Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 27

Question 1


Mental health is defined as:

The ability to distinguish what is real from what is not.

A state of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with
normal stresses of life and work productively.

Is the promotion of mental health, prevention of mental disorders, nursing care

of patients during illness and rehabilitation

Absence of mental illness

Question 1 Explanation:
Mental health is a state of emotional and psychosocial well being. A mentally
healthy individual is self aware and self directive, has the ability to solve
problems, can cope with crisis without assistance beyond the support of family
and friends fulfill the capacity to love and work and sets goals and realistic
limits. A. This describes the ego function reality testing. C. This is the definition
of Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing. D. Mental health is not just the
absence of mental illness.

Question 2


Which of the following describes the role of a technician?

Administers medications to a schizophrenic patient.

The nurse feeds and bathes a catatonic client

Coordinates diverse aspects of care rendered to the patient

Disseminates information about alcohol and its effects.

Question 2 Explanation:
Administration of medications and treatments, assessment, documentation are
the activities of the nurse as a technician. B. Activities as a parent surrogate. C.
Refers to the ward manager role. D. Role as a teacher.

Question 3


Letty says, “Give me 10 minutes to recall the name of our college professor
who failed many students in our anatomy class.” She is operating on her:





Question 3 Explanation:
Subconscious refers to the materials that are partly remembered partly
forgotten but these can be recalled spontaneously and voluntarily. B. This
functions when one is awake. One is aware of his thoughts, feelings actions
and what is going on in the environment. C. The largest potion of the mind
that contains the memories of one’s past particularly the unpleasant. It is
difficult to recall the unconscious content. D. The conscious self that deals and
tests reality.

Question 4


The superego is that part of the psyche that:

Uses defensive function for protection.

Is impulsive and without morals.

Determines the circumstances before making decisions.

The censoring portion of the mind.

Question 4 Explanation:
The critical censoring portion of one’s personality; the conscience. A. This
refers to the ego function that protects itself from anything that threatens it..
B. The Id is composed of the untamed, primitive drives and impulses. C. This
refers to the ego that acts as the moderator of the struggle between the id
and the superego.

Question 5


Primary level of prevention is exemplified by:

Helping the client resume self care.

Ensuring the safety of a suicidal client in the institution.

Teaching the client stress management techniques

Case finding and surveillance in the community

Question 5 Explanation:
Primary level of prevention refers to the promotion of mental health and
prevention of mental illness. This can be achieved by rendering health
teachings such as modifying ones responses to stress. A. This is tertiary level of
prevention that deals with rehabilitation. B and D. Secondary level of
prevention which involves reduction of actual illness through early detection
and treatment of illness.

Question 6


Situation: In a home visit done by the nurse, she suspects that the wife and her
child are victims of abuse. Which of the following is the most appropriate for
the nurse to ask?

“Are you being threatened or hurt by your partner?

“Are you frightened of you partner”

“Is something bothering you?”

“What happens when you and your partner argue?”

Question 6 Explanation:
The nurse validates her observation by asking simple, direct question. This also
shows empathy. B, C, and D are indirect questions which may not lead to the
discussion of abuse.

Question 7


The wife admits that she is a victim of abuse and opens up about her
persistent distaste for sex. This sexual disorder is:

Sexual desire disorder

Sexual arousal disorder

Orgasm disorder

Sexual Pain Disorder

Question 7 Explanation:
Has little or no sexual desire or has distaste for sex. B. Failure to maintain the
physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse. C. Persistent and recurrent
inability to achieve an orgasm. D. Also called dyspareunia. Individuals with this
disorder suffer genital pain before, during and after sexual intercourse.

Question 8


Has little or no sexual desire or has distaste for sex. B. Failure to maintain the
physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse. C. Persistent and recurrent
inability to achieve an orgasm. D. Also called dyspareunia. Individuals with this
disorder suffer genital pain before, during and after sexual intercourse.
“Here’s the number of a crisis center that you can call for help .”

“Its best to leave your husband.”

“Did you discuss this with your family?”

“Why do you allow yourself to be treated this way”

Question 8 Explanation:
Protection is a priority concern in abuse. Help the victim to develop a plan to
ensure safety. B. Do not give advice to leave the abuser. Making decisions for
the victim further erodes her esteem. However discuss options available. C.
The victim tends to isolate from friends and family. D. This is judgmental.
Avoid in anyway implying that she is at fault.

