Micro-20

Physiology-30

Ortho-30

ANA-30

Psych=20

General=10

Path=20

Eletro=20

Sociology=20

1. 23. How would you distinguish pseudomonas

species from E-cloi?
a. Gram staining
b. Morphology
c. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration
d. All of the above
C
2. 27. The anthrax disease is most frequently
infected from
a. Cattle b. Sheeps
c. Rats d. Both a and b
D
3. 25. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively
used in production of
a. Avirulent phases
b. Single cell proteins
c. Transgenic plants
d. Nitrogen fixing bacteria
C
4. 26. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria
are
a. Fungi b. Commensels
c. Bacteriophages d. None of these
C
5. 30. The pigment present in red algae is
a. Rhodochrome
b. Fucoxanthin
c. Chlorophyll only
d. Chlorophyll + phycobilin
 D
6. 51. Cows can digest straw because they contain
a. Cellulose hydrolyzing microorganisms
b. Protein hydrolyzing bacteria
c. Lipid hydrolyzing microorganisms
d. Amino acid degrading bacteria
A
7. 155. Shape of bacteriophage is
a. Brick shape b. Bullet shape
c. Helical shape d. Tadpole shape
D
8. 31. Lyophilization means
a. Sterilization
b. Freeze-drying
c. Burning to ashes
d. Exposure to formation
B
9. 33. Phenol co-efficient indicates
a. Efficiency of a disinfectant
b. Dilution of a disinfectant
c. Purity of a disinfectant
d. Quantity of a disinfectant
A
10. 37. Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is
known as
a. Pathogenicity b. Attenuation
c. Exaltation d. Toxigenicity
C
11. 70. Non-lactose fermenting colonies seen on
Mac Conkey’s medium are
a. Salmonella typhi
b. Escherichia coli
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Shigella shigae
A
12. 92. Match the following tests with their
respective applications A to E:
1. Schick test A. Tuberculosis
2. Mantoux test B. Detection of extraneous
microorganisms
3. Sterility test C. Diphtheria toxin
4. Potency test D. Detection of infection caused
by Rickettsia prowazeki
E. Usefulness of immunological
Products
92. 1.c, 2.a, 3.b, 4.e
13. 89. For sterilization of fermentation
equipment the method followed is
a. Radiation b. Chemicals
c. Heating d. All of these
D
14. 37. The following are used for the
preservation of virus, except
a. Freezing (–20°C–70°C)
b. Lyophilization
c. Ether
 d. Formaldehyde
C
15. 38. Antibody formation depends on
a. Age of the person
b. Amount of antigen
c. Well being of the person
d. All of the above
D
16. 61. Antigen-antibody reactions are
a. Reversible b. Irreversible
c. Specific d. Both a and b
D
17. 62. Serological reactions are useful for
a. Detection of antigens
b. Detection of antibodies
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
C
18. 29. Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood
b. Toxin in blood
c. Pus in blood
d. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
D
19. 30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these
C
20. 72. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
a. Refampicin, Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
C
21. 17. Capacitation occurs in
a) Uterus
b) Seminal vesicle
c) Epididymis
d) Vas deferens
a

22. 18. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is
a) Raised blood pressure
b) Vasodilatation due to local metabolites
c) Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
d) Increased heart rate
B
23. 19. Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by
a) Chief cells
b) Parietal cells
c) Mucus cells
d) B cells
B
24. 20. Somatomedin mediates
a) Deposition of chondroitin sulphate
b) Lipolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells
A
25. 21. Hyperaldosteronism associated with all except
a) Hypernatremia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypertension
d) Metabolic acidosis
D
26. 22. Spinocerebellar tract – Function is
a) Equilibrium
b) Vision
c) Initiation & planning of movements
d) Smoothens & co-ordinates mvt
D
27. 23. Chemotaxis – Main feature is
a) Unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils
b) Increase in phagocytosis
c) Increased random motion of neutrophils
d) Increased adhesiveness to intima
A
28. 16. Appetite is stimulated by A/E
a) Agouti related peptide
b) Melanocyte concentrating hormone
c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
d) Neuropeptide Y
C
29. 8. What is the name of the lobe of the brain that is immediately superior to the
cerebellum?
A. dorsal
B. occipital
C. posterior
D. parietal
Answer is B: The cerebellum nestles into the cerebrum immediately inferior to
the occipital lobe.
30. 7. In which of the following places would you NOT fi nd cerebrospinal fl uid?
A. the sub-arachnoid space
B. the third ventricle of the brain
C. the epidural space
D. the central canal of the spinal cord
Answer is C: The epidural space surrounds the dura mater of the spinal cord
and so is outside of the meninges and of the CNS. “Epi-” means on top of the
dura.

31. 6. Which statement about efferent impulses in the spinal cord is correct?
A. They travel along the spino-thalamic and spino-cerebellar tracts.
B. They pass along tracts that are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
C. The nerve cells that they travel through have their cell bodies located in the
dorsal root ganglia.
D. The axons carrying these impulses pass through the ventral root of the spinal
nerves.
Answer is D: Efferent impulses are motor impulses so leave the spinal cord via
the ventral roots. “Spino-thalamic” means from spine to thalamus, i.e. ascending
 or sensory. Tracts are white matter not gray. Sensory neurons have their cell
bodies in the dorsal root ganglia.
32. 5. Which one of the following parts of the nervous system carries impulses
towards the brain?
A. peripheral nervous system
B. somatic nervous system
C. autonomic nervous system
D. parasympathetic division
Answer is A: The peripheral NS delivers sensory information to CNS as well
as carrying motor commands from CNS to peripheral tissues. The somatic NS
is part of the efferent division (carrying impulses away from the brain) of the
peripheral NS. The autonomic (and parasympathetic division) carry efferent
impulses.

