IBPS Clerk Preliminary Test

TEST - I: ENGLISH LANGUAGE (Ques : 30 Marks : 30 Time : 20 M)

Directions (Qs. 1 – 10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the questions.​

Ecological ruin is on a ​gallop​ across South Asia, with life and livelihood of nearly a quarter of the world’s population affected. Yet, our
polities are able to neither ​fathom​ nor address the degradation. The distress is paramount in the northern half of the subcontinent, roping in
the swathe from the Brahmaputra basin to the Indus-Ganga plain.
Within each country, with politics dancing to the tune of populist consumerism, nature is without a guardian. The erosion of civility in
geopolitics keeps South Asian societies apart when people should be joining hands across borders to save our common ground. Because

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wildlife, disease vectors, aerosols and river flows do not respect national boundaries, the environmental trends must ​perforce​ be discussed at
the regional inter-country level. As the largest nation-state of our region, and the biggest polluter whose population is the most vulnerable,

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India needs to be alert to the dangerous drift. China has been resolutely tackling air pollution and promoting clean energy. But while Beijing’s
centralised governance mandates environmentalism-by-decree, the subcontinental realities demand civic participation for sustainability to

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work. Unfortunately, despite being a vast democracy where people power should be in the driving seat, the Indian state not only neglects its
own realm, it does not take the lead on cross-border environmentalism.
Thus, Bihar is helping destroy the Chure/Siwalik range of Nepal to feed the construction industry’s demand for boulders and

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conglomerate, even though this hurts Bihar itself through greater floods, desertification and aquifer depletion. Air pollution is strangling
the ​denizens ​of Lahore, New Delhi, Kathmandu and Dhaka alike, but there is no collaboration. Wildlife corridors across States, provinces and
countries are becoming constricted by the day, but we look the other way. The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) has chosen India to be the
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‘host country’ to mark World Environment Day today. But when will New Delhi rise to connect the dots between representative democracy and
ecological sanity?
Truth be told, the environment ministry is invariably the least empowered in the major countries of South Asia, without clout vis-à-vis
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line ministries, and unable to coordinate the ecological response. Governments were content once to regard environmental protection as
synonymous with wildlife protection. Today they stand unprepared when the challenges have greatly multiplied and deepened. There is
distress across the ecological spectrum, but one need only study the rivers and the atmosphere to track the inaction of governments and our
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weakened activism. On water, the subcontinent is running out of the resource due to the demands of industrialisation and urbanisation, and
continuation of the colonial-era irrigation model based on flooding the fields. The economic and demographic forces are arrayed against the
rivers and their right-of-way. In the hills, the Ganga in Uttarakhand and the Teesta of Sikkim are representative of rivers that have been
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converted into dry boulder tracts by ‘cascades’ of run-of-river hydroelectric schemes. The same​fate​ now threatens the rivers of Nepal and
India’s Northeast, while the tributaries of the Indus were ‘ ​done in​’ decades ago through water diversion.
Everywhere, natural drainage is destroyed by highways and railway tracks elevated above the flood line, and bunds encircling towns
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and cities. Reduced flows and urban/industrial effluents have converted our great rivers into sewers. We refuse to consider drip irrigation as a
solution just as we fail to acknowledge that the rivers are made to carry hundreds of tonnes of plastics daily into the Bay of Bengal and the
Arabian Sea. While underground aquifers are exploited to exhaustion, the popular ‘river-training’ prescription imprisons our rivers within
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embankments, according to the inherited Western engineering canon that does not factor in the natural silt carried by rivers of the Himalaya.
The would-be high-dam builders have not adequately studied the phenomenon of Himalayan cloudbursts, nor do they find it necessary to
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address the question: how do you de-silt a deep reservoir when it fills up with sand and mud?
As we have seen, the highs of environmental movements are invariably followed by lows, and so to exit the cycle what is needed is an
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“environmental system” inbuilt into the infrastructure of state and society. Work towards ecological sustainability must go beyond ritual, with
the path seeming to lie in the empowerment of local government all over. Elected representatives in cities and districts must be challenged to
emerge as the bulwark of environmentalism even as the provincial and national governments are asked to rise to their regulatory
responsibilities. When ‘organic environmentalism’ rises from the grassroots and makes state authority accountable, South Asia and its peoples
will be protected. At that point, no force will be able to stop activism across the frontiers and South Asia will begin to tackle pollution and
dislocation as one.
1. According to the passage, what is the drawback of the popular ‘river-training’ prescription under inherited Western engineering
canon?
(1) It doesn’t consider how to de-silt a deep reservoir when it fills up with sand and mud
(2) How to save natural drainage by highways and railway tracks elevated above the flood line
(3) It does not factor in the natural silt carried by rivers of the Himalaya.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(5) None of these
2. Why author finds the government responsible for the paced ecological imbalance and destruction?

