ECE198L 7. What is the result from the A.

Solid, Liquid and Gas

SALE, MHIKO I. combination, in definite B. Metals, Nonmetals and
GEAS proportion of mass, of two or Metalloids
SET1 more elements? C. Suspension, Colloid and
CHEMISTRY A. Mixture Solution
B. Compound D. Quarks, Photons and
C. Substance Quasar
1.) What are found in the D. Chemical Reaction
13. Compounds are mostly
nucleus of an atom?
8. How are mixtures classified as:
A. Eledctrions and Protons
B. Protons and Neutrons C. classified? A. Homogeneous and
Cations and Anions A. Elements or Compounds Heterogeneous
D. Electrons and Neutrons B. Metals, Nonmetals or B. Acids and Bases
Metalloids C. Gases, Liquids and Solids
2.) What is the negatively C. Homogeneous or D. Metals and Nonmetals
charged particle of an atom? Heterogeneous
A. Electrons 14. What is the property of
D. Suspension, Colloids or
B. Protons metals that allow them to be
Solutions
C. Neutron rolled without breaking?
D. Molecule 9. The mixture of soil and A. Ductility
water is an example of what B. Malleability
3.) What is the positively classification of a mixture? C. Luster
charged particle of an atom?
A. Homogeneous D. Elasticity
A. Electrons
B. Suspension
B. Protons 15. What is the property of
C. Neutron C. Colloid
metals that reflects the light
D. Molecule D. Solution
that strikes their surfaces,
4. What is the particle of an 10. A very fine particle of making them appear shiny?
atom that has no electrical soil when mixed to water will A. Malleability
charge? form a cloudy mixture. How B. Ductility
A. Electrons is this mixture classified? C. Luster
B. Protons A. Colloid D. Plasticity
C. Neutron B. Suspension
D. Molecule 16. An acid can react with
C. Solution
base to produce a
5. The word “atom” comes D. Compound
__________.
from Greek “Atomos” which 11. The particles of sugar A. hydrogen gas
means what?
dispersed in water are so B. salt
A. Extremely Small
B. Invisible small that a clear C. oxide
C. Indivisible homogeneous mixture. What D. hydroxide
D. Microscopic is this homogeneous mixture
called? 17. Vinegar is a solution of
6. Who was the first person A. Colloid water and what kind of acid?
to propose that atoms have B. Compound A. Phosphoric acid
weights? C. Suspension B. Sulfuric acid
A. Ernest Rutherford
D. Solution C. Nitric acid
B. Democritus
C. John Dalton D. Acetic acid
12. What are the three states
D. Joseph John Thomson of matter?
18. What acid is added to
carbonated drinks to produce
a tart test?
A. Citric acid
B. Phosphoric acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Nitric acid
19. What occurs when a
substance changes it
appearance without changing
its composition?
A. Chemical reaction
B. Chemical change
C. Physical change
D. Catalyst
20. What is another term for
“chemical change”?
A. Chemical reaction
B. Phase change
C. State change
D. Composition change
21. A material is said to be
______ if its composition and
properties are uniform
throughout.
A. homogeneous
B. heterogeneous
C. pure substance
D. pure compound
22. The properties of a
material that changes when
the amount of substance
changes are called _______
properties.
A. intensive
B. extensive
C. physical
D. chemical
23. The properties of a
material that do not change
when the amount of
substance changes are called
_______ properties.
A. intensive
B. extensive
C. chemical
D. physical
24. Which of the following
is NOT an intensive property
of a material?
A. Color
B. Surface area
C. Melting point
D. Taste
25. Which of the following
is NOT an extensive property
of a material?
A. Length
B. Volume
C. Density
D. Weight
26. What is the charge of an
electron in charge unit?
A. 0
B. 1 +
C. 1 –
D. 0 –
27. What is the charge of a
proton in coulombs?
A. + 1.70217733 x 10^-19
B. + 1.60217733 x 10^-19
C. + 1.50217733 x 10^-19
D. + 1.40217733 x 10^-19
28. What is the charge of a
proton in charge unit?
A. 0
B. 1 +
C. 1 –
D. 0 –
29. What is the mass of an
electron in gram?
A. 10203 x 10^-23
B. 8.218290 x 10^-25
C. 1.672623 x 10^-24
D. 9.109387 x 10^-28
30. Atoms of the same
element which have different
masses are called _______.
A. molecules
B. ions
C. nuclides
D. isotopes
31.) Calculate the moles of
magnesium present in 93.5g
of Mg?
A.3.85 C.5.38
B.4.15 D.3.35
32.) How many number of
atoms are there in 1.32x10^3
g of lead? Pb atomic mass is
207.2g.
A.3.84x10^24 C.4.38x10^2
B.3.84^23 D.4.38x10^2
33.) How many grams are
there in 4.57x0^21 amu?
A.6.8x10^-3 C.5.96x10^-3
B.5.45x10^-3 D.7.59x10^-3
34.)Calculate the number of
moles of cobalt atom in 7
billion Co atom
A.1.16x10^-14 C.1.6x10^13
B.1.61x10^-13 D.1.3x10^-14
35.) Given 16.7 moles of
gold, how many grams of Au
are there? atomic mass of Au
is 197.0g
A.3.51x10^3 C.2.9x10^13
B.3.29x10^3 D.3.6x10^13
36.) Determine the mass in
grams of a single atom of Ge
which has an atomic mass of
72.59
A.3.51x10^3 C.2.9x10^13
B.1.21x10^-22 D.3.6x10^13
37.)Solve for the volume 43.) What is the molality of a 48. How many water
occupied by 3.12 moles of solution containing 75.5g molecules are present in 5.34
nitric oxide which exerts 5.43 sucrose in 400g of water mL of water at a temperature
atm of pressure at a of 4oC, which the density of
A. 0.553 C.0.38
temperature of 82 water at this temperature is
B.0.421 D.0.421 1.00 g/mL? Atomic masses
A. 16.75L C.15.76L
of H and O are 1.008 g and
44.) Find the mass of 3 moles 16.00 g respectively.
B.13.84L D.16.48L
of platinum in pounds A. 1.84 x 10^23 molecules
38.) Calculate the final B. 1.78 x 10^23 molecules
A.1.3 C.1.8
pressusre if a sample of a C. 1.74 x 10^23 molecules
certain gas is cooled from B.2.1 D.2.5 D. 1.87 x 10^23 molecules
34C to -73C, with an initial
pressure of 1.45atm 45. Zinc (Zn) atom has
49. Calculate the molecular
atomic mass of 65.39.
A.1.42atm C.0.94atm mass of methanol (CH4O),
Calculate the number of
given the atomic masses of C
atoms present in 4.22 g of
B.0.94atm D.1.63atm = 12.01 g, H = 1.008 g and O
zinc (Zn).
= 16 g.
39.) Caffeine (C8H10N402) A. 3.75 x 10^22 Zn atoms
A. 29.018 amu
is a stimulant found in tea B. 3.93 x 10^22 Zn atoms
B. 34.241 amu
and coffee. what is its C. 3.89 x 10^22 Zn atoms
C. 32.042 amu
empirical formula? D. 4.04 x 10^22 Zn atoms
D. 30.026 amu
A.C4H5N20 C.C5H3NO2 46. Calculate for the number
of molecules of ethane
B.CHN02 D.C1H2N40
(C2H6) present in 0.431 g of 50. How many moles of
40.) calculate the mass of a C2H6. (C atomic mass = chloroform (CHCl3) are there
piece of platinum metal with 12.01g; H atomic mass = in 210.45 g of chloroform? C
a density of 34.1 g/cm^3 and 1.008 g) = 12.01 amu, H = 1.008 amu
has a volume of 5.2cm^3 A. 8.63 x 10^21 C2H6 and Cl = 35.45 amu.
molecules A. 1.76 CHCl3 moles
A.17.732g C.1773.2g B. 8.75 x 10^21 C2H6 B. 2.12 CHCl3 moles
B.177.32 g D.1.7732g molecules C. 4.34 CHCl3 moles
C. 7.69 x 10^21 C2H6 D. 2.51 CHCl3 moles
41.) What volume of molecules
concentrated sulfuric acid D. 9.13 x 10^21 C2H6
would weigh 0.82kg if its molecules 51. What is the percent
density us 1.85g/ml composition by mass of
A. 2343.56ml C.458.34 ml oxygen (O) element in
47. How many oxygen (O) sulfuric acid (H2SO4)? H =
B.443.24 ml D.326.84ml atoms are there in 2.31 x 1.008 amu, S = 32.07 amu, S
10^4 g of urea [(NH2)2CO]. = 32.07 amu and O = 16.00
42.) Determine the number of
Given molar mass of urea is amu.
moles present in 151.99g
60.062g. A. 62.25 %
magnesium
A. 2.43 x 10^26 atoms B. 63.34 %
A.3.45 moles C.9.21 moles B. 2.12 x 10^26 atoms C. 64.45 %
C. 2.32 x 10^26 atoms D. 65.25 %
B.6.25 moles D. 5.6 moles D. 2.52 x 10^26 atoms
52. Solve for the volume
occupied by 3.12 moles of
nitric oxide (NO) which
exerts 5.43 atm of pressure at
a temperature of 82oC.
A. 16.75 L
B. 13.84 L
C. 15.76 L
D. 16.48 L
53. Calculate the volume
occupied by 50.6 g of HCl at
STP. H = 1.008 amu and Cl =
35.45 amu.
A. 83.2 L
B. 31.1 L
C. 27.4 L
D. 1.38 L
54. Calculate the final
pressure if a sample of a
certain gas is cooled from
34oC to -73oC, with an initial
pressure of 2.45 atm.
A. 1.42 atm
B. 1.58 atm
C. 0.94 atm
D. 1.63 atm
55. An 867-mL sample of
chlorine gas exerts a pressure
of 738 mmHg. Determine the
pressure of the gas if the
volume is reduced to 321 mL
at constant temperature.
A. 1.99 x 103 mm Hg
B. 2.73 x 103 mm Hg
C. 1.21 x 103 mm Hg
D. 2.13 x 103 mm Hg
56. Determine the final
pressure of a gas, initially at
3.0 L, 2.2 atm, and 72oC,
which undergoes a change so
that its final volume and
temperature are 0.9 L and
41oC.
A. 7.66 atm B. 2956 mm
B. 6.67 atm C. 3314 mm
C. 4.18 atm D. 3585 mm
D. 5.73 atm
57. A certain sample of
natural gas contains 0.377
mole of ethane (C2H6), 7.48
moles of methane (CH4), and
0.134 mole of propane
(C3H8). Calculate the partial
pressure of propane gas, if
the total pressure of the gases
is 1.79 atm.
A. 1.68 atm
B. 0.084 atm
C. 0.94 atm
D. 0.03 atm
58. Calculate the number of
molecules of oxygen gas
present in 1.5 L of air at STP.
Assuming that air contains
31% O2, 67% N2 and 2% Ar,
all by volume.
A. 1.87 x 10^23 molecules
B. 4.18 x 10^24 molecules
C. 2.81 x 10^23 molecules
D. 1.25 x 10^22 molecules
59. Which of the following is
the molar mass of the gas at
752 torr and 41oC? Ten
grams of a gas occupy a
volume of 5.12 L.
A. 51 g/mol
B. 1.96 g/mol
C. 149 g/mol
D. 1144 g/mol
60. What is the pressure
required to compress 3 liters
of a gas at 720 mm of
pressure and 20 degree
Celsius temperature into a
vessel with a 0.5 liter
capacity at a temperature of
100 degree Celsius?
A. 5499 mm
ECE198L
SALE, MHIKO I.
GEAS
SET2
PHYSICS
1. What is the purpose of a
unit vector?
A. To describe the direction
in space
B. To indicate a magnitude
without reference to direction
C. To serve as comparison
with other vectors
D. To set a standard among
vectors
2. What is another term for a
scalar product of two
vectors?
A. Cross product
B. Vector product
C. Dot product
D. Plus product
3. What refers to physical
quantities that have a
magnitude and a direction?
A. Scalar quantities
B. Vector quantities
C. Dot product
D. Vector quantities
4. The rate at which velocity
changes with time is known
as ________.
A. acceleration
B. instantaneous speed
C. average speed
D. instantaneous velocity
5. What is defined as any
influence that can change the
velocity of an object?
A. Impulse
B. Force
C. Energy
D. Work
6. “When an object exerts a
force on another object, the
second object exerts on the
first a force
of the same magnitude but in
the opposite direction”. This
statement is the _____.
A. first law of motion
B. second law of motion
C. third law of motion
D. d‟Alembert‟s principle
7. When the vector sum of
the external forces acting on
the system of particles equals
zero, the
total linear momentum of the
system __________.
A. becomes zero
B. maximizes
C. changes abruptly
D. remains constant
8. “The force one charge
exerts on another is directly
proportional to the
magnitudes of the
charges and inversely
proportional to the square of
the distance between them”.
This
statement is known as
________.
A. Coulomb’s law
B. Kirchhoff‟s law
C. Lenz‟s law
D. Faraday‟s law
9. The potential difference
across a battery, a generator
or other source of electric
energy when
it is not connected to any
external circuit is called its
________.
A. electromechanical force
B. electrostatic force
C. electromotive force
D. internal resistance
10. What is defined as the
luminous flux per unit area?
A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous efficiency
C. Illumination
D. Lumen
11. What refers to the ratio
between the speed of light in
free space and its speed in a
particular
medium?
A. Index of refection
B. Total internal reflection
C. Index of dispersion
D. Index of refraction
12. “The ratio of the sines of
the angles of incidence and
refraction is equal to the ratio
of the
speeds of light in the two
media”. This statement is
known as ________.
A. Huygen‟s principle
B. Snell’s law
C. Maxwell‟s hypothesis
D. Doppler‟s effect
13. The emission of electrons
from a metal surface when
light shines on it is called
_______.
A. Absorption effect
B. Spectrum emission
C. Quantum effect
D. Photoelectric effect
14. If the forces acting on a
falling body balance one
another, the body continues
to fall at
a constant velocity. What is
thus constant velocity called?
A. Instantaneous velocity
B. Free-falling body
C. Gravitational velocity
D. Terminal velocity
15. What is the velocity of
light in meters per second?
A. 3 x 10^6
B. 3 x 10^9
C. 3 x 10^7
D. 3 x 10^8
16. If you double the mass of
a cart while undergoing
constant unbalanced force the
acceleration will be
________.
A. double
B. increased fourfold
C. half as much
D. one-fourth as much
17. An object in equilibrium
may not have
A. any force acting on it
B. any torque acting on it
C. velocity
D. acceleration
18. The centripetal
acceleration of a particle in
uniform motion is
__________ to the radius of
its path.
A. directly proportional
B. equal
C. inversely proportional
D. not related to any way
19. In a simple harmonic
motion there is always a
constant ratio between the
displacement of the mass and
its _______.
A. speed
B. acceleration
C. period
D. mass
20. If the buoyancy of an
object exceeds to weight, the
object ______________
A. tends to sink
B. tends to rise
C. A or B
D. none of the above
21. What happens to wave
velocity as it passes from the
ionosphere?
A. increases
B. remain the same
C. decreases
D. not a factor
22. Stresses arising when a
change in temperature affects
the original length of a body
A. Kelvin stress
B. Hydraulic stress
C. Thermal stress
D. Humid stress
23. The English term “slug”
is a unit of
A. mass
B. force
C. weight
D. energy
24. An elastic collision is an
encounter between two
bodies in which the total
kinetic energy of the two
bodies after the encounter is
____ to their total kinetic
before the encounter
A. Equal
B. Not equal
C. Less than compared
D. Greater than compared
25. In mechanics, it refers to
the force that makes a body
followed a curved path.
A. Centripetal force
B. Normal force
C. Gravitational force
D. Centrifugal force
26. An object in equilibrium
may have the following
EXCEPT:
A. Any force acting on it
B. Any torque acting on it
C. Velocity
D. Acceleration
27. Light traveling at some
angle as it moves from water
into the air is refracted away
from the normal as it enters
the air, so the fish you see
under water is actually
A. Above the refracted image
B. Below the refracted
image
C. Beside the refracted image
D. In the same place as the
refracted image
28. It is the tendency of a
body at rest to remain at rest,
and of a body in motion to
continue moving with
unchanged velocity.
A. Inertia
B. Mass
C. Moment of Inertia
D. Moment of Mass
29. These are forces whose
lines of action all pass
through a common point.
A. Concurrent forces
B. Coplanar forces
C. Reaction forces
D. Parallel forces
30. It is a tangential force
acting on an object that
opposes the sliding of that
object across an adjacent
surface with which it is in
contact.
A. Normal force
B. Frictional force
C. Perpendicular force
D. Opposing force 5. A
system that can exchange
neither
31.) Find the rate at which source that emits 800hz.
pulses will propagate aong a Assuming that the listener is
string that has mass per unit directly at the jet’s plane
length of 150g/m when it is path, what sound frequency is
under tension heard before the jet plane
pass the listener?
A.13.85 m/s
A. 1400 Hz
B. 15.38 m/s
B. 830 Hz
C.14.15 m/s
C. 1333.33 Hz
D.18.26 m/s
D. 1420.22Hz
32.) A Horizontal string 4m
long has a mass of 20 grams. 36.) A jet plane flying at
What is the tension on the Mach 0.4, carries a sound
string if the wavelength of a source that emits 800hz.
100hz wave on the string is Assuming that the listener is
40cm? directly at the jet’s plane
path, what sound frequency is
A.1385 N
heard before the jet plane
B. 800 N pass the listener?
C.1415 N A. 571.43 Hz
D.1826 N B. 830 Hz
C. 600 Hz
33.) What is the velocity of
sound at room temperature
D. 1420.22Hz
which is at 27 deg Celsius?
37.) A light ray is incident at
A. 349 m/s
an angle of 20 deg on the
B. 347.1 m/s surface between air and
water. At what angle does the
C.390 m/s N refracted rray make with the
D. 348.2 m/s perpendicular to the surface
when the ray is incident from
34.) What is the frequency of the air side? Air=1
a 4cm sound wave in air? Water=1.333
Speed of sound is 332 m/s
A. 13.12 deg
A. 840 Hz
B. 15 deg
B. 830 Hz
C. 9 deg
C. 860 Hz
D. 14.87 deg
D. 835 Hz
35.) A jet plane flying at
Mach 0.4, carries a sound
38.) A light ray is incident at
an angle of 25 deg on one
side of glass plane. At what
angle will the light ray
emerges from the other side
of the glass plate? Glass and
air is 1.6 and 1 respectively.
A. 13.12 deg
B. 15.3 deg
C. 9 deg
D. 16 deg
39.) What is the index of
refraction of a certain
medium if the speed of light
in that medium is only half
the speed of light of the
vacuum?
A. 2
B. 1.85
C. 2.21
D. 1.8
40.) A flint glass
plate(n=1.8) has a thickness
of 20mm. How long will it
take for a pulse of light to
pass through the glass plate?