33. 5. What does it mean when the concentration of dissolved oxygen in blood is 100
mmHg?
A. the oxygen dissolved in blood exerts a pressure of 100 mmHg over and
above the blood pressure generated by the heart.
B. 100 mmHg of the blood pressure, is due to the dissolved oxygen within it.
C. the blood had been exposed to air in the lungs that contained oxygen at a
partial pressure of 100 mmHg.
D. the dissolved oxygen exerts an osmotic pressure of 100 mmHg.
Answer is C: The concentration of a gas dissolved in water is expressed in
terms of the partial pressure of that gas in the mixture of gases that were in
contact with the water. Gas will continue to dissolve until the water is saturated.
At this point we say that the concentration of dissolved gas is the same as the
partial pressure of that gas in the atmosphere in contact with the water. The
same units, mmHg are used.
34. 4. When the diaphragm contracts which of the following will happen in the lungs?
A. air pressure will increase, volume will decrease and exhalation will occur.
B. air pressure will decrease, volume will increase and exhalation will occur.
C. air pressure will decrease, volume will increase and inhalation will occur.
D. air pressure will increase, volume will increase and inhalation will occur.
Answer is C: Contracting the diaphragm will increase the volume of the lungs,
which will decrease the pressure of the contained air. Consequently air from the
room will be pushed into the lungs (inhalation occurs).

35. 10. Boyle’s law may be stated: Provided that the temperature does not change, the
volume of a fi xed amount of gas decreases as its pressure increases (and vice
versa). Which statement concerning the pressure of the air in the lungs is consistent
with Boyle’s law?
A. It will decrease as the chest expands.
B. It decreases as we breathe out.
C. It increases when we contract our diaphragm.
D. It decreases as our intercostal muscles relax.
Answer is A: As the chest expands, its volume will increase. This means that
the pressure of the contained air will decrease in line with Boyle’s law.
36. 3. What is the function of the cilia on the cells that line the bronchial tree?
A. They help mix the inhaled fresh air with the residual air contained in the
bronchial tree.
B. They slow the movement of air to allow for effi cient exchange of gases.
C. They move the mucus on the cell surface up out of the bronchial tree.
D. They fi lter particles from inhaled air.
Answer is C: The beating of the cilia moves mucus lying on the surface of the
epithelium of the conducting zone, and any contained dust, up out of the bronchial
 tree.
37. 2. Which anatomical structures does the “conducting zone” of the lower respiratory
tract contain?
A. Eustachian tube, larynx and trachea.
B. Primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi and bronchioles.
C. Nares, conchae, olfactory mucosa and sinuses.
D. Nasopharynx and larynx.
Answer is B: The conducting zone is distal to the trachea and before the
alveoli.

38. 5. What is a “trochanter”?

A. part of a femur
B. a feature of the pelvis
C. a projection that forms part of an articulation
D. a groove in which lies a tendon
Answer is A: the “greater” trochanter is a bone marking (a bump) that lies on
the lateral surface of the proximal femur, while the “lesser” trochanter lies on
the medial surface of the proximal femur.
39. 4. Which bone is most superior?
A. manubrium
B. occipital bone
C. cervical vertebra #3
D. patella
Answer is B: The occipital bone forms the base of the skull so is above (superior)
to all the others when the body is in the anatomical position.

40. 8. Which of the following describes the movements known as pronation and
supination?
A. The fl exing of the arm with respect to the forearm around the elbow.
B. The swivelling of the foot to the medial and lateral directions.
C. The twisting of the wrist while the elbow is held motionless.
D. The rotation at the shoulder that causes the arm to describe a cone shape.
Answer is C: Pronation occurs when the radius is moved from a position parallel
to the ulna to one where it crosses over the ulna and supination is the return
motion (may be thought of as the action we perform when turning off a wallmounted
tap).
41. 7. Where do osteocytes reside?
A. In lamellae
B. In endosteum
C. In trabeculae
D. In lacunae
Answer is D: Lacunae are the spaces within the lamellae of an osteon which are
occupied by a bone cell (osteocyte).

42. 11. Which of the events below is the FIRST to occur prior to a muscle cell
contracting?
A. ATP binds to myosin.
B. ADP detaches from myosin.
C. the active site on actin is exposed.
D. Ca ++ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Answer is D: The release of Ca from where it is stored (in the SR) is necessary
before the active binding site of actin can be exposed.
43. 19. Which protein(s) are found in thin myofi laments?
A. actin
B. actin and tropomyosin
 C. actin, tropomyosin, and troponin
D. actin, myosin, tropomyosin and troponin
Answer is C: Actin is the major component of a thin fi lament. Tropomyosin
covers the biding site, while troponin provides the mechanism for removing
tropomyosin from the binding site.
44. 18. By what name is something that attaches a bone to another bone known?
A. aponeurosis
B. sarcomere
C. ligament
D. tendon
Answer is C: Ligament is the “ligature” that join articulating bones. A tendon
(or an aponeurosis) attaches a muscle to a bone.

45. 9. Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a

wide variety of molecules?
A. Lysosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Centrosomes
D. Golgi complex
Answer is A: the prefi x “lyso-” refers to the ability to dissolve or destroy molecules
or cells.
46. 12. One of the following is NOT a serous membrane. Which one?
A. pleura
B. peritoneum
C. mucosa
D. pericardium
Answer is C: mucosa is a mucus membrane (& secretes mucus)
47. 18. Which of the following is NOT a cell found in connective tissue?
A. adipocytes
B. chondroblasts
C. keratinocytes
D. osteoblasts
Answer is C: Keratinocytes are in the epidermis which is epithelial tissue. The
other cell types occur in fat, cartilage and bone.
48. 17. The dorsal body cavity contains which of the following organs?
A. The brain.
B. The brain and spinal cord.
c. The brain, spinal cord and heart.
D. The brain, spinal cord, heart and kidneys.
Answer is B: Dorsal refers to the back and is opposite to ventral. Only the brain
and spinal cord occupy the dorsal cavity. All other answers are incorrect.
49. 16. Complete the sentence correctly: “Cervical vertebrae are……
A. superior to the rib cage.
B. inferior to the thoracic vertebrae.
C. located between the thoracic and sacral vertebrae.
D. fused into a single bone called the sacrum.
Answer is A: cervix refers to “neck”. The cervical vertebrae are in the neck
hence are above (superior) to the rib cage.

