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SEMICONDUCTORS
5. Determine the magnitude of the electric field inside a sphere that encloses
a net charge of 2 C.
0 (zero)
6. What is the total electric flux through the surface of a closed sphere
enclosing a net charge of 2 C?
2.26 x 105 NC-1m2
11. Law which shows that the force of attraction or repulsion between two
magnetic poles is inversely proportional to the square of the distance
between them.
Coulomb’s second law
12. When a magnetic substance is placed near a magnet it will become a magnet
also, this phenomenon is known as
magnetic induction
13. The capacity of a substance to become magnetized, and expressed as the ratio
between the magnetization produced in a substance to the magnetizing force
producing it.
Magnetic susceptibility
15. The voltage or emf induced when the magnetic field is moving or changing and
a conductor is stationary.
Statically induced emf
17. What magnetic materials that can be easily magnetized in both directions?
Soft magnetic materials
19. According to _____, the algebraic sum of the rises and drops of the mmf
around a closed loop of a manetic circuit is equal to zero.
Ampere’s circuital law
22. What do you call of an electromagnet with its core in the form of a close
magnetic ring?
Toroid
23. An electrical device has a resistance of 10 and is supplied with a 5 ampere
constance current source. If the device is rated 100 Vdc, determine its
power consumed.
250 W
25. How do you connect cells to form a battery useful for high-power
applications?
In series-parallel
26. In a mesh, the algebraic sum of all voltages and voltage drops is equal to
zero.
Kirchhoff’s second law
27. The sum of all currents entering a junction is equal to the sum of currents
leaving away from the junctions.
Kirchhoff’s first law
28. If a copper wire has an inferred absolute zero of -234.5 /Co, determine its
temperature coefficient of resistance at 25 /oC?
0.00385 /oC
29. A certain Thevenin equivalent circuit has parameters RTH = 10 and VTH =
20V. If this is converted to Norton’s equivalent circuit, RN and IN would be
10 and 2A
30. RN and IN of a Norton’s equivalent circuit are known to be 100 and 10A,
respectively. If a 400 load is connected, it will have a load current of
2 A
31. A chosen closed path of current flow in a network. In making this current
path there should be no node nor elements that are passed more than once.
Mesh
32. A set of circuit elements that forms a closed path in a network over which
signal can circulate.
Loop
33. In a network. What do we call a reference point chosen such that more
branches in a circuit met.
Node
35. A secondary cell whose active positive plate consists of nickel hydroxide,
and active negative plate material is powered iron oxide mixed with cadmium.
Its typical out-put when fully charged is VO = 1.2V.
Edison cell
36. The maximum current a cell can deliver through a 0.01 ohm load during
testing.
Flash current
37. In batteries, the material used to insulate the positive plates from
negative plates are technically called
Separator
39. When can an ac-voltage, 𝑣 = 240 sin 120𝜋𝑡 reach its first peak?
240 ms
40. The time taken by an alternating voltage, 𝑣 = 100 sin 120𝜋𝑡 to reach 20V for
the first time
15.3 ms
42. What is the average voltage of an alternating voltage, 𝑣 = 100 sin 120𝜋𝑡?
70.71 V
43. What will be the current equation in a series RC network if supplied with
𝑣 = 𝑉𝑚𝑠 sin 120𝜋𝑡 source. The circuit has a power factor pf = 0.5? 𝒊 =
𝑰𝒎𝒂𝒙 𝐬𝐢𝐧(𝟏𝟐𝟎𝝅 + 𝟔𝟎)
45. What will happen when the power factor of a circuit is increased?
Active power increases
50. What will happen to a parallel ac-circuit if its line frequency is more than
the resonant frequency?
Becomes capacitive
51. If the line frequency of a parallel ac-circuit is less than the resonant
frequency, the circuit behaves as
Reactive
53. Inventor of kaleidoscope, a Scottish physicist who says that for any
dielectric reflector, the relationship in which the refractive index is
equal to the tangent of the polarizing angle.
Brewster, Sir David
57. He investigated heat and light, discovered eddy currents induced in a copper
disc moving in a magnetic field, invented a polarizer, and made improvement
in the electric arc. Who was this French physicist who invented gyroscope?
Foucault, Jean Bernard Leon
58. The people responsible for the development of the practical transformers.
Lucien Gaulard & John Gibbs
59. A German scientist who helped prove the law of conservation of energy,
invented the opthalmoscope, constructed a generalized form of
electrodynamics, and foresaw the atomic structure of electricity.
Helmholtz, Hermann Ludwig Ferdinand von
60. Who was this US physicist who invented the cyclotron which pioneered the
production of artificial radioisotopes?
Lawrence, Ernest
61. A German physicist who investigated the photoelectric effect (light causes
metals to emit electrons) and cathode rays (the stream of electrodes emitted
from the cathode in a vacuum tube).
Lenard, Phillip
62. British physicist who studied the emission of electricity from hot bodies,
giving the name “thermionics” of the subject.
Richardson, Owen
63. An English physicist and chemist who pioneered research into the radioactive
decay of atoms and coined the term isotope.
Soddy, Frederick
64. A Japanese physicist who discovered the subatomic particles called the meson
in 1935.
Yukawa, Hideki
69. Which of the following element configuration that resembles an alkali metal?
Filled-shell-plus-one-electron
70. Energy required by a valence electron before it can move or transfer towards
the conduction band.
Energy gap
71. The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band of a
semiconductor is in the order of
one electron volt (1 ev)
74. What do you call a semiconductor that is doped with both donor and acceptor
impurities?
Compensated semiconductor
76. Silicon is widely used over germanium due to its several advantages, what do
you think is its most significant advantage?
Low leakage current
77. Current flow in a semiconductor that is due to the applied electric field.
Drift current
78. The movement of charge carriers in a semiconductor even without the
application of electric potential.
Diffusion current
79. Typically, how much energy is required for a valence electron to move to the
conduction band for a doped semiconductor?
0.05 eV
82. What is used in the study of the behavior of free electrons in a conducting
material?
Fermi-Dirac
85. What do you call the boundary between the energy filled level and empty
level in a semiconductor material?
Fermi level
91. What semiconductor that is mostly used in devices requiring the emission
absorption of lights?
Compound semiconductor
92. For high-speed integrated circuit, which semiconductor material given is
best to be used?
Gallium arsenide
93. How much impurity concentration is needed for a sample of silicon to change
its electrical property from a poor conductor to a good conductor?
One part per million
98. Impurities with energy level or states close to the band edges are called
shallow states.
99. When an impurity used in doping produces a level or state that is close to
the center of the gap, it is called _____ impurity.
Deep state
100. The mobility of electrons and holes in a semiconductor are affected mainly
by what scattering mechanisms?
Impurity and lattice scattering
101. In semiconductors, what scattering mechanism that has a the smallest effect?
Crystal imperfection scattering
103. Semiconductor that has the highest heat conductivity and therefore used as a
heat sink.
Diamond
106. Among the given semiconductors below, which has the highest mobility?
Indium antimonide
111. Which of the following semiconductors has the smallest energy gap?
InSb
112. The ease with which a charge carrier (electron or hole) moves in a
semiconductor material is known as mobility. It is
InSb
115. What is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought
together?