A. 4.2 x 10^-10 s
B. 3.2 x 10^-10 s
C. 1.2 x 10^-10 s
D. 2.2 x 10^-10 s
41.) A ray of light passes
from the heavy flint glass to
water. What is the critical
angle for this ray of light to
pass the glass? Flint
glass=1.650 and water=1.33
A. 50.81 deg
B. 51.71 deg
C. 52.81 deg
D. 53.71 deg
42.) A uniform steel beam is
12 feet long is suspended
from one end by a
construction crane.
Determine the period of
oscillation of the beam.
A. 3.13 sec
B. 4.13 sec
C. 5.13 sec
D. 6.13 sec
43.) A 5-lb weight hangs at
the end of a spring (k=30
lb/ft). at what frequency will
it vibrate if the weight is
displaced slightly and
released?
A. 2.86 Hz
B. 2.46 Hz
C. 3.86 Hz
D. 1.86 Hz
44.) The mariana Trench,
which is also known as the
Philippine Deep measures
10863 m depth. What is the
pressure at the bottom of the
Mariana Trench? Use
specific gravity of sea
water=1.03
A. 1.320x10^8 Pa
B. 1.098x10^8 Pa
C. 1.500x10^8 Pa
D. 1.320x10^8 Pa
45. What is the absolute
pressure (in Pa) if a pressure
gauge registers 60 psig in a
region where the barometer is
14.30 psia?
A. 530128 Pa
B. 512283 Pa
C. 541290 Pa
D. 521830 Pa
46. An iceberg(sp.gr.=0.92)
floats in seawater
(sp.gr=1.03). What
percentage is the visible
volume (volume of the
iceberg above the surface) to
the total volume of the
iceberh?
A. 85%
B. 87%
C. 80%
D. 89%
47. A 2000-kg truck
accelerates from the 20kph t
120kph in 10 seconds. Find
its engine’s power output in
watts.
A. 2666 watts
B. 2999 watts
C. 2888 watts
D. 2777 watts
48. The elevator at Excel
Review Center’s building is
powered by and electric
motor with an output of
10kW. Determine the
minimum time required for
its to rise the 18m from the
ground floor to roof deck, if
the total mass of the loaded
elevator is 800kg.
A. 13.22 sec
B. 14.13 sec
C. 15.68 sec
D. 16.80 sec

49. During a race, Jan
Micheal’s sport car develops
a 250 hp at 4000 rpm. What
is the amount of torque
exerted on the crankshaft?
A. 328.25 ft-lb
B. 342.78 ft-lb
C. 332.12 ft-lb
D. 350.80 ft-lb
50. Tiger woods hit a golf
ball at a velocity of 80 m/s.
The head of his club was in
contact with the 50g ball of
0.4 ms. What is the average
force acting on the golf ball
during impact?
A. 25 kN
B. 20 kN
C. 10 kN
D. 15 kN
51. An apple can provide a
person about 20000J of work.
To what height can a 50-kg
man climb uptairs of he eats
one apple?
A. 36.8 m
B. 38.6 m
C. 40.8 m
D. 42.6 m
52. Using a wheel and axle, a
500N load can be raised by a
force of 60N applied to the
rim of the wheel. What is the
efficiency of the machine if
the radii of the wheel and
axle are 80cm and 5cm,
respectively?
A. 50%
B. 52%
C. 54%
D. 56%
53. A rubber ball is dropped B 30N
to the floor from a height of C. 10N
3m. It rebounds to a height of D. 40N
1.8m. what is the coefficient
58. A piano string with a
of restitution.
length of 1.17 m and a mass
A. 0.625
of 21 g in under tension of
B. 0.825
6.4x10^3 N, what is the
C. 0.665
fundamental frequency?
D. 0.775
A. 225 Hz
54. The wavelength of sound B. 187 Hz
wave in a certain material as C. 255 Hz
measured is 18cm. The D. 290 Hz
frequency of the wave is
59. A rope of 4ft long weighs
1900Hz. Compute the speed
0.7 lb. A blow on the rope
of sound wave?
produces a transverse wave.
A. 342 m/s
Determine the velocity of the
B. 400 m/s
wave considering that the
C. 542 m/s
tension is 40lb.
D. 300 m/s
A. 75.8 ft/s
55. A horizontal cord 5m B. 95.7 ft/s
long has a mass of 2.5 grams. C. 78.5 ft/s
What must be the tension in D. 85.5 ft/s
the cord if the wavelength of
60. What is the relative
a 120Hz wave on it is to be
intensity level of sound in
50cm?
decibles if its intensity is
A. 1.50 N
3x10^-7 W/cm^2?
B. 1.80 N
A. 94.8
C. 2.50 N
B. 78.7
D. 4.30 N
C. 80.5
56. A 3-m string is driven by D. 75.4
a 240Hz vibrator at its end.
Determine the speed of
transverse waves on the
string if its four segments?
A. 340 m/s
B. 360 m/s
C. 430 m/s
D. 420 m/s
57. A guitar string 30cm long
resonates in its fundamental
to a frequency of 250Hz.
What is the tension in the
string if 80cm of the string
weighs 0.80 grams?
A. 20N
ECE198L D. Zeroth law of 10. A system which consists
SALE, MHIKO I. Thermodynamics of fixed amount of mass and
GEAS no mass can cross its
5. What is defined as the
SET3 boundary called _____.
energy required to raise the
THERMODYNAMICS A. Equilibrium system
temperature of a unit mass of
B. Thermal equilibrium
a substance by one degree?
system
A. Latent heat of fusion
1. The term C. Open system
B. Molar heat
“thermodynamics” comes D. Closed system
C. Specific heat capacity
from Greek words “therme”
D. Specific heat 11. A system in which even
and “dynamis” which means
energy is not allowed to cross
_______. 6. The ______ of a substance
the boundary is called ____.
A. Heat power is the amount of heat that
A. Closed system
B. Heat transfer must be added or removed
B. Exclusive system
C. Heat energy from a unit mass of the
C. Isolated system
D. Heat motion substance to change its
D. Special system
temperature by one degree.
2. The term
A. Latent heat of fusion 12. A system in which there
“thermodynamics” was first
B. Molar heat is a flow of mass is known as
used in 1849 in the
C. Specific heat capacity _____.
publication of a.
D. Specific heat A. Equilibrium system
A. Rudolph Clausius
B. Isolated system
B. William Rankine 7. What is defined a region
C. Open system
C. Lord Kelvin in space chosen for study?
D. Closed system
D. Thomas Savery A. Surroundings
B. System 13. If there is no heat
3. What law asserts that
C. Boundary transferred during the
energy is a thermodynamic
D. Volume process, it is called a ______
property?
process.
A. First law of 8. The first law of
A. Static
Thermodynamics thermodynamics is based on
B. Isobaric
B. Second law of which of the following
C. Polytropic
Thermodynamics principles?
D. Adiabatic
C. Third law of A. Conservation of mass
Thermodynamics B. Conservation of energy 14. How are thermodynamic
D. Zeroth law of C. Action and reaction properties classified?
Thermodynamics D. The entropy-temperature A. Physical and chemical
relationship B. Intensive and extensive
4. What law asserts that
C. Real and imaginary
energy has quality as well as 9. What is the mass or region
D. Homogeneous and
quantity? outside the system called?
heterogeneous
A. First law of A. Surroundings
Thermodynamics B. Boundary
15. The thermodynamic
B. Second law of C. Volume
properties that are
Thermodynamics D. Environment
independent on the size of the
C. Third law of
system is called _____.
Thermodynamics
A. Extensive property
B. Intensive property
C. Open property 21. What temperature scale position and is measured
D. Closed property is identical to the Kelvin relative to absolute vacuum?
scale? A. Gage pressure
16. The thermodynamic
A. Ideal gas temperature B. Absolute pressure
properties that are dependent
scale C. Atmospheric pressure
on the size or extent of the
B. Ideal temperature scale D. Vacuum pressure
system is called ____.
C. Absolute gas temperature
A. Extensive property 28. What is the pressure
scale
B. Intensive property below atmospheric pressure
D. Triple point temperature
C. Open property called?
scale
D. Closed property A. Gage pressure
B. Absolute pressure
17. What states that if two 22. The unit “pascal” is
equivalent to ______. C. Atmospheric pressure
bodies are in thermal
D. Vacuum pressure
equilibrium with a third A. N/m^2
body, they are also in B. N/m 29. The difference between
equilibrium with each other? C. N-m the absolute pressure and the
A. Zeroth law of D. N-m^2 atmospheric pressure is
thermodynamics called the _____ pressure.
23. Which of the following is
B. First law of A. Gage
NOT a value of the standard
thermodynamics B. Normal
atmospheric pressure?
C. Second law of C. Standard
A. 1 bar
thermodynamics D. Vacuum
B. 1 atm
D. Third law of
C. 1 kgf/cm^2 30. Which of the following is
thermodynamics
D. 14.223 psi NOT an instrument used to
18. 1 British thermal unit measure pressure?
24. What is the SI unit of
(BTU) is equivalent to how A. Bourdon tube
pressure?
many joules? B. Pitot tube
A. Atm
A. 1016 C. Aneroid
B. Bar
B. 1043 D. Manometer
C. Pa
C. 1023
D. Psi 31. A chef heated a bowl of
D. 1054
soup of 30 deg C to 45 deg C,
25. 1 bar is equivalent to
19. What is the what is the change in the
how many pascals?
thermodynamic temperature temperature in the Fahrenheit
A. 10^3
scale in the SI system? scale?
B. 10^4
A. Kelvin scale A. 15 deg F
C. 10^5
B. Celsius scale B. 27 deg F
D. 10^6
C. Fahrenheit scale C. 30 deg F
D. Rankine scale 26. 1 atm is equivalent to D. 42 deg F
how many pascals?
20. What is the 32. What is the new length of
A. 101,325
thermodynamic temperature a bar made of pure gold at 75
B. 101,689
scale in the English system? ℃ if it has a length of 0.3
C. 101,102 meters at 10℃?
A. Kelvin scale
D. 101,812 A. 3.00273
B. Celsius scale
C. Fahrenheit scale 27. What is considered as the B. 3.0273
C. 3.00385
D. Rankine scale actual pressure at a given
D. 3.0385
33.) A steel tank is filled with
15 gallons of gasoline when
the temperature is 22 deg .
the tnak and gasoline inside
are then heated by the Sun’s
rays to a temperatre of 40 deg
C. How much of the gasoline
will spill from the tank?
Steel=12x10^-6
gasoline=0.95x10^-3
A. 0.13889 gallons
B. 0.1938 gallons
C. 0.2479 gallons
D. 0.2565 gallons
34.) What is the increase in
temperature necessary for a
hydrogen gas, initially at 0℃,
to increase its volume by 5%
at constant pressure?
A. 4.5℃
B. 7.8℃
C. 12.5℃
D. 13.7℃
35.) On a very hot day in
Manila, an oil tanker loaded
50,000 liters of fuel. It
traveled to Baguio, which is
20K colder than Manila How
many liters were delivered to
Baguio? Gasoline=0.95x10^-
3 42.) Using the first law of
A. 49,000 liters
B. 49,050 liters
C. 50,950 liters
D. 51,000 liters
36. For a breakfast, a 100 kg
ate 2 slices of bacon(35
Calories each), scrambled
egg(75 Calories) and 2 pieces
of bread(70 Calories each).
Aside from that, he also
drank 1 glass of milk(165
Calories). Believing that this
is getting him fat, he wishes
to do an equivalent amount of
work at school by using the
stairs on his way to the
classrooms. Assuming that
one step of the stairways is
0.2 meters, how many steps
must he make?
A. 5000 steps
B. 6500 steps
C. 8000 steps
D. 9600 steps
37.) How much heat(calories)
is required to raise the
temperature of 5 liters of
acetone from 20 deg C to 40
deg C? acetone=0.58g/cm^3,
spec. heat of methyl=2118
J/kg-deg
A. 25 kcal
B. 29 kcal
C. 32 kcal
D. 40 kcal
38.) A tank contains 2.0 kg
of water at 25 deg C. Into this
tank, a person dropped a
0.90-kg piece of metal that
has temperature of 75 deg C.
What will be the equilibrium
temperature of the mixture?
Spec heat=448J/kg-deg
A. 27.3 deg C
B. 29.5 deg C
C. 34.6 deg C
D. 38 deg C
39.) How much heat is
required to raise the
temperature of 1 mol of
nitrogen gas by 1 degree at
constant temperature? (Cp =
1037 J/kg-℃; Cv = 749 J/kg-
℃)
A. 25 J
B. 29 J
C. 38 J
D. 45 J
40.) A 5 liter amount of
water at a temperature of
25℃ will be raised to what
temperature if 3000 calories
of heat is applied?
A.25.05 ℃
B.25.15℃
C.25.30℃
D.25.45℃
41.) How much heat is
required to transform a 500
gram ice at -15 deg C into
liquid water at 55 deg C?
A. 280 kJ
B. 292 kJ
C. 304 kJ
D. 453 kJ
thermodynamics, what is the
change in internal energy of a
substance if it does 300 J of
work while absorbing 450 J
of heat?
A.150J
B.300J
C.450J
D.750J
43.) What is the specific heat
of an unknown substance if
the temperature of 30℃
doubles after applying an
energy rated at 50
kilocalories?
A.1.67 kcal/kg℃
B.2.14 kcal/kg℃
C.2.56 kcal/kg℃
D.3.12 kcal/kg℃
44.) What is the change in
internal energy of an ideal
gas if it expands by 20 liters
after applying 5kJ of heat?
Assume the this is constant-
pressure process.
A. 2.03 kJ
B. 2.97 kJ
C. 3.75 kJ
D. 5 kJ
45. Determine the work done
on a 0.5 m^3 gas if it is
compressed at constant
temperature to 0.3 m^3.
When the gas was at its initial
state, the pressure was 5 atm
while the temperature was
20℃ room temperature.
A. -24.56 kJ
B. -25.13 kJ
C. -25.88 kJ
D. -26.88 kJ
46. How much heat is
required to convert 4 kg of
water at 20℃ into vapor at
100 ℃.
A.1.34 kJ
B.1.34 kcal
C.3.17 kJ
D.3.17 kcal
47. An aluminum rod has a
diameter of 4 cm and a length
of 8cm. One end of the rod is
placed in an ice bath. How
much heat in calories is
conduct through the bar in 1
minute? The thermal
conductivity is 205 J/m-s-
deg/.
A. 4.62 cal
B. 8.97 cal
C. 15.75 cal
D. 19.33 cal
48. What temperature
gradient must be applied to a
gold bar(2 cm x 4cm) if the
heat flow is to be 100J/s?
gold conductivity=397 J/m-s-
deg.
A. 245 degC/m
B. 289 degC/m
C. 315 degC/m
D. 362 degC/m
49. A gas cylinder contains
15 L of oxygen gas at room
temperature and 15 atm. The
Temperature is doubled and
the volume is reduced to half
of the original volume. What
is the pressure (atm)
assuming the gas resembles
ideal condition
A. 7.5 atm
B. 15.8 atm
C. 32.1 atm
D. 44.6 atm
50. An ideal gas at 100 deg F
has a pressure of 32psig. It is
heated in fixed, rigid and
closed vessel to raise its
temperature of 160 deg F.
what is its final pressure
A. 24 psia
B. 52 psia
C. 64 psia
D. 67 psia
51. What is the rms velocity
of oxygen gas molecules at
room temperature?
A. 274 m/s
B. 478 m/s
C. 696 m/s
D. 7713 m/s
52. What is the mass of air
inside a closed vessel with
dimensions 2.5m x 5m x 8m
at a temperature and pressure
of 50degC and 500000 Pa,
respectively?
A. 144 kg
B. 298 kg
C. 456 kg
D. 540 kg
53. An engine transfers 2500J
of energy from a hot
reservoir during the cycle and
transfers 2000J of energy to
the cold reservoir. What s the
power output of the engine if
it operates at 2000
revolutions per minute
assuming ther is a one
thermodynamics cycle per
revolution?
A. 16.67 kW
B. 23.33 kW
C. 43.33 kW
D. 46.67 kW
54. What is the coefficient of
performance of a brand new
refrigerator which as a
capacity of 3500 W and an
input rating of 750W?
A. 3.56
B. 4.67
C. 5.87
D. 8.93
55. What is the efficiency of
a Carnot engine operating
between 500degF and
1700degF?
A. 32%
B. 44%
C. 56%
D. 68%
56. A steam engine has a 15 degC. How many times
boiler that operates at 600 K. will the volume of the
The energy from the burning balloon increase when it
fuel changes water to steam, reaches maximum altitude?
and this steam then drives the At an altitude of 30 km, the
piston. The cold reservoir’s pressure is about 1% of the
temperature is that of the
sae level pressure and temp
outside air, which is
may reach as low -50
estimated to be 300 K. What
is the maximum thermal centigrade.
efficiency of this steam A. 34 times
engine? B. 55 times
A. 50% C. 62 times
B. 75% D. 77 times
C. 80%
D. 100% 60. What is the sonic velocity
at 50,000 feet altitude in the
57. A piston-cylinder device upper standard atmosphere
contains liquid-vapor mixture with a frequency of -70degF
at 300 K. During a constant and a pressure of 1.7psi?
pressure process, 800 kJ of A. 560 ft/s
heat was transferred to the B. 770 ft/s
water. As a result, part of the
C. 840 ft/s
liquid in the cylinder
vaporized. The changed in D. 970 ft/s
entropy of the water during
the whole process is closest
to which of the following
values?
A.0.38
B.1.38
C.2.67
D.4.22
58. A piano string with a
length of 1.17 m and a mass
of 21 g in under tension of
6.4x10^3 N, what is the
fundamental frequency?
A. 225 Hz
B. 187 Hz
C. 255 Hz
D. 290 Hz
59. A high-altitude balloon
that is designed to carry a
500-kg payload to an altitude
of 30km is filled with 400
cubic meters of helium at sea
level when the temperature is
ECE198L
SALE, MHIKO I.
GEAS
SET4
Engineering Mechanics
1. In Mechanics, what refers
to the study of stationary
rigid body?
A. Statics
B. Kinectics
C. Associative
D. Commutative
2. What is the study of the
rigid body in motion under
the action of forces.
A. Consistent
B.Strength of mamterials
C.Dynamics
D. Kinematics
3. What is the branch of
engineering mechanics which
refers to the study of rigid
body in motion without
reference to the force the
causes the motion.
A. Dynamics
B. Statics
C. Kinematics
D. Kinetics
4. What refers to the force
that holds part of the rigid
body together.
A. Natural force
B. External force
C. Internal force
D. Concentrated force
5. What refers to a pair of D. 3
equal, opposite and parallel
forces? 10. A build-in, Fixed support
A. Couple has how many reactions and
B. Moment moment?
C. Torque A. 1 reaction and 1 moment
D. All of the above B. 2 reactions and 1
moment
6. What is concurrent force C. 1 reactions and 2 moments
system? D. 2 reactions and no
A. All of forces act at the moment
same point
B. All forces have the same 11. Which has one moment?
line of action A. Fricitionless guide
C. All of forces are parallel B. Pin connection
with one another. C. Fixed support
D. All forces are in the same D. Roller
place.
