Name: FUDERANAN, DUANE DELL A.

BSMEN
Instructor: ENGR. Virgilio A. Ramos
ME156 * Take Home Exam (Exam # 3) *

Instructions:

• Work independently
• Select your answer by writing the uppercase of the letter of your chose below each problem
then explain. Sample:
1. Which of the elements has more than one mole in water?
a. Hydrogen b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. carbon
Änswer: A. Water has two moles of hydrogen and only one mole of oxygen.

1. What is the critical point of steam generation in a “once through” boiler?

a) 221.5 bar b) 221.4 bar c) 221.3 bar d) 221.2 bar
Answer: D
A steam generation in a “once through” boiler is at a critical point of 221.2 bar.

2. Apart from feedheating, what should a plant have to obtain a gain in thermal efficiency?
a) Lubrication b) Differential heating c) Reheating cycles d) Regenerative cycle
Answer: C
To obtain a gain in thermal cycle efficiency, apart from the feedheating, there should be
multiple number of reheats. As The reheat cycle increases the turbine work and consequently
the net work of the cycle. This is accomplished not by changing the compressor work or the
turbine inlet temperature but instead by dividing the turbine expansion into two or more parts
with constant pressure heating before each expansion

3. The increment in thermal efficiency compared to the corresponding Subcritical cycle is gained at
the expanse of?
a) compactness of the plant b) simplicity of the plant c) complexity of the plant
d) expanse of the plant

Answer: C
The expanse of complexity of the plant is gained in the increment in thermal efficiency
compared to the corresponding Subcritical cycles. Naturally, the more the complexity of the
plant, the more of this increment.

4. Which of the following needs to be incorporated to prevent the low pressure turbine exhaust
wetness from being excessive?
a) Double regeneration b) Double carnotization c) Double reheat d) Double cooling
Answer: C
Incorporating double reheat is one way to prevent the low pressure turbine exhaust
wetness from being excessive.

5. In a typical layout of a 215MW reheat power plant, the feed in the boiler is at?
a) 280 degree Centigrade b) 230 degree Centigrade c) 238 degree Centigrade
d) 250 degree Centigrade
Answer: C
In a typical layout of a 215MW reheat power plant, the feed in the boiler is at 238 degree
Centigrade.

6. Steam is generated in a _____________ boiler at a pressure above the critical point.

a) simple b) once through c) superficial d) thrice through
Answer: B
The steam generation in a supercritical pressure cycle is in a once through boiler when
the steam is heated at a pressure above the critical point.

7. The input to the deaerator is from a __________ pressure feedwater heater.

a) high b) low c) medium d) none of the mentioned
Answer: B
The deaerator input is at low pressure feedwater heater and so the working of the
deaerator comes into play, A deaerator is a device that removes oxygen and other dissolved
gases from water, such as feedwater for steam-generating boilers.

8. The input to the low pressure feedwater heater is from?

a) Drain heater b) Drain cooler c) Drain pipe d) None of the mentioned
Answer: B
The input to the low pressure feedwater heater comes from the drain cooler which the
goes to the deaerator.

9. In a glass rube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water space
and the other end is connected to
a) chimney b) water space c) steam space d) super heater
Answer: C
In a glass rube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water
space and the other end is connected to the steam space.

10. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the fire
grate of the furnace is called
a) chimney draught b) induced steam jet draught c) forced steam jet draught
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: B
The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the
fire grate of the furnace is called induced steam jet draught.

11. Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam consumption
per hour and
a) brake power b) indicated power c) pressure of steam d) efficiency
Answer: B
Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam
consumption per hour and indicated power.

12. The natural draught is produced by

a) chimney b) centrifugal fan c) steam jet d) none of the mentioned
Answer: A
The natural draught is produced by chimney.

13. Which of the following statement is wrong?

a) Water tube boilers are internally fired b) Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler
c) La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler d) All of the mentioned
Answer: D
All the mentioned statement are wrong as water-tube boilers are externally fired,
locomotive boiler isn’t a water-tube boiler & La-mont boiler is a high pressure boiler.
14. An air preheater is installed
a) between the economiser and chimney b) before the superheater
c) before the economizer d) none of the mentioned

Answer: A
The installation of an air pre-heater is between the economiser & the chimney.

15. Which of the following statement is correct for a compound steam engine?
a) The forces in the working parts are increased as the forces are distributed over more parts
b) The cost of the engine, for the same power and economy, is more than that of a simple steam
engine
c) The temperature range per cylinder is increased, with corresponding increase in condensation
d) The ratio of expansion is reduced, thus reducing the length of stroke
Answer: D
When the ratio of expansion is reduced, the length of stroke is reduced in a compound
steam engine.