Question 9


Which comment about a 3-year-old child if made by the parent may indicate
child abuse?

“Once my child is toilet trained, I can still expect her to have some”

“When I tell my child to do something once, I don’t expect to have to tell”

“My child is expected to try to do things such as, dress and feed.”

“My 3-year-old loves to say NO.”

Question 9 Explanation:
Abusive parents tend to have unrealistic expectations on the child. A,B and C
are realistic expectations on a 3 year old.

Question 10


The primary nursing intervention for a victim of child abuse is:

Assess the scope of the problem

Analyze the family dynamics

Ensure the safety of the victim

Teach the victim coping skills

Question 10 Explanation:
The priority consideration is the safety of the victim. Attend to the physical
injuries to ensure the physiologic safety and integrity of the child. Reporting
suspected case of abuse may deter recurrence of abuse. A,B and D may be
addressed later.

Question 11


Situation: A 30-year-old male employee frequently complains of low back pain

that leads to frequent absences from work. Consultation and tests reveal
negative results. The client has which somatoform disorder?

Somatization Disorder


Conversion Disorder

Somatoform Pain Disorder

Question 11 Explanation:
This is characterized by severe and prolonged pain that causes significant
distress. A. This is a chronic syndrome of somatic symptoms that cannot be
explained medically and is associated with psychosocial distress. B. This is an
unrealistic preoccupation with a fear of having a serious illness. C.
Characterized by alteration or loss in sensory or motor function resulting from
a psychological conflict.
Question 12


Freud explains anxiety as:

Strives to gratify the needs for satisfaction and security

Conflict between id and superego

A hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal reaction to stress

A conditioned response to stressors

Question 12 Explanation:
Freud explains anxiety as due to opposing action drives between the id and
the superego. A. Sullivan identified 2 types of needs, satisfaction and security.
Failure to gratify these needs may result in anxiety. C. Biomedical perspective
of anxiety. D. Explanation of anxiety using the behavioral model.

Question 13


The following are appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client EXCEPT:

Ineffective individual coping

Alteration in comfort, pain

Altered role performance

Impaired social interaction

Question 13 Explanation:
The client may not have difficulty in social exchange. The cues do not support
this diagnosis. A. The client maladaptively uses body symptoms to manage
anxiety. B. The client will have discomfort due to pain. C. The client may fail to
meet environmental expectations due to pain.
Question 14


The following statements describe somatoform disorders:

Physical symptoms are explained by organic causes

It is a voluntary expression of psychological conflicts

Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms

Management entails a specific medical treatment

Question 14 Explanation:
Bodily symptoms are used to handle conflicts. A. Manifestations do not have
an organic basis. B. This occurs unconsciously. D. Medical treatment is not
used because the disorder does not have a structural or organic basis.

Question 15


What would be the best response to the client’s repeated complaints of pain:

“I know the feeling is real tests revealed negative results.”

“I think you’re exaggerating things a little bit.”

“Try to forget this feeling and have activities to take it off your mind”

“So tell me more about the pain”

Question 15 Explanation:
Shows empathy and offers information. B. This is a demeaning statement. C.
This belittles the client’s feelings. D. Giving undue attention to the physical
symptom reinforces the complaint.

Question 16

Situation: A nurse may encounter children with mental disorders. Her

knowledge of these various disorders is vital. When planning school
interventions for a child with a diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactivity
disorder, a guide to remember is to:

provide as much structure as possible for the child

ignore the child’s overactivity.

encourage the child to engage in any play activity to dissipate energy

remove the child from the classroom when disruptive behavior occurs

Question 16 Explanation:
Decrease stimuli for behavior control thru an environment that is free of
distractions, a calm non –confrontational approach and setting limit to time
allotted for activities. B. The child will not benefit from a lenient approach. C.
Dissipate energy through safe activities. D. This indicates that the classroom
environment lacks structure.

Question 17


The child with conduct disorder will likely demonstrate:

Easy distractibility to external stimuli.

Ritualistic behaviors

Preference for inanimate objects.

Serious violations of age related norms.