12. What is the science that
7. When will a three-force describes and predicts the
member be considered in effect on bodies at rest or in
equilibrium? motion by forces acting on
A. When the sum of the two it.
forces equal to the third A. Engineering Mechanics
force. B. Theory of structures
B. When they are cocurrent C. Mechanics of Materials
or parallel D. Strength of Materials
C. When they are coplanar
D. All of the above. 13. What refers to a
negligible body when
8. A roller support has how compared to the distances
many reactions? involved regarding motion.
A. None A. Particle
B. 1 B. Atomic substance
C. 2 C. Element
D. 3 D. Quarks
9. A link or cable support has 14. The resulting force of a
how many support? distributed load is always
A. None acting at:
B. 1
C. 2
A. the center of the beam
subjected to the distributed
load
B. the centroid of the area
of the loading curve
C. the 1/3 point from the
higher intensity side of the
loading curve
D. the 2/3 point from the
higher intensity side of the
loading curve.
15. What equilibrium states
exists when a body remains
in its displaced state after
being moved from its original
equilibrium position?
A. Neutral
B. Stable
C. Static
D. Dynamic
16. What are the three types
of equilibrium
A. Neutral, Stable, Unstable
B. Static, Kinetic, Dynamic
C. Kinetic, Kinematic,
Dynamic
D. Static, Kinetic, Kinematic
17. What refers to the branch
of mathematics which deals
with the dimensions of
quantities?
A. Unit Analysis
B. Dimension analysis
C. system analysis
D. Homogeneity analysis
18. What is “simple beam”?
A. A beam supported only
at its ends
B. A beam supported only.
C. A beam with two supports
D. A beam with only one
support at the mid span.
19. What is the assumption is
used in the analysis of
uniform flexible cable?
A. Cable is flexible
B. Cable is inextensible
C. The weight og the cable is
very small when compared to
the loads supported by the
cable
D. All of the above.
20. The forces acting
internally on rigid bodies are
due to____.
A. electronics forces holding
the molecules together.
B. intermodular forces
C. compressive and tensile
forces holding the bodies
together
D. atomic bondage
21. A beam with more than
one supports is called ___.
A. Cantilever beam
B. Simple beam
C. Complex beam
D. Continuous beam
22. A truss consisting of
coplanar members is called
____.
A. Plane truss
B. space truss
C. ideal truss
D. rigid truss
23. A truss consisting of non-
coplanar members is called
___.
A. Plane truss
B. space truss
C. ideal truss
D. rigid truss
24. What method of
determining the bar force of a
truss of only few members
are required?
A. Method of joints
B. Method of section
C. Maxwell Diagram
D. Method of Superposition
25. The frictional force is
____ area of the contact.
A. inversely proportional to
B. dependent on
C. independent on
D. directly proportional to
26. What is usually used to
move heavy loads by
applying a force which is
unusually smaller that the
weight of the load?
A. Axle
B. Incline Plane
C. Wedge
D. Belt
27. The angle of inclined
plane of a jack screw is also
known as
A. angle of thread
B. angle of lead
C. angle of friction
D. angle of pitch

28. Center of gravity for a
two dimensional body is the
point at which the entire ___
acts regardless of the
orientation of the body.
A. mass
B. weight
C. mass or weight
D. volume
29. What is the unit mass of
moment of inertia?
A. kg-m^4
B. kg-m^3
C. kg-m
D. kg-m^2
30. The principle of kinetics
of particles are derived from
which law?
A. Newton’s first law
B. Newton’s second law
C. Newton’s third law
D. d’Alembert’s principle
31. What is the maginitdue
and direction of the resultant
of two forces, both with
different directions with a 50-
N magnitude, but with
different directins, first one
30deg while the other is
50deg?
A. 98.48N at 40deg
B. 98.48N at 10deg
C. 98.48N at 10deg
D. 98.48N at 10deg
32. If the resultant of two
vectors is 2kN and is acting
vertically to the south, what
is the magnitude and
direction of the second force
is he first force is 10kN
acting directly to the east?
A. 2.24kN,63.49 south of
west
B. 2.24kN,63.49 west of
north
C. 2.24kN,63.49 south of east
D. 2.24kN,63.49 east of north
33.) If two forces, 30kN and
20kN are separated by 50
degrees, what is the resultant
force?
A. 43.54kN
B. 44.45kN
C. 45.51 kN
D. 46.64 kN
34.) An airplane has speed of
120 miles per hour is heading
in a direction due north.
There is a crosswind of 30
miles per hour 15 degrees
east of north. What is the
speed of the airplane and
what its direction relative to
the ground?
A. 133.201 mph to the north
B. 133.201 mph to the
north, 3.23 deg east of
north
C. 133.201 mph to the west
D. 133.201 mph to the east
35.) Given three vectors:
Vector 1 is 500 N at 30 deg,
Vector 2 is 300 N at 150 deg
and Vector 3 is 400 N at 270,
what is the magnitude of the
resultant vector?
A. 137.21 N
B. 143.71 N
C. 173.21 N
D. 177.31 N
36. If you are given two
forces at right angles to each
other, what os the magnitude
of the resultant force is the
two forces are each 50N?
A. 0
B. 50N
C. 70.7 N
D. 100N
37.) A 10kg- box is being
pulled by a 50N force that is
inclined 20 deg with respect
to the horizontal What is the
component of the force that is
parallel with the surface in
whuc te box is being pulled?
A. 17.10 N
B. 27.10 N
C. 36.98 N
D. 46.98 N
38.) If you are given two
vectors: A= 5i + 8j + 3k and
B= 35i + 4j +-9k, what is the
angle between the two
vectors?
A. 30deg
B. 45deg
C. 35deg
D. 60deg
39.) What is the dot product
of the vectors: A=6i+4j-5k
and B=5i+3j+7k
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
40.) In a 10 feet cantilever
beam, find the reactions if
there are two forces, each
50lb, applied at a point 3 feet
and 6 feet from the end of the
bean with the support/
A.HA:0;
VA;100lb;MA=300lb-ft
B. HA:0;
VA;100lb;MA=450lb-ft
C. HA:100;
VA=0lb;MA=300lb-ft
D. HA:100;
VA;100lb;MA=300lb-ft
41.) What is the reaction at
the roller if one endof a 10
meter beam is attached to a
hinge while the other end is
attached to a roller that is
inclined to the horizontal at
anangle of 20deg? Ther is a
50jn force concentrated
halgwa across the beam.
A. 9.81 kN
B. 25kN
C. 26.6kN
D. 29.9kN
42.) Find the reactions of a
simply supported beam that is
10 m in length with a
concentrated load of 250 N, 4
meters from the left end, and
a uniformly distributed load
of 75N/m.
A. 400N and 600N
B. 425N and 575N
C. 450N and 600N
D. 475N and 525N
43.) Find the reacitns of a
simply supported beam with
a length of 8m if it has a
uniformly varying load
starting at 30N/m at the left
end and goes up to 60 N/m at
the right end.
A. 120N and 240 N
B. 140N and 220 N
C. 160 N and 200 N
D. 180N and 180 N
44.) A block weighs 100kg
and is resting on a plane that
is onlcined to tehe horizontal
at an angle of 20 deg. What is
the force that tends to move
the block down the plane?
A. 336N
B. 632N
C. 922N
D. 982N
45. A 4000-lb truck is
stationary. What are the
normal forces exerted on the
fron tire and rear tire,
respectively, if both tires are
separated by 15 ft and the
rear tire is 5 ft from the end
of the 25 foot truck.
A. 1500lb, 2500lb
B. 2000lb, 2000lb
C. 2500 lb, 1500lb
D. 1000lb, 3000lb
46. To maintain the box in
equilibrium, a 75 N tension in
is required that is inclied at
45 degrees with respect to the
horizontal. Calculate the
value of the horiznontal
equilibrant.
A.53.03
B.56.75
C.62.83
D.75
47. An 80kg acrobat is
dangerously standing n
balance at the middle of a
tightly stretched rope such
that the angle that the rope
makes with the horizontal is
7 degrees. What is the tension
In the rope?
A. 1620N
B. 2580N
C. 2750N
D. 3220N
48. A horizontal rod is 10 ft
long. a 10lb force is applied
vertically downwards 3ft
from the right end. What is
the sim of magnitudes of the
torque about the two ends of
the rod?
A. 10 lbft
B. 30 lb-ft
C. 70 lb-ft
D. 100 lb-ft
49. A block is placed in an
inclined plane at an angle teta
with respect to the
horizontall. What is the value
of teta such that the block
will start to move doen the
plane at a constant velocity?
Coefficient of fricitn is 0.45
and the mass of the block is
100kg.
A. 24.2 deg
B. 28.9 deg
C. 33.1 deg
D. 34.9 deg
50. Solve the coefficient of
friction between a 1500kg
block and the surface if the
block is being pulled along
the surface at uniform speed
wit a rope that is inclinedat
30deg assume that the tension
in the rope is 500N
A. 0.03
B. 0.08
C. 0.15
D. 0.30
51. Find the coefficent of
static friction for a 50 lbf
block resting on a horizontal
surface being pulled
horizontally using a rope if it
needs around 6 lb of tension
to keen on moving once it
already started to move.
A. 0.12
B. 0.2
C. 0.25
D. 0.30
52. For the block on the
previous problem what is the
coefficient of kinetic friction
once it is now moving at
constant velocity?
A. 0.08
B. 0.1
C. 0.12
D. 0.18
53. A fisherman’s boat
moves at a speed of 15 kph in
calm water. The fisherman
steers the boat staraight
across a river in which the
current is 7kph. What is the
velocity of the boat
A. 85 kph
B. 13.4 kph
C. 16.6 kph
D. 18.9 kph
54. What is the coefficient of
the starting friction if the
force required to over a mass
of 100 kg over a rough
surface is around 460N?
A. 0.35
B. 0.47
C. 0.52
D. 0.59
55. Calculate the mass vertical. What is the
moment of inertia of a magnitude of the force F.?
cylinder wit hraduis of 4m
A. 32.57
and has a mass of 12kg?
B. 34.35
A. 96
C. 47.68
B. 192
D. 51.43
C. 288
D. 312 60. What is the mass moment
of inertia of a 15 kg solid
56. Solve for the second
moment of area of a circle cone hwose circular base has
with respect to an axis 1 a diameter of 10 meters
meter away from the A. 112.5
circumference. The radios of B. 156.7
the circle is 3 units. C. 254.8
A. 257 D. 268.5
B. 516
C. 624
D. 728
57. An 800 N box hangs on a
vertical rope. A man pushes
the box horizontally ultil the
rope now hangs 45 deg. With
respect to the vertical. Solve
for the tension in the rope.
A.1131
B.1435
C. 1600
D. 1895
58What is the mass moment
of inertia of a ball if it has a
mass of 2kg, radius of 0.3
metrs and is rotating at a
speed of 15 rpm
A. 0.036
B. 0.048
C. 0.060
D. 0.072
59. A ball with a mass of 5kg
is suspended from a ceiling
by any means of a cord.
When a horizontal force F is
applied to the ball the ball
hangs motionless with the
cord making an angle of
35deg with respect to the
ECE198L
Sale, Mhiko
GEAS
SET 5
STRENGTH OF
MATERIALS
1. What is the ratio of the
transverse strain to the
corresponding axial strain in
a body subjected to uniaxial
stress?
A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Euler‟s ratio
C. Refractive index
D. Dielectric index
2. What are the four basic
forms of deformation of
solid bodies?
A. Tension, compression,
bending and twisting
B. Tension, compression,
elongation and bending
C. Tension, compression,
plastic and elastic
D. Tension, compression,
elongation and torsion
3. What is a structural
member supported
horizontally and carries
transverse loading?
A. Beam
B. Column
C. Arch
D. Shaft
4. What refers to a slender
member which prevents
parts of a structure moving
towards each other under
compressive force?
A. Tie
B. Column
C. Panel
D. Strut
5. What refers to a slender
member which prevents
parts of a structure moving
towards each other under
compressive force?
A. Tie
B. Column
C. Strut
D. Arch
6. What refers to the point
in which the bending
moment changes sign
through a zero value?
A. Critical point
B. Point of inflection
C. Point of contraflexure
D. Point of zero stress
7. What is the unit of
strain?
A. Pascal
B. Unitless
C. N-m
D. N-m/s
8. Volumetric stain is the:
A. change in volume per unit
time
B. square root of difference
of original volume and
change in volume
C. original volume minus
change in volume
D. ratio of change in volume
to original volume
9. What refers to the stress
in the material at the elastic
limit?
A. Working stress
B. Yield stress
C. Ultimate stress
D. Maximum stress
10. Which of the following
materials has the least
modulus of elasticity?
A. Steel
B. Glass
C. Copper
D. Aluminum
11. Within elastic limit, the
shear stress is proportional
to shear strain. What is the
constant of proportionality
of this statement called?
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Young‟s modulus
D. Bulk modulus
12. What is the unit of the
modulus of elasticity?
A. N-m
B. Unitless
C. Pa
D. N-m/s
13. Within elastic limit, the
volumetric strain is
proportional to the
hydrostatic stress. What is
the constant that relates
these two quantities called?
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Young‟s modulus
D. Bulk modulus
14. What is another term
for modulus of rigidity?
A. Shear modulus
B. Young‟s modulus
C. Bulk modulus
D. Modulus of elasticity
15. How many times
greater is the plastic range
of strain as compared to
the elastic range of strain?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
16. What does it means
when the material is said to
be “yielding”?
A. The material has pass
through plastic range and
enter the elastic range
B. The material has pass
through elastic range and
enter the plastic range
C. The material is in the
elastic range only
D. The material is in the
plastic range only
17. What refers to the
parallel axis theorem for
second moment of area?
A. Mohr‟s theorem
B. Steiner’s theorem
C. Maxwell‟s theorem
D. Young‟s theorem
18. The elastic deformation
of a material is:
A. directly proportional to
cross-sectional area of the
material
B. inversely proportional to
the modulus of elasticity of
material
C. inversely proportional to
the force acting on the
material
D. inversely proportional to
the initial length of the
material
19. The strain energy of a
member is:
A. inversely proportional to
the square of the force
acting on the member
B. directly proportional to
the modulus of elasticity
C. inversely proportional to
the cross-sectional area of
the member
D. inversely proportional to
the initial length of the
member
20. Stiffness is:
A. ratio of force to
deformation
B. ratio of force to modulus
of elasticity
C. ratio of product of cross-
sectional area and initial
length to deformation
D. ratio of initial length to
cross-sectional area
21. Which of the following
substances has the least
average coefficient of linear
thermal expansion?
A. Copper
B. Concrete
C. Steel
D. Tin
22. Steel has a modulus of
elasticity of _____ MPa.
A. 200
B. 2,000
C. 20,000
D. 200,000
23. What is the maximum
moment of a beam
supported at both ends and
carries a uniform load of w
throughout its entire
length?
A. wL / 2
B. wL / 8
C. wL2 / 8
D. wL2 / 4
24. ____ is the stress
beyond which the material
will not return to its original
shape when unloaded but
will retain a permanent
deformation.
A. Elastic limit
B. Proportional limit
C. Yield limit
D. Yield strength
25. All are methods of
determining the bar force
of a truss member except
one. Which one?
A. Method of joints
B. Method of section
C. Method of virtual work
D. Maxwell diagram
26. What is the range of
Poisson’s ratio for most
metals
A. 0.25 to 0.35
B. 0.35 to 0.45
C. 0.10 to 0.25
D. 0.15 to 0.20
27. A cylinder is said to be
a “thin-walled” cylinder if
the ratio of the wall
thickness to the internal
diameter of the cylinder is
less than _________.
A. 1/10
B. 1/5
C. 1/2
D. 1/20
28. The strain energy of a
member is:
A. inversely proportional to
the square of the force
acting on the member
B. directly proportional to
the modulus of elasticity
C. inversely proportional to
the cross-sectional area of
the member
D. inversely proportional to
the initial length of the
member
29. When an axial stress is
applied eccentrically to a
beam, the combined stress
due to compression and
bending can be computed
by ____________.
A. using frame theory
B. using finite stress analysis
C. adding the compression
and bending stresses
D. using Maxwell’s diagram
30. What does it means
when the material is said to
be “yielding”?
A. The material has pass
through plastic range and
enter elastic range
B. The material has pass
through elastic range and
enter the plastic range
C. The material is in the
elastic range only
D. The material is in the
plastic range only
31. What is the maximum
normal stress on an element
of a thin hollow sphere with
a radius of 15 inches and a
thickness of 0.15 inches that
is subjected to an internal
pressure of 200 psi
A.5000 psi
B.7500 psi
C.10000 psi
D.15000 psi
32.What is the maximum
thickness of a steel plate in
which a 4.2 inch diameter
hole can be drilled? Assume
that for this material, the
maximum shearing strength
is 50 ksi and the maximum
compressive strength is 60
ksi.
A.1.26 in
B.1.53 in
C.2.23 in
D.2.87 in
33. Solve for the smallest
hole diameter that can be
drilled on a plate with
maximum shear strength of
50 ksi and a maximum
compressive strength of 60
ksi. Assume that the
thickness of the plate is half
an inch.
A.1.22 in
B.1.67 in
C.2.45 in
D.2.88 in
34. For a steel shaft with a
cross sectional diameter of
100 mm that is installed in
between fixed walls with a
distance of 4 meter, solve
for the stress in the shaft if
the temperature changes by
30 degrees. For steel, the
coefficient of linear
expansion is 11.7x10-6 /C
A.35.6 MPa
B.53.4 MPa
C.70.2 MPa
D.88.1 MPa
35.What is the force
required in you want to drill
a 0.75-in hole on a 1-in steel
plate? For this specific
plate, the maximum
shearing stress and the
maximum compressive
stress is 30,000 psi and
60,000 psi, respectively.
A.40,000 lb
B.63,000 lb
C.71,000 lb
D.84,000 lb
36. If a bar is under a stress
of 250 MPa, determine the
elongation assuming it is
made from steel that is 10 m
long.
A.12.5 mm
B.23.1 mm
C.43.5 mm
D.50.1 mm
37. What is the increase in
length of a steel pipe, 10 m
long, if it’s temperature is
doubled from 20 degree
Celsius?
A.2.34 mm
B.3.45 mm
C.4.13 mm
D.5.86 mm
38. What is the diameter of
a bolt if it is used to join
two steel bars together
under a tensile force of 10
kN if the maximum bearing
stress if 55 MPa? Assume
that the thickness of the
plate is 10 mm.
A.1.5 mm
B.1.8 mm
C.2.3 mm
D.2.9 mm
39. If a tank in the shape of
a sphere with a diameter of
10 m contains gas with a
pressure of 50 MPa, what
should be the thickness if it
is put under stress of 500
MPa?
A.125 mm
B.250 mm
C.350 mm
D.400 mm
40. What is the total stress
in a 3-m long steel rod with
a diameter of 35 mm if it is
pulled at both ends by a pair
of 3500 N force at 20 ℃
A.33.4 MPa
B.48.7 MPa
C.50.4 MPa
D.53.1 MPa
41.Solve for the maximum
internal pressure inside a
thin-walled steel cylinder if
the maximum stress is 200
MPa. The 30-mm thick
container has a diameter of
half a meter and has a
length of 2.5 m.