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 (1) Government in each country is following the populist consumerism theory
(2) Government in countries are neither addressing the issue nor they are getting it.
(3) Government in countries are not taking the lead on cross-border environmentalism.
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
3. According to the passage why South Asian societies are unable to discuss the environmental trends at the regional inter-country
level?
(1) As polities are able to neither fathom nor address the degradation
(2) As formal politeness and courtesy in behavior or speech has totally vanished in geopolitics
(3) Today they stand unprepared when the challenges have greatly multiplied and deepened
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(5) None of these
4. Which of the following options explain the most suitable meaning of the phrasal verb ‘ ​done in​’ used?
(1) To make something happen (2) Extremely tired

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(3) Be unwilling to tolerate or be bothered with (4) In a situation so bad that it is impossible to get out
(5) None of these

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5. What are the reasons that the subcontinent is running out of the water resources?
(1) Industrialization and urbanization

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(2) Continuation of the old irrigation model based on flooding the fields
(3) By continuous use of run-of-river hydroelectric schemes
(4) Natural drainages are being destroyed by highways and railway tracks elevated above the flood line

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(5) All of the above
6. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.​
Gallop
(1) Amble
ra(2) Stroll (3) Crawl (4) Hasten (5) Lumber
7. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.​
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Fathom​
(1) Misinterpret (2) Misunderstand (3) Neglect (4) Guess (5) Understand
8. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.​
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Perforce​
(1) Inevitably (2) Unnecessarily (3) Subliminally (4) Equivocally (5) None of these
9. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.​
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Denizens​
(1) Inhabitant (2) Resident (3) Alien (4) Townsman (5) Native
10. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.​
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Fate​
(1) Influence (2) Misfortune (3) Chance (4) Destiny (5) Consequence
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Directions (Qs. 11 – 15): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words
denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3),(4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence
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to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.​

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11. He was able to ​__________​ Greek at the ​__________​ of eight.

(1) climb, height (2) read, age (3) watch, time (4) see, distance (5) invite, table
12. ___________​ three eggs into a ​__________​ and mix them together.
(1) store, box (2) cook, box (3) crack, bowl (4) throw, dustbin (5) cook, dustbin
13. After looking at the ​__________​ shoes of Rohan who came back from playing in the mud, his father told him that his shoes need a
good ​___________​.
(1) dirty, brush (2) clean, brush (3) stale, shoelaces (4) unkempt, shoelaces
(5) clean, shoelaces
14. Your essay gets a bit ​__________​ halfway through when you ​__________​ too many ideas at once.
(1) short, introduce (2) lengthy, delete (3) easy, pacify (4) violent, introduce
(5) confused, introduce
15. Ramesh had to ​__________​ back the tears when Sameeksha said she was ​__________​ her home-city for her master’s degree.
(1) earn, entering (2) go, leaving (3) remove, building (4) fight, leaving (5) earn, building

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Directions (Qs. 16 – 20): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into five parts with one of the parts of each sentence is highlighted
in bold suggesting the grammatically correct part of the sentence. Out of the four other parts, choose the part of the sentence which
contains grammatical or contextual error in it. If the given sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, choose
option (5) i.e., “No error” as your answer.​

16. The move will be cost (1)/ the government ₹12,134 crore, (2)/ rail minister Piyush Goyal said (3)/ after a meeting of the (4)/ ​Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)​.
17. The release of Manto (1)/ ​directed by Nandita Das​ / and with Nawazuddin Siddiqui in the lead (2)/, is momentous event in the life
(3)/ of the great Urdu writer’s family (4).
18. No wonder then that for some time now, (1)/ media and technology companies for the world (2)/ have looked at (3)/ ​Artificial
Intelligence (AI)-led algorithms /​ as the saviour—the demon-slayers (4).
19. Like every weekday (1)/ since the past two years, (2)/ ​she made her way​ / to platform number 7 (3)/ and waited for the
Churchgate-bound train from Virar (4).
20. All six writers (1)/ who made it to the finals (2)/ of the Booker’s prize (3)/ are from the UK, (4)/ ​the US, and Canada​.

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Directions (Qs. 21 – 25): Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions that follow.​

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(A) They slow respiration, focus the mind, and calm the emotions.
(B) Most importantly, they allow us to influence the flow of life-force in the body and mind.

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(C) The science of yoga has long recognized that breathing exercises can exert a powerful influence on the mind.
(D) The reason yoga techniques are so powerful is that they give us a means to control this subtle energy, called prana in Sanskrit.
(E) In fact, there are many different breathing techniques, pranayama: “control of subtle energy.”

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(F) Prana is finer than the electromagnetic forces of this physical universe. It is the primordial sea of energy from which the very
atoms emerge.
21. What should be the FOURTH sentence of the coherent paragraph?
(1) A
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(2) B (3) D (4) F (5) C
22. What should be the LAST sentence of the coherent paragraph?
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(1) F (2) A (3) C (4) D (5) E
23. What should be the SECOND sentence of the coherent paragraph?
(1) A (2) D (3) E (4) F (5) C
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24. What should be the THIRD sentence of the coherent paragraph?

(1) F (2) C (3) B (4) A (5) D
25. What should be the FIRST sentence of the coherent paragraph?
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(1) A (2) D (3) B (4) E (5) C

Directions (Qs. 26 – 30): In each of the following question a part of the sentence is highlighted which is grammatically incorrect . Choose the
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best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correction in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the
sentence is correct as it is, mark (5) i.e. "no replacement required" as the answer.​
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26. Will an individual's attempts to be kind, disciplined, and selfless even matter ​on long run​?
(I) in long run (II) for long run (III) in the long run
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(1) Only (I) (2) Only (II) (3) Only (III) (4) Both (I) and (II)
(5) No replacement required
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27. “I didn’t like your assignment ​but everybody’s else​”, the Mathematics teacher said to Rohan.
(I) but everybody else’s (II) but for everybody’s else (III) but on everybody’s else
(1) Only (I) (2) Both (II) and (III) (3) Both (I) and (III) (4) Both (I) and (II)
(5) No replacement required
28. Last year, ​day after day he donated a five-rupees note​ to the temple that was nearby his home.
(I) days after days he donated a five-rupees note (II) days after days he donates a five-rupee note
(III) day after day he donated a five-rupee note
(1) Only (I) (2) Only (III) (3) Both (I) and (II) (4) Only (II)
(5) No replacement required
29. You and I am a part​ of dancing group which will take part in the Annual Function.
(I) You and I am the part (II) You and I was the part (III) You and I are the part
(1) Only (I) (2) Only (II) (3) Both (I) and (II) (4) Only (III)
(5) No replacement required
30. Everybody knows that ​Sheila resigned from the job because she was interested in acting and wanted to pursue her interest.
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(I) Everybody know which (II) Everyone know that (III) Everyone know about
(1) Only (I) (2) Both (I) and (II) (3) Both (II) and (III) (4) Only (II)
(5) No replacement required