50. 23. Which of the following terms is NOT used to identify a region of the
abdomen?
A. left hypochondriac
B. hypogastric
C. epigastric
D. right sacral
 Answer is D: Right sacral is not a region on the anterior surface of the
abdomen.
51.

B
52.

E
53.

54.

55.
56.

C
57.

C
58.

A
59.

B
60. 130 - which bone tumor occurs in the epiphysis ?

a- osteoclastoma
b- ewing's sarcoma
c- chondromyxoid fibroma
d- osteosarcoma

answer is a . osteoclastoma . the two tumors which occur in the epiphysis

are osteoclastoma and chodroblastoma .
61. 131 - Paget's disease of bone

(a) May present with neurological complications or a pathological

fracture
(b) Causes an increase in both serum calcium and phosphate
(c) Causes an increase in serum alkaline phosphatase
(d) Malignant change occurs in 1% of patients
(e) The commonest malignant tumour in patients with Paget's disease is
a chondrosarcoma

-----------------------------------

b and e are false . Paget's disease was first described as 'osteitis

deformans' by Sir James Paget in 1877. It is often asymptomatic and an
 incidental finding seen during radiological investigations. If
symptomatic it presents with bone pain, neurological symptoms or a
pathological fracture. In those patients who develop malignant change
50% are osteosarcomas, 25% fibrosarcomas and 25% giant-cell tumours.
The median survival following malignant change is less than one year.
62. 133. Perthe's disease

(a) Usually presents before 10 years of age

(b) Is due to avascular necrosis of the distal femoral epiphysis
(c) Is more common in girls
(d) Plain x-ray may show the capital femoral epiphysis to be smaller,
denser and flatter
(e) May require surgical containment with a subtrochanteric osteotomy

----------------------------------------

a , d , e are true . Perthe's disease is due to avascular necrosis of the

capital femoral epiphysis. It presents with hip pain and a limp usually
before the age of 10 years. The male to female ratio is 4:1. X-rays shows
the capital femoral eiphysis to be small, dense and flattened. A bone scan
shows a cold spot within the epiphysis.
63. 135. Regarding osteomyelitis

(a) Is most commonly due to a staphylococcus aureus infection

(b) Can be due to salmonella infection in patients with sickle cell
anaemia
(c) Infection usually involves the metaphysis of long bones
(d) Dead bone within the medullary canal is known as the involucrum
(e) New bone forming beneath the periosteum is known a the
sequestrum

---------------------------------------------

a , b , c are true . Osteomyelitis is usually due to staphylococcus aureus

infection. Streptococcus pyogenes, Haemophilis influenza and gram-
negative organisms can also infect bone. In children the infection is
usually aquired by haematogenous spread to the metaphysis of long
bones. The dead bone within the medullary canal is the sequestrum. New
subperiosteal bone formation is the involucrum.
64. 31 - housemaids knee is inflammation of which bursa?

a- subpatellar
b- suprapatellar
c- infrapatellar
d- pre patellar

answer is d. pre- patellar bursitis .

65. 32 - bone growth is influenced maximally by ?

a- estrogen
b- thyroxine
c- growth hormone
d- testesterone

answer is c.
 -----------------------------------------------------------------------------

66. 33 - albert schonberg disease is also called as ?

a - osteoporosis
b- osteodystrophy
c- osteopetrosis
d- osteitis punctata

answer is c . OSTEOPETROSIS
67. 34 - trident hand is seen in

a- achondroplasia
b- scurvy
c- mucopolysaccaridosis
d- none

answer is a .

----------------------------------------------------------------------------

68. 36 - ganglion is most commonly seen over ?

a- dorsal aspect of wrist

b- volar aspect of wrist
c- over forehead
d- dorsum of the tongue

answer is a.

69. 35 - rocker bottom foot is seen in?

a- congenital vertical talus

b- CTEV over correction
c- grice procedure

both a and b are right .

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

70.
74 - turn - o - plasty is used in the treatment of which of the following
tumors ?

a- osteosarcoma
b- osteoclastoma
c- osteochondroma
d- osteoblastoma
e- chondrosarcoma

answer is b . osteoclastoma also called as GIANT CELL TUMOR .

 treatment options of osteoclastoma are:

a- curettage with bone grafting

b- curettage with bone cementing
c- curretage with cryotherapy
d- excision followed by bone grafting or turn o plasty or custom made
prosthetic replacement .

71. 73 - which of the following is not the cause of osteoporosis ?

a- corticosteroids
b- alcohol
c- heparin
d- oestrogen therapy

answer is d .

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

72. 75 - positivity of rheumatoid factor in patients with rheumatoid arthritis

?

a- 70 %
b- 80 %
c- 90 %
d- 100 %

answer is b . 80 %

73. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

76 - most common site of spinal TB ?

a- cervico thoracic
b- thoraco lumbar
c- lumbosacralQuestion 161

A clinical study is performed with subjects who have been diagnosed

with a primary bone lesion. The demographic data for these subjects is
analyzed. Which of the following bone diseases is most likely to be found
to have a female predominance?

