle 42. The major factors, which determine the rpm of
A. Fluting 24. A type of bonding material, which is made of clay milling cutter, are the material being cut and the
B. Flaring and water. ________.
C. Lapping A. Resinoid bond A. Number of teeth in cutter
D. Honing B. Vitrified bond B. Diameter of cutter
8. The dulling of the cutting particles of a grinding C. Shellac bond C. Time allowed to complete the job
wheel resulting in a decreased rate of cutting is D. Rubber bond D. Depth of cutter
25. The process of producing an extremely accurate
called. 43. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by
highly finished surface. A. Increasing sliding
A. Grinding
A. Lapping B. Increased shear angle
B. Glazing
B. Buffing C. Use of low tool finish
C. Fluting C. Polishing D. None of these
D. Lapping D. Honing 44. The studs used as a coolant machine shop consists
9. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues from casting 26. It is surface finishing process by which scratches and of
is termed as toll marks are removed with a polishing wheel. A. Solution of detergent and water
A. Honing A. Honing B. A straight mineral oil
B. Tumbling B. Lapping C. An emulsion of oil and water
C. Snagging C. Polishing D. A chemical solution
D. Truing D. Buffing 45. The recommended value of rake angle for machine
10. The process of increasing the cross-sectional 27. It is used for holding straight shank drills in the spindle aluminum with cutting tools made up of high speed
of the machine when drilling.
area of a given portion or possibly of the whole steel tool.
A. Drill chuck A. 5°
piece.
B. Chuck key B. 10°
A. Forging
C. Floating holder C. 15°
B. Upsetting D. Magic chuck D. 35°
C. Spreading 28. Continuous chips are formed when cutting 46. Milling cutter is sharpened on
D. Drawing A. Brittle materials A. Tool and cutter grinder
11. The process of lengthening a piece of stock B. Ductile materials B. Cylindrical grinder
while the cross-sectional area is being reduced. C. Amorphous plastic materials C. Centerless grinder
A. Tapping D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only D. Surface grinder
B. Honing 29. The rake angle of a cutting tool. 47. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable
C. Drawing A. Controls the chip formation for a material having
D. Upsetting B. Prevents rubbing A. High melting point and high thermal
C. Determine the profile of load
12. An alloy of copper, tin and antimony. conductivity
D. Determine the whether the cutting action is B. High melting point and low thermal
A. Bearing
oblique or orthogonal conductivity
B. Babbit
30. Back rake angle for HSS single point cutting tool to C. Low melting point and low thermal
C. Iconel machine free cutting brass is conductivity
D. Tantanium A. 0° D. Low melting point and high thermal
13. Sometimes used for soldering bright tin. B. 5° conductivity
A. Tallow C. 10° 48. A process can be considered as a hot working
B. Sal ammonia D. 15° process if the material is heated
C. Tinning 31. In the list of process given below, the chip removal A. Below recrystallization temperature
D. Rosin process is the B. Above recrystallization temperature
14. A very effective flux for soldering galvanized A. Die casting C. Below normal temperature
iron and zinc. B. Extruding D. Above normal temperature
C. Forging
A. Soldering pastes 49. Grinding is
D. Broaching A. Metal fusion operation
B. Muriatic acid
32. The twist drill has its point thinned in order to B. Metal powdering operation
C. Zinc chloride
A. Reduce the hole diameter C. Metal finishing operation
D. Cut acid B. Increase the rake angle D. None of these
15. The process of checking the surface of a piece C. Locate in the center punch mark 50. Grinding is done wherever
by rolling depressions into the surface. D. Reduce the axial pressure A. Other machining operation cannot be carried
A. Honing 33. In the list of process given below, the non-chip out
B. Knurling removal process is B. A large amount of material is to be removed
C. Snagging A. Grinding C. High accuracy is required
D. Reaming B. Spinning on lathe D. None of these
16. The groove providing for the cutting faces of C. Thread cutting
the threads or teeth, chip passage and lubrication. D. Milling
34. A reamer is used to correct the
A. Heel
 TEST 33 C. Positive cutting edge angle B. Tool steel
D. Negative cutting edge angle C. Carbon steel
1. The recommended value of the rake angle for 18. Cemented carbide and ceramic cutting tools are D. Cast iron
machining aluminum with cutting tools made up of usually provided with 35. It is a process of enlarging and smoothing the
cemented carbide tool A. Positive rake angle punched hole by means of tapered drifts of various
A. 5° B. Negative rake angle sizes and shapes.
B. 10° C. Positive cutting edge angle A. Drifting
C. 15° D. Negative cutting edge angle B. Drawing
D. 25° 19. Coefficient of friction in anti-friction guide ways is: C. Upsetting
2. Laser beam machining process is used to machine A. High D. Jumping
A. Thicker materials B. Low 36. It is the process by which the length of a work piece
B. Thinner materials C. Medium is increased by reducing its cross-sectional area.
C. Heavier materials D. None of these A. Flattening
D. Stronger materials 20. Nitriding process of surface treatment for steel tools B. Drawing out
3. The size of abrasive grains in abrasive a jet machining is used for taking C. Swaging
varies from A. Light cuts D. Jumping
A. 60 to 100 microns B. Heavy cuts 37. Shaper tools are made up of what type of material?
B. 10 to 50 microns C. Medium cuts A. Brass
C. 1 to 5 microns D. None of these B. Bronze
D. 20 to 40 microns 21. At very low cutting speeds the tool wear is due to C. High speed steel
4. In collet, the included angle of taper is usually A. Plowing action D. Babbit
A. 10° B. Transfer 38. A _________ is reciprocating type tool used for
B. 20° C. Material machining flat, cylindrical and irregular surfaces.
C. 30° D. Temperature A. Shaper
D. 40° 22. Are mixture of lard, cotton seed or rape-seed oils B. Planer
5. Straight fluted drill are used to drill _________ and mineral oils. C. Puncher
materials A. Cutting oils D. Slotter
A. Soft B. Cooling oils 39. An operation to enlarge the previous drilled hole
B. Hard C. Heating oils A. Drilling
C. Thin D. Emulsion B. Boring
D. Thick 23. How is aluminum work piece marked? C. Reaming
6. Twist drills are made usually considered suitable A. Ball pen D. Broaching
machining holes having a length less than B. Lead pencil 40. An operation to make smaller hole in exact center
A. Two times their diameter C. Crayon for lathe center.
B. Five times their diameter D. Chalk A. Broaching
C. Ten times their diameter 24. How is the height of a bench vice adjusted? B. Reaming
D. Twenty times their diameter A. By using a wooden plate form C. Counter boring
7. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for grinding B. By using a wooden packing piece under the D. Center drilling
A. Hard materials vice base 41. It is the operation of beveling the mouth of a hole
B. Soft materials C. By using a vice adjusting fixture A. Counter sinking
C. Both materials D. All of these B. Counter boring
D. None of these 25. What is the material of hacksaw blade? C. Spot facing
8. The relative motion of work piece in planning is A. High carbon steel D. Counter boring
A. Rotary B. High speed steel 42. It is the operation of smoothing and squaring the
B. Translatory C. Low tungsten steel surface around the hole
C. Rotary and translator D. Any of these A. Reaming
D. None of these 26. Why hacksaw blade teeth get dull? B. Counter sinking
9. The accuracy obtained by the grinding process can A. Coarse pitched blade is used on hard metal C. Spot facing
be of the order of B. Too much speed and pressure D. Counter boring
A. 0.25 mm C. Pressure is not released in return stroke 43. The size of abrasive grains produced by crushing
B. 0.025 mm D. Any of these process is called
C. 0.0025 mm 27. Files are classified according to A. Grade
D. 0.00025 mm A. Size or length B. Grit
10. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine, the B. Shape C. Peebles