A.12 MPa
B.16 MPa
C.20 MPa
D.24 MPa
42. What is the section
modulus of a rectangle with
a diameter of 12 m and a
base of 4 m?
A.24 m^3
B.96 m^3
C.53 m^3
D.59 m^3
43.Solve for the modulus of
elasticity of a material if,
during the stress-strain test,
it was found to have a stress
45 MPa at a unit minute. Find the amount of
deformation of 314x10-3 m. torque in its crankshaft.
A.143.3 MPa A.202 ft-lb
B.153 MPa B.244 ft-lb
C.67 MPa C.218 ft-lb
D. 126 MPa D.263 ft-lb
44. What is the increase in 49. A steel bar 40 ft long
length of a steel pipe, 10 m has a cross-sectional area of
long, if it’s temperature is 3 sq. inches. How much is it
doubled from 20 degree stretched when supporting a
Celsius? load of 2000 lb. Modulus of
A.2.34 mm elasticity of steel is 29,
B.3.45 mm 000,000 lb per sq. in.
C.4.13 mm A.0.00092 ft
D.5.86 mm B.0.00032 ft
C.0.00042 ft
45. If a bar is under a stress D.0.00082 ft
of 250 MPa, determine the
elongation assuming it is 50. A solid circular shaft
made from steel that is 10 m generates 100 kW while
long. turning 1.5 rps. Find the
A.12.5 mm twisting moment (in N-m)
B.23.1 mm of the shaft if the allowable
C.43.5 mm shearing stress is 40 MPa.
D.50.1 mm A.10,610
46.What is the section B.11,111
modulus of a beam with a C.12,232
circle cross-section with a D.21,222
0.85-m radius?
A.0.48 m^3 51. A cylindrical pressure
B.0.89 m^3 vessel is fabricated from
C.0.22 m^3 steel plates which have a
D. 0.77 m^3 thickness of 20 mm. The
47. What is the diameter of diameter of the pressure
a bolt if it is used to join vessel is 500 mm and its
two steel bars together length is 3 m. Determine the
under a tensile force of 10 maximum internal pressure
kN if the maximum bearing which can be applied if the
stress if 55 MPa? Assume stress in the steel is limited
that the thickness of the to 140 MPa.
plate is 10 mm. A.1.12 MPa
A.1.5 mm B.1.36 MPa
B.1.8 mm C.1.22 MPa
C.2.3 mm D.1.33 MPa
D.2.9 mm
52. If a bar is under a stress
48. A race car develops 200 of 250 MPa, determine the
hp at 4000 revolution per elongation assuming it is
made from steel that is 10 m D.5.86 mm
long.
A.12.5 mm 57. What is the total stress
B.23.1 mm in a 3-m long steel rod with
C.43.5 mm a diameter of 35 mm if it is
D.50.1 mm pulled at both ends by a pair
of 3500 N force at 20 ℃
53. Solve for the modulus of A.33.4 MPa
elasticity of a material if, B.48.7 MPa
during the stress-strain test, C.50.4 MPa
it was found to have a stress D.53.1 MPa
45 MPa at a unit
deformation of 314x10-3 m. 58. If a bar is under a stress
A.143.3 MPa of 250 MPa, determine the
B.153 MPa elongation assuming it is
C.67 MPa made from steel that is 10 m
D. 126 MPa long.
A.12.5 mm
54. What is the section B.23.1 mm
modulus of a beam with a C.43.5 mm
circle cross-section with a D.50.1 mm
0.85-m radius?
A.0.48 m^3 59.What is the section
B.0.89 m^3 modulus of a beam with a
C.0.22 m^3 circle cross-section with a
D. 0.77 m^3 0.85-m radius?
55. For a steel shaft with a A.0.48 m^3
cross sectional diameter of B.0.89 m^3
100 mm that is installed in C.0.22 m^3
between fixed walls with a D. 0.77 m^3
distance of 4 meter, solve
for the stress in the shaft if
the temperature changes by 60. A race car develops 200
30 degrees. For steel, the hp at 4000 revolution per
coefficient of linear minute. Find the amount of
expansion is 11.7x10-6 /C torque in its crankshaft.
A.35.6 MPa A.202 ft-lb
B.53.4 MPa B.244 ft-lb
C.70.2 MPa C.218 ft-lb
D.88.1 MPa D.263 ft-lb

56. What is the increase in

length of a steel pipe, 10 m
long, if it’s temperature is
doubled from 20 degree
Celsius?
A.2.34 mm
B.3.45 mm
C.4.13 mm
ECE198L B.speed 13.In mechanics, it refers to
Sale, Mhiko I. C.Displacement the imaginary force that is
GEAS D.acceleration always pointing outwards of
SET 6 the circular path.
PHYSICS 2 7.The rate at which velocity A.Centripetal force
changes with time is known B. gravitational force
1.The number 175.00 has as C.Normal force
how many significant A.Acceleration D. centrifugal force
numbers? B.average speed
A.3 C.Instantaneous speed 14.Which of the following
B. 5 D. instantaneous velocity is not an SI derived unit?
C.4 A.°C
D.6 8.What is used to determine B. Pascal
the type of flow of a liquid? C.Joules
2.How many basic units are A.Reynold’s number D. Watt
there in the International SI B.Froude’s number
units? C.Kutter’s number 15.What is the property of
A.6 D.Bernoulli’s number matter that causes it to resist
B. 8 a change in its state of
C.7 9.Work is defined as the motion?
D.9 product of: A.Weight
A.Force and displacement B.mass
3.What is the standard unit B.displacement and time C.Inertia
of mass? C.Force and time D.elasticity
A.Kilogram D.power and time
B.Gram 16.One horsepower is
C.Pound 10.What is the third law of equivalent to how many
D.Newton motion? watts?
A.Law of inertia A.550
4.What is another term for B.law of impulse and B.33,000
vector product of two momentum C.746
vectors? C.Law of acceleration D. 250
A.Cross product D.law of reaction 17.Infrasound refers to
B.dot product 11.What refers to the sounds whose frequencies
C.Vector product product of the force and the are below _____.
D.plus product time during which a force A.20 Hz
acts? B.40 Hz
5. Which is NOT a vector A.Impulse C.30 Hz
quantity? B.power D.50 Hz
A.Displacement C.Momentum
B.Acceleration D.energy 18.What refers to the
C.Velocity change in frequency of a
D.Time 12.Momentum is the wave when there is relative
product of: motion between its source
6.The _____ of a particle is A.Mass and time and an observer?
defined as its change in B.force and time A.Superposition principle
position in some time C.Velocity and mass B.Doppler effect
interval. D. force and mass C.Shock effect
A.Distance D.wave motion
 cm. The frequency of the
19.It is the bouncing off of a 25.In which medium do wave is 1900 Hz. Compute
wave as it hits the barrier. sound waves travel the the speed of sound wave?
A.Dispersion fastest? A. 342 m/s
B. refraction A.Liquids B. 400 m/s
C.Reflection B.gases C. 542 m/s
D.incidence C.Solids D. 300 m/s
D. vacuum
20.Which one states that 32. A sound wave on a
each point on a wavefront 26.What color has the certain material has
maybe regarded as a new longest wavelength? wavelength of 10 cm and
source of disturbance? A.Orange frequency of 2000 Hz. What
A.Foucault’s theory B.yellow is the velocity of sound
B. newton’s wave theory C.Red wave?
C.Huygen’s principle D. green
D. hertz’s theory of wave A.202 m/s
motion 27.What color has the B.208 m/s
shortest wavelength? C.212 m/s
21.What is the distance A.Indigo D.200 m/s
from a lens to its focal point B. blue
called? C.Violet 33. What is the velocity of
A.Focal index D. green sound t room temperature
B. focal length which is a 27 ℃?
C.Focal factor 28.What is the speed of A.347.1 m/s
D. all of the above sound in air at 0 degrees B. 345.9 m/s
Celsius? C. 346.8 m/s
22.What refers to the ability A.300 m/s
D. 348.2 m/s
of waves to bend around the B 332 m/s
edges of obstacles in their C.330 m/s 34. Find the angle of
paths? D. 338 m/s refraction of light as a beam
A.Coherence of parallel light enters a
29.What is the unit of block of ice at an incident
B.refraction electric current? angle of 35 degrees. Use
C.Reflection A.Volt index of refraction of air
D. diffraction B. ampere and ice as 1.0 and 1.31,
C.Watt respectively.
23.The second law of D. coulomb A.33
motion is also known a B.32
A.Law of acceleration 30.What is the unit of C.31
B.law of interaction luminous intensity?
D.30
C.Law of inertia A.Footcandle
D. law of momentum B.candela 35. What is the index of
C.Lumen refraction of a certain
24.What refers to a measure D.Lux medium if the speed of
of the energy of sound? flight in that medium is only
A.Intensity 31. The wavelength of a half he speed of light in a
B. pitch source wave in a certain vacuum?
C.Loudness material as measured is 18 A.2.00
D.sone
B.1.85
C.2.21
D.1.80
36. A flint glass plate (index
of refraction = 1.8) has a
thickness of 20 mm. How
long it take for a pulse of
light to pass through the
glass plate?
A.4.2x10-10 s
B.2.2x10-10 s
C.1.2x10-10 s
D.3.2x10-10 s
37. A ray of light passes
from the heavy flint glass to
water. What is the critical
angle for this ray of light to
pass the glass? Use index of
refraction of heavy flint
glass and water as 1.650 and
1.33, respectively.
A.50.81
B.51.71
C.52.81
D.53.71
38. A light ray passing
through air, strikes a glass
surface at an angle of 50
degrees from the normal
surface. What is the angle
between the glass surface
and the reflected light ray?
A.42
B.36
C.38
D.40
39. A double convex lens
has faces of radii 15 and 30
cm. When an object is 20
cm from the lens, a real
image is formed 25 cm from
the lens. What is the focal
length of the lens?
A.12.81
B.12.12
C.11.81
D.11.11
40. An object is placed 10
cm to the left of the lens that
has a focal length of 6 cm.
What is the magnification of
the lens?
A.-1.0
B.-1.5
C.-2.5
D.-2.0
41. Find the frequency of a
photon having an energy of 3
eV?
A.724 THz
B.732 THz
C.741 THz
D.745 THz
42. A concave shaving mirror
has a focal length of 40 cm.
How far away from it should
one’s face be for the reflected
image to be erect and twice
its actual size?
A.18 cm
B.20 cm
C.22 cm
D.24 cm
43. An object is placed 8 cm
from the lens with a focal
length of 10 cm. Where is the
image located from the lens?
A.-30 cm
B.-35 cm
C.-40 cm
D.-45 cm
44. A converging lens of
focal length of 15 cm is
placed 30 cm in front of a
screen. At what distance
should the object be placed in
order that the image will
appear exactly on the screen?
A.30 cm
B.35 cm
C.40 cm
D.45 cm
45.Find the location of the
image of an object placed 10
cm to the left of the lens that
as a focal length of 6 cm.
A.13 cm
B.15 cm
C.12 cm
D.14 cm
46. An object is placed 8 cm
from the lens with a focal
length of 10 cm. Where is the
image located from the lens?
A.-30 cm
B.-35 cm
C.-40 cm
D.-45 cm
47. A uniform steel beam is
12 feet long is suspended
from one end by a
construction crane.
Determine the period of
oscillation of the beam.
A. 3.13 s
B. 4.13 s
C.5.13 s
D. 6.13 s
48. A 2000-kg truck
accelerates from 20 kph to
120 kph in 10 s. Find its
engine power output in watts.
A.22666 W
B.22999 W
C.12888 W
D.107998 W
49. During a race, Jan
Michael’s sports car develops
a 250 hp at 4000 rpm. What
is the amount of torque
exerted on the crankshaft?
A.328.25
B.329
C.330
D.340 60. What is the velocity of
55. Find the frequency of a sound t room temperature
50. Tiger woods hit a golf photon having an energy of 3 which is a 27 ℃?
ball at a velocity of 80 m/s. eV? A.347.1 m/s
The head of his club was in A.724 THz B. 345.9 m/s
contact with the 50 g ball for B.732 THz C. 346.8 m/s
0.40 ms. What is the average C.741 THz D. 348.2 m/s
force acting on the golf ball D.745 THz
during impact?
A.25 kN 56. The wavelength of a
B.20 kN source wave in a certain
C.10 kN material as measured is 18
D.15 kN
cm. The frequency of the
51. An apple can provide a
wave is 1900 Hz. Compute
person about 20000 J of the speed of sound wave?
work. To what height can a A. 342 m/s
50-kg man climb upstairs if B. 400 m/s
he eats one apple? C. 542 m/s
A.36.8 m D. 300 m/s
B.38.6 m
C.40.8 m 57. An object is placed 8 cm
D.42.6 m from the lens with a focal
length of 10 cm. Where is the
52. A rubber ball is dropped image located from the lens?
to the floor from a height of 3 A.-30 cm
m. It rebounds to a height of B.-35 cm
1.8 m. What is the coefficient C.-40 cm
of restitution? D.-45 cm
A.0.625
B.0.825 58. What is the wavelength of
C.0.665 yellow light whose frequency
D.0.775 is 5 x 10^14 Hz
A.800 nm
53. What is the wavelength of B.200 nm
yellow light whose frequency C.600 nm
is 5 x 10^14 Hz D.700 nm
A.800 nm
B.200 nm 59. An apple can provide a
C.600 nm person about 20000 J of
D.700 nm work. To what height can a
50-kg man climb upstairs if
54. A rubber ball is dropped he eats one apple?
to the floor from a height of 3 A.36.8 m
m. It rebounds to a height of B.38.6 m
1.9 m. What is the coefficient C.40.8 m
of restitution? D.42.6 m
A.0.625
B.0.825
C.0.665
D.0.796
ECE198L indirectly to the satisfaction A. Mall
Sale, Mhiko I. of human want? B. Market
GEAS C. Store
SET 7 A. Services D. Office
Engineering Economics B. Goods
1.What is defined as analysis C. Commodites
and evaluation of monetary D. Goods or
9. What is considered as the
consequences by using the commodities
basic consuming or
theories and principles of
5.What are the two demanding unit of
economics to engineering
classification of goods and commodity?
applications, designed and
services?
projects? A. seller
A. Local and imported B. manufacturer
A. Economic Analysis
B. Raw and Finisned C. producer
B. Engnieering cost
C. Consumer and D. buyer or consumer
analysis
producer
C. Engineering 10. What is defined as an
D. Ready-made and
economy entity which makes product,
made-to-order
D. Design cost analysis good or services available
buyer or consumer in
2. What is considered as the
exchange of monetary
standard unit which forms the 6.What refers to the goods
consideration?
basis of a country’s domestic and services that are required
money supply? to support human life, needsa A. seller
and activites? B. manufacturer
A. Monetary unit C. producer
B. Currency A. Producer products
D. buyer or consumer
C. Foreign exchange B. Consumer products
D. Cash or check C. Luxury 11. What is the market
D. Necissities situation whereby there is
only one buyer of an item for
3.What is defined as the
which there is no goods
analysis defined as any
7. What refers to the goods substitute?
tangile economic product that
and services that are desired
contributes directly or A. Monopsony
by human and will be
indirectly to the satisfaction B. Monopoly
acquired only after all the
of human want? C. Oligopoly
needs have been satisfied?
D. Oligopsony
A. Services
A. Producer products
B. Goods 12. What market situation
B. Consumer products
C. Commodities exists where there are few
C. Luxury
D. Goods or sellers and few buyers?
D. Necissities
commodites
A. Oligopoly
8.What refers to the exchange
B. Oligsopoly
mechanism that brings
C. Bilateral Oligopoly
4.What is defined as any together sellers and the
D. Bilateral
tangible economic activity buyers of a product, factor of
Oligopsony
that contributes directly or production or financial
security?
13. What market situation C. Many sellers and few B. Oligopoly
exists where there is only one buyers C. Oligposony
buyer and only one seller? D. One seller and few D. Monopoly
buyers
A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
22. Aside from many sellers
C. Bilateral monopsony
18. Duopsony is a market and may buyers, which one is
D. Bilateral monopoly
where there is/are: a characteristic of perfect
competition?
A. Few sellers and few
14. What is the market buyers A. Homogenous product
situation exists when there B. Few sellers and many B. Free market entry
are many buyers and many buyers and exit
sellers? C. Many sellers and C. Perfect information
few buyers and absence of all
A. Perfect competition D. One seller and few economic friction
B. Monopoly
buyers D. All of the above
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony 19. Doupoly is a market
situation where there is/are:
23. What is the opposite of
A. Few sellers and few perfect competition?
15. If there is only one seller
buyers
and many buyers, the market A. Monopsony
B. two sellers and
situation is ___. B. Oligopoly
many buyers
C. Oligposony
A. Duapsony C. Many sellers and few
buyers D. Monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligposony D. One seller and few 24. What refers to the need,
D. Monopoly buyers want or desire for a product
backed by the money to
purchase it?
16. IF there are many sellers 20. What is another term for
A. Supply
and few buyers, the market “perfect competion”?
B. Demand
situation is ____.