A Aneurysmal bone cyst

B Osteosarcoma

C Chondrosarcoma

D Ewing sarcoma

E Osteochondroma

---------------------------------------

(A) CORRECT. Most bone lesions (and the worst ones) have a male
 predominance.

(B) Incorrect. Primary malignant tumors of bone have a male

predominance.
(C) Incorrect. Primary malignant tumors of bone have a male
predominance.
(D) Incorrect. Primary malignant tumors of bone have a male
predominance.
(E) Incorrect. Primary malignant tumors of bone have a male
predominance.

----------------------------
d- sacro coccygeal

answer is b . thoraco lumbar

74. Question 163

Over the past 4 days, an 18-year-old man has developed marked pain and
swelling in his right hip that makes movement difficult. He has no
history of major medical problems. On physical examination there is
pain on movement with diminished range of motion of the hip. A joint
aspirate from the hip reveals cloudy fluid that on microscopic
examination shows numerous neutrophils but no crystals. Which of the
following conditions is most likely to have preceded development of his
hip problem?

A Gonococcal urethritis

B Sickle cell anemia

C Rheumatoid arthritis

D Systemic lupus erythematosus

E Erythema chronicum migrans

---------------------------------------------------------

(A) CORRECT. Neisseria gonorrheae infection can produce an acute

arthritis. A gram stain of a joint aspirate may show many neutrophils
with intracellular gram-negative diplococci.

(B) Incorrect. Sickle cell anemia may be associated with osteomyelitis

due to Salmonella organisms, but this is rare.
(C) Incorrect. Small joints (such as the hand) are more likely to be
involved than large joints (such as the hip) with rheumatoid arthritis.
There is proliferative synovitis with lymphocytes and plasma cells.
(D) Incorrect. Autoimmune diseases such as systemic lupus
erythematosus are often associated with arthralgias, but there is
minimal actual joint inflammation and typically no deformity.
(E) Incorrect. The arthritis of Lyme disease is often seen in stages II or
III and is not typically purulent.
75. 81) Disc Prolapse is Common in

a. L4, L5,
 b. L5, S1

c. T12, L1

d. S1, S2

Answer : (a) L4 – L5

76. 82) Most common complication of Extra Capsular Fracture in a

female patient aged 30 years is

a. Malunion

b. Non Union

c. Fracture of Radius

d. None of the above

Answer : (a) Malunion

77. 86) Common Complication of Septic Arthritis of Hip is

a. Hypermobile Joint

b. Bony Ankylosis

c. Both

d. None

Answer : (b) Bony Ankylosis

78. 87) Treatment for Congenital Dislocation of Hip in a 3-6 Month child

a. Von Rosen’s Splint

b. Surgical Reduction

c. Pavlik harness

d. None of the above

Answer : (a) Von Rosen’s Splint

79. 88) Posterior Dislocation Of HIP-

a. Adduction,

b. Flexion,

c. Internal Roatation,

d. All of the above

Answer : (d) All of the above

80.

A
81. 10. The ischiorectal fossa is bounded directly by:
A The rectum and ischium
B Obturator internus fascia and rectum
C Levator ani and obturator internus fascia
D Ischium and sacrum
E None of the above
C
82. 11. Location of sphincter urethrae:
A Superficial perineal pouch
B Deep perineal pouch
C Ischiorectal fossa
D Above the prostate gland
B
83. 12. The internal iliac lymph nodes receive lymph from:
A Body of uterus
B Cervix of uterus
C Prostate
D Rectum
E All of the above
E
84. 14. Nodes receiving lymph from the testis:
A External iliac
B Internal iliac
C Superficial inguinal
D Presacral
E Para-aortic
E
85. 13. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes receive lymph from:
A Anal canal
B Vagina
C Lower abdominal wall
D Rectum
E All of the above
E
86. In the postnatal period the greatest growth in the grey matter
of the CNS is of:
A Nerve cell numbers
B Length of axonal processes
 C Dendritic trees
D Size of perikarya
E None of the above
4
87. 10. The subarachnoid space reaches to vertebral level:
A T12orL1
B L1 or L2
C L4orL5
D S2
E Tip of coccyx
D
88. 11. A disc prolapse at L5 level, in the usual position of extrusion,
may compress:
A L3,4 and 5 nerve roots
B L4 roots
C L5 roots
D S1 roots
E All the above
D
89. 17. Axons from the nucleus ambiguus innervate muscles of the:
A Eye
B Tongue
C Larynx
D Ear
E Jaws
C
90. 18. A classical sign of cerebellar disease:
A Rigidity
B Short, shuffling gait
C Loss of 'joint sense'
D Spasticity
E Intention tremor
E
91. 9. The azygos vein:
A Carries blood from the oesophagus
B Arches directly over the inferior lobe bronchus
C Passes between the vagus and the trachea
D Joins the superior vena cava behind the first costal
cartilage
E None of the above
A
92. 12. The number of pulmonary veins entering the left atrium is
normally:
A One
B Two
C Four
D Six
E Eight
C
93. The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of
numbered words or phrases. For each numbered word or phrase
select the correct answer under:
A If the item is associated with A only
B If the item is associated with B only
C If the item is associated with both A and B
D If the item is associated with neither A nor B
A Right lung
B Left lung
C Both
D Neither
17. Attached by ligaments to chest wall
 18. An oblique fissure is present
19. Impressed by azygos vein
20. Four broncho-pulmonary segments present in the upper
lobe
21. Related to lower thoracic oesophagus