Pn junction
CNS-EE2: Electronics Circuits (Diodes & Transistors)
1. When the diode is supplied with a forward direction potential but with a magnitude
less than the threshold voltage of the diode, still it will not “turn-on” and will
only allow a very small amount of current to pass. This very small current is
known as
Ans. cut-off current
3. Calculate the new threshold voltage of a germanium diode when it operates at 100
˚C.
Ans. 0.113 V
6. The resistance of the diode that is significant when operating with a small ac
signal.
Ans. dynamic resistance
8. At forward bias condition, what will happen to the diode resistance when the
applied voltage is increased?
Ans. will decrease
9. When a diode is reverse biased the depletion region widens, since it is in between
positively charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it will have an effect of
a capacitor, this capacitance is called what?
Ans. transition capacitance
12. The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse condition from forward
conduction.
Ans. reverse recovery time
13. In operating a diode at high-speed switching circuits, one of the most
important parameters to be considered is
Ans. reverse recovery time
14. The time required for forward voltage or current to reach a specified value
after switching the diode from its reverse-to-forward-biased state.
Ans. forward recovery time
15. A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room temperature
and a liner power derating factor of 5.0 mW/˚C. How much power the diode can
handle if operate4d at 50˚C?
Ans. 375 mW
17. A diode that is especially processed so that its high current flow takes
place when the junction is reverse-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel diode.
Ans. backward diode
18. A silicon diode that exhibits a very high resistance in both directions up to
certain voltage, beyond which the unit switches to a low-resistance conducting
state. It can be viewed as two zener diodes connected back-to-back in series.
Ans. thyrector
19. A type of Reade diode that uses a heavily doped n-typed material as its drift
region.
Ans. IMPATT diode
20. A device containing more than one diode. An example is the full-wave bridge-
rectifier integrated circuit.
Ans. diode pack
21. Is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes capacitance
of the junction and the resistance f the junction of a semiconductor diode
Ans. diode impedance
23. The device that is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are
brought together.
Ans. junction diode
24. When the diode is supplied with a forward direction potential but with a
magnitude less than the threshold voltage of the diode, still it will not “turn-on”
and will only allow a very small amount of current of pass. This very small
current is known as
Ans. cut-off current
29. The resistance of the diode that is significant when operating a small ac
signal.
Ans. dynamic resistance
31. At forward bias condition, what will happen to the diode resistance when the
applied voltage is increased?
Ans. will decrease
32. When a diode is reverse biased the depletion region widens, since it is in
between positively charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it will have an
effect of a capacitor, this capacitance is called what?
Ans. transition capacitance
35. The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse condition from forward
conduction.
Ans. reverse recovery time
37. The time required for forward voltage or current to reach a specified value
after switching the diode from its reverse-to-forward-biased state.
Ans. forward recovery time
38. A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room temperature
and a linear power derating factor of 5.0 mW/˚C. How much power the diode can
handle if operated at 50˚C?
Ans. 375 mW
39. Diode whose negative resistance depends on a specific form of quantum-
mechanical bond structure of the material.
Ans. Gunn diode
40. A diode that is especially processed so that its high current flow takes
place when the junction is reverse-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel diode/
Ans. backward diode
41. A silicon diode that exhibits a very high resistance in both directions up
to certain voltage, beyond which the unit switches to a low-resistance conducting
state. It can be viewed as two zener diodes connected back-to-back in series.
Ans. thyrector
42. A type of Read diode that uses a heavily doped n-type material as its drift
region.
Ans. IMPATT diode
43. A device containing more than one diode. An example is the full-wave bridge-
rectifier integrated circuit.
Ans. diode pack
44. It is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes,
capacitance of the junction, and the resistance of the junction of a semiconductor
diode.
Ans. diode impedance
46. A transistor in which the base is diffused and the emitter is alloyed. The
collector is provided by the semiconductor substrate into which alloying and
diffusion are affected.
Ans. alloy-diffused transistor
49. A diffused transistor in which the base, emitter, and collector electrodes
are exposed at the face of the wafer which is passivated (has an oxide layer grown
on it) to prevent leakage between surface electrodes.
Ans. diffused planar transistor
50. A bipolar transistor in which the base region has been diffused in the
semiconductor wafer.
Ans. diffused-base transistor
51. When n and p materials are both diffused into the semiconductor wafer to
provide emitter and base junctions, the transistor is called
Ans. diffused-emitter and base transistor
52. A mesa transistor whose base is an n-type layer diffused into a p-type wafer,
the p-type wafer serves as the collector. Its emitter is a small p-type area
diffused into or alloyed with the n-layer.
Ans. diffused-mesa transistor
53. A transistor in which the semiconductor wafer is etched down in steps so the
base and emitter regions appear as physical plateaus above the collector region.
Ans. mesa transistor
56. In diffused transistors, what do you call a figure expressing the ability of
material carriers to diffuse?
Ans. diffusion constant
57. A BJT that is made by first growing the emitter and collector regions as a
crystal into which the base region is later diffused while the crystal is being
pulled.
Ans. grown-diffused transistor
59. A transistor having tiny emitter and collector electrodes that are formed by
alloying a thin film of impurity material with a collector and emitter pits facing
each other on opposite surfaces of the semiconductor wafer
Ans. microalloy transistor (MAT)
60. A microalloy transistor having a uniform base region that is diffused into
the wafer before the emitter and collector electrodes are produced by alloying
Ans. microalloy-diffused transistor
61. The process of growing thin oxide film on the surface of a planar
semiconductor device to protect the exposed junction(s) from contamination and
shorts.
Ans. passivation
62. A planar epitaxial transistor which has been passivated to protect the
exposed junctions.
Ans. planar epitaxial passivated transistor
63. A transistor in which the emitter, base and collector elements terminate on
the same plane of the silicon wafer.
Ans. planar transistor
64. Usually, a pnp transistor is made by means of electrolysis and
electroplating. The emitter and collector are formed on opposite sides of a
semiconductor wafer by training two jets of electrolyte against its opposite
surfaces to etch and then electroplate the surfaces.
Ans. surface-barrier transistor
66. A transistor with β=100 is connected as common base, was found to have a
leakage current ICBO = 1 µA. If the said transistor is configured as common
emitter, what is the approximate value of its ICEO?
Ans. 100 µA
67. How is the collector cut-off or reverse saturation current ICBO related to
the emitter cut-off current IEBO?
Ans. ICBO ≈ IEBO
71. The graph of the product of collector-emitter voltage VCE and collector
current IC in the transistor output characteristic curve
Ans. maximum power curve
72. What will happen to the channel of a JFET as current flows to it?
Ans. skews
73. The voltage across the gate-source terminal of a FET that causes drain
current ID equals to zero.
Ans. pinch-off voltage
74. An early version of the field effect transistor in which limited control of
current carriers near the surface of a semiconductor bar or film was obtained by an
external field applied transversely.
