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[Time : 2.00 Hours] CLASS : IX - PRE EXAM Full Marks : 400 01.

[Time : 2.00 Hours]

CLASS : IX - PRE EXAM

Full Marks : 400

01. A particle starts moving from position of rest under constant acceleration. If it travels a distance ‘x’ in t seconds. What distance will it travel in next 2t seconds?

01.

, d oLrqfu; r Roj.k dsv/ hu fojkekoLFkk l sxfrµi zkajHk djrh

gSA; fn og t l sds.M esax nwjhr; djrhgS] rksvxyh2t l sds.M esaog fdruhnwjh r; djsxh \

(1) 8x

(2) 6x

(3) 4x

(4) 5x

02. The engineer of a train moving at a speed 1 sights a goods train a distance d ahead of him on the same track moving in the same direction with speed 2 . He puts the brakes and gives his train a constant retardation ‘a’. There will be no collision if :

(1)

d

(

1

-

2

)

2

2a

(2)

d

(

1

2

)

2

2a

02.

(1)

8x

(2)

6x

(3)

4x

(4)

5x

v 1 xfr l spyrsgq, , d Vªsu dkbUt hfu; j vi usl keusml hi Vjh

i j d nwjhi j ml hfn' kkesav 2 xfr l spyrhgqbZ, d ekyxkM+hdks

ns[ krk gSAog czsd ysrk gSrFkk vi usVªsu dksfu; r eanu ‘a’ nsrk gSA VDdj ughagksxk ; fn µ

(1)

d

(

1

-

2

)

2

2a

(2)

d

(

1

2

)

2

2a

(3)

d

(

1

2

)

2

4d

(4)

d

(

1

2

)

2

4d

03. A ball is projected upwards with velocity of 200 m/s. Find the speed of the ball at half the maximum height. Take g = 10 m/s 2 .

(1) 50

at half the maximum height. Take g = 10 m/s 2 . (1) 50 2 m/s

2 m/s

(2) 75

2 m/sheight. Take g = 10 m/s 2 . (1) 50 2 m/s (2) 75 (3) 120

height. Take g = 10 m/s 2 . (1) 50 2 m/s (2) 75 2 m/s
height. Take g = 10 m/s 2 . (1) 50 2 m/s (2) 75 2 m/s

(3) 120 2 m/s (4) 100 2 m/s

04. The force F as shown acts on body B and body A is placed over B. The surface between A and B and B and ground is rough and force responsible for making the body A moves along with B is :

A F B
A
F
B

(1) gravitational force (2) normal force

(3) F

(4) friction

05. A single horizontal force F is applied to a block of mass M, which is in contact with another block of mass m. If the surfaces are frictionless, the force between the blocks is :

(1) MF m

F M m Mmg mF (2) (3) M  m M  m
F
M
m
Mmg
mF
(2)
(3)
M 
m
M  m

(4)

MF

M m

03.

04.

05.

2

(3)

d

(

1

2

)

4d

(4)

d

(

1

2

)

2

4d

, d xsan 200 m/s dhxfr l smQi j dhvksj i QsadhxbZgSAegÙke

Å¡pkbZdsvk/ si j xsan dh xfr Kkr djsaA

(fy; kx; k

g

10m/s

(1)

si j xsan dh xfr Kkr djsaA (fy; kx; k g  10m/s (1) 50 2

50 2 m/s

(3) 120

2 m/sxfr Kkr djsaA (fy; kx; k g  10m/s (1) 50 2 m/s (3) 120 2

2

)

(2) 75 2 m/s (4) 100 2 m/s
(2)
75 2 m/s
(4) 100 2 m/s

, d cy F fi .M B i j n' kkZ; k x; k gSrFkk fi .M A fi .M B ds

mQi j fLFkr gSA A rFkk B dschp dh l rg rFkk B rFkk t ehu dschp dh l rg : [ kM+h gSrFkk fi .M A dk B dsvuqfn' k xfr djusdsfy, mÙkj nk; h gS&

(1)

(3)

A F B
A
F
B

xq: Rokd"kZ.k cy

F

(2) l kekU; cy (4) ?k"kZ.k

nzO; eku M ds, d fi .Mi j , d , dy {kSfrt cy F yxk; kx; k]

t ksnwl jsm nzO; eku dsfi .M dsl Ei dZesagSA; fn l rg ?k"kZ.kghu

gSrksnksuksafi .Mksadschp dk cy gS&

(1) MF m

F M m Mmg mF (2) (3) M  m M  m
F
M
m
Mmg
mF
(2)
(3)
M 
m
M  m

(4)

MF

M m

Space For Rough Work

01
01

06.

07.

08.

09.

10.

11.

12.

Calculate the gravitational acceleration

06.

d varfj{k; ku esamRi Uu xq: Roh; Roj.k dh x.kuk djast ksi `Foh

,

produced in a spaceship which is at a distance equal to thrice the radius of the earth.

dh f=kT; k dsfrxquh nwjh i j fLFkr gSA

(1) 3.27 m/s 2

(2) 1.09 m/s 2

(1)

3.27 m/s 2

(2) 1.09 m/s 2

   

(3)

0.61 m/s 2

(4) 2.77 m/s 2

 

(3) 0.61 m/s 2

(4) 2.77 m/s 2

A satellite is orbiting close to the surface of the

07.

d mi xzg i `Foh dh l rg dscgqr ut nhd ?kw.kZu dj jgk gS] rks

,

earth, then its speed is :

bl dh xfr gSµ

 

(1)

2gR
2gR

(2) Rg

(1)

2gR
2gR

(2)

Rg

(3)

Rg
Rg

(4)

Rg 2
Rg
2
 

(3)

Rg
Rg

(4)

Rg 2
Rg
2

A missile is released with a velocity less than

08.

d fel kby dksi yk; u xfr l sde xfr dsl kFk NksM+k t krk gSA

,

the escape velocity. The sum of its potential and kinetic energies is :

bl dh fLFkrht rFkk xfrt mQt kZvksadk ; ksx gS%

 

(1) Í .kkRed

(2)

/ ukRed

(1) negative

(2) positive

 
 

(3)

' kwU;

(4)

dqN dgkughat kl drk

(3) zero

A 60 N object is released from a height of 20 m. Just before it hits the ground, its kinetic energy,

(4) cannot say

09.

60 N dsoLrqdks20 m mQ¡pkbZl sfxjk; k t krk gSAt ehu i j fxjusl srqjar i gysbl dh xfrt mQt kZt wy esagS&

in joules is :

(1)

11760 J

(2)

1200 J

(1) 11760 J

(2) 1200 J

(3)

600 J

(4)

1980 J

(3)

600 J

(4) 1980 J

d i Ei 180 m xgjs[ kku l si zfr ?kaVs8 × 10 5 kg dks; ykmBk

,

A pump can hoist 8 10 5 kg of coal per hour

10.

drk gSA 80% {kerk okysbl bat u dh ' kfDr gSµ

l

from a mine 180 m deep. Then power of the engine having 80% efficiency is (g = 10 ms 2 )

(g = 10 ms 2 )

 

(1)

250 KW

(2) 125 KW

(1)

250 KW

(2) 125 KW

(3)

500 KW

(4) 400 KW

(3)

500 KW

(4) 400 KW

Two objects of masses 2 10 2 kg and 8 10 2 kg have equal momentum. What is the ratio of their kinetic energies ?

