A:Nurselabs CARDIO 1
Review medication regimen to
1. Answer: D. An 80-year-old client with CHF
Extremely old clients are at greater risk for digitalis
toxicity. Remember when it comes to adversity, the
very old and very young are always at highest risk.
2. Answer: C. Heart rate below 60
The apical heart rate must be monitored during
therapy with digoxin, and the drug held for pulse
below 60 and above 120. Remember that digoxin
lowers the heart rate; therefore, the choice that
reflects a low heart rate is the best selection.
3. Answer: C. Increases the force of contraction
Inotropic drugs increase the force of contraction.
Preload, not afterload, is decreased. Chronotropic
drugs increase heart rate. Treatment of CHF is an
indication for use not an action of inotropic drug.
4. Answer: A. Monitor potassium level
Monitoring potassium is especially important
because hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity. B
and C are incorrect because these data reflect
overall CV status but are not specific for digoxin.
Choice D are drugs usually administered with
digoxin.
5. Answer: D. 0.5-2.0 ng/mg
This is the correct therapeutic range for digoxin.
Every nurse should know this information.
6. Answer: B. Digoxin toxicity
Halos is a hallmark sign of digoxin toxicity. A, C and
D are incorrect because subtherapeutic digoxin
levels have no such effects.
7. Answer: A. Increasing stroke volume and
heart rate
The action of amrinone (Inocor) is to increase
stroke volume, ejection fraction, and heart rate.
Lanoxin, not amrinone, slows ventricular rate and
increases cardiac output. The vasodilator effect of
amrinone decreases peripheral vascular resistance.
Any increase in cardiac output will enhance renal
perfusion; this is not just specific to amrinone.
8. Answer: D.
identify if client is on IV furosemide (Lasix).
Milrinone (Primacor) is incompatible with IV
furosemide (Lasix), and many clients with CHF are
taking furosemide. Assessing potassium, not
sodium, is essential. Choice B is not done before
administration but during administration.
Assessment of CV status is not specific for
milrinone and is indicated for any drug that affects
the circulatory system.
9. Answer: D. lidocaine (Xylocaine)
Lidocaine is the only choice used to treat
ventricular ectopy. A and C are class
IA antiarrhythmics. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside.
10. Answer: B. SA node
Class IA antiarrhythmics have little effect on the SA
node.
11. Answer: D. procainamide (Pronestyl)
Pronestyl is known for this serious side effect.
Associate Pronestyl with plasma — P and P. This
drug is known for its hematologic side effects.
12. Answer: D. Frequent ventricular ectopy
Ventricular ectopy can be a life-threatening
arrhythmia; therefore, the client needs an
arrhythmic. Other choices are not arrhythmias that
need to be treated.
13. Answer: A. ECG
The ECG is the most important parameter to
assess. B, C, and D need to be monitored, but the
ECG is the most important.
14. Answer: C. Drug levels
Knowing drug levels (peak and trough) is the only
way to ensure there is enough drug in the body to
work. Other choices do not demonstrate drug
effect.
15. Answer: A. bretylium (Bretylol)
Among the choices, this is the only agent that must
be monitored this closely. B, C, and D are given to
outpatients as oral preparations.
16. Answer: C. amiodarone (Cordarone)
This is the most toxic drug and should be used only
if other less toxic agents have been tried. Digoxin,