Question 17 Explanation:
This is a disruptive disorder among children characterized by more serious
violations of social standards such as aggression, vandalism, stealing, lying and
truancy. A. This is characteristic of attention deficit disorder. B and C. These are
noted among children with autistic disorder.

Question 18


Ritalin is the drug of choice for children with ADHD. The side effects of the
following may be noted:

increased attention span and concentration

increase in appetite

sleepiness and lethargy

bradycardia and diarrhea

Question 18 Explanation:
The medication has a paradoxic effect that decrease hyperactivity and
impulsivity among children with ADHD. B, C, D. Side effects of Ritalin include
anorexia, insomnia, diarrhea and irritability.

Question 19


School phobia is usually treated by:

Returning the child to the school immediately with family support.

Calmly explaining why attendance in school is necessary

Allowing the child to enter the school before the other children

Allowing the parent to accompany the child in the classroom

Question 19 Explanation:
Exposure to the feared situation can help in overcoming anxiety. A. This will
not help in relieving the anxiety due separation from a significant other. C. and
C. Anxiety in school phobia is not due to being in school but due to separation
from parents/caregivers so these interventions are not applicable. D. This will
not help the child overcome the fear.

Question 20


A 10 year old child has very limited vocabulary and interaction skills. She has
an I.Q. of 45. She is diagnosed to have Mental retardation of this classification:





Question 20 Explanation:
The child with moderate mental retardation has an I.Q. of 35-50 Profound
Mental retardation has an I.Q. of below 20; Mild mental retardation 50-70 and
Severe mental retardation has an I.Q. of 20-35.

Question 21


The nurse teaches the parents of a mentally retarded child regarding her care.
The following guidelines may be taught except:

overprotection of the child

patience, routine and repetition

assisting the parents set realistic goals

giving reasonable compliments

Question 21 Explanation:
The child with mental retardation should not be overprotected but need
protection from injury and the teasing of other children. B,C, and D Children
with mental retardation have learning difficulty. They should be taught with
patience and repetition, start from simple to complex, use visuals and
compliment them for motivation. Realistic expectations should be set and
optimize their capability.

Question 22


The parents express apprehensions on their ability to care for their

maladaptive child. The nurse identifies what nursing diagnosis:


altered parenting role

altered family process

ineffective coping

Question 22 Explanation:
Altered parenting role refers to the inability to create an environment that
promotes optimum growth and development of the child. This is reflected in
the parent’s inability to care for the child. A. This refers to lack of choices or
inability to mobilize one’s resources. C. Refers to change in family relationship
and function. D. Ineffective coping is the inability to form valid appraisal of the
stressor or inability to use available resources

Question 23


A 5 year old boy is diagnosed to have autistic disorder. Which of the following
manifestations may be noted in a client with autistic disorder?

argumentativeness, disobedience, angry outburst

intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes

distractibility, impulsiveness and overactivity

aggression, truancy, stealing, lying

Question 23 Explanation:
These are manifestations of autistic disorder. A. These manifestations are
noted in Oppositional Defiant Disorder, a disruptive disorder among children.
C. These are manifestations of Attention Deficit Disorder D. These are the
manifestations of Conduct Disorder

Question 24


The therapeutic approach in the care of an autistic child include the following

Engage in diversionary activities when acting -out

Provide an atmosphere of acceptance

Provide safety measures

Rearrange the environment to activate the child

Question 24 Explanation:
The child with autistic disorder does not want change. Maintaining a
consistent environment is therapeutic. A. Angry outburst can be rechannelled
through safe activities. B. Acceptance enhances a trusting relationship. C.
Ensure safety from self-destructive behaviors like head banging and hair

Question 25


According to Piaget a 5 year old is in what stage of development:

Sensorimotor stage
Concrete operations


Formal operation

Question 25 Explanation:
Pre-operational stage (2-7 years) is the stage when the use of language, the
use of symbols and the concept of time occur. A. Sensory-motor stage (0-2
years) is the stage when the child uses the senses in learning about the self
and the environment through exploration. B. Concrete operations (7-12 years)
when inductive reasoning develops. D. Formal operations (2 till adulthood) is
when abstract thinking and deductive reasoning develop.

