Leader Course MLH Minor Test 06-10-2019 Paper @neetmedicalacademy PDF

Test Pattern
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CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 06-10-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (PHASE : MLH)
This Booklet contains 20 pages.
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blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

English / 06102019 Page 1/20
TOPIC : Refraction (Ray optics) to YDSE (Wave optics), photo electric Effect
1. Which of the following is not a correct statement? 5. If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped
(1) The wavelength of red light is greater than the in black paper as shown in the figure :-
wavelength of green light
(2) The wavelength of blue light is smaller than
the wavelength of orange light
(3) The frequency of green light is greater than the
frequency of blue light
(4) The frequency of violet light is greater than the (1) No image will be formed by the remaining
frequency of blue light portion of the lens
2. When light is refracted from air into glass :-
(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less
(1) Its wavelength and frequency both increase
bright
(2) Its wavelength increases but frequency remains
(3) The central portion of the image will be
unchanged
missing.
(3) Its wavelength decreases but frequency
remains unchanged. (4) There will be two images each produced by
(4) Its wavelength and frequency both decrease one of the exposed portions of the lens.
3. Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined 6. A convex lens is made of 3 layers of glass of
together in three different ways as shown in the 3 different materials as in the figure. A point object
adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal lengths in is placed on its axis. The number of image of the
three cases will be :- object are :-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2

(1) 2 : 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 : 1
7. The focal length of a convex lens is 10 cm and its
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 : 1
refractive index is 1.5. If the radius of curvature of
4. In the figure, an air lens of radii of curvature
10 cm (R1 = R2 = 10 cm) is cut in a cylinder of one surface is 7.5 cm, the radius of curvature of
glass (µ = 1.5) . The focal length and the nature the second surface will be :-
of the lens is :- (1) 7.5 cm (2) 15.0 cm
(3) 75 cm (4) 5.0 cm
8. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive
Air Glass index is equal to the refractive index of the lens.
Then its focal length will :-
(1) Become infinity
(1) 15 cm, concave
(2) Become small, but non-zero
(2) 15 cm, convex
(3) Remain unchanged
(3) , neither concave nor convex
(4) 0, concave (4) Become zero
Leader - MLH 1015CMD303319021
Page 2/20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English / 06102019
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9. The power of a biconvex lens is 10 dioptre and 15. If the eight bright band due to light of wavelength
the radius of curvature of each surface is 10 cm. 1
coincides with ninth bright band from light of
Then the refractive index of the material of the wavelength 2 in Young's double slit experiment, then
lens is :- the possible wavelengths of visible light are:-
(1) 3/2 (2) 4/3 (1) 400 nm and 450 nm
(3) 9/8 (4) 5/3 (2) 425 nm and 400 nm
10. The figures represent three cases of a ray passing
(3) 400 nm and 425 nm
through a prism of angle A. The case corresponding
to minimum deviation is (Prism is equilateral (4) 450 nm and 400 nm
triangle):- 16. In Young's double slit experiment, if the widths of the
slits are in the ratio 4 : 9, the ratio of the intensity at
maxima to the intensity at minima will be :-
(1) 169 : 25 (2) 81 : 16
(3) 25 : 1 (4) 9 : 4
(1) (2) (3)
17. In a Young's double slit experiment the intensity at a
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) None of these
point where the path difference is ( being the
11. Magnification of a compound microscope is 30. Focal 6
length of eye-piece is 5 cm and the image is formed wavelength of the light used) is I. If I0 denotes the
at a distance of distinct vision of 25 cm. The
I
magnification of the objective lens is :- maximum intensity, is equal to :-
I0
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 7.5 (4) 10 1 3
12. An astronomical telescope has objective and (1) (2)
2 2
eye-piece lens of powers 0.5 D and 20 D respectively,
its magnifying power will be :- 3
(1) 8 (2) 20 (3) (4)
2 4
(3) 30 (4) 40
18. In Young's experiment, one slit is covered with a blue
13. Four convergent lenses have focal length 100 cm,
filter and the other (slit) with a yellow filter. Then the
10 cm, 4 cm and 0.3 cm. For a telescope with
interference pattern :-
maximum possible magnification, we choose the
lenses of focal length :- (1) Will be blue (2) Will be yellow
(1) 100 cm, 0.3 cm (3) Will be green (4) Will not be formed
(2) 10 cm, 0.3 cm 19. In Young's double slit experiment, the distance
(3) 10 cm, 4 cm between sources is 1 mm and distance between the
(4) 100 cm, 4 cm screen and source is 1 m. If the fringe width on the
14. Two sources of same intensity interfere at centre and screen is 0.06 cm, then = ?
produced resultant I. When one source is removed,
(1) 6000 Å (2) 4000 Å
the intensity at that point will be :-
(1) I (2) I/2 (3) I/4 (4) I/3 (3) 1200 Å (4) 2400 Å
English / 06102019 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Page 3/20
20. In Young's experiment, monochromatic light is used to 25. In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from
illuminate the two slit A and B. Interference fringes are metals if the incident light has a certain minimum :-
observed on a screen placed in front of the slits. Now (1) Wavelength (2) Amplitude
if a thin glass plate is placed normally in the path of the (3) frequency (4) None
beam coming from the slit (C is not centre of screen ):- 26. If the light of wavelength 4000Å falls on metal which
has a stopping potential 1.4 V against photo electric
emission then the work function of metal will be :-
(1) 1.1 eV (2) 2.2 eV
A
(3) 1.7 eV (4) 2.7 eV
C 27. The stopping potential as a function of frequency of
incident radiation is plotted for two different surfaces
B
A & B. The graph shows that work funcion of A is:-
(1) The fringes will disappear

