Republic of the Philippines
UNIVERSITY OF NORTHERN PHILIPPINES
Tamag, Vigan City
College of Nursing
COMPENTENCY APPRAISAL I: Critical Care Nursing
Instruction: Use the “ANSWER SHEET” provided.
1. A nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The
P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is
0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The
overall heart rate is 64 beats per minute. The nurse assesses
the cardiac rhythm as:
1. Normal sinus rhythm
2. Sinus bradycardia
3. Sick sinus syndrome
4. First-degree heart block.
2. A nurse notices frequent artifact on the ECG monitor for a
client whose leads are connected by cable to a console at the
bedside. The nurse examines the client to determine the cause.
Which of the following items is unlikely to be responsible for
the artifact?
1. Frequent movement of the client
2. Tightly secured cable connections
3. Leads applied over hairy areas
4. Leads applied to the limbs
3. A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the
rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS
complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but
over 100. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing:
1. Premature ventricular contractions
2. Ventricular tachycardia
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Sinus tachycardia
4. A nurse is viewing the cardiac monitor in a client’s room
and notes that the client has just gone into ventricular
tachycardia. The client is awake and alert and has good skin
color. The nurse would prepare to do which of the following?
1. Immediately defibrillate
2. Prepare for pacemaker insertion
3. Administer amiodarone (Cordarone) intravenously
4. Administer epinephrine (Adrenaline) intravenously
5. A nurse is caring for a client with unstable ventricular
tachycardia. The nurse instructs the client to do which of the
following, if prescribed, during an episode of ventricular
tachycardia?
1. Breathe deeply, regularly, and easily.
2. Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds.
3. Lie down flat in bed
4. Remove any metal jewelry
6. A client is having frequent premature ventricular
contractions. A nurse would place priority on assessment of
which of the following items?
1. Blood pressure and peripheral perfusion
2. Sensation of palpitations
3. Causative factors such as caffeine
4. Precipitating factors such as infection
7. A client has developed atrial fibrillation, which a
ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. A nurse assesses the
client for:
1. Hypotension and dizziness
2. Nausea and vomiting
3. Hypertension and headache
4. Flat neck veins
8. A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client’s
rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead, there
are wavy lines. The QRS complexes measure 0.08 second, but
they are irregular, with a rate of 120 beats a minute. The nurse
interprets this rhythm as:
1. Sinus tachycardia
2. Atrial fibrillation
3. Ventricular tachycardia
4. Ventricular fibrillation
9. A client with rapid rate atrial fibrillation asks a nurse why
the physician is going to perform carotid massage. The nurse
responds that this procedure may stimulate the:
1. Vagus nerve to slow the heart rate
2. Vagus nerve to increase the heart rate; overdriving the
rhythm.
3. Diaphragmatic nerve to slow the heart rate
4. Diaphragmatic nerve to overdrive the rhythm
10. A nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a
premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of
the preceding beat. The client’s rhythm suddenly changes to
one with no P waves or definable QRS complexes. Instead,
there are coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. The nurse
assesses this rhythm to be:
1. Ventricular tachycardia
2. Ventricular fibrillation
3. Atrial fibrillation
4. Asystole
11. While caring for a client who has sustained an MI, the
nurse notes eight PVCs in one minute on the cardiac monitor.
The client is receiving an IV infusion of D5W and oxygen at 2
L/minute. The nurse’s first course of action should be to:
1. Increase the IV infusion rate
2. Notify the physician promptly
3. Increase the oxygen concentration
4. Administer a prescribed analgesic
12. The adaptations of a client with complete heart block
would most likely include:
1. Nausea and vertigo
2. Flushing and slurred speech
3. Cephalalgia and blurred vision
4. Syncope and slow ventricular rate
13. A client with a bundle branch block is on a cardiac
monitor. The nurse should expect to observe:
1. Sagging ST segments
2. Absence of P wave configurations
3. Inverted T waves following each QRS complex
4. Widening of QRS complexes to 0.12 second or greater.
14. When ventricular fibrillation occurs in a CCU, the first
person reaching the client should:
1. Administer oxygen
2. Defibrillate the client
3. Initiate CPR
4. Administer sodium bicarbonate intravenously
15. What criteria should the nurse use to determine normal
sinus rhythm for a client on a cardiac monitor? Check all that
apply.
