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(C) In criminal proceedings previous conviction of
Public Prosecutor and Civil Judge MCQs accused is relevant as evidence of bad character.
2600+ MCQ previous year questions (D) All these
Q1. Which of the following is/are correct ANS: (D)
statement(s)?
(A) Evidence excluded by the Evidence Act is Q7. ‗A‘ is on trial for the murder of ‗C‘. There is
inadmissible even if it seems essential for evidence to show that ‗C‘ was murdered by ‗A‘
ascertainment of truth. and ‗B‘, and that ‗B‘ said—‗A‘ and I murdered
(B) Parties cannot contract themselves out of the ‗C‘. As against ‗A‘, this evidence is—
provisions of the Evidence Act. (A) not to be taken into consideration as the
(C) Both (A) and (B) evidence is hearsay
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) (B) to be taken into consideration as it is direct
ANS: (C) (C) not to be taken into consideration as ‗A‘ and ‗B‘
are not being jointly tried
Q2. Which of the following qualifies to be (D) to be taken into consideration as ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are
treated as ―Fact‖ within the meaning assigned accomplices
to it under the Evidence Act? ANS: (C)
(A) That a man heard or saw something.
(B) That a man holds a certain opinion. Q8. The essential conditions for the dying
(C) That a man acts in good faith. declaration to be relevant include the—
(D) All these 1. statement is made by a person as to the
ANS: (D) cause of his death.
2. statement is made by a person as to any of
Q3. According to the Evidence Act, a fact is said the circumstances of the transaction which
to be ‗not proved‘, when the— resulted in his death.
(A) court believes that the fact does not exist 3. person must have been under expectation of
(B) fact is vague death at the time of making the statement.
(C) fact is neither proved nor disproved Which of the above propositions is/are correct?
(D) All these (A) 1 and 2
ANS: (C) (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
Q4. ‗A‘ prosecutes ‗B ‘ for adultery with ‗C‘, wife (D) All these
of ‗A‘. ‗B‘ contested by denying the allegation. ANS: (A)
‗B‘ was found guilty and convicted in said case.
Subsequently, ‗C‘ was prosecuted on charge of Q9. Which of the following statements is
bigamy on allegations that she had married ‗B‘ correct?
during subsistence of her marriage with ‗A‘. ‗C‘ (A) Confession caused by inducement, threat or
contested by denying that she was ever married promise flowing from person in authority, giving
to ‗A‘. In the case against ‗C‘, the judgement in reasonable impression to the accused that he
the first case against ‗B‘ is— would thereby avoid punishment, is relevant.
(A) relevant (B) Confession by accused while in custody of
(B) irrelevant police, even if made in the immediate presence of a
(C) binding magistrate, shall not be proved.
(D) None of these (C) The confession of the accused made while in
ANS: (B) custody of police may be proved if as a consequence
of information received thereby a relevant fact is
Q5. Mark the incorrect statement. A court may discovered.
take the assistance of expert for forming (D) None of these
opinion on point of— ANS: (D)
(A) foreign law
(B) art
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (C)
Q10. ‗A‘ is accused of receiving stolen goods
knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove
Q6. Which of the statements given below is/are
that he refused to sell them below their value.
correct?
Which of the following is correct?
(A) In civil cases, the character to prove the conduct
(A) ‗A‘ may prove the statements, though in the
imputed to a party is not relevant.
nature of admission, because they are explanatory
(B) In criminal proceedings bad character of the
of conduct influenced by facts in issue.
accused is not relevant, unless evidence of good
(B) ‗A‘ may not prove the statements because they
character has been given.
are self-serving admissions.
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(C) ‗A‘ may not prove the statements because as (A) There is a presumption that maps of various
accused he cannot be a witness in his own defence. States and Union Territories made by the Survey of
(D) All these are incorrect India are accurate.
ANS: (A) (B) There is a presumption that map prepared by a
registered architect for the purpose of a civil
Q11. Which of the following is incorrect under dispute is accurate.
the Evidence Act? (C) Both (A) and (B).
(A) In a case where ‗A‘ is charged with receiving a (D) Neither (A) nor (B).
particular stolen wristwatch knowing the same to ANS: (A)
be stolen—The fact that at the same time he was in
possession of other such stolen articles is relevant. Q15. The evidence of contents of the
(B) In a case where ‗A‘ is tried for the murder of ‗B‘ information recorded or stored in a computer
by intentionally shooting him to death—The fact may be given through computer output, without
that ‗A‘ was in the habit of shooting at people with production of the original, provided certain
intent to murder them is relevant. conditions are satisfied. The said conditions
(C) In a case where ‗A‘ is sued for damages for bite include that—
injury caused by his dog to ‗B‘, ‗A‘ having known (A) if the computer was not operating properly
the dog to be ferocious–The fact that the dog had during the material part of the period over which it
previously bitten ‗X‘, ‗Y‘ and ‗Z‘ is relevant. was used to store or process the information for
(D) In a case where ‗A‘ is accused of defaming ‗B‘ by purposes of the relevant activities, it was not such
publishing an imputation intended to harm the as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of
reputation of ‗B‘—The fact of previous publications its content.
by ‗A‘ respecting ‗B‘, showing ill-will on the part of (B) the information contained in the electronic
‗A‘ towards ‗B‘ is relevant. record is derived from such information fed into the
ANS: (B) computer in the ordinary course of such activities.
(C) Neither (A) nor (B).
Q12. ‗C‘ is employed as cashier by a firm to (D) Both (A) and (B).
receive money at its sale counter. It is his duty ANS: (D)
to make entries in the ledger showing the
amounts received by him. He is prosecuted on Q16. In which case oral evidence cannot be
the charge of criminal breach of trust in respect given?
of rupees ninety thousand on the basis of (A) ‗A‘ hired lodgings of ‗B‘ and gives to ‗B‘ a
evidence showing he made an entry showing card on which he wrote ―Rooms, 2000 a
that he had received rupees ten thousand only month‖. ‗A‘ in a suit wants to prove verbal
whereas he had actually received rupees one agreement that the terms included partial
lakh. ‗C‘ has taken the plea that the wrong board.
entry was accidental and unintentional. The (B) ‗A‘ hired lodgings of ‗B‘ for a year. A
fact that other entries made in the same ledger regularly stamped agreement was drawn up by
are false, each showing receipt of less amount an attorney and signed by both of them. The
by ‗C‘ is— document is silent on the subject of board. ‗A‘
(A) relevant as it has a bearing on the question of in a suit wants to prove verbal agreement that
intention the terms included partial board.
(B) not relevant as the other entries are not basis of
charge (C) Both in
(C) not relevant as the evidence is extraneous (A) and in
(D) not relevant as other entries are not in issue ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q17. The burden of proving that the case of the
Q13. Mark what is not a ‗public document‘ accused comes within any of the General
within the meaning of the expression used in Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code is upon
the Evidence Act? the—
(A) The records of Motor Accident Claims Tribunal. (A) prosecution
(B) The register of private documents maintained in (B) court
the office of Sub-Registrar under the Registration (C) accused
Act. (D) investigating police officer
(C) The record of proceedings of the House of the ANS: (C)
People maintained in the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
(D) Pronote executed by ‗A‘ while taking loan from a Q18. The facts of which the court must take
money lender. judicial notice include the—
ANS: (D) (A) Gazetted Holidays observed by the Government
of India
Q14. Which of the following is correct? (B) Rules of road
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
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(D) Both (A) and (B) ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q24. All persons are competent to testify unless
Q19. Leading questions may be asked in the court considers that they are prevented
examination-in-chief— from understanding the questions put to them
(A) with permission of the court as to matters which because of—
are introductory (A) tender years
(B) if in the opinion of the court the matter involved (B) extreme old age
has been already sufficiently proved (C) mental disease
(C) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) All these
(D) Both (A) and (B) ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q25. The Judge‘s power to put questions or
Q20. For deciding whether or not a witness shall order production of documents does not include
be compelled to answer questions, the court authorization to—
shall have regard to considerations which (A) compel a witness to answer any question which
include as to whether such questions are— such witness is entitled to refuse to answer if the
(A) proper if the truth of imputation conveyed question were asked by the adverse party
thereby would seriously affect the opinion of the (B) to ask a question which would be proper for any
court as to the credibility of the witness on the other person to ask.
subject matter of his deposition. (C) to elicit on a point
(B) improper if the truth of imputation conveyed (D) None of these
thereby would affect in a slight degree the opinion ANS: (A)
of the court as to credibility of the witness on the
subject matter of his deposition Q26. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does
(C) Both (A) and (B) not apply to—
(D) None of these (A) suits
ANS: (C) (B) execution petitions under Order 21 CPC
(C) petitions for divorce under the Hindu Marriage
Q21. Which of the following is correct? Act, 1956.
(A) Rebuttable presumption arises that a man is (D) All these
alive if it is shown that he was alive within thirty ANS: (D)
years.
(B) Rebuttable presumption arises that a man is Q27. Which of the following is not a disability
dead if it is proved that he has not been heard of under Section 6 (legal disability) of the
for seven years by those who would naturally have Limitation Act, 1963?
heard from him if he had been alive. (A) Minority
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Insanity
(D) None of these (C) Insolvency
ANS: (C) (D) Idiocy
ANS: (C)
Q22. The court may presume that—
(A) when a document creating an obligation is in Q28. In case of a suit for property which the
the hands of the obligor, the obligation has been plaintiff has conveyed while insane, the time
discharged from which the period of limitation (three years
(B) judicial and official acts have not been regularly under Article 102 of the Schedule of the
performed Limitation Act, 1963) begins to run is—
(C) a bill of exchange, accepted or endorsed, was (A) when the plaintiff is restored to sanity
accepted or endorsed for deficient consideration. (B) the date the property was conveyed
(D) All these are incorrect (C) when the plaintiff has knowledge of the
ANS: (A) conveyance
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Q23. ‗A‘ intentionally and falsely led ‗B‘ to ANS: (D)
believe that a plot of land belonged to him. On
that basis, he induced ‗B‘ to buy and pay for it. Q29. A suit to set aside a transfer of property
Afterwards the plot of land became the property made by the guardian of a ward, by the ward
of ‗A‘. ‗A‘ brought a suit to set aside the sale in who has attained majority, can be filed within
favour of ‗B‘ on the ground that, at the time of three years (Art. 60 (1) of the Schedule of the
sale, he had no title. In such suit— Limitation Act, 1963) from when the—
(A) ‗A‘ may prove want of title at the time of sale (A) transfer of the property was made
(B) ‗A‘ cannot be allowed to prove want of his title (B) person in possession is served notice
(C) It depends on the value of the property (C) ward attains majority
(D) All these are incorrect
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(D) person in possession refuses to hand over Q35. Under Sec. 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963
possession fresh period of limitation has to be computed
ANS: (C) from the date of—
(A) expiry of half of the extended period of limitation
Q30. In case of a suit by a person excluded from (B) delivering the acknowledgement
a joint family property to enforce a right to (C) signing of the acknowledgement
share therein, the time from which the period of (D) expiry of the initial period of limitation
limitation (12 years under Article 110 of the ANS: (C)
Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to
run is— Q36. The relation of partnership according to
(A) from the date of exclusion Section 5 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 arises
(B) when the exclusion becomes known to the from—
plaintiff (A) status
(C) when the plaintiff makes known his intention to (B) contract
recover possession (C) friendship
(D) the date of refusal to hand over possession to (D) None of these
the plaintiff ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q37. The authority of a partner to bind the firm
Q31. The Supreme Court in Collector Land by his acts done in the usual course of business
Acquisition, Anantnag v. Katiji, AIR 1987 SC is called his ‗implied authority‘. Such authority
1353 laid down the— does not include—
(A) guiding principles for deciding an application (A) selling the firm‘s goods
under Section 5 of Limitation Act, 1963 (B) to borrow in a trading firm
(B) principles governing the nature of (C) settling accounts with the persons dealing with
acknowledgement under Section 18 of the the firm
Limitation Act, 1963. (D) withdraw a suit or proceeding filed on the firm‘s
(C) Both (A) and (B) behalf
(D) None of these ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q38. A partnership firm may be dissolved—
Q32. The period of limitation for preferring an (A) with the consent of all the partners
appeal from a decree passed by a court (B) in accordance with a contract between the
subordinate to the High Court to a High Court partners
from the date of the decree is— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) 90 days (D) None of these
(B) 60 days ANS: (C)
(C) 30 days
(D) One year Q39. When a minor elects to become a partner
ANS: (A) he becomes personally liable to third parties for
all acts of the firm done since
Q33. Section 21 (Effect of substituting or adding (A) he was admitted to the benefits of partnership
new plaintiff or defendant) of the Limitation (B) from the date of his attaining majority
Act, 1963 does not apply in case of which of the (C) from the date of his becoming a partner
following? (D) Both (B) and (C)
(A) Addition of a new defendant for the first time. ANS: (C)
(B) Substitution of a new plaintiff for the first time.
(C) Transposition of parties. Q40. In which of the following cases, a partner
(D) Addition of a new plaintiff for the first time. may cease to be a partner without the
ANS: (C) dissolution of the firm?
(A) Retirement
Q34. Which of the following is correct with (B) Insolvency
regard to acknowledgement of liability under (C) Death
Sec. 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963? (D) All these
(A) Acknowledgement cannot be undated. ANS: (D)
(B) Acknowledgement can be made to a person
other than the person entitled to the property. Q41. A court may deny specific performance of
(C) Acknowledgement need not be in writing. an agreement to sell an immovable property if—
(D) Acknowledgement can be made after the expiry (A) it is of the opinion that the consideration is
of the period of limitation. inadequate
ANS: (B) (B) the court feels that the contract is onerous to
the defendant
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(C) the performance of the contract would involve (A) President must proclaim emergency only on the
hardship on the defendant which he did not foresee basis of a report from the Governor of the State.
and non-performance would involve no such (B) Governor can recommend President to proclaim
hardship on the plaintiff. emergency on the basis of personal information
(D) All these suggesting large scale defection of legislators.
ANS: (C) (C) President can proclaim emergency only on the
advice of Council of Ministers.
Q42. The relief of injunction cannot be (D) All these
granted— ANS: (C)
(A) when equally efficacious relief can be obtained
by any other usual mode of proceeding Q47. In which case it was held by the Supreme
(B) the plaintiff has not come to the court with Court that—‗Delay in deciding mercy petition is
clean hands a sufficient ground for commuting the death
(C) to prevent nuisance when it is not reasonably sentence to life imprisonment‘?
clear (A) Shatrughan Chouhan v. Union of India
(D) All these (B) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
ANS: (D) (C) Rajat Prasad v. CBI
(D) Uday Gupta v. Aysha
Q43. ‗S‘ a shopkeeper has kept the goods for ANS: (A)
sale on the pavement outside the shop and
constructed temporary overhead shed. Flying Q48. Which of the following is correct about the
squad of NCT of Delhi demolished the temporary preamble to the Constitution of India?
construction and seized the goods from the (A) It was adopted after adoption of operative
pavement, without giving him any notice. After Articles of Constitution.
one year, ‗S‘ filed a suit for recovery of (B) It envisages that all citizens have fundamental
possession of pavement against NCT of Delhi rights.
u/s 6 of Specific Relief Act, 1963. The suit is (C) It seeks to secure good livelihood to all.
barred as filed— (D) It is not a part of the Constitution.
(A) against the Government ANS: (A)
(B) after the period prescribed
(C) without the title over the pavement Q49. Which of the following is true about
(D) Both (A) and (B) Supreme Court of India?
ANS: (D) (A) Supreme Court shall sit in such places, as are
approved by the Chief Justice of India under
Q44. The engagement diamond ring of ‗N‘ was intimation to the President of India.
stolen by ‗T‘, a thief who sold it to ‗J‘ a jeweller. (B) No judgement shall be delivered by the Supreme
‗N‘ filed a suit for recovery of ring against ‗J‘. ‗J‘ Court save in open Court.
contended that he is ready to pay the price of (C) President of India can enlarge the jurisdiction
the ring. Whether the decree for recovery of and powers of Supreme Court.
diamond ring can be refused on the ground (D) All authorities including armed forces in the
that— territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme
(A) compensation in terms of money would be Court.
adequate relief for the loss of ring ANS: (B)
(B) ‗J‘ is bonafide purchaser of ring for
consideration Q50. Which of the following writ is not
(C) there is no jural relation between ‗N‘ & ‗J‘ amenable to the principle of ‗res judicata‘?
(D) None of these (A) Mandamus
ANS: (D) (B) Certiorari
(C) Quo Warranto
Q45. It is the principle of law that a person who (D) Habeas Corpus
has been in long and continuous possession can ANS: (D)
protect the same by seeking injunction against
any person in the whole world other than the Q51. ‗Curative Petition‘ may be entertained by
true owner. The above statement is— the Supreme Court in the following
(A) True situation/situations
(B) False (A) when a Judge on the Bench having heard the
(C) Partly true matter did not disclose his connection with the
(D) Partly false subject matter
ANS: (A) (B) the petitioner filing the petition was not a party
before the Court but has suffered a grave prejudice
Q46. Which of the following statements is/are by the decision
correct in the light of provisions of Article 356?
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(C) the grounds mentioned in the Curative Petition (C) To provide for participation of workers in
had been agitated in the Review Petition which was management of industries.
dismissed in circulation (D) To take steps for separation of judiciary from
(D) All these legislature.
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q52. The President shall have the power under Q58. Which of the following is a Fundamental
Article 72 of the Constitution of India where Right?
(A) punishment or sentence is by a Court Marshal (A) To assemble with arms.
(B) Punishment or sentence is for an offence (B) To form co-operative societies.
against law relating to a matter to which the (C) Right to employment.
executive power of the Union extends (D) Right of religious denominations to own
(C) sentence is a sentence of death immovable property only for charitable purpose.
(D) All these ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q59. Which of the following is a State for the
Q53. Which of the following is not a purposes of Article 12?
requirement under Article 311 of the (A) National Council of Educational Research and
Constitution while dealing with disciplinary Training.
proceedings for dismissal, removal or reduction (B) Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary
in rank of a civil servant? Studies.
(A) A departmental inquiry is held against the (C) Indian Oil Corporation.
delinquent employee after serving him with the (D) High Court of Delhi.
charge-sheet. ANS: (C)
(B) A reasonable opportunity of being heard in
respect of the charges. Q60. Which of the following Articles was
(C) A reasonable opportunity of making amended by the 42nd Constitutional
representation on the penalty proposed. Amendment Act?
(D) None of these (A) Article 330
ANS: (C) (B) Article 13
(C) Article 131
Q54. Amendment to which of the following (D) Article 354
provisions of Constitution require ratification ANS: (A)
by the state?
(A) Article 242 Q61. Which of the following writs can be sought
(B) List-I of Seventh Schedule to be issued to quash unconstitutional
(C) Chapter V of Part IV appointment to a public office:
(D) Chapter II of Part XI (A) Quo-Warranto
ANS: (B) (B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition
Q55. Right to form association under Article 19 (D) Certiorari
(3) of the Constitution includes. ANS: (A)
(A) Right to strike
(B) Right to collective bargaining Q62. Parliament of India shall consist of—
(C) Right to lockout (A) two Houses
(D) None of these (B) two Houses and Ministers
ANS: (D) (C) two Houses, Ministers and Attorney General
(D) two Houses and the President
Q56. Which of the following is not a ANS: (D)
Fundamental duty under Article 51-A?
(A) To abide by the Constitution and respect its Q63. Which of the following is not a
ideals and institutions. Constitutional body?
(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our (A) Election Commission
composite culture. (B) Planning Commission
(C) To provide opportunity of education to the child (C) Finance Commission
below the age of six by his parent or guardian. (D) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(D) To have compassion for living creatures. ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q64. Which of the following is not a
Q57. Which of the following is a Directive requirement to be satisfied by the State to
Principles of State Policy? exercise their discretion while providing for
(A) To provide paternity leave. reservations in promotions in favour of SCs and
(B) To organize Gram Sabhas. STs?
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(A) Backwardness of the class. Q70. ‗P‘ is found in possession of a document
(B) Not crossing of 50% ceiling in a particular year. purporting to be a will of ‗Q‘ in favour of ‗P‘,
(C) Inadequacy of representation in Public bearing forged signatures of ‗Q‘, intending that
Employment the will shall be fraudulently used as genuine
(D) Efficiency in administration. after the death of ‗Q‘. ‗P‘ has committed—
ANS: (B) (A) no offence as it is mere preparatory to lay a
claim
Q65. Which of the following Articles was (B) no offence till the will is used
inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-Eighth (C) has committed an offence as mere possession of
Amendment) Act, 2012? such document in such circumstances is penal
(A) 371-J (D) None of these
(B) 19(1) (h) ANS: (C)
(C) 243--P
(D) 396 Q71. ‗A‘, finds a gold ring on the road, knowing
ANS: (A) it be the property of ‗Z‘, he having unknowingly
lost it there. ‗A‘ picks up the ring and pledges it
Q66. The difference between Sec. 34 and Sec. with a money-lender to raise a loan. ‗A‘ has
149 of the Indian Penal Code is that— committed—
(A) whereas in Sec. 34 there must be at least five (A) dishonest misappropriation of property
persons, Sec. 149 requires only two persons (B) criminal breach of trust
(B) Sec. 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Sec. (C) theft
34 creates a specific offence (D) no offence
(C) Sec. 34 requires active participation in action ANS: (A)
whereas Sec. 149 requires mere passive
membership of the unlawful assembly Q72. Which one of the following statements is
(D) Both (B) and (C) correct?
ANS: (C) (A) In conspiracy, there is no distinction between
principal and accessory.
Q67. ‗A‘ is carried off by a tiger. ‗Z‘ fires at the (B) In conspiracy, principal and accessory are
tiger in good faith intending to rescue ‗A‘, distinct.
knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill (C) There has to be a distinction between principal
‗A‘. The shot fired by ‗Z‘ gives ‗A‘ a mortal and accessory in all offences.
wound. ‗Z‘ has committed— (D) None of these
(A) no offence ANS: (A)
(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) offence of causing death by negligence Q73. If a person sitting across to a girl in public
(D) murder transport deliberately shows a pornographic
ANS: (A) picture to her, it amounts to the offence of—
(A) voyeurism
Q68. Which is not the ‗stolen property‘? (B) sexual assault
(A) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating. (C) sexual harassment
(B) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery. (D) None of these
(C) Possession whereof was obtained by extortion. ANS: (C)
(D) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal
breach of trust. Q74. ‗B‘ and his girlfriend ‗G‘, both adults,
ANS: (A) engage in consensual sexual intercourse in the
privacy of the bedroom of the latter and ‗B‘ with
Q69. In which of the following cases, the offence her consent prepares a video clip on his mobile
of ‗house-breaking‘ is committed? camera and later shows it in total privacy to his
(A) A commits house-trespass by entering Z‘s house friend ‗F‘, it amounts to—
through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a (A) stalking
wire through a hole in the door. (B) voyeurism
(B) A finds the key of Z‘s house-door, which Z had (C) rape
lost, and commits housetrespass, by entering Z‘s (D) None of these
house through that key. ANS: (B)
(C) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y‘s
doorway. A commits housetrespass by entering the Q75. A woman approaches ‗X‘, an officer in
house, having deterred Z from opposing him by charge of a police station and alleges that her
threatening to beat him. boy friend tried to forcibly remove her shirt in a
(D) All these dress shop, seeking legal action to be taken, but
ANS: (D) ‗X‘ refuses to take note of the incident and
asked her to file a criminal complaint before a
magistrate. Here, ‗X‘ has committed a—
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(A) misconduct but not any penal offence (B) Both 2 and 3
(B) cognizable offence (C) Only 1
(C) non-cognizable offence (D) Only 3
(D) None of these ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q80. Consider the following statements.
Q76. ‗S‘ is found in possession of property 1. every murder is culpable homicide
reasonably suspected to be stolen by him and is 2. every culpable homicide is murder
arrested by ‗P‘, a police officer. ‗S‘ is excited to 3. every robbery is either theft or extortion
sudden and violent passion by the arrest and 4. every extortion is robbery Which of the
fires at him but kills ‗D‘ who was standing near statements given above are correct?
‗P‘, neither intending nor knowing himself to be (A) 1 and 3
likely to kill ‗D‘. This is— (B) 2 and 3
(A) culpable homicide not amounting to murder, (C) 1 and 4
because ‗S‘ had been deprived of the power of self (D) 2 and 4
control by grave and sudden provocation ANS: (A)
(B) murder, because provocation was given by a
thing done by a public servant in lawful discharge Q81. With respect to the difference between
of his powers kidnapping from lawful guardianship and
(C) culpable Homicide not amounting to murder, abduction which of the following statements is
because the death of ‗D‘ occurred by mistake or correct?
accident (A) Kidnapping is committed only in respect of a
(D) None of these minor or a person of unsound mind. Abduction is
ANS: (B) committed in respect of a person of any age.
(B) In former, the person kidnapped is removed out
Q77. ‗A‘ was sentenced to fine of rupees one of lawful guardianship. Abduction has reference
thousand and in case of default to suffer simple exclusively to the person abducted.
imprisonment for six months. He did not pay (C) In kidnapping, consent of the person
the fine and was taken in custody. After six kidnnapped or enticed is immaterial. In abduction,
weeks, an amount of rupees one hundred was consent of the person moved, if freely and
realised through warrant for recovery and he voluntarily given, condones abduction
further deposited rupees four hundred, the (D) All these
balance remaining unpaid. ‗A‘ would be— ANS: (D)
(A) entitled to immediate release from custody
(B) entitled to release as soon as three months Q82. ‗X‘ along with four other armed associates
elapse seizes the child of ‗Y‘ and threatens to kill him
(C) liable to undergo imprisonment for the period of unless ‗Y‘ parts with his watch and diamond
six months ring compelling him to do so. ‗X‘ has committed
(D) entitled to release after such period as the court the offence of—
may further direct on such realisation or deposit (A) robbery
ANS: (B) (B) dacoity
(C) attempt to murder
Q78. The right of private defence of property (D) extortion
extends to causing death of the wrongdoer ANS: (B)
under certain descriptions. Which one of the
following descriptions is not included in those? Q83. For the offence of cheating—
(A) Robbery (A) the person deceived must have been
(B) House-breaking by night fraudulently or dishonestly induced to deliver
(C) Lurking house trespass property
(D) Mischief by fire on any human dwelling (B) as a consequence of the intentional inducement,
ANS: (C) damage or harm in body, mind, reputation or
property is caused or likely to be caused to the
Q79. Consider the following statements. To person deceived.
constitute abetment, it is— (C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
1. necessary that the act abetted must be (D) None of these
committed ANS: (C)
2. not necessary that the act abetted must be
committed Q84. ‗A‘ and ‗Z‘, both adults, agree to engage
3. necessary that the person abetted must have each other in fencing for amusement. In course
the same intention or knowledge as that of the of such fencing, without any foul play, ‗A‘
abettor Which of the statements given above causes a superficial hurt to ‗Z‘. Here, ‗X‘
represent(s) the correct position of law? (A) is guilty of causing hurt by sharp edged weapon
(A) Only 2 as he attacked ‗Z‘.
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(B) is not guilty as there is an implied consent on
the part of ‗Z‘ to suffer such harm Q89. Indicate the correct statement regarding
(C) is guilty because fencing is a dangerous sport the rights of an arrestee. A person arrested
(D) Both (A) and (C) without warrant has the right to—
ANS: (B) 1. be informed of the particulars of the offence
for which he is arrested
Q85. In answer to the charge of defamation, 2. have a relative or friend named by him to be
which of the following is/are good defence(s)? informed about his arrest
(A) Imputation which is true and published for the 3. have an advocate of his choice remain
public good. present throughout interrogation
(B) Opinion respecting the conduct of a public 4. be medically examined by a medical officer
servant concerning discharge of duties of office Which of the statements given above are
expressed in good faith. correct?
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of these (B) 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (C) (C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q86. Consider the following statement(s). A ANS: (D)
police officer has the power to arrest any person
without an order from a magistrate or warrant Q90. In order to compel appearance of a person
of arrest, if he has reason to suspect his who is absconding in spite of a warrant of arrest
complicity in a cognizable offence punishable being issued against him, his property may be
with imprisonment which may extend to seven ordered to be attached simultaneously with
years, provided that he is satisfied for reasons issuance of a proclamation under section 82 of
in writing that such arrest is necessary— the Code of Criminal Procedure, provided that
1. to prevent such person from committing any the court is satisfied that such person is—
further offence (A) about to dispose of the whole or any part of his
2. for proper investigation of the offence property
3. to prevent such person from tampering with (B) about to remove the whole or any part of
or causing the evidence of the offence to property from the local jurisdiction of the Court.
disappear (C) Either condition in (A) or
4. to compel the absconding co-accused to (B) exists.
surrender Which of the statements given above
are correct? (D) Both conditions in
(A) 1 and 2 (A) and
(B) 2 and 3 (B) co-exist
(C) 1, 2 and 3 ANS: (C)
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (C) Q91. Which of the following is not an essential
search-procedure under Sec. 100 of Code of
Q87. What is the period of limitation prescribed Criminal Procedure?
for taking cognizance of an offence which is (A) Calling upon two independent and respectable
punishable with imprisonment for a term inhabitants of the locality to witness the search
exceeding three years? (B) Signing of search-memo by the witnesses to
(A) Three years search
(B) Five years (C) Attendance of occupant of the place during the
(C) Seven years search
(D) No limitation (D) Signature of the accused on the searchlist
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q88. Which of the following statements is/are Q92. No wife shall be entitled to receive
true? maintenance from her husband under Sec. 125
(A) Inquiry means every inquiry including a trial of Code of Criminal Procedure if she—
conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure (A) has obtained a divorce from her husband and
by a magistrate or court. has not remarried
(B) Inquiry means every inquiry other than a trial (B) is unable to maintain herself
conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure (C) refused to live with her husband on the ground
by a magistrate or court. that he keeps a mistress
(C) Investigation includes all the proceedings under (D) is living in adultery
the Code of Criminal Procedure for the collection of ANS: (D)
evidence conducted by a magistrate.
(D) All these Q93. On the non-completion of investigation,
ANS: (B) i.e., failure of the prosecution to file charge
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sheet within the prescribed period of 90 or 60 during trial, she refused to come to India on the
days, as given in Section 167 of Code of ground of fear and inconvenience. Which of the
Criminal Procedure, the— following options is most appropriate for the
(A) accused person is to be discharged Trial Court?
unconditionally (A) Issue non-bailable warrants against ‗F‘ through
(B) accused person shall be released on bail if he is Ministry of Home Affairs to compel appearance.
prepared to and does furnish bail (B) Initiate proceedings for punishment for non-
(C) right of the accused person to be released on attendance by ‗F‘ under Section 350 Cr. P.C.
bail could be defeated by the subsequent filing of (C) Drop ‗F‘ as a witness and acquit the accused
the charge sheet under any circumstance persons
(D) None of these (D) Issue a Commission for examination of ‗F‘.
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q94. ‗G‘, a 17 years old girl, was married to ‗H‘. Q98. ‗A‘ was acquitted of the charge for
‗H‘ during the subsistence of the said marriage voluntarily causing grievous hurt by throwing
entered into another marriage with ‗P‘. The acid on ‗X‘, as the victim did not support the
court may take cognizance for the offence of police version about involvement of ‗A‘ in the
bigamy, if the complaint is brought by— incident, though grievous hurt by acid was
(A) her father, mother, brother, sister, son or proved. ‗X‘ seeks compensation from the Tril
daughter or by her father‘s or mother‘ brother or Court. The Trial Court may—
sister (A) dismiss the claim because the accused was
(B) any other person related to her by blood, acquitted
marriage or adoption, with the leave of the court (B) dismiss the claim because the victim turned
(C) some other person on her behalf, with leave of hostile during trial
court, but where there is a guardian appointed in (C) consider making recommendation to the State
her respect, then only after such guardian has been Legal Services Authority for compensation to victim
heard. (D) direct the accused to pay compensation to the
(D) All these victim on humanitarian grounds
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q95. ‗A‘ is accused of an act which may amount Q99. ‗A‘ faced trial for cheating ‗Z‘ by
to theft, or receiving stolen property or criminal dishonestly inducing him to lend money by
breach of trust or cheating. At trial, formal knowingly pledging fake diamonds. ‗Z‘ died
charge is framed only for the offence of theft. during trial and was survived by a son ‗X‘. ‗X‘
The evidence adduced at trial shows that he moved an application in the Trial Court to
committed the offence of criminal breach of compound the offence. Which of the following is
trust. He may be convicted— the correct legal preposition?
(A) for the offence of theft only for which formal (A) ‗X‘ is not competent to compound the offence.
charge was framed (B) On the death of complainant ‗Z‘, the trial
(B) for the offence of criminal breach of trust proceedings shall abate.
though he was not charged with such offence (C) Court cannot entertain such an application
(C) the trial is vitiated after death of the complainant.
(D) None of these (D) ‗X‘ can compound the offence with the consent
ANS: (B) of the Court.
ANS: (D)
Q96. The categories of persons who may,
without their consent, be charged and tried Q100. Who can file an application for
together include persons accused of— PleaBargaining in the court in which an offence
(A) different offences committed in the course of the is pending for trial?
same transaction (A) The Public Prosecutor
(B) more than one offence of the same kind (B) The victim of the offence
committed by them within the period of twelve (C) The Investigating Officer
months (D) None of these
(C) Neither (A) nor (B) ANS: (D)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (A) Q101. A criminal court, at conclusion of trial,
may order—
Q97. ‗F‘, a French National on a tourist visa to (A) restoration of possession of immovable property
India was raped by a group of four boys, two to the person who had been dispossessed therefrom
days prior to her scheduled departure from by use of criminal force or by criminal intimidation
India. FIR was registered on her statement and by the person convicted
the offenders were chargesheeted. On being (B) the destruction of pornographic material in
summoned by the Court to depose as a witness respect of which conviction was recorded
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(C) Both (A) and (B) ANS: (C)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (C) Q106. Consider the following statement(s): A
‗decree‘ means and includes
Q102. A Metropolitan Magistrate may release an 1. formal expression of an adjudication which,
accused on bail in non-bailable offence except in so far as regards the court expressing it,
following case(s) if— conclusively determines the rights of the
(A) there are reasonable grounds for believing that parties with regard to all or any of the matters
he has been guilty of an offence punishable with in controversy in the suit.
death or imprisonment for life 2. any adjudication from which an appeal lies
(B) there are reasonable grounds for believing that as an appeal from an order
he has been guilty of a cognizable offence and he 3. any order of dismissal of suit for default
has been previously convicted of an offence 4. rejection of plaint Which of the statements
punishable with imprisonment for seven years given above are correct?
(C) he had been previously convicted on two or (A) 1 and 2
more occasions of a cognizable offence punishable (B) 2 and 3
with imprisonment for three years. (C) 1 and 4
(D) All these (D) All these
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q103. In computing the period of limitation, Q107. Which is the correct essential conditions
the period which may be excluded includes for applicability of the rule of sub judice?
the— (A) The matter in issue in the subsequent suit must
(A) time during which any person has been be directly and substantially in issue in the
prosecuting with due diligence another prosecution previous suit.
on the same facts, in good faith and in a court (B) The parties must be litigating under the same
without jurisdiction. title in both the suits
(B) period for which the prosecution in respect of (C) Both (A) and (B)
such offence has been stayed by an injunction or (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
order ANS: (C)
(C) period during which the application of the
accused for release on bail was pending Q108. The expression ‗former suit‘ in the
(D) Both (A) and (B) context of rule of res judicata means a suit
ANS: (D) which has been—
(A) instituted prior to the suit in question
(B) decided prior to the suit in question
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (B)
Q104. The proceeding before a criminal court
are vitiated if the presiding magistrate who is
Q109. Which of the following statement is true?
not empowered by law to do so—
(A) A suit for recovery of immovable property shall
(A) issues search warrant erroneously but in good
be instituted in the court in whose jurisdiction the
faith
property is situated
(B) holds inquest under section 176 of Code of
(B) A suit for partition of immoveable property shall
Criminal Procedure erroneously but in good faith
be instituted in the court in whose jurisdiction the
(C) tries an offender summarily
defendant resides or works for gain
(D) All these
(C) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (C)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (A)
Q105. Prosecution of a case involving
misappropriation of property belonging to the
Q110. Consider the following statement(s).
Central Government can be withdrawn by—
1. A defendant may set up, by way of a counter-
(A) any Public Prosecutor on the direction of the
claim against the claim of the plaintiff any right
State Government
or claim in respect of the cause of action
(B) the Public Prosecutor appointed by the Central
accuring to him.
Government on the direction of the State
2. The counter-claim may be submitted by the
Government
defendant evenafter he hasdelivered his
(C) the Public Prosecutor appointed by the State
defence.
Government on permission granted by the Central
3. The counter-claim shall not exceed the
Government
pecuniary jurisdiction of the court. Which of the
(D) any Public Prosecutor on the direction of the
statements given above are correct?
Central Government
(A) 1 and 2
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(B) 1 and 3 Q115. When a civil suit reaches the stage of
(C) 2 and 3 hearing and examination of witnesses?
(D) All these (A) the plaintiff has the right to begin
ANS: (B) (B) if the defendant admits the facts alleged by the
plaintiff and contends that on some additional facts
Q111. Which of the following statements is alleged by the defendant, the plaintiff is not entitled
incorrect? to any relief, the defendant has the right to begin
(A) A representative suit may be instituted by one (C) Both (A) and (B)
or more persons for the benefit of all interested (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
persons with the permission of the court. ANS: (C)
(B) Notice of the institution of a representative suit
must be given by public advertisement at the Q116. Which of the following statements is
plaintiff‘s expense to all interested persons whereby incorrect?
reason of their number, personal service is not (A) Where issues both of law and of fact arise and if
reasonably practicable. the court is of opinion that the case may be
(C) Any person for whose benefit a representative disposed of on an issue relating to jurisdiction, it
suit has been instituted may apply to join as a may postpone the settlement of other issues until
party thereto. after the issue of jurisdiction has been determined.
(D) The person(s) who instituted the suit or (B) Where a suit may be disposed of on preliminary
person(s) who joined as party have unrestricted issue, the court need not pronounce judgment on
right to compromise with the defendant. other issues settled in the case.
ANS: (D) (C) The preliminary issue may relate to a bar to the
suit created by any law for the time being in force.
Q112. Where the defendant is absent at the (D) None of these
time when service of summons is sought to be ANS: (B)
effected on him at his residence, there being no
likelihood of his availability within reasonable Q117. Which of the following statements is
time and in absence of an empowered agent, the correct? The court which passed the decree may
service may be made on— transfer it to another competent court if the—
(A) any adult male member of his family (A) judgement debtor carries on business within the
(B) any adult female member of his family jurisdiction of the latter court
(C) a servant engaged by the defendant at his (B) judgment debtor has no property within the
residence jurisdiction of the former court sufficient to satisfy
(D) Both (A) and (B) such decree but has property within the
ANS: (D) jurisdiction of the latter court
(C) decree directs the sale of immovable property
Q113. A suit may be dismissed where— situated outside the local jurisdiction of the former
(A) summons are not served on the defendant in court
consequence of the failure of the plaintiff to take (D) All these
proper steps like filing of court fee, postal charges ANS: (D)
or requisite number of copies of plaint.
(B) neither party appears when the suit is called on Q118. A money decree may be executed by—
for hearing (A) attachment and sale of any property of the
(C) plaintiff, after summons to defendant has judgment debtor
returned unserved, fails to apply for fresh (B) arrest and detention in prison of the judgment
summons for seven days. debtor for indefinite period
(D) All these (C) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (D) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (A)
Q114. Consider the following statements—
Admissions for forming the basis of judgement Q119. Which of the following statements is
may be secured from the opposite party to a correct?
civil suit by way of notice (A) No suit, not involving urgent or immediate relief,
1. of admission of the case may be instituted against the Central Government
2. to admit documents except after serving a notice of two months
3. to admit facts Which of the statements given (B) A decree against the Union of India may not be
above are correct? executed unless it remains unsatisfied for a period
(A) None of these of three months
(B) All these (C) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(C) Only 1 and 2 (D) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
(D) Only 2 and 3 ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
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Q120. Which of the following statements is (A) only to the defendant since the plaintiff is the
correct? master of the suit
(A) Where on the death of a defendant the right to (B) even if they relate to matters not in question in
sue survivers against the other surviving defendant the suit
alone, the case may proceed against the surviving (C) notwithstanding the objection taken by the
defendant. opposite party
(B) Where on the death of a defendant the right to (D) if it considers the same necessary for disposing
sue does not survive against the other surviving of the case fairly
defendant alone, the case shall abate against the ANS: (D)
deceased defendant if no application is made within
the time limited by law for the legal representative Q125. A decree becomes final when—
of the deceased defendant to be made a party. (A) it conclusively determines the rights of the
(C) There shall be no abatement by reason of death parties
of either party between the conclusion of the (B) no appeal has been preferred against the decree
hearing and the pronouncing of the judgment. (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All these (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q121. In the context of withdrawal of suit, Q126. An international commercial arbitration


which is the correct statement? is an arbitration where at least one of the
(A) If the Court is satisfied that a suit must fail by parties is—
reason of some formal defect, the plaintiff may be (A) a body corporate incorporated in any country
allowed to withdraw the suit with liberty to institute other than India
a fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter. (B) a body of individuals whose central
(B) If the plaintiff withdraws from a suit without management and control is exercised in any
permission of the court he may bring fresh suit in country other than India
respect of the same subject matter. (C) the Government of a foreign country
(C) If there are more than one plaintiffs, one of (D) All these
them may withdraw the suit without the consent of ANS: (D)
other plaintiffs.
(D) All these Q127. As per Section 3(2) of the Arbitration and
ANS: (A) Conciliation Act, 1996, a communication is
deemed to have been received on the day
Q122. Which is the correct statement in context when—
of summary procedure for civil suits? (A) it is dispatched to the addressee
(A) May be invoked for recovery of a liquidated (B) it is delivered to the addressee
demand in money payable by the defendant arising (C) written acknowledgement of the receipt is sent
out a written contract. to the sender
(B) May be applied suo motu by any civil court in (D) written acknowledgement of the receipt is
its discretion in the interest of expenditious received by the sender
adjudication. ANS: (B)
(C) Requires the defendant which, if granted, must
be unconditional. Q128. Which of the following is not an essential
(D) All these statements are not correct. condition for an arbitration agreement as per
ANS: (A) Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996?
Q123. In case of breach of any of the terms on (A) The agreement must be registered.
which temporary injunction was granted, the (B) The agreement must be to submit to arbitration
court may order— all or certain disputes which have arisen or which
(A) the person in breach to be detained in civil may arise in respect of a defined legal relationship
prison for indefinite period but not after the breach whether contractual or not.
has ceased (C) The arbitration agreement must be in writing.
(B) attachment of the property of the person in (D) None of these
breach and, if the breach continues for more than ANS: (A)
one year, sell the attached property and award the
entire sale proceeds to the injured party as Q129. Which of the following is not a ground for
compensation setting aside an arbitration award under Section
(C) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect. 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct. 1996?
ANS: (C) (A) incapacity of a party.