ram stroke length is proportional to C. Grade and cut D. None of these
A. Slotter arm length D. All of these 44. It is the combination of iron, carbon and other
B. Crank length 28. How are rivets made? alloying elements.
C. Ram length A. Cold pressing A. Cast iron
D. None of these B. Rolling B. Brass
11. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in quick C. Drawing C. Carbon steel
return mechanism of shaping machine is D. None of these D. Alloy steel
A. 3:2 29. It is a case hardening process in which work piece is 45. The main purpose of ________ is to resist wear and
B. 3:1 heated in a stream of ammonia at 500 to 550°C. unable it to cut the other metal.
C. 3:4 A. Quenching A. Tempering
D. 3:5 B. Annealing B. Hardening
12. The amount of metal removed by honing process is C. Tempering C. Quenching
less than D. Nitriding D. Normalizing
A. 0.125 mm 30. It is used to measure gap between two mating parts 46. Lip clearance angle for drilling soft materials should
B. 0.225 mm to set the job and machine in alignment and to be ________ that for drilling hard materials.
C. 0.325 mm measure clearance of piston and cylinder in A. Less than
D. 0.425 mm automobiles. B. Equal to
13. In ECM process thermal current requirement is A. Compound gauge C. More than
A. 100 amps/cycle of work piece area B. Feeler gauge D. Zero
B. 200 amps/cycle of work piece area C. Inspection gauge 47. It is also known as slab peripheral milling
C. 500 amps/cycle of work piece area D. Workshop gauge A. Form milling
D. 800 amps/cycle of work piece area 31. The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer B. Climb milling
14. The voltage applied between tool (cathode) and surface of the driver and driven pulleys within the area C. Convex milling
work piece (anode) in ECM process is of arc of contact. D. Plain milling
A. 30-50 V A. Slip 48. In _______ the tool is released in return stroke.
B. 60-90 V B. Creep A. Shaper
C. 3-20 V C. Interference B. Planer
D. None of these D. Crowning C. Slotter
15. The diameter (D) of a plain milling cutter is 32. The temperature at which an oil gives off sufficient D. Reamer
approximately related to arbor diameter (d) as vapor without actually setting fire to the oil. 49. It is the process of driving the periphery of the job in
A. D=1.5d to 2d A. Flash point degrees.
B. D=2.5d to 3d B. Fire point A. Direct indexing
C. D=4.5d to 6d C. Pour point B. Plain indexing
D. D=5.5d to 8d D. Cloud point C. Differential indexing
16. The type and number of bearings to be used for 33. It is the process by which the length of a work piece D. Angular indexing
spindles of machine tool depend on the is reduced. 50. It is also known as conventional milling in which the
A. Type of spindle A. Drawing rotation of the cutter is in a direction opposite to the
B. Type of machine tool B. Drifting direction of the table movement.
C. Load on the bearing C. Jumping A. Down milling
D. None of these D. Upsetting B. Up milling
17. HSS cutting tools are generally provided with 34. It cannot be forged because it will break if heated C. Straddle milling
A. Positive rake angle and beaten by hammer D. Gang milling
B. Negative rake angle A. High speed steel
TEST 34 D. Lapping 33. Refers to circular milling attachment that is bolted to the
17. What should be the top rake angle to cut brass? top of the table of a plain or universal milling machine.
1. It is also known as climb milling in which the rotation A. 0° A. Slotting attachment
B. 15° B. Rotary attachment
of the cutter and the movement of the table is the
C. Milling attachment
same direction. C. 30°
D. Spiral attachment
A. Down milling D. 45°
34. The process of removing burrs and the gates and risers
B. Up milling 18. It is a long, tapered punch used for loosening
left on casting after the molding process.
C. Straddle milling straight pins, rivets and other small parts being A. Reaming
D. Gang milling disassembled. B. Snagging
2. The _______ is a machine tool used to remove metal A. Drive-pin punch C. Honing
from a work piece to give it the required shape and B. Hand punch D. Knurling
size. C. Drift punch 35. The __________ supports the table on the cross rail and
A. Shaper D. Center punch moves across it from left to right.
B. Planer 19. A tool used for turning nuts or bolts. A. Apron
C. Lathe A. Plier B. Bearing
B. Wrench C. Spindle
D. Grinder
D. Handle
3. It is the method of grinding cylindrical surfaces. C. Long nose
36. Name of mechanism, which a welding operator holds
A. Centerless grinding D. C-Clamp
during gas welding and at the end of which the gages are
B. Plunge-cut grinding 20. A sharp pointed steel tool used to scribe lines on
burred to perform the various gas welding operation.
C. Through feed grinding metal being laid out. A. Hose
D. None of these A. Divider B. Torch
4. It is the angle between the side cutting edge and B. Scriber C. Gage
the longitudinal axis of the tool. C. Trammel D. Switch
A. Side cutting edge angle D. Hermaphrodite caliper 37. A tool used for measuring diameters.
B. End cutting edge angle 21. A ______ is used to be test the accuracy of holes A. Protractor
C. Side relief angle A. Snap gage B. Scriber
D. End relief angle B. Ring gage C. Caliper
C. Plug gage D. Compass
5. It is a surface finishing process and is used to produce
38. A fine grained, salty silica rock used for sharpening
a lustrous surface of attractive appearance. D. Depth gage
edged tools.
A. Polishing 22. A _________ consists of hardened and ground steel
A. Oilstone
B. Buffing bar in which two hardened and ground of the same
B. Surface grinder
C. Lapping diameter are set. C. Rocky oil
D. Glazing A. Caliper D. None of these
6. It consists of surface irregularities, which result from B. Gage block 39. Device used to prevent leakage of media.
the various manufacturing process. C. Sine bar A. Gasket
A. Lay D. Micrometer B. Seal
B. Waiveness 23. A _________ consists of a slide and swivel vise C. Shield
C. Flaws mounted on the compound rest in place of the tool D. Stopper
D. Roughness post. 40. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids normally
A. Milling attachment under dynamic conditions.
7. A _________ is formed when a shaft rotates in a bush,
A. Packing
lines of the bore of a housing. B. Relieving attachment
B. Gasket
A. Ball bearing C. Grinding attachment
C. Shield
B. Roller bearing D. Reaming attachment
D. Seal
C. Plain bearing 24. ________ are hardened steel devices with a taper 41. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts
D. Needle Bearing shank on one end and a 60 degree point at the other A. Tensile range
8. CNC in machine shop means end. B. Torque wrench
A. Computer Number Control A. Tailstock centers C. Hooke’s gauge
B. Computer Numerical Control B. Lathe centers D. Spring balance
C. Communication Network Control C. Live centers 42. A hand tool used to measure engine crank web
D. Computer Network Center D. Dead centers deflection.
9. It is the time lost due to break downs, waiting for 25. It is a work holding device A. Feeler gage
A. Arbor B. Compound gage
tools, minor accident etc.
C. Distortion gage
A. Set up time B. Mandrel
D. Dial gage
B. Handling time C. Jigs
43. A device used for accurately measuring diameters.
C. Machining time D. Fixtures
A. Dial gage
D. Down time 26. The cutting of groove nest to a shoulder on a piece B. Feeler gage
10. Refers to the process of separating or removing the of work C. Caliper
burning of combustible material from the A. Undercutting D. Micrometer
neighborhood of the fire. B. Necking 44. It is used to true and align machine tools, fixtures and
A. Starvation C. Grooving works.
B. Blanketing D. Any of these A. Dial indicator
C. Cooling 27. The operation of producing a beveled edge at a B. Radial indicator
D. None of these specified angle of the end of a turned diameter. C. Dial gage
A. Chamfering D. Feeler gage
11. When does a chisel get blunt
45. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of
A. When it is properly heat treated B. Knurling
the end of a hole, as for a recess for a flattened screw.