1. The RR intervals are relatively consistent
2. One P wave precedes each QRS complex
3. Four to eight complexes occur in a 6-second strip
4. The ST segment is higher than the PR interval
5. The QRS complex ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 second.
16. Regular oral hygiene is an essential intervention for the
client who has had a stroke. Which of the following nursing
measures is inappropriate when providing oral hygiene?
1. Placing the client on the back with a small pillow under the
head.
2. Keeping portable suctioning equipment at the bedside.
3. Opening the client’s mouth with a padded tongue blade.
4. Cleaning the client’s mouth and teeth with a toothbrush.
17. A 78-year-old client is admitted to the emergency
department with numbness and weakness of the left arm and
slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is a priority?
1. Prepare to administer recombinant tissue plasminogen
activator (rt-PA).
2. Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the symptoms.
3. Schedule for A STAT computer tomography (CT) scan of
the head.
4. Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency consult.
18. A client arrives in the emergency department with an
ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-
PA) administration. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
1. Current medications.
2. Complete physical and history.
3. Time of onset of current stroke.
4. Upcoming surgical procedures.
19. During the first 24 hours after thrombolytic therapy for
ischemic stroke, the primary goal is to control the client’s:
1. Pulse
2. Respirations
3. Blood pressure
4. Temperature
20. What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours
after admission of the client with a thrombotic stroke?
1. Cholesterol level
2. Pupil size and pupillary response
3. Bowel sounds
4. Echocardiogram
21. What is the expected outcome of thrombolytic drug
therapy?
1. Increased vascular permeability.
2. Vasoconstriction.
3. Dissolved emboli.
4. Prevention of hemorrhage
22. The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has
experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA).
Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered
for the client on discharge?
1. An oral anticoagulant medication.
2. A beta-blocker medication.
3. An anti-hyperuricemic medication.
4. A thrombolytic medication.
23. Which client would the nurse identify as being most at risk
for experiencing a CVA?
1. A 55-year-old African American male.
2. An 84-year-old Japanese female.
3. A 67-year-old Caucasian male.
4. A 39-year-old pregnant female.
24. Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the
client would be at risk for a hemorrhagic stroke?
1. A blood glucose level of 480 mg/dl.
2. A right-sided carotid bruit.
3. A blood pressure of 220/120 mmHg.
4. The presence of bronchogenic carcinoma.
25. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are
caring for a client with right-sided paralysis. Which action by
the UAP requires the nurse to intervene?
1. The assistant places a gait belt around the client’s waist
prior to ambulating.
2. The assistant places the client on the back with the client’s
head to the side.
3. The assistant places her hand under the client’s right axilla
to help him/her move up in bed.
4. The assistant praises the client for attempting to perform
ADL’s independently.
26. Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of
the following mechanisms?
1. Plaques obstruct the vein
2. Plaques obstruct the artery
3. Blood clots form outside the vessel wall
4. Hardened vessels dilate to allow blood to flow through
27. A paradoxical pulse occurs in a client who had a coronary
artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery two (2) days ago. Which
of the following surgical complications should the nurse
suspect?
1. Left-sided heart failure
2. Aortic regurgitation
3. Complete heart block
4. Pericardial tamponade
28. After cardiac surgery, a client’s blood pressure measures
126/80. The nurse determines that the mean arterial pressure
(MAP) is which of the following?
1. 46 mm Hg
2. 80 mm Hg
3. 95 mm Hg
4. 90 mm Hg
29. A woman with severe mitral stenosis and mitral
regurgitation has a pulmonary artery catheter inserted. The
physician orders pulmonary artery pressure monitoring,
including pulmonary capillary wedge pressures. The purpose
of this is to help assess the:
1. Degree of coronary artery stenosis
2. Peripheral arterial pressure
3. Pressure from fluid within the left ventricle
4. Oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration is the blood
30. For a client who excretes excessive amounts
of calcium during the postoperative period after open heart
surgery, which of the following measures should the nurse
institute to help prevent complications associated with
excessive calcium excretion?