A. Atomistic C. Product
A. Duapsony competion D. Good
B. Oligopoly B. No-limit competion
C. Oligposony C. Free-for-all market
D. Monopoly D. Heterogenous market 25. What refers to the amount
of a product made available
21. what refers to the market
for sale?
situation in which any given
17. Oligopoly exists when product is supplied by a very A. Supply
there is/are: large number of vendors and B. Demand
A. Few sellers and few there is no restriction against C. Product
buyers additional vendors from D. Good
B. Few sellers and entering the market?
many buyers A. Perfect competition
26. Under ordinary simple 31. First Benchamrk 34. The monthly demand for
interest, how many days in Publishing’s gross margin is ice cans being manufactured
one year? 50% of sales. The operating by MR. Camus is 3200
costs of the publishing are pieces. With a manual
A. 300
estimated at 15% of sales. If operated guillotine, the unit
B. 360 the company is within the cutting cost is P 25.00. An
C. 365
40% tax bracket, determine electrically operated
D. 366
the percent of sales is their hydraulic guillotine was
profit after taxes? offered to MR. Camus at a
price of P 275,000 and which
27. One banker’s year A. 21%
cuts by 30% the unit cutting
equivalent to ___ days. B. 20%
cost. Disregarding the cost of
C. 19%
A. 300 money, how many months
D. 18%
B. 360 will MR. Camus be able to
C. 365 recover the cost of the
D. 366 machine if he decides to buy
32. A farmer selling eggs at now?
28. What refers to the present 50 esos a dozen gains 20%. If
worth of the probable future he ssells the eggs at the same A. 10 months
net earnings? price after the cost of the B. 11 months
eggs rises by 12.5%, how C. 12 months
A. Total fair value much will his new gain in D. 13 months
B. Total market value percent?
C. Going concern value
D. Earning value A. 6.89%
35. Engr. Trinidad loans from
B. 6.65% a loan firm an amount of P
29. What refers to the amount C. 6.58%
of money paid for the used of 100,00 with a rate of simple
D. 6.12%
borrowed capital? interest of 20% but the
interest was deducted fro the
A. Interest loan at the time of the money
B. Rate of interest 33. A feasibility study shows was borrowed. If at the end
C. Simple interest that a fixed capital of one year, she has to pay
D. Principal investment of P 10,000,000 is the full amount of P 100,000
required for a proposed what is the actual rate?
construction firm and an
estimated working capital of A. 23.5%
30. What refers to the cost of
P 2,000,000. Annual B. 24.7%
borrowing money or the
Depriciation is estimated to C. 25%
amount earned by a unit
be 10% of the fixed capital D. 25.8%
principal per unit time?
investment. Determine the
A. Yield rate rate of return on the total
B. Rate of return investment if the annual 36. A loan of P 5,000 is made
C. Rate of interest profit is P 3,500,000. for a period of 15 months at a
D. Economic Return simpe interest rate of 15%,
A. 28.33%
what future amount is due at
B. 29.17% the end of the loan period?
C. 30.12%
D. 30.78% A. 5,937.60
 B. 5,873.20 at an interest rate of 14% of review and training center,
C. 5,712.40 which P 11,200 was deducted Inc. witn an interest of 6%
D. 5,690.12 and you were given a check for 180 days on the principal
of P 68,800. Since you have collected in advance. The
to pay the amount of P corporation would accept a
37. Mr. Bacani borrowed 80,000 one year after, what promissory note of P 20,000
money from the bank he then will be the effective non-interest for 180 days. If
received from the bank P interest rate? discounted at once, find the
1,842 and promised to repay proceeds of the note.
A. 16.02%
P2,000 at te end of the 10
B. 16.28% A. P 18,800
months. Determine the rate of
C. 16.32% B. P 18,900
simple interest.
D. 16.47% C. P 19,000
A. 12.19% D. P 19,100
B. 12.03%
C. 11.54% 40. A man invested P
D. 10.29% 110,000 for 31 days. The net 43. Miss Evilla borrowed
interest after deducting 20% money from the bank. She
withholding tax is P 890.36. receives from the bank
38. A college freshman Find the rate of return P1,340.00 and promised to
borrowed P2,000 from a bank annually. pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9
for his tition fee and months. Determine the
A. 11.50%
promised to pay the amount corresponding discount rate
B. 11.75% or often referred to as the
for one year. He received
C. 11.95%
only the amount of P1,920 “banker;s discount”.
D. 12.32%
after the bank collected an
A. 13.15%
advance interest of P80,000.
B. 13.32%
What was the rate of
41. The investor wishes to C. 13.46%
discount?
earn 7% on his capital after D. 13.73%
A. 3.67% payment of taxes. If the
B. 4.00% income form an available
C. 4.15% investment will be taxed at an 44. The exact simple interest
D. 4.25% average rate of 42%, what of P 5,000 invested from June
minimum rate of return, 21, 1995 to December
before payment of taxes, 25,1995 is P100. What is the
39. It is the practice of almost must the investment offer to rate of interest?
all the banks in the be justified?
A. 3.90%
Philippines that when they
A. 12.07% B. 3.92%
are grant a loan, the interest
B. 12.34% C. 3.95%
for one year is automatically
C. 12.67% D. 3.98%
deducted from the principal
D. 12.87%
amount upon release of mney
to a borrower. Let us
45. What is the ordinary
therefore assume that you
42. Mr Jun Ramos was interest on P 1,500.50 for 182
applied for a loan with a bank
granted a loan of P 20,000 by days at 5.2%?
an the P 80,000 was approved
his employer excel first
 A. P 39.01 C. 12.24% eight years, at which time the
B. P 39.82 compounded principal is withdrawn. The
C. P 39.45 quarterly interest has accursed is left
D. P 39.99 D. 11.60% compounded for another eight years. If the
monthly effective annual interest rate
is 5%, what will be the
46. A loan for P 50,000 is to withdrawal amount at the end
be paid in 3 years at the 50. An amount of P 1,000 of the 16th year?
amount of P 65,000. What is becomes P 1608.44 after 4
A. P 693.12
the effective rate of money? years compounded
B. P 700.12
bimonthly. Find the nominal
A. 9.01% C. P 702.15
interest.
B. 9.14% D. P 705.42
C. 9.31% A. 11.89%
D. 9.41% B. 12%
C. 12.08% 54. Mandarin bank advertises
D. 12.32% 9.5% account that yields
47. What is the effective rate 9.84% annually. Find how
corresponding to 18% often the interest is
compounded daily? Take 1 51. How long will it take compounded.
year to equal to 360 days. money to double itsel if
A. Monthly
invested at 5% compounded
A. 19.61% B. Bimonthly
annually?
B. 19.44% C. Quarterly
C. 19.31% A. 13.7 years D. Annually
D. 19.72% B. 14.7 years
C. 14.2 years
D. 15.3 years 55. A student plans to deposit
48. What rate of interest P 1,500 in the bank now and
compounded annually is the another P 3,000 for the next 2
same as the rate of interest of 52. By the condition of a will, years. If he plans to withdraw
8% compounded quarterly? the sum of P 20,000 is left to P 5,000 three years form after
a girl to be held in trust fund his last deposit for the
A. 8.07% purpose of buying shoes,
by her guardian until it
B. 8.12% what will be the amount of
amounts to P50,000. When
C. 8.16% money left in the bank after
will the girl receive the
D. 8.24% money if the fund is invested one year of his withdrawal?
at 8% compounded Effective annual interest rate
quarterly? is 10%.
49. Which of these gives the
lowest effective rate of A. 11.23 years A. P 1,549.64
interest? B. 11.46 years B. P 1,459.64
C. 11.57 years C. P 1,345.98
A. 12.35% compounded D. 11.87 years D. P 1,945.64
annually
B. 11.90% compounded
semi-annually 56. You borrow P 3,500.00
53. A sum of P 1,000 is
invested now and left for for one year from a friend at
an interest rate of 1.5% per 60. What is the present worth
month instead of taking a of a 3 year annuity paying P
loan from a bank at a rate of 3,000.00 at the end of each
18% per year. How much year, with interest of 8%
lesser you will pay by compounded annually?
borrowing the money from
A. P 7,654.04
the bank?
B. P 7,731.29
A. P 62.44 C. P 7,420.89
B. P 44.55 D. P 7,590.12
C. P 54.66
D. P 37.56
57. What is the present with
of two P 100 payments at the
end of the third year and
fourth year? The annual
interest rate of 8%.
A. P 150.56
B. P 152.88
C. P 153.89
D. P 151.09

58. A firm borrows P 2,000

for 6 years at 8%. At the end
of 6 years it renews the loan
for the amount due plus P
2,000 for 2 years at 8%. What
is the lump sum due?
A. P 3,260.34
B. P 3,280.34
C. P 3,270.34
D. P 3,250.34
59. What annuity is required
over 12 years to equate with a
future amount f P20,000?
Assume i=6% annually.
A. P 1,290.34
B. P 1,185.54
C. P 1,107.34
D. P 1,205.74
ECE198L
SALE, MHIKO I.
SET1
Algebra
1. The _____ property of
addition says we can add
number in any order
A. Closure
B. Distributive
C. Associative
D. Commutative
2. A/an ______ equation is an
equation that is true for any
number substituted to the
variable.
A. Consistent
B. Independent
C. Identity
D. Conditional
3. These are solution that
satisfy a transformed
equation but do not satisfy
the original equation.
A. Pertinent Solutions
B. Extraneous Solutions
C. Intrinsic Solutions
D. Primitive Solutions
4. In the equation ax^2 + bx
+ c = 0, the product of the
roots is ______.
A. -c/a
B. -b/a
C. c/a
D. b/a
5. This method for solving
linear systems is a systematic
process of elimination that
reduces to triangular form
because the system can then
be easily solved by back
substitutions.
A. Runge-Kutta Method
B. Gaussian Elimination
C. Gauss-Jordan Elimination
D. Gauss-Seidal Method
6. In the equation ‘n x m =
q’, the multiplicand is
A. n
B. m
C. q
D. none of the above
7. If x is an irrational number
not equal to zero and x^2 =
N, then which of the
following best describes N?
A. N is a natural number
B. N is a positive rational
number
C. N is any rational number
D. N is a positive integral
number
𝑛
8. In the expression √𝑎 , the
number n is call the
A. Power
B. Exponent
C. Radicand
D. Index
9. Which statement is true for
the function f(x) 1/(x+4).
A. 4 is not the range of the
function
B. 4 is not the domain of the
function
C. -4 is not the range of the
function
D. -4 is not the domain of
the function
10. In the Gauss elimination
method for solving a system
of linear algebraic equations,
triangulations leads tto
A. Singular matrix
B. Upper triangular matrix
C. Diagonal matrix
D. Lower diagonal matrix
11. It is a sequence same as
Fibonacci sequence but with
different initial conditions.
A. Euler sequence
B. Lucas sequence
C. Sloane sequence
D. Fermat sequence
12. The power set of empty
set has many subsets?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
13. If he discriminant of a
quadratic equation is _____
the roots are complex.
A. a rational number
B. greater than zero
C. less than zero
D. an irrational number
14. Given a function y = f(x)
from set A to set B, denoted
as f: A B, B is called
______ of f.
A. domain
B. limit
C. range
D. codomain
15. The intensity of sound
varies directly as the strength
of the source and inversely as
the square of the distance
from the source. Which of the
following best describes this
relation?
A. I = k(d^2/S)
B. I = k(kSd^2)
C. I = k(S/d^2)
D. I = k(S/sqrt(d))
16. What is sequence of
numbers such that successive
terms differ by a constant.
A. Arithmetic progression
B. Infinite geometric
progression
C. Geometric progression
D. Harmonic progression
17. Convergent series is a
sequence of decreasing
numbers or when succeeding
term is _____ the preceding
term.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. greater than
D. twice
18. What refers to a sequence
of numbers where the
succeeding term is greater
than the preceding term?
A. Divergent sequence
B. Isometric sequence
C. Convergent sequence
D. Dissonant sequence
19. What refers to the 24. If a = b, then b=a. This
fraction part of a logarithm? illustrates which axiom in
A. Characteristics algebra.
B. Mantissa A. Transitive axiom
C. Cologarithm B. Replacement axiom
D. Natural logarithm C. Reflexive axiom
D. Symmetric axiom
20. What is the equivalent of
the Roman numeral 25. Zero raise to any number
MCMXCIV? is equal to
A. 1964 A. Zero
B. 1974 B. Indeterminate
C. 1984 C. Infinity
D. 1994 D. 1
21. If 𝑎⃗ + 𝑏⃗⃗ + 𝑐⃗ = 0 then 26. The set of all real
numbers under the usual
𝑎⃗ 𝑥 𝑏⃗⃗ is equal to
multiplication operation is
A. 𝑐⃗ 𝑥 𝑎⃗
not a group since
B. 𝑐⃗
A. multiplication is not a
C. ⃗𝒃⃗ 𝒙 ⃗𝒄⃗ binary operation
D. 𝑎⃗ 𝑥 𝑐 B. multiplication is not
associative
22. The position vector of the C. identity element does not
points which divides exist
internally in the ratio 2 : 3 the D. zero has no inverse
join of the points 2a – 3b and
3a – 2b, is
27. What refers to the
12 13
A. 𝑎+ 𝑏 smallest natural number for
5 5
𝟏𝟐 𝟏𝟑 which 2 natural numbers are
B. 𝒂 − 𝒃
𝟓 𝟓 factors?
3 2
C. 𝑎 − 𝑏 A. Least common divisor
5 5
D. None of these B. Least common
denominator
23. If the roots of an equation C. Least common factor
are zero, then these roots are D. Least common multiple
classified as what type of
solutions? 28. In algebra, what refers to
A. Conditional solutions the operation of root
B. Extraneous solutions extraction?
C. Hypergolic solutions A. Evolution
D. Trivial solutions B. Resolution
C. Revolution D. 0 2
2 1 1 −
− − 3
2 −2
D. Involution ((𝑥 3 (𝑥 3 𝑥 2 (𝑥 𝑥 ) )^1
34.) Find the value of x and y
from the equations: x-4y+2=0 /2)^6
29. The number 2x+y-4=0
0.123123123… is what type
𝟓
of number? 𝒚𝟐
A. 11/7, -5/7 A.
A. Rational Number B. 11/, 8/9 𝒙
B. Irrational Number C. 14/9, 8/9 5
𝑦2
C. Imaginary Number D. 11/7, -5/7 B.-
𝑥
D. Complex Number 5
35.) Find the value of x and y 𝑦2
from the equations: 4x+2y= 5 C.
𝑥+𝑥
30. What refers to the 13x-3=2 5
difference between an 𝑦2
A. ½, 3/2 D. 𝑥+𝑦
approximate value of a
quantity and its exact value B. 0 39.)
or true value? (𝑥 2 𝑦 3 𝑧 −2 )^−3 (𝑥 −3 𝑦𝑧 3 )^−1/2
A. Relative error C. 1 5
(𝑥𝑦𝑧 −3 )−2
𝟏
B. Absolute Error D. 2 A. 𝒙𝟐𝒚𝟕𝒛𝟑
C. Mistake 2
B. 𝑥 2 𝑦7 𝑧3
D. Difference 1
C.
𝑥 2 𝑦−7 𝑧 3
3
31. IF 16 is 4 more than 4x, 36. Solve the simultaneous D. 𝑥 2 𝑦7 𝑧3
find 5x-1 equations 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 2 = 6
40.) if p-q=5 and pq=k/2,
A. 14 then 𝑝2 + 𝑞 2 equals
3𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 = 35
B. 3 A. k
C. 12 B. 25k
D. 5 C. 25+k
A. +- 3, +-sqrt(2) 𝑘
32. Find the value of x in D. 25
(x+1)/3 + 2x/4 = 47-2x B. 3
A. 16.47 41.) √𝑥 − 2 = √𝑥 + 2.
C. 4
B. 12.87
A. none of these
C. 18.27 D. sqrt(2)
D. 20.17 B. x+2
37.) Multiply the following
33.) Find the value of the (2x+5y)(5x-2y) C. 2
𝐴 𝐴
following 10 (𝑥 + ) =𝐴
𝑦 A. -10x^2 +21xy-10y^2 D. 4
𝐴 𝐴 B. 10x^2 -21xy-10y^2 𝑎𝑏
2 (3 −4 ) = 𝐴 42.) √ 3
𝑥 𝑦 √𝑎𝑏
C. 10x^2 +21xy-10y^2 𝟑
A. 50/9 A. √𝒂𝒃
D. -10x^2 -21xy-10y^2 3 1
B. √𝑎𝑏
B. 80/9
38. simplify: C. ab
C. 70/9 D. a
43.) If to the ¾ power equals 𝟓 𝟏 A. 10.9
A. 𝟑 𝒐𝒓 − 𝟐
8, x is 5 1 B. 99.9
A. 2 B. − 3 𝑜𝑟 2 C. 9.9
B. 3 D. 9
2 1
C. 4 C. 𝑜𝑟 −
3 2
D. 16 1 1 55. what is the valie of (log 5
D. 3 𝑜𝑟 −2 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the
44.) Find the quotient 3𝑥 5 − base 3)?
4𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 2 + 36𝑥 + 48 49. Solve: 10𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 + A. 7.39
divided by 𝑋 3 − 2𝑥 2 + 6 1=0 B. 3.79
A. −𝑋 3 − 2𝑥 2 + 6 C. 2.88
D. 3.12
B. 𝑋 3 − 2𝑥 2 − 6 A. -0.113, -0.887
56. Mary is 24 years old.
B. -0.123, -0.887
C. 𝑋 3 + 2𝑥 2 + 6 Mary is twice as old as ann
C. -0.113, -0.807 was when mary was as old as
D. 𝑿𝟑 − 𝟐𝒙𝟐 + 𝟔 D. -0.1, -0.87 ann is now. How old is Ann
50. In the expression now?
45. The mean of x and y is a, A. 16
the mean of y and z and the (x+4y)^12, the numerical
B. 18
mean of x and z is c, what is coefficiecnt of the 5th term is,
C. 17
the mean of x,y, and z? A. 63,360 D. 12
𝒂+𝒃+𝒄 B. 126,720 57. The sum of kim’s and
A.
𝟑 C. 21,000 kevin’s ages is 18. In 3 years,
𝑎+𝑏+𝑐 D. 36,000 kim will be twice as old as
B. 2 kevin. What are their ages
51. What is the fourth term
𝑎+𝑏+𝑐 now?
C. 3𝑎
of the expansion (𝑥 + 𝑥 2 )100 A.4,12
𝑎+𝑏+𝑐 A. 1650x^3 B.5,13
D. 3𝑏 C. 8,9
B. 161700x^103 D. 2,5
46. Find the mean C. 161600x^103
proportional of4 and 36 58. Robert is 15 years older
D. 60000x^103
A.72 than his brother stan.
B.24 52. Find the value of 𝑙𝑜𝑔8 48 However y years ago, rober
C.12 A. 1.86 was twice as old as stan. If
D.20 B. 1.69 stan is now b year old and
C. 0.12 b>y, find the value of (b-y)
47. The equation of whose
D. 0.18
roots are the reciprocal of the A. 15
2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 5 = 0 53. Evaluate the ff: B. 13
𝑙𝑜𝑔6 845 = 𝑥 C. 14
A. 𝟓𝒙𝟐 + 𝟑𝒙 − 𝟐 = 𝟎 D. 12
B. 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 5 = 0 A. 3.76
C. 3𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 5 = 0 B. 13.4 59. A 400mm pipe can fill
D. 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 5 = 0 C. 16.6 the tank alone in 5hrs and
D. 18.9 another 600mm pipe can fill
48. Solve for x that satisfies the tnak alone in 4 hrs. a
the equation 6x^2-7x-5=0 54. What is the value of log drain pipe 300 mm can empty
to ase 10 of 1000^3.3? the tank in 20 hrs. with all the
three pipes open how long
will it take to fill te tank?
A. 2 hrs
B. 2.5 hrs
C. 3 hrs
D. 1.5 hrs
60. A tank can be filled in
9hrs by one pipe, 12 hrs by a
second pope and can be
drained when full by a third
pipe in 15 hrs. how long will
it take to fill and empty tank
will all pipes in operation.
A. 8hrs
B. 7 hrs
C. 7 hrs and 40 mins
D. 7 hrs and 50 mins
ECE198L
SALE, MHIKO I.
Mathematics
SET2
Probability and Statistics
1. What is the square of the
standard deviation?
A. Variance
B. Frequency
C. Class Mark
D. Mode
2. A pictogram is a
representation of data by
symbols usually pictures.
What is another term for
pictogram?
A. Histogram
B. Ogive
C. Illustrated Diagram
D. Isotype Diagram
3. What is the good way of
displaying data that is in a
frequency distribution which
is represented by a circle and
divided into sectors?