17. D
18. C
19. A
20. D
21. B
22. C
94. A Sinuatrial node
B Atrioventricular node
C Both
D Neither

26. Composed of muscle fibres

27. Close to superior vena caval opening into right atrium
28. Initiates the heart beat
29. Receive(s) postganglionic fibres from the vagus
30. Give(s) rise to Purkinje fibres
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. C
30. B
95. Directions: In the following series of questions, one or more of
the four items is/are correct.
Answer A if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if 1 and 3 are correct
C if 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
and E if all four are correct
36. The mammary gland receives arterial supply from the:
1. Circumflex humeral
2. Intercostal
3. Subclavian
4. Internal thoracic
C
96. 37. The lower aperture of the thorax is formed by the:
1. Lower costal cartilages
2. Twelfth rib
3. Xyphoid process
4. Body of twelfth thoracic vertebra
E
97. In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think
each statement is True or False:
At the lung root:
46. The left bronchus enters the lung before dividing
47. The hilar (bronchopulmonary) lymph nodes drain the
entire lung
48. The bronchial arteries end in this region
49. One pulmonary vein emerges from each lung
50. The phrenic nerves descend posteriorly
46. T
47. T
48. F
49. F
50. F
98. The breast:
 51. Is connected to skin and deep fascia by fibrous bands
52. Lymphatics drain entirely into the axilla
53. Frequently extends a 'tail' into the axilla
54. Left nipple is usually a little lower than right nipple
55. Accessory nipples may appear on the abdominal skin
51 T
52. F
53. T
54. T
55. T
99. 6. The thyroid gland is enveloped in:
A Investing fascia of the neck
B Prevertebral fascia
C Pretracheal fascia
D Superficial fascia
E None of the above
C
100. 7. The cricoid cartilage is at the vertebral level of:
A C2
B C4
C C6
D T1
E T3
C
101. 8. Anterior relation(s) of scalenus anterior:
A Subclavian vein
B Phrenic nerve
C Brachial plexus
D Subclavian artery
E Two of the above
E
102. 20. A muscle which elevates and retracts the mandible:
A Masseter
B Temporalis
C Medial pterygoid
D Lateral pterygoid
E Digastric
B
103. 24. The following muscle assists the tongue in keeping food
between the upper and lower molar teeth during
mastication:
A Masseter
B Temporalis
C Orbicularis oris
D Buccinator
E Risorius
D
104. 25. A structure passing deep to the hyoglossus muscle:
A Hypoglossal nerve
B Mylohyloid nerve
C Submandibular duct
D Lingual nerve
E None of the above
E
105. 33. The bony part of the nasal septum contains:
A Perpendicular plate of ethmoid and vomer
B Perpendicular plate of palatine and vomer
C Perpendicular plate of palatine, vomer, and
perpendicular plate of ethmoid
D Perpendicular plate of palatine, vomer, palatine
crest of maxilla
 E Perpendicular plate of vomer, palatine, rostrum of
Sphenoid
A
106. 11. The anterior limit of the normal spleen is represented by the:
A Posterior axillary line
B Midaxillary line
C Anterior axillary line
D Mid-clavicular line
E Linea semilunaris
B
107. 14. A branch of the hepatic artery:
A Cystic
B Left gastric
C Splenic
D Gastrohepatic
E Oesophageal
A
108. 21. The normal number of segments in the kidney is:
A Three
B Five
C Seven
D Ten
E Twenty
B
109. 22. Behind the kidney:
A Quadratus lumborum
B Twelfth rib
C Subcostal nerve
D Diaphragm
E All of the above
E
110. The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of
numbered words or phrases. For each numbered word or phrase
select the correct answer under:
A If the item is associated with A only
B If the item is associated with B only
C If the item is associated with both A and B
D If the item is associated with neither A nor B
A Liver
B Spleen
C Both
D Neither
36. Attached to the diaphragm by peritoneal reflections
37. Venous drainage to inferior vena cava
38. Part of stomach bed
39. Arterial supply via coeliac artery
40. Invested by peritoneum of greater sac
36. A
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. C
41. C
111. 5. Which of the following is not a function of educational psychology?

(a) To discover techniques by means of which educational goals can be

attained effectively
 (b) To define the goals for which education is to strive

(c) To promote a greater understanding of the learning process

(d) To promote a greater understanding of the learner.

B
112. 8. Logos means knowledge and Psyche means

(a) Soul.

(b) Mind,

(c) Consciousness,

(d) Behaviour.

a
113. 10. The function and structure of nervous system includes

(a) A.N.S. only.

(b) P.N.S. &A.N.S.

(c) C.N.S.&P.N.

(d) Only P.N.S.

c
114. 17. Experience has shown that the most feasible plan for utilizing

occupational orientation programme broadcast by radio is

(a) The recording of the programme for inter-communication playback.

(b) The direct hook-up of the programme with all class-room radios.

(c) The assignment of pupils to listen to and report on the programme.

(d) The bringing of pupils to listen to a direct hook-up in assembly.

 .

a
115. 18. In making occupational field-trips, the pupils should

(a) Be accompanied by the teacher at all times.

(b) Be prepared to ask questions from their guide.

(c) Discuss their visits upon returning to school.

(d) All of these

d
116. 44. The socialization of an individual also depends on the manner in

which he perceives

(a) Objective qualities.

(b) Situation.

(c) Attitude.

(d) Variables.

b
117.

A
118.

C
119.

C
120. 2. Piaget’s stage for infancy is:
a. Concrete operations b. Formal operation c. Preoperational thought d.
Sensory motor thoughts
d
121. 5. An affective disorder in which a person swings from one mood extreme to
another is classified as:
a. Manic b. Depressive c. Unipolar d. Bipolar
d
122. The ability to learn by observing a model or receiving instructions, without
reinforcement, is called_____
a. Cognitive learning b. Contingency c. Social learning d. Instrumental
learning
c
123. According to Piaget the process of building mental representation of the
world through direct interaction with it is:
a. Adaptation b. Egocentrism c. Metacognition d. Conservation
A
124.

a
125.

d
126.

b
127.

c
128.

b
129.

