Gcse Test 1

GCSE TEST 1
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks in the following questions
Dining Etiquette in Japan: an honored guest sits an the enter of the table furthest from the door and begins
eating first. Learn to (1)………… chopsticks – never point them, never pierce them, and rest them on the
chopsticks – rest when breaking (2)…………… drink or chat. It is good etiquette to try a bit of everything.
Dining Etiquette in Turkey: Meals are a (3)…………………. affair, conversations are friendly and loud.
The head of the family of honored guest is served first. It is good etiquette to insist the host senior is served
first (4)……………. of you. Asking for (5)…………….. food is a compliment. If taken to a restaurant,
Turkish dining etiquette has strict rules that the one extended the invitation must pay.
1. A. handle B. use C. grasp D. keep
2. A. with B. on C. as D. for
3. A. socialize B. society C. social D. because
4. A. instead B. regardless C. out D. because
5. A. more B. many C. so many D. the most
Read the passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to the following questions.
How can a plant kill?
People kill. Animals kill. Animals and people kill for food, or they kill their enemies. People and animals
can move around and find something to kill. They can run away from an enemy.
They can kill it if it is necessary. Many kinds of animals eat plants. The plants cannot run away from their
enemies. Some plants make poison. If an animal eat part of the plant, it gets sick or dies. Animals learn to
stay away from these plants. There are many kinds of plants that make poison. Most of them grow in the
desert or in the tropics. Today farmers use kinds of poison come from petroleum , but petroleum is
expensive. Scientists collect poisonous plants and study them. Maybe farmers can use cheap poison from
plants instead of expensive poison from petroleum.
Question 6:Animals and people kill their………………………..
A.plants B. poisons C. enemies D. farmers
Question 7:…………………….. cannot move around.
A. Farmers B. Plants C. Scientists D. Animals
Question 8: An animal……………………. if it eats a poisonous plant.
A. moves around B. studies the poison C. runs away D. gets sicks or dies
Question 9: Most poisonous plants grow in the deserts or in the………………………
A. Arctic Circle B. laboratories C. farms D. tropics
Question 10:.………………….. use many kinds of poisons.
A. Farmers B. Scientists C. Workers D. Animals
Question 11: Most of these poisons come from…………………………
A. Deserts B. the tropics C. petroleum D. plants
Question 12: Scientists…………………… poisonous plants.
A. Use B. buy C. run away from D. collect
Question 13: Poison from plants is……………… than poison from petroleum.
A. Cheaper B. more expensive C. more afraid D. cooler
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentence in the following questions.
Question 14: We listened to a speech last night. It was informative.
A. We listened to a speech last night what was informative.
B. We listened to a speech last night when it was informative.
C. We listened to a speech last night which was informative.
D. We listened to a speech last night on which was informative.
Question 15: I want to buy her a handbag on her birthday. I haven’t got enough money.
A. I’d buy her a handbag if I had few money.
B. I’d buy her a handbag if I had enough money.
C. I’d buy her a handbag if I have few money.
D. I’d buy her a handbag if I have enough money.
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word with the main tress different
from that of the others three words in each question.
Question 16: A. listen B. promise C. picture D. accept
Question 17: A. attractive B. impressive C. important D. different
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 18: Pierre often helped her, and they devoted all their time to working in their laboratory.
A. Dedicated B. sent C. offered D. gave
Question 19: It is a calculating machine which speeds up calculations: it can add, subtract, multiply, and
devide with lightning speed and perfect accuracy.
A. Goodness B. precision C. wonder D. loveliness
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
the following exchanges.
Question 20: A: This dish is really nice! B:……………………………….
A. Sure. I’ll be glad to.
B. I’m glad you like it
C. I guess you’re right.
D. It’s my pleasure
Question 21: A: “ What does Mike look like?” - “…………………………………….”
A. He’s an architect.
B. He likes pop music
C. He doesn’t like me.
D. He’s tall and thin.
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22: “ Listen carefully”, he said.
A. He told us listen carefully.
B. He told us to listen carefully.
C. He said us listen carefully.
D. He told to us to listen carefully.
Question 23: They will build a new house in our town.
A new house will be build in our house.
B. A new house will be built in our house.
C. Our town will be build a new
D. Our town will be built a new house.
Question 24: This is the first time we have been to the circus.
A. We have never been to the circus before.
B. We haven’t been to the circus often before.
C. We had been to the circus once before.
D. We have been to the circus some times before.
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 25: After George had returned (A) to his house (B) , he (C) was reading (D) a book.
Question 26: That (A) is the man (B) who he (C) told me the bad news (D) .
Question 27: Some engineers have predicted (A) that, within twenty years, automobiles will
be (B) make (C) almost completely of plastic (D) .
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to the following questions
In 776 BC the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honor the Greek’s chief,
Zeus. The Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests
in running, jumping, discus and javelin throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held individual
cities, and the winners completed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by
having olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these were
held as games of friendship, and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. The
Greeks attached so much importance to these games that they calculated time in four – year cycle called “
Olympiads” dating from 776 BC.
Question 28: Where were the first Olympic Games held?
A. behind Mount Olympus
B. opposite Mount Olympus
C. at the peak of Mount Olympus
D. at the foot of Mount Olympus
Question 29: Why were the Olympic Games held?
A. to honor Zeus
B. to sing songs about the athletes
C. to stop wars
D. to crown the best athletes
Question 30: Approximately how many years ago did these games originate?
A. 227 years
B. 776 years
C. 2,792 years
D. 1,205 years
Question 31: Which of the following contests was not mentioned?
A. boxing
B. discus throwing
C. running
D. skating
Question 32: How often were the Olympic Games held?
A. every four years
B. twice a year
C. every two years
D. every years
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Winner placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
B. The games were held in Greece every four years.
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
D. Poem glorified the winners in song.
Question 34: What conclusion can we withdraw about the ancient Greeks?
A. They liked a lot of ceremony
B. they liked to fight.
C. They couldn’t count, so they used “ Olympiads” for dates.
D. They were very athletic.
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 35: He asked me…………….. the film called “ Star Wars”.
A. if I have seen
B. I saw
C. if I had seen
D. whether had I seen
Question 36: They missed the ferry. It……………………. by the time they reached the pier.
A. has gone
B. went
C. would go
D. had gone
Question 37: If I………………….. my passport, I’ll be in trouble.
A. lost
B. lose
C. would lose
D. will lose
Question 38:..……………………… you known a liar, would you have agreed to support him?
A. If
B. Had
C. Did
D. Since
Question 39: My bike,…………………… I had left at the gate, had disappeared.
A. when
B. –
C. that
D. which
Question 40: The medicine……………. had no effect at all.
A. the doctor gave it to me
B. the doctor gave me
C. which the doctor gave it to me
D. which given to me by the doctor
Question 41: Students normally enter university from the onwards and study for an……………… degree.
A. academy
B. academically
C. academic
D. academical
Question 42: It’s rude to………………… people while you are talking to them.
A. point at
B. look at
C. point out
D. smile at
Question 43: Military is………………………… in this country. Every man who reaches the age of 18
has to serve in the army for two years.
A. unnecessary
B. unnecessary
C. compulsory
D. illegal
Question 44: It is important to have someone you can……………………. in.
A. talk
B. confide
C. know
D. speak
Question 45: While studying, he was financially dependent……………….. his parents.
A. of
B. on
C. from
D. to
Question 46: When I looked around the door, the baby……………. quietly.
A. is sleeping
B. slept
C. was sleeping
D. had been sleeping
Blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet ti indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 47: And in 1891, the shy Marie, with her very little money to live on, came to Paris to continue
her studies at the Sorbonne.
A. much
B. many
C. few
D. a lot
Question 48: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.
A. later than expected
B. as long as expected
C. earlier than a particular moment
D. earlier enough to do something
Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from the other three in each question.
Question 49:
A. expected
B. decided
C. engaged
D. attracted
Question 50:
A. enjoy
B. benefit
C. begin
D. decide
Đáp án
GCSE TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 01: A. honest B. rhinoceros C. healthy D. exhibition
Câu 02: A. signal B. mischievous C. primary D. Determine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 03: A. engineer B. optimist C. concentrate D. government
Câu 04: A. threaten B. reform C. police D. Advise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Câu 05: Each of the twelfth grade students must have their application form sent before the deadline.
A. sent B. twelfth grade students C. their D. before the deadline
Câu 06: My cousin usually do his share of the housework by laying the table for meals.
A. by B. his share of C. laying D. do
Câu 07: We are looking for an employee who is not only skillful and responsible but also a good sense of
humour.
A. a good sense of humour B. an employee C. who is D. looking for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Câu 8: Let’s go out for a social gathering tonight, ________?
A. do we B. shall we C. shan’t we D. will we
Câu 9: They________ all their assignments last night but they didn’t.
A. should finish B. must finish
C. should have finished D. must have finished
Câu 10: If more labour-saving devices are used in our home, the housework________ a burden any more.
A. wouldn’t have been B. not be C. wouldn’t be D. won’t be
Câu 11: I'll________ him for landing me in trouble.
A. get back at B. make up to C. go down with D. come up with
Câu 12: We made a mistake, but there’s no point in________.
A. crying over spilled milk B. taking it for granted
C. turning over a new leaf D. paying through the nose for it
Câu 13: By the end of this month, this language center________ more than two hundred students.
A. will have recruited B. will recruit C. had recruited D. has recruited
Câu 14: To become a tour guide in our travel company, you need to speak English________ .
A. influency B. fluently C. fluent D. fluency
Câu 15: Laura’s former teacher promised________ her wedding next week.
A. to attend B. attend C. to attending D. attending
Câu 16: When volunteering in the Middle East, she unfortunately________ a rare disease.
A. treated B. contracted C. committed D. adopted
Câu 17: Her parents insisted that she________ to medical university.
A. applying B. applied C. applies D. apply
Câu 18: The speaker showed some________ photos to attract the audience’s attention.
A. far-reaching B. thought-provoking C. narrow-minded D. weather-beaten
Câu 19: Only professionals can identify different________ of natural light.
A. intensities B. extensions C. expansions D. Weights
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Câu 20: Mary: “I’m sorry for breaking your flower vase, Bill.” Bill: “____________”
A. You’re welcome. B. Never mind. Everything breaks.
C. Do you know how much it is? D. Why were you so careless?
Câu 21: Nam’s grandpa: “ I believe that our lives will be much better in the future.”
Nam: “____________”
A. Sure, there will be more pollution and diseases.
B. That’s wrong. We will have better living conditions.
C. I’m afraid I can’t agree more.
D. You can say that again.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 22: The atomic bomb annihilated the whole city, so nothing was left standing.
A. disturbed B. converted C. demolished D. constructed
Câu 23: I think Nick hit the nail on the head when he stated that there were some faults in Barbara’s
performance.
A. described something unconsciously B. said something accurately
C. interpreted something indirectly D. misunderstood something seriously
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Câu 24: A solution needs to be found as soon as possible because the epidemic has become more rampant.
A. widespread B. serious C. violent D. controllable
Câu 25: She was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such demanding tasks.
A. lack of responsibility B. full of sincerity
C. without money D. full of experience
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Câu 26: It was not until he lost the game that he realized how important regular practice was.
A. No sooner had he realized how important regular practice was than he lost the game.
B. Only after he lost the game did he realize how important regular practice was.
C. Hardly had he lost the game that he realized how important regular practice was.
D. Not until did he lose the game he realized how important regular practice was.
Câu 27: People say that the members discussed the club’s problems frankly.
A. It is said that the club’s problems be discussed frankly.
B. The club’s problems are said to have been discussed frankly.
C. The members are said discussing the club’s problems frankly.
D. The club’s problems are said to be discussed frankly.
Câu 28: “Why don’t you type your essay?” said the class monitor to Kate.
A. The class monitor reminded Kate to type her essay.
B. The class monitor criticized Kate for not typing her essay.
C. The class monitor suggested that Kate should type her essay.
D. The class monitor asked Kate why she didn’t type her essay.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Câu 29: There had been prior warnings of the earthquake. It came as a shock to the people living in nearby
villages.
A. Although they were warned of the earthquake, but the nearby villagers were surprised when it
occurred.
B. The earthquake was warned in advance, so that the nearby villagers were not surprised by it.
C. Because of the prior warnings of the earthquake, few inhabitants in nearby villages were shocked
about it.
D. The earthquake had been predicted, but the residents of nearby villages were taken aback when it
struck.
Câu 30: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of
danger.
B. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
C. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
D. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
21st century teachers need to serve as (31)________ guide or mentor for their students, not as the
all-knowing sage providing them with everything they need. Nowadays, with so much access
(32)________ resources of all kinds, children invariably know more than teachers on different topics, step
ahead of the technology. Teachers need to be empowered as facilitators for learning, so that they can
empower their students in turn . This shift is great news for teachers. Instead of struggling to give kids all
the information in areas (33)________ they know little about, teachers can support students as they make
their own steps into different fields. It’s about preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring they have
the skills to do it, and assisting them along the way. (34)________, teachers need to be forward-thinking,
curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning new teaching methods, and learning alongside their
students. Simply asking questions like “What will my students need dozens of years fromnow?” or “How
can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers' (35)________, make them a leader, and bring
about changes in the classroom, school and community.
Câu 31: A. the B. a C. an D. Ø
Câu 32: A. for B. in C. to D. with
Câu 33: A. that B. whom C. where D. what
Câu 34: A. In practice B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. For instance
Câu 35: A. prejudice B. knowledge C. mindset D. Judgment
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
According to recent scientific theory, it is probable that life will develop on planets that have a
favorable environment - planets similar to ours, that orbits stars like our sun. Since there are about 400
billion stars in our galaxy alone, that means there are a huge number of planets like ours that could sustain
life. Planets with advanced civilizations are likely to be widely scattered throughout the universe. In the past
four decades, humans on Earth have begun to search for these civilizations. This search is called SETI, the
Search for Extra-Terrestrial Intelligence, and it has been conducted largely by searching for radio waves
emitted from civilizations on other planets.
In 1960, Dr. Frank Drake made the first attempt at SETI, by conducting a radio search using an 85-
foot antenna of the National Radio Astronomy Observatory in West Virginia. This search, called Project
Ozma, observed two stars about 12 light years away. Since that time, more than 60 searches have been
conducted by dozens of astronomers in at least eight countries.
All searches, thus far, have faced many limitations: they used equipment that lacked sensitivity, they
did not search frequently, they covered little of the sky, or they could search for only a few types of signals
or in a few directions. The searches did turn up signals of unknown origin, but data collected in these
searches were often processed long after the observation. In order to be sure that a signal is from another
civilization, it has to be independently verified and shown to originate from a point beyond the solar system.
Later searches for the unknown signals turned up nothing.
Project Phoenix, the latest SETI, is more comprehensive than any of those previous experiments and
proves to overcome all these problems. Project Phoenix uses the world’s largest antennas. This allows it to
scrutinize the regions around 1,000 nearby Sun-like stars, and immediately test candidate signals. It is
important that Project Phoenix continue to be upgraded, because radio interference from Earth sources is
growing, and may soon interfere with our ability to detect possible extra-terrestrial signals. In order to
overcome this growing interference, ever better antenna systems are being developed.
Câu 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Possible explanation for radio signals of unknown origin
B. Efforts to search for signals from extra-terrestrial civilizations
C. The life stories of scientists involved in SETI
D. The origin of life on other planets
Câu 37: What is TRUE about Project Ozma?
A. It used the space station’s 85-foot antenna.
B. It lasted only 12 years.
C. It was conducted by a group of astronomers from eight countries.
D. It was the first SETI.
Câu 38: It can be inferred from the passage that a major limitation of earlier searches for alien radio signals
was_________.
A. the difficulty of obtaining government funding
B. the limited number of signals that might be extra-terrestrial
C. the slowness of the verification process
D. the lack of scientific interest in this topic
Câu 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. search B. signal C. civilization D. datum
Câu 40: Which of the following would NOT distinguish Project Phoenix from previous SETI experiments?
A. It uses larger antennas. B. It tests candidate signals quickly.
C. It is comprehensive. D. It covers little of the sky.
Câu 41: The word “scrutinize” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by_________.
A. process B. establish C. examine D. orbit
Câu 42: Which of the following may be Project Phoenix’s limitation?
A. Its inaccurate detection caused by radio interference from Earth sources
B. Its equipment’s lack of sensitivity
C. Its infrequent searches
D. Its limited search directions
For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means an endless party
on a sunny beach in Florida or Mexico. In Panama City Beach, Florida, a city with a permanent population
of around 36,000, more than half a million university students arrive during the month of March to play and
party, making it the number one spring break destination in the United States.
A weeklong drinking binge is not for anyone, however, and a growing number of American
university students have found a way to make spring break matter. For them, joining or leading a group of
volunteers to travel locally or internationally and work to serve the community makes spring break a unique
learning experience that university students can feel good about.
During one spring break week, students at James Madison University in Virginia participated in 15
“alternative spring break” trips to nearby states, three others to more distant parts of the United States, and
five international trips. One group of JMU students traveled to Bogalusa, Louisiana, to help rebuild homes
damaged by Hurricane Katrina. Another group traveled to Mississippi to organize creative learning
activities for literate children living in an orphanage. One group of students did go to Florida, but not to lie
on the sand. They performed exhausting physical labor such as cleaning the beach, maintaining hiking trails
and destroying invasive plant species that threaten the native Florida ecosystem.
Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very rewarding. While most
university students have to get their degrees before they can start helping people, student volunteers are able
to help people now. On the other hand, the accommodations are far from glamorous. Students often sleep
on the floor of a school or spend the week camping in tents. But students only pay around $250 for meals
and transportation, which is much less than some of their peers’ expense on travelling to more traditional
spring break hotspots.
Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities across the United
States. Students cite a number of reasons for participating. Some appreciate the opportunity to socialize and
meet new friends. Others want to exercise their beliefs about people’s obligation to serve humanity and
make the world a better place. Whatever their reason, these students have discovered something that gives
them rich rewards along with a break from school work.
Câu 43: The article is mainly about_________.
A. alternative spring break trips B. sleeping on the floor or camping in tents
C. drinking problems among university students D. spring break in Florida and Mexico
Câu 44: How many university students travel to Panama Beach City every March for spring break?
A. Around 500,000 B. Around 50,000 C. Around 10,000 D. Around 36,000
Câu 45: The word “binge” in paragraph 2 probably means_________.
A. doing too much of something B. studying for too long
C. having very little alcohol D. refusing to do something
Câu 46: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that students at James Madison
University tried to help solve?
A. Poverty B. Illiteracy C. Environmental damage D. Homelessness
Câu 47: The word “invasive” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by_________.
A. wild B. aggressive C. local D. bushy
Câu 48: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to_________.
A. degrees B. people C. students D. projects
Câu 49: The article implies that university students_________.
A. complain about accommodations on alternative spring break trips
B. would prefer to wait until they have their degrees to start helping people
C. may take fewer alternative spring break trips in the future
D. spend more than $250 for traditional spring break trips
Câu 50: Which of the following is mentioned as a reason for participating in alternative spring break trips?
A. A desire to travel to glamorous places
B. A wish to get away from family and friends
C. The hope of earning money
D. A personal opinion that people must help other people
GCSE TEST 3
Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the others in pronunciation in the following
questions.
Question 1: A delicate B. celebrate C. private D.communicate
Question 2: A. digested B. interested C. killed D. united
Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in the following
questions.
Question 3: A. reject B. attract C. beauty D. decide
Question 4: A. delegation B. energetic C. participant D. competition
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The first initiative for founding the Red Cross came from a Swiss man called Jean Henri
Dunant A B C D
Question 6: Benefits of coaching include: knowing each player, helping that player improve and see that
person succeed in life.
A B C D
Question 7: The faster you drive, the highest risk there is of a traffic accident
A B C D
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: I have always enjoyed reading the book more than _____________________.
A. I watched the movie version. B. watching the movie.
C. to watch the movie. D. having watched the movie
Question 9: The salary of a bus worker is much higher _________ teacher.
A. than a B. than that of a
C. comparing to the D. in comparison with the
Question 10: Having left the party too early, _________________.
A. the guests couldn’t see the fireworks anymore
B. the fireworks couldn’t be seen anymore
C. the party finished without fireworks
D. the host didn’t set off fireworks
Question 11: Thanks to the progress of science and technology, our lives have become _______.
A. more and more good B. better and better
C. the more and more good D. gooder and gooder
Question 12: _______ We have still got plenty of food.
A. You should have bought some more to eat.
B. You needn't have gone to the supermarket.
C. We must have bought some more food.
D. May I go to the supermarket?
Question 13: The picnic ________ because Peter has just had a traffic accident.
A. will cancel B. will be cancelling
C. will be cancelled D. will have cancelled
Question 14: An international medical conference _________ by Davison resulted in the birth of the
League of Red Cross Societies in 1991.
A. initiated B. dedicated C. appalled D. appealed
Question 15: The _______ of WHO, as set out in its constitution, is the attainment by all peoples of the
highest possible level of health
A. benefit B. opponent C. objective D. background
Question 16: Government officers came to visit the ______ provinces in the central part of the country
A. disaster-strike B. disaster-stricken
C. disaster- striking D. stricken- disaster
Question 17: The International Red Cross has its _____ in Geneva, Switzerland
A. headquarters B. buildings C. branches D. departments
Question 18: In time of war, the Red Cross Road- an international humanitarian did a lot to ______ the
sufferings of wounded soldiers
A. restore B. reaffirm C. reduce D. reflect
Question 19: He is apparently quite passive, and _________ all this verbal aggression from his wife.
A. keeps up with B. makes up with C. puts up with D. brings up with
Question 20: Born in Manchester of Welsh parents, he was brought _____ in Wales after the early death
of his father.
A. in B. out C. about D. up
Question 21: I'm told that tickets for the annual dinner dance are selling like hot _________ .
A. dogs B. drinks C. foods D. cakes
Question 22: It's so silly to me the way soccer players put on an _____
about being injured any time an opposing player so much as brushes up against them.
A. act B. action C. activity D. activeness
Choose the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: Mr. Edwin is talking to a hotel clerk at Home Again Hotel .
~ Hotel clerk: "Welcome to the Home Again Hotel, sir. How may I help you?"
~ Mr. Edwin: "___________"
A. No, thanks. I had a reservation
B. I would like a non-smoking room with a double bed.
C. Yes, I want to look for a room
D. Sorry. I don’t want to stay there
Question 24: A customer is talking to a shop assistant about the sweater he has chosen.
~ Customer: "That's nice. Could I try it on?.” ~ Shop assistant: "_________”
A. Certainly, the changing rooms are over there.
B. Oh, sorry. We don’t have this room.
C. That’s right. You should try it before buying
D. Yes, of course, but you must pay the bill first
Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Whenever I have to speak in public, I get butterflies in my stomach.
A. angry B. nervous C. shy D. depressed
Question 26: Sometimes these punishments are deserved but often they are brought about by unfortunate
circumstances.
A. created B. resulted C. invented D. provided
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 27: Once Caldere discovers money is missing, he's going to smell a rat, isn't he?
A. doubt B. trust C. worry D. guess
Question 28: I'm sorry if it seems like I'm flying off the handle, but I'm just a bit disturbed and upset right
now.
A. losing temper B. becoming relaxed
C. feeling angry D. keeping active
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 29: The company turned down Bill’s offer.
A. Bill’s offer was delayed by the company.
B. Bill rejected the company’s offer
C. Bill’s offer wasn’t accepted by the company.
D. The company admitted Bill’s offer.
Question 30: They didn’t discover that the picture had been stolen until they came back home.
A. Until they came back home that they discovered that the picture had been stolen.
B. It is not until they came back home that they discovered that the picture had been stolen.
C. Not until they came back home had the picture been stolen.
D. Only after they came back home did they discover that the picture had been stolen.
Question 31: The manager contributes generously, so I can continue my plan.
A. Had it not been for the manager’s generous contribution, I couldn’t continue my plan.
B. The manager’s generous contribution gets my plan continue.
C. But for the manager’s generous contribution, I couldn’t continue my plan.
D. Should the manager contribute generously, I could continue my plan.
Choose the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 33: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn't be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Read the following passage and Choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.
Vietnam makes strides in child education
Vietnam has made major strides in caring for, educating and protecting children over the past 27 years
(34) _____ the country became the first in Asia and second in the world to ratify the implementation of the
United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) in 1990.
The education and protection of children is (35) ______ a key political mission of Party Committees
from central to local levels and a top priority in the country’s socio-economic development strategies.
Article 37 of the 2013 Constitution stipulates that “Children shall be protected, cared for and educated by
the State, family and society; and participated in child-related issues. Harassing, persecuting, maltreating,
abandoning or abusing children, exploiting child (36) _____or other acts that violate children’s rights are
prohibited.”
Additionally, the 13th National Assembly adopted the Child Law in April 2016, (37) ____ will come
into force in June 2017, with the revision and supplementation of some articles to concretise the Constitution
and the convention. The National Action Programme for Children also emphasised that children need to be
treated (38) _____ special citizens and cared for by the State and people and should enjoy a healthy
environment for physical, intellectual and moral development.
Question 34. A. since B. for C. when D. after
Question 35. A. played B. regarded C. considered D. taken
Question 36. A. labourer B. labour C. labouring D. laboured
Question 37. A. that B. in which C. when D. which
Question 38. A. by B. with C. as D. like
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that acts as a
coordinating authority on international public health. Established on 7 April, 1948, and headquartered in
Geneva, Switzerland, the agency inherited the mandate and resources of its predecessor, the Health
Organization.
The WHO's constitution, states that its objective is "the attainment by all peoples of the highest possible
level of health." Its major task is to combat diseases, especially key infectious diseases, and to promote the
general health of the people of the world. The WHO also sponsors programs to prevent and treat serious
epidemics such as SARS, malaria, and AIDS. The WHO supports the development and distribution of safe
and effective vaccines, pharmaceutical diagnostics, and drugs. After over 2 decades of fighting smallpox,
the WHO declared in 1980 that the disease had been eradicated - the first disease in history to be eliminated
by human effort.
The WHO is nearing success in developing vaccines against malaria and aims to eradicate polio within
the next few years. The organization has already endorsed the world's first official HIV/AIDS Tool kit for
Zimbabwe making it an international standard. In addition to its work in eradicating disease, the WHO also
carries out various health-related campaigns, for example, to boost the consumption of fruits and vegetables
worldwide and to discourage tobacco use.
Question 39. The World Health Organization (WHO) _______.
A. works on international public health B. has no relation to the United Nations
C. only takes care of Swiss people D. has no predecessor
Question 40. Which is NOT mentioned in the second paragraph 'as the tasks of the World Health
Organization?
A. to promote the general health of everyone in the world
B. to support pharmaceutical diagnostics, and drugs
C. To combat diseases
D. To supply food for patients.
Question 41. According to the text, which disease has been eradicated?
A. Malaria B. AIDS C. SARS D. Smallpox
Question 42. According to the third paragraph, the World Health Organization ______.
A. has not developed vaccines against malaria yet
B. is trying to eradicate polio
C. is not concerned about polio
D. also carries out various health-related campaigns
Question 43. The word “combat” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______
A. fight B. disapprove C. object D. release
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
IS IT SAFE?
Fracking is a way of getting energy from the ground. First, a special liquid is put into the ground. This
liquid cracks rocks under the ground. After the rocks are cracked, oil moves through the cracks. Then it is
much easier to take the oil from the ground. Fracking was started in 1947. These days, we are doing more
and more fracking. That is why everyone is suddenly talking about it.
A lot of people say that fracking is a good way to get energy. There is some gas that is very difficult
to take from the ground. If we didn’t use fracking, we would not be able to get this oil. They say that because
the world need more energy, we have to use fracking. Also, it is said that fracking creates a lot of jobs.
However, many people are against fracking. They say that fracking’s “special liquid” pollutes the
ground, the water, and the air. People who live near fracking areas could have health problems. Moreover,
fracking is very loud.
In some countries, fracking is now illegal. The first country to make fracking illegal was France. They
did that in 2011. In other countries like England, fracking is legal, but there are many rules that control it.
Other countries are waiting to learn more about fracking before they decide whether or not to allow it.
However, fracking is very big in the United States. The US is number one fracking country in the world.
People who support fracking say that it can be very safe. They say that first, we need strong laws to
make sure that fracking is always done safely. Second, they say that fracking needs safe methods and good
technology. It is said by many that after we develop these things, fracking will be great for the whole world.
However, other people want fracking to be illegal everywhere. They say that it will never be safe.
We still don’t know enough about fracking. After we learn more about it, we can decide whether it is
really a safe way to get energy or not.
Question 44: Fracking is most useful________.
A. to get oil from the ground in some difficult places
B. to mine precious minerals deep under the ground
C. to take natural gas from the ground
D. to make more jobs in any country in the world
Question 45: Which country does the most fracking?
A. England B. France C. The US D. China
Question 46: All of the following are true about fracking EXCEPT that________.
A. it is considered by many a good way to get energy
B. water is pumped into the ground through the cracks
C. it can cause air, water, and noise pollution
D. the tendency against fracking is increasing in several countries
Question 47: Why is everyone suddenly talking about fracking?
A. It was only invented two years ago.
B. There was a very big fracking accident.
C. We are doing a lot more fracking now.
D. Nobody knew about fracking before.
Question 48: What is an advantage of fracking?
A. It creates job opportunities. B. It is very clean.
C. It is very quiet. D. It makes people healthy.
Question 49: The word “big” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to________.
A. large B. enormous C. beneficial D. important
Question 50: Which of the following statements does the author support most?
A. Thanks to modem technology, fracking is really safe.
B. Fracking should be made illegal everywhere in the world.
C. We need more studies about fracking before making the final decision.
D. We continue using it and we can learn more about it.
GCSE TEST 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. creates B. faces C. strikes D. cigarettes
Question 2: A. heir B. handle C. hold D. humane
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. effect B. effort C. deafness D. cancer
Question 4: A. decoration B. economy C. expectation D. universal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: - "Why don't you ask Tom to do it?"
- "I don't know whether he is ____ to. He sometimes makes things worse."
A. possible B. afraid C. easy D. able
Question 6: Although Anne is happy with her success she wonders ____ will happen to her private life.
A. which B. what C. when D. that
Question 7: You can ____ what is happening on the other side of the world by telephone.
A. see B. make C. hear D. learn
Question 8: It is our ____ policy that we will achieve unity through peaceful means.
A. consistent B. continuous C. considerate D. continual
Question 9: I really want to become a pilot when I ____.
A. grow up B. talk about C. agree with D. get up
Question 10: We are aware that, ____, the situation will get worse.
A. unless dealing with carefully B. if dealt not carefully with
C. if not carefully dealt with D. if not carefully dealing with
Question 11: Never before ____ more foreign tourists to Viet Nam.
A. have there been B. there have been C. were there D. there were
Question 12: Justin is writing a book about his adventure in Tibet. I hope he can find a good publisher when
he ____.
A. finished B. has finished C. will finish D. is finishing
Question 13: I found it very stressful living in the centre of town, so I was pleased when we moved to a
quiet residential area in the ____.
A. edge B. suburbs C. estate D. outskirts
Question 14: A recent survey identified the UK as ____ place in Europe to buy a car.
A. an expensive as B. the more expensive
C. the expensive D. the most expensive
Question 15: Philip dressed in strange clothes and wore a mask on his face for a party. He was completely
____. No one knew who he was.
A. recognizing B. recognizable
C. unrecognizable D. unrecognizing
Question 16: ____ studies have found that while the learning process may be slower, healthy older people
can usually learn new things well.
A. To repeat B. Repeated C. Repeating D. Repeat
Question 17: The government ____ major changes to the education system recently.
A. warned B. declared C. announced D. expressed
Question 18: The packages just mailed at the post office will arrive on Monday, ____?
A. won't they B. will they C. did they D. didn't they
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
Question 19: I unexpectedly met a very old friend yesterday. In fact, we hadn't seen each other for several
years.
A. looked into B. ran into C. ran over D. looked for
Question 20: Trudy felt ill at ease when she had to speak in public for the first time.
A. felt uncomfortable and embarrassed B. lost confidence and got angry
C. felt challenged and inopportune D. felt nausea and dizzy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
Question 21: It was quite a rocky relationship as we used to argue with each other all the time and we
sometimes went days without speaking to each other.
A. stable B. appalling C. unsteady D. better
Question 22: I need to catch up on world events. I haven't seen the news in ages.
A. go ahead with B. catch sight of
C. become outdated D. watch the news
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: - "Do you read novels or detective stories?”
- “____”
A. I enjoy detective stories a lot more. B. Why novels? No more of them.
C. Yes, novels or detective stories. D. No, I don't have any.
Question 24: - “____”
- “He's very outgoing.”
A. What does your new roommate like?
B. What does your new roommate look like?
C. Are you and your new roommate alike?
D. What's your new roommate like?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
When you first arrive in a foreign country, your initial reaction is often completely positive.
Everything seems exciting, different and fascinating. It's (25) ____ adventure. If you're just on a short
holiday, you'll probably never leave this phase, but if you stay longer, your attitude towards your (26) ____
environment can start to change.
As soon as you start to realize how little you understand the new culture, life can get frustrating.
People misunderstand (27) ____ you're trying to say, or they may even laugh at you for saying something
incorrectly. Even simple things, like posting a letter, can seem impossibly difficult, and you are likely to
(28) ____ by getting angry or upset when things go wrong.
With time, however, you start to adjust to become more comfortable with the differences and better
able to handle frustrating and embarrassing (29) ____. Your sense of humour reappears. Finally, you reach
the stage of feeling able to be enthusiastic about the culture once again, enjoy living in it, and maybe even
prefer certain aspects of the culture to your own.
Question 25: A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 26: A. new B. original C. old D. natural
Question 27: A. how B. when C. which D. what
Question 28: A. outdo B. overcome C. overreact D. overflow
Question 29: A. conditions B. locations C. situations D.circumstances
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 30 to 34.
Many people believe the glare from snow causes snow-blindness. Yet, dark glasses or not, they find
themselves suffering from headaches and watering eyes, and even snow-blindness, when exposed to several
hours of "snow light".
The United States Army has now determined that the glare from snow does not cause snow-blindness
in troops in a snow-covered country. Rather, a man's eyes frequently find nothing to focus on in a broad
expanse of a snow-covered area. So his gaze continually shifts and jumps back and forth over the entire
landscape in search of something to look at. Finding nothing, hour after hour, the eyes never stop searching
and the eyeballs become sore and the eye muscles ache. Nature balances this annoyance by producing more
and more liquid which covers the eyeballs. The liquid covers the eyeballs in increasing quantity until vision
blurs. And the result is total, even though temporary, snow-blindness.
Experiments led the Army to a simple method of overcoming this problem. Scouts ahead of a main
body of troops are trained to shake snow from evergreen bushes, creating a dotted line as they cross
completely snow-covered landscape. Even the scouts themselves throw lightweight, dark-colored objects
ahead on which they too can focus. The men following can then see something. Their gaze is arrested. Their
eyes focus on a bush and having found something to see, stop searching through the snow-blanketed
landscape. By focusing their attention on one object at a time, the men can cross the snow without becoming
hopelessly snow-blind or lost: In this way the problem of crossing a solid white area is overcome.
Question 30: To prevent headaches, watering eyes and blindness caused by the glare from snow, dark
glasses are ____.
A. indispensible B. useful C. ineffective D. available
Question 31: The eyeballs become sore and the eye muscles ache because ____.
A. tears cover the eyeballs B. the eyes are annoyed by blinding sunlight
C. the eyes are annoyed by blinding snow D. there is nothing to focus on
Question 32: According to the passage, snow-blindness may be avoided by ____.
A. concentrating on the solid white terrain
B. searching for something to look at in snow-covered terrain
C. providing the eyes with something to focus on
D. covering the eyeballs with fluid
Question 33: The underlined word “they” in the third paragraph refers to ____.
A. experiments B. scouts C. main troops D. bushes
Question 34: A suitable title for this passage would be ____.
A. Snow-blindness and How to Overcome It B. Nature's Cure for Snow-blindness
C. Soldiers Marching in the Snow D. Snow Vision and Its Effect on Eyesight
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 35 to 42.
Some cities are located by chance. A wagon breaks down, the driver spends some time in repairs,
finds that he is in a congenial spot, and settles down. Later another person builds a house near his, and later
someone adds an inn. Someone else starts selling farm produce there. Soon there is a little market, which
grows to a town, and later to a city.
Other places were destined by nature to become cities. London, for example, is on what is called the
head of navigation - the point where it becomes too difficult for ocean-going ships to continue upriver, and
must transfer their cargoes. As with London, the head of navigation is also the point where the river can be
conveniently bridged. In fact, the location of a bridge is often the reason for the birth of a town - as
Cambridge or Weybridge in England show. Again, a good harbour will generally lead to a city growing up
about it. New York and San Francisco began life as ports, as did Cape Town in South Africa.
Some places were created mainly for military purposes, such as Milan, and the host of English cities
finishing with - cester, which is derived from castra which means camp in Latin. Chester itself, created to
guard the Welsh border, is a very good example. Other such military bases are Manchester, Doncaster, and
of course, Newcastle.
A few cites are not created by accident, but by intention. This was the case with Milton Keynes in
England, but the most famous examples of such cities are capitals. Brasilia, Canberra and Washington are
capitals created in modern times, but even their greatest admirers will admit that they lack a certain
character. It is no co-incidence that there are famous pop songs about New York, ("New York, New York")
Chicago ("My kind of Town") San Francisco ("Going to San Francisco") and many other US cities, but
none about the nation's capital. On the other hand any Londoner can give you at least three songs about the
place.
Question 35: This reading passage is mainly about ____.
A. why capital cities are created B. places where cities might begin
C. famous cities and urban life D. why some city sites are chosen
Question 36: The word "congenial” in the first paragraph probably means ____.
A. pleasing B. noisy C. related D. favourable
Question 37: According to the passage, London owes its origin to ____.
A. a river B. a bridge C. an army camp D. a countryside ship
Question 38: The passage suggests that a large harbour ____.
A. may lead to the development of a big city B. is important for import/export
C. is a place where wars start D. is always located in capital cities
Question 39: The passage suggests that English cities of military origin ____.
A. can be found from their locations B. can be found from their names
C. are more common than other cities D. always end with -cester
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that the word “Chester" has ____ roots.
A. Italian B. Roman C. Latin D. Latin American
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT given as a reason for a new city?
A. Random events B. Wars C. Trade D. Politics
Question 42: There are no songs about Washington because ____.
A. it is the national capital B. it is too modern
C. the city has little character D. songwriters don't like politics
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 43: Though its mouth is big, but a crocodile can swallow only small animals.
Question 44: More schools have built recently to make it convenient for children to receive education.
Question 45: When an Arab wants to know if his camel can make a long journey in the desert, he looks for
at its hump to see how large and firm it is.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46: Because he came to class late, the teacher punished him.
A. The teacher punished him if he came to class late.
B. He came to class late, but the teacher punished him.
C. The teacher threatened to punish him if he came to class late.
D. The teacher wouldn't have punished him if he hadn't come to class late.
Question 47: "Why don't you ask the Council for help?" my neighbour said.
A. My neighbour advised me to ask the Council for help.
B. My neighbour recommended asking the Council for help.
C. My neighbour told me not to ask the Council for help.
D. My neighbour wants to know why I don't ask the Council for help.
Question 48: After many long and tough hours of practice, Rita finally became an accomplished pianist.
A. Rita accomplished many long, tough hours of practice and became a pianist.
B. Rita's long and tough hours of practice helped her become an accomplished pianist.
C. After becoming an accomplished pianist, Rita spent many long, tough hours of practice.
D. Rita spent many long, tough hours accomplishing her piano practice.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Question 49: She chose to study accounting. Accounting has good employment prospects.
A. She chose to study accounting because of its good employment prospects.
B. Choosing to study accounting, she has good employment prospects.
C. She chose to study accounting so that it has good employment prospects.
D. Having good employment prospects, accounting is good for her to study.
Question 50: It isn't just that the level of education of this school is high. It's that it's also been consistent
for years.
A. The level of education in this school, which is usually quite high, shows only slight variations
from year to year.
B. The standard of education is not high in this school, but at least all the students are at the same
level.
C. Not only are the standards of education good in this school, but it has maintained those standards
over the years.
D. It isn't fair to deny that this school is successful, as it has had the same high standards for many
years now.
GCSE TEST 5
Question 1: A. spice B. satellite C. polite D. police
Question 2: A. storage B. passage C. message D. teenage
Question 3: Her hair is the envy of the office.
A. to be criticised by others B. to be hated by others
C. to be the fashion of others D. to be liked and wanted by others
Question 4: After the earthquake we felt grateful to be alive.
A. sorrowful B. thankful C. mournful D. fateful
Question 5: There is a lot of opposition to the proposed changes.
A. disbelief B. inaccuracy C. appraisal D. disagreement
Question 6: A. apprentice B. preferential C. potential D. intelligent
Question 7: A. dismiss B. discount C. discuss D. district
Question 8: After rising the flag to commemorate the Independence Day, we all sang the national song.
A. to commemorate B. we all C. national song D. rising

Question 9: It’s difficult to get used to sleep in a tent after having soft, comfortable bed to lie on.
A. to sleep B. difficult C. having D. to lie on
Question 10: She wishes that we didn’t send her the candy yesterday because she’s on a diet.
A. on B. because C. her the candy D. didn’t send
Question 11: Out of the blue, he asked me to come with him to Europe.
A. Increasingly B. As I expected C. Politely D. As I prepared
Question 12: Through thick and thin, he’s proved a faithful friend.
A. betraying B. unselfish C. unbelievable D. unloyal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 13: We_______ you'll be at the meeting tomorrow. Is that right?
A. assess B. resume C. presume D. estimate
Question 14: He rarely lets his_______ down, especially with people he's only just met.