Question 26


Situation : The nurse assigned in the detoxification unit attends to various

patients with substance-related disorders. A 45 years old male revealed that he
experienced a marked increase in his intake of alcohol to achieve the desired
effect This indicates:




psychological dependence

Question 26 Explanation:
tolerance refers to the increase in the amount of the substance to achieve the
same effects. A. Withdrawal refers to the physical signs and symptoms that
occur when the addictive substance is reduced or withheld. B. Intoxication
refers to the behavioral changes that occur upon recent ingestion of a
substance. D. Psychological dependence refers to the intake of the substance
to prevent the onset of withdrawal symptoms.
Question 27


The client admitted for alcohol detoxification develops increased tremors,

irritability, hypertension and fever. The nurse should be alert for impending:

delirium tremens

Korsakoff’s syndrome

esophageal varices

Wernicke’s syndrome

Question 27 Explanation:
Delirium Tremens is the most extreme central nervous system irritability due to
withdrawal from alcohol B. This refers to an amnestic syndrome associated
with chronic alcoholism due to a deficiency in Vit. B C. This is a complication of
liver cirrhosis which may be secondary to alcoholism . D. This is a complication
of alcoholism characterized by irregularities of eye movements and lack of

Question 28


The care for the client places priority to which of the following:

Monitoring his vital signs every hour

Providing a quiet, dim room

Encouraging adequate fluids and nutritious foods

Administering Librium as ordered

Question 28 Explanation:
Pulse and blood pressure are usually elevated during withdrawal, Elevation
may indicate impending delirium tremens B. Client needs quiet, well lighted,
consistent and secure environment. Excessive stimulation can aggravate
anxiety and cause illusions and hallucinations. C. Adequate nutrition with
supplement of Vit. B should be ensured. D. Sedatives are used to relieve

Question 29


Another client is brought to the emergency room by friends who state that he
took something an hour ago. He is actively hallucinating, agitated, with
irritated nasal septum.





Question 29 Explanation:
The manifestations indicate intoxication with cocaine, a CNS stimulant. A.
Intoxication with heroine is manifested by euphoria then impairment in
judgment, attention and the presence of papillary constriction. C. Intoxication
with hallucinogen like LSD is manifested by grandiosity, hallucinations,
synesthesia and increase in vital signs D. Intoxication with Marijuana, a
cannabinoid is manifested by sensation of slowed time, conjunctival redness,
social withdrawal, impaired judgment and hallucinations.

Question 30


A client is admitted with needle tracts on his arm, stuporous and with pin
point pupil will likely be managed with:

Naltrexone (Revia)

Narcan (Naloxone)
Disulfiram (Antabuse)

Methadone (Dolophine)

Question 30 Explanation:
Narcan is a narcotic antagonist used to manage the CNS depression due to
overdose with heroin. A. This is an opiate receptor blocker used to relieve the
craving for heroin C. Disulfiram is used as a deterrent in the use of alcohol. D.
Methadone is used as a substitute in the withdrawal from heroine.

Question 31


Situation: An old woman was brought for evaluation due to the hospital for
evaluation due to increasing forgetfulness and limitations in daily function.
The daughter revealed that the client used her toothbrush to comb her hair.
She is manifesting:





Question 31 Explanation:
This is the inability to recognize objects. A. Apraxia is the inability to execute
motor activities despite intact comprehension. B. Aphasia is the loss of ability
to use or understand words. D. Amnesia is loss of memory.

Question 32


She tearfully tells the nurse “I can’t take it when she accuses me of stealing her
things.” Which response by the nurse will be most therapeutic?

”Don’t take it personally. Your mother does not mean it.”

“Have you tried discussing this with your mother?”

“This must be difficult for you and your mother.”

“Next time ask your mother where her things were last seen.”

Question 32 Explanation:
This reflecting the feeling of the daughter that shows empathy. A and D.
Giving advise does not encourage verbalization. B. This response does not
encourage verbalization of feelings.

Question 33


The primary nursing intervention in working with a client with moderate stage
dementia is ensuring that the client:

receives adequate nutrition and hydration

will reminisce to decrease isolation

remains in a safe and secure environment

independently performs self care

Question 33 Explanation:
Safety is a priority consideration as the client’s cognitive ability deteriorates.. A
is appropriate interventions because the client’s cognitive impairment can
affect the client’s ability to attend to his nutritional needs, but it is not the
priority B. Patient is allowed to reminisce but it is not the priority. D. The client
in the moderate stage of Alzheimer’s disease will have difficulty in performing
activities independently

Question 34


She says to the nurse who offers her breakfast, “Oh no, I will wait for my
husband. We will eat together” The therapeutic response by the nurse is:
“Your husband is dead. Let me serve you your breakfast.”