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 TEST - II: NUMERICAL ABILITY (Ques : 35 Marks : 35 Time : 20 M)
Directions (Qs. 31 – 35) : What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?​
31. 2, 4, 11, 37, ? , 771
(1) 148 (2) 147 (3) 151 (4) 153 (5) 155
32. 24, 12, 12, 24, ? , 408
(1) 96 (2) 84 (3) 88 (4) 92 (5) 100
33. 2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ?
(1) 122 (2) 127 (3) 135 (4) 125 (5) 132
34. 3, 8, 15, 24, ? , 48
(1) 34 (2) 35 (3) 36 (4) 37 (5) 38
35. 18, 18, 27, 54, ? , 405
(1) 120 (2) 125 (3) 130 (4) 135 (5) 140
Directions (Qs. 36 – 40) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. Give answer :​

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(1) Quantity I > Quantity II (2) Quantity I < Quantity II (3) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (4) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(5) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

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36. Ravi sent ‘X’ messages in a day, 20% in which sent to Ram. Out of remaining 25% sent to Shyam. Remaining messages sent to Rahul
and Gopal is in the ratio 4 : 5. Rahul got 24 message.
Quantity I:​ Value of ‘1.5X’

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Quantity II:​ ‘X + 35’
37. Area of a square of side 16 cm is same as area of a rectangle whose breadth is 8 cm.
Quantity I:​ Perimeter of square.

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Quantity II:​ Perimeter of rectangle.
38. Train ‘A’ can cross a pole in 20 seconds and a platform which is 60 m long in 25 seconds. Train ‘A’ can cross train ‘B’ coming from
opposite direction in 15 seconds. Ratio between speed of train ‘A’ to train ‘B’ is 2 : 3.
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Quantity I:​ Length of train ‘B’
Quantity II: ​Length of train ‘A’
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39. Probability of selecting one yellow ball out of a box consisting some yellow balls and some green balls is .
Quantity I:​ No. of yellow balls in box.
Quantity II:​ No. of green balls in box.
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40. Quantity I :​ Distance covered in upstream in 10.8 hours

Ratio of upstream speed to downstream speed is 1 : 11. If speed of boat in still water is 30 km/hr.
Quantity II :​ Find x.
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The time taken by a boat for covering ‘x – 18’ km upstream is equal to time taken by it for covering ‘x’ km downstream. Upstream
speed is 6 km/hr less than downstream speed and speed of boat in still water in 15 kmph.
Directions (Qs. 41 – 45) : Given chart shows the distribution of cost in percentage of making different part of a car.​
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Total Cost of Car = Cost of (Engine + Paint + Frame + Tyres + Seats + Glass)
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41. If selling price of the car is 5.5 lakh rupee and company earns 120% on it then find the cost on framing?
(1) Rs.9900 (2) Rs.67500 (3) Rs.75000 (4) Rs.66500 (5) None of these
42. Total cost on making glass is Rs. 24000 then what is the profit percent on selling a car, if profit earned is Rs.1.2 lakh?
(1) 20% (2) 32% (3) 22% (4) 25% (5) 30%
43. If total cost on engine is Rs.1.274 lakh, then what is the difference (in Rs.) in the cost of frame and glass respectively?
(1) 80080 (2) 99800 (3) 80800 (4) 32000 (5) 34000
44. Find the average cost on Glass, Paint and Frame if total cost on Seats is Rs. 48,000?
(1) 45,000 (2) 75,000 (3) 60,000 (4) 90,000 (5) None of these
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45. Find the ratio of the cost on paint and seats together to the total profit if ratio of total cost price to selling price of a car is 3:5?
(1) 63 : 100 (2) 63 : 200 (3) 33 : 500 (4) 63: 500 (5) 57 : 200
46. An amount of Rs. 4004 is to be distributed in the ratio 4 : 6 : 3. Find difference between share of person who got highest and who got
lowest.
(1) Rs. 924 (2) Rs. 800 (3) Rs. 876 (4) Rs. 900 (5) Rs. 1276
47. Arjun can complete a work alone in 12 days and with the help Tanya in 8 days. Find the number of days Tanya need to complete 75%
of the work.
(1) 10 days (2) 12 days (3) 18 days (4) 24 days (5) 36 days
48. While travelling in opposite direction, two trains of equal length crosses each other in 5 seconds. If the speed of trains are 72 km/hr
and 40 ms¯¹. Calculate the length of trains.
(1) 300 meter (2) 150 meter (3) 120 meter (4) 90 meter (5) None of these
49. What is the probability of selecting a black king from a packet of 52 cards.
(1) 1/13 (2) 1/12 (3) 1/24 (4) 1/26 (5) 3/52
50. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. Find the ratio of radius of sphere to side of cube.
(1) √21 :2 √11 (2) 21 : 44 (3) 14 : 42 (4) 17 : 46 (5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 51 – 55) : Calculate the approximate value of (?) in the given questions.​

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51. 363.72 – 269.21 + 49.987 × 11.89 ÷ (19.9% of 80.1) = ?
(1) 118 (2) 139 (3) 124 (4) 133 (5) 142