(B) arbitration agreement not being valid under the
Q124. The leave may be granted by the civil law in force.
court to deliver interrogatories—
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(C) award contains decisions on matters beyond the (C) supervening impossibility or illegality as laid
scope of the submission to arbitration. down in Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act,
(D) None of these 1872
ANS: (D) (D) the principle of unjust enrichment
ANS: (C)
Q130. In which of the following cases it was
held by the Supreme Court the Part I of the Q136. An agreement is void if its object or
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would consideration is—
have no application to International commercial (A) forbidden by law
arbitrations held outside India and therefore (B) of such nature that if permitted, it would defeat
such awards would only be subject to the the provisions of law or is fraudulent
jurisdiction of Indian courts when the same are (C) the Court regards it as immoral or against
sought to be enforced in India in accordance public policy
with Part II of the said Act? (D) All these are correct.
(A) Bharat Aluminum Company etc. v. Kaiser ANS: (D)
Aluminum Technical Services Inc. etc. (Balco) 2012
(9) SCC Q137. Which of the following is not a
quasicontract?
ANS: (A) (A) Obligation of a person enjoying benefit of non-
gratuitous act.
Q131. The term consensus ad idem means— (B) Responsibility of finder of goods.
(A) no agreement can have more than one meaning (C) Quantum meriut
(B) to agree the same way (D) Novation
(C) to agree on the same thing with same sense ANS: (D)
(D) to agree for different objects in the same sense
ANS: (C) Q138. ‗A‘ applies to a banker for a loan at a time
when there is stringency in the money market.
Q132. In which case it was held that a contract The banker declines to make the loan except at
through telephone is concluded at the place an unsually high rate of interest. ‗A‘ accepts the
where acceptance is heard? loan on these terms. In this case the contract
(A) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913) XL ALJR is—
489 (All.). (A) vitiated by undue influence
(B) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1981-4) All (B) valid because this is a transaction in the
ER Rep. ordinary cause of business
(C) void because the banker took unfair advantage
ANS: (C) of stringency in the money market
(D) voidable at the option of ‗A‘ who was deceived by
Q133. ‗A‘ saves ‗B‘s property from fire, the the banker
circumstances indicated that he had done so ANS: (B)
gratuitously. Whether ‗A‘ is entitled to—
(A) compensation from ‗B‘ Q139. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in
(B) no compensation determining the question of—
(C) compensation from the Government (A) fraud
(D) compensation from heirs of ‗B‘ (B) misrepresentation
ANS: (B) (C) undue influence
(D) free consent
Q134. The doctrine of privity of contract means ANS: (D)
that—
(A) a contract is a private affair between the parties Q140. ‗P‘ a wholesale dealer in sugar, sells sugar
(B) consideration can be supplied only by the to ‗Q‘ with a condition that ‗Q‘ shall not sell the
parties to contract sugar beyond one kilometer of ‗P‘s godown. The
(C) the contract can be enforced only by a civil and agreement is—
private action (A) valid
(D) only parties to contract can sue and be sued (B) without free consent
upon the contract (C) in restraint of trade and thus void
ANS: (D) (D) voidable at the option of ‗P‘
ANS: (C)
Q135. In India, the doctrine of impossibility of
performance of a contract being void, is based Q141. While determining damages for breach of
on— contract, which of the following are taken into
(A) the theory of implied term account?
(B) the theory of just and reasonable solution (A) Motive
(B) Indirect loss
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(C) Means of remedying the inconvenience caused Q147. Mark the correct answer in respect of
by non-performance. Contract of Guarantee—
(D) All these (A) It may be in writing.
ANS: (C) (B) It may be oral.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Q142. In case of acceptance by post, at what (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
point the acceptance is complete as against the ANS: (C)
proposer?
(A) When the letter of acceptance is put in the Q148. An agreement which is enforceable by law
course of transmission so as to be out of power of at the option of one or more of the parties there
the acceptor. to, but not at the option of the other or others,
(B) When the letter of acceptance has been written. is a—
(C) When the letter of acceptance has been (A) valid contract
received. (B) unenforceable contract
(D) When the letter of acceptance has been read by (C) voidable contract
the proposer. (D) quasi-contract
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q143. A person who finds goods belonging to Q149. An agency can be terminated by—
another and takes them into his custody, is (A) the principle revoking his authority
subject to the same responsibility as a/an— (B) the agent renouncing the business of agency
(A) bailor (C) either the principle or agent dying
(B) indemnitee (D) All these
(C) agent ANS: (D)
(D) bailee
ANS: (D) Q150. If the time of performance of contract is
the essence of contract and the promisor fails
Q144. ‗A‘ contract to sing for ‗B ‘ at a concert to perform the contract by the specified time,
for 50,000 which are paid in advance. ‗A‘ is too the contract is—
ill to sing on the day of the concert. The (A) void
consequence is— (B) valid
(A) ‗A‘ is bound to make compensation to ‗B‘ for the (C) voidable at the option of the promise
loss of the profits which ‗B‘ would have made if ‗A‘ (D) infructuous.
had been able to sing ANS: (C)
(B) ‗A‘ is bound to refund to ‗B‘ 50,000 paid in
advance Q151. Which of the following is not mentioned
(C) ‗A‘ can be forced to sing at the concert in the Indian Constitution?
(D) ‗A‘ is bound to refund only that money out of (A) Election Commission
50,000 that he has not spent (B) Finance Commission
ANS: (B) (C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
Q145. Where persons reciprocally promise, ANS: (C)
firstly to do certain things which are legal and
secondly, under specified circumstances, to do Q152. By which Constitutional Amendment the
certain other things which are illegal the— number of ministers have been limited to 15%
(A) first set of promise is a contract, but the second of the total number of members of the lower
is a void agreement house?
(B) first set of promise is voidable but the second (A) Ninety First Amendment
set is a void agreement (B) Ninety Second Amendment
(C) entire set of promises is void (C) Ninetieth Amendment
(D) entire set of promises is valid (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q146. If the compensation to be paid on breach Q153. Point out the mismatched pair—
of contract is the genuine pre-estimate of the (A) Power of Parliament to legislate on a matter in
prospective damages, it is known as— the State list in the national interest—Article 249
(A) special damages (B) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to
(B) penalty any matter in the State List of a proclamation of
(C) un-liquidated damages emergency is in operation—Article 250
(D) liquidated damages (C) Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more
ANS: (D) States by consent—Article 251
(D) Legislation for giving effect to international
agreements—Article 253
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ANS: (C) Q160. ‗Zonal Council‘ in India is—
(A) Dispute Settling Agency
Q154. Which one of the following is not an (B) Law Making Body
essential element of a State in international (C) Advisory Body
law? (D) Administrative Body
(A) Population ANS: (C)
(B) Armed forces
(C) Territory Q161. In which among the following States in
(D) Capacity to enter into relation with other States India, Legislative Council does not exist?
ANS: (B) (A) State of Bihar
(B) State of Maharashtra
Q155. The name of the first woman judge of the (C) State of Rajasthan
International Court of Justice is— (D) State of Karnataka
(A) Rosalyn Higgins ANS: (C)
(B) Rosa E. Oturnbayeva
(C) Gertrude Mongella Q162. Who among the following is not a legal
(D) Sadako Ogata person?
ANS: (A) (A) The Kumaon University
(B) State Bank of India
Q156. Point out the mismatched pair— (C) The President of India
(A) Chiranjitlal V/s Union of India (1950)— Article (D) The State of Uttarakhand
14 ANS: (C)
(B) Dinesh Trivedi V/s Union of India (1997)—
Article 19 Q163. The Headquarters of world Food and
(C) Sunil Batra V/s Delhi Administration (1978)— Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at—
Article 21 (A) Rome
(D) Bhim Singh V/s State of J & K (1986)— Article (B) Paris
29 (C) New York
ANS: (D) (D) Ohio
ANS: (A)
Q157. Read the following carefully— Statement
(1): Recognition is a process through which a Q164. The readjustment of current strength of
political community acquires international the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies in India
personality by becoming a member of family of has been freezed upto—
nation. Statement (2): Hegel, Anzilloti and (A) year 2026
Oppenheim are chief exponents of Constitutive (B) year 2016
theory of recognition. Of the above— (C) year 2018
(A) Only 1 is true (D) year 2020
(B) Only 2 is true ANS: (A)
(C) Both 1 and 2 are true
(D) Both 1 and 2 are false Q165. The father of ‗Local Self Government‘ in
ANS: (C) India was—
(A) Lord Dalhousie
Q158. Who said ―Inclusion of any matter in the (B) Lord Canning
agenda of General Assembly, discussion on it, (C) Lord Curzon
its study or the passing of a General Resolution (D) Lord Ripon
would not amount to intervention‖? ANS: (D)
(A) Prof. Hans Kelsen
(B) Prof. Quincy Wright Q166. Who is known as the Father of
(C) Oppenheim International Law?
(D) None of the above (A) Hugo Grotius
ANS: (B) (B) Oppenheim
(C) Edward Collins
Q159. A Member of Parliament of India or (D) Philip C. Jessup
Member of Legislative Assembly of a State ANS: (A)
cannot be arrested in a civil action within a
period of …… before or after the session. Q167. Voltaire was a—
(A) 40 days (A) Greek Philosopher
(B) 45 days (B) British lawyer
(C) 50 days (C) French writer and philosopher
(D) 55 days (D) American jurist
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)
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Q168. The year of the Hague Convention for the (D) Article 42
Pacific Settlement of Internationl Disputes, is— ANS: (D)
(A) 1900
(B) 1903 Q176. Where is the World Trade Centre situated
(C) 1905 in India?
(D) 1907 (A) Noida
ANS: (D) (B) Mumbai
(C) New Delhi
Q169. The tenure of every Panchayat in India is (D) Chennai
five years from the—
(A) data appointed for its first meeting Q177. Justice Dalveer Bhandari is—
(B) date of notification of election (A) a judge in Supreme Court of India
(C) date of declaration of election results (B) Chief Justice of Delhi High Court
(D) date of oath of office by members (C) Chief Justice of Bombay High Court
ANS: (A) (D) a judge in the International Court of Justice
ANS: (D)
Q170. The World Conference on Human Rights
and Peace, 2013 was held in— Q178. Which of the following declaration deals
(A) China exclusively with the peaceful settlement of
(B) Pakistan International disputes?
(C) United States (A) Paris Declaration, 1856
(D) Bangladesh (B) Manila Declaration, 1982
ANS: (B) (C) UN Declaration, 1943
(D) Moscow Declaration, 1943
Q171. Setu Samudram ship Channel Project is ANS: (B)
approved by—
(A) Government of Tamil Nadu State Q179. Which of the following method of
(B) Government of Sri Lanka settlement of International Disputes has been
(C) Government of India expressedly recognised in the Constitution of
(D) Government of India and Sri Lanka India?
ANS: (D) (A) Arbitration
(B) Negotiation
Q172. In which case the Supreme Court (C) Conciliation
observed that Central Bureau of Investigation is (D) None of the above
a ‗caged parrot‘? ANS: (A)
(A) Rail Board bribery case
(B) Vineet Narayan V/s Union of India Q180. Read the following carefully— Statement
(C) 2G Spectrum Scam case (1): Right to Vote in an election is a
(D) Coalgate Scam case Fundamental Right of every person in India.
ANS: (D) Statement (2): Right to contest in an election is
a Fundamental Right of every citizen. Of the
Q173. The World Chairman of International above—
Human Rights Commission is— (A) 1 is true but 2 is false
(A) Dr. Muhammad Shahid Amin Khan (B) 1 is false, but 2 is true
(B) H.E. Adnan Mansour (C) Both 1 and 2 are true
(C) Dr. Prathavi Ravish Singh (D) Both 1 and 2 are false
(D) Rafal Marcin Wasik ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q181. Which of the following case is related to
Q174. National Green Tribunal Act was passed Right to Information Act, 2005?
in the year— (A) Lily Thomas V/s Union of India
(A) 2008 (B) Nandini Sundaram V/s Union of India
(B) 2010 (C) Namit Sharma V/s Union of India
(C) 2011 (D) None of the above
(D) 2009 ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q182. Balaji Raghwan V/s Union of India AIR
Q175. Under which Article of the United Nations 1996 SC 770 is related with which of the
Charter the Security Council has power to use following Article of the Constitution of India?
force against a State? (A) 25
(A) Article 24 (B) 29
(B) Article 2(4) (C) 18
(C) Article 41 (D) 12
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ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q183. Article 239 AB of the Constitution Q189. Read the following— Assertion (1):
provides— Parliament has passed the National Food
(A) Power of administrator to promulgate Security Act, 2013. Assertion (2): The Supreme
ordinances during recess of legislature Court has held that it is the duty of the State to
(B) Power of the President to make regulations for provide food to every needy. Of the above—
certain Union Territories (A) Only 1 is true
(C) Provisions in case of failure of constitutional (B) Only 2 is true
machinery of National Capital Territory (C) Both 1 and 2 are true
(D) None of the above (D) Both 1 and 2 are false
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q184. Article 371 E of the Constitution deals Q190. ‗Full faith and credit shall be given
with— throughout the territory of India to public acts,
(A) Establishment of Central University in Andhra records and judicial proceedings of the Union
Pradesh and of every State,‖ is provided under which
(B) Special provisions with respect to the State of Article of the Constitution of India?
Sikkim (A) Article 261
(C) Special provision with respect to State of (B) Article 260
Mizoram (C) Article 32(3) and Article 226(3)
(D) None of the above (D) Article 226(2)
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q191. Which one of the following case is not


related with Article 19(1)
(a) of the Indian Constitution?
Q185. Medha Kotwal Lele V/s Union of India
(A) Prakash Jha International Ltd. V/s Union of
2012 S.C. is related with—
India
(A) Mercy Killing
(B) Secretary, Ministry of I & B V/s C.A.B.
(B) Sexual Harassment of Women at work place
(C) Communist Party of India V/s Bharat Kumar
(C) Domestic violence
(D) Kathi Ranning V/s State of Saurashtra
(D) Fake encounter
ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q192. Under Article 338A of the
Q186. ‖International Law may be defined as the
IndianConstitution ‗There shall be a
body of law which is composed for its greater
Commission known as—
part of the principles and rules of conduct
(A) National Commission for Women
which the States feel themselves bound to
(B) National Commission for Minorities
observe.‖ Defined by—
(C) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(A) Charles Cheney Hyde
(D) None of the above
(B) Kent
ANS: (C)
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Westlake
Q193. Article 15(5) was declared as the ‗basic
ANS: (C)
strucutre‘ of Indian Constitution in which of the
following case by the Supreme Court?
Q187. Which of the following case is associated
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur V/s Union of India
with the issue of ‗domicile‘ in the State
(B) Indian Medical Association V/s Union of India
concerned for getting elected to the Council of
(C) Bachpan Bachao Andolan V/s Union of India
States?
(D) All of the above
(A) Rameshwar Prasad V/s Union of India
ANS: (B)
(B) Kuldip Nayar V/s Union of India
(C) S.R. Bommai V/s Union of India
Q194. Who was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2013?
(D) Satwant Singh V/s Asst. Passport Officer
(A) Raghu Nath Mahapatra
ANS: (B)
(B) Sharmila Tagore
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
Q188. In which Article of the Constitution of
(D) None was awarded Bharat Ratna
India, provision has been made for ―Finance
ANS: (C)
Commission‖?
(A) 366(12)
Q195. Untouchability in any form has been
(B) 280
abolished by which of the following articles of
(C) 265
Constitution of India?
(D) None of the above
(A) Article 14
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(B) Article 16 (A) a civil court
(C) Article 17 (B) a court exercising jurisdiction under Hindu
(D) Article 15 Marriage Act, 1955
ANS: (C) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Q196. Read the following— Statement (A): The ANS: (B)
Supreme Court in February 2012, in the famous
‗2G–Spectrum Scam‘ case, quashed the 2-G Q202. A Father Karta can alienate a part of joint
Spectrum allotment and directed for its public family property out of love and affection to—
auction. Reason (R): Article 39 (A) Daughter
(b) of the Constitution of India provides that the (B) Son
ownership and control of material resources of (C) Wife
the community are so distributed as best to (D) All of the above
subserve the common good. Now answer using ANS: (D)
the codes given below—
(A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the reason of Q203. By 2005 Amendment of the Hindu
(A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the reason Succession Act, 1956 a son is liable to pay
of which of the following?
(A) is true, but (2) is false (A) Untainted debt of father
(A) is false, but (R) is true (B) Tainted debt of father
ANS: (B) (C) Untainted debt procured by father before the
amendment in the Act
Q197. Who can seek advisory opinion from the (D) None of the above
International Court of Justice according to UN ANS: (C)
Charter?
(A) Security Council Q204. In the absence of the class I heir who
(B) General Assembly inherits the property of a Hindu male?
(C) Other organs and specialised Agencies of the (A) Father
United Nations duly authorised by the General (B) Brother
Assembly (C) Sister
(D) All of the above (D) All of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q198. Who can expel any State from the Q205. In case of ‗desertion‘ the wife has to
membership of the United Nations? prove which of the following facts?
(A) General Assembly (A) The husband has abandoned her
(B) Security Council (B) That he has done so without any reasonable
(C) General Assembly on the recommendation of cause and against her wish and without her
the secretary General consent
(D) General Assembly on the recommendation of (C) That he has wilfully neglected her
the Security Council (D) All of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q199. Which Article of the United Nations Q206. Which of the following is not a ground of
Charter empowers the Security Council to divorce under the Special Marriage Act, 1954?
implement the judgements of the International (A) Adultery
Court of Justice? (B) Cruelty
(A) Article 24 (C) Conversion
(B) Article 25 (D) Desertion
(C) Article 94 ANS: (C)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q207. Under Muslim Law the following are
guardians for marriage of a minor— I. Father II.
Q200. Which of the following case is related to Mother III. State IV. Brother Choose the correct
the Prize Courts? order in which their guardianship accrues—
(A) The Zamora case (A) I, II, III, IV
(B) Dr. Babu Ram Saxena V/s State (B) II, I, IV, III
(C) S.S. Lotus case (C) I, IV, II, III
(D) Re Castioni Part-II Law (D) III, IV, II, I
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q201. Alimony under Section 25 of the Hindu Q208. Muta marriage comes to an end by—
Marriage Act, 1955 can be ordered by— (A) Talaq
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(B) Hiba-i-Muddat Q216. Who is the natural guardian of a Muslim
(C) Talaq-i-Tafweez female child?
(D) None of the above (A) Father
ANS: (B) (B) Mother
(C) Grandfather
Q209. A muslim woman need to observe iddat in (D) Grandmother
which of the following? ANS: (A)
(A) Muta marriage
(B) Irregular marriage Q217. Implied and contingent Talaq is not
(C) Valid marriage approved by—
(D) All of the above (A) Maliki
ANS: (D) (B) Shia
(C) Shafei
Q210. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 (D) All of the above
is based on the principles of which school of ANS: (B)
Muslim law?
(A) HanafiSchool Q218. A Muslim woman can seek divorece if the
(B) Shafei School husband is not traceable for a period of—
(C) Maliki School (A) 7 years
(D) Zaidi School (B) 5 years
ANS: (C) (C) 4 years
(D) 3 years
Q211. Khilwat of Sahida connotes— ANS: (C)
(A) Valid retirement
(B) apostasy Q219. Under the Muslim Woman (Protection of
(C) consent under compulsion Rights on Divorce) Act, the option to be
(D) option of puberty governed by the provision of S. 125 Cr. P.C. may
ANS: (A) be given by the parties—
(A) either jointly or separately
Q212. A dower debt is— (B) separately
(A) a secured debt (C) jointly
(B) an actionable claim (D) None of the above
(C) a preferential debt ANS: (A)
(D) a mere right to sue
ANS: (B) Q220. A Muslim divorced woman can apply
directly to the Wakf Board when there is no
Q213. Which of the following is of the legal relative to support her. This was held in which
consequences of divorce under Muslim Law? one of the following cases?
(A) The parties acquire the right to contract another (A) Yusuf V/s Sowramma
marriage (B) A.A. Abdullah V/s A.B. Mohmuna Syed Bhai
(B) Cohabitation becomes unlawful (C) Secretary, T.N. Wakf Board V/s Syed Fatima
(C) Mutual rights of inheritance ceases Nachi
(D) All of the above (D) Mohd. Ahmad Khan V/s Shah Bano Begum
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q214. When a Muslim mother loses her right of Q221. ‗M‘, the mother of a Muslim minor
Hizanat (custody)? daughter contracted her in marriage in the life
(A) By her apostasy time of the father who had become an apostate.
(B) By her misconduct The marriage is—
(C) By marrying within degree of prohibited (A) Bad in law
relationship (B) Valid
(D) All of the above (C) Void
ANS: (D) (D) Irregular
ANS: (C)
Q215. Among Muslims which school does not
mention minimum amount of dower? Q222. A marriage of a Mahomedan, who is of
(A) Hanafi sound mind and has attained puberty, is
(B) Maliki brought about without his consent. The
(C) Shafei marriage will be—
(D) None of the above (A) Valid
ANS: (C) (B) Irregular
(C) Unlawful
(D) Void
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ANS: (B) Q230. ‗Good faith‘ within the meaning of the
I.P.C., means—
Q223. The rules against perpetuity do not apply (A) an act done with due care and attention
to which of the following? (B) an actual belief that the act done is not contrary
(A) Movable properties to law
(B) Charities (C) an act in fact done honestly
(C) Immovable properties (D) an act done under bonafide belief
(D) All of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q231. Who prepared the first draft of Indian
Q224. The provision as to ‗exchange of money‘ Penal Code?
has been provided under which of the following (A) Canning
sections of T.P. Act? (B) Stephen
(A) Section 118 (C) Bentinck
(B) Section 119 (D) Macaulay
(C) Section 121 ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q232. In which of the following Sections of
I.P.C. ‗preparation‘ is punishable?
Q225. Persons competent to transfer a property (A) Sections 121, 125, 398
have been defined under which of the following (B) Sections 122, 125, 399
sections of the T.P. Act? (C) Sections 122, 126, 399
(A) Section 6 (D) Sections 121, 126, 398
(B) Section 7 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 8
(D) Section 9 Q233. Mc Naughten case is related to which of
ANS: (B) the following Section of the I.P.C.?
(A) Section 83
Q226. Under which one of the following sections (B) Section 84
of the T.P. Act, English mortgage has been (C) Section 85
defined? (D) Section 86
(A) Section 58(e) ANS: (B)
(B) Section 58(d)
(C) Section 58(g) Q234. Which of the following case is known as
(D) Section 58(f) Nasik Conspiracy case?
ANS: (A) (A) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar‘s case
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak‘s case
Q227. Which one of the following group of (C) Madhu Limaye‘s case
sections deals with lease under T.P. Act? (D) None of the above
(A) Section 102 to 119 ANS: (A)
(B) Section 105 to 119
(C) Section 102 to 117 Q235. Which of the following is not correctly
(D) Section 105 to 117 matched under I.P.C.?
ANS: (D) (A) Furnishing false information—S. 177
(B) Giving false evidence—S. 191
Q228. In which one of the following cases Lord (C) Causing disapperance of evidence of offence —S.
Summer said, ―they also serve who stand and 205
wait.‖? (D) Counterfeiting coin—S. 231
(A) Mahboob Shah V/s Emperor ANS: (C)
(B) Inder Singh V/s Emperor
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor Q236. Which one of the following set of Section
(D) None of the above of I.P.C. provides for the right of private
ANS: (C) defence?
(A) Sections 107 to 120
Q229. ‗Local Law‘ mentioned under Section 42 (B) Sections 121 to 133
of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 means a law (C) Sections 76 to 105
applicable to— (D) Sections 96 to 106
(A) Whole of India ANS: (D)
(B) a particular part of India
(C) any part of India Q237. ‗A‘ having joint property with Z in a
(D) None of the above horse, intending thereby to cause wrongful loss
ANS: (B) to Z, shoots the horse. Under what section of
I.P.C. ‗A‘ shall be charged with?
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(A) Section 426 (C) Only Section 420 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 429 (D) None of the above
(C) Section 437 ANS: (A)
(D) Section 438
ANS: (B) Q245. Under which one of the following
Sections of I.P.C. rash and negligent driving of
Q238. To which one of the follwoing section of vehicle on a public way is an offence?
I.P.C., Hicklin rule is related to? (A) Section 278
(A) Section 292 (B) Section 279
(B) Section 291 (C) Section 273
(C) Section 290 (D) Section 280
(D) Section 294 ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q246. ‗Unlawful assembly‘ is defined in which of
Q239. ‗A‘ fires on a crowd for no reason. As a the following section of the I.P.C.?
result of which ‗B‘ dies. What offence has ‗A‘ (A) Section 34
committed? (B) Section 149
(A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder (C) Section 146
(B) Grievous hurt (D) None of the above
(C) Murder ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q247. Section 153-AA has been inserted in the
I.P.C. 1860, by which of the following Criminal
Q240. Which of the following is/are essential Law Amendment Act?
element/s of offence of grievous hurt? (A) Act of 2001
(A) Emasculation (B) Act of 2003
(B) Privation of any member or joint (C) Act of 2005
(C) Permanent disfiguration of head or face (D) Act of 2006
(D) All of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q248. ‗X‘ along with four other armed hoodlums
Q241. ‗A‘ voluntarily throws into a river a ring seizes the child of ‗Y‘ and threaten to kill him
belonging to ‗Z‘ with the intention to cause loss unless ‗Y‘ parts with his watch and diamond
to ‗Z‘, ‗A‘ has committed the offence of— ring. ‗X‘ has committed the offence of—
(A) theft (A) robbery
(B) robbery (B) dacoity
(C) cheating (C) attempt to murder
(D) mischief (D) theft
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q242. What should be the age of minor to Q249. In which one of the following cases
constitute the offence of kidnapping? Section 303 of I.P.C. declared unconstitutional?
(A) 16 years (A) Mithu V/s State of Punjab
(B) 18 years (B) Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab
(C) Below 16 years in case of male and below 18 (C) Jagdish V/s State of M.P.
years in case of female (D) None of the above
(D) Below 18 years in case of male and below 21 ANS: (A)
years in case of female
ANS: (C) Q250. A mixed sugar in B‘s food knowing it to
be arsenic. ‗B‘ did not take that food. What
Q243. Which one of the following is a case offence has ‗A‘ committed?
decided by Federal Court on S. 124 A of I.P.C.? (A) A has committed no offence
(A) Kedar Nath V/s State (B) A is guilty for assault
(B) Niharendu Dutt V/s Emperor (C) A is not guilty for assault
(C) Q. Empress V/s Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) A is guilty for attempt to murder
(D) Emperor V/s Sadashivanarayan ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q251. The offence of Section 361 of the I.P.C. is
Q244. To which of the following offences the basically against—
Apex Court judgement in Abhayanand Mishra (A) family
V/s State of Bihar is related to? (B) society
(A) Section 420 and 511 of I.P.C. (C) any person
(B) Only Section 511 of I.P.C. (D) lawful guardian
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ANS: (D) (C) Only III
(D) Both II and III
Q252. ‗A‘ has consensual sexual relation wih ‗Z‘s ANS: (D)
wife. She gives to ‗A‘ a valuable property which
‗A‘ knows to belong to her husband ‗Z‘ and she Q259. Which one of the following sections of the
has no authority from ‗Z‘ to give. ‗A‘ takes the Cr.P.C. provides that a person once convicted or
property dishonestly. Which one of the following acquitted shall not be tried again for the same
offences has been committed by ‗A‘? offence?
(A) Criminal breach of trust (A) Section 303
(B) Theft and cirminal breach of trust (B) Section 20(3)
(C) Theft (C) Section 300(1)
(D) Criminal misappropriation (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q253. Which of the following is not correctly Q260. Who among the following may withdraw
matched? prosecution of any person at any time before
(A) Inquiry—Section 2(g) the judgement is pronounced?
(B) Judicial proceedings—Section 2(i) (A) The State Government
(C) Police Station—Section 2(o) (B) The Public Prosecutor
(D) Pleader—Section 2(q) (C) The aggrieved person
ANS: (C) (D) The Writer of F.I.R.
ANS: (B)
Q254. Classification of ‗compoundable and
noncompoundable offences‘ has been provided
under—
(A) Ist Schedule of Cr.P.C.
(B) 2nd Schedule of Cr.P.C.
Q261. Which one of the following Sections of Cr.
(C) Section 320 of Cr.P.C.
P.C. provides free legal aid to the accused?
(D) Section 321 of Cr.P.C.
(A) S. 304
ANS: (C)
(B) S. 306
(C) S. 301
Q255. Section 25A was inserted in Cr. P.C. by
(D) S. 302
which of the following Amendment Act?
ANS: (A)
(A) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2008
(B) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2005
Q262. Under Cr.P.C., which of the following is
(C) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2009
correctly matched?
(D) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 1978
(A) Procedure where judges of Court of appeal are
ANS: (B)
equally divided—Section 392
(B) Finality of judgement and orders on appeal—
Q256. Which of the following is correct answer?
Section 394
I. Provisions of Cr.P.C. do not apply to the State
(C) Reference to the High Court —Section 396
of Jammu and Kashmir. II. All provisions of
(D) Arrested of accused in appeal from acquital—
Cr.P.C. do not apply to the State of Nagaland.
Section 391
Choose the correct answer—
ANS: (A)
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
Q263. An accused may apply for pleabargaining
(C) Both I and II are incorrect
where he has committed?
(D) Both I and II are correct
(A) an offence for which the punishment extends for
ANS: (D)
imprisonment exceeding seven years
(B) An offence which affects socioeconomic
Q257. Inquiry is conducted by—
condition of the country
(A) Magistrate only
(C) an offence against a woman
(B) Police officer only
(D) an offence of theft
(C) Session Court only
ANS: (D)
(D) Magistrate or court
ANS: (D)
Q264. Which one of the following group of
sections of Cr.P.C. deals with proclamation and
Q258. Which of the following is not a Criminal
attachment?
Court? I. Executive Magistrate II. Children‘s
(A) Sections 80 to 85
court under Juvenile justice Act, 2000 III.
(B) Sections 82 to 86
Panchayati Adalats
(C) Sections 82 to 90
(A) All of the above
(D) Sections 80 to 86
(B) Only II
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ANS: (B) (C) Section 55A
(D) Section 60A
Q265. Which one of the following sections of the ANS: (B)
Cr.P.C. provides as to security for good
behaviour from habitual offenders? Q272. Who of the following may order for
(A) Section 110 maintenance of wives, children and parents
(B) Section 109 under Cr.P.C. 1973?
(C) Section 108 (A) Only Executive Magistrate
(D) None of the above (B) Judicial Magistrate 2nd Class
ANS: (A) (C) Magistrate of the Ist Class
(D) All of the above
Q266. In which of the following cases a wife is ANS: (C)
not entitled to maintenance?
(A) If she is living in adultery Q273. Consider the following statement and
(B) If without sufficient reason refuses to live with choose the correct answer with the help of code
her husband given below— I. Investigation is conducted by
(C) If the parties are living separately by matual Police officer. II. Magistrate cannot interfere in
consent investigation. III. Investigation is a judicial
(D) All of the above proceeding. IV. Investigation is not a judicial
ANS: (D) proceeding. Codes:
(A) I and IV are correct
Q267. ‗Victim Compensation Scheme‘ has been (B) I, II and IV are correct
provided under Criminal Procedure Code by (C) II and IV are correct
which of the following amendment? (D) II, III and IV are correct
(A) Cr. P. Code (Amendment) Act, 2008 ANS: (B)
(B) Cr. P. Code (Amendment) Act, 2009
(C) Cr. P. Code (Amendment) Act, 2005 Q274. Under Cr.P.C. where two or more courts
(D) None of the above have taken congnizance of the same offence and
ANS: (B) question arises as to which of them ought to try
that offence, the question shall be decided— I.
Q268. Which one of the following section of by the Supreme Court II. If the Courts are
Cr.P.C. provides power of the High Court to subordinate to the same High Court by that
confirm sentence or annul conviction? High Court III. If the Courts are not subordinate
(A) Section 366 to the same High Court, by the High Court
(B) Section 367 within the local limits of whose appellate
(C) Section 369 criminal jurisdiction the proceedings were first
(D) Section 368 commenced. Choose the correct answer:
ANS: (D) (A) Only I is correct
(B) II and III are correct
Q269. The State Government may by (C) I, II and III all are correct
notification declare any city or town for the (D) I and III are correct
purposes of Cr. P.C. as a ‗Metropolitan‘, whose ANS: (B)
population—
(A) exceeds ten lakhs Q275. A High Court under the inherent powers
(B) below ten lakhs conferred under Section 482 of Cr.P.C. passes
(C) is five lakhs the following orders— I. It quashes the F.I.R. II.
(D) None of the above It quashes proceeding of case pending before a
ANS: (A) Ciriminal court. III. It expunges the derogatory
remarks against a member of subordinate court.
Q270. Which one of the following section of Cr. Having in view the validity of above order
P.C. provides public to give information of choose the correct answer given below—
certain offences to the Police Officer? (A) Only I is valid
(A) Section 38 (B) I and II are both valid
(B) Section 40 (C) I, II and III all are valid
(C) Section 39 (D) I and III are valid
(D) All of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q276. In which of the following cases it was
Q271. Which one of the following Section of held that a person has a right to protection
Cr.P.C. provides identification of arrested under Section 161(2) of Cr.P.C. against
person? question, the answer of which would have a
(A) Section 54 tendency to a criminal charge?
(B) Section 54A (A) Nandini Satpathy V/s P.L. Dani
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(B) Gian Singh V/s State
(C) Rupan Deol Bajaj V/s K.P.S. Gill Q284. Under C.P.C. the Court may not issue
(D) R.K. Dalmia V/s Delhi Administration commissions in the following matter—
ANS: (A) (A) to examine any person
(B) to examine accounts
Q277. Under which of the following sections of (C) to make a partition
the Cr.P.C. the magistrate shall dismiss the (D) for execution of a decree
complaint? ANS: (D)
(A) Section 202
(B) Section 201 Q285. Under C.P.C. which one of the following is
(C) Section 203 liable to attachment and sale in execution of a
(D) None of the above decree?
ANS: (C) (A) Necessary wearing-apparel
(B) Promissory Notes
Q278. Which one of the following Sections of (C) Tools of artisans
the C.P.C. deals with institutions of suits? (D) Books of accounts
(A) Section 29 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 13
(C) Section 27 Q286. Which section of the C.P.C. prohibits the
(D) Section 26 arrest or detention in the civil prison of a
ANS: (D) woman in execution of a decree for the payment
of money?
Q279. Which one of the following is NOT a suit (A) Section 55
of civil nature? (B) Section 56
(A) Suit relating to rights of worship (C) Section 57
(B) Suit involving purely religious rights (D) Section 58
(C) Suit for rent ANS: (B)
(D) Suit for rights to hereditary office
ANS: (B) Q287. Under C.P.C. a decree may be executed
by—
Q280. A residing in Dehradun, beats B in (A) Tehsildar
Lucknow. B may sue A under C.P.C.— (B) Collector
(A) Either in Lucknow or in Dehradun (C) District Judge
(B) Only in Lucknow (D) the court which passed it or by the Court to
(C) Only in Dehradun which is sent for execution
(D) Anywhere else ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q288. Does the pendency of a civil suit in a
Q281. The Sections in the Code of Civil foreign Court preclude the courts in India from
Procedure can be amended by— trying a suit founded on the same cause of
(A) the Parliament action?
(B) a High Court (A) Yes
(C) the Court hearing the suit (B) No
(D) the parties to the suit (C) Will depend on the nature of the suit
ANS: (A) (D) Will depend on the pecuniary valuation of the
suit
Q282. Inherent powers of the court can be ANS: (B)
exercised under C.P.C.—
(A) for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the Q289. ‗Mesne Profits‘ has been defined in which
process of the court of the following Sections of the C.P.C.?
(B) to help the plaintiff (A) Section 2(4)
(C) to help the defendant (B) Section 2(8)
(D) to grant interim relief (C) Section 2(12)
ANS: (A) (D) Section 2(14)
ANS: (C)
Q283. Under C.P.C. the provision of notice
before instituting a suit against the Government Q290. Which one of the following sections of the
is given in— Code of Civil Procedure provides for the trial in
(A) Section 180 Open Courts where public may have access?
(B) Section 6 (A) Section 153 A
(C) Section 80 (B) Section 153 B
(D) Section 21 (C) Section 153 C
ANS: (C) (D) Section 153 D
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ANS: (B) (C) Plaints
(D) interlocutory orders
Q291. Under which one of the following ANS: (D)
Sections of the C.P.C. the Court may ask parties
to a dispute to go for mediation? Q299. Rules relating to interpleader suit have
(A) Section 88 been provided in the C.P.C. under which of the
(B) Section 89 following orders?
(C) Section 87 (A) Order 50
(D) Section 86 A (B) Order 35
ANS: (B) (C) Order 55
(D) Order 40
Q292. By which one of the amendments of ANS: (B)
C.P.C. scope of summary trial was substantially
widened? Q300. In which of the following case Sir
(A) CPC (Amendment) Act, 1999 Lawrence Jenkins has observed that ―the rule of
(B) CPC (Amendment) Act, 2002 resjudicata, while founded on account of
(C) CPC (Amendment) Act, 1976 precedent, is directed by a wisdom which is for
(D) None of the above all times‖?
ANS: (C) (A) Lal Chand V/s Radha Kishan
(B) Sheopersan V/s Ramanand Singh
Q293. Under which provision of C.P.C. an (C) Sulochana Amma V/s Narayanan Nair
Ambassador can be sued? (D) Pandurang Ramchandra V/s Shantibai
(A) Section 86 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 88
(C) Section 88A Q301. What is the essence of pleadings?
(D) He cannot sued (A) Plead facts not law
ANS: (A) (B) Plead law not facts
(C) Plead facts and law
Q294. Morgan Stanley Mutual Fund V/s Kartik (D) All of the above
Das case related to which of the following? ANS: (A)
(A) Issuance of Commission
(B) Attachment before judgement Q302. The Bill of Evidence Act was prepared
(C) Interim injunction by—
(D) Affidavits (A) Fourth Law Commission
ANS: (C) (B) Sir Henry Maine
(C) Sir James Stephen
Q295. When a Court can reject a plaint? (D) None of the above
(A) Where plaintiff fails to comply with Rule 9 ANS: (C)
(B) Where suit is barred by law
(C) Where plaint is not in duplicate Q303. Rule of Res Gestae which means facts
(D) All of the above forming the part of the same transactions which
ANS: (D) is the facts in issue is discussed in—
(A) Section 6
Q296. Under C.P.C. find the incorrect match of (B) Section 7
the following— (C) Section 5
(A) Revenue Courts—Section 5 (D) Section 8
(B) Provincial Small Causes Courts— Section 7 ANS: (A)
(C) Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts— Section 9
(D) Presidency Small Causes Courts— Section 8 Q304. The principle of ‗res judicata‘ is provided
ANS: (C) in which of the following section of the Indian
Evidence Act?
Q297. Under Section 13 of CPC which of the (A) Section 140
following judgements shall not be conclusive? (B) Section 40
(A) Judgement not on merit (C) Section 160
(B) Judgement founded on breach of Indian law (D) Section 164
(C) Judgement against International law ANS: (B)
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D) Q305. The principle which preclude a person
from denying some statement previously made
Q298. Rules 6 to 10 of order 39 of C.P.C. deal by him is known as—
with— (A) Admission
(A) attachment of property (B) Confession
(B) arrest of persons (C) Res subjudice
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(D) Estoppel (B) Kashmira Singh V/s State of M.P. 1952 ACR
ANS: (D) 536
(C) Varendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor ILR
Q306. Which one of the following is correctly (1910) 37 Cal, 474
matched under the Indian Evidence Act? (D) Pushpa Devi Ramjatia V/s M.L. Wadhwa AIR
(A) Burden of proof—Section 101 1987 SC 1748
(B) Dowry Death—Section 122 ANS: (A)
(C) Dumb witness—Section 107
(D) Accomplice—Section 119 Q314. ‗H‘ says that ‗Y‘ told him that ‗A‘ killed
ANS: (A) ‗B‘. This is—
(A) Primary evidence
Q307. Rules relating to ‗identification of parade‘ (B) Best evidence
are contained in which of the following section (C) Hearsay evidence
of Indian Evidence Act? (D) Admission
(A) Section 9 ANS: (C)
(B) Section 19
(C) Section 29 Q315. ―An accomplice is a competent witness
(D) Section 39 against an accused‖ is provided in which of the
ANS: (A) following Section of Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Section 130
Q308. Section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act, (B) Section 131
1872 deals with— (C) Section 132
(A) Testamentary document (D) Section 133
(B) Non-Testamentary document ANS: (D)
(C) Personal document
(D) Public document Q316. Among the following which is not a public
ANS: (D) document?
(A) An unregistered family partition deed
Q309. Under which section of Evidence Act (B) A registered sale deed
legitimacy of a child born during the lawful (C) A decision of High Court
wedlock is presumed? (D) A decision of Civil Court
(A) Section 112 ANS: (A)
(B) Section 113
(C) Section 114 Q317. Which one of the following is not
(D) Section 115 privileged communication?
ANS: (A) (A) Matrimonial communication
(B) Paternal communication
Q310. Any question suggesting the answer is (C) Professional communication
called— (D) Official communication
(A) Oral question ANS: (B)
(B) Special question
(C) Leading question Q318. Under which one of the following
(D) Hearsay question Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, a witness
ANS: (C) under examination gets the right to refresh his
memory?
Q311. ‗Not proved‘ means— (A) Section 158
(A) It is not proved (B) Section 159
(B) It has been disproved (C) Section 160
(C) It is neither proved nor disproved (D) Section 162
(D) It is denied ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q319. Under which one of the following
Q312. ‗Proof‘ is the result of— Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the judge
(A) Inquiry determines as to admissibility of fact?
(B) Evidence (A) Section 54
(C) Investigation (B) Section 148
(D) Statement (C) Section 136
ANS: (B) (D) Section 23
ANS: (C)
Q313. ―A fact in personal knowledge of the
judge can not be taken in evidence.‖ In which Q320. The fact sought to be proved is called—
case this had been held? (A) Factum probana
(A) Har Prasad V/s Shiva Dayal (1876), 31A 259 (B) Factum probandum
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(C) Lex Fori Q327. A gives a field to B, reserving to himself,
(D) Lex Loci with B‘s assent, the right to take back the field
ANS: (B) in case B and his descendants die before A. B
dies without descendants in A‘s life time. Can
Q321. The affidavit given to the Court is— ‗A‘ take back the field?