A. Pictogram
B. Pie Chart
C. Isotype Diagram
D. Histogram
4. What is the square root of
Variance?
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Standard Deviation
D. Median
5. What is the measure of
dispersion which refers to the
difference between the
largest and smallest values?
A. Limits
B. Distribution
C. Range
D. Class Mark
6. Who introduced the
concepts of combinatorics
into calculations of
probability and now regarded
as the father of the theory of
probability
A. Blaise Pascal
B. Gerolamo Cardano
C. Jakob Bernoulli
D. Pierre de Fermat
7. The total probability of
favorable and unfavorable
outcomes is:
A. May have a value of zero
B. Maybe greater than 1
C. always 1
D. all of the above
8. A tree diagram is used to
find the probability of:
A. Mutually exclusive events
B. Independent events
C. Dependent events
D. Combined events
9. Which refers to a graph
where each vertex is
connected to every other
vertex?
A. Real Graph
B. Whole Graph
C. Complete Graph
D. General Graph
10. What is a random
variable?
A. It is a variable with a
random value
B. It is a variable which is
randomly selected
C. It is a numeric quantity
that cannot be measured in a
random experiment
D. It is a numeric quantity
that can be measured in a
random experiment
11. What type of error is
committed if the null
hypothesis is rejected when
in fact true?
A. Type III error
B. Type II error
C. Type I error
D. Type IV error
12. What type of error is
committed when a null
hypothesis is accepted
despites being false?
A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C. Type III error
D. Type IV error
13. The _________ of a test
is the probability of
committing Type I error
A. Accuracy level
B. Random level
C. Precision level
D. Significance level
14. The probability of
distribution of a continuous
random variable x is a
function of the:
A. absolute value of x
B. numeric value of x
C. imaginary value of x
D. alphanumeric value of x
15. What is the immediate
consequence of the law of
large numbers?
A. Score theorem
B. Chebyshev’s theorem
C. Deviation theorem
D. Galton theorem
16. The set of all possible
outcomes of a probability
experiment is the _____
space.
A. sample
B. outcome
C. event
D. experiment
17. The conditional
probability of B given A is
denoted symbolically by
P(B/A)=P(B), then the events
A and B are
A. dependent
B. independent
C. mutually exclusive
D. disjoint
18. It is the character of a
population which is
measurable.
A. sample
B. distribution
C. frequency
D. parameter
19. It is a measure of
relationship between two
variables.
A. Function
B. Relation 24. It is a finite sequence of
C. Correlation precise instruction for
D. Equation performing a computation or
for solving problem.
20. What is a frequency curve A. time complexity
which is composed of series B. algorithm
of rectangles connected with C. quick counting
the steps as the base and the D. sorting
frequency as the height? 25. A compound proposition
A. Histogram that is always false for all
B. Bar graph possible truth values of the
C. Ogive constituent proposition is
D. Frequency distribution called a/an _____.
A. contingency
21. Considering normal B. tautology
distribution, spread is C. contradiction
increased, and height of the D. contingency
curve is decreased for
A. smaller standard 26. Probability if an
deviation impossible event.
B. larger standard A. ½
deviation B. ¼
C. smaller mean value C. 0
D. larger mean value D. 1
22. It is the value of the 27. In a set of 4 numbers,
observation in a dataset that what happens to the variance
appears most frequently. if each number is multiplied
A. median by 2?
B. mean A. It becomes half
C. mode B. It remains the same
D. midrange C. It doubles
D. It quadruples
23. It is a formula which is
always true for every value of 28. [~q^(p q)] ~p is
propositional variables. ____.
A. equivalence A. invalid
B. tautology B. tautology
C. synthesis C. satisfiable
D. contingency D. unsatisfiable
29. A compound proposition
that is always false is called
A. idealogy
B. contradiction
C. contigency
D. imaginary
30. The probability
distribution of discrete
random variable is classified
as
A. probability mass
function
B. posterior mass function
C. interior mass function
D. continuous mass function
31. in a class of 40 students,
27 like calclulus and 25 like
chemistry. How many like
both calculus and chemistry?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
32. A club of 40 executives,
33 like to smoke Marlboro
and 20 like to smoke Philip
morris. How many like both
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
33.) A survey of 100 persons
revealed that 72 of them had
eaten at retstaurant P and that
52 of them had eaten at
restaurant Q. Which of the
following could not be th e
numer of persons in the
surveyed group who had eatn
at both P and Q?
A. 21
B. 22 there are no ties, how many
ways can these 15 people win
C. 23
first, second, third, fourth,
D. 24 and fifth prizes
34.) The probability for the
ECE board examniees from a
A. 4845
certain school to pass the
subject Math is 3/7 and for B. 116260
the subject comms is 5/7. If
none of the examniees fails C. 360,360
both subject and there are 4 D. 3003
examinees hwo pass both
37.) How many 4 digit
subjects, find the number of
numbers can be formed
examinees form that school
who took the examinations. without repeating any digit
from the following digits,
1,2,3,4 and 6
A. 22
B. 21 A. 120
C. 30
D. 28 B. 130
C. 140
35.) In commercial survey
involving 1000 persons on D. 150
brand preference, 120 were
38. What is the number of
found o prefer brand x only,
permutaitons of the letters in
200 prefer brand y only, 150
the word BANANA?
prefer brand zonly, 370
prefer either brand x or y but A. 36
not z, 450 prefer brand y or z
but not x and 370 prefer B. 60
either brand z or x but not y. C. 20
how many persons have no
brand preference, satisfied D. 10
with ay of the three brands?
A. 280
39.) A PSME unit has 10
B. 230 ME’s, 8 PME’s and 6
CPM’s. if a committee of 3
C.180 members, one form each
group is to be formed, how
D.130
many such communities can
be formed?
A. 2024
B. 12144
C. 480
36. If 15 people won prizes in D. 60
the state lottery assuming that
40.) Four different colored generated from the numbers drawing a prize of he owns 5
flags can be hung in a row to from 1 to 42 inclusive, tickets?
make a coded signal How without repetition and with
many signals can be made if no regards to the order of the A. 60%
a signal consists of the numbers? B. 40%
display of one or more flags?
A. 64 A. 850,668 C. 𝟐𝟎%
B. 60 D. 100%
C. 66 B. 𝟓, 𝟐𝟒𝟓, 𝟕𝟖𝟔
D. 67 49. Roll a pair of dice. What
C. 300,000
is the probability that the sum
41.) In how many ways can of two number is 11?
D. 260,000
4 boys and 4 girls be seated
alternately in a row of 8 45. Find the total number of A. 1/36
seats? cominations of three letters J B. -1/24
R T taken 1 2 3 at a time. C. 1/18
A. 576 D. 1/14
A. 𝟕
B. 1152 50. Roll two dice once, what
B. 0 is the probability that the sum
C. 203
C. 3 is 7?
D. 589
D. 4 A. 1/3
42.) There are four balls of B. 1/6
four different colors. Two C. 1/5
46. IN how many ways can
balls are taken at a time and D. 1/7
you invite one or more of
arranged in a definite order.
your five friends at a party?
For example, if a white and a 51. Determine the
A.72
red balls are taken, one probability of drawing either
B.31
definite arrangement is white a king or a diamond in a
C.12
firstmred second m and single draw from a pack of 52
D.20
another arrangement is red playing cards.
first, white second. How 47. In how many ways can a
many such arrangements are committee of three consisting A. 8/9
possible of two chemical engineers
A. 24 B. 5/13
and one mechanical engineer C. 4/13
B. 3
can be formed from four D. 6/18
C. 12
chemical engineers and three
D. 9
mechanical engineers? 52. A card is drawn from the
43.) There are four balls of deck of 52 playing cards.
different colors. Tow balls at A. 𝟏𝟖 Find the probability of
a time are taken and arranged B. 30 rawing a king or red card
any way. How many such C. 20 A. 0.5385
combination are possible. D. 19 B. 0.5345
A. 36 C. 0.5585
B. 3 48.There are 50 tickets in a
lottery in which there is a D. 0.5389
C. 4
D. 6 first and second prize. What 53. A coin is tossed 3 times.
is the probability of a man What is the probability of
44.) How many 6 number
getting 3 tails up?
combinations can be
A. 1/8 both balls are white. Assume
B. 1/3 that the first ball is returned
C. 1/5 before the second ball is
D. 1/6 drawn.
54. The probability of A. 25/81
getting at leat 2 heads when a B. 13/81
coin is tossed is four times is C. 14/67
A. 11/16 D. 12/90
B. 13/16
59. A bag contains 3 white
C. 1/4
and 5 black balls. If two balls
D. 3/8
are drawn in succession
55. A fair coin is tossed three without replacement, wat is
times. What is the probability the probability that both balls
of getting either 3 heads or 3 are black?
tail?
A. 5/31
A. 1/8 B. 5/81
B. 1/5 C. 5/32
C. 1/4 D. 5/14
D. 1/3
60. In ECE Board exam, the
56. In multiple choices test, probability that an examinee
each questions is to be will pass each subject is 0.8.
answered by selecting 1 out what is the probability that an
of 5 choices, of which only 1 examinee will pass at least
is right. IF there are 10 two subjects out of the three
questions in a test, what is the board subjects.
probability of getting 6 right
of pure guesswork A. 90%
A. 10% B. 80 %
B. 0.87% C. 80.7%
C. 7% D. 89.6 %
D. 0.55%
57. From a box containing 6
red balls, 8 white balls and 10
blue balls, one ball is drawn
at random. Determine the
probability that it is red and
white.
A.1/3
B. 7/12
C. 5/12
D. 2/5
58. From a bag containing 4
black balls and 5 white balls,
two balls are drawn one at a
time. Find the probability that
 C. less than 180 11. A regular polygon has 27
D. more than 180 diagonals, then it is a?
ECE198L
SALE, MHIKO I. 6. The face of a regular A. pentagon
Mathematics tetrahedron is a B. heptagon
SET3 A. Triangle C. hexagon
Solid Geometry B. Pentagon D. nonagon
C. Square
1. It is a polyhedron
containing triangular faces D. Hexagon 12. The volume of a solid of
with a common vertex and a revolution is equal to the
base which is a polygon. 7. The volume of solids of generating times the
revolution is governed by circumference of the circle
A. pyramid
what theorem? described by the centroid of
B. triangular prism
A. Pappus the arc provided that the axis
C. dodecahedron
B. Newton of revolution does not cross
D. icosahedron
C. Varignon’s the generating arc.
D. Archimedes A. First Proposition of
2. It is a type of polygon in Pappus
which every interior angle is
B. Second Proposition of
less than 180 degrees. 8. To find the interior angles
Pappus
A. irregular polygon of a triangle whose sides are
given, use the law of C. Third Proposition of
B. convex polygon Pappus
C. concave polygon A. sine
D. Fourth Proposition of
D. regular polygon B. cosine
Pappus
C. tangent
3. How many edges does a D. secant
13. It is a polyhedron of
tetrahedron have? which two faces ae equal
A. 4 9. A polyhedron possessing
polygon in parallel planes
B. 20 two congruent polygon faces
and the other faces area
C. 12 and all remaining faces
parallelograms.
parallelograms.
D. 6 A. Tetrahedron
A. Prismatoid
B. Prism
B. Conoid
4. How many faces does a C. Frustum
regular dodecahedron have? C. Prism
D. Prismatoid
D. Frustum
A. 12
B. 20 14. Each of the faces of a
10. What is the maximum
C. 32 regular hexahedron is a
value for a longitude?
D. 18 ______.
A. 270
A. square
B. 90
5. A polygon is said to be B. triangle
convex if every interior angle C. 180
C. rectangle
is D. 360
D. hexagon
A. more than 90
B. less than 90
15. What refers to a negative- 20. 4800 mills is equivalent a set of points is projected
height (inward pointing) to ____ degrees. onto a second plane.
pyramid used in cumulation? A. 135 A. Plane Geometry
A. Apex B. 270 B. Solid Geometry
B. Elevatum C. 235 C. Euclidean Geometry
C. Cumulatum D. 142 D. Projective Geometry
D. Invaginatum
21. Surface area of hollow 26. Two angle with a
16. When two planes cylinder with radius ‘r’ and common leg is called
intersect with each othe, the height ‘h’ is measured by A. Adjacent angles
amount of divergence A. 2πr - h B. Complementary angles
between the two plane is B. 2πr + h C. Supplementary angles
expressed by measuring the C.πrh D. Vertical angles
____. D.2πrh
A. dihedral angle 27. Are angles formed by two
B. polyhedral angle 22. A line segment is defined intersecting lines.
C. reflex angle by A. Adjacent angles
D. plane angle A. 1 point B. Complementary angles
B. 3 points C. Supplementary angles
17. 17 4degrees is equivalent C. 2 points D. Vertical angles
to ____ mils. D. 4 points
A. 3094 28. A _______ is straight line
B. 2044 23. The sum of length of two which divides a geometric
C. 3421 sides of a triangle is always figure into two equal figures.
D. 2845 A. Less than third. A. reciprocal
B. Greater than third. B. explementary
18. What is the reference C. Equal to third. C. bisector
angle of -510 degrees? D. 2/3 to third. D. conjugate
A. 30
B. 10 24. Deals with the properties 29. The area of the region
C. 40 of plane figures or bounded by two concentric
D. 20 geometrical shapes of two – circles is called ________.
dimensions A. circular disk
19. The measure of 2.25 A. Plane Geometry B. annulus
revolutions counterclockwise B. Solid Geometry C. ring
is _____ degrees. C. Euclidean Geometry D. washer
A. -810 D. Projective Geometry
B. -730 30. The area bounded by a
C. 810 25. Deals with the study of chord of a parabola that is
D. 730 those properties of plane perpendicular to its axis and
figures that unchanged when the curve, cur off by the
chord.
A. Spherical segment A. 2.80 39. The area of a triangle
B. Spherical sector inscribed in a circle is 39.19
B. 2.30 cm^2 and the radios of the
C. Parabolic sector
circumscribed circle is 7.14
D. Parabolic segment C. 2.45
cm. If the two sides of the
D.1.30 inscribed triangle are 8cm
31. Find the angle in mils and 10cm, respectively, find
subtended by a line 10 yards the third side.
long at a distance of 5000 A. 16
yards. B. 12
36. What is the radius of the C. 22
A. 1 circle circumscribing an D. 14
B. 2 isosceles right triangle having 40.) What is the area in sq
C. 2.5 an area of 162 sqm? cm of the circle
D. 3 circumscribed about an
32. Each angle of a regular equilateral triangle with a
dodecagon is equal to A. 12.73 side 10 cm long?
A. 130 deg A. 104.7
B. 11.6 B. 105.6
B. 150 deg
C. 103.9
C. 120 deg C. 14.18 D. 106.7
D. 135 deg
D. 15.55 41.) The angle of a sector is
33.) Given a triangle
37.) Two sides of a triangle 30deg and the radius is 15cm.
,C=100deg, a=15m,b=20m,
are 50 m and 60 m long. The What is the area of the sector
Find c.
angle included between these in cm^2?
A. 21 sides is 30 deg. What is the A. 58.9
interior angle opposite the
B. 22
longest side? B. 115.2
C. 23
A. 86.38 deg C. 60.7
D. 27
B. 90 deg D. 85.9
34.) In triangle ABC, angle
C. 92.34 deg 42.) A trapezoid has an area
C=70 deg, A=45 deg,
of 36 m^2 and an altitude of
AB=40m. What is the ength D. 91.2 deg 2m. Its two bases have ratio
of the median drawn form of 4:5. What are the lengths
vertex A to side BC? 38. The area of a circle is
of the bases
89.42 sq.inchs what is the
A. 12,15
circumference? B. 7,11
A. 36.3
A. 32.25 C. 8,10
B. 21
C. 30 D. 16,20
D. 28 B. 33.52
43.) A regular hexagon is
C. 20 inscribed in a circle whose
35.) The sides of a triangle diameter is 20m. Find the
are 8cm, 10cm, and 14cm. D. 10 area of the 6 segments of the
Determine the radius of the circle formed by the sides of
inscribed circle. hexagon.
A. 36.45
B. 63.54 48. A circular cone having
C. 45.63 an altitude of 9m is divided
D. 54.36 into 2 segments having the
same vertex. If the smaller
44.) Find the area (in cm^2)
altitude is m, find the ratio of
of a regular octagon inscribed
the volume of the small cone
in a circle of radius 10cm?
to the big cone.
A. 𝟐𝟖𝟑
A. 0.186
B. 289 B. 0.296
C. 0.386
C. 298 D. 0.486
D. 238
49. Find the volume of the
45. Find the area of a regular cone to be constructed from a
pentagon whose side is 25m sector having a diameter of
and apothem is 17.2m.
72 cm and a central angle of
150
A. 1075
A. 12367.32
B. 1165
B. 13232.6
C. 1178 C. 7710.82
D. 14682.5
D. 1095
50. A conical vessel has a
46. A circular piece of height of 24 cm and a base
cardboard with a diameter of diameter of 12 cm. It holds
1m will be made into a water to a depth of 18 cm
conical hat 40 cm high by above its vertex. Find the
cutting a sector off and volume (in cm^3) of its
joining the edges to form a
content.
cone. Determine the angle
subtended by the sector A. 118.4
removed B. 381.7
A.144 C. 298.4
B. 145
D. 412.6
C. 158
D. 154 51. What is the height of a
right circular cone having a
47. What is the area in sq.m
slant height of sqrt(10x) and
of the zone of a spherical
a base of diameter of 2x?
segment having volume of
1470.265 cu.mif the diameter A. 2x
of the sphere is 30m.
B. 3x
A. 565.5 m^2 C. 4x/13
D. 3.162x
B. 465.5 𝑚^2
C. 665.5 𝑚^2
52. The ratio of the volume to
D. 19 the lateral area of a right
circular cone is 2:1. If the
altitude is 15 cm, what is the
ratio of the slant height to the
radius.
A. 5:6
B. 5:4
C. 4:3
D. 5:2
53. What is the vole of a
frustum of a cone whose
upper base is 15 cm in
diameter and lower base
10cm. in diameter with an
altitude of 25cm?
A. 3018.87
B. 3180.87
C. 3108.87
D. 3081.87
54. The central angle of a
spherical wedge is 1 radian.
Find its volume if tits radius
is 1 unit.
A. 2/3
B. 1.2
C. 3/4
D. 2/5
55. A circular cylinder with a
volume of 6.54 cu. m is
circumscribed about the right
prism whose base is an
equilateral triangle of side
1.25m. What is the altitude of
the cylinder in meters?
A. 3.5
B. 3.75
C. 4
D. 4.26
56. The base of a right prism
are hexagons with one of
each side equal to 6 cm. The
bases are 12 cm apart. What
is the volume of the right
prism?