B. When it is not properly heat treated C. Honing
A. Counter boring
C. When it is properly tempered D. Undercutting
B. Counter sinking
D. When it is not properly tempered 28. It is a large casting located on the left end of the C. Reaming
12. What is it necessary to provide tolerance? bed. D. Drilling
A. It saves the labor charges A. Tailstock 46. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, which could
B. It saves the material from wastage B. Headstock be adjusted separately.
C. It saves the time C. Carriage A. Independent chuck
D. All of these D. Chuck B. Combination chuck
13. It is done then and there by adjusting or repairing 29. A ___________ is a thread that has a lead equal to C. Magnetic chuck
the faults come in notice during the work. the pitch. D. Universal chuck
A. Right hand thread 47. It is used for cutting long pieces of metals.
A. Preventive maintenance
A. Planer
B. Predictive maintenance B. Left hand thread
B. Shaper
C. Routine maintenance C. Single thread
C. Power saw
D. Corrective maintenance D. Multiple head
D. Broaching machine
14. A __________ is used between the cutting tool and 30. The distance between the crest and the brace of 48. It is used for external, internal and relieving of mill cutters
work piece to minimize the friction heat. the thread, measured perpendicular to the axis. and taps
A. Lubricant A. Depth of thread A. Milling attachment
B. Coolant B. Length of engagement B. Thread attachment
C. Water C. Depth of engagement C. Taper attachment
D. Alcohol D. Axis of thread D. Relieving attachment
15. Which of the following is NOT a function of bearings 31. Used to permit lever shift for vertical travel of rail 49. It is the stretching or spreading of metal by hammering
A. To support the shaft A. Ball crank A. Peening
B. Clamp plates B. Flaring
B. To guide the shaft
C. Upsetting
C. To give free rotation to the shaft C. Plunger knob
D. Bending
D. To transmit power D. None of these
50. The _______ is the most common of the standard tapers.
16. It is a process of cleaning the face of grinding wheel 32. It is mounted on the top of the column and is
A. Brown
by means of a dresser for removing the glazing and guided in perfect alignment by the machine B. Jarno
loading of wheel and to improve the cutting action of dovetailed surfaces. C. Sharpe
a wheel. A. Over arm D. Morse
A. Dressing B. Spindle
B. Polishing C. Arbor
C. Truing D. Saddle
TEST 35 A. 1 to 3 C. Boron
B. 1 to 4 D. Lead
1. What is the lightest known metal? C. 2 to 3 33. What is the SAE specification number of molybdenum?
A. Mercury D. 1 to 6 A. SAE 2xxx
B. Steel 17. The material for engine radiation is usually made of B. SAE 3xxx
C. Chromium _________. C. SAE 4xxx
D. SAE 5xxx
D. Aluminum A. Yellow brass
34. Which does not belong to the group?
2. Material having a high electrical resistance and B. Silicon brass
A. SAE
should not be used as conductor of electrical current. C. Admirally brass
B. AISI
A. Magnesium D. Navy brass C. SEA
B. Copper 18. A problem-by product used as an electrode in an D. ASTM
C. Nickel electric arc furnace melting operations is called: 35. It is the ability of the material of resist deformation under
D. Iron A. Anthracite coke stress.
3. The property that characterizes a material ability to B. Foundry coke A. Plasticity
be drawn into a wire is known as: C. Graphite electrodes B. Stiffness
A. Plasticity D. Bituminous coke C. Toughness
B. Elasticity 19. Which of the following does not affect the tensile D. All of these
C. Ductility strength of steel? 36. Which of the following is not a structural class of steel?
A. High speed steel
D. Utility A. Sulfur
B. Tool and die
4. Stress relieving is also _________ for the purpose of B. Cobalt
C. Low carbon
reducing the internal stress of steel material / metal. C. Phosphorus
D. High carbon
A. Quenching D. Boron 37. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less
B. Normalizing 20. Alloy steel axle under repeated load / stress will than the yield point is
C. Tempering eventually fail if the load / stress is above the known as:
D. Drawing endurance for the steel under consideration. The A. Plasticity
5. A carbon content in the range of ______ in steel endurance limit of the steel is: B. Elasticity
readily responds to heat treatment. A. Equal to the allowable stress of the module of C. Creep
A. 0.35 to 0.40% C elasticity D. Ductility
B. 0.28 to 0.30% C B. Equal to half of the ultimate strength 38. Killed steel is always associated with:
C. 0.18 to 0.25% C C. Equal to module of elasticity A. Silicon
B. Manganese
D. 0.12 to 0.15% C D. Equal to 80% of the elastic limit
C. Phosphorous
6. It indicates how many times a volume of material is 21. Mirror finish has surfaces fitness of _______ rms.
D. Sulfur
heavier than an equal volume of water. A. 1
39. The good deoxidizer in steel melting.
A. Specific gravity B. 2 to 8 A. Manganese
B. Specific volume C. 1 to 3 B. Silicon
C. Specific weight D. 2 to 5 C. Aluminum
D. Specific density 22. Chromium steel to include heat and corrosion D. All of these
7. Nickel – Chromium – Molybdenum steel designation resistant designation. 40. Good stabilizer in stainless steel is:
SAE ______ A. SAE 56xx A. Columbium
A. 81xx B. SAE 514xx B. Titanium
B. 74xx C. SAE 61xx C. Tantalum
C. 94xx D. SAE 9xx D. All of these
41. Metals are conductive because:
D. 64xx 23. Non-metallic material of high melting temperature
A. The electrons are loosely bound to the nuclei and
8. Moment of inertia is also called _______ being used as furnace lining.
therefore mobile
A. Modulus of elasticity A. Quartz bricks
B. Having characteristics luster
B. Weep strength B. Refractories C. They are on the left side of the periodic table
C. Radius of gyration C. Silica sand D. They are on the left side of the periodic table
D. None of these D. Dolomite clay bricks D. They have extra electrons as exhibited by normally
9. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is 24. In greater quantity, this element is harmful to the possible balance state
being heated to a very high temperature then molten ferrous metal. 42. The yield strength of the rectangular yellow brass 65 tp
suddenly subjected to rapid cooling to improve A. Silicon 70% Cu, 30 to 35% Zn can be increased / improved by _____.
hardenability of wear resistance is called: B. Aluminum A. Cold working
A. Annealing C. Oxides B. Tempering
B. Normalizing D. Sulfur C. Shill casting
D. Heat treatment
C. Tempering 25. Silicon – manganese steel designation, SAE ________.
43. Used as cast condition steel casting with carbon content
D. Quenching A. 72xx
less that __________ % C.