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52.
(1) 18 (2) 22 (3) 29 (4) 35 (5) 20

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53. (21.97% of 899.5) + ? + (39.77% of 309.76) = 481
(1) 117 (2) 189 (3) 159 (4) 195 (5) 205
54. 9.89% of 650.11 + 32.1 × 2799 ÷ 399.8 – ? = 155

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(1) 134 (2) 117 (3) 142 (4) 151 (5) 111
55.
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 11 (5) 13
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Directions (Qs. 56 – 60) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. Give answer :​
Aakash, Disha and Malik, owner of 3 different shops in Connaught palace, sits and discuss their monthly business. Each of them pay
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rent of Rs. 1.2 lakhs for their shops. Respective ratio of salaries given by them to workers is in 4 : 5 : 6. Profit for everyone is calculated after
deducting their monthly rent and salaries of workers from their total revenue. Highest profit was earned by Disha, i.e. Rs. 520000. Revenue of
Malik was 120% of revenue of Aakash. Aakash gave salary of Rs. 48000 to his workers and his profit was 188000 less than profit of Disha.
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56. What is difference between revenue of Disha and profit of Aakash?

(1) 2.12 lakh (2) 3.90 lakh (3) 3.68 lakh (4) 4.05 lakh (5) None of these
57. Profit earned by Malik is how much more than salary given by him to his workers?
(1) 3.36 lakh (2) 2.96 lakh (3) 3.56 lakh (4) 4.12 lakh (5) None of these
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58. Revenue earned by Disha is what % more or less than the Revenue earned by Aakash?

(1) 60% (2) (3) 30% (4) 40% (5)

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59. Profit earned by Disha is what % more than the revenue earned by Aakash.
(1) 0.4% (2) 4% (3) 40% (4) 44% (5) None of these
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60. If the revenue of Aakash increased by 60% and he increased salary of his workers to 1 lakh. Find his new profit if rent remains
constant.
(1) 7 lakhs (2) 5.8 lakhs (3) 5.32 lakhs (4) 4.32 lakhs (5) 6.32 lakhs
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Directions (Qs. 61 – 65) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?​
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61.

(1) (2) 32 (3) (4) (5)

62.
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 13 (5) 16
63.
(1) 271 (2) 261 (3) 251 (4) 281 (5) 291

64.
(1) 21 (2) 25 (3) 31 (4) 28 (5) 29

65.
(1) 5 (2) 6.5 (3) 5.5 (4) 4.5 (5) 4
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 TEST - III: REASONING ABILITY (Ques : 35 Marks : 35 Time : 20 M)
Directions (Q. 66-69): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.​
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 65 98 57 12 33 41 89 6​
Step I:​ 7 65 57 12 33 41 89 97
Step II:​ 13 7 65 57 33 41 97 88
Step III:​ 34 13 7 57 41 97 88 64
Step IV:​ 42 34 13 7 97 88 64 56
Step IV, is the last step
Input:​ 31 46 8 95 23 78 19 63
66. What is the total sum of the third element from the right in step III and the first element from the left in step IV?

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(1) 150 (2) 126 (3) 168 (4) 145 (5) None of these
67. In which of the following step ‘31 46 94’ found in the same order?
(1) Step III (2) Step I (3) Step IV (4) Step II (5) No such step exists

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68. Which element comes exactly between ‘9’ and ‘77’ in Step IV of the given input?
(1) 32 (2) 19 (3) 94 (4) 47 (5) 9 and 62

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69. Which of the following will be the step III?
(1) 24 9 20 31 46 94 77 62 (2) 24 20 9 31 94 46 77 62
(3) 24 20 8 31 46 94 77 62 (4) 24 20 9 31 46 94 77 62 (5) None of these

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70. There are five persons i.e. F, G, H, I and J. If G is taller than H and J but smaller than F. I is smaller than H, who is not the second
smallest. Then who is the third tallest person among all?
(1) J ra (2) G (3) F (4) H (5) None of these
Directions (Q. 71-75): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:​
Seven boxes S, P, L, Q, R, M and I are place one above the other in any particular order. Box no. 1 is at the bottom and box no. 7 is at
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the top. Three boxes placed between I and M. M placed on the place above S, which does not place on an odd-numbered place. P is neither
placed on odd number place nor on topmost place. I does not placed on bottom place. Two boxes placed between R and S. Q placed neither on
the bottom nor on the fourth place. Box M is not placed on top place.
71. Which box placed on just above M?
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(1) L (2) P (3) Q (4) R (5) None of these

72. How many boxes between L and P?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Can’t be determined
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73. Which of the following pairs of boxes placed on bottom most and the topmost place respectively?
(1) L, Q (2) Q, P (3) I, Q (4) L, I (5) Can’t be determined
74. Which of the following box is placed on the topmost place?
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(1) I (2) Q (3) P (4) L (5) None of these

75. Which of the following combinations is true?
(1) 1-S (2) 4-R (3) 3-M (4) 6-I (5) None of these
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Directions (Q. 76-80): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:​
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There are seven friends i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F and G who all lives in a multi storey building such that ground floor is numbered 1 and
above it is numbered 2 and so on till the last floor which is numbered 7.
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Only two person lives between D and E. D lives on an odd number floor. Only one person sits between C and D. Only two person sits
between C and F. Only two persons live between G and F. B lives one of the floor below A. More than Three person lives between G and A.
76. C lives on which of the following floor?
(1) 3rd Floor (2) 2nd Floor (3) 7th Floor (4) 1st Floor (5) None of these
77. Who among the following lives on the second floor?
(1) F (2) A (3) G (4) E (5) None of these
78. How many persons lives above the floor on which B lives?
(1) No One (2) Two (3) One (4) Four (5) None of these
79. Which of the following statement is true regarding D?
(1) D lives immediately above F. (2) A live immediately below D’s Floor.
(3) D lives one of the floor below G. (4) C lives one of the floor below D.
(5) All are True.
80. Four of the following given five belongs to a group find the one that does not belongs to that group?
(1) B (2) A (3) G (4) C (5) D