on the other hand, is cardiotonic, not antiarrhythmic
agent. B and D are not known for their toxicity.
17. Answer: B. Bronchodilation and increased
heart rate, contractility, and conduction
Bronchodilation results from stimulated beta
receptors, and cardiac effects result from the
stimulation of ß1 receptors. Choice A does not
address respiratory effects of medication. Choice C
is incorrect because α-stimulating drugs cause
vasoconstriction. Bronchodilation, not
bronchoconstriction, results from ß2 activity.
18. Answer: B. color and temperature of toes
and fingers
Because decreased perfusion is a side effect of
norepinephrine (Levophed), the nurse must check
circulation frequently. Capillary refill is not a reliable
indication of perfusion in a shock state. Choices A
and D are not specific for norepinephrine.
19. Answer: A. Hypovolemic shock
Norepinephrine (Levophed) is contraindicated
in hypovolemia. Neurogenic shock is an indication
for norepinephrine use. Norepinephrine is given to
maintain a systolic blood pressure of 80-100
mmHG. Decreased renal perfusion is an adverse
reaction.
20. Answer: C. the drug cannot be directly
mixed in solutions containing bicarbonate or
aminophylline.
The nurse is responsible for knowing compatible
solutions before administering dopamine (Intropin).
It is important to know that drug action varies by
dose, but the physician is responsible for
determining the dose. Dopamine should not be
used instead of fluid replacement. Choice D is
incorrect because, although it is true, it is not the
nurse’s primary concern. It is a collaborative action
in which the physician is involved in determining the
rate.
21. Answer: C. arrhythmias
Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is not used to treat
arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are conditions
are conditions that respond to dobutamine.
22. Answer: A. verapamil
Verapamil (Calan) has the strongest chronotropic
effect and will cause a delay in conduction at the
SA and AV nodes.
23. Answer: B. nifedipine
Nifedipine has the strongest peripheral smooth
muscle dilator effect of all the calcium channel
blockers. Other choices have less of a vasodilator
effect.
24. Answer: D. Hypotension
Hypotension is more likely to occur in the elderly.
Choices A, B, and C may occur but are not
necessarily increased in frequency in elderly
clients.
25. Answer: B. nimodipine
Nimodipine is given in the neurologic client to
prevent cerebral vasospasm. Choices A, C, and D
are given in cardiac disease and in the
management of hypertension only.
26. Answer: B. Decreased peripheral vascular
resistance
One of the effects of calcium channel blockers is to
decrease peripheral vascular resistance. A, C, and
D describe the opposite effects of calcium channel
blockers.
27. Answer: A. Pulmonary function tests
Unless the client has a history of pulmonary
disease and pulmonary function tests are indicated,
there is no need to include this in the routine
assessment of the client taking ß blockers.
28. Answer: B. Glucose
ß blockers influence glucose metabolism. Although
A, C, and D are nice to have, there is no indication
that routine assessment of thyrotropin, sodium, or
creatine phosphokinase is needed.
29. Answer: A. Catecholamines
Catecholamine receptor sites are blocked by the
action of ß-blocking agents. Adrenergic sites may
be blocked, but the more appropriate response is
catecholamine receptors. Acetylcholine is not
affected by ß blockers. Norepinephrine is a
catecholamine.