(2) The fringe width will increase v0
(3) The fringe width will decrease
(4) There will be no change in the fringe width but
the pattern shifts A B v
21. An interference pattern was made by using red light. (1) Greater than that of B
If the red light changes with blue light, the fringes will (2) Smaller than that of B
become :- (3) Same as that of B
(1) Wider (2) Narrower (4) Can not compare with this graph
(3) Fainter (4) Brighter 28. The curves 1, 2, 3 & 4 shows the variation between
22. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 mm and the applied potential difference (V) & the
illuminated with light of = 6000Å. If the screen is photoelectric current (i) at two different intensities of
placed 2.5 m from the slits. The distance of the third light (I1 > I2). In which figure is the correct variation
bright fringe from the centre will be :- show :-
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 3 mm
(3) 6 mm (4) 9 mm i i
I1 I1
23. If the sodium light in Young's double slit experiment I2 I2
is replaced by red light, the fringe width will :- (1) (2)
(1) Decrease v v
–v0 –v0
(2) Increase
(3) Remain unaffected
(4) First increase, then decrease i i
I1 I1
24. Surface of sodium is illuminated by a light of 6000Å
I2
wavelength. Work function of sodium is 1.6 eV. The (3) (4) I2
minimum K.E. of emitted electron is :-
(1) 0 eV (2) 2 eV (3) 2.5 eV (4) 4 eV –v0 v –v0 v

29. Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is
34. A force F 5iˆ 4ˆj N acts on a body and
produced by a Helium-neon leser. The power emitted
is 9 mW. The number of photons arriving per second
produces a displacement s 6iˆ 5ˆj 3kˆ m . The
on the average at a target irradiated by this beam is:-
(1) 3 × 1019 (2) 3 × 1016 work done will be :-
(3) 9 × 1017 (4) zero (1) 10 J (2) 20 J
30. When a certain metallic surface is illuninated with (3) 30 J (4) 40 J
mono chromatic light of wavelength , the stopping 35. If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its potential
potential for photoelectric current is 6V0. When the energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 0.1 m, then
same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength its potential energy will be :-
2 , the stopping potential is 2V0. The threshold U
(1) (2) U
wavelength of this surface for photoelectric effect is:- 5
(1) 6 (2) 4 /3 (3) 4 (4) 8 (3) 5 U (4) 25U
31. Find out the value of current through 2 resistance 36. A stationary particle explodes into two particles of a
for the given circuit :- masses m1 and m2 which move in opposite direction
with velocities v1 and v2. The ratio of their kinetic
5 10 energies E1/E2 is :-
20V
10V
2 m1
(1) (2) 1
m2
(1) 5 A (2) 2 A (3) Zero (4) 4 A
m 1v 2 m2
(3) (4)
m 2 v1 m1
32. RAB = ?
37. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on
a horizontal smooth surface collides with a nearly
weightless spring of force constant
(1) 2R (2) 4R/3 (3) 2R/3 (4) 4R k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring
33. Calculate the capacitance between two identical would be :-
plates of the given parallel plate capacitor :-
v
k
m
(1) 0.15 m (2) 0.12 m

