500 MCQs Civil Engineering Strength Materials

SPECIAL CLASS
500 MCQs of Civil Engineering
10 AM
Civil Engineering by Sandeep Jyani
Que. 1 Every material obeys
Hooke’s law within
a) Elastic Limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Limit of Proportionality
d) None of the above
Civil Engineering by Sandeep Jyani 2

Que. 1 Every material obeys
Hooke’s law within
a) Elastic Limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Limit of Proportionality

Hooke’s Law
• When a material is loaded within 𝝈 Elastic Limit.
elastic limit, the stress is Stress
proportional to the strain
produced by the stress upto Proportional Limit.
Proportional Limit.
Or
Strain 𝜺
• Ratio of the Stress to the
corresponding strain is constant
𝜎∝𝜀
upto Proportional Limit. 𝜎 = 𝐸𝜀
𝜎
• E= Young’s Modulus of Elasticity 𝐸=
or Modulus of Elasticity 𝜖

Que. 2 The ratio between
stress and strain is called
as
a) Modulus of elasticity
b) Modulus of rigidity
c) Bulk modulus

Que. 2 The ratio between
stress and strain is called
as
a) Modulus of elasticity
b) Modulus of rigidity
c) Bulk modulus

Que. 3 The % elongation of test
piece under tension indicates its
a) Brittleness
b) Malleability
c) Stiffness
d) Ductility

Que. 3 The % elongation of
test piece under tension
indicates its
a) Brittleness
b) Malleability Ductility
c) Stiffness
d) Ductility

Que. 4 If cross section area of a
bar is doubled, then elongation
due to self weight of the bar will
be…
a) Doubled
b) Halved
c) Remains same
d) Four times

Que. 4 If cross section area of a
bar is doubled, then elongation
due to self weight of the bar will
be…
a) Doubled
b) Halved
c) Remains same
d) Four times

Q5.Ductility of which of the
following is the maximum?
a) Mild steel
b) Cast iron
c) Carbon Steel
d) Pig iron

Carbon Content
Q5. Ductility of which of the 𝑃𝑖𝑔 𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 (4−5%)
following is the maximum? > 𝐶𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑛(2−4.5%)
> 𝐶𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝑆𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 (>2%)
a) Mild steel > 𝐶𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 (𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 2%)
b) Cast iron > 𝐻𝑖𝑔ℎ 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 (0.6−1.4%)
>𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛(0.25−0.6%)
c) Carbon Steel >𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛 𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑒𝑙 (𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 0.25%)
> 𝑊𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑛 (𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 0.1%)
d) Pig iron >𝑃𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑛 (0%)

Questions: Strength of Materials
Q6. Relation between Young’s
modulus (E) and modulus of
rigidity (G) is given as
a) E = 3G (1+𝝁)
b) E = 2G (1 – 𝝁)
c) E = 2G (1 + 𝝁)
d) E = 3G (1 – 𝟐𝝁)

Q6. Relation between Young’s
modulus (E) and modulus of E= 𝟐𝑮 𝟏 + 𝝁
rigidity (G) is given as
a) E = 3G (1+𝝁)
E= 𝟑𝑲 𝟏 − 𝟐𝝁
b) E = 2G (1 – 𝝁)
c) E = 2G (1 + 𝝁) 𝟗𝑲𝑮
d) E = 3G (1 – 𝟐𝝁) 𝑬=
𝟑𝑲 + 𝑮

Q7. The ratio of normal stress to
volumetric strain in defined as
a) Young’s modulus
b) Bulk Modulus
c) Rigidity Modulus
d) Tangent modulus

Q7. The ratio of normal stress to
volumetric strain in defined as
a) Young’s modulus
b) Bulk Modulus
c) Rigidity Modulus 𝝈
𝑲 =
∆𝑽
d) Tangent modulus 𝑽

Q. 8
Poisson’s ratio is defined as
a) Longitudinal strain/lateral strain
b) Lateral strain/longitudinal strain
c) Lateral strain × longitudinal strain
d) ½ (lateral strain) × (Longitudinal strain)

Q. 8
Poisson’s ratio is defined as
a) Longitudinal strain/lateral strain
b) Lateral strain/longitudinal strain
c) Lateral strain × longitudinal strain
d) ½ (lateral strain) × (Longitudinal strain)
− 𝒍𝒂𝒕𝒆𝒓𝒂𝒍 𝒔𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒊𝒏
𝝁=
𝑳𝒐𝒏𝒈𝒊𝒕𝒖𝒅𝒊𝒏𝒂𝒍 𝑺𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒊𝒏

Q. 9 Modulus of rigidity is expressed as
a) Compressive stress/compressive strain
b) Tensile stress/tensile strain
c) Shear stress/shear strain
d) Stress/volumetric strain

Q. 9
Modulus of rigidity is expressed as
a) Compressive stress/compressive strain
b) Tensile stress/tensile strain
c) Shear stress/shear strain 𝝉
d) Stress/volumetric strain 𝑮 =
𝒚
𝑺𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒓 𝑺𝒕𝒓𝒆𝒔𝒔
𝑴𝒐𝒅𝒖𝒍𝒖𝒔 𝒐𝒇 𝒓𝒊𝒈𝒊𝒅𝒊𝒕𝒚 𝒐𝒓 𝑺𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒓 𝑴𝒐𝒅𝒖𝒍𝒖𝒔 =
𝑺𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒓 𝑺𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒊𝒏

Q. 10
The ability of a material to absorb
energy till the elastic limit is
known as
a) Resilience
b) Ductility
c) Elasticity
d) Malleability

Q. 10
The ability of a material to absorb
energy till the elastic limit is
known as
a) Resilience
b) Ductility
c) Elasticity
d) Malleability

Q. 11 One cubic metre of mild steel
weighs about
a) 1000 kg
b) 3625 kg
c) 7850 kg
d) 12560 kg

Q. 11. One cubic metre of mild steel

weighs about
a) 1000 kg
b) 3625 kg
c) 7850 kg
d) 12560 kg

Q. 12
Match List – 1 with List 2
List – 1 List – 2
1. Young Modulus a) Lateral Strain to linear strain within elastic unit
2. Poisson’s Ratio b) Direct stress to normal strain within elastic limit.
3. Bulk Modulus c) Shear stress to shear strain within elastic limit.
4. Rigidity Modulus d) Direct stress to corresponding volumetric strain.

Q. 12 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
Match List – 1 with List 2
List – 1 List – 2
1. Young Modulus a) Lateral Strain to linear strain within elastic unit
2. Poisson’s Ratio b) Direct stress to normal strain within elastic
limit.
3. Bulk Modulus
c) Shear stress to shear strain within elastic limit.
4. Rigidity Modulus
d) Direct stress to corresponding volumetric strain.

Que 13. Strain energy stored in a solid is given as:
a) σ × ϵ × colume
b) σ × ϵ × area of cross section
c) 0.5 × σ × ϵ × 1
d) 0.5 × σ × ϵ × volume
Que 13. Strain energy stored in a solid is given as:
a) σ × ϵ × colume
b) σ × ϵ × area of cross section
c) 0.5 × σ × ϵ × 1
d) 0.5 × σ × ϵ × volume
14. A bar, L meter long and having its area of cross-section A, is
subjected to gradually applied tensile load W. The strain energy
stored in the bar is given by:
𝐖²𝑳
a)
𝐀𝐄
𝐖²𝑳
b)
𝟐𝐀𝐄
𝐖𝐋
c)
𝟐𝐀𝐄
𝐖𝐋
d)
𝐀𝐄
14. A bar, L meter long and having its area of cross-section A, is
subjected to gradually applied tensile load W. The strain energy stored
in the bar is given by:
W²L
a)
AE
𝐖²𝑳
b)
𝟐𝑨𝑬
WL
c)
2AE
WL
d)
AE
15. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into
plates, is called:
a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Plasticity
d) Elasticity
15. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into
plates, is called:
a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Plasticity
d) Elasticity
Que 16. Strain energy due to sudden axial load is given by : (σ :
Resultant stress, P : Axial load, Δ : Deformation, ∈∶Strain, E :Modulus
of elasticity)
𝟏
a) P Δ
𝟐
b) σ .ϵ
c) P Δ
𝛔²
d)
𝟐𝑬
Que 16. Strain energy due to sudden axial load is given by : (σ :
Resultant stress, P : Axial load, Δ : Deformation, ∈∶Strain, E :Modulus
of elasticity)
𝟏
a) P Δ
𝟐
b) σ .ϵ
c) P Δ
𝛔²
d)
𝟐𝑬
17.
If a material has identical
properties in all directions, It is
said to be
a) Homogeneous
b) Elastic
c) Isotropic
d) None of these

17. If a material has identical
properties in all directions, It is
said to be
a) Homogeneous
b) Elastic
c) Isotropic
d) None of these

18. The bending moment (M) is
constant over a length segment (l) of a
beam. The shearing force will also be
constant over this length and is given by
𝑴
(a) 𝑰
𝑴
(b) 𝟐𝑰
𝑴
(c)
𝟒𝑰
(d)None of the above