30. Answer: A. Bronchoconstriction

ß blockers should be avoided in

bronchoconstrictive disease. B, C, and D are
indications for the use of ß blockers.
A: Nurselabs CARDIO 2
1. Answer: C. Smooth muscle relaxation
Nitrates cause smooth muscle relaxation,
vasodilation, reduction of preload, and improved
blood flow to the myocardium. Other choices have
opposite effect of nitrates.
2. Answer: A. Decreased myocardial oxygen
demand
Nitrate administration will result in reduced preload
and a decrease in myocardial oxygen demand and
left ventricular end-diastolic volume.
3. Answer: C. isosorbide PO
Isosorbide is one of the most frequently
administered long-acting nitrates. PO nitrates are
longer acting than IV or SL agents.
4. Answer: C. Reduced mortality
Research has shown that when nitrates are
administered early to the acute MI client, the effect
is reduced mortality, infarct size, infarct extension,
and related complications. Hypotension will result
from nitrate administration, but it is not the reason
for prescribing the drug. Tachycardia rather than
bradycardia is more likely to occur with nitrate
administration. The morbidity is already present
because the client has the pain.
5. Answer: A. Change position slowly.
Clients taking nitrates should change position
slowly to avoid orthostatic hypotension. It is not
necessary to take the pulse before taking this drug.
It is also not necessary to change the diet while
taking this drug. It is contraindicated to chew
sustained-release tablets.
6. Answer: C. Promote sodium and water
retention
Angiotensin is a potent vasoconstrictor that
stimulate the release of aldosterone. Aldosterone
release promotes sodium and water retention. The
conversion of angiotensin I to II is not inhibited.
Aldosterone promotes sodium retention not
depletion. Vasoconstriction not vasodilation results.
7. Answer: D. Hypotension
ACE inhibitors prevent vasoconstriction and lower
blood pressure, placing the client at greater risk for
postural (orthostatic) hypotension. ACE inhibitors
reduce potassium excretion placing the client at risk
for hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors do not affect heart
rate. ACE inhibitor promote sodium excretion
thereby decreasing edema.
8. Answer: B. “I need to increase my intake of
orange juice, bananas, and green vegetables.”
The client needs to understand the risk of
hyperkalemia and foods to eat in moderation.
Taking medications with food will decrease
therapeutic effects of ACE inhibitors. Excessive
amounts of caffeine should be avoided. Avoidance
of salt substitutes that are high in potassium
decrease the risk of hyperkalemia.
9. Answer: D. “This drug is used when other
drugs have failed.”
This response provides accurate information about
the medication. Choice A placates the client and
provides no information about the new medication.
Choice B is defensive. Although choice C is true,
there is no information provided to motivate the
client.
10. Answer: D. Increased sodium excretion and
potassium reabsorption
The inhibition of aldosterone increases sodium
excretion and reduces potassium excretion. ACE
inhibitors increases renal blood flow. Excretion of
sodium and water is enhanced by ACE inhibitors.
Peripheral vascular resistance is decreased by
vasodilation effect of ACE inhibitors.
11. Answer: A. Relax smooth muscles
Vasodilators relax smooth muscle. They are used
to treat hypertension, not hypotension. Stimulating
the adrenergic receptors of peripheral sympathetic