1. Ensure a liberal fluid intake
2. Provide an alkaline ash diet
3. Prevent constipation
4. Enrich the client’s diet with dairy products
31. A nurse is assessing the neurovascular of a client who has
returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after
undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. The affected leg is warm,
and the nurse notes redness and edema. The pedal pulse is
palpable and unchanged from admission. The nurse interprets
that the neurovascular status is:
1. Normal because of increased blood flow through the leg
2. Slightly deteriorating and should be monitored for another
hour
3. Moderately impaired, and the surgeon should be called
4. Adequate from an arterial approach, but venous
complications are arising.
32. After open-heart surgery, a client develops a temperature
of 102*F. The nurse notifies the physician because elevated
temperatures:
1. Increase the cardiac output
2. May indicate cerebral edema
3. May be a forerunner of hemorrhage
4. Are related to diaphoresis and possible chilling
33. During a cardiac catheterization blood samples from the
right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery are
analyzed for their oxygen content. Normally:
1. All contain less CO2 than does pulmonary vein blood
2. All contain more oxygen than does pulmonary vein blood
3. The samples of blood all contain about the same amount of
oxygen
4. Pulmonary artery blood contains more oxygen than the
other samples
34. The nurse prepares the client for insertion of a pulmonary
artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter). The nurse teaches the
client that the catheter will be inserted to provide information
about:
1. Stroke volume
2. Cardiac output
3. Venous pressure
4. Left ventricular functioning
35. When preparing a client for discharge after surgery for a
CABG, the nurse should teach the client that there will be:
1. No further drainage from the incisions after hospitalizations
2. A mild fever and extreme fatigue for several weeks after
surgery
3. Little incisional pain and tenderness after 3 to 4 weeks after
surgery
4. Some increase in edema in the leg used for the donor graft
when activity increases
36. What is the most important nursing action when measuring
a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)?
1. Have the client bear down when measuring the PCWP
2. Deflate the balloon as soon as the PCWP is measured
3. Place the client in a supine position before measuring the
PCWP
4. Flush the catheter with heparin solution after the PCWP is
determined.
37. The most important assessment for the nurse to make after
a client has had a femoropopliteal bypass for
peripheral vascular disease would be:
1. Incisional pain
2. Pedal pulse rate
3. Capillary refill time
4. Degree of hair growth
38. Which signs cause the nurse to suspect cardiac tamponade
after a client has cardiac surgery? Check all that apply.
1. Tachycardia
2. Hypertension
3. Increased CVP
4. Increased urine output
5. Jugular vein distention
39. A client has the diagnosis of left ventricular failure and a
high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). The
physician orders dopamine to improve ventricular function.
The nurse will know the medication is working if the client’s:
1. Blood pressure rises
2. Blood pressure decreases
3. Cardiac index falls
4. PCWP rises
40. A 35-year-old male was knifed in the street fight, admitted
through the ER, and is now in the ICU. An assessment of his
condition reveals the following symptoms: respirations
shallow and rapid, CVP 15 cm H2O, BP 90 mm Hg systolic,
skin cold and pale, urinary output 60-100 mL/hr for the last 2
hours. Analyzing these symptoms, the nurse will base
a nursing diagnosis on the conclusion that the client has which
of the following conditions?
1. Hypovolemic shock
2. Cardiac tamponade
3. Wound dehiscence
4. Atelectasis
41. A client who has had a full-thickness burn is being
discharged from the hospital. Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide prior to discharge?
A. How to maintain home smoke detectors
B. Joining a community reintegration program
C. Learning to perform dressing changes
D. Options available for scar removal
42. A client who is admitted after a thermal burn injury has the
following vital signs: blood pressure, 70/40; heart rate, 140
beats/min; respiratory rate, 25/min. He is pale in color and it is
difficult to find pedal pulses. Which action will the nurse take
first?
A. Begin intravenous fluids.
B. Check the pulses with a Doppler device.
C. Obtain a complete blood count (CBC).
D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
43. A client who was burned has crackles and a respiratory
rate of 40/min, and is coughing up blood-tinged sputum. What
action will the nurse take first?