18. The bending moment (M) is
constant over a length segment (L) of a
beam. The shearing force will also be
constant over this length and is given by
BM= constant SFD SF = 0
𝑴
(a) 𝑳 Rate of change of BM is
𝑴 shear force, hence slope of
(b) 𝟐𝑳 constant is 0
BMD M (N-m)
𝑴
(c)
𝟒𝑳
(d)None of the above

19. In a cantilever beam with u.d.l. the
shear force varies following
(a) linear law
(b) parabolic law
(c) both (a) and (b) x w N/m
(d) None of the above
L x

19. In a cantilever beam with u.d.l. the
shear force varies following
(a) linear law x w N/m
(b) parabolic law
L x x
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

20. The bending equation is written as
(a) 𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃 /y = E/R
𝑰
(b) 𝑴 = σ𝒃 /y = E/R
(c) 𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃 /y = R/E
(d) 𝑴/𝑰 = 𝒚/σ𝒃 = E/R

20. The bending equation is written as
(a) 𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃 /y = E/R
𝑰
(b) 𝑴 = σ𝒃 /y = E/R
(c) 𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃 /y = R/E
(d) 𝑴/𝑰 = 𝒚/σ𝒃 = E/R

21. For a beam, the term M/EI is:
(a) stress
(b) rigidity
(c) curvature
(d) shear force

Objective Questions
21. For a beam, the term M/EI is:
(a) stress
(b) rigidity
𝑴/𝑰 = σ𝒃 /y = E/R
(c) curvature 𝑴/𝑬𝑰 = 1/R
(d) shear force

Objective Questions
22. The point of contraflexure is a
point where
(a) Shear force is maximum
(b) Bending moment is maximum
(c) Shear force changes sign
(d) Bending moment changes sign

Objective Questions
22. The point of contraflexure is a
point where
(a) Shear force is maximum
(b) Bending moment is maximum
(c) Shear force changes sign
(d) Bending moment changes sign

23. The maximum shear force in a
simply supported beam of span L,
subjected to a central point load, W is
given by the following expression:
𝑾
(a) 𝟐
(b) 𝑾𝑳
𝑾𝑳𝟐
(c) 𝟐
𝑾𝑳𝟐
(d) 𝟒

Objective Questions
23. The maximum shear force in a
simply supported beam of span L, W
subjected to a central point load, W is
given by the following expression: A L/2 L/2
B
𝑾
(a) 𝟐
(b) 𝑾𝑳
L
𝑾𝑳𝟐
(c) 𝟐
𝑾𝑳𝟐
(d) 𝟒

24. Moment of inertia of rectangular
section as shown in figure about its
horizontal Centroidal axis is
𝒅𝒃𝟑 b
(a) 𝟏𝟐
𝒅𝒃𝟑
(b) 𝟑 d
𝒃𝒅𝟑
(c)
𝟏𝟐
𝒃𝒅𝟑
(d)
𝟑

24. Moment of inertia of rectangular
section as shown in figure about its
horizontal Centroidal axis is
𝒅𝒃𝟑 b
(a) 𝟏𝟐
𝒅𝒃𝟑
(b) 𝟑 d
𝒃𝒅𝟑
(c)
𝟏𝟐
𝒃𝒅𝟑
(d)
𝟑

Objective Questions
25. In a simply supported beam of
span, L subjected to uniformly
distributed load (UDL) of intensity
wkN/m over it’s entire length the
maximum bending is given by
expression:
𝑾𝑳𝟐
(a) 𝟖
𝑾𝑳
(b) 𝟐
𝑾𝑳𝟐
(c)
𝟐
(d) 𝒘𝑳

W N/m
25. In a simply supported beam of x
span, L subjected to uniformly A B
distributed load (UDL) of intensity
wkN/m over it’s entire length the x
maximum bending is given by L
Ra Rb
expression:
wL/2
𝑾𝑳𝟐
(a) 𝟖 SFD + C
𝑾𝑳 -
(b) 𝟐
- wL/2
𝑾𝑳𝟐
(c)
𝟐 BMD wL2
(d) 𝒘𝑳 M+ max =
𝟖

26. The slope of curve of S.F.D (Shear
Force Diagram) at any section will be
equal to
(a) The slope of loading at the section
(b) The ordinate of loading diagram at
the section
(c) The area of loading diagram from the
end to that section
(d) None of these

26. The slope of curve of S.F.D (Shear
Force Diagram) at any section will be
equal to
(a) The slope of loading at the section
(b) The ordinate of loading diagram at
the section
(c) The area of loading diagram from the
end to that section
(d) None of these

Relationship between Bending Moment, Shear
Force and Loading Intensity 50Nm
1. The slope of the BMD curve at a 40Nm
given section gives the value of A10Nm B 𝜽
Shear Force at that section
𝒅𝑴
= slope of BMD = F
𝒅𝒙 2m 4m
⇒ 𝒅𝑴 = F 𝒅𝒙
𝑩 𝑩
⇒ ‫𝒙𝒅𝑭 𝑨׬ = 𝑴𝒅 𝑨׬‬
⇒ MB – MA = Area of SFD between A and B

Relationship between Bending Moment, Shear
Force and Loading Intensity
2. The slope of the SFD curve gives
the value of Downward loading
intensity on the member
𝒅𝑭
= slope of SFD = - w (negative represents downward direction)
𝒅𝒙
⇒ 𝒅𝑭 = -w 𝒅𝒙
𝑩 𝑩
⇒ ‫ 𝑨׬ = 𝑭𝒅 𝑨׬‬−𝒘𝒅𝒙
⇒ FB – FA = Area of Loading diagram between A
and B

Objective Questions
27. The ratio of moment of inertia about
the neutral axis to the distance of the most
distant point of the section from the neutral
axis is called
(a) Polar module
(b) Section modulus
(c) Modulus of rupture
(d) Flexural rigidity

27. The ratio of moment of inertia about
the neutral axis to the distance of the most
distant point of the section from the neutral
axis is called
(a) Polar module
(b) Section modulus
(c) Modulus of rupture
(d) Flexural rigidity

Objective Questions
28. The maximum bending stress in an I-
beam occurs at the ______.
(a) Neutral axis
(b) Outermost fiber
(c) Joint of wedge and flange
(d) Section where shear stress is maximum

Objective Questions
28. The maximum bending
stress in an I-beam occurs at
the ______.
(a) Neutral axis
(b) Outermost fiber
(c) Joint of wedge and
flange
(d) Section where shear
stress is maximum

Objective Questions
29. The ratio of maximum shear stress to
average shear stress of a circular beam is
𝟐
(a) 𝟑
𝟑
(b) 𝟐
𝟑
(c) 𝟒
𝟒
(d) 𝟑

Objective Questions
29. The ratio of maximum shear stress to
average shear stress of a circular beam is
𝟐
(a) 𝟑
𝟑
(b)𝟐
𝟑
(c) 𝟒
𝟒
(d)𝟑

30. By applying the static equations i.e.
𝚺𝐇 = 𝟎, 𝚺𝐕 = 𝟎 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝚺𝐌 = 𝟎, to a
determinate structure, we may determine
(a) Supporting reactions only
(b) Shear forces only
(c) Bending moments only
(d) All option are correct

30. By applying the static equations i.e.
𝚺𝐇 = 𝟎, 𝚺𝐕 = 𝟎 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝚺𝐌 = 𝟎, to a
determinate structure, we may determine
(a) Supporting reactions only
(b) Shear forces only
(c) Bending moments only
(d) All option are correct

Que 31. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to
a) absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure
b) absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
c) vacuum pressure plus absolute pressure
d) one of the above

Que 31. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to
a) absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure
b) absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
c) vacuum pressure plus absolute pressure
d) one of the above

Que 32. A U-tube manometer measures
a) Local atmosphere pressure
b) Difference in pressure between two points
c) Difference in total energy between two points
d) Absolute pressure at a point

Que 32. A U-tube manometer measures
a) Local atmosphere pressure
b) Difference in pressure between two points
c) Difference in total energy between two points
d) Absolute pressure at a point

Que 33. Metacentric height is given as the distance
between______.
a) The centre of gravity of the body and the metacentre
b) The centre of gravity of the body and the centre of
buoyancy
c) The centre of gravity of the body and the centre of
pressure
d) Centre of buoyancy and metacentre

METACENTRE
• It is the point of intersection of normal axis with
the new line of action of force of buoyancy, when
a small displacement is given.
• It is a point about which a body starts to oscillate
when it is tilted by small angle.
𝑮. 𝑴. = 𝑩. 𝑴 − 𝑩. 𝑮
𝑰
𝑮𝑴 = − 𝑩𝑮
𝑽
𝒃𝒅𝟑 𝒅𝒃𝟑 𝑰𝒎𝒊𝒏

• Where 𝑰𝒙𝒙 = ; 𝑰𝒚𝒚 = ; = metacentric radius
𝟏𝟐 𝟏𝟐 𝑽
• For stability G.M. should be positive, i.e.,
B.M>B.G
Que 33. Metacentric height is given as the distance
between______.
a) The centre of gravity of the body and the
metacentre
b) The centre of gravity of the body and the centre of
buoyancy
c) The centre of gravity of the body and the centre of
pressure
d) Centre of buoyancy and metacentre