C
130.

C
131. 11. Which ONE of the following is not an acceptable characteristic of a
granuloma.
A. Composed of altered macrophages.
B. Composed of fused macrophages (giant cells).
C. Composed of epithelioid cells.
D. Composed of a mixture of chronic inflammatory cells.
E. Composed of polymorphonuclear leucocytes, cellular debris and fibrin.
The answer is E. Composed of polymorphonuclear leucocytes, cellular debris
and
fibrin - This is a description of pus as would be found in an abscess.
Polymorphonuclear
leucocytes and nuclear debris can be found in a true granuloma if there is a
focus of
suppuration: an infective granuloma.
The definition of 'granuloma' is controversial; it may be used to mean a
chronic
inflammatory lesion forming a tissue mass or it may be restricted to a lesion
 composed of
macrophages or even of altered macrophages (epithelioid cells).
132. 28. Which ONE of the following is not a feature of interferons?
A. Imparts resistance to virus infection.
B. Inhibits virtually all viruses.
C. Released from cells in response to virus infection.
D. Species specific cellular protein.
E. Virus specific antiviral effect.
The answer is E. The production of interferons is induced in host cells by
virus; the
interferons are not specific, but are an important host defence mechanism
against virus
infection. They act by inhibiting translation of viral mRNA by host cells.
133. 31. The pathogenicity of the tubercle bacillus is due to which ONE of the
following?
A. Ability to multiply within macrophages.
B. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction against the bacteria.
C. Direct toxic effect on host cells.
D. Effective antibody response.
E. Necrosis caused by expanding granulomas.
The answer is B. Mycobacteria stimulate a specific T-cell response of cell
mediated
immunity; while this is effective in reducing the infection the delayed
hypersensitivity
reaction also damages the tissues. The tubercle bacilli have no demonstrable
direct toxic
action (C) and can survive within macrophages (A). This may account for
latent infections
and reactivation of tuberculosis. There is no significant humoral response to
tubercle bacilli
(D). Necrosis occurs in tuberculosis, but it is usually within the granuloma
(E).
134. 37. If the following events were placed in chronological order which would
come
fourth?
A. Cholecystectomy.
B. Deep venous thrombosis.
C. Embolization.
D. Pulmonary infarction.
E. Stasis in calf veins.
The answer is C. During surgery and post operatively (A) stasis occurs in the
deep
veins in the calves (E) resulting in thrombosis (B); fragments of thrombus
break off into the
circulation (C), plug the pulmonary arteries and cause infarction (D). A
significant number
 of emboli come from thrombosis of pelvic veins.
135. 42. Which ONE of the following is not a feature of amyloid?
A. Extracellular fibrillar material.
B. Filaments of 75 nm diameter.
C. Intracellular protein.
D. Present initially in the wall of small blood vessels.
E. Shows red-green birefringence when stained with Congo Red.
The answer is C. Amyloid is an extracellular substance (A) consisting of
fibrillar
material with a characteristic ultrastructural appearance (B). It is seen initially
in the walls of
small blood vessels (D) in relation to the basement membrane. The most
specific histological
reaction is the red-green birefringence seen with Congo Red and polarized
light microscopy
(E).
136. 45. Which ONE of the following does not predispose to dystrophic
calcification?
A. Active phagocytosis of debris.
B. Fat necrosis.
C. Hyaline change in fibrous tissue.
D. Inspissated material in salivary ducts.
E. Venous thrombosis.
The answer is A. Rapid removal of tissue debris, necrotic material etc. would
not
allow dystrophic calcification to occur. The others all result in the local
factors likely to result
in calcification (fat necrosis, hyaline change in fibrous tissue, inspissated
material in salivary
ducts, venous thrombosis).
137. 48. In which ONE of the following animal species does an experimental
model for
bladder carcinogenesis by 2-naphthylamine exist?
A. Cat.
B. Dog.
C. Mouse.
D. Rat.
E. Syrian Golden Hamster.
The answer is B. Epidemiological evidence implicated 2-naphthylamine as a
potential
bladder carcinogen in the aniline dye industry; only dogs and man convert the
noncarcinogenic
2-naphthylamine to carcinogenic 1-hydroxy-2-naphthylamine in the kidney.
This carcinogen is concentrated in the urine and can induce urothelial
tumours.
138. 51. Which ONE of the following is not associated with EB virus infection?
 A. Burkitt's lymphoma.
B. Carcinoma of the cervix uteri.
C. Infectious mononucleosis.
D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
E. No clinical symptoms.
The answer is B. Carcinoma of the uterine cervix is associated with infection
by
another DNA virus (herpes simplex type 2). Burkitt's lymphoma (A) is caused
by EB virus
which infects B-lymphocytes and occurs in areas where malaria is endemic
causing depression
of T-cell function.
Infectious mononucleosis (C) is a febrile illness with lymphadenopathy
caused by EB
virus infection in which there is a vigorous T-cell response; presumably
eliminating the
transformed B-cells.
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma occurs particularly in China, the tumour cells
contain
integrated EB virus DNA (D). The majority of people have no detectable
clinical illness when
infected by EB virus (E).
139. 62. If the following events were placed in chronological order which would
come
fourth?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy.
B. Occlusion of right coronary artery.
C. Pyelonephritis.
D. Rupture of left ventricle.
E. Systemic hypertension.
The answer is B. Chronic pyelonephritis (C) result in systemic hypertension
(E) with
left ventricular hypertrophy (A); hypertension is associated with increased
risk of atheroma
and thrombotic occlusion of a coronary artery (B) which causes myocardial
infarction,
complicated by necrosis of the left ventricular wall and eventual rupture (D).
140. 66. Which ONE of the following is an example of acyanotic congenital heart
disease?
A. Anomalous venous drainage.
B. Coarctation of the aorta.
C. Fallot's tetralogy.
D. Tricuspid atresia.
E. Truncus arteriosus.
The answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta occurs predominantly in males and
is a
 narrowing of the aorta between the left subclavian artery and the orifice of the
ductus
arteriosus. The others are all examples of cyanotic anomalies in which
systemic venous blood
is mixed with oxygenated blood leaving the heart; the red cell count rises
which increases the
cyanosis.
141. 5. When the offsprings inherit the father’s name, the family

is called-

(a) patronymic

(b) patrilineal

(c) patriarchal

(d) conjugal

Ans. (a)

142. 31. ___________ means giving up self-interest or hostility for

the sake of mutual benefit.