A. Administer digoxin
B. Perform chest physiotherapy
C. Monitor urine output
D. Place the client in an upright position
44. How will the nurse position a client with a burn wound to
the posterior neck to prevent contractures?
A. Have the client turn the head from side to side.
B. Keep the client in a supine position without the use of
pillows.
C. Keep the client in a semi-Fowler’s position with her or his
arms elevated.
D. Place a towel roll under the client’s neck or shoulder.
45. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client has burns
inside the mouthand is wheezing. Several hours later, the
wheezing is no longer heard. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Documenting the findings
B. Loosening any dressings on the chest
C. Raising the head of the bed
D. Preparing for intubation
46. Ten hours after the client with 50% burns is admitted, her
blood glucoselevel is 140 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s best
action?
A. Documents the finding
B. Obtains a family history of diabetes
C. Repeats the glucose measurement
D. Stops IV fluids containing dextrose
47. The client has a large burned area on the right arm. The
burned area appears pink, has blisters, and is very painful.
How will the nurse categorize this injury?
A. Full-thickness
B. Partial-thickness superficial
C. Partial-thickness deep
D. Superficial
48. The client has burns on both legs. These areas appear
white and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present, and
there is just a “small amount of pain.” How will the nurse
categorize this injury?
A. Full-thickness
B. Partial-thickness superficial
C. Partial-thickness deep
D. Superficial
49. The client has experienced an electrical injury of the lower
extremities. Which are the priority assessment data to obtain
from this client?
A. Current range of motion in all extremities
B. Heart rate and rhythm
C. Respiratory rate and pulse oximetry reading
D. Orientation to time, place, and person
50. The client has severe burns around the right hip. Which
position is most important to use to maintain maximum
function of this joint?
A. Hip maintained in 30-degree flexion
B. Hip at zero flexion with leg flat
C. Knee flexed at 30-degree angle
D. Leg abducted with foam wedge
51. The client who is burned is drooling and having difficulty
swallowing. Which action will the nurse take first?
A. Assesses level of consciousness and pupillary reactions
B. Ascertains the time food or liquid was last consumed
C. Auscultates breath sounds over the trachea and
mainstem bronchi
D. Measures abdominal girth and auscultates bowel sounds
52. The client with a full-thickness burn is being discharged to
home after a month in the hospital. His wounds are minimally
opened and he will be receiving home care. Which nursing
diagnosis has the highest priority?
A. Acute Pain
B. Deficient Diversional Activity
C. Impaired Adjustment
D. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements
53. The client with a new burn injury asks the nurse why he is
receiving intravenous cimetidine (Tagamet). What is the
nurse’s best response?
A. “Tagamet will stimulate intestinal movement.”
B. “Tagamet can help prevent hypovolemic shock.”
C. “This will help prevent stomach ulcers.”
D. “This drug will help prevent kidney damage.”
54. The client with facial burns asks the nurse if he will ever
look the same. Which response is best for the nurse to
provide?
A. “With reconstructive surgery, you can look the same.”
B. “We can remove the scars with the use of a pressure
dressing.”
C. “You will not look exactly the same.”
D. “You shouldn’t start worrying about your appearance right
now.”
55. The client with open burn wounds begins to have diarrhea.
The client is found to have a below-normal temperature, with
a white blood cell count of 4000/mm3. Which is the nurse’s
best action?
A. Continuing to monitor the client
B. Increasing the temperature in the room
C. Increasing the rate of the intravenous fluids
D. Preparing to do a workup for sepsis
56. The family of a client who has been burned asks at what
point the client will no longer be at greater risk for infection.
What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “As soon as he finishes his antibiotic prescription.”
B. “As soon as his albumin level returns to normal.”
C. “When fluid remobilization has started.”
D. “When the burn wounds are closed.”
57. The nurse is conducting a home safety class. It is most
important for the nurse to include which information in the
teaching plan?
A. Have chimneys swept every 2 years.
B. Keep a smoke detector in each bedroom.
C. Use space heaters instead of gas heaters.
D. Use carbon monoxide detectors only in the garage.
58. The nurse provides wound care for a client 48 hours after a
burn injury. To achieve the desired outcome of the procedure,
which nursing action will be carried out first?