Que 34. When the cohesion between molecules of a
fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and the
glass, then the free level of fluid in glass tube
dipped in the glass vessel will be_________.
a) Same as the surface of the fluid
b) Lower than the surface of the fluid
c) Higher than the surface of the fluid
d) Dependent on atmospheric pressure

Que 34. When the cohesion between molecules of a
fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and the
glass, then the free level of fluid in glass tube
dipped in the glass vessel will be_________.
a) Same as the surface of the fluid
b) Lower than the surface of the fluid
c) Higher than the surface of the fluid
d) Dependent on atmospheric pressure

Que 35. A body floats in stable equilibrium_____.
a) When its metacentric height is zero
b) When metacentre is above centre of gravity
c) When its center of gravity is below the center of
buoyancy.
d) None of these

Que 35. A body floats in stable equilibrium_____.
a) When its metacentric height is zero
b) When metacentre is above centre of gravity
c) When its center of gravity is below the center of
buoyancy.
d) None of these

• STABILITY CONDITION FOR FULLY
SUBMERGED BODY:
• A completely submerged body will be in Stable Equilibrium

Stable Equilibrium when centre of
buoyancy is above centre of gravity.
• If centre of buoyancy is below centre of

gravity, then completely submerged
body will be in Unstable Equilibrium.
Unstable Equilibrium
• If centre of buoyancy and centre of
gravity coincides, then fully submerged
body will be in Neutral Equilibrium. 𝑩 𝑮
Neutral Equilibrium
M
• STABILITY CONDITION FOR PARTIALLY
SUBMERGED BODY: G
• A partially submerged body will be in B
Stable Equilibrium when metacentre is
above centre of gravity. Stable
equilibrium
• If metacentre is below centre of gravity, Stable Equilibrium
G
then partially submerged body will be in
Unstable Equilibrium. M
• If metacentre and centre of gravity B

coincides, then partially submerged body Unstable
will be in neutral equilibrium. equilibrium
• The distance between C.G. and Unstable Equilibrium.

metacenter is called metacentric G,B
height.
Neutral
Civil Engineering by Sandeep Jyani equilibrium77
Que 36. Center of pressure on an inclined plane
is_______.
a) At the centroid
b) Above the centroid
c) Below the centroid
d) At metacentre

Que 36. Center of pressure on an inclined plane
is_______.
a) At the centroid
b) Above the centroid
c) Below the centroid
d) At metacentre

Que 37. The resultant upward thrust of the fluid on an
immersed body is called
a) Upthrust
b) Buoyancy
c) Centre of pressure
d) All options are correct

Que 37. The resultant upward thrust of the fluid on an
immersed body is called
a) Upthrust
b) Buoyancy
c) Centre of pressure
d) All options are correct

Que 38. The point in the immersed body through which the
resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is
known as
a) Metacentre
b) Centre of pressure
c) Centre of buoyancy
d) Centre of gravity

Que 38. The point in the immersed body through which
the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act
is known as
a) Metacentre
b) Centre of pressure
c) Centre of buoyancy
d) Centre of gravity

39. Pressure in terms of metres of oil (specific gravity = 0.9)
equivalent to 4.5 m of water is
a) 4.05
b) 5.0
c) 3.6
d) 0.298

39. Pressure in terms of metres of oil (specific gravity =
0.9) equivalent to 4.5 m of water is
a) 4.05
b) 5.0
c) 3.6
d) 0.298

40. Capillarity rise is due to
I. Surface tension
II. Cohesion
III. Viscosity
IV. Weight density of liquid
a) II, III
b) III
c) I
d) II, III, V

40. Capillarity rise is due to
I. Surface tension
II. Cohesion
III. Viscosity
IV. Weight density of liquid
a) II, III
b) III
c) I
d) II, III, V

41. Manometer is a device used for measuring
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) Density
d) Discharge

41. Manometer is a device used for measuring
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) Density
d) Discharge

42. The buoyancy depends upon the
a) Pressure with which the liquid is displaced
b) Weight of the liquid displaced
c) Viscosity of the liquid
d) Compressibility of the liquid

42. The buoyancy depends upon the
a) Pressure with which the liquid is displaced
b) Weight of the liquid displaced
c) Viscosity of the liquid
d) Compressibility of the liquid

44. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific
weight of pure water at a standard temperature is called
a) Compressibility of liquid
b) Surface tension of liquid
c) Density of liquid
d) Specific gravity of liquid

44. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific
weight of pure water at a standard temperature is called
a) Compressibility of liquid
b) Surface tension of liquid
c) Density of liquid
d) Specific gravity of liquid

Que 45. Flow of fluid takes place due to its:
a) Viscosity
b) Compressibility
c) Surface tension
d) Deformation under shear force

Que 45. Flow of fluid takes place due to its:
a) Viscosity
b) Compressibility
c) Surface tension
d) Deformation under shear force

Que 46. The magnitude of the buoyant force can be
determined by :
a) Newton’s law of viscosity
b) Archimedes principle.
c) Principles of moments

Que 46. The magnitude of the buoyant force can be
determined by :
a) Newton’s law of viscosity
b) Archimedes principle.
c) Principles of moments

Que 47. Pascal’s law states that pressure at any
point in a fluid at rest has
a) Different magnitude in all directions
b) Same magnitude, in all directions
c) Zero magnitude in all directions

Que 47. Pascal’s law states that pressure at any
point in a fluid at rest has
a) Different magnitude in all directions
b) Same magnitude, in all directions
c) Zero magnitude in all directions