10. A good general purpose deoxidizer which promotes B. 40xx
A. 0.26
fine grain in steel C. 92xx B. 0.15 to 0.18
A. Copper D. 9xx C. 0.20
B. Magnesium 26. Cold drawing is also called: D. 0.25
C. Molybdenum A. Hard drawn 44. Liners are normally made of:
D. Silicon B. Oxidized steel A. Cast iron
11. Treatment process that produces a residual C. Cold lap steel B. Alloyed bronze
compressive stress at the surface and residual tension D. Strain hardening C. Alloyed steel
on the inside that results in considerable increase in 27. The brittleness in steel elevated temperature is D. Alloyed aluminum
fatigue strength for members on torsion / bending is known as: 45. A furnace used in melting non-ferrous metals is called:
A. Cupola furnace
known as: A. Hard drawn
B. Crucible furnace
A. Partial quenching B. Cold lap
C. Induction furnace
B. Heavy oil quenching C. Red shortness
D. Tempering furnace
C. Quenching D. Residual stresses 46. A furnace used in melting ferrous metals.
D. Shallow quenching 28. Material may be stretched and still returns to its A. Annealing furnace
12. The flux that should be provided in soldering former form / condition upon release of force is called: B. Tempering furnace
electrical connection or commutator wires as it tends A. Plasticity C. Induction furnace
to corrode the connections. B. Modulus of elasticity D. Normalizing furnace
A. Sal ammoniac C. Ductility 47. All are associated with standard material specified
B. Zinc chloride D. Elastic limit except ________.
C. Stearing 29. What is the SAE specification number of A. American Iron and Steel Institute
D. Acid fluxes molybdenum – chromium – nickel? B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel Institute
13. The characteristics of tool steel sustain shocks and A. 48xx
D. American Society for Testing Materials
major impacts is due to its: B. 47xx
48. The ability of metal to be deformed considerable
A. Toughness C. 46xx
without rupture is called:
B. Stiffness D. 45xx A. Malleability
C. Ductility 30. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated B. Elasticity
D. Machinability with: C. Ductility
14. The application of electrical current to the corrosion A. Aluminum D. Plasticity
circuit to counter the corrosion reaction is called: B. Tin 49. Permanent deformation or strain may occur without
A. Cathodic protection C. Zinc fracture is called:
B. Sacrificial anodes method D. Manganese A. Malleability
C. Chemical corrosion process 31. A metal which has a high electrical conductivity but B. Elasticity
D. Galvanic action should not be used for high temperature. C. Ductility
D. Plasticity
15. A major component of cast steel is: A. Silicon
50. An alloy that improves strength of steel at high
A. Silicon B. Zinc
temperature application.
B. Iron C. Chrome Alloy
A. Tungsten
C. Manganese D. Carbide B. Molybdenum
D. Chromium 32. It improves red hardness of steel. C. Chromium
16. Normally, cast iron contains 2% carbon or more and A. Chromium D. All of these
silicon in the range of ______%. B. Cobalt
TEST 36 A. Manganese-nickel steel casting C. Aluminum
B. High chrome steel casting D. Cast iron
1. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself C. Chrome-nickel steel casting 34. The cheapest and most abundant engineering
A. Zinc D. High manganese casting material is ________
B. Antimony 18. What heat treatment process can cast steel A. Aluminum
C. Babbit materials of high chrome high manganese etc. B. Steel
D. Lead be subjected for the purpose machining C. Cast iron
2. The smallest area at a point of rupture of a tensile process? D. Babbit
specimen divided by the original area is called: A. Annealing 35. They are usually steel or steel casting
A. Percentage elongation B. Tempering A. Mild steel
B. Izod test C. Normalizing B. Carbon steel
C. Charpy test D. Quenching C. Fire box steel
D. Percentage reduction of the area 19. Galvanized steel plate is: D. Drop-forge-dies
3. All are associated with the grade of steel except: A. Aluminum 36. An iron has physical properties closely resembling
A. SAE 43xx B. Tin those of mild steel called
B. SAE 13xx C. Zinc A. Malleable cast iron
C. SAE 10xx D. Manganese B. Malleable iron
D. SAE 74xx 20. Major component of bronze casting is: C. White iron
4. Cold working of steel plates make the metal A. Copper D. Gray iron
A. Tougher B. Manganese 37. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically
B. More ductile C. Zinc combined with the iron is called
C. Harder D. Lead A. Cast iron
D. More malleable 21. Alloy steel known for its resistance to corrosion, B. Gray iron
5. The property that characterizes the material’s abrasion and wear that is usually ideal for mill C. White iron
ability to be drawn into a wire is called: grinding of ore or cement and concentrator D. Malleable iron
A. Ductility application. It is usually combined with 38. Which of the following metal is non-magnetic?
B. Thermal conductivity molybdenum to increase the depth hardening. A. Manganese steel
C. Tensile strength A. Manganese chromium steel B. Cast steel
D. Endurance limit B. Chromium-moly steel C. Alloy steel
6. Normal stress relieving temperature for cast steel C. Chromium-nicke-moly steel D. Cast iron
is: D. Manganese-moly steel 39. Which of the following is not a kind of cast iron?
A. 200 to 300°F 22. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material A. Gray iron
B. 400 to 500°F available in the market with carbon content of B. White iron
C. 300 to 400°F 0.28 to 0.4? C. Malleable iron
D. 450 to 550°F A. SAE 4132 D. Lead iron
7. Most effective alloying element for reducing B. SAE 4320 40. Which of the following is not used to temper
brittleness of steel at very low temperature C. SAE 1030 steel?
A. Manganese D. SAE 4130 A. Oil bath
B. Molybdenum 23. Heating of metal above the critical temperature B. Brine/salt bath
C. Silicon and then cooling slowly usually in the furnace to C. Steam bath
D. Nickel reduce the hardness and improve the D. Water bath
8. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength and machinability is called: 41. Which of the following metals is easy to chisel?
elasticity significantly of about what A. Normalizing A. Alloy steel
temperature? B. Annealing B. Manganese steel
A. 900-1000°F C. Tempering C. Stainless steel
B. 800-900°F D. Quenching D. Cast iron
C. 700-850°F 24. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is 42. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large amount
D. 600-700°F being heated to a very high temperature then of
9. For a high corrosion resistant stainless steel, what suddenly subjected to rapid cooling to improve A. Manganese
minimum chromium content is required? hardenability or wear resistance is called: B. Carbon