A. Applies silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) ointment
B. Covers the area with an elastic wrap
C. Places a synthetic dressing over the area
D. Removes loose nonviable tissue
59. The nurse should teach the community that a minor burn
injury could be caused by what common occurrence?
A. Chimney sweeping every year
B. Cooking with a microwave oven
C. Use of sunscreen agents
D. Use of space heaters
60. The nurse uses topical gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) on
a client’s burn injury. Which laboratory value will the nurse
monitor?
A. Creatinine
B. Red blood cells
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium level
71. A client admitted to the hospital with a subarachnoid
hemorrhage has complaints of severe headache, nuchal
rigidity, and projectile vomiting. The nurse knows lumbar
puncture (LP) would be contraindicated in this client in which
of the following circumstances?
1. Vomiting continues
2. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is increased
3. The client needs mechanical ventilation
4. Blood is anticipated in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
72. A client with a subdural hematoma becomes restless and
confused, with dilation of the ipsilateral pupil. The physician
orders mannitol for which of the following reasons?
1. To reduce intraocular pressure
2. To prevent acute tubular necrosis
3. To promote osmotic diuresis to decrease ICP
4. To draw water into the vascular system to increase blood
pressure
73. A client with subdural hematoma was given mannitol to
decrease intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following
results would best show the mannitol was effective?
1. Urine output increases
2. Pupils are 8 mm and nonreactive
3. Systolic blood pressure remains at 150 mm Hg
4. BUN and creatinine levels return to normal
74. Which of the following values is considered normal for
ICP?
1. 0 to 15 mm Hg
2. 25 mm Hg
3. 35 to 45 mm Hg
4. 120/80 mm Hg
75. Which of the following symptoms may occur with
a phenytoin level of 32 mg/dl?
1. Ataxia and confusion
2. Sodium depletion
3. Tonic-clonic seizure
4. Urinary incontinence
76. Which of the following signs and symptoms of increased
ICP after head trauma would appear first?
1. Bradycardia
2. Large amounts of very dilute urine
3. Restlessness and confusion
4. Widened pulse pressure
77. Problems with memory and learning would relate to which
of the following lobes?
1. Frontal
2. Occipital
3. Parietal
4. Temporal
78. While cooking, your client couldn’t feel the temperature of
a hot oven. Which lobe could be dysfunctional?
1. Frontal
2. Occipital
3. Parietal
4. Temporal
79. The nurse is assessing the motor function of an
unconscious client. The nurse would plan to use which of the
following to test the client’s peripheral response to pain?
1. Sternal rub
2. Pressure on the orbital rim
3. Squeezing the sternocleidomastoid muscle
4. Nail bed pressure
80. The client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The
nurse would plan to place the client in which position for the
procedure?
1. Side-lying, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto the
chest
2. Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip
3. Prone, in a slight Trendelenburg’s position
4. Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen.
81. A nurse is assisting with caloric testing of the
oculovestibular reflex of an unconscious client. Cold water is
injected into the left auditory canal. The client
exhibits eye conjugate movements toward the left followed by
a rapid nystagmus toward the right. The nurse understands that
this indicates the client has:
1. A cerebral lesion
2. A temporal lesion
3. An intact brainstem
4. Brain death
82. The nurse is caring for the client with increased
intracranial pressure. The nurse would note which of the
following trends in vital signs if the ICP is rising?
1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing
respirations, decreasing blood pressure.
2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing
respirations, increasing blood pressure.
3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing
respirations, decreasing blood pressure.
4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing
respirations, increasing blood pressure.
83. The nurse is evaluating the status of a client who had a
craniotomy 3 days ago. The nurse would suspect the client is
developing meningitis as a complication of surgery if the
client exhibits:
1. A positive Brudzinski’s sign
2. A negative Kernig’s sign
3. Absence of nuchal rigidity
4. A Glascow Coma Scale score of 15
84. A client is arousing from a coma and keeps saying, “Just
stop the pain.” The nurse responds based on the knowledge
that the human body typically and automatically responds to
pain first with attempts to:
1. Tolerate the pain
2. Decrease the perception of pain
3. Escape the source of pain
4. Divert attention from the source of pain.
85. During the acute stage of meningitis, a 3-year-old child is
restless and irritable. Which of the following would be most
appropriate to institute?
