FOURTH PERIODIC TEST IN SCIENCE 9

NAME:______________________________ SECTION:________________DATE:_________SCORE:_____

Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

For questions 11 and 12, refer to the table below:
VEHICLE MASS (kg) VELOCITY (m/s)
Jeepney 2, 000 10
Motorcycle 300 20
1. In the table above, what is the momentum of the jeepney?
A. 6,000 kg.m/s c c. 20,000kg.m/s
B. 40,000 kg.m/s d. 3,000 kg.m/s
2. Which has greater momentum, the jeepney or the motorcycle?
A. jeepney c. both have the same momentum
B. motorcycle d. cannot be determined
3. Two identical cars are travelling along EDSA. Which of the two cars would have a greater momentum?
A. the slower car
B. the faster car
C. both have the same momentum
D. cannot be easily determined
4. A bus and a car are travelling along EDSA having the same velocity. Which of the two vehicles would have a greater
momentum?
A. the bus
B. the car
C. both have the same momentum
D. cannot be easily determined
5. A 25-kg girl is riding a 5-kg with a velocity of 5 m/s the East. What is the total momentum of a girl and a bike together?
A. 100 kg m/s
B. 125 kg m/s
C. 150 kg m/s
D. 200 m/s
6. Which of the following is a necessary condition for the total momentum of a system to be conserved?
A. Kinetic energy must not change.
B. No net external force acts on the system.
C. The system must be at rest.
D. Only the force of gravity acts on the system.
7. If there is no external force acting on the system, what the total momentum of the
system after collision?
A. 0
B. 0.50 kg m/s
C. 1.0 kg m/s
D. -1.0 kg m/s
8. What is the energy of a motorcycle moving slowly at the top of a hill?
A. entirely kinetic
B. entirely potential
C. entirely gravitational
D. both kinetic and potential
9. Which event does NOT describe potential energy being changed into kinetic energy?
A. A box sliding down a ramp.
B. A mango falling from a crate.
C. A pen spring being compressed.
D. A stretched rubber band got loosened.
10. Which event illustrates the direct transformation of potential to kinetic energy?
A. A basketball player catches a flying ball.
B. A Kalesa moves from rest.
C. Kathy’s arrow is released from its bow.
D. The spring mechanism of a toy is rotated until it locked.
11. Which among the forms of energy is considered a potential energy?
A. chemical energy
B. radiant energy
C. sound energy
D. thermal energy
12. Which of the following happens to a coconut that falls freely?
A. Loses potential energy and gains kinetic energy.
B. Loses both potential energy and kinetic energy.
C. Gains potential energy and loses kinetic energy.

II. Tue or False. Write FORCE if the statement is correct and MOTION if otherwise.
_____________1. When two identical objects collide, the heavier object has greater momentum
_____________2. If a truck and a bus will collide and they both travel at the same speed, greater will be the damaged of
the bus
_____________3. A truck and a car in any given situation cannot have the same momentum
_____________4. Law of Conservation of momentum states that the momentum before collision is equal to the
momentum after collision.
_____________5. When two objects collide and they stick together while moving, the collision is perfectly inelastic.

II. Problem Solving. Write the given, formula with your solution at the back.
1-5. An airplane accelerates down a runway at 3.20 m/s2 for 32.8 s until is finally lifts off the ground. Determine the
distance traveled before takeoff.

6-10. A feather is dropped on the moon from a height of 1.40 meters. The acceleration of gravity on the moon is 1.67
m/s2. Determine the time for the feather to fall to the surface of the moon.

11-18. (illustrate the given) A marble is pushed horizontally on top of a table 1.36 m high. It covered a distance of 0.36 m
away from the table edge before it fell vertically after after 0.83 seconds. Calculate the:
a. horizontal velocity
b. vertical velocity
c. resultant velocity

19-26. Consider a 38,000 kg train car travelling at 8.94 m/s toward another train car. After the two cars collide, they
couple together and move along at a final velocity of 6 m/s. What is the mass of the second train car?

27-29. Calculate the GPE of a 1.35 kg coconut fruit located on the tree 14.35 meters high.

30-33. What is the kinetic energy of a 0.005 kg bullet fired from a pistol at a speed of 420 m/s?
 FOURTH PERIODIC TEST IN SCIENCE 9

KEY TO CORRECTION

TEST I TEST IV (15 points)

1. C 1-5. Given:
a = +3.2 m/s2 t = 32.8 s vi = 0 m/s
Find:
d = ??
2. A d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2
d = (0 m/s)*(32.8 s)+ 0.5*(3.20 m/s2)*(32.8 s)2
3. B d = 1720 m
4. A 6-10. Given:
vi = 0 m/s d = -1.40 m a = -1.67 m/s2
Find:
t = ??
5. C d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2
-1.40 m = (0 m/s)*(t)+ 0.5*(-1.67 m/s2)*(t)2
6. B -1.40 m = 0+ (-0.835 m/s2)*(t)2
(-1.40 m)/(-0.835 m/s2) = t2
7.A 1.68 s2 = t2
t = 1.29 s
8. D 19-26.

