Anal carcinoma

c

 Colon carcinoma

Pancreatic carcinoma
Q.1 As resident on emergency duty you receive
a patient who is bleeding profusely from the left Q.8 All the following are contraindications for
cubital fossa following a clean cut. You suspect a conservative management in esophageal
left brachial artery injury and would initiate perforation except
management by: After instrumentation
Checking consciousness of the patient Subcentimetric abdominal perforation
Inspecting his airway Perforation following dilatation for stricture
Order your assistant to compress while you look Spontaneous perforation
for other injuries
Clamp and ligate the left brachial artery Q.9 Treatment options in FAP A/E
Total colectomy with IRA
Q.2 Carl Hartrampf scoring is done in Total proctcolectomy with IPAA
Pheochromocytoma Intensive surveillance in a motivated patient
Liver trauma severity scoring Total proctocolectomy with end ileostomy
Splenic trauma severity scoring
ë

 
 Q.10 65-years-old incontinent male with stage 1
cancer in rectum 10 cms from anal verge. Best
Q.3 Which of the following is incorrect about treatment option is
abdominal compartmental syndrome? APR
Often associated with significant abdominal AR
trauma Local excision
Normal intraabdominal pressure is < 10 mm Hg RT followed by surgery
Pressure above 25 mm Hg warrants emergency
laparotomy Q.11 Best radiological (most sensitive)
Bogota bag is used in the treatment investigation for diagnosing acute appendicitis.
X-ray abdomen
Q.4 which of the following statement about USG
Grawitz tumor is correct? CECT abdomen
Occurs in males more than woman MRI
It is a tumor of kidney and lower pole is involved
more than upper pole. Q.12 Most common site of perforation during
It is adenocarcinoma (variant) of GB colonoscopy
It is a benign tumor Sigmoid colon
Splenic flexure
Q.5 Choledochocele is Descending colon
Type II B choledochal cyst Transverse colon
Diverticulum of CBD
Inflammation of DBD Q.13 55 years old male, known case of peptic
None of the above ulcer disease had received H.pylori eradication 5
yrs back, now presents with recurrent symptoms
Q.6 Homan͛s procedure is done for of ulcer disease. Which non-invasion test you
Adrenelectomy will recommend for him for H.pylori recurrence
Filariasis Rapid urease test
Aortic aneurysm Urea breath test
Aortic atherosclerosis Serology
Culture & sensitivity
Q.7 By mucosal resection which carcinoma can
be diagnosed early
Esophageal carcinoma
Q.14 Most common organism to be isolated MR spectroscopy
from perforated appendicits is
E.coli Q.20 The phrenic nerve does not carry pain
B.fragilis fibres from
Group D streptococcus Pericardium
Kleibsella Diaphragm
Oesophagus
Q.15 Most common site for ulceration in Mediastinal pleura
Zollinger-ellison-syndrome is
Stomach Q.21 A change in vertical diameter of thoracic
First part of duodenum cage is brought about by
Second part of duodenum Pump handle movements of sternum
Proximal jejenum Piston movements of diaphragm
Bucket handle movements of ribs
Q.16 50 yrs old male belonging to poor social- None of the above
economic strata, belonging to north-east of
India presented with weight loss, early satiety & Q.22 The posterior axillary fold is formed by
occasional pain. Clinician suspected it to be Ca Teres major
stomach. Endoscopy was done & a ulcer was Subscapularis
found in distal stomach causing gastric outlet Latissimus dorsi
obstruction. To prove that this ulcer is A and C
malignant, he took multiple biopsies. From
which area the biopsies should be taken to give Q.23 Which is not a content of the 4th
best results. compartment of extensors
From the ulcer crater Tendon of extensor digitorum
From the normal appearing mucosa at the edge Tendon of extensor indicis
of ulcer Posterior interosseus artery
Multiple random biopsies from ulcer & rest of Posterior interosseus nerve
stomach to see for field change
Each one from antrum, fundus, pylorus & body Q.24 Which of the following is the chief extensor
of stomach at elbow
Extensor digitorum
Q.17 The best agent for imaging a substernal Extensor carpi radialis longus
thyroid goiter is? Extensor carpi radialis brevis
I-125 Triceps
I-131
I-123 Q.25 In femoral hernia, the neck of hernial sac
Technetium-99m lies in the
Femoral sheath
Q.18 A chest x-ray sign of aspergilloma? Femoral canal
McConnell͛s sign Femoral ring
Bedford sign Saphenous opening
Monad͛s sign
Palla͛s sign Q.26 While giving intramuscular injections in the
gluteal region, the needle does not pierce
Q.19 Which of the following have been reliably Gluteus maximus
utilized in the field of both behavior and Gluteus medius
cognitive sciences? Gluteus minimus
DWMRI B and C
F-MRI
MRI-FLAIR
Q.27 Inversion and eversion of foot takes place Q.34 Hypertensive crisis results from concurrent
at all joints except use of levodopa with
Ankle Phenothiazines
Subtalar MAO inhibitors
Calcaneocuboid Anticholinergics
Talocalcaneonavicular Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors

Q.28 Which of the following is incorrect about Q.35 A drug acting on post-synaptic membrane
dum-dum [bleep]? can affect which of the following to the
Expanding nature neurotransmitter
Defective jacket Storage
Very small in size Synthesis
Produce large wounds Release
None of the above
Q.29 Hydrostatic test may be false negative in
case of Q.36 After gastrointestinal adverse effects, next
Putrefaction common ADR of NSAIDS is
Atelectasis Renal damage
Artificial respiration Skin reaction
None of the above Bleeding
Bone marrow depression
Q.30 Pregnancy following a rape can be
terminated under the following ground of MTP Q.37 Nephrotoxicity gingival hyperplasia,
act Hirsutism are adverse effects of
Therapeutic Cyclosporin ? A
Eugenic Cyclophosphamide
Humanitarian Azathioprine
Social Chlorambucil

Q.31 The common preservative used in the Q.38 Nitric oxide mainly inactivated by
process embalming is NO synthase
Rectified spirit Reuptake
Saturated solution of sodium chloride Interaction with hemoglobin
Phenol Monoamine Oxidase
Formalin Catechol-O-methyltransferase

Q.32 Pyrethrins and related compounds are Q.39 Unstable at low pH, this antibiotic is
used as structurally similar to penicillin and for topical
Insecticide use only
Fumigants Penicillin
Mosquito repellent Bactitracin
None Clindamycin
Ampicillin
Q.33 Following methods are used to study CNS
function Q.40 Glomerular filtration
Radio ligand study Aspirin
Pet scan Cephalothin
Patch-clamp technique Penicillin
All of the above Streptomycin
Q.41 Mechanism of bactericidal action: Esmolol
kanamycin None of the above
Blocks cell wall synthesis
Inhibits protein synthesis Q.48 Principal mechanism by which beta
Folic acid synthesis inhibitor adrenergic receptor blockade decrease BP
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor Vasodilation ? arteriolar
Vasodilation ? venular
Q.42 Pseudomonas strains resistance to Reduced heart rate and reduced myocardial
carbenicillin may be sensitive to corntractility
Penicillin G Blockade of angiotesn II receptors
Kanamycin Decreased central sympathetic outflow
Tobramycin
Clindamycin Q.49 Antihypertensive; direct acting,
nonselective peripheral vasodilator ? acts on
Q.43 Organism most likely responsible for arteriole and venous vascular smooth muscle:
hospital-requires bacterial pneumonia 44% cyanide by weight
Streoptococcus pneumoniae Labetalol
Klebsiella Hydralazine
Both Minoxidil
Neither Nitroprusside sodium