(a) Negative reciprocity

(b) Balanced reciprocity

(c) Generalized reciprocity

(d) Exchange of gifts

Ans. (b)

143. 34. The impact of urbanization during medieval period

worked through:

(a) Artisans in the towns

 (b) Army on move

(c) Nobles, chiefs and Jagirdars

(d) Petty government officials

Ans. (c)

144. 39. The change from the occupational role to the retirement

role is an example of situation involving a degree of

(a) role -detachment

(b) role discontinuity

(c) preferential role

(d) primary role

Ans. (b)

145. 48. Rural and urban centres have co-existed in India, except

for a brief interlude during the

(a) Indus valley

(b) Medieval period

(c) Rig-vedic period

(d) Gupta period

Ans. (c)

146. 55. Which of the following statements are false?

1. Caste activities have greatly decreased in all villages since

 development planning has been undertaken.

2. Industrialisation and expansion of development administration

has stimulated the growth of the middle class

3. With development planning India has been able to solve its

basic problems of unemployment, population growth and poverty

4. India’s development planning has given special focus to

integrate women into the development process.

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (a)

147. 57. Which among the following tribal group is supposed to

be the most primitive on Indian mainland?

(a) Khasi

(b) Jorwas

(c) Kadar

(d) Mundas

Ans. (c)

148. 68. The distribution of data is symmetrical when:

(A) Mean value is equal to that of mode.

 (B) Mean value is equal to that of median.

(C) Median value is equal to that of mode.

(D) Mean, median and mode values are equal.

Ans. (C)

149. 10. Material culture is always the product of

A. ideas B. knowledge

C. skill of mankind D. non-material culture

E. all of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option E
150. 13. Comet introduced

A. Dynamical sociology B. Static sociology

C. Physics D. None of these

Answer & Explanation

Answer: Option A
151. 2. "Enduring" means

social institutions exist over a

A. B. complex collection of values.
considerable time.

social institutions have a

C.
function.

152. 9. "Family started with patriarch" belongs to the theory of

A. matriarchal B. patriarchal

C. polygamy

b
153.
 12. Which of the following theory believed that origin of family is based on the philosophy of
possession of women by men?

A. Multi-factor theory B. Polygamy theory

C. Theory of sex communism

B
154. 13. The system under which marriage between blood relations was not forbidden is known
as

A. syndas B. consanguine

C. matrilocal

B
155. 19. Type of the family in which mother is the basis of all authority is known as

A. matrilocal B. matrilineal

C. procreation

B
156. 20. The family in which father is the source of authority is known as

A. patrilineal B. procreation

C. patronymic

A
157. 6. The pattern of pressure which a society exerts to maintain order and establish rules is
known as its system of

A. social approval B. group

C. public opinion D. social control

D
158. 7. When one part of the culture develops more rapidly than other parts, the following
description is made

A. accommodation B. cultural lag

 C. cultural accumulation D. revolution

B
159. 9. Criminal behaviour is learnt primarily

by same process as non-

A. in large groups. B.
criminal behaviour.

by a definite criminal
C. D. none of above.
process.
B

160. 12. Anomie is

A. a type of deliquency B. a serious offence

C. a value clash behaviour D. a self-indulgence

A
161. 14. Paleocerebellum chiefly concerned with
a. Information from stretch receptors.
b. Voluntary function
c. Involuntary function
d. Posture
a
162. 19. Motor planning and timing is by which lobe of cerebellum
a. Anterior lobe
b. Floculonodular
c. Posterior
d. All of the above
c
163. 29. Parietal lobe lesion exhibit
a. Lack of sensory motor integration
b. Inability to interpret meaningful sensory information
c. Both a & b.
d. None
a
164. 37. In two point discrimination the distance between two points in palm is
a. 5 – 6 mm
b. 7 – 10 mm
c. 10- 15 mm
d. None
b
165. 52. Apraxia is a result of lesion in
 a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Internal capsule
a
166. 62. Horner’s syndrome is associated with
a. Myositis
b. Anhydrosis
c. All of them
d. None of them
b
167. 68. Worm like involuntary movement is
a. Chorea
b. Dystonia
c. Athetosis
d. Hemiballismus
c
168. 74. Crocodile tear is feature of------------------ cranial nerve palsy.
a. 2nd
b. 3rd
c. 6th
d. 7th
d
169. 80. Removal of somato sensory (SII) will cause--------------.
a. Impairment of postural sense
b. impairment of perception of shape of object.
c. Impairment of perception of both shape and texture of object
d. Impairment of perception of texture
c
170. 81. Which is not feature of cerebellar dysfunction?
a. Bradykinesia
b. Dysmetria
c. Asthenia
d. Hypotonia
a
171. 44. In naturopathy, to get well from the acute diseases the patient should be
kept on___.
a. same diet as before b. only on veg. diet c. fasting on water or natural fluid
d. non of the above
c
172. 45. In naturopathy Enema is applied to cleanse the___.
a. respiratory tract b. large colon c. stomach d. nose
b
173. 8. Ardha Matsyendrasana (Half-twist posture) is useful for stretching
______muscle.
a. Hamstrings b. Rectus Femoris c. Piriformis d. Gastro-soleus
 c