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Directions (Q. 81-83): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.​
P € Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’. P π Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’.
P £ Q means ‘P is the daughter of Q’. P ¥ Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’.
81. P € Q π R £ S ¥ T, then how is S related to Q?
(1) Father in law (2) Brother (3) Mother in law (4) Son (5) Father
82. If the expression A £ B € D ¥ F π C, then which of the following is true?
(1) A is brother of F (2) B is father of F (3) C is mother of D (4) D is brother-in-law of C
(5) None of these
83. Which of the following expression shows, M is daughter-in-law of D?
(1) A £ D π K € Q π M (2) A £ D ¥ K € M π Q (3) M ¥ K £ Q π D € A (4) D € K ¥ M £ Q ¥ A
(5) None of these
84. How many such pair of letters are there in the word ‘ ​AMALGAMATION​’ each of them as many as letters between them as they have
according to the alphabetical order?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (5) None of these
85. Which of the following words cannot be formed with the help of the letters of ‘ ​OVERWHELMING’​?

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(1) Where (2) View (3) White (4) Lime (5) None of these
Directions (Q. 86-90): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.​

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Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line. Some of them face north while some of them face south direction.
M sits third to the right of L who sits one of the extreme end of the row. Only two persons sit between M and P. S sits third to the right of N

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who sits second to the left of R. P is facing same direction as M but opposite to O who sits immediate right of Q. R is facing south and is not an
immediate neighbour of M. O sits third to the left of S. Q is facing opposite direction to M.
86. Who amongst the following is sitting exactly between Q and P?
(1) L (2) N (3) S (4) M (5) O

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87. Who amongst the following is sits third to the left of Q?
(1) P (2) O (3) L (4) R (5) M
88. Four of the following are alike in a certain way so form a group, which among the following does not belong to that group?
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(1) L (2) M (3) S (4) R (5) P
89. How many people sit between L and R?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) None (4) Two (5) One
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90. Who among the following sits fourth to the right of N?
(1) L (2) S (3) O (4) Q (5) M
Directions (Q. 91-95): These questions are based on the following alphabet and digit series.
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D5PKL8ZMCI6OQUE1TNR4GBA9FSW2HJV7YX3
91. How many digits are there in above arrangement which is immediately followed by vowel?
(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Three (5) None
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92. If all the vowels are deleted from the above arrangement, then which of the following letter/digit is 10th to left of 5th from the right
end?
(1) R (2) 4 (3) G (4) 9 (5) None of these
93. Which of the following letter/digit is 7th to the right of 13th from the right end?
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(1) A (2) 2 (3) H (4) 9 (5) None of these

94. How many consonants are there in above arrangement which is immediately preceded by consonant and immediately followed by
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vowel?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (5) None
95. Four of the following five belong to a group in a certain way, find which of the one does not belong to the group?
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(1) O4 (2) 5X (3) K7 (4) M2 (5) 8J

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Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:​
Eight friends S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing
inside while some are facing outside. W sits third to the left of V. Two friends sit between W and U, who facing same side as W. Z sits third to
the right of Y. Z does not sit near to V. S does not face V. Y sits immediate right of U. S sits immediate right of X, who facing same direction as
W. T does not sit near to U. Z and T facing same side as Y. T does not face inside the circle.
96. Who among the following sits between W and T?
(1) Z (2) S (3) Y (4) T (5) None of these
97. Who among the following sits opposite to Z?
(1) S (2) X (3) T (4) U (5) None of these
98. Four of the following five belong to a group in a certain way, find which of the one does not belong to that group?
(1) Z (2) X (3) T (4) S (5) Y
99. How many friends sit between T and Y, when counted clockwise direction from Y?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None
100. What is the position of S with respect to U?
(1) Third to the right (2) Third to the left (3) Second to the right (4) Immediate left (5) Immediate right