(3) 1.5 m (4) 0.5 m
38. A ball moving with velocity 2 ms–1 collides head
0 ac 0 ab
(1) (2) on with another stationary ball of double the mass.
b c
If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then their
0 bc 0 ab velocities (in ms–1) after collision will be :-
(3) (4) 2
a c (1) 0, 1 (2) 1, 1 (3) 1, 0.5 (4) 0, 2
39. A body of mass (4 m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. 42. A block B is pushed momentarily along a
It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces
horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If µ
each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each
other with equal speeds (v). The total kinetic is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and
energy generated due to explosion is :- the surface, block B will come to rest after a time:-
(1) mv 2
B V
3
(2) mv2
2
(3) 2 mv2 v gµ
(1) (2)
gµ v
(4) 4 mv2
40. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively g v
are tied together by a massless spring. A force (3) (4)
v g
of 200 N is applied on a 20 kg mass as shown
in figure. At the instant shown, the acceleration 43. A body, under the action of a force F 6iˆ 8ˆj 10 kˆ ,
of 10 kg mass is 12 m/s 2, the acceleration of acquires an acceleration of 1 ms–2. The mass of this
20 kg mass is :- body must be :-
(1) 2 10 kg
10 kg 20 kg 200 N
(2) 10 kg
(3) 20 kg
(1) 0 (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 12 m/s2 (4) 10 2 kg
41. Two masses A and B of 10 kg and 5 kg respectively, 44. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass
are connected with a spring passing over a 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The
frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table as lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration
shown in figure the coefficient of friction of A with
1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 m/s2, the tension in the supporting
the table is 0.2. The minimum mass of C that may
be placed on A to prevent it from moving is :- cable is :-
(1) 9680 N (2) 11000 N

C
A (3) 1200 N (4) 8600 N
45. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of

radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle
B is 45°, the speed of the car is :-
(1) 15 kg (2) 5 kg (1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1
(3) 10 kg (4) 0 kg (3) 30 ms–1 (4) 5 ms–1

TOPIC : Solid State, Surface, Redox, Electrochemistry
46. If an electron jump from 3rd orbit to 2nd orbit in 51. Electromagnetic radiation (photon) with highest
Li2+ then calculate change in energy of electron wavelength results when an electron in the
will be :- hydrogen atom falls from n = 6 to :-
(1) 5.4 eV (2) 17eV (1) n = 1 (2) n = 2
(3) 1.8eV (4) 15eV (3) n = 3 (4) n = 5
47. If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is 52. Cisplatin, an anticancer drug, has the molecular
2p formula Pt(NH3)2Cl2. What is the mass (in gram)
2 2
written as 1s , 2s it would violate :- of one molecule ? (Atomic weights : Pt = 195,
H = 1.0, N = 14, Cl = 35.5)
(1) Hund’s rule
(1) 4.98 × 10–21
(2) Paulis exclusion principle
(2) 4.98 × 10–22
(3) Both Hund’s and Pauli’s principles
(3) 6.55 × 10–21
(4) None of these
48. How many electron(s) in an atom can have n = 3, (4) 3.85 × 10–22
l=2? 53. 20 g of an ideal gas contains only atoms of S and
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 10 O occupies 5.6 L at 1 atm and 273 K. What is the
molecular weight of gas ?
49. Four electrons in an atom have the sets of quantum
numbers as given below. Which electron is at the (1) 64 (2) 80
highest energy level ? (3) 96 (4) None of these
(1) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = + 1/2 54. The formula of an acid is HXO 2. The mass of
(2) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = – 1/2 0.0242 moles of the acid is 1.657 g. What is the
atomic weight of X ?
(3) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = + 1/2
(1) 35.5 (2) 28.1
(4) n = 4, l = 1, ml = –1, ms = – 1/2
(3) 128 (4) 19.0
50. The possible correct set of quantum numbers for
the unpaired electron of Cl atom is :- 55. The total number of protons in 10 g of calcium
carbonate is : (N0 = 6.023 × 1023) :-
1
(1) 2, 0, 0, + (1) 1.5057 × 1024
2
(2) 2.0478 × 1024
1 (3) 3.0115 × 1024
(2) 2, 1, –1, +
2 (4) 4.0956 × 1024
1 56. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by mass. The
(3) 3, 1, 1, + molecular mass of haemoglobin is approximately
2
67200. The number of iron atoms (At. mass of Fe = 56)
1 present in one molecule of haemoglobin is :-
(4) 3, 0, ±
2 (1) 6 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2
57. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen 64. Oxidation numbers of P in PO43–, of S in SO42– and
and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% that of Cr in Cr2O72– are respectively :-
and H, 9.67% and O, 51.62%. The empirical (1) +5, +6 and +6
formula of the compound would be :-
(2) +3, +6 and +5
(1) CHO (3) +5, +3 and +6
(2) CH4O (4) –3, +6 and +6
(3) CH3O x
65. A plot of log against log P for the adsorption
(4) CH2O M
58. What is the average oxidation number of sulphur of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with slope
in Na2S 4O6 ? equal to :-
2 3 1
(1) (2) (1) (2) n
3 2 n
3 5 (3) log K (4) K
(3) (4)
5 2 66. The heat evolved in physisorption lies in the range
– +
59. 2MnO4 + 5H2O2 + 6H 2Z + 5O2 + 8H2O. (in kJ/mol) of :-
In this reaction Z is :-
(1) 20-40 (2) 40-100
(1) Mn2+ (2) Mn4+ (3) MnO2 (4) Mn
60. How many moles of K2Cr2O7 can be reduced by (3) 100-200 (4) 200-400
1 mole of Sn2+ ? 67. Which of the following has minimum flocculation
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/6 value for positively charged sol ?
(3) 2/3 (4) 1 (1) Cl –
61. What is the equivalent mass of IO 4– when it is
(2) SO42–
converted into I2 in acid medium ?
(3) PO43–
(1) M/6
(2) M/7 (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(3) M/5 68. Which of the following will have the highest
coagulating power for Fe(OH)3 colloid ?
(4) M/4
62. Oxidation Number of nitrogen in NaNO2 is :- (1) PO43– (2) SO42–
(1) +2 (2) +3 (3) Ca2+ (4) Al3+