48. The commonly used method for quick determination of water
content at field embankments is :
(A) Oven drying method
(B) Sand bath method
(C) Alcohol method
(D) Calcium carbide method
48. The commonly used method for quick determination of water
content at field embankments is :
(A) Oven drying method
(B) Sand bath method
(C) Alcohol method
(D) Calcium carbide method
49. Pycnometer I used to determine :
(A) Water content and void ratio
(B) Specific gravity and dry density
(C) Water content and specific gravity
(D) None of the above
49. Pycnometer I used to determine :
(A) Water content and void ratio
(B) Specific gravity and dry density
(C) Water content and specific gravity
50. The moisture content of a soil below which the soil volume
becomes constant, is called the :
(A) Liquid limit
(B) Plastic limit
(C) Shrinkage limit
50. The moisture content of a soil below which the soil volume
becomes constant, is called the :
(A) Liquid limit
(B) Plastic limit
(C) Shrinkage limit
51. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil, in percentage is :
(A) S > 0
(B) S ≤ 0
(C) 0 < S < 100
(D) 0 ≤ S ≤ 100
51. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil, in percentage is :
(A) S > 0
(B) S ≤ 0
(C) 0 < S < 100
(D) 0 ≤ S ≤ 100
52. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of:
(A) Plasticity index to consistency index.
(B) Plasticity index to flow index.
(C) Liquidity index to flow index.
(D) Consistency index to liquidity index.
52. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of:
(A) Plasticity index to consistency index.
(B) Plasticity index to flow index.
(C) Liquidity index to flow index.
(D) Consistency index to liquidity index.
53. The relationship between void ratio ‘e’ and porosity ‘n’ is :
(A) n=(1+e)/(1−e)
(B) 𝒆=𝒏(𝟏+𝒆)
(C) n=e/(1−e)
(D) e=(1+n)/(1−e)
53. The relationship between void ratio ‘e’ and porosity ‘n’ is :
(A) n=(1+e)/(1−e)
(B) 𝒆=𝒏(𝟏+𝒆)
(C) n=e/(1−e)
(D) e=(1+n)/(1−e)
54. The volume of voids to the total volume of soil is known as :
(A) Porosity
(B) Void ratio
(C) Air ratio
(D) Air content
54. The volume of voids to the total volume of soil is known as :
(A) Porosity
(B) Void ratio
(C) Air ratio
(D) Air content
55. A fundamental equation of void ratio (e), specific gravity (G),
water content (w) and the degree of saturation (S_p) is :
(A) e=wG/s
(B) w=eG/S
(C) G=eW/S
(D) S=eW/G
55. A fundamental equation of void ratio (e), specific gravity (G),
water content (w) and the degree of saturation (S_p) is :
(A) e=wG/s
(B) w=eG/S
(C) G=eW/S
(D) S=eW/G
56. The void ratio for saturated soil is equal to ______ of water
content and specific gravity of solids.
(A) Sum
(B) product
(C) Difference
(D) Ratio
56. The void ratio for saturated soil is equal to ______ of water
content and specific gravity of solids.
(A) Sum
(B) product
(C) Difference
(D) Ratio
57. Density index for a natural soil is used to express
(A) Percentage voids
(B) Relative compactness
(C) Shar strength of clays
(D) Specific gravity
57. Density index for a natural soil is used to express
(A) Percentage voids
(B) Relative compactness
(C) Shar strength of clays
(D) Specific gravity
58. If the pores of a soil are completely full of air only, the soil is said
to be______.
(A) Wet soil
(B) Fully saturated soil
(C) Dry soil
(D) Partly saturated oil
58. If the pores of a soil are completely full of air only, the soil is said
to be______.
(A) Wet soil
(B) Fully saturated soil
(C) Dry soil
(D) Partly saturated oil
59. Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is _____.
(A) Upheaval – transportation – deposition – weathering
(B) weathering – Upheaval – transportation – deposition
(C) transportation – Upheaval – weathering –– deposition
(D) weathering – transportation – deposition Upheaval
59. Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is _____.
(A) Upheaval – transportation – deposition – weathering
(B) weathering – Upheaval – transportation – deposition
(C) transportation – Upheaval – weathering –– deposition
(D) weathering – transportation – deposition Upheaval
60. Among the clay minerals, the one having maximum swell
tendency, is
a) Kaolinite
b) Illite
c) Montmorillonite
d) None of these
60. Among the clay minerals, the one having maximum swell
tendency, is
a) Kaolinite
b) Illite
c) Montmorillonite
d) None of these
Que 61. Dry density of soil is equal to
a) Mass of solids to volume of solids
b) Mass of solids to total volume of soil
c) Density of soil in dried condition
d) None of these
Que 61. Dry density of soil is equal to
a) Mass of solids to volume of solids
b) Mass of solids to total volume of soil
c) Density of soil in dried condition
d) None of these
Que 62. The value of void ratio of a soil mass can
a) Take value between 0 to 1
b) Take any value greater than 0
c) Be 0
d) Never greater than unity
Que 62. The value of void ratio of a soil mass can
a) Take value between 0 to 1
b) Take any value greater than 0
c) Be 0
d) Never greater than unity
Que 63. The degree of saturation in soils can be taken as
a) Ratio of volume of water to that of voids
b) Ratio of water by weight to the dry soil weight
c) Ratio of volume of water to the gross volume of soil
d) Ratio of weight of water to that of soil
Que 63. The degree of saturation in soils can be taken as
a) Ratio of volume of water to that of voids
b) Ratio of water by weight to the dry soil weight
c) Ratio of volume of water to the gross volume of soil
d) Ratio of weight of water to that of soil
Que 64. Optimum moisture content is obtained from
a) Triaxial test
b) Standard Proctor test
c) Consolidation test
d) Hydrometer test
Que 64. Optimum moisture content is obtained from
a) Triaxial test
b) Standard Proctor test
c) Consolidation test
d) Hydrometer test
Que 65. Quick sand is a
a) Type of sand
b) Flow condition occurring in cohesive soil
c) Flow condition occurring in cohesionless soil
d) All of the above
Que 65. Quick sand is a
a) Type of sand
b) Flow condition occurring in cohesive soil
c) Flow condition occurring in cohesionless soil
d) All of the above
Que 66. In sedimentation analysis, the soil fraction should be of what
micron size, so as to be kept in a liquid medium (water).
a) 75
b) 83
c) 57
d) 70
Que 66. In sedimentation analysis, the soil fraction should be of what
micron size, so as to be kept in a liquid medium (water).
a) 75
b) 83
c) 57
d) 70
Que 67. The sedimentation analysis is based on _________ law.
a) Stoke
b) Cullman’s
c) Rankine’s
d) None of the mentioned
Que 67. The sedimentation analysis is based on _________ law.
a) Stoke
b) Cullman’s
c) Rankine’s
d) None of the mentioned
68. What are the features required, for classifying a soil component as
boulder?
a) Bulky hard
b) Diameter more than 30cm
c) Round to angular shape
d) All of the mentioned
68. What are the features required, for classifying a soil component as
boulder?
a) Bulky hard
b) Diameter more than 30cm
c) Round to angular shape
d) All of the mentioned
69. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
a) Ridge line
b) Contour line
c) Valley line
d) Straight line
69. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
a) Ridge line
b) Contour line
c) Valley line
d) Straight line
70. When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same
level, the structure so provided is
a) An aqueduct
b) A syphon
c) A level crossing
d) Inlet and outlet
70. When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same
level, the structure so provided is
a) An aqueduct
b) A syphon
c) A level crossing
d) Inlet and outlet
71. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure
provided, is known as
a) Syphon
b) Aqueduct
c) Super passage
d) Syphon aqueduct
71. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure
provided, is known as
a) Syphon
b) Aqueduct
c) Super passage
d) Syphon aqueduct
72. When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a natural
drainage such that its F.S.L. does not touch the underside of the
supporting structure, the structure so provided, is called
a) Syphon
b) Aqueduct
c) Super passage
d) Syphon aqueduct
72. When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a natural
drainage such that its F.S.L. does not touch the underside of the
supporting structure, the structure so provided, is called
a) Syphon
b) Aqueduct
c) Super passage
d) Syphon aqueduct
Que.73 The irrigation water is said to be unsatisfactory, if it contains
a) Chemicals toxic to plants/persons using the plants as food
b) Chemicals which react with the soil to produce unsatisfactory
moisture characteristics
c) Bacteria injurious to persons or animals eating plants irrigated
with water
d) All of the above
c) Bacteria injurious to persons or animals eating plants irrigated
with water
d) All of the above
Que.74 Sandy soils with good drainage become impermeable after
prolonged use, if it is irrigated with a water containing _____ sodium
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 85%
Que.74 Sandy soils with good drainage become impermeable after
prolonged use, if it is irrigated with a water containing _____ sodium
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 85%
Que 75. In India, rain fall is generally recorded at
a)8 AM
b)12 Noon
c)4 PM
d)8 PM
154
Que 75. In India, rain fall is generally recorded at
a)8 AM
b)12 Noon
c)4 PM
d)8 PM
155
Que 76. A recording type rain gauge
a)produces a mass curve of rain fall
b)records the cumulative rain
c)is sometimes called integrating rain
gauge or continuous rain gauge
d)all the above.
156
Que 76. A recording type rain gauge
a)produces a mass curve of rain fall
b)records the cumulative rain
c)is sometimes called integrating rain
gauge or continuous rain gauge
d)all the above.
157
Que 77. In India the recording type
rain gauge generally used, is
a)weighing type
b)tipping type
c)float recording type
d)NOTA
158
Que 77. In India the recording type
rain gauge generally used, is
a)weighing type
b)tipping type
c)float recording type
d)NOTA
159
Que 78. For determination of average annual precipitation in a
catchment basin, the best method is
a)Arithmetical method
b)Thiessen's mean method
c)Isohyetal method
d)None of these
160
Que 78. For determination of average annual precipitation in a
catchment basin, the best method is
c)Isohyetal method
d)None of these
161
Que 79. While calculating the average depth of annual precipitation
in a catchment basin, importance to individual raingauge station is
given in
c)Isohyetal method
d)both (b) and (c).
162
Que 79. While calculating the average depth of annual precipitation
in a catchment basin, importance to individual raingauge station is
given in
c)Isohyetal method
d)both (b) and (c).
163
Que 80. The quantity of water retained by the sub-soil against gravity,
is known
a)Yield
b)Porosity
c)specific yield
d)Specific retention
164
Que 80. The quantity of water retained by the sub-soil against gravity,
is known
a)Yield
b)Porosity
c)specific yield
d)Specific retention
165
Que. 81 Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden
sleeper of size 275x25x13 cm with 75cm sleeper spacing is
a) 15 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 25 cm
d) 30cm

Que. 81 Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden
sleeper of size 275x25x13 cm with 75cm sleeper spacing is
a) 15 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 25 cm
d) 30cm

Que. 82 Sleeper density in India is normally kept as
a) M + 2 to M + 7
b) M to M+2
c) M + 5 to M+10
d) M

Que. 82 Sleeper density in India is normally kept as
a) M + 2 to M + 7
b) M to M+2
c) M + 5 to M+10
d) M

Que. 83 Composite sleeper index is the index of
a) hardness and strength
b) strength and toughness
c) toughness and wear resistance
d) wear resistance and hardness

Que. 83 Composite sleeper index is the index of
a) hardness and strength
b) strength and toughness
c) toughness and wear resistance
d) wear resistance and hardness

Que. 84. The sleepers which satisfy the requirements of an ideal
sleeper, are
a) cast iron sleepers

b) R.C.C. sleepers
c) steel sleepers
d) wooden sleepers

Que 84. The sleepers which satisfy the requirements of an ideal
sleeper, are
a) cast iron sleepers

b) R.C.C. sleepers
c) steel sleepers
d) wooden sleepers

Que.85 The broad gauge is ………… wide.
a) 0.6096 m
b) 0.762 m
c) 1.00 m
d) 1.676 m

Que.85 The broad gauge is ………… wide.
a) 0.6096 m
b) 0.762 m
c) 1.00 m
d) 1.676 m

Que.86 For main cities and routes of maximum intensities,
the type of gauge adopted is
a) broad gauge
b) metre gauge
c) narrow gauge
d) all of these

Que.86 For main cities and routes of maximum intensities,
the type of gauge adopted is
a) broad gauge
b) metre gauge
c) narrow gauge
d) all of these

Que.87 For undeveloped areas, the type of gauge adopted is
a) broad gauge
b) metre gauge
c) narrow gauge
d) all of these

Que.87 For undeveloped areas, the type of gauge adopted is
a) broad gauge
b) metre gauge
c) narrow gauge
d) all of these

Que.88 the gauge representing the maximum width and height
up to which a railway vehicle may be built, is known as
a) broad gauge
b) narrow gauge
c) loading gauge
d) all of these