A. protection B. security C. guard D. safety
Question 15: I know she lives in London but I haven't got her_______ address.
A. particular B. actual C. unique D. real
Question 16: Last year the economy was stable but the_______ situation is quite different.
A. usual B. current C. actual D. unique
Question 17: I was quite taken_______ by his criticism of me. He's never done that before.
A. away B. over C. up D. aback
Question 18: At the_______ time we're working hard to solve the problems.
A. usual B. actual C. common D. present
Question 19: As_______ Jenny was late for school. She always oversleeps.
A. usual B. regular C. typical D. individual
Question 20: I don’t have anything in_______ with her. She's quite different from me.
A. ordinary B. common C. usual D. same
Question 21: Do you want to do anything in_______ today?
A. typical B. actual C. particular D. common
Question 22: Ken has decided to_______. He’s leaving the UK to go and live in Australia.
A. emigrate B. emerge C. immigrate D. integrate
Question 23: We went on a business_______ to Berlin last week.
A. journey B. voyage C. holiday D. trip
Question 24: That necklace is_______ . There's no other like it in the world.
A. particular B. alone C. individual D. unique
answer to each of the questions.
THE FUTURE OF ENTERTAINMENT
More than ever, media is separating into mass market blockbusters on the one hand and ‘niche’
products - attracting small groups of people with similar interests - on the other. Everything else is struggling
to compete.
Joe Swanberg makes films about the romantic lives of young people in the city. He shoots quickly
with a digital camera and asks actors to wear their own clothes. His low-budget films are hardly ever shown
in cinemas. By keeping his costs down and distributing digitally, Mr Swanberg is making a living.
Technology was expected to help young people like him. A few years ago it was predicted that the
internet would vastly increase the supply of small independent films and other niche media products and
increase their audiences. That has certainly happened. However, so has the opposite. Blockbusters are also
tightening their grip on audiences, whether it’s in the area of film, music, television or books. The growth
of both niche products and huge sell-out successes has been at the expense of the things in the middle which
are just quite popular - the near-misses.
There are several reasons why big hits still do so well. As in the past, people still want to have
something to talk about with their friends. Which is why talent shows such as ‘American Idol’ do pretty
much as well as they did ten years ago and why the latest blockbuster still breaks new records at the box
office. Research shows that people still choose blockbusters more often than less well-known books and
films. This is probably because people tend to try only things they have heard of - which for many people
are limited to media-hyped blockbusters.
However, some things are new. All the technology that has made niche content so much more
accessible has also proved handy for pushing blockbusters. Missed the last popular film? Don’t worry,
because there will be other chances to see it, in a wide variety of formats. Blockbusters are doing well not
in spite of the fact that people have more choice in entertainment, but because of it. Imagine walking into a
music shop which has more than 10 million songs, as iTunes does, all of them arranged alphabetically.
Making up your mind would be impossible. So, rather than having to decide, it’s much easier to just grab
what everybody is talking about.
Is this increasingly more common separation into blockbusters and niches good or bad? It certainly
makes life harder for media companies. In a world where entertainment choices are growing, it is more
important than ever to make a big impact with your product. If it isn’t a hit, it will have to fight for attention
together with thousands - perhaps millions - of other offerings. The possibility of failing can make people
anxious and more conservative. Television programmes must be successful quickly or they will be
cancelled. It is becoming even harder to talk the decision-makers in the movie industry into approving films
if they are not confident there is a demand for them.
Yet this can be a big advantage for consumers. In the past, these powerful business people could get
away with supplying content that was not that good to people who did not have much of a choice. These
days, with so many options, there is rarely nothing good on television. So the media industry must raise its
game. Intelligent people naturally wish that more money were available to produce the kind of music, films
and television programmes they like. The problem is that everybody has different ideas about exactly what
they want to watch. Some may love watching a programme about the history of dance; others may want to
spend an hour being told how to look after pet snakes. But not many want to do either of these things, which
explains why such programmes are niche products. There are only a few things that can be guaranteed to
delight large numbers of people. They are known as blockbusters.
Question 25: In paragraph 1 we learn that Joe Swanberg's films are________.
A. often bought on DVD. B. rarely seen in cinemas.
C. are made for young people in the city. D. usually low-budget costume dramas.
Question 26: As a result of these changes, media companies________.
A. are finding it more difficult to make an impression.
B. know there is a growing demand for their products.
C. can get financial backing quite easily.
D. tend to produce more unusual films than before.
Question 27: According to paragraph 3, blockbuster success is because people________.
A. are reluctant to see films they’ve never heard of.
B. like watching and talking about reality shows.
C. prefer to see famous actors in films.
D. only watch films recommended to them by friends.
Question 28: What does paragraph 6 say about the situation nowadays?
A. Consumers are benefiting from it.
B. Better films and TV programmes are being made.
C. Making programmes is easier than before.
D. There is hardly anything good on television.
Question 29: What does 'they' refer to in paragraph 5?
A. consumers B. movie industry decision-makers
C. television programmes D. media companies
Question 30: What impact has technology had on the movie business according to paragraph 2?
A. Small independent film-makers are struggling to find an audience.
B. Fewer young people are attracted to the industry.
C. Audiences are still enjoying blockbuster films.
D. There is more choice available in the middle market area.
Question 31: Paragraph 4 indicates that people may________.
A. be confused by the choice presented to them.
B. choose niche films because of their availability.
C. not understand all the different formats available.
D. prefer to listen to music than watch films these days.
Question 32: What does 'it' refer to in paragraph 3?
A. the technology B. the choice in entertainment
C. the last popular film D. the variety of format
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the
energy to get out of bed (31)_______ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children
are in danger of getting so (32)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at
(33)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (34)_______ teenagers
require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (35)_______ anything
between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
(By Tim Falla and Paul A.Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP)
Question 31. A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time
Question 32. A. few B. less C. much D. little
Question 33. A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
Question 34. A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
Question 35. A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid material such as
silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as
salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct
electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least
one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly
ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are
negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move
they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected
to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals
such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are
likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and
again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an
electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions
flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or
dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions
cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain
no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor
conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a
water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter
does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the
problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that
is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
(By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teacher. OUP)
Question 36. Electrical conductivity is_______.
A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
Question 37. The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means_______.
A. the lightest B. nearest to the inside
C. furthest from the inside D. the heaviest
Question 38. The atoms of a metal can bond together because_______.
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
B. they lose all of electrons
C. electrons can flow in a single direction
D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. charged ions B. electric currents C. charged particles D. electrical insulators
Question 40. According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to_______.
A. the absence of free electrons B. its atoms with a positive charge
C. the ways its atoms bond together D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
Question 41. Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because_______.
A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions can flow easily
C. it cannot create any charge ions D. its charged ions are not free to move
Question 42. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Electrical Energy B. Electrical Devices
Question 44: Mark can’t wait to use his new computer-games console.
A. Mark is not used to waiting for his new computer-games console.
B. Mark is looking forward to using his new computer-games console.
C. Mark is patiently waiting to use his new computer-games console.
D. Mark is eagerly waiting to use his new computer-games console.
Question 45: The only thing Carl forgot to buy was a new battery for his watch.
A. Carl remembered to buy not only a new battery but his watch as well.
B. Carl remembered to buy a new battery for his watch only.
C. Carl only remembered to buy a new battery for his watch.
D. Carl remembered to buy everything except a new battery for his watch.
Question 26. The president offered his congratulations to the players when they won the cup.
A. The President congratulated that the players had won the cup.
B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the president.
C. The President would offered the players congratulations if they won the match.
D. The President congratulated the players on their winning the match.
Question 46: The menu for the dinner looks great. I think we should have a better option for vegetarians.
A. The menu for the dinner looks great; however, I think we should have a better option for
vegetarians.
B. However good does the menu for the dinner look, we should have a better option for vegetarians,
I think.
C. I think we should have a better option for vegetarians; however, the menu for the dinner looks
good.
D. However the menu for the dinner looks good, I think we should have a better option for
vegetarians.
Question 47: I personally like rock music. Some of those attending might prefer something different.
A. Although I personally like rock music, some of those attending might prefer something different.
B. Although I personally like rock music, but some of those attending might prefer something
different.
C. In spite of I personally liking rock music, some of those attending might prefer something
different.
D. However personally I like rock music, some of those attending might prefer something different.
Question 48: Diana: “Can you do me a favor?” ~ Swan: “________________”
A. No, you can do it yourself. B. What would you like, Madam?
C. How much do you need? D. Oh, yes. With pleasure.
Question 49: Anna: “I beg your pardon. It seems I met you somewhere.” ~ Brian: “________________”
A. Sorry, sir. You take me for someone else. B. Yes, I’ve come here this morning.
C. I'm sorry, but I’m broke. D. Oh, yes. Our flight was comfortable.
Question 50: S: “It’s said that Laura’s going to marry her boss next week?”
~ B: “________________”
A. Well, that’s on the new script.
B. You’re telling me.
C. Nonsense. She graduated only there years ago.
D. It’s unbelievable. She‘s won a scholarship into Yale.
GCSE TEST 6
Question 1: A. spice B. satellite C. polite D. police
Question 2: A. storage B. passage C. message D. teenage
Question 3: Her hair is the envy of the office.
A. to be criticised by others B. to be hated by others
C. to be the fashion of others D. to be liked and wanted by others
Question 4: After the earthquake we felt grateful to be alive.
A. sorrowful B. thankful C. mournful D. fateful
Question 5: There is a lot of opposition to the proposed changes.
A. disbelief B. inaccuracy C. appraisal D. disagreement
Question 6: A. apprentice B. preferential C. potential D. intelligent
Question 7: A. dismiss B. discount C. discuss D. district
Question 8: After rising the flag to commemorate the Independence Day, we all sang the national song.
A. to commemorate B. we all C. national song D. rising

Question 9: It’s difficult to get used to sleep in a tent after having soft, comfortable bed to lie on.
A. to sleep B. difficult C. having D. to lie on
Question 10: She wishes that we didn’t send her the candy yesterday because she’s on a diet.
A. on B. because C. her the candy D. didn’t send
Question 11: Out of the blue, he asked me to come with him to Europe.
A. Increasingly B. As I expected C. Politely D. As I prepared
Question 12: Through thick and thin, he’s proved a faithful friend.
A. betraying B. unselfish C. unbelievable D. unloyal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 13: We_______ you'll be at the meeting tomorrow. Is that right?
A. assess B. resume C. presume D. estimate
Question 14: He rarely lets his_______ down, especially with people he's only just met.
A. protection B. security C. guard D. safety
Question 15: I know she lives in London but I haven't got her_______ address.
A. particular B. actual C. unique D. real
Question 16: Last year the economy was stable but the_______ situation is quite different.
A. usual B. current C. actual D. unique
Question 17: I was quite taken_______ by his criticism of me. He's never done that before.
A. away B. over C. up D. aback
Question 18: At the_______ time we're working hard to solve the problems.
A. usual B. actual C. common D. present
Question 19: As_______ Jenny was late for school. She always oversleeps.
A. usual B. regular C. typical D. individual
Question 20: I don’t have anything in_______ with her. She's quite different from me.
A. ordinary B. common C. usual D. same
Question 21: Do you want to do anything in_______ today?
A. typical B. actual C. particular D. common
Question 22: Ken has decided to_______. He’s leaving the UK to go and live in Australia.
A. emigrate B. emerge C. immigrate D. integrate
Question 23: We went on a business_______ to Berlin last week.
A. journey B. voyage C. holiday D. trip
Question 24: That necklace is_______ . There's no other like it in the world.
A. particular B. alone C. individual D. unique
THE FUTURE OF ENTERTAINMENT
More than ever, media is separating into mass market blockbusters on the one hand and ‘niche’
products - attracting small groups of people with similar interests - on the other. Everything else is struggling
to compete.
Joe Swanberg makes films about the romantic lives of young people in the city. He shoots quickly
with a digital camera and asks actors to wear their own clothes. His low-budget films are hardly ever shown
in cinemas. By keeping his costs down and distributing digitally, Mr Swanberg is making a living.
Technology was expected to help young people like him. A few years ago it was predicted that the
internet would vastly increase the supply of small independent films and other niche media products and
increase their audiences. That has certainly happened. However, so has the opposite. Blockbusters are also
tightening their grip on audiences, whether it’s in the area of film, music, television or books. The growth
of both niche products and huge sell-out successes has been at the expense of the things in the middle which
are just quite popular - the near-misses.
There are several reasons why big hits still do so well. As in the past, people still want to have
something to talk about with their friends. Which is why talent shows such as ‘American Idol’ do pretty
much as well as they did ten years ago and why the latest blockbuster still breaks new records at the box
office. Research shows that people still choose blockbusters more often than less well-known books and
films. This is probably because people tend to try only things they have heard of - which for many people
are limited to media-hyped blockbusters.
However, some things are new. All the technology that has made niche content so much more
accessible has also proved handy for pushing blockbusters. Missed the last popular film? Don’t worry,
because there will be other chances to see it, in a wide variety of formats. Blockbusters are doing well not
in spite of the fact that people have more choice in entertainment, but because of it. Imagine walking into a
music shop which has more than 10 million songs, as iTunes does, all of them arranged alphabetically.
Making up your mind would be impossible. So, rather than having to decide, it’s much easier to just grab
what everybody is talking about.
Is this increasingly more common separation into blockbusters and niches good or bad? It certainly
makes life harder for media companies. In a world where entertainment choices are growing, it is more
important than ever to make a big impact with your product. If it isn’t a hit, it will have to fight for attention
together with thousands - perhaps millions - of other offerings. The possibility of failing can make people
anxious and more conservative. Television programmes must be successful quickly or they will be
cancelled. It is becoming even harder to talk the decision-makers in the movie industry into approving films
if they are not confident there is a demand for them.
Yet this can be a big advantage for consumers. In the past, these powerful business people could get
away with supplying content that was not that good to people who did not have much of a choice. These
days, with so many options, there is rarely nothing good on television. So the media industry must raise its
game. Intelligent people naturally wish that more money were available to produce the kind of music, films
and television programmes they like. The problem is that everybody has different ideas about exactly what
they want to watch. Some may love watching a programme about the history of dance; others may want to
spend an hour being told how to look after pet snakes. But not many want to do either of these things, which
explains why such programmes are niche products. There are only a few things that can be guaranteed to
delight large numbers of people. They are known as blockbusters.
Question 25: In paragraph 1 we learn that Joe Swanberg's films are________.
A. often bought on DVD. B. rarely seen in cinemas.
C. are made for young people in the city. D. usually low-budget costume dramas.
Question 26: As a result of these changes, media companies________.
A. are finding it more difficult to make an impression.
B. know there is a growing demand for their products.
C. can get financial backing quite easily.
D. tend to produce more unusual films than before.
Question 27: According to paragraph 3, blockbuster success is because people________.
A. are reluctant to see films they’ve never heard of.
B. like watching and talking about reality shows.
C. prefer to see famous actors in films.
D. only watch films recommended to them by friends.
Question 28: What does paragraph 6 say about the situation nowadays?
A. Consumers are benefiting from it.
B. Better films and TV programmes are being made.
C. Making programmes is easier than before.
D. There is hardly anything good on television.
Question 29: What does 'they' refer to in paragraph 5?
A. consumers B. movie industry decision-makers
C. television programmes D. media companies
Question 30: What impact has technology had on the movie business according to paragraph 2?
A. Small independent film-makers are struggling to find an audience.
B. Fewer young people are attracted to the industry.
C. Audiences are still enjoying blockbuster films.
D. There is more choice available in the middle market area.
Question 31: Paragraph 4 indicates that people may________.
A. be confused by the choice presented to them.
B. choose niche films because of their availability.
C. not understand all the different formats available.
D. prefer to listen to music than watch films these days.
Question 32: What does 'it' refer to in paragraph 3?
A. the technology B. the choice in entertainment
C. the last popular film D. the variety of format
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the
energy to get out of bed (31)_______ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children
are in danger of getting so (32)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at
(33)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (34)_______ teenagers
require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (35)_______ anything
between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
(By Tim Falla and Paul A.Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP)
Question 31. A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time
Question 32. A. few B. less C. much D. little
Question 33. A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
Question 34. A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
Question 35. A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid material such as
silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as
salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct
electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least
one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly
ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are
negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.
An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move
they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected
to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals
such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are
likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and
again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an
electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions
flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or
dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions
cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain
no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor
conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a
water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter
does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the
problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that
is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
(By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teacher. OUP)
Question 36. Electrical conductivity is_______.
A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
Question 37. The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means_______.
A. the lightest B. nearest to the inside
C. furthest from the inside D. the heaviest
Question 38. The atoms of a metal can bond together because_______.
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
B. they lose all of electrons
C. electrons can flow in a single direction
D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. charged ions B. electric currents C. charged particles D. electrical insulators
Question 40. According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to_______.
A. the absence of free electrons B. its atoms with a positive charge
C. the ways its atoms bond together D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
Question 41. Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because_______.
A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions can flow easily
C. it cannot create any charge ions D. its charged ions are not free to move
Question 42. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Electrical Energy B. Electrical Devices
Question 44: Mark can’t wait to use his new computer-games console.
A. Mark is not used to waiting for his new computer-games console.
B. Mark is looking forward to using his new computer-games console.
C. Mark is patiently waiting to use his new computer-games console.
D. Mark is eagerly waiting to use his new computer-games console.
Question 45: The only thing Carl forgot to buy was a new battery for his watch.
A. Carl remembered to buy not only a new battery but his watch as well.
B. Carl remembered to buy a new battery for his watch only.
C. Carl only remembered to buy a new battery for his watch.
D. Carl remembered to buy everything except a new battery for his watch.
Question 26. The president offered his congratulations to the players when they won the cup.
A. The President congratulated that the players had won the cup.
B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the president.
C. The President would offered the players congratulations if they won the match.
D. The President congratulated the players on their winning the match.
Question 46: The menu for the dinner looks great. I think we should have a better option for vegetarians.
A. The menu for the dinner looks great; however, I think we should have a better option for
vegetarians.
B. However good does the menu for the dinner look, we should have a better option for vegetarians,
I think.
C. I think we should have a better option for vegetarians; however, the menu for the dinner looks
good.
D. However the menu for the dinner looks good, I think we should have a better option for
vegetarians.
Question 47: I personally like rock music. Some of those attending might prefer something different.
A. Although I personally like rock music, some of those attending might prefer something different.
B. Although I personally like rock music, but some of those attending might prefer something
different.
C. In spite of I personally liking rock music, some of those attending might prefer something
different.
D. However personally I like rock music, some of those attending might prefer something different.
Question 48: Diana: “Can you do me a favor?” ~ Swan: “________________”
A. No, you can do it yourself. B. What would you like, Madam?
C. How much do you need? D. Oh, yes. With pleasure.
Question 49: Anna: “I beg your pardon. It seems I met you somewhere.” ~ Brian: “________________”
A. Sorry, sir. You take me for someone else. B. Yes, I’ve come here this morning.
C. I'm sorry, but I’m broke. D. Oh, yes. Our flight was comfortable.
Question 50: S: “It’s said that Laura’s going to marry her boss next week?”
~ B: “________________”
A. Well, that’s on the new script.
B. You’re telling me.
C. Nonsense. She graduated only there years ago.
D. It’s unbelievable. She‘s won a scholarship into Yale.
GCSE TEST 7
questions.
Question 1. The costal city is _______ extra buses during the summer because of a considerable increase
in the number of tourists.
A. turning out. B. making up. C. taking off. D. putting on.
Question 2. Although she had been told quite sternly to _______ herself together, she simply couldn’t stop
the tears from flowing.
A. bring. B. force. C. pull. D. push.
Question 3. If our teacher were here now, he _______ us with this difficult exercise.
A. will help. B. would help. C. has helped. D. helps.
Question 4. They were at the stadium with us last night, so they _______ at the theatre then.
A. needn’t have been. B. might have been. C. should have been. D. can’t have been.
Question 5. _______ to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children’s psychological
development.
A. Approaching. B. Rising. C. Going. D. Reaching.
Question 6. Her parents rarely let her stay out late, _______?
A. doesn’t she. B. don’t they. C. does she. D. do they.
Question 7. Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop their _______ skills.
A. socially. B. socialize. C. social. D. society.
Question 8. The boy denied _______ the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.
A. to eating. B. eating. C. to eat. D. eat.
Question 9. In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher’s permission is clearly a copyright
_______.
A. infliction. B. infringement. C. interference. D. interpretation.
Question 10. These volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in _______ regions.
A. far-sighted. B. far-fetched. C. far-reaching. D. far-flung.
Question 11. The children _______ by social networks are likely to suffer from depression and other health
problems.
A. obsessing. B. obsessed. C. who obsessed. D. are obsessed.
Question 12. Only after the teacher _______ the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go ahead
with the experiment.
A. was explaining. B. would explain. C. had explained. D. has explained.
Question 13. Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging question
and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. got nervous. B. became aggressive. C. stayed confident. D. had a fever.
Question 14. Winning the first prize in the National Math Competition was the highest achievement he got
when he was at school.
A. comprehension. B. success. C. failure. D. completion.Mark the letter
A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. The team entered the competition with great confidence after getting sound advice from their
coach.
A. sensible. B. tentative. C. audible. D. sensitive.
Question 16. It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered species all over
the world.
A. adapted. B. improved. C. rebuilt. D. introduced.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of
Question 17. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: “I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life.”
- Jimmy: “_______. There were successful people without a degree.”
A. That’s all right. B. I don’t quite agree. C. I can’t agree more. D. That’s life.
Question 18. Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
- Adam: “_______”
- Janet: “Yes, please.”
A. It’s a bit hot in here, isn’t it? B. Do you mind if I sit here?
C. Can you pass me the salt, please? D. Would you like a cup of coffee?
Question 19. A. affect. B. happen. C. perform. D. obtain.
Question 20. A. assistant. B. president. C. companion. D. opponent.
Question 21. A. mountains. B. problems. C. moments. D. wonders.
Question 22. A. threat. B. seat. C. meat. D. beat.
Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math
skills of elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (23) _______ were published in
the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the development
of higher brain functions.
Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (24) _______ a
pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as time playing
(25) _______ newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and fraction tests than
other children.
Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain’s “hard wiring” for spatial-temporal reasoning, or the
ability to visualize and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the study.
At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that boost their
ability to (26) _______ shapes in their mind.
The findings are significant (27) _______ a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite
to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand move
advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields.
(Adapted from “Eye on Editing 2” by Joyce S. Cain)
Question 23. A. which. B. whose. C. who. D. that.
Question 24. A. composing. B. concerning. C. conducting. D. carrying.
Question 25. A. at. B. for. C. with. D. of.
Question 26. A. manipulate. B. accumulate. C. accommodate. D. stimulate.
Question 27. A. because. B. unless. C. before. D. although.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on how
they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it’s what’s inside that’s
important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative reaction, simply by
wearing inappropriate clothing.
When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you’re likely to
meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform.
Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this will
dictate your choice to an extent. However, there’s no need to abandon your individual taste completely.
After all, if you dress to please somebody else’s idea of what looks good, you may end up feeling
uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out appearance.
Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you really like subtle
neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You know deep down
where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do take care not to go too
far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn’t selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will benefit.
You’ll look better and you’ll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to read Professor
Albert Mehrabian’s book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on each other depends
55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only seven percent on what we
actually say.
(Adapter from “Expert First” by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)
Question 28. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
B. Making Judgements about People’s Appearance
C. Making Your Image Work for You
D. Creating a Professional Image
Question 29. According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by _______.
A. talking about other people’s behaviours. B. sending out right signals.
C. wearing inappropriate clothes. D. expressing too strong emotions.
Question 30. The word “outfits” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. sets of clothes. B. types of signals.
C. types of gestures. D. sets of equipment.
Question 31. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be considered when
choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in. B. Other people’s views on beauty.
C. Kinds of tasks you perform. D. People you meet.
Question 32. The word “others” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. neutral tones. B. taste boundaries. C. colours. D. means.
Question 33. The word “Reappraising” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. reapplying. B. reconsidering. C. reminding. D. recalling.
Question 34. According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other depends mainly
on _______.
A. how we speak. B. how we look and behave.
C. what we read. D. what we actually say.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having
tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it’s highly likely that children will be aware of well-
known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this
is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good
behavior and fair play aren’t the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behavior
are reasonable ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of
these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded
either despite or because of their bad behavior.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss
attitudes and behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing
at the referee, they can get the child’s opinion on that behavior and discuss whether a player’s skill is more
important than their behavior. Ask what the child thinks the player’s contribution to the team is. Point out
that no player can win a team game on their own, so it’s important for members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior from players,
think it’s amusing or even consider it’s a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players get away
with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on the game.
Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or scowl and
show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to remind children
that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should
make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that
well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can
focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team.
In the interviews after a game, point out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don’t gloat when they
win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their
personal lives and the good work they do for others when not playing. In other words, parents should get
their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more
publicized players.
(Adapter from “New English File – Advanced” by Will Maddox)
Question 35. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of team spirit in sport
B. The influence of model sportspeople on children
C. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
D. Different attitudes toward bad behavior in sport
Question 36. The word “bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inspired. B. represented. C. energized. D. reinforced.
Question 37. According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to think that
_______.
A. it is an acceptable way to win the game. B. it is necessary in almost any game.
C. it brings about undesirable results. D. it is disadvantagesous to all concerned.
Question 38. According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through watching sports?
A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
B. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
C. A player’s performance is of greater value than his behavior.
D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team’s success.
Question 39. The word “accentuate” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by _______.
A. highlight. B. embolden. C. consolidate. D. actualize.
Question 40. The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. children. B. spectators. C. teammates. D. parents.
Question 41. Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sports people’s wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
B. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
C. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams’ budgets than others.
D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
Question 43. “I’m sorry I haven’t finished the assignment,” Fiona said.
A. Fiona apologised for not finishing the assignment.
B. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment.
C. Fiona refused to finish the assignment.
D. Fiona denied having finished the assignment.
Question 44. Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less energy.
A. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy.
B. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy.
C. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations.
D. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations.
Question 45. It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work.
B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She doesn’t usually drive to work in an hour.
D. She usually spends an hour driving to work.
Question 46. Drawing on her own experience in psychology, the writer successfully portrayed a volatile
A B
character with dramatic alternatives of mood.
C D
Question 47. It was the year 2014 that Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was made a World Heritage
A B C
Site by UNESCO.
D
Question 48. My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community/
A B C D
Question 49. He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle down.
A. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down.
B. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and settle down.
C. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and settle down.
D. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn’t fulfil his dream of travelling the world.
Question 50. She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the festival.
B. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don’t know she has artistic talent.
C. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don’t know about her great performance at the festival.
D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn’t know about her artistic talent now.
ĐÁP ÁN
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D
11. B 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. A
31. B 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. D
41. D 42. A 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. D
GCSE TEST 8
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. stopped B. decided C. worked D. washed
Question 2. A. valentine B. discipline C. determine D. imagine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. promote B. profess C. product D. provide
Question 4. A. property B. regular C. different D. achieving
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 5. I’d prefer to do it on myself, because other people make me nervous.
A. I’d prefer B. on myself C. other D. make
Question 6. The continental shelves in the shallow area of the ocean floor is closet to the continents.
A. shelves B. of C. ocean floor D. closet to
Question 7. The average adult get two to five colds each year.
A. The B. get C. to D. colds
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following
questions.
Question 8. Since our train leaves at 10.30, it is ____________that everyone be at the station no later than
10.15.
A. urgent B. inescapable C. desired D. imperative
Question 9. Insects and bugs ____________.
A. make my skin march B. make my skin turn
C. make my skin crawl D. make my skin walk
Question 10. Mrs. Robinson _______ great pride in her cooking.
A. has B. finds C. gets D. takes
Question 11. The fastest runner took the ___________ just five metres before the finishing line.
A. advance B. lead C. place D. head
Question 12. The teacher as well as his students____________ at the school meeting yet.
A. arrived B. hasn’t arrived C. haven’t arrived D. not arriving
Question 13. If I had been absent from class yesterday, I___ the math test
A. would miss B. would have missed C. will miss D. miss
Question 14: Tennis fans _____ tickets have been queuing all night at Wimbledon.
A. who are hoped to buy B. whom hoped to buy C. hoping to buy D. hoped to buy
Question 15. We’re free most of the weekend, but we’ve got a few bits and ____________to do on Sunday
morning.
A. stuff B. ends C. things D. pieces
Question 16. Ann pretended ______ me as he passed me in the street.
A. not seeing B. not to seen C. not see D. not to see
Question 17. My daughter plays _____ piano very well.
A. the B. a C. X D. an
Question 18. . In this course, students receive _______ in the basic English grammar.
A. instruct B. instructional C. instruction D. instructive
Question 19. In the early years of the 20th century, several rebellions______in the northern parts of the
country.
A. turned out B. rose up C. broke out D. came up
Question 20. I have just bought a television set __ in Japan.
A. which made B. in which made C. who is made D. made
Question 21……… she got the salary last week, she has complained that she is out of money.
A. Unless B. Even though C. In case D. As
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
Question 22. Marcelo: "Reese, make us some tea, would you?" - (#Name2): "_____________."
A. Go on. Make yourself at home B. No, I won't, I'm afraid
C. Sorry, I am not D. I'm afraid I can't
Question 23. Esme: "Do you have a minute?" - Kailyn: "_____________."
A. Well, that makes sense B. Yes, but please be brief
C. That's just great. Thanks D. Sorry, I left my watch home
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. Our team must develop a new strategy in order to deal with the serious problem.
A. expand B. grow C. arise D. invent
Question 25. Several hypotheses for global warming have been suggested by the scientists.
A. supposition B. study C. research D. truth
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 26. The band had an outstanding performance at the Grand Theatre last night.
A. good B. excellent C. gentle D. bad
Question 27. The writer was really hot under the collar when his novel was mistaken for another.
A. angry B. worried C. calm D. curious

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
Question 28. Bill drives more carelessly than he used to.
A. Bill doesn’t drive as carefully as he used to
B. Bill doesn’t more drive carefully than he used to
C. Bill doesn’t drive as carefully he used to
D. Bill doesn’t drive as carefully as he used
Question 29. “What were you doing last night, Mr John?” asked the police.
A. The police asked what were you doing last night, Mr John
B. The police asked Mr John what he had been doing the night before
C. The police asked Mr John what he had been done the night before
D. The police asked Mr John what had he been done the night before
Question 30. It wasn’t necessary for you to do all this work.
A. You mustn’t have done all this work. B. You couldn’t have done all this work
C. You may not have done all this work D. You needn’t have done all this work
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31. He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.
Question 32. Susan did not buy that villa. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes she had bought that villa. B. Susan regrets having bought that villa.
C. If only Susan didn’t buy that villa. D. Susan wished she hadn’t bought that villa.
When you first arrive in a foreign culture, often your first reaction is completely positive. Everything
seems exciting, different and fascinating. It’s an (33)_______. If you are just on a short holiday, you will
probably never leave this phase.
(34)_______, if you stay longer, your attitude can start to change. As you start to realize (35)_______
little you really understand the new culture, life can get frustrating. People misunderstand what you are
trying to say, or they may laugh at you when you say something incorrectly. Even simple things, like posting
a letter, can seem very difficult to you. Thus, you are likely to get angry or upset when things go wrong.
With time, though, you start to (36)_______ to become more comfortable with the differences and
better able to handle frustrating situations. Your (37)_______ of humor reappears. Finally, you may feel
enthusiastic about the culture once again, enjoy living in it, and even prefer certain aspects of the culture to
your own.
(Adapted from Navigate – Coursebook, OUP 2015)
Question 33. A. adventure B. adventurous C. adventurer D. adventurously
Question 34. A. Therefore B. Or C. However D. Nor
Question 35. A. whether B. how C. if D. what
Question 36. A. replace B. maintain C. adjust D. keep
Question 37. A. taste B. sense C. touch D. sound
Choose the item (A, B, C or D) that best completes the unfinished statement.
Sometimes people add to what they say even when they don't talk. Gestures are the "silent
language" of every culture. We point a finger or move another part of the body to show what we
want to say. It is important to know the body language of every country or we may be
misunderstood. In the United States, people greet each other with a handshake in a formal
introduction. The handshake must be firm. If the handshake is weak, it is a sign of weakness or
unfriendliness. Friends may place a hand on the other' s arm or shoulder. Some people, usually
women, greet a friend with a hug.
Space is important to Americans. When two people talk to each other, they usually stand
about two and a half feet away and at an angle, so they are not facing each other directly. Americans
get uncomfortable when a person stands too close. They will move back to have their space. If
Americans touch another person by accident, they say, "Pardon me." or "Excuse me." Americans
like to look the other person in the eyes when they are talking. If you don't do so, it means you are
bored, hiding something, or are not interested. But when you are stare at someone, it is not polite.
For Americans, thumbs-up means yes, very good, or well done. Thumbs down means the opposite.
To call a waiter, raise one hand to head level or above. To show you want the check, make a
movement with your hands as if you are signing a piece of paper. It is all right to point at things
but not at people with the hand and index finger. Americans shake their index finger at children
when they scold them and pat them on the head when they admire them. Learning a culture's body
language is sometimes confusing. If you don't know what to do, the safest thing to do is to smile.
Question 38. From the passage we can learn that_______.
A. gestures don't mean anything while talking
B. It's confusing to understand a culture's body language
C. gestures can help us to express ourselves
D. American people often use body language in communication
Question 39. If you are introduced to a stranger from the USA, you should _______.
A. greet him with a hug B. place a hand on his shoulder
C. shake his hand weakly D. shake his hand firmly
Question 40. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to …….
A. Americans B. children C. fingers D. people
Question 41. When your friend give you a thumbs-up, he, in fact,…………….. .
A. shows his rudeness to you
B. shows his anger to you
C. expresses his satisfaction to you
D. expresses his worries about you
Question 42. The word “accident” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to…….
A. chance B. mishap C. misfortune D. disaster
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Atomic were once thought to be fundamental pieces of matter, but they are in turn made of smaller
subatomic particles There are three major subatomic particles neutrons, protons, and electronic. Protons and
neutrons can be broken into even smaller units, but these smaller units not occur naturally in nature and are
thought to only be produced in manmade particle accelerators and perhaps in extreme stellar events like
supernovas. The structure of an atom can best be described as a small solar system, with the neutrons at the
center and the electrons circling them in various orbits, just as the planets circle the sun. In reality, the
structure of an atom is far more complex, because the laws of physics are fundamentally different at the
atomic level than at the level of the observable word. The true nature of atomic structure can only be
expressed accurately through complex mathematical formulas. This explanation, however, is of little use to
most average people.
Protons and neutrons have nearly equal mass and size, but protons carry a positive electrical charge, while
neutrons carry no charge at all. Protons and neutrons are bound together by the strong nuclear force, one of
the four basic forces in the universe. Protons and neutrons give atoms some of their most basic properties.
Elements are defined by two numbers: their atomic number, which is equal to the number of protons they
have, and their atomic weight, which is equal to total number of their neutrons and protons. In most lighter
atoms, the number of neutrons and protons is equal, and the element is stable. In heavier atoms, however,
there are more neutrons than protons, and the element is unstable, eventually losing neutrons through
radioactive decay until a neutral state is reached.
Electrons are negatively charged particles. They are bound to their atoms through electromagnetic attraction.
Opposite electrical charges attract one another, so the positive charge of the proton helps to keep the
negatively charged electron in orbit around the nucleus of the atom. Electrons are different from neutrons
in that they cannot be broken down into smaller particles. They are also far smaller and lighter than neutrons
and protons. An electron is about one thousandth of the diameter of a proton and an even smaller fraction
of its mass. Electrons circle the protons and neutrons at the center of the atom in orbits. These orbits are
often called electron shells. The closer the orbit is to the center of the
atom, the lower its energy is. There are seven electron shells, and each higher level can hold more electrons
than the previous shell. Electrons naturally seek to occupy the lowest shell possible. So, if there is space in
a lower shell, an electron will drop down to occupy that space. At temperatures higher than a few hundred
degrees, electrons will gain energy and move to a higher shell, but only momentarily. When the electrons
drop back down to their natural shell, they emit light. This is why fires and other very hot objects seem to
glow.
Electrons are also primarily responsible for many of the chemical properties of atoms. Since electrons seek
to occupy the lowest electron shell possible, they will move from one atom to another if there is a space
available in a lower electron shell. For example, if there is an atom with an open space in its third shell, and
it comes into contact with an atom with electrons in its fourth shell, the first atom will take one of these
electrons to complete its third shell. When this happens, the two atoms will be chemically bonded to form
a molecule. Furthermore, atoms sometimes lose electrons in collisions with other atoms. When this happens,
the radio of protons and electrons in the atom changes, and therefore, the overall electrical charge of the
atom changes as well. These atoms are called isotopes, and they have significantly different chemical
properties from their parent atoms.
Question 43. In paragraph 1, why does the author compare the structure of an atom to a solar system?
A. To provide an explanation of atomic structure that will be easily understood.
B. To show the influence of atomic structure on the world at the observable level.
C. To show that the complex mathematical formulas used to explain atomic structure are inaccurate.
D. To contrast the size of atoms with the size of objects at the observable level.
Question 44. According to paragraph 2, an atom's atomic number is determined by __________.
A. the sum of its protons and electrons
B. the difference in the mass of its neutrons and protons
C. the strength of the bond between its protons and neutrons
D. the total number of protons it has
Question 45. The word "stable" in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. neutral B. unchanging C. equal D. heavy
Question 46. According to the information in paragraph 2, what will happen if an atom has more neutrons
than protons?
A. It will not have enough of a positive electrical charge to keep its electrons in orbit.
B. Its extra neutrons will be converted into light energy.
C. It will slowly give off neutrons until the atom becomes stable.
D. Its nucleus will explode in a supernova.
Question 47. The phrase "one another" in bold in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. electrons B. electrical charges C. particles D. atoms
Question 48. According to paragraph 3, when does an atom produce light?
A. When it has more electrons than its electron shells can hold.
B. When energy is added to the outermost electron shell.
C. When an electron drops back to its original electron shell.
D. When an electron is transferred from one atom to another.
Question 49. According to the passage, all of the following are true of electrons EXCEPT __________.
A. they are elementary particles and cannot be broken down
B. they are considerably smaller than neutrons or protons
C. their energy levels are fixed and unchanging
D. they are kept in orbit by electromagnetic attraction
Question 50. According to paragraph 4, which property of electrons is responsible for chemical bonding?
A. Their electromagnetic attraction to protons
B. Their tendency to occupy the lowest possible electron shell
C. The fact that they cannot be broken into smaller particles
D. Their ability to break free of their atom during a collision
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ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
MÔN TIẾNG ANH CÓ ĐÁP ÁN
Question 1: A. begged B. dogged C. buttoned D. blamed
Question 2: A. eventually B. shore C. proficient D. assure
questions.
Question 3: By next Saturday, Tom ______ a whole month without smoking a cigarette.
A. will go B. will have gone C. has gone D. has been going
Question 4: The man _______ his car outside hasn’t come back for it yet.
A. whom he left B. who he left C. who left D. whose
Question 5: She agreed that all the present paperwork ______ for everyone to have more time to socialize.
A. stopping B. be stopped C. to stop D. stopped
Question 6: I would rather Jane ______ my brother so much money when he asked for. I know for sure that
I will have to pay his debt.
A. not lend B. would not lend C. had not lent D. did not lend
Question 7: You should take regular exercise _____ sitting in front of the television all day.
A in spite of B. instead of C. without D. even
Question 8: I think almost everyone has heard the news from her, ________?
A. have they B. hasn't he C. haven't they D. don't I
Question 9: I remember ______ him tomorrow. It will be a big sum of money I’ve been saving so far.
A. paying B. to pay C. paid D. to be paid
Question 10: The lake had ice on it this morning. It ________ very cold last night.
A. must have gotten B. could have gotten C. would have gotten D. should have gotten
Question 11: The world-famous physicist and ______ Stephen Hawking published on important paper
before he died at the age of 76
A. cosmologist B. cosmologic C. cosmonaut D. cosmology
Question 12: Because the waiter didn’t ______ what I ordered, he brought me a mutton steak instead of the
chicken wings that I’d wanted.
A. call on B. stay up C. take down D. check in
Question 13: Italian TV has ______ a young composer to write an opera for the TV’s thirtieth anniversary.
A. appointed B. ordered C. consulted D. commissioned
Question 14: The acoustics in the concert hall were very poor and it was necessary to _____ performers’
voices.
A. increase B. exaggerate C. extend D. amplify
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. compile B. compose C. compete D. complex
Question 16: A. expectation B. opportunity C. temperament D. decoration
Question 17: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. happily C. traditionally D. readily
Question 18: At every faculty meeting, Ms. Volatie always manages to put her foot in her mouth.
A. move rapidly B. trip over her big feet C. fall asleep D. say the wrong thing
Question 19: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
B. If only he had been able to finish his book.
C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn't finish his book.
Question 20: The weather was so dismal. They had to cancel the picnic immediately.
A. The weather was too dismal that the picnic was canceled immediately.
B. The picnic would be canceled immediately since the weather was dismal.
C. So dismal was the weather that they had to cancel the picnic immediately.
D. The weather was enough dismal for them to cancel the picnic immediately.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: Adela and Phuong are talking about her new friend.
Adela: “________?” – Phuong: He’s tall and thin with blue eyes.”
A. What does he look like B. What is he like
C. How does he look like D. How is he like
Question 22: Fiana and Fallon are talking about the weather.
Fiana: “Isn’t it going to rain tonight?” – Fallon: “_________.”
A. Yes, it isn’t. B. I hope not C. I don’t hope so D. No, it is
Question 23: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive.
A. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive.
B. We weren’t as much impressed by the new cinema’s look as its cost.
C. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.
D. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but found it rather expensive.
Question 24: She said she would go to the police unless she was given her money back.