11.

nksnzO; eku 2 × 10 2 kg rFkk8 × 10 -2 kg dk vkosx l eku gSA mudh xfrt mQt kZdk vuqi kr D; k gS\

(1)

(3)

2 :

1

16 : 1

(2) 4 : 1

(4) 2

(2) 4 : 1 (4) 2 2 : 1

2 :1

(1)

(3)

2 :

1

16 : 1

(2)

(4) 2

4 : 1

(2) (4) 2 4 : 1 2 : 1

2 :1

The speed of sound in medium depends upon :

12.

fdl h ekè; e esaèofu dh xfr fuHkZj djrh gSµ

(1) amplitude

(2) frequency

(3) wavelength

(4) properties of the medium

(1)

vk; ke i j

(2)

vko`fr i j

(3)

rjaxnSè; Zi j

(4)

ekè; e dh i zd`fr i j

Space For Rough Work

02
02

13. Four children were asked to arrange forces due to rolling, static and sliding frictions in a decreasing order. Their arrangements are given below.

Choose the correct arrangement.

(1) rolling, static, sliding

(2) rolling, sliding, static

(3) static, sliding, rolling

(4) sliding, static, rolling

14. 2 hertz is equal to :

(1) 2 vibrations per minute

(2) 120 vibrations per minute

(3) 30 vibrations per minute

(4) 15 vibrations per minute

15. Which one of the following forces is a contact force ?

13. pkj cPpksadks] ykVsu ?k"kZ.kdsdkj.k] LFkSfrd ?k"kZ.kdsdkj.krFkk

fi Ql yu ?k"kZ.k dsdkj.k cyksadksvojksgh Øe esal t kusdsfy,

i wNk x; k mudsØe uhpsfn, x, gSaA l gh Øe pqusaA

(1)

?kw.kZu] LFkSfrd] fi Ql yu

(2)

?kw.kZu] fi Ql yu] LFkSfrd

(3)

LFkSfrd] fi Ql yu] ?kw.kZu

(4)

fi Ql yu] LFkSfrd] ?kw.kZu

14. 2 gV~Zt cjkcj gksrk gS

(1)

2 dai u i zfr feuV

(2)

120 dai u i zfr feuV

(3)

30 dai u i zfr feuV

(4)

15 dai u i zfr feuV

15. fuEufyf[ kr esadkSu l k cy l Ei dZcy gSµ

(1) xq: Roh; cy

(3)

?k"kZu cy

(2) pqEcdh; cy

(4)

fLFkjfo| qr cy

(1) force of gravity (2) magnetic force

(3) force of friction (4) electrostatic force

16. Which of the following metals is used in electroplating to make objects appear shining ?

(1) chromium

(3) copper (4) aluminium

(2) iron

17. The loudness of sound depends on :

(1) its amplitude.

(3) its frequency.

(2) its time period.

(4) its speed.

18. Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angles to each other as
18. Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angles
to each other as shown in Fig.
90°
90°
35°
A
B

A ray of light incident on mirror A at an angle of 35° falls on mirror B after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray reflected from mirror B would be :

(1) 65°

(2) 105°

(3) 75°

(4) 55°

16. fdl h oLrqdkspedhyk cukusdsfy, fuEu esal sfdl / krqdks

bysDVªksIysfVax (fct yh }kjk i jr p<+kuk) ds: i esami ; skx fd; k

t krk gS\

35° (1) Øksfe; e (2) yksgk (3) rk¡ck (4) , Y; qfefu; e 17. èofu
35°
(1)
Øksfe; e
(2) yksgk
(3)
rk¡ck
(4)
, Y; qfefu; e
17. èofu dh i zcyrk fuHkZj djrh gS
(1)
(2)
(3)
bl dsvk; ke i j
bl dh vko`fÙk i j
(4)
bl dsdky i j
bl dsxfr i j
18. fp=kesan' kkZ, vuql kj nskni Z.kA rFkkB , d nwl jsl sl edks.ki j
fLFkr gSaA
90°
90°
A
B

ni Z.k A i j , d i zdk' k dh fdj.k 35º dsdks.k l svki frr gksrh

gSvkSj i jkofÙkZr gksdj ni Z.kB i j i M+rhgSAni Z.kB }kjk i jkofrZr

fdj.k dsfy, i jkorZ.k dk dks.k gskxk &

(1)

65°

(2)

105°

(3)

75°

(4)

55°

Space For Rough Work

03
03

19. In the figure of the human eye, the cornea is represented by the letter :

A B C D
A
B
C
D

19. ekuo us=k dsfp=k esa' osr i Vy fdl v{kj }kjk n' kkZ; k x; k gS

A B C D
A
B
C
D

(1) D

(2) A

(3) B

(4) C

(1)

D

(2)

A

(3)

B

(4)

C

20. Red light cannot be dispersed by a glass prism because it :

(1) has a high frequency

(2) has a long wavelength

(3) does not have component colours

(4) is not refracted in glass

21. What happens to solid CO 2 on decrease of

20. ' kh' ksdsfi zTe }kjkyky i zdk' kdkfo{ksi .k ughagksl drkgSD; ksafd bl dh%

(1)

vko`fÙk mPp gksrh gSA

(2)

rjaxnSè; ZyEch gksrh gSA

(3)

vo; o jax ughagksrsgSaA

(4)

' kh' ksesavi orZu ughagksrk gSA

pressure to 1 atmosphere ?

(1) It converts into liquid state.

(2) It converts into liquid state and then to gaseous state.

(3) It directly converts into gaseous state.

(4) No change; it remains in solid state.

21. D; kgksrkgS] t c Bksl CO 2 dknkc , d okrkoj.kh; nkc l s?kVrk gS\

(1)

; g nzo voLFkk esai fjofrZr gksrk gSA

(2)

; g nzo

voLFkk esai fjofrZr gksrk gSrFkk ml dsckn xSl h;

(3)

voLFkk esai fjofrZr gksrk gSA ; g l h/ k xSl h; voLFkk esai fjofrZr gksrk gSA

(4)

dksbZi fjorZu ughagksrk gS] ; g Bksl voLFkk esagh jgrk gSA

22. xSl ksadsckjsesadsoy l R; dFku pqusa&

(1)

budsmPp ?kuRo dsdkj.k] xSl ksadscgqr vf/ d vk; ru dks , d NksVsfl fyaMj esaj[ k l drsgSaA

(2)

budsmPp l ai hM~; rkdsdkj.k] xSl ksadscgqr vf/ d vk; ru

dks, d NksVsfl fyaMj

esaj[ k l drsgaSA

(3)

budsfuEu l ai hM~; rkdsdkj.kxSl ksadscgqr vf/ d vk; ru dks, d NksVsfl fyaMj esaj[ k l drsgSaA

(4) buesal sl HkhA

23. DoFkukad gS&

(1)

nzo dk i `"Bh; : i ml sok"i voLFkk esacny nsrk gSA

(2)

nzo dk cYd : i ml sok"i voLFkk esacny nsrk gSA

(3)

Bksl dk i `"Bh; : i ml sok"i voLFkk eascny nsrk gSA

(4)

Bksl dk cYd : i ml sok"i voLFkk eascny nsrk gSA

04
04

22. Choose the only correct statement about gases.

(1) Due to its high density, large volumes of a gas can be kept into a small cylinder.