A. 8% A. Normalizing C. Sulfur
B. 4.3% B. Tempering D. Phosphorus
C. 1.1% C. Annealing 43. Which of the following is not a classification of
D. 5.8% D. Quenching iron core?
10. A material that should be avoided in 25. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment A. Siderite
constructing wood pattern is: A. SAE 1060 B. Hematite
A. Sap wood B. SAE 1117 C. Sulfurite
B. Kin dried wood C. SAE 1030 D. Magnetite
C. Heart wood D. SAE 1020 44. Stainless steel is obtaining principally by the use
D. Core portion of wood 26. A form of correction that develop on a highly of which of the alloying element?
11. The gradual chemical reaction by other localized area on a metal surface A. Chromium
substance such that the metal is converted to an A. Crevice B. Nickel
oxide or other compounds B. Erosion C. Carbon
A. Corrosion C. Galvanic D. Tungsten
B. Cheeping D. Apitting 45. Which of the following metals will respond to
C. Rusting 27. The deterioration of organic coating heat treatment?
D. Weathering characterized as completely _________ A. Cast iron
12. What is the property of a material which resists A. Chalking B. Wrought iron
forces acting to pull the material apart? B. Rusting C. Medium carbon steel
A. Shear strength C. Checking D. Low carbon steel
B. Tensile strength D. Fritting 46. The property of steel which resist indention of
C. Torsional strength 28. The temperature above which the alloy is liquid penetration is called
D. Compressive strength and will run is known as ______ A. Hardness
13. What is the difference between brass and A. Melting point B. Elasticity
bronze? B. Flow point C. Ductility
A. Brass is composed of copper and zinc C. Pour point D. None of these
while bronze is composed of copper and D. Dew point 47. The ability of metal to stretch bend or twist
tin 29. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous without breaking or cracking is called
B. Brass is composed of copper and zinc material on the heat-transfer surface A. Elasticity
while bronze is basically copper and tin A. Low line B. Ductility
plus non-ferrous alloy such as manganese, B. Pressure drop C. Brittleness
aluminum and chromium C. Fouling D. Plasticity
C. Bronze is reddish in color while brass is a D. Scaling 48. The ability of material to return to its original
mixture of copper and antimony 30. Steel containing large amounts of mild nickel shape after being elongated or distorted when
D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of copper and tin and chromium the forces are released is called
while brass is a mixture of copper and A. Carbon steel A. Elasticity
antimony B. Stainless steel B. Brittleness
14. A liquid metal is called _________ C. Alloy steel C. Plasticity
A. Mercury D. Cast steel D. Creep
B. Lead 31. The corrosion of iron or iron-base alloy 49. Material usually ceramics employed where
C. Zinc A. Rusting resistance to very high temperature is required as
D. Aluminum B. Crazing for furnace linings and metal melting pots is
15. Which of the following elements when large C. Chalking called
quantity is harmful to the ferrous metal? D. Fritting A. Bricks
A. Sulfur 32. A corrosion occurs within or adjacent to a B. Insulator
B. Silicon crevice formed by contact with another piece of C. Refractories
C. Zinc the same or another metal is called: D. Clay
D. Aluminum A. Galvanic 50. Any material that retard the flow of electricity
16. It has molybdenum alloy except: B. Pitting used to prevent or escape of electric current
A. SAE 43xx C. Erosion from conductors
B. SAE 41xx D. Crevice A. Bricks
C. SAE 6xxx 33. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony or sometimes B. Insulators
D. SAE 5xxx lead C. Refractories
17. Cast alloy steel for very high temperature A. Gold D. Composite
application B. Babbit
TEST 37 D. Aluminum B. Needle form
18. The material used in high speed processes. C. Prismoidal form
1. Hardening the surface of the iron-based A. High speed D. Pyramidal form
alloys by heating them below the melting B. Chromium 35. Which of the following timber is used for
point in contact with a carbonaceous C. Cast iron sports goods?
substance. D. Carbon steel A. Deodar
A. Carburizing 19. A material that can wear away a substance B. Mahogany
B. Normalizing softer than itself is called C. Mulberry
C. Mar tempering A. Abrasive D. Sal
D. Hardening B. Corrosive 36. Super conductors
2. A special metal formed when two or more C. Tungsten A. Are non-crystalline
metals are melted together. D. Alloy B. Are the purest forms of metal
A. Monel 20. The process of heating a piece of steel to a C. Are the densest of materials is
B. Alloy temperature within or above critical range D. Exist at the temperature below 10K
C. Solder and cooling rapidly. 37. Select the one that has the highest specific
D. Hastalloy A. Normalizing gravity
3. Subjecting a substance to a high B. Hardening A. Aluminum
temperature below the fusion point usually to C. Annealing B. Brass
make it friable. D. Tempering C. High carbon steel
A. Calcinations 21. The process of checking or producing D. Lead
B. Fusion checkers on the surface of a piece by rolling 38. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the
C. Boiling checkered depression into the surface called material used with lead to reduce the risk of
D. Super heating A. Knurling seizure is
4. Substances having sufficient carbon and/or B. Hemming A. Iron
hydrogen for chemical oxidation to produce C. Breading B. Silver
exothermally, worthwhile quantities of heat. D. Embossing C. Tin
A. Lubrication 22. A material used in softening a piece of metal D. Zinc
B. Graphite that is too hard to machine and is done by 39. Age-hardening is related with:
C. Grease heating steel slowly above the usual A. Cast iron
D. Fuels hardening temperature keeping it at the B. Duralumin
5. The principal materials used in high heat for ½ to 2 hours then cooling slowly, C. German silver
production metal working tools preferably in a furnace D. Stainless steel
A. Hyper-eutectoid A. Broaching 40. Which of the following has the highest
B. High speed steel B. Quenching specific strength of oil structure materials?
C. Lead C. Normalizing A. Chromium alloys
D. High speed carbon D. Annealing B. Magnesium alloys
6. The softening of metal by heat treatment 23. A manganese steel containing C. Titanium alloys
and most commonly consist of heating the approximately 0.20% carbon D. None of these
metal up to near motion state and then A. SAE 1320 41. Addition to lead and bismuth to aluminum
cooling it very slowly B. SAE 1230 will produce:
A. Annealing C. SAE 2340 A. An improvement of casting
B. Indexing D. SAE 4230 characteristics
C. Knurling 24. Heating to some 100F above the B. An improvement of corrosion resistance
D. Soldering transformation range with subsequent C. One of the best known age and
7. The operation of cooling a heated piece of cooling to below that range in still air at room precipitation hardening system
work rapidly by dipping it in water, brine or temperature to produce uniform structure of D. An improvement in machinability
oil. metal is termed as 42. Hastalloy contains:
A. Quenching A. Annealing A. Aluminum and nickel
B. Annealing B. Hardening B. Copper and aluminum
C. Tempering C. Normalizing C. Nickel and copper
D. Normalizing D. Tempering D. Nickel and molybdenum
8. A metallic element and only metal that is 25. Heating to a sub-critical temperature about 43. In compression, a prism of brittle material will
liquid at ordinary temperature. 1,100F to 1300F and holding at that break
A. Aluminum temperature for a suitable time for the A. By forming a bulge
B. Mercury purpose of reducing internal residual stresses B. By shearing along oblique plane
C. Zirconium is called C. In a direction along the direction of
D. Zinc A. Annealing load
9. A metallic element of copper-tin alloy B. Hardening D. Into large number of piece
A. Aluminum C. Tempering 44. The maximum hardenability of any steel
B. Brass D. Stress relieving depends on __________
C. Bronze 26. Reheating to a temperature below the A. The alloying elements present
D. Chromium transformation range, followed by any B. The carbon content
10. An alloy of copper and zinc desired rate of cooling to attain the desired C. The chemical composition
A. Aluminum properties of the metal D. The grain size
B. Brass A. Annealing 45. Steel with 0.80% carbon and 100% pearlite is
C. Bronze B. Hardening known as:
D. Chromium C. Tempering A. Austenite
11. Which of the following is not a classification of D. Stress relieving B. Eutectoid
an iron ore? 27. The effect of alloying zinc to copper is C. Hyper-eutectoid
A. Hematite A. To increase hardness D. Solidous
B. Magnetite B. To increase strength and ductility if 46. Substance that can increase the
C. Sulfurite added up to 10-30 % machinability of steel
D. Siderite C. To impact free machining properties A. Phosphorous
12. A soft yellow metal, know since ancient times D. To improve hardness and strength B. Phosphorous and aluminum
as a precious metal which all materials values 28. Polyesters belong to the group of: C. Silicon and sulfur
A. Solid’s A. Phenolics D. Sulfur graphite and aluminum
B. Bronze B. Thermoplastic plastics 47. Compressive strength of a gray cast iron in
C. Gold C. Thermo setting plastics tone per cm2 is of the order of:
D. Austenite D. All of these A. 3-5
13. An amorphous solid may be fusing silica with 29. The imperfection in the crystal structure is B. 5-7
a basic oxide metal is known as: C. 7-10
A. Pearlite A. Dislocation D. 15-22
B. Rock B. Fracture 48. The presence of sulfur in pig iron makes ____
C. Silicon C. Impurity A. It brittle
D. Glass D. Slip B. It easily machinable
14. A fine grained salty silica rock used for 30. The most important element that controls the C. It hard
sharpening edge tools. physical properties of steel is: D. The casting unsound
A. Carbon 49. The hardness of steel increase if it contains
A. Eutectoid B. Chromium ___________
B. Austenite C. Silicon A. Austenite
C. Oilstone D. Tungsten B. Pearlite
D. Pearlite 31. The process commonly used over thermo- C. Stalactite
15. A highly transparent and exceedingly hard plastic materials is: D. Martensite
crystalline stone of almost pure carbon is A. Cold forming 50. Which onwe is different from the group?