A. She went to the police because she hadn't got her money back.
B. She wasn’t given her money back because she had gone to the police.
C. She was given her money back and then went to the police.
D. She hasn't yet got her money back or gone to the police.
Question 25: As television programmes become more popular, they seem to get worse.
A. The more popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.
B. The most popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.
C. The popular television programmes, the worse they seem.
D. The more popular become television programmes, the worse they seem.
answer to each of the questions
Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on television. Most of them imagine that the
presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and
then go home. In fact, this image is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when
we need to know tomorrow's weather is the result of a hard day's work by the presenter, who is actually a
highly qualified meteorologist. Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the day is to
collect the latest data from the National Meteorological Office. This office provides up-to-the-minute
information about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and around the world. The
information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well as more technical
data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to translate the scientific
terminology and maps into images and words which viewers can easily understand. The final broadcast is
then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other programmes. The presenter decides what to
say and in what order to say it. Next a "story board" is drawn up which lays out the script word for word.
What makes a weather fore-cast more complicated than other programmes are the maps and electronic
images which are required. The computer has to be programmed so that the pictures appear in the cor-rect
order during the bulletin.
The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather re-port is screened after the
news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn't always know how much time is available,
which means that he/she has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time
available. Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it cannot be
pre-recorded. Live shows are very nerve-racking for the presenter because almost anything can go wrong.
Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather fore-caster is getting the following day's predictions
wrong. Unfortunately for them, this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is not always possible to
predict accurately. The weather is a national obsession in Britain, perhaps because it is so changeable. It’s
the national talking point, and most people watch at least one day bulletin. It can be mortifying for a weather
man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to wake up to brilliant sunshine. This day, a weather
forecaster’s job is even more complicated because they are relied upon to predict other environmental
conditions. For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include reports on ultraviolet radiation
intensity to help people avoid sunburn. The job of a weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated
than just pointing at a map and describing weather conditions. It's a job for professionals who can cope with
stressful and demanding conditions.
Question 26: What perception do most people have of weather forecasters?
A. They have many qualifications. B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.
C. They work very short hours. D. They always tell the truth.
Question 27: Meteorologists get their information from
A. the TV studio. B. the country’s main weather centre.
C. satellite and radar information. D. their office.
Question 28: Creating a weather forecast is complex because
A. maps have to be drawn. B. a lot of data has to be interpreted
C. radar pictures are technical. D. the information includes unreliable predictions.
Question 29: The computer has to be carefully programmed
A. so that the visuals are sequenced correctly.
B. so that the script is visible to the presenter.
C. because the script has to be written on a story board.
D. because electronic maps are used.
Question 30: Weather forecasters have to know the material well because
A. the broadcast is pre-recorded
B. the forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast.
C. the content of the report may have to change.
D. the length of the report may have to change.
Question 31: What does “this” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. The weather forecaster’s worry. B. Reading the weather live.
C. Giving a forecast that doesn't come true. D. An accurate prediction
Question 32: In Britain, people’s attitude to the weather
A. is not changeable.
B. makes it a top discussion topic.
C. depends on the prediction being for a sunny or rainy day.
D. is a national problem.
Question 33: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to
A.do experiments to determine the pollen count.
B. simply point at map and describe weather conditions
C. cope with professionals.
D. be able to cope under pressure
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 34: One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other
A. supportive B. tired C. intolerant D. unaward
Question 35: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. ill-educated B. qualified C. unskilled D. unimpaired
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks.
YOGA
Yoga is one of the most ancient forms of exercise, originating in India 5000 years ago. Yoga has taken
several years to become recognised world-wide, although recently, much more attention has been
(36)______ to it because of the ways in which it can benefit health. Yoga can be practised by anyone, at
any age, in any physical condition, depending on physical needs. For example, athletes and dancers can
practise it to (37)______ their energy and to improve stamina; executives to give a much needed (38)______
to their overworked minds; children to improve their memory and concentration. It's a good idea to
(39)______ with a doctor first if you've suffered from any type of injury. None of the exercises should
(40)______ you any pain, but it's best to start slowly at first. The best time to practise is either in the morning
or in the evening. Beginners find it easier in the evening when the body is more supple.
Question 36: A. put B. paid C. allowed D. provided
Question 37: A. receive B. return C. realize D. restore
Question 38: A. interruption B. pause C. interval D. break
Question 39: A. see B. check C. control D. call
Question 40: A. make B. do C. cause D. result
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 41: Prevented the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before were what
stopped the flood from reaching his house.
A. Prevented B. before C. what D. reaching
Question 42: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to because of the
hereditary nature of many diseases.
A. their B. tend to C. similar to D. because
Question 43: Neither of the two candidates who had applied for admission to the Industrial Engineering
department were eligible for admission.
A. who B. had applied C. to D. were
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the correct
There is a wide range of organisms by their population whose lives mostly depend on how they hunt or are
hunted. And most living organisms have some way of protecting themselves from natural predators. Some
mammals, like the platypus, carry internal toxins to transmit to predators via biting or other means, and
some plants protect themselves by being poisonous. The African crested rat was originally thought to be
poisonous because predators that tried to eat it often became paralyzed. But scientists have recently learned
that's not actually the case.
The crested rat chews on the poisonous bark of a certain tree, and then smears the chewed-up substance
onto its fur, where a strip of special quill-like hairs soaks up the poisonous mixture. Though similar to a
porcupine's, the quills do differ: whereas the porcupine defends itself by poking predators, the African rat
uses its quill-like hairs to deliver poison to them. When a predator comes after it, instead of running away,
the rat stays put and parts its hair to reveal the strip of fur on its back where the poison is being stored. That
raised strip is the first thing that receives a bite, and the poison inside disables the predator. These hair tubes
are unusual. In fact, scientists do not know of another animal that uses plant poison in this way.
Scientists are puzzled that the rat doesn't appear to be affected by the poison. Because it affects heartbeat
regulation, understanding how the rat can keep its heart rate regulated effectively while using the poison
could help scientists develop new medicines for people with heart trouble. And they hope that those
suffering from heart diseases will benefit from this.
Question 44: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To show how animals can affect plant life. B. To compare one animal to other similar
ones.
C. To emphasize the dangers of researching animals.
D. To discuss an unusual animal defense technique.
Question 45: In paragraph 1, why does the author mention the platypus?
A. To illustrate that mammals may eat poisonous plants.
B. To give an example of a mammal that uses poison.
C. To show how it differs from the crested rat.
D. To explain that the platypus is at risk.
Question 46: The word “paralyzed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. disabled B. unaffected C. inaccessible D. undecided
Question 47: In paragraph 2, what does the word “them” refer to?
A. predators B. porcupines C. crested rats D. quill-like hairs
Question 48: The word “defends” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. encourages B. protects C. feeds D. pretends
Question 49: What are scientists surprised by?
A. How toxic plant poison can be. B. How useful plant toxins can be.
C. How quickly rats learn new behavior. D. That the rats are protected from the poison.
Question 50: What would scientists like to investigate further?
A. Medicine used to counteract poison. B. Other animals like the crested rat.
C. Health effects of a chemical. D. Rats with unhealthy hearts.
ĐÁP ÁN
1-B 2-A 3-B 4-C 5-D 6-C 7-B 8-C 9-B 10-A
11-A 12-C 13-D 14-A 15-D 16-C 17-C 18-D 19-C 20-C
21-A 22-B 23-D 24-D 25-A 26-C 27-B 28-B 29-A 30-D
31-C 32-D 33-D 34-A 35-C 36-B 37-D 38-D 39-B 40-C
41-A 42-C 43-D 44-D 45-B 46-A 47-A 48-B 49-D 50-D
GCSE TEST 9
Question 1: A. begged B. dogged C. buttoned D. blamed
Question 2: A. eventually B. shore C. proficient D. assure
questions.
Question 3: By next Saturday, Tom ______ a whole month without smoking a cigarette.
A. will go B. will have gone C. has gone D. has been going
Question 4: The man _______ his car outside hasn’t come back for it yet.
A. whom he left B. who he left C. who left D. whose
Question 5: She agreed that all the present paperwork ______ for everyone to have more time to socialize.
A. stopping B. be stopped C. to stop D. stopped
Question 6: I would rather Jane ______ my brother so much money when he asked for. I know for sure that
I will have to pay his debt.
A. not lend B. would not lend C. had not lent D. did not lend
A in spite of B. instead of C. without D. even
Question 8: I think almost everyone has heard the news from her, ________?
A. have they B. hasn't he C. haven't they D. don't I
Question 9: I remember ______ him tomorrow. It will be a big sum of money I’ve been saving so far.
A. paying B. to pay C. paid D. to be paid
Question 10: The lake had ice on it this morning. It ________ very cold last night.
A. must have gotten B. could have gotten C. would have gotten D. should have gotten
Question 11: The world-famous physicist and ______ Stephen Hawking published on important paper
before he died at the age of 76
A. cosmologist B. cosmologic C. cosmonaut D. cosmology
Question 12: Because the waiter didn’t ______ what I ordered, he brought me a mutton steak instead of the
chicken wings that I’d wanted.
A. call on B. stay up C. take down D. check in
Question 13: Italian TV has ______ a young composer to write an opera for the TV’s thirtieth anniversary.
A. appointed B. ordered C. consulted D. commissioned
Question 14: The acoustics in the concert hall were very poor and it was necessary to _____ performers’
voices.
A. increase B. exaggerate C. extend D. amplify
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. compile B. compose C. compete D. complex
Question 16: A. expectation B. opportunity C. temperament D. decoration
Question 17: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. happily C. traditionally D. readily
Question 18: At every faculty meeting, Ms. Volatie always manages to put her foot in her mouth.
A. move rapidly B. trip over her big feet C. fall asleep D. say the wrong thing
Question 19: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
B. If only he had been able to finish his book.
C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn't finish his book.
Question 20: The weather was so dismal. They had to cancel the picnic immediately.
A. The weather was too dismal that the picnic was canceled immediately.
B. The picnic would be canceled immediately since the weather was dismal.
C. So dismal was the weather that they had to cancel the picnic immediately.
D. The weather was enough dismal for them to cancel the picnic immediately.
Question 21: Adela and Phuong are talking about her new friend.
Adela: “________?” – Phuong: He’s tall and thin with blue eyes.”
A. What does he look like B. What is he like
C. How does he look like D. How is he like
Question 22: Fiana and Fallon are talking about the weather.
Fiana: “Isn’t it going to rain tonight?” – Fallon: “_________.”
A. Yes, it isn’t. B. I hope not C. I don’t hope so D. No, it is
Question 23: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive.
A. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive.
B. We weren’t as much impressed by the new cinema’s look as its cost.
C. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.
D. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but found it rather expensive.
Question 24: She said she would go to the police unless she was given her money back.
A. She went to the police because she hadn't got her money back.
B. She wasn’t given her money back because she had gone to the police.
C. She was given her money back and then went to the police.
D. She hasn't yet got her money back or gone to the police.
A. The more popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.
B. The most popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.
C. The popular television programmes, the worse they seem.
D. The more popular become television programmes, the worse they seem.
answer to each of the questions
Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on television. Most of them imagine that the
presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and
then go home. In fact, this image is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when
we need to know tomorrow's weather is the result of a hard day's work by the presenter, who is actually a
highly qualified meteorologist. Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the day is to
collect the latest data from the National Meteorological Office. This office provides up-to-the-minute
information about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and around the world. The
information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well as more technical
data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to translate the scientific
terminology and maps into images and words which viewers can easily understand. The final broadcast is
then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other programmes. The presenter decides what to
say and in what order to say it. Next a "story board" is drawn up which lays out the script word for word.
What makes a weather fore-cast more complicated than other programmes are the maps and electronic
images which are required. The computer has to be programmed so that the pictures appear in the cor-rect
order during the bulletin.
The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather re-port is screened after the
news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn't always know how much time is available,
which means that he/she has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time
available. Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it cannot be
pre-recorded. Live shows are very nerve-racking for the presenter because almost anything can go wrong.
Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather fore-caster is getting the following day's predictions
wrong. Unfortunately for them, this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is not always possible to
predict accurately. The weather is a national obsession in Britain, perhaps because it is so changeable. It’s
the national talking point, and most people watch at least one day bulletin. It can be mortifying for a weather
man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to wake up to brilliant sunshine. This day, a weather
forecaster’s job is even more complicated because they are relied upon to predict other environmental
conditions. For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include reports on ultraviolet radiation
intensity to help people avoid sunburn. The job of a weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated
than just pointing at a map and describing weather conditions. It's a job for professionals who can cope with
stressful and demanding conditions.
Question 26: What perception do most people have of weather forecasters?
A. They have many qualifications. B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.
C. They work very short hours. D. They always tell the truth.
Question 27: Meteorologists get their information from
A. the TV studio. B. the country’s main weather centre.
C. satellite and radar information. D. their office.
Question 28: Creating a weather forecast is complex because
A. maps have to be drawn. B. a lot of data has to be interpreted
C. radar pictures are technical. D. the information includes unreliable predictions.
Question 29: The computer has to be carefully programmed
A. so that the visuals are sequenced correctly.
B. so that the script is visible to the presenter.
C. because the script has to be written on a story board.
D. because electronic maps are used.
Question 30: Weather forecasters have to know the material well because
A. the broadcast is pre-recorded
B. the forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast.
C. the content of the report may have to change.
D. the length of the report may have to change.
Question 31: What does “this” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. The weather forecaster’s worry. B. Reading the weather live.
C. Giving a forecast that doesn't come true. D. An accurate prediction
Question 32: In Britain, people’s attitude to the weather
A. is not changeable.
B. makes it a top discussion topic.
C. depends on the prediction being for a sunny or rainy day.
D. is a national problem.
Question 33: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to
A.do experiments to determine the pollen count.
B. simply point at map and describe weather conditions
C. cope with professionals.
D. be able to cope under pressure
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 34: One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other
A. supportive B. tired C. intolerant D. unaward
Question 35: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. ill-educated B. qualified C. unskilled D. unimpaired
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks.
YOGA
Yoga is one of the most ancient forms of exercise, originating in India 5000 years ago. Yoga has taken
several years to become recognised world-wide, although recently, much more attention has been
(36)______ to it because of the ways in which it can benefit health. Yoga can be practised by anyone, at
any age, in any physical condition, depending on physical needs. For example, athletes and dancers can
practise it to (37)______ their energy and to improve stamina; executives to give a much needed (38)______
to their overworked minds; children to improve their memory and concentration. It's a good idea to
(39)______ with a doctor first if you've suffered from any type of injury. None of the exercises should
(40)______ you any pain, but it's best to start slowly at first. The best time to practise is either in the morning
or in the evening. Beginners find it easier in the evening when the body is more supple.
Question 36: A. put B. paid C. allowed D. provided
Question 37: A. receive B. return C. realize D. restore
Question 38: A. interruption B. pause C. interval D. break
Question 39: A. see B. check C. control D. call
Question 40: A. make B. do C. cause D. result
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 41: Prevented the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the farmer many years before were what
stopped the flood from reaching his house.
A. Prevented B. before C. what D. reaching
Question 42: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to because of the
hereditary nature of many diseases.
A. their B. tend to C. similar to D. because
Question 43: Neither of the two candidates who had applied for admission to the Industrial Engineering
department were eligible for admission.
A. who B. had applied C. to D. were
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the correct
There is a wide range of organisms by their population whose lives mostly depend on how they hunt or are
hunted. And most living organisms have some way of protecting themselves from natural predators. Some
mammals, like the platypus, carry internal toxins to transmit to predators via biting or other means, and
some plants protect themselves by being poisonous. The African crested rat was originally thought to be
poisonous because predators that tried to eat it often became paralyzed. But scientists have recently learned
that's not actually the case.
The crested rat chews on the poisonous bark of a certain tree, and then smears the chewed-up substance
onto its fur, where a strip of special quill-like hairs soaks up the poisonous mixture. Though similar to a
porcupine's, the quills do differ: whereas the porcupine defends itself by poking predators, the African rat
uses its quill-like hairs to deliver poison to them. When a predator comes after it, instead of running away,
the rat stays put and parts its hair to reveal the strip of fur on its back where the poison is being stored. That
raised strip is the first thing that receives a bite, and the poison inside disables the predator. These hair tubes
are unusual. In fact, scientists do not know of another animal that uses plant poison in this way.
Scientists are puzzled that the rat doesn't appear to be affected by the poison. Because it affects heartbeat
regulation, understanding how the rat can keep its heart rate regulated effectively while using the poison
could help scientists develop new medicines for people with heart trouble. And they hope that those
suffering from heart diseases will benefit from this.
Question 44: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To show how animals can affect plant life. B. To compare one animal to other similar
ones.
C. To emphasize the dangers of researching animals.
D. To discuss an unusual animal defense technique.
Question 45: In paragraph 1, why does the author mention the platypus?
A. To illustrate that mammals may eat poisonous plants.
B. To give an example of a mammal that uses poison.
C. To show how it differs from the crested rat.
D. To explain that the platypus is at risk.
Question 46: The word “paralyzed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. disabled B. unaffected C. inaccessible D. undecided
Question 47: In paragraph 2, what does the word “them” refer to?
A. predators B. porcupines C. crested rats D. quill-like hairs
Question 48: The word “defends” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. encourages B. protects C. feeds D. pretends
Question 49: What are scientists surprised by?
A. How toxic plant poison can be. B. How useful plant toxins can be.
C. How quickly rats learn new behavior. D. That the rats are protected from the poison.
Question 50: What would scientists like to investigate further?
A. Medicine used to counteract poison. B. Other animals like the crested rat.
C. Health effects of a chemical. D. Rats with unhealthy hearts.
ĐÁP ÁN
1-B 2-A 3-B 4-C 5-D 6-C 7-B 8-C 9-B 10-A
11-A 12-C 13-D 14-A 15-D 16-C 17-C 18-D 19-C 20-C
21-A 22-B 23-D 24-D 25-A 26-C 27-B 28-B 29-A 30-D
31-C 32-D 33-D 34-A 35-C 36-B 37-D 38-D 39-B 40-C
41-A 42-C 43-D 44-D 45-B 46-A 47-A 48-B 49-D 50-D
GCSE TEST 10
Question 1. A. honorable B. honest C. historic D. heir
Question 2. A. chore B. change C. choice D. chorus
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. terrific B. Pacific C. Arabic D. mechanic
Question 4. A. evaporate B. consulate C. communicate D. coordinate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
Question 6. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
Question 7. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
Question 8. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
Question 9. Japanese initially used jeweled objects to decorate swords and ceremonial items.
A. Japanese B. used C. jeweled D. decorate
Question 10. Because of attitudes shape behavior, psychologists want to find out how opinions are
formed.
A. Because of B. shape C. psychologists D. are formed
Question 11. As the roles of people in society change, so does the rules of conduct in certain situations.
A. As the roles B. so does C. rules of D. situations
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 12. "How was your exam?" "A couple of questions were tricky, but on the ____ it was pretty
easy."
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
Question 13. If you practice regularly, you can learn this language skill in short ____ of a time.
A. period B. aspect C. arrangement D. activity
Question 14. Students can ____ a lot of information just by taking an active part in class.
A. concern B. install C. appear D. memorize
Question 15. It ____ a long time since we were apart, I did not recognize her.
A. is B. has been C. was D. had been
Question 16. I have learned a lot about the value of labour from my ____ at home.
A. credit B. energy C. chores D. pot plants
Question 17. In the past people believed that women’s ____ roles were as mothers and wives.
A. nature B. natural C. naturism D. naturalist
Question 18. Not until the manager got the right solution to the problem ____.
A. we must try by ourselves B. must we try by ourselves
C. have we to try by ourselves. D. we must try for ourselves
Question 19. A few years ago, a fire ____ much of an overcrowded part of the city.
A. battled B. devastated C. mopped D. developed
Question 20. Juliet, remember shammed death when Romeo appears, ____?
A. didn't she B. doesn't he C. do you D. will you
Question 21. Charles Lindbergh’s feat put him in a position from which ____ the development of
commercial aviation.
A. he could encourage B. he encourages C. encouraged D. encouragement
Question 22. She started the course two months ago but dropped ____ after only a month.
A. in B. back C. out D. off
Question 23. Mary eats ____ she used to.
A. fewer meat and bananas than B. less and less meat and bananas than
C. less meat and fewer bananas than D. the least meat and fewest bananas than
Question 24. "I have a terrible headache.” – “____”
A. Maybe I'm not going to the doctor’s. B. Not very well. Thanks.
C. Maybe you should take a rest. D. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor's.
Question 25. "Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?” – “____”
A. Of course, not for me. B. No, I can't help you now.
C. No, those aren't mine. D. No, I can manage them myself.
each of the following sentences.
Question 26. I don't agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.
A. I'm not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
B. I'm not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
C. I’m not favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.
D. I’m not doing a favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
Question 27. She has always had a good relationship with the children.
A. She has got a lot of children and relatives who she always gets along with.
B. She always gets along well with the children.
C. The children have had her as their friends and relatives.
D. She has always got on well with the children.
Question 28. But for his father's early retirement, Peter would not have taken over the family business.
A. His father retired early, but Peter still ran the family business.
B. Peter's father didn't want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
C. Peter only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
D. Peter didn't take over the family business because his father didn't retire.
Question 29. He is very intelligent. He can solve all problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
Question 30. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
WORKING MOTHERS
Reliable studies have shown that the children of working mothers have no more problems than
children whose mothers stay at home. My personal view is that mothers should work if they wish.
Some women have invested so much in a career that they cannot (31) ____ to give it up. Others
have to work because of economic necessity, and there are also those who are simply not (32) ____ out to
be full-time parents.
There appear to be several options when it comes to choosing childcare. These range from child
minders through to granny or the kind lady across the street. (33) ____, however, many parents don't have
any choice; they have to accept anything they can get.
No (34) ____ how good the available childcare may be, some children protest if their parents
are not around. This is a perfectly normal stage in a child’s development. Babies over the age of six
months become dependent on mum and close family members, so make sure that you allow (35) ____
time to help your child settle in.
And don’t forget; if you want to do the best for your children, it's not the quantity of time you
spend with them, it’s the quality that matters.
Question 31. A. bear B. decide C. hope D. expect
Question 32. A. made B. cut C. brought D. born
Question 33. A. In addition B. In practice C. In order D. In contrast
Question 34. A. way B. matter C. surprise D. exception
Question 35. A. little B. no C. lots D. plenty of
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually
more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the
knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen,
Melville slimed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to
Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841
Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered
around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo
(1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning
to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy
voyage as a navy seaman. With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a
strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in
1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one
level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic
struggle of humanity against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville’s literary
metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that
served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.
Question 36. The main subject of the passage is ____.
A. Melville's travels B. Melville's personal background
C. the popularity of Melville's novels D. Moby Dick
Question 37. In what year did Melville's book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?
A. 1837 B. 1841 C. 1849 D. 1847
His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849).
Question 38. The word ''basis" is closest in meaning to ____.
A. foundation B. message C. bottom D. theme
Question 39. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because ____.
A. he had unofficially left his ship.
B. he was on leave while his ship was in port.
C. he had finished his term of duty.
D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti.
Question 40. How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville's popularity?
A. His popularity increased immediately.
B. It had no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease.
D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.
Question 41. According to the passage, Moby Dick is ____.
A. a romantic adventure
B. a single-faceted work
C. a short story about a whale
D. symbolic of humanity fighting the environment
Question 42. The word "metamorphosis" is closest in meaning to ____.
A. change B. circle C. mysticism D. descent
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One group, the
Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present-day North Dakota. They had
large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect
themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly
capable farmers stored from one year to the next.
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to
produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons. Winter often
lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer,
drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They
began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble
from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be harvested, the crop
required labor and vigilance.
In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully. This green
com was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest
stored in animal-skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest of the corn. They saved the best of
the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for later use in
underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans protected themselves
against the disaster of crop failure and accompany hunger.
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of
the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored
them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The Mandans also grew
sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men.
Question 43. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The agricultural activities of a North American Society
B. Various ways corn can be used
C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop
D. Weather conditions on the western plains.
Question 44. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to ____.
A. guard their supplies of food B. protect themselves against the weather
C. allow more room for growing corn D. share farming implements
Question 45. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?
A. They developed effective fertilizers.
B. They developed new varieties of corn.
C. They could grow crops despite adverse weather.
D. They could grow crops in most types of soil.
Question 46. The word "consumption" in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.
A. decay B. planting C. eating D. conversation
Question 47. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women?
A. Clearing fields B. Planting corn C. Harvesting corn D. Harvesting squash
Question 48. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to ____.
A. women B. seeds C. slices D. the Mandans
Question 49. Which of the following crops was cultivated primarily by men?
A. Squash B. Sunflower C. Corn D. Tobacco
Question 50. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans ____.
A. planned for the future B. valued individuality
C. were open to strangers D. were very adventurous
GCSE TEST 11
Question 1: A. mineral B. mitigate C. minimize D. minor
Question 2: A. distant B. resistant C. tangible D. essential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. atmosphere B. exhausted C. variety D. adventure
Question 4: A. beneficial B. renewable C. advantageous D. influential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 5: She had never seen such discourtesy towards the director as it happened in the meeting last
week.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. measurement D. encouragement
Question 6: They conducted a campaign to promote people’s awareness of environmental problems.
A. encourage B. publicize C. hinder D. strengthen
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
Question 7: That restaurant tempts many customers because of its affordable price and good food.
A. attracts B. frees C. refuses D. offers
Question 8: I’ll back up your ideas if they don’t believe you.
A. support B. rebel C. admire D. protect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Marry is talking to Linda over the phone.
Mary: “Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.”
Linda: “_________”.
A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world
C. Never mention me. D. Of course not
Question 10: Tom is in Ho Chi Minh City and asks a passer-by the way to the railway station.
Tom: “Can you show me the way to the railway station, please?”
- Passer-by: “ _________ ”
A. No way. B. Just round the comer over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
Question 11: Prices are increasing dramatically in big cities. The _________ seems to go up every day.
A. standard of living B. quality of life
C. annual income D. cost of living
Question 12: The government should take some measures to _________ that tourism develops in harmony
with the environment.
A. promote B. ensure C. facilitate D. improve
Question 13: They _________ actions to stop the blaze spreading. However, they didn’t do that.
A. must have taken B. had to take
C. needn’t have taken D. should have taken
Question 14: When Tim was a child, there _________ a park near his house.
A. used to be B. used to have been
C. used to have D. used to be being
Question 15: Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his _________. He used to be a taxi driver there
for 10 years.
A. head B. mind C. hand D. life
Question 16: Although she is my sister, I find it hard to _________ her selfishness.
A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down with
Question 17: David refused _________ in the contest because he was ill.
A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. to participating
Question 18: _________ people are those who share the same interests, or points of view.
A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded
Question 19: _________ in the Middle East, oil became known as black gold because of the large profit it
brought.
A. That when discovered B. Discovered
C. Discovering D. Which was discovered
Question 20. He has just bought a _________ schoolbag.
A. small plastic blue B. blue small plastic
C. plastic small blue D. small blue plastic.
Question 21. We should make full _________of renewable sources of energy such as wind and solar power
in the world.
A. effort B. use C. need D. limit
Question 22. The boy quickly _________ the old woman’s telephone number to memory.
A. devoted B. added C. committed D. admitted
After winter months, the days become longer, the buds (23) _________ in the trees, birds sing, and
the world (24) _________ a green dress. Spring passes (25) _________summer. Everyone knows that
summer will not (26) _________. The power of all the wisest men and women in the world cannot keep it
for us. The com becomes ripe, the leaves turn brown and then drop to the ground, (27) _________ the world
changes its green dress for a dress of autumn colors.
Question 23: A. fall off B. take up C. put off D. come out
Question 24: A. looks after B. puts on C. carries on D. deals with
Question 25: A. into B. by C. from D. on
Question 26: A. forego B. evaluate C. succumb D. last
Question 27: A. yet B. therefore C. whereas D. and
After twenty years of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the
United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard’s MBA School has shown a substantial
increase in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments.
Since 1990, the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA) degrees, has
dropped about 3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to continue.
There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that
many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on
Wall Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entry- level management
jobs are going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as
those holding MBA degrees. Students have asked the question, “Is an MBA degree really what I need to be
best prepared for getting a good job?” The second major factor has been the cutting of American payrolls
and the lower number of entry-level jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA schools are
struggling to meet the new demands.
Question 28. What is the main focus of this passage?
A. Jobs on Wall Street
B. Types of graduate degrees
C. Changes in enrollment for MBA schools
D. How schools are changing to reflect the economy
Question 29. The word “prosperity” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. success B. surplus C. nurturing D. education
Question 30. Which of the following business schools has shown an increase in enrollment?
A. Princeton B. Harvard C. Stanford D. Yale
Question 31. Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street?
A. a center for international affairs B. a major financial center
C. a shopping district D. a neighborhood in New York
Question 32: According to the passage, what are two causes of declining business school enrollments?
A. lack of necessity for an MBA and an economic recession
B. low salary and foreign competition
C. fewer MBA schools and fewer entry-level jobs
D. declining population and economic prosperity
Question 33: As used in the second paragraph, the word “struggling” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. evolving B. plunging C. starting D. striving
Question 34: Which of the following might be the topic of the next paragraph?
A. MBA schools’ efforts to change
B. Future economic predictions
C. A history of the recent economic changes
D. Descriptions of non-MBA graduate programs
The main cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes
minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages
remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on
the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the
plaque have been “primed” by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental
hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in
the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling
saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are
forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack
by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious
lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce
your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not
between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful
acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva.
Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth
after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective. Whenever possible, eat foods
with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush.
Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when eating sweets.
Question 35. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition B. Food with fiber
C. Ways to keep your teeth health D. Fluoridization and cavities
Question 36. According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT
_________.
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria
B. It is not affected by eating sweets
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva
Question 37. We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is _________ .
A. It strengthens tooth enamel
B. It stimulates saliva production
C. It makes teeth whiter
D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
Question 38. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. dental floss B. bacteria
C. removal of plaque D. plaque
Question 39. What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 40. The word “scrape off” in line 29 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. repel B. rub together with
C. remove D. dissolve
Question 41. According to the passage, the value of eating foods with fiber is that _________.
A. they contain Vitamin A
B. they are less expensive than a toothbrush
C. they are able to remove the plaque from your teeth
D. they contain no sugar
Question 42. The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva
increases _________.
A. with the amount of sweets you eat B. with the number of times you eat sweets
C. if you eat sweets with your meals D. if you eat sticky sweets
Question 43: Sometimes what is best for society is not always good for an individual living in that society.
A. From time to time, there is a conflict between the benefits of a society and an individual living in that
society.
B. Individuals not always seek for the best of the society they live in.
C. It is impossible for individuals to accept the rules of the society they live in.
D. What is best for individuals is always suitable for the society they live in.
Question 44: Much to my surprise, I found her lecture on wild animals extremely interesting.
A. Contrary to my expectations, her lecture on wild animals was the most fascinating of all.
B. I was fascinated by what she said in her lecture on wild animals though I hadn’t expected to be.
C. I hadn’t expected her to lecture on wild animals, but she spoke well.
D. It was at her lecture on wild animals that I realized I needed to study it.
Question 45: I had no sooner got to know my neighbors than they moved away.
A. Soon after I got to know my new neighbors, I stopped having contact with them.
B. If my new neighbors had stayed longer, I would have got to know them better.
C. Once I had got used to my new neighbors, they moved somewhere else.
D. Hardly had I become acquainted with my new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: Papyrus (A) was used (B) for to make not only paper (C) but also sails, baskets, (D) and
clothing.
Question 47: (A) Because the boy spent (B) too many time (C) surfing the Internet and playing computer
games, he didn’t pass the (D) final exam.
Question 48: According to (A) most medical experts, massage (B) relieves pain and anxiety, eases
depression and (C) speeding up recovery from (D) illnesses.
Question 49: These students may be excellent. They will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
A. Excellent as may be these students, they will get used to dealing with practical situations.
B. These students may be too excellent to get used to dealing with practical situations.
C. These students will get used to dealing with practical situations although they are excellent.
D. Excellent as they may be, these students will not get used to dealing with practical situations.
Question 50: She behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. Her behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
B. She behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way she behaved.
D. I was almost not surprised by her strange behaviour.
ĐÁP ÁN
Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Đáp án D D A B A C A A A B
Câu 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Đáp án D B D A C A A B B D
Câu 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Đáp án B B D B A D D C A B
Câu 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Đáp án B A D A C B A C B C
Câu 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Đáp án C B A B D B B C D B
GCSE TEST 12
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
Question 1. A. assault B. possession C. aggressive D. tasteless
Question 2. A. through B. enough C. rough D. tough
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. appear B. version C. tradition D. perhaps
Question 4. A.government B. employment C. refusal D. redundant
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial cities
A. with littering B. are causing C. many problems D. industrial cities
Question 6. All nations have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and the
technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
A. have to make B. changes in
C. the technological institutions D. to preserve
Question 7. It is important that the patient stays in bed until he fully recovers from the operation.
A. important B. stays C. until D. operation
questions.
Question 8. I’m having problems with David. He _______ me up in the middle of the night and ______ me
his troubles.
A. has called/told B. has been calling/telling
C. is calling/ telling D. called/ told
Question 9. Spider monkeys are the best climbers in the jungle, _____ they do not have thumbs.
A. nevertheless B. for C. despite D. although
Question 10. A man ______ helping police with their interview.
A. was reported to have B. was reported to have been
C. reports to be D. reported to have been
Question 11. Vietnam is ______ the top exporters of rice.
A. in B. of C. between D. among
Question 12. If you need ______ information, please phone me.
A. far B. farther C. furthest D. further
Question 13. He______ a cold sweat because he was too scary of this dog.
A. broke out in B. broke up with C. came down with D. got out of
Question 14. His flat looks so _______ that it is difficult to believe he had just had a party last night.
A. safe and sound B. sick and tired C. spick and span D. by and large
Question 15. _____ in 1776 that the Declaration of Independence was signed.
A. It was B. There was C. There D. It
Question 16. Americans account ______ 12% of the US population.
A. for B. with C. of D. 0
Question 17. We are _____ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here.
A. under B. at C. with D. to
Question 18. Last night's concert did not our expectations
A. catch up with B. come up to C. stand in for D. look up to
Question 19: In 1736, the number of poor people in Boston receiving public assistance about 4,000
A. was B. were C. it was D. they were
Question 20. Hung was invited to Hoa's party. He wants to thank her for the lovely party. Choose the
most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Hung: "Thank you very much for a lovely party."
- Hoa: "____".
A. Thanks B. Have a good day
C. You are welcome D. Cheers
Question 21. Student:" Could you help me to fax this report?"
Librarian: "__________"
A. Sorry I have no idea B. It's very kind of you to say so
C. What rubbish! I don't think it's helpful D. Certainly. What's the fax number?
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the
Question 22. As all of us cannot be available today, let's put off the discussion till later.
A. present for the event B. scheduled for the event
C. arranged for the event D. appointed for the event
Question 23. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer
A. treat bettet B. expect more C. do better D. speed
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 24. There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.
A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant
Question 25. They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.
A. put together B. connect C. cooperate D. separate
Question 26. "Congratulations! You' ve won the scholarship," he said .
A. He said that congratulations! I had won the scholarship.
B. He said I had won the scholarship and he congratulated
C. He congratulated me on having won the scholarship.
D. He congratulated me of winning the scholarship.
Question 27. He dislikes people asking him about his job.
A. Asking him about his job is disliked.
B. He dislikes being asked about his job.
C. His job is disliked asking about.
D. People are disliked asking about his job.
Question 28. Let's start our journey or we' ll be late.
A. If we start our journey, we won't be late.
B. Unless we start our journey, we won't be late.
C. If we don't start our journey, we'll be late.
D. We would be late if we didn't start our journey.
Question 29. Mary knew how busy I was. She offered to help me.
A. Because Mary knew my business, she offered to help me.
B. Knowing how busy I was, Mary offered to help me.
C. Mary knew how I was busy and offered to help me.
D. Having known how busy I was, Mary offered to help me.
Question 30. Animals can't speak our language. They can't tell us when they are unhappy or annoyed.
A. If animals could speak, they would be able to tell us when they are unhappy or annoyed.
B. One day we could speak animals' language and know when they are happy or annoyed.
C. We don't know when animals are unhappy or annoyed because we don't know their language.
D. We don't understand animals because we can't speak their language.
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the following blanks.
The reality of an interview is never as bad as your fears. For some reason people imagine the interviewer is
going to jump on every tiny mistake they (31)_______. In truth, the interviewer is as keen for the meeting
to go well as you are. It is what makes his or her job enjoyable.
The secret of a good interview is preparing for it. What you wear is always important as it creates the first
impression. So (32)____neatly, but comfortably. Make sure that you can deal with anything you are asked.
Prepare for questions that are certain to come up, for example: Why do you want to become a nurse? What
is the most important quality a good nurse should have? Apart from nursing, what other careers have you
considered? What are your interest and hobbies?
Answer the questions fully and precisely. For instance, if one of your interests is reading, be prepared to
talk about the sort of books you like. (33) ______, do not learn all your answers off (34)______heart. The
interviewer wants to meet a human being, not a robot. Remember, the interviewer is genuinely interested in
you, so the more you relax and are yourself, the more (35)_____you are to succeed.
Question 31. A. make B. do C. perform D. have
Question 32. A. wear B. dress C. put on D. have on
Question 33. A. However B. Although C. Despite D. Therefore
Question 34. A. at B. by C. in D. on
Question 35. A. easy B. possible C. likely D. probable
It is hard to get any agreement on the precise meaning of the term "social class". In everyday life,
people tend to have a different approach to those they consider their equals from which they assume with
people they consider higher or lower than themselves in social scale. The criteria we use to 'place' a new
acquaintance, however, are a complex mixture of factors. Dress, way of speaking, area of residence in a
given city or province, education and manners all play a part.
In ancient civilizations, the Sumerian, for example, which flourished in the lower Euphrates valley
from 2000 to 5000 B.C. social differences were based on birth, status or rank, rather than on wealth. Four
main classes were recognized. These were the rulers, the priestly administrators, the freemen (such as
craftsmen, merchants or farmers) and the slaves.
In Greece, after the sixth-century B.C., there was a growing conflict between the peasants and the
aristocrats, and a gradual decrease in the power of the aristocracy when a kind of 'middle class' of traders
and skilled workers grew up. The population of Athens, for example, was divided into three main classes
which were politically and legally distinct. About one-third of the total population was slaves, who did not
count politically at all, a fact often forgotten by those who praise Athens as the nursery of democracy. The
next main group consisted of resident foreigners, the, 'metics' who were freemen, though they too were
allowed no share in political life. The third group was the powerful body of 'citizens", who were themselves
divided into sub-classes.
In the later Middle Ages, however, the development of a money economy and the growth of cities and
trade led to the rise of another class, the 'burghers' or city merchants and mayors. These were the
predecessors of the modern middle classes. Gradually high office and occupation assumed importance in
determining social position, as it became more and more possible for a person born to one station in life to
move to another. This change affected the towns more than the country areas, where remnants of feudalism
lasted much longer.
Question 36: According to the passage, we evaluate other people' s social position by_____.
A. questioning them in great details
B. their dress, manners, area of residence and other factors
C. finding out how much their salary is
D. the kind of job they do
Question 37: The word "criteria" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. characteristics B. words C. standards of judgment D. criticisms
Question 38: The word “which” in the paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. ancient civilizations B. Sumerian C. example D. Euphrates valley
Question 39: The decline of the Greek aristocracy's power in the sixth century B.C ________ .
A. caused international conflicts in the area
B. coincided with the rise of a new "middle class" of traders and peasants
C. was assisted by a rise in the number of slaves
D. lasted for only a short time
Question 40: Athens is often praised as the nursery of democracy_______.
A. even though slaves were allowed to vote
B. because its three main classes were politically and legally distinct.
C. in spite of its heavy dependence on slave labor
D. because even very young children could vote
Question 41: The word "predecessors" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_____.
A. supporters B. descendants C. ancestors D. authorities
Question 42: The passage is mainly about__________.
A. the human history
B. the modern society
C. the division of social classes in the ancient world
D. the social life in ancient Greece
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for each of the question
from 43- 50
The National Automobile Show in New York has been one of the top auto shows in the United States since
1900. On November 3 of that year, about 8,000 people looked over the "horseless carriages." It was the
opening day and the first opportunity for the automobile industry to show off its wares to a large crowd;
however, the black-tie audience treated the occasion more as a social affair than as a sales extravaganza. It
was also on the first day of this show that William McKinley became the first U.S. president to ride in a car.
The automobile was not invented in the United States. That distinction belongs to Germany. Nicolaus Otto
built the first practical internal-combustion engine there in 1876. Then, German engineer Karl Benz built
what are regarded as the first modern automobiles in the mid-1880s. But the United States pioneered the
merchandising of the automobile. The auto show proved to be an effective means of getting the public
excited about automotive products.
By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show equaled the entire car population of
the United States at that time. In 1900, 10 million bicycles and an unknown number of horse-drawn carriages
provided the prime means of personal transportation. Only about 4,000 cars were assembled in the United
States in 1900, and only a quarter of those were gasoline powered. The rest ran on steam or electricity.
After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show's audience favored electric cars because they
were quiet. The risk of a boiler explosion turned people away from steamers, and the gasoline-powered cars
produced smelly fumes. The Duryea Motor Wagon Company, which launched the American auto industry
in 1895, offered a fragrant additive designed to mask the smells of the naphtha that it burned. Many of the
1900 models were cumbersome - the Gasmobile, the Franklin, and the Orient, for example, steered with a
tiller like a boat instead of with a steering wheel. None of them was equipped with an automatic starter.
These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very dependable. They were basically toys
of the well-to-do. In fact, Woodrow Wilson, then a professor at Princeton University and later President of
the United States, predicted that automobiles would cause conflict between the wealthy and the poor.