“I’ve told you several times that he is dead. It’s time to eat.”

“You’re going to have to wait a long time.”

“What made you say that your husband is alive?"

Question 34 Explanation:
The client should be reoriented to reality and be focused on the here and
now.. B. This is not a helpful approach because of the short term memory of
the client. C. This indicates a pompous response. D. The cognitive limitation of
the client makes the client incapable of giving explanation.

Question 35


Dementia unlike delirium is characterized by:

slurred speech

insidious onset

clouding of consciousness

sensory perceptual change

Question 35 Explanation:
Dementia has a gradual onset and progressive deterioration. It causes
pronounced memory and cognitive disturbances. A,C and D are all
characteristics of delirium.

Question 36

Situation: A 17-year-old gymnast is admitted to the hospital due to weight
loss and dehydration secondary to starvation. Which of the following nursing
diagnoses will be given priority for the client?

altered self-image

fluid volume deficit

altered nutrition less than body requirements

altered family process

Question 36 Explanation:
Fluid volume deficit is the priority over altered nutrition (A) since the situation
indicates that the client is dehydrated. A and D are psychosocial needs of a
client with anorexia nervosa but they are not the priority.

Question 37


What is the best intervention to teach the client when she feels the need to

Allow her to starve to relieve her anxiety

Do a short term exercise until the urge passes

Approach the nurse and talk out her feelings

Call her mother on the phone and tell her how she feels

Question 37 Explanation:
The client with anorexia nervosa uses starvation as a way of managing anxiety.
Talking out feelings with the nurse is an adaptive coping. A. Starvation should
not be encouraged. Physical safety is a priority. Without adequate nutrition, a
life threatening situation exists. B. The client with anorexia nervosa is
preoccupied with losing weight due to disturbed body image. Limits should be
set on attempts to lose more weight. D. The client may have a domineering
mother which causes the client to feel ambivalent. The client will not discuss
her feelings with her mother.

Question 38


The client with anorexia nervosa is improving if:

She eats meals in the dining room.

Weight gain

She attends ward activities.

She has a more realistic self concept.

Question 38 Explanation:
Weight gain is the best indication of the client’s improvement. The goal is for
the client to gain 1-2 pounds per week. (A)The client may purge after eating.
(C) Attending an activity does not indicate improvement in nutritional state.
(D) Body image is a factor in anorexia nervosa but it is not an indicator for

Question 39


The characteristic manifestation that will differentiate bulimia nervosa from

anorexia nervosa is that bulimic individuals

have episodic binge eating and purging

have repeated attempts to stabilize their weight

have peculiar food handling patterns

have threatened self-esteem

Question 39 Explanation:
Bulimia is characterized by binge eating which is characterized by taking in a
large amount of food over a short period of time. B and C are characteristics of
a client with anorexia nervosa D. Low esteem is noted in both eating disorders.

Question 40


A nursing diagnosis for bulimia nervosa is powerlessness related to feeling not

in control of eating habits. The goal for this problem is:

Patient will learn problem solving skills

Patient will have decreased symptoms of anxiety.

Patient will perform self care activities daily.

Patient will verbalize how to set limits on others.

Question 40 Explanation:
if the client learns problem solving skills she will gain a sense of control over
her life. (B) Anxiety is caused by powerlessness. (C) Performing self care
activities will not decrease ones powerlessness (D) Setting limits to control
imposed by others is a necessary skill but problem solving skill is the priority.

Question 41


In the management of bulimic patients, the following nursing interventions will

promote a therapeutic relationship EXCEPT:

Establish an atmosphere of trust

Discuss their eating behavior.

Help patients identify feelings associated with binge-purge behavior

Teach patient about bulimia nervosa

Question 41 Explanation:
The client is often ashamed of her eating behavior. Discussion should focus on
feelings. A,C and D promote a therapeutic relationship

Question 42


Situation: A 35 year old male has intense fear of riding an elevator. He claims “
As if I will die inside.” This has affected his studies The client is suffering from:


social phobia



Question 42 Explanation:
Claustrophobia is fear of closed space. A. Agoraphobia is fear of open space or
being a situation where escape is difficult. B. Social phobia is fear of
performing in the presence of others in a way that will be humiliating or
embarrassing. D. Xenophobia is fear of strangers.