Ans. fieldistor
78. In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon which the device will be constructed and
is formed from a silicon base
Ans. substrate
79. The amount of voltage needed at the gate-source terminal for an enhancement
type MOSFET so that a channel can be formed for the current to flow.
Ans. threshold voltage
80. To switch off the depletion type MOSFER, the channel should be depleted.
Depletion of the channel is done by applying enough voltage across the gate-source
terminal. What do you call this voltage?
Ans. pinch-off voltage
81. In an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, the gate voltage should be ______
with respect to the source in order to produce or enhance a channel.
Ans. positive
82. To deplete a channel from a p-channel IGFET depletion type, the gate voltage
should be ______ with respect to the source terminal.
Ans. positive
84. An n-channel MOSFET depletion type has a drain saturation current IDSS = 10
mA and a pinch-off voltage of -4 V. Calculate the maximum transconductance of the
transistor.
Ans. 5.0 mS
86. What will happen to the conductivity of the channel of an enhancement type
MOSFER if the proper gate voltage is increased?
Ans. decreases
91. What will happen to the magnitude of the load line slope if the load
resistance is increased?
Ans. decreases
93. The power gain that is lost due to the emitter bias resistor can be recovered
by
Ans. shunting a by-pass capacitor
95. How does the emitter by-pass capacitor affect the dc load line?
Ans. it does not affect the dc load line
96. In analyzing the quiescent currents and voltages, on what load line do you
refer?
Ans. dc load line
97. The position of the Q-point along the load line is greatly affected by what
component?
Ans. base-resistor
98. What will happen to the position of the Q-point if the resistance base-
resistor is increased?
Ans. it moves downward
99. For a fixed-biased transistor circuit, what will happen to the Q-point when
the operation temperature rises?
Ans. it moves upward
100. For a battery operated transistor circuit, where is a good position of the Q-point
in order to minimize battery consumption?
Ans. near cutoff region
101. When troubleshooting a typical transistor amplifier in the active region, VCE is
usually _____ the supply voltage VCC.
Ans. about 25% to 75% of
102. Calculate the stability factor due to the variation of ICBO from 1 nA to 21 nA when
the temperature changes from room temperature to 100 ˚C. The change in collector-
current due to the change of ICBO was found to be 0.5 µA.
Ans. 25
103. The higher the stability factor means, a transistor circuit that is more sensitive
to temperature
Ans. variations, and therefore undesired
104. What stability factor that gives the highest value for a typical voltage-divider
bias transistor circuit?
Ans. S (ICO)
105. Calculate the change in the collector current due to the change in ICO for a
transistor circuit at 100 ˚C. ICO at room temperature is given to be 0.1 nA and
increases to 20 nA at 100 ˚C. The circuit has a stability factor S(ICO) = 25.
Ans. 0.5 µA
106. For most common-emitter configuration with different methods of biasing, what is
the maximum stability factor due to the change of the reverse saturation current ICO?
Ans. β + 1
108. A FET is biased with a voltage-divider configuration and is set at the active
region. Ideally, what is the gate current?
Ans. 0 mA
109. What type of FET that can be biased with both negative and positive gate-source
voltage VGS?
Ans. MOSFET depletion type
110. How do you classify an amplifier used to amplify either amplitude modulated (AM) or
frequency modulated (FM) signals?
Ans. class S
114. The Q-point of a class D amplifier can be set or positioned at what region in the
load line?
Ans. any of these
115. What do you call an amplifier that is biased to class C but modulates over the same
portion of the curve as if it were biased to class B?
Ans. class BC
116. Two class B amplifiers connected such that one amplifies the positive cycle and the
other amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both output signals are then coupled
by a transformer to the load.
Ans. transformer-coupled push-pull amplifier
117. A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp transistors to amplify the positive and
negative cycles respectively.
Ans. complementary-symmetry amplifier
118. A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp as its final stage. The circuit
configuration looks like the complementary-symmetry.
Ans. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier
119. Distortion that is due to the inability of an amplifier to amplify equally well all
the frequencies present at the input signal/
Ans. amplitude distortion
120. Calculate the second harmonic distortion for an output signal having a fundamental
amplitude of 3 V and a second harmonic amplitude of 0.3 V.
Ans. 10 %
121. An amplifier has the following percent harmonic distortions: D2 = 10%, D3 = 5% and
D4 = 1%. What is the amplifier %THD?
Ans. 11.22%
123. What transistor model that uses a parameter value that is directly derived from the
operating condition?
Ans. re or dynamic model
124. The transistor model that is best suited for high frequency applications/
Ans. Giacolleto model
126. What model is appropriate to use, if for a given transistor amplifier, beta (β) is
the only parameter available and we want to solve for its input and output
impedances?
Ans. dynamic model
128. A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the output collector of the first stage
provides input to the emitter of the second stage. The final output is then taken
from the collector of the second or last stage.
Ans. cascode configuration
130. Transistor arrangement that operates like a darlington but uses a combination of
pnp and npn transistors instead of both npn.
Ans. feedback pair
CNS–ST 1.1: INTRO TO COMMS, NOISE AND dB MEASURMENTS
2. The first person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean:
Ans. Marconi *
22. What formula is used to calculate the overall noise performance of the
receiver or of multiple stages if RF amplification?
Ans. Frii’s formula *
23. If the bandwidth is doubled, considering all other parameters unchanged
except the normal thermal noise only. The S/N will be___
Ans. decreased by 3 dB *
NOISE PROBLEMS
29. A receiver has noise power bandwidth of 10 kHz. A resistor that matches the
receiver input impedance is connected across its antenna terminals. What is
the noise power contributed by that resistor in the receiver bandwidth if
the resistor has a temperature of 27 degrees Celsius?
Ans. 𝟒. 𝟏𝟒 𝒙 𝟏𝟎−𝟐𝟕 𝑾
𝑃𝑁 = 𝑘𝑇𝐵
30. A 300 ohm resistor is connected across the 300 ohm antenna input of the
television receiver. The bandwidth of the receiver is 6 MHz, and the
resistor is at room temperature. Find the noise power and noise voltage
applied to the receiver input.
Ans. 24.2 fW, 2.7 uV.
𝑃𝑁 = 𝑘𝑇𝐵 𝑉𝑁 = √4𝑘𝑇𝐵𝑅
33. A receiver produces a noise power of 200mW with no signal. The output level
increases to 5W when a signal is applied. Calculate (S+N)/N as a power
ratio and in decibels.
Ans. 25, 14 dB
(𝑆 + 𝑁) 𝑃𝑂𝑈𝑇
=
𝑁 𝑃𝐼𝑁
34. The signal power at the input to an amplifier is 100 uW and the noise power
is 1 uW. At the output, the signal power is 1W and the noise power is 30
mW. What is the amplifier noise figure, as a ratio? In dB?
Ans. 3; 4.77dB
(𝑆⁄𝑁)𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡
𝑁𝐹 =
(𝑆⁄𝑁)𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡
35. The signal at the input of an amplifier has an S/N of 42 dB. If the
amplifier has a noise figure of 6 dB, what is the S/N at the output in
decibels?