However, among the exhibitors at the 1900 show was a young engineer named Henry Ford. But before the
end of the decade, he would revolutionize the automobile industry with his Model T Ford. The Model T,
first produced in 1909, featured a standardized design and a streamlined method of production – the
assembly line. Its lower costs made it available to the mass market.
Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from $1,000 to $1,500, or roughly $14,000 to $21,000 in today’s
prices. By 1913, the Model T was selling for less than $300, and soon the price would drop even further. “I
will build cars for the multitudes,” Ford said, and he kept his promise.
Question 43. The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National Automobile Show
primarily as a(n)_____
A. formal social occasion.
B. chance to buy automobiles at low prices
C. opportunity to learn how to drive
D. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers
Question 44. According to the passage, who developed the first modern car?
A. Karl Benz B. Nikolaus Otto C. William McKinley D. Henry Ford
Question 45. Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900?
A. 4,000 B. 8,000 C. 10 million D. An unknown number
Question 46. The phrase "by happenstance" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. Generally B. For example C. Coincidentally D. By design
Question 47. The word "they" in the paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. car makers B. model cars C. audience D. electric cars
Question 48. Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were gasoline powered?
A. 32 B. 1,000 C. 2,000 D. 4,000
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with a tiller rather
than with a steering wheel?
A. A Franklin B. A Gasmobile C. An Orient D. A Duryea
Question 50. What was the highest price asked for a car at the 1900 National Automobile Show in the
dollars of that time?
A. $300 B.$1,500 C. $14,000 D. $21,000
ĐÁP ÁN
1 B 11 D 21 D 31 A 41 C
2 A 12 D 22 C 32 B 42 C
3 B 13 A 23 C 33 A 43 A
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 B 44 A
5 B 15 A 25 D 35 C 45 B
6 C 16 A 26 C 36 B 46 C
7 B 17 A 27 B 37 C 47 C
8 D 18 B 28 C 38 B 48 B
9 D 19 A 29 D 39 B 49 A
10 B 20 C 30 A 40 C 50 B
GCSE TEST 13
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
Question 1. A. assault B. possession C. aggressive D. tasteless
Question 2. A. through B. enough C. rough D. tough
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. appear B. version C. tradition D. perhaps
Question 4. A.government B. employment C. refusal D. redundant
Choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial cities
A. with littering B. are causing C. many problems D. industrial cities
Question 6. All nations have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, and the
technological institutions if they are to preserve environment.
A. have to make B. changes in
C. the technological institutions D. to preserve
Question 7. It is important that the patient stays in bed until he fully recovers from the operation.
A. important B. stays C. until D. operation
questions.
Question 8. I’m having problems with David. He _______ me up in the middle of the night and ______ me
his troubles.
A. has called/told B. has been calling/telling
C. is calling/ telling D. called/ told
Question 9. Spider monkeys are the best climbers in the jungle, _____ they do not have thumbs.
A. nevertheless B. for C. despite D. although
Question 10. A man ______ helping police with their interview.
A. was reported to have B. was reported to have been
C. reports to be D. reported to have been
Question 11. Vietnam is ______ the top exporters of rice.
A. in B. of C. between D. among
Question 12. If you need ______ information, please phone me.
A. far B. farther C. furthest D. further
Question 13. He______ a cold sweat because he was too scary of this dog.
A. broke out in B. broke up with C. came down with D. got out of
Question 14. His flat looks so _______ that it is difficult to believe he had just had a party last night.
A. safe and sound B. sick and tired C. spick and span D. by and large
Question 15. _____ in 1776 that the Declaration of Independence was signed.
A. It was B. There was C. There D. It
Question 16. Americans account ______ 12% of the US population.
A. for B. with C. of D. 0
Question 17. We are _____ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here.
A. under B. at C. with D. to
Question 18. Last night's concert did not our expectations
A. catch up with B. come up to C. stand in for D. look up to
Question 19: In 1736, the number of poor people in Boston receiving public assistance about 4,000
A. was B. were C. it was D. they were
Question 20. Hung was invited to Hoa's party. He wants to thank her for the lovely party. Choose the
most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Hung: "Thank you very much for a lovely party."
- Hoa: "____".
A. Thanks B. Have a good day
C. You are welcome D. Cheers
Question 21. Student:" Could you help me to fax this report?"
Librarian: "__________"
A. Sorry I have no idea B. It's very kind of you to say so
C. What rubbish! I don't think it's helpful D. Certainly. What's the fax number?
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in the
Question 22. As all of us cannot be available today, let's put off the discussion till later.
A. present for the event B. scheduled for the event
C. arranged for the event D. appointed for the event
Question 23. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer
A. treat bettet B. expect more C. do better D. speed
Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
Question 24. There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.
A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant
Question 25. They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.
A. put together B. connect C. cooperate D. separate
Question 26. "Congratulations! You' ve won the scholarship," he said .
A. He said that congratulations! I had won the scholarship.
B. He said I had won the scholarship and he congratulated
C. He congratulated me on having won the scholarship.
D. He congratulated me of winning the scholarship.
Question 27. He dislikes people asking him about his job.
A. Asking him about his job is disliked.
B. He dislikes being asked about his job.
C. His job is disliked asking about.
D. People are disliked asking about his job.
Question 28. Let's start our journey or we' ll be late.
A. If we start our journey, we won't be late.
B. Unless we start our journey, we won't be late.
C. If we don't start our journey, we'll be late.
D. We would be late if we didn't start our journey.
Question 29. Mary knew how busy I was. She offered to help me.
A. Because Mary knew my business, she offered to help me.
B. Knowing how busy I was, Mary offered to help me.
C. Mary knew how I was busy and offered to help me.
D. Having known how busy I was, Mary offered to help me.
Question 30. Animals can't speak our language. They can't tell us when they are unhappy or annoyed.
A. If animals could speak, they would be able to tell us when they are unhappy or annoyed.
B. One day we could speak animals' language and know when they are happy or annoyed.
C. We don't know when animals are unhappy or annoyed because we don't know their language.
D. We don't understand animals because we can't speak their language.
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the following blanks.
The reality of an interview is never as bad as your fears. For some reason people imagine the interviewer is
going to jump on every tiny mistake they (31)_______. In truth, the interviewer is as keen for the meeting
to go well as you are. It is what makes his or her job enjoyable.
The secret of a good interview is preparing for it. What you wear is always important as it creates the first
impression. So (32)____neatly, but comfortably. Make sure that you can deal with anything you are asked.
Prepare for questions that are certain to come up, for example: Why do you want to become a nurse? What
is the most important quality a good nurse should have? Apart from nursing, what other careers have you
considered? What are your interest and hobbies?
Answer the questions fully and precisely. For instance, if one of your interests is reading, be prepared to
talk about the sort of books you like. (33) ______, do not learn all your answers off (34)______heart. The
interviewer wants to meet a human being, not a robot. Remember, the interviewer is genuinely interested in
you, so the more you relax and are yourself, the more (35)_____you are to succeed.
Question 31. A. make B. do C. perform D. have
Question 32. A. wear B. dress C. put on D. have on
Question 33. A. However B. Although C. Despite D. Therefore
Question 34. A. at B. by C. in D. on
Question 35. A. easy B. possible C. likely D. probable
It is hard to get any agreement on the precise meaning of the term "social class". In everyday life,
people tend to have a different approach to those they consider their equals from which they assume with
people they consider higher or lower than themselves in social scale. The criteria we use to 'place' a new
acquaintance, however, are a complex mixture of factors. Dress, way of speaking, area of residence in a
given city or province, education and manners all play a part.
In ancient civilizations, the Sumerian, for example, which flourished in the lower Euphrates valley
from 2000 to 5000 B.C. social differences were based on birth, status or rank, rather than on wealth. Four
main classes were recognized. These were the rulers, the priestly administrators, the freemen (such as
craftsmen, merchants or farmers) and the slaves.
In Greece, after the sixth-century B.C., there was a growing conflict between the peasants and the
aristocrats, and a gradual decrease in the power of the aristocracy when a kind of 'middle class' of traders
and skilled workers grew up. The population of Athens, for example, was divided into three main classes
which were politically and legally distinct. About one-third of the total population was slaves, who did not
count politically at all, a fact often forgotten by those who praise Athens as the nursery of democracy. The
next main group consisted of resident foreigners, the, 'metics' who were freemen, though they too were
allowed no share in political life. The third group was the powerful body of 'citizens", who were themselves
divided into sub-classes.
In the later Middle Ages, however, the development of a money economy and the growth of cities and
trade led to the rise of another class, the 'burghers' or city merchants and mayors. These were the
predecessors of the modern middle classes. Gradually high office and occupation assumed importance in
determining social position, as it became more and more possible for a person born to one station in life to
move to another. This change affected the towns more than the country areas, where remnants of feudalism
lasted much longer.
Question 36: According to the passage, we evaluate other people' s social position by_____.
A. questioning them in great details
B. their dress, manners, area of residence and other factors
C. finding out how much their salary is
D. the kind of job they do
Question 37: The word "criteria" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. characteristics B. words C. standards of judgment D. criticisms
Question 38: The word “which” in the paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. ancient civilizations B. Sumerian C. example D. Euphrates valley
Question 39: The decline of the Greek aristocracy's power in the sixth century B.C ________ .
A. caused international conflicts in the area
B. coincided with the rise of a new "middle class" of traders and peasants
C. was assisted by a rise in the number of slaves
D. lasted for only a short time
Question 40: Athens is often praised as the nursery of democracy_______.
A. even though slaves were allowed to vote
B. because its three main classes were politically and legally distinct.
C. in spite of its heavy dependence on slave labor
D. because even very young children could vote
Question 41: The word "predecessors" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_____.
A. supporters B. descendants C. ancestors D. authorities
Question 42: The passage is mainly about__________.
A. the human history
B. the modern society
C. the division of social classes in the ancient world
D. the social life in ancient Greece
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the best answer for each of the question
from 43- 50
The National Automobile Show in New York has been one of the top auto shows in the United States since
1900. On November 3 of that year, about 8,000 people looked over the "horseless carriages." It was the
opening day and the first opportunity for the automobile industry to show off its wares to a large crowd;
however, the black-tie audience treated the occasion more as a social affair than as a sales extravaganza. It
was also on the first day of this show that William McKinley became the first U.S. president to ride in a car.
The automobile was not invented in the United States. That distinction belongs to Germany. Nicolaus Otto
built the first practical internal-combustion engine there in 1876. Then, German engineer Karl Benz built
what are regarded as the first modern automobiles in the mid-1880s. But the United States pioneered the
merchandising of the automobile. The auto show proved to be an effective means of getting the public
excited about automotive products.
By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show equaled the entire car population of
the United States at that time. In 1900, 10 million bicycles and an unknown number of horse-drawn carriages
provided the prime means of personal transportation. Only about 4,000 cars were assembled in the United
States in 1900, and only a quarter of those were gasoline powered. The rest ran on steam or electricity.
After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show's audience favored electric cars because they
were quiet. The risk of a boiler explosion turned people away from steamers, and the gasoline-powered cars
produced smelly fumes. The Duryea Motor Wagon Company, which launched the American auto industry
in 1895, offered a fragrant additive designed to mask the smells of the naphtha that it burned. Many of the
1900 models were cumbersome - the Gasmobile, the Franklin, and the Orient, for example, steered with a
tiller like a boat instead of with a steering wheel. None of them was equipped with an automatic starter.
These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very dependable. They were basically toys
of the well-to-do. In fact, Woodrow Wilson, then a professor at Princeton University and later President of
the United States, predicted that automobiles would cause conflict between the wealthy and the poor.
However, among the exhibitors at the 1900 show was a young engineer named Henry Ford. But before the
end of the decade, he would revolutionize the automobile industry with his Model T Ford. The Model T,
first produced in 1909, featured a standardized design and a streamlined method of production – the
assembly line. Its lower costs made it available to the mass market.
Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from $1,000 to $1,500, or roughly $14,000 to $21,000 in today’s
prices. By 1913, the Model T was selling for less than $300, and soon the price would drop even further. “I
will build cars for the multitudes,” Ford said, and he kept his promise.
Question 43. The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National Automobile Show
primarily as a(n)_____
A. formal social occasion.
B. chance to buy automobiles at low prices
C. opportunity to learn how to drive
D. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers
Question 44. According to the passage, who developed the first modern car?
A. Karl Benz B. Nikolaus Otto C. William McKinley D. Henry Ford
Question 45. Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900?
A. 4,000 B. 8,000 C. 10 million D. An unknown number
Question 46. The phrase "by happenstance" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. Generally B. For example C. Coincidentally D. By design
Question 47. The word "they" in the paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. car makers B. model cars C. audience D. electric cars
Question 48. Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were gasoline powered?
A. 32 B. 1,000 C. 2,000 D. 4,000
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with a tiller rather
than with a steering wheel?
A. A Franklin B. A Gasmobile C. An Orient D. A Duryea
Question 50. What was the highest price asked for a car at the 1900 National Automobile Show in the
dollars of that time?
A. $300 B.$1,500 C. $14,000 D. $21,000
ĐÁP ÁN
1 B 11 D 21 D 31 A 41 C
2 A 12 D 22 C 32 B 42 C
3 B 13 A 23 C 33 A 43 A
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 B 44 A
5 B 15 A 25 D 35 C 45 B
6 C 16 A 26 C 36 B 46 C
7 B 17 A 27 B 37 C 47 C
8 D 18 B 28 C 38 B 48 B
9 D 19 A 29 D 39 B 49 A
10 B 20 C 30 A 40 C 50 B
GCSE TEST 14
Question 1: A. agreed B. believed C. remarked D. smiled
Question 2: A. exterminate B.contemplate C. considerate D. exaggerate
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. comeuppance B. charlatan C. ignominy D. desultory
Question 4: A. communication B. media C. current D. homework
Question 5: The live presentation of a _______ suspect to a victim or witness of a crime.
A. criminal B. criminally C. criminer D. criminate
Question 6: Shawn Mendes is in his ________ , which gives him a lot of money and fame.
A. love B. heyday
C. friday D. sunday
Question 7: We all think that you have had English at your ______ . Congratulations.
A. competence B. command C. hand D. heart
Question 8: To prepare for Nam’s birthday, you can’t _______ late.
A. turn up B. turn out C. turn down D. turn on
Question 9: You shouldn’t _______ gone out when your mother was at work. That is the reason why your
house was broken into.
A. have B. had C. has D. taken
Question 10: The man _______ daughter loves me is my boss. This makes me confused whenever we are
in person.
A. who B. whom C. whose D. which
Question 11: Loving a girl is not as easy as you think. She may cry sometimes for no ________.
A. reason B. cause C. goal D. intention
Question 12: When students _______ truant, they stay away from school without permission.
A. go B. do C. make D. play
Question 13: Let’s go somewhere beautiful to be relaxed when we _________ back from Australia after
that essential negotiation.
A. get B. have gotten C. gets D. getting
Question 14: Diseases have begun spreading in the ________ of recent disaster.
A. awareness B. place C. aftermath D. way
Question 15: _________ gene in the human genome to be thoroughly understood, many human diseases
could be cured or prevented.
A. Each B. Since C. If each D. Were each
Question 16: He doesn’t like the way she _______ when they are on the phone.
A. hangs up B. holds on C. hangs on D. calls up
Question 17: Dang Le Trung Nguyen, who is Dang Le Nguyen Vu’s son, is going to _______ lots of
money from Trung Nguyen Corporation.
A. come on B. come into C. come to D. come in
Question 18: There are two small rooms in the beach house, ______ served as a kitchen.
A. the smaller of B. the smaller of them C. the smallest of D. smallest of that
which which
Question 19: During the war, the black market in luxury goods flourished.
A. well developed B. doomed to failure C. fell out D. decreased
Question 20: Bill and Nancy just celebrated their fiftieth wedding anniversary. Their
marriage has stood the test of time.
A. mordant B. consistant C. fluctuating D. perfidious
Question 21: Bill Gates is an altruistic man giving away millions of dollars every year to various
charities.
A. big-hearted B. egotistical C. magnanimous D. munificent
Question 22: Nguyen Quang Dat, a successful pilot of Jestar Pacific Airlines has made his dreams come
true in the wake of his endeavour in his younger years.
A. born fruit B. been rags to riche C. been big on D. gone nowhere
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
Question 23: Nam is talking to Dat about Dat’s wonderful book
- Nam: “How did you read The Alchemist to perceive the intrinsic meaning of it?.”
- Dat: “I read it _____________ . Believe in me, as soon as you read it carefully, you can understand its
interesting content”
A. from cover to cover B. carelessly C. indifferent D. neutrally
Question 24: A waiter in a restaurant is talking to a customer who has just finished his meal there. Select
the most suitable response to complete the exchange.
– Waiter: “Here’s your bill, sir.”
- Customer: “________.”
A. Thank you for your kindness B. What nonsense!
C. Can I pay by credit card? D. This meal is free! Let’s see
Big spring clean: UK charity's beach clear-up – a photo essay
Any ____25____ to the seaside will highlight one of the biggest issues ____26____ the health of
our shores and marine environments: plastic pollution. The Ellen MacArthur Foundation has estimated that
by 2050 there will be more plastic in the oceans than fish, by weight. The Blue Planet effect – publicised
through David Attenborough’s television series – alongside campaigning by charity Surfers Against
Sewage (SAS) has brought the crisis to the forefront of our minds. And it is now ___27___ common to see
“citizen activists” cleaning up our foreshores.
SAS began life in 1990 as a single-issue campaign group founded by surfers from the villages of St
Agnes and Porthtowan on the north coast of Cornwall who were troubled by the ____28____ untreated
sewage being pumped into the sea. Lesley Kazan-Pinfield, a founding member of SAS , ___29___ about
how “concerned people called a meeting in St Agnes church hall and the place was packed out. People knew
what the problem was locally, even if it was not recognised nationally. We decided to get together and see
what could be done.”
(Sourse: www.theguardian.com/)
Question 25: A. trip B. journey C. travel D. voyage
Question 26: A. affected B. affecting C. has affected D. effecting
Question 27: A. B. increasingly C. comparatively D. relatively
singnificantly
Question 28: A. a lot of B. many of C. number of D. amount of
Question 29: A. reminisce B. look back C. hark back D. call to mind
The modern age is an age of electricity. People are so used to electric lights, radio, televisions, and
telephones that it is hard to imagine what life would be like without them. When there is a power
failure, people grope about in flickering candlelight. Cars hesitate in the streets because there are no
traffic lights to guide them, and food spoils in silent refrigerators.
Yet, people began to understand how electricity works only a little more than two centuries ago. Nature
has apparently been experimenting in this field for millions of years. Scientists are discovering more
and more that the living world may hold many interesting secrets of electricity that could benefit
humanity.
All living cells sent out tiny pulses of electricity. As the heart beats. it send out pulses of recorded
electricity; they form an electrocardiogram, which a doctor can study to determine how well the heart
is working. The brain, too, sends out brain waves of electricity, which can be recorded in an
electroencephalogram. The electric currents generated by most living cells are extremely small-of-ten
so small that sensitive instruments are needed to record them. But in some animals, certain muscle
cells have become so specialized as electrical generators that they do not work as muscle cells at all.
When large numbers of these cells are linked together, the effects can be astonishing.
The electric eel is an amazing storage battery. It can send a jolt of as much as eight hundred volts of
electricity through the water in which it lives. An electric house current is only one hundred twenty
volts.) As many as four fifths of all the cells in the electric eel’s body are specialized for generating
electricity, and the strength of the shock it can deliver corresponds roughly to the length of its body.
(Sourse: TOEFL)
Question 30. What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) Electric eels are potentially dangerous
(B) Biology and electricity appear to be closely related
(C) People would be at a loss without electricity
(D) Scientists still have much to discover about electricity
Question 31. The author mentions all of the following as results of a blackout EXCEPT:
(A) refrigerated food items may go bad (B) traffic lights do not work
(C) people must rely on candlelight (D) elevators and escalators do not function
Question 32. Why does the author mention electric eels?
(A) To warn the reader to stay away from them
(B) To compare their voltage to that used in houses
(C) To give an example of a living electrical generator
(D) To describe a new source of electrical power
Question 33. The word “discovering” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
(A) bringing to light (B) understanding (C) imaging (D) carrying on
Question 34. It can be inferred from the passage that the longer an eel is the:
(A) more beneficial it will be to science (B) more powerful will be its electrical charge
(C) easier it will be to find (D) tougher it will be to eat
No sooner had the first intrepid male aviators safely returned to Earth than it seemed that women. too,
had been smitten by an urge to fly. From mere spectators, they became willing passengers and finally
pilots in their own right, plotting their skills and daring line against the hazards of the air and the
skepticism of their male counterparts. In doing so they enlarged the traditional bounds of a women's
world, won for their sex a new sense of competence and achievement, and contributed handsomely to
the progress of aviation.
But recognition of their abilities did not come easily. "Men do not believe us capable." the famed
aviator Amelia Earhart once remarked to a friend. "Because we are women, seldom are we trusted to
do an efficient job." Indeed old attitudes died hard: when Charles Lindbergh visited the Soviet Union
in i938 with his wife, Anne-herself a pilot and gifted proponent of aviation - he was astonished to
discover both men and women flying in the Soviet Air Force.
Such conventional wisdom made it difficult for women to raise money for the up - to - date equipment
they needed to compete on an equal basis with men. Yet they did compete, and often they triumphed
finally despite the odds.
Ruth Law, whose 590 - mile flight from Chicago to Hornell, New York, set a new nonstop distance
record in 1916, exemplified the resourcefulness and grit demanded of any woman who wanted to fly.
And when she addressed the Aero Club of America after completing her historic journey, her
plainspoken words testified to a universal human motivation that was unaffected by gender: "My flight
was done with no expectation of reward," she declared, "just purely for the love of accomplishment."
(Sourse: TOEFL)
Question 35. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
(A) A Long Flight (B) Women in Aviation History
(C) Dangers Faced by Pilots (D) Women Spectators
Question 36. According to the passage, women pilots were successful in all of the following EXCEPT
(A) challenging the conventional role of women
(B) contributing to the science of aviation
(C) winning universal recognition from men
(D) building the confidence of women
Question 37. The word “recognition” in the paragraph 2 means that:
(A) The objective outlook from men for women’ s abilities
(B) The campaign against the discrimination between men and women
(C) The understanding of believable people for women’ s abilities
(D) The equal perspective from women’ s for themselves
Question 38. What can be inferred from the passage about the United States Air Force in 1938?
(A) It had no women pilots.
(B) It gave pilots handsome salaries.
(C) It had old planes that were in need of repair.
(D) It could not be trusted to do an efficient job.
Question 39. The word "resoursefulness" in the paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) indigestion (B) ingenuity (C) acrimony (D) hyperacidity
Question 40. In their efforts to compete with men, early women pilots had difficulty in
(A) addressing clubs (B) flying nonstop
(C) setting records (D) raising money
Question 41. According to the passage, which following is author’s attitude towards women’s endeavour
to be recognized?
(A) acrimony (B) admiration (C) dogmatism (C) peremptoriness
Question 42. According to the passage, who said that flying was done with no expectation of reward?
(A) Amelia Earhart (B) Charles Lindbergh
(C) Anne Lindbergh (D) Ruth Law
Question 43: Diversity is defined as the fact of much different types of things
A B C
or people being included in something .
D
Question 44: I used to hold a kick out of reading comics but now I’ve grown out of it.
A B C D
Question 45: It was so a sad film that we had to burst into tears at the end.
A B C D
A. The worse television programmes seem to be, the more popular it will become.
B. The popular television programmes become better and better.
C. The more popular television programmes become, the worse they seem to be.
D. The most popular television programmes always seem to be worse
Question 47: The invention of the telephone has made communication easier and easier.
A. Thanks to the invention of telephone, communication has become easier and easier.
B. Every convenient means of communication are from telephone.
C. Thanks to the invention of the telephone, communication has become easier and easier.
D. It was the invention of the telephone, communication became easier and easier.
Question 48: “Hurrah, we have won the match. It’s unbelievable”- Jain said.
A. Jain yelled out before knowing that they had won the match.
B. Jain said with joy once he new he won the match.
C. Jain claimed excitedly that they had won the match.
D. Jain exclaimed with joy that they had won the match.
Question 49: He had just finished eating his dinner. Then he went out.
A. Hardly did he finished eating his dinner when he went out.
B. Hardly he had finished eating his dinner when he went out.
C. Hardly have he finished eating his dinner when he went out.
D. Hardly had he finished eating his dinner when he went out.
Question 50: USA is capable of producing all of the food that this country consumes every hour.
A. United States has capacity to be self-sufficient in food.
B. Every hour the population of USA consumes as much food as it produced.
C. United States should make greater effort towards self-sufficient in it requirements.
D. USA should produce more food for the need of its population.
ĐÁP ÁN
1C 2C 3A 4A 5A 6B 7B 8A 9A 10C
11A 12D 13B 14C 15D 16A 17B 18A 19A 20B
21B 22D 23A 24C 25A 26B 27B 28D 29A 30B
31D 32C 33A 34B 35B 36C 37A 38A 39B 40D
41B 42D 43B 44A 45A 46C 47C 48D 49D 50B
GCSE TEST 15
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
1:A. love B. shovel C. dove D. move
2:A. recipe B. acne C. biome D. apostrophe
Mark the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
3:A. employment B. obstacle C. encounter D. determine
4:A. particular B. significant C. satisfaction D. collaborate
Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
5: My colleagues and I did not find the new software program to be easy as the old one.
A. did not find B. My colleagues and I C. be easy as D. the new
6: The book had already been published by the time the error is discovered.
A. had already B. is discovered C. by the time D. The
7: The best seats in the theatre will be reserved for inviting guests.
A. will be reserved B. for inviting C. best D. in the
Mark the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
8: She faces the dilemma of disobeying her father or losing the man she loves.
A. quandary B. quarantine C. quantity D. quantum
9: She felt she had been left in the lurch by all her colleagues.
A. forbidden B. forsaken C. forgiven D. forgotten
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
THE DESIGNER
"But why do you want to be a fashion designer? You could go to any university in the country with the
grades you’ve got and you want to go to fashion school?" Tanya bowed her head further over the piece of
silk she was working on and continued to sew the small bright beads onto the fine cloth with quiet
determination. She knew her father was exasperated with her decision but it wasn’t going to affect her
resolve in any way. He could question her over and over and insist on the ridiculousness of the idea but she
was going to be a fashion designer no matter what. It was all she had ever wanted to do.
Tanya thought back to when she had first picked up a needle and thread. Her grandmother, like many
women of her generation, had made most of her own clothes and when Tanya was very small she had loved
to watch her cutting the cloth and stitching it together with meticulous skill. Bit by bit, under her
grandmother’s careful instruction, she had learned the craft herself. She had started with simple outfits for
her dolls and had progressed to the point where even her grandmother said she was much better than her at
making clothes.
Once she had mastered the basic skills Tanya had become adventurous and started designing her own
creations. She had a wild sense of colour and liked to make clothes that stood out for the contrast in the
colours, patterns and the different types of cloth that she used. There was no doubting her creativity.
Her art teacher at school had nothing but praise for her talent and encouraged her to develop it further. But
not everyone was quite as sympathetic to Tanya’s dream of becoming a star in the world of fashion. Her
brother Dmitri, for one, did not make any attempt to hide his contempt for her obsession with fashion. As
far as he was concerned, clothes were just something you threw on in the morning before going out into the
outside world. As long as they were clean and didn’t have holes in them that was all that mattered. He
regarded anyone who paid attention to fashions and trends as simply a victim of peer pressure and
advertising. Dmitri was very fond of telling her that anyone with any sense or intelligence would put their
energy into doing something that mattered in the world, like becoming a scientist. He sounded just like her
father.
But she wouldn’t listen. Her mind was already made up. She had been offered a place at one of the most
prestigious schools of Art and Design in the country and nothing would deter her from taking her place
there. Contrary to what some people thought, she wasn’t a fool and she knew the road to, fulfilling her
dreams would be a long, hard one. She had a plan mapped out and she was going to follow it through.
Fortunately, she did have support within the family. Her grandmother never failed to boast about her talent
to anyone who would listen, and her mother, although she didn’t make a song and dance about it, was also
proud of her.
Tanya looked up from her work and gazed into her father’s troubled face. She smiled at him. “You know,
dad, we’ve had this conversation countless times now," she said gently, "and the thing is, underneath it all
you know I’ve made the right decision for my life. This is what I’m good at. So, let me ask you one thing.
What would you rather I did with my life? Something that gives me a deep sense of satisfaction and
fulfillment or something that would make me unhappy, perhaps for the rest of my life?” Her father’s face
brightened and he chuckled. "Well, one thing is for certain," he said, "no one could ever accuse you of
lacking confidence in your own abilities, and that is definitely a good thing. You know I only want the best
for you." She nodded. "I know you do and this is what’s best for me." He patted her on the shoulder and
walked back to his chair to read the paper.
10: Tanya’s father was annoyed because......
A. she didn’t get good grades at school. B. she refused to answer his questions.
C. she wanted to drop out of school, D. she wouldn’t change her plans.
11: Dmitri disapproved of fashion because......
A. he wanted to be a scientist. B. he thought it was unimportant.
C. he was exactly like his father. D. he felt he was under pressure.
12: Tanya knew her plans for the future......
A. did not have a lot of support. B. had the approval of all the family.
C. would be difficult to achieve. D. were bound to be successful.
13: Tanya’s grandmother......
A. doesn’t make good clothes. B. makes all her own clothes.
C. taught Tanya how to sew. D. enjoys watching Tanya sew.
14: The word 'exasperated' is closest in meaning to......
A. experienced B. annoyed C. alarmed D. exhausted
15: Tanya told her father that......
A. she wasn’t certain about her own abilities.
B. she was tired of repeating the same conversation.
C. she knew she had made the correct decision.
D. she wasn’t interested in his opinion on her future.
16: To 'make a song and dance' means to......
A. keep very quiet. B. create a lot of fuss.
C. enjoy going to parties. D. become very angry.
17: When Tanya learnt to sew she......
A. began making clothes for other people.
B. realised she would become a fashion star,
C. impressed a teacher with her creativity.
D. decided to use only colourful materials.
18: ~ A: "............" ~ B: Yes. By 11 o’clock I will have been surfing the Net for four hours.
A. Will you please leave the Net, Doris?
B. Don’t you surf the Net every day, Nelly?
C. You’ve been surfing the Net all morning!
D. I wonder what’s made you put your heart and soul in the Net!
19: ~ A: Sarah is retaking her driving test next week. ~ B: "............"
A. Oh! She’s been in hospital for a week.
B. I know. She has taken it three times so far!
C. She gave me a lift to the supermarket yesterday.
D. She needs a helmet or she’ll be fined on the way out.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
HAPPINESSS
Most people dream of becoming rich and famous, but is that what success is really about? It is a ...(20)...
that many people who have ...(21)... fame and wealth are far less happy with their lives than most people
would expect. They worry constantly about their money and reputation and they are rarely satisfied with
what they have. Singers may lose their popularity, athletes may get ...(22)... and no longer be able to perform
well and wealthy businessmen may lose their money by making risky deals or bad decisions. The best way
to be happy with your life is to reconsider what happiness really is. We must realise that human ...(23)...
and qualities are far more important than material things. A job, no matter how humble, which is done with
interest and care is worth as much as instant fame. Being ...(24)... to your family and having friends you can
depend on also makes for a happy, successful life. These are the things that really count, and give you the
right to consider yourself a success.
20:A. truth B. reality C. certainty D. fact
21:A. completed B. achieved C. managed D. succeeded
22:A. wounded B. harmed C. injured D. damaged
23:A. values B. laws C. standards D. rules
24:A. next B. together C. beside D. close
25: As soon as I got home it started to rain.
A. I was getting home when it started to rain.
B. The rain started while I got home.
C. I got home despite the rain starting.
D. No sooner had I got home than it started to rain.
26: She was only able to drive to work when the roads had been cleared.
A. Only when the roads had been cleared was she able to drive to work.
B. Because she was not able to drive to work, only the roads hadn’t been cleared
C. As soon as the roads had been cleared, she was only able to drive to work.
D. She was not able to drive to work only because the roads hadn’t been cleared.
27: His arm was broken in a skiing accident.
A. He broke his arm while skiing accidently.
B. The accident happened when he broke his arm skiing.
C. He had his arm broken in a skiing accident.
D. The skiing accident broke his arm.
Alzheimer’s disease impairs a person's ability to recall memories, bold distant and as recent as a few hours
before. Although there is not yet a cure for the illness, there may be hope for a cure with a protein called
nerve growth factor. The protein is produced by nerve cells in the same region of the brain where
Alzheimer’s occurs. Based on this relationship, scientists from the University of Lund in Sweden and the
University of California at San Diego designed an experiment to test whether doses of nerve growth factor
could reverse the effects of memory loss caused by Alzheimer’s. Using a group of rats with impaired
memory, the scientists gave half of the rats doses of nerve growth factor while giving the other half a blood
protein as a placebo, thus creating a control group. At the end of the four-week test, the rats given the nerve
growth factor performed equally to rats with normal memory abilities. While the experiments do not show
that nerve growth factor can stop the general process of deterioration caused by Alzheimer's they do show
potential as a means to slow the process significantly.
28: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The experiments did not show any significant benefits from nerve growth factor.
B. Alzheimer’s disease is deadly.
C. Though unsuccessful, the experiments did show some benefits derived from nerve growth factor.
D. More work needs to be done to understand the effects of nerve growth factor.
29: With what topic is this passage mainly concerned?
A. impaired memory of patients
B. cures for Alzheimer’s disease
C. nerve growth factor as a cure for Alzheimer’s
D. the use of rats as experimental subjects
30: The passage most closely resembles which of the following patterns of organization?
A. statement and illustration B. chronological order
C. alphabetical order D. cause and effect
31: The word "impairs" in line 1 is most similar to which of the following
A. enhances B. destroys C. diminishes D. affects
32: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘doses’ in the passge?
A. pieces B. stipends C. injections D. measures
33: The US president Barack Obama__________ an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of
great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership.
A. delivered B. paid C. offered D. gave
34: Candidates are requested to__________ the form to the admissions officer by July 25th.
A. fill out B. show up C. pass over D. hand in
35: Conservation schemes are a......of interest for many young people.
A. basis B. foundation C. source D. spring
36: We must find a(n).......to fossil fuels.
A. choice B. alternative C. option D. replacement
37: The threat of disease is......as flood victims go without clean water for a week.
A. expanding B. growing C. advancing D. maturing
38: In some zoos, animals are......to live in unsuitable cages.
A. obliged B. forced C. required D. urged
39: The scanning machines at the airport should......any suspicious materials.
A. recognise B. note C. observe D. detect
40: If it rains on Saturday, we shall have to......match for a week.
A. bring on B. put off C. take off D. put away
41: Maintain eye contact and......your audience directly to capture their attention.
A. say B. tell C. speak D. address
42: By the time they arrived at the stadium, all the seats.......
A. would have taken B. has been taken C. had been taken D. is being taken
43: Faraday’s accomplishments seem more wonderful when we realise that he had very......education.
A. a little B. few C. a few D. little
44: Some clothes come prewashed, so they won’t......when they are washed.
A. decrease B. lessen C. shrink D. diminish
45: Make sure you......your arguments with evidence from your notes.
A. support B. help C. assist D. back
46: In recent times, we have seen radical......to the world’s weather.
A. variations B. alterations C. changes D. modifications
Mark the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
47: The storm left a trail of destruction in its wake.
A. that followed B. in the early morning C. from the beginning D. left behind
48: My grandfather has a profound mistrust of anything new or foreign.
A. deep B. shallow C. intense D. narrow
Mark the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
49: Many diseases are no longer dangerous. People died of them years ago.
A. People died of many diseases which are no longer dangerous.
B. Many diseases, that people died of years ago, are no longer dangerous.
C. Many diseases which people died of years ago are no longer dangerous.
D. Many diseases of which people died years ago are no longer dangerous.
50: His life is hard. He is determined to study well.
A. No matter how hard his life is, he is determined to study well.
B. So hard is his life that he is determined to study well.
C. Due to his hard life, he is determined to study well.
D. He is determined to study well because his life is hard.
GCSE TEST 16
Mark the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
1: ~ A: "Do you want me to take you to the bus? " ~ B: "............."
A. Thanks. We'll set off in a new car. B. No, I’ll get there somehow.
C. Yes, it's convenient in some way. D. Yes, people prefer bus to some other means.
2: ~ A: "I can't understand how you missed the exit." ~ B: "Well, it was so dark. ............
A. Hardly could we see the road signs. B. We could see hardly the road signs.
C. We could see the road signs hardly. D. We could hardly see the road signs.
Mark the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
3:A. virtue B. cue C. produce D. introduce
4:A. convey B. survey C. barley D. obey
Mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5: When you get to your.....you have to show your ticket to leave the station.
A. souvenir B. passport C. destination D. harbour
6: Maintain eye contact and......your audience directly to capture their attention.
A. address B. lecture C. tell D. speak
7: I hope our plane leaves on........
A. timetable B. hour C. plan D. schedule
8: Let's go for a swim as soon as we......the hotel!
A. arrive B. meet C. get D. reach
9: You have to.......or you won’t understand the explanation.
A. contact B. consider C. involve D. concentrate
10: In recent times, we have seen radical......to the world’s ecosystem.
A. modifications B. variations C. changes D. alterations
11: We had a long way to go so we......off very early.
A. put B. had C. set D. made
12: I prepared.......my trip very carefully, and I still forgot my toothbrush!
A. about B. on C. for D. with
13: Public......in this city is quite good, and it’s not expensive.
A. travel B. vehicle C. transport D. journey
14: I........a lot of money on my credit cards and I don't know if I can pay it back.
A. owe B. obtain C. own D. cost
15: Watch out, or you......off the boat!
A. are going to fall B. fell C. are falling D. fall
16: Dogs make very....... pets. They'll always stay by your side.
A. loyal B. mental C. digital D. private
17: The 1st week of classes at university is a little ....... because so many students get lost, change classes
or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. arranged C. chaotic D. notorious
Mark the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
18: Western second-hand cars have flooded the market.
A. been available in great numbers B. been soaked in water
C. been sold at cheap price D. become more expensive
19: He made no bones about his dissatisfaction with the service.
A. drop a brick B. raised the roof
C. kicked up a row D. did not try to hide his feelings
Mark the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
20: Tom's not a young man. He must be fifty years old.
A. Tom will be glad when he’s fifty years old.
B. Tom is certainly fifty years old; maybe he’s more.
C. Tom’s much older, but he likes you to think he’s only fifty.
D. He’s got to be fifty before we can say he’s old.
21: He decided not to go to university. He went to work in a restaurant.
A. Despite of going to university he went to work in a restaurant.
B. But for going to university, he went to work in a restaurant.
C. He decided to work in a restaurant because he liked it.
D. He went to work in a restaurant instead of going to university.
It seems as if every time you turn on the television news, you hear one or the other of the following
catchphrases of the 1990s: global warming, greenhouse effect, climate change. As it often is with
catchphrases, hardly anyone knows what these phrases really mean or how they relate to each other.
In the past 100 years, in our effort to make the Earth a more civilized place, industrial production has
increased by fifty times. Four fifths of that growth has come since 1950. This production - most of it based
on the burning of wood, and of fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas - has greatly increased the amount
of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. When fossil fuels are burned, they release carbon into the air in the
form of carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide allows heat that would normally escape from the Earth's atmosphere
to remain trapped, as it would in a greenhouse - thus the greenhouse effect.
When do you burn fossil fuels? When you turn on a light, or run an air conditioner, or take a hot
shower, or make toast, you contribute to the greenhouse effect. It is a by-product of the use of energy-
electricity, gasoline, or oil.
But how can carbon dioxide be bad when human beings exhale it every time they breathe? Plants
need carbon dioxide; they use it to grow. Oceans absorb it. And forests drink it in. Without carbon dioxide,
the average surface temperature on Earth would be 0 degrees Fahrenheit, instead of 59 degrees Fahrenheit.
In nature, carbon dioxide is necessary and harmless. Here is the problem: in our effort to make the world a
more comfortable place, people have produced far too much of it.
Scientists have calculated that the atmosphere before the Industrial Revolution contained about 280
parts per million of carbon dioxide - the highest level recorded in the past 160,000 years. The current reading
is near 360 parts per million. In the next 140 years, the carbon dioxide level should reach at least 560 parts
per million.
We have increased the amount of carbon dioxide in the air by 25 percent in the past century. Carbon
dioxide is not exclusively responsible for the greenhouse problem, however. Other greenhouse gases include
chlorofluorocarbons, nitrogen oxides and methane.
22. The word “trapped” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. escaped B. caught C. heated D. released
23. According to the passage, which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. People burn more fossil fuels when they take a hot shower than when they make toast.
B. Carbon dioxide causes more problems than the other greenhouse gases do.
C. According to the scientists, the carbon dioxide level in the atmosphere has been gradually increasing.
D. For more than half a century, industrial production has increased by forty times.
24. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. We shouldn’t turn on a light, or run an air conditioner, or take a hot shower, or make toast to stop the
green house effect.
B. The carbon dioxide level in the next 140 years will increase at least by two times what it was before the
Industrial Revolution.
C. We all know clearly about the relationship between global warming, greenhouse effect, and climate
change
D. Carbon dioxide, chlorofluorocarbons, nitrogen oxides and methane are equally responsible for the
greenhouse problem.
25. The word “exclusively” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. greatly B. usually C. only D. almost
26. According to the passage, what does the author imply about the nature of carbon dioxide?
A. Carbon dioxide trapped in the Earth's atmosphere does not cause the greenhouse effect.
B. Carbon dioxide will not be harmful unless people produce far too much of it.
C. Carbon dioxide is necessary because it normally helps heat easily escape from the Earth's atmosphere.
D. Carbon dioxide makes the average surface temperature on Earth rise from 0 degrees Fahrenheit to 59
degrees Fahrenheit
27. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. carbon dioxide B. atmosphere C. greenhouse D. heat
28. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE?