Q.44 In the intensive care setting (ICU) a patient Q.50 Oral route of administration of this drug
with a nosocomial pneumonia caused by a recently approved in the U.S for prevention of
highly resistance gram-negative bacteria end-organ CMV disease in H.I.V patients
Pseudomonas aeruginosa might be reasonable Foscarnet
treated with Ganciclovir
Cefotaxime Cidofovir
Ceftizoxime Acyclovir
Imipenum plus an aminoglycoside
All of the above Q.51 All of the following statements are true
about schizophrenia except
Q.45 Physiological processes mediated by the Bizarre delusion is suffice to make diagnosis of
intracellular second messenger, cyclic AMP: All schizophrenia
EXCEPT Dopaminergic receptors are involved in the
Carbohydrate breakdown by the liver pathogenesis of schizophrenia
Decreased heart rate Negative symptoms respond very easily to
Increased contractility mediation
Smooth muscle relaxation Early onset is a poor prognostic factor
Triglyceride breakdown
Q.52 All of the following statements are true
Q.46 Supra spinal analgesia is mediated by about intermittent explosive disorder except
Mu receptors only The etiology is most likely multifactorial
Delta receptors only Precipitating events are invariably present
Kappa receptors only Precipitating events are disproportionately
All of the above related to the event of the behavior
Disorder may derive from hormonal
Q.47 Beta-blocker with some intrinsic abnormalities
sympathomimetic properties
Propranolol Q.53 Which of the following statements is false
Metoprolol regarding bulimia nervosa?
Pindolol There is a prominent focus on body image
Wide fluctuations in weight are common
Binges may be separated by prolonged periods
of normal eating
Documentation of some form of purging
behaviour is necessary to establish diagnosis
Q.54 All of the following statements are false
about encopresis except
The symptom usually derives from delayed
nervous system maturation
The symptom usually indicates and underlying
gastrointestinal Pathology
The symptom usually indicates an underlying
psychotic disorder
The symptom is never adequate to establish
diagnosis in children younger than 4 diagnosis
Q.55 Which of the following statement about
learning disorder is most accurate?
Subtypes of the disorder include reading,
writing, mathematics and humanities
It is an equivalent but less pejorative term than
mental retardation
Achievement testing and intelligence testing
reflect differential profile among individuals
with these disorders
They fall within the broader spectrum of
pervasive developmental disorder
Q.56 All of the following statements are false
about electroconvulsive therapy except
It often causes permanent brain damage
It is ineffective in psychotic depression
It is ineffective inpatients who have failed
antidepressant medications
It causes reversible memory problems
Q.57 The relationship between anxiety disorder
and depression is characterized by all of the
following statements except
Many patients with panic disorder become
depressed
Panic disorder and depression run in the same
families
Many depressed patients are also anxious
Depression and anxiety usually alternate in
patients with both symptoms
Q.58 A female infant born to a 24-year-old
woman has been diagnosed clinically as having
Down syndrome. The mother is concerned
about her risk of having another child who has a
chromosomal abnormality. The statement that
you are MOST likely to include in your discussion
is that her risk
Can be estimated by determination of maternal
serum alpha-fetoprotein in all future
pregnancies
Cannot be estimated until her infant?s
chromosome complement has been determined
Is increased for Down syndrome, but not for any
other chromosomal abnormality
Is no greater than that of any other woman her
age
Is not increased until she reaches the age of 35
Q.59 During delivery of an infant who has an
estimated gestational age of 42 weeks, you note
that the amniotic fluid looks like pea soup and
contains thick particles of meconium. Of the
following, the MOST important initial step in
resuscitation of the infant is to
Aspirate the gastric contents
Determine the Apgar score
Initiate tracheal intubation
Provide positive pressure ventilation
Suction the hypopharynx
Q.60 A 3-day-old infant presents to the
emergency department with vomiting, lethargy,
hypotonia, and jaundice. Physical examination
reveals hepatomegaly and neurologic
depression. A full sepsis evaluation is
undertaken, and the Gram stain of the
cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-negative
organisms. Of the following, the BEST additional
laboratory test to obtain is
Erythrocyte galactose-1-phosphate
Liver glycogen content
Plasma insulin level
Plasma very long-chain fatty acids
Stool porphyrins
Q.61 A newborn whose estimated gestational
age is 42 weeks is stained with meconium.
Tracheal intubation reveals meconium in the
hypopharynx as well as below the vocal cords.
The infant has respiratory distress. A chest
radiograph is obtained. Of the following, the
MOST likely radiographic finding is
Coarse infiltrates
Decreased lung volumes
Mediastinal shift
Pleural effusion
Reticulogranular pattern
Q.62 A term newborn presents with bilious
vomiting shortly after birth. Her abdomen is
distended slightly, and facial features are
characteristics of Down syndrome. She has
passed a normal meconium stool. The
pregnancy was complicated by polyhydramnios.
Of the following the MOST likely diagnosis is
Duodenal atresia
Hirschsprung disease
Meconium ileus
Midgut volvulus
Pyloric stenosis
Q.63 An 18-year-old primigravida at 32 week?s
gestation has a blood pressure of 148/96 mm
Hg, proteinuria, oliguria, and visual disturbances.
Labor is induced, and the infant is delivered. His
weight is 850g (< 10th percentile), crown-heel
length is 38 cm (10th percentile), and head
circumference is 30 cm (50th percentile). Of the
following, the MOST likely complication in this
infant is
Anemia membrane disease
Hyaline membrane disease
Hyperglycemia
Meconium aspiration
Perinatal asphyxia
Q.64 Early hospital discharge is defined as the
discharge of a newborn earlier than 48 hours
following vaginal delivery or 96 hours following,
the MOST common reason for readmission to
the hospital within 7 days following an early
discharge is
Bacterial sepsis
Congenital heart disease
Gastrointestinal malformation
Hyperbilirubinemia
Metabolic disorders
Q.65 A newborn infant is delivered by emergent
cesarean section at 41 week?s gestation
following a pregnancy complicated by a
prolapsed umbilical cord and meconium-stained
amniotic fluid. At 6 hours of age, the infant has a
generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Of the
following, the MOST likely explanation for this
seizure is
Hyponatremia
Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
Intracranial hemorrhage
Meningitis
Pyridoxine dependency
Q.66 A 4-hour-old newborn has copious oral
secretions and episodes of coughing, choking
and cyanosis. The pregnancy was complicated
by polyhydramnios. You suspect esophageal
atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Of the
following, the MOST helpful test to confirm the
diagnosis is to
Inject a contrast medium through an orogastric
catheter and obtain a neck radiograph
Obtain computed tomography of the neck
Perform flexible bronchoscopy
Place an endotracheal tube and examine the
endotracheal fluid
Place an orogastric suction catheter and obtain a
chest radiograph
Q.67 A term infant is placed under a radiant
warmer, the skin is dried, and the oropharynx
and nose are suctioned. After tactile stimulation
there is minimal respiratory effort, dusky color,
and a heart rate of 86 beats/min. bag/mask
ventilation is performed for 30 seconds with
100% oxygen at a rate of 40 to 60 breaths/min.
The heart rate increase to 100 beats/min. Of the
following , the NEXT best step is to:
Administer sodium bicarbonate
Continue bag/mask ventilation at a rate of 20 to
40 breaths/min
Continue ventilation and begin chest
compressions
Observes for spontaneous respiration and
discontinues ventilation
Perform endotracheal intubation
Q.68 A 900 g male infant is delivered vaginally to
a woman who had no prenatal care. Of the
following, the physical finding that is MOST
consistent with prematurity rather than
intrauterine growth restriction is
Creases over entire sole of foot
Descended testes with deep rugae of the
scrotum
Formed and firm pinna with instant recoil
Gelatinous translucent skin
Raised areola and 3 mm breast buds Left atrial size < 4 cm