Que.88 the gauge representing the maximum width and height
up to which a railway vehicle may be built, is known as
a) broad gauge
b) narrow gauge
c) loading gauge
d) all of these

Que.89 In India, for metre gauge track, the maximum height
of a loaded goods wagon is fixed as
a) 3.43 m
b) 4.72 m
c) 5.32 m
d) 5.87 m

Que.89 In India, for metre gauge track, the maximum height of
a loaded goods wagon is fixed as
a) 3.43 m
b) 4.72 m
c) 5.32 m
d) 5.87 m

Que.90 The coning of wheels is made to prevent the
a) lateral movement of the axle
b) lateral movement of the wheels
c) damage of the inside edges of rails
d) all of these

Que.90 The coning of wheels is made to prevent the
a) lateral movement of the axle
b) lateral movement of the wheels
c) damage of the inside edges of rails
d) all of these

Que. 91 Creep is the ………… movement of rail.
a) longitudinal
b) lateral
c) vertical

Que. 91 Creep is the ………… movement of rail.
a) longitudinal
b) lateral
c) vertical

Que. 92 Creep is greater
a) on curves
b) in new rails than in old rails
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these

Que. 92 Creep is greater
a) on curves
b) in new rails than in old rails
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these

Que.93 The irrigation engineering may be defined as
a) The process of artificially supplying water to soil for raising crops
b) A science of planning and designing an efficient and economic
irrigation system
c) The engineering of controlling and harnessing the various natural
sources of water by construction of dams, canals and finally
distributing the water to the agricultural fields.
d) All of the above
Que.93 The irrigation engineering may be defined as
a) The process of artificially supplying water to soil for raising crops
b) A science of planning and designing an efficient and economic
irrigation system
c) The engineering of controlling and harnessing the various natural
sources of water by construction of dams, canals and finally
distributing the water to the agricultural fields.
d) All of the above
Que.94 The irrigation is necessary in an area
a) Where there is scanty rainfall
b) Where the rainfall is non uniform
c) where commercial crops require more water
d) All of the above
Que.94 The irrigation is necessary in an area
a) Where there is scanty rainfall
b) Where the rainfall is non uniform
c) where commercial crops require more water
d) All of the above
c) Bacteria injurious to persons or animals eating plants irrigated with
water
d) All of the above
c) Bacteria injurious to persons or animals eating plants irrigated with
water
d) All of the above
Que.96 For irrigation purposes, pH value of water should be
a) Between 3-6
b) Between 6-8.5
c) Between 8.5-11
d) More than 11
Que.96 For irrigation purposes, pH value of water should be
a) Between 3-6
b) Between 6-8.5
c) Between 8.5-11
d) More than 11
Que.97 Irrigation _______ the chances of water logging.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
Que.97 Irrigation _______ the chances of water logging.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
Que.98 The ratio between area of crop irrigated and the quantity of
water required during its entire period of growth, is known as
a) Delta
b) Duty
c) Base period
d) Crop period
Que.98 The ratio between area of crop irrigated and the quantity of
water required during its entire period of growth, is known as
a) Delta
b) Duty
c) Base period
d) Crop period
Que.99 The total depth of water required by a crop during the entire
period of the crop in the field , is known as
a) Delta
b) Duty
c) Base period
d) Crop period
Que.99 The total depth of water required by a crop during the entire
period of the crop in the field , is known as
a) Delta
b) Duty
c) Base period
d) Crop period
Que.100 The relation between duty(D) in hectares/cumec, delta(∆) in
metres and base period(B) in days is
8.64𝐵
a) ∆= 𝐷
86.4𝐵
b) ∆= 𝐷
864𝐵
c) ∆= 𝐷
8640𝐵
d) ∆= 𝐷
Que.100 The relation between duty(D) in hectares/cumec, delta(∆) in
metres and base period(B) in days is
𝟖.𝟔𝟒𝑩
a) ∆= 𝑫
86.4𝐵
b) ∆= 𝐷
864𝐵
c) ∆= 𝐷
8640𝐵
d) ∆= 𝐷
Que.101 The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is
taken into account is called...................
(a) Geodetic surveying
(b) Plane surveying
(c) Preliminary surveying
(d) Topographical surveying
Que.101 The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is
taken into account is called...................
(a) Geodetic surveying
(b) Plane surveying
(c) Preliminary surveying
Que.102 The surveying used to determine additional details such as
boundaries of fields, is called
(a) City surveying
(b) Location surveying
(c) Cadastral surveying
Que.102 The surveying used to determine additional details such as
boundaries of fields, is called
(a) City surveying
(b) Location surveying
(c) Cadastral surveying
Que.103 Permissible limits of error in chaining for measurement on
rough or hilly ground is...............
(a) 1: 2000 .
(b) 1 : 1000
(c) 1 : 500
(d) 1: 250
Que.103 Permissible limits of error in chaining for measurement on
rough or hilly ground is...............
(a) 1: 2000 .
(b) 1 : 1000
(c) 1 : 500
(d) 1: 250
Que.104 In a diagonal scale only
(a) Units can be shown
(b) Units, tenths can be shown
(c) Units, tenths and hundredths can be shown
(d) Units, tenths, hundredths and thousandths can bc shown
Que.104 In a diagonal scale only
(a) Units can be shown
(b) Units, tenths can be shown
(c) Units, tenths and hundredths can be shown
(d) Units, tenths, hundredths and thousandths can be shown
Que.105 In an engineering drawing it is written scale 1 cm= 100 m.
Which ratio dose it correspond to?
(a) 1 : 100
(b) 1 : 1000
(c) 1 : 10,000
(d) 1 : 1,00,000
Que.105 In an engineering drawing it is written scale 1 cm= 100 m.
Which ratio dose it correspond to?
(a) 1 : 100
(b) 1 : 1000
(c) 1 : 10,000
(d) 1 : 1,00,000
Que.106 A line joining some fixed stations on main survey lines is
(a) Check line
(b) Base line
(c) Tie line
(d) Cross line
Que.106 A line joining some fixed stations on main survey lines is
(a) Check line
(b) Base line
(c) Tie line
(d) Cross line
Que.107 In a well conditions triangle, one angle should not be less
than:
(a) 60°
(b) 50°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°
Que.107 In a well conditions triangle, one angle should not be less
than:
(a) 60°
(b) 50°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°
Que.108 Ranging is the process of
(a) Fixing ranging rods on the extremities of the area
(b) Aligning the chain in a straight line between two extremities
(c) Taking offset from a chain line
(d) Chaining over a range of mountains
Que.108 Ranging is the process of
(a) Fixing ranging rods on the extremities of the area
(b) Aligning the chain in a straight line between two extremities
(c) Taking offset from a chain line
(d) Chaining over a range of mountains
Que.109 What is the angle in degrees between two plane mirrors of an
optical square?
a) 30
b) 60
c) 45
d) 90
Que.109 What is the angle in degrees between two plane mirrors of an
optical square?
a) 30
b) 60
c) 45
d) 90
Que.110 The branch of surveying in which only linear measurements
are directly made in the field is
(a) land surveying
(b) chain surveying
(c) engineering surveying
Que.110 The branch of surveying in which only linear measurements
are directly made in the field is
(a) land surveying
(b) chain surveying
(c) engineering surveying
Que.111 Marking the end of chain length is an example of
(a) Positive error
(b) Negative error
(c) Cumulative error
(d) Compensating error
Que.111 Marking the end of chain length is an example of
(a) Positive error
(b) Negative error
Que.112 A scale is to be devised to read into metre, centimeter and
decimeter. Which type of the following scales is best suited for this
purpose?
(a) Plain scale
(b) Vernier scale
(c) Diagonal scale
(d) Diagonal or Vernier scale
Que.112 A scale is to be devised to read into metre, centimeter and
decimeter. Which type of the following scales is best suited for this
purpose?
(a) Plain scale
(b) Vernier scale
(c) Diagonal scale
(d) Diagonal or Vernier scale
Que.113 Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular
offsets?
(a) Line ranger
(b) Steel tape
(c) Optical square
(d) Cross staff
Que.113 Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular
offsets?
(a) Line ranger
(b) Steel tape
(c) Optical square
(d) Cross staff
Que.114 Which of the following is least affected by temperature
changes and is highly precise
(a) Linen tape
(b) Steel tape
(c) Metallic tape
(d) Invar tape
Que.114 Which of the following is least affected by temperature
changes and is highly precise
(a) Linen tape
(b) Steel tape
(c) Metallic tape
(d) Invar tape
Que.115 The error due to sag of tape or chain is known as
(a) Positive error
(b) Negative error
Que.115 The error due to sag of tape or chain is known as
(a) Positive error
(b) Negative error
Que.116 In an optical square, the angle between the first incident ray
and the last reflected ray is
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 150
Que.116 In an optical square, the angle between the first incident ray
and the last reflected ray is
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 150
Que.117 In surveying the horizontal angle which a line makes with the
magnetic meridian is called
(a) Magnetic bearing
(b) Grid meridian
(c) Arbitrary meridian
(d) Grid bearing
Que.117 In surveying the horizontal angle which a line makes with the
magnetic meridian is called
(a) Magnetic bearing
(b) Grid meridian
(c) Arbitrary meridian
(d) Grid bearing
Que.118 The reduced bearing of a line is N87W. Its whole circle
bearing would be
(a) 273
(b) 3
(c) 93
(d) 87
Que.118 The reduced bearing of a line is N87W. Its whole circle
bearing would be
(a) 273
(b) 3
(c) 93
(d) 87
Que.119 Which of the following methods of levelling eliminates the
error due to curvature and refraction?
(a) Fly levelling
(b) Levelling by equalizing the distances of foresight and backsight
(c) Check levelling
(d) Precise levelling
Que.119 Which of the following methods of levelling eliminates the
error due to curvature and refraction?
(a) Fly levelling
(b) Levelling by equalizing the distances of foresight and backsight
(c) Check levelling
(d) Precise levelling
Que.120 A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
(a) Steep slope
(b) Gentle slope
(c) Uniform slope
(d) Plane surface
Que.120 A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
(a) Steep slope
(b) Gentle slope
(c) Uniform slope
(d) Plane surface
Que.121 Contour lines drawn on a map, are the lines which pass
through
(a) Hills and depressions
(b) Same elevation
(c) Same latitude
(d) None of these
Que.121 Contour lines drawn on a map, are the lines which pass
through
(a) Hills and depressions
(b) Same elevation
(c) Same latitude
(d) None of these
Que.122 Direct method of contouring is
(a) A quick method
(b) Adopted for large surveys
(c) Most accurate method
(d) Suitable for hilly terrain
Que.122 Direct method of contouring is
(a) A quick method
(b) Adopted for large surveys
(c) Most accurate method
(d) Suitable for hilly terrain
Que.123 Which of the following is not a permanent adjustment in
theodolite?
(a) Adjustment of vertical plate level
(b) Adjustment of telescope
(c) Adjustment of vertical circle index
(d) Elimination of parallax
Que.123 Which of the following is not a permanent adjustment in
theodolite?
(a) Adjustment of vertical plate level
(b) Adjustment of telescope
(c) Adjustment of vertical circle index
(d) Elimination of parallax
Que.124 How does the size of theodolite specified?
a) By the length of telescope
b) By the diameter of vertical circle
c) By the diameter of upper plate
d) By the diameter of lower plate
Que.124 How does the size of theodolite specified?
a) By the length of telescope
b) By the diameter of vertical circle
c) By the diameter of upper plate
d) By the diameter of lower plate
Que.125 The ratio of focal length of objective to stadia interval is called
a) Additive factor
b) Multiplying factor
c) Staff interval
d) Subtractive interval
Que.125 The ratio of focal length of objective to stadia interval is called
a) Additive factor
b) Multiplying factor
c) Staff interval
d) Subtractive interval
Que 126. The construction of optical squares is
based on the principle of optical
a)reflection
b)refraction
c)Double refraction
d)Double reflection