16. The length of shell of a Locomotive boiler is

a) 2m b) 3m c) 4m d) 6m
Answer: C
The shell of a locomotive boiler has a length of 4m

17. The function of a flywheel is

a) to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion
b) to prevent fluctuation of speed
c) to keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions
d) to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
Answer: B
Flywheel is employed to prevent fluctuation of speed.

18. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is?

a) 1.5m b) 1m c) 2m d) 2.5m

Answer: A

The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is 1.5 m.

19. Having two separate units for process heat and power is?
a) useful b) useless c) pollution reducing d) none of the mentioned

Answer: B

Having two separate units for process heat & power is wasteful, for of the total heat
supplied to the steam generator for power purposes, a greater part will normally be carried
away by the cooling water in the condenser.
20. A plant producing both, electrical power & process heat simultaneously is?
a) Cogenital plant b) Cogenerial plant c) Cogeneration plant
d) Conglomerate plant
Answer: C
Cogeneration plant is defined as a plant which produces electrical power and processes
heat simultaneously.
21. In a back pressure turbine?
a) pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the
temperature desired in the process
b) pressure at the entrance of the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the
temperature desired in the process
c) pressure at the exhaust from the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the
pressure desired in the process
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: A
The name back pressure turbine is given because pressure at the exhaust from the
turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature desired in the process.

22. In a by-product power cycle?

a) the power is produced initially b) power production is in the middle stages of the cycle
c) power production is after the cycle has ended d) none of the mentioned
Answer: C
When the process steam is the basic need, and the power is produced incidentally as a
by-product, the cycle is often called as the by-product power cycle.

23. Back pressure turbines are usually _________________ with respect to their power output.
a) large b) small c) very large d) very small
Answer: B
Back pressure turbines are usually small with respect to their power output because they
have no great volume of exhaust to cope with, the density being high.

24. In terms of cost per MW compared to condensing sets of the same power, the back pressure
turbines are?
a) more expensive b) cheaper c) costly d) none of the mentioned
Answer: B
Back pressure turbines are usually small with respect to their power output because they
have no great volume of exhaust to cope with, the density being high. They are usually single
cylinder and hence, usually cheaper in terms of cost per MW.

25. Which of these is not an application of back pressure turbine?

a) desalination of sea water b) filtration of water c) process industries
d) petrochemical installations
Answer: B

The applications of back pressure turbine are desalination of sea water, process
industries, petrochemical installations, district heating and also for driving compressors and
feed pumps.

26. Back pressure turbine is placed between?

a) Turbine & Pump b) Boiler & Pump c) Turbine & Heat Exchanger d) Boiler & Turbine
Answer: D

In a cogeneration plant, the back pressure turbine is placed between the boiler & turbine.

27. Which of the following is a good medium for constant temperature heating?
a) Water b) Steam c) Coolant d) Diesel
Answer: B
For constant temperature heating (or drying), steam is a very good medium since
isothermal condition can be maintained by allowing saturated steam to condense at that
temperature and utilising the latent heat released for heating purposes.
28. The cogeneration plant efficiency nco if WT, Qi, QH represents turbine work, heat input, heat
output respectively is given by?
a) nCO = (W T + Qi) / QH b) nCO = (W T – Qi) / QH c) nCO = (W T + QH) / Qi d) nCO = (W T + QH) / Qi

Answer: D
The cogeneration plant efficiency nco if WT, Qi, QH represents turbine work, heat input,
heat output respectively is, nCO = (WT + QH) / Qi
29. The electricity fraction of total energy output if W 1 and Q1 represents the turbine work and heat
output is given by?
a) W1 / (W1 + Q1) b) W1 / (W1 – Q1) c) W1 / (W1Q1) d) W1 / Q1
Answer: A
The electricity fraction of total energy output if W1 and Q1 represents the turbine work and
heat output is, W1 / (W1 + Q1)

30. If e is the electricity fraction of the total energy output, m is the electric plant efficiency and n is
the steam generator efficiency; the heat added per unit total energy output is given by?
a) (1 / m) + ((1 – e) / n) b) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m) c) (1 / m) + ((1 + e) / n)
d) (1 / n) + ((1 – e) / m)
Answer: A
If e is the electricity fraction of the total energy output, m is the electric plant efficiency
and n is the steam generator efficiency; the heat added per unit total energy output is given
by? (1 / m) + ((1 – e) / n)

31. Pass-out turbines are used in which of these cases?

a) relatively high back pressure b) small heating requirement
c) only a d) both a and b
Answer: D
Pass-out turbines are used in cases of relatively high back pressure and small heating
requirements. They are used in cases where a certain quantity of steam is continuously
extracted from the turbine at an intermediate stage for heating purposes at the desired
temperature and pressure.