A. Most of the growth in industrial production in the past 100 years came before 1950.
B. People usually do not understand what catchphrases really mean.
C. Carbon dioxide allows heat to be trapped in the Earth's atmosphere.
D. People who use electricity help to produce the greenhouse effect.
29. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The relationship between greenhouse effect, global warming and climate change.
B. Global warming and its effects.
C. The burning of fossil fuels produces carbon dioxide.
D. Carbon dioxide influences the surface temperature on earth.
Mark the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
30:A. document B. souvenir C. bakery D. opposite
31:A. injection B. geological C. appliance D. experiment
As dusk approaches at Heathrow, Europe's busiest airport quietens down for the night. Night cleaners
begin their shifts and passengers waiting for delayed flights curl up on benches in the departure hall. One
woman, Eram Dar, has found a cosy spot on the floor next to a vending machine. There is nothing to
distinguish her from the waiting passengers around her, except that she has no passport and ticket and is in
no hurry to leave the terminal. For well over a year now, it has been her home and she isn't the only one.
Eram is one of well over 100 people who live permanently at Heathrow airport.
Most people would have difficulty in telling these permanent residents of Heathrow apart from the
thousands of travellers that pass through the terminals each day. Wheeling suitcases full of their only
belongings, they dress in Hawaiian-style holiday shirts or even business suits in order to give the impression
that they are on a business trip or flying to a sunny destination.
Eram, a middle-aged ex-law student who became homeless after she could no longer pay her rent, actually
considers herself fortunate to live in Heathrow. She says, 'I liked it here immediately. I have never felt lonely
because there are so many people. I don't mix much with the other homeless, although they are of all ages
and from every walk of life. We all recognise each other, but I just like to keep to myself." There are showers
in every terminal where Eram can stay clean and presentable. She can sometimes help herself to food
passing by the caterers, and while away her time reading magazines and newspapers left behind by
passengers.
It's difficult not to suspect that Eram is just putting on a brave face. It's hard to believe she’s truly satisfied
with this way of life. Once a week, she travels to London to pick up a cheque for £60 from a charity. "The
cash goes nowhere," she says. 'Buying food at the airport is expensive. I don’t eat anything at breakfast
because, if I do, it makes me feel more hungry." Living in Heathrow isn't easy for Eram. Besides being
awakened by the jangle of coins as a passenger buys something from the machine, loud announcements and
bustling passengers, she has to engage in a full-time cat-and-mouse game with the police and security staff.
It's illegal to sleep at Heathrow unless you have a flight to catch, so along with the rest of Heathrow's
homeless population, Eram has to wash and change her clothes every morning in order to not stand out from
the crowd and be detected. If she is, she faces a night in the cold bus terminal or worse, being thrown out
into the rain. "The builders who work overnight at the airport are very kind and don't report the homeless to
the authorities," she says. "The cleaners turn a blind eye too."
Night workers aren't the only ones trying to help this unusual group of people. Broadway, a homeless
charity, visits the airport weekly to offer the airport's homeless temporary accommodation, help to get travel
documents for migrant workers and attempt to reconnect people with their families. But, as a Broadway
worker points out, "Homelessness is a way of life. It can be very difficult to convince people to receive
help". Like the passengers escaping to sunny holiday destinations, many of Heathrow's homeless are also
in search of escape from debts, legal problems or family responsibilities.
The saddest fact is that unless they are arrested or fall ill, many of Heathrow's homeless will stay there for
the foreseeable future. "I don't really see a different future," Eram Dar admits. 'In fact, I could be living at
Heathrow forever."
32: What does the writer focus on in the first paragraph?
A. what Eram Dar does at night B. what the homeless at Heathrow are like
C. what Heathrow airport is like at night D. how to spot homeless people at Heathrow
33: The phrase 'cat-and-mouse game' mentioned in line 19 refers to......
A. the fact that Eram is breaking the law
B. the fact that the authorities pretend not to see Eram
C. the difficulties Eram faces every day to survive
D. Eram's struggle to avoid being caught by authorities
34: What does the writer find surprising about Eram?
A. how she spends her days B. her background
C. her attitude towards her situation D. how she became homeless
35: What is meant by 'just putting on a brave face' in line 15?
A. refusing to help yourself B. making things sound worse
C. pretending to be happy D. trying to make others feel sorry for you
36: Heathrow's homeless have to pay attention to......
A. their appearance. B. their speech. C. their belongings. D. their behaviour.
37: What is Eram's attitude towards her future?
A. She doesn't see her situation changing.
B. She is hopeful that her life will get better.
C. She expects her situation to get worse.
D. She doesn't know how to help herself.
Read the following passage and mark the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.
EARTHQUAKE PREDICTION
If you were to hazard a guess at when and where the next major earthquake will strike, there’s ...(38)...
chance that you’d be almost as accurate as the experts. The science of earthquake prediction is still in its
infancy, which is uncomfortable, considering the threat posed ...(39)... human civilisation. Even with vast
resources at their disposal, often the best that scientists can do is say that the odds are that an earthquake
will strike where one occurred before. One reason the chances of making an ...(40)... prediction are so low
is the nature of the forces involved. It seems to be impossible to tell the difference between a small
earthquaxe and a warning tremor. Scientists need to decide whether to put lives at ...(41)... by riot issuing a
warning, or constantly issue warnings about the threat of an earthquake that may be ignored. In the end, the
odds seem to be against us ...(42)... this difficult problem any time soon.
38:A. every B. only C. no D. all
39:A. with B. for C. to D. at
40:A. correct B. accurate C. sure D. right
41:A. rest B. length C. risk D. loss
42:A. finding B. making C. raising D. solving
Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
43: Perhaps the most distinctive (A) features of sharks and (B) undoubtedly one of the most important
(C) reasons for their success is their well-developed (D) sensory system.
44: (A) Although the pecan tree is chiefly (B) value for its fruit, its wood (C) is used extensively
(D) for flooring, furniture, boxed, and crates.
45: (A) During the first 20 years of the space age, the United States spent (B) more than 90 billion
dollars (C) onto its civilian (D) and military space programs.
Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46: None of the passengers was injured because of the driver’s quick reaction.
A. The driver’s quick reaction resulted in the passengers not being injured.
B. But for the driver’s quick reaction, the passengers would have been injured.
C. So quick was the driver’s reaction that no passenger were injured.
D. If the driver didn’t reacted quickly, all the passengers would be injured.
47: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance.
A. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
B. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
C. However much Laura practised playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
D. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
48: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her savings to the children
there.
A. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit to the local
orphanage.
B. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the children that she paid a visit to
the local orphanage.
C. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the
children there.
D. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the children
there.
Mark the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
49: My father will blow his top when he sees what happened to the car.
A. show his mind B. mince his words C. keep his cool D. get fired up
50: If she doesn't want to go, nothing you can say will persuade her.
A. interfere B. interrupt C. advise D. dissuade
GCSE TEST 17
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. helps B. laughs C. cooks D. finds
Question 2: A. humour B. honest C. honour D. hour
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. nature B. marriage C. value D. belief
Question 4: A. official B. disturbance C. informal D. recommend
Question 5: She works seven days ______week.
A. a B. the C. an D. x
Question 6: John would be taking a great risk if he ______his money in that business.
A. would invest B. invested C. had invested D. invests
Question 7: He ______football since he was a boy.
A. plays B. is playing C. has played D. played
Question 8: ______it was so cold, he went out without an overcoat.
A. If B. Since C. Although D. Because
Question 9: We are sure to pass the exam. We feel sure ______it.
A. to B. for C. in D. of
Question 10: ______the top of the hill, we suddenly caught sight of the sea.
A. On reaching B. Reach C. Reached D. To reach
Question 11: ______, the students did their homework.
A. Asked B. Having asked C. Asking D. Having been asked
Question 12: The police accused him of______fire to the building but he denied______in the area on the
night of the fire.
A. setting/ being B. setting/ having been
C. set/ be D. having set/ having been
Question 13: Burning coal is an______way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper.
A. uneconomical B. economic C. uneconomic D. economical
Question 14: The boy’s strange behavior aroused the ______of the shop assistant.
A. thought B. consideration C. exectations D. suspicions
Question 15: If you practice regularly, you can learn this language skill in short ______of a time.
A. period B. aspect C. arrangement D. activity
Question 16: I gave the waiter a $50 notes and waited for my ____________
A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost
Question 17: Sarah and I ______reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She was really surprised to see me
there.
A. intentionally B. practically C. coincidentally D. deliberately
Question 18: My sister ______the responsibility for doing the housework.
A. bears B. runs C. holds D. takes
Question 19: In 1985, the Coca-Cola Company altered the secret formula of the drink’s ingredients.
A. modified B. proposed C. enriched D. restored
Question 20: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting
his foot in his mouth.
A. saying embarrassing things B. making a mistake
C. doing things in the wrong order D. speaking indirectly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.
A. real B. natural C. genuine D. true
Question 22: We were all in a good mood because the weather was good and we were going on holiday
the next day.
A. relaxed and comfortable B. at ease and refreshed
C. happy and disappointed D. sad and impatient
Question 23: Phil invites Mark to his house.
- Mark: “What a lovely house you have!”
- Phil: “______”
A. No problem. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. Of course not, it’s not costly.
Question 24: Mike talks about the test result to Thomas.
- Mike: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.”
- Thomas: “______”
A. Good Heavens ! B. That’s brilliant enough !
C. It’s okay, don’t worry. D. Never mind, better job next time !
No one can say when sports began. Since it is impossible to (25) _____ a time when children did not
spontaneously run races or wrestle, it is clear that children have always included sports in their play, but one
can only speculate about the (26) _____ of sports as autotelic physical contests for adults. Hunters are
depicted in prehistoric art, but it cannot be known (27) _____ the hunters pursued their prey in a mood of
grim necessity or with the joyful abandon of sportsmen. It is certain, (28) ______, from the rich literary and
iconographic evidence of all ancient civilizations that hunting soon became an end in itself at least for royalty
and nobility. Archaeological evidence also indicates that ball games were common among ancient peoples
as (29) _____as the Chinese and the Aztecs.
(https://www.britannica.com/topic/sports)
Question 25: A. think B. see C. have D. imagine
Question 26: A. emergence B. emerge C. emergency D. immersion
Question 27: A. when B. whether C. how D. why
Question 28: A. therefore B. so C. consequently D. however
Question 29: A. different B. far C. similar D. old
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having
incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until
the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as two
centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade),
colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew
in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary
language of international business, banking and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two -
thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology,
advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers - Today there are more than 700 million
English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of
nonnative users than any other language in the world.
Question 30. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The French influence on the English Language.
B. The English history.
C. The expansion of English as an international language.
D. The use of English for science and Technology.
Question 31. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. in 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600
Question 32. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around
the world except.
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization
Question 33. The word “enclaves” in line 6 could be best replaced by which of the following.
A. communities B. organizations C. regions D. countries
Question 34. The word "these" in paragraph 2 refers to______
A. users B. airports C. controllers D. speakers
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In
January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot.
The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four
inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He
bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb
and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast,
after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner
drum. Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the
deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with
leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground, even to occupy the
deserted nest of a hawk or crow. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically
setdes herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow
and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young
birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. clamor for
food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season
baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game bird? all fall prey to the hungry family. It
is nearly ten weeks before fledgings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of
family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own
Question 35: What is the topic of this passage?
A. Mating rituals of great horned owls
B. Raising a family of great horned owls
C. Habits of young great horned owls
D. Nest building of great horned owls
Question 36: The phrase “a resonant hoot” is closest in meaning to
A. a sound B. an offering of food
C. an instrument D. a movement
Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls ______.
A. happens in the fall B. takes place on the ground
C. involves the male alone D. in an active process
Question 38: According to the passage, great horned owls ______.
A. may inhabit a previously used nest
B. are discriminate nest builders
C. need big nests for their numerous eggs
D. build nests on tree limbs
Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl’s job?
A. To build the nest B. To initiate the courtship ritual
C. To sit on the nest D. To feed the young
Question 40: The phrase “precious charges” refers to ______.
A. the hawks and crows B. other nesting owls
C. the nest D. the eggs
Question 41: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT ______.
A. insects B. other small birds C. small mammals D. nuts and seeds
Question 42: The word “they” refers to______.
A. the adult birds B. the wise old men C. the prey D. the young birds
Question 43: Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand how just the body of an individual
A B C
becomes sensitive to a harmless substance such as milk, wheat, and egg.
D
Question 44: Because the highway system was built 40 years ago, most of the roads now need
A B C
to repair.
D
Question 45: Slightly nodding to someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable
A B
when a teacher wants to get someone’s attention in class.
C D
Question 46: He makes a better husband than father.
A. He tries to be a good husband than father.
B. His father is better than her husband.
C. He is more successful as a husband than as a father.
D. Fathers are usually good husbands.
Question 47: “Don’t forget to hand in the report, Peter !” said Kate
A. Kate reminded Peter of handing in the report.
B. Kate said that Peter had forgotten to hand in the report.
C. Kate forgot to hand in the report to Peter.
D. Kate reminded Peter to hand in the report.
Question 48: It is possible that one of the men died on the mountain.
A. One of the men must have died on the mountain.
B. One of the men may have died on the mountain.
C. One of the men need have died on the mountain.
D. One of the men should have died on the mountain.
Question 49: Susan didn’t buy that villa. She regrets this.
A. Susan wished she had bought that villa.
B. Susan wished she bought that villa.
C. Susan regrets buying that villa.
D. If only Susan hadn’t bought that villa.
Question 50: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problem.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problem.
C. He was such bright a student that he could solve all the math problem.
D. So bright was the student that he could solve all the math problem.
HẾT
KEY
Question 1. Đáp án: D (phát âm /z/)
Question 2. Đáp án: A (h câm)
Question 3. Đáp án: D (nhấn âm 2)
Question 4. Đáp án: D (nhấn âm 1, còn lại âm 2)
Question 5. Đáp án: A (cụm quen thuộc: …days a week: bao nhiêu ngày 1 tuần)
Question 6. Đáp án: B (câu điều kiện loại 2: If +S + V2/ed, S would/could/might + V)
Question 7. Đáp án: C (thì HTHT khi có since)
Question 8. Đáp án: C (mặc dù trời rất lạnh nhưng anh ấy vẫn đi ra ngoài mà không có áo ấm)
Question 9. Đáp án: D (be sure of sth: chắc chắn về)
Question 10. Đáp án: A (Tỉnh lược mệnh đề trạng ngữ khi chủ từ trong 2 mệnh đề giống nhau, ta
bỏ trạng từ, chủ từ và to be (nếu có), động từ thành Ving (câu chủ động), V3/ed (câu bị động), to V
(câu chỉ mục đích))
Có thể đổi When  on/upon/once + Ving
Question 11. Đáp án: D. (Tỉnh lược mệnh đề trạng ngữ khi chủ từ trong 2 mệnh đề giống nhau. Ở
đây là dạng quá khứ hoàn thành nên khi tỉnh lược ta chuyển HAD  HAVING)
After the students had been asked  Having been asked
Question 12. Đáp án: B. (cụm từ set fire to: phóng hỏa; denied + having V3/ed: phủ nhận đã làm gì)
Question 13. Đáp án: A (uneconimical: không tiết kiệm # economical: tiết kiệm)
Economic: thuộc về kinh tế
Question 14. Đáp án: D. (arouse the suspicions of: giấy lên nghi ngờ…)
Question 15. Đáp án: A. (in short period of a time: trong giai đoạn thời gian ngắn)
Question 16: Đáp án A
- Change (n): tiền lẻ, tiền thừa
- Supply (n): sự cung cấp
- Cash (n): tiền mặt
- Cost (n): chi phí
 Đáp án A (Tôi đã đưa cho người phục vụ 50 đô và đợi nhận lại tiền tiền thừa.)
Question 17: Đáp án C
- Intentionally (adv): có ý định trước, cố ý
- Practically (adv): hầu như, thiết thực
- Coincidentally (adv): một cách trùng hợp
- Deliberately (adv): cố ý, chủ tâm
 Đáp án C (Sarah và tôi vô tình đặt phòng ở khách sạn giống nhau. Cô ấy thực sự ngạc nhiên khi gặp
tôi ở đó.)
Question 18: Đáp án D
- Take the responsibility for: nhận trách nhiệm làm gì
 Đáp án D (Chị tôi đã nhận trách nhiệm làm công việc nhà.)
- Alter /'ɔ:ltər/ (v): thay đổi (= modify /'mɒdifai/)
- Propose /prə'pəʊz/ (v): kiến nghị
- Enrich /in'rit∫/ (v): làm giàu, làm phong phú
- Restore /ri'stɔ:[r]/ (v): phục hồi, hồi phục, khôi phục
 Đáp án A (Vào năm 1985, công ty Coca – Cola đã thay đổi công thức bí mật về các thành phần của đồ
uống)
- Put one’s foot in one’s mouth: to say or do something that upsets, offends or embarrasses sombody –
nói hoặc làm điều gì đó khiến cho ai đó tức giận, khó chịu hoặc bối rối
Question 21: Đáp án B
- Artificial (adj): nhân tạo >< natural (adj): tự nhiên
- Real (adj): thật
- Genuine (adj): có thật, chính cống, xác thực
- True (adj): đúng
 Đáp án B (Một vài loại rau sinh trưởng mà không có đất và ánh sáng nhân tạo)
Question 22: We were all in a good mood because the weather was good and we were going on holiday
the next day.
A. relaxed and comfortable B. at ease and refreshed C. happy and disappointed D. sad and impatient
Mark: “Cậu có ngôi nhà thật đáng yêu!”
Không vấn đề gì
Cám ơn. Hi vọng cậu sẽ ghé thăm
Tớ nghĩ vậy
Tất nhiên không, nó không đắt.
- Mike: “Bài kiểm tra tiếng anh đầu tiên không tốt như tớ mong đợi.”
Trời ơi!
Điều đó là đủ xuất sắc rồi!
Ổn rồi, đừng lo nữa
Đừng lo, lần sau sẽ tốt hơn mà!
- think (v): nghĩ, suy nghĩ
- see (v): nhìn thấy, gặp, xem
- have (v): có
- imagine (v): tưởng tượng
“Since it is impossible to imagine the time when children did not spontaneously run races or wrestle (Vì
không thể tưởng tượng ra thời gian lúc nào thì bọn trẻ không tự ý chạy đua hay vật lộn)
- Emergence /i'mɜ:dʒəns/ (n): sự nổi lên, sự hiện ra, sự xuất hiện
- Emerge /i'mɜ:dʒ/ (v): nổi lên, hiện ra, xuất hiện (emerge from sth)
- Emergency /i'mɜ:dʒensi/ (n): tình trạng khẩn cấp
- Immersion /i'mɜ:∫n/ (n): sự ngâm nước, sự nhấn chìm, sự đắm chìm vào (+in sth)
“the emergence of sports: sự xuất hiện các môn thể thao”
Hunters are depicted in prehistoric art, but it cannot be known whether the hunters pursued their prey in a
mood of grim necessity or with the joyful abandon of sportsmen. (Những người thợ săn được mô tả trong
nghệ thuật thời tiền sử, nhưng người ta không thể biết liệu những người thợ săn đuổi bắt con mồi của
mình trong tâm trạng cần thiết rất mãnh liệt hay là sự vui sướng cua những người chơi thể thao.)
- whether... or: hoặc... hoặc
- Therefore : vì vậy, do đó
E.g: I studied very hard. Therefore, I passed the exam.
- So : vì vậy
E.g: It rained heavily yesterday, so I stayed at home.
- Consequently = as a consequence / as a result: vì vậy, kết quả là
E.g: You didn’t work hard for this term; consequently, he failed the exam
- However: tuy nhiên
“It is certain, however, from the rich literary and iconographic evidence of all ancient civilizations that
hunting soon became an end in itself at least for royalty and nobility. (Tuy nhiên từ những bằng chứng về
hình tượng và văn học phong phú của tất cả các nền văn minh cổ đại thì chắc chắn rằng việc săn bắn sớm
trở thành một thứ ít quan trọng nhất dành cho hoàng gia và tầng lớp quý tộc.)
- Different (adj): khác nhau, khác
- Far (adj): xa
- Similar (adj): tương tự
- Old (adj): cũ, già
“Archaeological evidence also indicates that ball games were common among ancient peoples as different
as the Chinese and the Aztecs.” (Bằng chứng khảo cổ học cũng chỉ ra rằng những trò chơi bóng thì phổ
biến với những người cổ đại khác nhau như người Trung Quốc và người Aztec.)
Chủ đề của bài đọc này là gì?
A. Nghi lễ kết đôi của loài cú sừng
B. Việc xây dựng một gia đình của loài cú sừng
C. Thói quen của cú sừng con
D. Việc ỉàm tổ của loài cú sừng
Câu đầu tiên của bài đọc chính là câu chủ đề “topic sentence”: “It takes a long time to raise a family of
owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year.”
A. một âm thanh B. một lời mời ăn
C. một nhạc cụ D. một sự chuyển động
- A resonant hoot: một tiếng kêu vang
“In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant
hoot.” (Vào tháng 1 và tháng 2, hoặc cuối tháng 3 ở phía Bắc, con đực gọi con cái bằng một tiếng kêu
vang vọng.)
Note: Nếu ta không biết nghĩa của cụm từ “a resonant hoot” thì ta có thể đoán dựa vào từ “call” ở phía
trước => sẽ liên quan đến âm thanh
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng việc tán gái của những con cú sừng ___________.
A. diễn ra vào mùa thu
B. diễn ra trên mặt đất
C. chỉ một mình con đực tham gia
D. là một quá trình tích cực
Dẫn chứng trong bài đọc: “To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He
bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and
makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast,
after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner
drum.”
Vậy: Để gây ấn tượng với con cái thì con đực phải làm rất nhiều hành động như “bob, bow, rufle,
hop, etc” => đây là một quá trình hoạt động rất tích cực
Theo bài đọc, loài cú sừng ___________.
Dẫn chứng trong bài đọc: “Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a
tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow.” (Loài cú là loài xây tổ rất tệ. Chúng thích làm
tổ ở một cái hố lớn trên cây hoặc thậm chí ở cái tổ bị bỏ lại của loài diều hâu hay quạ) => chúng có thể cư
trú ở một cái tổ đã từng qua sử dụng
Question 39: Đáp án C
Theo bài đọc, việc nào sau đây là công việc của cú mẹ?
Dẫn chứng trong bài đọc: “The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically
settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from
snow and cold.”
 Đáp án C (ngồi trên tổ)
Dẫn chứng trong bài đọc: “The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically
settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from
snow and cold.”
(Cú mẹ đã đẻ 2 hoặc 3 quả trứng tròn trắng xám. Sau đó nó nằm vào tổ… để bảo vệ báu vật của
mình khỏi tuyết và mưa lạnh.) => báu vật ở đây chính là những quả trứng
Theo bài đọc, cú con ăn mọi thứ NGOẠI TRỪ ________.
A. côn trùng
B. các loài chim nhỏ
C. các động vật có vú nhỏ
D. các loại quả hạt
Dẫn chứng trong bài đọc: “They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels,
rabbits, crayfish, and beetles.” (Chúng la hét đòi thức ăn và khiến cho bố mẹ chúng phải bận rộn cung cấp
chuột, sóc, thỏ…) => chúng ăn các loài động vật mà không ăn thực vật
“As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical
expressions.”
Vậy: they = the young birds: những chú chim non
VOCABULARY
- Owl /aʊl/ (n): con cú - Downy /'daʊni/ (adj): (thuộc) lông tơ, phủ
- Ruffle /'rʌfl/ (v): làm xù lên đầy lông tơ
- Impress /im'pres/ (v): gây ấn tượng - Shell /∫el/ (n): vỏ, bao
- Nest /nest/ (n): tổ (chim,…) - Clamor /ˈklæmər/ (v): la hét, kêu la
- Flutter /'flʌtər/ (v): vỗ cánh - Songster /sɒŋstər/ (n): chim hay hót
- Deserted /di'zɜ:tid/ (adj): bị bỏ hoang - Waterfowl /'wɔ:təfaul/ (n): chim ở nước
- Crow /krəʊ/ (n): con quạ - Fledge /fledʒ/ (v): nuôi cho đủ lông đủ cánh
- Bark /bɑ:k/ (n): vỏ cây để bay
- Feather /'feðər/ (n): lông (chim) - Hunting /'hʌntiη/ (n): sự đi săn
- Stoically /'stəʊikli/ (adv): kiên cường
Question 43: Đáp án: B
Trật tự từ: just how
Cấu trúc:
- Need to V: cần làm gì (chủ động)
- Need to be PP/ Need V-ing: cần được làm gì (bị động)
Vì chủ ngữ ở vế sau là vật (roads) nên phải chia động từ ở dạng bị động.
 Đáp án D (to repair => repairing/ to be repaired)
- Pointing at sb: chỉ tay vào ai đó
Dịch nghĩa: Chỉ tay vào ai đó thường được xem là bất lịch sự nhưng chấp nhận được khi giáo viên muốn
thu hút sự chú ý của ai đó trong lớp.
 Đáp án A (slightly nodding to => Pointing at)
Question 46: He makes a better husband than father.
A. He tries to be a good husband than father. B. His father is better than her
husband.
C. He is more successful as a husband than as a father. D. Fathers are usually good
husbands.
Câu ban đầu: “Đừng quên nộp bài báo cáo nhé Peter!” Kate nói
Cấu trúc:
- Remind sb to do sth: nhắc nhở ai làm gì đó
- Remind sb of sth: gợi cho ai đó nhớ về điều gì
A, B, C không cùng nghĩa với câu ban đầu
 Đáp án D (Kate đã nhắc nhở Peter nộp bài báo cáo.)
Question 48: It is possible that one of the men died on the mountain.
A. One of the men must have died on the mountain.
B. One of the men may have died on the mountain.
C. One of the men need have died on the mountain.
D. One of the men should have died on the mountain.
Question 49: Susan didn’t buy that villa. She regrets this.
A. Susan wished she had bought that villa.
B. Susan wished she bought that villa.
C. Susan regrets buying that villa.
D. If only Susan hadn’t bought that villa.
“Cậu học sinh rất sáng dạ. Cậu ấy có thể giải quyết được tất cả các bài toán.”
Cấu trúc:
- S + be + so + adj + a/an + N + that + a clause ~ - S + be + such + a/an + adj + N + that + a + clause
(quá… đến nỗi mà…)
Đảo ngữ: So + adj + was + S + that + a clause.
A, B, C sai cấu trúc
GCSE TEST 18
Question 1: A. learns B. keeps C. cares D. trains
Question 2: A. sweat B. bean C. meaning D. meat
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. motto B. support C. slogan D. icon
Question 4: A. emotional B. incapable C. energetic D. intelligent
Question 5: There are two cars in the yard, a yellow car and a blue one. My car is ______ yellow one.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 6: If Jim hadn’t tried to kill that millionaire, he _________ in prison today.
A. wouldn’t have been B. hadn’t been C. won’t be D. wouldn’t be
Question 7: Henry _______ into the restaurant when some his friends were having dinner.
A. went B. was going C. has gone D. goes
Question 8: : ________ busy she is, she manages to pick her children up after school every day.
A. Although B. Because C. Despite D. However
Question 9: He told me to hold _______ a minute while he fetched his jacket.
A. up B. on C. in D. down
Question 10: _____ to be performed on a stage bare of scenery, Thornton Wilder's play Our Town depicts
life in a small New England community.
A. Written B. Writing C. The writing D. On the writing
Question 11: __________, he received great support from his fans.
A. Having been announced B. On his announcement
C. He has announced D. Despite his announcement
Question 12: Many reliable methods of storing information tended _______ when computers arrived.
A. to forget B. to be forgotten C. forgetting D. being forgotten
Question 13: Single is not a status. It is a word that best describes a person who is strong enough to live
and enjoy life without ______ on others.
A. to depend B. depending C. depended D. depend
Question 14: The problem needs to be _________ immediately, otherwise it will be too late.
A. addressed B. focused C. monitored D. checked
Question 15: In a relationship each person should support the other; they should ______ each other up.
A. cook B. speak C. grow D. lift
Question 16: You may not have saved a lot of money in your life, but if you have saved a lot of
heartaches for other ______, you are a pretty rich man.
A. animals B. love C. folks D. patients
Question 17: The sky became ______ as the moon moved between the Earth and the Sun.
A. surprising dark B. surprising darkly
C. surprisingly dark D. surprisingly darkly
Question 18: I think I put my _________ in it when I asked Lisa about her ex-husband.
A. thought B. elbow C. foot D. nose
Question 19: Never leave a true relation for few faults; nobody is perfect and nobody is correct at the
end. Affection is always greater than perfection.
A. Effect B. Patience C. Effort D. Care
Question 20: I hope you win the race today! I'm keeping my fingers crossed for you.
A. letting me know if you needanyhelp B. hurting my finger because of yourfailure
C. hoping you don't fail terribly D. wishing for you to playwell
Question 21: Never stop believing in hope because miracles happen every day.
A. phenomena B. routine C. normality D. wonders
Question 22: If you live in an extended family, you’ll have great joy and get support of other
members.
A. close family B. traditional family C. nuclear family D. large family
Question 23: Anne is having a meal in a restaurant.
- Waiter: “______”
- Anne: “I’ll have the fried chicken.”
A. To drink? Anything for you? B. Are you ready to order?
C. Can I have the bill, please? D. For the dessert? Here’s the menu.
Question 24: May and Lin have had dinner together.
- May: “Thank you, Lin. That was a lovely dinner.”
- Lin: “______”
A. Here’s the wine list. B. I’m glad you enjoyed it.
C. Shall we go for a walk? D. I love eating out at night.
Being part of a community with long history rooted in agriculture, Vietnamese people especially those
from older generations hold a strong belief for superstition about luck and bad luck. (25)______ people
have become much less superstitious as they were before, some traditions still carry on until today like
people’s habit. Let’s take a closer look at some common food-related superstitions and explore the reasoning
behind them.
Regarding (26)______food to avoid before taking an important examination, homophones and the
shape of your food comes into play. These features are the criteria that people use to decide which food is
good and what is bad to eat before an important examination. Students are (27)______from eating bananas
prior to an exam for fear of failing ‘like sliding on a banana skin’.
They are also advised eating squid, which when disturbed, emit a substance that is ‘as black as ink’.
The phrase carries the (28)______of a black (bad) mark on your test. Eating squash, pumpkin, melon and
peanuts was also a no-go. The words for pumpkin and melon in Vietnamese mean “stuck” and the word for
peanut means to be ‘lost’ or ‘digress’. Duck meat and eggs are associated with bad luck since the shape of
an egg (29)______the zero number. On the contrary, eating any type of beans is considered good before an
exam since bean in Vietnamese means the same thing with to ‘pass a test’.
(Adapted from http://studentexchange.vn/food-related-superstitions-internship-in-vietnam/)
Question 25: A. Because B. However C. Even though D. Therefore
Question 26: A. what B. that C. which D. where
Question 27: A. involved B. restrained C. appalled D. compulsory
Question 28: A. connote B. connotative C. connotatively D. connotation
Question 29: A. resembles B. illustrates C. demonstrates D. immagines
Business dealings are becoming more and more commonplace in Vietnam, as the country’s economy
is expanding at an unprecedented rate. In order to gain the respect and favour of any prospective business
partners in the country, it is important to familiarise yourself with practices and etiquette that are integral to
successful commerce. Doing so will communicate not only your familiarity with their way of life, but also
your suitability as a partner and will underline your business acumen.
Regarding business meeting, the first meeting should not discuss business and should be seen only as
an opportunity to get to know your counterpart and cultivate a good working relationship with them. While
placing hands together and bowing your head is the traditional form of greeting in Vietnam, it has been all
but eradicated by the westernisation of society. As a result, you should always shake the hand of a person
you are meeting for the first time – especially if they are of the same sex. When meeting a female, you
should wait for her to extend her hand first; if she does not, simply nod your head. Follow your new
colleague’s lead in all matters. If they shake with both hands (left hand placed upon top of right), do the
same.
The next important point is that the exchange of business cards is an important ritual in Vietnamese
culture. Because of this, always make sure you bring a business card to exchange at any meeting, no matter
how small or trivial it may seem. Ideally, this will be printed in both English and Vietnamese and you
should always offer it using both hands. When receiving a card from someone else, accept it with both hands
and study it thoroughly before putting it away to show respect. The translation of all documents into
Vietnamese will demonstrate your regard for your prospective partners and your preparation in the business
world.
(Adapted from https://www.kwintessential.co.uk/resources/guides/guide-to-vietnam-etiquette-
customs-culture-business/)
Question 30: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Business Dealings in Vietnam B. Business Meeting in Vietnam
C. The Exchange of Business Cards D. Commonplace Business Dealings
Question 31: How did Vietnamese business people use to greet each other formally?
A. They placed hands together and bowed their heads.
B. They took off their hats and waved their hands.
C. They shook hands and lowered their bodies.
D. They hugged each other and touched their heads.
Question 32: What can best replace the word trivial in the passage?
A. crucial B. unimportant C. meaningless D. very small
Question 33: Which of the following aspects is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Language B. Business cards C. Meeting D. Management
Question 34: The word "this" in paragraph 3 refers to______.
A. the exchange of business card B. a ritual
C. a business card D. a meeting
My mom is a pretty talented pianist. She reads music very well and loves to play Chopin and various
other classical artists. One of my earliest memories involves sitting under her piano bench while she played.
It gave her a lot of joy and a lot of personal pride, I think. I trust that she naturally wanted those things for
me when she enrolled me in piano lessons when I was about seven years old.
I hated them. I was scared of my teacher. I hated practicing. I hated the songs I was being forced to
learn. I hated reading music. I was a young kid, and there were other things I wanted to do instead. It just
didn’t interest me, and no amount of begging and pleading on my mother’s part could get me to enjoy
practicing. One thing in particular that she used to say as she was begging me to practice was, “One day,
when you’re older, you will cherish the ability to sit down and play.” Nevertheless, after a couple years of
once-a-week torture, she finally allowed me to quit.
Years went by. I switched schools when I was 11 years old, got a new best friend, and got interested in
music. This was a critical turning point. My best friend loved the band Bush and lots of other alternative
bands of the ‘90s, and listening to them unlocked a whole new sonic world for me. I fell in love, fell
completely and totally in love, with rock music.
My friend taught me the form for a power chord on her acoustic guitar. If you know how to play a
power chord, you can play or at least convincingly fake pretty much every single rock song in the world. It
was like someone had given me my first hit of a powerful opiate.
I spent hours practicing in my room. Hours sounding out my favourite songs. More hours playing along
with those songs in front of my mirror, pretending I was Scott Weiland, Dolores O’Riordan, Chris Cornell,
or my personal favourite Louise Post (of Veruca Salt). I unlocked a talent within myself that had gone
obscenely undiscovered and undeveloped when I was a young child banging my head against a piano
keyboard, trying and failing to read a piece of music - I could play the guitar by ear. I just hadn’t had the
time to figure that out because my mom was trying so hard to get me to do something that did not come
naturally to me and that I had no desire to do.
(Adapted from https://slate.com/human-interest/2015/07/should-all-children-learn-to-play-musical-
instruments.html)
Question 35: What grade did the writer probably in when she started learning to play the piano?
A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 11
Question 36: The write wrote she disliked all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. the songs she had to learn B. reading music
C. her teacher D. practising
Question 37: How many piano lessons per week did the writer have?
A. 4 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2
Question 38: Whose music did the write probably prefer listening to?
A. Chopin B. Mozart C. Bush D. Beethoven
Question 39: What is the word “opiate” in Paragraph 4 closest in meaning to?
A. music B. instrument C. drug D. energy
Question 40: Thanks to hard practice, the writer succeeded in ______.
A. playing the guitar B. reading music C. writing songs D. playing the piano
Question 41: Who made the writer love music?
A. Her boss B. Her mother C. Her teacher D. Her friend
Question 42: Which of the following statements does the writer most agree with?
A. You cannot be forced to learn music.
B. Parents are the best teachers of music.
C. Playing the piano is easier than the guitar.
D. Children should learn music at school.
Question 43: As they became enough skilled at gardening, they settled into permanent
A B C
villages and developed a rich culture.
D
Question 44: The woodcut used in China from the fifth century A.D. for applying patterns
A B C D
to textiles.
Question 45: Engraving, which grew out of the goldsmith's art, originated in Germany and
A B C
northern Italy in the center of the fifteenth century.
D
Question 46: Disabled people are twice as likely to live in relative poverty as non-disabled people.
A. Disabled people have lived in poverty twice in compared with non-disabled people.
B. The number of disabled people living in poverty double that of non-disabled people.
C. Disabled people look twice more like to live in poverty than do non-disabled people.
D. Disabled people are twice more likely to live in relative poverty than non-disabled people.
Question 47: “Yes, I’d love to, but I must finish my homework first,” said Jill to Jack.
A. Jill accepted Jack’s invitation, but she said that she had to finish her homework first.
B. Jill accepted Jack’s invitation first, but then she said she must finish her homework.
C. First and foremost, Jill loved to go with Jack much more than doing homework.
D. Jill wanted to go with Jack, but she wanted him to help her with her homework first.
Question 48: Thomas didn’t finish his assignment, he was lazy.
A. Thomas needn't have finshed his assignment because he was lazy.
B. Thomas might not have finshed his assignment because he was lazy.
C. Thomas may not have finshed his assignment because he was lazy.
D. Thomas couldn’t have finshed his assignment because he was lazy.
Question 49: Shame on him! He weren’t at home two days ago.
A. He regrets having been at home two days ago.
B. If only he were at home two days ago.
C. He wishes he had been at home two days ago.
D. I wish he had been at home two days ago.
Question 50: The announcement was made. Everyone started complaining about it.
A. No sooner did everyone start complainingabout it than the announcement was made.
B. As soon as the announcement made, everyone started complaining about it.
C. No sooner had the announcement been made than everyone started complaining about it.
D. Everyone started complaining that the announcement was made.
HẾT
GCSE TEST 19
Question 1. A. objection B. obey C. impose D. forbid
Question 2. A. sounds B. obstacles C. situations D. secrets
Question 3. A. description B. understand C. inspector D. adoption
Question 4. A. studious B. century C. well-done D. similar
Question 5. In spite of poverty and dreaful conditions, they still manage to keep their self-respect
A. self-reliant B. self-restraint C. self-esteem D. self-assured
Question 6. Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against AIDS.
A. new cure B. important therapy C. sudden remedy D. dramatic development
Question 7. This reference book is essential material for us to prepare for the next assignment.
A. Necessary B. dispensable C. vital D. fundamental
Question 8. Most students in our country are interested in pursuing higher education to get bachelor’s
degree.
A. following B. giving up C. trying D. interrupting
Question 9. Keith had so interesting (A) and creative plans (B) that everyone wanted (C) to work on (D) his
committee.
Question 10. The purpose of the United Nations, broadly speaking (A), is to maintain peace and security
(B) and encourage (C) respect for human rights (D).
Question 11. Although (A) the quantity was (B) small, we had supplied enough (C) to finish the (D)
experiment.
Question 12. Peter is going on vacation next week. Today, he drops in on Tom before he travels to American.
Peter: “Where do you suggest I stay?”
- Tom: “_______”
A. Let’s stay at the Hilton! B. I suggest you to Hilton.
C. I prefer the Hilton. D. I recommend the Hilton.
Question 13. Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children.
Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn’t stay up late to play computer games”
- Kathy: “_______”
A. You are absolute right. B. Surely, they shouldn’t.
C. Yes, I share your opinion. D. I don’t quite agree with you.
questions.
Question 14. _______ all the hard work they put in, the students got good exam results.
A. As a result of B. In compared with C. According to D. In addition to
Question 15. What a (n) _______ behaviour! He went straight into the line.
A. shame B. shameful C. ashamed D. shameless
Question 16. _______, he could not lift the trap door.
A. As he was strong B. Strong as was he
C. As strong he was D. Strong as he was
Question 17. It is necessary to be careful _______ your career.
A. when choosing B. when you will choose
C. when you have chosen D. when you chose
Question 18. Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but _______ primary
cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.
A. a/a B. a/the C. the/a D. the/the
Question 19. I _______ in trouble now if I had listened to you in the first place.
A. Won’t be B. wouldn’t be C. am not D. wouldn’t have been
Question 20. We all know that it is important _______ medical directions to be understood clearly.
A. with B. for C. to D. in
Question 21. I _______ a better job, and I am going to accept it.
A. was offering B. have been offered
C. was going to be offered D. am offering
Question 22. That honest man always speaks _______ is true even if it is bitter.
A. that it B. that C. what D. which
Question 23. He is doing very badly but he tries to _______ appearances.
A. hold on B. stick to C. keep up D. make out
Question 24. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has _______ raw materials.
A. hardly any B. any hardly C. hardly no D. hardly some
Question 25. Of the two new secretaries, one is competent and _______ is not.
A. another B. other C. the other D. the second
Question 26. Because I hadn’t heard the weather forecast, I was surprised to see the heavy rain.
A. Not having heard the weather forecast, I was surprised by the heavy rain.
B. The heavy rain caused me surprising because I hadn’t heard the weather forecast.
C. It was raining heavily, so I was surprised by the weather.
D. The weather forecast prevented me from knowing about the heavy rain.
Question 27. Ann’s parents said to her, “You are too young to get married.”
A. Ann’s parents said that she can’t get married at quite a young age.
B. Ann’s parents stopped her from getting married at quite a young age.
C. Ann’s parents said that she is so young that she can’t get married.
D. Ann’s parents advised her to get married.
Question 28. Payment must be made at the time of booking.
A You must pay before you book B. You are not allowed to pay when you book.