called B. Die casting A. Cyaniding
A. Gold C. Injection molding B. Nitriding
B. Diamond D. Shell molding C. Flame hardening
C. Bronze 32. A space lattice found in alpha-iron is called D. Electroplating
D. Crystalline the
16. A common deoxidizer and cleanser of steel A. Body centered cubic space lattice
forming oxides and sulfates that are carried B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
off in the slag C. Face centered cubic space lattice
A. Manganese D. None of these
B. Carbon 33. A unit cell contains nine atoms is known as
C. Tungsten the
D. Sulfur A. Body centered cubic space lattice
17. An alloy of copper, tin and small amount of B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
phosphorous C. Face centered cubic space lattice
A. Chromium D. None of these
B. Bronze 34. A knoop intender is a diamond ground to a
C. Brass __________.
A. Cylindrical form
TEST 38 A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior A. Aluminum
to propagation of crack B. Cast iron
1. The process of increasing the carbon content B. Fragmentation into more than two C. Mild steel
to surface of steel by exposing it to hot pieces
D. Stainless
carbonaceous material above the C. Negligible deformation
35. One of the following materials is commonly
transformation of 1650 to 1750 F D. Rapid rate for crack propagatio
19. ____ of metals wherein strength of metal is used for bearings.
A. Carbonitriding
B. Case hardening increased and the ductility increases the A. Aluminum
C. Carburizing heating at a relatively low temperature after B. Gun metal
D. Induction hardening cold working C. Steel
2. In the SAE identification code of steel A. Cluster D. Zinc
shafting, the 3rd and 4th digits represents the B. Screw dislocation
36. Babbit metal is an alloy of
content of: C. Solid solution hardening
D. Strain aging A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead
A. % of manganese in the steel
20. The material recovers its original dimensions B. Copper, zinc and tin
B. % of alloy
C. % of carbon content when the load is removed, it is called: C. Iron and tungsten
D. % of chromium in the steel A. Annealed D. Tin, copper, lead and phosphorous
3. It is associated with nickel steel B. Brittle 37. The bed of machine tool is normally made of
A. Magnesium C. Elastic
A. Alloy steel
B. Lead D. Plastic
B. Cast iron
C. Columbium 21. A body having identical properties all over is
called: C. Medium carbon steel
D. Tin
A. Ductile D. Mild steel
4. A non-magnetic steel is:
A. Nodular iron B. Elastic 38. The main constituent molding sand is
B. Manganese steel C. Homogenous A. Carbon
C. Tungsten-molydenum steel D. Isentropic B. Clay
D. All of these 22. Points of arrest of iron correspond to:
C. Graphite
5. At small quantity, this alloy is effective for A. Stages at which allotropic forms
change D. Silicon
improvement strength at high temperature
B. Stages at which further heating does 39. Cobalt is added to high speed steel to
A. Chromium
B. Manganese not increase temperature for sometime A. Increase ductility
C. Selenium C. Stages at which properties do not B. Increase fatigue strength
D. Molybdenum change with increase in temperature C. Increase hot hardness
6. Consist of carbon and alloy used in D. There is nothing like points of arrest D. Increase wear resistance
production of precision work tools 23. Delta iron occurs at:
40. During cold working metals are worked
A. Chrome-manganese A. Temperature above melting point
B. Temperature between 1400°C and A. Below room temperature
B. Titanium
1539°C B. Below the melting point
C. High speed steel
D. Chrome-molybdenum C. Temperature between 1000°C and C. Below their recrystallization temperature
7. In powder metallurgy, the process of heating 1400°C D. Below 200 o
the cold pressed metal powder is called: D. Room temperature 41. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry
A. Deposition 24. Gamma iron exists at the temperature range red color and
B. Granulation A. Between 910°C and 1400°C
A. Dousing in cold water
C. Precipitation B. Between 1400°C and 1539°C
C. Near melting point B. Cooling slowly in water
D. Sintering
8. Electro-forming is especially valuable for D. Room temperatue C. Dousing in oil
A. Decorative items D. Dousing hot water
B. Good conductors of electricity 25. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in 42. Tool steel can be hardened by
C. Non-ferrous components temperature range of: A. Heating red hot and plunging into
D. Thin walled parts requiring a high order A. Below 723 oC water
of accuracy and internal surface finish B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast
B. 700 – 910 oC
9. Aluminum alloys for pressure die casting
C. 1000-1440 oC of dry
A. Must possess considerable fluidity
B. Must not be free from hot shortness D. 1400-1539 oC C. Heating red hot and plunging into
C. Must have iron as one of the 26. The mould for casting ferrous materials in linseed or cotton seed oil
constituents continuous melting process is made of: D. Any of the above, depending on type
a. Must be light A. Low carbon steel and use
10. In carbon steel castings B. Medium carbon steel 43. The purpose of annealing is to make a metal
A. The percentage for alloying elements is A. Harder
C. High carbon steel
controlled
D. Copper B. Medium hard
B. The percentage of carbon is between
1.7% to 2% 27. A silver refers to C. Softer
C. The percentage of carbon is less than A. The pointed location spot silver plated. D. Shiny
1.7% B. The point on an instrument dial a 44. The purpose of tempering is to make the
D. None of the above reading beyond which may be metal
11. It has a powerful softening effect on cast iron dangerous for the system. A. Harder
and its pressure in cast iron reduces the ability
C. The temperature at which silver melts. B. Softer
of the iron to retain carbon in chemical
D. The temperature of equilibrium between C. Less brittle
combination
A. Aluminum solid silver and liquid silver at normal D. More brittle
B. Carbon atmospheric pressure. 45. A scriber is made of
C. Silicon 28. Piston compression rings are made of: A. Carbon steel
D. Sulfur A. Aluminum B. Cold-rolled steel
12. Cyaniding is the process of C. Hot-rolled steel
B. Bronze
A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat
C. Cast iron D. Tool steel
treatment of steel to increase its surface
hardness D. White metal 46. Knurling is done to
B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath 29. One of the materials used for making surface A. Polish material
C. Obtaining cyanide salts plate is B. Roughen material
D. Reacting steel surface with cyanide A. Brass C. Sharpen the material
salts B. Granite D. Smoothen the material
13. An engineer’s hammer is made of
C. Stainless steel 47. Muntz metal contains which of the following
A. Cast iron
D. Wood alloys?
B. High speed steel
C. Forged steel 30. Cast iron contains _____ % carbon. A. Copper – nickel
D. Mild steel A. 0.05 to 0.30 B. Copper – zinc
14. A cold chisel is made of B. 0.30 to 0.80 C. Copper – tin
A. Cast iron C. 0.80 to 1.30 D. Copper – aluminum
B. High carbon steel 48. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to
D. 2 to 4
C. High speed steel
31. Tungsten in high speed imparts which of the be made up of:
D. Mild steel
following characteristics? A. Clad material
15. Eutectoid steel the percentage of carbon is
A. 0.02% A. Corrosion resistance B. Composite material
B. 0.30% B. Ductility C. Homogenous material
C. 0.63% C. Red hardness D. Heterogenous
D. 0.80% D. Shock resistance 49. In testing the material for endurance
16. Machining properties of steel can be strength, it is subjected to
32. High carbon steel has a carbon content of:
improved by adding:
A. 0.05 to 1 % A. Static load
A. Chromium, nickel
B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium B. 0.8 to 2 % B. Impact load
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus C. 1 to 3 % C. Dynamic load
D. Vanadium,aluminum D. 2% D. Completely reversed load
17. The ability of a material to absorb energy 33. During tensile testing on a specimen cup and 50. Which of the following is not a sound
when deformed elastically and to return to it cone formation is observed with _______. absorptive materiall
when unloaded is known as A. Rug
A. Cast iron
A. Creep
B. Cast steel B. Mirror
B. Fatigue strength
C. Hardness C. Glass C. Carpet
D. Resilience D. Mild steel D. Heavy drape
18. A ductile fracture is characterized by 34. Kerosine is used as coolant, while machining
which material?