Q.69 Rani, 29 yr old female presented with Q.76 Feature of WPW syndrome are all except
complaints of tightening of fingers, there is also Left sided accessory tract
history of dysphagia, most likely diagnosis Underlying heart normal in most cases
Systemic lupus erythematosa Association with ebstein anomaly
Systemic sclerosis Atrial fibrillation most common arythmmia
Dermatomyositis
Rheumatoid arthritis Q.77 The best marker in AMI with CRF is
CPK
Q.70 All of the following are true about Acne Myoglobin
vulgaris except Troponin I
Very common disorder of sebaceous follicles Troponin T
Familial & inheritance pattern is polygenic
For severe nodulocystic drug choice and Q.78 Containdicated in Digitalis toxicity is
retinoids DC Cardioversion
Steroid induced Acne are polymorphic Phenytoin
Q.71 If touching of the papule of secondary Antibodies
syphilis with the head of a pin is exquisitely Lignocaine
tender, then sign said to be positive is
Ollendrof sign Q.79 D/D of early systolic murmur is seen in all
Auspitz sign except
Button holing sign Small VSD
Asboe Hansen sign Very large VSD
Acute MR
Q.72 Genital ulcer may not be observed in MVP
Syphilis
LGV Q.80 Both restriction and constriction is seen in
Chancroid Radiation
Granuloma inguinale Amyloidosis
Hemochromatosis
Q.73 A patient has scaly lesions of the elbow and Hurlers disease
knee joint. Which of the following is a bedside
test for provisional diagnosis of the illness Q.81 Cardiac Tamponade without pulsus
Auspitz sign paradoxus is seen in
KOH ASD
Tzank smear VSD
Slit skin smear TR
MS
Q.74 Drug which is contraindicated in post M.I
pts is Q.82 Which is seen in reperfusion
Amiodarone AIVR
Lignocaine JT
Flecainide MAT
Procainimide VT

Q.75 IN a patient of A.F stroke risk is increased Q.83 All are tocolytics, EXCEPT
in all except Magnesium sulfate
C.H.F Nifedepine
Rheumatic heart disease Diazepam
Hypertension Atosiban
 Vacuum extraction
Q.84 Complication unique to chorionic villus Kielland forceps
sampling is Manual rotation & forceps delivery
Infection
Abortion Q.92 In the Pritchard?s regime the therapeutic
Oligohdroamnios level of serum MgSO4 to be achieved is
Limb reduction defects 1 ? 2 meq/L
4 ? 7 meq/L
Q.85 The following remains unchanged in 8 ? 10 meq/L
pregnancy 10 ? 12 meq/L
Factor II
Platelet count Q.93 All are the about thyroid storm in
Factor XI pregnancy EXCEPT
Clotting time Carbimazole is the drug of choice
Is precipitated by LSCS
Q.86 Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrin in b-Blockers provide symptomatic reliefs
Atonic PPH Commonest cause is Grave?s disease
Induction of labor
Post 1st trimester m.t.p Q.94 The drug of choice for prophylaxis against
All of above recurrent UTI in pregnancy is
Ciprofloxacin
Q.87 Postpartum haemorrhage is treated with Ampicillin
all of the following, EXCEPT Nitrafurantoin
Prostaglandins Azithromycin
Intrauterine packing
B-Lynch sutures Q.95 In the management of a pregnant woman
Internal iliac (posterior division) ligation with a known case of epilepsy, all are indicated
EXCEPT
Q.88 Trial of scar is not attempted in Alteration of anticonvulsant dose
Previous LSCS Mid pregnancy Level II USG
CPD CT scan/MRI
IUGR Folic acid supplementation
All of the above
Q.96 All are true about, Anencephaly, EXCEPT
Q.89 All are the advantages of vacuum over Polyhdydroamnios
forceps delivery EXCEPT Postdatism
Lesser traction Face presentation
Lesser fetal morbidity None of the above
Lesser cervical dilatation requirement
Rotation & descent achieved Q.97 A pregnant diabetic female on oral
hypoglycemics is shifted to insulin. All of the
Q.90 All of the following are true about face following are true, EXCEPT
presentation, EXCEPT Insulin does not cross the placenta
Complete extension attitude During pregnancy insulin requirements increase
Left mentoanterior most common Tolbutamide crosses the placenta
Delayed labour Tolbutamide causes PIH
Mentoposterior position favored
Q.98 Which of the following ovarian tumors is
Q.91 In deep transverse arrest, the delivery of most likely to undergo torsion in pregnancy?
the baby is conducted by in modern obstetrics: Serous cystadenoma
Caesarean section Mucinous cystadenoma
Dermold oyst Stage IIb
Theca lutein cyst Stage IIa