(A) not an evidence (A) Yes
(B) an evidence (B) No
(C) merely a written statement (C) Condition is void
(D) a proof (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q322. Which one of the following section of the Q328. Every transfer of immovable property
Transfer of Property Act provides that made with intent to defeat or delay the
‗mereright to sue‘ can not be transferred? creditors of the transferor shall be—
(A) Section 5 (A) Voidable at the option of such creditors
(B) Section 6 (B) Not void
(C) Section 7 (C) Void
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q323. Which of the following are actionable Q329. In the light of provisions of the T.P. Act,
claims? I. A share in partnership. II. A decree. a minor—
III. Claim for arrears of rent. IV. Right to get (A) Can transfer a property
damages for breach of contract. (B) Cannot transfer a property
(A) Only I (C) Can accept transfer of property in his favour
(B) Only II (D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) Only IV ANS: (D)
(D) Only I and III
ANS: (D) Q330. ‗Redemption is the heart of mortgage‘
was observed by—
Q324. The test to decide, whether something (A) Lord Develin
attached to the earth has to be regarded as (B) Lord Davey
immovable or not, depends on any one of the (C) Lord Halsburry
following? (D) None of the above
(A) The degree or mode of annexation ANS: (C)
(B) Place of annexation
(C) The object of annexation Q331. In which of the following sections of T.P.
(D) Both (A) and (C) Act ‗transfer by ostensible owner‘ is provided—
ANS: (D) (A) Section 39
(B) Section 41
Q325. A tranfers property to B in trust for C and (C) Section 40
directs B to give possession of the property to C (D) Section 42
when he attains the age of 25. C‘s interest in ANS: (B)
the property is—
(A) Contingent Q332. In which of the following sections of T.P.
(B) Vested Act, ‗transfer in favour of unborn person can be
(C) Neither contingent nor vested made?
(D) Public interest (A) Section 13
ANS: (B) (B) Section 12
(C) Section 14
Q326. If a property is tranferred with the (D) Section 15
conditions that an interest created therein for ANS: (A)
the benefit of the transferee shall cease on his
becoming insolvent, such a condition is void Q333. Which one of the following sections of the
under which of the following sections of the T.P. Act provides that when there is a conflict
Transfer of Property Act? between marshalling and contribution,
(A) Section 10 marshalling shall prevail?
(B) Section 11 (A) Section 80
(C) Section 12 (B) Section 81
(D) Section 13 (C) Section 82
ANS: (C) (D) Section 83
ANS: (C)
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Q334. Muhammad Afzal V/s Ghulam Kasim (C) judicial separation and divorce both
(1903) ILR Cal 843 is a leading case on which of (D) only divorce and not judicial separation
the following? ANS: (C)
(A) Rule against perpetuity
(B) Equity of redemption Q341. A Hindu wife can adopt a boy and a girl
(C) Doctrine of election simultaneously—
(D) Doctrine of holding over (A) without consent of husband
ANS: (C) (B) with the consent of husband
(C) cannot adopt
Q335. In case of transfer of property for the (D) None of the above
benefit of the public which of the following ANS: (B)
restrictions shall not apply?
(A) Rule against perpetuity Q342. Disposal of immovable property of a
(B) Transfer to take effect on failure or prior interest minor by his natural guardian is—
(C) Direction of accumulation (A) valid
(D) All of the above (B) void
ANS: (D) (C) voidable at the option of transferee
(D) voidable at the option of minor
Q336. Which of the following is not correctly ANS: (D)
matched under T.P. Act? I. Universal donee—S.
128 II. Doctrine of Part performance —S. 53A Q343. In India a decree of restitution of
III. Marshalling by subsequent purchaser— S. 65 conjugal rights can be executed by—
IV. Mortgagee‘s right to forclosure or sale—S. 67 (A) attachment of the property of respondent
Choose the right answer— (B) arrest of the respondent
(A) Only I (C) attachment of property and arrest of
(B) Both I and II respondent, both
(C) Only III (D) either attachment of property or by arrest of
(D) Both III and IV respondent and fine
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q337. The following leading cases are related to Q344. Bigamous marriage under the Hindu
which of the following subjects? I. Gopal V/s Marriage Act, 1955 is—
Parsottam II. Santely V/s Wilde III. Kedar Lal (A) Valid
V/s Hari Lal IV. Ali Hussain V/s Nilla Kundan (B) Void
Choose the correct answer: (C) Voidable
(A) Lease (D) Irregular
(B) Gift ANS: (B)
(C) Mortgage
(D) None of the above Q345. Punishment for violation of condition as
ANS: (C) to age as provided under Section 5 (III) of the
Hindu Marriage Act, 1956 has been provided
Q338. Under the Constituion of India all aspects under which of the following section of the
of family law are provided in the— Hindu Marriage Act, 1956?
(A) Union List (A) Section 18(b)
(B) State List (B) Section 17
(C) Concurrent List (C) Section 18(a)
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q339. A marriage under Hindu Law between Q346. Hanuman Prasad V/s Mst. Babooee
Sapindas parties shall be valid— Mumraj case is related to which of the
(A) If the custom or usage governing each of them following?
permits (A) Adoption
(B) If the custom or usage governing any of them (B) Guardianship
permits (C) Marriage
(C) Either A and B (D) Maintenance
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) ANS: (C)
ANS: (A)
Q347. A Hindu husband converting to Islam and
Q340. Adultery is a ground under Hindu marrying again will be guilty of bigamy. It was
Marriage Act, 1955 for— held in which of the following case?
(A) judicial separation (A) Bahurao V/s State of Maharashtra
(B) divorce (B) Dr. A.N. Mukherji V/s State
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(C) Sarla Mudgal V/s Union of India (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) P.V. Venkatraman V/s State (A) is false, but (R) is true
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q348. Under Hindu law where the husband Q354. ‗A‘ picked up a match box belonging to
creates a condition in which the wife is ‗B‘ and lighted his cigarettee with it. ‗B‘ charged
compelled to leave the conjugal home and live ‗A‘ with the offence of theft of his match box. In
separately— these circumstances ‗A‘ can defend himself with
(A) the husband may sue for divorce the help of which one of the following maxims?
(B) the wife will be held guilty of desertion (A) Non compos mentis
(C) the marriage is irretrievably broken down (B) Dole Incapax
(D) the husband is guilty of constructive desertion
ANS: (D) (C) Deminimis non curat lex
(D) Ignorantia juris non excusat
Q349. An illegitimate minor child under Section ANS: (C)
20 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
is entitled to claim maintenance during his Q355. Match List-I with
minority from— List-II and select the correct answer by using
(A) Father the codes given below the lists— List-I
(B) Mother (a) Delivery of Property
(C) Grandfather (b) Taking of Property
(D) Both (A) and (B) (c) Entrustment of Property
ANS: (D) (d) Convertibility of Property innocently got to
one‘s own use
Q350. A Hindu father-in-law is bound to List-II
maintain widow daughter-in-law if— 1. Criminal Breach of Trust
(A) She is having no property or income 2. Criminal Misappropriation of Property
(B) She is unable to obtain maintenance out of 3. Theft
estate of deceased husband 4. Extortion Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) she cannot obtain maintenance from children (A) 3 4 1 2
(D) All of the above (B) 4 3 1 2
ANS: (D) (C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Q351. Which offence is constituted under ANS: (B)
Section 366-A of Indian Penal Code?
(A) Kidnapping Q356. Which one of the following is not a mode
(B) Kidnapping for begging of abetment under the Indian Penal Code?
(C) Procuration of minor girl (A) Attempt
(D) Importing of girl from Jammu and Kashmir (B) Instigation
State (C) Aiding
ANS: (C) (D) Conspiracy
ANS: (A)
Q352. Point out the statement which is wrong.
(A) International destruction of property for causing Q357. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
wrongful loss to any person is ‗mischief‘ no women shall be arrested and detained in civil
(B) Intentionally putting any person in fear of injury prison in the matter regarding to the decree
and thereby dishonestly inducting him to deliver relates to—
any property is ‗extortion‘ (A) family disputes
(C) Five or more persons conjointly committing (B) matrimonial disputes
robbery amounts to ‗dacoity‘ (C) legitimacy of children disputes
(D) Two or more persons quarrelling anywhere (D) payment of money disputes
commit ‗affray‘ ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q358. Point out the incorrect statement—
Q353. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a (A) A member of Parliament is not entitled to
human being by another human being. Reason exemption from personal appearance in a court
(R): Homicide is always unlawful. Give the (B) A judicial officer may be arrested under a civil
correct answer from the codes given below— process at any time except when he is going to,
Codes: presiding in or returning from his court
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (C) An original suit may be filed in the High Court
explanation of (A) on the ground of pecuniary jurisdiction
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct (D) The High Court cannot vary or reverse in its
explanation of (A) revisional jurisdiction any decree or order against
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which an appeal lies either to the High Court or to (D) 1 and 4 are incorrect
any court subordinate thereto ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q363. Under Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
Q359. Match List-I with which one of the following is not exempted from
List-II and select the correct answer by using personal appearance in the court?
the code given below the lists— List-I (A) Ministers of Union
(a) Interpleader Suit (B) Ministers of State
(b) Letter of Request (C) Vice-President of India
(c) Precepts (D) Chairman of Public Service Commission
(d) Power to order discovery ANS: (D)
List-II (Sections of C. P. C.)
1. Section 46 Q364. Inherent powers conferred under Section
2. Section 88 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, may
3. Section 30 be exercised by the—
4. Section 77 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Supreme Court only
(A) 4 3 1 2 (B) High Court only
(B) 2 4 1 3 (C) District Court only
(C) 3 2 4 1 (D) Supreme Court, High Court, District Court as
(D) 2 1 3 4 well as by any Civil Court
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q360. Where a compromise was arrived between Q365. ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ sue ‗C‘ for recovery of 1,000.
parties to a suit by playing fraud, ‗C‘ has a debt due to him by ‗A‘ alone. Here ‗C‘
misrepresentation or mistake and a decree was can—
passed with the consent of the parties, then the (A) set off the debt against ‗B‘
suffering party may select which one of the (B) set off the debt against ‗A‘
following alternatives for setting aside such (C) set off the debt against ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ both
decree? (D) cannot set off a debt due to him by ‗A‘ alone
(A) Through appeal ANS: (D)
(B) Through revision
(C) Through review Q366. The term ‗prescribed‘ under Section 2(16)
(D) Through a second suit of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means—
ANS: (D) (A) prescribed by court
(B) prescribed by society
Q361. The documents on which the plaintiff (C) prescribed by rules
relies upon in support his claim shall be filed by (D) none of the above
him in the court. ANS: (C)
(A) along with the plaint
(B) within seven days from the date of order by the Q367. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
court for issue of summons for the first time provision for compensatory
(C) on the date fixed for forming of issues by the costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or
court defences, has been made under—
(D) at the time or before the hearing of the suit (A) Section 35 of the Code
ANS: (B) (B) Section 35 B of the code
(C) Section 35 A
Q362. Consider the following statements— (D) Section 34 of the Code
1. Where the High Court calls for the record of ANS: (C)
any case in its revisional jurisdiction, it
operates as a stay of such case before the Q368. ‗A‘ deposits a box of jewels with ‗B‘ as his
subordinate court. agent. ‗C‘ alleges that the jewels were
2. No second appeal shall lie in money suits wrongfully obtained by ‗A‘ from him and claims
where the value of the subject matter does not them from ‗B‘. Here ‗B‘.
exceed 25,000. 3. A plaintiff cannot be allowed (A) can institute interpleader suit against ‗A‘
by the court to sue afterwards for any relief (B) can institute interpleader suit against ‗C‘.
omitted by him in the suit (C) can institute interpleader suit against ‗A‘ and ‗C‘
4. A plaintiff may relinquish any portion of his both
claim in order to bring the suit within the (D) cannot institute an interpleader suit against ‗A‘
jurisdiction of any court. Of the above and ‗C‘
statements— ANS: (D)
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect
(B) 2 and 3 are incorrect Q369. Point out the wrong statement—
(C) 1 and 3 are incorrect
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(A) Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff Q374. What is the nature of a statement given
does not appear, when the suit is called for hearing, in NARCO Test?
the court shall dismiss the suit and the plaintiff (A) It is not an evidence
shall be barred from filing a fresh suit on the same (B) It is a scientific evidence
cause of action (C) It is an oral evidence
(B) No appeal may lie from an original decree (D) It is a circumstantial evidence
passed exparte. ANS: (C)
(C) The plaintiff may apply to the court which
passed an exparte decree against him, for an order Q375. Cognizance of the offence of defamation
to set it aside under Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code can
(D) No court shall set aside a decree passed exparte be taken—
merely on the ground that there has been an (A) on a police report
irregularity in the service of summon upon the (B) on a complaint made by an aggrieved person
defendant (C) suo motu by the court
ANS: (B) (D) all the above
ANS: (B)
Q370. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
objection to jurisdiction as to the place of suing Q376. Statement recorded by police officer
shall not be allowed by any Appellate or during investigation under Section 161 of the
Revisional Court. Unless such objection was Criminal Procedure Code can be used during
taken— trial—
(A) in the court of first instance (A) for contradicting the witness
(B) at the earliest possible opportunity (B) for corroborating the witness
(C) and there has been a consequent failure of (C) both for A and B
justice Neither A nor B
(D) when all the conditions of A, B and C are ANS: (A)
fullfilled
ANS: (D) Q377. Under the Criminal Procedure Code,
examination of witness in the absence of
Q371. The nature of Revision under Code of absconded accused can be done under—
Civil Procedure is that— (A) Section 299
(A) it operates as a stay of the proceedings (B) Section 321
(B) it operates as a stay of the suit (C) Section 224
(C) it operates as a stay of proceedings and suit (D) Section 301
both ANS: (A)
(D) it shall not operate as a stay of the suit or
proceedings except where such suit or proceedings Q378. Under Criminal Procedure Code, for an
is stayed by the High Court. offence punishable with fine only, the period of
ANS: (D) limitation is—
(A) three months
Q372. Justice J. S. Verma Committee Report of (B) six months
January 23, 2013 has recommended that (C) one year
nonpenetrative forms of sexual contact should (D) three year
be regarded as— ANS: (B)
(A) Rape
(B) Sexual Assault Q379. Section 183 of Criminal Procedure Code—
(C) An offence under Section 354 of Indian Penal (A) applies to voyage on the high seas
Code (B) does not apply to voyage on high seas
(D) Defamation (C) applies to voyage within India as well as on
ANS: (B) voyage on high seas
(D) has been declared unconstitutional
Q373. Who can issue a search warrant to search ANS: (B)
a Post Office?
(A) District Magistrate Q380. Under which section of Criminal
(B) Civil Court Procedure Code, provision for security for
(C) Revenue Court keeping the peace on conviction exists?
(D) High Court (A) Section 108
ANS: (A) (B) Section 106
(C) Section 109
(D) Section 111
ANS: (B)
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Q381. Under Section 41 of Criminal Procedure (B) Section 122
Code, the power of police to arrest a person— (C) Section 123
(A) covers all cases (D) Section 124
(B) is limited to cases of mere suspicion ANS: (C)
(C) is confined to cases of reasonable suspicion
(D) does not cover cases of Army deserters Q388. The Law of Evidence consists of which
ANS: (C) one of the following?
(A) Ordinary rules of reasoning
Q382. Under Section 27 of the Criminal (B) Legal rules of evidence
Procedure Code, the age of Juvenile is— (C) Rules of logic
(A) 16 years (D) All the above
(B) 18 years ANS: (B)
(C) 12 years
(D) None of the above Q389. ‗X‘ sues ‗Y‘ for damage done by a dog of
ANS: (A) ‗Y‘, which ‗Y‘ knew to be ferocious. The fact that
the dog had previously bitten ‗A‘, ‗B‘ and ‗C‘
Q383. Who writes evidence in a criminal trial? are—
(A) Any employee of the court (A) relevant
(B) Magistrate (B) irrelevant
(C) Advocate (C) inadmissible
(D) Expert (D) unreliable
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q384. Which section of Criminal Procedure Q390. Which one of the following sections of the
Code applies when the officer-incharge of a Indian Evidence Act makes relevant opinions as
Police Station receives information that a to existence of custom?
person has committed suicide, he will (A) Section 47
immediately report to the Executive (B) Section 48
Magistrate? (C) Section 49
(A) Section 169 (D) Section 50
(B) Section 173 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 174
(D) Section 178 Q391. Which one of the following does not come
ANS: (C) within the meaning of ‗Document‘ under the
Indian Evidence Act?
Q385. ‗A‘ is accused of an act which may (A) a writing
amount to theft or receiving stolen property or (B) a map
criminal breach of trust. ‗A‘ is only charged with (C) a telephonic talk
‗theft‘. It appears that he committed the offence (D) a word photographed
of criminal breach of trust ANS: (C)
(A) He may be convicted of criminal breach of trust,
though he was not charged with such offence Q392. ‗A‘ is tried for the murder of ‗B‘ by
(B) He may not be convicted of criminal breach of beating with a club with the intention of
trust because he was not charged with such offence causing his death. At ‗A‘s‘ trial which one of the
(C) He may neither be convicted of theft nor of following is not fact in issue?
criminal breach of trust (A) ‗A‘ s‘ beating ‗B‘ with the club
(D) He may only be convicted of theft because he (B) ‗A‘ s‘ conversation with ‗C‘
was charged with theft (C) ‗A‘ s‘ causing ‗B‘ s‘ death with the club
ANS: (A) (D) ‗A‘ s‘ intention to cause ‗B‘ s‘ death
ANS: (B)
Q386. While exercising the power of revision
under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the High Q393. The case Dudhnath Pandey V. State of U.
Court cannot— P. is related to—
(A) discharge the accused (A) Res Gestae
(B) acquit the accused (B) Plea of alibi
(C) grant bail to the accused (C) Admission
(D) convert a finding of acquittal into one of (D) Accomplice
conviction ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q394. Under which one of the following
Q387. In Indian Evidence Act, the maxim provisions of Indian Evidence Act the words
―SALUS POPULI SUPREMA LEX‖ is related to— ‗forming part of the same transaction‖ occurs?
(A) Section 121 (A) Section 5
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(B) Section 6
(C) Section 11 Q399. How many years old electronic record will
(D) Section 12 be deemed to be proved, if it is produced from
ANS: (B) any custody which the court in the particular
case considers proper?
Q395. Which one of the following is not a (A) Five years
secondary evidence? (B) Thirty years
(A) Copies made from the original by mechanical (C) Twenty years
process (D) Ten years
(B) Copies made from or compared with the original ANS: (A)
(C) Counterparts of documents
(D) Lithography Q400. Which one of the following sections of the
ANS: (D) Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders
relating to professional communications?
Q396. Point out the incorrect statement— (A) Section 128 only
(A) If a contract is contained in several letters, all (B) Sections 129 and 130
the letters in which it is contained, must be proved (C) Sections 133 and 134
(B) If a contract is contained in a bill of exchange, (D) Sections 126 and 127
the bill of exchange must be proved ANS: (D)
(C) If a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of three,
one only need be proved Q401. Section 7 of the Evidence Act does not
(D) If ‗A‘ gives ‗B‘ receipt for money paid by ‗B‘, oral include which one of the following?
evidence is offered of the payment, the evidence is (A) Occasion
not admissible (B) Cause
ANS: (D) (C) Purpose
(D) Effect
Q397. Match List-I with ANS: (C)
List-II and select the correct answer by using
the code given below the lists— List-I Q402. Match List-I with
(Provisions) List-II and select the correct answer by using
(a) Burden of Proof the code given below the lists— List-I
(b) On whom burden of proof lies (Provisions)
(c) Burden of Proof as to particular fact (a) Transfer in perpetuity
(d) Burden of proving fact especially within (b) When unborn person acquires vested interest
knowledge on transfer for his benefit
List-II (Sections of Evidence Act) (c) Transfer ‗ostensible owner‘
1. Section 106 (d) Transfer by co-owner
2. Section 103 List-II (Sections of Transfer of Property Act)
3. Section 102 1. Section 20
4. Section 101 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. Section 18
(A) 3 4 1 2 3. Section 44
(B) 2 3 4 1 4. Section 41 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) 4 3 2 1 (A) 1 2 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3
ANS: (C) (C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Q398. Select the incorrect statements using the ANS: (B)
code given below—
1. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to Q403. Which of the following case decided by
arbitration proceedings the Privy Council, relates to ‗fraudulent
2. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to transfer‘?
proceedings before a Commissioner appointed (A) Musahar Sahu V. Hakim Lal
by the court for recording evidence (B) Middleton V. Pollock
3. The Indian Evidence Act applies to affidavits (C) Union of India V. Rajeshwari & Co.
presented to courts (D) All the above
4. The Indian Evidence Act applies to judicial ANS: (A)
proceedings held before all kinds of military
courts Codes: Q404. Which of the following would be
(A) 2 and 3 are incorrect considered as ―transfer of property‖ under the
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect Transfer of Property Act? Select the answer by
(C) 1 and 3 are incorrect using the code given below—
(D) None of the above is incorrect 1. Grant of an easementary right of way over a
ANS: (B) piece of land
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2. Exchange of two things (C) licence
3. A family settlement (D) easement
4. Creation of charge on a immovable property ANS: (C)
by operation of law Codes:
(A) 1 and 3 Q409. Remedy of ‗Foreclosure‘ is available in
(B) 1, 2 and 3 which one of the following mortgages?
(C) 3 and 4 (A) Usufructuary mortgage
(D) 2 and 4 (B) Mortgage by conditional sale
ANS: (D) (C) Simple mortgage
(D) English mortgage
Q405. In which of the following mortgage, the ANS: (B)
mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the
mortgage money? Q410. Which of the following sections of
(A) Simple mortgage Transfer of Property Act contains exception to
(B) Usufructuary mortgage the maxim ―Nemo dat quad non habet‖?
(C) Anomalous mortgage (A) Sections 41 and 42
(D) Mortgage by assurance (B) Sections 43 and 44
ANS: (A) (C) Section 41 and 44
(D) Section 41 and 43
Q406. Which one of the following statement is ANS: (D)
not correct?
(A) ‗A‘ transfers a farm to ‗B‘ for her life and if she Q411. Which is a right of the Mortgagee and not
does not desert her husband to ‗C‘. ‗B‘ is entitled to that of a Mortgagor?
the farm during her life as if no condition had been (A) Right to foreclosure
insisted (B) Right to redeem
(B) ‗A‘ transfers 50,000 to ‗B‘ on condition that he (C) Right to recover possession
shall marry with the consent of ‗C‘, ‗D‘ and ‗E‘. ‗B‘ (D) Right to inspect documents
marries without the consent of ‗C‘, ‗D‘ and ‗E‘ but ANS: (A)
obtains their consent after marriage. The condition
shall be deemed to be fulfilled as it has been Q412. In case of gift, the donee dies before
substantially complied with acceptance, then
(C) A living person can transfer the property to (A) gift is valid
himself in present or in future (B) gift is void
(D) A vested interest is not defeated by the death of (C) gift is reduced
the transferee before he obtains possession (D) court has to decide
ANS: (B) ANS: (B)

Q407. Which of the following are ‗immovable Q413. In which one of the following sections of
property‘ under the Transfer of Property Act? Transfer of Property Act, an Amendment was
Select the correct answer by using the code made in the year 2002?
below— (A) Section 100
1. The equity of redemption (B) Section 106
2. A hut (C) Section 108
3. Mortgage debt (D) Section 110
4. Right to recover maintenance allowance ANS: (B)
charged on immovable property Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 Q414. Doctrine which requires that the
(B) 1, 2 and 3 transferor must deliver the subsequently
(C) 1 and 4 acquired property to the transferee who acted
(D) 2 only upon his false representation and did harm to
ANS: (B) himself by paying money for what he could not
get is called—
Q408. A Municipal Board, under a resolution (A) Rule against unjust enrichment
gave possession of a land to ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ with a (B) Implied consent
right to make construction on the said land (C) Feeding the grant by estoppel
subject to a condition that after termination of (D) Doctrine of substantial compliance
lease, the construction shall belong to the ANS: (C)
Municipal Board. ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ accepted the
condition and made construction on the land. Q415. ―For an acceptance mere mental resolve
The effect of resolution and acceptance was to to accept would not be sufficient; there must be
create— some external manifestation of the intent by
(A) lease speech, writing or other act.‖ It was held by
(B) usufructuary mortgage Supreme Court in—
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(A) Fazal Ilahi V. East Indian Railway Co. (A) losses caused by human conduct
(B) M. Nanjappa V. M. P. Muthuswamy (B) losses caused by accident
(C) Dugdale V. Lovering (C) losses caused by natural calamity
(D) Bhagwan Das V. Girdhari Lal & Co. (D) none of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q416. Which one of the following relation does Q422. ‗A‘ contract to sing for ‗B‘ at a concert
not come within the undue influence and gets 1,000 as advance. ‗A‘ is too ill to sing,
relationship? here—
(A) Doctor and Patient (A) ‗A‘ is bound to sing
(B) Customer and Shopkeeper (B) ‗A‘ is bound to compensate ‗B‘ for loss
(C) Lawyer and Client (C) ‗A‘ is bound to return the amount of advance
(D) Master and Servant (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q417. Difference between a contract and social Q423. ‗A‘ owes ‗B‘ 5,000. ‗A‘ pays to ‗B‘ 2,000
agreement is that of— and ‗B‘ accepts it in satisfaction of whole claim
(A) consideration on ‗A‘, here—
(B) intention to create legal relationship (A) whole debt is discharged
(C) consensus ad idem (B) no debt is discharged
(D) certainty of performance (C) a part of debt is discharged
ANS: (B) (D) none of the above
ANS: (A)
Q418. Match List-I with
List-II and select the answer by using the code Q424. A contingent contract dependent on the
given below the lists— List-I happening of future uncertain event can be
(a) Satyabrat Ghosh V. Manganeeram enforced when the event.
(b) Raj Rani V. Prem Adib (A) happens
(c) Entores Ltd. V. Miles for East Corporation (B) becomes impossible
(d) Harvey V. Facey (C) does not happen
List-II (D) none of the above
1. Invitation to Offer ANS: (A)
2. Communication of Acceptance
3. Minor‘s Agreement Q425. Point out the incorrect statement—
4. Doctrine of Frustration Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) A party who rightfully rescinds a contract is
(A) 1 2 3 4 entitled to compensation for his damages
(B) 4 3 1 2 (B) Where a person gives any bond for the
(C) 2 1 4 3 performance of any act in which the public is
(D) 4 3 2 1 interested, he shall be liable upon its breach, to pay
ANS: (D) the whole sum mentioned therein
(C) A party to the contract complaining of the
Q419. Assertion (A): A stranger to a contract can breach is not entitled to receive any compensation
not enforce the contract. Reason (R): He is not from the other party, if no actual damage or less is
party to contract and can not take benefit. proved to have been caused thereby
Codes: (D) The rule of compensation for loss or damages
(A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct caused due to the breach of a contract contained in
explanation of (A) Section 73 of the Contract Act, does not apply to
(A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct void agreements
explanation of (A) ANS: (C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) is false but (R) is true Q426. A promise to pay a debt barred by the law
ANS: (A) of limitation, has been made enforceable under
which section of the Indian Contract Act?
Q420. Damages allowed under Section 73 of the (A) Section 32
Indian Contract Act, are— (B) Section 47
(A) liquidated damages (C) Section 25
(B) compensatory damages (D) Section 8
(C) penal damages ANS: (C)
(D) none of the above
ANS: (B) Q427. Match List-I with
List-II and select the correct answer by using
Q421. Section 124 of Indian Contract Act, the code given below— List-I
includes under Contract of Indemnity the— (a) A Railway Time Table
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(b) Public Notification for Tender (D) International Labour Organization
(c) Picking up an article from shelves and ANS: (D)
putting it in his basket in a ‗Self-service Mall‘
(d) ‗A‘ says to ‗B‘ that if ‗A‘ s‘ offer is not Q433. Consider the following statements—
accepted, ‗B‘ should say ‗No‘ immediately. ‗B‘ 1. The General Assembly can request the
keeps silent International Court of Justice to give an
List-II advisory opinion on any legal question.
1. is invitation to offer 2. The General Assembly may authorize other
2. is a general offer organs and specialized agencies of the United
3. is acceptance of an offer Nations to seek such advise from International
4. it is not the acceptance of the offer Codes: Court of Justice.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 3. The Security Council has independent power
(A) 2 1 4 3 to seek advisory opinion on a legal question
(B) 1 2 3 4 from International Court of Justice. Of the
(C) 4 2 1 3 above statements—
(D) 3 4 2 1 (A) 1 and 2 are correct, but 3 is wrong
ANS: (A) (B) 1 and 3 are correct, but 2 is wrong
(C) 2 and 3 are correct, but 1 is wrong
Q428. Assertion (A): Agreement without (D) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
consideration is void. Reason (R): Consideration ANS: (D)
may be given by promisee or any other person.
Codes: Q434. What is the name of the Sixth Committee
(A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct of the United Nations General Assembly?
explanation of (A) (A) Legal Committee
(A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct (B) Economic and Financial Committee
explanation of (A) (C) Social, Humanitarian and Cultural Committee
(A) is true, but (R) is false (D) Disarmament and International Security
(A) is false but (R) is true Committee
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q429. Unlawful consideration and object have Q435. The year 2013 has been declared by the
been mentioned under which section of the United Nations General Assembly as—
Indian Contract Act, 1872? (A) International Year of Economic Cooperation
(A) Under Section 18 (B) International Year of Water Coopeeration
(B) Under Section 20 (C) Global Year of Social Co-operation
(C) Under Section 26 (D) Global Year of Cultural Co-operation
(D) Under Section 23 ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q436. United Nations Member States voted
Q430. On 27 January, 2012, G-4 made a joint overwhelmingly on 18 Nov., 2011 to readmit
bid focussing on expansion in both permanent which State as member of the United Nations
and non-permanent categories and improving Human Rights Council?
the working methods of the Security Council G- (A) Sudan
4 consisted of— (B) Congo
(A) India, Germany, Japan and Brazil (C) Libya
(B) India, Russia, Brazil and Egypt (D) Macedonia
(C) India, Indonesia, Japan and Brazil ANS: (C)
(D) Indonesia, Malaysia, Pakistan and Brazil
ANS: (A) Q437. The idea of Peace Building Commission
(PBC) was raised by—
Q431. Which country has conducted Nuclear (A) United States President Bush
Test in February 2013? (B) KofiAnnan
(A) Iran (C) Ban Ki Moon
(B) Israel (D) Shashi Tharoor
(C) South Korea ANS: (B)
(D) North Korea
ANS: (D) Q438. The name of the Italian vessel from
which the two Italian marine killed two Indian
Q432. Which one of the following is not a fisherman on Feb. 18, 2012 is—
principal organ of the United Nations? (A) Santa Maria
(A) International Court of Justice (B) Boz-Kourt
(B) Economic and Social Council (C) Lotus
(C) Trusteeship Council (D) Enrica Lexi
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ANS: (D) (C) Justice Arijit Pasayat
(D) Justice A. K. Patnaik
Q439. Which ‗World Bank Group‘ institution is ANS: (B)
not a ‗Specializied Agency‘ of the United
Nations? Q446. Which of the following State is not a
(A) International Development Association member of ‗SAARC‘?
(B) International Finance Corporation (A) Maldives
(C) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (B) Afghanistan
(D) International Bank for Reconstruction and (C) Myanmar
Development (D) Bhutan
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q440. On which date India became a member of Q447. The five year term for the Secretary
the United Nations? General of the United Nations has been fixed by
(A) On 24 October, 1945 the—
(B) On 30 October, 1945 (A) United Nations Charter
(C) On 26 June, 1945 (B) Resolution of United Nations General Assembly
(D) On 15 August, 1947 (C) Resolution of United Nations Security Council
ANS: (B) (D) On the basis of an advisory opinion of the
International Court of Justice
Q441. In which country the United Nations ANS: (B)
envoy Vijay Nambiar is working for peace in the
inter-communal violance between Rakhine Q448. The official language of the International
Buddhists and Rohingya Muslims? Court of Justice are—
(A) In Sri Lanka (A) French and English
(B) In Pakistan (B) Arabic and English
(C) In Bangladesh (C) German and English
(D) In Myanmar (D) Spanish and English
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q442. What is EURO-III? Q449. What was the ‗theme‘ for the world
(A) A European Currency Human Rights Day, 2012?
(B) A Third European Film Festival (A) All Human Rights for all
(C) A one of the Group of European Countries (B) Women‘s Right as Human Right
(D) A Pollution Control Scale (C) Inclusion and the right to participation in public
ANS: (D) life
(D) Human Rights as People‘s Rights
Q443. Who has been appointed as the next ANS: (C)
permanent representative of India to the United
Nations on Feb. 13, 2013? Q450. Does United Nations, as an organisation
(A) Ashok Kumar Mukherjee has the capacity to bring an international claim
(B) Hardeep Singh Puri against a State in the International Court of
(C) Dilip Joshi Justice?
(D) Shashi Tharoor (A) Yes, because United Nations is also deemed to
ANS: (A) be a State
(B) No, because International Court of Justice is
open to the State parties to the Statute only
(C) Yes, because United Nations has a legal
personality
(D) None of the above is correct
Q444. In which city is the United Nations
ANS: (B)
Human Rights Council is based?
(A) Paris
Q451. Pope Benedict XVI has announced his
(B) London
resignation on 11 Feb., 2013 because of—
(C) Geneva
(A) current international terrorism
(D) New York
(B) frequent violation of human rights
ANS: (C)
(C) poor health
(D) dwindling world economy
Q445. Which Judge of the Supreme Court of
ANS: (C)
India was elected as a Judge of the International
Court of Justice in April, 2012?
Q452. On 29 November, 2012, the United
(A) Justice Swatanter Kumar
Nations General Assembly voted to make
(B) Justice Dalbir Bhandari
Palestine as—
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(A) the 194th Member State of United Nations symbol of a political party, during election
(B) the Non-voting Member of the United Nations period—
(C) a Non-member Observer State (A) does not violate Article 25 of the Constitution
(D) a Parmanent Invitee to General Assembly (B) violates Article 25 of the Constitution
Meetings (C) offends Preamble of the Constitution
ANS: (C) (D) infringes Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
ANS: (A)
Q453. What is the number of States with
‗nuclear capabilities‘ as listed in Annexure 2 of Q460. The salaries and allowances of the Judges
C. T. B. T. (Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban of the Supreme Court of India are charged on—
Treaty)? (A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(A) 8 States (B) Ministry of Law
(B) 44 States (C) Contingency Fund of India
(C) 15 States (D) Consolidated Fund of India
(D) 35 States ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q461. While deciding cases of terrorists, which
Q454. Which original member of the United procedure is to be followed?
Nations was not represented at the (A) Procedure established by law
SanFrancisco Conference in 1945 and did not (B) Procedure established by the Constitution
therefore sign the United Nations Charter on 26 (C) Both (A) and (B) above
June, 1945? (D) None of the above
(A) India ANS: (C)
(B) Belarus
(C) Poland Q462. In which of the following cases the Five
(D) Ukraine Judges Constitutional Bench observed that the
ANS: (C) ‗doctrine of postponement‘ was aimed at
balancing the right of an accused to be
Q455. Tripartite charter is the outstanding presumed innocent till completion of trial with
feature of— the media‘s Right to Freedom of Expression?
(A) International Labour Organization (A) Ajai Kumar Parmar V s. State of Rajasthan
(B) International Civil Aviation Organization (B) Sahara India Real State Corporation Ltd. and
(C) International Criminal Court others. Vs. Securities and Exchange Board of India
(D) None of the above (C) R. Rajagopal Vs. State of Tamil Nadu
ANS: (A) (D) Ajay Goswami Vs. Union of India
ANS: (B)
Q456. In Bhanumati V. State of U. P. (2010), the
Supreme Court in interpreting Article 243 C of Q463. Which one of the following is not the way
the Constitution applied the— of Termination of Citizenship?
(A) Doctrine of Colourable legislation (A) By renunciation
(B) Doctrine of Silence (B) By acquisition
(C) Doctrine of Pith and Substance (C) The tour journey of another State for few
(D) Doctrine of Basic features months
ANS: (B) (D) By deprivation
ANS: (C)
Q457. P. A. Sangma V. Pranab Mukherjee (2013)
case was decided by the Supreme Court— Q464. ―It shall be the duty of every citizen of
(A) unanimously India, who is a parent or guardian to provide
(B) by a majority of 3: 2 opportunities for education to his children or as
(C) by a majority of 6: 1 the case may be; ward between the age of six
(D) by a majority of 4: 1 and fourteen years.‖ By which Constitutional
ANS: (B) Amendment Act, this duty included?
(A) By 42nd Amendment
Q458. In which list is the subject ‗Pilgrimages (B) By 44th Amendment
Places outside India‘ enumerated? (C) By 86th Amendment
(A) Union List (D) By 92nd Amendment
(B) State List ANS: (C)
(C) Concurrent List
(D) None of the above Q465. Which one of the following is not
ANS: (A) included in Article 21 of the Constitution of
India?
Q459. Order of the Election Commission to (A) Right to Die
cover statutes of elephants being election (B) Right to Life
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(C) Right to Livelihood 3. M. R. Balaji V. State of Mysore
(D) Right to Dignity 4. A. I. I. M. S. Students‘ Union V. A. I. I. M. S.
ANS: (A) Codes:
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4
Q466. Which one of the following does not apply (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
to the term of office of Governor? (C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(A) The Governor shall hold the office during the (D) 2, 1, 4, 3
pleasure of the President ANS: (A)
(B) Minimum age for the post of Governor shall be
thirty-two year Q472. The binding force behind the Directive
(C) The Governor may resign by handwritten signed Principles of State Policy is—
addressed to the President (A) Public Opinion
(D) The term of Governor shall be five years (B) Government
ANS: (B) (C) Constitution
(D) Administration
Q467. In which of the following case the ANS: (A)
Supreme Court called Article 22 of the
Constitution as ―Ugly provision of the Q473. ‗Prorogation‘ means—
Constitution‖? (A) Inviting the Members of Parliament
(A) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India (B) Asking Speaker to hold Session of Lok Sabha
(B) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala (C) Dissolution of Lok Sabha
(C) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India (D) Termination of Session
(D) A. K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q474. Which one of the following statement is
Q468. The person associated with PIL is— not correct?
(A) Justice Bhagawati (A) No mandamus can be issued to enforce an Act
(B) Justice R. N. Mishra which has been passed by the Legislature
(C) Justice Venkitachelliah (B) Court can not issue any direction to the
(D) None of the above Legislature to make any particular kind of
ANS: (A) enactment
(C) Supreme Court may give a direction for
Q469. In which of the following decisions of the amending an Act
Supreme Court of India, a Seven Judges Bench (D) Under the Constitutional Scheme, Parliament
explained the concept of Public Interest and the States Legislatures exercise sovereign
Litigation? powers to enact law
(A) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha Vs. Abdullah ANS: (C)
(B) Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh Vs.
Union of India Q475. In which provision of the Constitution of
(C) S. P. Gupta Vs. Union of India India is incorporated the ―principle of collective
(D) Neeraj Chaudhary Vs. State of U. P. responsibility‖ of the Council of Ministers?
ANS: (C) (A) Article 75(3)
(B) Article 75(1)
Q470. In which of the following decisions, the (C) Article 171(4)
Supreme Court observed that ―mercy petitions (D) Article 118(4)
filed under Articles 72 and 161 should be ANS: (A)
disposed of within a period of three months
from the date when it is received, as unwanted Q476. Discrimination by law in the marriageable
delays tend to shake the confidence in the age of a boy (21 years) and a girl (18 years)—
system of justice‖? (A) offends Article 14 of the Constitution
(A) Kuljeet Singh V. Lt. Governor of Delhi (B) does not offend Article 14 of the Constitution
(B) Maru Ram V. Union of India (C) is against Rule of Law
(C) Sher Singh V. State of Punjab (D) violates Human Right
(D) Kehar Singh V. Union of India ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q477. Who said that ―law is not to be deduced
Q471. Mention the chronology of the following from the rule but the rule from the law‖?
judgements of the Supreme Court of India, (A) Paulus
starting from the earliest upto the latest case. (B) Gray
Use the code given below— (C) Ulpian
1. Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh V. (D) Salmond
Union of India ANS: (A)
2. Indra Sawhney V. Union of India
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Q478. ―The only right which any man can ANS: (A)
possess is the right always to do his duty‖, says:
(A) Ihering Q486. Which one of the following case is related
(B) Ehrlich to possession?
(C) Roscoe Pound (A) R. V. Chissers
(D) Duguit (B) Merry V. Green
ANS: (D) (C) R. V. Hudson
(D) Gallie V. Lei and others
Q479. Point out best response— According to
Austin, law has the following attributes— Q487. Which one of the following is not a legal
(A) Command, sovereign and enforceability person?
(B) Command, sovereign and sanction (A) Idol of Goddess Durga
(C) Command, sovereign and legal remedy (B) State of Kerala
(D) Command, sovereign and obedience by subject (C) A registered society
ANS: (B) (D) Mosque
ANS: (D)
Q480. Which one of the following jurists belongs
to ancient theories of natural law? Q488. Which one of the following is not an
(A) Acquinas element of legal right?
(B) Grotius (A) The subject i.e. holder of right
(C) Kohler (B) The object of right
(D) Socrates (C) The act or forbearance
ANS: (D) (D) Legal remedy
ANS: (D)
Q481. Which one of the following is not an
essential element of custom? Q489. Jurisprudence as a separate branch of
(A) Antiquity discipline was started by—
(B) Certainty (A) Hindu Scholars
(C) Peaceful enjoyment (B) Christian Community
(D) Inconsistency (C) Romans
ANS: (D) (D) Jews
ANS: (C)
Q482. Give correct response—
(A) The obiter dictum has binding force Q490. The ―Province and Function of Law‖
(B) Ratio decidendi has binding force named book was written by—
(C) Ratio decidendi and obiter dictum both have (A) Hart
binding force (B) Kelsen
(D) Neither ratio decidendi nor obiter dictum has (C) Pound
binding force (D) Julius Stone
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q483. Which one of the following is not a Q491. Time barred debt is a—
safeguard against delegated legislation? (A) Perfect Right
(A) Parliamentary control (B) Imperfect Right
(B) Judicial control (C) Right in rem
(C) Publication (D) None of the above
(D) Public control ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q492. Punishment provided for kidnapping for
Q484. Point out incorrect response— Ownership ransom in Indian Penal Code is—
is classified in the following ways— (A) upto seven years imprisonment
(A) Corporeal and Incorporeal ownership (B) life imprisonment only
(B) Mediate and Immediate ownership (C) death sentence or life imprisonment
(C) Sole and Co-ownership (D) ten years rigorous imprisonment
(D) Vested and Contingent ownership ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q493. Which one of the following pairs is
Q485. Who prefers to call Austin‘s Analytical correctly matched?
School as Imperative School? (A) Counterfeit — Section 28
(A) Allen (B) Valuable security — Section 29
(B) Paton (C) Document — Section 30
(C) Salmond (D) Omission — Section 31
(D) Holland ANS: (A)
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(b) Tabu Chetia V. State of Assam
Q494. In which one of the following offences (c) Vijayan V. State of Kerala
‗mens rea‘ is not an essential element? (d) State of U. P. V. Virendra Prasad
(A) Assault List-II
(B) Bigamy 1. Murder
(C) Defamation 2. Criminal conspiracy
(D) None of the above 3. Insanity
ANS: (B) 4. Mistake of fact Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
Q495. ‗A‘ handed over his watch to a (B) 1 3 4 2
watchsmith for repairing. In order to not pay (C) 4 3 2 1
the repairing charges ‗A‘ picked up his watch (D) 3 4 2 1
from the shop, when the watchsmith was not ANS: (C)
looking. In this case—
(A) ‗A‘ is guilty of criminal breach of trust Q500. Which one of the following statements is
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of cheating correct?