1. Limiting conversation with the child
2. Keeping extraneous noise to a minimum
3. Allowing the child to play in the bathtub
4. Performing treatments quickly
86. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect
that a child with meningitis has developed disseminated
intravascular coagulation?
1. Hemorrhagic skin rash
2. Edema
3. Cyanosis
4. Dyspnea on exertion
87. When interviewing the parents of a 2-year-old child, a
history of which of the following illnesses would lead the
nurse to suspect pneumococcal meningitis?
1. Bladder infection
2. Middle ear infection
3. Fractured clavicle
4. Septic arthritis
88. The nurse is assessing a child diagnosed with a brain
tumor. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the
nurse expect the child to demonstrate? Select all that apply.
1. Head tilt
2. Vomiting
3. Polydipsia
4. Lethargy
5. Increased appetite
6. Increased pulse
89. A lumbar puncture is performed on a child suspected of
having bacterial meningitis. CSF is obtained for analysis. A
nurse reviews the results of the CSF analysis and determines
that which of the following results would verify the diagnosis?
1. Cloudy CSF, decreased protein, and decreased glucose
2. Cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose
3. Clear CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose
4. Clear CSF, decreased pressure, and elevated protein
90. A nurse is planning care for a child with acute bacterial
meningitis. Based on the mode of transmission of this
infection, which of the following would be included in the
plan of care?
1. No precautions are required as long as antibiotics have been
started
2. Maintain enteric precautions
3. Maintain respiratory isolation precautions for at least 24
hours after the initiation of antibiotics
4. Maintain neutropenic precautions
91. A nurse is reviewing the record of a child with increased
ICP and notes that the child has exhibited signs of decerebrate
posturing. On assessment of the child, the nurse would expect
to note which of the following if this type of posturing was
present?
1. Abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of
the lower extremities
2. Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs
3. Rigid pronation of all extremities
4. Flaccid paralysis of all extremities
92. Which of the following assessment data indicated nuchal
rigidity?
1. Positive Kernig’s sign
2. Negative Brudzinski’s sign
3. Positive homan’s sign 3. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
4. Negative Kernig’s sign 4. Educate the client about his symptoms

93. Meningitis occurs as an extension of a variety of bacterial 97. Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes
infections due to which of the following conditions? which of the following procedures?
1. Congenital anatomic abnormality of the meninges 1. Cardiac catheterization
2. Lack of acquired resistance to the various etiologic 2. Coronary artery bypass surgery
organisms 3. Oral medication therapy
3. Occlusion or narrowing of the CSF pathway 4. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
4. Natural affinity of the CNS to certain pathogens
98. Which of the following is the most common symptom of
94. Which of the following pathologic processes is often myocardial infarction (MI)?
associated with aseptic meningitis? 1. Chest pain
1. Ischemic infarction of cerebral tissue 2. Dyspnea
2. Childhood diseases of viral causation such as mumps 3. Edema
3. Brain abscesses caused by a variety of pyogenic organisms 4. Palpitations
4. Cerebral ventricular irritation from a traumatic brain injury
99. Which of the following symptoms is the most likely origin
95. You are preparing to admit a patient with of pain the client described as knifelike chest pain that
a seizure disorder. Which of the following actions can you increases in intensity with inspiration?
delegate to LPN/LVN? 1. Cardiac
1. Complete admission assessment. 2. Gastrointestinal
2. Set up oxygen and suction equipment. 3. Musculoskeletal
3. Place a padded tongue blade at bedside. 4. Pulmonary
4. Pad the side rails before patient arrives.
100. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of
96. Which of the following actions is the first priority of care cardiac damage?
for a client exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery 1. Lactate dehydrogenase
disease? 2. Complete blood count (CBC)
1. Decrease anxiety 3. Troponin I
2. Enhance myocardial oxygenation 4. Creatine kinase (CK)