Que 126. The construction of optical squares is
based on the principle of optical
a)reflection
b)refraction
c)Double refraction
d)Double reflection

Que 127. Cross staff is used for:
a)Setting out right angle
b)Measuring horizontal angle
c)Both (a) and (b)
d)None of the above

Que 127. Cross staff is used for:
a)Setting out right angle
b)Measuring horizontal angle
c)Both (a) and (b)
d)None of the above

Que 128. Building is an obstacle to
a)Both chaining and ranging
b)Chaining but not ranging
c)Ranging but not chaining
d)Neither chaining nor ranging

Que 128. Building is an obstacle to
a)Both chaining and ranging
b)Chaining but not ranging
c)Ranging but not chaining
d)Neither chaining nor ranging

Que 129. The correction for slope in chaining is
proportional to
a) ℎ
b)ℎ
c)ℎ2
d)ℎ4

Que 129. The correction for slope in chaining is
proportional to
a) ℎ
b)ℎ
c)ℎ2
d)ℎ4

Que 130. “Offsets” are
a)Lateral measurements from chain line
b)Tie or check lines which are perpendicular to
chain line
c)Sets of minor measurements in chain surveying
d)Chain lines which go out of alignments

Que 130. “Offsets” are
a)Lateral measurements from chain line
b)Tie or check lines which are propendicular to
chain line
c)Sets of minor measurements in chain surveying
d)Chain lines which go out of alignments

Que 131. Survey line provided to verify the
accuracy of the framework is known as
a)Tie line
b)Base line
c)Subsidiary line
d)Check line

Que 131. Survey line provided to verify the
accuracy of the framework is known as
a)Tie line
b)Base line
c)Subsidiary line
d)Check line

Que 132. Every 20 m chain should be accurate to
within
a)± 2 mm
b)± 5 mm
c)± 8 mm
d)None of the above

Que 132. Every 20 m chain should be accurate to
within
a)± 2 mm
b)± 5 mm
c)± 8 mm
d)None of the above

Que 133. Maximum allowable limit upto that a
measurement may very from the true value is
known as
a)Permissible error
b)Residual error
c)Expected error
d)Sale error

Que 133. Maximum allowable limit upto that a
measurement may very from the true value is
known as
a)Permissible error
b)Residual error
c)Expected error
d)Sale error

Que 134. Number of links in a 30 m metric chain is
a)100
b)150
c)180
d)200

Que 135. Positive error is caused if
a)Length of chain is shorter than the standard
b)Slope and sag correction is not applied
c)Measurements are made along the incorrectly
aligned line
d)All options are correct

Que 135. Positive error is caused if
a)Length of chain is shorter than the standard
b)Slope and sag correction is not applied
c)Measurements are made along the incorrectly
aligned line

Que 136. Compensating errors in chaining are
________.
a)Proportional to the length of line
b)Proportional to the square root of the length of
line
c)Inversely proportional to the square root of the
length
d)Inversely Proportional to the length of the line

Que 136. Compensating errors in chaining are
________.
a)Proportional to the length of line
b)Proportional to the square root of the length of
line
c)Inversely proportional to the square root of the
length
d)Inversely Proportional to the length of the line

Que 137. If a chain is found very short on testing, it
can be adjusted by _______.
a)Straightening the links
b)Inserting additional circular rings
c)Flattening the circular rings
d)Any of the options

Que 137. If a chain is found very short on testing, it
can be adjusted by _______.
a)Straightening the links
b)Inserting additional circular rings
c)Flattening the circular rings
d)Any of the options

Que 138. Chainage is the distance measured
a)Along a chain line
b)Perpendicular to a line
c)Perpendicular to a tie line
d)None of these

Que 138. Chainage is the distance measured
a)Along a chain line
b)Perpendicular to a line
c)Perpendicular to a tie line
d)None of these

Que 139. In chain survey execution, the first step
taken is ________.
a)Reference sketches
b)Marking stations
c)Running survey line
d)Reconnaissance

Que 139. In chain survey execution, the first step
taken is ________.
a)Reference sketches
b)Marking stations
c)Running survey line
d)Reconnaissance

Que 140. In the surveys, the slope correction
applied to the base line is
a)Always cumulative
b)Always compensating
c)Sometimes cumulative, sometimes compensating
d)None of these

Que 140. In the surveys, the slope correction
applied to the base line is
a)Always cumulative
b)Always compensating
c)Sometimes cumulative, sometimes compensating
d)None of these

Que 141. If his the difference in height between
end points of a chain of length l, the required slope
correction is _______.
𝐡𝟐
a) 𝟐𝐥
𝐡
b)𝟐𝐥
𝐡𝟐
c) 𝐥
𝐡𝟐
d) 𝟒𝐥

Que 141. If h is the difference in height between
end points of a chain of length l, the required slope
correction is _______.
𝐡𝟐
a) 𝟐𝐥
𝐡
b)𝟐𝐥
𝐡𝟐
c) 𝐥
𝐡𝟐
d) 𝟒𝐥

Que 142. Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain
Surveying are essentially required __________.
a)To plot the chain lines
b)To plot the offsets
c)To indicate the accuracy of the survey work
d)To increase the out-turn

Que 142. Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain
Surveying are essentially required __________.
a)To plot the chain lines
b)To plot the offsets
c)To indicate the accuracy of the survey work
d)To increase the out-turn

Que 143. For which of the following, will the chain
surveying be well adopted one?
a)Large areas with difficult details
b)Small surveys in open ground
c)Small surveys with crowded details
d)Large areas with simple details

Que 143. For which of the following, will the chain
surveying be well adopted one?
a)Large areas with difficult details
b)Small surveys in open ground
c)Small surveys with crowded details
d)Large areas with simple details

Que 144. The sag correction in surveys in always
________.
a)Positive
b)negative
c)zero
d)None of these

Que 144. The sag correction in surveys in always
________.
a)Positive
b)negative
c)zero
d)None of these

Que 145. What is the true area (in acres), if the
area calculated by a chain which is found to be 0.8
link too long is 100 acres?
a)100.8
b)99.2
c)98.4
d)101.6

Que 145. What is the true area (in acres), if the
area calculated by a chain which is found to be 0.8
link too long is 100 acres?
a)100.8
b)99.2
c)98.4
d)101.6