Ans. 36 dB
𝑁𝐹(𝑑𝐵) = (𝑆⁄𝑁)𝐼𝑁𝑃𝑈𝑇(𝑑𝐵) − (𝑆⁄𝑁)𝑂𝑈𝑇𝑃𝑈𝑇(𝑑𝐵)
36. An amplifier has a noise figure of 2 dB. What is the equivalent noise
temperature?
Ans. 170 K
𝑇𝑒𝑞 = 290(𝑁𝐹 − 1)
37. A three-stage has stages with the following specifications: First stage with
power gain and noise figure of 10 and 2 respectively, 25 and 4 for the
second stage and 30 and 5 for the third stage. Find the noise temperature.
Ans. 382 K
𝑁𝐹2 − 1 𝑁𝐹3 − 1
𝑇𝑒𝑞 = 290(𝑁𝐹𝑇𝑂𝑇𝐴𝐿 − 1) 𝑁𝐹𝑇𝑂𝑇𝐴𝐿 = 𝑁𝐹1 + +
𝐴1 𝐴1 𝐴2
AMPLITUDE MODULATION
38. What is heterodyning?
Ans. Mixing two frequencies across a nonlinear impedance.
41. What term describes how much of a cycle has been completed?
Ans. Phase or phase angle.
45. What two conditions are necessary for heterodyning to take place?
Ans. At least two different frequencies applied to a nonlinear impedance.
47. State the method used to increase the speed of keying in a CW transmitter.
Ans. Machine keying
51. When 100 kilohertz and 5 kilohertz are heterodyned, what frequencies are
present?
Ans. 100 kilohertz, 5 kilohertz, 95 kilohertz, and 105 kilohertz
54. With a single modulating tone, what is the amplitude of frequencies at 100-
percent modulation?
Ans. One-half the amplitude of the carrier
57. For what class of operation is the final rf power amplifier of a plate-
modulator circuit based?
Ans. Class C
59. How much must the fpa plate current vary to produce 100-percent modulation in
a plate modulator?
Ans. Between 0 and nearly two times its unmodulated value
65. Name the modulation system in which the frequency alternates between two
discrete values in response to the opening and closing of a key?
Ans. Frequency-shift keying
69. What two values may be used to determine the bandwidth of an fm wave?
Ans. The number of significant sidebands and the modulation frequency.
81. What action is necessary to impress intelligence on the pulse train in pulse
modulation?
Ans. Some characteristic of the pulses has to be varied
82. To insure the accuracy of a transmission, what is the minimum number of times
a modulation wave should be sampled in pulse modulation?
Ans. 2.5 times the highest modulation frequency
87. If a modulating wave is sampled 10 times per cycle with a 5-element binary
code, how many bits of information are required to transmit the signal?
Ans. 50
DEMODULATION
89. What is the simplest form of cw detector?
Ans. A circuit that can detect the presence or absence of rf energy
90. What principle is used to help distinguish between two cw signals that are
close in frequency?
Ans. Heterodyning
93. What three functions does the transistor in a regenerative detector serve?
Ans. Oscillator, mixer, and detector
94. What does the simplest diode detector use to reproduce the modulating
frequency?
Ans. The modulation envelope
96. Which junction of the transistor in the common-emitter detector detects the
modulation envelope?
Ans. Emitter-base junction
103. What circuit functions does the tube in a gated-beam detector serve?
Ans. Limits, detects, and amplifies.
104. What condition must exist on both the limiter and quadrature grids for
current to flow in a gated-beam detector?
Ans. Both grids must be positively biased
107. How is a quadrature detector changed when used for phase demodulation?
Ans. The quadrature grid signal is excited by a reference from the transmitter.
108. In its simplest form, what functions must a radar detector be capable of
performing?
Ans. Detecting the presence of rf energy.
109. What characteristic of pulse does a peak detector sample?
Ans. Pulse amplitude or pulse duration
110. What is the time constant of the resistor and capacitor in a peak detector
for PAM?
Ans. At least 10 times the interpulse period
MODULATION/RECEIVERS/TRANSMITTERS
111. The power output of a single-sideband transmitter is normally expressed as
the _____ power.
Ans. peak envelope *
117. What will be the result in balanced modulation if not perfectly balanced.
Ans. the carrier is transmitted *
119. Filter attenuates signals, passes below and above that band.
Ans. band stop *
121. To raise the power levels of AM signals, the class of amplifier used is
_____.
Ans. class A *
129. What is the effect if the gain level being too high for signals entering the
modulator?
Ans. distortion and splatter *
130. The RF signal produce; carrier frequency (fc) minus modulating frequency
(fm).
Ans. LSB *
134. For SSB transmitter, the average power is typically _____ of the peak
envelope power, with the typical human speech.
Ans. 1/4to 1/3 *
140. Small length of wire found in some RF equipment, connected only at one end
and use as a capacitance to ground.
Ans. gimmick *
143. Modulating 2 waves of the same frequency, but with _____ phase difference is
equivalent to modulating both amplitude and phase of the same carrier.
Ans. 90 degrees *
148. What happens to a spectrum of repetitive pulse as the pulse width decrease?
Ans. more harmonics of the same phase *
156. Citizen Band (CB) Radio Service is a two-way voice communication device, it
uses frequency range from ______ MHz.
Ans. 26.965 to 27.405 *
157. What determines the rate of frequency swing for an FM broadcast transmitter?
Ans. modulation frequency *
161. Calculate the modulation index for a waveform with a maximum voltage of 150V
and minimum voltage of 70V.
Ans. 0.364 or 36.4%
𝐸𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝐸𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑚=
𝐸𝑚𝑎𝑥 + 𝐸𝑚𝑖𝑛
162. An AM broadcast transmitter has a carrier power output of 50 kW. What is the
total power would be produced with 80% modulation?
Ans. 66 kW
𝑚2
𝑃𝑇 = 𝑃𝐶 (1 + )
2
163. An AM broadcast transmitter has a carrier power output of 50 kW. What is the
power in one sideband with 80% modulation?
Ans. 8 kW
𝑚2
𝑃𝑆𝐵 = 𝑃
4 𝐶
164. An AM broadcast transmiiter has a carrier power output of 50 kW. What is the
total sideband power with 80% modulation?
Ans. 16 kW
𝑚2
𝑃𝑆𝐵 = 𝑃
2 𝐶
𝑚2
𝐼𝑇 = 𝐼𝐶 √1 +
2
168. In SSBSC system, if the peak envelope power (PEP) is 10 W, what will be the
value of the maximum instantaneous peak power?
Ans. 20 W *
𝑃𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 2 𝑥 𝑃𝐸𝑃
169. In SSBSC system, if the peak voltage is 25 volts and the load resistance is
50 ohms, what will be the value of the peak envelope power (PEP)?
Ans. 6.25 W *
2
(𝑉𝑃 ⁄√2) 𝑉𝑃2
𝑃𝐸𝑃 = =
𝑅𝐿 2𝑅𝐿
170. A carrier wave with an RMS voltage of 20 V and a frequency = 1.5 MHz, is
modulated by a sine wave with a frequency of 500 Hz and amplitude of 10 V
RMS. Determine the peak voltage of the carrier and of the lower side
frequency.