(3) +4 (4) –3 69. The gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C
63. In the balanced chemical reaction, and D are 0.04, 0.004, 10 and 40 respectively.
The protective powers of A, B, C and D are in
IO3– + aI– + bH+ cH2O + dI2
the order :-
a, b, c and d respectively correspond to :-
(1) A > B > C > D
(1) 5, 6, 3, 3
(2) B > A > C > D
(2) 5, 3, 6, 3
(3) 3, 5, 3, 6 (3) D > C > A > B
(4) 5, 6, 5, 5 (4) D > C > B > A
70. Blue colour of the sky is due to :- 75. Resistance of 0.1 M KCl solution in a conductance
cell is 300 ohm and conductivity is 0.013 Scm–1.
(1) absorption of light by dust particles
The value of cell constant is :-
(2) reflection of light by dust particles
(1) 3.9 cm–1
(3) scattering of light by dust particles (2) 39 m–1
(4) presence of clouds (3) 3.9 m–1
71. Passage of a current for 548 seconds through a (4) None of these
silver coulometer results in the deposition of 0.746 g 76. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of formic acid is
of silver. What is the current (in A) ? 200 ohm and cell constant is 2.0 cm –1 . The
(1) 1.22 equivalent conductivity (in Scm 2eq –1) of 0.1 N
formic acid is :-
(2) 1.16
(1) 100
(3) 1.07 (2) 10
(4) 1.00 (3) 1
72. An aqueous solution of Na 2 SO 4 in water is (4) None of these
electrolysed using Pt electrodes. The products at 77. The ionic conductivity of Ba2+ and Cl– at infinite
the cathode and anode are respectively :- dilution are 127 and 76 ohm –1 cm 2 eq –1
respectively. The equivalent conductivity of BaCl2
(1) H2, SO2 at infinity dilution (in ohm–1cm2eq–1) would be :-
(2) O2, NaOH (1) 203 (2) 279
(3) H2, O2 (3) 101.5 (4) 139.5
78. The conductivity of a saturated solution of CaF 2
(4) O2, SO2
at 25°C is 6 × 10–6 S.cm–1. The conductivity of
73. When an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is stirred with pure water is 2 × 10–6 S.cm–1. If m for Ca2+ and
a silver spoon then :- F– ions are 72 and 64 S.cm2.mol–1 then Ksp of CaF2
is :-
(1) Cu+ will be formed
(1) 4 × 10–10
+
(2) Ag will be formed
(2) 3.2 × 10–14
(3) Cu2+ will be deposited (3) 9.8 × 10–14
(4) None of these (4) 9 × 10–10
74. Zn can displace :- 79. Saturated solution of KNO3 with agar-agar is used
to make ‘salt bridge’ because :-
(1) Mg from its aqueous solution
(1) size of K+ is greater than that of NO3–
(2) Cu from its aqueous solution (2) velocity of NO3– is greater than that of K+
(3) velocities of K+ and NO3– are nearly the same
(3) Na from its aqueous solution
(4) both velocity and sizes of K+ and NO3– ions are
(4) Al from its aqueous solution same
80. Which of the following statements is correct about 85. Percentages of the free space in cubic close packed
Galvanic cell ? structure and is body centred packed structure are
respectively :-
(1) It converts chemical energy into electrical
energy. (1) 48% and 26%
(2) 30% and 26%
(2) It converts electrical energy into chemical
energy (3) 26% and 32%
(4) 32% and 48%
(3) It converts metal from its free state to the
combined state 86. When NaCl is dopped with 10–5 mole % of SrCl2,
what is the number of cationic vacancies ?
(4) It converts electrolyte into individual ions
(1) 10–5 × NA
81. The number of unit cells in 58.5 g of NaCl is (2) 10–7 × NA
nearly :-
(3) 2 × 10 –7 NA
(1) 6 × 1020 (4) None of these
22
(2) 3 × 10 87. CsBr has bcc type structure with edge length
4.3 pm. The shortest inter ionic distance in
(3) 1.5 × 1023
between Cs+ and Br– is :-
(4) 0.5 × 1024
(1) 3.72 pm
82. Sodium metal crystallizes as a body-centred cubic (2) 1.86 pm
lattice with the cell edge 4.29 Å. What is the radius (3) 7.44 pm
of sodium atom ?
(4) 4.3 pm
–8
(1) 1.857 × 10 cm 88. The composition of a sample of Wustite is Fe0.93O.
(2) 2.371 × 10 –7
cm What is the percentage of iron present as Fe3+ in
total iron ?
(3) 3.817 × 10–8 cm
(1) 15.05% (2) 25%
(4) 9.312 × 10–7 cm
(3) 35% (4) 45%
83. A crystal lattice with alternate +ve and –ve ions 89. In the spinel structure, oxides ions are cubical-closest
has radius ratio 0.524. The co-ordination number packed whereas 1/8th of tetrahedral voids are
of +ve ions is :- occupied by A2+ cation and 1/2 of octahedral voids
(1) 4 (2) 3 are occupied by B3+ cations. The general formula of
the compound having spinel structure is :-
(3) 6 (4) 12
(1) A2B2O4 (2) AB2O4
84. Which of the following compounds shows both (3) A2B4O2 (4) A4B2O2
Frenkel and Schottky defects ?
90. CaS exists in a cubic close packed arrangement
(1) NaCl of S2– ions in which Ca2+ ions occupy 1/2 of the
available tetrahedral holes. How many Ca2+ and
(2) AgCl
S2– ions are contained in the unit cell ?
(3) AgBr
(1) 1, 1 (2) 2, 4
(4) KCl (3) 4, 4 (4) 4, 2
TOPIC : Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health, Human Health & Diseases, Origin & Evolution, Digestion
& Absorption , “Ecology”, Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Morphology of Flowering Plant
91. Which is not an accessory reproductive gland in 96. In test tube baby programme, the embryo more
human male reproductive system? than 8 blastomeres is transferred to uterus, this is
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate gland called as:
(3) Bartholin gland (4) Cowper’s gland (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (3) IUT (4) ICSI
92. The second meiotic division during oogenesis 97. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD?
completes: (1) Lippes loop (2) Multiload 375
(1) Before birth (3) Progestasert (4) LNG-20
(2) Just after birth
98. LH surge in female occurs:
(3) At the time of puberty
(1) Just before implantation
(4) During fertilization
(2) Just before ovulation
93. Identify the hormones A, B, C and D from the
graph by observing their concentrations in blood (3) Just after ovulation
during the menstrual cycle of a female: (4) After the formation of corpus luteum
C 99. Which is not likely to be observed under the
D influence of estrogen hormone in females?
B
concentration
(1) Enlargement of breasts