Question 43


Initial intervention for the client should be to:

Encourage to verbalize his fears as much as he wants.

Assist him to find meaning to his feelings in relation to his past.

Establish trust through a consistent approach.

Accept her fears without criticizing.

Question 43 Explanation:
The client cannot control her fears although the client knows its silly and can
joke about it. A. Allow expression of the client’s fears but he should focus on
other productive activities as well. B and C. These are not the initial

Question 44


The nurse develops a countertransference reaction. This is evidenced by:

Revealing personal information to the client

Focusing on the feelings of the client.

Confronting the client about discrepancies in verbal or non-verbal behavior

The client feels angry towards the nurse who resembles his mother.

Question 44 Explanation:
Countertransference is an emotional reaction of the nurse on the client based
on her unconscious needs and conflicts. B and C. These are therapeutic
approaches. D. This is transference reaction where a client has an emotional
reaction towards the nurse based on her past.

Question 45


Which is the desired outcome in conducting desensitization:

The client verbalize his fears about the situation

The client will voluntarily attend group therapy in the social hall.

The client will socialize with others willingly

The client will be able to overcome his disabling fear.

Question 45 Explanation:
The client will overcome his disabling fear by gradual exposure to the feared
object. A,B and C are not the desired outcome of desensitization.

Question 46


Which of the following should be included in the health teachings among

clients receiving Valium:

Avoid taking CNS depressant like alcohol.

There are no restrictions in activities.

Limit fluid intake.

Any beverage like coffee may be taken.

Question 46 Explanation:
Valium is a CNS depressant. Taking it with other CNS depressants like alcohol;
potentiates its effect. B. The client should be taught to avoid activities that
require alertness. C. Valium causes dry mouth so the client must increase her
fluid intake. D. Stimulants must not be taken by the client because it can
decrease the effect of Valium.

Question 47


Situation: A 20 year old college student is admitted to the medical ward

because of sudden onset of paralysis of both legs. Extensive examination
revealed no physical basis for the complaint. The nurse plans intervention
based on which correct statement about conversion disorder?

The symptoms are conscious effort to control anxiety.

The client will experience high level of anxiety in response to the paralysis.

The conversion symptom has symbolic meaning to the client.

A confrontational approach will be beneficial for the client.

Question 47 Explanation:
The client uses body symptoms to relieve anxiety. A. The condition occurs
unconsciously. B. The client is not distressed by the lost or altered body
function. D. The client should not be confronted by the underlying cause of his
condition because this can aggravate the client’s anxiety.

Question 48


Nikki reveals that the boyfriend has been pressuring her to engage in
premarital sex. The most therapeutic response by the nurse is:

“I can refer you to a spiritual counselor if you like.”

“You shouldn’t allow anyone to pressure you into sex.”

“It sounds like this problem is related to your paralysis.”

“How do you feel about being pressured into sex by your boyfriend?”

Question 48 Explanation:
Focusing on expression of feelings is therapeutic. The central force of the
client’s condition is anxiety. A. This is not therapeutic because the nurse passes
the responsibility to the counselor. B. Giving advice is not therapeutic. C. This
is not therapeutic because it confronts the underlying cause.

Question 49


Malingering is different from somatoform disorder because the former:

Has evidence of an organic basis.

It is a deliberate effort to handle upsetting events

Gratification from the environment are obtained.

Stress is expressed through physical symptoms.

Question 49 Explanation:
Malingering is a conscious simulation of an illness while somatoform disorder
occurs unconscious. A. Both disorders do not have an organic or structural
basis. C. Both have primary gains. D. This is a characteristic of somatoform

Question 50


Unlike psychophysiologic disorder Linda may be best managed with:

medical regimen

milieu therapy

stress management techniques


Question 50 Explanation:
Stree management techniques is the best management of somatoform
disorder because the disorder is related to stress and it does not have a
medical basis. A. This disorder is not supported by organic pathology so no
medical regimen is required. B and D. Milieu therapy and psychotherapy may
be used a therapeutic modalities but these are not the best.