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of theft (A) In conspiracy, there is no distinction between
(D) ‗A‘ is not guilty of any offence because the principal and accessory
watch, he picked up was his own. However, he (B) In conspiracy principal and accessory are
should pay the repairing charges to watch-smith distinct
ANS: (C) (C) There has to be a distinction between principal
and accessory in all offences
Q496. Use of violence by a member of an (D) None of the above is correct.
assembly of five or more persons in furtherance ANS: (A)
of common object will constitute the offence
of— Q501. Under Indian Constitution, in
(A) Affray performance of his duties, Attorney-General for
(B) Assault India, shall have right of audience—
(C) Rioting (A) Only in Supreme Court
(D) Unlawful Assembly (B) Only in All the High Courts
ANS: (C) (C) In All Courts of India
(D) Only in Supreme Court and Tribunals
Q497. The phrase ―in furtherance of common established by Central Government
intention of all‖ used in Section 34 of Indian ANS: (C)
Penal Code, is—
(A) in the original draft Q502. Under Indian Constitution, Fundamental
(B) added by Amending Act of 1870 duties enshrined under Article 51 A does not
(C) not at all there includes the duty—
(D) added by Amending Act of 1986 (A) To uphold and protect sovereignty of India
ANS: (B) (B) To defend the country when called upon to do
so.
Q498. ‗A‘ meets a girl aged fifteen years in a (C) To value and preserve rich heritage of our
park. She tells him that she is sixteen years of composite culture
age and she is ill-treated at her house by her (D) To protect monuments, places and objects of
father and that she would be happy to be taken national importance
away from there. Thereafter ‗A‘ takes the girl to ANS: (D)
his house and allows her to remain there. In this
case— Q503. Which Article of Indian Constitution
(A) ‗A‘ has committed no offence as the girl has provides for reservation in matters of promotion
come with him with her own consent in services under the state in favour of
(B) ‗A‘ has committed no offence as the girl Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
misrepresented her age and ‗A‘ believed her (A) Article 16 (4-A)
matured and capable of consenting (B) Article 16 (4-B)
(C) ‗A‘ has committed the offence of kidnapping of (C) Article 16 (4)
minor from the lawful guardian (D) Article 15 (4)
(D) ‗A‘ has committed the offence of kidnapping and ANS: (A)
wrongful confinement
ANS: (C) Q504. Under Indian Constitution, the Supreme
Court may make rules for regulating the
Q499. Match List-I with practice and procedure of the Court with the
List-II and select the correct answer by using approval of—
the code given below the lists— List-I (A) Parliament
(a) Rex V. Levett (B) President
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(C) Government of India Q511. According to Sec. 54 of Transfer of
(D) None of the above Property Act; a contract for the sale of
ANS: (B) immovable property—
(A) Create any interest in the property
Q505. ―Indian National Anthem is a reflection of (B) Create charge on the property
the real India as a country—a confluence of (C) Confer title on the property
many religions, races, communities and (D) A contract that a sale of such property shall
geographical entities. It is a message of unity in take place on term settled between the parties Civil
diversity.‖ The above phrase of the Supreme Procedure Code, 1908
Court was taken from which of the following ANS: (D)
judgement?
(A) Sanjeev Bhatnagar Vs. Union of India Q512. Under Section-151 of Civil Procedure
(B) Union of India Vs. Naveen Jindal Code, inherent powers can be exercised by the—
(C) Sushanta Tagore Vs. Union of India (A) Supreme Court
(D) Aruna Roy Vs. Union of India (B) High Court
ANS: (A) (C) District Court
(D) Any Court
Q506. Right to vote is a— ANS: (D)
(A) Statutory right
(B) Constitutional right Q513. Under C.P.C. 1908, on death of either
(C) Fundamental right parties to the suit after conclusion of hearing
(D) Customary Right Transfer of Property Act and pronouncement of judgement, the suit—
ANS: (B) (A) Shall abate
(B) Shall not abate
Q507. Section 41 of the T. P. Act, 1882 is the (C) May abate with the permission of court
statutory application of the law of— (D) None of the above
(A) Waiver ANS: (B)
(B) Estoppel
(C) res judicata Q514. Under C.P.C. 1908, if the court finds at
(D) res subjudice any stage that it has no pecuniary jurisdiction
ANS: (B) with respect to the subject matter of the suit, it
will—
Q508. Under Transfer of Property Act, in the (A) dismiss the suit
absence of a Contract or local Law, Monthly (B) proceed with the suit
lease is terminable— (C) amend the suit
(A) By 15 days notice expiring with the end of a (D) return the suit
month of the tenancy ANS: (D)
(B) By One month‘s notice
(C) By Three month‘s notice to the opposite party Q515. Under C.P. Code, which of the following is
(D) By Sixty days notice not a decree?
ANS: (A) (A) Dismissal of suit in default
(B) Rejection of a plaint
Q509. Under Transfer of Property Act, which of (C) Dismissal of suit in default and Rejection of a
the following is not transferable? plaint Both
(A) Salary of a public officer after it has become (D) None of the above
payable ANS: (A)
(B) Right to receive offerings
(C) Right to receive verified compensation amount Q516. According to order 20 Rule 7 of civil
(D) Right to repurchase procedure code the decree shall bear the date
ANS: (A) of—
(A) The day on which the judgement was
Q510. Under Transfer of Property Act, in which pronounced
of the following matter, the doctrine of lis (B) The day on which the decree was made
pendens does not apply? (C) The day on which plaint was filed
(A) Court sales (D) The day on which final argument was heard
(B) Property included in the plaint by an ANS: (A)
amendment subsequent to sale
(C) Property belonging to a minor Q517. In a summary suit presented under order
(D) All of the above 37 Civil Procedure Code it is necessary for the
ANS: (B) defendant to appear before the court within how
many days of the service of the summon of
appearance?
(A) 10 days
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(B) 15 days ANS: (A)
(C) 30 days
(D) 2 Month Q524. Under Specific Relief Act, 1963, Specific
ANS: (A) Relief may be granted—
(A) For enforcing individual civil rights
Q518. Under C.P.C., which of the following is (B) For enforcing a Penal law
not a suit of a civil nature? (C) For enforcing both Civil law and a Penal law
(A) Suit for correcting the date of birth in the (D) For enforcing public rights
service record ANS: (A)
(B) Suit for declaration of the right to worship
(C) Suit for vindication of a mere dignity connected Q525. The declaration given U/S 34 of the
with an office Specific Relief Act is binding on whom?
(D) Suit for a religious office (A) Only on the parties to the Suit
ANS: (C) (B) On the persons claiming through parties to the
Suit
Q519. Under C.P.C., a plaint can be rejected; (C) Trustee of the trust which is party to the Suit
where the suit is instituted in a Court having— (D) All of the above
(A) no inherent jurisdiction ANS: (D)
(B) no pecuniary jurisdiction
(C) no territorial jurisdiction Q526. Which of the following contract cannot be
(D) all of the above Indian Contract Act specifically enforced as per the provisions of
ANS: (A) section 14 of the specific relief act?
(A) A contracts to marry B
Q520. Under Indian Contract Act, when does an (B) A contracts with B, that, in consideration of
agreement becomes a contract? 1000 to be paid to him by B, he will paint a picture
(A) It is enforceable by law for B
(B) It is between parties competent to contract (C) A, an author, contracts with B, A publisher, to
(C) It is by the free consent of parties complete a literary work
(D) All of the above (D) All of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q521. ‗A‘ agree with ‗B‘ to discover treasure by Q527. An order or decree passed in a suit
magic. Under Indian Contract Act, the presented u/s 6 of the Specific Relief Act is—
agreement is— (A) Appealable
(A) Void (B) Reviewable
(B) Illegal (C) Neither Appealable nor Reviewable
(C) Legal (D) Appealable and Reviewable Both Limitation Act,
(D) Valid agreement 1963
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q522. A sent his servant B to trace his lost Q528. Under Limitation Act 1963, in computing
nephew. When the servant had left ‗A‘ the period of limitation for any suit, the day
announced a reward of 501 to any one who from which such period is to be reckoned—
traces the boy. B found the boy and brought him (A) Shall be excluded
home. Then he came to know about the reward. (B) Shall be included
Under Indian Contract Act, can he claim the (C) May not be excluded
reward? (D) May be included
(A) Yes, because offer is open for all ANS: (A)
(B) Yes, after knowing the offer he could accept it
(C) No, because he did not know about the offer Q529. As per Section 5 of Limitation Act 1963,
when he found the missing boy prescribed period of limitation may not be
(D) No, because he is the servant of A extended in case of—
ANS: (C) (A) Any appeal
(B) Any application
Q523. A hires a carriage of B. The carriage is (C) An application under Order 21 of the Code of
unsafe, though B is not aware of it, and A is Civil Procedure
injured. Under Indian Contract Act, B is— (D) None of the above
(A) responsible to A for the injury ANS: (C)
(B) not responsible to A for the injury
(C) not responsible for A‘s injury because the injury Q530. Under Limitation Act 1963, the
was not caused by B prescribed period of limitation for suit for
(D) not responsible for A‘s injury because A should compensation for a malicious prosecution is—
have been alert himself Specific Relief Act, 1963 (A) one year
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(B) two years ANS: (A)
(C) three years
(D) five years Q537. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act,
ANS: (A) 1961, where a landlord has acquired any
accommodation by transfer, no suit for the
Q531. Law of Limitation ordinarily bars a eviction of tenant shall be maintainable on the
remedy, but does not extinguish a right.‘ Which ground of bonafide need for residence, unless a
of the following Section of the Limitation Act, period of…has elapsed from the date of the
1963, provides for exception to the said rule? acquisition.
(A) Section 5 (A) six months
(B) Section 9 (B) one year
(C) Section 25 (C) two years
(D) Section 27 M. P. Accommodation Control Act, (D) three years
1961 ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q538. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act,
Q532. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, in a suit for eviction, the tenant shall
1961, when the defence against eviction of the deposit in the Court or pay to the landlord the
tenant can be struck out? arrears of rent within which period from the
(A) On non payment of amount as per Section 13 service of writ of summons—
(B) When tenant is not personally present in the (A) fifteen days
court (C) one month
(C) When tenant has not filed his written (B) two months
submission within prescribed time (D) six months
(D) On furnishing false information in the ANS: (B)
application
ANS: (A) Q539. Under M. P. Accommodation Control Act,
1961, where shall the tenant file a complaint
Q533. Under which provision of M.P. when the landlord with holds the essential
Accommodation Control Act, 1961, penalties supply?
can be imposed on a landlord and tenant? (A) Sub Divisional Officer
(A) Section 42 (B) Collector
(B) Section 43 (C) Rent Controlling Authority
(C) Section 44 (D) Civil Court M. P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
(D) Section 45 ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q540. Under M. P. L. R. C., 1959, on all lands on
Q534. The Provisions of M. P. Accommodation which the assessment has not been made, the
Control Act applies to— assessment of land revenue shall be made by—
(A) Only Municipal corporation area (A) Tahsildar
(B) Only Municipal corporation and Nagar Palika (B) Sub Divisional Officer
area (C) Collector
(C) Only those areas as specified in the first (D) State government
schedule ANS: (C)
(D) Whole of Madhya Pradesh
ANS: (C) Q541. Under M.P.L.R,C., 1959, within how many
days can the non tribal Bhumiswami may apply
Q535. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act, for restoration of possession of his land from
1961, what is the maximum period for which where he has been illegally dispossessed?
standard rent shall be fixed for a tenancy? (A) 2 years
(A) Six month (B) 1 year
(B) One Year (C) 6 months
(C) Two Year (D) 3 months
(D) Three Year ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q542. Any dispute between the state
Q536. Which of the following is not a ‗member government and any person in respect of any
of the family‘ for the purpose of M.P. right under sec 57(1) of the M. P. Land Revenue
Accommodation Control Act, 1961? Code shall be decided by the—
(A) Married daughter (A) Sub divisional officer
(B) Major unmarried sister (B) Collector
(C) Brother‘s major unmarried daughter (C) Commissioner
(D) All of the above (D) State government
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ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q543. The offence under Section 250-B of the Q549. Under Indian Evidence Act, the evidence
M.P. Land Revenue Code, is— given by dog squad is—
(A) Non-cognizable and bailable offence (A) Not admissible
(B) Cognizable and non-bailable offence (B) Not admissible because dependent on the
(C) Cognizable and bailable offence canine inference
(D) Non-cognizable and non-bailable offence (C) Dogs cannot give evidence on oath
ANS: (B) (D) Admissible
ANS: (D)
Q544. Under M.P. L.R.C., 1959, which of the
following Revenue Officer is empowered, after Q550. If an accused voluntarily consents for
the closure of the revenue surveys and during brain mapping and narco-analysis, then such
the term of settlement, to correct any errors in information is relevant under which section of
the area of any holding due to mistake of Evidence Act?
arithmetical miscalculation? (A) Section 7
(A) Sub-Divisional Officer (B) Section 17
(B) Collector (C) Section 27
(C) Settlement Commissioner (D) Section 30
(D) Commissioner ANS: (C)
ANS: (A)
Q551. An, accused of murder, alleges that, by
Q545. A person who, at the time of coming into grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived
force of the M.P. Land Revenue Code. 1959, of the power of self-control. Under Indian
held a land as a pattedar tenant in the Vindhya Evidence Act, the burden of proof is on—
Pradesh region, shall be called— (A) Prosecution
(A) Bhumiswami (B) Accused
(B) Government lessee (C) Victim
(C) Occupancy tenant (D) None of the above
(D) Bonafide agriculturist ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q552. A prosecutes B for adultery with C, A‘s
Q546. Under M.P.L.R.C., 1959, which of the wife. B denies that C is A‘s wife, but the Court
following matter is not in exclusive jurisdiction convicts B of adultery. Afterwards C is
of revenue authorities? prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during A‘s
(A) Any claim to modify a decision determining lifetime. C says that she never was A‘s wife.
abadi made by a Settlement Officer or Collector Under Indian Evidence Act, the judgement
(B) The amount of Land Revenue assessed or against B is—
reassessed under this Code or any other enactment (A) Irrelevant
for the time being in force (B) Relevant
(C) Any claim against the State Government to have (C) Conclusive proof
any entry made in any land records or to have any (D) Taking effect of estoppel
such entry omitted or amended ANS: (A)
(D) Any dispute to which the State Government is
not a party relating to any right which is recorded Q553. A, agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B
in the record of rights for ― 1,000 or 1,500. To show which price was to
ANS: (D) be given, under Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Evidence can be given
Q547. Under which section of M.P.L.R.C (B) Evidence cannot be given
occupancy tenants defined? (C) Evidence can be given by the Court‘s permission
(A) Section 158 (D) Can be proved as secondary evidence
(B) Section 181 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 183
(D) Section 185 Q554. A sues B for 1000 and shows entries in
ANS: (D) his account-books showing B to be indebted to
him to this amount. Under Indian Evidence
Q548. Any right lawfully acquired by a person in Act—
any land shall be reported by the person u/s (A) The entries are relevant but are not sufficient,
109 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code to— without other evidence, to prove the debt.
(A) Patwari (B) The entries are sufficient, without other
(B) Tahsildar evidence, to prove the debt.
(C) Sub Divisional Officer (C) The entries are not relevant but are sufficient,
(D) Settlement Officer Indian Evidence Act, 1872 without other evidence, to prove the debt
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(D) The entries are neither relevant nor sufficient, ANS: (C)
to prove the debt
ANS: (A) Q561. A holds B down and fraudulently takes
B‘s cell phone from B‘s trouser without his
Q555. The term ‗Court‘, as defined in the Indian consent. Under Indian Penal Code, A commits
Evidence Act, 1872, does not include— the offence of—
(A) Presiding Officer of a Labour Court (A) robbery
(B) Tahsildar (B) extortion
(C) Arbitrator (C) dacoity
(D) Commissioner appointed by a Civil Court Indian (D) criminal misappropriation
Penal Code, 1860 ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q562. A obtains a decree against B for a sum
Q556. Which section of IPC is based on the not due. It may be an offence under I.P.C. if ‗A‘
maxim ―de minimis non curat lex‖ (the law has done so—
takes no account of trifles)? (A) negligently
(A) Section 91 (B) fraudulently
(B) Section 92 (C) in good faith
(C) Section 94 (D) None of the above
(D) Section 95 ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q563. Under I.P.C., sexual intercourse by a man
Q557. Under which provision of the IPC with a woman who is not his wife with her
appropriate Government may commute the consent is a rape, if she is below the age of—
punishment of imprisonment for life? (A) 16 years
(A) Section 52 (B) 17 years
(B) Section 53 (C) 18 years
(C) Section 54 (D) 19 years Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(D) Section 55 ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q564. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973,
Q558. According to Indian Penal Code, taking who empowers the Judicial Magistrate First
property dishonestly from the dead body Class for summary trails?
(A) Does not amount any offence (A) The State Government
(B) Amount to the offence of theft (B) The High Court
(C) Amount to the offence of Criminal (C) The Sessions Court
misappropriation (D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) Amount to the offence of criminal breach of ANS: (B)
trust
ANS: (C) Q565. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973,
who shall record the information of rape being
Q559. According to Indian Penal Code, Any man given by a rape victim?
who monitors the use by a woman of the (A) Officer incharge of the police station
internet, email or any other form of electronic (B) Deputy Superintendent of Police
communication commits the offence of— (C) Officer not below the rank of a Sub Inspector
(A) Voyeurism (D) Woman Police Officer or any Woman Officer
(B) Stalking ANS: (D)
(C) Watching
(D) Searching Q566. Who can record statement and confession
ANS: (B) U/S 164 of the Cr. P.C.?
(A) Police Officers
(B) Judicial Magistrate
(C) Executive Magistrate
(D) Investigating Officer
ANS: (B)
Q560. Under Indian Penal Code, the
imprisonment, which the Court imposes in
Q567. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, a
default of payment of fine, may be of the
magistrate can commit a case to Court of
following description—
Session which is not exclusively triable by the
(A) only simple
Court of Session if it appears to him that the
(B) rigorous
case is such that—
(C) of either description
(A) Which could not be adequately punished by him
(D) depends on the quantum of fine
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(B) Some question of law of unusual difficulty is (C) time of acceptance
likely to arise (D) order of endorsements
(C) He has no jurisdiction to try the case ANS: (A)
(D) The case is one which ought to be tried by the
court of session Q574. The maximum amount of fine which can
ANS: (D) be imposed u/s 138 of Negotiable Instrument
Act is—
Q568. Under Criminal Procedure Code, when the (A) Ten thousand rupees
inquiry or trial relates to an offence u/s 376 to (B) One lakh rupees
376 D of the Indian Penal Code within which (C) Equal to the cheque‘s amount
period the inquiry or trial shall as far as possible (D) Twice of the cheque‘s amount
be completed from the date of filling of the ANS: (D)
charge sheet?
(A) One month Q575. Under Negotiable Instrument Act 1881,
(B) Two months how many times, a holder of a cheque can
(C) Three months present it before a bank during the period of its
(D) Sixth months validity?
ANS: (B) (A) Only once
(B) Twice
Q569. Under Cr. P.C., a Magistrate First Class (C) Thrice
may order to make a monthly allowance for the (D) Any number of times
maintenance at the monthly rate of— ANS: (D)
(A) five hundred rupees
(B) three thousand rupees Q576. As per section 2(12) of CPC, ‗mesne
(C) five thousand rupees profits‘ of property are profits received by a
(D) as Magistrate think fit person in—
ANS: (D) (A) Unlawful possession of the property
(B) Wrongful possession of the property
Q570. Inherent power under section 482 of the (C) Lawful possession of the property
Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 can be (D) Effective possession of the property
exercised by— ANS: (B)
(A) Sessions Court
(B) High Court Q577. A decree is preliminary—
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate (A) When it is issued in the preliminary stages of
(D) Any Judicial Magistrate the suit
ANS: (B) (B) When further proceedings have to be taken or
the suit to be completely disposed of
Q571. When may an accomplice be tendered (C) When it deals with some preliminary issues
pardon under Section 306 of Criminal Procedure (D) None of the above
Code? ANS: (B)
(A) Only at the stage of investigation
(B) Only at the stage of enquiry Q578. That a petition dismissed under Article
(C) Only at the stage of trail 226 would operate as res judicata so as to bar a
(D) At any stage of enquiry of investigation or the similar petition in the Supreme Court under
trail Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 Article 32 of the Constitution was held in the
ANS: (D) case of—
(A) Daryao Vs. State of U.P.
Q572. To Constitute an offence under section (B) Arjun Singh Vs. State of M. P.
138, Negotiable Instrument Act, within how (C) Sudhir Chandra Vs. State of W.B.
many days the cheque should be presented to (D) None of the above
the bank from the date on which it is drawn? ANS: (A)
(A) No limit
(B) 1 Month Q579. Which of the following is true?
(C) 3 Months (A) The pendency of suit in a foreign court
(D) 6 Months or within the period of its validity precludes the courts in India from a trying a similar
ANS: (D) suit
(B) The pendency of a suit in a foreign court
Q573. Under Section 118 of Negotiable precludes the courts in India from trying a similar
Instrument Act 1881, what presumption shall suit provided the suit is founded on the same cause
not be made? of action
(A) the holder of a cheque received the cheque for (C) The pendency of a suit in a foreign court does
the discharge of any debt or other liability not preclude the courts in India from trying similar
(B) consideration
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suit even if it is founded on the same cause of Q586. The stipulation that in a suit by the
action Central Government, the authority to be named
(D) None of the above as plaintiff shall be ‗The Union of India‘ has
ANS: (C) been provided for in Section—
(A) 78
Q580. ―Any relief claimed in the plaint, which is (B) 79
not expressly granted by the decree, shall, for (C) 79A
the purposes of this section, be deemed to have (D) 77
been refused.‖ This provision is incorporated ANS: (B)
in—
(A) Section 11, Explanation II Q587. Which of the following is true?
(B) Section 11, Explanation III (A) Alien enemies residing in Indian can never sue
(C) Section 11, Explanation IV (B) Alien enemies residing in India may sue with
(D) Section 11, Explanation V the permission of the Central Government
ANS: (D) (C) Alien enemies residing in India may sue with
the permission of the State Government in whose
Q581. The general power to transfer suits under jurisdiction they are residing
section 24 has been granted to— (D) Alien enemies can sue in any court
(A) High Court ANS: (A)
(B) District Court
(C) Both (A) and (B) Q588. Under Section 89 of CPC, the court
(D) Supreme Court cannot make a reference for—
ANS: (C) (A) Arbitration
(B) Conciliation
Q582. Under Section 32 of CPC, the maximum (C) Negotiation
fine which can be imposed by the court for (D) Mediation
compelling the attendance of any person to ANS: (C)
whom a summons has been issued under
Section 30— Q589. No second appeal shall lie from any
(A) Two thousand rupees decree when the subject matter of the original
(B) Three thousand rupees suit is for recovery of money not exceeding—
(C) One thousand rupees (A) Fifteen thousand rupees
(D) Five thousand rupees (B) Twenty thousand rupees
ANS: (D) (C) Twenty-five thousand rupees
(D) Thirty thousand rupees
Q583. Precepts are issued under Section 46 of ANS: (C)
CPC for—
(A) Serving summons on persons residing beyond Q590. The authority to annul, alter or add to
local jurisdiction the rules in the First Schedule of the Code of
(B) Serving a warrant on the judgmentdebtor Civil Procedure rests with the—
(C) Attaching the property of the judgmentdebtor (A) High Court
(D) None of the above (B) State Government
ANS: (C) (C) Supreme Court with the previous approval of
rules by the Central Government
Q584. Under Section 58 of CPC, a person (D) High Court with the previous approval of rules
detained shall be released from the detention on by the State Government
the amount mentioned in the warrant of his ANS: (D)
detention being paid to—
(A) The officer appointed by the court Q591. Assault or use of criminal force otherwise
(B) The court than on grave provocation under Section 353 of
(C) The officer in charge of the civil prison the IPC is which kind of offence?
(D) None of the above (A) Bailable and Cognizable
ANS: (C) (B) Bailable and Non-cognizable
(C) Non-bailable and Cognizable
Q585. Which of the following property is not (D) Non-bailable and Non-cognizable
liable to be attached and sold in the execution ANS: (C)
of a decree?
(A) Money Q592. Attempt to commit suicide is triable by—
(B) Hundis (A) Court of Session
(C) Electricity (B) Magistrate of the first class
(D) None of the above (C) Any Magistrate
ANS: (C) (D) Executive Magistrate
ANS: (C)
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security for good behaviour from habitual
Q593. The definition of the ‗victim‘ was offenders within his local jurisdiction?
incorporated in the Code of Criminal Procedure (A) Judicial Magistrate First Class
by the Amendment Act of— (B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(A) 2009 (C) District Magistrate
(B) 2010 (D) Executive Magistrate
(C) 2011 ANS: (D)
(D) 2008
ANS: (D) Q599. Which of the following person cannot
claim maintenance under Section 125 of
Q594. The stipulation that all offences under Cr.P.C.?
Indian Penal Code would be tried according to (A) A legitimate child who after attaining majority
the provisions in Code of Criminal Procedure, is cannot maintain himself by reason of economic
contained in which Section? hardship
(A) 5 (B) An illegitimate child who after attaining majority
(B) 4 cannot maintain himself by reason of economic
(C) 3 hardship
(D) 6 (C) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (B) (D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q595. In relation to the commission of which of
the following offence, the general public does Q600. Which one of the following is not an act
not have a duty under Section 39 of Cr.P.C. to for the prevention of which and order cannot be
give information to the nearest Magistrate or made under Section 144 Cr. P.C.?
police officer? (A) Disturbance of the Public Tranquillity
(A) Criminal breach of trust by public servant (B) Annoyance to any person lawfully employed
(B) Kidnapping for ransom (C) Injury to any person lawfully employed
(C) Mischief by destroying a lighthouse (D) None of the above
(D) House-trespass in order to commit offence ANS: (D)
punishable with imprisonment
ANS: (B) Q601. Which of the following is a ground on
which a witness under Section 161(2) of Cr.P.C.
Q596. Which one of the following is not a may refuse to answer questions put by a police
necessary requirement for a proper procedure of officer?
arrest under Section 41B of Cr.P.C.? (A) Answers would have a tendency to expose him
(A) The police officer shall bear an accurate to a criminal charge
identification of his name (B) Answers would have a tendency to expose him
(B) The police officer shall bear a visible and clear to a penalty
identification of his name (C) Answers would have a tendency to expose him
(C) The police officer shall prepare a memorandum to a forfeiture
of arrest to be countersigned by the person arrested (D) All of the above
(D) The police officer shall inform the person ANS: (D)
arrested that he has the right of legal counsel
during interrogation Q602. Any court may alter or add to any charge
ANS: (D) any time before—
(A) The closing of arguments
Q597. Under Section 53A of Cr.P.C. when a (B) The judgement is written
person is arrested on the charge of committing (C) The judgement is pronounced
rape, the arrestee may be examined by a (D) None of the above
registered medical practitioner other than a ANS: (C)
registered medical practitioner employed in a
hospital run by the Government or by a local Q603. Chapter XXIA ofthe Cr.P.C.
authority when the later is not available within wasincorporated in the year—
a radius of sixteen kilometres from the place— (A) 2005
(A) Where the offence has been committed (B) 2006
(B) Where the arrest was made (C) 2004
(C) Where the nearest police station is situated (D) 2003
(D) Where the nearest court is situated ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q604. In case of plea Bargaining by the parties—
Q598. Which one of the following Magistrate is (A) No judgement may be delivered by the court
authorised under Section 110 Cr.P.C. to require (B) Judgement may be delivered in private to the
parties
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(C) Judgement shall be delivered in the open court (B) Rashness
(D) The bargain struck by the parties is to operate (C) Motive
as the Judgement (D) Ill-will
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q605. In which of the following cases it has Q612. Oral admission as to contents of
been held that presence of a lawyer at the time electronic records are relevant when—
of interrogation cannot be demanded as a (A) The party proposing to prove them shows that
matter of right? he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the
(A) Poolpandi and other Vs. Superintendent, same
Central Excise (B) The genuineness of the electronic record
(B) Senior Intelligence Officer Vs. Jugol Kishore produced is in question
Samra (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q613. Which one of the following has not been
Q606. The Information Technology Amendment mentioned as a ground under section 24
Act came into force in— rendering a confession by an accused person
(A) 2008 irrelevant?
(B) 2009 (A) Inducement
(C) 2007 (B) Promise
(D) 2010 (C) Deceit
ANS: (B) (D) Threat
ANS: (C)
Q607. Which of the following is not a ‗fact‘?
(A) Mental condition Q614. Section 32 of Evidence Act does not
(B) Relation of things speak of which of the following kind of persons?
(C) State of things (A) Person who is dead
(D) None of the above (B) Person who cannot be found
ANS: (D) (C) Person who is unwilling to give evidence
(D) Person who has become incapable of giving
Q608. Which one of the following has not been evidence
mentioned in the definition of ‗Documents‘ as ANS: (C)
the means by which any matter is expressed or
described upon any substance? Q615. Under Section 45 of Evidence Act, which
(A) Letters of the following have not been mentioned as
(B) Figures points on which opinion of experts is relevant?
(C) Symbols (A) Point of foreign law
(D) Marks (B) Point of art
ANS: (C) (C) Point of domestic law
(D) Point of science
Q609. ‗Res Gestae‘ literally means— ANS: (C)
(A) Things done
(B) Things spoken Q616. Under Section 57 of the Evidence Act,
(C) Same transaction the court is not bound to take judicial notice of
(D) Things then which of the following facts?
ANS: (C) (A) The existence of every state recognised by the
Government of India
Q610. The stipulation that facts which enable (B) The title of every state recognised by the
the court to determine the amount of damages Government of India
are relevant is incorporated in Section ……… of (C) The national flag of every state recognised by
Evidence Act. the Government of India
(A) 12 (D) The national emblem of every state recognised
(B) 10 by the Government of India
(C) 8 ANS: (D)
(D) 11
ANS: (A) Q617. The Best Evidence Rule in relation to
documentary evidence is incorporated in
Q611. Which of the following state of minds has section—
not been expressly mentioned in section 14 of (A) 61
the Indian Evidence Act? (B) 64
(A) Intention (C) 65
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(D) 66 (B) There can be further cross-examination after re-
ANS: (D) examination as per Section 137
(C) There can be further cross-examination after re-
Q618. Which one of the following is not a public examination as per Section 138
document? (D) There can be further cross-examination after re-
(A) Documents forming records of acts of tribunals examination as per Section 139
(B) Documents forming records of acts of public ANS: (C)
officers of India
(C) Documents forming records of acts of public Q625. Indecent and scandalous questions may
officers of a foreign country be forbidden by the court under—
(D) Public records kept of private documents (A) Section 149
ANS: (D) (B) Section 150
(C) Section 151
Q619. A person is presumed to be alive if it is (D) Section 152
shown that he was alive within ……… years. ANS: (C)
(A) fourteen
(B) twenty Q626. In relation to devolution of joint
(C) seven liabilities, as a general rule the Indian Contract
(D) thirty Act incorporates the principle of—
ANS: (D) (A) Survivorship
(B) Succession
Q620. The rule that once the terms of any (C) Both (A) and (B)
contract have been proved by documentary (D) None of the above
evidence, no evidence of any oral statement ANS: (A)
shall be admitted for contradicting such terms
has ……… provisos establishing variations to the Q627. An agreement enforceable by law at the
rule. instance of one party and not of other party
(A) 6 under Section 2(i) is called—
(B) 4 (A) A valid contract
(C) 3 (B) An illegal contract
(D) 7 (C) A void contract
ANS: (A) (D) A voidable contract
ANS: (D)
Q621. If a child is born within ……… days after
the dissolution of a valid marriage, it is a
conclusive proof of the legitimacy of the child.
(A) 270
(B) 275
Q628. Competency to contract relates to—
(C) 280
(A) Age of the parties
(D) 285
(B) Soundness of mind of the parties
ANS: (C)
(C) Both age and soundness of mind
(D) Intelligence of the parties
Q622. Which of the following does not figure in
ANS: (C)
section 115 while dealing with applying the
principle of Estoppel?
Q629. A general offer open for world at large can
(A) Conduct
be accepted—
(B) Act
(A) By sending a communication `of acceptance
(C) Omission
(B) By complying with the conditions of offer
(D) Declaration
(C) By tendering himself to comply the conditions of
ANS: (A)
offer
(D) None of the above
Q623. The provisions of Section 126 of the
ANS: (B)
Evidence Act dealing with confidentiality of
professional communication shall apply to—
Q630. A sub-agent is responsible to the
(A) Clerks of barristers
principal on which of the following grounds?
(B) Servants of pleaders
(A) Fraud or Negligence
(C) Interpreters of barristers
(B) Negligence or Deceit
(D) All of the above
(C) Wilful wrong or Fraud
ANS: (D)
(D) Wilful wrong or Negligence
ANS: (C)
Q624. Which of the following is true?
(A) There cannot be further cross-examination after
re-examination
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Q631. Which of the following Section of the (D) Prohibition
Indian Contract Act provides that the ANS: (B)
responsibility of finder of goods is similar to
that of a bailee? Q638. Which one of the following is a ground on
(A) 69 which the state can impose reasonable
(B) 70 restrictions on the right to move freely
(C) 71 throughout the territory of India?
(D) 72 (A) Security of the State
ANS: (C) (B) Decency
(C) Morality
Q632. Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief (D) Protecting the Interests of any Scheduled Tribe
Act, 1963, a person cannot sue for recovering ANS: (D)
the possession of immovable property—
(A) After six months from the date of dispossession Q639. As per Article 21A, the state shall provide
(B) After nine months from the date of free and compulsory education to all children of
dispossession the age of—
(C) After twelve months from the date of (A) Six to fourteen years
dispossession (B) Six to twelve years
(D) After twenty-four months from the date of (C) Six to ten years
dispossession (D) Six to eighteen years
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q633. Which one of the following is not a Q640. According to Article 50, the state shall
ground on which a reasonable restrictions on take steps to—
the right to freedom of speech and expression (A) Separate the judiciary from the executive in the
can be imposed? public services of the state
(A) Security of the State (B) Separate functioning of judiciary from executive
(B) Public Order (C) Separate the powers of judiciary from the
(C) Morality executive
(D) Public Policy (D) Separate the powers of judiciary from the
ANS: (D) legislature
ANS: (A)
Q634. Which of the following is included in the
definition of ‗law‘ as provided in Article 13? Q641. What is the minimum age to be eligible
(A) Bye-Law for becoming the President of India?
(B) Custom having the force of law (A) 35
(C) Usage having the force of law (B) 45
(D) All of the above (C) 55
ANS: (D) (D) 25
ANS: (A)
Q635. Which one of the following is a ground
which is not mentioned in both Articles 15 and Q642. When the President is to be impeached,
Article 16 on which the State cannot the charge shall be preferred by—
discriminate? (A) Either House of the Parliament
(A) Race (B) The Upper House of the Parliament
(B) Caste (C) The Lower House of the Parliament
(C) Residence (D) Both the Houses of the Parliament
(D) Place of Birth simultaneously
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q636. Practising untouchability is— Q643. What is the meaning of ‗lex loci‘?
(A) Violation of a constitutional right (A) Law of land
(B) A criminal offence (B) Sovereignty is essential for enacting laws
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Law of the land is supreme
(D) Violation of a legal right only (D) Crown has supreme authority
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q637. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Q644. The words ‗Socialist‘ and ‗Secular‘ were
Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata inserted in the Preamble by amendment of the
except— Constitution—
(A) Quo Warranto (A) 15th
(B) Habeas Corpus (B) 39th
(C) Certiorari (C) 42th
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(D) 44th Q651. Which of the following Section deal with
ANS: (C) an implied warranty in every contract of sale?
(A) 14(a)
Q645. As far as Armed Forces are concerned the (B) 14(b)
fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 (C) 15
and 19 of the Constitution are— (D) 16(2)
(A) Not available at all ANS: (B)
(B) Available to armed forces but not to other forces
(C) Available only at the discretion of the Chief of Q652. Which of the following rights of an
Army Staff unpaidseller can be exercised only when the
(D) Available only according to law made by buyer has become insolvent and not otherwise?
Parliament (A) Right of lien
ANS: (D) (B) Right of Re-sale
(C) Right of Stoppage in transit
Q646. The following are not included in the (D) Right to Sue
right to personal liberty— ANS: (C)
(A) Right to go abroad
(B) Right to human dignity Q653. As per Section 41, the buyer must have
(C) Right to undertrial prisoners not to be detained the reasonable opportunity to examine the
for unreasonably long period goods for the purpose of ascertaining—
(D) Right not to be detained beyond 24 hours in (A) The goods are in a deliverable state
police custody (B) The goods are of merchantable quality
ANS: (D) (C) The goods are in conformity with the contract
(D) All of the above
Q647. During the Proclamation of Emergency, ANS: (C)
the duration of the House of People may be
extended by the Parliament for a period not Q654. Within how many months of attaining
exceeding ……… at a time. majority, a minor admitted into the benefits of
(A) one year a partnership firm must decide whether he
(B) six months wants to become a partner in the firm?
(C) nine months (A) Two
(D) eighteen months (B) Three
ANS: (A) (C) Six
(D) Twelve
Q648. When the President refers a matter to the ANS: (C)
Supreme Court—
(A) The court is bound to render its opinion Q655. Generally, an introduction of a new
(B) The court is bound to render its opinion when it partner in a partnership firm would require the
is a dispute of the kind mentioned in the Proviso to consent of—
Article 131 (A) The majority of the partners
(C) The court is bound to render its opinion when it (B) All the partners
is a dispute of the kind mentioned in Article 71 (C) The majority of partners barring the dormant
(D) The court is bound to render its opinion when it partners
is a dispute of the kind mentioned in Article 72 (D) The partners havingmajority share in the firm
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q649. Which of the following grounds is Q656. Which of the following Sections deals
necessary to be proved in order to remove a with Personal bars to the remedy of specific
speaker of any Legislative Assembly? relief?
(A) Misbehaviour (A) 14
(B) Incapacity (B) 15
(C) Conduct involving moral turpitude (C) 16
(D) None of the above (D) 17
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q650. Questions as to the age of a judge of a Q657. The period of limitation for a suit to
High Court are to be decided by— claim compensation for false imprisonment is—
(A) President (A) One year
(B) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court (B) Two years
(C) Governor (C) Three years
(D) Chief Justice of India (D) Twelve years
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)
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Q658. Which section of the Haryana Urban ANS: (D)
(Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 deals
with eviction of tenants? Q665. A Hindu man wants to adopt a girlchild.
(A) 10 The difference in age between the two should
(B) 11 be—
(C) 12 (A) At least 21 years
(D) 13 (B) At least 15 years
ANS: (D) (C) At least 24 years
(D) None of the above
Q659. A petition for divorce may be presented ANS: (A)
under Section 13(1) A if even after the passing
of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights, Q666. Under the Hindu Adoptions and
which have not been restored for a period of at Maintenance Act, a wife will not be entitled to
least— maintenance if—
(A) 2 years (A) She is unchaste
(B) 6 months (B) Her husband has ceased to be a Hindu
(C) 1 year (C) She is suffering from a venereal disease in
(D) 18 months communicable form
ANS: (C) (D) All of the above
ANS: (A)
Q660. Naveen Kohli Vs. Neelu Kohli‘s case dealt
with— Q667. A Nikah solemnised in the absence of
(A) Irretrievable breakdown of marriage Qazi is—
(B) Adultery (A) Valid
(C) Divorce by mutual consent (B) Void
(D) Conversion (C) Irregular
ANS: (A) (D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q661. The decree of Restitution of Conjugal
Rights can be enforced under the following Q668. As a general rule, interest in the
provision of CPC— coparcenary property is acquired by virtue of—
(A) Order 21 Rule 32 (A) Birth
(B) Order 22 Rule 31 (B) Inheritance
(C) Order 21 Rule 25 (C) Marriage
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q662. The period of limitation for seeking an Q669. Customs are an important source of
annulment of marriage on the ground of Fraud Hindu Law. One of the following is not a
is— necessary feature of Customs—
(A) One year from the date of knowing the fact of (A) Uniformity
Fraud (B) Certainty
(B) Six months from the date of knowledge of Fraud (C) Conformity with public policy
(C) Within two years from the incident of Fraud (D) None of the above
(D) Within fourteen months ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q670. The term ‗offence‘ is defined under
Q663. Forced intercourse by a man with his wife Section ……… of IPC.
while a decree of judicial separation is in (A) 41
effect— (B) 42
(A) Is punishable under the Hindu Marriage Act (C) 40
(B) Is punishable under the Indian Penal Code (D) 43
(C) Is not an offence in India ANS: (C)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B) Q671. In the IPC, nothing is an offence when it
is done by a child below—
Q664. One of the following is not a condition for (A) 12 years of age
determining the capacity of a male Hindu to (B) Above seven but below 12 years of age
adopt— (C) Below 14 years of age
(A) Consent of wife under certain circumstances (D) None of the above
(B) Majority ANS: (D)
(C) Soundness of mind
(D) Must be necessarily married
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Q672. A, under the influence of grave (C) Trespass
provocation by Z, kills Y, Z‘s child. A is guilty (D) None of the above
of— ANS: (A)
(A) Culpable homicide
(B) Murder Q680. If the offender is armed with deadly
(C) Grievous hurt weapons at the time of attempting dacoity, he is
(D) No offence as he was under provocation liable to be punished with—
ANS: (B) (A) Rigorous imprisonment of at least 7 years
(B) Rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years
Q673. Under section 376 of the IPC, A public (C) Rigorous imprisonment not exceeding 5 years
servant committing rape on a woman in his (D) None of the above
custody shall be punishable with— ANS: (A)
(A) Rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years
(B) Rigorous imprisonment of at least 8 years Q681. A was attempting to kill a deer in a
(C) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years sanctuary. While doing so, the gunshot hit a
(D) None of the above man who died instantly. A is guilty of—
ANS: (D) (A) Culpable Homicide
(B) Murder
Q674. A crime under section 399 can (C) Grievous hurt
sufficiently attract punishment under the IPC at (D) None of the above
the stage of— ANS: (A)
(A) Intention
(B) Preparation Q682. The maxim ‗ignorantia juris non excusat‘
(C) Attempt means—
(D) Commission (A) Ignorance of law is no excuse
ANS: (B) (B) Ignorance of fact is no excuse
(C) Ignorance of law is an excuse
Q675. Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code (D) Ignorance of fact is an excuse
applies to offences punishable under the— ANS: (A)
(A) Indian Penal Code
(B) Any Special Law Q683. ‗Infancy‘ as an exception has been
(C) Any Local Law provided under Section …… IPC.