Hormone
A
(2) High pitch sound
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 (3) Development of pubic hairs
Days
(4) Enlargement in pectoral region
A B C D 100. Identify the correct sequence of events during
reproductive cycle of human:
(1) FSH Progesterone Estrogen LH I. Parturition II. Fertilization
III. Gametogenesis IV. Gestation
(2) FSH Estrogen LH Progesterone
V. Implantation
(3) FSH LH Progesterone Estrogen Options:
(1) III, IV, V, II, I
(4) LH Estrogen Progesterone FSH (2) II, III, IV, V, I
(3) V, IV, II, I, III
94. What is the correct sequence of embryonic (4) III, II, V, IV, I
development ? 101. Select the incorrect match:
(1) Morula Blastula Gastrula (1) Tubectomy – Cutting of fallopian tubes
(2) Morula Gastrula Blastula (2) Vasectomy – Cutting of vas deferens
(3) Blastula Morula Gastrula (3) Oophorectomy – Removal of Uterus
(4) Gastrula Blastula Morula (4) Menarche – Beginning of menstrual cycle
95. Which of the following is not a natural method of 102. Which of the following is wrong?
contraception?
(1) Sertoli cells – Diploid cells
(1) Periodic abstinence
(2) Primary spermatocytes – Haploid cells
(2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Lactational amenorrhea (3) Leyding cells – Diploid cells
(4) Intra uterine devices (4) Spermatid – Haploid cells
103. Select the correct statement among the following: 112. Which of the following is correct ?
(1) Females have common pathway for urine and (1) Estrogen increases in luteal phase
menstrual flow (2) Graafian follicles rupture in luteal phase
(2) Testes are situated in scrotum for maintaining (3) Maximum level of progesteron is between 11th
the low temperature than body to 13th day of menstrual cycle
(3) Uterus is a paired structure found in human female (4) FSH maintain pregnancy
(4) Human Placental Lactogen is secreted mainly 113. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is:
by corpus luteum (1) Corpus cardiacum (2) corpus luteum
104. Secondary sex organ is (3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland
(1) Testis only (2) Ovary only 114. GnRH, is secreted by the :-
(3) Testis and ovary (4) Vas deferens (1) Anterior pituitary gland
105. Seminiferous tubules are composed of (2) Posterior pituitary gland
(1) Myo-epithelial cell (2) Glandular epithelium (3) Ovary
(3) Sensory epithelium (4) Germinal epithelium (4) Hypothalamus
106. Glans penis is covered by 115. Which of the following antibody found
(1) Areolar membrane (2) Prepuce congenitally in human which marks the presence
(3) Metrium (4) Hair of congenital Infection ?
107. Read the following statements :- (1) IgG (2) IgA (3) IgM (4) IgE
(a) Non-steroidal pill. 116. Which of the following cells makes the first contact
(b) Developed by CDRI with pathogen at the time of infection ?
Above statements refers to :- (1) Macrophage (2) T-helper
(1) Depo-provera (2) LNG-20 (3) B-cell (4) T-cytotoxic
(3) Mala-D (4) An antiestrogen drug 117. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
108. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is: disease ?
(1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus (1) Diabetes (type 1)
(3) Infundibulum (4) Cervix (2) Diabetes (type 2)
109. A change in the amout of yolk and its distribution (3) Myasthenia gravis
in the egg will affect :- (4) Multiple sclerosis
(1) Morulation (2) Blastulation 118. Which of the following is not a part of second
(3) Pattern of cleavage (4) Gastrulation line defence of our body ?
110. The signals for parturition originate from : (1) Acidic pH (2) Interferones
(1) Fully developed foetus only (3) Antibodies (4) NK cell
(2) Placenta only 119. Example of vector borne viral disease is/are ?
(3) Placenta as well as fully developed foetus (1) Chikungunya
(4) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary (2) Malaria
111. The correct sequence of spermatogenesis stages (3) Filariasis
leading to the formation of sperms in a mature (4) All of the above
human testis is :- 120. Which pyrogen is associated with malaria?
(1) Spermatogonia-Spermatid-Spermatocyte-Sperms (1) Hemozoin
(2) Spermatocyte-Spermatogonia-Spermatid-Sperms (2) Biliverdin
(3) Spermatogonia-Spermatocyte-Spermatid-Sperms (3) Hemoglobin
(4) Spermatid-Spermatocyte-Spermatogonia-Sperms (4) Plasmodium
121. Deficiency of ‘beta N-acetyl hexoseaminidase’ 130. The agriculture and human settlements started around:
leads to ? (1) 18000 years ago (2) 10000 years ago
(1) Albinism (3) 50000 years ago (4) 75000 years ago
(2) Infantile amourotic idiocy 131. Stellar distance is to be measured in what ?
(3) Multiple sclerosis (1) Light year (2) Knots
(4) Myasthenia gravis (3) Kilometers (4) All of these
122. Louis Pasteur’s experiment disproves the: 132. Identify what the given diragram indicates ?
(1) Big-bang theory Tasmanian wolf
(2) Theory of biogenesis