Ans. 28.3 V; 7.1 V *
𝑚
𝐸𝐶(𝑃𝐸𝐴𝐾) = √2 𝑥 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝐸𝑚(𝑃𝐸𝐴𝐾) = 𝐸𝐶(𝑃𝐸𝐴𝐾)
2
178. A phase modulator has a sensitivity of kp = 3 radians per volt. How much
frequency deviation does it produces with a sine-wave input of 2V peak at a
frequency of 1 kHz?
Ans. 6 kHz
𝛿
𝑚𝑝 = 𝑘𝑝 𝐸𝑚 𝑚𝑝 = 𝑚𝑓 =
𝑓𝑚
182. A crytal oscillator is accurate within 0.0005%. How far off frequency could
be at 27 MHz?
Ans. 135 Hz
184. A transmitter operates from a 12V supply, with a collector current of 2A.
The modulation transformer has a turns ratio of 4:1. What is the load
impedance seen by the audio amplifier?
Ans. 96 ohms
𝑁1 2 𝑉𝐶𝐶
𝑍𝑃 = 𝑍𝑎 ( ) 𝑍𝑎 =
𝑁2 𝐼𝐶
4. When the load absorbs all the power transmitted, it means that the load
impedance is
equal to Zo of the line.*
11. What connecting link is used to transfer energy from a radio transmitter to
its antenna located on the mast of a ship?
Transmission line.
12. What term is used for the end of a transmission line that is connected to a
transmitter?
Input end, generator end, transmitter end, sending end and source.
13. What term is used for the end of a transmission line that is connected to an
antenna?
Output end, receiving end, load end, and sink.
16. What type of transmission line is often used to connect a television set to
its antenna?
Twin-lead.
22. Losses caused by skin effect and I 2 R (power) loss are classified as what
types of loss?
Copper loss.
23. What type of losses cause the dielectric material between the conductors to
be heated?
Dielectric loss.
25. Two types of waves are formed on a transmission line. What names are given
to these waves?
Incident waves from generator to load. Reflected waves from load to
generator.
27. A non-resonant line is a line that has no standing waves of current and
voltage on it and is considered to be flat. Why is this true?
The load impedance of such a line is equal to Zo.
29. What is the square of the voltage standing wave ratio called?
Power standing-wave ratio (pswr)
D
Zo = 276log ( )
d
32. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the
following specifications: d=0.025 inches, D=0.15 inches, and dielectric
constant of 2.23
72 ohms
138 D
Zo = log( )
√Єr d
33. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the
following specifications: L=0.118uH/ft and C=21pF/ft
75 ohms.
L
Zo = √
C
34. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with a distributed capacitance
of 96.6pF/m, a distributed inductance of 241.56 nH/m, and a relative
dielectric constant of 2.3, determine the velocity of propagation and the
velocity factor;
2.07x10^8m/s; 0.69
1 Vp
Vp = Vf =
√LC C
35. For a transmission line with an incident voltage of 5V and a reflected
voltage of 3V, determine the reflection coefficient and the SWR.
r=0.6, SWR=4
Er
Γ=
Ei
Ei + Er
SWR =
Ei − Er
37. Using TDR, a transmission line impairment is located 3000m from the source.
For velocity of propagation of 0.9c, determine the time elapsed from the
beginning of the pulse to the reception of the echo.
22.22us
38. Determine the impedance of λ/4 line to match 600ohm feed to 75 ohm antenna.
212 ohm
Zo = √ZLZL
39. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required
for a 90 degree phase shift at 100 meters?
0.6 meters
L
θ = 360
λ
40. The scientist who profounded the theory of electromagnetic radiation James
Maxwell*
50. The radio wavelength known as ______ falls within the medium frequency range
hectrometric waves*
55. The gain in the direction of one of the major lobes of the radiation
pattern.
Directivity gain*
56. Form of unwanted radiation working against the main beam caused by feeding a
parabolic reflector with an isotropic source.
Backlobe radiation*
65. In antenna, the area where the signal strength is very low.
Null*
78. When a wave is reflected from a surface, energy is transferred. When is the
transfer of energy greatest?
When the incident wave is nearly parallel with the surface.
80. A refracted wave occurs when a wave passes from one medium into another
medium, what determines the angle of refraction?
The density of the two mediums, and the velocity of the waves.
81. What do we call the field that is created between two rods when a voltage is
applied to them?
ELECTRIC FIELD.
82. When current flows through a conductor, a field is created around the
conductor. What do we call this field?
MAGNETIC FIELD.
83. An induction field is created around a conductor when current flows through
it. What do we call the field that detaches itself from the conductor and
travels through space.
RADIATION FIELD.
86. What three factors determine the type size and shape of antenna?
Frequency of operation of the transmitter, amount of power to be radiated,
and general direction of the receiving set.
87. If a wave exactly the length of an antenna from one end to the other and
back during the period of 1 cycle, what is the length of the antenna?
One-half the wavelength.
88. What is the term used to identify the points of high-current and high
voltage on an antenna?
Current and voltage loops.
89. What is the term used to identify the points of minimum current and minimum
voltage on an antenna?
Current and voltage nodes.
90. The direction of what field is used to designate the polarization of a wave?
Electric Field.
91. If a wave’s electric lines of force rotate through 360 degrees with every
cycle of RF energy, what is the polarization of this wave?
Circular polarization.
92. What type of polarization should be used at medium and low frequencies?
Vertical polarization
93. What is an advantage of using horizontal polarization at high frequencies?
Less interference is experienced by man-made noise sources.
96. A radiating source that radiates energy stronger in one direction than
another is what type of radiator?
Anisotropic radiator
97. A radiating source that radiates energy equally in all directions is known
as what type of radiator?
Isotropic radiator
99. What terms are often used to describe basic half-wave antennas?
Dipole, doublet and hertz.
103. What is the simplest method of feeding power to the half-wave antenna?
To connect one end through a capacitor to the final output stage of the
transmitter.
107. Which has a wider frequency range, a simple dipole, or a folded dipole?
Folded dipole
109. What is the primary difference between the major and minor lobes in a
radiation pattern?
Major lobes have the greatest amount of radiation.
113. How is directivity of a collinear array affected when the number of elements
is increased?
Directivity increases
114. What is the primary cause of broadside arrays losing efficiency when not
operating at their designed frequency?
Lower radiation resistance
115. When more that two elements are used in a broadside array, how are the
elements arranged?
Parallel and in the same plane.
116. As the spacing between elements in a broadside array increases, what is the
effect on the major lobes?
They sharpen
118. Where does the major lobe in the end-fire array occur?
Along the major axis
120. What two factors determine the directivity pattern of the parasitic array?
Length of the parasitic element (tuning) and spacing between the parasitic
and driven elements.
121. What two main advantages of a parasitic array can be obtained by combining a
reflector and a director with the driven element?
Increased gain and directivity.
126. To radiate power efficiently, a long-wire antenna must have what minimum
overall length?
One-half wavelength.