(2) Due to its high compressibility, larger volumes of a gas can be kept into a small cylinder.

(3) Due to its low compressibility, larger volumes of a gas can be kept into a small cylinder.

(4) All of these .

23. Boiling is a :

(1) Surface phenomenon of the liquid change into vapour state. (2) Bulk phenomenon of the liquid change into vapour state. (3) Surface phenomenon of the solid change into vapour state. (4) Bulk phenomenon of the solid change into vapour state.

Space For Rough Work

24. The melting point of ice is :

24. ci QZdk xyukad gS&

(i)

273.16 K. (ii) 273.16°C

(iii)

0°C

(iv) 0 K

(1)

(i) & (iii)

(2) (ii) & (iv)

(3)

only (i)

(4) only (ii)

25. Clothes dry faster on a windy day because :

(1)

The particles of water vapour move away with wind.

(2)

Amount of water vapour in the surrounding decreases.

(3)

Amount of water vapour in the surrounding increases.

(4)

Both (1) and (2)

26. A solid that directly converts into vapour state on heating is :

(i)

273.16 K.

(ii) 273.16°C

(iii)

0°C

(iv) 0 K

(1)

(i) vkSj (iii)

(2)

(ii) vkSj (iv)

(3)

dsoy (i)

(4)

dsoy (ii)

25. rst gokvksaokysfnuksaesadi M+st Ynh l w[ k t krsgSaD; ksafd &

(1)

t yok"i dsd.k gok dsl kFk nwj pyst krsgSaA

(2)

pkjksavksj t yok"i dh ek=kk ?kV t krh gSA

(3)

pkjksavksj t yok"i dh ek=kk c<+t krh gSA

(4)

(1) rFkk (2) nksuksaA

26. Bksl ] ft l sxeZdjusi j l h/ sok"i voLFkk esai fjofrZr gkst krk gS] og gS&

(1)

Sodium chloride (2)

Sugar

(3)

Ammonium chloride (4)

Potassium chloride

(1)

l ksfM; e DyksjkbM (2)

' kdZjk

(3)

veksfu; e DyksjkbM (4)

i ksVSf' k; e DyksjkbM

27. Choose the incorrect statement about colloid :

(1)

It is a heterogenous mixture

(2)

They do not settle down when left undisturbed

(3)

They can be separated from the mixture by filtration.

(4)

dispersed phase and dispersion medium are two components of colloidal solution.

28. Match the Column I and Column II and select the correct option from given below :

Column I Column II

(i)

Evaporation

(a) Separation of two miscible liquids

(ii)

Distillation

(b)

Separation of pure solid

(iii)

Density dependent

(c) Separation of dye from water

(iv)Crystallization

(1)

(i-c); (ii-a); (iii-d); (iv-b)

(2)

(i-c); (ii-d); (iii-a); (iv-b)

(3)

(i-d); (ii-a); (iii-c); (iv-b)

(4)

(i-b); (ii-a); (iii-d); (iv-c)

(d) Separation of two immiscible liquids

27. dksykbM dsckjsesaxyr dFku pqusa&

(1)

; g , d fofo/ feJ.k gSA

(2)

t c bl sck/ kjfgr NksM+fn; k t k, rksosuhpsughacSBrsgSaA

(3)

bUgsafeJ.k l sNku dj vyx fd; k t k l drk gSA

(4)

dksykbMy ?kksy dsnks?kVd i zdh.kZvoLFkk rFkk i zdh.kZ ek?; e gSaA

28. LrEHk (I) rFkk LrEHk (II) dksfeyk, ¡ rFkk uhpsfn, x, fodYi ksaesa l gh fodYi pqusa&

 

LrEHk(I)

LrEHk(II)

(i)

ok"i hdj.k

(a)

nzo dk vyxko

(ii)

vkl ou

(b) ' kq¼ Bksl dk vyxko

(iii)

?kuRo dsv/ hu

(c) t y l sjax dk vyxko

(iv)

fØLVyhdj.k

(d) nksvfeJ.kh; nzoksadkvyxko

(1)

(i-c); (ii-a); (iii-d); (iv-b)

 

(2)

(i-c); (ii-d); (iii-a); (iv-b)

(3)

(i-d); (ii-a); (iii-c); (iv-b)

(4)

(i-b); (ii-a); (iii-d); (iv-c)

Space For Rough Work

05
05

29. Which of the following are chemical changes ?

(1)

Rusting of almirah

(2)

Water extinguishing fire

(3)

Burning of paper

(4)

All of these

30. The constituents of mixture are X, Y, Z. If mixture containing X and Y is taken, X can be separated by chromatography from Y. If mixture Y and Z is taken can be separated by distillation?

Identify X, Y, Z respectively.

(1)

Dye, Water, Acetone

(2)

Sulphur, Water, Acetone

(3)

Iron, Salt, Water

(4)

Iron, Sand, Sulphur

31. Which of the following represents 88g of dry ice, correctly.

(i)

2 moles of CO 2

(ii)

2 moles of CO

(iii) 1.2044 10 24 molecules of CO 2

(iv)1.2044 10 24 molecules of CO.

(1)

(i)

(2) (i) and (iii)

(3)

(ii)

(4) (ii) and (iv)

32. Which of the following represents Avogadro number ?

(1)

1 g

of 12 C

(2) 12g of 12 C

(3)

1 g of H 2 O

(4)

All of the above

33. Atomic radius is measured in :

(1)

milimeter (2) nanometer

(3)

micrometer (4) meter

34. Which of the following statement(s) are correct for the Thomson’s model of atom ?

29.

fuEufyf[ kr esadkSu jkl k; fud i fjoÙkZu gS\

(1)

vkyekjhdkt ax yxuk

 

(2)

t y l svkx cq>kuk

(3)

dkxt dk t yuk

(4)

buesal sl Hkh

30.

X, Y, Z fdl h feJ.k dsvo; o gSA; fn X rFkk Y okysfeJ.k

dksfy; k t krk gSrksX dksY l sØkseSVksxzki Qh }kjk vyx fd; k t k

drkgSA; fn Y rFkk Z dsfeJ.kdksfy; kt krkgSrksbUgsavkl ou

l

}kjk vyx fd; k t k l drk gS\ X, Y rFkk Z dksØe' k%pqusa&

(1)

jax] t y] , l hVksu

 

(2)

l Yi Qj] t y] , l hVksu

(3)

yksgk] yo.k] t y

(4)

yksgk] ckyw] l Yi Qj

31.

fuEufyf[ kr esadkSu l gh : i l s88 xzke ' kq"d ci QZdksn' kkZrk gS\

(i)

CO 2 dk 2 eksy

 

(ii)

CO

dk 2 eksy

(iii)

CO 2 dk1.2044 10 24 v.kq

 

(iv)

CO dk1.2044 10 24 v.kq

(1)

(i)

(2) (i) rFkk(iii)

(3)

(ii)

(4) (ii) rFkk(iv)

32.

fuEufyf[ kr esadkSu , oksxkMªksl a[ ; k dksi znf' kZr djrk gS\

(1)

12 C dk1g

(2)

12 C dk12 g

(3)

H 2 O dk1g

(4) mi ; qZDr l Hkh

33.

jek.kqf=kT; k eki k t krk gS&

i

(1)

feyhehVj esa

(2)

uSuksehVj esa

(3)

ekbØksehVj esa

(4)

ehVj esa

34.

jek.kqdsFkkWel u ekWMy dsfy, fuEufyf[ kr esadkSu l k dFku

i

(i)

The mass and positive charge of atom is concentrated in the nucleus.