8

ANSWER KEY
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS
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1. (3) Option (3) is the correct answer choice. Option (3) can
be traced from the 5th paragraph of passage where it is
stated as “While underground aquifers are exploited to
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exhaustion, the popular ‘river-training’ prescription
imprisons our rivers within embankments, according to
the inherited Western engineering canon that does not
factor in the natural silt carried by rivers of the
.e
Himalaya.”
2. (4) Option (4) is the correct answer choice. Option (2) can
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be traced from the 1st paragraph of passage where it is
stated as “Ecological ruin is on a gallop across South Asia,
with life and livelihood of nearly a quarter of the world’s
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population affected. Yet, our polities are able to neither
fathom nor address the degradation.” Option (1) is
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stated in the first line of 2nd paragraph “Within each
country, with politics dancing to the tune of populist
consumerism, nature is without a guardian.” Option (3)
can be traced from the last line of the 2nd paragraph
where it is stated as “Unfortunately, despite being a vast
democracy where people power should be in the driving
seat, the Indian state not only neglects its own realm, it
does not take the lead on cross-border
environmentalism.”
3. (2) Option (2) is the correct answer choice. Option (2) can
be traced from the 2nd paragraph of passage where it is
stated as “The erosion of civility in geopolitics keeps
South Asian societies apart when people should be
joining hands across borders to save our common
ground.”
4. (2) option (2) is the most suitable answer choice.
‘Done in’- extremely tired.
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5. (5) option (5) is the most suitable answer choice as all the
given statements are true. Option (1), (2) and (3) can be
traced from the 4th paragraph where it is given as “On
water, the subcontinent is running out of the resource
due to the demands of industrialization and
urbanization, and continuation of the colonial-era
irrigation model based on flooding the fields. The
economic and demographic forces are arrayed against
the rivers and their right-of-way. In the hills, the Ganga
in Uttarakhand and the Teesta of Sikkim are
representative of rivers that have been converted into
dry boulder tracts by ‘cascades’ of run-of-river
hydroelectric schemes.” Option (4) can be traced from
the 5th paragraph where it is given as “Everywhere,
natural drainage is destroyed by highways and railway
tracks elevated above the flood line, and bunds
encircling towns and cities. Reduced flows and
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urban/industrial effluents have converted our great
rivers into sewers.”
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6. (4) Option (4) is the best answer choice here.
Gallop- a very fast pace of running
All the given options are the antonyms of the given word
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‘gallop’ except option (4)
7. (5) Option (5) is the best answer choice here.
Fathom-understand (a difficult problem or an enigmatic
person) after much thought
All the given options are different in meaning except
‘understand’
8. (1) Perforce- used to express necessity or inevitability.
Subliminally- below the threshold of sensation or
consciousness
Equivocally- in a deliberately ambiguous or questionable
way
Option (1) is the best answer choice here.
9. (3) Denizens- a person, animal, or plant that lives or is found
in a particular place
All the given options are the synonyms of the given word
‘denizen’ except option (3), ‘alien’
10. (2) Fate- the development of events outside a person's
control, regarded as predetermined by a supernatural
power.
All the given options are either the synonyms or
altogether different in meaning to the given word ‘fate’,
except option (2).
11. (2) What is ‘Greek’? Is it something on which someone
could climb? Is it something which could be watched? Is
it something which could be seen? Is it which could be
invited? Or Is it something which could be read?
Greek has two meanings: one denotes the name of a
Language, and the other denotes the name for the
citizens of the Greece.
So, among the options, the two contenders for the
correct answer are the options (2) and (5). Now, if
‘Greek’ is a common name attributed to a singular
person, then it should be preceded by an article which is
missing. The word ‘Greek’ can’t be plural because the
word itself is a singular. Hence, the option (5) is also
ruled out.
Hence, the correct answer is the option (2).
12. (3) Three eggs can be cracked into a bowl, thrown into a
dustbin, stored into a box, but they can’t be cooked into
a dustbin or cooked into a box. So, the options (2) and
(5) are ruled out. Now, among the options (1), (3) and
(4), selection of the correct word will be made through
analyzing the phrase ‘mix them together’. Storing (or
throwing) three eggs into a box (or a dustbin) and mixing
 them together don’t make sense. So, the options (1) and
(4) are also ruled out.
Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.
13.(1) What would happen to shoes worn by someone playing
in the mud? The shoes would get dirty.
If the shoes are dirty, what they would need? They
would need a good brush.
Hence, the correct answer is the option (1).
14. (5) Neither the options (1), (2), (3) nor (4), upon filling the
blanks, makes a contextually meaningful sentence.
In each of the case, either the words are irrelevant or
one of the word, upon filling the blank, contradicts the
other word.
The correct answer is the option (5).
15. (4) The options (1), (2), (3) and (5) are completely irrelevant
and out-of-context.
Among the given options, the correct answer is the
option (4) because the words ‘fight, leaving’ are the
most relevant and appropriate words.
16. (1) There is an error in the part (A). The erroneous phrase is
‘will be’. The correct phrase will be ‘will cost’. So, the
correct answer is option (1).
17. (4) There is an error in the part (D), and the erroneous part
is ‘is momentous event’. The correct phrase would be ‘is
a momentous event’. ‘Momentous event’ is a
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noun-phrase (noun type- common noun) and should be
preceded by an article.
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).
18. (2) There is an error in the part (B), and the error is in the
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phrase ‘companies for the world’. Incorrect preposition
‘for’ is used in the phrase. The correct preposition to be
used is ‘around’.
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Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