128. What is the polarity of the currents that feed the V antenna?
Opposite
130. What is the primary reason for the development of the turnstile antenna?
For omnidirectional vhf communications
131. Microwave antennas and low-frequency antennas are similar in what ways?
Operating principles and electrical characteristics
133. What term is used to express the measurement of the degree of mismatch
between a line and its load?
Standing-wave ratio (swr)
134. What type of antenna radiates in and receives energy from all directions at
once?
Omnidirectional
135. What is the term that is used to describe narrowness in the radiated beam of
an antenna?
Antenna directivity
136. What characteristic allows the same antenna to both transmit and receive?
Reciprocity.
138. Microwaves can be reflected and focused in the same way as what other type
of waves?
Light waves.
145. What type of antenna has all elements connected to the same energy source?
Driven array
149. A dipole antenna has a radiation resistance of 67 ohms and a loss resistance
of 5 ohms measured at the feedpoint. Calculate the efficiency.
93%
Rradiation Pout
η =
Rtotal Pin
150. Determine the efficiency with the following: Pin=1000w, I=10A, R=8ohm.
80%
151. A dipole antenna has an efficiency of 85%. Calculate the gain in decibels.
1.43 dBi
G(dBi) = 10logG; G = Dη; where D = 2.14dBi or 1.638
152. The ERP of a transmitting station is 17W in a given direction. Express this
as an ERP in dBm so that it can be used with the path loss equation. Also
find EIRP.
ERP=42.3 dBm; EIRP=44.44dBm
𝐸𝑅𝑃
𝐸𝑅𝑃(𝑑𝑏𝑀) = 10𝑙𝑜𝑔
1𝑚𝑊
𝐸𝐼𝑅𝑃(𝑑𝐵𝑚) = 𝐸𝑅𝑃(𝑑𝐵𝑚) + 2.14𝑑𝐵
156. Find the electrical field strength for a signal power of 100W at a distance
of 10 km away.
5.48mV/m
√30Pt
Є=
r
157. A 5kW power, produces a field intensity of 50 uV/m at the receiver, what
field intensity will be received if the power is raised to 20 kW?
100uV/m
159. A taxi company uses a central dispatcher, with an antenna at the top of a
15m tower, to communicate with taxi cabs. The taxi antennas are on the roofs
of the cars, approximately 1.5m above the ground. Calculate the maximum
communication distance: (a) between the dispatcher and a taxi (b) between
taxis
(a) 21km (b) 10.1km
d = √17hT + √17hR
160. In the right-hand rule for propagation, the thumb points in the direction of
the E field and the forefinger points in the direction of the H field. In
what direction does the middle finger point?
Direction of wave propagation.
161. Which two composite fields (composed of E and H fields) are associated with
every antenna?
Induction field and radiation field
162. What composite field (composed of E and H fields) is found stored in the
antenna?
Induction field.
163. What composite field (composed of E and H fields) is propagated into free
space?
Radiation field
164. If a transmitting antenna is placed close to the ground, how should the
antenna be polarized to give the greatest signal strength?
Vertically polarized.
165. What is one of the major reasons for the fading of radio waves which have
been reflected from a surface?
Shifting in the phase relationships of the wave.
167. Which layer of the atmosphere has relatively little effect on radio waves?
Stratosphere
169. What is the best type of surface or terrain to use for radio wave
transmission?
Radio horizon is about 1/3 farther.
170. What is the primary difference between the radio horizon and the natural
horizon?
Seawater.
171. What three factors must be considered in the transmission of a surface wave
to reduce attenuation?
(a) electrical properties of the terrain (b) frequency (c) polarization of
the antenna
175. What factor determines whether a radio wave is reflected or refracted by the
ionosphere?
Thickness of ionized layer
176. There is a maximum frequency at which vertically transmitted radio waves can
be refracted back to earth. What is this maximum frequency called?
Critical Frequency.
177. What three main factors determine the amount of refraction in the
ionosphere?
(a) density of ionization of the layer (b) frequency (c) angle at which it
enters the layer
178. What is the skip zone of a radio wave?
A zone of silence between the ground wave and sky wave where there is no
reception.
179. Where does the greatest amount of ionospheric absorption occur in the
ionosphere?
Where ionization density is greatest
182. What are two main sources of emi with which radio waves must compete?
Natural and man-made interference
183. Thunderstorms, snow storms, cosmic sources, the sun, etc., are a few
examples of emi sources. What type of emi comes from these sources?
Natural
185. What are the two general types of variations in the ionosphere?
Regular and irregular variations.
186. What is the main difference between these two types of variations?
Regular variations can be predicted but irregular variations are
Unpredictable
187. What are the four main classes of regular variation which affect the extent
of ionization in the ionosphere?
Daily, seasonal, 11-year, and 27-days variation.
188. What are the three more common types of irregular variations in the
ionosphere?
Sporadic E, sudden disturbances, and ionospheric storms.
190. How does fog affect radio waves at frequencies above 2 Gigahertz?
It can cause attenuation by absorption
191. How is the term “temperature inversion” used when referring to radio waves?
It is a condition where layers of warm air are formed above layers of cool
air.
193. In what layer of the atmosphere does virtually all weather phenomena occur?
Troposphere
194. Which radio frequency bands use the tropospheric scattering principle for
propagation of radio waves?
VHF and above.
CNS-ST 2.2: SATELLITES AND FIBER OPTICS
SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS
10. The power in the downlink signal from a typical communications satellite is
in the range of _____ per transponder.
10 to 250 watts
11. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is in the
order of:
10^3 watts
23. The law that states that a satellite will orbit a primary body following an
elliptical path.
1st Law of Kepler
26. Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite orbits around the earth at a height of
370 miles
27. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite orbits around the earth at a height
approximately _____.
6000 miles to 12,000 miles
31. All satellites rotate around the earth in an orbit that forms a plane that
passes through the center of gravity of earth called
Geocenter
32. The point on the surface of the earth directly below the satellite
Subsatellite point (SSP)
35. Antenna used with a rotating satellite whose main beam is continuously
adjusted so that it will illuminate a given area on the earth’s surface
Despun
36. Satellite’s radiation pattern that typically target up to 20% of the Earth’s
surface
Hemispherical beams
37. The radiation pattern that has a satellite’s antenna beamwidth of 17 degrees
and are capable of covering approximately 42% of the earth’s surface
Earth or global beams
41. Find the velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit (a) 500 km above the
earth’s surface (b) 36,000 km above the earth’s surface (approximately the
height of geosynchronous satellite).
(a) 7.6 km/s (b) 3.07 km/s
4 × 1011
𝑣(𝑚/𝑠) = √
𝑑(𝑘𝑚) + 6400
42. Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount at
latitude of 45 degrees.
6.81 degrees
𝑅 sin 𝐿
𝜃 = arctan ( )
𝐻 + 𝑅(1 − cos 𝐿)
43. Calculate the length of the path to a geosynchronous satellite from an earth
station where the angle of elevation is 30 degrees.
39 x 10^3 km
𝑑 = √(𝑟 + ℎ)2 − (𝑟 cos 𝜃)2 − 𝑟 sin 𝜃
45. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dBi looks at at a sky with a noise
temperature of 15K. The loss between the antenna and the LNA input, due to
the feedhorn, is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40K.