Q.99 ? 24 years Mala C/O 4 and half weeks
amenorrhea & PV spotting 15 days back. O/E=P-
96b/m, BP-120/80 beta h.c.g. is positive and
USG reveals empty uterine cavity. Possible
diagnosis is:
Ectopic pregnancy
Abortion
Early intrauterine pregnancy
All of the above
Q.100 In which of the following conditions, the
medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy is
contraindicated?
Sac size 3cm
Blood in pelvis 50ml
Presence of fetal heart activity
Previous ectopic pregnancy
Q.105 The most common primary cancer of
fallopian tubes is
Clear cell carcinoma
Mucinous carcinoma
Serous cystadenocarcinoma
Solid adenocarcinoma
Q.106 A 45 yr old male presents with a testicular
mass. FNAC showed a seminoma. CECT
abdomen showed 10x10cm lymph nodal mass
extending from the superior mesenteric vessels
to the common iliac vessels. The treatment is
BEP chemotherapy
RT to retroperitioneal nodes
High inguinal orchiectomy and BEP
chemotherapy
High inguinal orchiectomy and RT

Q.101 Optimal debulking in advanced ovarian Q.107 All of the following vessels are ligated in a
cancers is defined as right hemicolectomy except
No gross residual disease Right branch middle colic
No gross or microscopic disease Right colic
Tumor deposits 1cm or less Ileo-colic
Tumor deposits 2cm or more Main middle colic

Q.102 Adjuvant chemotherapy significantly Q.108 A 45 yr old female underwent open

improves survival in all of the following cancers cholecystectomy for gallstone disease. The
except: Pathology report showed a well differentiated
Glioblastomas adenocarcinoma of gall bladder confined to
Osteosarcomas mucosa. Further management is:
Soft tissue sarcomas Wedge resection liver
Colorectal cancers Wedge resection liver and portal
lymphadenectomy
Q.103 Locally advanced breast cancer includes Portal lymphadenectomy
all the TNM stages except No further treatment
T3N1M0
T2N2M0 Q.109 ?Gossypol? is
T3N0M0 Subdermal implant
T1N2M0 A male contraceptive
Obtained from cotton seed oil
Q.104 A 55 yr old female presents with All above except A
postmenopausal bleeding. Fractional curettage
showed adenocarcinoma of uterus. She Q.110 50 yrs old lady has discharge and irregular
underwent staging laparotomy and findings are bleeding PV. On PS cervix shows 1x1 cm nodule.
tumor involving the uterine serosa and Best method for diagnosis is
adenaxae. The stage is Cervical biopsy
Stage IIIa Colposcopy
Stage IIIb Papsmear
HPV DNA test Expansion of closed air spaces
Minimum cardiovascular side effects
Q.111 What is epophoron Slow induction and slow recovery
Vestigial structure of urogenital sinus Low blood gas partition coefficient
Remnant portion of wolfian ducts
Unfused portion of mullerian ducts Q.119 All the following liberate fluoride on
Part of mesonephric duct metabolism except
Halothane
Q.112 All in used for the treatment of post Sevoflurane
menopausal osteporosis except Desflurane
Bisphosphonates Isoflurane
SERMS
Isoflavones Q.120 The short acting opioid undergoing ester
HRT metabolism is
Alfentanil
Q.113 A gestational sac is seen on TVS when Fentanyl
BHCG is Remifentanil
1000 miu/ml Sufentanil
2000 miu/ml
3000 miu/ml Q.121 Which of these is a surface anesthetic?
6000 miu/ml Prilocaine
Ropivacaine
Q.114 Ormeloxifen used for contraception is Bupivacaine
given Mepivacaine
Daily
Weekly Q.122 True regarding malignant hyperthermia
Biweekly include all except:
Not used for it Most sensitive sign is an increase in end tidal
CO2
Q.115 Used in the treatment of precocious Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent
puberty sign
Gnrh agonist Increased susceptibility with the use of
Gnrh antagonist succinylcholine, halothane and lignocaine
Estrogen Hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis is
Proluton depo characteristic

Q.116 Neuromuscular blocker with shortest Q.123 All are the features of stellate ganglion
duration of action block except
Gantacurium Absence of ciliospinal reflex
Mivacurium Guttman?s sign
Scholine Proptosis
Rapacuronium Injection of tympanic membrane

Q.117 Which of these is used for local anesthetic Q.124 A 20 year old woman is admitted to
toxicity? labour room for elective caesarean section. She
Suggamadex is suffering from coarctation of aorta. When of
20% intralipid the following is the technique of choice?
Barium sulphate Spinal Anaesthesia
4 aminopyridine Epidural Anaesthesia
General Anaesthesia
Q.118 Not true about Xenon Anaesthesia : Local Anaesthesia with nerve block