nerves causes blood vessels to contract. Choice D
is not an action of vasodilators.
12, Answer: B. Hypertension
Vasodilators are used to treat hypertension. They
are not used to treat diabetes. Atrial fibrillation is
not treated with vasodilators. Vasodilators are not
used to treat hypotension.
13. Answer: D. All of the above
All are vasodilators used primarily to treat
peripheral or cerebral vascular obstructive disease.
14. Answer: D. nitroprusside (Nitropress)
Nitroprusside (Nitropress) is used in this situation.
A and B are sympathomimetics used to treat
hypotension. Papaverine is contraindicated in
myocardial depressant states.
15. Answer: D. All of the above
An important component in the treatment of
peripheral vascular disease is health education on
preventing further injury to ischemic tissues.
Medication therapy is only one aspect.
16. Answer: B. Inhibit the exchange of sodium
for potassium
Aldosterone antagonists compete with endogenous
aldosterone and prevent sodium reabsorption in
exchange for potassium elimination. Aldosterone
antagonists work on inhibiting the action of
aldosterone rather than creating an osmotic
gradient. Aldosterone antagonist do not cause
metabolic acidosis. Aldosterone antagonists must
work in the presence of endogenous aldosterone.
17. Answer: D. Hearing loss
Patients receiving large doses of loop diuretics are
at risk for developing ototoxicity.
18. Answer: A. Fluid volume excess
Mannitol’s osmotic effect extends to the
bloodstream, where increased osmotic pressure
draws fluid into the vascular space, thus elevating
intravascular volume.
19. Answer: D. Are weak diuretics
Potassium-sparing diuretics are not potent diuretics
when used alone. They are used as adjunctive
therapy with other diuretics to minimize potassium
loss. Potassium-sparing diuretics given during
blood transfusions tend to cause hyperkalemia
because potassium is present in the transfusion.
These drugs block aldosterone’s effects. These
drugs cause hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
20. Answer: D. A 75-year-old man
Elderly clients are more sensitive to the effects of
diuretics.
21. Answer: D. Increase HDL
The desired effect of lipid-lowering agents is to
decrease cardiac risk by lowering TC, TG, and LDL
and increasing or maintaining HDL.
22. Answer: B. LDL
An elevated LDL is the most significant risk factor
for the development of atherosclerosis; therefore,
for drug therapy to be effective, LDL must be
reduced.
23. Answer: C. Liver disease
All lipid-lowering agents except the bile acid
sequestrants are potentially hepatotoxic, so the
most significant contraindication is liver disease.
24. Answer: D. Vitamin K
Vitamin K absorption may be reduced when giving
these drugs. The only fat-soluble vitamin here is
vitamin K, which is synthesized in the liver.
25. Answer: A. lovastatin (Mevacor)
Mevacor is known to cause constipation.
26. Answer: A. Conversion of prothrombin to
thrombin
Parenteral anticoagulants such as heparin work by
disrupting conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Tissue thromboplastin is formed in the extrinsic
pathway as tissue is damaged. Oral anticoagulants
work by interfering with vitamin K-dependent
clotting factors. Prothrombin does not convert to
fibrin.
27. Answer: B. Abdominal fat
Heparin should be given in the abdominal area
around the umbilicus, deep into the fat.
28. Answer: B. 1 to 1.5 hours
The half-life of heparin is 60 to 90 minutes. This is
important to know when bleeding occurs during
heparin administration.