19. (2) There is an error in the part (B) of the sentence, and the
erroneous phrase is ‘since the past two years’. The usage
of ‘since’ is ​incorrect​, and the correct word to be used
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here is ‘ ​for’​ ​.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
20. (5) The given sentence is grammatically correct and
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contextually meaningful. The correct answer is option
(5).
21. (2) The correct sequence of sentences for the coherent
paragraph is CEABDF.
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The sentence (C) provides the theme of the passage
which is ‘importance of breathing exercises in Yoga’. The
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sentence (C) should be the first sentence of the coherent
paragraph.
The sentence (C) introduces the term ‘breathing
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exercises’, while the sentence (E) talks about ‘different
types of breathing techniques, ‘pranayama’ is one of
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them’. The sentence (A) provides what happens in a
breathing exercise. Talking about different types of
breathing exercises and then, telling about what
happens in a breathing exercise is more coherent than
first telling about what happens in a breathing exercise
and then, talking about different types of breathing
exercises. Now, the sentence (E) should be the second
sentence of the coherent paragraph and the sentence
(A) should be the THIRD sentence of the coherent
paragraph. The sentence (B) further talks about or
qualifies the information presented in the sentence (A).
So, the sentence (B) should be the FOURTH sentence of
the coherent paragraph.
The sentence (D) introduces a new aspect to the passage
and introduces the term ‘Prana’ which is further
elaborated by the sentence (F). So, the sentence (D)
should be the FIFTH sentence of the coherent paragraph,
10
and the sentence (F) should be the SIXTH sentence of the
coherent paragraph.
Hence, the final sequence for the coherent paragraph is
CEABDF.
So, the option (2) is the correct answer.
22. (1) The correct sequence of sentences for the coherent
paragraph is CEABDF.
The sentence (C) provides the theme of the passage
which is ‘importance of breathing exercises in Yoga’. The
sentence (C) should be the first sentence of the coherent
paragraph.
The sentence (C) introduces the term ‘breathing
exercises’, while the sentence (E) talks about ‘different
types of breathing techniques, ‘pranayama’ is one of
them’. The sentence (A) provides what happens in a
breathing exercise. Talking about different types of
breathing exercises and then, telling about what
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happens in a breathing exercise is more coherent than
first telling about what happens in a breathing exercise
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and then, talking about different types of breathing
exercises. Now, the sentence (E) should be the second
sentence of the coherent paragraph and the sentence
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(A) should be the THIRD sentence of the coherent
paragraph. The sentence (B) further talks about or
qualifies the information presented in the sentence (A).
So, the sentence (B) should be the FOURTH sentence of
the coherent paragraph.
The sentence (D) introduces a new aspect to the passage
and introduces the term ‘Prana’ which is further
elaborated by the sentence (F). So, the sentence (D)
should be the FIFTH sentence of the coherent paragraph,
and the sentence (F) should be the SIXTH sentence of the
coherent paragraph.
Hence, the final sequence for the coherent paragraph is
CEABDF.
So, the option (1) is the correct answer.
23. (3) The correct sequence of sentences for the coherent
paragraph is CEABDF.
The sentence (C) provides the theme of the passage
which is ‘importance of breathing exercises in Yoga’. The
sentence (C) should be the first sentence of the coherent
paragraph.
The sentence (C) introduces the term ‘breathing
exercises’, while the sentence (E) talks about ‘different
types of breathing techniques, ‘pranayama’ is one of
them’. The sentence (A) provides what happens in a
breathing exercise. Talking about different types of
breathing exercises and then, telling about what
happens in a breathing exercise is more coherent than
first telling about what happens in a breathing exercise
and then, talking about different types of breathing
exercises. Now, the sentence (E) should be the second
sentence of the coherent paragraph and the sentence
(A) should be the THIRD sentence of the coherent
paragraph. The sentence (B) further talks about or
qualifies the information presented in the sentence (A).
So, the sentence (B) should be the FOURTH sentence of
the coherent paragraph.
The sentence (D) introduces a new aspect to the passage
and introduces the term ‘Prana’ which is further
elaborated by the sentence (F). So, the sentence (D)
should be the FIFTH sentence of the coherent paragraph,
and the sentence (F) should be the SIXTH sentence of the
coherent paragraph.
Hence, the final sequence for the coherent paragraph is
CEABDF.
So, the option (3) is the correct answer.
24. (4) The correct sequence of sentences for the coherent
paragraph is CEABDF.
The sentence (C) provides the theme of the passage
which is ‘importance of breathing exercises in Yoga’. The
sentence (C) should be the first sentence of the coherent
paragraph.
The sentence (C) introduces the term ‘breathing
exercises’, while the sentence (E) talks about ‘different
types of breathing techniques, ‘pranayama’ is one of
them’. The sentence (A) provides what happens in a
breathing exercise. Talking about different types of
breathing exercises and then, telling about what
happens in a breathing exercise is more coherent than
first telling about what happens in a breathing exercise
and then, talking about different types of breathing
exercises. Now, the sentence (E) should be the second
sentence of the coherent paragraph and the sentence
Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.
27. (1) The apostrophe ‘s with everybody is wrong because of
the presence of the word ‘else’. Now, the ‘s should be
used with the ‘else’.
Among the given alternatives, the alternative (I) is
correct and hence, option (1) is the correct answer.
28. (2) In the construction ‘Noun + Preposition + Noun’, both
the nouns neighboring the preposition should be
singular nouns. So, there is no error in the phrase ‘day
after day’. But, there is an error in the phrase
‘five-rupees note’. In the phrase, ‘five-rupees’ is an
adjective, not noun. So, the word ‘rupees’ should be
singular. The correct phrase should be ‘five-rupee’.
Among the given alternatives, the correct alternative is
the alternative (III) and hence, the correct answer is
option (2).
29. (4) The highlighted phrase is erroneous. The use of the