A. 2211.7
B. 1211.6
C. 1212.5
D. 1122.4
57. Determine the volume of
a right truncated triangular
prism with the ff definition:
Let the corners of the
triangular base be defined by
A, B and C. The length of
AB=10ft, BC=9ft, and
CA=12ft, the sides A, B, and
C are perpendicular to the
triangular base and have the
height of 8:6 ft., 7.1ft, and
5.5 ft. respectively
A.413
B. 311
C. 313
D. 391
58. A regular octahedron has
an edge 2m. Finds its volume
(in m^3)
A. 3.77
B. 1.88
C. 3.22
D. 2.44
59. A regular triangular
pyramid has an altitude of 9m
and a volume of 187.0 cu. m.
What is the base edge in
meters?
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
60. How many times do the
volime of a sphere increases
if the radius is doubled
A. 4 times
B. 2 times
C. 6 times
D. 8 times
 c) degree 11) 3π⁄2 radians are equal to
d) radius a) 270°
b) 180°
ECE198L 5) A part of circumference of c) 90°
SALE, MHIKO I. a circle is called d) 60°
Mathematics a) segment
SET4 b) radius 12) 1 + tan²θ equals to
Trigonometry c) sector a) cosec²θ
d) arc b) sec²θ
1) Angles between 0° and 90° c) sin²θ
lies in 6) In an angle, rays of angle d) cos²θ
a) 2nd quadrant are known as
b) 3rd quadrant a) arms
13) By rotating a ray from
c) 1st quadrant b) vertex
one position to another to
d) 4th quadrant c) point of intersection
make an angle, original
d) initial side
position is called
1) System in which angles a) initial side
are measured in radians is 7) π radians are equal to
b) terminal side
called a) CGS system a) 180°
c) point of intersection
b) MKS system b) 360°
c) 90° d) vertex
c) circular system
d) sexagesimal system d) 270°
14) Angles between 270° and
8) Cosec²θ - cot²θ equals to 360° lies in
2) Value of 240° into radians
a) 1 a) 1st quadrant
should be
b) -1 b) 2nd quadrant
a) 4π⁄3
c) 0 c) 3rd quadrant
b) 3π⁄4
c) π⁄4 d) tanθ d) 4th quadrant
d) π⁄6
9) Tanθ equals to 15) By rotating a ray from
3) We can divide a) 1⁄cosecθ one position to another to
circumference of a circle into b) 1⁄secθ make an angle, final position
a) 180 equal arcs c) 1⁄cosθ is called
b) 360 equal arcs d) 1⁄cotθ a) vertex
c) 270 equal arcs b) initial side
d) 90 equal arcs 10) Angles between 90° and c) terminal side
180° lies in d) point of intersection
4) Union of two non-collinear a) 1st quadrant
rays with some common end b) 2nd quadrant 16) The study of triangles by
point is called c) 3rd quadrant applying the relations
a) vertex d) 4th quadrant between the sides and the
b) angle angles
a) Algebra
b) Digit 22) Is a circle whose center b) Digit
c) Geometry coincides with the center of c) Spherical Trigo
d) Trigonometry the sphere? d) Trigonometry
a) Spherical
17) Deals with triangles in b) Circle c 28) what is the equivalent of
two dimensions of the plane ) Square sin^2x+cos^x
a) Plane Trigo d) Great Circle a) 1
b) Digit b) 2
c) Spherical Trigo 23) It is the example of great c) 0.5
d) Trigonometry circle d) 0
a) meridians
18) A triangle that has a right b) Equator 29) What is the equivalent of
angle c) A&B 1/secx
a) Right Triangle d) NONE a) Tanx
b) Oblique triangle b) cosx
c) Obtuse triangle 24) Deals with triangles in c) cotx
d) None two dimensions of the plane d) SinX
a) Plane Trigo
19) A triangle that does not b) Digit 30) In an angle, common end
have right angle c) Spherical Trigo point is known as
a) Right Triangle d) Trigonometry a) vertex
b) Oblique triangle b) point of intersection
c) Obtuse triangle 25) It is the circle c) initial side
d) None construccted by a plane d) terminal side
crossing the sphere not in its
20) Part of trigonometry center
which deals with the triangles a) Small Circle
31) sin(B-A) is equal to___,
on the sphere b) Big Circle when B=270 deg and A is an
a) Plane Trigo c) Great Circle acute angle
b) Digit d) NONE A.-cosA C. -sinA
B..cosA D.
c) Spherical Trigo
sin A
d) Trigonometry 26) Deals with triangles in
two dimensions of the plane 32) if sec^2 A 5/2, the
21) The study of triangles by a) Spherical triangle quantity 1-sin^2 A is
applying the relations b) Digit equivalent to
between the sides and the c) Spherical Trigo
A. 2.5 C.0.4
angles d) Trigonometry
B. 1.5 D.0.6
a) Algebra
b) Digit 27) Part of trigonometry 33.)
which deals with the triangles If sin3A = cos 6B, then
c) Geometry
d) Trigonometry on the sphere
A. A+B=90
a) Plane Trigo B.A+B=180
C. A+2B=30 40.) Simplify the equation A. 54.23 m
D.none sec 𝜽 – (sec 𝜽) sin^2 𝜽 B. 42.44 m
A. cos^2 𝜽 C. 48.23 m
34.) B. cos 𝜽 D. 46.21 m
If cos 65 + cos 55 = cos𝜃, C. sin^2 𝜽
find 𝜃 in radians D. sin 𝜽 44.) A wire supporting a pole
A. 0.765 is fastened to it 20 feet from
B. 0.087 41.) A man is standing on a the ground and to the ground
C. 1.213 48.5 meter building high, has 15 feet from the pole.
D. 1.421 an eyesight height of 1.5 m Determine the length of the
from the top of the building, wire and the angle it makes
35.) took a depression reading with the pole.
Find the value of A. 24 ft, 53.13
from the top of another
sin(arccos(15/17)) B. 25 ft, 53.13
A.8/11 nearby building and nearest
wall, which are 50 deg and C. 24 ft, 36.87
B.8/15
80 deg respectively. Find the D. 25ft, 36.87
C.8/19
D.8/17 height of the nearby building
in meters. The man is 45. The two legs of a triangle
are 300 and 150 m each,
standing at the edge of the
respectively, The angle
36. The sine of a certain building and both buildings opposite the 150m side is 26
angle is 0.6, calculate the lie on the same horizontal deg. What is the third side?
cotangent of the angle plane. A. 197.49
A. 39.49 B. 218.61
A.4/3 C.4/5
B.5/4 D.3/4 B. 35.50 C. 𝟑𝟒𝟏. 𝟕𝟖
C. 30.74 D. 282.15
37.) If tan x = ½, tan y =1/3, D. 42.55
what is the value of tan(x+y)? 46. If Greenwich Mean time
42.) A man finds the angle of (GMT) is 6 A.M, what is the
A.1/2 C.2 elevation of the top of a anime at a place located
B.1/6 D.1 tower to be 30. H walks 85m 30deg east longitude?
nearer the tower and finds its A. 7 AM
angle of elevation to be 60. B. 8 AM
What is the height of the C. 9 AM
38. Find the value of tower? D. 4 AM
(sin𝜽+cos𝜽tan𝜽)/cos𝜽
47. If the longitude of Tokyo
A. 76.31m
A. 2sin𝜽 C.2tan𝜽 is 139 deg E and that of
B. 73.16 m
B. 2cos𝜽 D.2cot𝜽 manila is 121 deg E, what is
C. 73.31 m
D. 73.61 m the time difference between
39. Simplify the equation:
sin^2𝜽 (1+cot^2𝜽) tokoy and Manila
43.) A pole cast a shadow 15
A. 1 hour and 12 min
A.1 m long when the angle of
elevation of the sun is 61. If B. 1 hour and 21 min
B.sin^2x
the pole is leaned 15 from the C. 1 hour and 23 min
C.sin^2xsec^2x
vertical directly towards the D. 1 hour and 24 min
D.sec^2x
sun, determine the length of
the pole.
 48. One degree on the C. 64.12 cm B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
equator of the earth is D.32.10 cm C. 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃
equivalent to ____ in time. D. 𝒄𝒐𝒕𝜽
53. Points A and B 1000 m
A. 1 minute apart are plotted on a straight
B. 4 minutes highway running east and 57. If sec2A=1/(sin13A),
C. 30 minute west. From A., the bearing of determine the angle A in
D. 1 hr a tower C is 32 degW of N degrees
and from B the bearing og C
49. The sides of a triangle are is 26degN of E. Approximate A.5°
8, 15 and 17 units. If each the shortest distance of tower B. 6°
side is doubled, how many C to the highway. C. 3°
square unitss will the area of D. 7°
the new triangle be. A. 364
B. 374 58. Solve for 𝜽 in the ff
A. 240 C. 384 equation : sin 2𝜽= 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽
B. 420 D. 394 A. 30°
C. 320
54. Two triangles have equal B. 45°
D. 200
bases. The altitude of one C. 60°
50. The sides of a triangle triangle is 3 units more than D. 15°
are 195, 157 and 210, its base and the altitude of the
respectively. What is the area 59. Find the value of A
other triangle is 3 units less
of the traiangle? than its base. Fine the between 270 and 360 if 2
A. 73250 altitudes, if the areas of the sin^2 -sinA=1
B. 10250 triangles differ by 21 square A. 300°
C. 14586 units.
B. 320°
D. 11260 A. 6 and 12
C. 5 and 11 C. 310°
B. 3 and 9 D. 330°
51. The slides of a triangular D. 4 and 10 60. Find the value of y in the
lot are 130 m, 180m and 190
m. The lot is to be divided by given : y=(1+cos𝜃) tan𝜃
55. A ship started sailing S
a line bisecting the longest 42°35’ W at the rate of 5kph. A. sin𝜃
side and drawn from the After 2hours, ship B started B. cos𝜃
opposite vertex. Find the at the same port going N C. sin𝟐𝜽
length of the line 46°20’W at the rate of 7kph. D. cos2𝜃
After how many hours will
A.120
the second ship be exactly
B. 130
north of ship A.?
C. 125
D. 128 A. 3.68
52. If an equilateral triangle B. 4.03
is circumscribed about a C. 5.12
circle of radius 10 cm, D. 4.83
determine the side of the 56. Evaluate :
triangle. 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
A. 34.64 cm 1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃+sin2 𝜃−cos2 𝜃
B. 36.44 cm
A. sin𝜃
ECE198L
SALE, MHIKO I.
Mathematics
SET5
Differential Calculus
1. A function F(x) is called
____ of f(x) if F’(x) = f(x)
a. Explicit function
b. Derivative
c. Implicit function
d. Antiderivative
2. When f’(x) is negative,
the curve of y = f(x) is
concave _____.
a. Downward
b. To the right
c. Upward
d. To the left
3. At maximum point, the
value of y’’ is:
a. Zero
b. Infinite
c. Positive
d. Negative
4. At the inflection point
where x = a,
a. F’’(a) > 0
b. F’’(a) < 0
c. F’’(a) = 0
d. F’’(a) is not equal to
0 circle
5. Points of derivatives
which do not exist (and
so equals zero) are called
a. Stationary points
b. Minimum points
c. Maximum points
d. Minimum and
maximum points
6. If the first derivative is a
constant then the
function is _____
a. Sinusoidal 11. If functions f and g have
b. Logarithmic domains Df and Dg
c. Linear respectively, then the
d. Quadratic domain of f / g is given
7. If the second derivative by
of the equation of a a. the union of Df and
curve is equal to the Dg
negative of the equation b. the intersection of
of the same curve, the Df and Dg
curve is c. the intersection of
a. A sinusoidal Df and Dg without
b. A paraboloid the zeros of function
c. A cissoid g
d. An exponential d. None of the above
8. Equations relating x and 12. Let the closed interval [a
y that cannot readily be , b] be the domain of
solved explicitly for y as a function f. The domain of
function of x or for x as a f(x - 3) is given by
function of y. such a. the open interval (a ,
equation may b)
nonetheless determine y b. the closed interval
as the function of x or [a , b]
vice versa. Such a c. the closed interval
function is called [a - 3 , b - 3]
a. Logarithmic function d. the closed interval
b. Implicit function [a + 3 , b + 3]
c. Continuous function 13. Let the interval (a ,
d. Explicit function +infinity) be the range of
9. Largest rectangle that function f. The range of
can be inscribed in a f(x) - 4 is given by
a. the interval (a - 4 ,
a. Square +infinity)
b. Parallelogram b. the interval (a + 4,
c. Rhombus +infinity)
d. Rectangle c. the interval (a,
10. If lim 𝑓(𝑥) exists, then it +infinity)
𝑥→𝑎
is d. None of the above
a. Unique 14. A branch of mathematics
b. Zero that deals with
c. Infinity derivatives and limits
d. Undefined a. Algebra
b. Trigonometry
 c. Integral calculus c. Age problems a. 𝐥𝐢𝐦 𝒂𝒙 = +∞
𝒙→+∞
d. Differential calculus d. Probability problems b. lim 𝑎 𝑥 = −∞
𝑥→+∞
15. The _______ of a 20. If the first derivative of a
c. lim 𝑎 𝑥 = 0
function expresses its function is linear, then 𝑥→+∞

rate of change with the function is ______. d. lim 𝑎 𝑥 = 1

𝑥→+∞
respect to an a. Sinusoidal 26. F(c) is a local _____ value
independent variable b. Logarithmic if f(x) ≤ f(c) for all x in I.
a. Derivative c. Linear a. Maximum
b. Integral d. Quadratic b. Minimum
c. Power 21. Which of the following is c. Inflection
d. None of the above correct? d. Power
16. The first derivative of a sin 𝑥 27. F(c) is a local _____ value
a. lim 𝑥
=0
𝑥→0
function is the ________ 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒙 if f(x) ≥ f(c) for all x in I.
b. 𝐥𝐢𝐦 =𝟏 a. Maximum
to that curve defined by 𝒙→𝟎 𝒙
sin 𝑥
the function. c. lim =2 b. Minimum
𝑥→0 𝑥
a. Slope of the tangent sin 𝑥 c. Inflection
d. lim 𝑥 = ∞
line 𝑥→0 d. Power
b. Origin of the line 22. Which of the following is 28. What is the fifth step in
c. Limit of the function correct? solving maxima/minima
𝟏−𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝒙
d. Length of the a. 𝐥𝐢𝐦 =𝟎 problems?
𝒙→𝟎 𝒙
tangent line 1−cos 𝑥 a. Equate to zero
b. lim 𝑥 =1
17. It is a function win which 𝑥→0 b. Differentiate
1−cos 𝑥
one variable is defined c. lim 𝑥 =𝑒 c. Formulate equation
𝑥→0
only in terms of another 1−cos 𝑥 d. Reduce to one
d. lim =∞
𝑥→0 𝑥
variable. variable
23. Which of the following is
a. Logarithmic function 29. What is the fourth step
correct?
b. Implicit function 𝟏 in solving
a. 𝐥𝐢𝐦(𝟏 + )𝒏 = 𝒆 maxima/minima
c. Continuous function 𝒙→𝟎 𝒏
1 𝑛
d. Explicit function b. lim (1 + ) =1 problems?
𝑥→0 𝑛
18. It is a formula for finding 1 𝑛 a. Equate to zero
c. lim (1 + 𝑛
) =0
the derivative of a 𝑥→0 b. Differentiate
1 𝑛
composition of functions d. lim (1 + ) = 2𝑒 c. Formulate equation
𝑥→0 𝑛
a. Limits 24. Which of the following is d. Reduce to one
b. Related rates correct? variable
c. Derivative 1 30. ______ are the inverse
a. lim (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 = 1
d. Chain rule 𝑥→0 operations of derivatives
𝟏
19. One of the applications b. 𝐥𝐢𝐦(𝟏 + 𝒏)𝒏 = 𝒆 or the backward
𝒙→𝟎
of differential calculus 1 operation which goes
c. lim (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 = 0
a. Related rate 𝑥→0 from the derivative of a
1
problems d. lim (1 + 𝑛)𝑛 = 2𝑒 function to the original
𝑥→0
b. System of equation function itself in addition
25. For a>1, then:
problems with a constant.
 a. Explicit function c. 28 1+𝑙𝑛𝑥
d. 2𝑥²
b. Derivative d. 1 𝑥
45. Find the derivative of 𝑒 𝑥
c. Implicit function 38. What is the limit of cos
𝟏−𝒙
d. Antiderivative 1/y as y approaches a. 𝒆𝒙
4𝑥 3 +2𝑥 2 −3 infinity? 1−𝑙𝑛𝑒
31. Evaluate: lim b. 𝑒²
𝑥→∞ 5𝑥 3 +1
a. 0 1−𝑥
a. 3/4 c.
b. 1 𝑒
b. 4/5 d.