(D) All of the above (A) 80
ANS: (A) (B) 81
(C) 82
Q676. Under section 103 of IPC, the right to (D) 84
Private defence of property extends to causing ANS: (C)
death if the offence is—
(A) Mischief per se Q684. Irresistible impulse is a defence—
(B) Robbery per se (A) In India
(C) Theft per se (B) In England
(D) All of the above (C) In India and England both
ANS: (B) (D) Neither in India nor in England
ANS: (D)
Q677. Smith Vs. Desmond is a leading case on—
(A) Rape Q685. Abettor is a person—
(B) Extortion (A) Who commits the offence
(C) Sedition (B) Who instigatesthe commission of offence
(D) Criminal Conspiracy (C) Against whom the offence is committed
(D) Who is innocent
Q678. In the Indian Penal Code, the offence of ANS: (B)
Criminal Breach of Trust has been dealt with in
……… Section. Q686. 10 persons were charged for offence
(A) 405 under Section 302/149 IPC, out of which six
(B) 402 persons were acquitted, the remaining four—
(C) 404 (A) Cannot be convicted for offence under Section
(D) 401 302/149 of IPC
ANS: (A) (B) Cannot be convicted for offence under Section
302 of IPC
Q679. For which of the following offences, mens (C) Cannot be convicted for offence under Section
rea is not a requisite? 149 of IPC
(A) Kidnapping (D) All of the above
(B) Robbery ANS: (C)
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(A) Gallantry otherwise than in the face of the
Q687. In the context of the exception of grave enemy
and sudden provocation, which of the following (B) Most conspicuous bravery or some act of self
is correct? sacrifice
(A) Provocation should not be voluntarily provoked (C) Gallantry in the presence of enemy
by the offender (D) None of the above
(B) Lawful exercise of the right of private defence ANS: (B)
does not give provocation
(C) Lawful exercise of powers by a public servant in Q695. What is the effect of deficit financing on
obedience to the law does not amount to economy?
provocation (A) Inflation
(D) All of the above (B) Deflation
ANS: (D) (C) Depression
(D) Recession
Q688. Grave and sudden provocation is— ANS: (B)
(A) Question of fact
(B) Question of law Q696. Mother Teresa was born in—
(C) Mixed question of fact and law (A) Switzerland
(D) A presumption under the law (B) India
ANS: (A) (C) Germany
(D) Albania
Q689. Which one of the following is not a ANS: (D)
‗Public Servant‘?
(A) Liquidator Q697. Who is known as ‗Little Corporal‘?
(B) A Civil Judge (A) Adolf Hitler
(C) Member of a panchayat assisting a Court of (B) Napolean Bonaparte
justice (C) William E. Gladstone
(D) Secretary of a Cooperative Society (D) None of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q690. Navy Day is observed on— Q698. Asian Games have been organised in
(A) Dec. 4 India—
(B) Dec. 25 (A) Once
(C) Dec. 31 (B) Thrice
(D) Jan. 1 (C) Five times
ANS: (A) (D) Twice
ANS: (D)
Q691. The shorter version of India‘s National
Anthem has a playing time of— Q699. Ranji Trophy and Aga Khan Cup are
(A) 12 second respectively associated with—
(B) 15 second (A) Cricket and Football
(C) 20 second (B) Cricket and Volleyball
(D) 26 second (C) Cricket and Hockey
ANS: (C) (D) Badminton and Hockey
ANS: (C)
Q692. The highest airfield in India is—
(A) Bhuntar Q700. The term ‗deuce‘ is common in which of
(B) Pantnagar the following two games?
(C) Chushul (A) Basketball and Badminton
(D) Parapani (B) Badminton and Tennis
ANS: (C) (C) Volleyball and Tennis
(D) None of the above
Q693. Who among the following had the longest ANS: (B)
tenure as the President of India?
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain Q701. If offence is punishable with
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan imprisonment and fine both, then in default of
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad payment of fine, the maximum term, may be
(D) V. V. Giri ……… the prescribed maximum term.
ANS: (C) (A) Equal to
(B) Half of
Q694. Shaurya Chakra made up of bronze is (C) One third of
awarded for— (D) One fourth of
ANS: (D)
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Q708. Intention of cause death is not essential
Q702. Which of the following sections of IPC, under Sec. 300 (clause)—
Act done in pursuant to judgement or order of a (A) Firstly
court is not an offence? (B) Secondly
(A) Section 78 (C) Thirdly
(B) Section 79 (D) Fourthly Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(C) Section 90 ANS: (D)
(D) Section 91
ANS: (A) Q709. The code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
can be amended by—
Q703. ‗A‘ by putting ‗B‘ in fear of grievous hurt, (A) Parliament or any State Legislature
dishonestly induces ‗B‘ to sign on a blank paper (B) The Parliament only
and deliver it to ‗A‘. ‗A‘ has committed the (C) The Supreme Court and Parliament
offence of— (D) State Legislature only
(A) Cheating ANS: (A)
(B) Extortion
(C) Criminal breach of trust Q710. The Judgement of acquittal passed by
(D) Forgery judicial magistrate is appealable before Sessions
ANS: (B) Court in any ……… offence.
(A) Cognizable and non-bailable
Q704. C, under the influence of passion excited (B) Cognizable and compoundable
by a provocation given by A intentionally kills (C) Non-cognizable and non-bailable
A‘s child named B.C. has committed an offence (D) Non-cognizable and bailable
of— ANS: (A)
(A) murder
(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder Q711. Under Section 313 of the code, purpose
(C) not committed any offence because he kills ‗B‘ of examination of accused is—
due to provocation (A) To enabling the accused personally to explain
(D) causes the death of ‗B‘ by doing rash or any circumstances appearing in the evidence
negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide against him
ANS: (A) (B) To enabling to accused to know his defence
(C) To enabling to accused to know about the
Q705. Word ‗Dishonestly‘ as defined in Section charges
24 of IPC means— (D) All of the above
(A) With the intention of causing wrongful gain to ANS: (A)
one person
(B) With the intention of causing wrongful loss to Q712. FIR (First Information Report) is
another person registered under the following Section—
(C) With the intention of causing wrongful gain to (A) Section 152
one person and with the intention of causing (B) Section 153
wrongful loss to another person (C) Section 154
(D) All of the above are true (D) Section 155
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q706. Which one of the following acts is not a Q713. Under Section 125 the Court can order to
mode of abetment under the IPC? make a maximum monthly allowance for the
(A) Instigation maintenance upto—
(B) Aiding (A) 3,000
(C) Conspiracy (B) 4,000
(D) An attempt (C) 5,000
ANS: (D) (D) Unlimited
ANS: (D)
Q707. The accused was entrusted with some
silver for the purpose of making ornaments and Q714. Where it appears to the Court that the
he dishonestly mixed copper into the accused do not have sufficient means to engage
ornaments. The offence committed is— a pleader, the Court shall assign a pleader for
(A) Fraud his defence at the expense of the State. This
(B) Cheating provision is in—
(C) Extortion (A) Section 104
(D) Criminal breach of trust (B) Section 144
ANS: (D) (C) Section 303
(D) Section 304
ANS: (D)
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ANS: (B)
Q715. Any Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public
Prosecutor in charge of a case may before the Q722. Attachment before judgment in a suit
judgement is pronounced, withdraw from the dismissed for default/non-prosecution revives
prosecution of any person. For this he has to automatically on the restoration of a suit—
take consent of— (A) True
(A) Central Government (B) Partly true
(B) State Government (C) False
(C) Court (D) None of the above
(D) All of the three ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q723. Which final judgment, order or decree of
Q716. Sentence of death awarded by court of a Competent Court, among the following is a
Sessions, the proceeding shall be submitted to judgment in rem?
confirmation before— (A) In a money suit
(A) The State Government (B) In a suit for permanent injunction
(B) The Central Government (C) In exercise of matrimonial or insolvency
(C) The High Court jurisdiction
(D) The Supreme Court Negotiable Instrument Act, (D) None of the above
1881 ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q724. In civil proceedings where a decree is
Q717. Under Section 138 of the Act, complaint silent as regards future interest; future interest
may be made from the date on which the cause shall be deemed to have been refused and a
of action arises— separate suit shall not lie—
(A) 15 days (A) True
(B) One month (B) False
(C) 45 days (C) Partly true
(D) Two months (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q718. Under Section 138 of the Act, maximum Q725. A transfer of immovable property made
term of imprisonment is— with the intent to defeat or delay the creditors
(A) One year of the transferor shall be—
(B) Two years (A) Void
(C) Three years (B) Voidable at the discretion of the Court
(D) Depends upon discretion of the Court (C) Voidable at the option of any creditor so
ANS: (B) defeated or delayed
(D) All the above
Q719. Which of the following is not a Bill of ANS: (C)
Exchange?
(A) Share Q726. Right to redeem a mortgage can be
(B) Demand Draft enforced by following—
(C) Post-dated Cheque (A) A suit for redemption of the mortgage
(D) None of these (B) A suit for possession of the mortgaged property
ANS: (A) (C) A suit for declaration that the mortgage property
is redeemed
Q720. The term ―a cheque in the electronic (D) A suit for cancellation of the mortgage
form‖ is defined in the Negotiable Instrument ANS: (A)
Act, 1881 under—
(A) Section 6(a) Q727. An easement is extinguished—
(B) Section 6(b) (A) Only when either the dominant or the servient
(C) Explanation 1(a) of Section 6 heritage is completely destroyed
(D) None of these (B) Only when the same person becomes entitled to
ANS: (C) the absolute ownership of the whole of the
dominant and servient heritages
Q721. Under which provision of the C.P.C., is a (C) Both (A) and (B)
suit to set aside a decree on the ground of lack (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
of territorial jurisdiction barred? ANS: (C)
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 21-A Q728. An instrument stating I promise to pay
(C) Section 22 the bearer the sum of rupees five hundred
(D) Section 37 guaranteed by the Central Government and
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signed by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India is—
(A) A cheque issued by the Central Government
(B) A promissory note
(C) A currency note
Q734. In a suit for recovery of possession by the
(D) Both
Government who will sign the plaint?
ANS: (C)
(A) The Chief Secretary to the Government
(B) The District Collector
Q729. Aditya threatens to publish defamatory
(C) The Governor of the State
statement concerning Anand, unless he is given
(D) The Person nominated by the Government
money. What is the offence committed by
ANS: (D)
Aditya?
(A) Extortion
Q735. After completion of the trial, the judge
(B) Theft
pronounced the judgment but did not sign the
(C) Criminal intimidation
decree and he is transferred. Then—
(D) Misrepresentation
(A) The decree prepared can be signed by the newly
ANS: (A)
posted Judge
(B) The decree prepared is sent for the approval of
Q730. Which one of the following is correct?
the High Court
(A) A person summoned to produce a document
(C) The decree is sent for signature to the Court to
becomes a witness by mere fact that he produces it
which the trial Court is subordinate
(B) A person summoned to produce a document
(D) The new Judge has to rehear the arguments in
becomes a witness by mere fact that he produces it
the suit
and can be cross examined without calling him as
ANS: (A)
witness
(C) A person summoned to produce a document
Q736. In a suit for recovery of money based
does not become a witness by the mere fact that he
under mortgage interest is awarded to the
produces it, and cannot be cross examined unless
plaintiff—
and until he is called as a witness
(A) On the principle amount found due on the
(D) None of the above
mortgage
ANS: (C)
(B) On the value of the mortgage property
(C) Only on the cost of the suit awarded
Q731. A gives B a receipt for money paid by B.
(D) None of the above
Oral evidence is offered to prove the non-
ANS: (A)
payment—
(A) The evidence is admissible
Q737. A proposes, by letter sent by post, to sell
(B) The evidence is not admissible
his house to B. The proposal of A is accepted by
(C) Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
B by letter sent by post. When can A revoke his
this aspect
proposal?
(D) None of the above
(A) A may revoke proposal after B sent letter of
ANS: (A)
acceptance by post
(B) A can revoke proposal at any time before B sent
Q732. The right of the villagers of a particular
letter of acceptance
village to use the water of a particular well is a
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
general custom or right within the meaning of
(D) None of the above
one of the following Sections of the Indian
ANS: (B)
Evidence Act—
(A) 48
Q738. Ramaiah and Laxmaiah jointly owe
(B) 47 A
10,000 to Sattaiah, Ramaiah pays the amount
(C) 114
to Sattaiah. Laxmaiah not knowing this fact
(D) None of the above
again pays 10,000 to Sattaiah. In law he is
ANS: (A)
bound to repay the amount to Laxmaiah. Which
provision of India Contract Act 1872, contains
Q733. The good faith of a sale by a client to an
the principle?
attorney is in question in a suit brought by the
(A) Section 73
client—
(B) Section 83
(A) The burden of proving the good faith of the
(C) Section 93
transaction is on the attorney
(D) Section 72
(B) The burden of proving the good faith of the
ANS: (D)
transaction is on the client
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
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Q739. In a suit for specific performance of (A) Numerous persons are parties in another suit
agreement of sale of immovable property, the (B) Numerous persons belong to the same family
plaintiff must aver and prove the following— (C) Numerous persons have the same interest in
(A) That plaintiff paid entire sale consideration one suit
(B) That plaintiff obtained clearance from all (D) None of the above
authorities ANS: (C)
(C) That plaintiff obtained encumbrance certificate
(D) That plaintiff is ready and willing to perform his Q746. In a suit for payment of money, the Court
part of contract may pass installment decree—
ANS: (D) (A) When defendant admits the claim
(B) At the time of passing decree or thereafter
Q740. Saroja was granted government land. She before execution petition
was dispossessed without her consent. She (C) At execution stage
instituted suit against the government under (D) At the time of sale of property
Section 6 of Specific Relief Act, 1963, for ANS: (B)
recovering possession of the property. The court
rejected the plaint under Order VII Rule 11 Q747. The expression spes succession is
(d) of CPC. Whether rejection is proper? means—
(A) Yes, because suit under Section 6 against the (A) No chance of succession
government would not lie (B) Mere chance or hope of succession
(B) Rejection of plaint is improper (C) Absolute succession
(C) Plaintiff must be given opportunity to rectify the (D) None of the above
mistakes ANS: (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A) Q748. What is the limitation for filing a suit for
recovery of arrears of rent?
Q741. An universal donee gets— (A) Three years from the date the arrears become
(A) The ownership of whole property due
(B) The whole property and donor‘s property in (B) Three years from the date when the notice is
litigation given
(C) Donor‘s property and liabilities of the donor in (C) Three years from the date when the demand for
respect of all the debts due rent is made
(D) Only the right to perform last rites (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q742. When proper Court fees is not paid by the Q749. Can the right of free passage of air over
plaintiff, the Court shall— an open space or ground be acquired by
(A) Reject the plaint prescription?
(B) Shall grant time to the plaintiff to pay deficit (A) Yes
Court fees (B) No
(C) The Court shall send a report to the government (C) In certain circumstances alone
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (B)

Q743. The following two documents require Q750. One of the following is not a ground for
attestation and registration— divorce, under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage
(A) Marriage contract and divorce contract Act, 1955?
(B) Indemnity bond and warranty (A) Adultery
(C) Mortgage deed and exchange deed (B) Cruelty
(D) Development agreement and sale agreement (C) Desertion
ANS: (C) (D) Irretrievable break down of marriage
ANS: (D)
Q744. A petition for review of judgment would
lie only when— Q751. If a right to sue survives, will the suit be
(A) The person partly obeyed the judgment abated by a party‘s death?
(B) Deposits entire decretal amount (A) Yes
(C) An appeal is allowed by CPC but no appeal has (B) No
been preferred (C) If the opposite party agrees
(D) Leave of the Court is obtained for filing review (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q745. Representative Suit under Order 1 Rule 8 Q752. Under the Protection of Women from
of CPC may be permitted by the Court when— Domestic Violence Act, 2005, one of the
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following reliefs cannot be claimed, by a Q759. What is the distinction between
woman— injunction order and attachment order?
(A) Divorce (A) There is no distinction, both are one and the
(B) Protection same
(C) Monetary (B) Injunction order binds not only the parties to
(D) Residence the suit but also third parties and whereas
ANS: (A) attachment order binds only parties to the suit
(C) Injunction order binds only the parties to the
Q753. A judgment contains— suit and whereas attachment order not only binds
(A) Concise statement of the case the parties to the suit but also the third parties
(B) The decision on the point of determination and (D) None of the above
the reason thereof ANS: (C)
(C) The point for determination
(D) All the above Q760. Question that can be determined by the
ANS: (D) Court executing the decree is—
(A) Relating to execution alone
Q754. ‗Quantum meruit‘ means— (B) Relating to discharge alone
(A) The amount involved (C) Relating to part-payment alone
(B) Extent and quality (D) Relating to execution, discharge or satisfaction
(C) To the extent of the work done ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q761. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure
relates to—
Q755. A contract of life insurance falls under (A) Supplemental proceeding in a suit
the category of— (B) Suits by indigent persons
(A) Contract of indemnity (C) Execution of decree
(B) Contract of guarantee (D) Settlement of disputes outside the court
(C) Contingent contract ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q762. What is the meaning of restitution?
(Section 144 C.P.C.)—
Q756. A woman with an intention of committing (A) Dispossessing a person in occupation of suit
suicide by throwing herself in a well, actually property
ran towards it, but changed her mind on the (B) Re-adjudication of the claim
way and returned home. Her act constitutes— (C) Restoration of suit
(A) An offence under Section 306 I.P.C. (D) Restoring to a party on the modification,
(B) An offence under Section 309 I.P.C. variation or reversal or decree
(C) An offence under Section 306 read with 511 ANS: (D)
I.P.C.
(D) No offence Q763. If no time is prescribed in the order for
ANS: (D) carrying out amendment, what is the period
within which amendment is to be carried out
Q757. A died leaving behind him, son‘s under Order 6 Rule 18 of the Civil Procedure
daughter‘s son, son‘s daughter‘s daughter, Code?
daughter‘s son‘s son and daughter‘s son‘s (A) 30 days
daughter. The property of A will devolve upon— (B) 14 days
(A) Son‘s daughter‘s son and daughter‘s son‘s son (C) 60 days
(B) Son‘s daughter‘s daughter and daughter son‘s (D) 45 days
daughter ANS: (B)
(C) Son‘s daughter‘s son and son‘s daughter‘s
daughter Q764. Assistant Sessions Judge is empowered to
(D) Daughter‘s son‘s son and daughter‘s son‘s pass sentence of imprisonment for a term not
daughter exceeding—
ANS: (C) (A) Five years
(B) Ten years
Q758. Who is guardian at litem? (C) Three years
(A) A person appointed by the Court to take legal (D) Seven years
action on behalf of a minor ANS: (B)
(B) Guardian of the child
(C) Step father of the child Q765. What is enunciated in Section 52 of the
(D) None of the above Transfer of Property Act?
ANS: (A) (A) Effect of lis pendens
(B) Fraudulent transfer
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(C) Part performance (B) Voidable at the option of the judgment debtor
(D) Transfer by co-sharer (C) Void ab initio
ANS: (A) (D) Void as against all claims enforceable under the
attachment
Q766. The proposition of law laid down in ANS: (D)
Thulasamma v. Seshareddy (AIR 1977 SC 1944)
relates to— Q773. Which document requires stamp duty?
(A) Essential ingredients of gift deed (A) Acknowledgement of debt in order to supply
(B) Essential ingredients of will deed evidence of such debt
(C) Right of a female Hindu under sub-sections (1) (B) Acknowledgement of a debt in order to extend
and (2) of Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act period of limitation for recovery of that debt
(D) Right of a reversioner (C) Record of past transaction
ANS: (C) (D) In none of the above three cases
ANS: (A)
Q767. To constitute adverse possession,
possession must be— Q774. Where a document is deficitly stamped
(A) For a longer period and unregistered?
(B) Without paying any rent to the owner (A) It is totally inadmissible in evidence
(C) With the permission of the owner (B) It can be admitted in evidence
(D) Open and hostile enough to the parties (C) It can be admitted in evidence for all purposes,
interested in the property after payment of deficit stamp duty and penalty
ANS: (D) (D) It would be admissible in evidence for collateral
purposes
Q768. Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 in ANS: (A)
the case of intestate succession of a male Hindu
father is— Q775. ‗X‘ sells to ‗Y‘ property belonging to ‗Z‘.
(A) Class-I heir Subsequently ‗Z‘ dies and the property devolves
(B) Class-II heir on ‗X‘. By which doctrine the said sale is valid—
(C) Special grade heir (A) Doctrine of estoppel
(D) Class-III heir (B) Doctrine of promissory estoppel
ANS: (B) (C) Doctrine of feeding the grant of estoppel
(D) Doctrine of estoppel by conduct
Q769. For a suit for possession of immovable ANS: (C)
property based on title, period of limitation is—
(A) 12 years from the date of dispossession Q776. The following contract cannot be
(B) 12 years from the date of threat of dispossession specifically enforced—
(C) 12 years from the date when possession of the (A) A contract in which the executant dies
defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff subsequently
(D) None of the above (B) A contract in which the executant subsequently
ANS: (C) becomes insane
(C) A contract which is in its nature determinable
Q770. Formal expression of an adjudication (D) A contract, non-performance of which cannot be
which, so far as records the court expressing it, compensated in terms of money as adequate relief
conclusively determines rights of the parties, ANS: (C)
is—
(A) Decree Q777. ‗X‘ obtains money decree against ‗Y‘. In
(B) Order execution of the money decree, ‗X‘ attaches
(C) Judgment moneys belonging to ‗Y‘ lying with ‗Z‘. Then ‗Z‘
(D) Appellate order is called—
ANS: (A) (A) Decree holder
(B) Judgment debtor
Q771. A robbery becomes dacoity— (C) Banker
(A) When two or more persons together commit (D) Garnishee
robbery ANS: (D)
(B) When committed armed with deadly weapons
(C) When five or more persons together commit the Q778. In what branch of law does the principle
robbery ‗res ipsa loquitor‘ applies?
(D) None of the above (A) Criminal Law
ANS: (C) (B) Specific Relief Act, 1963
(C) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1882
Q772. Private alienation of property after (D) None of the above
attachment of the same is— ANS: (D)
(A) Voidable at the option of the decree holder
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Q779. Can a suit be laid after withdrawal of the Q786. In the case of a breach of contract to sell
same? immovable property the Court shall draw a
(A) No presumption that—
(B) Yes (A) Breach of contract cannot be adequately relieved
(C) Yes, if permission is obtained from the court at by money compensation
the time of withdrawal with liberty to file a fresh (B) That the breach can be compensated by money
suit (C) That the suit can be decreed
(D) Yes, subject to the condition that the cause of (D) That the suit cannot be decreed
action for both the cases is identical ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q787. Suppose if a Court of Senior Civil Judge
Q780. Supplemental and incidental proceedings tries a suit which is triable by the Court of
are stated in— Junior Civil Judge. Is the decree—
(A) C.P.C. (A) Valid
(B) Cr.P.C. (B) Invalid
(C) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (C) Invalid under certain circumstances
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q781. Perpetual injunctions are governed by— Q788. When and in what circumstances a
(A) Specific Relief Act, 1963 Judicial First Class Magistrate of First Class can
(B) Contract Act add a person as accused in a criminal case?
(C) Sale of Goods Act (A) After taking cognizance of the case and before
(D) Civil Procedure Code framing a charge
ANS: (A) (B) During the course of an enquiry in trial when it
appears from the evidence
Q782. A building fetching a rent o f 2000 and (C) After framing of the charge and before the trial
situated in municipal corporation area is is commenced
governed by— (D) None of the above
(A) A. P. Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) ANS: (B)
Control Act, 1960
(B) Transfer of Property Act, 1882 Q789. ‗A‘ purchases stamp paper worth 10,000
(C) Registration Act for obtaining sale deed and then dies. Whether
(D) None of the above ‗B‘ who is the son of ‗A‘ can use that stamp
ANS: (A) paper for obtaining sale deed in his name?
(A) Yes
Q783. Whether a Junior Civil Judge‘s Court on (B) No
its own or suo motu direct addition of a party (C) Under certain circumstances
whom it considers a necessary party to a suit? (D) None of the above
(A) Yes ANS: (A)
(B) No
(C) With the permission of District Court Q790. Whether a court can dismiss an appeal on
(D) With the permission of High Court the ground of the Limitation Act even if
ANS: (A) limitation is not pleaded as a ground?
(A) Yes
Q784. If a woman, who has inherited property (B) No
from her mother, dies without children, then (C) Under certain circumstances
such property devolves on? (D) If High Court premises
(A) The heirs of her father ANS: (A)
(B) The heirs of her maternal grand father
(C) The heirs of her mother in law Q791. A First Information Report means—
(D) On her husband (A) A complaint made to the High Court
ANS: (A) (B) A complaint made to a Magistrate
(C) A complaint filed under Section 199(1) Cr.P.C.
Q785. ‗A‘ promises ‗B‘ a job in government (D) Information relating to the commission of a
service and ‗B‘ promises to pay 10,000 for it. cognizable offence given to an officer in charge of a
The agreement is— police station
(A) Void ANS: (D)
(B) Voidable
(C) Enforceable on the direction of Government Q792. The Court may presume that a man who
(D) Enforceable on the direction of the High Court is in possession of marked currency notes soon
ANS: (A) after the theft, is either the thief or has
received the currency notes knowing them to be
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stolen, unless he can account for his ANS: (B)
possession—
(A) Correct Q798. What is not true with regard to
(B) A Court may not so presume where a ‗Complaint‘ under Section 2
shopkeeper is in possession of a marked currency (d) of Cr.P.C.?
note soon after it was stolen and cannot account (A) It is made to Magistrate with a view to his taking
for its possession specifically, but is continually action under the code
receiving rupees in the ordinary course of his (B) It is an allegation made orally or in writing
business (C) That some person, whether known or unknown
(C) Neither (A) nor (B) has committed an offence
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) It includes a Police Report
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q793. Which provision requires that evidence Q799. In a criminal proceedings, the standard of
must be taken in the presence of the accused? proof that is required for finding the accused
(A) Section 302 of I.P.C. guilty of an offence, so as to convict him for the
(B) Section 154 of the Evidence Act said offence is—
(C) Section 277 of Cr.P.C. (A) Beyond all reasonable doubt
(D) Section 273 of Cr.P.C. (B) Preponderance of probabilities
ANS: (D) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Q794. A police report under Section 173(2) or ANS: (A)
Cr. P.C. must contain the particulars such as—
(A) Inquest particulars, post mortem particulars Q800. Under Section 482 Cr.P.C., the High
and Doctor‘s name Court exercises—
(B) Name of the parties, names of suspects or (A) Inherent powers
accused and nature of information (B) Appellate powers
(C) Name of the police officer, name of investigating (C) Revisional powers
officer and police station (D) Review powers
(D) None of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q801. Which of the following is correct?
Q795. For taking cognizance of an offence (A) The defacto complaint/victim can file revision
committed by a public servant while acting in against order of acquittal
the discharge of his official duty, the essential (B) The defacto complainant can file appeal against
requisite is— order of acquittal
(A) Accused must be Gazetted Officer (C) The prosecution can only file either revision or
(B) Accused must be within the jurisdiction of the appeal against order of acquittal
Court (D) None of the above
(C) Previous sanction of the government is required ANS: (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q802. What is the sentence of imprisonment
provided for the offence under Section 354 of
Q796. Sections 451 and 452 of Cr.P.C. I.P.C., in the State of Andhra Pradesh?
essentially deal with disposal of property by the (A) For a term up to two years
Criminal Court. The basic difference between (B) For a term not less than three years
the two is— (C) For a term not less than two years
(A) Both the provisions deal with release of property (D) None of the above
produced before the Court ANS: (D)
(B) Section 451 is attracted during enquiry of trial
and Section 452 is attracted after conclusion of the Q803. What is the maximum sentence of
Criminal Trial imprisonment that can be imposed in default of
(C) There is no difference between the two payment of fine?
provisions (A) One-half of the maximum imprisonment fixed
(D) None of the above for the offence
ANS: (B) (B) One-third of the maximum imprisonment fixed
for the offence
Q797. Under Cr.P.C. the period of limitation (C) One-fourth of the maximum imprisonment fixed
shall commence— for the offence
(A) On the date of taking cognizance (D) Equal to the maximum imprisonment fixed for
(B) On the date of offence the offence
(C) On the date of filing the complaint ANS: (C)
(D) None of the above
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Q804. What is the distinction between Sections (D) That the cheque is valid under banking laws
161 and 164 of Cr.P.C.? ANS: (C)
(A) Both are one and the same
(B) Sec. 161 Cr.P.C., statement is recorded by the Q810. Can anticipatory bail be granted in
Magistrate and whereas Sec. 164 Cr.P.C., respect of bailable offences, and if so in what
statement is recorded by the police circumstances?
(C) Sec. 161 Cr.P.C., statement is recorded by the (A) Anticipatory bail cannot be granted in bailable
police and whereas Sec. 164 Cr.P.C., statement is offences
recorded by the Magistrate (B) Bail can be granted only in case the petitioner is
(D) Sec. 161 Cr.P.C., statement is recorded on oath a woman, a minor or a sick person
and whereas no oath is administered in recording (C) There is no distinction between bailable and
under Sec. 164 Cr.P.C. non-bailable offences so far as anticipatory bail is
ANS: (C) concerned
(D) None of the above
Q805. ‗A‘ is arrested and detained in custody on ANS: (A)
an accusation for the offence punishable with
imprisonment for life. He is entitled to Q811. When can charges be framed?
statutory bail as provided under sub-section (2) (A) At any stage but before judgment
of Section 167 of Cr.P.C., after expiry of— (B) At any stage subject to permitting the cross-
(A) 30 days examination of the prosecution witnesses
(B) 60 days (C) At any time in offences exclusively triable by
(C) 90 days Sessions Court but in cases triable by a Judicial
(D) 45 days First Class Magistrate, charges should be framed
ANS: (C) within 3 months after taking cognizance of the case
(D) None of the above
Q806. What is primary object of inquest report ANS: (B)
under Section 174 of Cr.P.C.?
(A) To know the name of the assailants of the Q812. As per IPC a document whereby any legal
deceased right is created, extended, restricted or
(B) To know the motive for the commission of released, is—
offence (A) Conveyance deed
(C) To know the apparent cause of death (B) Gift deed
(D) To know the place of occurrence (C) Will
ANS: (C) (D) Valuable security
ANS: (D)
Q807. What is the meaning of payment of
cheque crossed specially? Q813. Who is the person competent to
(A) The banker on whom it is drawn shall not pay it compound an offence of criminal trespass under
otherwise than to the banker to whom it is crossed, Section 447 of IPC?
or his agent for collection (A) The person in possession of the property
(B) The banker on whom the cheque is drawn shall trespassed upon
not pay it otherwise than to a banker (B) Investigating officer
(C) Payment of cheque amount across the counter (C) The person who gave the complaint of trespass
(D) Payment of cheque amount to the agent of (D) None of the above
payee ANS: (A)
ANS: (A)
Q814. Does a will deed require stamp duty and
Q808. What is the essential ingredient of registration for its validity?
promissory estoppel? (A) No
(A) Promisee has altered his position in reliance on (B) Yes
the promise (C) Under certain circumstances
(B) Promisor has recalled his promise (D) When value of property covered by will in excess
(C) Promisee has recalled his acceptance of 100
(D) Promisee should suffer any detriment ANS: (A)
ANS: (A)
Q815. Pecuniary jurisdiction of civil court is
Q809. Presumption under Section 139 of the specified in—
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is in respect (A) A.P. Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1956
of— (B) A.P. Civil Courts Act, 1972
(A) That the cheque was signed by the accused (C) Civil Procedure Code
(B) That the cheque was dishonoured by the banker (D) Civil Rules of Practice
(C) That the cheque was issued for discharge of any ANS: (B)
debt
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Q816. Whether an unstamped promissory note ANS: (D)
can be admitted in evidence after collection of
stamp duty and penalty? Q823. ―Death sentence should be awarded in
(A) Yes can be admitted rarest of rare cases‖ was held in—
(B) Cannot be admitted (A) Bachan Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(C) Can be admitted if the suit filed is under the (B) Rameshwar Vs. State of U.P.
Negotiable Instruments Act (C) T. V. Vatheeswaran Vs. State of Tamil Nadu
(D) Can be admitted only by the High Court (D) State of U. P. Vs. M. K. Anthony
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q817. Circumstantial evidence is— Q824. ―Right to live with human dignity does
(A) Direct evidence not include right to terminate natural life‖, was
(B) Indirect evidence held in—
(C) Neither of (A) P. Rathinam Vs. Union of India
(A) and B and D (B) Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
ANS: (A) (C) Rajendra Prasad Vs. State of U.P.
(D) Machhi Singh Vs. State of Punjab
Q818. Under the Indian Penal Code, a person is ANS: (B)
defined as—
(A) Including any company or body of persons Q825. Use of violence by a member of an
whether incorporated or not assembly of five or more persons in furtherance
(B) Meaning only individual human beings of common object will Constitute the offence
(C) Meaning only as men of—
(D) None of the above (A) Unlawful assembly
ANS: (A) (B) Assault
(C) Affray
Q819. ‗A‘ in good faith accuses ‗Z‘ before a (D) Rioting
Magistrate— ANS: (D)
(A) ‗A‘ has committed no offence
(B) ‗A‘ has committed the offence of defamation Q826. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is
(C) ‗A‘ has committed the offence of defamation but committed—
he can take defence u/s 93 of I.P.C. (A) When the offender is acting in anger
(D) None of the above (B) When the offender is acting under the spell of
ANS: (A) madness
(C) With the consent of the victim, who has
Q820. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of completed 18 years of age
rape is punishable under which section of (D) With the consent of the victim who has
I.P.C.? completed 12 years of age
(A) Section 228 ANS: (C)
(B) Section 228 A
(C) Section 376 A Q827. An employer deducts a certain
(D) Section 376 B percentage from the salary of his employees
ANS: (B) telling that it is their contribution to the
provident fund but fails to credit it in the fund.
Q821. Which one of the following is an Employer commits—
illustration of criminal attempt? (A) Criminal misappropriation
(A) ‗A‘ tries to kill ‗B‘ by witch-craft (B) Criminal breach of trust
(B) ‗A‘ goes to Mumbai to buy dye to make (C) Theft
counterfeit currency notes (D) Cheating
(C) ‗A‘ intending to kill ‗B‘ fires at ‗B‘s coat hanging ANS: (B)
in his room treating it ‗B‘
(D) ‗A‘ takes away his own umbrella thinking it to Q828. Under Section 498-A of I.P.C. cruelty
be of someone else includes—
ANS: (C) (A) Physical cruelty only
(B) Mental cruelty only
Q822. When a criminal act is done by several (C) Harassment of the woman
persons in furtherance of common intention of (D) Cruelty by wife
all, each one of them is liable— ANS: (C)
(A) For an attempt to commit the act
(B) For the abetment of the act Q829. ‗A‘ was on his journey by car from Delhi
(C) Only for the part each one has done to Agra. ‗B‘ met him in the way and requested
(D) As if it was done by each one of them in for a lift up to Mathura, an intermediate town.
singular capacity ‗A‘ acceded to his request, but on reaching
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Mathura, did not drop ‗B‘ there in spite of his Q834. On account of an agitation the lawyers
repeated requests. ‗B‘ was carried over to Agra ceased to participate in court proceedings and
against his wishes. resorted to ‗Satyagrah‘. An editorial in a
(A) ‗A‘ is not guilty of any offence newspaper criticised as to whether it behoves to
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of offence of abduction the lawyers as a class to resort to strike. The
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of offence of wrongful confinement lawyers were interalia described as ‗Kajia dalal‘
(D) ‗A‘ is guilty of using criminal force i.e. dispute broker, in the editorial—
ANS: (C) (A) Editor of the newspaper is guilty of offence of
defamation
Q830. ‗A‘ a school teacher for the purposes of (B) Editor of the newspaper is not guilty of offence
enforcing discipline inflicts moderate of defamation
punishment upon a pupil aged about 11 years. (C) Not only editor, but Chairman of Board of
In this case— Directors and its General Manager are also guilty of
(A) ‗A‘ is entitled to claim defence under section 89 defamation
of I.P.C. (D) None of the above
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of causing simple hurt ANS: (B)
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of using criminal force
(D) ‗A‘ is entitled to claim defence under section 88 Q835. According to Mc naughten‘s Rule, legal
of I.P.C. insanity is quite different from medical
ANS: (A) insanity. It relates to the—
(A) Total loss of conative faculties
Q831. A‘s illegal marriage with B was performed (B) Total loss of cognitive faculties
by a priest ‗P‘ knowing that the marriage was (C) Congenital insanity
illegal; because ‗A‘ was already married. A‘s (D) None of the above
father ‗C‘ and two other persons ‗D‘ and ‗N‘ were ANS: (B)
present at the time of marriage. In this case—
(A) ‗C‘, ‗D‘ and ‗N‘ are liable for abetment Q836. For the defence of mistake of fact under
(B) Only A‘s father ‗C‘ is liable for abetment the Indian Penal Code—
(C) ‗C‘, ‗D‘, ‗N‘ and the priest ‗P‘ all are guilty of (A) Actual mistake is sufficient
abetment (B) The act must be reasonable
(D) Only the priest ‗P‘ is liable for abetting the (C) The act must be reasonable as well as
offence of bigamy committed in good faith
ANS: (D) (D) None of the above is correct
ANS: (C)
Q832. Which one of the following combinations
is correctly matched? Q837. In which of the following cases, the
1. K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of Maharashtra — Supreme Court has observed that there is no
Grave and sudden provocation right of private defence against the right of
2. State of Himachal Pradesh Vs. Asha Ram — private defence?
Rape (A) State of Punjab Vs. Sohan Singh
3. Karan Singh Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh— (B) Surjeet Singh Vs. State of Punjab
Right of Private Defence (C) State of U. P. Vs. Ram Swaroop
4. Harjit Singh Vs. State of Punjab—Dowry (D) M. R. Singh Vs. State of Gujarat
death Select the correct answer using the code ANS: (C)
given below— Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 Q838. The mens rea required under Section 299
(B) 2, 3 and 4 of the Indian Penal Code is—
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (A) Intention or knowledge
(D) 1, 2 and 4 (B) Intention or negligence
ANS: (D) (C) Intention or recklessness
(D) Negligence or malice
Q833. The punishment for general form of ANS: (A)
Public Nuisance is provided in—
(A) Section 268 of I.P.C. Q839. When two or more persons agree to do or
(B) Section 269 of I.P.C. cause to be done an illegal act, or an act which
(C) Section 290 of I.P.C. is not illegal, by illegal means, such an
(D) Section 291 of I.P.C. agreement is—
ANS: (C) (A) Designated as a criminal conspiracy
(B) Designated as a criminal abetment
(C) Both, criminal conspiracy and abetment
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
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Q840. ‗A‘ incites his dog to spring upon ‗B‘ (C) No
without ‗B‘s consent. ‗A‘ is guilty of— (D) Yes, under Section 105 Cr. P.C.
(A) Assault ANS: (A)
(B) Criminal intimidation
(C) Criminal force Q847. Summon‘s case means—
(D) Grievous hurt (A) A case which is not a warrant case
ANS: (C) (B) A case in which security is not required
(C) A case through which offence of theft is tried
Q841. Under Section 308 of the Code of (D) A case in which only summons can be served
Criminal Procedure, 1973, an accomplice, who during trial
does not comply with the conditions of pardon, ANS: (A)
may be prosecuted and tried separately for the
offence of giving false evidence, but with the Q848. Which one of the following cases is
sanction of the— related to defective investigation?
(A) Sessions Court (A) D. K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal
(B) High Court (B) Zahira Habibullah Sheikh Vs. State of Gujarat
(C) State Government (C) Sakshi Vs. Union of India
(D) Chief Justice of High Court (D) Dipesh Chandak Vs. Union of India
ANS: (B) ANS: (B)

Q842. Under Section 77 of Cr. P.C. a warrant of Q849. Which of the following statements is not
arrest may be executed— correct, with reference to Section 125 of the
(A) Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing code of criminal procedure?
warrant (A) Section 125 cannot be used against a person
(B) Within the session division who does not possess sufficient economic means
(C) At any place within the State (B) The obligation to maintain a married daughter
(D) At any place in India whose husband is unemployed, is of the father of
ANS: (D) such daughter
(C) A married daughter also has an obligation to
Q843. Under which provision of Cr. P.C. on maintain her parents who are unable to maintain
receipt of First Information Report for the themselves
commission of an offence, the officer-in-charge (D) A woman who has taken divorce from her
of the police station will send the copy to the husband and has not remarried may claim
concerned Magistrate? maintenance from her exhusband
(A) Under Section 154 Cr. P.C. ANS: (B)
(B) Under Section 159 Cr. P.C.
(C) Under Section 156 Cr. P.C. Q850. When a case is instituted under Section
(D) Under Section 157 Cr. P.C. 199(2) of Cr. P.C., the procedure of trial adopted
ANS: (D) in such a case is—
(A) Session trial
Q844. Non-cognizable offence means an offence (B) Trial of warrant case instituted on police report
wherein— (C) Trial of warrant case instituted on otherwise
(A) A police officer cannot arrest without warrant than a police report
(B) A police officer can arrest at his discretion (D) Summons trial
(C) A police officer has authority to arrest without ANS: (A)
warrant
(D) On request of complainant, arrest can be made Q851. The offence committed under which
ANS: (A) section of I.P.C. is not compoundable under
section 320 of Cr. P.C.?
Q845. Whether any criminal court can impound (A) Section 352
any document produced before it? (B) Section 353
(A) Yes (C) Section 354
(B) No (D) Section 355
(C) Only civil court can impound ANS: (B)
(D) With the consent of the senior officer it can be
impounded Q852. ―The object of proceedings under Section
ANS: (A) 145 Cr. P.C. is to ward-off danger of breach of
peace and not to determine the title.‖ It was
Q846. Can a Magistrate order the search of any observed in the case of—
place in his presence, for the search of which he (A) Union of India V s. Ajee-bunissan Khatoon
is empowered to issue a search warrant? (B) Nandi Ram Vs. Chandi Ram
(A) Yes, under Section 103 Cr. P.C. (C) Roshan Lal Vs. State
(B) Yes, under Section 104 Cr. P.C. (D) Ramadhin Vs. Shyama Devi
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ANS: (A) (B) Has no power to grant interim maintenance and
the expenses of the proceedings
Q853. In which case, the presence of accused (C) Has power to grant interim maintenance but no
may be dispensed with at the time of delivering power to grant expenses of the proceedings
the judgement? (D) Has no power to grant interim maintenance but
(A) When the personal attendance of the accused has the power to grant expenses of the proceedings
has already been dispensed with ANS: (A)
(B) When the judgement is that of acquittal
(C) In both (A) and (B) above Q859. Where any judge or Magistrate is
(D) None of the above personally interested in a case, he shall neither
ANS: (C) try nor commit for trial such case, nor shall
hear any appeal in such case, provided—
Q854. In the interest of justice a Magistrate has (A) Prior permission of High Court has been
the power to try a summons case as a warrant procured
case, wherein the offence to be tried thereunder (B) Prior permission of the Chief Justice of High
is punishable with the imprisonment— Court has been procured
(A) Exceeding 6 months (C) Prior permission of its appellate court has been
(B) Exceeding 4 months obtained
(C) Exceeding 1 year (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (A)
Q860. In which of the following cases, it was
Q855. In every criminal trial, when the held that provisions of chapter VIII of Cr. P.C.
Magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall being in public interest are not violative of
pass the sentence after hearing the accused. Article 19 of the Constitution of India—
(A) Right, without hearing the accused, no sentence (A) Ram Charan Vs. State
can be passed (B) Shiv Narain Vs. Ban Mali
(B) Wrong, it is not required in summons case (C) Madhu Limaye Vs. S.D.M., Monghyr
(C) It is required only before sending the conviction (D) Ram Prasad Vs. Emperor
warrant ANS: (C)
(D) Not required at all in any case
ANS: (A) Q861. By Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act,
2005, in Section 459 of Cr. P.C. the words ‗less
Q856. The procedure for trial before a court of than ten Rupees‘ have been substituted by the
sessions is provided in the following sections of words—
Cr. P.C.— (A) Less than five hundred Rupees
(A) 260 to 265 (B) Less than fifty Rupees
(B) 238 to 250 (C) Less than one hundred Rupees
(C) 251 to 259 (D) Less than two hundred and fifty Rupees
(D) 225 to 237 ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q862. When there is dispute between two courts
Q857. Which of the following statements is not relating to exercise of jurisdiction in a criminal
correct under the Code of Criminal Procedure? matter and said courts are under subordination
(A) Where a private person or an authorised person of different High Courts, the matter shall be
has a right to arrest a person and hand him over to decided under Section 186 of Cr. P.C. by the—
the custody of police; such private person can also (A) Supreme Court
make search of such arrested person (B) High Court of the larger State
(B) Enquiry and trial, both are included in ‗judicial (C) High Court having more judges
proceedings‘ (D) High Court within whose area the proceedings
(C) Complaint may be made by any person and it is first commenced
not necessary that the injured or the affected only ANS: (D)
should complain
(D) Charges are framed only in warrant cases; there Q863. Period of limitation for an offence
is no need to frame charge sheet in petty summons punishable with a term of two years, as per
cases Section 468 of Cr. P.C. is—
ANS: (A) (A) Six months
(B) One year
Q858. Under Section 125 of the Code of (C) Two years
Criminal Procedure, a Magistrate— (D) Three years
(A) Has the power to grant interim maintenance ANS: (D)
and the expenses of the proceedings
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Q864. The power of Magistrate to detain a Q870. Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 deals
person for the purposes of police investigation with the following—
is for a maximum period of— (A) Departmental proceedings
(A) 15 days (B) Judicial proceedings
(B) 60 days (C) A and B
(C) 90 days None
(D) 30 days ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q871. Which of the following statements is
Q865. On refusal by any witness to answer a incorrect regarding history-sheets?
question or to produce a document upon being (A) History-sheet of class ‗B‘ is for a period of three
asked for, he may be sentenced to years and it need not be starred
imprisonment for a period of— (B) History-sheet of class ‗A‘ for an active member of
(A) 30 days a gang of dacoits must be starred
(B) 7 days (C) No history-sheet should be opened for persons
(C) 14 days with no permanent residence
(D) One month (D) No history-sheet is required to be opened for a
ANS: (B) person detained under Section 109 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure
Q866. According to which section of the Police ANS: (A)
Act, 1861, a police officer may be deployed in
any part of the District? Q872. When it shall appear that any unlawful
(A) 20 assembly, or riot or disturbance has taken place
(B) 21 and police force is not sufficient for
(C) 22 preservation of peace, Special Police Officers
(D) 23 may be appointed by—
ANS: (C) (A) The Magistrate on application of Police Officer
not below the rank of inspector
Q867. Under Paragraph 169 of U. P. Police (B) The Superintendent of Police of the District
Regulations, it is the duty of the Public concerned
Prosecutor to bring to the notice of the (C) The Deputy Inspector General of Police of the
Magistrate concerned all cases in which range
unclaimed property has been lying in Malkhana (D) The Inspector General of Police of the zone
for more than— ANS: (A)
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year Q873. Which chapter of U. P. Police Regulations
(C) 3 months deals with Mounted Police?
(D) 2 years (A) Chapter 5
ANS: (A) (B) Chapter 6
(C) Chapter 7
Q868. Paragraph 140 of U. P. Police Regulations (D) Chapter 8
requires that when a police officer sends a ANS: (D)
person for examination by a medical officer—
(A) He should clearly explain the object of such Q874. Which of the following is not a correct
examination statement regarding case diary? The
(B) He should fix the time within which the medical investigating officer should note in the case
examination must be completed diary the time and place—
(C) He should send an escort along with the person (A) At which he received the information on which
to be medically examined he acts
(D) He should take all care so that the person may (B) At which he begins investigation
not abscond (C) At which investigation is closed
ANS: (A) (D) When he was called by the Superintendent of
Police for enquiry regarding the progress of
Q869. What type of officer is a reserved investigation
inspector in the Reserve Line according to U. P. ANS: (D)
Polic Regulations?
(A) A General Officer Q875. Under the Police Act, 1861 the word
(B) Officer incharge ‗Police‘ includes such persons who have under
(C) Deputy Chief Officer the Act been—
(D) None of the above (A) Enrolled
ANS: (B) (B) Trained
(C) Appointed
(D) Selected
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ANS: (A) (D) Mukand Lal Vs. Union of India
ANS: (D)
Q876. Which para of U. P. Police Regulations
deals with postmortem examination and Q881. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
procedure? as set out in the Preamble is—
(A) 137 (A) To define and amend the law of evidence
(B) 138 (B) To consolidate, define and amend the law of
(C) 139 evidence
(D) 140 (C) To highlight, define and consolidate the law of
ANS: (C) evidence
(D) To highlight, consolidate, define and amend the
Q877. In which of the following decisions it was law of evidence
laid down that departmental proceedings can ANS: (B)
also be initiated against a police officer who has
been held guilty under Section 29 of the Police Q882. When a number of documents are all
Act, 1861? made by one uniform process, as in the case of
(A) Asha Ram Vs. G. C. Saxena printing, lithography or photography, each is—
(B) State of Uttar PradeshVs. Harish Chandra Singh (A) Secondary evidence of the contents of the rest
(C) Som Nath Sahu Vs. State (B) Primary evidence of the contents of the rest
(D) Arya Veer Saxena Vs. State (C) Direct evidence of the contents of the rest
ANS: (B) (D) Documentary evidence of the contents of the
rest
Q878. Match List-I with ANS: (B)
List-II and select the correct answer with the
help of the code given below— List-I Q883. Assertion (A): In criminal cases the fact
(a) Surrender of the certificate of the police that accused is of good character is relevant.
officer Reason (R): In criminal cases bad character of
(b) Deployment of additional police force at rail the accused is always irrelevant. Select the
and other works correct answer using the code given below—
(c) Village police officer Codes:
(d) Regulation of public assemblies and (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
processions explanation of (A)
List-II (Section of Police Act) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
1. Section 21 correct explanation of (A)
2. Section 8 (A) is true but (R) is false
3. Section 30 (A) is false but (R) is true
4. Section 14 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) ANS: (C)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 4 1 3 Q884. A marriage was solemnized in a general
(C) 1 2 3 4 customary form. What is the rule for proving
(D) 3 2 4 1 that it is a legal wedlock?
ANS: (B) (A) The custom shall be proved by evidence
(B) The court takes judicial notice of the custom
Q879. The Public Prosecutor shall maintain at (C) The court shall evaluate the effect of custom on
the headquarter a register for the whole district general public
containing the names only of those absconding (D) All the above
offenders— ANS: (B)
(A) Who are triable in the district
(B) Whose names, caste, residence and antecedents Q885. Which one of the following sections of
have been verified beyond all possibility of doubt Indian Evidence Act contains provisions
(C) Whose real names, residence and antecedents regarding cross-examination of witnesses to
have not been ascertained character?
(D) Who are non-residents of the district concerned (A) Section 140
ANS: (A) (B) Section 141
(C) Section 142
Q880. In which of the following decisions it was (D) Section 139
laid down that the accused cannot use the case ANS: (A)
diary? Neither the accused nor his counsel can
requisition the case diary and they cannot claim Q886. A confession made by an accused person
to go through it? is relevant—
(A) U. P. State Vs. Harish Chandra Singh (A) If it has proceeded from a person in authority,
(B) Arya Veer Saxena Vs. State unless made in the immediate presence of a
(C) State of Kerala Vs. Amini and Others Magistrate
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(B) If it is made to a police officer, unless made in (C) A conclusive proof that the right of way exists
the immediate presence of a Magistrate (D) Relevant but not a conclusive proof that the
(C) If it is made to a Magistrate provided the police right of way exists
officer is present ANS: (D)
(D) If it is made whilst he is in custody of a police
officer, and is made in the immediate presence of a Q893. Examination, after the cross-examination
Magistrate of a witness by the party who has called him is
ANS: (D) called—
(A) Main examination
Q887. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer (B) Additional examination
dog falls under— (C) Re-examination
(A) Oral evidence (D) Re-cross-examination
(B) Documentary evidence ANS: (C)
(C) Hearsay evidence
(D) Scientific evidence Q894. Evidence of custom cannot be given to
ANS: (D) establish—
(A) A civil right
Q888. The question is, whether ‗A‘ committed a (B) An easementary right
crime at Kolkata on a certain day. In answer to (C) A customary right
this question, which of the following fact is (D) A criminal right
relevant? ANS: (D)
(A) That ‗A‘ was out that day at Mumbai
(B) That ‗A‘ habitually goes to Kolkata Q895. The object of cross-examination is—
(C) That ‗A‘ habitually commits crime (A) To examine the intelligence of the witness
(D) None of the above (B) To examine the impartiality of the witness
ANS: (A) (C) To examine the credibility of the witness
(D) To examine the good character of the witness
Q889. Whenever it is directed by the ANS: (C)
IndianEvidence Act, 1872 that the court shall
presume a fact, it shall regard such fact as— Q896. ‗A‘ accused of murder, alleges that by
(A) Proved, unless and until it is disproved grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived
(B) Proved, unless and until it is disproved or may of the power of self-control. ‗B‘ denies this
call for proof of it fact—
(C) Proved (A) The burden of proof must be shared by both ‗A‘
(D) Proved and shall not allow evidence to be given and ‗B‘
for the purpose of disproving it (B) The burden of proof is on ‗B‘
ANS: (A) (C) The burden of proof is on prosecution
(D) The burden of proof is on ‗A‘
Q890. Who amongst the following is an ANS: (D)
accomplice?
(A) A spy Q897. The father of accused did not support the
(B) A person giving bribe under coercion prosecution during the trial that he told the
(C) A raped girl (Prosecutrix) witness that his son (accused) had committed
(D) A prostitute the murder. The statement of the witness would
ANS: (D) be in the nature of—
(A) Secondary evidence
Q891. Relevancy and admissibility under the (B) Hearsay evidence
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are— (C) Res gestae
(A) Synonymous (D) None of the above
(B) Co-extensive ANS: (B)
(C) Neither synonymous nor co-extensive
(D) Synonymous and co-extensive, both Q898. A dying declaration—
ANS: (C) 1. Cannot form the sole basis of conviction
unless corro-borated.
Q892. ‗A‘ sues ‗B‘ for trespass on his land. ‗B‘ 2. Is a weak kind of evidence.
alleges the existence of a public right of way 3. Stands on same footing as any other piece of
over the land, which ‗A‘ denies. The existence of evidence.
a decree in favour of the defendant, in suit by 4. Has to be subjected to a very close scrutiny
‗A‘ against ‗C‘ for a trespass on the same land in for reliability. Select the correct answer using
which ‗C‘ alleged the existence of the same right the code given below— Codes:
of way, is— (A) 1 and 4
(A) Relevant, but it will not operate as estoppel (B) 2 and 3
(B) Irrelevant, but it may be considered (C) 3 and 4
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(D) 1 only (A) The court may presume that she did not
ANS: (C) consent
(B) The court may regard her evidence as
Q899. A wife had only seen a speeding vehicle, conclusive proof that she did not consent
which had crushed the husband at a little (C) The court may require further proof that she did
distance. She had not seen the accident herself. not consent
The husband died of heart attack a day later. (D) The court shall presume that she did not
Can wife‘s evidence be taken of what the injured consent
husband said to her after the accident? ANS: (D)
(A) Yes, it being a dying declaration
(B) No, it is merely a hearsay evidence Q904. Confession can be result of self-talk,
(C) No, because it is a privileged communication communication of confession to another person
(D) Yes, it being a part of resgestae is not necessary, was held in the case of—
ANS: (D) (A) Sankaria Vs. State of Rajasthan
(B) Buta Singh Vs. State of Punjab
Q900. If the digital signature of any subscriber (C) Sahoo Vs. State of U. P.
is alleged to have been affixed to an electronic (D) Nishikant Jha Vs. State of Bihar
record the fact that such digital signature is the ANS: (C)
digital signature of the subscriber must be
proved, except in the case of a— Q905. An approver‘s evidence—
(A) Secure digital signature 1. Must be reliable.
(B) Certified digital signature 2. Must be corroborated.
(C) Computerised digital signature 3. Must be reliable and preferably corroborated.
(D) Official digital signature 4. Is not admissible. Select the correct answer
ANS: (A) using the code given below— Codes:
(A) 1 and 4
Q901. The question between ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ is, (B) 1 and 2
whether a certain deed is or is not forged. ‗A‘ (C) 3 and 2
affirms that it is genuine, ‗B‘ that it is forged— (D) 2 and 4
(A) ‗A‘ may prove a statement by ‗B‘ that the deed is ANS: (B)
genuine, and ‗B‘ may prove a statement by ‗A‘ that
the deed is forged Q906. Principle of vicarious liability was first
(B) ‗A‘ may prove a statement by ‗B‘ that the deed is time decided in the case—
forged, and ‗B‘ may prove a statement by ‗A‘ that (A) R. Vs. Huggins
the deed is genuine (B) R. Vs. Stephenson
(C) ‗A‘ may prove a statement by himself that the (C) R. Vs. Tolson
deed is genuine (D) R. Vs. Prince
(D) ‗B‘ may prove a statement by himself that the ANS: (A)
deed is forged
ANS: (A) Q907. Which one of the following sets correctly
identifies the specific defences available in
Q902. The man who has disappeared and action for defamation?
remained unheard of for seven years by those (A) Privilege, truth, fair comment
who would have naturally heard of him, if he (B) Fair comment, mistake, privilege
was alive; the presumption then arises that he (C) Fair comment, mistake truth
is dead. What shall be the presumption as to (D) Mistake, privilege, truth
time of death of such person? ANS: (A)
(A) The presumption is that the man died on the
date seven years after he was last heard Q908. Some provisions of the I. P. C. have been
(B) The presumption is that the man died at the amended by the—
beginning of the particular period during these (A) Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
seven years (B) Arbitration and Reconciliation Act, 1996
(C) Those who allege that the death should be taken (C) Information Technology Act, 2000
to have occurred at a particular time, will have to (D) None of the above
prove that fact ANS: (C)
(D) The presumption is that the man died on the
date of judicial pronouncement Q909. Which of the following is a leading case
ANS: (C) on intoxication?
(A) Nathulal Vs. State of M. P.
Q903. In a prosecution for rape, where sexual (B) Director Public Prosecutions Vs. Beard
intercourse by the accused is proved and the (C) Barrow Vs. Issacs
woman states in her evidence before the court (D) None of the above
that she did not consent— ANS: (B)
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Q915. The offence of theft becomes robbery
Q910. Match List-I with when it is—
List-II and select the correct answer using the (A) Committed by 5 or more persons
code given below the list? List-I (B) Committed by 2 or more persons, but less than
(a) Dowry death five persons
(b) House-breaking (C) Coupled with force
(c) Assault (D) Coupled with imminent danger to life
(d) Wrongful confinement ANS: (D)
List-II
1. Section 340 I.P.C. Q916. Deception is an essential element of the
2. Section 351 I.P.C. following—
3. Section 304 B I.P.C. (A) Criminal breach of trust
4. Section 445 I.P.C. Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (B) Forgery
(A) 4 3 2 1 (C) Cheating
(B) 3 4 1 2 (D) All the above
(C) 3 4 2 1 ANS: (C)
(D) 1 2 3 4
ANS: (C) Q917. ‗A‘ by putting ‗B‘ in fear of grievous hurt
dishonestly induces ‗B‘ to sign in a blank paper
Q911. Under which of the following sections of and delivers it to ‗A‘. ‗B‘ after signing that paper
I.P.C., there is provision of death sentence? delivers it to ‗A‘. ‗A‘ has committed—
Answer with the help of code given below— (A) Theft
1. Sections 194 and 449 (B) Dacoity
2. Sections 132 and 194 (C) Robbery
3. Sections 364 A and 396 (D) Extortion
4. Sections 124 A and 132 Codes: ANS: (D)
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only Q918. Which of the following is not an essential
(C) 3 and 4 only element of ‗unlawful assembly‘?
(D) 1 and 4 only (A) Five or more persons
ANS: (B) (B) Common object
(C) Common intention
Q912. Which one of the following is not (D) To resist the execution of any law or of any legal
punishable under the Indian Penal Code? process
(A) Preparation to wage war against the State ANS: (C)
(B) Preparation to commit murder
(C) Preparation to commit dacoity Q919. Point out wrong answer— An order
(D) Preparation to commit depredation on the maintenance may be passed under section 125
territory of a friendly power of Cr. P. C. where a person neglects or refuses to
ANS: (B) maintain—
(A) his wife even if living separately by mutual
Q913. Which one of the following is an inchoate consent
crime? (B) his legitimate or illegitimate minor child
(A) Public nuisance (C) his legitimate or illegitimate child who is by
(B) Criminal attempt reason of any physical or mental abnormality or
(C) Unlawful assembly injury, unable to maintain itself
(D) Riot (D) his father or mother
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q914. Which of the following statements is not Q920. An order of discharge—


true? (A) is not a judgement
(A) Rioting and affray have been defined in Sections (B) is not a defence against fresh proceedings
146 and 159 of I.P.C. respectively without fresh facts and better evidence
(B) Rioting must be committed in public place, (C) takes place after formal framing of charges
affray may be committed in any place (D) establishes innocence of accused
(C) Rioting is punishable with imprisonment ANS: (A)
extending to two years, affray is punishable with
imprisonment extending to one month Q921. Section 50 of Cr. P. C. provides that
(D) Rioting is committed by 5 or more persons and every person arrested without warrant shall be
affray is committed by 2 or more persons informed of grounds of arrest and of right to
ANS: (B) bail, if the arrest is made for a bailable offence.
What is the effect of non-compliance of these
provisions?
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(A) It shall not render the arrest and detention of (C) When the offence is non-cognizable
the person concerned illegal (D) When the proceeding has been instituted on
(B) Even if the provisions of this section are complaint
overlooked, error may be corrected later ANS: (A)
(C) It shall render the arrest and detention of the
person concerned illegal and shall enable the Q928. A warrant of arrest and a proclamation
person arrested move for habeas-corpus to obtain under section 82 of Cr. P. C. were issued
his release simultaneously and later a consequential order
(D) It is simply a procedural error and the of attachment under section 83 was also issued.
provisions of this section are not very material What is the legality of these orders?
ANS: (C) (A) All the orders are perfectly legal
(B) The order under section 82 is legal but order
Q922. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr. under section 83 is illegal
P. C., after the words ‗Public Prosecutor‘, the (C) The order under section 82 is illegal and
words inserted are— improper vitiating the consequential order of
(A) One or more additional public prosecutors attachment
(B) Two or more additional public prosecutors (D) None of the above
(C) At least five additional public prosecutors ANS: (C)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A) Q929. An offence is committed by a British
citizen on an aircraft registered in India. The
Q923. The offences which can be compounded offender may be dealt with under which
are provided under— provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
(A) Schedule first of Cr. P. C. 1973?
(B) Schedule second of Cr. P. C. (A) Section 188
(C) Section 320 of Cr. P. C. (B) Section 183
(D) Section 321 of Cr. P. C. (C) Section 182
ANS: (C) (D) Section 186
ANS: (A)
Q924. In which case, it was held that at the
time of framing charge or taking cognizance, Q930. In which of the following cases it was
accused has no right to produce any material? held that the accused cannot use the case
(A) Anil Royal v. State of Bihar diary? Neither the accused nor his counsel can
(B) State of Orissa v. Debendra Nath Padhi requisition the case diary and they cannot claim
(C) Bani Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh to go through it?
(D) Pratap Singh v. State of Jharkhand (A) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Harish Chandra Singh
ANS: (B) (B) Madhu Limaye v. Union of India
(C) Mukund Lal v. Union of India
Q925. In which sections of Cr. P. C., the (D) J. M. Desai v. State of Bombay
procedure for trial before a court of Sessions is ANS: (C)
provided?
(A) 260 to 265 Q931. Which section of the Code of Criminal
(B) 238 to 250 Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of
(C) 251 to 259 Sessions Judge to transfer cases and appeals?
(D) 225 to 237 (A) Section 409
ANS: (D) (B) Section 408
(C) Section 407
Q926. Investigation includes all the proceedings (D) Section 406
conducted by a police officer— ANS: (B)
(A) For the collection of evidence
(B) For enquiry than a trial Q932. Consider the following statements—
(C) For trial 1. Illegal arrest does not vitiate the trial.
(D) All the above 2. A confession is not invalidated by the illegal
ANS: (A) arrest.
3. Mere keeping a person in police station or
Q927. ―If the complainant is absent on the day restricting his movement within the precincts
fixed for the hearing of the case, the magistrate of a police station amounts to arrest.
may, in his discretion, discharge the accused in 4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person,
certain circumstances.‖ In which one of the but could be complete by spoken words. Select
following circumstances the accused cannot be the correct answer using the codes given
discharged? below— Codes:
(A) When the charge has been framed (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) When the offence is compoundable (B) Only 1 and 4 are correct
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(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct (C) Mounted police shall be employed
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct (D) Village Chaukidar shall be employed
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q933. Under section 77 of Cr. P. C., a warrant of Q940. The Public Prosecutor should inspect the
arrest may be executed— Malkhana once is—
(A) Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing (A) A month
warrant (B) Two months
(B) At any place within the state (C) Three months
(C) At any place in India (D) A fortnight
(D) Within the jurisdiction of District court ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q941. Which of the following is not correct?
Q934. ―Summons case‖ means a case relating to (A) The police may control and regulate the
an offence, punishable with— processions
(A) Imprisonment for life (B) The police has power to forbid or issue order
(B) Imprisonment for a term of 10 years banning the procession in public interest
(C) Imprisonment for a term exceeding two years (C) Those who convene a public assembly, may be
(D) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two required to obtain a licence from the Police
years Superintendent
ANS: (D) (D) The police may lay down conditions for the
conduct of the public assembly or procession
Q935. Who can commute the sentence of ANS: (C)
imprisonment for life under Cr. P. C.?
(A) Appropriate Government Q942. Special police officers may be appointed
(B) The President of India under section 17 of the Uttar Pradesh Police
(C) The Governor of the State Act, 1861 by—
(D) The Home Minister of the State (A) Inspector General of Police
ANS: (A) (B) Any Magistrate suo motu
(C) Magistrate on application of Police Inspector
Q936. In a cognizable offence a police officer— (D) Senior Superintendent of Police
(A) cannot arrest an accused without warrant ANS: (C)
(B) can keep the accused in police custody without
a remand order Q943. Village Chaukidars are appointed by—
(C) is not required to produce the accused before a (A) Gram Pradhan
magistrate (B) In charge of the Police Station
(D) may arrest an accused without warrant (C) Superintendent of Police
ANS: (D) (D) District Magistrate
ANS: (D)
Q937. The objective of the Police Act, 1949 is—
(A) To reorganise the police and to make it a more Q944. Shall it be lawful for a police officer to
efficient instrument for the prevention and take into custody a person who throws or lays
detection of crime down any dirt, filth, rubbish or any stones on
(B) To amend the law relating to the regulation of any road or street, which causes inconvenience
police force or annoyance to public?
(C) To provide for the constitution of a general (A) Yes, even without warrant
police district embracing two or more Union (B) Yes, only under a warrant of arrest
Territories and for the establishment of a police (C) No, because it is not an offence
force therefore (D) No, because the police officer is not empowered
(D) To give more powers to the Inspector General ANS: (A)
and Director General of Police
ANS: (C) Q945. Particulars of which of the following
organised gangs should not be entered in the
Q938. Police Diary is— ‗gang register‘ of a police station of the district?
(A) Case Diary (A) Gang of Dacoits
(B) General Diary (B) Gang of cattle thieves
(C) General Register (C) Gang to burglars
(D) Any of the above (D) Gang of railway goods wagon thieves
ANS: (A) ANS: (B)

Q939. For patrolling of roads ordinarily— Q946. Is the Investigation Officer bound to
(A) Civil police shall be employed reduce in writing any statement made to him in
(B) Armed police shall be employed
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the course of examination under section 161 of (D) R. Vs. Arnold
the Code of Criminal Procedure? ANS: (A)
(A) Yes
(B) No Q953. A national of Pakistan fires from the
(C) Only when directed by the court to do so other side of the borders and a person within
(D) Only in cases of cognizable offences the Indian border is killed. The relatives, friends
ANS: (B) and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani to
border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian
Q947. Which of the following is not required to courts try the accused for murder?
be recorded in the General Diary? (A) No, Indian courts have no jurisdiction
(A) Details contained in a First Information Report (B) Yes
(B) Departure and return of police officers on and (C) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani
from duty authorities for trial in Pakistan
(C) Receipt and disbursement of cash (D) None of the above
(D) Arrests made at the police station ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q954. Who among the following is not a public
Q948. Which of the following is not a duty of servant?
the police officer? (A) Chief Minister of a State
(A) To obey and execute all orders and warrants (B) Chairman of the Central Board of Film Censors
issued to him by any competent authority (C) Surveyor of an Insurance Company
(B) To collect and communicate intelligence (D) Employee of a ‗Nationalized Bank‘
affecting the public peace ANS: (C)
(C) To prevent the commission of offences and
public nuisances Q955. Match List-I (Case) with
(D) To take charge of all unclaimed property and List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer
dispose the same as the circumstances demand using the codes given below the Lists— List-I
ANS: (D) (a) Kehar Singh Vs. Delhi Administration
(b) Nawab Ali Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
Q949. History-sheet of class A, that is for (c) Vishwanath Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods (d) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor
wagon thieves and abettors thereof, may be List-II
discontinued with the sanction of— 1. Right of private defence
(A) Superintendent of Police 2. Criminal Conspiracy
(B) District Magistrate 3. Common Intention
(C) Deputy Inspector General of Police 4. Common Object
(D) Inspector General of Police 5. Mistake of fact Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
ANS: (A) (A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 5 2
Q950. Which of the following entries is not (C) 3 4 1 2
made in the village crime Note-Book Part-I? (D) 2 1 5 3
(A) Main Castes and Tribals ANS: (A)
(B) Specialities of the Population
(C) Entries of offences against the State Q956. ‗A‘ makes an attempt to steal jewels by
(D) The village choukidar breaking open box, and finds after so opening
ANS: (C) the box, that there was no jewel in it. What
offence ‗A‘ has committed?
Q951. No warrant of arrest in a non-cognizable (A) Attempt to theft
offence shall for any reason be kept by the (B) Theft
police for more than— (C) Criminal breach of trust
(A) One month (D) All of the above
(B) Two months ANS: (A)
(C) Six weeks
(D) Fifteen days Q957. ‗A‘ sought to appear in LL.B. examination
ANS: (C) on the basis of forged marks-sheet of B.A., but
forged marks-sheet was detected before the
Q952. ‗In every Statute mens rea is to be commencement of examination—
implied unless contrary is shown from the (A) ‗A‘ is not guilty of cheating
language of the Statute.‘ This view was (B) ‗A‘ is guilty of attempt to cheat
expressed in— (C) ‗A‘ is guilty of cheating
(A) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen (D) None of the above
(B) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen ANS: (C)
(C) Queen Vs. Tolson
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Q958. Which of the following is not correct? (B) Extortion
(A) A person made non compos mentis by illness is (C) Robbery
exempted from criminal liability, if the act was (D) Dacoity
committed under the influence of his mental ANS: (C)
disorder
(B) The intoxication, in order to be available as Q964. Distinction between Section 34 and 149
defence must be of that degree and extent as of IPC has been authoritatively expounded by
renders the accused practically an automation the Supreme Court in—
(C) Voluntary drunkenness is an excuse for (A) State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George
knowledge (B) Guru Deo Singh v. State of Punjab
(D) Except murder and offences punishable with (C) Ram Kumar v. State of Haryana
death, compulsion is an excusable defence, if the (D) Nanak Chand v. State of Punjab
act is done under the fear of instant death ANS: (D)
ANS: (C)
Q965. Which of the following is not necessary to
Q959. Which of the following is not a meaning constitute abetment by conspiracy?
of the expression ‗common intention‘ under (A) A conspiracy between two or more persons
section 34 of the Indian Penal Code? (B) An act or illegal omission must take place in
(A) A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, pursuance of that conspiracy
prior consultation in between all the persons (C) Such an act or illegal omission must also take
constituting the group place in order to do the thing conspired
(B) A desire to commit a criminal act without any (D) The abettor should concert the offence with the
contemplation of the consequence person who commits it
(C) The mens rea necessary to constitute the ANS: (D)
offence that has been committed
(D) Evil intent to necessarily commit the same Q966. Match List-I with
offence which is committed List-II and select the correct answer using the
ANS: (B) codes given below the Lists— List-I
(a) Tukaram Vs. State of Maharashtra
Q960. In which of the following cases ‗necessity‘ (b) State Vs. Nalini
under section 81 of Indian Penal Code cannot be (c) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
pleaded as a defence? (d) State of Maharashtra Vs. Sukh Deo Singh
(A) Self-defence and prevention of violence List-II
(B) Prevention of harm to the accused at the 1. General A.S. Vaidya case
expense of an innocent person 2. Mathura rape case
(C) Self-preservation is an absolute necessity 3. Post-master murder case
(D) Choice of evils affecting person other than the 4. Rajeev Gandhi murder case Codes: (a) (b) (c)
accused (d)
ANS: (C) (A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
Q961. In which section of Indian Penal Code the (C) 4 3 2 1
maxim ‗ignorantia juris non excusat‘ is (D) 3 1 2 4
incorporated? ANS: (A)
(A) Section 78
(B) Section 76 Q967. If in a trial for ‗causing death by
(C) Section 79 negligence‘ it is established that the accused
(D) None of the above had been at fault though victim had also been
ANS: (B) equally at fault—
(A) The fact that the actual injury was brought
Q962. ‗A‘, a child of exact seven years of age about by carelessness or contribution of the victim
commits an offence. ‗A‘ will— also, will be no defence
(A) not be guilty under section 82 of Indian Penal (B) Contributory negligence would be a good
Code defence
(B) be guilty if he is of sufficient maturity (C) The degree of culpability as to the amount of
(C) not be covered by section 82 and 83 of Indian negligence on his part shall be deciding factor
Penal Code (D) None of the above
(D) be guilty under section 83 of Indian Penal Code ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q968. Which one of the following is punishable
Q963. ‗A‘ holds ‗Z‘ down, and fraudulently takes as sedition?
Z‘s money and jewels from ‗Z‘s clothes, without (A) Bitter criticism of the government to overthrow
‗Z‘s consent. ‗A‘ is guilty of committing— it
(A) Theft
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(B) Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful (B) ‗A‘ wrongfully obstructs ‗Z‘
authority (C) ‗A‘ wrongfully confines ‗Z‘
(C) A publicist attack on the policies of the (D) ‗A‘ wrongfully orders ‗Z‘
government ANS: (C)
(D) An attempt to remove the Ministers from power
ANS: (B) Q975. Which one of the following is an
illustration of criminal attempt?
Q969. ‗A‘, for the purpose of inducing ‗B‘ to (A) ‗A‘ tries to kill ‗B‘ by witchcraft
desist from prosecuting a civil suit, threatens to (B) ‗A‘ administers a poisonous drug to a woman ‗B‘
burn ‗B‘s house. What offence was committed by with an intention to cause miscarriage, but the
‗A‘ in this case? woman was not pregnant
(A) Abetment (C) ‗A‘ takes away his own umbrella thinking it to
(B) Criminal assault be of someone else
(C) Criminal force (D) ‗A‘ goes to Kolkata to buy dyes to make
(D) Criminal intimidation counterfeit currency notes
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q970. ‗A‘, with the intention of murdering ‗Z‘, Q976. ‗A‘ has knocked down four teeth of ‗B‘. ‗A‘
instigates ‗B‘, a child below seven years at age, has committed the offence of—
to do an act which causes ‗Z‘s death. ‗B‘, in (A) Attempt to cause hurt
consequence of instigation, did the act in the (B) Causing hurt
absence of ‗A‘, thereby causes ‗Z‘s death. What (C) Causing grievous hurt
offence has been committed by ‗A‘? (D) Attempt to murder
(A) No offence, because ‗A‘ was not present at the ANS: (C)
time of murder
(B) Committed simple offence of causing hurt Q977. Which one of the following is not
(C) Committed offence of attempt to murder punishable under the Indian Penal Code?
(D) Committed murder (A) Preparation to commit murder
ANS: (D) (B) Preparation to commit dacoity
(C) Preparation to wage war against the state
Q971. The Supreme Court of India has upheld (D) Preparation to commit depredation on the
the constitutional validity of section 497 of territory of a friendly power
Indian Penal Code (Adultery) in— ANS: (A)
(A) Smt. Sowmithri Vishnu Vs. Union of India
(B) K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of Maharashtra Q978. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her
(C) Priya Bala Ghosh Vs. Suresh Chandra Ghosh father‘s house with Rs. 10,000 and accompanied
(D) Sukhbeer Singh Vs. State of Haryana ‗Z‘ to various places. All the travelling as well as
ANS: (A) Hotel charges were paid out of the said amount
as ‗Z‘ had no money. During the course of their
Q972. Point out correct response— In theft journey ‗Z‘ had sexual intercourse with her
there must be— thrice with her consent. Here ‗Z‘ is liable under
(A) Dishonest intention to take any kind of property section—
(B) Dishonest intention to take any valuable (A) 363 of Indian Penal Code
security (B) 366 of Indian Penal Code
(C) Dishonest intention to take any movable (C) 366-A of Indian Penal Code
property (D) 376 of Indian Penal Code
(D) Dishonest intention to take only immovable ANS: (D)
property
ANS: (C) Q979. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a
human being by a human being. Reason (R):
Q973. Which of the following is not an Homicide is always unlawful. Select the correct
illustration of assault? answer with the help of codes given below—
(A) ‗A‘ takes up a stick saying to ‗B‘, ―I will beat you‖ Codes:
(B) ‗A‘ threatens ‗B‘ to see him later on (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(C) ‗A‘ medically examines a woman ‗B‘ without her explanation of (A)
consent (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(D) ‗A‘ throws brickbats into the house of ‗B‘ correct explanation of (A)
ANS: (B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) is false but (R) is true
Q974. ‗A‘ places men with firearms at the ANS: (C)
outlets of a building, and tells ‗Z‘ that they will
fire at ‗Z‘ if ‗Z‘ attempts to leave the building— Q980. Match List-I with
(A) ‗A‘ wrongfully restrains ‗Z‘
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List-II and select the correct answer using the Q985. Which one of the following is an
codes given below the Lists— List-I inchoatecrime?
(a) Act of Judge when acting judicially (A) Riot
(b) Accident in doing a lawful act (B) Criminal attempt
(c) Act of a child under seven years of age (C) Unlawful assembly
(d) Act of a person of unsound mind (D) Public nuisance
List-II ANS: (B)
1. Section 82 of I.P.C.
2. Section 84 of I.P.C. Q986. Assault in order to outrage the modesty
3. Section 77 of I.P.C. of a woman is punishable under—
4. Section 80 of I.P.C. Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Section 350 I.P.C.
(A) 4 1 2 3 (B) Section 351 I.P.C.
(B) 3 4 1 2 (C) Section 353 I.P.C.
(C) 1 2 3 4 (D) Section 354 I.P.C.
(D) 2 3 4 1 ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q987. Which of the following would not be
Q981. ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ agreed to commit murder of ‗Z‘ relevant in evidence under section 8 of Indian
by poisoning and ‗Y‘ was to procure poison, but Evidence Act?
he did not procure it. ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ are guilty of— (A) Evidence of the existence of a motive for the
(A) Abetment of murder by conspiracy crime charged
(B) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 of (B) Evidence of a statement which accompanies
Indian Penal Code some conduct
(C) No offence (C) Evidence of a statement which influences and
(D) Criminal conspiracy to murder Z affects the conduct of a person, whose conduct is
ANS: (D) otherwise relevant
(D) Evidence of a statement of the act of robbery
Q982. Which of the following statements is without making any complaint
correct? ANS: (D)
(A) The right of private defence under Indian Penal
Code is available even against an act which is not Q988. In a case where a doctor commits rape on
offence under the code a woman of 30 years of age under his treatment
(B) The right of private defence can be exercised to and the woman says that she did not consent,
repeal unlawful aggression and also to retaliate the court—
(C) The right of private defence is available to (A) will need proof
defend only one‘s own person and property (B) shall presume that she did not consent
(D) The right of private defence extends to the (C) may need corroboration
causing of death when the assault is made with the (D) may presume or may not presume her consent
intention of wrongfully confining a person ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q989. Which one of the following is a
Q983. ‗A‘ shakes his fist at ‗Z‘, intending or judgement-inpersonam?
knowing it to be likely that he may thereby (A) A final judgement in a suit for divorce
cause ‗Z‘ to believe that ‗A‘ is about to strike ‗Z‘. (B) A final judgement in a suit for restitution of
‗A‘ has committed— conjugal rights
(A) Use of force (C) A final judgement in a suit for insolvency
(B) Use of criminal force (D) A final judgement in a suit for admiralty
(C) Assault matters
(D) Use of force and assault both ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q990. Which of the following is not correct for
Q984. ‗A‘ sent through the post office, a packet relevancy of evidence to prove conspiracy?
containing seditious publications, with a (A) There must be reasonable ground to believe that
covering letter requesting the addressee to two or more persons have entered into a conspiracy
circulate it to others. It was intercepted and (B) The act in question must have been done after
never reached the addressee. ‗A‘— the time when the intention to conspire was first
(A) Committed the offence of sedition entertained by any of them
(B) Did not commit any offence (C) The actmust have been done in reference to
(C) Is guilty of inciting communal riot their common intention
(D) Is guilty of an attempt to commit sedition (D) It can also be used in favour of the other party
ANS: (D) or for the purpose of showing that such a person
was not a party to the conspiracy
ANS: (D)
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Q991. Who amongst the following is not an


accomplice?
(A) A bribe giver
(B) A detective
Q996. When can a person prove his own
(C) A prostitute
statement constituting admission, or it may be
(D) A person receiving stolen property
proved on his behalf?
ANS: (B)
(A) When it is relevant as dying declaration
(B) When it is relevant as admission
Q992. The English doctrine of Res Gestae—
(C) When it is relevant as confession
(A) has no place in India
(D) When it is only an oral admission as to content
(B) has place in India
of electronic record
(C) has place in India and has been incorporated
ANS: (A)
under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) has been incorporated under section 7 of the
Q997. Assertion (A): A confession always goes
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
against the maker of it, provided it has been
ANS: (C)
made freely and voluntarily. Reason (R): A
confession is inadmissible against a co-accused.
Q993. Assertion (A): An admission can be used
Choose the correct answer using the codes
against a co-defendant. Reason (R): An
given below— Codes:
admission binds the maker of it. It may be used
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
in his favour as well. Select the correct answer
explanation of (A)
from the codes given below— Codes:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(A) is false but (R) is true
correct explanation of (A)
ANS: (C)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(A) is false but (R) is true
Q998. A statement before the police officer in
ANS: (B)
the course of investigation was that the design
was carried out according to plan; but no
Q994. Which of the following statements is not
reference was made to persons who were
correct regarding ‗admission‗ under section 17
involved in murder or to the maker of
of Indian Evidence Act?
statement himself—
(A) Admission operates as waiver of proof
(A) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this
(B) Admission is a statement which is necessarily
statement, being hit by section 25 of Indian
against one‘s own interest
Evidence Act
(C) A statement which suggests some inference as
(B) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not
to fact-in-issue or relevant fact, may be admission
hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(D) It is generally irrelevant as to whom an
(C) Only that part of the statement may be proved
admission is made
which leads to discovery of a fact in consequence of
ANS: (D)
information received
(D) None of the above is correct
Q995. Match List-I with
ANS: (C)
List-II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists— List-I
Q999. Admissions are—
(a) Section 46 of Indian Evidence Act
(A) Conclusive proof
(b) Section 47 of Indian Evidence Act
(B) Not conclusive proof
(c) Section 47A of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Not estoppel
(d) Section 48 of Indian Evidence Act
(D) None of the above is correct
List-II
ANS: (B)
1. Opinion as to digital signature
2. Opinion as to existence of right or custom,
Q1000. What is the evidentiary value of the
when relevant
confession of a co-accused implicating himself
3. Facts bearing upon opinion of experts
as well as his other non-confessing co-accused?
4. Opinion as to handwriting when relevant
(A) Such a confession is relevant against all the co-
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
accused
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) It shall not be relevant against non-confessing
(B) 1 2 3 4
co-accused
(C) 2 1 4 3
(C) Such a confession amounts to proof of guilt of
(D) 3 4 1 2
all the co-accused
ANS: (D)
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(D) If the confessing co-accused is acquitted of the Q1007. The principle of Promissory Estoppel
main offence, his confession shall cease to be found its root—
admissible (A) As an exception to the doctrine of consideration
ANS: (A) (B) As a rule of future consideration in the law of
contract
Q1001. Relevancy and admissibility under (C) As a rule of past consideration in the law of
Indian Evidence Act are— contract
(A) Synonymous (D) None of the above
(B) Neither synonymous nor co-extensive ANS: (B)
(C) Co-extensive
(D) Synonymous and co-extensive both Q1008. Under which section of Evidence Act, a
ANS: (B) tenant of immovable property is estopped from
denying a title of the landlord to that property?
Q1002. Which section of the Indian Evidence (A) Section 115
Act defines ‗Leading Question‘? (B) Section 116
(A) Section 140 (C) Section 117
(B) Section 141 (D) None of the above
(C) Section 142 ANS: (B)
(D) Section 143
ANS: (B) Q1009. The case of Pakala Narain Swamy v.