29. Answer: D. protamine sulfate (Protamine)

Protamine is the drug used to reverse the adverse

effects of bleeding that occurs with heparin
administration.

30. Answer: C. 8 to 12

Initial extension of PT occurs within 8 to 12 hours

after warfarin therapy begins.
A: NurseLabs CARDIO 3
1. Answer: B. “I will take Ecotrin (Enteric coated
aspirin) for my headaches”.
Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should
be avoided due to the risk of bleeding.
2. Answer: B. Activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT).
Activated partial thromboplastin time assess the
therapeutic level of heparin.
 Option A: Assess the therapeutic level of
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).
 Options C and D: Measures the aspect of
the red blood cells.
3. Answer: B. Activated partial thromboplastin
time of 60 seconds.
The normal range for activated partial
thromboplastin time is 20-36 seconds. The
activated partial thromboplastin time must be 1.5 to
2.5 times the normal value, the client’s Appt would
be considered therapeutic if it was 60 seconds.
4. Answer: D. Protamine sulfate.
Protamine sulfate is the antidote that reverses the
anticoagulant effects of heparin by binding to it.
 Option A is the antidote for acetaminophen
toxicity.
 Option B is the antidote for magnesium
sulfate toxicity.
 Option C is the antidote for warfarin sodium
toxicity.
5. Answer: A. Stop the infusion and call the
physician.
Severe allergic reaction to streptokinase requires
immediate discontinuation of Streptokinase,then
notify the physician and administer an adrenergic,
antihistamine, and/or corticosteroid agents as
ordered.
6. Answer: D. A blood pressure of 185/100 mm
Hg.
Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated with
uncontrolled hypertension (systolic BP >180 mm
Hg and/or diastolic BP >110 mm Hg) because of
the risk of cerebral hemorrhage.
 Options A, B, and C may be present during
the therapy but will not warrant the
immediate knowledge of the physician
before starting the therapy.
7. Answer: C. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar).
Bleeding can be reversed with the use of
aminocaproic acid as an antidote for streptokinase.
 Option A is the antidote for warfarin sodium
toxicity.
 Option B is the antidote for iron toxicity.
 Option D is an antihistamine that can be
used for any allergic reaction.
8. Answer: B. Antiplatelet medications cannot
be used with anticoagulants.
Antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapies are
effective in keeping a clot from forming or stopping
the growth of one.
9. Answer: A. Check the blood pressure and
heart rate.
The client is experiencing signs of procainamide
toxicity, the priority nursing action is to obtain vital
signs immediately.
 Options B and C are done after checking
the vital signs.
 Option D will cause hypotension.
10. Answer: D. Observe for signs of bleeding.
Bleeding is the priority concern for a client taking
thrombolytic medication.
 Options A and B are monitored but are not
the primary concern.
 Option C is not related to the use of
medication.
11. Answer: B. 0.5-2 ng/ml.
The therapeutic level of digoxin is 0.5-2 ng/ml.
12. Answer: D. Complaints of dyspnea.
Complaints of dyspnea is a sign of bronchospasm
which is one of the serious complication of beta
blockers.
 Options A and B shows a decrease in the
blood pressure and heart rate which are
expected in this therapy.
 Option C is a side effect of this medication.
13. Answer: C. “This medication may mask
some of the symptoms of hypoglycemia such
as tremor, palpitation, and rapid heartbeat.
Beta-blockers such as metoprolol may increase the
risk of hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin. In
addition, beta-blockers may mask some of the
symptoms of hypoglycemia such as tremor,
palpitation, and rapid heartbeat, making it more
difficult to recognize an oncoming episode.
14. Answer: D. Hypokalemia and
hyperglycemia.
Metolazone is a thiazide diuretic that may put
clients risk for hypokalemia, hyperglycemia,
hyperlipidemia, hypercalcemia and hyperuricemia.
15. Answer: C. Blood pressure.
The priority assessment in this situation will be the
monitoring of the blood pressure
because hypotension poses a risk in this
medication.
 Options A, B, and D are monitored but they
are not the priority.
16. Answer: C. “I will continue taking nicotinic
acid as part of the treatment”.
 A combination of Cholestyramine
(Questran) and nicotinic acid damages the
liver.
Options A, B, and D are true regarding this
medication.
17. Answer: A. “I should take aspirin 30 minutes
before nicotinic acid”.
The use of aspirin or a nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drug 30 minutes before decreases
flushing which is a side effect of taking nicotinic
acid.
 Option B: Drinking alcohol will cause liver
abnormalities.
 Option C is a sign of liver dysfunction and
should be immediately informed the
physician.
 Option D: This medication is taken with
meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
18. Answer: D. Tremors.
Signs of digoxin toxicity are as follows, anorexia,
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and blurred vision.
19. Answer: B. Sulfa allergy.
Loop diuretics such as bumetanide are sulfa-based
medications, and a client with sulfa allergy is at risk
for an allergic reaction.
20. Answer: C. The client still complains
of chest pain with a pain scale of 2/10.
The goal for the client with an acute myocardial
infarction is to eliminate the pain. Even pain related
at a level of 2/10 should be managed with an
additional dose of morphine.
 Options A, B, and D: although hypotension,
respiratory depression, and tachycardia are
the side effects of morphine but they do not
require further action at this time.
A: KEE AND HAYES CARDIO 6