(3) Theory of abiogenesis
Australian
(4) Oparin-Haldane theory Koala Marsupial Rat
Marsupials
123. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
appearance of human ancestors? Kangaroo
I. Homo habilis II. Ramapithecus
(1) Convergent evolution
III. Homo erectus IV. Australopithecus
(2) Divergent evolution
Options :
(3) Recapitulation
(1) I, III, II, IV (2) I, II, III, IV
(4) Parallel evolution
(3) II, IV, I, III (4) IV, III, II, I
133. Which of the following was not explained by Darwin?
124. What is not true about evolution?
(1) Natural selection (2) Survival of fittest
(1) It is a directed process in the sense of determinism
(3) Arrival of fittest (4) Origin of species
(2) It is a stochastic process
Peak shifts in
(3) It is based on chance events in nature one direction
(4) It is based on chance mutations in organisms
Natural
125. The idea of mutation was brought forth by: 134. selection
(1) Charles Darwin (2) Hardy-Weinberg
(3) Hugo deVries (4) A. R. Wallace
This graph indicate which type of natural selection
126. The first life of on earth was:
(1) Directional (2) Stabilising
(1) Chemoautotrophic (2) Chemoheterotrophic
(3) Disruptive (4) Mutation
(3) Photoautotrophic (4) Mixotrophic
135. During evolution the animal which evolved in to the
127. The original variety of beak in Darwin’s finch was:
first amphibian that lived on both land and water were:-
(1) Seed-eating (2) Cactus-eating
(1) Sauropsids (2) Synapsids
(3) Insectivorous (4) Woodpecker
(3) Lobefins (4) Therapsids
128. Which is not a basic concept of Lamarckian theory?
136. First logical thory of organic evolution was given
(1) Inheritance of acquired characters
by which Naturalist :-
(2) Use and disuse of organs
(1) Darwin (2) Wallace
(3) Natural selection
(3) Lamarck (4) Hugo-de-Vries
(4) Internal vital force
137. Two key concepts of Darwinian theory of Natural
129. According to Darwin fitness is referred to:
selection are ?
(1) Physical fitness
(1) Branching descent and natural selection
(2) Mental fitness (2) Variation and natural selection
(3) Reproductive fitness (3) Compitition and reproductive isolation
(4) Social fitness (4) Mutation and natural selection
138. The essence of Darwin Theory about Evolution is? 148. Entero kinase is :-
(1) Mutation (2) Natural selection (1) Pancreatic hormone
(3) Compitition (4) Sexual reproduction (2) Intestinal hormone
139. Where is protein digestion accomplished by (3) Pancreatic enzyme
enzyme secreted by cheif cells :-
(4) component of intestinal juice
(1) Duodenum (2) Stomach
149. Father of Indian ecology is :-
(3) Jejunum (4) Ileum
(1) H. Reiter (2) R. Mishra
140. Dentine is secreated by :-
(3) Warming (4) E. Haeckel
(1) Chondrbolast cell (2) Ostebolast cell
150. Ecology is basically concerned with how many
(3) Osteoclast cell (4) Odontbolast cell
levels of organisation :-
141. Teeth which appears once in life are :-
(1) Three (2) Four
(1) 3rd molar (2) Incisor
(3) Two (4) One
(3) 2nd molar (4) Canines
151. Which is the correct order of ecological hierarchy ?
142. Auerbach’s nerveplexus initiates :-
(1) Biome Population Community Organism
(1) Secretion of glands
(2) Organism Biome Population Community
(2) Movement of vili
(3) Population Community Biome Organism
(3) Peristalsis
(4) Organism Population Community Biome
(4) Mastication
152. Natural selection operates at :-
143. Enteroendocrine cell secreats :-
(1) Organism Level
(1) Rennin (2) Heparin
(2) Population Level
(3) Histamine (4) HCl
(3) Community Level
144. Conversion of glycogen into glucose :-
(1) Glycogenesis (2) Glycogenolysis (4) Ecosystem Level
(3) Gluconeogenesis (4) glyconeogenesis 153. Which one of the following is one of the
characteristics of a biological community ?
145. Emulsification of fat is done by :-
(1) Sex Ratio (2) Stratification
(1) Bile salts (2) Bile pigments
(3) Natality (4) Mortality
(3) Saliva (4) Rennin
146. Enzyme nuclease occur in :- 154. The study of inter-relationship between an entire
community and its environment is :-
(1) Saliva (2) Pancreatic juice
(1) Autecology
(3) Intestinal juice (4) Gastric juice
(2) Synecology
147. Pepsin acts in :-
(3) Species ecology
(1) Basic medium
(4) Phytosociology
(2) Acidic medium
155. The basic unit of study in ecology is :-
(3) Neutral medium (1) Population (2) Organism
(4) All types of media (3) Community (4) Species
156. Ecology at the organism level is essentially ? 163. The phloem of gymnosperm differ from
(1) Physiological Ecology angiosperm in –
(1) Having phloem fibre
(2) Morphological Ecology
(2) Having phloem parenchyma
(3) Population Ecology (3) Having no companion cells
(4) Community Ecology (4) Having no sieve cells
157. Population connected by dispersing individuals is 164. Match the columns A, B and C, and choose the
called :- correct combination from the options given :-
(1) Demes (2) meta Population