C. You must pay when you book. D. Payment in advance is acceptable if you want to book.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to complete each of the
following sentences.
Question 29. I spent one hour _______.
A. trying to find the answer to the question
B. to try to find the answer to the question
C. trying to find the answer for the question
D. to try to find the answer for the question
Question 30. Modern women now work outside the home .
A. because they want to be economically independent
B. in spite of their economical independence
C. although they are economically independent
D. so that they are economically dependent
SUCCESS
We tend to assume that people like Shakespeare or Darwin owe their success (31) _______ their genius. In
his new book, Outliers, Malcolm Gladwell suggests that the truth may be more complex. Of course, all
successful people are bound to have some natural (32) _______. But the true (33) _______of success are
most probably hard work, opportunity, and the environment you grow up in.
You need about 10.000 hours of practice before you get really good at something. Mozart’s early work was
certainly not great or (34) _______ . By the time he composed his first true masterpieces, he must have
spent about ten years composing concertos.
But hard work is not enough, you have to get your chance. Most Silicon Valley tycoons, like Bill Gates or
Steve Jobs, were born around 1955. When the personal computer revolution came twenty years later, they
were at a(n) (35) _______ age to lead it.
Question 31. A. about B. for C. to D. on
Question 32. A. presents B. prizes C. opportunities D. gifts
Question 33. A. ingredients B. recipes C. elements D. details
Question 34. A. different B. original C. ordinary D. strange
Question 35. A. average B. earlier C. perfect D. true
Philadelphia is a city known for many things. It is where the Declaration of Independence was signed in
1776, and it was also the first capital of the United States. But one fact about Philadelphia is not so well-
known: it is home to nearly 3,000 murals painted on the sides of homes and buildings around the city. In
fact, it is said that Philadelphia has more murals than any other city in the world, with the exception of
Rome. How did this come to
be?
More than 20 years ago, a New Jersey artist named Jane Golden started a program pairing troubled youth
with artists to paint murals on a few buildings around the city. From this small project, something magical
happened. The young people involved helped to create magnificent pieces of art, but there were other,
perhaps more important benefits. The young people learned to collaborate and get along with many different
kinds of people during the various steps required to paint and design a mural. They learned to be responsible,
because they needed to follow a schedule to make sure the murals were completed. They also learned to
take pride in their community. It is hard for any resident to see the spectacular designs and not feel proud to
be a part of Philadelphia.
Take a walk around some of the poorest neighborhoods in Philadelphia, neighborhoods full of broken
windows and littered front steps, and you will find beautiful works of art on the sides and fronts of buildings.
Of course the murals are not just in poor neighborhoods, but more affluent ones as well. Special buses take
tourists to different parts of the city to see the various murals, which range from huge portraits of historical
heroes, to cityscapes, to scenes depicting the diverse ethnic groups that call Philadelphia home.
As a result of its success, the mural program created by Jane Golden has now become the nation’s largest
public art program and a model for other cities throughout the country seeking to help troubled youth.
Question 36. The main focus of the passage is _______.
A. an art program designed to help troubled youth
B. the many tourists who come to Philadelphia to see murals
C. the reasons why Philadelphia is a unique city
D. how Jane Golden came up with the idea to start a mural program
Question 37. As used in paragraph 1, the phrase “it is said” suggests that the author is _______.
A. knowingly misleading the reader
B. using a quote from someone else
C. referring to something that is widely believed, but may be untrue
D. referring to something that he or she does not personally believe
Question 38. According to the passage, the murals in Philadelphia _______.
I. draw tourists who want to see them
II. instill responsibility and pride in the people who paint them
III. are solely designed by the youth who paint them
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
Question 39. As used in paragraph 3, which is the best definition of “affluent”?
A. popular B. clean C. well-known D. wealthy
Question 40. Based on information in the passage, the author most likely believes that _______.
A. there are too many murals in Philadelphia
B. the mural program was an inspirational idea
C. all troubled youth should learn how to paint
D. every city in the country should adopt the mural program
Question 41. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author believes the two best
reasons for other cities to adopt the mural program are to _______.
A. beautify their city and draw tourists
B. help troubled youth and beautify their city
C. have as many murals as Philadelphia and help troubled youth
D. draw tourists and surpass Philadelphia in terms of number of murals
Question 42. In order to make this passage more engaging to readers, the author could have included
_______.
I. a brief history of Philadelphia
II. pictures of some of the murals
III. an interview with a program muralist
GETTING CLOSER TO NATURE AT NATIONAL PARKS
In modern times, we seem to be getting more separate from nature with each passing day. Most of us spend
the majority of our time indoors, typing away at computers and fiddling with digital devices. All the while,
we are destroying the planet’s natural beauty by cutting down forests and building cities in their place. In
an effort to preserve nature for future generations, national parks were created.
The primary function of national parks is conservation. In many cases, it is a matter of national pride for
countries to protect their indigenous species. Although several nations considered opening national parks,
the US was the first country to officially do so when Yellowstone Park opened in 1872. This designation
made the federal government responsible for taking care of the territory. Soon after, national parks started
to open in Australia, New Zealand, Europe, and eventually across the globe. Today, almost 100 countries
have established their own national parks. In total, there are over 6,500 worldwide.
There are several incredible national parks that have a lot to offer. Kruger National Park in South Africa at
19,633 square kilometers is one of the largest game reserves. Tourists can go on safari and witness elephants,
rhinoceroses, lions, and several other large mammals in their natural environments. At 75,000 square miles,
the Northeast Greenland National Park is the world’s largest. In fact, it is larger than all but 30 countries in
the world.
Despite differences in names, location, and rules, most natural parks have certain traits in common. For one,
they are usually open to visitors throughout the year. Those who come to the park can take part in a wide
scope of outdoor activities including hiking, camping, cycling, bird watching, and fishing. Other options
may include horseback riding, rafting, or scuba diving if the territory is suitable. In most places, visitors are
encouraged not to feed the animals. The purpose for this law is twofold: to protect the animals as well as
those who might feed them. Animals also have strict dietary needs, so feeding them exotic foods could make
them sick. Feeding wild animals could also cause them to aggressively pester humans they encounter in the
future for food. However, as long as you follow the rules, you are assured of having a great time at whichever
national park you visit.
Question 43. What does the first paragraph mainly talk about?
A. What people will likely see when they visit a national park.
B. How national parks will probably be different in the future.
C. A few things you will likely see if you go to visit a national park.
D. Some reasons why national parks are necessary.
Question 44. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. The establishment of national parks
B. The main purposes of national parks
C. Some interesting facts about national parks
D. The first American national parks
Question 45. Which of the following people would probably be most interested in visiting Kruger National
Park?
A. Someone who is interested in hiking
B. Someone who is interested in rare plants
C. Someone who likes observing large creatures
D. Someone who needs to adopt an animal
Question 46. The word “indigenous’' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. rare B. native C. large D. extinct
Question 47. Which of these activities would probably NOT be featured at a national park?
A. Flying lessons B. Rafting C. Mountain climbing D. Canoeing
Question 48. Which of the following is NOT true about national parks?
A. They lies at locations with different traits.
B. They offer a variety of activities to visitors.
C. There are rules against feeding animals by tourists.
D. They have been established to avoid disasters.
Question 49. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. visitors B. guards C. animals D. exotic foods
Question 50. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. National parks were established in Britain earlier than those in the US.
B. National parks are not open to visitors in winter.
C. The Northeast Greenland National Park is only smaller than 30 countries in the world.
D. National parks in the US are under the control of the state authorities.
ANSWER KEY
1C 2D 3B 4C 5C 6D 7B 8B 9A 10 C
11 C 12 D 13 B (A or C may be acceptable) 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 A
18 B 19 B 20 B 21 B 22 C 23 C 24 A 25 C 26 A 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 A
31 C 32 D 33 A 34 B 35 C 36 A 37 C 38 B 39 D 40 B
41 B 42 B 43 D 44 C 45 C 46 B 47 A 48 D 49 C 50 C
GCSE TEST 20
Question 1. A. objection B. obey C. impose D. forbid
Question 2. A. sounds B. obstacles C. situations D. secrets
Question 3. A. description B. understand C. inspector D. adoption
Question 4. A. studious B. century C. well-done D. similar
Question 5. In spite of poverty and dreaful conditions, they still manage to keep their self-respect
A. self-reliant B. self-restraint C. self-esteem D. self-assured
Question 6. Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against AIDS.
A. new cure B. important therapy C. sudden remedy D. dramatic development
Question 7. This reference book is essential material for us to prepare for the next assignment.
A. Necessary B. dispensable C. vital D. fundamental
Question 8. Most students in our country are interested in pursuing higher education to get bachelor’s
degree.
B. following B. giving up C. trying D. interrupting
Question 9. Keith had so interesting (A) and creative plans (B) that everyone wanted (C) to work on (D) his
committee.
Question 10. The purpose of the United Nations, broadly speaking (A), is to maintain peace and security
(B) and encourage (C) respect for human rights (D).
Question 11. Although (A) the quantity was (B) small, we had supplied enough (C) to finish the (D)
experiment.
Question 12. Peter is going on vacation next week. Today, he drops in on Tom before he travels to American.
Peter: “Where do you suggest I stay?”
- Tom: “_______”
A. Let’s stay at the Hilton! B. I suggest you to Hilton.
C. I prefer the Hilton. D. I recommend the Hilton.
Question 13. Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children.
Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn’t stay up late to play computer games”
- Kathy: “_______”
A. You are absolute right. B. Surely, they shouldn’t.
C. Yes, I share your opinion. D. I don’t quite agree with you.
questions.
Question 14. _______ all the hard work they put in, the students got good exam results.
A. As a result of B. In compared with C. According to D. In addition to
Question 15. What a (n) _______ behaviour! He went straight into the line.
B. shame B. shameful C. ashamed D. shameless
Question 16. _______, he could not lift the trap door.
B. As he was strong B. Strong as was he
C. As strong he was D. Strong as he was
Question 17. It is necessary to be careful _______ your career.
A. when choosing B. when you will choose
C. when you have chosen D. when you chose
Question 18. Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but _______ primary
cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.
A. a/a B. a/the C. the/a D. the/the
Question 19. I _______ in trouble now if I had listened to you in the first place.
A. Won’t be B. wouldn’t be C. am not D. wouldn’t have been
Question 20. We all know that it is important _______ medical directions to be understood clearly.
A. with B. for C. to D. in
Question 21. I _______ a better job, and I am going to accept it.
A. was offering B. have been offered
C. was going to be offered D. am offering
Question 22. That honest man always speaks _______ is true even if it is bitter.
A. that it B. that C. what D. which
Question 23. He is doing very badly but he tries to _______ appearances.
A. hold on B. stick to C. keep up D. make out
Question 24. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has _______ raw materials.
B. hardly any B. any hardly C. hardly no D. hardly some
Question 25. Of the two new secretaries, one is competent and _______ is not.
A. another B. other C. the other D. the second
Question 26. Because I hadn’t heard the weather forecast, I was surprised to see the heavy rain.
A. Not having heard the weather forecast, I was surprised by the heavy rain.
B. The heavy rain caused me surprising because I hadn’t heard the weather forecast.
C. It was raining heavily, so I was surprised by the weather.
D. The weather forecast prevented me from knowing about the heavy rain.
Question 27. Ann’s parents said to her, “You are too young to get married.”
A. Ann’s parents said that she can’t get married at quite a young age.
B. Ann’s parents stopped her from getting married at quite a young age.
C. Ann’s parents said that she is so young that she can’t get married.
D. Ann’s parents advised her to get married.
Question 28. Payment must be made at the time of booking.
A You must pay before you book B. You are not allowed to pay when you book.
C. You must pay when you book. D. Payment in advance is acceptable if you want to book.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to complete each of the
following sentences.
Question 29. I spent one hour _______.
A. trying to find the answer to the question
B. to try to find the answer to the question
C. trying to find the answer for the question
D. to try to find the answer for the question
Question 30. Modern women now work outside the home .
A. because they want to be economically independent
B. in spite of their economical independence
C. although they are economically independent
D. so that they are economically dependent
SUCCESS
We tend to assume that people like Shakespeare or Darwin owe their success (31) _______ their genius. In
his new book, Outliers, Malcolm Gladwell suggests that the truth may be more complex. Of course, all
successful people are bound to have some natural (32) _______. But the true (33) _______of success are
most probably hard work, opportunity, and the environment you grow up in.
You need about 10.000 hours of practice before you get really good at something. Mozart’s early work was
certainly not great or (34) _______ . By the time he composed his first true masterpieces, he must have
spent about ten years composing concertos.
But hard work is not enough, you have to get your chance. Most Silicon Valley tycoons, like Bill Gates or
Steve Jobs, were born around 1955. When the personal computer revolution came twenty years later, they
were at a(n) (35) _______ age to lead it.
Question 31. A. about B. for C. to D. on
Question 32. A. presents B. prizes C. opportunities D. gifts
Question 33. A. ingredients B. recipes C. elements D. details
Question 34. A. different B. original C. ordinary D. strange
Question 35. A. average B. earlier C. perfect D. true
Philadelphia is a city known for many things. It is where the Declaration of Independence was signed in
1776, and it was also the first capital of the United States. But one fact about Philadelphia is not so well-
known: it is home to nearly 3,000 murals painted on the sides of homes and buildings around the city. In
fact, it is said that Philadelphia has more murals than any other city in the world, with the exception of
Rome. How did this come to
be?
More than 20 years ago, a New Jersey artist named Jane Golden started a program pairing troubled youth
with artists to paint murals on a few buildings around the city. From this small project, something magical
happened. The young people involved helped to create magnificent pieces of art, but there were other,
perhaps more important benefits. The young people learned to collaborate and get along with many different
kinds of people during the various steps required to paint and design a mural. They learned to be responsible,
because they needed to follow a schedule to make sure the murals were completed. They also learned to
take pride in their community. It is hard for any resident to see the spectacular designs and not feel proud to
be a part of Philadelphia.
Take a walk around some of the poorest neighborhoods in Philadelphia, neighborhoods full of broken
windows and littered front steps, and you will find beautiful works of art on the sides and fronts of buildings.
Of course the murals are not just in poor neighborhoods, but more affluent ones as well. Special buses take
tourists to different parts of the city to see the various murals, which range from huge portraits of historical
heroes, to cityscapes, to scenes depicting the diverse ethnic groups that call Philadelphia home.
As a result of its success, the mural program created by Jane Golden has now become the nation’s largest
public art program and a model for other cities throughout the country seeking to help troubled youth.
Question 36. The main focus of the passage is _______.
A. an art program designed to help troubled youth
B. the many tourists who come to Philadelphia to see murals
C. the reasons why Philadelphia is a unique city
D. how Jane Golden came up with the idea to start a mural program
Question 37. As used in paragraph 1, the phrase “it is said” suggests that the author is _______.
A. knowingly misleading the reader
B. using a quote from someone else
C. referring to something that is widely believed, but may be untrue
D. referring to something that he or she does not personally believe
Question 38. According to the passage, the murals in Philadelphia _______.
I. draw tourists who want to see them
II. instill responsibility and pride in the people who paint them
III. are solely designed by the youth who paint them
Question 39. As used in paragraph 3, which is the best definition of “affluent”?
A. popular B. clean C. well-known D. wealthy
Question 40. Based on information in the passage, the author most likely believes that _______.
A. there are too many murals in Philadelphia
B. the mural program was an inspirational idea
C. all troubled youth should learn how to paint
D. every city in the country should adopt the mural program
Question 41. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author believes the two best
reasons for other cities to adopt the mural program are to _______.
A. beautify their city and draw tourists
B. help troubled youth and beautify their city
C. have as many murals as Philadelphia and help troubled youth
D. draw tourists and surpass Philadelphia in terms of number of murals
Question 42. In order to make this passage more engaging to readers, the author could have included
_______.
I. a brief history of Philadelphia
II. pictures of some of the murals
III. an interview with a program muralist
GETTING CLOSER TO NATURE AT NATIONAL PARKS
In modern times, we seem to be getting more separate from nature with each passing day. Most of us spend
the majority of our time indoors, typing away at computers and fiddling with digital devices. All the while,
we are destroying the planet’s natural beauty by cutting down forests and building cities in their place. In
an effort to preserve nature for future generations, national parks were created.
The primary function of national parks is conservation. In many cases, it is a matter of national pride for
countries to protect their indigenous species. Although several nations considered opening national parks,
the US was the first country to officially do so when Yellowstone Park opened in 1872. This designation
made the federal government responsible for taking care of the territory. Soon after, national parks started
to open in Australia, New Zealand, Europe, and eventually across the globe. Today, almost 100 countries
have established their own national parks. In total, there are over 6,500 worldwide.
There are several incredible national parks that have a lot to offer. Kruger National Park in South Africa at
19,633 square kilometers is one of the largest game reserves. Tourists can go on safari and witness elephants,
rhinoceroses, lions, and several other large mammals in their natural environments. At 75,000 square miles,
the Northeast Greenland National Park is the world’s largest. In fact, it is larger than all but 30 countries in
the world.
Despite differences in names, location, and rules, most natural parks have certain traits in common. For one,
they are usually open to visitors throughout the year. Those who come to the park can take part in a wide
scope of outdoor activities including hiking, camping, cycling, bird watching, and fishing. Other options
may include horseback riding, rafting, or scuba diving if the territory is suitable. In most places, visitors are
encouraged not to feed the animals. The purpose for this law is twofold: to protect the animals as well as
those who might feed them. Animals also have strict dietary needs, so feeding them exotic foods could make
them sick. Feeding wild animals could also cause them to aggressively pester humans they encounter in the
future for food. However, as long as you follow the rules, you are assured of having a great time at whichever
national park you visit.
Question 43. What does the first paragraph mainly talk about?
A. What people will likely see when they visit a national park.
B. How national parks will probably be different in the future.
C. A few things you will likely see if you go to visit a national park.
D. Some reasons why national parks are necessary.
Question 44. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. The establishment of national parks
B. The main purposes of national parks
C. Some interesting facts about national parks
D. The first American national parks
Question 45. Which of the following people would probably be most interested in visiting Kruger National
Park?
A. Someone who is interested in hiking
B. Someone who is interested in rare plants
C. Someone who likes observing large creatures
D. Someone who needs to adopt an animal
Question 46. The word “indigenous’' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. rare B. native C. large D. extinct
Question 47. Which of these activities would probably NOT be featured at a national park?
A. Flying lessons B. Rafting C. Mountain climbing D. Canoeing
Question 48. Which of the following is NOT true about national parks?
A. They lies at locations with different traits.
B. They offer a variety of activities to visitors.
C. There are rules against feeding animals by tourists.
D. They have been established to avoid disasters.
Question 49. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. visitors B. guards C. animals D. exotic foods
Question 50. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. National parks were established in Britain earlier than those in the US.
B. National parks are not open to visitors in winter.
C. The Northeast Greenland National Park is only smaller than 30 countries in the world.
D. National parks in the US are under the control of the state authorities.
ANSWER KEY
1C 2D 3B 4C 5C 6D 7B 8B 9A 10 C
11 C 12 D 13 B (A or C may be acceptable) 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 A
18 B 19 B 20 B 21 B 22 C 23 C 24 A 25 C 26 A 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 A
31 C 32 D 33 A 34 B 35 C 36 A 37 C 38 B 39 D 40 B
41 B 42 B 43 D 44 C 45 C 46 B 47 A 48 D 49 C 50 C
GCSE TEST 21
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. objective B. interpret C. consequence D. profession
Question 2: A. miserable B. questionable C. criticize D. inferior
Question 3: A. searched B. practiced C. subscribed D. increased
Question 4: A. adverb B. advent C. advertise D. advance
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: If he_________ ill yesterday, he would have taken part in the football match.
A. wouldn’t be B. weren’t C. hadn’t been D. hasn’t been
Question 6: I am interested in ___________ for the position of chief financial officer which was advertised
in yesterday's Daily Post.
A. asking B.demanding C. requesting D. applying
Question 7: We are all too___________of traditions in our modern world, but they can have a very strong
impact on us.
A. dismissing B. dismissal C. dismissed D. dismissive
Question 8: Women are supposed to have a longer___________ than men.
A. life expectancy B. life expectation C. live expect D. life expected
Question 9: I assume that you are acquainted ________ this subject since you are responsible _______
writing the accompanying materials.
A. with/with B. with/for C. to/to D. to/for
Question 10: _______, the meeting stops now, Please feel free to contact me if you have any further
questions later.
A. With no questions to ask B. There being no question
C. If no question asked D. Without any question, so
Question 11: Sometimes people just focus on the _______ benefits without thinking of the
environmental risks of certain economic activities.
A. immediate B. short - lived C. potential D. long - term
Question 12: People should _________ green lifestyle to help conserve the natural resources.
A. adjoin B. adapt C. adopt D. adjust
Question 13: ________, cars are widely used as the most popular mode of transport in the United States.
A. Regardless their high price B. As though they are expensive
C. Expensive as they are D. But for their high price
Question 14: He is ________ he has bought a lot of houses in this area.
A. so rich a man that B. so a rich man that
C. as rich a man that D. such rich a man that
Question 15: This class, ________ is a prerequisite for microbiology, is so difficult that I would rather drop
it.
A. when B. that C. where D. which
Question 16: “Don’t ______ to phone Mrs.Whiteman. I’ve already talked to her about the upcoming
meeting held by the board of directors.” said Mary.
A. bother B. mind C. mention D. concern
Question 17: Would you mind ______ these plates a wipe before putting them in the cupboard?
A. doing B. giving C. making D. getting
A. except for B. in spite of C. without D. instead of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the
Question 19: Educators are complaining that students rely on social media so much that they lose the ability
to think critically.
A. insist on B. appear on C. depend on D. decide on
Question 20: The issue of pay rise will loom large at this year’s conference as it is what all the attendees
want to mention.
A. be discussed B. be improved
C. become important D. be avoided
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 21: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
A. confident B. reluctant C. free D. occupied
Question 22: Adverse reviews in the New York press may greatly change the prospects of a new product
on the market and lead to its failure.
A. comfortable B. favorable C. complementary D. additional
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 23: The product that you bought at the lower price is the more inferior to the one that we sell at a
slightly higher price.
A. the more inferior B. that you bought
C. the one D. at a slightly
Question 24: Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the earth’s rotation
changes slightly over years.
A. slightly B. perfectly
C. they D. the
Question 25: Because there were so few women in the early Western states, the freedom and rights of
Western women were more extensive than Eastern ladies.
A. Because B. so few women
C. Eastern ladies D. more extensive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable to complete each of the
Question 26: John and Jill are talking about Jill’s trip.
Jack: “How was your trip to Denmark?”
Jill: “ __________ . Everything was perfect.”
A. I couldn’t dream about it B. I couldn’t be so sure
C. I couldn’t agree more D. I couldn’t feel better about it
Question 27: John and Tim are talking about future jobs.
Jack: “What kind of job would you like?”
Jill: “ _____________.”
A. Any of them are OK B. Anything to do with computers
C. That will do D. Anytime after next week
Read the following passage and then mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Seeking a new life and hoping a significant (28)___________ in their standard of living, foreign workers
began flocking into Western Europe during the 1950s. In Britain, some of the first immigrants arriving from
the West Indies and the Indian subcontinent were welcomed by brass bands, but the dream of a new life
soon (29)_______ sour for many
Attracted by the promise to earn good money and learn new skills, the reality they found was often one of
low wages and, in many cases, unemployment. Some did not adapt (30)_______ to life in a country of cold
weather, cold welcomes and discrimination. The (31)________ of West Indian immigrants moved into the
inner cities, areas that were already fraught with social tensions caused by poverty and poor housing.
There were cases of open hostility towards the newcomers; in 1958, riots (32)________ out
in Notting Hill, West London, when gangs of white youths began taunting immigrants.
However, despite the numerous difficulties they encountered, many foreign workers did manage to adjust
to their new conditions, settling in their new adopted country and prospering. Their contribution had the
effect not only of speeding up the pace of economic change in the postwar period, but also transforming
Western Europe into a multiracial society.
Question 28: A. switch B. variation C. modification D. change
Question 29: A. converted B. turned C. transformed D. went
Question 30: A. easily B. normally C. closely D. greatly
Question 31: A. majority B. amount C. major D. number
Question 32: A. came B. broke C. carried D. started
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
People appear to be born to compute. The numerical skills of children develop so early-and so inexorably
that it is easy to imagine an internal clock of mathematical maturity guiding their growth. Not long after
learning to walk and talk, they can set the table with impressive accuracy -one plate, one knife, one spoon,
one fork, for each of the five chairs. Soon they are capable of noting that they have placed five knives,
spoons and forks on the table and, a bit later, that this amounts to fifteen pieces of silverware. Having thus
mastered addition, they move on to subtraction. It seems almost reasonable to expect that if a child were
secluded on a desert island at birth and retrieved seven years later, he or she could enter a second-grade
mathematics class without any serious problems of intellectual adjustment.
Of course, the truth is not so simple. This century, the work of cognitive psychologists has
illuminated the subtle forms of daily learning on which intellectual progress depends.
Children were observed as they slowly grasped or, as the case might be, bumped into concepts that adults
take for granted, as they refused, for instance, to concede that quantity is unchanged as water Tours from a
short stout glass into a tall thin one. Psychologists have since demonstrated that young children, asked to
count the pencils in a pile, readily report the number of blue or red pencils, but must be coaxed into finding
the total.
Such studies have suggested that the rudiments of mathematics are mastered gradually and with effort. They
have also suggested that the very concept of abstract numbers the idea of a oneness, a twoness, a threeness
that applies to any class of objects - is a prerequisite for doing anything more mathematically demanding
than setting a table, and is itself far from innate.
Question 33. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The use of mathematics in child psychology
B. The fundamental concepts of mathematics that children must learn
C. The development of mathematical ability in children
D. Trends in teaching mathematics to children
Question 34. It can be inferred from the passage that children normally learn simple counting______.
A. when they begin to be mathematically mature
B. soon after they learn to talk
C. by looking at the clock
D. after they reach second grade in school
Question 35. The word “illuminated” is closest in meaning to_______
A. clarified B. lighted
C. accepted D. illustrated
Question 36. According to the passage, when small children were asked to count a pile of red and blue
pencils, they______.
A. subtracted the number of red pencils from the number of blue pencils
B. counted only the pencils of their favorite color
C. counted the number of pencils of each color
D. guessed at the total number of pencils
Question 37. Which of the following statements would the author LEAST agree with?
A. Most people follow the same pattern of mathematical development.
B. Mathematical development is subtle and gradual.
C. Children learn to add before they learn to subtract.
D. Children naturally and easily learn mathematics.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B. C, or D on, your answer sheer to indicate the correct
In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments. They are essentially
different from all other machines because they have a memory. This memory stores instructions and
information. In a calculator, the instructions, are the various . functions of arithmetic, which are permanently
remembered by the machine and cann’t be littered:or added to: The information consists of the numbers
which are keyed in.
An electronic pocket calculator can perform almost instant arithmetic, A calculator requires an input unit to
feed in numbers, a processing unit to make the calculation, a memory.unit, and an output unit to display the
result. The calculator is powered by a small battery or by a panel of solar cells. Inside is a microchip that
contains the memory and processing units and also controls the input unit, which is the keyboard, and the
output unit, which is the display.
The input unit has keys for numbers and operations. Beneath the keys is, a printed circuit board containing
a set of contacts for each key. Pressing a key closes the contacts and sends a signal along a pair of lines in
the circuit board to the processing unit, in which the binary code for. that key is stored in the memory. The
processing unit also sends the code to the display. Each key is connected by a different pair of lines to the
processing unit, which repeatedly checks the lines to find out when a pair is linked by a key.
The memory unit stores the arithmetic instructions for the processing unit and holds thee temporary results
that occur during calculation. Storage cells in the memory unit hold, he the codes for the keys that have
been pressed. The number codes, together with the operation code for the plus key, are held in temporary
cells until the processing unit requires them.
When the equal key is pressed, it sends a signal to the processing unit. This takes the operation code – for
example addition – and the two numbers being held in the memory unit and perform the operation on the
two numbers. After the addition is done, the result goes to the decoder in the calculator's microchip. This
code is then sent to the liquid crystal display unit, which shows the result, or output, of the calculation.
Question 38. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To explain how a calculator works
B. To summarize the history of technology
C. To discuss innovative developments in the technology
D. To compare computers and calculators with other machines
Question 39. What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers?
A. They have simple memory and processing units
B. They cannot store information in a memory
C. They are less expensive than computers
D. They are older than computers.
Question 40. The word "innovative" in paragraph 1 could best replaced by______.
A. recent B. important C. complicated D. revolutionary
Question 41. In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units?
A. The output unit B. The microchip C. The battery D. The solar cells
Question 42. According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is______.
A. to send codes to the display unit
B. to store temporary results during calculation
C. to alter basic arithmetic instructions
D. to control the keyboard
Question 43. The word "This" in paragraph 5 refers to______
A. the plus key B. the processing unit
C. the equal key D. the memory unit
Question 44. The word "contacts" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______
A. connections B. locations C. commands D. codes
Question 45. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about calculators?
A. Sending codes takes place only in the memory unit of a calculator.
B. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly.
C. Calculators and computers have a memory.
D. Pressing a key activates a calculator.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 46. Many people think that Steve stole the money.
A. It was Steve who stole the money.
B. Steve is thought to have stolen the money.
C. The money is thought to be stolen by Steve.
D. Many people think that the money is stolen by Steve.
Question 47. Right after the boy got out of his house, it started to rain heavily.
A. It had rained heavily before the boy got out of his house.
B. Not until it started to rain heavily did the boy got out of his house.
C. No sooner had the boy got out of his house than it started to rain heavily.
D. Hardly had it started to rain heavily when the boy got out of his house.
Question 48. "Have a drink!" said Mr Smith.
A. Mr Smith asked me for a drink.
B. Mr Smith offered me a drink.
C. Mr Smith recommended me with a drink.
D. Mr Smith said that I should have a drink.
Mark the letter A B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 49. The children were attracted by the show. It was performed by the animals.
A. The children attracted by the show which was performed by the animals.
B. Performing by the animals, the show attracted the children.
C. The children were attracted by the show to have been performed by the animals.
D. The children were attracted by the show performed by the animals.
Question 50. There are few passengers. The coach to Dover will still leave on schedule.
A. The coach to Dover would be going to depart soon even if there weren't many people on it.
B. The coach planned to going to Dover only carries a small number of passengers.
C. Despite having few passengers, the coach to Dover will still leave as planned.
D. Even though the coach for Dover leaves now, there won't be few people travelling on it.
ANSWER KEY
Mã đề 012
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. B
11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. D
16. A 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. C
26. D 27. B 28. D 29. B 30. A
31. A 32. B
33. C. The development of mathematical ability
34. B. soon after they learn to talk
35. A. clarified
36. C. counted the number of pencils of each color.
37. D. children naturally and easily learn mathematics
38. A. To explain how a calculator works
39. B. They can’t store information in a memory.
40. D. revolutionary
41. B. the microchip
42. B. to store temporary results during calculation.
43. B. the processing unit
44. A. connections
45. D. Pressing a key activates a calculator.
46. B 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. C
GCSE TEST 22
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. apologize B. absorb C. arrive D. absence
Question 2. A. combine B. collect C. commerce D. correct
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is differently stressed from
that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. committee B. referee C. absentee D. refugee
Question 4. A. alcohol B. comment C. chemical D. proceed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 5. He wanted to know where ______.
A. had I been B. I had been C. did I been D. I been going
Question 6. Unlike most Europeans, many Americans ______ a bowl of cereal for breakfast every day.
A. used to eating B. are used to eating C. are used to eat D. use to eat
Question 7. They stayed for hours, ______ my mother was very annoyed about.
A. that B. which C. this D. whom
Question 8. When friends insist on ______ expensive gifts, it makes most people uncomfortable.
A. them to accept B. they accepting C. their accepting D. they accept
Question 9. ______ English fluently, we should practice speaking it whenever possible.
A. In order to speak B. In order speak C. their accepting D. they accept
Question 10. Did you remember …………. seats for the theatre tomorrow?
A. book B. to book C. booking D. for books
Question 11. As a general rule, the standard of living ______ by the average output of each person in
society.
A. fixed B. has fixed C. is fixed D. fixes
Question 12. She thought you were right, ______?
A. wasn't she B. didn't she C. weren't you D. were you
Question 13.The greater the demand, ______ the price.
A. the highest B. the higher C. higher D. the more high
Question 14.The beach is always crowded at this time of the year. There ______ to put your towel down!
A. are no rooms B. are no room C. is no room D. is room
Question 15 The children's mother warned them ______ near the river.
A. against going B. not go C. not going D. to go
Question 16. If services are increased, taxes ______.
A. probably go up B. probably up C. will probably go up D. going up probably
Question 17. Only because she had to support her family ______ to leave school.
A. that Alice decides B. did Alice decide C. does Alice decide D. Alice decided
Question 18. We are going to get our house _______ next week.
A. painting B. to paint C. painted D. to be painted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following s.
Question 19. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the
annual meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Question 20. Parents interpret facial and vocal expressions as indicators of how a baby is feeling
A. translate B. understand C. read D. comprehend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 21. It was difficult to manage the department on such a mean budget.
A. much B. generous C. many D. little
Question 22: About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like
the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with backbones B. with ribs C. without ribs D. without backbones
Question 23. What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary! “……………………………….”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid B. You are telling a lie
C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don't like your sayings
Question 24. Ann. “Does the global warming worry you?”
Mathew. “ ………………………..”
A. What a shame! B. Oh, it’s hotter and hotter
C. I can’t bear to think about it. D. I don’t like hot weather.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 25 .Students (A) suppose to read (B) all the questions carefully and find (C) out the answers
to (D) them.
Question 26. It was suggested that Pedro (A) studies the material (B) more thoroughly before (C)
attempting (D) to pass the exam
Question 27. Not (A) until I was (B) on my way to the airport (C) that I realized I had left my passport
(D) at home.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the original sentence(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 28. She told us to help ourselves to the apples in the basket.
A. She offered us some apples in return for our help.
B. She let us have as many apples as we wanted. .
C. She wanted our help to pick the apples and put them in a basket.
D. She wanted us to do all the work ourselves. .
Question 29. One cause of obesity in children is fatty food. Another cause is physical inactivity.
A. Not only fatty food but also physical inactivity that cause obesity in children.
B. In addition to fatty food, physical inactivity result in obesity in children.
C. Both fatty food and physical inactivity are blame for obesity in children.
D. Like fatty food, physical inactivity contributes to causing obesity in children.
Question 30. They can go on more trips abroad. Their children have grown up.
A. Now that their children have grown up, they can go on more trips abroad.
B. As they can go on more trips, their children have grown up.
C. Just as their children have grown up, they can go on more trips abroad.
D. For their children have grown up, they can go on more trips abroad.
Question 31: The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it .
A.The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea.
B. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea , the manager refused it.
C.The manager didn’t like to proposal because it didn’t seem a good idea.
D.The proposal didn’t like a good idea , so the manager didn’t accept it .
Question 32: I can earn enough money to support my family. Thank you for your job offer.
A.Had you not offered me the job, earning enough money to support my family would be difficult.
B.Had you not offered me the job, earning enough money to support my family would have been
difficult.
C.Were you not to offer me the job, earning enough money to support my family would be
difficult
D.Should you not offer me the job, earning enough money to support my family will be difficult.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care.
View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing
the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a
stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one.
Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here
are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do
you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no
right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you
require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of
importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If
not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great
deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some
fields in concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On
the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions
of the country.
If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as
insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with
your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber
does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or
demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas
plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will
likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make
today need not be your final one.
Question 33.The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 34.. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 35. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
Question 36. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 37. According to the passage, which of the following is true ?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contributions of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United
States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an
important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century,
Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail
Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John,
the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During
these centuries, women remained invisible in history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female
authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur
historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use
of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by
keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women’s
organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and
souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women’s
history in the United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College,
and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable
materials for later Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century,
most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of History, just as much of
mainstream American history concentrated on “great men.” To demonstrate that women were making
significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote
biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were
involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were
not representative at all of the great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued,
generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.
Question 38. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The role of literature in early American histories
B. The place of American women in written histories
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women
D.The “great women” approach to history used by American historians
Question 39. The word “contemporary” in the 1st paragraph means that the history was
A. informative B. thoughtful C. written at that time D. faultfinding
Question 40.In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that
A. a woman’s status was changed by marriage
B. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
C. only three women were able to get their writing published
D. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
Question 41 .The word “celebratory” in the 2nd paragraph means that the writings referred to
A. related to parties B. religious C. serious D. full of praise
Question 42. The word “they” in the 2nd paragraph refers to________
A. efforts B. authors C. counterparts D. sources
Question 43. In the 2nd paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author
point out?
A. They put too much emphasis on daily activities
B. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
C. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
D. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
Question 44. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of
nineteenth-century “great women” EXCEPT ________
A. authors B. reformers C. activists for women’s rights D. politicians
Question 45. The word “representative” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ...............
A. typical B. satisfied C. supportive D. distinctive
correct word for each of the blanks.
Children in ….(46)… . Netherlands must be at least four years old to enter primary education. Almost
all 4-year-olds (99.3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, although this is not compulsory until
children reach the age of 5. Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by….
(47) .... in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school…. (48) …. of 8 groups,
thus schooling last for 8 years. During the first two years, which is also called kindergarten, children receive
an average of 22 hours of …(49) …., during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per
week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary
school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support
this advice, for instance the 'Citotoets’, a test…. (50 ….. by the Central Institute for Test development.
Question 46. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 47. A. old B. elderly C. aging D. age
Question 48. A. includes B. contains C. consists D. composes
Question 49. A. educate B. educative C. educator D. education
Question 50. A. develop B. to develop C. developed D. developing
GCSE TEST 23
Question 1: A. bread B. dream C. cream D. clean
Question 2: A. dislikes B. exchanges C. completes D. escapes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. company B. instrument C. business D. adventure
Question 4: A. suffer B. differ C. prefer D. offer
Question 5: She hasn’t read any technological books or articles on the subject for a long time. She’s afraid
that she may be ____________ with recent developments.
A. out of touch B. out of condition C. out of reach D. out of the question
Question 6: Before a long journey, people normally take their cars to service stations to _________.
A. keep the oil refill B. make the oil refilled
C. have the oil refill D. get the oil refilled
Question 7: The online game “Dumb ways to die” ________ quickly with young people after being released
in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 8: No one on the plane was alive in the accident last night,____________?
A. Wasn’t he B. weren’t they C. were they D. was he
Question 9: “ Have you seen Jack? He’s the man wearing a bow tie.”
A. woolen lovely red B. lovely red woolen C. lovely woolen red D. red lovely woolen
Question 10: The more you practice speaking in public, ___________-.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 11: He looks for any excuse he can to blow off his __________ to do housework.
A. commitment B. obligation C. assignment D. responsibility
Question 12: “You _____________ the report yesterday as the director won’t need it until next week.”
A. should have finished B. needn’t have finished
C. could have finished D. mustn’t have finished
Question 13: It is hardly possible to __________ the right decision all the time.
A. do B. arrive C. make D. take
Question 14: Not until _________he did he realize that he was adopted by his parents.
A. has grown up B. grew up C. grows up D. had grown up
Question 15: Peter: “ Have you ever been to a live concert?”
Mary: “ No, I haven’t. But I‟d very much like to, _________.”
A. yet B. although C. though D. moreover
Question 16: They have planted a row of trees ___________ a natural protection from the sun‟s ray.
A. that form B. formed C. that is formed D. forming
Question 17: Of all the world’s major oceans, ____________ Arctic Ocean is the shallowest.
A. an B. the C. a D. Ø
Question 18: ____________ as the representative at the conference, she felt extremely proud of herself.
A. Be chosen B. Having been chosen
C. On choosing D. Having chosen
Question 19: Alex is talking to his teammate, Tim, about aquatic sports.
Alex: “ Do you think windsurfing is a dangerous sport?”
Tim: “ “
A. You‟re right. There’s no doubt about it. B. No, I don’t think so. It’s perfectly safe.
C. You can say that again but it’s still true. D. I see what you mean but that’s a good idea.
Question 20: The teacher is talking to Laura about her presentation in class today.
Teacher: “ Your speech this morning was beyond my expectation.”
Laura: “ “
A. Thanks. Without your help, I couldn’t have. B. Are you kidding me? It’s terrible.
C. It’s OK. It was the least I could do. D. That’s alright. I‟m glad I could help.
Question 21: His book is said to provide accurate information about life in the desert.
A. man-made B. valueless C. correct D. false
Question 22: She wasn’t close to her mum. She was thought to confide all her secrets to her best friend
only.
A. explore B. deny C. hide D. discuss
Question 23: “Why don’t you talk to her face-to-face?” asked Bill.
A. Bill suggested that I should talk to her face-to-face.
B. Bill advised that I could talk to her face-to-face.
C. Bill asked me why I hadn’t talked to her face-to-face.
D. Bill wondered why I don’t talk to her face-to-face.
Question 24: People believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
A. It is believed that Jane failed the test because of her laziness.
B. Jane was believed to fail the test on account of her laziness.
C. Jane is believed to fail the test owing to her laziness.
D. It was believed that Jane had failed the test due to laziness.
Question 25: The problem was so complicated that the students couldn’t understand it.
A. It was such complicated problem that the students couldn’t understand.
B. The problem wasn’t simple enough for the students to understand it.
C. The problem was too complicated for the students to understand.
D. It was so complicated problems that the students couldn’t understand.
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 26 to 30.
Mandatory volunteering made many members of Maryland high school class of 1997 rumble with
indignation. They didn’t like a new requirement that made them take part in the school’s community service
program.