TEST 39 17. An iron-bearing slate or chert in the form of compact air while the metal packed in carbon in the form of
siliceous rock. bone char, leather scraps, or charcoal.
1. The ability of a substance to exist in more than one A. Tacomite A. Carburizing
lattice form is known as B. Hermatite B. Cyaniding
A. Allotropy C. Magnetite A. Nitriding
B. Grain D. Limenite B. Aging
C. Crystallization 18. A mechanical mixture of very pure iron and a silicate 35. The degree to which a material will deform before
D. Diamagnetic slag ultimate fracture
2. Properties which describe the behavior of the A. Bronze A. Brittleness
materials under the association of force are called as: B. Brass B. Ductility
A. Physical properties C. Cat Iron C. Malleability
B. Chemical properties D. Wrought Iron D. Plasticity
C. Mechanical properties 19. An alloy of iron and carbon in which the carbon 36. The property of a material that indicates its ability to
D. Electrical properties content does not exceed 1.7%. transfer heat
3. The amount of energy per unit volume which the A. Brass A. Thermal conductivity
material will possess when subjected to the elastic B. Steel B. Electrical resistivity
limit stress is called: C. Babbit C. Thermal expansion
A. Bulk modulus D. Bronze D. Electrical conductivity
B. Modulus of Resilience 20. The structure formed when transformation occurs at 37. A group of heat treatable cast iron moderate to high
C. Modulus of Elasticity temperaute down to the knee of the curve strength, high modulus of elasticity, goal machinery,
D. Modulus of Rigidity A. Pearlite and good resistance carbon.
4. ______________ means the resistance to penetration B. Bainite A. Gray iron
A. Hardness C. Martinsite B. Malleable iron
B. Strength D. Limonite C. Ductile
C. Toughness 21. The process producing a hard surface in a steel D. White iron
D. Stiffness having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond 38. Steels may be carburized and nitride simultaneously
5. _____________ means the increasing hardness and in hardening by cooling of the surface. by the process known as
strength by plastic deformation at temperatures lower A. Flame Hardening A. Nitriding
than crystallization range? B. Induction Hardening B. Carburizing
A. Case Hardening C. Cyaniding C. Carbonitriding
B. Strain Hardening D. Carburizing D. Cryaning
C. Nitriding 22. It is one in which some elements other than carbon
D. Stiffness has been added to improve change the physical 39. It is used in steels as an alloying element to combing
6. The plastic deformation at temperatures above the properties. hardness obtained
recrystallization temperature. A. Low Carbon Steel
A. Hot Working B. Alloy Steel
A. Vanadium
B. Cold Working C. Medium Carbon Steel
B. Chromium
C. Normalizing D. High Carbon Steel
C. Titanium
D. Annealing 23. SAE 1020 steel is a carbon steel containing ____
D. Molybdenum
7. The plastic deformation at temperatures below the percent carbon
40. The art of making definite impressions in sand by
recrystallization temperature. A. 20%
means of a pattern for a purpose of producing a
A. Hot Working B. 0.20%
casting
B. Normalizing C. 10%
A. Molding
C. Annealing D. 0.10%
B. Pattern
D. Cold Working 24. SAE 2317 steel is a nickel steel alloy containing
C. Extrusion
8. A preliminary evaluation of the elevated temperature _____percent nickel
D. Die casting
properties of materials may be secured by means of a A. 2%
41. Products that have cross sections of less than 6 inches
A. Stress rupture test B. 3%
and that are not in the finished forms
B. Creep C. 1%
A. Slabs
C. Impact test D. 7%
B. Gangue
D. Modulus of rupture 25. AISI C1095 designates that it is a basic open hearth
C. Blooms
9. The temperature at which this decrease of impact carbon steel having ________percent carbon
D. Billets
energy occurs is called: A. 5%
42. It is the process of forging by which the metal in the
A. Recrystallization temperature B. 9%
plastic state is made to flow within a die by the
B. Transition temperature C. 95%
application of plunger pressure
C. Rupture temperature D. 0.95%
A. Extrusion forging
D. Ultimate temperature 26. Molybdenum steels are painted ________.
B. Smith forging
10. An intimate mechanical mixture of two or more A. Green
C. Drop forging
phases having a define composition and a definite B. Blue
D. Press forging
freezing melting point. C. Red
43. It is a squeezing process used to finish sheet or bar
A. Allotropy D. Orange
stock for special purpose
B. Pentectic 27. Used for members of intricate shape that would be
A. Cold forging
C. Eutectic difficult to manufacture by other methods
B. Sizing
D. Protactic A. Forging
C. Cold rolling
11. The science which deals with the preparation and B. Casting
D. Coining
application of metals and alloys. C. Extruding
44. The term used for most press operations
A. Manufacturing D. Hot Working
A. Glazing
B. Metalloids 28. AISI means
B. Stamping
C. Metallurgy A. Association Iron and Steel Institute
A. Coning
D. Refractories B. African Iron and Steel Institute
B. Swaging
12. A combination of minerals which can be profitably C. Aluminum Iron and Steel Institute 45. It is a process of shearing in which sheet or plate is cut out
mined D. American Investment for Steel Industry to a definite outline in a press
A. Gangue 29. SAE means A. Blanking
B. Metal A. Society of American Engineers B. Stamping
C. Alloy B. Society of Automotive Engineers C. Spinning
C. Society of Australian Engineers D. Trimming
D. Ore
D. Society of African Engineers 46. It is a special case of drawing in which the work is rotated
13. The mechanical treatment by which the
30. Which of the following metals increases the strength and formed by means of a tool
concentration of ores is increased are called:
A. Spinning
A. Gravity Separation without sacrificing the ductility of the carbon steels?
B. Embossing
B. One dressing A. Brass
C. Bulging
C. Distillation B. Nickel
D. Stretching forming
D. Sintering C. Bronze 47. It is a squeezing operation used for flattening or surfacing
14. Process which involve the reduction of the metal from D. Copper various parts where small amount of flow of material is
aqueous solution by replacement or by electrolysis 31. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing agent and involved
are called: promotes the nitriding of steels A. Hobbing
A. Pyrometallurgical Processes A. Aluminum B. Stamping
B. Boron C. Coining
B. Electrometallurgical Processes
C. Copper D. Sizing
C. Hydrometallurgical Processes
D. Brass 48. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal is made to flow
D. Amalgamation Process
into dies by the application of sudden blows to the
15. Non-metallic materials of high melting temperature 32. It is used to toughen and strengthen the steel, to
material
used in the construction of furnaces, crucible and so reduce the grain size and to act as a cleanser and
A. Drop forging
forth are called: degasifier.
B. Press forging
A. Refractories A. Nickel C. Extrusion
B. Ceramics B. Boron D. Machine forging
C. Insulators C. Vanadium 49. It is the measure of stiffness
D. Grable D. Molybdenum A. Modulus of rigidity
16. The flux and gauge when in proper proportions will 33. Materials having a high percentage of alumina or B. Modulus of resilience
steatite are known as C. Modulus of elasticity
have a melting temperatures considerably lower than
A. Titanium D. Modulus of toughness
that of ethane and the resulting combination is
B. Vanadium 50. It is the measure of the total energy-absorbed capacity of
called:
the material and includes the energy of both elastic and
A. Lime C. Refractories
plastic deformation.