Calculate G/T.
20.6 dB
𝐺/𝑇(𝑑𝐵) = 𝐺𝑅(𝑑𝐵𝑖) − 10 log(𝑇𝑎 + 𝑇𝑒𝑞 )
(𝐿 − 1)290 + 𝑇𝑠𝑘𝑦
𝑇𝑎 =
𝐿
46. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.5 dB. Find its equivalent noise
temperature.
119K
𝑇𝑒𝑞 = 290(𝑁𝐹(𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜) − 1)
47. The receiving installation whose G/T was found to be 20.6 dB is used as a
ground terminal to receive a signal from a satellite at a distance of 38,000
km. the satellite has transmitter power of 50 watts and an antenna gain of
30 dBi. Assume losses between the satellite transmitter and its antenna is
negligible. The frequency is 12 GHz. Calculate the carrier-to-noise ratio at
the receiver, for a bandwidth of 1 MHz. 30.6 dB
𝐶 𝐺
(𝑑𝐵) = 𝐸𝐼𝑅𝑃(𝑑𝐵) − 𝐹𝑆𝐿(𝑑𝐵) − 𝐿𝑚𝑖𝑠𝑐 + − 𝑘(𝑑𝐵𝑊) − 10 log 𝐵𝑊
𝑁 𝑇
𝑘(𝑑𝐵𝑊) = −228.6 𝑑𝐵𝑊
48. If a satellite has a total transmitter power (Pt) of 1000 W, determine the
energy per bit (Eb) for a transmission rate of 50 Mbps.
-47 dBW/bps or -47 dbJ
𝑃𝑡
𝐸𝑏 = 10 log
𝑓𝑏
49. For an equivalent noise bandwidth of 10 MHz and a total noise power of
0.00276 pW, determine the noise density and equivalent noise temperature.
276 x 10^-23 W/Hz or -205.6 dBW/Hz
50. A typical TVRO installation for use with C-band satellite (downlink at
approximately 4 GHz) has a diameter of about 3 m and an efficiency of about
55%. Calculate its gain and beamwidth.
G = 39 dB, beamwidth = 1.75 degrees
𝜋𝐷 2 70𝜆
𝐺 = 𝜂( ) 𝜃=
𝜆 𝐷
51. For an earth station transmitter with an antenna output power of 40dB (10000
W), a back-off loss of 3dB, a total branching and feeder loss of 3dB, and a
transmitter antenna gain of 40dB, determine the EIRP
74 dBW
𝐸𝐼𝑅𝑃 = 𝑃𝑡 − 𝐿𝑏𝑜 − 𝐿𝑏𝑓 + 𝐴𝑡
FIBER OPTIC CONCEPTS
58. A substance that transmits light but through which an object cannot be seen
clearly is known as what kind of substance?
Translucent
60. A substance that transmits almost all of the light waves falling upon it is
known as what type of substance?
Transparent
61. A substance that is unable to transmit any light waves is known as what type
of substance?
Opaque
63. When a wave is reflected from a surface, energy is reflected. When is the
reflection of energy greatest?
When the wave is nearly parallel to the reflecting surface
66. A light wave enters a sheet of glass at a perfect right angle to the
surface. Is the majority of the wave reflected, refracted, transmitted or
absorbed?
Transmitted
67. When light strikes a white piece of paper, the light is reflected in all
directions. What do you call this scattering of light
Diffusion
68. What is the basic optical-material property relevant to optical fiber light
transmission?
The index of refraction
69. What name is given to the angle where total internal reflection occurs?
Critical angle of incidence
72. Light rays that passes thru the longitudinal axis at the fiber core are
called
meridional rays
73. Meridional rays are classified as either bound or unbound rays. Bound rays
propagate through the fiber according to what property?
Total internal reflection
74. What mechanisms in fiber waveguides weaken and distort the optical signals?
Scattering, absorption and dispersion
75. How can loss be reduced during construction (or fabrication) of optical
fibers?
By removing the impurities from the optical fiber
77. Skew rays and meridional rays define different acceptance angles. Which
acceptance angle is larger, the skew ray angle or the meridional ray angle?
Skew ray angle
78. The mode theory uses electromagnetic wave behavior to describe the
propagation of light along the fiber. What is the set of guided
electromagnetic waves called?
Modes of fiber
79. Modes that are bound at one wavelength may not exist at longer wavelengths.
What is the wavelength at which a mode ceases to be bound is called?
Cutoff wavelength
81. The fiber’s normalized frequency (V) determines how many modes a fiber can
support. As the value of V increases, will the number of modes supported by
the fiber increase or decrease?
Increase
82. The number of modes propagated in a multimode fiber depends on the core size
and numerical aperture (NA). If the core size and the NA decrease, will the
number of modes propagated increase of decrease?
Decrease
83. What is the main loss mechanism between ultraviolet and infrared absorption
regions?
Rayleigh scattering
84. Name the two types of intramodal, or chromatic, dispersion. Material
dispersion and waveguide dispersion
86. Modes of light pulse that enter the fiber at one time exit the fiber at
different times. This condition causes the light pulse to spread. What is
this condition called?
Modal dispersion
87. The reflective index of a fiber core is uniform and undergoes an abrupt
change at the core-cladding boundary. Is this fiber a step-index or graded-
index fiber?
Step-index
88. What happens to the fundamental mode as the operating wavelength becomes
longer than the single mode cutoff wavelength?
The fundamental mode becomes increasingly lossy
89. Give two reasons why optical fiber manufacturers depart from the traditional
circular core cladding, low-loss glass fiber design?
To increase performance and reduce cost
93. When the axes of two connected fibers are no longer in parallel, the two
connected fibers are in what kind of misalignment?
Angular misalignment
94. Which are more sensitive to alignment errors, single mode or multimode
fibers?
Single mode
95. Quality fiber-end preparation is essential for proper system operation. What
property must an optical fiber-end face have to ensure proper fiber
connection?
Be flat, smooth, and perpendicular to the fiber axis
96. What is the basic fiber cleaving technique for preparing optical fibers for
coupling?
Score-and-break
97. Fiber splicing is divided into two broad categories that describe the
techniques used for fiber splicing. What are they?
Mechanical and fusion splicing
99. What is a short discharge of electric current that prepares the fiber ends
for fusion is called?
Prefusion
102. Fiber optic connectors can reduce system performance by increasing what two
types of noise?
Modal and reflection
103. Which type of fiber optic connector (butt-jointed or expanded beam) brings
the prepared ends of two optical fibers into contact?
Butt-jointed connectors
104. Is coupling loss from fiber separation and lateral misalignment more
critical in expanded beam or butt-jointed connectors?
Butt-jointed connectors
105. Is coupling loss from angular misalignment more critical in expanded beam or
butt-jointed connectors?
Expanded beam connectors
106. Which type of optical splitter (Y-coupler or T-coupler) splits only a small
amount of power from the input fiber to one of the output fibers?
T-coupler
107. What two properties of the launch condition may affect multimode fiber
attenuation measurements?