Future seniors, however, probably won't be as resistant now that the program has been broken in. Some,
like John Maloney, already have completed their required hours of approved community service. The Bowie
High School sophomore earned his hours in eighth grade by volunteering two nights a week at the Larkin-
Chase Nursing and Restorative Center in Bowie. He played shuffleboard, cards, and other games with the
senior citizens. He also helped plan parties for them and visited their rooms to keep them company. That
experience inspired him to continue volunteering in the community. John, 15, is not finished volunteering.
Once a week he videotapes animals at the Prince George County animal shelter in Forestville. His footage
is shown on the Bowie public access television channel in hopes of finding homes for the
animals."Volunteering is better than just sitting around," says John, "and I like animals; I don't want to see
them put to sleep. "
He's not the only volunteer in his family. His sister, Melissa, an eighth grader, has completed her hours also
volunteering at Larkin-Chase. "It is a good idea to have kids go out into the community, but it's frustrating
to have to write essays about the work," she said. "It makes you feel like you're doing it for the requirement
and not for yourself."
The high school's service learning office, run by Beth Ansley, provides information on organizations
seeking volunteers so that students will have an easier time fulfilling their hours. "It's ridiculous that people
are opposing the requirements," said Amy Rouse, who this summer has worked at the Ronald McDonald
House and has helped to rebuild a church in Clinton. "So many people won't do the service unless it's
mandatory," Rouse said, "but once they start doing it, they'll really like it and hopefully it will become a
part of their lives - like it has become a part of mine."
Question 26: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Advantages of mandatory volunteering programs for students
B. An obligatory volunteer program at high school in Maryland
C. Students of 1997’s attitudes towards obligatory volunteering
D. Volunteering at a variety of organizations in Maryland in USA
Question 27: What is the word “footage” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to?
A. video B. animal C. volunteer D. footwear
Question 28: What does the word “It” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. doing obligatory volunteer work B. writing essays on their volunteer work
C. helping out the community D. completing a mandatory requirement
Question 29: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about Melissa?
A. She volunteers to help out at Larkin-Chase because it makes her feel good.
B. She no longer volunteers at Larkin-Chase as she hates writing essays.
C. She helps out at Larkin-Chase because it is a requirement of her course.
D. She doesn’t like to volunteer there unless she is forced to do so by the school.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Students can work for a variety of different organizations.
B. Students are required to perform community service jobs.
C. Many high school students enjoy their volunteer work.
D. Students with difficulties can choose not to volunteer.
The fictitious androids written about in the mid-1900s are becoming a reality with advances in the field of
robotics. Japan and Korea have been pioneers in this field. They regularly compete to be the first.
The focus on most researchers is in (31) _______ life-like, attractive female androids. A Japanese research
group led by Hiroshi Ishiguro created the world’s first female android, which is called Actroid in 2003. The
early model was limited so upgrades were made and the dramatic entertainment model was released in 2006.
Actroids are covered with a silicone skin and have built-in sensors making them (32) _______ of reacting
to humans, and they can also mimic many human behaviors. (33) _______ , they can be programmed to
speak in any language. The Korean android, EveR-2, released in 2006, was designed by a team from Kitech.
They claim that she is more life-like than Actroids, and she can mimic emotions. She can also speak and
move her lips to match her (34) _______ . Future models are expected to have higher mobility and even be
proficient in dancing. Research teams have also created male androids. One in particular is the Germinoid
HI-I. Regardless of the competition, it‟s clear that this technology will one day present us (35) _______ the
dilemma of determining human from machine.
Question 31: A. creating B. forming C. improving D. shaping
Question 32: A. able B. possible C. probable D. capable
Question 33: A. Therefore B. However C. Additionally D. Otherwise
Question 34: A. spoken B. speech C. speak D. speeches
Question 35: A. for B. with C. towards D. into
Question 36: I think we should tell Peter that the location of the picnic has been changed. Let’s put him in
the picture.
A. show him B. take his photo C. explain to him D. inform him
Question 37: She couldn't believe when he told her his age. He looked so young but he was a good ten
years older than her.
A. not quite B. no more than C. not less than D. no way
Question 38: Greenpeace has realized the seriousness of environmental pollution. It urges the government
worldwide to take action soon.
A. Having realized the seriousness of environmental pollution, Greenpeace urges the government
B. Greenpeace has realized the seriousness of environmental pollution so that it urges the government
C. Greenpeace has realized the seriousness of environmental pollution whereas it urges the
government worldwide to take action soon.
D. Realized the seriousness of environmental pollution, or else Greenpeace urges the government worldwide
to take action soon.
Question 39: Not many students get high scores today. The tests are to hard.
A. If the tests today were easy, more students would get high scores.
B. Not all students would get high scores with such easy tests.
C. Unless the tests were easy, no students could get high scores.
D. The tests are difficult, but all students will get high scores.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
Question 40: It is the job interview (A) that you should be (B) prepared to mention (C) a salary range (D).
Question 41: Factories located (A) on the coastlines have (B) released untreated pollution (C) directly (D)
into the ocean.
Question 42: Parents’ choice (A) for their (B) children’s names are based (C) on names of their relatives
(D) or ancestors.
Less than a year ago marketing director, David Smith, 33 was behaving like a secret agent. He used to
secretly taped all his conversations, he refused to sign his name and he would ask his secretary to check all
his emails. Anything he wrote was photocopied and kept as “evidence”. But David isn’t mad, or even mildly
eccentric. He suffers from responsibility OCD, one of more common form of obsessive compulsive disorder,
or OCD, as it is usually known.
OCD is now recognized as the second most prevalent mental-health problem, after depression – and the
number of reported cases is soaring. Experts estimate that 2% - 3% of the population suffer from the full-
blown syndrome, with as many as one in five suffering from a milder form. OCD sufferers are tortured by
obsessional thoughts, such as worrying that their hands are contaminated by germs. The terrible anxiety is
only relieved by performing a particular set of behaviours. Unfortunately, any sense of relief is short-lived,
which is why the behaviour must be repeated again and again. OCD sufferers know their behavior is
irrational, yet feel powerless to stop.
Common treatments are either antidepressants or behavioral therapy with a psychologist, but only 60% of
patients show some improvement. However, a new treatment from America is bringing fresh hope to
sufferers.
One of the OCD gurus and neuropsychiatrists, Jeffrey Schwartz, has designed the Four Steps
program which employs meditation techniques with the aim of teaching sufferers to manage their symptoms
by themselves. “The goal is to learn to override false brain messages”, explains Schwartz. There are
different theories about what causes the disorder. Most experts recognize a genetic element that can be
triggered by a stressful event. Schwartz believes that the OCD “worry circuit” is a direct result of faulty
brain chemistry. “When someone experiences an OCD thought, one part of the brain knows quite clearly
that the hand are not dirty”, explains Schwartz. Some part of the brain is standing apart from the symptoms,
reflecting on the sheer bizarreness of it all. The objective is to harness this impartial spectator so that patients
can use this healthy part of their brain to resist the compulsions.
David Smith is delighted with the results of Schwartz’s treatment. “ Now I can sign cheques without a
problem”, he says brightly. “And I don’t photocopy them either. OCD used to feel like a huge stigma, but I
don’t feel handicapped by it any more. You just deal with it.”
Question 43: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. A day in the life of an OCD sufferer B. Good news for OCD sufferers
C. The misery of living with OCD D. Living with new OCD patients
Question 44: What is the word “mildly” in paragraph 1 closest in meaning to?
A. relatively B. comparatively C. slightly D. absolutely
Question 45: What do experts say about OCD?
A. The treatment doesn’t seem to be working.
B. It has become more common than depression.
C. A third of population suffers from it.
D. There are more cases now than ever before.
Question 46: Why do OCD sufferers repeatedly perform the same action?
A. to decrease their anxiety B. to clear their problems off their mind
C. to keep their hands clean D. to be relieved from their thoughts
Question 47: What does the word ‘their’ in paragraph 5 refers?
A. sufferers B. steps C. techniques D. neuropsychiatrists
Question 48: What does the word “override” in paragraph 5 closest in meaning to?
A. overact B. stop C. stimulate D. correct
Question 49: Jeffrey Schwartz believes that OCD is caused by__________- .
A. a genetic imbalance B. a malfunction of the brain
C. a stressful event D. a biochemical malfunction
Question 50: The healthy part of an OCD sufferer’s brain _________- .
A. needs to be protect in order to treat OCD
B. is tricked into believing that there is no problem
C. recognizes that the person’s behaviors is strange
D. cannot resist the person’s new obsessions
ĐÁP ÁN
1-A 2-B 3-D 4-C 5-A 6-D 7-C 8-C 9-B 10-D
11-D 12-B 13-C 14-B 15-C 16-D 17-B 18-B 19-B 20-A
21-D 22-C 23-A 24-B 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-B 29-A 30-D
31-A 32-D 33-C 34-B 35-B 36-D 37-C 38-A 39-A 40-A
41-C 42-C 43-B 44-C 45-D 46-D 47-A 48-B 49-B 50-C
GCSE TEST 23
1. We arrived at airport. We realized our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at airport that we realize our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at airport and realized our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at airport, we realized our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at airport, did we realize our passports were still at home.
2. You have just passed your exam. This makes your parents happy. A. Having
just passed your exam making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your exam which it makes your parents happy.
C. You have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.
D. That you have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.
3. The employee's claim of being out with the flu did not seem very plausible because he returned from
sick leave with a deep tan.
A. tactful B. vulnerable C. inattentive D. unreasonable
4. TEFL.com is a website which offers a job research facility to assist qualified students in finding work.
A. help B. aid C. support D. hinder
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
5. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking it for months."
Daniel: "__________ "
A. I'm glad you like it. B. You can say that again
C. I like reading books. D. Thank you for looking for
it.
6. Daisy is talking to Mary about the house. Daisy:" What a lovely house you have!"
Mary: "__________ "
A. Of course not, it's not costly. B. No problem.
C. I think so. D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
7. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be interested in B. be related to
C. pay all attention to D. express interest to
8. Some 12th -grade students find sitting the entrance exam to be accepted into universities such a
daunting process that they become depressed due to the level of stress.
A. long-lasting B. comforting C. intimidating D. intriguing
9. A. provide B. private C. advise D. arrange
10. A. supportive B. connection C. attention D. sacrifice
correct answer to each of the questions.
There are many theories about the beginning of drama in ancient Greece. The one most widely accepted
today is based on the assumption that drama evolved from ritual. The argument for this view goes as
follows. In the beginning, human beings viewed the natural forces of the world, even the seasonal
changes, as unpredictable, and they sought, through various means, to control these unknown and feared
powers. Those measures which appeared to bring the desired results were then retained and repeated until
they hardened into fixed rituals. Eventually stories arose which explained or veiled the mysteries of the
rites. As time passed some rituals were abandoned, but the stories, later called myths, persisted and
provided material for art and drama.
Those who believed that drama evolved out of ritual also argue that those rites contained the seed of
theater because music, dance, masks, and costumes were almost always used. Furthermore, a suitable site
hard to be provided for the performances, and when the entire community did not participate, a clear
division was usually made between the "acting area" and the "auditorium". In addition, there were
performers, and since considerable importance was attached to avoiding mistakes in the enactment of
rites, religious leaders usually assumed that task. Wearing masks and costumes, they often impersonated
other people, animals, or supernatural beings, and mimed the desired effect- success in hunt or battle, the
coming rain, the revival of the Sun as an actor might. Eventually such dramatic representations were
separated from religious activities.
Another theory traces the theater's origin from the human interest in storytelling. According to this view,
tales (about the hunt, war or other feats) are gradually elaborated, at first through the use of
impersonation, action, and dialogue by a narrator and then through the assumption of each of the roles by
a different person. A closely related theory traces theater to those dances that are primarily rhythmical
and gymnastic or that are imitation of animal movements and sounds.
11. The word "enactment" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to __________ .
A. establishment B. performance C. authorization D. season
12. What does the passage manly discuss?
A. The origins of theater B. The role of ritual in modern dance.
C. The variety of early religious activities. D. The importance of storytelling 13. According
to the passage, what is the main difference between ritual and drama? A. Ritual requires fewer
performers than drama.
B. Ritual is shorter than drama
C. Ritual uses music whereas drama does not.
D. Ritual has a religious purpose and drama does not.
14. The passage supports which of the following statements?
A. Storytelling is an important part of dance
B. No one really knows how the theater began.
C. Dramatic activities require the use of costumes.
D. Myths are no longer represented dramatically.
15. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to _____________ .
A. natural forces B. seasonal changes C. human beings D. theories
16. What aspect of drama does the author discuss in the first paragraph? A. The reason
drama is often unpredictable.
B. The reason in which dramas were performed.
C. The connection between myths and dramatic plots.
D. The importance of costumes in early drama.
17. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a common element of theater and ritual?
A. Magic B. Costumes C. Dance D. Music
18. The word "considerable" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to __________ .
A. relational B. ceremonial C. substantial D. thoughtful
19. She didn't enjoy her first year at college because she failed to ________ her new friends.
A. come in for B. go down with C. get on with D. look down on
20. There are many __________ history books in our library.
A. American interesting old B. interesting old American
C. old American interesting D. interesting American old
21. Up to now, they have not made a __________ whether they will go or not.
A. decision B. decisive C. decidedly D. decide
22. I suggest that John _____________ the directions carefully before assembling the bicycle. He doesn't
want the wheels to fall off while he is riding down a hill.
A. reads B.read C. to read D.
23. We should avoid __________ personal questions. reading
A. ask B.to going C. asking D. to ask
24. Sarah and I __________ reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She was really surprised to see me
there.
A. deliberately B.intentionally C. coincidentally D. practically 25. We have just visited disadvantaged
children in an orphanage __________ in Bac Ninh Province.
A. located B.which locates C. to locate D. locating
26. If he hadn't wasted too much time, he __________ in his examination.
A. wouldn't fail B. won't fail C. wouldn't have failed D. would fail
27. The mother __________ her little son. She gives him whatever he wants.
A. spoils B. damages C. harms D. ruins
28. Mike painted his bedroom black. It looks dark and dreary. He __________ a different colour.
A. must have chosen B. had to choose
C. should have chosen D. could have been choosing
29. Air pollution is getting __________ serious in big cities in the world.
A. more and more B. most and most
C. the more and the more D. the most and the most
30. I __________ to play the piano for five months but I haven't been very successful at this.
A. learn B. had learned C. has learned D. have learned
Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the
numbered blanks.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns (31)__________ strongly affect the
worlD. When the water is warm, the (32)__________ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions
decreases. Australia could even experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand, Chile (which
borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for severe rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the
weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier. This happening is called
El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make long-range weather predictions. They also know that
El Nino will (33)__________ unusually heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United States and
make the central part of the country drier at the same time. According to research, weather forecasters
(used to know about the coming weather with certainty. Now everything has become (34)__________
different. El Nino itself used to be (35)__________ . It would occur every two to seven years. But now,
this weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or
cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this change on a global scale either.
31. A. what B. when C. whether D.that
32. A. amount B. deal C. figure D. number
33. A. fetch B. bring C. take D. carry
34. A. complete B. completely C. completed D.completing
35. A. notable B. incredible C. predictable D.remarkable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
36. The criminal is believed to be living abroad.
A. The belief is that the criminal should be living abroad.
B. It believes that the criminal is living abroad.
C. There's a belief that the criminal should be living abroad.
D. It is believed that the criminal is living abroad.
37. Astrology greatly interests him.
A. He takes a keen interest in astrology.
B. He finds astrology very interested.
C. Astrology is the subject he enjoys the most.
D. He is very interesting in astrology.
38. "If I were you, I would never turn the television up late at night" the man told his daughter.
A. The man wished his daughter didn't turn the television up late at night
B. The man ordered his daughter not to turn the television up when it's late at night.
C. The father said if he was his daughter, he would turn the television down at night.
D. The father advised his daughter not to turn the television up late at night.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
39. A. page B. face C. date D. map
40. A. arrested B. mended C. reserved D.
crowded
correct answer to each of the questions.
Househusbands
Dear Editor,
I read with interest the article on American families. In general I agree with it, but there are some
important things it left out. It didn't tell the reader much about the life of a househusband. It's not an easy
life. I know, because I'm now a househusband myself. A househusband has to change many of his ideas
and his ways.
First of all, he has to change the way he thinks about time. Before I was a househusband, I worked full-
time for the New York Times. I was a reporter, and time was always important. We had to finish our
article quickly and give them to the editor. Everyone was always in a hurry. This is the way, many other
men work, too. Businessmen, lawyers, bankers, and doctors all have to work quickly.
At home it's different. The househusband cannot be in a hurry all the time. If you rush around, you will
make everyone unhappy! The children will be unhappy because they don't understand. For them, time is
not important. Your wife will be unhappy because the children are unhappy. You will be unhappy, too,
because they are all unhappy. So you have to learn to slow down. That is the first and most important rule
for a househusband.
There is something else the househusband must learn. You must learn to show how you feel about things.
At work, men usually do not talk about feelings. If they do, people think they are strange. So, many men
are not used to telling anyone about their feelings. They do not know how to talk about their anger,
worries, or love. But children need to know how you feel. They need to know how much you love them.
If you are angry, they need to know why. Your wife also needs to know about your feelings. If you do not
say anything, your family may get the wrong idea. Then there may be serious problems.
People talk a lot about househusbands these days. Usually they talk about men doing the housework, the
cooking, cleaning, and shopping. But in my opinion, these are the easiest things to learn. It was much
harder for me to change the way I think and the way I act with my family. I think, other men will also
find this harder, but, like me, will find it necessary if they want to have a happy family!
Ted Diamond
41. According to the passage, children _______ .
A. don't know how to show their feelings. B. are always in a hurry.
C. usually don't think time is important. D. are usually unhappy.
42. The word "rush" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. spend time idly. B. move about very slowly.
C. shout loudly and angrily. D. move about hurriedly.
43. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ________ .
A. men as househusbands. B. men who do not talk about feelings.
C. men who talk about feelings. D. strange people at work.
44. It can be inferred from the passage that Ted thinks _______ . A. being a
househusband is easy.
B. learning about housework is easy.
C. learning about housework is a problem.
D. cooking is the easiest thing to learn.
45. Family problems can happen if _________ .
A. men don't talk enough with their families.
B. people talk about househusbands.
C. men get wrong ideas.
D. men talk too much with their families.
46. This article is about ______.
A. life as a househusband. B. American
families.
C. fathers and children. D. ideas about time.
47. The househusband has to learn ______ .
A. to do things more slowly. B. the importance of time.
C. to do things more quickly. D. how to understand his work.
48. A number of tourists (A) is going to (B) return the evaluation form distributed (C) by the travel agent
(D).
49. Although pure diamond is colourless (A) and transparent, but (B) when contaminated (C) with other
material it may appear in various colours, ranging (D) from pastels to opaque.
50. After teaching (A) English in Vietnam for (B) one year, Philip decided to buy (D) a house and
spending (D) the rest of his life there.
ĐÁP ÁN
1 D 11 B 21 A 31 D 41 C
2 D 12 A 22 B 32 A 42 D
3 D 13 D 23 C 33 C 43 C 4 D 14 B 24 C 34 B 44 B
5 A 15 C 25 A 35 B 45 A
6 D 16 C 26 C 36 D 46 A
7 A 17 A 27 A 37 A 47 A
8 C 18 C 28 C 38 D 48 B
9 B 19 C 29 A 39 D 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 D 40 C 50 D
GCSE TEST 24
following questions from 1 to 14.
Question 1. In some families, younger people seem more _______ to save money than their
parents.
A. supposed B. objected C. suspected D. inclined
Question 2. Politicians _______ blame the media if they don't win the election. They're so
predictable.
A. variety B. various C. invariably D. variable
Question 3. When the first child was born, they ______ for three years.
A. have been married B. had been married
C. will been married D. will have been married
Question 4. For holistic development schools should ______ families as partners in their children's
education.
A. draft В. recruit C. engage D. enlist
Question 6. Only in the last few years ______ to use home computers.
A. people have begun B. when people began
C. have begun people D. have people begun
Question 7. It is the recommendation of many counselors _____ that their survival is attributed to their true
love.
A. that Katniss convince the Mayor B. that Katniss convinces the Capitol
C. the Capitol is convinced D. that Katniss must convince the Capitol
Question 8. The authorities _____ actions to stop illegal purchase of wild animals and their
associated products effectively. However, they didn't do so.
A. should have taken B. needed have taken
C. must have taken D. had to take
Question 9. ______ in large quantities in the Middle East, oil became known as black gold because of the
large profit it brought.
A. Discovered B. Discovering
C. Which was discovered D. That when discovered
Question 10. If a machine stops moving or working normally, you can say that it has ______ .
A. cut off B. seized up C. gone off D. wiped out
Question 11. Last night, ________ nothing to watch on TV, we went out.
A. having had B. being C. there having D. there being
Question 12. ________ that he had no choice but to leave early.
A. He found himself in so embarrassing a situation
B. In such a situation he did find himself
C. In such a situation he found himself
D. He found himself in a situation where
Question 13. I refuse to believe a word of it, it's a cock-and- _______ story.
A. bull B. hen C. duck D. goose
Question 14. Paul is a very ________ character , he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-conscious B. self-directed C. self-satisfied D. self-confident
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 15 to 16.
Question 15. A. biomass B. barrister C. asthma D. drama
Question 16. A. well-established B. worshiped C. poached D. self-directed
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 17 to 18.
Question 17. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr Mayo's
outstanding humanitarianism.
A. charitable B. remarkable C. exhaustive D. widespread
Question 18. I had to pay through the nose to get my car repaired at a service station in the middle of the
desert.
A. cost a lot of money B. pay too much for something
C. spend less money than usual D. make a lot of money
Culture Clash
In Africa a famous food company tried to sell its baby food by advertising it with the picture of a baby on
the label. They did not know that this particular country used labels only to
(19)_________ a picture of the food inside. When Pepsico used the slogan "Come alive with Pepsi' in
Taiwan, they had no idea that it would be translated into Chinese as 'Pepsi (20) ________ your ancestors
back from the dead’.
Misunderstandings such as these about language or about culture are sometimes comical but
can also cause genuine hurt or anger. Business styles (21) ________ widely in different countries and what
is normal in one culture can be completely unacceptable in another.
Socialising in different countries can be tricky. In Arabic countries, for example, people do not discuss
business (22) _________ meals. Giving gifts is another potential problem: in the UK most people take
presents to a dinner party, but in many countries this is not polite because it (23) _________ you think the
host is poor.
Question 19. A. express B. display C. record D. show
Question 20. A. leads B. returns C. brings D. takes
Question 21. A. exchange B. vary C. differentiate D. disagree
Question 22. A. over B. in C. through D. about
Question 23. A. recommends B. indicates C. suggests D. proposes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions from 24 to 26.
Question 24. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel is expected to change their reservations
and proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. proceed to C. is D. to change
Question 25. They had discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them some
challenges.
A. giving B. training not only C. some challenges D. about
Question 26. If you have some sufficient knowledge of English, you can make yourself understand almost
everywhere.
A. understand B. some C. almost D. of
The Progressive Movement
The progressive movement was a powerful and broad-based movement of reform that had
lasting effects on the American political system in the first two decades of the twentieth century. It arose in
reaction to the domination of the social and political system by business interests and rampant corruption
throughout the political party system during the period following the end of the Civil War in 1865.
Progressivism emerged as a force during the presidency of Theodore Roosevelt, from 1901 to 1909, and
reached its height in the presidential campaign of 1912. By the time the United States entered World War I
in 1917, progressivism as a force had faded from the political scene.
The progressive movement was focused on instigating, or initiating change in three different areas. One
area that was of major interest to the progressive movement was the imposition of legal and
government control over big business, which had usurped an extraordinary amount of power in the
era of the wealthy industrial barons such as Rockefeller and Carnegie. A second area of interest to the
progressive movement was the improvement of the social system in order to rid society of the poverty, slum
housing, and exploitation of immigrant and child labor that were a part of the era. A final area of interest
was the cleaning up of the political system to move political decisions back into the realm of direct
democratic control and away from the corrupt backroom deals that plagued the world of politics.
Progressivism was a grassroots movement that first gained force at the local level. In cities such as
Cincinnati and Cleveland, effective urban reform movements took hold, and city officials were appointed
or elected to run their respective cities along nonpartisan lines and out from under the control of political
parties and bosses. The progressive movement then worked its way from the local level to the state level
and then on to the national level. In the state of Wisconsin, for example, "Fighting Bob" La Follette led the
drive for change, first in his role as governor of the state (1901- 1906) and later as the U.S. senator
representing the state (1906-1925). Under his leadership,
numerous reforms were instituted: state regulation of the railroads increased, policies directed at improving
the lives of workers -- such as workers' compensation and unemployment insurance - - were instituted,
and in the political arena, selection of party candidates was determined by direct democratic vote rather than
through backroom political wrangling.
Question 27. It can be inferred from the passage that the progressive movement strongly influenced the
American political system for _____.
A. a decade or two B. one year C. a half a century D. five years
Question 28. Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence
in paragraph 2?
A. The progressive movement came about as a result of legal and government controls.
B. Big business used the progressive movement in an attempt to gain influence over
government.
C. The progressive movement sought to reduce the power of the huge industrialists.
D. The success of the wealthy industrial barons grew out of the progressive movement.
Question 29. The word “rampant” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____ .
A. widespread B. insubstantial C. nonexistent D. potential
Question 30. The word “instigating” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______
A. ending B. understanding C. causing D. improving
Question 31. The author mentions “workers' compensation and unemployment insurance” in paragraph
3 in order to ______ .
A. prove that workers in Wisconsin were needier than workers in other states
B. indicate areas that were the focus of party candidates
C. provide examples of reforms intended to help the working class
D. demonstrate the need for direct democratic vote
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 32 to 33.
Question 32. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists
it bordered on the miracle.
A. flexibility B. agility C. adjustment D. inflexibility
Question 33. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
A. implicit B. explicit C. odd D. obscure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet meaning to
each of the following questions from 34 to 36.
Question 34. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the interview.
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the interview.
B. Even if you are afraid of the interview, it is important not to let it show.
C. Interviews are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
D. Provided you do not get nervous, the interview won't go badly for you.
Question 35. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. He found no peace in life because he retired early.
B. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
C. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
D. Athough he retired early, but he found no peace in life.
Question 36. My impression of him was that he was a very capable person.
A. He struck me when I was impressed by his capability.
B. It struck me as an impression that he was a very capable person.
C. He struck me as being a very capable person.
D. I struck him with the impression that he was very capable.
Life Writings
The diary and the letter were the most extensively practiced forms of life writings in eighteenth-century
America. From the numerous examples of these two types of writing from the period, a portrait of daily life
of the period can be gleaned.
Many of the diaries that were kept during this period were life diaries by authors interested in maintaining
day-to-day records of reflective self-examination, but some of the most compelling were situational diaries;
those prompted by and limited to lengthy descriptions of personal reflections about a particular event. Three
of the many situational journals of this period are those written by Sarah Kemble Knight, William Burd II,
and Dr. Alexander Hamilton. Sarah Kemble Knight's diary of her five-month trip at the end of 1704 and the
beginning of 1705 from Boston to New Haven to New York and back again to Boston was published more
than a century later as The Journal of Madam Knight. Though this diary does include an account of the
hardship that she encountered along the way, it is principally composed of humorous descriptions of and
commentary on the hospitality that she was offered and the manners of those that she encountered. William
Burd II kept two diaries to describe his experiences on a 1729 surveying expedition to settle a border dispute
between Virginia and North Carolina. One of the diaries, History of the Dividing Line between Virginia
and North Carolina, was published in 1842, while its companion, Secret Diary, was published in 1929. In
these diaries, Burd used a humorous and satirical approach to describe not just the day-to-day events of the
trip but also the characteristics which set his beloved Virginia culture apart from the (in his opinion)
decidedly less praiseworthy culture of those non-Virginians that he encountered in his trip. Dr. Alexander
Hamilton's Itinerarium (1744) describes a four-month voyage of discovery undertaken by Hamilton through
the mid-Atlantic and New England colonies; in the diary that he kept of this trip. Hamilton provides
considerable commentary on the social customs of various areas, comparing the customs and culture of the
better homes of the American colonies with those of the great salons of Europe.
Letter-writing also held a place of importance in eighteenth-century America (indeed, the
ability to produce cultured letters was considered a form of art), and many letters extant from that period
provide insights into the culture, mores, and styles of written communication of that era. Many of the letter
writers employed devices in common usage in European models of the time, demonstrating that letter
writers felt a sense of cohesiveness with the cultured classes of Europe: John and Abigail Adams
signed the names Lysander and Constantia to their early letters, while Thomas Jefferson created an
elaborate dialogue between his head and his heart to discuss the nature of friendship in a 1786 letter
to Maria Cosway. The variety of purposes that these letters served provides additional insight into the
priorities of the society of the time. The letters were used to cement love matches and friendships, as the
previously mentioned letters did; they were the primary method for relaying news among family and friends
who were scattered across various geographic locations; they were often used as a means of carrying out
business in this era before more rapid long-distance communication; they were often used used as a way of
sharing professional, social, or political ideas among leaders in various fields who perhaps had no other way
to get together and exchange ideas.
Question 37. The word “gleaned” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ______.
A. left out B. pulled up C. taken back D. put together
Question 38. What is stated in the passage about the works by Knight, Burd, and Hamilton?
A. Each gave details about business ventures
B. Each provided insight into the culture
C. Each was published soon after it was written
D. Each described visits to nice homes
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT listed in paragraph 3 as a purpose served by
eighteenth century letters?
A. Conducting business B. Maintaining relationships
C. Discussing various ideas D. Developing newspapers
Question 40. The phrase “extant from” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. created during B. written about C. existing from D. prepared since
Question 41. The word “companion” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______ .
A. associated product B. faithful pet
C. longtime friend D. respected colleague
Question 42. The phrase in parentheses (in his opinion) is included in paragraph 2 in order to indicate
____.
A. that Burd had not actually made the trip
B. that the author might not share Burd's opinion
C. that the non-Virginians shared the opinion of the Virginians
D. that Burd had little knowledge of the culture of Virginia
Question 43. Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence
in paragraph 3?
A. Examples from the time show that American letter writers were interested in following the style of letters
that was fashionable in Europe
B. European letter writers were greatly influenced by Americans such as John and Abigail
Adams and Thomas Jefferson
C. The use of letter-writing devices by some American authors was criticized by cultured
Europeans.
D. The devices used in letter writing from the period made the writing appear more cultivated and cohesive.
Question 44. What can be inferred from the passage about situational diaries?
A. They were limited to reflective self-examination
B. They were not ongoing journals of the details of daily life
C. Very few of them still exist
D. They were the only type of eighteenth-century diary
pair of sentences in the following questions from 45 to 46.
Question 45. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives
sleeping.
B. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.
C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.
D. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
Question 46. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution.
A. The academic record at high school was poor because he didn't apply to that prestigious
institution.
B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that
pression institution.
C. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that
prestigious
D. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.
the following exchanges from 47 to 48.
Question 47. Kien: "Do you feel like going out for a drink this evening?" Trung: “______”
A. That would be great.
B. No, I don't. I am busy.
C. Yes. I like very much.
D. Thank you very much for your kind invitation.
Question 48. Chau and Phuong bumped into each other after their graduation three years ago. Chau: "Hi!
Phuong. How have you been?” Phuong: “_______”|
A. I've been to Beijing recently. B. Badly. And how are you?
C. Oh, I've done a lot of things D. Oh, pretty good. And you?
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50.
Question 49. A. distinguished B. anonymous C. diagnose D. achievement
Question 50. A. centralise B. candidate C. applicant D. motivation
ĐÁP ÁN
GCSE TEST 25
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
Question 1: A. gloves B. says C. months D. sings
Question 2: A. summit B. voluntary C. compulsory D. upgrade
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
Question 3: A. engineer B. understand C. referee D. mechanic
Question 4: A. oceanic B. environment C. reality D. psychologist
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: More and more investors are pouring _______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. the B. a C. an D. Ø
Question 6: Do you think there _______ less conflict in the world if all people spoke the same language?
A. were B. will be C. would be D. are
Question 7: Linda rarely goes to school by bike, but today she _______ a bike.
A. rides B. is riding C. is going to ride D. will ride
Question 8: John has worked very late at night these day, _______ he is physically exhausted.
A. yet B. hence C. because D. so
Question 9: I agree _______ one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.
A. in B. of C. on D. for
Question 10: _______, the ancient place is still popular with modern tourists.
A. Building thousands of years ago B. It was built thousands of years ago
C. To have built thousands of years ago D. Built thousands of years ago
Question 11: Once _______ in the UK, the book will definitely win a number of awards in regional book
fairs.
A. is published B. having published C. published D. publishing
Question 12: Your hair needs _______. You’d better have it done tomorrow.
A. cut B. to cut C. being cut D. cutting
Question 13: He was pleased that things were going on _______.
A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfactory
Question 14: Although our opinions on many things _______, we still maintain a good relationship with
each other.
A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate
Question 15: Daniel _______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.
A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives
Question 16: The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and seriously
_______.
A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged
Question 17: Eager to be able to discuss my work _______ in French, I hired a tutor to help polish my
language skills.
A. expressively B. articulately C. ambiguously D. understandably
Question 18: The sight of his face brought _______ to me how ill he really was.
A. place B. house C. life D. home
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 19: In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is obliged
to tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.
A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested
Question 20: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system,
he just made light of it.
A. completely ignored B. treated as important B. disagreed with D. discovered by chance
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the
Question 21: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study
habit.
A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed
Question 22: Some operations many have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 23: Bill is talking to his colleague.
Bill: “_______, Jack?”
Jack: “Fine! I have just got a promotion.”
A. What happened B. What are you doing
C. How are you doing D. How come
Question 24: Two students are taking in a new class.
Student 1: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?”
Student 2: “_______”
A. No, thanks. B. Yes, I am so glad.
C. Sorry, the seat is taken. D. Yes, yes. You can seat here.
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
An earthquake is the result of a sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic waves.
At the Earth's surface, earthquakes are recognized (25) _______ vibration, shaking and sometimes
displacement of the ground. The vibrations may vary in (26) _______. They are caused mostly by slippage
within geological faults, but also by other events such as volcanic activity, landslides, mine blasts, and
nuclear tests. The underground point of (27) _____ of the earthquake is called the focus. The point directly
above the focus on the surface is called the epicenter. Earthquakes by themselves rarely kill people or
wildlife. It is usually the secondary events (28) _______ they trigger, such as building collapse, fires,
tsunamis (seismic sea waves) and volcanoes, that are actually the human disaster. Many of these could
possibly be avoided by better construction, safety systems, early warning and (29) _______ planning.
(Encarta, DVD, 2009)
Question 25: A. in B. with C. as D. from
Question 26: A. magnitude B. value C. amount D. quantity
Question 27: A. source B. origin C. center D. epicenter
Question 28: A. who B. what C. that D. those
Question 29: A. evacuator B. evacuate C. evacuating D. evacuation
Each year, the Academy Awards, better known as the “Oscars”, celebrate the best films and
documentaries with categories ranging from acting, directing and screenwriting, to costumes and special
effects. This year, 9-year-old Quvenzhané Wallis joins the list of kids who have taken the movie business
by storm, as she competes for the best actress award for her role as „Hushpuppy’ in the film “Beasts of the
Southern Wild”.
The Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences is made up of filmmakers in all fields. The group
ranks their favorites in each category. Oftentimes Oscar recognition can take many years, but for some lucky
and talented individuals that honor comes early in life.
Newcomer Quvenzhané Wallis (pronounced Kwe-VEN-zhah-nay) portrayed „Hushpuppy,’ a young
girl fighting to survive in a poor Mississippi Delta community prone to devastating flooding. In the film,
Wallis learns to find food in the wilderness, escapes a homeless shelter and deals with the death of her
father. She will be the youngest ever nominee in the best actress category at nine years old.
Born in Houma, LA., Quvenzhané was just five years old when she auditioned for Beasts of the
Southern Wild. Since auditions for the role of Hushpuppy were only open to 6-9 year olds, Quvenzhané’s
mother lied on the initial paperwork to allow her daughter to audition. When director Benh Zeitlin saw her
audition however, he immediately recognized her as the best pick for this strong and independent young
character.
(https://www.pbs.org)
Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
A. Young Actors Achieve Big for the Oscars B. Little Lady Nominees for the Oscars
C. Youngest Ever Nominee for the Oscars D. A Young Actress makes it to the Oscars
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT celebrated by the Academy Awards?
A. films B. documentaries C. news D. cartoons
Question 32: The phrase “that honor” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. lucky and talented individuals B. Oscars recognition
C. favorites D. award
Question 33: Which of the following best describe Quvenzhané Wallis according to the passage?
A. She is a young girl fighting to survive in a poor Mississippi Delta community.
B. She has won the best actress Oscars award for her role in “Hushpuppy”.
C. She escapes a homeless shelter and deals with the death of her father.
D. She is the youngest ever nominee in the best actress category for the Oscars.
Question 34: Which of the following best paraphrases the clause “who have taken the movie business by
storm” in the reading?
A. who have earned their living in the movie business
B. who have made huge profits in the movie business
C. who have been particularly successful in the movie business
D. who have recovered from a difficult period in the movie business
No sooner had the first intrepid male aviators safely returned to Earth than it seemed that women, too,
had been smitten by an urge to fly. From mere spectators, they became willing passengers and finally pilots
in their own right, plotting their skills and daring line against the hazards of the air and the skepticism of
their male counterparts. In doing so they enlarged the traditional bounds of a women's world, won for their
sex a new sense of competence and achievement, and contributed handsomely to the progress of aviation.
But recognition of their abilities did not come easily. "Men do not believe us capable." the famed
aviator Amelia Earhart once remarked to a friend. "Because we are women, seldom are we trusted to do an
efficient job." Indeed, old attitudes died hard: when Charles Lindbergh visited the Soviet Union in 1938
with his wife, Anne-herself a pilot and gifted proponent of aviation - he was astonished to discover both
men and women flying in the Soviet Air Force.
Such conventional wisdom made it difficult for women to raise money for the up - to - date equipment
they needed to compete on an equal basis with men. Yet they did compete, and often they triumphed finally
despite the odds.
Ruth Law, whose 590 - mile flight from Chicago to Hornell, New York, set a new nonstop distance
record in 1916, exemplified the resourcefulness and grit demanded of any woman who wanted to fly. And
when she addressed the Aero Club of America after completing her historic journey, her plainspoken words
testified to a universal human motivation that was unaffected by gender: "My flight was done with no
expectation of reward," she declared, "just purely for the love of accomplishment."
(TOEFL Readings)
Question 35: Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
A. A Long Flight B. Women in Aviation History
C. Dangers Faced by Pilots D. Women Spectators
Question 36: According to the passage, women pilots were successful in all of the following EXCEPT
_______.
A. challenging the conventional role of women B. contributing to the science of aviation
C. winning universal recognition from men D. building the confidence of women
Question 37: What can be inferred from the passage about the United States Air Force in 1938?
A. It had no women pilots. B. It gave pilots handsome salaries.
C. It had old planes that were in need of repair. D. It could not be trusted to do an efficient job.
Question 38: In their efforts to compete with men, early women pilots had difficulty in _______.
A. addressing clubs B. flying nonstop C. setting records D. raising money
Question 39: According to the passage, who said that flying was done with no expectation of reward?
A. Amelia Earhart B. Charles Lindbergh
C. Anne Lindbergh D. Ruth Law
Question 40: The word “skepticism” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. hatred B. doubt C. support D. surprise
Question 41: The word “addressed” can be best replaced by _______.
A. mailed B. came back to C. spoke to D. consulted
Question 42: The word “counterparts” refers to _______.
A. passengers B. pilots C. skills D. hazards
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 43: Some people say often that using cars is not so convenient as using motorbikes.
A. say often B. using cars C. so D. as using motorbikes
Question 44: They are having their house being painted by a construction company.
A. having B. their C. being painted D. construction
Question 45: Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to discriminating
policies implemented by the government. =
A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 46: “If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies.” said the boy.
A. As the boy did not have much work to do, he went to the movies.
B. They boy said that if he hadn’t had so much work to do, he would have gone to the movies.
C. The boy explained the reason why he had so much work to do that he couldn’t go to the movies.
D. The boy didn’t want to go to the movies because he did have so much to do.
Question 47: If only you told me the truth about the theft.
A. You should have told me the truth about the theft.
B. I do wish you would tell me the truth about the theft.
C. You must have told me the truth about the theft.
D. It is necessary that you tell me the truth about the theft.
Question 48: The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately.
A. They had to print the book immediately to satisfy the increasing demand.
B. To meet the greater and greater demand, they had to print the book immediately.
C. There was such a great demand that the book was printed immediately.
D. So great was the demand that they had to print the book immediately.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
Question 49: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.
Question 50: Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting.
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.
ĐÁP ÁN
Question 1 C Question 2 B Question 3 D Question 4 A Question 5 D
Question 6 C Question 7 B Question 8 D Question 9 C Question 10 D
Question 11 C Question 12 D Question 13 B Question 14 A Question 15 B
Question 16 B Question 17 B Question 18 D Question 19 B Question 20 B
Question 21 A Question 22 A Question 23 C Question 24 C Question 25 B
Question 26 A Question 27 B Question 28 C Question 29 D Question 30 D
Question 31 C Question 32 B Question 33 D Question 34 C Question 35 B
Question 36 C Question 37 A Question 38 D Question 39 D Question 40 B
Question 41 C Question 42 B Question 43 A Question 44 C Question 45 D
Question 46 B Question 47 A Question 48 D Question 49 C Question 50 D
GCSE TEST 26
Question 1: A. laughs B. machines C. parents D. photographs
Question 2: A. arrived B. mended C. invited D. planted
Question 3: A. attitude B. attention C. determine D. atomic
Question 4: A. chemistry B. satisfy C. buffalo D. tobacco
Question 5: The founding (A) of the Radium Institute in 1914 (B) made her dream (C ) coming (D) true.