(ii)

The mass of atom is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the atom.

(iii) The positive charge of atom is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the atom.

(iv)The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude

(1)

(i), (ii) & (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(3)

(i), (iii) & (iv)

(4) (i), (ii) & (iv)

l R; gS\

(i)

i jek.kqdk nzO; eku rFkk vkos' k dsUnzd esadsfUnzr gksrk gSA

(ii)

dYi uk fd; k x; k fd i jek.kqdk nzO; eku rRoksai j l eku

i l sforfjr jgrk gSA

:

(iii)

dYi uk fd; k x; k fd / ukos' k i jek.kqi j l eku : i l s forfjr jgrk gSA

(iv)

Í .kkos' k rFkk / ukos' k l eku i fjek.k esagksrsgSaA

(1)

(i), (ii) vkSj (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii) vkSj (iv)

(3)

(i), (iii) vkSj (iv)

(4) (i), (ii) vkSj (iv)

Space For Rough Work

06
06

35. Match the Column I and Column II and select the correct option.

Column I Column II

(I)

(II) Al 3+ , Cl

O

(IV)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(III)

18

Ar,

14

6

12

6

C,

C,

20

16

8

13

6

C

40

40

Ca

(A) Isotopes

(B)

(C) Isobars

(D) Ions

Isotones

(I-C); (II-D); (III-B); (IV-A)

(I-A); (II-D); (III-B); (IV-C)

(I-C); (II-B); (III-D); (IV-A)

(I-A); (II-B); (III-D); (IV-C)

36. Element Boron exists as isotopes in nature :

10 B having atomic mass 10.013 amu

11 B having atomic mass 11.009 amu

What percentage of 10 B and 11 B present respectively?

(Given atomic mass of Boron = 10.8)

(1)

19.97% and 80.1% (2) 80.1% and 19.97%

(3)

50% and 50% (4)

40% and 60%

37. Few statements regarding distribution of electrons in energy shells are given. Choose the incorrect statement :

(1)

Electrons are accomodated in a given shell, unless the inner shells are filled.

(2)

The maximum number of electrons that can be accomodated in outermost shell is 8.

(3)

The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by 2n 2 .

(4)

Maximum number of electrons present in L-shell is 8.

38. Choose the correct statement regarding Van Arkel method :

(1)

It is based on thermal decomposition of non-metal components

(2)

It is based on thermal decomposition of metal components

(3)

It is based on boiling point of different metals

(4)

It is based on the property that when an impure molten metal is cooled gradually, only the pure crystals of metals are formed

35. l rEHk (I) rFkk LrEHk (II) dksfeyk, ¡ rFkk l gh fodYi dkspqusa&

LrEHkI

40

18

Ar,

14

6

12

6

C,

C,

Ca

C

LrEHkII (A) l eLFkkfud

(B)

l eU; wVªkWfud

(C) l eHkkfjd (D) vk; u

(I)

(II) Al 3+ , Cl

(III)

O

(IV)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40

20

16

8

13

6

(I-C); (II-D); (III-B); (IV-A)

(I-A); (II-D); (III-B); (IV-C)

(I-C); (II-B); (III-D); (IV-A)

(I-A); (II-B); (III-D); (IV-C)

36. rRo cksjkWu i zd`fr esal eLFkkfud ds: i esafo| eku jgrk gS&

10.013

amu i jek.kqnzO; eku okyk 10 B

11.009

amu i jek.kqnzO; eku okyk 11 B

10 B rFkk11 B Øe' k%fdl i zfr' krrk esami fLFkr jgrsgSa\

(cksjkWu dk fn; k x; k i jek.kqnzO; eku = 10.8)

(1)

19.97% rFkk80.1%

(2) 80.1% rFkk19.97%

(3)

50% rFkk50%

(4) 40% rFkk60%

37. Åt kZd{k esabysDVªkWuksadsforj.k dsckjsesadqN dFku fn, x, gSaA xyr dFku dkspqusa&

(1)

bysDVªkWu fn, x, d{k esarc rd l ek; ksft r gksxk t c rd vkarfjd d{kHkj u t k, A

(2)

okg~; d{k esal ek; ksft r bysDVªkWuksadh mPpre l a[ ; k 8 gSA

(3)

, d d{k esami fLFkr bysDVªkWuksadhmPpre l a[ ; k 2n 2 fn; k x; k gSA

(4)

L- d{k esami fLFkr bysDVªkWuksadh mPpre l a[ ; k 8 gSA

38. okWu vkdsZy fof/ dsckjsesal gh dFku dkspqusa&

(1)

; g v/ kfRod vo; oksads m"eh; gSA

vi ?kVu i j vk/ kfjr

(2)

; g / kfRod vo; oksa ds m"eh; gSA

vi ?kVu i j

vk/ kfjr

(3)

; g fHkUu&fHkUu / krqvksadsDoFkukad i j vk/ kfjr gSA

(4)

; g ml xq.k i j vk/ kfjr gSt c fi ?kyk gqvk v' kq¼ / krq / hjs&/ hjsBaMk gksrk gSrksdsoy / krqdk ' kq¼ fØLVy curk gSA

Space For Rough Work

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07

39. The composition of aqua-regia is :

(1)

Dil. HCl : Conc. HNO 3 = 3 : 1

(2)

Conc. HCl : Dil. HNO 3 = 3 : 1

(3)

Dil. HCl : Dil. HNO 3 = 3 : 1

(4) Conce. HCl : Conc. HNO 3 = 3 : 1

40. Phosphine gas is produced by heating :

(1) Red phosphorous in absence of moisture.

(2) Red phosphorous in presence of moisture

(3) White phosphorous in presence of moisture

(4) White phosphorous in absence of moisture

41. Which of the following statement is wrong for the given figure ?

39. , Dok&jsft ; k fdl dk l a?kVd gS&

(1)

ruqHCl : l kUæHNO 3 = 3 : 1

(2)

l kUæHCl : ruqHNO 3 = 3 : 1

(3)

ruqHCl : ruqHNO 3 = 3 : 1

(4)

l kUæHCl : l kUæHNO 3 = 3 : 1

40. fdl dsxeZgksusl si QkWLi Qhu xSl mRi Uu gksrk gS&

(1)

uehdhvuqi fLFkfr esayky i QkWLi Qksjl

(2)

uehdhmi fLFkfr esayky i QkWLi Qksjl

(3)

uehdhmi fLFkfr esa' osr i QkWLi Qksjl

(4)

uehdh vuqi fLFkfr esa' osr i QkWLi Qksjl

41. fn, x, fp=k dsfy, fuEufyf[ kr dFkuksaesadkSu xyr gS\

Plasma membrane Ribosome
Plasma
membrane
Ribosome

Cell Wall

Nucleoid

(1) Nuclear region is poorly defined. (2) Many functions are performed by poorly organised parts of the cytoplasm. (3) They mostly contain single chromosome

(4) Nucleus play a central role in the given figure.

42. Mitochondria are strange organelles because

they possess their own

(1) DNA

(3)

stroma

and

:

(2) ribosomes

(4)

both (1) and (2)

43. If RER is absent in a cell, what would happen to the cell ?

(1) There will be no energy production in the cell

(2) The cell would become swollen in few days

(3) There will no protein sysnthesis in the cell.