Launch spot size and angular distribution
108. Does underfilling a multimode optical fiber excite mainly high-order of low-
order modes?
Low-order modes
109. A mode filter is a device that attenuates specific modes propagating in the
core of an optical fiber. What mode propagating along single mode fibers do
mode filters eliminate?
Second-order mode
110. What are the two most common types of mode filters?
Free-form loop and mandrel wrap
111. The cutoff wavelength of matched-clad and depressed-clad single mode fibers
varies according to the fiber’s radius of curvature and length. The cutoff
wavelength of which single mode fiber type is more sensitive to length?
Depressed-clad
112. What determines the range of wavelengths over which meaningful data is
obtained for calculating the chromatic dispersion?
The wavelength range of the optical source(s) used
113. Near-filed power distributions describe the emitted power per unit are in
the near-field region. Describe the near-field region.
The near-field region is the region close to the fiber0end face
115. Far-field power distributions describe the emitted power per unit area as a
function of angle theta in the far-field region. Describe the far-field
region.
The far-field region is the region far from the fiber-end face
116. Will fiber coupling loss generally increase of decrease if the mode field
diameter of a single mode fiber is decreased?
Increase
120. An OTDR measure the fraction of light that is reflected back from the fiber
or link under test. What causes light to be reflected back into the OTDR?
Rayleigh scattering and Fresnel reflection
121. What is a temporary or permanent local deviation of the OTDR signal in the
upward of downward direction called?
A point defect
122. Why is dead-zone fiber placed between the test fiber and OTDR when
conducting attenuation measurements?
To reduce the effect of the initial reflection at the OTDR
123. The amount of backscattered optical power at each point depends on what two
properties?
Forward optical power and backscatter capture coefficient
125. What are the two most common semiconductor materials used in electronic and
electro-optic devices?
Silicon and gallium arsenide
128. Which types of LEDs are the preferred optical sources for short-distance,
low-data-rate fiber optic systems?
SLEDs and ELEDs
130. What is the lowest current at which stimulated emission exceeds spontaneous
emission in a semiconductor laser called?
Threshold current
131. Which type of optical source usually lacks reflective facets and in some
cases is designed to suppress reflections back into the active region?
LED
132. How does the source drive circuit intensity modulate the source?
By varying the current through the source
134. What are the two types of output interfaces for fiber optic transmitters?
Optical connectors and optical fiber pigtails
138. Which performance parameter is the minimum amount of optical power required
to achieve a specific bit-error rate (BER) in digital systems or a given
signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) in analog systems?
Receiver sensitivity
139. List the two principal optical detectors used in fiber optic systems.
The semiconductor positive-intrinsic-negative (PIN) photodiode and avalanche
photodiode (APD)
140. What are the four most common materials used in semiconductor detector
fabrication?
Silicon, gallium arsenide, germanium and indium phosphide
145. Will dark current increase or decrease as the temperature of the photodiode
increases?
Increase
147. Trade-offs between competing effects are necessary for high speed response.
Which competing effect (fast transit time, low capacitance, or high quantum
efficiency) requires a thin active area?
Fast Transit time
150. List the key operational parameters used to define receiver performance.
Receiver sensitivity, bandwidth, and dynamic range
153. For a reduction in thermal noise, should the value of the detector’s load
resistor be increased or decreased?
Increased
154. What are two types of noise that manifest themselves as shot noise?
Dark current and quantum noise
155. What are the two basic types of preamplifiers used in fiber optic receivers?
The high-impedance amplifier and the transimpedance amplifier
158. What type of modulation do most analog fiber optic communications systems
use?
Intensity modulation
159. What two analyses are performed to determine if a link design is viable?
Power budget and risetime budget
161. In fiber optics, the main disadvantage of plastic over glass fiber is
high attenuation
164. The bending of light rays due to change in velocity as a result of traveling
from one medium to the other.
Refraction
165. What is the infrared range used for fiber optics in Angstrom?
7,000 to 12,000
167. What is the primary specification of a fiber cable usually expressed as the
loss in dB/km?
Attenuation
168. What is the most widely used light generator in fiber optic system?
Injection laser diode
174. The average maximum distance between repeaters in a fiber optic system.
10 - 30 km
175. Fiber optics performance is usually indicated by
product of bit rate and distance
176. The external incident angle for which light will propagate in the fiber is
known as _____.
Acceptance angle
177. In fiber optics, the dominant loss mechanisms in silica fiber are _____.
Absorption and Rayleigh Scattering Loss
184. What is the typical margin of safety in dB used in preparing the power
budget for fiber-optic system?
5 – 10 dB
185. A fiber has an index of refraction of 1.6 for the core and 1.4 for the
cladding. Calculate: (a) critical angle (b) angle of refraction for angle of
incidence of 30 degrees (c) angle of refraction for angle of incidence of 70
degrees.
(a) 61 degrees (b) 34.8 degrees (c) 70 degrees
𝑛
𝜃 = arcsin 𝑛2 𝑛2 sin 𝜃2 = 𝑛1 sin 𝜃1
1
186. Calculae the numerical aperture and the maximum angle of acceptance for the
fiber that has an index of refraction of 1.6 for the core and 1.4 for the
cladding.
N.A. = 0.775 / 50.8 degrees
𝑁𝐴 = √𝑛2 − 𝑛1 𝜃𝑎𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = sin−1 𝑁𝐴
187. A single-mode fiber has a numerical aperture of 0.15. what is the maximum
core diameter it could have for use with infrared light with a wavelength of
820 nm?
4.2 um
0.383𝜆
𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑥 =
𝑁𝐴
189. The fiber has zero dispersion at a wavelength of 1310 nm and has a zero-
dispersion slope of 0.05 ps(nm2-km). calculate the total dispersion of 50 km
of this fiber when it is used with a source having a linewidth of 2 nm at a
wavelength of 1550 nm.
949 ps
𝑆𝑂 𝜆4𝑂
𝐷𝐶 (𝜆) = [𝜆 − 3 ] 𝑝𝑠/(𝑛𝑚 − 𝑘𝑚)
4 𝜆
190. Find the bandwidth and bandwidth distance product for the fiber with total
dispersion of 949 ps and a total length of 50km.
B = 526.8 MHz, Bandwidth-Distance product = 26.3 GHz-km
𝑙
𝐵=
2Δ𝑡
192. A typical photodiode has an input optical power of 500 nW. Calculate the
diode current.
150 nA
𝐼 = 𝑃𝑖𝑛 × 𝑅 ; 𝑅𝑡𝑦𝑝𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑙 = 0.33 𝐴/𝑊
193. A fiber optic link extends for 40 km. The laser diode emitter has an output
power of 1.5 mW, and the receiver requires a signal strength of -25 dBm for
a satisfactory signal-to-noise ratio. The fiber is available in lengths of
2.5 km and can be spliced with a loss of 0.25 dB per slice. The fiber has a
loss of 0.3 dB/km. The total of all the connector losses at the two ends is
4 dB. Calculate the available system margin.
7.01 dB
194. A 45 km length of fiber must not lengthen pulses by more than 100 ns. Find
the maximum permissible value for the pulse spreading contrast.
2.22 ns/km