Column A Column B Column C
(3) Community (4) (1) and (2)
158. A place where a plant or animal lives :- a Radial
i K Monocot
(1) Biome (2) Habitat stem
(3) Ecosystem (4) Community
159. What are bast fibres? b
ii Conjoint L Dicot
(1) Sclerenchyma occuring in phloem open stem
(2) Sclerenchyma occuring in xylem
(3) Ray of cells present in xylem
(4) Sclerenchyma present in radial bundles c iii Conjoint M Root
closed
160. Select the incorrect statement :
(1) Fascicular cambium and phellogen are (1) a-iii-M, b-ii-L, c-i-K
examples of lateral meristem (2) a-ii-M, b-iii-L, c-i-K
(2) Axillary bud develops from intercalary meristem (3) a-iii-K, b-ii-L, c-i-M
(3) In dicot root, phellogen develops from pericycle. (4) a-ii-K, b-iii-M, c-i-L
165. Which one of the following statements is correct:-
(4) Quiescent centre is found in root of maize
(1) Lateral roots are endogenous in origin
161. In the list given below how many tissue are
primary meristem? (2) Vascular bundles in roots are concentric
Summit, Protoderm, Phellogen, Phellem, (3) Monocot stem has well developed cortex
Procambium, Parenchyma, Dermatogen, Tunica. (4) Dicot roots do not have unicellular hair
(1) Seven (2) Five 166. Which one is/are not true ?
(3) Six (4) Three (a) Cork combium is called phellogen
162. Which of the following is not correct about the (b) Cork is called phellem
monocotyledonous stem? (c) Secondary cortex is called periderm
(1) Sclerenchymatous layers below the epidermis (d) Cork combium, cork and secondary cortex are
(2) Phloem parenchyma is absent collectively called phelloderm
(3) Ground tissue is absent (1) c and d only (2) a and b only
(4) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath (3) b and c only (4) b and d only
167. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct 172. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
combination from the options given :- answer using the codes given below the list :-
Column-I Column-II
List -I List -II
(a) Colocasia (i) Flattened stem (Family) (Character)
(b) Watermelon (ii) Stem thorn (A) Brassicaeae (i) epipetalous
stamens
(c) Opuntia (iii) Storage stem
(B) Liliaceae (ii) Spike of spikelets
(d) Euphorbia (iv) Stem tendril inflorescence
(e) Bougainvillea (v) Fleshy cylindrical stem (C) Poaceae (iii) Tetradynamous
stamens
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(D) Solanaceae (iv) Epiphyllous
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-iv
stamens
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-v, d-i, e-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-v, e-ii
168. Jack fruit is a multiple fruit formed from :- Code-
(1) Single ripened ovary (1) (A) -(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(2) Complete inflorescence
(3) Flower with many free carpels (2) (A) -(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) Flower with many partially fused carpels (3)(A) -(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
169. Which one is a modified leaf ?
(1) Pitcher of Nepenthes (4) (A) -(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(2) Tendril of Pisum sativum 173. The floral formula of Petunia is :-
(3) Spine of Cactus K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)
(1)
(4) All of the above
170. Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two- (2) K5 C5 A(5) G(2)
chambered due to the formation of false septum
in:- (3) K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)
(1) Tomato and lemon
(2) Mustard and Argemone (4) K(5) C(5) A(5) G(2)
(3) Dianthus and Primrose 174. Green parts of the plants could release oxygen in
(4) Sunflower and Marigold the presence of sun-light concluded by :-
171. Consider the following statements :- (1) J. Von Sachs
(i) Caryopsis is characteristic feature of Asteraceae (2) Joseph Priestley
(ii) Perianth are present in Liliaceae
(3) Jan Ingenhousz
(iii) Flowers are epigynous in Solanaceae
(4) Robert hill
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
175. Photosynthesis is :-
(1) (i) only (1) Endergonic, downhill process
(2) (ii) only (2) Uphill and catabolic process
(3) (i) and (ii) both (3) Physico-chemical and exergonic
(4) Redox and uphill process
(4) (ii) and (iii) both
176. First action spectrum of photosynthesis proposed by:- 179. Identify the mis-match :-
(1) J. Von Sachs (1) Chl-a – Blue green
(2) Stephan Hales (2) Chl-b – Yellow green
(3) Von Niel
(3) Xanthophyll – Yellow
(4) T.W. Engelmann
177. Which of the following mineral are structural (4) Carotene – Bright green
element of chlorophyll ? 180. A artificial hill reagent which become colourless
(1) Fe (2) Ca (3) Mg (4) K on reduction ?
178. Site of light reaction of photosynthesis is :- (1) NADP +
(1) Stroma (2) Benzoquinone
(2) Grana
(3) DCPIP
(3) Outer membrane
(4) Intermembrane space (4) Chromate
QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST

(06) FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2019 - 2020)
LEADER COURSE : PHASE-III : MLH

MINOR PREVIOUS SYLLABUS
CURRENT
TEST NO. &
UNIT PREVIOUS UNIT FROM TOPIC
DATE
THERMAL PHYSICS RAHUL RATHEE SIR
05 P
06 CIRCULAR MOTION IMRAN KHAN SIR
(Syllbus Covered
06 (Syllbus Covered SOLUTION & CHEMICAL
In Minor test C DHARAM S. SOLANKI SIR
03-11-19 During 07-10-2019 EQUILIBRIUM
Dated
to 02-11-2019) BHUPESH KR. RATHORE
06-10-2019) B HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASE
SIR

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Read carefully the following instructions :
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3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.
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7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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Test Pattern

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2

(1) The fringes will disappear

Leader - MLH 1015CMD303319021

(1) 0.15 m (2) 0.12 m

(1) 9680 N (2) 11000 N

45. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of

(1) 15 kg (2) 5 kg (1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1

(3) 10 kg (4) 0 kg (3) 30 ms–1 (4) 5 ms–1

(1) +2 (2) +3 (3) Ca2+ (4) Al3+

(1) Enlargement of breasts

(1) Demes (2) meta Population

QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST

LEADER COURSE : PHASE-III : MLH

Leader - MLH 1015CMD303319021

Leader - MLH 1015CMD303319021

Leader - MLH 1015CMD303319021

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

Leader - MLH 1015CMD303319021

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