Emperor relates to—
Q1003. The case of Sarat Chander Dey v. Gopal (A) Res gestae
Chander Laha, (1891) 19 I.A. 203 is related to (B) Dying declaration
which of the following section of Indian (C) Accomplice
Evidence Act, 1872? (D) Co-accused
(A) Section 6 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 124 Q1010. An accused charged under section 302
(D) Section 45 and 304 B of the Indian Penal Code is acquitted
ANS: (B) of the offence under section 302 of Indian Penal
Code. The presumption under section 113 B of
Q1004. In which year the electronic evidence the Evidence Act is—
was incorporated in the Indian evidence Act as a (A) Automatically refuted
part of documentary Evidence? (B) Not refuted
(A) 2001 (C) Not relevant
(B) 2002 (D) Irrelevant and otiose
(C) 2000 ANS: (B)
(D) 1999
ANS: (C) Q1011. Assertion (A): ‗B‘ writes to his wife ‗C‘ a
letter, which contains defamatory matters about
Q1005. Which of the following is not a public ‗D‘. ‗C‘ cannot be compelled to disclose this
document? communication. Reason (R): Any
(A) Records of a nationalised Bank communication made during subsistence of
(B) A post-mortem report marriage by a husband to his wife or vice-versa
(C) A private waqf deed, recorded in the office of is protected as privileged communication.
sub-registrar Select the correct answer from the codes given
(D) Entries made by a police officer in the site below— Codes:
inspection map and site memo (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
ANS: (B) explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
Q1006. Where a married woman, dying of burns correct explanation of (A)
was a person of unsound mind and the medical (A) is true but (R) is false
certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a (A) is false but (R) is true
statement and not the state of mind at the ANS: (A)
crucial moment; in which of the following cases
the court said that the statement could not be Q1012. Any condition imposed by a Magistrate
relied upon? when releasing any person on bail—
(A) Ravi Chander Vs. State of Punjab (A) Can be set aside or modified only by the
(B) Shripatrao Vs. State of Maharashtra Supreme Court
(C) Uka Ram Vs. State of Rajasthan (B) Cannot be modified by any court
(D) Baldev Raj Vs. State of Himachal Pradesh (C) Can be modified by Sessions Court or High
ANS: (A) Court
(D) Can be set aside only by Sessions Court
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ANS: (C) (C) Duty to record the confessionalstatement in the
form of questions and answers
Q1013. During investigation of an offence of (D) Duty to be satisfied and have reason to believe
committing rape, medical examination of the the confession was voluntary
alleged victim may be done— ANS: (C)
(A) Only on the order of a Magistrate
(B) Necessarily on the request of concerned Q1018. Which one of the following is a case
investigation officer, if he deems it fit relating to anticipatory bail?
(C) After the investigation officer obtains permission (A) D. K. Ganesh Babu Vs. P. T. Manokaran
of his Superintendent of Police (B) Tama Vs. State of West Bengal
(D) With the consent of such woman victim or of (C) Dinesh Dalmia Vs. C. B. I.
any person competent to give such consent on her (D) Dimple Gupta Vs. Rajiv Gupta
behalf ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1019. 1.Who propounded the theory that ―the
Q1014. The main characteristic of the Code of earth moves round the sun‖?
Criminal Procedure, 1973 is— (A) Galileo
(A) The separation of the judiciary from the (B) Einstein
executive (C) Copernicus
(B) The separation of the legislature from the (D) Graham Bell
executive ANS: (A)
(C) The separation of the revenue work from the
executive Q1020. Gerontology is a branch of study related
(D) To provide judicial powers to the executive to diseases associated with—
magistrates (A) Children
ANS: (A) (B) Young adults
(C) Old age
Q1015. Which of the following is not correct (D) Women
regarding provisions of bail in case of non- ANS: (C)
bailable offences?
(A) Bail may be granted, if the court concerned Q1021. What is the title of the former US
comes to the conclusion that prosecution has failed President Mr. Bill Clinton‘s autobiography?
to establish a prima-facie case (A) My Days
(B) Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that (B) My Life
in spite of existence of a prima-facie case there is (C) My Story
need to release such person on bail in view of facts (D) My Years
and circumstances of case ANS: (B)
(C) Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may
be required for being identified by witness during Q1022. On which date of the year is ‗World
investigation Environment Day‘ celebrated?
(D) If the offence is punishable with death, (A) January 5
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for 7 years (B) March 5
or more, no person can be released on bail without (C) June 5
giving an opportunity of hearing to the public (D) November 5
prosecutor ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q1023. Who was the first Indian Prime Minister
Q1016. Under which section of Code of Criminal to address the UN General Assembly in Hindi?
Procedure, security is taken of good behaviour (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
from habitual offenders? (B) Morarji Desai
(A) Section 109 (C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(B) Section 110 (D) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(C) Section 111 ANS: (D)
(D) Section 112
ANS: (B) Q1024. Recently, which Indian cricketer set a
record by scoring the highest runs in Test
Q1017. Which of the following is not a duty of Cricket?
the Magistrate while recording confession under (A) Saurav Ganguly
section 164 Cr. P. C.? (B) Sachin Tendulkar
(A) Duty to explain to the person making the (C) Rahul Dravid
confession that he is not bound to make confession (D) Yuvraj Singh
(B) Duty to work that if he makes a confession, it ANS: (B)
may be used as evidence against him
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Q1025. In the last Olympics at Beijing, who won (C) Septuagenarian
the first ever individual Gold Medal for India? (D) Nonagenarian
(A) Bijender Singh ANS: (A)
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Sushil Kumar Q1033. Which one, from amongst the choices
(D) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore given, would mean the same as the following
ANS: (B) sentence? I feel an aching void.
(A) I feel lonely
Q1026. Till date, who is the only Indian to have (B) I feel pain
been awarded the Nobel Prize for literature? (C) I feel hungry
(A) Ramdhari Singh ‗Dinkar‘ (D) I feel irritation
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee ANS: (A)
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) R. K. Narayan Q1034. From amongst the choices given, which
ANS: (C) one of the clauses correctly completes the
following sentence? I shall have left this place
Q1027. Which State of India has bagged two by the time……….
National Awards associated with tourism in (A) she will come
2008? (B) she would come
(A) Rajasthan (C) she comes
(B) Kerala (D) she will have come
(C) Tamil Nadu ANS: (C)
(D) Gujarat
ANS: (A) Q1035. Such words as are similar in sound but
different in meaning are called—
Q1028. What is the full name of the President of (A) Synonyms
India? (B) Antonyms
(A) Pratibha Patil (C) Homonyms
(B) Pratibha Devi Singh Patil (D) Homophones
(C) Pratibha Devi Patil ANS: (D)
(D) Pratibha Singh Patil
ANS: (B) Q1036. Select the appropriate ‗article‘ to be
filled in the blank in the given sentence. He is
Q1029. Identify the type of the sentence given ……… SP.
below: John proposed that we should sing (A) an
together. (B) a
(A) Assertive (C) the
(B) Optative (D) None of the above
(C) Exclamatory ANS: (A)
(D) Imperative
ANS: (A) Q1037. Identify the ‗figure of speech‘ that best
defines the following sentence. The camel is the
Q1030. Which part of the given sentence ship of the desert—
contains an error? If I was you/ I would not/ (A) Simile
agree to/ that (B) Metaphor
(A) (C) Irony
(B) (D) Sarcasm
(C) foolish proposal. ANS: (B)
(D)
ANS: (A) Q1038. Identify the ‗part of speech‘ in which
the word ‗round‘ has been used in the following
Q1031. Fill in the blank with appropriate sentence. The earth moves round the sun—
‗preposition‘. I cannot come back …… a month. (A) Noun
(A) before (B) Preposition
(B) in (C) Adjective
(C) within (D) Adverb Part—II Law
(D) between ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q1039. The commission to make local
Q1032. Give one word for the following group of investigation can be issued for the purposes of—
words. A person aged between 60 and 70— 1. Collecting evidence on a fact
(A) Sexagenarian 2. Elucidating any matter in dispute
(B) Quinquagenarian 3. Ascertaining the amount of mesne profit
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4. Ascertaining the market value of the (B) At the time of giving of evidence
property Which of the above are correct? Codes: (C) At the time of framing of issues
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (D) When ordered by the court
(B) 2, 3 and 4 ANS: (A)
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2 Q1046. Voluntary amendment is provided for
ANS: (B) under—
(A) Order 6, R.7, C.P.C.
Q1040. Where a decree is passed against the (B) Order 6, R.15, C.P.C.
Union of India or a State for the act done in the (C) Order 6, R.17, C.P.C.
official capacity of the officer concerned, under (D) Order 6, R.19, C.P.C.
Section 82 C.P.C., execution shall not be issued ANS: (C)
on any such decree unless the decree remains
unsatisfied for a period of— Q1047. A plaint is liable to be returned, when—
(A) 3 months from the date of the decree (A) Plaint is on an insufficiently stamped paper
(B) 6 months from the date of the decree (B) Plaint is not filed in duplicate
(C) 1 year from the date of the decree (C) Relief is undervalued in the plaint
(D) 2 years from the date of the decree (D) Plaint is filed in a court having no jurisdiction
ANS: (A) ANS: (D)

Q1041. Assertion (A): The rule of constructive Q1048. The expression, ―Each party shall bear
res judicata is applicable to writ petitions. his own costs‖ implies that—
Reason (R): Public policy considerations (A) Both the parties are entitled to cost from each
underlying res judicata also hold true in relation other
to writ proceedings. Codes: (B) Both the parties are not to be deprived of costs
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (C) Both the parties are to be deprived of costs
explanation of A (D) Both the parties are not entitled to cost from
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct each other
explanation of A ANS: (A)
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true Q1049. Which of the following questions is not
ANS: (A) to be determined by an executing court?
(A) Discharge of decree
Q1042. A residing in Delhi publishes in Kolkata (B) Execution of decree
statements defamatory of B. B may sue A in— (C) Modification of decree
(A) Delhi only (D) Satisfaction of decree
(B) Kolkata only ANS: (C)
(C) Either Delhi or Kolkata
(D) Anywhere in India with the leave of the court Q1050. In which of the following cases the
ANS: (C) Supreme Court has upheld the validity of
Section 51 of Code of Civil Procedure?
Q1043. Which one of the following suits is not (A) Xavier Vs. Bank of Canara
of a civil nature? (B) The Visaka case
(A) Suits relating to rights to property (C) Indian Gramophone Co. Vs. Birendra Bahadur
(B) Suits for rents Pandey
(C) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or (D) Jolly George Verghese Vs. Bank of Cochin
offerings ANS: (D)
(D) Suits against dismissals from service
ANS: (C) Q1051. In which of the following cases the
Supreme Court has upheld the constitutionality
Q1044. Which of the following is not a sufficient of the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment)
cause for granting adjournment? Acts of 1999 and 2002?
(A) Sickness of a party, his witness or his counsel (A) Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu
(B) Non-examination of a witness present in the Vs. Union of India
court (B) Delhi High Court Bar Association Vs. Union of
(C) Non-service of summons India
(D) Reasonable time for preparation of a case (C) Allahabad High Court Bar Association Vs. Union
ANS: (B) of India
(D) Punjab and Haryana High Court Bar
Q1045. Where a plaintiff sues upon a document Association Vs. Union of India
in his power or possession, he must produce it ANS: (A)
or a copy thereof—
(A) Along with the plaint
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Q1052. Which one of the following is a true 3. Debtor of the judgment-debtor liable for
statement in relation to Section 80 of Civil payment or delivery
Procedure Code? 4. Setting aside ex parte decree and rehearing
(A) A suit without service of notice can be instituted the case Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
generally, with the leave of the court (A) 2 3 1 4
(B) A suit without service of notice can be instituted (B) 4 3 2 1
in cases of urgent or immediate relief, with the (C) 4 1 2 3
leave of the court (D) 3 4 2 1
(C) In cases of urgent or immediate relief where ANS: (C)
leave to institute the suit without service of notice
has been granted, interim or otherwise ex parte Q1056. In execution of a decree for the
relief can be granted maintenance, salary of a person can be attached
(D) No suit under Section 80 can be instituted to the extent of—
without the compliance of the requirement of notice (A) One-fourth
ANS: (B) (B) One-third
(C) Two-third
Q1053. Match List–I with List–II and select the (D) One-half
correct answer using the code given below the ANS: (C)
Lists— List-I
(a) Set-off Q1057. Under Order XVIII, Rule 4(1) of C.P.C.,
(b) Mesne profit the examination in chief of a witness shall be
(c) Indigent recorded—
(d) Subsistance allowance (A) By the Judge
List-II (B) By the Commissioner appointed by the court
1. Amount paid by the decreeholder for (C) On affidavit
detention of the judgment-debtor in civil prison (D) All of the above
2. Person allowed to file suit or appeal without ANS: (C)
court fee
3. Adjustment of defendant‘s claim with the Q1058. When a party is called upon by notice to
plaintiff‘s claim admit facts by the other party, under Order XII,
4. Gains from property by a person having Rule 4 of C.P.C., the party on whom the notice
wrongful possession Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) has been served has to admit the facts within—
(A) 4 3 1 2 (A) 15 days of the service of notice
(B) 3 4 2 1 (B) 9 days of the service of notice
(C) 2 1 4 3 (C) 7 days of the service of notice
(D) 3 1 2 4 (D) 6 days of the service of notice
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q1054. Which of the following pairs is/are Q1059. Assertion (A): Subject to some
correctly matched? (1) Right to file caveat— exceptions the provisions of the Code of
Section 148-A, C.P.C. (2) Pauper suit—Section Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal
33, C.P.C. (3) Privileged document—Section 29, areas in undivided Assam. Reason (R): These
C.P.C. (4) Powers of appellate court—Section areas enjoy special status like the State of
102, C.P.C. Codes: Jammu and Kashmir. Codes:
(A) 1 only (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(B) 4 only explanation of A
(C) 1 and 2 (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(D) 2, 3 and 4 explanation of A
ANS: (A) (C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Q1055. Match List-I with ANS: (C)
List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists— List-I Q1060. Reasons for non-applicability of some of
(a) Restitution afresh the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code
(b) Next friend to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the
(c) Legal representative Supreme Court in—
(d) Garnishees (A) State of Nagaland Vs. Rattan Singh
List-II (B) Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura Vs.
1. Representative of a minor or a plaintiff of Province of Assam
unsound mind in a civil suit (C) Zarzoliana Vs. Government of Mizoram
2. Person representing the estate of the (D) State of Nagaland Vs. Chung
deceased ANS: (A)
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Q1061. Who can appoint a police officer as an (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
assistant public prosecutor for courts of ANS: (C)
Magistrates?
(A) Superintendent of Police Q1065. Assertion (A): Power of the State to
(B) District and Sessions Judge order cases to be tried in different sessions
(C) District Magistrate divisions is very limited. Reasons (R): This
(D) High Court on the request of the State extraordinary power is to be used when
Government consideration of public justice justifies its
ANS: (C) exercise. Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Q1062. Who among the following can be explanation of A
arrested without warrant by any Magistrate? (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(A) Any person committing offences within the local explanation of A
jurisdiction of such Magistrate but not in his (C) A is true but R is false
presence (D) A is false but R is true
(B) Any person committing offences anywhere, but ANS: (A)
in the presence of such Magistrate
(C) Any person within his local jurisdiction for Q1066. There shall be no appeal by a convicted
whose arrest he is competent to issue a warrant person where a Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) All of the above imposes only a sentence of fine not exceeding—
ANS: (C) (A) Rs. 1,000
(B) Rs. 200
Q1063. Match List-I with (C) Rs. 100
List-II and select the correct answer using the (D) Rs. 300
code given below the Lists— List-I ANS: (C)
(a) Special Metropolitan Magistrate
(b) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate Q1067. ―Too many appeals and revisions are a
(c) Judicial Magistrate of Second Class bane of the Indian Judicial System, involving as
(d) Assistant Sessions Judge it does sterile expense and delay and fruitless
List-II chase of perfection.‖ Justice Krishna Iyer made
1. Imprisonment up to 7 years or/and fine this observation in—
2. Imprisonment up to 10 years or/and fine (A) Harnam Singh Vs. State of HP
3. Imprisonment up to 3 years or/and fine (B) Mohd. Sauman Ali Vs. State of Assam
4. Imprisonment up to 1 year or/and fine up to (C) Sitaram Vs. State of UP
Rs. 1,000 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (D) Jawaharlal Singh Vs. Naresh Singh
(A) 2 4 3 1 ANS: (A)
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3 Q1068. In a case the Supreme Court observed
(D) 3 1 4 2 thus— ―We are unable to find any magic or
ANS: (D) charm in the ritual of a charge. It is the
substance of these provisions(relating to charge)
Q1064. Where two or more courts have taken that count and not their outform. To hold
cognizance of the same offence and a question otherwise is only to provide avenues or escape
arises as to which of them ought to inquire into for the guilty and afford no protection to the
or try the offence, the question shall be innocent.‖ The court made these observations
decided— in relation to—
1. If the courts are subordinate to the same (A) Alteration of charge
High Court, by that High Court (B) Joinder of charges
2. By the High Court within the local limits of (C) Persons who may be charged jointly
whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the (D) Error, omission or irregularity in charge
accused resides, carries on business or is ANS: (D)
engaged in a gainful employment
3. If the courts are subordinate to the same Q1069. Which of the following offences is triable
High Court, by the High Court in consultation summarily?
with the State Government concerned (A) Theft where the value of the property stolen
4. If the courts are not subordinate to the same does not exceed Rs. 500
High Court, by that court within the local limits (B) Lurking house trespass
of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the (C) Assisting in the concealment of stolen property
proceedings were first commenced Which of the of the value not exceeding Rs. 300
above are correct? Codes: (D) Receiving or retaining stolen property under
(A) 1 and 2 Section 411, I.P.C. when the value of the property
(B) 2 and 3 does not exceed Rs. 250
(C) 1 and 4
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Q1070. The period of limitation prescribed for (D) All of the above
taking cognizance of the offence punishable ANS: (D)
with imprisonment up to 3 years is—
(A) 1 year Q1076. A Magistrate has power to deal with
(B) 2 year urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance
(C) 3 years under—
(D) 4 years (A) Section 133, Cr.P.C.
ANS: (C) (B) Section 144, Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 145, Cr.P.C.
Q1071. In which of the following cases the (D) Section 107, Cr.P.C.
constitutional validity of Section 433-A, Cr.P.C. ANS: (B)
was upheld?
(A) Ashok Kumar Golu Vs. Union of India Q1077. Which of the following Magistrates have
(B) Babu Pahalwan Vs. State of MP power to prohibit repetition or continuance of
(C) Ramesh Vs. State of MP public nuisance?
(D) Karan Singh Vs. State of HP 1. District Magistrate
ANS: (A) 2. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
3. Judicial Magistrate
Q1072. Which of the following is an 4. Executive Magistrate duly empowered in this
interlocutory order for the purposes of behalf Codes:
revisional powers of the High Court or a (A) 1 and 4
Sessions Court? (B) 2 and 3
(A) Orders summoning witnesses (C) 1, 2 and 4
(B) An order of bail granted by a Magistrate (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) An order rejecting the plea of the accused on a ANS: (C)
point which when accepted, will conclude the
particular proceeding Q1078. Assertion (A): The provisions for
(D) Interlocutory orders which are without reviewing the decision of a criminal court are
jurisdiction and nullities essential for the due protection of life and
ANS: (A) liberty. Reasons (R): They are based on the
notion that Judges and Magistrates are not
Q1073. A is only charged with theft and it infallible. Codes:
appears that he committed the offence of (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
criminal breach of trust. In this context, which explanation of A
one of the following is correct? (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(A) He may be acquitted explanation of A
(B) He may be convicted only of theft (C) A is true but R is false
(C) He may be convicted of criminal breach of trust (D) A is false but R is true
(D) He may not be convicted of criminal breach of ANS: (D)
trust
ANS: (C) Q1079. The question is, whether A was robbed.
The fact that he said, he had been robbed
Q1074. Which of the following courts can set without making any complaint—
aside or modify the conditions imposed by a (A) Is relevant showing preparation for relevant
Magistrate when granting bail? facts
(A) High Court or Court of Sessions under Section (B) Is relevant showing conduct
439, Cr.P.C. (C) Is relevant showing effect of relevant facts
(B) High Court under Section 482, Cr.P.C. (D) May be relevant under Section 32 or Section
(C) Sessions Court under Section 465, Cr.P.C. 157 of the Evidence Act
(D) Court of Sessions under Section 438, Cr.P.C. ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q1080. A is accused of receiving stolen goods
Q1075. An offence of bigamy punishable under knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove
Section 494, I.P.C. was committed by A in that he refused to sell them below their value.
Patna. The place where A resided with his first He may—
wife B was Gaya and the place where his first (A) Not prove this statement
wife took up a permanent residence after the (B) Prove if it is relevant otherwise than an
commission of the offence is Bhagalpur. The admission
offence may be inquired into or tried by a court (C) Prove it as it is explanatory of conduct
of competent jurisdiction at— influenced by facts in issue
(A) Patna (D) None of the above
(B) Bhagalpur ANS: (C)
(C) Gaya
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Q1081. Which one of the following statements is (B) Queen Empress Vs. Babulal
correct? (C) Queen Vs. Lillyman
(A) An admission by a guardian and litem against a (D) Pakla Narayan Swamy Vs. Emperor
minor is evidence ANS: (B)
(B) Admission on a point of law made by a pleader
in court on behalf of the client is evidence Q1087. Where a bill of exchange is drawn in a
(C) Admission by one of the several defendants in a set of five, how many of them need to be
suit against another defendant is evidence proved?
(D) Admission of fact made by a pleader in court on (A) Five
behalf of his client is evidence (B) Three
ANS: (D) (C) One
(D) Two
Q1082. Which one of the following is the true ANS: (C)
statement in relation to the relevancy of
character? Q1088. Assertion (A): A gives B a receipt for
(A) In criminal cases, previous good character is money paid by B. Oral evidence is offered for
irrelevant the payment. The evidence is admissible.
(B) In criminal proceedings, previous bad character Reason (R): A receipt is not a contract or grant
is relevant in respect of which oral evidence is barred.
(C) In civil cases, character to prove conduct Codes:
imputed is relevant (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(D) In civil cases, character of any person affecting explanation of A
the amount of damages is relevant (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
ANS: (D) explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
Q1083. When the court has to form an opinion (D) A is false but R is true
as to the digital signature of any person, the ANS: (A)
opinion of which of the following is relevant?
(A) Certifying Authority Q1089. Assertion (A): Section 91 and 92,
(B) Controller appointed under the Information Evidence Act should be read together. Reason
Technology Act (R): These two Sections supplement each other.
(C) Internet Service Provider Codes:
(D) Certifying Authority which had issued digital (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
signature certificate explanation of A
ANS: (D) (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
Q1084. In which of the following cases the (C) A is true but R is false
Supreme Court raised doubts regarding the (D) A is false but R is true
applicability of the doctrine of equitable ANS: (A)
estoppel beyond Section 115, Evidence Act?
(A) Mercantile Bank of India Ltd. Vs. Central Bank Q1090. The court shall take judicial notice of—
of India Ltd. (A) Foreign judicial records
(B) Madanappa Vs. Chandramma (B) National Flag of a State not recognized by India
(C) Turner Morrison and Co. Vs. Hungerford (C) Stephen‘s Digest on Criminal Law
Investment Trust Ltd. (D) Rule of Road on land (and in sea)
(D) Sitaram Vs. State of UP ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q1091. Which of the following is an example of
Q1085. No revenue officer shall be compelled to ‗may presume‘?
say whence he got any information as to the (A) Presumption as to electronic records
commission of any offence against the public (B) Presumption as to digital signature certificate
revenue. This provision is contained in— (C) Presumption as to electronic messages
(A) Section 125, Evidence Act (D) Presumption as to electronic agreements
(B) Section 124, Evidence Act ANS: (C)
(C) Section 123, Evidence Act
(D) Section 126, Evidence Act Q1092. Section 58 of the Evidence Act deals
ANS: (A) with—
(A) Formal admissions
Q1086. No confession made to a police officer (B) Evidentiary admissions
shall be proved as against a person accused of (C) Formal as well as evidentiary admissions
any offence. The rationale of this rule is stated (D) Proof of facts by oral evidence
in— ANS: (C)
(A) Queen Empress Vs. Abdullah
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Q1093. Which of the following pairs is not (C) Copies made from or compared with the
correctly matched? original—Evidence
(A) Relevancy of statements as to law contained in (D) Facts connected to a fact in issue in such a
law books—Section 38, Evidence Act, manner as to constitute part of the same
(B) Relevancy of statements in maps, charts, etc.— transaction—Rule nisi
Section 35 Evidence Act ANS: (D)
(C) Relevancy of certain evidence for proving in
subsequent proceedings the truth of facts therein Q1098. Match List-I with
stated—Section 34, Evidence Act List-II and select the correct answer using the
(D) Relevancy of statement as to facts of public code given below the Lists— List-I
nature—Section 37, Evidence Act (a) Confession caused by inducement, threat,
ANS: (C) promise
(b) Confession to a customs officer
Q1094. In which of the following instances (c) Confession in the FIR given by the accused
there is no reasonal ground for asking the (d) Discovery of a fact pursuant to a statement
witness the question whether he is a dacoit? in police custody
(A) A barrister is instructed by an attorney that an List-II
important witness is a dacoit 1. Aghnoo Nagesia Vs. State
(B) A pleader is informed by a person in court that 2. State of Punjab Vs. Barkatram
an important witness is a dacoit. The information 3. Pyarelal Bhargava Vs. State of Rajasthan
on being questioned by the pleader gives 4. State of Bombay Vs. Kathi Kalu Oghad
satisfactory reasons for his statement Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) A witness of whom nothing whatsoever is (A) 1 4 3 2
known, is asked randomly, whether he is a dacoit (B) 2 3 4 1
(D) A witness of whom nothing whatsoever is (C) 2 1 3 4
known, being questioned as to his mode of life and (D) 3 2 1 4
means of living gives unsatisfactory answers ANS: (D)
ANS: (C)
Q1099. Which one of the following is not
Q1095. Husband and wife— provided in Sections 4 and 5 of the Contract
(A) Are competent witnesses against each other in Act?
matrimonial cases (A) Communication of offer
(B) Are not competent witnesses against each other (B) Communication of acceptance
as they are one person in law (C) Revocation of proposal and acceptance
(C) Are competent witnesses against each other in (D) Revocation of contract
civil cases only Ans: (d)
(D) Are competent witnesses against each other in
civil as well as criminal cases Q1100. Which one of the following does not
ANS: (D) amount to fraud?
(A) Active concealment of a fact
Q1096. Match List-I with (B) A promise made without any intention of
List-II and select the correct answer using the performing it
code given below the Lists— List-I (C) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by
(a) Bloodstains and blood group one who does not believe it to be true
(b) Automatic camera (D) A represenation made without knowing it to be
(c) Tape-recorded statement false, honestly believing it to be true
(d) Handwriting ANS: (D)
List-II
1. Reg Vs. Dodson Q1101. A stipulation for increased interest from
2. State of Gujarat Vs. Chhota Lal Patni the date of default is known as—
3. B Vs. Attorney-General (A) Damage
4. Yusufalli Vs. State of Maharashtra Codes: (a) (B) Penalty
(b) (c) (d) (C) Liquidated damage
(A) 3 4 2 1 (D) Compensation
(B) 3 1 4 2 ANS: (B)
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 2 4 3 Q1102. Match List-I with
ANS: (D) List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists— List-I
Q1097. Which of the following pairs is not (a) Tinn Vs. Hoffman and Co.
correctly matched? (b) Fisher Vs. Bell
(A) That a man heard or said something— Fact (c) Carlill Vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(B) A map or plan—Document (d) Harvey Vs. Facey
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List-II ANS: (B)
1. Invitation to treat
2. Offers at large Q1107. Adomsen Vs. Jarvis is a leading case
3. Cross offers on—
4. Quotation of price Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Bailment
(A) 3 1 4 2 (B) Contract of Indemnity
(B) 1 2 3 4 (C) Contract of Guarantee
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) Pledge
(D) 2 4 1 3 ANS: (B)

Q1103. Which one of the following propositions Q1108. The principle of agency of necessity is—
is correct? (A) Applicable in emergent situations where
(A) A minor‘s contract being void, a minor is not communication with the principal is not possible
bound to pay for necessities supplied to him (B) Applicable in normal situations if the
(B) A minor‘s contract being voidable he is bound to communication with the principal is possible
pay for necessities supplied to him (C) Unknown to the law of agency
(C) A minor is bound to pay for necessities supplied (D) None of the above
to him because a minor‘s contract is valid ANS: (A)
(D) A minor‘s contract is void but he is bound to
pay for necessities supplied to him Q1109. A gives woolen cloth to B, a tailor, for
ANS: (D) making a suit. The tailor‘s charges are settled at
Rs. 500. After the suit is ready, A tenders Rs.
Q1104. Match List-I with 500 for the charges but the tailor refuses to
List-II and select the correct answer using the deliver the suit till A pays an old due. In such
code given below the Lists— List-I case—
(a) Supervening impossibility (A) B can refuse to deliver the suit
(b) Consideration (B) B cannot refuse to deliver the suit
(c) Good faith (C) B can refuse in certain circumstances
(d) Dunlop Tyre Co. Vs. Selfridge and Co. (D) B can sell the suit
List-II ANS: (B)
1. Uberrima fides contract
2. Frustration Q1110. Which of the following is correct?
3. Privity of contract (A) Pledge made by a person having a limited
4. Quid pro quo Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) interest is valid to the extent of that interest
(A) 1 3 4 2 (B) Pledge made by a person under voidable
(B) 3 2 1 4 contract is valid
(C) 2 4 1 3 (C) Pledge made by a mercantile agent is valid
(D) 2 1 3 4 (D) Goods may be pledged by the servant in the
ANS: (C) absence of owner
ANS: (A)
Q1105. Assertion (A): Marriage brokerage
contract is valid. Reason (R): Marriage brokerage Q1111. Assertion (A): The liability of the surety
contract is opposed to public policy. Codes: is coextensive with that of the principal debtor
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct unless it is otherwise provided by the contract.
explanation of A Reason (R): Any variance, made without the
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct surety‘s consent, in the terms of the contract
explanation of A between the principal debtor and the creditor,
(C) A is true but R is false discharges the surety as to transactions
(D) A is false but R is true subsequent to variance. Codes:
ANS: (D) (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Q1106. Which of the following are the duties of (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
a bailee? explanation of A
1. Duty to take reasonable care of goods (C) A is true but R is false
2. Duty not to make unauthorised use of goods (D) A is false but R is true
3. Duty not to mix his own goods with the ANS: (B)
goods bailed
4. Duty to compensate when goods is damaged Q1112. A without the request of anybody
despite of the care of the bailee Codes: extinguishes the fire of B‘s godown. A suffers
(A) 2, 3 and 4 injury thereby. B promises to compensate A for
(B) 1, 2 and 3 the whole amount he has spent for his
(C) 3 and 4 treatment. The contract is—
(D) 1 and 2 (A) Unenforceable
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(B) Void (A) Can be enforced if the event does not happen
(C) Voidable within the fixed time
(D) Enforceable (B) Cannot be enforced at all, being void
ANS: (D) (C) Can be enforced if before the expiry of fixed
time, it becomes certain that such an event shall
Q1113. Promissory estoppel is sometimes not happen
spoken of as a substitute for— (D) Both (A) and (C)
(A) Novation ANS: (D)
(B) Quasi-contract
(C) Consideration Q1118. Which one of the following is a
(D) Coercion contract?
ANS: (B) (A) An agreement to do a lawful act by an unlawful
means
Q1114. X, a trader, leaves goods at Y‘s house by (B) An undertaking in writing duly signed to pay
mistake. If Y uses the goods, then which one of the timebarred debt
the following is correct when X demands the (C) An agreement in restraint of a lawful trade
price of goods and Y refuses to pay? (D) An agreement to pay Rs. 10,000 without
(A) Y is not bound to pay as he becomes the owner consideration
of the goods left at his home ANS: (B)
(B) Y is bound to pay as X did not intend to supply
goods gratuitously and Y enjoyed the benefits of X‘s Q1119. How many languages are there in the
act Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(C) Y is not bound to pay as he did not ask for the (A) 16
goods (B) 18
(D) X must suffer for his mistake and he cannot (C) 20
recover the price of goods from Y (D) 22
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q1115. X contracted with a tent house for Q1120. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution
erecting a shamiana for performing the marriage deals with—
of his daughter. On the day of marriage, a (A) Backward Classes Commission
curfew was clamped in the area preventing the (B) Election Commission
celebration of the marriage. The shamiana (C) Union Public Service Commission
owner claims the charges agreed to be paid by (D) Finance Commission
X. In the light of the above, which one of the ANS: (A)
following is correct?
(A) X has to pay the contracted charges Q1121. In which year ‗Advocate‘s Welfare Fund
(B) X need not pay the agreed charges but only Act‘ was enacted by Parliament of India?
reasonable charges (A) 1999
(C) X can require the State to bear the claim for (B) 2001
damages (C) 2003
(D) X need not pay anything as the celebration of (D) 2008
the marriage was impossible on account of the ANS: (B)
curfew
ANS: (D) Q1122. In which one of the following cases it
has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs
Q1116. In which of the following instances has within municipal area of Rishikesh is not
the discharge of agreement not been effected? violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution?
(A) A promises to paint a picture for B. B afterwards (A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
forbid him to do so (B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of
(B) A owes B Rs. 5,000. C pays to B Rs. 1,000 Uttarakhand
which B accepts in satisfaction of his claim against (C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
A (D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
(C) A awaits arrival of B to finish the painting for B ANS: (C)
(D) A owes B Rs. 2,000 and is also indebted to
other creditors. A makes an arrangement with his Q1123. ‗Right to Information‘ is defined under—
creditors, including B, to pay them, half of the loan (A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
amount. A pays to B Rs. 1,000 (B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
ANS: (C) (C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information Act,
Q1117. A contingent contract based on the 2005
specified uncertain event not happening within ANS: (B)
a fixed time—
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Q1124. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly ANS: (B)
one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community Q1132. ‗www‘ on the internet stands for—
(B) Muslim Community (A) Words Words Words
(C) Anglo-Indian Community (B) Wide Word Words
(D) Parsi Community (C) World Wide Web
ANS: (C) (D) When Where Why
ANS: (C)
Q1125. A Supreme Court‘s Judge retires at an
age of— Q1133. To which of the following companies,
(A) 58 years the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its
(B) 70 years ‗Logo‘?
(C) 62 years (A) Pepsico India
(D) 65 years (B) TISCO
ANS: (D) (C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
Q1126. Who is the head of the ‗State- ANS: (A)
Executive‘?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly Q1134. The Article of the Indian Constitution
(B) The State Cabinet which automatically become suspended on
(C) The Chief Minister Proclamation of Emergency is—
(D) The Governor (A) Article 14
ANS: (D) (B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
Q1127. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil (D) Article 32
Nadu is related with— ANS: (B)
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution Q1135. Which State in India implemented the
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws ‗Panchayati Raj System‘ first?
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker (A) Rajasthan
under Article 105 of the Constitution (B) Maharashtra
ANS: (C) (C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Q1128. Humanisation and decrimanisationof ANS: (A)
attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission Q1136. In India, which institution holds
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission ultimate authority to accept ‗Five Year Plans‘?
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission (A) Planning Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission (B) National Development Council
ANS: (A) (C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
Q1129. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. ANS: (B)
2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution Q1137. On whose recommendation the financial
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution distribution between the ‗Union‘ and ‗States‘
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution takes place?
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution (A) The Finance Commission
ANS: (A) (B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
Q1130. Joint Meeting of both Houses of (D) The Inter-State Council
Parliament is chaired by— ANS: (A)
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha Q1138. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha Bill?
(D) None of the above (A) Finance Minister
ANS: (C) (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
Q1131. Who among the following was the (D) None of the above
Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission? ANS: (B)
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna Q1139. The Court which has jurisdiction over
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan election disputes under Section 80 of the
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
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(A) Supreme Court (D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) High Court ANS: (B)
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal Q1146. Under which Article of the Constitution
ANS: (B) of India, Parliament may admit a new State in
the Indian Union?
Q1140. Who can remove Election Commissioner (A) In Article 1
from his office? (B) In Article 2
(A) Chief Election Commissioner (C) In Article 3
(B) Prime Minister (D) In Article 4
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of ANS: (B)
the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Q1147. Which of the following is not mentioned
Chief Election Commissioner in Directive Principles of State policy under the
ANS: (D) Constitution of India?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
Q1141. In which of the following cases (B) Right to equal pay for equal work
constitutionality of the Central Educational (C) Promotion of international peace and security
Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, (D) Free and compulsory education for children
2006 was challenged? upto fourteen years of age
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India ANS: (D)
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar Q1148. The Charter of the United Nations was
(D) None of the above signed at San-Francisco on—
ANS: (A) (A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
Q1142. How many times the emergency has (C) January 26, 1946
been proclaimed in India on the ground of (D) December 30, 1941
internal disturbance? ANS: (A)
(A) Once
(B) Twice Q1149. Where the head office of the United
(C) Thrice Nations is situated?
(D) Never (A) Washington
ANS: (A) (B) Geneva
(C) New York
Q1143. In which year financial emergency was (D) The Hague
proclaimed under Article 360 in India? ANS: (C)
(A) 1962
(B) 1965 Q1150. How many members are in the Security
(C) 1975 Council?
(D) Never (A) 5
ANS: (D) (B) 9
(C) 10
Q1144. Who appoints the Chairman of the State (D) 15
Public Service Commission in India? ANS: (D)
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Q1151. Which one of the following Article of
Governor of the State United Nations Charter is related to the
(C) The Governor of the State procedure of voting?
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission (A) Article 16
in consultation with the Governor (B) Article 18
ANS: (C) (C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)

Q1152. Which one of the following is not one of


the principal organ of United Nations?
Q1145. By which Amendment of the Indian
(A) Economic and Social Council
Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged
(B) Trusteeship Council
State of the Indian Territory?
(C) International Labour Organization
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(D) International Court of Justice
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
ANS: (C)
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
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Q1153. Two official languages of the United ANS: (C)
Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi Q1160. Article 21-A was added in the
(B) English and German Constitution by—
(C) English and Urdu (A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(D) English and French (B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
ANS: (D) (C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
Q1154. The Directive Principles of State Policy ANS: (A)
in the Constitution of India have been taken
from which one of the following? Q1161. Socialist and secular words were added
(A) The Constitution of Ireland in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(B) The Constitution of United States of America (A) 44th Amendment
(C) The Constitution of Australia (B) 42nd Amendment
(D) The Constitution of Canada (C) 45th Amendment
ANS: (A) (D) 48th Amendment
ANS: (B)
Q1155. P‘s passport was cancelled by the
authority without giving him any reasonable Q1162. Which one of the following Articles of
opportunity of being heard which was Indian Constitution is not related to the
mandatory. In such case— environmental protection?
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued (A) Article 48 A
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the (B) Article 51 A(i)
authority has no obligation to act fairly (C) Article 51 A(g)
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in (D) Both (A) and (C)
interest of security of India, no one can challenge ANS: (B)
the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued Q1163. In International Court of Justice, there
ANS: (A) are—
(A) President and 15 other members
Q1156. The maximum period of continuation of (B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
emergency under Article 356 of the Indian (C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
Constitution is— (D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
(A) 3 years ANS: (D)
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year Q1164. International Human Rights Day is
(D) 2 years celebrated on—
ANS: (A) (A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
Q1157. Which one of the following Schedule was (C) 14th July
added in the Constitution by the 73rd (D) 26th November
Constitutional Amendment? ANS: (B)
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI Q1165. The Headquarters of International Court
(C) Schedule XI of Justice is at—
(D) Schedule IX (A) New York
ANS: (C) (B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
Q1158. The procedure for the removal of (D) Paris
Supreme Court Judge is given in— ANS: (C)
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5) Q1166. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the
(C) Article 125 review of relations between—
(D) Article 126 (A) The Prime Minister and The President
ANS: (A) (B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
Q1159. Participation of workers in management (D) Centre and States
of industries is provided under Indian ANS: (D)
Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A Q1167. Under which Article of the Constitution
(B) In Article 48 A the Inter-State Council is constituted?
(C) In Article 43 A (A) Article 254
(D) In Article 45 (B) Article 260
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(C) Article 263 (D) Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Article 267 ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q1175. Arrest of a person in execution of a
Q1168. By which Amendment of the decree has been provided—
Constitution the Service Tribunals were (A) Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
established? (B) Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(A) 39th Amendment (C) Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) 44th Amendment (D) Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) 40th Amendment ANS: (D)
(D) 42nd Amendment Part—II Law
ANS: (D) Q1176. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of
Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or
Q1169. Under Section 30 of the Hindu amend the proceedings to—
Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of (A) Either party
his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary (B) To plaintiff only
property by— (C) To defendant only
(A) Will (D) To only one defendant, if there are more than
(B) Gift one defendant
(C) Sale ANS: (A)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A) Q1177. Which of the following Sections of the
Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‗Mesne
Q1170. Presumption that the younger survived Profit‘?
the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu (A) Section 2(4)
Succession Act, 1956 is a— (B) Section 2(14)
(A) Presumption of fact (C) Section 2(6)
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law (D) Section 2(12)
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law ANS: (D)
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
ANS: (C) Q1178. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure
deals with—
Q1171. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu (A) Appeal to Supreme Court
Succession Act, 1956 is a— (B) Appeal by indigent person
(A) Per capita rule (C) Appeal against orders
(B) Per stirpes (D) Appeal from appellate decrees
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule ANS: (D)
(D) Rule of exclusion
ANS: (A) Q1179. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a
suit—
Q1172. A decree may be executed by— (A) For partition
(A) Tehsildar (B) For partnership
(B) Collector (C) For possession and mesne profit
(C) District Judge (D) All of the above
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which ANS: (D)
it is sent
ANS: (D) Q1180. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in—
Q1173. On which of the following maxim the (A) District Court
doctrine of ‗Res Judicata‘ is based? (B) The court of lower grade
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se (C) The court of higher grade
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio (D) All of the above
(C) Respondent superior ANS: (B)
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
ANS: (D) Q1181. Pleading has been defined in—
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Q1174. Right to lodge a ‗caveat‘ has been (B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
provided under— (C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(A) Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Section 148-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, ANS: (A)
1908
(C) Section 148-B of the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908
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Q1182. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Q1189. Who can tender pardon to accomplice
Procedure provides that one person may sue or under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal
defend on behalf of all in same interest? Procedure?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1 (A) Chief Judicial Magistrate only
(B) Order 2, Rule 2 (B) Metropolitan Magistrate only
(C) Order 1, Rule 8 (C) Magistrate of the First Class only
(D) Order 1, Rule 9 (D) All of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1183. Which one of the following authorities is Q1190. The procedure of trials held before the
not entitled to try a case summarily under the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of
Code of Criminal Procedure? Criminal Procedure under—
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate (A) Sections 204 to 210
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate (B) Sections 220 to 224
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class (C) Sections 225 to 237
(D) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate (D) Sections 238 to 245
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q1184. Which one of the following Sections of Q1191. On being submitted the sentence of
the Code of Civil Procedure deals with death by Court of Sessions, the High Court
‗Revision‘? may—
(A) Section 110 (A) Confirm the sentence
(B) Order VI, Rule 13 (B) Annul the conviction
(C) Section 115 (C) May pass any other sentence warranted by law
(D) Section 120 (D) All of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1185. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Q1192. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal
Procedure provides a protection to the members Procedure defines the term—
of Armed Forces from arrest? (A) Investigation
(A) Section 41 (B) Charge
(B) Section 45 (C) Inquiry
(C) Section 46 (D) Offence
(D) Section 50 ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q1193. Which ‗Section‘ of the Code of Criminal
Q1186. In a summary trial the maximum period Procedure provides for prosecution for offences
of imprisonment is— against marriage?