9. C
10. B
11. A
12. A 27-29.

TEST II
1. FORCE
2. MOTION
3. MOTION 30-33.

4. FORCE
5. FORCE

Prepared by:

JANET M. LAPITAN
Teacher I

Noted by:

ALVIN J. SABIDO
Principal I
 FINAL EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE 10
NAME:______________________________ SECTION:________________DATE:_________SCORE:_____

Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

1. All of the following are True about the location of earthquake, volcanoes and mountain ranges EXCEPT:
A. They are usually located at the edges of continents.
B. Some are found in places where most of volcanic eruption occurs.
C. They are not randomly distributed.
D. They are widely distributed in any areas of the lithosphere.
2. All of the following are necessary precautions before an
earthquake EXCEPT:
A. Prepare an emergency kit for the whole family to be used during and after an earthquake.
B. Keep updated on the different updates about the occurrence of earthquake on your areas
C. Stay away from possible falling debris on your location.
D. Ignore precautionary measures given by authorities.
3. You were asked to locate the epicenter of a recent earthquake. Which correct sequence of events should you follow?
I. Determine the difference in the arrival time of S and P wave recorded from each of the seismological stations.
II. Use the triangulation method to locate the center.
III. Obtain data from three seismological stations.
IV. Determine the distance of the epicenter from stations.
A. I, III, II, IV C. III, IV, I, II
B. III, I, IV, II D. IV, II, I, III
4. Which examples below will experience a thrust fault?
A. Eurasian Plate vs. Philippine Plate
B. Pacific Plate vs. Nasca Plate
C. South American Plate vs. African Plate
D. Pacific Plate vs. Antarctic Plate
5. In transform fault boundary, the movement is horizontal- slides or grinds each other. Which situation is associated by
this type of fault?
A. Converging
B. Diverging
C. both converging & diverging
D. w/out converging & diverging
6. Which type of movement can be found on normal and thrust fault, but cannot be found on strike-slip fault?
A. Subduction B. Sliding C. Grinding D. Slipping
7. Most geologists rejected Alfred Wegener’s idea of continental drift because_______________.
A. Wegener was interested in what Earth was like millions of years ago.
B. Wegener used several different types of evidence to support his hypothesis.
C. Wegener could not identify a force that could move the continents.
D. They were afraid of a new idea.
8. Which of the following was not used by Wegener as evidence of continental drift?
A. Fossils that were found on different continents.
B. The fit of the continents.
C. Magnetic reversals on the seafloor.
D. Evidence of glacial scratches continents found near the equator
9. Evidence that supports the theory of continental drift has been provided by
A. Coal fields
B. Fossils
C. Glacial deposits
D. All of
10. How do Glossopteris fossils tell us about the early positions of the southern continents?
A. These continents were once joined.
B. These continents are separated.
C. These continents are far from each other.
D. These continents are destroyed into pieces
11.Which of the following EM waves has the longest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum chart?
A.Infrared B. Microwaves C. Radio waves D. Ultraviolet
12.Which of the following best explains the characteristics of radio waves?
A. Radio waves have the longest wavelength on the EM spectrum.
 B. Radio waves are produced by making electrons vibrate in an antenna.
C. Radio waves are used to transmit sound and picture information over long distance.
D. All of the above.
13.Which of the following is the correct application of radio waves?
A. Camera auto focusing C. diagnosis of bone fractures
B. Radio broadcasting D. sterilization of medical instrument
14. Which of the following is considered as the application of infrared waves?
A. Camera auto focusing C. radio broadcasting
B. Diagnosis of bone fracture D. sterilization of medical instruments
15. Which electromagnetic wave carries more energy than the other?
A. Microwaves C. UV radiation
B. radio waves D. Infrared
16. The principal focus of a convex lens is
A. the optical centre of the lens. C. a point where parallel rays converge
B. a point 20 cm away from the lens. D. the centre of the curvature.
17. The image produced at the focal point by a converging lens with an object at a very far distance away from the lens is
A. real, diminished and inverted. C. virtual, diminished and upright.
B. virtual, diminished and inverted. D. real, diminished and upright.
18. The image produced by a slide projector is
A. real, upright, magnified. C. virtual, inverted, diminished.
B. virtual, inverted, magnified. D. real, inverted, magnified.
19.What is a box-like device used for taking pictures?
A. Camera B. Endoscope C. Gyroscope D. Periscope
20. What is a long flexible tube that is inserted in the body so that a doctor can observe internal passages such as a person’s
esophagus or intestine?
A. Camera B. Endoscope C. Gyroscope D. Periscope
21. Which of the following is NOT true about the CNS (Central Nervous System)?
A. CNS has two main components, the somatic and autonomic nervous system.
A. CNS serves as the main processing center of the system.
B. CNS acts like a CPU of a computer that process and interprets information.
C. CNS consists of main components namely the brain and the spinal cord.
22. Brain is an organ located within the skull that functions as organizer and distributor of information for the body. Which
component of the brain connects the brain to the spinal cord and control automatic functions such as breathing, digestion,
heart rate and blood pressure?
A. Brain Cell B. Brain Stem C. Cerebrum D. Cerebellum
23. All of the following situation shows a response to stimulus EXCEPT?
A. Makahiya leaf closes as it is being touched.
B. You feel the pain when somebody hits you.
C. A dog continues to sleep while somebody is walking around him.
D. Your friend laughs as she watches a comedy movie.
24. Which shows the correct order of stimuli – response scenario?
I. Message coming from the brain is sent through the motor neurons.
II. A receptor such as an organ perceives a stimulus.
III. The impulse is sent to the brain by the sensory neurons, which then transmit information from one nerve
cell to another.
IV. A message reaches the brain; it processes the information and commands an effector such as muscle or
an organ to respond.
A. II, III, IV, I B. II, IV, I, III
C. I , II, III , IV D. II, I, IV , III
25. When a diabetic person cannot regulate its blood sugar level, which gland fails to perform the function of
regulating sugar level on our blood?
A. Adrenal B. Pancreas C. Thymus D. Thyroid
26. Why do we able to lift heavy objects during emergency situations such as fire?
A. because of the adrenaline being released by the Adrenal gland
B. bacause the Pancreas stored pancreatic juice which is important during emergency situation
C. bacause of the parathormone stored in the Parathyroid gland
D. bacause the brain produces Pituitary gland which dictates on the right thing to do
27. Which correctly differentiates testes from scrotum?
A. Testis and scrotum both functions in producing sperm cell.
B. Testis can produce sperm cell while scrotum is a sac of skin that holds the testes.
C. Testes can deposit sperm into the vagina during mating while scrotum cannot.
 a. Testes and scrotum are both part of male glands.
28. Which of the following is/are correct function of oviduct?
A. Produce egg cell
B. Serves as passage way of eggs from the ovary to the uterus
C. Site of egg fertilization
D. Serves as egg implantation
A. a & b B. a & c C. b & c D. a, b, c, d
29. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the prostate gland of the male reproductive system?
A. Chemicals from this gland nourish the sperm cell and help them mature.
B. It controls the flow of liquid from the testes to vas deferens.
C. It secretes fluids to help in the production of sperm cell.
D. It keeps the fluids inside the tube for mating.
30. Which of the following is NOT the function of male hormones?
A. Produces sperm cells.
B. Releases semen
C. Keeps reproductive system in proper function.
D. Prepares the growth of deposited sperm cell