(4) There will be no transport of materials outside the cell.

IykTek f>Yyh jkbckst ksEl
IykTek f>Yyh
jkbckst ksEl

dksf' kdk fHkfÙk

U; wfDy; ksbM

(1)

ukfHkdh; {ks=k vPNsl si fjHkkf"kr ughagSA

(2)

dksf' kdknzO; dsvO; ofLFkr Hkkx ds}kjkcgqr l sdk; Zfd; s

(3)

t krsgSaA muesasvf/ drj , d xq.kl w=k gksrsgSaA

(4)

dsfUnzdk fn, x, fp=k esaeq[ ; Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gSA

42. ekbVksdkWf.Mª; k vn~Hkwr vax gksrs gSD; ksafd os vi uk [ kqn dk

rFkk

(1) Mh, u,

(3) LVªksek

/ kj.k djrsgSA

(2) jkbcksl kse

(4)

(1) vkSj (2) nksuksa

43. vxj [ kqjnjh vari znzO; h t kfydk dksf' kdk esavuqi fLFkr gS] rks dksf' kdk dsl kFk D; k gksxk\

(1)

dksf' kdk dsvUnj dksbZmQt kZdk mRi knu ughagksxk

(2)

dksf' kdk dqN fnuksaesai Qqyk gqvk gkst k, xkA

(3)

dksf' kdk esai zksVhu l a' ys"k.k ughagksxkA

(4)

dksf' kdk dsckgj nzO; ksadk i fjogu ughagksi k; sxkA

Space For Rough Work

08
08

44. Study the following statements about the tissue which provide flexibility in plants and then choose the correct option.

(I)

It allows easy bending in various parts of plant.

(II)

It provides mechanical support to plants.

(III)

Large spaces are present in between the cells.

(IV)

These tissues help in storage of food.

(V)

We can find these in leaf stalks below the epidermis

(1)

(III) and (IV) are wrong

(2)

(I) and (III) are correct

(3)

(I), (II) and (V) are correct

(4)

(II), (III) and (V) are wrong

45. Column A Column B

(I)

Simple squamous (A) Lining of kidney

epithelium tubules

(II)

Columnar epithelium (B) Skin

(III)

Cuboidal epithelium (C) Oesophagus

(IV)

Stratified squamous

(D) Respiratory tract

epithelium

(1)

(I-B); (II-C); (III-D); (IV-A)

(2)

(I-C); (II-D); (III-A); (IV-B)

(3)

(I-D); (II-B); (III-A); (IV-C)

(4)

(I-C); (II-D); (III-B); (IV-A)

46. The fluid in blood in which RBC, WBC and platelets are suspended is called plasma. Plasma also contains :

44. mÙkdksadsckjsesafuEufyf[ kr dFkuksadksi <+sat ksi kS/ ksadksyphyki u i znku djrsgSarFkk l gh dFku dk p; u djsaA

(I)

g i kS/ sdksfofHkUu Hkkxksaesavkl kuhl seqM+usdhbt kt r nsrk

;

gSA

(II)

g i kS/ ksadks; kaf=kd enn i znku djrk gSA

;

(III)

dksf' kdkvksadschp cM+k t xg ekSt wn jgrk gSA

(IV)

; smÙkd Hkkst u l axzg esaenn djrsgSaA

(V)

ge bUgsai fÙk; ksadsvk/ kj MaBy dsokg~; Ropk dsuhpsi k

drsgSaA

l

(1)

(III) vkSj (IV) nksuksaxyr gSaA

(2)

(I) vkSj (III) nksuksal gh gSaA

(3)

(I), (II), vkSj (V) l gh gSaA

(4)

(II), (III) vkSj (V) xyr gSaA

45. LrEHk^v *

LrEHk^c*

(i)

k/ kj.k i i Mh+nkj mi dyk

l

(A)

o`Dd FkSyh dhl rg

(ii)

LraHkkdkj mi dyk

(B)

Ropk

(iii)

?kukHk mi dyk

(C)

Hkkst u ufydk

(iv)

Lrjhd`r i i M+hnkj mi dyk

(D)

' ol u i Fk

(1)

(I-B); (II-C); (III-D); (IV-A)

(2) (I-C); (II-D); (III-A); (IV-B)

(3) (I-D); (II-B); (III-A); (IV-C)

(4) (I-C); (II-D); (III-B); (IV-A)

46. jDr esanzo ft l esayky jDrdf.kdk, ¡ ] ' osr jDrdf.kdk, ¡ rFkk fcack.kqjgrsgSa] IykTek dgykrsgSaA IykTek esa; sHkh gksrsgSa%&

(1)

Proteins and hormones

(2)

Vitamins and salts

(3)

Fat globules

(4)

Zinc ion and salts

47. The incorrect statement about the tissue present in brain, spinal cord and nerves is :

(1)

They are highly specialised for being stimulated

(2)

It consist of a cell body, nucleus and cytoplasm

(3)

It has a single long part called axon

(4)

It has short, unbranched parts called dendrites

(1)

i zksVhu rFkk gkeksZu

(2)

foVkfeu rFkkyo.k

(3)

ol kcw¡n

(4)

ft ad vk; u rFkk yo.k

47. efLr"d] es: n.M rFkk / euh esami fLFkr mÙkdksadsckjsesaxyr dFku gSµ

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

; si zsfjr gksusdsfy, fof' k"V gSA

bl esadksf' kdkdk; ] dsUnzd

bl esa, dy yEch raf=kdk{k gksrh gSA

bl esaNksVk] Hkkx æqek{; dgykrk gSA

rFkk dksf' kdknzO; i k; st krsgSaA

09
09

Space For Rough Work

48. Which of the following is not a part of xylem ?

48. fuEufyf[ kr esadkSu t kbye dk Hkkx ughagSµ

(1)

Xylem tracheids (2) Xylem fibres

(3)

Xylem collenchyma (4) Xylem vessels

49. How many statements given below are false ?

(I)

Plants that do not have well-differentiated body design fall in the group of Thallophyta.

(II)

The plant body of Bryophyta is commonly differentiated into stem and leaf-like structures.

(III) Marsilea, ferns and horse-tails come in group of Pteridophyta.

(IV) Gymnosperms bear naked seeds and are usually perennial.

(V)

Funaria is a bryophyte.