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(A) should be the THIRD sentence of the coherent article ‘a’ is wrong. The correct article to be used is ‘the’.
paragraph. The sentence (B) further talks about or Moreover, the use of the helping ‘am’ is incorrect

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qualifies the information presented in the sentence (A). because when two pronouns are joined by a conjunction
So, the sentence (B) should be the FOURTH sentence of ‘and’, the verb will be plural.
the coherent paragraph. The correct phrase will be ‘You and I are the part’, so the

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The sentence (D) introduces a new aspect to the passage alternative (III) is correct and hence, the option (4) is the
and introduces the term ‘Prana’ which is further correct answer.
elaborated by the sentence (F). So, the sentence (D) 30. (5) The highlighted phrase is grammatically correct and

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should be the FIFTH sentence of the coherent paragraph, doesn’t required further correction. In sentences where
and the sentence (F) should be the SIXTH sentence of the the subject is ‘everybody, somebody, nobody, anybody,
coherent paragraph. someone, no one, everyone, anyone, everything,
Hence, the final sequence for the coherent paragraph is something, nothing, anything’, the verb is singular.
CEABDF.
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So, the option (4) is the correct answer.
25. (5) The correct sequence of sentences for the coherent 31. (4)
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paragraph is CEABDF.
The sentence (C) provides the theme of the passage
which is ‘importance of breathing exercises in Yoga’. The 32. (2)
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sentence (C) should be the first sentence of the coherent

paragraph.
The sentence (C) introduces the term ‘breathing
exercises’, while the sentence (E) talks about ‘different
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types of breathing techniques, ‘pranayama’ is one of

them’. The sentence (A) provides what happens in a
breathing exercise. Talking about different types of
breathing exercises and then, telling about what
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33. (5)
happens in a breathing exercise is more coherent than
first telling about what happens in a breathing exercise
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and then, talking about different types of breathing

exercises. Now, the sentence (E) should be the second
sentence of the coherent paragraph and the sentence
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(A) should be the THIRD sentence of the coherent

paragraph. The sentence (B) further talks about or
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qualifies the information presented in the sentence (A). 34. (2)

So, the sentence (B) should be the FOURTH sentence of
the coherent paragraph.
The sentence (D) introduces a new aspect to the passage 35. (4)
and introduces the term ‘Prana’ which is further
elaborated by the sentence (F). So, the sentence (D)
should be the FIFTH sentence of the coherent paragraph,
and the sentence (F) should be the SIXTH sentence of the
coherent paragraph.
Hence, the final sequence for the coherent paragraph is
CEABDF.
So, the option (5) is the correct answer. 36. (1)
26. (3) The usage of the preposition ‘on’ is incorrect as per the
context of the question. Moreover, an article is missing
before the noun-phrase ‘long run’.
Among the given options, only alternative (III) is the
correct phrase to replace the highlighted part.
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 44. (4)

37.(2)

45. (2)

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46. (1)

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38. (2)

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39. (1)
ra 47. (3)
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40. (5)
ad

48. (2)
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49. (4)
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w
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50. (1)

41. (2) 51. (4)

42. (4)

43. (1) 52. (3)

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 66-69. Let us understand the logic behind the given machine
Input.
In each step numbers are arranged from the both ends
53. (3) in each step. In the first step the lowest number is
arranged on the left end after addition of 1 and the
highest number is arranged from the right end after
subtraction of 1 and in the second step second lowest
number is arranged at the left end after the addition of 1
54.(1)
and the second higest number is arranged from the right
end after subtraction of 1 and so on till the last step.
Input:​ 31 46 8 95 23 78 19 63
Step I:​ 9 31 46 23 78 19 63 94
55. (5) Step II:​ 20 9 31 46 23 63 94 77
Step III: ​24 20 9 31 46 94 77 62
Step IV: ​32 24 20 9 94 77 62 45
66. (2) 67. (1)
68. (3) 69. (4)

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70. (4) F>G>H>J>I

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56-60.
56. (3) Revenue of Disha = 7 lakhs

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Profit o Aakash = 3.32 lakh
Required difference = (7 – 3.32) lakhs = 3.68 lakhs
57. (1) Profit of Malik = Rs. 4.08 71-75.
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Salary given by Malik = Rs. 72000 71. (2) 72. (3)
Required difference = 408000 – 72000 = 3.36 lakhs 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (3)
76-80. Only two person lives between D and E. D lives on an
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odd number floor. Only one person sits between C and
D. Only two person sits between C and F.
58. (4)
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59. (2)
Only two persons lives between G and F. So, from this
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statement Case 1, case 2, case 4 and case 6 gets

60. (2) eliminated. More than Three person lives between G and
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A.
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61. (1)
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62. (4)
B lives one of the floor below A. So, case 5 gets
eliminated and we get our final arrangement.
63. (2)

64. (1)

65. (5) 76. (3) 77. (4)

78. (4) 79. (1) 80. (2)
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 Z sits third to the right of Y. Z does not sit near to V. S sits
immediate right of X, who facing same direction as W. By
these conditions Case- 1 and Case- 3 are cancelled.
81. (1) Case-2 and Case-4 will be continued.

82. (4)

83. (1)

84. (2)
85. (3) ‘White’ because T alphabet is not in ‘OVERWHELMING’.
86-90. (i)- M sits third to the right of L who sits one of the
extreme end of the row. Only two persons sit between

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M and P.

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T does not sit near to U. So, Case-2 and Case-4a will be
(ii)- S sits third to the right of N who sits second to the eliminated. Rest continued….
left of R. R is facing south and is not an immediate

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neighbour of M. O sits third to the left of S. By using
these conditions case-2 will be eliminated. P is facing
same direction as M but opposite to O who sits
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immediate right of Q who is facing opposite direction to
M. Hence M and P are facing north direction and O faces
south. The final arrangement is-
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Z and T facing same side as Y. T does not face inside the
circle. So, case-4 will be eliminated. So the final
86. (3) 87. (4) arrangement will be-
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88. (4) 89. (1) 90. (5)

91. (3) ‘ ​6 O​’
92. (2) D 5 P K L 8 Z M C 6 Q 1 T N R ​4​ G B 9 F S W 2 H J V 7 Y X 3
10th +5th = 15th from right = ​4​
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93. (5) 13th -7th = 6th from right = ​J​

94. (3) ‘ ​M C I​’, ‘ ​G B A​’
95. (1) At same position from left and right-side letter/digit
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taken like 5 X, 5 is 2nd from left and X is second from

right.
96-100. W sits third to the left of V. Two friends sit between W 96. (1)
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and U, who facing same side as W. Y sits immediate right 97. (4)
of U. From these conditions there will be some possible 98. (4)
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cases- 99. (1)

100. (4)
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Prepared by RACE Institute, Hyderabad

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