Q.125 Most common site of supraglottic Ca is:
Infrahyoid epiglottis
Suprahyoid epiglottis
Aryepiglottic fold
False cords
Q.126 ?Columella tympanoplasty? is
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Q.127 Incorrect statement regarding nystagmus
of ?Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo? ?
Several (2-to 10-) second latency
Geotropic (beating toward the ground)
Horizontal-rotary
Lasts more than 60 seconds before abating
Q.128 A 2-year-old simran suddenly begins
choking and coughing while eating peanuts. On
physical examination, she is coughing
frequently.She has inspiratory stridor and mild
intercostals and suprasternal retractions. Initial
management would include
Back blows
Abdominal thrusts
Blind finger-sweeps of the hypopharynx
Permitting her to clear the foreign body by
coughing
Q.129 A newborn infant requires repeated
resuscitations in the delivery room because of
failure to breathe and cyanosis. During spells of
crying, which appear to alleviate the cyanosis,
his breath and heart sounds are normal,as is
direct laryngoscopy. Vigorous respiratory
movements appear ineffectual. Immediate
management of this infant consists of
Obtaining a chest x-ray
Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG)
Arterial blood gas determinations
Inserting an oropharyngeal airway
Q.130 Dorsal surface and sides of tongue
covered by painless shallow or deep fissures is a
feature of:
Median Rhomboid glossitis
Scrotal tongue
Benign migratory glossitis
Hairy tongue
Q.131 A 6-year-old ramu has inspiratory stridor.
All the following disorders cause inspiratory
stridor except
Epiglottitis
Acute bronchospasm
Infectious laryngotracheitis
Aspiration of a foreign body
Q.132 80 yrs old ramu presented with insidious
dysphagia, referred otalgia and weight loss.
Indirect laryngoscopy revealed smooth surface
growth involving tip of epiglottic and left
aryepiglottic fold with left vocal cord fixed.Direct
laryngoscopy and biopsy confirmed the
diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma..Clinically
the patient is suffering from :-
Supraglottis Carcinoma Stage T??1
Supraglottis Carcinoma Stage T3
Supraglottis Carcinoma Stage T4a
Supraglottis Carcinoma Stage T??4b
Q.133 Median weight of 100 children was 12 kg.
The SD was 3. Calculate the percentage
coefficient of variance
20%
25%
33%
35%
Q.134 For testing the statistical significance of
the difference in the height of school children
among three socioeconomic groups, the most
appropriate test is
Chi square test
Paired t test
Un Paired t test
ANOVA
Q.135 Which of the following is not included in
the vision document of National Rural health
Mission (NRHM)?
Raise Public spending on health from 0.95% of
GDP to 2-3% GDP
Provision of ASHA in each village
Establishing multi specialty hospital in each
cluster of 50 villages
Effective integration of sanitation and safe
drinking water with health issues
Q.136 Systemic observation and recording of
activities of one or more individuals carried out
at predetermined or random interval is termed
as
Network Analysis
Work Sampling
System analysis
None of the above
Q.137 According to IMNCI, A sick young infant is
classified as LOW BODY TEMPERATURE when
the temperature is
36.5 ? 37.4 degrees C
35.5 ? 36.4 degrees C
34.5 ? 35.4 degrees C
33.5 ? 34.4 degrees C
Q.138 The comparisons made between the
disease rates during present period with the
rates during the corresponding periods of the
last 3 to 5 years is done to derive which type of
trends
Spatial trends
Temporal trends
Personal trends
Disease trends
Q.139 For what two issues should a surveillance
system be periodically evaluated at the
functional level
Incidence and prevalence
Relevance and repeatability
Completeness and accuracy
Sensitivity and specificity
Q.140 Arrange the following steps in
investigation of an epidemic, in the sequential &
ideal order:- (1)Develop the epidemiological
case sheet, (2) Testing the hypotheses, (3)
Confirm the existence of an epidemic, (4)
Develop an Initial (Rough) ? Line- listing? of
cases, (5) Develop valid case definition
3?4?5?1?2
4?5?2?1?3
3?5?2?1?4
2?3?4?5?1
Q.141 The correct statistical procedure for
studying the association between an exposure
and an outcome variable when both of them are
measured on a continuous scale is
Chi square test
Pearson?s correlation coefficient
ANOVA
T-test
Q.142 The planning and budgeting process
which requires each manager to justify the
entire budget in detail from ?scratch? is
Incremental approach of budgeting
Program budgeting
Zero based budgeting
Flexible budgeting
Q.143 Mass vaccination campaigns against one
of the following disease would be imperative
and helpful in times of disasters
Typhoid
Cholera
Scrub typhus
Measles
Q.144 According to NRHM Dengue mortality
should be reduced by _____ by 2010
40%
50%
75%
60%
Q.145 Maximum number of Polio cases are
occurring due to which strain
Wild Polio Type I
Wild Polio Type III
Wild Polio Type I and III both
Wild Polio Type II
Q.146 Which of the following is not a
component of AFP SURVEILLAMCE?
Case notification
Case in Laboratory investigation
Out break response and active search in
community
Attaining high routine immunization
Q.147 The goal of NIDDCP is
To reduce the prevalence of Iodine deficiency
disorders below 10 percent in the entire country
2012 AD
To reduce the prevalence of iodine deficiency
disorders below 5 percent in the entire country
by 2012 AD
To reduce the prevalence of iodine deficiency
disorders below 5 percent in the entire country Axillary nerve
by 2010 AD
None of the above Q.155 Which of the test is seen in anterior
dislocation of shoulder
Q.148 Vision 2020 ?The right to sight? include all Dugas test
except Thomas test
Trachoma Ober test
Epidemic conjunctivitis Phalen test
Cataract
Onchocerciasis Q.156 Prader-willi syndrome is due to following
genetic abnormalities EXCEPT
Q.149 The most common fracture to occur SNRPN gene
during child birth is NECDIN gene
Clavicle 15 q Deletions
Tibia PNTPN gene
Femur
Ulna Q.157 All of the following drug can be used in
treatment of SIADH EXCEPT
Q.150 The most common type of Tubercular Demeclocycline
involvement is Fodrocortisone
Posterior Conivapton
Anterior Low dose loop diuretic
Central
Para discal Q.158 All of following can be used as one of
modality in treatment of obesity EXCEPT
Q.151 The most common outcome of septic Leptin
arthritics is Octeriotide
Normal joint Metformin
Osteo arthritis Levo-thyroxin
Subluxation
Ankylosis Q.159 Dose of levothyroxin is decreased as
compared to usual replacement dose EXCEPT
Q.152 The most common nerve involved in Old age
Tarsal tunnel syndrome is Hypothyroidism after treatment of Graves
Radial nerve disease
Sciatic nerve Pregnancy
Femoral nerve Patient with AF/cardiac disease
Posterior Tibial nerve
Q.160 Which of the following disease HLA
Q.153 After closed fractures the type of nerve analysis may be of some use
injury is CYP21 A2 deficiency (21 beta hydroxylase)
Axonotmesis Metabolic syndrome
Neurotmesis Idiopathic weight loss
Neurapraxia Idiopathic alopecia
Any of the above
Q.161 Which of the following is most sensitive
Q.154 The most common nerve injury in fracture as well most specific biochemical test in case of
shaft humerus is pheocromocytoma
Radial nerve 24-h urine vanillylmandelic acid
Median nerve 24-h urine total metanephrine
Ulnar nerve Plasma free metanephrine
Plasma catecholamine hypnozoites