(1)

Two (2) None (3) Three (4) One

(1)

t kbye okfgfudh

(2)

t kbye rarq

(3)

t kbye dkWysadkbek

(4)

t kbye okfgdk

49. uhpsfn, x, dFkuksaesafdrusxyr gSa\

(I)

i kS/ ksaesaFkSyksi QkbVkdsl ewg esa' kkfjfjd vkdkj i w.kZfoHksfnr ughagSA

(II)

czk; ksi QkbVdki kS/ kl kekU; r; krukrFkki Ùkhdhrjg l ajpuk esafoHkDr jgrsgSaA

(III)

el sZfy; k] i QuZrFkk gkWl ZµVsy VSfjMksi QkbV oxZ esavkrsgSaA

(IV)

ft EuksLi eZesacht vkuko`r rFkk i zk; %ckjgekl h gksrsgSa

(V)

Ý; wusfj; k , d czk; ksi QkbV gSA

(1)

nks (2) dksbZugaha (3) rhu (4) , d

50. The above plant comes in the category of :

rhu (4) , d 50. The above plant comes in the category of : Chara (1)

Chara

(1)

Thallophyta

(2) Bryophyta

(3)

Pteridophyta

(4) Gymnosperms

51. The below figure comes in the kingdom of :

Gymnosperms 51. The below figure comes in the kingdom of : Resting spore Heterocyst Anabaena (1)

Resting

spore

Heterocyst

Anabaena

(1)

Monera

(2) Protista

(3)

Fungi

(4) Animalia

50. uhpsdk i kS/ k bl dh Js.kh esavkrk gSµ

(4) Animalia 50. uhpsdk i kS/ k bl dh Js.kh esavkrk gSµ   pkjk (1) FkSyksi
 

pkjk

(1)

FkSyksi QkbV

(2)

czk; ksi QkbV

(3)

VSfjMksi QkbV

(4)

ft EuksLi eZ

51. uhpsdk fp=k bl t xr esavkrk gS

(4) ft EuksLi eZ 51. uhpsdk fp=k bl t xr esavkrk gS foJke cht k.kq gsVsjksfl

foJke

cht k.kq

gsVsjksfl LV

,ukchuk

(1)

ekWusjk

(2) i zksfVLVk

(3)

dod

(4) t Urq

Space For Rough Work

010
010

52. Which of the following characters is not possessed by chordates ?

(1)

They have a notochord

(2)

They have a dorsal nerve cord

(3)

They are triploblastic

(4)

They are acoelomate

53. The name and group of organism causing peptic ulcer is :

(1)

Paramoecium, Fungi

(2)

Leishmania Donovani, Protozoa

(3)

Helicobacter Pylori, Bacteria

(4)

Rhinovirus, Virus

54. Which of the following disease is caused by the bacterium, Staphylococci ?

(1)

Sleeping sickness (2) Ascariasis

(3)

Kala azar (4) Acne

55. How many statements given below are wrong ?

(I)

Syphilis is spread by means of air.

(II)

Mosquitoes are the commonest vectors which spread disease.

(III) Pneumonia is a disease which spread through air.

(IV) An active immune system recruits many cells to the affected tissue to kill off the disease causing microbes.

(V)

Dengue fever and influenza are caused by fungi.

(1)

One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

56. Which of the following organism is shown in the below figure ?

of the following organism is shown in the below figure ? 52. fuEufyf[ kr xq.kksadsdkSu dkWMsZV

52. fuEufyf[ kr xq.kksadsdkSu dkWMsZV (jTt qdh) esai k; k t krk gS\

(1)

muesai `"B jTt qgksrsgSaA

(2)

muesai `"B raf=kdk jTt qgksrsgSaA

(3)

osf=kdksjdh gksrsgSaA

(4)

osi zxqgh gksrsgSaA

53. i sIVhd vYl j mRi Uu djusokyst ho dsoxZrFkk uke gSa (1) i Sjkehf' k; e] dod

(2)

ysl ekfu; k Mksuksokuh] i zksVkst ksvk

(3)

gSfydkscSDVj i k; jksyh] cSDVhfj; k

(4)

jkbuksokbjl ] ok; jl

54. fuEufyf[ kr esadkSu l hfcekjhcSDVsfj; e] LVSfi Qyksdksdl dsdkj.k gksrk gS\

(1)

(3)

fuanzkjksx dkykt kj

(2) , sLdsfj, fl l (4) eq¡gkl k

55. uhpsfn, x, fdrusdFku xyr gSa\

(I)

fl i Qfyl ok; qds}kjk i QSyrk gSA

 

(II)

ePNj l cl sl kekU; osDVj gSt ksfcekjh i QSykrk gSA

(III)

fueksfu; k , d fcekjh gSt ksok; qds}kjk i QSyrk gSA

(IV)

l fØ; i zfrj{kh i ¼fr cgqr l kjh dksf' kdkvksadks i zHkkoh mÙkdksai j fcekjhmRi Uu djusokysjksxk.kqdksekjusdsfy, cukrk gSA

(V)

Msaxwcq[ kkj rFkk buÝ; w, Ut k] dod }kjk gksrk gSA

(1)

, d

(2) nks

(3) rhu

(4) pkj

56. uhpsdsfp=k esafuEufyf[ kr t hoksaesafdl sfn[ kk; k x; k gS\

uhpsdsfp=k esafuEufyf[ kr t hoksaesafdl sfn[ kk; k x; k gS\ (1) Staphylococci (2) SARS virus

(1)

Staphylococci

(2) SARS virus

(3)

Trypanosoma

(4) Leishmania

(1)

LVSfi Qyksdksdh

(2)

l kl Zokbjl

(3)

fVªi suksl ksek

(4)

ysl ekfu; k

Space For Rough Work

011
011

57. The antibiotic Penicillin kills bacteria by :

(1) blocking the process that build the cell wall.

(2) inhibiting the nuclear region.

(3) blocking the function of mitochondria so that there is no energy production.

(4) direct lysis of cell.

58. The following unit is not used to measure turbidity of water ?

(1) NTU

(2) ATU

(3) JTU

(4) FTU

59. In filtration, the amount of dissolved solids passing through the filters is :

(1) Difference between total solids and suspended solids.

(2) Sum of total solids and suspended solids.

(3) Independent of suspended solids.

(4) None of these

60. At the end of pollen tube, there are two nuclei called :

(1) Sperm and ovum

(2) Tube nucleus and generative nucleus

(3) Tube nucleus and sperm

(4) Generative nucleus and sperm

61. Decimal representation of a rational number cannot be :

(1) terminating

(2) non-terminating

(3) non-terminating repeating

(4) non-terminating non-repeating

57. jskxi zfrdkjd i sful hfy; e] cSfDVfj; k (t hok.kq) dksekjrk gSµ (1) dksf' kdk fHkfÙk cukusdh i zfØ; k dkscan djds (2) dsUnzd LFkku dksjksd ds (3) ekbVksdkWfUMª; kdsdk; Zdksjksddj rkfd dksbZmQt kZmRi Uu u gksA (4) dksf' kdk dk i zR; {k VwVuk

58. t y dsxanki u dkseki usdsfy, fuEufyf[ kr esadkSu l h bdkbZ ughagSa\

(1) , u Vh; w

(2)

, Vh; w

(3) t sVh; w

(4)

, i QVh; w

59. fuL; Unu esa] ?kqysgq, Bksl ksadh ek=kk Nuusds}kjk fudyrk gSµ

(1) i wjk Bksl rFkk fuyafcr Bksl dschp

vUrj gSA

(2) i wjk Bksl rFkk fuyafcr Bksl dk ; ksx (3) fuyafcr Bksl l sLora=k (4) buesal sdksbZugha

gSA

60. i jkxuyh dsvafre NksM+i j nksdsUnzd gksrsgaSt ksdgykrsgSaµ

(1) cht rFkkcht k.kq

(2) dsUnzd uyhrFkkmRi knd dsUnz

(3) dsUnzd uyhrFkkcht

(4)

mRi knd uyhrFkkcht

61. i fjes; l a[ ; k dk n' keyo fu: i .k ughafd; k t k l drk gS&

(1)

l hfer

(2)

vl hfer

(3) vl hfer vko`fÙk

(4)

vl hfer & vuko`fÙk

1

62. is equal to : 9  8 1 1  (1) 3  2
62. is equal to :
9 
8
1
1
(1)
3
 2
2
(2)
2
3  2
2
(3) 3  2
2
(4) 3  2
2
2
1
1 
4
63. Simplify :
(625)
2
.
 