A: KEY AND HAYES CARDIO 7

A: KEE AND HAYES CARDIO 8

A: KEE AND HAYES CARDIO 9

A: KEE AND HAYES CARDIO 10

A: NurseLabs GASTRO 1
1. Answer: D. “I will sip the cholestyramine
powder for a long time for faster absorption”.
Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant. It works
by helping the body remove bile acids, which can
lower cholesterol levels in the blood. A powder form
of this medication can cause tooth problems such
as discoloration, erosion of enamel, or decay. Other
side effects of this medication are decreased
vitamin absorption and constipation.
2. Answer: C. Patient undergoing radiotherapy.
Metoclopramide can be safely administered to
patients having vomiting episodes following
radiation, chemotherapy, and surgery.
 Options A and B: It is contraindicated in
patients with conditions where stimulation of
gastrointestinal motility might be harmful,
such as mechanical bowel obstruction,
bowel perforation, or gastrointestinal
hemorrhage.
 Option D: Hypertensive crises may occur in
patients with pheochromocytoma due to
induction of catecholamine release from
the tumor.
3. Answer: A. Relief of gastric ulcer.
Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a synthetic (man-made)
prostaglandin that is used to reduce the risk of
stomach ulcers in patients treated with nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs, for
example, aspirin, ibuprofen, etc.).
 Option B: Although a side effect, but it is not
the intended therapeutic effect.
 Options C and D are not related to the
medication.
4. Answer: A. Agitation.
Cimetidine an H2-receptor antagonist passes the
blood brain barrier, and central nervous
system side effects can happen. Most common
serious side effects
are confusion, agitation, depression, and
disorientation.
 Options B, C, and D: They are considered
as the less common side effect.
5. Answer: C. Blood pressure.
Intravenous administration of Cimetidine
causes hypotension.
 Options A, B, and D are not related to this
medication.
6. Answer: B. Patients with an ileostomy.
Loperamide hydrochloride is an antidiarrheal agent.
It can also be used to reduce the volume of
drainage from an ileostomy.
 Options A, C, and D: It is contraindicated in
patients with abdominal pain in the absence
of diarrhea, and in patients with acute
dysentery, which is characterized by blood
in stools and high fever.
7. Answer: A. Vomiting.
Ondansetron is used to prevent nausea and
vomiting that may be caused by surgery or by
medicine to treat cancer (chemotherapy or
radiation).
 Options B, C, and D, are not related to this
medication.
8. Answer: B. “These medicines will stop the
acid production and will kill the bacteria”.
The triple therapy treatment of H-pylori infection is
the includes 2 antibiotics (Clarithromycin and
Amoxicillin) and one proton pump inhibitor such
as omeprazole, lansoprazole, pantoprazole, or
esomeprazole.
9. Answer: D. Relief from GERD.
Omeprazole is used to treat symptoms
of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and
other conditions caused by excess stomach acid. It
is also used to promote healing of erosive
esophagitis (damage to your esophagus caused by
stomach acid).
 Options B, C, and D are not related to this
medication.
10. Answer: C. Monitoring the frequency and
consistency of bowel movements.
Crohn’s disease is a condition in which the body
attacks the lining of the digestive tract, causing
pain, diarrhea, weight loss, and fever. Infliximab
works by reducing the inflammation in the colon,
thereby decreasing diarrhea.
 Options A, B, and D are not related to this
medication.
11. Answer: D. Reduction of excess fat in feces.
Pancrelipase is used to help improve food digestion
in certain conditions (cystic fibrosis, pancreatitis)
where the pancreas is not working properly. This
medicine minimizes the amount of steatorrhea
(fatty stools).
 Options A, B, and C are not related to this
medication.
12. Answer: C. “It will decrease your diarrhea,
and your bowel can rest”.
The priority in this kind of situation is to stop
diarrhea and to provide fluids and electrolyte thru
the use of TPN. The bowel is rested so that the
abdominal cramping will also stop.
13. Answer: B. Decreased urine output.
Sulfasalazine is used to treat bowel inflammation,
diarrhea (stool frequency), rectal bleeding, and
abdominal pain in patients with ulcerative colitis. It
is nephrotoxic, so a decrease in urine output is the
most serious concern.
 Options A, C, and D are also side effects
but are less serious.
14. Answer: A. 1 hour before meals.
Sucralfate is a gastric protective agent. It works by
forming a protective layer on the ulcer to serve as a
barrier against acid, bile salts, and enzymes in the
stomach. Taken by mouth on an empty stomach at
least 1 hour before or 2 hours after eating.
 Options B and D are incorrect.
 Option C: Do not take an antacid for at least
30 minutes before or after taking sucralfate.
15. Answer: C. Has an unpleasant taste and can
be diluted with 15-30 ml of water.
Opium tincture is an oral liquid medication used to
control diarrhea. It has an unpleasant taste so it
should be diluted with 15-30 ml of water.
 Option A: Opium tincture
contains morphine which is a controlled
substance.
 Option B: Opium tincture should not be
used with medications like naltrexone and
buprenorphine because they increase
sedation and lower beneficial effect of
opium tincture.
 Option D: It is an antidiarrheal, so a
decrease motility and peristalsis is
expected.
16. Answer: D. “I can use mineral oil liquid for
an extended period to prevent further damage”.
Mineral oil liquid is a lubricant laxative that works by
slowing the absorption of water from the bowel,
which softens the stool. The use of mineral oil liquid
for a long time may result in loss of normal bowel
function.
 Options A, B, and C are true regarding
mineral oil.
17. Answer: A. Docusate Sodium (Colace).
 Option A is an example of surfactant
laxative.
18. Answer: B. Tegaserod (Zelnorm).
The use of tegaserod is restricted to patients with
IBS due to the serious cardiovascular adverse
effect that may happen such as heart
attack and stroke.
19. Answer: D. Keep bed in low position with
side rails up.
Antiemetics can cause drowsiness; hence the
priority nursing intervention is to protect the client
from injury such as raising the side rails and
keeping the bed in low position.
  Option A is not the most priority
intervention.