1+𝑙𝑛𝑥
c. -1 2𝑒²
c. 3/5
d. Infinity 46. Given: y = 𝑒 −𝑥 sin x. Find
d. 4/3 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥−1
39. Evaluate: lim dy/dx
2𝑥 5 −𝑥 3 −1 𝑥→0 𝑥
32. Evaluate: lim 6𝑥3 +2𝑥2 −7 a. 𝒆−𝒙(cos x – sin x)
𝑥→∞ a. 0
a. ∞ b. 𝑒 −𝑥 (cos x + sin x)
b. 1
b. 0 c. 𝑒 −𝑥 (sin x – cos x)
c. 2
c. 1 d. 𝑒 𝑥 (cos x – sin x)
d. ½
d. 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠8𝜃−1 47. What is the second
ln 𝑥 40. Evaluate: lim
33. Evaluate: lim 𝑥 𝜃→0 2𝜃 derivative of a function y
𝑥→∞ a. 0 = 5x³ +2x +1?
a. 0 b. 1 a. 15x
b. 1 c. 2 b. 20x
c. -1 d. ½ c. 25x
d. Infinite 41. If ln(ln y) + ln y, find y’
ln 𝑥
d. 30x
34. Evaluate: lim 𝒚
𝑥→1 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜋𝑥 a. 48. If y = x ln x, find d²y/dx²
𝒙+𝒚
a. 1/x 𝑦 a. 1/x
b. 𝑥−𝑦
b. 1 𝑥
b. 1/2x
c. X c. 𝑥+𝑦 c. X
𝑥
d. -1/x d. d. 2x
𝑥−𝑦
35. Evaluate: lim (1 + 42. Find dy/dx of y = 3sin2x. 49. Find the second
𝑥→∞
1 𝑥𝑙𝑛8
a. 6sin2x derivative of the function
𝑥
)
b. 6cos2x y(x) = x(x²-1)²
a. 1
c. 6tan2x a. 4x(5x²-3)
b. 2
d. 6sec2x b. (x²-1)(5x²-1)
c. 4
43. Given: y=x²lnx, find dy/dx c. 2x(5x²-6)
d. 8
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 a. x(1+2ln2x) d. (2x-1)(5x²-3)
36. Evaluate: lim 50. Find d²y/dx² if x = 3-2z
𝑥→0 𝑥 b. 2x(1+lnx)
a. 0 c. x(1+2lnx) and y = z²-3z³
b. 1 d. x(1-2lnx) a. 0.5-4.5z
c. 2 ln 𝑥 b. 1.5+9z
44. if y = , find dy/dx
d. ½ 𝑥 c. 0.5+9z
1+𝑙𝑛𝑥
37. Evaluate: lim
𝑠𝑖𝑛7𝜃 a. 𝑥2 d. 1.5-4.5z
𝜃→0 𝜃 𝑥−4
𝟏−𝒍𝒏𝒙
a. 7 b. 51. The function y = 𝑥+2 is
𝒙²
b. 14 1−𝑙𝑛𝑥 discontinuous at x = ?
c. 𝑥
 a. 0 d. 0.4
b. -2 56. What is the allowable
c. 2 error in measure the
d. -4 edge of the cue that is
52. The distance a body intended to hold 8 cubic
travel is a function of meters if the error of the
time t and is defined by: compound volume is not
x(t) = 18t+9t². What is its to exceed 0.02 cubic
velocity at t = 3? meter?
a. 70 a. 0.00167 m
b. 72 b. 0.00217 m
c. 74 c. 0.00365 m
d. 76 d. 0.00453 m
53. If the distance x from the 57. If y = 2x + sin 2x, find x if
point of departure at y’ = 0.
time t is defined by the a. π/2
equation x = -16t² + b. π
5000t + 5000, what is the c. 3 π/2
initial velocity? d. π/4
a. 2,500 58. Find the slope of x²y = 8
b. 5,000 at the point (2,2)
c. 3,500 a. -1
d. 4,000 b. 1
54. A stone is thrown c. -2
straight up a time, t = 0 d. 2
so that its distance above 59. Find the slope of the
the ground at time t is curve y = x³-x+5 at (2,1)
given s(t) = 112t-16t², a. 11
with s in feet and t in b. 12
seconds. How high does c. -11
the stone rise and when d. -12
will it hit the ground? 60. What is the slope of the
a. 196 ft, 8s curve y = x²/4 – 2x + 1 at
b. 192 ft, 7s a point (1,1)?
c. 196 ft, 7s a. 0.25
d. 192 ft, 8s b. -1.25
55. Find the change in y = 2x- c. 1.25
3 if x changes from 3.3 to d. -0.25
3.5
a. 0.1
b. 0.2
c. 0.3
ECE198L b. Parabola b. Ellipse
SALE, MHIKO I. c. Point c. Parabola
Mathematics d. Ellipse d. Hyperbola
SET6 6. In general quadratic 11. A locus of a point which
Analytic Geometry
equation, if the moves so that the sum of
discriminant is zero, the the distances to the fixed
curve is figure that points called foci is
1. A horizontal line has a
represents a /an _____. constant and equal to
slope of _____.
a. Circle the length of the major
a. Negative
b. Parabola axis.
b. Infinity
c. Point a. Circle
c. Positive
d. Ellipse b. Ellipse
d. Zero
7. What is the line that c. Parabola
2. A vertical line has a slope
passes through the focus d. Hyperbola
of ____.
and is perpendicular to 12. A locus of a point which
a. Negative
the matrix of a parabola? moves so that the
b. Infinity
a. Tangent line difference of the
c. Positive
b. Directrix distances to the fixed
d. Zero
c. Latus Rectum points called foci.
3. A line, which is
d. Axis of Parabola a. Circle
perpendicular to the x-
8. What is a line that passes b. Ellipse
axis has a slop equal to
through the focus and c. Parabola
____.
perpendicular to the axis d. Hyperbola
a. 1
of the parabola? 13. 3x² + 2x -5y + 7 = 0.
b. 0
a. Tangent line Determine the curve.
c. Infinity
b. Directrix a. Circle
d. -1
c. Latus Rectum b. Ellipse
4. If all the y-terms have
d. Axis of Parabola c. Parabola
even exponents the
9. A locus of a point which d. Hyperbola
curve is symmetric with
moves is that it is always 14. 4x² - 256 = 0 is the
respect to the ____.
equidistant from a fixed equation of ____.
a. Line 45 deg with the
point to a fix line is a a. Parallel lines
axis
____. b. Parabola
b. X-axis
a. Circle c. Circle
c. Origin
b. Ellipse d. Ellipse
d. Y-axis
c. Parabola 15. A parabola y = -x² -6x -9
5. Which of the following
d. Hyperbola opens _____.
best describes the graph
10. A locus of a point which a. To the right
of the equation x² + y² +
moves so that it is always b. Upward
2x – 4y + 5 = 0 in the xy
equidistant to a fixed c. To the left
plane?
point called center. d. Downward
a. Circle
a. Circle
16. It is defined as the set of
all points in the plane the
sum of whose distances
from two fixed points is a
constant.
a. Circle
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Ellipse
17. The chords of an ellipse
which passes through
the center, are known as
____.
a. Asymptote
b. Major axis
c. Minor axis
d. Diameter
18. A line that approaches a
curve but never touches.
a. Asymptote
b. Major axis
c. Minor axis
d. Diameter
19. In an ellipse, a chord
which contains a focus
and is in a line
perpendicular to the
major axis is called ___.
a. Focal width
b. Latus rectum
c. Conjugate axis
d. Minor axis
20. _____ of an ellipse is one
that is perpendicular to
the major axis but does
not pass through the
focus but its center.
a. Focal width
b. Latus rectum
c. Conjugate axis
d. Minor axis
21. It is an axis of hyperbola 26. It refers to the
that passes through its nonnegative scalar
center and perpendicular measure of a wave’s
to the transverse axis. magnitude of oscillation,
a. Focal width i.e. the magnitude of the
b. Latus rectum maximum disturbance of
c. Conjugate axis the medium during one
d. Minor axis wave cycle.
22. A line which a curve a. Amplitude
approaches indefinitely b. Radius vector
near as its tracing point c. Hypotenuse
passes off to the infinity d. Minimum point
is called the ____. 27. The graph of r = a +
a. Tangent bcosθ is a ____
b. Asymptote a. Lemniscate
c. Directrix b. Limacon
d. Latus Rectum c. Cardiod
23. It is a line which d. Lituus
intersects the curve in 28. The graph of r² =
one and only one point. a²cos(2θ) is a ____
a. Tangent a. Lemniscate
b. Asymptote b. Limacon
c. Directrix c. Cardiod
d. Latus Rectum d. Lituus
24. It is a fixed line opposite 29. The graph of r = 2a[1 +
the focus of a conic cos(θ)] is a ____
section which the a. Lemniscate
eccentricity of the conic b. Limacon
is defined. c. Cardiod
a. Tangent d. Lituus
b. Asymptote 30. The graph of r² = a²/ θ is
c. Directrix a ____
d. Latus Rectum a. Lemniscate
25. In polar coordinate b. Limacon
system, the length of the c. Cardiod
ray segment from a fixed d. Lituus
origin is known as ____.
31. Find the distance between
a. Amplitude
A(4,-3) and B(-2,5).
b. Radius vector
A.11
c. Hypotenuse B.9
d. Minimum point C.10
D.8
 C.5.2 D.X-3Y-1=0
32. If the distance between D.18.6
points (3,y) and (8,7) is 13, 44. If the points (-2,3), (x,y)
then y is equal to 38. Find the distance of the and (-3,5) lie on a straight
A.5 or -5 line 3x+4y=5 from the origin. line, then the equation of the
B.5 or 19 A.4 line is
C.19 B.3 A.X-2Y-1=0
D.-5 or 19 C.2 B.2X+Y-1=0
D.1 C.X+2Y-1=0
33. If (-2,-4) is the midpoint D.2X+Y+1=0
of (6,-7) and (x,y), then the 39. Determine the distance
values of x and y are from (5,10) to the line x-y=0. 45. Find the equation of the
A.x=2,y=1 A.3.33 line passing through the
B.x=-10,y=-1 B.3.54 origin and with a slope of 6.
C.x=10,y=-1 C.4.23 A.Y-6X=0
D.x=-8,y=-1 D.5.45 B.Y=-6
C.X+Y=-6
34. Find the inclination of the 40. Find the slope of the line D.6X+Y=0
line passing through (-5,3) defined by y-x=5.
and (10,7). A.1 46. Find the equation if the
A.14.73 B.1/4 line if the x-intercept and y-
B.14.93 C.-1/2 intercept are -2 and 4,
C.14.83 D.5+x respectively.
D.14.63 A.Y-2X-4=0
41. What is the slope of the B.Y+2X-4=0
35. If the slope of the line line 3x+2y+1=0? C.Y-2X-4=0
connecting the origin and A.3/2 D.Y+2X+4=0
point P is ¾, find the abscissa B.2/3
of P if its ordinate is 6. C.-3/2 47. What is the equation of
A.2 D.-2/3 the line that passes thru (4,0)
B.6 and is parallel to the line x-y-
C.7 42. Given three vertices of a 2=0?
D.8 triangle whose coordinates A.X-Y+4=0
are A(1,1), B(3,-3) and (5,-3). B.X+Y+4=0
36. Find the angle formed by Find the area of the triangle. C.X-Y-4=0
the lines 2x+y-8=0 and A.3 D.X-Y=0
x+3y+4=0. B.4
A.30 C.5 48. Find the equation of the
B.35 D.6 line through point (3,1) and is
C.45 perpendicular to the line
D.60 43. Find the equation of a x+5y+5=0.
straight line with a slope of 3 A.5X-2Y=14
37. What is the acute angle and a y-intercept of 1. B.5X-Y=14
between the lines y=3x+2 C.2X-5Y=14
and y=4x+9? A.3X+Y-1=0 D.2X+5Y=14
A.4.4 B.3X-Y+1=0
B.28.3 C.X+3Y+1=0
49. What is the equation of 55. What is the length of the D. r-4 cos 𝜃 = 0
the line joining the points (3,- latus rectum of the curve 31.
2) and (-7,6)? x2=20y? 32.
A.2X+3Y=0 A.√20
B.4X-5Y=22 B.20
C.4X+5Y=2 C.5
D.5X+4Y=7 D. √5

50. Find the slope of the line 56. Find the eccentricity of
having a parametric equation the curve 9x2-4y2-36x+8y=4.
of x=2+t and y=5-3t A.1.80
A.2 B.1.92
B.3 C.1.86
C.-2 D.1.76
D.-3
57. What is the area enclosed
51. What is the radius of the by the curve 9x2+25y2-
circle x2+y2-6y=0? 225=0?
A.2 A.47.1
B.3 B.50.2
C.4 C.63.8
D.5 D.72.3

52. A circle whose equation 58. The length of the latus

x2+y2+4x+6y-23=0 has its 𝑥2
center at: rectum for the ellipse +
64
A.(2,3) 𝑦2
= 1 is equal to:
16
B.(3,2)
A.2
C.(-3,2)
B.3
D.(-2,-3)
C.4
D.5
53. Find the area (in square
units) of the circle whose
59. What is the radius of the
equation is x2+y2=6x-8y.
sphere center at the origin
A.20 pi
that passes the point 8,1,6?
B.22 pi
A.10
C.25 pi
B.9
D.27 pi
C. √𝟏𝟎𝟏
D.1
54. The focus of the parabola
y2=16x is at
60.Find the polar equation of
A.(4,0)
the circle if its center is at
B.(0,4)
(4,0) and the radius 4.
C.(3,0)
D.(0,3) A.r-8 cos 𝜽 =0
B. r-6 cos 𝜃 = 0
C. r-12 cos 𝜃 = 0
ECE198L A.Element C.Alternating
19) A polygon having 10 sides is
Sale, Mhiko I. Series
MATH B.Arabic number D.none called
SET 7 11) Is a specific symbol used a) decagon
alone to denote a number
GEOMETRY b) heptagon
A.Element C.Alternating
1) Who is the father of Algebra?
Series c) quadrilateral
A. John Dalton
B.Series D.Digit
B.Diophantus Alexandria d) hexagon
C.JJ Thompson 12) Who is the father of ALgebra?
D.none 20) A polygon having 8 sides is
A. John Dalto
2) Term used to describe the B.Diophantus Alexandria called
numbers in a given sequence? C.JJ Thompson
A.Element a) hexagon
D.none
B.Series 13) an expression of both real and b) nonagon
C.Alternating Series imaginary number combined c) decagon
D.none A.Complex D.digit
3) Sum of the terms in sequence? B.Real C.none d) octagon
A.Element 14) A real number is the numerical 21) A triangle that has no equal
B.Series value of the number neglecting
C.Alternating Series sign sides and no equal angles is
D.none A.Complex C.digit known as
4) Has positive and negative B.Real D.Absolute
terms arranged alternately? Value a) isosceles triangle
A.Element b) scalene triangle
B.Series 15) A single location in space is
C.Alternating Series called a c) equilateral triangle
D.none A. Line C. Plane d) right angle
5) Another term for a sequence? B. Point D. ray
A.Element C.Alternating 16) Vertical angles that are 22) Perimeter of a rectangle with
Series opposite to each other are also base ‘b’ and height ‘h’ is
B.Series D.Progression a) not equal
6) Is an item that describes a measured by
magnitude or a position b) opposite a) 2 × b⁄h
A.Element c) scalene b) 2(h + b)
B.Series
C.Alternating Series d) equal c) 2(b - h)
D.number 17) Two lines that make an angle d) 2(h - b)
7) Numberse which allow us to
cunt the objects or ideas in a are called 23) Area of a rectangle with base
given collection a) scalene ‘b’ and height ‘h’ is measured
A.Element C.Cardinal
number b) rays by
B.Series D.number c) segment a) b × h
8) Sum of the terms in sequence?
d) vertex b) b + h
A.Element C.Alternating
Series 18) Surface area of hollow c) b⁄h
B.Series D.none cylinder with radius ‘r’ and d) h⁄b
9) How many sifes have a height ‘h’ is measured by 24) A line going through midpoint
polygon if the sum of the
a) 2πr - h from one side to other side of
interior angle is 1080?
A.5 C.7 b) 2πr + h a circle is called
B.6 D.8 c) πrh a) angle
10) The most widely used
numerals d) 2πrh b) area
 c) radius 31) Assuming that the earth is a
sphere whose radius is 40) The sides of a triangle are 8,
d) diameter 6400km. Find the distance 10 and 14. Determine the
25) Exterior angles of any polygon along a 3 deg arc at the radius of the circumscribing
equator of the earths surface. circle
sum up to
A.335.10 km C.353.10km A.7.14 C.7.54
a) 90° B.533.10km D.353.01km B.7.34 D.7.64
b) 180°
32) Each angle of a regular 41) The area of a circle is 89.42 sq
c) 270° dodecagon is equal to inches what is the
d) 360° A.135 C.125 circumference?
B.150 D.105 A.32.25 C.35.33
26) A polygon having 4 sides is
B.33.52 D.35.55
called 33) How many sifes have a
a) hexagon polygon if the sum of the 42) The angle of a sector is 30 and
interior angle is 1080? the radius is 16cm. What is
b) nonagon
A.5 C.7 the area of the sector?
c) heptagon B.6 D.8 A.59.8 C.67.02
d) quadrilateral B.89.5 D.85.9
34) The sum of the interior angle
27) Sum of all angles around a of a polygon is 540. Find the 43) The area of a regular hexagon
main point equals to number of sides? inscribed in a circle of radius
A.3 C.5 of 2 is
a) 360°
B.4 D.6 A.1.31 C.10.39
b) 180° B.2.945 D.3.816
c) 270° 35) How many sides are in a 44) The area of a triangle
polygon if each interior angle inscribed in a circle is 39.19
d) 90°
is 165 deg? cm^2 and the radius of the
28) A line which connects any two A.12 C.20 circumscribed circle is 6.14
points on a circle is known as B.24 D.48 cm. If the two sides of the
inscribed triangle are 8 cm
a) perimeter 36) How many diagonals are in a and 10 cm, respectively, find
b) diameter polygon of 20 sides? the third side.
A.200 C.100 A.11 cm C. 13 cm
c) chord
B.170 D.158 B. 12 cm D. 14 cm
d) radius 45) Two perpendicular chords
29) Angles that are opposite to 37) Given a triangle, C=100, a=15. both 5 cm from the center of
b=20. Find C a circle divide the circle into
each other are called
A.26 C.28 four parts. If the radius of the
a) vertical angles B.27 D.29 circle is 13 cm, find the area of
b) complementary angles the smallest part.
38) The sides of a triangle are 8. A. 30 C. 32
c) reflective angles 10 an 14. Determine the B. 31 D. 33
d) supplementary angles radius of the inscribed circle 46) The arc of a sector is 9 units
A.2.25 C.2.45 and its radius is 3 units. What
30) Angles that sum up to 90° are
B.2.35 D.2.55 is the area of the sector in
known as square units
a) vertical angles 39) What is the radius of the circle A. 12.5 C. 14.
circumscribing an an isosceles B. 13.5 D. 15.5
b) complementary angles
right triangle having an area
c) reflective angles of 162 sq.cm 47) A circle having an area of 452
d) supplementary angles A.12.73 C.14.18 sq. m is cut into two segments
B.13.52 D.15.55 by a chord which is 6m from
 the center of the circle. 55) Find the area of a regular
Compute the area of the pentagon whose side is 30m
bigger segment. and apothem is 17.2 m.
A. 354.89 sq. m A. 154842 C. 1080
B. 378.42 sq. m B. 1085 D. 1095
C. 363.56 sq. m 56) The area of a circle is 89.42 sq.
D. 383.64 sq. m inches. What is the length of
the side of a regular hexagon
48) The distance between the inscribed in a circle?
centers of the three circles A. 5.533 C. 6.335
which are mutually tangent to B. 5.335 D. 7.335
each other externally are 57) Find each interior angle of a
10,12 and 14 units. The area pentagon.
of the largest circle is A. 90 C. 150
A. 72𝜋 C. 64𝝅 B. 108 D. 180
B. 23𝜋 D. 16𝜋 58) Find the angle in mils
49) A trapezoid has an area of 36 subtended by a line 10 yards
m^2 and an altitude of 2 m. Its long at a distance of 1000
two bases have ratio of 5:4. yards.
What are the lengths of the A. 1 C. 2.5
bases? B. 10 D. 4
A. 12, 15 C. 8, 10 59) A certain angle has a
B. 7, 11 D. 20, 16 supplement 5 times the
50) A rhombus has diagonals of complement. What is the
32 and 20 inches. Determine angle?
its area. A. 67.5 C. 30
A. 360 C. 320 B. 58.5 D. 27
B. 280 D. 400 60) Find the sum of the interior
51) If the sides of a parallelogram angles of the vertices of a five
and an included angle are 6, pointed star inscribed in a
10 and 100°, respectively, find circle.
the length of the shorter A. 150 C. 170
diagonal. B. 160 D. 180
A. 10.63 C. 10.73
B. 10.37 D. 10.23
52) Find the area of a
quadrilateral having sides
AB=10cm, BC=5cm,
CD=14.14cm and DA=15cm. If
the sum of the opposite angle
is equal to 225
A. 96 sq.cm C. 94 sq.cm
B. 100 sq.cm D. 98 sq.cm
53) The area of a regular hexagon
inscribed in a circle of radius 1
is
A. 1.316 C. 2.598
B. 2.945 D. 3.816
54) Find the area of a regular
octagon inscribed in a circle of
radius 10cm?
A. 283 C. 298
B. 289 D. 238