 
(1) 04
(2) 05
(3) 08
(4) 10
1 62. 8 cjkcj gS: 9  1 (1) 3  2 2  (2)
1
62. 8 cjkcj gS:
9 
1
(1)
3
 2
2
(2)
1 2 
3  2
2
(3) 3  2
2
(4) 3  2
2
2
1
1 
4
63. l jy djsa:
(625)
2
.
 
 
(1) 04
(2) 05
(3) 08
(4) 10

Space For Rough Work

012
012

64.

Find the

x 3 – ax 2 + 2x + a – 1.

value

of a, if

(1)

1

3

(2)

4

3

(3)

x –

1

4

3

a is

a factor

(4)

1

9

3

of

65. On plotting the points O (0, 0), A (3, 0), B (3, 4), C (0, 4) and joining OA, AB, BC and CO which of the following figure is obtained ? (1) Square (2) Rectangle (3) Trapezium (4) Rhombus

66. In Fig., if AB CD EF, PQ RS, RQD  25  and 
66. In Fig., if AB
CD
EF, PQ
RS, RQD  25  and
 CQP = 60°, then  QRS is equal to :
S
A
R
B
C
Q
25°
D
60°
E
P F
(1) 85°
(2) 135°
(3) 145°
(4) 110°

67. Find the measure of an angle, if six times its complement is 12° less than twice its supplement.

(1) 24° (2) 84° (3) 48°

(4) 54°

68. In the adjoining figure, what value of x will make AOB, a straight line ?

(1) 82

(3x+20)° (4x–36)° A O B (2) 42 (3) 38
(3x+20)°
(4x–36)°
A
O B
(2) 42
(3) 38

(4) 28

69. In the given figure, AB

and y.

PQ . Find the values of x

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

a dk eku Kkr djsa] ; fn x – a , x 3 – ax 2 + 2x + a – 1 dk

, d xq.ku[ k.M gSA

(1) 1

3

(2)

4

3

(3)

1

4

3

(4)

1

9

3

fcUnqO (0, 0), A (3, 0), B (3, 4), C (0, 4) dksvkysf[ kr

fd; k rFkkOA, AB, BC rFkkCO dkst ksM+k x; k gSAfuEufyf[ kr esadkSu l h vkd`fr i zkIr gksrh gS\

(1) oxZ (2) l edks.k (3) vl ekarj prqHkqZt (4) l eprqHkqZt fp=k esa] ;
(1) oxZ
(2) l edks.k
(3)
vl ekarj prqHkqZt
(4)
l eprqHkqZt
fp=k esa] ; fn AB
CD
EF, PQ
RS, RQD  25  rFkk
 CQP = 60°, rc  QRS
cjkcj gS&
S
A
R
B
C
Q
25°
D
60°
E
P F
(1) 85°
(2) 135°
(3) 145°
(4) 110°

, d dks.k dh eki Kkr djsa; fn bl dsi wjd dk Ng xq.kk] bl ds vuqi wjd dsnksxq.kk l s12° de gSA

(1) 24°

(2) 84°

(3) 48°

(4) 54°

l ayXu fp=k esa] x dk eku D; k gSft l l sAOB , d l h/ hjs[ kk gks

t k, \ (3x+20)° (4x–36)° A O B (1) 82 (2) 42 (3) 38 (4)
t k,
\
(3x+20)°
(4x–36)°
A
O B
(1) 82
(2) 42
(3) 38
(4) 28
69.
fn, x, fp=k esa] AB
PQ . x rFkky dk eku Kkr djsaA
75° E 20° A B x° G 25° y° P F Q
75°
E 20°
A
B
G
25° y°
P
F
Q
75° E 20° A B x° G 25° y° P F Q
75°
E 20°
A
B
G
25° y°
P
F
Q

(1)

x = 70°, y = 50°

(2) x = 35°, y = 45°

(3)

x = 65°, y = 40°

(4) x = 80°, y = 20°

(1)

x = 70°, y = 50°

(2) x = 35°, y = 45°

(3)

x = 65°, y = 40°

(4) x = 80°, y = 20°

Space For Rough Work

013
013

70. In a trapezium ABCD, if E and F be the mid-points of the diagonals AC and BD respectively. Then, EF = ?

(1)

(3)

1 AB

2

1

2

(AB

D C E F A B (2) 1 CD 2 1  CD) (4) (AB
D
C
E
F
A
B
(2)
1 CD
2
1
 CD)
(4)
(AB
2

CD)

70. l eprqHkqZt ABCD esa] ; fn fod.kZAC rFkk BD dkeè; fcUnq Øe' k%E rFkk F gSArksEF = ?

(1)

(3)

1 AB

2

1

2

(AB

D C E F A B (2) 1 CD 2 1  CD) (4) (AB
D
C
E
F
A
B
(2)
1 CD
2
1
 CD)
(4)
(AB
2

CD)

71. In a quadrilateral ABCD, it is given that BD = 16 cm.

If AL BD and CM BD such that AL = 9 cm and CM = 7 cm, then ar(quad. ABCD) = ?

D L A M
D
L
A
M

B

C

(1)

256 cm 2

(2)

128 cm 2

(3)

64 cm 2

(4) 96 cm 2

72.

In a

gm ABCD, if P and Q are midpoints of AB

gm ABCD) 16 cm 2 ,

and CD respectively and ar(

then ar( gm APQD)  ? D Q C A P B
then ar(
gm APQD)  ?
D
Q
C
A
P
B

(1) 8 cm 2

(2) 12 cm 2 (3) 6 cm 2

(4) 9 cm 2

71. prqHkqZt ABCD esa] ; g fn; k x; k gSfd BD = 16 cm. ; fn

AL BD rFkk CM BD bl

i zdkj gSfd

AL = 9 cm

rFkkCM = 7 cm, rks{ks=ki Qy (prqHkqZt ABCD) = ?

(1)

(3)

256 cm 2 64 cm 2

D L A M
D
L
A
M

B

C

(2)

(4) 96 cm 2

128 cm 2

72. l ekUrj prqHkqZt

and CD dk eè; fcUnq

Øe' k% P r Fkk Q gS rFkk {ks=ki Qy ( l ekUrj pr qHkqZt ABCD) = 16 cm 2 rks{ks=ki Qy (l ekUrj prqHkqZt APQD) ?

ABCD, esa] ; fn AB

D Q C A P B
D
Q
C
A
P
B

(1) 8 cm 2

(2) 12 cm 2 (3) 6 cm 2

(4) 9 cm 2

73. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If ABD = 35° and BAC = 70°, find ACB.

73. fn, x, fp=k esa] o`Ùk dk dsUnzO gSA ; fn ABD = 35° rFkk

BAC = 70°, ACB Kkr djsaA

(1) 65°

C D O 70° 35° A B (2) 75° (3) 85°
C
D
O
70° 35°
A
B
(2) 75°
(3) 85°

(4) 55°

(1) 65°

Space For Rough Work

C D O 70° 35° A B (2) 75° (3) 85°
C
D
O
70° 35°
A
B
(2) 75°
(3) 85°

(4) 55°

014
014

74. In the given figure, O is the centre of the given circle and measure of arc AOC is 100°. Determine ADC and ABC.

D O 100° A C B (1)  ADC = 50°,  ABC = 130°
D
O
100°
A C
B
(1)
 ADC = 50°,  ABC = 130°
(2)
 ADC = 60°,  ABC = 120°
(3)
 ADC = 45°,  ABC = 110°
(4)
 ADC = 75°,  ADC = 110°

75. 2.2 cu dm of brass is to be drawn into a cylindrical wire of diameter 0.50 cm. Find the length of the wire.