Que. 146 Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of  is
a) 1.5𝛼 2 /100
b) 1.5𝛼/100
c) 1.5𝛼 3 /100
d) 1.5𝛼 3
Que. 146 Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of  is
a) 1.5𝛼 2 /100
b) 1.5𝛼/100
c) 1.5𝛼 3 /100
d) 1.5𝛼 3
Que. 147 An angle of 45 with a chain line may be set out with
a) Optical square
b) Open cross staff
c) French cross staff
d) Prismatic square
Que. 147 An angle of 45 with a chain line may be set out with
a) Optical square
b) Open cross staff
c) French cross staff
d) Prismatic square
Que. 148 The rise and fall method of levelling is :
a)Less accurate than height of instrument method
b)Is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels.
c)Quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights
d)Provides a check on the reduction of intermediate levels
Que. 148 The rise and fall method of levelling is :
a)Less accurate than height of instrument method
b)Is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels.
c)Quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights
d)Provides a check on the reduction of intermediate levels
Que.149 In an adjusted level when the bubble is centred the axis of the
bubble tube become parallel to
a)Line of sight
b)Line of collimation
c)Axis of the telescope
d)None of these
Que.149 In an adjusted level when the bubble is centred the axis of the
bubble tube become parallel to
a)Line of sight
d)None of these
Que.150 The line normal to the plumb line is known as
a)Horizontal line
b)Level line
c)Datum line
d)Vertical line
Que.150 The line normal to the plumb line is known as
a)Horizontal line
b)Level line
c)Datum line
d)Vertical line
Que.151 Levelling deals with measurement in :
a)Horizontal plane
b)Vertical plane
c)Both horizontal and vertical planes
d)Inclined plane
Que.151 Levelling deals with measurement in :
a)Horizontal plane
b)Vertical plane
c)Both horizontal and vertical planes
d)Inclined plane
Que.152 The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete
check on :
a)Back sight
b)Intermediate sight
c)Fore sight
d)All of above
Que.152 The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete
check on :
a)Back sight
b)Intermediate sight
c)Fore sight
d)All of above
Que.153 Cross hairs in surveying telescopes are fitted
a)In the objective lens.
b)At the centre of the telescope
c)At the optical centre of the eyepiece
d)In front of the eyepiece
Que.153 Cross hairs in surveying telescopes are fitted
a)In the objective lens.
b)At the centre of the telescope
c)At the optical centre of the eyepiece
d)In front of the eyepiece
Que.154 The fixed point whose elevation is known, is called :
a)Benchmark
b)Change point
c)Reduced level
d)Station
Que.154 The fixed point whose elevation is known, is called :
a)Benchmark
b)Change point
c)Reduced level
d)Station
Que.155 The correction is elevations due to the curvature and
refraction is proportional to :
a)D/R
b)D2/R
c)R/D2
d)R/D
Que.155 The correction is elevations due to the curvature and
refraction is proportional to :
a)D/R
b)D2/R
c)R/D2
d)R/D
Que.156 A level line is a :
a)Line Parallel to the mean spherical
b)Line passing through centre of cross hairs and centre of eye – piece
c)Line passing through object line and the eye – piece
d)Horizontal line
Que.156 A level line is a :
a)Line Parallel to the mean spherical
b)Line passing through centre of cross hairs and centre of eye – piece
c)Line passing through object line and the eye – piece
d)Horizontal line
Que.157 The height of instrument is equal to :
a)Reduced level of bench mark – back sight
b)Reduced level of bench mark + back sight
c)Reduced level of bench mark – fore sight
d)Reduced level of bench mark + intermediate sight
Que.157 The height of instrument is equal to :
a)Reduced level of bench mark – back sight
b)Reduced level of bench mark + back sight
c)Reduced level of bench mark – fore sight
d)Reduced level of bench mark + intermediate sight
Que.158 A staff reading taken on a point whose elevation is to be
determined as a change point is called :
a)Foresight reading :
b)Backsight reading :
c)Intermediate sight
d)Long sight
Que.158 A staff reading taken on a point whose elevation is to be
determined as a change point is called :
a)Foresight reading
b)Backsight reading
c)Intermediate sight
d)Long sight
Que.159 The method of levelling used to carry out reconnaissance of
area is :
a)Check levelling
b)Fly levelling
c)Profile levelling
d)Simple levelling
Que.159 The method of levelling used to carry out reconnaissance of
area is :
a)Check levelling
b)Fly levelling
c)Profile levelling
d)Simple levelling
Que.160 In an adjusted level when the bubble is central, the axis of the
bubble tubes becomes parallel to _____
a)Line of sight
d)None of the these
Que.160 In an adjusted level when the bubble is central, the axis of the
bubble tubes becomes parallel to _____
a)Line of sight
d)None of the these
Que.161 An internal focusing typing surveying telescope may be
focused by the movement of _______
a)Objective glass of the telescope
b)Convex – lens in the telescope
c)Concave lens in the telescope
d)Plane – convex lens in the telescope
Que.161 An internal focusing typing surveying telescope may be
focused by the movement of _______
a)Objective glass of the telescope
b)Convex – lens in the telescope
c)Concave lens in the telescope
d)Plane – convex lens in the telescope
Que. 162 Which of the following levelling carried out to determine the
elevation difference between two points on the surface to earth ?
a)Reciprocal Levelling
b)Simple Levelling
c)Longitudinal Levelling
d)Differential Levelling
Que. 162 Which of the following levelling carried out to determine the
elevation difference between two points on the surface to earth ?
a)Reciprocal Levelling
b)Simple Levelling
c)Longitudinal Levelling
d)Differential Levelling
Que.163The surface of zero elevation around the earth, which is
slightly irregular and curved is known as
a)Mean sea level
b)Good Surface
c)Level Surface
d)Horizontal Surface
Que.163 The surface of zero elevation around the earth, which is
slightly irregular and curved is known as
a)Mean sea level
b)Good Surface
c)Level Surface
d)Horizontal Surface
Que.164 The sensitiveness of a level tube decreases if _______.
a)Radius of curvature of its inner surface is increased.
b)Diameter of the tube is increased.
c)Length of the vapour bubble increased.
d)Both viscosity and surface tension are increased.
Que.164 The sensitiveness of a level tube decreases if _______.
a)Radius of curvature of its inner surface is increased.
b)Diameter of the tube is increased.
c)Length of the vapour bubble increased.
d)Both viscosity and surface tension are increased.
Que.165 Which of the following levelling method is used to determine
the difference of elevation of two points that are quite apart ?
a)Check levelling
b)Fly Levelling
c)Reciprocal Levelling
d)Simple Levelling
Que.165 Which of the following levelling method is used to determine
the difference of elevation of two points that are quite apart ?
a)Check levelling
b)Fly Levelling
c)Reciprocal Levelling
d)Simple Levelling
Que.166 Which of the following are correct for sensitivity of the bubble
tube ?
a)Sensitivity decrease with increase in internal radius of the tube.
b)Sensitivity decrease with increase in diameter of the tube.
c)Sensitivity increase with decrease in length of the tube
d)Sensitivity increase with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.
Que.166 Which of the following are correct for sensitivity of the bubble
tube ?
a)Sensitivity decrease with increase in internal radius of the tube.
b)Sensitivity decrease with increase in diameter of the tube.
c)Sensitivity increase with decrease in length of the tube
d)Sensitivity increase with decrease in viscosity of the liquid.
Que.167 Which of the following is the CORRECT ratio of refraction
correction to curvature correction ?
a)1/4
b)1/6
c)1/7
d)1/9
Que.167 Which of the following is the CORRECT ratio of refraction
correction to curvature correction ?
a)1/4
b)1/6
c)1/7
d)1/9
Que.168 The height of any point with respect to mean sea level is
called
a)Bench mark
b)Datum
c)Level surface
d)Reduced Level
Que.168 The height of any point with respect to mean sea level is
called
a)Bench mark
b)Datum
c)Level surface
d)Reduced Level
Que.169 Which of the following is true for the correction for curvature
?
a)It is proportional to the distance between the staff and instrument.
b)It is always negative and proportion to square of distance between
the staff and instrument.
c)It is always positive and proportion to square of distance between the
staff and instrument.
d)It is always positive and proportion to the distance between the staff
and instrument.
Que.169 Which of the following is true for the correction for curvature
?
a)It is proportional to the distance between the staff and instrument.
b)It is always negative and proportion to square of distance between
the staff and instrument.
c)It is always positive and proportion to square of distance between the
staff and instrument.
d)It is always positive and proportion to the distance between the staff
and instrument.
Que.170 The difference between the last reduced level and the first
reduced level is equal to ______.
a)Difference between the sum of back sights and intermediate sights.
b)Difference between the sum of back sights and reduced level of
benchmark.
c)Difference between the sum of back sights and fore sights
d)Difference between the sum of back sights and height of instrument.
Que.170 The difference between the last reduced level and the first
reduced level is equal to ______.
a)Difference between the sum of back sights and intermediate sights.
b)Difference between the sum of back sights and reduced level of
benchmark.
c)Difference between the sum of back sights and fore sights
d)Difference between the sum of back sights and height of instrument.
Que.171 Correction of length due to reduction to mean sea level is
____.
a)Directly proportional to measured length
b)Directly proportional to radius of the earth
c)Inversely proportional to measured length
d)Inversely proportional to height above mean sea level.
Que.171 Correction of length due to reduction to mean sea level is
____.
a)Directly proportional to measured length
b)Directly proportional to radius of the earth
c)Inversely proportional to measured length
d)Inversely proportional to height above mean sea level.
Que.172 Which of the following expression is used for calculation of RL
of a point ?
a)Height of instrument minus back sight
b)Height of instrument plus fore sight
c)Reduced level of previous point minus fore sight
d)Reduced level of previous point minus fall
Que.172 Which of the following expression is used for calculation of RL
of a point ?
a)Height of instrument minus back sight
b)Height of instrument plus fore sight
c)Reduced level of previous point minus fore sight
d)Reduced level of previous point minus fall
Que.173 If the formation level of a highway a uniform gradient for a
particular length and the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the
earthwork may be calculated by
a)Mid – section formula
b)Trapezoidal formula
c)Prismoidal formula
Que.173 If the formation level of a highway a uniform gradient for a
particular length and the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the
earthwork may be calculated by
a)Mid – section formula
b)Trapezoidal formula
c)Prismoidal formula
Que.174 The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes
is based, is ______
a)The end sections are parallel planes
b)The mid – area of a pyramid is half the average of the ends
c)The volume of the prismoidal is overestimated and hence a
prismoidal correction is applied.
d)All options are correct.
Que.175 The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes
is based, is ______
a)The end sections are parallel planes
b)The mid – area of a pyramid is half the average of the ends
c)The volume of the prismoidal is overestimated and hence a
prismoidal correction is applied.
d)All options are correct.
Que.175 Which of the following method estimate the best volume of
earthwork of an irregular embankment ?
a)Average ordinate method
b)Mid – ordinate method
c)Simpson’s method
d)Trapezoidal method
Que.175 Which of the following method estimate the best volume of
earthwork of an irregular embankment ?
a)Average ordinate method
b)Mid – ordinate method
c)Simpson’s method
d)Trapezoidal method
Que.176 Which one of the following set of internal angles (degree) of a
triangle does not show well condition triangle?
a) 20, 90, 70
b) 25, 45,110
c) 40, 125, 15
d) 35, 80, 65
Que.176 Which one of the following set of internal angles (degree) of a
triangle does not show well condition triangle?
a) 20, 90, 70
b) 25, 45,110
c) 40, 125, 15
d) 35, 80, 65
Que.177 The length and links of revenue chain respectively, is
a) 100 ft and 10 links
b) 50 ft and 5 links
c) 33 ft and 16 links
d) 30 ft and 10 links
Que.177 The length and links of revenue chain respectively, is
a) 100 ft and 10 links
b) 50 ft and 5 links
c) 33 ft and 16 links
d) 30 ft and 10 links
Que.178 If the fore bearing of a line AB is 35° and that of line BC is 15°,
then the included angle between the line is
a) 20°
b) 50°
c) 160°
d) 230°
Que.178 If the fore bearing of a line AB is 35° and that of line BC is 15°,
then the included angle between the line is
a) 20°
b) 50°
c) 160°
d) 230°
Que.179 Closed contour lines with higher values inside, represent a
a) Hill
b) Pond
c) Plain Surface
d) None of these
Que.179 Closed contour lines with higher values inside, represent a
a) Hill
b) Pond
c) Plain Surface
d) None of these
Que.180 The most accurate instrument for measuring horizontal
vertical angles is
a) Tape and chain
b) Dumpy level
c) Theodolite
d) Compass
Que.180 The most accurate instrument for measuring horizontal
vertical angles is
a) Tape and chain
b) Dumpy level
c) Theodolite
d) Compass
Que.181 Orientation of plane-table, by solving two-point problem, is
adopted only when
a) saving of time is a main factor
b) better accuracy is a main factor
c) given points are inaccessible
d) none of these
Que.181 Orientation of plane-table, by solving two-point problem, is
adopted only when
a) saving of time is a main factor
b) better accuracy is a main factor
c) given points are inaccessible
d) none of these
Que 182. In a metric chain, number of links per
meter run can be
a)2
b)5
c)8
d)0