B. Residue D. Ceramics
A. Modulus of toughness
C. Stag 34. It is a process of hardening the outer portion of the
B. Modulus of resilience
D. Refractories metal by prolonged heating free from contact with C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of rigidity
TEST 40 C. Lead D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic
D. Copper areas and the rust is deposited
1. The maximum stress to which a standardized test 18. The laminations are made from nearby
specimen may be subjected without permanent A. Low carbon steel 36. If 1080 steel is annealed by very slow cooling
deformation. B. Silicon sheet steel from 1000 C to ambient temperature, its
A. Endurance limit C. Nickel alloy steel stays microstructure will consist almost solely of:
B. Proportional limit D. Chrome steel sheets A. Austenite
C. Elastic limit 19. Which of the following metals gets deposited to B. Bainite
D. Plastic limit provide an undercut for chromium? C. Cementite
2. The modulus of plasticity is a measure of A. Copper D. Pearlite
E. Stiffness B. Silver 37. Steel can be strengthened by all of the following
F. Toughness C. Bronze practices, EXCEPT:
G. Resilience D. Lead A. Annealing
H. Hardness 20. In nickel – iron cell, the electrolyte is: B. Quenching and tempering
3. Aging at moderately elevated temperature A. Dilute sulphuric acid C. Work hardening
expedites the process and B. Dilute potassium hydroxide D. Grain refinement
A. Natural aging C. Dilute sodium ammonium hydroxide 38. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conductive,
B. Artificial aging D. Dilute sodium chloride solution with electrons as majority carriers when adopted
C. Normal aging 21. Which of the following is not a primary cess? with which of the following?
D. Supernatural aging A. Carbon zinc A. Antimony
4. It is the tendency to fracture without appreciable B. Silver oxide B. Boron
deformation C. Silver zinc C. Germanium
A. Ductility D. Nickel – cadmium D. Aluminum
B. Brittleness 22. Select from the conductors below that has the 39. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of
C. Malleability least electrical conductivity steel is known as the :
D. Plasticity A. Lead A. Modulus of elasticity
5. It is the characteristic of exhibiting different B. Tin B. Plasticity
properties when tested in different directions C. Zinc C. Irreversible range
A. Allotropy D. Aluminum D. Elastic range
B. Anisotropy 23. The material used for commutator brushes is 40. Imperfections within metallic crystal structures
C. Isentropic mostly may be all of the following. EXCEPT:
D. Isotropic A. Copper A. Lattice vacancies or extra interstitial
6. It is one in which specimen, supported at both B. Mica atom
ends as a simple beam is broken by the impact C. Carbon B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
strength of the metal D. Cast iron C. Displacement of atoms of interstitial
A. Charpy test 24. Generally, the material for thermocouple is sites
B. Izod test A. Chrome copel D. Linear defects or slippage
C. Rockwell test B. Chrome alumei dislocations caused by shear
D. Universal test C. Platinum rhodum 41. When a metal is cold worked, all of the following
7. Steel that has been deoxidized with strong D. Any of these generally occur, EXCEPT:
deoxidizing agent such as silicon or aluminum, in 25. Select the best conductor of electricity A. Ductility decreases
order to eliminate the reaction between the B. Grains become equal-axed
carbon and oxygen during solidification A. Carbon C. Tensile strength increases
A. Carbon steel B. Silver D. Slip or twinning occurs
B. Tool steel C. Copper 42. Hard water is water, which contains soluble salts
C. Killed steel D. Iron of which of the following elements?
D. Structural steel A. Sodium
8. Involves the loss of ductility because of a physical 26. Any heating and cooling of steel that produces a B. Sulfur
or chemical change of the material is known as rounded or glocular form of carbide. C. Calcium
A. Embrittlement A. Spheroidizing D. Chlorine
B. Pitting B. Malleability 43. Which of the following metals has the highest
C. Cold shortness C. Graphizing specific heat capacity at 100 C?
D. Decarburization D. Normalizing A. Aluminum
9. A material commonly used for shielding or 27. Steel that has been hammered rolled or drawn in B. Bismuth
screening magnetism the process of electricity C. Copper
A. Brass A. Wrought steel D. Iron
B. Copper B. Rimmed Steel 44. Aluminum pistons are either cast or
C. Aluminum C. Killed steel A. Ground
D. Soft iron D. Stainless steel B. Forged
10. A magnet is able to attract 28. Which of the following improves red hardness? C. Pressed
A. Iron, aluminum and brass A. Boron D. Welded
B. Iron, cobalt and zinc B. Cobalt 45. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are
C. Iron, copper and nickel C. Copper made of
D. Nickel, cabalt and steel D. Columbium A. Iron
11. Which of the following materials is used for 29. An alloy of nickel and copper B. Bras
making permanent magnets? A. Monel C. Copper
A. Carbon steel B. Iconel D. Bronze
B. Platinum cobalt C. Titanium 46. Which of the following gasket materials should be
C. Alnico D. Vanadium used on a Freon system?
D. All three mentioned 30. Commutator segments are made of A. Metallic
12. Which of the following is the best conductor of A. Zinc B. Asbestos
electricity? B. Brass C. Rubber
C. Copper D. A and B
D. Nickel 47. The non ferrous alloy corrodes in ammonia is
A. Graphite
31. What are the most commonly used materials as A. Copper
B. China clay
photo cathode for the photoelectric emission? B. Bronze
C. Porcelain
A. Barium and calcium C. Brass
D. Ceramics
B. Cesium and rubidium D. All of these
C. Arsenic and boron 48. What is used in main condenser to control
13. Dielectric strength of a material depends on the
D. Thorium and tungsten electrolysis?
material’s
32. Manganese is an alloy of A. Brass plate
A. Moisture content
A. Copper, manganese and nickel B. Aluminum plates
B. Thickness
B. Copper, aluminum and chromium C. Zinc plates
C. Temperature
C. Copper, zinc and lead D. Bronze plate
D. All of these
D. Copper, chromium and cadmium 49. Which of the following types of packing would
14. Which medium has highest value of dielectric
33. The one that is an acceptor impurity element be used on steam points?
strength?
A. Antimony A. Asbestos
A. Glass
B. Gallium B. Neoprene
B. Mica
C. Arsenic C. Metallic
C. Porcelain
D. Phosphorus D. A or C
D. Quartz
34. Which of the following is not a method of non- 50. The process applied to iron pipe, which retards
15. Which of the following is a primary cell?
destructive testing of steel castings and forging? corrosion
A. Mercury – oxide
A. Radiography A. Galvanizing
B. Lead – acid
B. Magnetic particle B. Annealing
C. Nickel – iron – alkaline
C. Ultrasonic C. Soldering
D. Nickel – cadmium – alkaline
D. Chemical analysis D. Tinning
16. Which of the following contact point metals has
35. All of the following statements about rusting of 51. A scriber is made from what steel?
highest melting point
iron are correct, except: A. Carbon steel
A. Silver
A. Contact with water and oxygen are B. Cold rolled steel
B. Tungsten
necessary for rusting to occur C. Tool steel
C. Gold
B. Contact with a more electropositive D. Hot-rolled steel
D. Copper
metal reduces rusting
17. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse
C. Halides aggravate rusting process
wire
which involves electrochemical
A. Aluminum
oxidation reduction reaction
B. Silver