(1)

112 m

(2) 118 m

(3)

211 m

(4) 145 m

76. The mean marks scored by 40 students were found to be 60. Later it was observed that a score of 48 was misread as 84. Then the correct mean is

(1) 58

(2) 58.2

(3) 59.1

(4) 59

77. Volume of a hemisphere is 19404 cubic cm. The total surface area is

(1)

2772 sq. cm

(2) 4158 sq. cm

(3)

5544 sq. cm

(4) 1386 sq. cm

78. Find the area of a trapezium ABCD in which

AB

DC , AB = 77 cm, BC = 25 cm, CD = 60 cm

and DA = 26 cm.

 

(1) 204 cm 2

(2) 1644 cm 2

(3)

1645 cm 2

(4) 1600 cm 2

79. The angles A, B, C, D in the parallelogram ABCD are

A B 3a 5a 2a D C
A
B
3a
5a
2a
D
C

(1) 90°, 90°, 90°, 90° (3) 30°, 60°, 20°, 40°

(2) 90°, 45°, 30°, 15° (4) 90°, 45°, 15°, 20°

74.

fn, x, fp=k esa] O fn, x, o`Ùk dk dsUnzgSrFkk o`Ùk pki AOC dh eki 100° gSA ADC rFkk ABC dh x.kuk djsaA

 

D

O 100° A C
O
100°
A
C

B

 
 

(1)

ADC = 50°, ABC = 130°

(2)

ADC = 60°, ABC = 120°

(3)

ADC = 45°, ABC = 110°

(4)

ADC = 75°, ADC = 110°

75.

2.2 ?ku Msñehñdsi hry dks0.50 l sehú O; kl ds, d csyukdkj rkj esa[ khapk x; kArkj dh yEckbZKkr djsaA

(1)

112 ehVj

(2)

118 ehVj

(3)

211 ehVj

(4)

145 ehVj

76.

40 Nk=kksa}kjki zkIr fd, x, i zkIrkad dkvkSl r vad 60 i k; kx; k gSAckn esans[ kk x; k fd i zkIr fd, x, vad 48 dksxyrhl s84

<+fy; k x; kA rc l gh vkSl r

i

 

gSA

(1)

58

(2)

58.2

(3)

59.1

(4)

59

77.

v/ Zxksysdkvk; ru 19404 ?ku l sehñgSAbl dki w.kZi `"B {ks=ki Qy gSA

(1) 2772 oxZl sehñ (3) 5544 oxZl sehñ

(2) 4158 oxZl sehñ (4) 1386 oxZl sehñ

78.

vl ekUrj prqHkqZt ABCD dk{ks=ki Qy Kkr djsaft l esaAB

DC ,

AB = 77 l seh, BC = 25 l seh, CD = 60 l seh v kSj DA = 26 l seh.

(1)

204 l seh 2 1645 l seh 2

(2) 1644 l seh 2

 

(3)

(4) 1600 l seh 2

79.

ekUrj prqHkqZt ABCD esadks.k A, B, C, D

l

gSA

A B 3a 5a 2a D C
A
B
3a
5a
2a
D
C

(1) 90°, 90°, 90°, 90°

(3) 30°, 60°, 20°, 40°

(2) 90°, 45°, 30°, 15°

(4) 90°, 45°, 15°, 20°

015
015

Space For Rough Work

80. Mean of 11 observations is 17.5. If one observation value 15 is deleted, then the mean of remaining observations is

(1) 15.75

(2) 16.75

(3) 17.75

(4) 18.75

81. In the given letter series how many 'R' are followed by 'P', but not preceded by 'S'?

S R P R Q R S P R P R P O R P S T P O

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 1

82. Six books, P, Q, R, S, T and U are placed side by side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and the rest are old, P, R and S are law reports, the rest are Gazetteers. Which two books are old Gazetteers with blue covers?

(1)

Q and R

(2) Q and T

(3)

Q and U

(4) T and U

83. If in a certain language SURGEON is coded as HFITVLM, how is PHYSICIAN coded in that language?

80. 11 i zs{k.kksadk vkSl r 17.5 gSA; fn , d i zs{k.k eku 15 dksfeVk

fn; k x; k rkscpsgq, i zs{k.kksadk vkSl r

gSA

(1) 15.75

(2) 16.75

(3) 17.75

(4) 18.75

81. fn, x, v{kj J`a[ kyk esafdrus'R' gSt ks'P' dsi hNsgSi jUrqS l svkxsugha gS\

S R P R Q R S P R P R P O R P S T P O

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 1

82. N%fdrkcsP, Q, R, S, T rFkk U l kFkµl kFk j[ ksgSAR, Q rFkk T dk ft Yn uhyk gSrFkk vU; yky ft Yn dk gSdsoy S rFkk U ubZfdrkc gSrFkk ck¡dhi qjkuh] P, R rFkk S fu; e fooj.kgS] ck¡dh foojf.kdk gSA dkSu l h nks fdrkcsauhys ft Yn ds l kFk i qjkuh foojf.kdk gSA

(1)

Q rFkkR

(2)

Q rFkkT

(3)

Q rFkkU

(4)

T rFkkU

83. ; fn fdl hHkk"kk esaSURGEON dksHFITVLM l sl adsr fd; k x; k gS] rks PHYSICIAN dks ml Hkk"kk esadSl s l adsr fd; k t k, xk\

(1) KSBHRXRZM

(2) LTAKJYJUP

(3) IETWSOSHK

(4) GMDLFQFVX

(1)

KSBHRXRZM

(2)

LTAKJYJUP

(3)

IETWSOSHK

(4)

GMDLFQFVX

84. Gaurav walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right.How far is he from his original position?

(1) 20 metres

(2) 30 metres

(3) 50 metres

(4) 60 metres

84. xkSjo mÙkj dh vksj 20 ehVj pyrk gSAml dsckn og ck, ¡ eqMrk gSrFkk 40 ehVj pyrk gSAog fi Qj ck, ¡ eqM+rk gSrFkk 20 ehVj pyrk gSAfi Qj] nk, ¡ eqM+usdsckn 20 ehVj pyrk gSAog vi us okLrfod LFkku l sfdruk nwj gS\

(1)

20 ehVj

(2)

30 ehVj

(3)

50 ehVj

(4)

60 ehVj

85. Select a figure from the options which will replace the question mark to complete the given series.

? ×× × × × × ×××× ×× ×××× × × × × ××××
?
××
× × × ×
××××
××
××××
× × × ×
××××

85. fodYi l sfp=k dkspqusat ksnh xbZJ`a[ kyk dsi z' uokpd fpg~u dks foLFkkfi r dj bl si wjk djsxkA

? ×× × × × × ×××× ×× ×××× × × × × ××××
?
××
× × × ×
××××
××
××××
× × × ×
××××
× ××××
×
××××

(2)

×××× ××
×××× ××