Question 6: Let’s to get up (A) early to go (B) for (C ) a walk before (D) breakfast.
Question 7: My manager wanted to know (A) that (B) whether I was taking (C ) much money with me (D)
to France.
Question 8: Rodney _________ for the company for very long before he was promoted
A. didn’t used to work B. didn’t work
C. hasn’t been working D. hadn’t been working
Question 9: John said he _______ to visit me the day after.
A. had come B. will come C. came D. would come
Question 10: John ________ taking the money, but nobody believed him.
A. denied B. apologized C. refused D. warned
Question 11: The director deputy _______ the responsibility for organizing meetings and
conferences.
A. makes B. becomes C. takes D. gets
Question 12: He expected _______ for an Oscar, but he wasn’t.
A. nominating B. to nominate C. to be nominated D. being nominated
Question 13: Some candidates failed the oral exam because they didn’t have enough _________.
A. confidence B. confidentially C. confident D. confidential
Question 14: It was on March 19th, 1876 ________ the first telephone call was made.
A. that B. which C. then D. where
Question 15: You should use this cream _______ the sun from damaging your skin.
A. for prevent B. to prevent C. to preventing D. preventing
Question 16: My brother ______ while he ______ his bicycle and hurt himself.
A. had fallen / rode B. was falling / rode
C. fell / was riding D. had fallen / was riding
Question 17: The viewers ______ to his suggestion with a big clap.
A. response B. responded C. responsive D. respondent
Question 18: Mr. Kane finds it hard to _______ friendly relations with his thoughtless neighbors.
A. confide B. maintain C. sacrifice D. precede
Question 19: Nothing unusual happened, ________?
A. did it B. didn’t it C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 20: Anne: “Do you think we’ll have good weather?”
Susan: “_____________________.”
A. No, I won’t B. No, I hope C. Yes, I hope so D. Yes, I’m afraid so
Question 21: Anna: “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
John: “_____________________.”
A. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it. B. I can’t agree with you more
C. Never mind D. You can say that again
Question 22: We can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication.
A. posture B. speech C. facial expressions D. gesture
Question 23: In my attempt to win a place at university, I am under a lot of pressure.
A. strong influence B. difficulties C. allowance D. force
Question 24: In Western culture, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation.
A. informal B. insecure C. discourteous D. irresponsible
Question 25: There have been significant changes in women’s lives since the women’s liberation
movement.
A. controlled B. political C. disagreeable D. unimportant
Question 26: “I am sorry, Jean. I broke your bicycle”, said John.
A. John apologized to Jean having broken her bike.
B. John apologized to Jean for having broken her bike.
C. John apologized Jean for breaking his bike.
D. John apologized Jean about having broken her bike.
Question 27: “Shall I carry the suitcase for you, Mary?”, said John.
A. John offered Mary to carry the suitcase for Mary.
B. John offered to carry the suitcase for Mary.
C. John offered carrying the suitcase for Mary.
D. John offered Mary if he should carry the suitcase for her.
Question 28: It is said that he broke the world record
A. He is said to have broken the world record
B. People said that he broke the world record
C. People were said that world record has been broken by him.
D. He is said that he had broken world record.
Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
A. A waitress served us was very impolite and impatient.
B. A waitress to serve us was very impolite and impatient.
C. A waitress to be served us was very impolite and impatient.
D. A waitress serving us was very impolite and impatient.
Question 30: Mary lost the ticket. She didn’t go to the concert.
A. Were Mary not to lose the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
B. If Mary hadn’t lost the ticket, she would go to the concert.
C. Unless Mary had lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.
D. Had Mary not lost the ticket, she would go to the concert.
correct word for each of the blanks from 31 to 35.
In Japan, politeness and good manners are very important and business meetings are very formal. Business
cards are also important and they (31)____________these at the beginning of a meeting. They always look
at them carefully, so you should do the same as they might think you're rude if you don't. A lot of
communication is non-verbal. They are very good listeners and may ask a lot of questions to
(32)_______they understand everything. In a conversation they wait longer before they reply than
westerners do, so it's important (33)__________speak in those long pauses but to wait for their reply. In
their culture it's rude to ask direct questions or to say 'No' or 'I disagree'. In business it takes a long time to
(34)___________a decision because they have to ask everyone in the company. When they say 'Yes' it may
mean 'I understand', not 'I agree', and when they smile it might be because they don't know (35)
___________ to say.
Question 31: A. barter B. change C. exchange D. purchase
Question 32: A. find B. identify C. check D. notice
Question 33: A. not B. not to C. don’t D. to not
Question 34: A. make B. take C. get D. gain
Question 35: A. that B. who C. what D. when
Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating
without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic
function of a signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for
example, the dots and dashes of telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication
is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves.
A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently.
Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with
the receiver's cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater
provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also
communicate certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage. They
usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without
an exchange of ideas, interaction come to a halt. As a result, means of communication intended to be used
for long distances and extended periods must be based upon speech. To radio, television and the telephone,
one must add fax, paging systems, electronic mail, and the Internet, and no doubts but that there are more
means of communication on the horizon.
Question 36: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Signs and signals B. Gestures C. Communication D. Speech
Question 37: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is necessary for communication to occur.
B. It is the most advanced form of communication.
C. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
D. It is the only true form of communication.
Question 38: The phrase “impinge upon” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. prohibit B. improve C. vary D. intrude
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph refers to _________.
A. signal B. function C. way D. environment
Question 40: Applauding was cited as an example of ________.
A. a sign B. a gesture C. a signal D. a symbol
Question 41: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?
A. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.
B. Because people wanted new forms of communication.
C. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.
D. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
Question 42: It may be concluded from this passage that ________.
A. symbols are very easy to define and interrupt
B. only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols
C. waving and handshaking are not related to culture
D. signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication.
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such
quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very
flexible definition that permits continuous changes. When the first air pollution laws were established in
England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled -
a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and
knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened.
In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxides and nitrogen oxides are
found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various
chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification
scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's
output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human
output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The
result is an concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects
appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human
activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical
value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would
occur naturally in the are a . For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0. 08 parts per
million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however has a natural level of
0. 1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. What constitutes an air pollutant.
B. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
C. The economic impact of air pollution.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere
Question 44: The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. considerably B. quickly C. admittedly D. negatively
Question 45: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ________.
A. the definition of air pollution will continue to change.
B. Most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled
C. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities.
D. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas.
Question 46: The word “these” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. the compounds moved to the water or soil
B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the various chemical reactions
D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
Question 47: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling
air pollution?
A. They're less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
B. They function as part of a purification process.
C. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed
Question 48: According to the passage, human- generated air pollution in localized regions ____.
A. will react harmfully with natural pollutants.
B. can overwhelm the natural system removing pollutants.
C. will damage area outside of the localized regions.
D. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants.
Question 49: The word “localized” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. surrounded B. encircled C. specified D. circled
Question 50: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is
only useful if ________.
A. it can be calculated quickly B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. the other substances in the area are known
ĐÁP ÁN
GCSE TEST 27
Question 1: In most _______ developed countries, up to 50% of _______ population enters higher
education at some time in their lives.
A. the / Ø B. Ø / Ø C. the / the D. Ø / the
Question 2: But for his kind support, I _______.
A. would not have succeeded B. did not succeed
C. had not succeeded D. would succeed
Question 3: - Jean: “Why didn’t you tell me about the plans for the merge?”
- Jack: “I would have told you _______.”
A. if you asked me to B. had you asked me to
C. you had asked to me D. you were asking me
Question 4: This year, so far, we ________ 28,000 dollars and are still counting.
A. are raising B. have been raised C. have raised D. raised
Question 5: It is now over seventy years since Lindbergh _______ across the Atlantic.
A. has been flying B. flew C. had flown D. has flown
Question 6: All applications to courses at tertiary institutions are made through UCAS, a central agency
_______ UK universities and colleges of higher education.
A. standing for B. instead of C. on behalf of D. representative of
Question 7: Books are still a cheap _______ to get knowledge and entertainment.
A. means B. way C. method D. measure
Question 8: Galileo proved that the earth _______ round the sun.
A. goes B. went C. is going D. was going
Question 9: Getting promotion also means getting more _______.
A. responsibility B. ability C. advisability D. creativity
Question 10: Fire engines and ambulances have _______ over other traffic.
A. prior B. priority C. before D. precedence
Question 11: By the end of last March, I _______ English for five years.
A. had been studied B. had been studying
C. will have been studying D. will have studied
Question 12: _______ he hasn’t had any formal qualifications, he has managed to do very well.
A. Despite B. Although C. If D. Whereas
Question 13: We are considering having ______ for the coming lunar New Year.
A. redecorated our flat B. our flat redecorated
C. to redecorate our flat D. our flat to be redecorated
Question 14: Tim looks so frightened and upset. He _______ something terrible.
A. must experience B. ought to have experienced
C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
Question 15: A. certificate B. compulsory C. remember D. information
Question 16: A. administrative B. productivity C. electricity D. opportunity
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 20 to 21.
Question 17: A. decided B. hatred C. sacred D. warned
Question 18: A. manufacture B. mature C. pasture D. agriculture
Question 19: Did she get the better of you in the argument?
A. try to beat B. gain a disadvantage over
C. gain an advantage over D. try to be better than
Question 20: I didn’t go to work this morning. I stayed at home due to the morning rain.
A. thanks to B. on account of C. in spite of D. in addition to
Question 21: It was a very wonderful opportunity for us to catch.
A. break B. destroy C. hold D. miss
Question 22: I could only propose a(n) partial solution to the crisis in the company.
A. whole B. halfway C. half D. effective
Question 23: “What a boring lecture!” – “_______”
A. Yes, it was dull, wasn’t it? B. I don’t agree. It’s dull.
C. It’s interesting, wasn’t it? D. I’m sorry not.
Question 24: “Oh, I’m sorry! Am I disturbing you? – “_______”
A. Sure, you’re a real nuisance! B. No, never mind.
C. You’re such a pain in the neck! D. No, you’re OK.
People of different countries have quite different life styles. We American are wasteful people, (25) _______
saving. Our grandfathers began this pattern, for nature’s resources seemed so plentiful that no one ever
imagined a shortage. Within a few years of the first Virginia settlement, for example, pioneers burned down
their houses when they were ready to move to west. They only wanted to have the nails for (26) _______
use. No one ever gave a thought to the priceless hardwoods that went up in smoke. We the people in the
United States destroy many things that other peoples save. I (27) _______ this when I was living in Britain.
I received a letter from one of England’s largest banks. It was enclosed in a used envelop that had been
readdressed to me. Such a practice would be (28) _______ in the United States. American banks, (29)
_______ the smallest, always use expensive stationery with the names of all twenty-eight vice-presidents
listed on one side of the page.
Question 25: A. accustomed to B. dislike C. enjoy D. not used to
Question 26: A. urgent B. practical C. various D. future
Question 27: A. noticed B. notified C. remembered D. reminded
Question 28: A. common B. aggressive C. unthinkable D. inadequate
Question 29: A. excluding B. however C. even D. usually
Question 30: Safari is an organized trip to hunting or photograph wild animals, usually in Africa.
A. organized B. hunting C. wild animals D. usually in
Question 31: There is estimated that the Orion nebula contains enough matter to form 10,000 stars.
A. There B. contains C. enough D. to form
Question 32: Great apes are in crisis of becoming extinct.
A. Great B. are C. crisis D. extinct
Sylvia Earle, a marine botanist and one of the foremost deep-sea explorers, has spent over 6,000 hours, more
than seven months, underwater. From her earliest years, Earle had an affinity for marine life, and she took
her first plunge into the open sea as a teenager. In the years since then she has taken part in a number of
landmark underwater projects, from exploratory expeditions around the world to her celebrated “Jim dive”
in 1978, which was the deepest solo dive ever made without cable connecting the diver to a support vessel
at the surface of the sea.
Clothed in a Jim suit, a futuristic suit of plastic and metal armor, which was secured to a
manned submarine, Sylvia Earle plunged vertically into the Pacific Ocean, at times at the speed of 100 feet
per minute. On reaching the ocean floor, she was released from the submarine and from that point her only
connection to the sub was an 18-foot tether. For the next 21⁄2 hours, Earle roamed the seabed taking notes,
collecting 15 specimens, and planting a U.S. flag. Consumed by a desire to descend deeper still, in 1981 she
became involved in the design and manufacture of 20 deep-sea submersibles, one of which took her to a
depth of 3,000 feet. This did not end Sylvia Earle’s accomplishments.
Question 33: When did Sylvia Earle discover her love of the sea?
A. In her childhood
B. During her 6,000 hours underwater.
C. After she made her deepest solo dive.
D. In her adulthood.
Question 34: It can be inferred from the passage that Sylvia Earle _______.
A. is not interested in the scientific aspects of marine research
B. is uncomfortable in tight spaces
C. does not have technical expertise
D. has devoted her life to ocean exploration
Question 35: The author’s opinion of Sylvia Earle is _______.
A. critical B. supportive C. ambivalent D. disrespectful
Question 36: What will the paragraph following this passage probably be about?
A. Sylvia Earle’s childhood.
B. More information on the Jim suit.
C. Earle’s achievements after 1981.
D. How deep-sea submersibles are manufactured.
Question 37: The main purpose of this passage is _______.
A. to explore the botany of ocean floor
B. to present a short biography of Sylvia Earle
C. to provide an introduction to oceanography
D. to show the historical importance of the Jim dive
Question 38: Which of the following is not true about the Jim dive?
A. It took place in 1981.
B. Sylvia Earle took notes while on the ocean floor.
C. It was performed in the Pacific Ocean.
D. The submarine that Sylvia Earle was connected to was manned.
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear
around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will
be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a
person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices
might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances.
By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced
with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence
babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can
sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely
on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One
researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the
mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into
baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old,
they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial
expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny
babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world
with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire
aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to
songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a
sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.
A. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds.
B. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language
C. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language
development
D. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
Question 40: Why does the author mention a bell and rattle in paragraph 1?
A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds.
B. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry.
C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds.
D. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like.
Question 41: The word “diverse” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. surrounding B. divided C. different D. stimulating
Question 42: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. mothers B. investigators C. babies. D. words
Question 43: The passage mentions of the following as ways adults modify their speech when talking to
their babies EXCEPT _______.
A. giving all words equal emphasis B. speaking with shorter sentences
C. speaking more loudly than normal D. using meaningless sounds
Question 44: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire
language?
A. Babies begin to understand words in songs.
B. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
C. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.
D. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
Question 45: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot
understand them?
A. They understand the rhythm.
B. They enjoy the sound.
C. They can remember them easily.
D. They focus on the meaning of their parents’ words.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
Question 46: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
Question 47: He did not remember the meeting. He went out for a coffee with his friends then.
A. Not remembered the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
B. Not to remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
C. Not remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
D. Not remembering the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
A. It couldn’t be Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
B. It can’t have been Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
C. It mustn’t have been Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
D. It mightn’t be Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
Question 49: She asked if I had passed the English test the week before.
A. “Had you passed the English test the week before?” she asked.
B. “Had you passed the English test the week before?” she asked
C. “Did you pass the English test last week?” she asked
D. “If you passed the English test last week?” she asked.
Question 50: They stayed for hours, which tired us.
A. We are tiring from their staying for hours.
B. That they stayed for hours made us tired
C. Staying for hours with us made them feel tired.
D. We are tired so they stayed for hours.
ĐÁP ÁN
1-D 2-A 3-B 4-C 5-B 6-A 7-B 8-A 9-A 10-B
11-B 12-B 13-B 14-D 15-D 16-A 17-D 18-B 19-C 20-B
21-D 22-A 23-A 24-B 25-D 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-C 30-B
31-A 32-C 33-A 34-D 35-B 36-C 37-B 38-A 39-C 40-A
41-C 42-A 43-A 44-D 45-B 46-A 47-D 48-B 49-C 50-B
GCSE 28
TEST
A WORKING VACATION
Have you ever wondered what would you be like to get your dream job? It can takes years to get the
C. Give people advise on how to choose a job D. show people what their jobs are like
Question 10. The word glamorous in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _________
A. Human activity and its impacts on a mass of extinction of species.
B. The two ways in which species disappear.
Question 21: “What did you do last night?”, the policeman asked the woman.
A. The policeman asked the woman what did she do the night before.
Question 31. Both husband and wife should be responsible ________ doing the household chores.
A. With B. to C. for D. of
Question 41: Mark pretend to be sick, but I saw thought his deception at once.
A. Was used to B. got angry with C. got bored with D. was aware of
ĐÁP ÁN
GCSE TEST 29
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. misses B. goes C. leaves D. potatoes
Question 2: A. fifteenth B. mouth C. southern D. author
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. contact B. concert C. constant D. concern
Question 4: A. occupation B. miraculous C. determine D. diversity
questions.
Question 5: My uncle’s company made a very good profit in _______________.
A. the 1990 B. 1990s C. 1990’s D. the 1990s
Question 6: Unless you ______________ all of my questions, I can’t do anything to help you.
A. answered B. answer C. don’t answer D. are answering
Question 7: He _____________ a terrible accident while he _______________ along Ben Luc Bridge.
A. see / am walking B. saw / was walking
C. was seeing / walked D. have seen / were walking
Question 8: We all felt cold, wet and hungry; _________________ , we were lost.
A. moreover B. although C. however D. so that
Question 9: The public are concerned _______________ the increasing crime rates in the city.
A. with B. at C. about D. for
Question 10: Standing on top of the hill, ____________________.
A. people have seen a castle far away B. lies a castle in the middle of the island
C. a castle can be seen from the distance D. we can see a castle in the distance
Question 11: ____________ one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of
dance and mime performed to music
A. Being considering B. Considering C. Considered D. To consider
Question 12: I was enjoying my book, but I stopped ______________________ a programme on TV.
A. reading to watch B. to read to watch
C. to read for watching D. reading for to watch
Question 13: The _______________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a posed smile on her face.
A. stylish B. stylishly C. stylistic D. stylistically
Question 14: Students can _________ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the
lectures.
A. absorb B. provide C. transmit D. read
Question 15: Make sure you __________________ us a visit when you are in town again.
A. give B. do C. pay D. have
Question 16: The play lasted two hours with a/an ____________ of 15 minutes between part one and part two.
A. interval B. pause C. stop D. interruption
Question 17: When he went to Egypt, he knew ______________ no Arabic, but within 6 months he had
become extremely fluent.
A. entirely B. barely C. scarcely D. virtually
Question 18: ___________________ are that stock price will go up in the coming months.
A. Conditions B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D. Chances
Question 19: To absorb a younger workforce, many companies offered retirement plans as incentives for older
workers to retire and make way for the young ones who earned lower salary.
A. rewards B. opportunities C. motives D. encouragements
Question 20: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park there instead?
A. keep B. destroy C. decrease D. upgrade
Question 21: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have
academic or personal problems.
A. satisfy B. sympathize C. please D. discourage
Question 22: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear.
A. plan well in advance B. be careful about it
C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
Question 23: Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late.
- Tom: “Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here.”
- Peter: “___________________”
A. No, I wouldn’t mind at all. B. Not on my account.
C. That’s all right. D. Well, it’s worth a try.
Question 24: Two friends, Peter and Linda, are talking about pets.
- Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house”
- Linda: “___________________”
A. Nothing more to say. B. You can say that again.
C. Yes, I hope so. D. No, dogs are good, too.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and
influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has (25) ______ more
harm than good. In order to answer the question, we must first turn to the types of consumers. Presumably, most
parents (26) ______ are always worrying about their children’s safety buy mobile phones for them to track their
whereabouts. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out on social contact.
In this context, the advantages are clear. (27) ________, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been
used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (28) ________ evidence that texting has affected
literacy skills.
The widespread use of mobile phone has, out of question, affected adult consumers too. What employee,
on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us,
according to a survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we've left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally
speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (29) _______.
They also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
Question 25: A. done B. played C. made D. brought
Question 26: A. which B. whom C. who D. what
Question 27: A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. So that
Question 28: A. indisputable B. arguable C. doubtless D. unhesitating
Question 29: A. time B. warning C. term D. notice
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth-song to the
child. In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where the cattle are kept.
There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for its first walk in the big, wide
world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations, they hold initiation
ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a certain designated age, they learn
the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes. Some African tribes consider that children from nine
to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up world. They may have to carry out several tests.
Maasai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two-stage initiation. The first stage lasts
about three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and are taught how to become
young warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved and they are also circumcised. At the second
stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in a camp called a “manyatta” where they practice hunting
the wild animals that might attack the Maasai herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they
will marry and become owners of large cattle herds like their fathers. The girls are initiated when they are fourteen
or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after
that they are married and lead a life similar to that of their mothers.
A. Celebrations in Africa. B. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa.
C. Traditions of Maasai people when having a new baby. D. Activities in a birth celebration.
Question 31: Where do people in Kenya give the name to the child?
A. at the village church B. on the cattle farm C. at their house D. near the thorn fence
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.
B. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.
C. Children are initiated for a mature life in the presence of their friends and family.
D. Children have to overcome a few trials to enter the grown-up world.
Question 33: The word "undergo" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. commence B. experience C. participate in D. explore
Question 34: What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the Maasai herds B. the wild animals
B. the young warriors D. the cattle owners
What picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What
do you hope about the future?
Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all the fields, from entertainment
to technology. First of all, it seems that TV channels will have disappeared. Instead, people will choose a program
from a 'menu' and a computer will send the program directly to the television. Today, we can use the World Wide
Web to read newspaper stories and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By 2050, music,
films, programs, newspapers and books will come to us by computer.
In what concerns the environment, water will have become one of our most serious problems. In many
places, agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot of water.
Demand for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be serious shortages. Some
futurologists predict that water could be the cause of war if we don't act now.
In transport, cars running on new, clean fuels will have computers to control the speed and there won't be
any accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050, the computer
will control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will take people halfway
around the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go into space and land on Earth again.
By 2050, space planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los Angeles to Tokyo in just two hours.
In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already use
robots. Big companies prefer robots - they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours a day.
By 2050, we will see robots everywhere - in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops and homes.
Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are electronic
devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind and deaf
people see and hear again. Scientists have discovered how to control genes. They have already produced clones
of animals. By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they look, how they behave
and how much intelligence they have.
Question 35: The passage mainly discusses ________________.
A. The effect of the futurologists' prediction on our lives.
B. The effect of telecommunication on our future life.
C. The changes in our future life compared with our life today.
D. The importance of cloning in the future.
Question 36: What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage?
A. Life in 2050 will be much better than that of today.
B. TV will be an indispensable means of communication and business.
C. People will not suffer from the shortage of water due to the polar melting.
D. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices.
Question 37: We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 ________________.
A. People will be able to travel around the world in two hours.
B. Fewer cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean.
C. No one will be injured or die because of accidents.
D. Space planes will take the place of cars as a means of transport.
Question 38: The word "This" in paragraph 3 refers to __________________.
A. the possible war. B. the cash crop planting.
C. the serious shortage. D. the demand for water.
Question 39: What is the author's attitude in paragraph 3?
A. concerned B. explanatory C. outraged D. emotional
Question 40: Why does the author use "prefer robots" in paragraph 5?
A. To show the importance of robots in production.
B. To encourage the workers to resign from work.
C. To compare the robots with the workers.
D. To emphasize the scientist's role in inventing robots.
Question 41: The word "conquered" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. controlled B. diagnosed C. transmitted D. caused
Question 42: What may NOT be true about life in 2050?
A. Many forms of entertainment will come to us thanks to computer.
B. Blind and deaf people will be helped by scientists to see and hear again.
C. Scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how intelligent they are.
D. Our sources of water for agriculture will increase ten times.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 43: My brother is enough young to get a scholarship from the government.
A B C D
Question 44: Laura expected to give her mother a hand in housework at the weekend, but she did nothing.
A B C D
Question 45: It’s less expensive to buy a computer part by part; you can save a few hundred dollars all together.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
Question 46: The living room isn’t as big as the kitchen
A. The living room is bigger than the kitchen.
B. The kitchen is smaller than the living room.
C. The kitchen is bigger than the living room.
D. The kitchen is not bigger than the living room.
Question 47: “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.
A. Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company.
B. Peter advised John complaining to the company.
C. Peter suggested John to complain to the company.
D. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.
Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
A. It can’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
B. It couldn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
C. It mustn’t have been Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
D. It mightn’t be Mr. Park you saw at the conference because he is in Seoul now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the café.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the café.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the café.
Question 50: The Prime Minister failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis, he did not offer any solutions.
A. Although the Prime Minister explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any solutions.
B. Not only did the Prime Minister explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered solutions.
C. The Prime Minister offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic crisis.
D. The Prime Minister didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.
GCSE TEST 30
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body takes in
and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the nineteenth century
and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time that food contained
constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided different amounts of
these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight loss was
associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate dietary protein
associated with certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called "the vitamin
period". Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As vitamins
became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to suggest that
every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might be responsive
to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in having their
curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this education was on
the recognition of deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately turned from ignorance
to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made for effects of vitamins
that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began to fall into
disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It was
just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and were
quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue
of supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in
disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less
effective when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under
nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.
A. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study
B. The effects of vitamins on the human body
C. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century
D. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present
Question 2: It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during
the first era in the history of nutrition?
A. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.
D. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet
Question 3: The word “tempting” is closet in meaning to _____.
A. realistic B. attractive C. correct D. necessary
Question 4: It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in
order to _____.
A. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease
B. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition
C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients
D. support the creation of artificial vitamins
Question 5: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. informative B. recorded C. irresponsible D. urgent
Question 6: The word “them” refers to _____.
A. therapies B. vitamins C. effects D. claims
Question 7: Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950s?
A. The public lost interest in vitamins.
B. Nutritional research was of poor quality.
C. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
D. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts.
Choose the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 8: - “How about giving me a hand?” - “________.”
A. I promise B. No, not yet
C. You’re welcome D. Sure. I’d be glad to help
Question 9: - Ken: “I’ve got to go, Tom. So long” - Tom: “So long, Ken. And _______.”
A. be careful B. don’t hurry
C. take care D. don’t take it seriously
Choose the word(s) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 10: In Africa, many children die from not having enough food.
A. poverty B. starvation C. drought D. malnutrition
Question 11: Unless I miss my guess, your computer needs a new hard drive.
A. you are my guess B. I break the soft drive
C. I make a mistake D. you lack money
Choose the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 12: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same
region.
A. restrain B. remain unstable C. fluctuate D. stay unchanged
Question 13: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental
improvements.
A. something enjoyable B. something to stiffer
B. something sad D. something to entertain
Pick out the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14: The more cigarettes you smoke, ______ you will die.
A. the easier B. more sooner C. the sooner D. faster
Question 15: We prevent and severely deal _______ negative practices in teaching, learning and
examination.
A. with B. on C. in D. of
Question 16: Mike isn’t on the phone, _________ makes it difficult to contact him.
A. whom B. who C. that D. which
Question 17: You ______ carry that carpel home yourself; the shop will send it.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. needn’t D. mustn’t
Question 18: He is a great sports ________. He rarely misses any sport games although he was busy.
A. player B. enthusiast C. energy D. programmer
Question 19: She listened so attentively that not a word _______.
A. she had missed B. she missed C. she didn’t miss D. did she miss
Question 20: My mother asked me ________.
A. which tertiary institution did I choose B. which tertiary institution I choose
C. which tertiary institution I would choose D. which tertiary institution will I choose
Question 21: Neither my dad nor my mom ______ of the idea.
A. wasn’t convinced B. was convinced C. convinced D. were convinced
Question 22: Theresa walked past me without saying a word. She ________ me.
A. can’t have seen B. can’t see C. can’t have been seen D. can be seen
Question 23: Tim looks so frightened and upset. He ________ something terrible.
A. must experience B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
Question 24: A penalty shot is ______ when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter line.
A. prevented B. awarded C. committed D. ranged
Question 25: We may win, we may lose – It just the ______ of the draw.
A. chance B. strike C. odds D. luck
Question 26: When _______ to explain his mistake, the new employee cleared his throat nervously.
A. Asking B. asked C. to be asking D. be asked
Question 27: A book may be evaluated by a reader or professional writer to create a book _______.
A. review B. reviewing C. reviewer D. reviewed
Question 28: To improve its athletes’ ________, Viet Nam has regularly exchanged delegation of sport
officials, coaches, referees and athletes with other countries.
A. team B. competitor C. appearance D. performance
Question 29: Farmers get rid _______ weeds by spraying.
A. off B. of C. out D. away
Question 30: The more goals the players ______, the more exciting the match became.
A. marked B. made C. scored D. sprinted
Question 31: It is vital that Alice ______ Tom of the meeting tomorrow.
A. must remind B. remind C. reminds D. will remind
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words.
Question 32: A. accompany B. category C. defender D. advice
Question 33: A. retail B. vacancy C. interview D. fantastic
Read the following passage and pick out the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such
everyday (34) ________ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the specialized
training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational
requirements and obtain a certificate before he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, like computer
operation or police work, (35) ________ satisfactory completion of special training courses.
Education is also important (36) ________ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge
and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and
enjoyable, (37) ________ the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical
instrument. Such education becomes (38) _______ important as people gain more and more leisure time.
Question 34: A. works B. activities C. actions D. jobs
Question 35: A. requires B. requiring C. require D. to require
Question 36: A. therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 37: A. such as B. for instance C. such that D. for example
Question 38: A. increased B. increasing C. increase D. increasingly
Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 39: A. pens B. books C. phones D. tables
Question 40: A. delivered B. enveloped C. talked D. washed
Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions below.
Since the early 1980s, we began to worry about the bad effects of environmental pollution. It is the result
of industrialization and of the careless use of the natural resources. Avoiding pollution is not easy. Many
people try not to inhale traffic fumes and keep away from chemical waste by wearing mask when they get
out of their house. Actually, indoor pollution is becoming more and more serious. They have found that
dishwasher, washing machines, air conditioners, freezers, and refrigerators emit some certain toxic
chemicals into the air. We surely inhale these chemicals when doing housework. Using gas cookers and
burning candles produce carbon monoxide.
Therefore, before worrying about environmental pollution when going out, we should consider the problems
of indoor pollution.
Question 41: Environmental pollution ________.
A. was not known in 1908s C. has bad effects
B. is carelessly used D. is the use of natural resources
Question 42: Industrialization and the careless use of natural resources ________.
A. have good effects on environment C. lead to environmental pollution
B. do no harm to environment D. happened in 1980s
Question 43: Pollution _______.
A. can be avoided easily C. has no relation to industrialization
B. can’t be avoided easily D. is not caused by traffic
Question 44: When we stay at home, _______.
A. we are not affected by pollution C. we do not inhale dangerous chemicals
B. we always wear a mask D. we are still influenced by indoor pollution
Question 45: Inside house ________.
A. there is no pollution C. carbon monoxide is produced by gas cookers
B. there are no toxic chemicals D. there is no carbon monoxide
Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: We advised that he drank water in that bottle.
A B CD
Question 47: If I had known she was ill, I would go to visit her.
A B C D
Question 48: The room is such dirty that it needs cleaning immediately.
A B C D
Choose the correct answers so that they have the same meaning with the provided ones.
Question 49: Nobody at all came to the meeting.
A. Only a few people came to the meeting. B. Not a single person came to the meeting
C. There was almost nobody at the meeting . D. Not many people came to the meeting.
Question 50: Tony used to play the guitar in a band.
A. Tony no longer play the guitar in a band.
B. Tony does not play the guitar in a band no more.
C. Tony doesn’t like to play the guitar in a band any longer.
D. No longer does Tony play the guitar in a band.
ĐÁP ÁN
Question 1 A Question 11 C Question 21 B Question 31 B Question 41 C
Question 2 D Question 12 D Question 22 A Question 32 B Question 42 C
Question 3 D Question 13 A Question 23 D Question 33 B Question 43 B
Question 4 A Question 14 C Question 24 B Question 34 B Question 44 D
Question 5 C Question 15 A Question 25 D Question 35 C Question 45 C
Question 6 B Question 16 D Question 26 B Question 36 D Question 46 B
Question 7 C Question 17 C Question 27 A Question 37 A Question 47 C
Question 8 D Question 18 A Question 28 D Question 38 D Question 48 A
Question 9 C Question 19 D Question 29 B Question 39 B Question 49 B
Question 10 B Question 20 C Question 30 C Question 40 A Question 50 D
GCSE TEST 31
Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 1. "Stop smoking or you'll be ill," the doctor told me.
A. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
C. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
D. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
Question 2. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
A. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
B. The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
C. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
D. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
Question 3. He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon.
A. He wouldn't have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon.
B. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn't survive the operation.
C. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon.
D. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died.
Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
Question 4. They have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands.
A. suburban B. forgotten C. abandoned D. disadvantaged
Question 5. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.
A. attracting attention B. widely used C. for everybody's use D. most preferable
Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part the
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 6. They asked us whether we thought that the statistics had presented fairly and
accurately.
А. whether B. thought C. had presented D. fairly
Question 7. Sam found it hard to concentrate on his work because the noise.
А. it B. concentrate C. work D. because
Question 8. Ms Phuong hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.
A. hardly never B. an C. to play D. in
Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 9. We didn't want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We didn't stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
D. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
Question 10. I left the office. There was a power cut just then.
A. I left the office after there was a power cut.
B. Hardly I had left the office when there was a power cut.
C. No sooner had I left the office than there was a power cut.
D. I left the office long before there was a power cut.
Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
A YEAR WITH OVERSEAS VOLUNTEERS
I was with Overseas Volunteers (OV) for a year after leaving university, and I was sent to an
isolated village in Chad, about 500 kilometers from the capital N'Djamena. Coming from a rich country, I
got quite a shock, as conditions were much harder than I had expected. But after a few days I got used to
(11)_______ there. The people were always very friendly and helpful, and I soon began to appreciate how
beautiful the countryside was.
One of my jobs was to supply the village (12)______ water. The well was a long walk away,
and the women used to spend a long time every day (13)______ heavy pots backwards and
forwards. So I contacted the organization and arranged to have some pipes delivered. (14)______ these
pipes were not really perfect, they still made a great difference to the villagers.
All in all, I think my time with OV was a good experience. Although it was not paid, it was
well worth doing and I would recommend it to anyone (15)______ was considering working for a charity.
Question 11. A. live B. living C. lively D. lived
Question 12. A. on B. for C. with D. from
Question 13. A. holding B. drinking C. wearing D. carrying
Question 14. A. Because B. When C. Although D. If
Question 15. A. when B. which C. who D. where
Exercise 6: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 16. A. popular B. reduction C. romantic D. financial
Question 17. A. cover B. balance C. invent D. ancient
Exercise 7: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
Question 18. We _______ in silence when he suddenly ________ me to help him.
A. walked - was asking B. were walking - asked
C. were walking - was asking D. walked - asked
Question 19. Xoan singing is a vocal art of villages in the ancestral land of Phu Tho. It has been ________
for generations and the oral tradition is still very much alive today.
A. handed down B. landed on C. passed by D. taken over
Question 20. Any pupil caught ________ was made to stand at the front of the class.
A. misbehaved B. misbehave C. misbehavior D. misbehaving
Question 21. There is _________ in my bedroom.
A. an old square wooden table B. a square wooden old table
C. an old wooden square table D. a wooden old square table
Question 22. If I were in charge, I ________ things differently.
A. had done B. would do C. would have done D. will do
Question 23. The latest heritage at risk register revealed that 5,831 listed buildings, monuments,
archaeological sites, and landscapes in England are at ________ of being lost.
A. edge B. risk C. ease D. danger
Question 24. Next year, I have to decide which area of medicine I want to ________ in.
A. focus B. hand C. specialise D. come
Question 25. Is it acceptable to touch ______ person on _______ shoulder in a conversation?
A. a – the B. the – a C. the – the D. a - a
Question 26. ________ he had no money for a bus, he had to walk all the way home.
A. As B. Thus C. For D. So
Question 27. The Complex of Hue Monuments was the first site in Viet Nam ________ as a World Heritage
Site by UNESCO.
A. recognised B. to be recognised C. recognising D. to recognise
Question 28. We need _______ actions and interventions of the local authorities to prevent national parks
from being destroyed by pollution.
A. timely B. excitedly C. reckless D. threateningly
Question 29. After a six-year relation, Martha and Billy have decided to ________ .
A. break the bank B. tie the knot
C. turn the page D. make ends meet
Question 30. Being helpful is good, but don't allow others to _______ advantage of your
generosity.
A. get B. take C. use D. make
Question 31. Peter lost the race because he ______ petrol on the last lap.
A. put out of B. got out of C. made out of D. ran out of
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that have existed have become extinct. What causes
extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish.
The exact causes of a species' death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render
an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able
to adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a
species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in
competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have
also revealed that on some occasions, many species became extinct at the same time- a mass extinction. One
of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs
and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million
years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died.
Mass extinction can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be
worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to
destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affecting even
organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended
to be more intensive every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the
Earth's orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also
speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may
survive for no particular reason. A species' survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to
adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
Question 32. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological
change?
A. Availability of food sources B. Temperature changes
C. Introduction of new species D. Competition among species
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossil fuels suggests that ________ .
A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth's history
B. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed
C. extinction on Earth have generally been massive
D. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth's history
Question 34. The word "ultimately" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally B. dramatically C. unfortunately D. eventually
Question 35. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species survival?
A. It reflects the interrelationship of many species.
B. It is associated with astronomical conditions.
C. It doesn't vary greatly from species to species.
D. It may depend on chance events.
Question 36. The word "demise" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. recovery B. survival C. death D. change
Question 37. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species
occourred _______.
A. 26 million years ago B. 250 million years ago
C. 225 million years ago D. 65 million years ago
Ouestion 38. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth's history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
B. They have caused rapid changes in the environment.
C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
D. They are no longer in existence.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction
mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered
B. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it
C. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate
D. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
In the twentieth - century, people depend on unlimited energy to power their everyday lives. A wide range
of energy-run devices and modern conveniences are taken for granted, and although it may seem that we
will never be in danger of living without those conveniences, the fact is that many supplies of energy are
dwindling rapidly. Scientists are constantly searching for new sources of power to keep modern society
running. Whether future populations will continue to enjoy the benefits of abundant energy will depend on
the success of this search.
Coal, oil, and natural gas supply modern civilization with most of its power. However, not only are supplies
of these fuels limited, but they are a major source of pollution. If the energy demands of the future are to be
met without seriously harming the environment, existing alternative energy sources must be improved or
further explored and developed. These include nuclear, water, solar, wind, and geothermal power, as well
as energy from new, nonpolluting types of fuels. Each of these alternatives, however, has advantages and
disadvantages.
Nuclear power plants efficiently produce large amounts of electricity without polluting the
atmosphere; however, they are costly to build and maintain, and they pose the daunting problem of what to
do with nuclear waste. Hydroelectric power is inexpensive and environmentally safe, but impractical for
communities located far from moving water. Harnessing energy from tides and waves has similar
drawbacks. Solar power holds great promise for the future but methods of
collecting and concentrating sunlight are as yet inefficient, as are methods of harnessing wind power.
Every source of energy has its disadvantages. One way to minimize them is to use less energy. Conservation
efforts coupled with renewable energy resources, such as a combination of solar, water, wind, and
geothermal energy and alternative fuels, such as alcohol and hydrogen, will ensure supplies of clean,
affordable energy for humanity's future.
Question 40. The word "dwindling" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. diminishing B. changing C. increasing D. limiting
Question 41. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Our present energy sources must be eliminated and replaced with alternative sources.
B. Demands for energy in the future are likely to decrease.
C. The search for alternative energy sources is not over.
D. Alternative sources of energy on this planet are very limited.
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that _______ .
A. Many alternative energy sources are environmentally hazardous
B. solar and wind power are not promising for the future
C. most alternative energy sources have proven to be impractical
D. nuclear power solves one problem while creating others
Question 43. The passage suggests that _______ .
A. people use energy without giving great thought to where it's coming from
B. modern society requires a minimum amount of energy to keep it running
C. the search for energy sources is mainly a problem for the future
D. scientists believe we will never have to go without our modern conveniences
Question 44. From the passage, it can be inferred that to solve our energy problems ________ .
A. a combination of conservation and invention will be needed
B. we will have to stop using many of our modern conveniences
C. scientists will have to find ways to increase our supplies of coal, oil, and gas
D. scientists will have to find one major source of nonpolluting energy
Exercise 10: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
Question 45. Jenny: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!"
Peter: “_________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. I like you to say that. D. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
Question 46. Stranger: “Excuse me! Can you show me the way to Main Street, please?”
Man: “___________”
A. Continue. B. It's easy to do it.
C. Um, I am sorry I have no idea. D. Am I going right?
Exercise 11: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 47. Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact.
A. in perfection B. in completion C. in chaos D. in ruins
Question 48. After a long time working incessantly, all my efforts ended in failure.
A. breakdown B. loss C. success D. collapse
Exercise 12: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 49. A. asked B. danced C. cashed D. studied
Question 50. A. chapter B. chemistry C. bachelor D. teacher
ĐÁP ÁN
1-A 2-B 3-A 4-D 5-B 6-C 7-D 8-A 9-A 10-C
11-B 12-C 13-D 14-C 15-C 16-A 17-C 18-B 19-A 20-D
21-A 22-B 23-B 24-C 25-A 26-A 27-B 28-A 29-B 30-B
31-D 32-C 33-A 34-D 35-D 36-C 37-C 38-D 39-B 40-A
41-C 42-D 43-A 44-A 45-A 46-C 47-D 48-C 49-D 50-B

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GCSE TEST 1

A. to commemorate B. we all C. national song D. rising

A. to commemorate B. we all C. national song D. rising

A. good B. excellent C. gentle D. bad

A. angry B. worried C. calm D. curious

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