32. Which of these is not considered economical for cogeneration?

a) a high fraction of electric to total energy b) a low fraction of electric to total energy
c) a low fraction of total energy to electric energy d) none of the mentioned
Answer: B
A low fraction of electric to total energy is considered as an economical condition for
cogeneration. Cogeneration plant is defined as a plant which produces electrical power and
processes heat simultaneously.

33. What is the harm from the depletion of Earth’s ozone layer?
a) The average temperature of earth’s surface will increase gradually
b) The oxygen content of the atmosphere will decrease
c) Increased amount of Ultra violet radiation will reach earth’s surface
d) Sea levels will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt
Answer: C
The decrease in the oxygen content of the atmosphere is the only harm from the depletion
of Earth’s Ozone Layer
34. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
a) Methane and ozone b) Oxygen and nitrous oxide
c) Methane and sulphur dioxide d) Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide

Answer: B
Acid rain is formed due to contribution of Methane & Sulphur dioxide.

35. Which of the following is a prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the
atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
a) Damage to digestive system b) Increased liver cancer
c) Neurological disorder d) Increased skin cancer

Answer: D
Increased risk of Skin Cancer is the prime health risks associated with greater UV
radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone.

36. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is

a) air pollution b) contamination of groundwater
c) increased use of land for landfills d) destruction of habitat

Answer: B
The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is contamination of
groundwater.

37. The concentration of which gas is highest in our environment?

a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: C

Nitrogen has the highest concentration in the environment constituting about 71% of the
environmental gases.

38. Which of the following is not as a consequence of global warming?

a) rising sea level b) increased agricultural productivity worldwide
c) worsening health effects d) increased storm frequency and intensity
Answer: B
Increased agricultural productivity is not a consequence of global warming.

39. Which of the following is not a primary contributor to the greenhouse effect?
a) carbon dioxide b) carbon monoxide c) chlorofluorocarbons d) methane gas
Answer: C
CFC’s or the chlorofluorocarbons aren’t a primary contributor to the greenhouse effect.

40. The increase in the concentration of CO2 in our environment in last fifty years; since 1960 is
about
a) 20% b) 10% c) 14% d) 6%
Answer: C
The increase in the concentration of CO2 in our environment in last fifty years; since 1960
is about 14%.

41. The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by

a) nitrous oxide b) carbon dioxide c) chlorofluorocarbons d) methane
Answer: C
The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by Chlorofluorocarbons.

42. A major in-stream use of water is for

a) producing hydroelectric power b) dissolving industrial wastes
c) agricultural irrigation d) domestic use
Answer: A
Production of hydroelectric power is a major in-stream use of water.

43. Which of the following are the example of Municipal and industrial discharge pipes
a) nonpoint sources of pollution b) violations of the Clean Water Act
c) point sources of pollution d) irrigation
Answer: C
Point sources of pollution are the examples of Municipal & industrial discharge pipes.

44. The presence of high coliform counts in water indicate

a) contamination by human wastes b) phosphorus contamination
c) decreased biological oxygen demand d) hydrocarbon contamination
Answer: A
The presence of high coli-form counts in water indicates contamination by human wastes.

45. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of organic matter
in water?
a) the oxygen demand increases b) the oxygen demand decreases
c) the oxygen demand remains unchanged d) none of the mentioned
Answer: A
With the increased presence of organic matter in water, the oxygen demand increases.

46. Which of the following is a major source of groundwater contamination?

a) agricultural products b) landfills c) septic tanks d) all of the mentioned

Answer: D
All of the mentioned options have different negative effects in groundwater but
nevertheless, those three options are the major sources of groundwater contamination.

47. Which of the following is considered as part of water use planning?

a) waste water treatment b) water diversion projects c) storm sewer drainage
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: D
All the mentioned issues come under water use planning.

48. The stage in which the biological processes are used to purify water in a wastewater treatment
plants is called
a) secondary sewage treatment b) primary sewage treatment
c) wastewater reduction d) biochemical reduction
Answer: A
The stage in which the biological processes are used to purify water in a wastewater
treatment plants is called Secondary Sewage Treatment.

49. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into

a) increase in the salinity of groundwater b) decrease in the toxicity of groundwater
c) decrease in the salinity of groundwater d) increase in the water table
Answer: A
Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into an increase in the salinity of
groundwater.

50. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green Revolution?
a) mechanized agriculture b) hybrid seeds c) slash and burn d) monoculture
Answer: C
Slash & Burn isn’t an important characteristic of the Green Revolution.

51. The three primary soil macronutrients are

a) carbon, oxygen and water b) copper, cadmium and carbon
c) potassium, phosphorus and nitrogen d) boron, zinc and manganese
Answer: C
Potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen are the three primary soil macronutrients.

52. Which of the following are negative effects on the soil and water due to conventional,
mechanized farming practices?
a) soil compaction b) reduction in soil organic matter c) soil erosion
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: D
All the mentioned impacts are the negative effects on the soil & water due to
conventional, mechanized farming practices.

53. A steam turbine converts the output from a steam generator into?
a) Shaft work b) Turbine work c) Mechanical work
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: A
A steam turbine is a device that converts the energy of high-pressure, high-temperature
steam supplied by a steam generator into shaft work.

54. The energy conversion occurring in a steam turbine is a ______ step process.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Answer: B
The high pressure steam first expands in a nozzle, gains velocity & then loses this
velocity when it impinges on the blades.

55. A steam turbine is basically an assemblage of?

a) nozzle & condenser b) blades & condenser c) nozzle & blades
d) nozzle & fans
Answer: C
A steam turbine is a device that converts the energy of high-pressure, high-temperature
steam supplied by a steam generator into shaft work. The high pressure steam first expands
in a nozzle, gains velocity & then loses this velocity when it impinges on the blades.

56. Depending on whether the back pressure is below or equal to the atmospheric pressure, how
many types of turbines do exist?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Answer: B
Depending on whether the back pressure is below or equal to the atmospheric pressure,
there are two types of turbines that exist- condensing & non-condensing turbines.

57. The overall steam turbine generator arrangement of a power plant is designated as ________
compound on the basis of shaft orientation.
a) tandem b) cross c) both of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: C
The overall steam turbine generator arrangement of a power plant is designated as
tandem or cross-compound on the basis of shaft orientation.

58. A ______ is a duct through which velocity of a fluid increases at the expense of pressure.
a) orifice b) nozzle c) jet d) diffuser
Answer: B
A nozzle is a duct through which the velocity of a fluid increases at the expense of
pressure

59. A duct which decreases the velocity of fluid & causes a corresponding increase in pressure is
called?
a) nozzle b) diffuser c) jet d) orifice
Answer: B
A duct which decreases the velocity of fluid & causes a corresponding increase in
pressure is called a diffuser.

60. A regenerative steam cycle renders

a) decreased work output per unit mass of steam
b) increased thermal efficiency
c) increased work output per unit mass of steam
d) decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
Answer: D
A regenerative steam cycle renders the decreased work output per unit mass of steam as
well as increased thermal efficiency.

61. The reheat factor is the ratio of the

a) total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop
b) cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop
c) isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: B
The ratio of cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called the reheat factor.

62. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is

a) hyperbolic b) isothermal c) isentropic d) polytropic
Answer: C

When the steam flow is isentropic it is thermal equilibrium condition.

63. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of
a) 40% alpha methyl napthalene and 60% cetane
b) 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl napthalene
c) 40% petrol and 60% diesel
d) 40% diesel and 60% petrol
Answer: B.
Explanation: A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of 40% cetane
and 60% alpha methyl naphthalene.
64. The control rods in the control system of nuclear reactors are used to
a) control fuel consumption b) absorb excess neutrons
c) control temperature d) all of the mentioned
Answer: D.
Control rods are used in nuclear reactors to control the fission rate of uranium and plutonium.
They are composed of chemical elements such as boron, silver, indium and cadmium that are
capable of absorbing many neutrons without themselves fissioning.
65. The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is approximately
a) 10 bar b) 20 bar c) 25 bar d) 35 bar
Answer: D.
The pressure at the end of the compression is about 10 bar. The pressure at the end of the
compression is about 35 bar. The charge (i.e. petrol and air mixture) is ignited with the help of
spark plug. The fuel is injected in the form of a fine spray.
66. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will
a) increase b) decrease c) remain same d) none of the mentioned
Answer: A.
The speed of the engine & indicated power are inter related as they are directly proportional to
each other, so if one increases, the other also increases & vice-versa.
67. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine are __________ the speed of
the engine in r.p.m.
a) equal to b) one-half c) four-times d) twice
Answer: A.
Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine are equal to the speed of the
engine in r.p.m while number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine are one
half the speed of the engine in r.p.m.
68. Reflector in nuclear power plants __________ neutron leakage.
a) increases b) decreases c) has no effect d) all of the mentioned
Answer: B.
The reflector reduces the non-uniformity of the power distribution in the peripheral fuel
assemblies, reduces neutron leakage and reduces a coolant flow bypass of the core.
69. In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be
a) high self-ignition temperature of fuel b) late auto-ignition
c) short delay period d) low compression ratio
Answer: C.
In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be a shorter delay
period.
70. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10
b) Petrol engines work on Otto cycle
c) Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: D.
All the mentioned statements are correct
71. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a sufficiently high
pressure in order to
a) inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomisation
b) inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke
c) ensure that penetration is not high
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: D.
The fuel injection is at a sufficiently higher pressure in order to inject fuel at a high velocity to
facilitate atomisation, to inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression
stroke & to ensure that penetration is not high.
72. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are
a) cetane & iso-octane
b) cetane & normal heptane
c) cetane & alpha methyl naphthalene
d) cetane & tetra ethyl lead
Answer: C.
Cetane & alpha methyl naphthalene are the two reference fuels used for cetane rating.
73. In petrol engines, the delay period is of the order of
a) 0.001 sec b) 0.002 sec c) 0.003 sec d) 0.004 sec
Answer: B.
The delay period in petrol engines is of the order of 0.002 sec.
74. The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking points is
a) 2000-4000 volts b) 4000-6000 volts c) 6000-10000 volts d) 10000-12000 volts
Answer: C.
The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking points is 6000-
10000 Volts.
75. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about
a) 0.2 kg b) 0.25 kg c) 0.3 kg d) 0.35 kg
Answer: B.
Generally, the specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about 0.25 kg while
the specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a diesel engine is about 0.2 kg.
76. The material most commonly used for shielding is
a) Carbon b) Concrete c) Lead d) All of the mentioned
Answer: C.
Lead provides the most space-savings and the greatest amount of shielding to mmee your
radiation protection needs.
77. Which of the following may be used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration?
a) Geiger-Muller Counter b) Cold Chamber c) Cyclotron d) Van De Graph
Generator
Answer: A.
Geiger-Muller Counter is used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration.
78. The second underground nuclear test was conducted by India at
a) Pokhran b) Narora c) Jaisalmer d) Kalpakkam
Answer: A.
The Pokhran-II tests were a series of five nuclear bomb test explosions conducted by India at the
Indian Army's Pokhran Test Range in May 1998.
79. Which of the following may not need a moderator?
a) Candu Reactor b) Fast Breeder Reactor c) Homogeneous Reactor
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: B.
Fast Breeder Reactor may not need a moderator.
80. The mass number of an element is not changed, when it emits __________ radiations.
a) α & γ b) α, β, & γ c) α & β d) β & γ
Answer: D.
The mass number of an element is not changed, when it emits β & γ radiations.
81. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring nuclear fuel?
a) Uranium-238 b) Thorium-233 c) Plutonium-239
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: C.
Plutonium-239 is an artificial nuclear fuel.
82. Which is the most commonly used molten metal for cooling of nuclear reactors?
a) Zinc b) Sulphur c) Sodium d) Manganese
Answer: C.
Sodium is the most commonly used molten metal for cooling of nuclear reactors.
83. One amu is equivalent to?
a) 931 MeV b) 93.1 eV c) 9.31 eV d) 931 J
Answer: A.
931 MeV constitutes one amu.
84. Fast breeder reactors do not
a) use molten sodium as coolant b) use fast neutrons for fission
c) use Th-232 as fissile fuel d) convert fertile material to fissile material
Answer: C.
Fast breeder reactors do not use Thorium-232 as fuel.
85. A boiling water reactor is the one, in which the
a) pressurised water is pumped into the core.
b) coolant water, after being heated in the reactor core, generates steam in a boiler
c) fuel and the coolant are thoroughly mixed to form a homogeneous solution
d) coolant water is allowed to boil in the core of the reactor
Answer: D.
A boiling water reactor (BWR) uses demineralized water as a coolant and neutron moderator.
Heat is produced by nuclear fission in the reactor core, and this causes the cooling water to boil,
producing a steam.
86. Commercial power generation from fusion reactor is not yet possible, because
a) it is difficult to initiate fusion reaction
b) the fuel required (e.g. deuterium and tritium) is scarce
c) it is difficult to control fusion reaction
d) quantity of fuel required for initiating fusion reaction is prohibitively high
Answer: C.
As fission reactions are hard to be controlled, the commercial power generation is not yet
possible.
87. Which is a fertile nuclear fuel?
a) U-233 b) U-235 c) Pu-239 d) Th-232
Answer: D.
Th-232 is the only fertile nuclear fuel amongst all the mentioned nuclear fuel.
88. Thermal shield is used in high powered nuclear reactors to
a) absorb the fast neutrons
b) protect the walls of the reactor from radiation damage
c) slow down the secondary neutrons
d) protect the fuel element from coming in contact with the coolant