174. 9. Which Asana flexes the whole body?

a. Pawan Muktasana b. Bhujangasana c. Dhanurasana d. Matsyasana
a
175. 10. In close standing, interlace the fingers and stretch them up over head to
stand on the toes is known as -------asana.
a. Pascimatanasana b. Ardha Cakrasana c. Tadasana d. Salabhasana
c
176. 11. Suryanamaskar has got -------steps.
a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. 18
c
177. 12. Dhanurasana can be used to stretch the ----.
a. Back extensors b. Abdominals c. Back extensors & hip extensors d.
Abdominals & hip flexors
d
178. 6. What are the resistances of the dry and wet skin?
a. 10,000 – 60,000 ohm and 5,000 ohm respectively
b. 100,000 – 600,000 ohm and 1,000 ohm respectively
c. 10,000 – 60,000 ohm and 10,000 ohm respectively
d. 10, 00,000 – 60, 00,000 ohm and 10,000 ohms respectively
b
179. 102. For Calcific deposit , the ion selected is
a. Copper 500 – 600 C
b. Acetate
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium
b
180. 103. While treating hyperhydrosis in adults initially the dosage should be
a. >100 mA min
b. <100 mA min
c. 200 mA min
d. 300 mA min
b
181. 121. There is a circadian variation of body temperature of about
a. 1 degree C
b. 2 degree C
c. 1 degree F
d. degree F
a
182. 130. The beneficial effects of PSWD is in accordance with
a. Vant Hoffs rule
b. Joules law
c. Arndt – Schultz law
d. None of the above
c
183. 142. For tennis elbow the laser dose is
a. 1.5 J/cm2
b. 5 J/cm2
c. 16-24 J/cm2
d. 8-12 J/cm2
c
184. 149. The therapeutic range of Ultra-Sound is
a. 1-5 Hz
b. 5-10 Hz
c. 0..5-5 MHz
d. 0.5-100MHz
c
185. 155. In therapeutic ultrasound the energy travels
a. More in periphery of beam
b. More in centre of the beam
c. Uniform around the beam
d. There is changing over from periphery to centre of beam.
B
186. 160. For pulsed ultrasound application if the pulse length is 2ms and the interval
is
8ms. What is the duty cycle.
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. None of the above
b
187. 165. For stress fracture, therapeutic U.S is
a. Therapeutic
b. Diagnostic
c. Diagnostic & therapeutic
d. Preventive
b
188. 170. The approximate average half value depth of ultrasound of 1 M Hz
frequency
is
a. 100 mm
b. 65 mm
c. 35 mm
d. 25
b
189. 175. To have effect on intracellular calcium system the ultrasound duty cycle
should be
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40% mm
b
190. 185. The local errythema after infrared radiation may lasts up to
 a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 1 hour
c
191. 1. A physical therapist is working in an outpatient orthopedic clinic. During
the patient's history the patient reports, "I tore 3 of my 4 Rotator cuff
muscles in the past." Which of the following muscles cannot be considered
as possibly being torn?

A. Teres minor
B. Teres major
C. Supraspinatus
D. Infraspinatus
b

192. 2.
2. A physical therapist working on an ICU unit, notices a patient is
experiencing SOB, calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf. All of
these may indicate which of the following medical conditions?

A. Patient may have a DVT.

B. Patient may be exhibiting signs of dermatitis.
C. Patient may be in the late phases of CHF.
D. Patient may be experiencing anxiety after surgery.
A

193. 3. A physical therapist is caring for a patient who has recently been
diagnosed with fibromyalgia and COPD. Which of the following tasks
should the physical therapist delegate to an aide?
a. Transferring the patient during the third visit.
B. Ambulating the patient for the first time.
C. Taking the patient's vital sign while setting up an exercise program.
D. Educating the patient on monitoring fatigue.

194. 5. A physical therapist is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the
following reports most requires the physical therapist's immediate attention and
phone call?

A. A 8 year-old boy has been vomiting and appears to have slower movements
and has a history of an atrio-ventricular shunt placement.
B. A 10 year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym
class.
C. A 7 year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days
that has history of an anterior knee wound.
D. A 7 year-old girl that had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.
A
195. 4. A physical therapist is instructing a person who had a left CVA and right
lower extremity hemiparesis to use a quad cane. Which of the following is
the most appropriate gait sequence?

A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane,
then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
B. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane,
 then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
C. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane,
then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
D. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane,
then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
A
196.
6. A physical therapist is caring for a patient in the step down unit. The patient
has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of
increased intracranial pressure?

A. Bradycardia
B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
C. Change in LOC

D. Vomiting
B
197. 7. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of
right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided
heart failure?

A. Nausea
B. Anorexia
C. Rapid weight gain
D. SOB (shortness of breath)
d

198. 8. A patient has recently been diagnosed with symptomatic bradycardia. Which of
the following medications is the most recognized for treatment of symptomatic
bradycardia?

A. Questran
B. Digitalis
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Atropine
d

199. 10. A patient has suffered a left CVA and has developed severe hemiparesis
resulting in a loss of mobility. The physical therapist notices on assessment that
an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema and the
skin is intact. The physical therapist should score the patient as having which of
the following?

A. Stage I pressure ulcer

B. Stage II pressure ulcer
C. Stage III pressure ulcer
D. Stage IV pressure ulcer
A
200. 9. Which of the following arterial blood gas values indicates a patient may be
experiencing a condition of metabolic acidosis?

A. PaO2 (91%)
B. Bicarbonate 159
C. CO(2) 48 mm Hg
D. pH 7.33
b

201. Answer Key

 1. B
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. A
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.