Q.162 Side effect of SITAGLIPTIN therapy are all
except
Nasopharingits
Skin rash
Acute ? pancreatitis
Memory loss
Q.163 A type 2 Diabetes patient is having
proteinuria >300 mg/g. Patient is intolerant to
ACE inhibitor and ARWhich of the following will
be next best drug in this case
Diltiazem
Amlodepin
Prazosin
Atenolol
Q.164 The following methods of diagnosis utilize
labeled antibodies except:
ELISA (Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay)
Haemagglutination inhibition test
Radio immunoassay
Immunofluorescence
Q.165 Which of the facts about sterilization is
true
Sharp instruments are best sterilized in hot air
owen
Paraffin is sterilized by autoclaving
Plastic syringes are sterilized by UV radiation
Pasteurization is the same as sterilization
Q.166 The treatment of choice for neo-
vascularisation at disc (NVD) in a 32 years male
with Eales disease is:
Sub conjunctional steroid injection
Intra venous pulse steroids
Anti-tubercular therapy
Pan-retinal photocoagulation
Q.167 Plasmodia responsible for a specific case
of malaria generally are identified by:
Cultural characteristic of the organisms on
media containing red blood cells
Morphological characteristic of the organisms in
samples of infected blood
The latent period of the exorythrocytic cycle
The protozoa immobilization test (PIT) with
specific antisera
The result of an hepatic biopsy searching for
Q.168 Which one of the following bacteria is
most likely to be recovered from the
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of a newborn with
meningitis
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus agalactiae
Haemophilus influenzae type b
isteria monocytogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q.169 The following diseases caused by bacteria
are due to the exotoxins produced by them
except
Diphtheria
Cholera
Salmonellosis
Tetanus
Botulism
Q.170 Which of the serovas of chlamydia are
responsible for inclusion conjunctivitis
A, B, Ba,c
D-K
L1-L3
None of the above
Q.171 Viral cultivation is better in chick embryo
than animal inoculation because chick embryo
Clean and bacteriologically sterile
Do not have immuno mechanisms
Do not need feeding and caging
Offers several sites of cultivation of viruses
All of the above
Q.172 Which of the following viruses is/are
associated with the development of
hepatocellular carcinoma
Hepatitis C virus
Woodchuck hepatitis virus
Ground squirrel hepatitis virus
All of the above
Q.173 Which of the following structural features
is not true of retroviruses
Lipid envelope
Ds RNA
Virus associated reverse transcriptase
Genome is surrounded by a protein core
Replication via a DNA intermediate
Q.174 Which of the following techniques
performed during resection of tumors is best in
determining whether the resection is adequate
to reduce the probability of a recurrence
Electron microscopy
Serum tumor marker
Frozen section
Fine-needle aspiration cytology
Flow cytometry
Q.175 Which of these is not true regarding
klinefelter syndrome
Two or more X chromosomes, one or more Y
chromosomes
Incidence is 1 in 850 live male births
Usually diagnosed in infancy
Patient has eunuchoid body habits, small
atrophic testes & small penis with ? estradiol, ?
testosterone levels
Q.176 Which one of the following is not a
criterion for making a diagnosis of chronic
myeloid leukemia in accelerated phase-
Blasts 10-19% of WBC's in peripheral blood
Basophils 10-19% of WBC'S in peripheral blood
Increasing spleen size unresponsive to therapy
Persistent thrombocytosis (> 1000x109 /L)
unresponsive to therapy
Q.177 Following are recognized complications of
type B hepatitis except
Aplastic Anemia
Brain abscess
Persistent hepatitis
GN
Q.178 All of the following are examples of Prions
disease, except:
Cruetzfeldt Jacob Disease (CJD)
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy
(PML)
Scrapie,
Gerstmann-Straussler Scheinker syndrome
Q.179 Tumors in Anal canal showing brownish
pigment and prominent nucleoli & spindle cell
morphology. IHC marker positive is
HMB ? 45
CD ? 117
CD ? 99
Vimentin
Q.180 Most common condition diagnosed
erroneously as Acute appendicitis is
Mesenteric lymphadenitis
PID
Perforated DU
CPW
Q.181 Which of the following proteins is
involved in the pathogenesis of dementia in a 49
year old man with Down syndrome
Pre-albumin
eta amyloid protein
Beta 2 microglobulin
Light chains
serum associated amyloid protein
Q.182 Which of these statements is not true
Th1 subset is involved in facilitating delayed
hypersensitivity
h2 subset aids in synthesis of antibodies
including IgE
Th1 subset secretes IL-4, IL-5
CD8+ T cells act primarily as cytotoxic cells
Q.183 Which of these signal transudation
pathway is not associated with receptors with
intrinsic tyrosine kinas activity
MAP- kinas pathway
P3 pathway
Jak/STAT pathway
None of the above
Q.184 The following statements are true about
fatty change in liver, except:-
Is grossly identified by an enlarged organ with a
yellow and greasy cut surface.
an be confirmed by doing a oil-red-o stain on
frozen section
Not associated with protein ? calorie
malnutrition
Is characterized by accumulation of triglyceride
within hepatocytes
Q.185 All of the following are true except :
Basilar membrane near to helicotrema responds
to higher frequencies
3 layers of outer hair cells and one layer of inner
hair cells are present on organ of corti
Reisner?s membrance separates perilymph form
endolymph
Scala media is +85 mv with respect to scala Q.192 A 23 year old female has a central nebular
vestibuli corneal opacity. Which of the following is the
recent advance in the management of this
Q.186 All are true about muscle spindle except condition?
Peripheral region is contractile Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK)
It is innervated by ? motor neuron Phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK)
It is the receptor for both stretch reflex and Lamellar keratoplasty
inverse stretch reflex E-LASIK
It can sense both length and rate of change of
length Q.193 A 63 years old patient has a unilateral
downward and medial proptosis associated with
Q.187 Most important factor in transport of CO2 pain. Based on information available, likely
as bicarbonate cause may be:
Hb Ethmoidal mucocele
Carbonic anhydrase Benign lacrimal gland tumor
Acid ? base buffer Optic nerve sheath meningioma
Heldane effect Malignant lacrimal gland tumor