Answer: B.
Thermal shield is used in high powered nuclear reactors to protect the walls of tth reactor from
radiation damage.
89. In gas turbine, intercooler is placed
a) before low pressure compressor
b) in between low pressure compressor and high pressure compressor
c) in between high pressure compressor and turbine
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: B.
The various methods to improve the efficiency of open cycles include intercooling the feed water
from the compressor to the turbine and then employing regeneration & reheat to just use the
power of the reheated water in order to maximize the power output. Here, this is done by placing
the intercooler before any of the above processes.
90. In gas turbine, the function of Re-heater is to
a) Heat inlet air b) Heat exhaust gases c) Heat air coming out of compressor
d) Heat gases coming out of high pressure turbine
Answer: D.
In order to make a thermodynamic process of larger efficiency, it is shifted towards isothermal
behavior. For this, the output from re-generator, which is at a higher temperature is cooled to the
temperature which is mid-way between the two temperature ranges. Then, it is again heated to
the final temperature thereby increasing the efficiency of the cycle.
91. The ‘work ratio’ increases with
a) increase in turbine inlet pressure b) decrease in compressor inlet temperature
c) decrease in pressure ratio of the cycle d) all of the mentioned
Answer: D.
The „work ratio‟ increases when the turbine inlet pressure increases, the compressor inlet
temperature decreases, the pressure ratio of the cycle decreases.
92. In the centrifugal compressor, total pressure varies
a) directly as the speed ratio b) square of speed ratio
c) cube of the speed ratio d) any of the mentioned
Answer: B
The total pressure in a centrifugal compressor is a function of speed ratio. It varies square of the
speed ratio. The compression is largely influenced by a centrifugal pump.
93. The efficiency of multistage compressor is _____ than a single stage.
a) lower b) higher c) equal to d) any of the mentioned
Answer: A.
The efficiency of multistage compressor is lower than a single stage.
94. In centrifugal compressor, power input varies as
a) directly as the speed ratio b) the square of speed ratio
c) the cube of the speed ratio d) any of the mentioned
Answer: C.
Power output in a centrifugal compressor varies as the cube of the speed ratio.
95. In the _____ heat transfer takes place between the exhaust gases and cool air.
a) Intercooler b) Re-heater c) Regenerator d) Compressor
Answer: C.
The process of heat transfer between the exhaust gases and cool air takes place in Regenerator.
96. In centrifugal compressor, the diffuser converts
a) Kinetic energy into pressure energy b) Pressure energy into Kinetic energy
c) Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy d) Mechanical energy into Kinetic energy
Answer: A.
The diffuser of a centrifugal compressor converts Kinetic Energy into Pressure energy.
97. The heating value of gaseous fuels is about
a) 500 kJ/litre b) 30 kJ/litre c) 100 kJ/litre d) 10 kJ/litre
Answer: B.
30 kJ/litre is the heating value of gaseous fuels.
98. The compressor has to be started
a) Before starting the gas turbine b) After starting the gas turbine
c) Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine d) At any time during the operation
Answer: A.
Compressor has to be started before starting the gas turbine as the turbine work is used by
compressor.
99. Which of these is not a part of a Gas Turbine Plant?
a) Compressor b) Gas Turbine c) Combustion chamber d) Boiler
Answer: D.
A Gas Turbine Plant has the following parts: Compressor, Gas Turbine, Combustion chamber.
100. The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)
a) Aviation b) Oil and gas industry c) Marine propulsion
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: D.

A Gas Turbine has applications in nearly all fields, the major ones being in the fields of Aviation, Oil

& Gas industry, Marine propulsion.