II. Matching Type

Math column A with column B and C. Write your answer from column B on the first blank and
A B C
__ __31-32. V1P1 = V2P2 a. Charles’ Law h. pressure increases as temperature increases
__ __33-34. V1 = V2 b. Ideal Gas Law i. volume is inversely proportional to pressure
T1 T2 c. Boyle’s Law j. volume is directly proportional to temperature
__ __35-36. P1 = P2 d. Gay Lussac’s Law k. explains the relationship of pressure, volume,
T1 T2 e. Loius’ Law temperature and no. of moles
__ __37-38. V1 P1 = V2 P2 f. Combined Gas Law l. the no. of moles is directly proportional to the
T1 T2 g. Avogadro’s Law volume
__ __39-40. V1 = V2 m. shows the relationship of pressure, volume
n1 n2 and temperature at constant amount of gas.

III. Problem Solving (2 Pts each). Write the formula with your solution at the back of the second page. Choose the
letter of the correct answer
_____41-42. At 1.70 atm, a sample of gas takes up 4.25L. If the pressure in the gas is increased to 2.40 atm, what will the
new volume be, assuming that the temperature is constant?
A. 6.0 L B. 3.01 L C. 6.0 atm D. 3.01 atm
_____43-44. A 40.0L balloon is filled with air at sea level (1.00 atm, 25.0°C). It is tied to a riavk and thrown in a cold body
of water, and it sinks to the point where the temperature is 4.0°C and the pressure is 11.0 atm. What will its new volume
be?
A. 3.38 oC B. 3.38 L C. 3.91oC D. 3. 91 L

IV. Write a balanced chemical equation for the following chemical reactions. On the space before the number, identify
the types of reaction.

____________________45-46. The reaction of iron with aqueous hydrochloric acid forms iron (III) chloride and hydrogen
gas.

____________________47-48. Reaction of lead (II) acetate with potassium iodide produces solid lead (II) iodide and
potassium acetate.

____________________49-50. The reaction of aqueous sulfuric acid with sodium hydroxide yields sodium sulfate and
water.