Que 182. In a metric chain, number of links per
meter run can be
a)2
b)5
c)8
d)0

Que 183. The distance between two brass rings in a
surveyor’s chain is
a)20 cm
b)40 cm
c)75 cm
d)1 m

Que 183. The distance between two brass rings in a
surveyor’s chain is
a)20 cm
b)40 cm
c)75 cm
d)1 m

Que 184. The total number of links provided in a
Gunter’s chain is
a)132
b)100
c)66
d)50

Que 184. The total number of links provided in a
Gunter’s chain is
a)132
b)100
c)66
d)50

Que 185. Chain surveying is most suitable when
a)The ground is fairly levelled and open with simple
details
b)The area is small in extent
c)Plans are required on a large scale

Que 185. Chain surveying is most suitable when
a)The ground is fairly levelled and open with simple
details
b)The area is small in extent
c)Plans are required on a large scale

Que 186. EDM stands for:
a) Errorless Distance Measurement
b) Electronic Direct Measurement
c) Electronic Distance Measurement
d) Errorless Direct Measurement

Que 186. EDM stands for:
a) Errorless Distance Measurement
b) Electronic Direct Measurement
c) Electronic Distance Measurement
d) Errorless Direct Measurement

Que 187. __________ instrument is used to sight
to an object.
a) Compass
b) U-frame
c) Plumbing fork
d) Alidade

Que 187. __________ instrument is used to sight
to an object.
a) Compass
b) U-frame
c) Plumbing fork
d) Alidade

Que 188. Which of the below is used for levelling a
plane table?
a) Plumb bob
b) Spirit level
c) Compass
d) U-frame

Que 188. Which of the below is used for levelling a
plane table?
a) Plumb bob
b) Spirit level
c) Compass
d) U-frame

Que 189. A plumbing fork is used to __________
the plane table.
a) Focus
b) Centre
c) Orient
d) Level

Que 189. A plumbing fork is used to __________
the plane table.
a) Focus
b) Centre
c) Orient
d) Level

Que 190. ________ is a term used that prevents
the needle from pointing to the magnetic North in
a given locality.
a) Local attraction
b) Declination
c) Deviation
d) Local distraction

Que 190. ________ is a term used that prevents
the needle from pointing to the magnetic North in
a given locality.
a) Local attraction
b) Declination
c) Deviation
d) Local distraction

Que 191. Chain surveying uses the principle of:
a) Traversing
b) Chaining
c) Ranging
d) Triangulation

Que 191. Chain surveying uses the principle of:
a) Traversing
b) Chaining
c) Ranging
d) Triangulation

Que 192. In _________ levelling, the first and last
point are at a far distance.
a) Fly
b) Differential
c) Profile
d) Reciprocal

Que 192. In _________ levelling, the first and last
point are at a far distance.
a) Fly
b) Differential
c) Profile
d) Reciprocal

Que 193. Stadia levelling is a modified form of:
a) Fly levelling
b) Differential levelling
c) Simple levelling
d) Trigonometric levelling

Que 193. Stadia levelling is a modified form of:
a) Fly levelling
b) Differential levelling
c) Simple levelling
d) Trigonometric levelling

Que 194. The last reading taken from the
instrument is called:
a) End sight
b) Free sight
c) Fore sight
d) Back sight

Que 194. The last reading taken from the
instrument is called:
a) End sight
b) Free sight
c) Fore sight
d) Back sight

Que 195. Reciprocal levelling is used when,
a) Flat terrain
b) Obstacles are there
c) BM not visible
d) Highway construction

Que 195. Reciprocal levelling is used when,
a) Flat terrain
b) Obstacles are there
c) BM not visible
d) Highway construction

Que 196. Which instrument is used in
trigonometric levelling?
a) Wye level
b) Compass
c) Theodolite
d) Dumpy level

Que 196. Which instrument is used in
trigonometric levelling?
a) Wye level
b) Compass
c) Theodolite
d) Dumpy level

Que 197. Plane and geodetic surveying are
classifications of surveying based on:
a) Methodology
b) Earth’s curvature
c) Object of survey
d) Instrument

Que 197. Plane and geodetic surveying are
classifications of surveying based on:
a) Methodology
b) Earth’s curvature
c) Object of survey
d) Instrument

Que 198. _________ errors are small unavoidable
fluctuation.
a) Random
b) Gross
c) Systematic
d) Mistake

Que 198. _________ errors are small unavoidable
fluctuation.
a) Random
b) Gross
c) Systematic
d) Mistake

Que 199. In the triangulation method, the whole
area is divided into:
a) Scale triangles
b) Triangles
c) Obtuse triangles
d) Well-conditioned triangles

Que 199. In the triangulation method, the whole
area is divided into:
a) Scale triangles
b) Triangles
c) Obtuse triangles
d) Well-conditioned triangles

Que 200. Which of the below is not a method of
doing resection?
a) Back sighting
b) Solving two-point problem
c) Solving three-point problem
d) Solving four-point problem

Que 200. Which of the below is not a method of
doing resection?
a) Back sighting
b) Solving two-point problem
c) Solving three-point problem
d) Solving four-point problem

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