Q.188 Hyper-chloremic metabolic acidosis is Q.194 A 6 year old boy has ulcerative blepharitis
associated with with LE catarrhal ulcer (marginal keratitis). Likely
Increased anion gap causative organism will be:
Normal anion gap Streptococcus Sp.
Decreased anion gap Staph aureus
Zero anion gap H-influenzae
E. coli
Q.189 Renal body fluid volume mechanism for
regulating arterial pressure is important for Q.195 A mother brings her 4 month old child
Raising BP when person stands suddenly from a with complaints of slight drifting in of the eyes.
lying down position In assessing possible squint in this child, which
Minimize the decrease in arterial pressure facial factor may contribute to the appearance
following severe hemorrhage of squint?
Maintaining BP at normal level on long term Wide nasal bridge
basis Mongoloid angulations of eyelids
Increasing BP during heavy exercise Anti-mongoloid angulations of eyelids
Lid colobomas
Q.190 All are true about venous pressure except
CVP decreases with inspiration Q.196 Which of the following enzymes is useful
Pressure is superior sagittal sinus is -10 mmHg in detecting successful ligation in cloning?
approx. in standing position. Terminal transferase
Pressure is neck vein is Zero in standing position Beta galactosidase
Peripheral and central venous pressures are Methylase
exactly equal in supine position. Polymerase

Q.191 In isotonic exercise all are true except : Q.197 Eukaryotic gene expression is regulated
Arterio- Venous O2 differences rises by all mechanisms EXCEPT:
TPR ? Operon system
Increase in muscle blood flow is mainly because Genomic remodeling
of auto regulation Gene amplification
Muscle blood flow stops when muscle develops Gene transposition
70% of its maximum tension. Gene rearrangement
Q.198 Methylation is helpful in all EXCEPT:
Regulation of genetic expression
Part of restriction modification system
Post transcriptional modification
DNA repair
DNA replication

Q.199 In CURL, LDL is separated from receptor

due to:
Proton pump
Na K ATPase pump
Lysosomal proteases
ACAT

Q.200 How many amino acids are catabolized

per turn of urea cycle?
0ne
Two
Three
Four