 Options B and C will risk the client for fall.

20. Answers: C. Polyethylene glycol and

electrolytes (GoLYTELY)., D. Sodium Phosphate
(Fleet enema).

Osmotics are used to attract water into the large

intestines to produce bulk and stimulate peristalsis.
Other osmotic are Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of
Magnesia) and Magnesium citrate (Citrate of
Magnesia).

 Options A and E are stimulants.

 Option B is a lubricant.
A: NurseLabs GASTRO 2 +Respi
1. Answer: A. Avoid ingesting alcohol.
Because alcohol and antihistamines have sedating
properties, concurrent administration of these drugs
should be avoided. Antihistamines and
decongestants are often given together.
Dry mouth is a common side effect, not increased
salivation. Not all antihistamines last 24 hours.
2. Answer: B. Meclizine
Meclizine (Antivert) is given for vertigo and motion
sickness. Choices C and D are not antihistamines.
Choice A is an antihistamine, but meclizine is the
standard drug in the treatment of vertigo.
3. Answer: C. Clients minimize the effects of
over-the-counter drugs because they are
available without prescription.
This choice is correct because it includes the other
three risks noted in choices A, B, and D.
4. Answer: D. relieve a dry cough.
An antitussive is a cough suppressant. Choices A
and C describe the action of an expectorant.
Choice D describes the action of a decongestant.
5. Answer: B. increase fluids.
Increasing fluids will help liquefy secretions and
facilitate removal.
6. Answer: B. Increased pulmonary function
Theophylline will improve ventilation so there will be
an overall improvement of pulmonary
measurements. Other choices are the opposite of
what will actually occur with theophylline
administration.
7. Answer: A. Cardiac disorder
A client with a heart condition may experience
dangerous stimulation from this drug. Theophylline
should be administered cautiously with all the other
choices, but consequences are most dangerous or
possibly fatal for clients with a heart condition.
8. Answer: D. Theophylline levels
Theophylline levels must be drawn to determine if
the drug is present in therapeutic amounts in the
client’s serum.
9. Answer: D. Cimetidine
Cimetidine will increase the effects of theophylline.
10. Answer: A. Antacids neutralize gastric acid.
Antacids act to bring the pH above 3. Other choices
are incorrect because they describe actions of
antiacid drugs.
11. Answer: A. metoclopramide
This is the only drug among the choices that is
indicated to prevent nausea.
12. Answer: A. ranitidine
Ranitidine decreases the effectiveness of sucralfate
because it decreases the acid content of gastric
secretion. Choice B is the trade name for
sucralfate. Choice C is a gastric stimulant that does
not alter pH. Choice D is an antihistamine and its
GI effect is antiemetic.
13. Answer: D. metoclopramide
A side effect of metoclopramide is EPS.
14. Answer: B. cimetidine
Cimetidine was the first histamine-2 antagonist
developed and is associated with the most toxic
drug interactions of the group.
15. Answer: C. histamine-2 antagonists
This is the only category of drugs that reduces the
volume of secretions.
16. Answer: C. Hyperosmotic agents
Hyperosmotic agents change the osmotic gradient
between the intestine and extravascular space
causing water to move into the intestinal lumen and
balance the gradient.
17. Answer: C. FiberCon
FiberCon is the bulk-forming agent. Choices A and
B are incorrect because they are hyperosmotic
agents. Choice D, meanwhile, is a saline laxative.
18. Answer: C. Saline laxatives with magnesium

Saline laxatives are the best agents for rapid bowel

cleansing. Bacid is an intestinal flora modifier. Bulk-
forming agents will not produce rapid cleansing.
Intestinal flora modifiers will not not produce rapid
cleansing as well.

19. Answer: A. Bulk-forming agents

Bulk-forming agents are used for diarrhea and

constipation.

20. Answer: D. castor oil

Castor oil is not recommended for treatment of

constipation because it causes such severe
abdominal pain.