(A) Not exceeding three months (A) Section 196
(B) Not exceeding six months (B) Section 197
(C) Not exceeding one year (C) Section 198
(D) Not exceeding two years (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q1187. Which of the following are liable under Q1194. Which Section of the Code of Criminal
Section 125(1) Procedure provides that ―no statement made by
(d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for any person to a police officer if reduced to
payment of maintenance to their parents, who writing, be signed by the person making it‖?
are unable to maintain themselves? (A) Section 161
(A) Sons only (B) Section 162
(B) Daughters only (C) Section 163
(C) Sons and daughters both (D) Section 164
(D) None of the above ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q1195. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a
Q1188. Section 2 sentence of imprisonment—
(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure defines— (A) Not exceeding seven years
(A) Bailable offence (B) Exceeding seven years
(B) Non-bailable offence (C) For life
(C) Cognizable offence (D) None of the above
(D) Non-cognizable offence ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
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Q1196. Which one of the following Sections of Q1203. The maxim ‗Ignorantia facit excusat‘
the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for relates to—
anticipatory bail? (A) Section 75 of the Indian Penal Code
(A) Section 436 (B) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 438 (C) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 439 (D) None of the above
(D) Section 437 ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1204. Which Provision of the Indian Penal
Q1197. In which of the following cases some Code says, ―nothing is an offence which is done
important principles regarding the defence of by accident‖?
unsoundness of mind were propounded? (A) Section 79 of I.P.C.
(A) Mc‘Naughten Case (B) Section 78 of I.P.C.
(B) R. V. Prince (C) Section 80 of I.P.C.
(C) R. V. Dudley and Stephen (D) None of the above
(D) Reg V. Govinda ANS: (C)
ANS: (A)
Q1205. Which one of the following Sections of
Q1198. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared
the Indian Penal Code defines ‗affray‘? unconstitutional as violative of Articles 14 and
(A) Section 159 21 of the Constitution of India?
(B) Section 160 (A) Section 301
(C) Section 161 (B) Section 303
(D) Section 148 (C) Section 306
ANS: (A) (D) Section 314
ANS: (B)
Q1199. ‗A‘ attempts to pick the pocket of ‗Z‘ by
thrusting his hand into ‗Z‘s‘ pocket. ‗A‘ fails in Q1206. Which one of the following Sections of
his attempt as ‗Z‘ had nothing in his pocket. the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for
What offence ‗A‘ has committed? abetment to commit suicide?
(A) Theft (A) Section 306
(B) Attempt to commit theft (B) Section 307
(C) Mischief (C) Section 308
(D) No offence (D) Section 309
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q1200. Which one of the following provisions of Q1207. Which one of the following cases is not
the Indian Penal Code relates to vicarious correctly matched?
liability? (A) Mc‘Naughten‘s case—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(A) Section 120A (B) D.P.P. V. Beard—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 121 (C) Basudeo V. State—Section 86 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 154 (D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal— Section 79 of
(D) Section 159 I.P.C.
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1201. Which one of the following cases is a Q1208. How many kinds of hurts are included
case relating to Section 34 of the Indian Penal under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the
Code? Indian Penal Code?
(A) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra (A) 5
(B) Niharendu Dutta Vs. King Emperor (B) 6
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor (C) 7
(D) Kedar Nath Vs. State of West Bengal (D) 8
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1202. Which one of the following Provisions of Q1209. Which one of the following Sections of
the Indian Penal Code defines ‗Unlawful the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment
Assembly‘? for cheating?
(A) Section 141 (A) Section 415
(B) Section 142 (B) Section 417
(C) Section 146 (C) Section 416
(D) Section 149 (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (B)
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Q1210. Which Provision of the Indian Penal (D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
Code makes water pollution punishable? ANS: (D)
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278 Q1218. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 279 deals with those conditions, when consent is
(D) Section 280 said to be, not free consent?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
Q1211. In which of the following offences under (C) Section 92
the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the (D) Section 89
offence is punishable? ANS: (B)
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death Q1219. Point out incorrect response. The
(C) Waging war against Government of India following are modes of abetment—
(D) Theft (A) Instigation
ANS: (C) (B) Engaging in conspiracy
(C) Aiding
Q1212. Adultery is an offence committed— (D) None of the above
(A) With the consent of a married woman ANS: (D)
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the Q1220. In which of the following cases the
consent of her husband principles relating to the defence of intoxication
(D) With the consent of a minor girl were laid down?
ANS: (A) (A) Mc‘ Naughten Case
(B) Director of Public Prosecution Vs. Beard
Q1213. How many exceptions have been (C) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
provided for the offence of defamation under (D) R. Vs. Prince
Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code? ANS: (B)
(A) 4
(B) 10 Q1221. ‗A‘ administers poisonous drug to a
(C) 6 woman ‗B‘ to cause miscarriage. It is found that
(D) 9 ‗B‘ was not pregnant. In this case—
ANS: (B) (A) ‗A‘ is not guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
Q1214. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State (C) ‗A‘ is guilty of murder
related to— (D) ‗A‘ is guilty of no offence
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C. ANS: (B)
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C. Q1222. Which is the secondary source of
(D) None of the above Muslim Law under the following?
ANS: (C) (A) Custom
(B) Ijmaa
Q1215. Which one of the following cases relates (C) Qiyas
to right of private defence? (D) None of the above
(A) Jaidev Vs. State ANS: (A)
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State Q1223. Which of the following modifies the
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer application of Muslim Law?
ANS: (A) (A) Shariat Act, 1937
(B) Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939
Q1216. ‗A‘ enters ‗Z‘ house through a window. (C) Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce)
Here ‗A‘ commits— Act, 1986
(A) Trespass (D) All the above
(B) House trespass ANS: (D)
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above Q1224. Which of the following Muslim Laws
ANS: (C) applies in India?
(A) Muslim Penal Law
Q1217. Which one of the following cases is not (B) Muslim Law of Evidence
related to Mens rea? (C) Muslim Law of Sales of goods
(A) R. Vs. Prince (D) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce)
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson Act, 1986
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen ANS: (D)
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(A) Father‘s mother
Q1225. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as (B) Mother‘s mother
source of Muslim Law? (C) Sisters
(A) Imam Abu Hanifa (D) Maternal aunt
(B) Imam Yusuf ANS: (B)
(C) Imam Jafer
(D) Imam Ahmad Q1233. A Muslim can marry any number of
ANS: (A) wives not exceeding four, if a Muslim marries a
fifth wife such a marriage shall be—
Q1226. Under Muslim Law, marriage is— (A) Valid
(A) An institution legalising male and female (B) Void
conjugal relations (C) Irregular
(B) A civil contract (D) Either A or B
(C) Sunnet ANS: (C)
(D) All the above
ANS: (D) Q1234. In Sunni-te Law, the guardian of the
minor‘s property is—
Q1227. Who can be a guardian in minor‘s (A) Mother
marriage in Sunni Law? (B) Father
(A) Mother in the presence of father (C) Mother‘s mother
(B) Grand-mother in the presence of mother (D) Father‘s father
(C) Maternal uncle in the presence of real uncle ANS: (B)
(D) Father
ANS: (D) Q1235. After divorce a Muslim woman—
(A) Cannot remarry
Q1228. Under the following which is absolute (B) Can remarry immediately
incapacity for marriage? (C) Can marry only after completion of ‗Iddat‘ period
(A) Consanguinity (D) None of the above
(B) Affinity ANS: (C)
(C) Fosterage
(D) All the above Q1236. How many witnesses are necessary in
ANS: (D) Shia Muslim marriage?
(A) Two males
Q1229. Which is a relative incapacity for (B) One male and two females
marriage? (C) No witness is required
(A) Marriage with wife‘s sister when wife is alive (D) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Marriage with fifth woman in the presence of ANS: (C)
four wives
(C) Absence of required number of witnesses at the Q1237. In Shia School of Muslim Law the
time of marriage amount of Mehar is—
(D) All the above (A) Not legally fixed
ANS: (D) (B) 10 dirhams
(C) 100 dirhams
Q1230. Mahar-e-Misl determined on what (D) 500 dirhams
ground? ANS: (A)
(A) Personal characteristics of wife such as age,
extraordinary beauty Q1238. Doctrine of ‗cy-pres‘ is related with—
(B) Her father‘s family social status (A) Marriage
(C) Dower paid to women in her husband‘s family (B) Dower
(D) All the above (C) Gift
ANS: (D) (D) Wakfs
ANS: (D)
Q1231. What are the wife‘s rights when husband
does not pay the dower? Q1239. The term ‗Musha‘ under Muslim Law
(A) Refuse consummation means—
(B) File suit for recovery of dower (A) Divided property
(C) Keep possession over dead husband‘s property (B) Joint property
(D) All the above (C) Separate property
ANS: (D) (D) Undivided share in property
ANS: (D)
Q1232. In the absence of mother, which of the
following females has the first priority to have Q1240. A Sunni Muslim performs marriage
the custody of a Muslim child? during the period of ‗Iddat‘, the marriage is—
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(A) Void
(B) Valid Q1248. Under the Provisions of Transfer of
(C) Irregular Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested
(D) Voidable interest—
ANS: (C) (A) Upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth
Q1241. A Muslim mother is entitled to the (C) 12 days after his birth
custody of her female child until she attains— (D) 18 years after his birth
(A) The age of 7 years ANS: (A)
(B) Puberty
(C) Age of 11 years Q1249. Which one of the following Sections of
(D) Age of 15 years the Transfer of Property Act defines ―Transfer of
ANS: (B) Property‖?
(A) Section 3
Q1242. Dissolution of Muslim marriage by (B) Section 4
agreement is known as— (C) Section 5
(A) Talaq in ahsan (D) Section 6
(B) Illa ANS: (C)
(C) Zihar
(D) Khula Q1250. Which one of the following sections of
ANS: (D) the Transfer of Property Act, defines ‗Notice‘?
(A) Section 2
Q1243. Which ‗Wasiyat‘ is invalid in Muslim (B) Section 3
Law? (C) Section 5
(A) Wasiyat made in favour of religious school (D) Explanation II of Section 3
(B) Wasiyat made to the killer of legator ANS: (B)
(C) Wasiyat made for charity
(D) Wasiyat made to a non-muslim Q1251. The Privy Council decision in Tilakdhari
ANS: (B) Lal V. Khedan Lal relates to—
(A) Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act
Q1244. Which of the following is not a ground of (B) Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act
divorce under the ‗Dissolution of Muslim (C) Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act
Marriage Act‘, 1939? (D) Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act
(A) Absence of husband for four years or more ANS: (A)
(B) Imprisonment of husband for two years
(C) Failure of husband to maintain his wife Q1252. Which one of the following is not
(D) Impotency of husband correctly matched?
ANS: (B) (A) Oral transfer—Section 9 of the Transfer of
Property Act
Q1245. Which of the following statement is not (B) Rule against perpetuity—Section 14 of the
correct with regard to Muslim Law? Transfer of Property Act
(A) Nephew gets twice the share of niece (C) Doctrine of election—Section 35 of the Transfer
(B) Son gets twice the share of a daughter of Property Act
(C) Brother gets twice the share of a sister (D) Transfer by Ostensible Owner—Section 40 of
(D) Widower gets twice the share of a widow the Transfer of Property Act
ANS: (A) ANS: (D)

Q1246. What is right of ‗Pre-emption‘? Q1253. Which one of the following Provisions of
(A) A right to seek eviction of tenant and get vacant the Transfer of Property Act relates to
possession ‗usufructuary mortgage‘?
(B) A right to purchase property in preference to (A) Section 58 (a)
other person (B) Section 58 (b)
(C) A right to presume adversely (C) Section 58 (d)
(D) None of the above (D) Section 58 (e)
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q1247. Rule against perpetuity will not be Q1254. Which one of the following cases does
applicable in— not pertain to the doctrine of ‗part
(A) Perpetual transfer for gift performance‘?
(B) Personal contracts (A) Arrif Vs. Jadu Nath
(C) Vested interest (B) Prabodh Kumar Vs. Dantmara Tea Co.
(D) All of the above (C) Sardar Govind Rao Mahadik Vs. Devi Sahai
ANS: (D) (D) Ram Baran Prasad Vs. Ram Mohit Hazra
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ANS: (D) (A) Share in copyright
(B) Interest in mortgaged property
Q1255. Which Provisions of the Transfer of (C) Right to future maintenance
Property Act defines ‗lease‘? (D) Immovable property
(A) Section 105 ANS: (C)
(B) Section 106
(C) Section 107 Q1263. Which of the following sections of the
(D) Section 108 Transfer of Property Act deals with ―effect of
ANS: (A) holding over a lease‖?
(A) Section 114 A
Q1256. The provision of fraudulent transfer is (B) Section 115
given in— (C) Section 115 A
(A) Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (D) Section 116
(B) Section 50 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ANS: (D)
(C) Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(D) Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 Q1264. In which of the following conditions the
ANS: (D) lease can be terminated?
(A) Efflux of time
Q1257. The gift of future property is— (B) On termination of lessor‘s interest or power
(A) Void (C) On merger
(B) Voidable (D) All the above
(C) Valid ANS: (D)
(D) Conditionally void
ANS: (A) Q1265. The doctrine of ―lis pendens‖ is
explained in famous case of —
Q1258. Which Section of the Transfer of (A) Bellamy Vs. Sabine
Property Act, 1882 was amended in the year (B) Musahur Sahu Vs. Hakim Lal
2002? (C) Muhammad ShafiVs. Muhammad Sayed
(A) Section 106 (D) Tulk V. Moxhay
(B) Section 100 ANS: (A)
(C) Section 108
(D) Section 110 Q1266. Transfer of a right to enjoy the
ANS: (A) immovable property for a certain time is—
(A) Mortgage
Q1259. The rule of lis pendens applies when— (B) Agreement to lease
(A) The suit or proceeding in which right to (C) Licence
immovable property is indirectly in question (D) Lease
(B) A suit or proceeding in which right to ANS: (D)
immovable property is pending between two
persons and one of them sells the property Q1267. In case of gift, the donee dies before
(C) The suit or proceeding is pending in a court acceptance, then—
which does not have jurisdiction (A) Gift is voidable
(D) Litigation is not bonafide but collusive (B) Gift is valid
ANS: (B) (C) Gift is void
(D) None of the above
Q1260. Transfer of Property Act came into force ANS: (C)
on—
(A) July 01, 1882 Q1268. The mortgagor‘s right to redeem the
(B) August 01, 1882 mortgaged property accrues—
(C) September 01, 1882 (A) At any time after the mortgage
(D) October 01, 1882 (B) At any time after the mortgage money has
ANS: (A) become due
(C) At any time when the mortgagor wants
Q1261. In the Transfer of Property Act, (D) At any time mortgagee demands the money
immovable property does not include— ANS: (B)
(A) Building
(B) Land Q1269. Which one of the following mortgages
(C) Pond does not require writing and registration?
(D) Standing timber (A) Usufructuary mortgage
ANS: (D) (B) Simple mortgage
(C) English mortgage
Q1262. Which of the following properties cannot (D) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
be transferred? ANS: (D)
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Q1277. Which one of the following Sections of
Q1270. Which of the following is included in the the Indian Evidence Act says ―facts admitted
term ‗living person‘ under Section 5 of the need not be proved‖?
Transfer of Property Act? (A) Section 18
(A) A company (B) Section 21
(B) An association (C) Section 55
(C) Body of individuals (D) Section 58
(D) All of the above ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1278. Section 113-B, ‗presumption as to dowry
Q1271. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property death‘ was added to the Indian Evidence Act
Act will be applicable only when the interest in—
transferred in the property is— (A) 1986
(A) Limited (B) 1983
(B) Absolute (C) 1961
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) 1962
(D) None of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q1279. Which one of the following is not
Q1272. Which statement is not correct? correctly matched?
(A) Some facts are relevant but not admissible (A) Child witness: Section 118
(B) Some facts are admissible but not relevant (B) Dumb witness: Section 120
(C) All relevant facts are admissible (C) Hostile witness: Section 154
(D) All admissible facts are not relevant (D) Expert witness: Section 45
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1273. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Q1280. The illustration that, ―A and B are
Act deals with ―Doctrine of confirmation by jointly tried for the murder of C. It is proved
subsequent facts‖? that A said, ‗B and I murdered C‘,‖ relates—
(A) Section 27 (A) Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 115 (B) Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 102 (C) Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 165 (D) Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q1274. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Q1281. Identification parade is relevant under—
Act is not on ‗shifting of burden of proof‘? (A) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
(A) Section 101 (B) Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 102 (C) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 105 (D) Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 108 ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q1282. Which of the following Sections was
Q1275. Which Section of the Indian Evidence amended by the Indian Technology Act, 2000?
Act is related with doctrine of ‗Res ipsa (A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
loquitor‘? (B) Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act
(A) Section 102 (C) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 104 (D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 106 ANS: (B)
(D) Section 108
ANS: (C) Q1283. Section 113–A of the Indian Evidence
Act was added in—
Q1276. Which one of the following Sections of (A) Year 1982
the Indian Evidence Act provides for (B) Year 1983
admissibility of secondary evidence? (C) Year 1988
(A) Section 60 (D) Year 1980
(B) Section 61 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 65 Q1284. The Indian Evidence Act deals with—
ANS: (D) (A) ‗presumptio juris‘ only
(B) ‗presumptio huminis‘ only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
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ANS: (C) (D) Section 29
ANS: (B)
Q1285. Indian Evidence Act deals privilege—
(A) As a right only Q1293. Under Section 122 of the Indian
(B) As a duty only Evidence Act, ‗privilege‘ is available to—
(C) As a right and duty both (A) Judges
(D) Neither as a right nor as a duty (B) Advocates
ANS: (C) (C) Magistrates
(D) Husband and Wife
Q1286. Facts supporting or rebutting the ANS: (D)
opinion of the experts are relevant under—
(A) Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act Q1294. In which of the following cases hearsay
(B) Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act evidence is not admissible?
(C) Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act (A) Statement of experts expressed in treaties, if the
(D) Section 51 of the Indian Evidence Act author is dead or cannot be found
ANS: (B) (B) Where eye-witness told the facts to another
person, statement of that person
Q1287. Which one of the following cases does (C) If the statement is of a deceased person, when it
not relate to ‗dying declaration‘? related to cause of his death
(A) Queen Emperess Vs. Abdullah (D) If the statement is part of the transactionin-
(B) Pakala Narayan Swamy Vs. King Emperor issue
(C) Zafar Vs. State of U.P. ANS: (B)
(D) Ratangond Vs. State of Bihar
ANS: (C) Q1295. Which one of the following is not a
document under the Indian Evidence Act?
Q1288. Case of Pakala Narayan Swami V s. King (A) An inscription on a stone of a building
Emperor is related with— (B) A photograph
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act (C) A printout of a message sent through mobile or
(B) Section 21(1) of the Indian Evidence Act computer
(C) Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act (D) A knife recovered by police from the possession
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act of an accused and produced in the court
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1289. Who amongst the following is an expert Q1296. Which Section of the Indian Evidence
under the Indian Evidence Act? Act provides that contents of the document
(A) Hand-writing expert must be proved by primary evidence?
(B) Finger print expert (A) Section 61
(C) Ballistics expert (B) Section 62
(D) All of the above (C) Section 63
ANS: (D) (D) Section 64
ANS: (D)
Q1290. Under which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act the principle of ‗Res Gestae‘ is Q1297. A Hindu couple having the decree of
given? judicial separation wants to live together—
(A) Section 12 (A) They can live together
(B) Section 6 (B) They cannot live together
(C) Section 2 (C) They can live together after re-marriage
(D) Section 15 (D) They can live together only after the permission
ANS: (B) of the court
ANS: (A)
Q1291. Under Section 17 of the Indian Evidence
Act, the ‗admission‘ is— Q1298. ‗A‘, a Hindu male, having undivided
(A) Written only interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property
(B) Oral only dies leaving behind two sons and one daughter.
(C) Both written or oral The daughter is entitled to the following share
(D) None of the above in the property—
ANS: (C) (A) 1 3
(B) 1 4
Q1292. Which of the following Sections of the (C) 1 9
Indian Evidence Act relates to accomplice? (D) None of the above
(A) Section 30 ANS: (A)
(B) Section 133
(C) Section 134
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Q1299. Hindu law does not apply to a person (B) Cognates, Agnates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
who is a Hindu by— (C) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Agnates, Cognates
(A) Birth (D) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Cognates, Agnates
(B) Conversion ANS: (C)
(C) Re-conversion
(D) None of the above Q1307. Provisions of Section 24 of the Hindu
ANS: (D) Marriage Act, 1955 corresponds to—
(A) Section 36 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954
Q1300. Who is a Hindu among following? (B) Section 36 of the Indian Divorce Act, 1869
(A) A legitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) An illegitimate child of Sikh male and Jain (D) None of the above
female ANS: (C)
(C) An illegitimate child of Hindu male and Parsi
female and who was brought up as a Hindu Q1308. Consent theory of divorce was
(D) All of the above introduced in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in
ANS: (D) the year—
(A) 1979
Q1301. ‗Dayabhaga‘ is authored by— (B) 1976
(A) Vijnaneshwara (C) 1964
(B) Yagyavalkya (D) 1956
(C) Jimutavahana ANS: (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q1309. ―A person is not disqualified from
succeeding to any property on the ground of
Q1302. Vijnaneshwara is a famous commentator any disease, defect or deformity‖ is provided
of— under—
(A) Manu Smriti (A) Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(B) Narad Smriti (B) Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(C) Yagyavalkya Smriti (C) Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q1303. In regard to a Hindu marriage, ‗Sapinda Q1310. Which one of the following Sections of
relationship‘ of any person is counted upto— the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with
(A) Fifth generation in the line of ascent through ―Restitution of Conjugal Rights‖?
father only (A) Section 5
(B) Third generation in the line of ascent through (B) Section 9
mother only (C) Section 10
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Section 11
(D) None of the above ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q1311. If parties to a Hindu marriage are
Q1304. Pre-martial relation of a spouse is a sapinda to each other, the marriage is—
statutory ground for— (A) Void
(A) Judicial separation (B) Voidable
(B) Divorce (C) Valid
(C) Nullity of marriage (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1312. A Hindu married woman of 32 years of
Q1305. A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a age adopts a male child of 8 years with the
female child of 13 years of age. The adoption consent of her husband. The adoption is—
is— (A) Valid
(A) Valid (B) Not valid
(B) Voidable (C) Voidable at the option of husband
(C) Illegal (D) None of the above
(D) Void ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q1313. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind
Q1306. Order of succession under the Hindu two sons, one daughter and widow. His property
Succession Act of a male Hindu dying intestate shall devolve to—
is as follows— (A) Sons only
(A) Agnates, Cognates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs (B) Sons and daughter only
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(C) Widow only
(D) Sons, daughter and widow all Q1321. Which one of the following is a leading
ANS: (D) case on entries in books of account when
relevant?
Q1314. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956, who (A) R. V. Govinda
amongst the following is not in Class I heir? (B) Pakla Narayan Swamy V. King Emperor
(A) Father (C) Moti Singh V. State of U.P.
(B) Mother (D) L. K. Advani V. C.B.I.
(C) Son ANS: (D)
(D) Daughter
ANS: (A) Q1322. Which one of the following is a leading
case on confession to persons in authority?
Q1315. Under Mitakshara School Coparcenary (A) Ramesh Chandra Mehta V. State of W.B.
interest devolves by— (B) Pyare Lal Bhargawa V. State of Rajasthan
(A) Representation (C) Queen Empress V. Babu Lal
(B) Survivorship (D) Sita Ram V. State
(C) Obstructed heritage ANS: (B)
(D) Unobstructed heritage
ANS: (B) Q1323. Who among the following is not an
accomplice?
Q1316. Under the Hindu Adoption and (A) Trap witness
Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following (B) A raped girl
is not entitled to adopt? (C) An eye witness to a murder
(A) An unmarried person (D) All the above
(B) Husband with the consent of wife ANS: (D)
(C) Wife who is divorced
(D) Husband without the consent of wife Q1324. Under which one of the following
ANS: (D) Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
a police officer can arrest a person without an
Q1317. Under which Section of the Hindu order from a Magistrate and without warrant?
Marriage Act, 1955, the provision relating to (A) Section 40
registration of marriage is given? (B) Section 51
(A) Section 8 (C) Section 42
(B) Section 7 (D) Section 41
(C) Section 6 ANS: (D)
(D) Section 5
ANS: (A) Q1325. Under which one of the following
Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 an
Q1318. Under which Section of the Hindu accused person can himself be a competent
Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a witness?
petition of divorce by mutual consent? (A) Section 315
(A) Section 13–A (B) Section 313
(B) Section 13–B (C) Section 300
(C) Section 14 (D) Section 317
(D) Section 9 ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q1326. Which one of the following Sections of
Q1319. Things said or done by conspirator in Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that
reference to common design is relevant fact ―No statement made by any person to a Police
under which Section of the Evidence Act? Officer in the course of investigation shall, if
(A) Section 11 reduced in writing, be signed by the person
(B) Section 13 making it‖?
(C) Section 10 (A) Section 164
(D) Section 12 (B) Section 163
ANS: (C) (C) Section 162
(D) Section 161
Q1320. Indian Evidence Act came into force ANS: (C)
on—
(A) 1st September, 1872 Q1327. Under which one of the following
(B) 1st January, 1872 Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(C) 9th September, 1872 armed forces can be used to disperse assembly
(D) 9th January, 1872 for maintaining of public security?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 132
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(B) Section 131 ANS: (A)
(C) Section 129
(D) Section 130 Q1334. Which one of the following Sections of
ANS: (D) Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is applied when
the officer in-charge of a police station receives
Q1328. Under which Section of the following of any information that a person has committed
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the accused suicide?
shall be supplied the copy of police report and (A) Section 154
other documents by the Magistrate? (B) Section 174
(A) Section 205 (C) Section 147
(B) Section 209 (D) Section 181
(C) Section 207 ANS: (B)
(D) Section 208
ANS: (C) Q1335. Under which Section of the Code of
Criminal Procedure a person who is avoiding
Q1329. An Assistant Session Judge is appointed execution of a warrant may be proclaimed
by— absconder?
(A) State Government (A) Section 81
(B) State Public Service Commission (B) Section 83
(C) Session Judge (C) Section 82
(D) High Court of the concerned State (D) Section 84
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q1330. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Q1336. ―The Public Prosecutor or Assistant
the nature of non-cognizable offence is— Public Prosecutor in-charge of a case may with
(A) Bailable and simple the consent of the Court, at any time before the
(B) Bailable and grave judgment is pronounced withdraw from the
(C) Only of grave nature prosecution of any person either generally or in
(D) All the above respect of any one or more of the offences for
ANS: (A) which he is tried.‖ This is related with which of
the following Sections of the Code of Criminal
Q1331. Under which one of the following Procedure?
Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (A) Section 323
summons to produce documents may be issued (B) Section 322
to the person in whose possession they are? (C) Section 321
(A) Section 90 (D) None of the above
(B) Section 95 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 94
(D) Section 91 Q1337. Which one of the following is not
ANS: (D) correctly matched?
(A) Conditional order for removal of nuisance —
Section 133
(B) Procedure where existence of public right is
denied — Section 137
(C) Dispute concerning right of use of land or water
Q1332. In which one of the following Sections
— Section 147
of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(D) Power to issue order in urgent cases of nuisance
provisions relating to free legal aid has been
or apprehended danger— Section 145
provided?
ANS: (D)
(A) Section 304
(B) Section 305
Q1338. Which one of the following Sections of
(C) Section 307
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that a
(D) Section 310
person once convicted or acquitted cannot be
ANS: (A)
tried again for the same offence?
(A) Section 298
Q1333. Which one of the following Sections of
(B) Section 299
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides
(C) Section 300
sentence of imprisonment by the Court of
(D) Section 301
Magistrate in default of fine?
ANS: (C)
(A) Section 30(1)
(B) Section 31
Q1339. Which one of the following Sections of
(C) Section 32
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides for
(D) Section 34
joint trial of several offences?
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(A) Section 224 ANS: (A)
(B) Section 221
(C) Section 222 Q1346. Which one of the following Sections of
(D) Section 223 Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to
ANS: (D) ―Interpretator is bound to interpret truthfully‖?
(A) Section 272
Q1340. Which one of the following Sections is (B) Section 284
related to the appointment of Assistant Public (C) Section 280
Prosecutor under Criminal Procedure Code, (D) Section 282
1973? ANS: (D)
(A) Section 20
(B) Section 24 Q1347. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(C) Section 13 the object of investigation is—
(D) Section 25 (A) To arrest the accused
ANS: (D) (B) To punish the accused
(C) To collect evidence against the accused
Q1341. Which one of the following offence is (D) None of the above
triable summarily? ANS: (C)
(A) Wrongful restraint
(B) Abduction Q1348. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 a
(C) Mischief reference can be made to—
(D) Offences not punishable with death, (A) Supreme Court
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term (B) High Court
exceeding two years (C) Session Court
ANS: (D) (D) High Court or Session Court
ANS: (B)
Q1342. Under which one of the Sections of
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 High Court‘s Q1349. Under Section 18 of the Uttarakhand
Power of Revision is provided? Police Act, 2007 who may appoint a Legal
(A) Section 399 Advisor and a Financial Controller to assist and
(B) Section 400 advise the Director General of Police on legal
(C) Section 401 and financial matters respectively?
(D) Section 403 (A) Director General of Police himself
ANS: (C) (B) Police Establishment Committee
(C) On the recommendation of the Police
Q1343. Under which one of the following Establishment Committee by the State Government
Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (D) State Government
inherent powers can be exercised by the High ANS: (D)
Court?
(A) Section 482 Q1350. Under which Section of the Uttarakhand
(B) Section 483 Police Act, 2007 it is contained that it shall be
(C) Section 484 the duty of every officer in-charge of a police
(D) Section 480 station to keep a general diary?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 44
(B) Section 47
Q1344. Under which of the following Sections of (C) Section 48
the Code of Criminal Procedure provides issue (D) Section 46
of commission for the examination of the ANS: (B)
President or the Vice President of India as a
witness? Q1351. Who is authorised for overall
(A) Section 286 administration of Public Force under the
(B) Section 284 Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007?
(C) Section 287 (A) Inspector General of Police
(D) None of the above (B) Director General of Police
ANS: (B) (C) Superintendent of Police
(D) None of the above
Q1345. Which one of the following Sections of ANS: (B)
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to the
prosecution for offences against marriage? Q1352. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007,
(A) Section 198 a Police Officer posted as an officer-in-charge of
(B) Section 199 a police station, shall have a minimum term
(C) Section 196 of—
(D) Section 197 (A) Two years
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(B) One year Q1359. Section 31 of Uttarakhand Police Act,
(C) Three years 2007 contains—
(D) Six months (A) Terms and privileges of Independent Members
ANS: (B) (B) Removal of Independent Members
(C) Selection of Independent Members of the State
Q1353. Under which Section of the Uttarakhand Police Board
Police Act, 2007, penalties for neglect of duty (D) Composition of the Board
by police officer are given? ANS: (C)
(A) Section 85
(B) Section 88 Q1360. Under which Section of the Uttarakhand
(C) Section 86 Police Act, 2007 police officer is mandated not
(D) Section 87 to withdraw himself from duties of his office?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 44
(B) Section 42
Q1354. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, (C) Section 45
who creates police station? (D) Section 31
(A) Director General of Police ANS: (A)
(B) State Government
(C) High Court of the State Q1361. ―A senior police officer may perform any
(D) District Magistrate duty assigned by law or by a lawful order to any
ANS: (B) officer subordinate to him.‖ This has been
provided in which of the following Sections of
Q1355. The administration of Police District the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007?
shall be vested in— (A) Section 30
(A) Superintendent of Police (B) Section 38
(B) Inspector General of Police (C) Section 40
(C) Deputy Inspector General of Police (D) Section 41
(D) Superintendent of Police under the general ANS: (D)
coordination and direction of the District
Magistrate Q1362. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007
ANS: (D) to whom appeal lies against the punishment
given by the Director General of Police?
Q1356. Who amongst the following may create a (A) Police Establishment Committee
State Intelligence Department? (B) State Government
(A) Legislature of the Uttar Pradesh (C) Home Minister of the State
(B) Director General of Police (D) High Court
(C) Inspector General of Police ANS: (B)
(D) State Government
ANS: (D) Q1363. Who shall prescribe an insurance
coverage for all police officers against injury,
Q1357. Section 84 of the Uttarakhand Police disability or death caused while on duty?
Act, 2007, deals with— (A) Police Establishment Committee
(A) Penalties for neglect of duty by Police Officer etc. (B) Police Welfare Bureau
(B) Unauthorised use of Police uniform (C) Director General of Police
(C) Power to make Rules and Regulations (D) State Government
(D) Offences of disorderly conduct ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1364. The distinction between culpable
Q1358. Which of the following punishments homicide and murder as defined in I.P.C. was
may be awarded as disciplinary penalties under pointed out in the decision of—
Section 23 of the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007? (A) R. V. Beard
1. Dismissal (B) R. V. Tolson
2. Removal from service (C) R. V. Govinda
3. Reduction in salary (D) R. V. Prince
4. Withholding promotion Select the correct ANS: (C)
answer with the help of the codes given below—
Codes: Q1365. The maxim ―de minimis non curat lex‖
(A) 1, 2 and 3 is related to which of the following Sections of
(B) 1, 3 and 4 the I.P.C.?
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (A) Section 95
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Section 89
ANS: (D) (C) Section 94
(D) Section 93
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ANS: (A) crime. Under which Section of I.P.C. the police
officer is guilty of an offence?
Q1366. Attempt to commit culpable homicide is (A) Section 325
provided in Indian Penal Code under— (B) Section 326
(A) Section 305 (C) Section 328
(B) Section 306 (D) Section 330
(C) Section 307 ANS: (D)
(D) Section 308
ANS: (D) Q1373. ‗A‘ threatens to set a savage dog at ‗Z‘, if
‗Z‘ goes along a path which ‗Z‘ has a right to go.
Q1367. Against which of the following offences In this case ‗A‘ commits—
right of private defence of body does not extend (A) No offence
to the causing of death? (B) Offence of hurt
(A) Rape (C) Wrongful restraint
(B) Gratifying unnatural lust (D) Wrongful confinement
(C) Causing miscarriage ANS: (C)
(D) Kidnapping
ANS: (C) Q1374. ‗A‘ forcibly carries or entices ‗B‘ away
from his home in order that ‗B‘ may be
Q1368. Which one of the following is presumed murdered. ‗A‘ has committed the offence in
under law to be ‗doli incapax‘ to commit a Indian Penal Code under—
crime? (A) Section 362
(A) A child of under 7 years of age (B) Section 364
(B) A child of under 10 years of age (C) Section 365
(C) A child above 7 years and under 12 years of age (D) Section 367
(D) A child between 10 years and 14 years of age ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q1375. Which of the following Section of the
Q1369. There were verbal exchanges between Indian Penal Code is related to ‗dowry death‘?
the husband ‗A‘ and wife ‗B‘. A fell the wife, sat (A) Section 304
on her chest with a knife in his hand. On her (B) Section 304-B
cries her sister and mother working nearby in (C) Section 113-A
the same field ran to her rescue. B snatched the (D) Section 113-B
knife and inflicted wounds of which A died. ANS: (B)
Choose the correct answer given below—
(A) B has committed offence of murder of A Q1376. In which of the following Provision of
(B) B has acted in her right of self defence the Indian Penal Code ‗forgery‘ is defined?
(C) B has committed offence of culpable homicide (A) Section 460
(D) B, her sister and mother all has committed (B) Section 461
offence of murder of A (C) Section 462
ANS: (A) (D) Section 463
ANS: (D)
Q1370. ‗A‘ i s at work with proper caution with
a hatchet. The head flies off and kills a man who Q1377. Which one of the following defences is
is standing by. ‗A‘ is guilty of the offence of— related to Mc‗Naghten‘s Case (1843)?
(A) Murder (A) Infancy
(B) Attempt to murder (B) Insanity
(C) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder (C) Intoxication
(D) None of the above (D) Consent
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q1371. Imputations, assertions prejudicial to Q1378. The abetment of an abetment is an


national integration have been provided under offence in Indian Penal Code under—
which of the following Sections of the Indian (A) Section 107
Penal Code? (B) Section 108
(A) Section 154 (C) Section 109
(B) Section 153 A (D) Section 110
(C) Section 153 B ANS: (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q1379. ‗A‘ commits sexual intercourse with his
own wife aged under 15 years with her consent.
Q1372. ‗A‘, a police officer, tortures ‗B‘ in order ‗A‘ is guilty of—
to induce ‗B‘ to confess that he committed a (A) No offence
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(B) Rape
(C) Assault Q1387. Under Indian Penal Code, in robbery
(D) Use of criminal force there is—
ANS: (B) (A) Theft and dacoity
(B) Extortion and dacoity
Q1380. In which of the following Section of the (C) Neither theft nor extortion
Indian Penal Code, the provision relating to (D) Either theft or extortion
intercourse by public servant with woman in his ANS: (D)
custody is given?
(A) Section 376-A Q1388. Under which one of the following
(B) Section 376-C Sections of Indian Penal Code, the principle of
(C) Section 376-B ‗joint criminal liability‘ is applicable?
(D) Section 376 (A) Section 36
ANS: (C) (B) Section 39
(C) Section 34
Q1381. Which one of the following offences (D) Section 40
cannot be committed at a private place? ANS: (C)
(A) Murder
(B) Riot Q1389. How many kinds of hurt are designated
(C) Assault as ‗grievous hurt‘ under Section 320, I.P.C.?
(D) Affray (A) Five
ANS: (D) (B) Six
(C) Seven
Q1382. With whom the offence of adultery may (D) Eight
be committed under the Indian Penal Code? ANS: (D)
(A) Married woman
(B) Unmarried woman Q1390. Which Section o f IPC defines criminal
(C) Both (A) and (B) above conspiracy?
(D) None of the above (A) Section 120 A
ANS: (A) (B) Section 120 B
(C) Section 121
Q1383. The term ‗thug‘ has been defined in (D) Section 121 A
which of the following Sections of the Indian ANS: (A)
Penal Code?
(A) Section 306 Q1391. ‗A‘ makes an attempt to steal some
(B) Section 307 jewels by breaking open a box and finds after so
(C) Section 310 opening the box, that here is no jewel in it.
(D) Section 311 What is the offence of ‗A‘?
ANS: (C) (A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
Q1384. The case of K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of (C) Robbery
Maharashtra is related to— (D) No offence
(A) Theft ANS: (B)
(B) Dacoity
(C) Abetment Q1392. Section 387 I.P.C. relates to—
(D) Grave and sudden provocation (A) Extortion by putting a person in fear of death
ANS: (D) (B) Putting person in fear of death or of grievous
hurt in order to commit extortion
Q1385. ‗A‘ spits over ‗B‘ which caused (C) Extortion by threat of accusation of an offence
annoyance to ‗B‘. In this case ‗A‘ is guilty of— punishable with death or imprisonment for life etc.
(A) Hurt (D) None of the above
(B) Assault ANS: (B)
(C) Using criminal force
(D) Both (B) and (C) above Q1393. A, finds a rupee on the highway not
ANS: (C) knowing to whom the rupee belongs. A picks up
the rupee. A, has committed the offence of—
Q1386. Point out the case where actual (A) Dishonest appropriation of property
commission of an offence cannot be punished— (B) Theft
(A) Theft (C) Dishonestly receiving stolen property
(B) Attempt to theft (D) None of the above
(C) Suicide ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
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Q1394. Z, under the influence of madness ANS: (B)
attempts to kill A. In this case which of the
following is correct? Q1400. Which one of the following Sections of
(A) Z is guilty of attempt to murder, but A has right Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of
of private defence opinion as to digital signature?
(B) Z is guilty of no offence, but A has the right of (A) Section 48 A
private defence (B) Section 46 A
(C) Z is guilty of no offence, but A has no right of (C) Section 49 A
private defence (D) Section 47 A
(D) None of the above is correct ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q1401. Facts which form part of the same
Q1395. The maxim ignorantia jun‘s non transaction are relevant under which Section of
excusat— Evidence Act?
(A) Does not apply to criminal offences (A) Section 6
(B) Admits exceptions (B) Section 7
(C) Admits exception only in case of a foreigner who (C) Section 5
cannot reasonably be supposed to know the law of (D) Section 9
the land ANS: (A)
(D) Admits no exception
ANS: (D) Q1402. Tape recorded statements are—
(A) Documentary evidence
Q1396. Which in the following is not inchoate (B) Oral Evidence
crime? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Attempt (D) None of the above
(B) Criminal conspiracy ANS: (A)
(C) Abetment
(D) Kidnapping Q1403. Confession made by a person in police
ANS: (D) custody shall not be proved as against such
person under which Section of the Evidence
Q1397. A, a school teacher for the purposes of Act?
enforcing discipline inflicts moderate (A) Section 25
punishment upon a student aged about 11 (B) Section 26
years. In this case— (C) Section 27
(A) A is entitled to claim defence under Section 89 (D) Section 28
of I.P.C. ANS: (B)
(B) A is guilty of causing simple hurt
(C) A is guilty of using criminal force Q1404. Queen Empress V. Abdullah is a leading
(D) A is entitled to claim defence under Section 88 case on—
of I.P.C. (A) Admission
ANS: (A) (B) Confession
(C) Statement
Q1398. A, knows Z to be behind a bush, B does (D) Dying declaration
not know it, A intending to cause or knowing it ANS: (D)
to be likely to cause Z‘s death, induced to B to
fire at the bush. B, fires and killed Z. In this Q1405. How many Sections and Chapters are
case what would be the offence of A and B? there in Indian Evidence Act?
(A) B is not guilty of any offence, but A has (A) 164 Sections and 10 Chapters
committed the offence of murder (B) 167 Sections and 10 Chapters
(B) B is guilty of culpable homicide and A has (C) 167 Sections and 11 Chapters
committed the offence of murder (D) 167 Sections and 9 Chapters
(C) B is not guilty of any offence, but A has ANS: (C)
committed the offence of culpable homicide.
(D) B and A both have not committed any offence Q1406. Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act,
ANS: (C) which of the following is relevant?
(A) Motive
Q1399. ‗A‘ says to ‗B‘ that he has finished his (B) Preparation
wife forever. Under Indian Evidence Act this (C) Conduct
statement amounts to— (D) All the above
(A) Admission ANS: (D)
(B) Confession
(C) Statement Q1407. Admissibility of electronic records is
(D) All the above prescribed under—
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(A) Section 65 A Q1414. Anything, state of things or relation of
(B) Section 65 B things, capable of being perceived by the senses,
(C) Section 65 is—
(D) Section 66 (A) An evidence
ANS: (B) (B) Fact
(C) Facts in issue
Q1408. Death may be presumed, if it is proved (D) None of the above
that one has not been heared of for— ANS: (B)
(A) 10 years
(B) 20 years Q1415. The principle of estoppel is given under
(C) 12 years which of the following Sections of the Indian
(D) 7 years Evidence Act?
ANS: (D) (A) Section 115
(B) Section 114
Q1409. The question is, whether a certain (C) Section 114 A
document was written by A. In this case which (D) None of the above
of the following is/are relevant? ANS: (A)
(A) Another document is produced which is written
by A Q1416. Dagdu V. State of Maharashtra is related
(B) The opinions of experts on the question whether with—
the two documents were written by A (A) Accomplice
(C) The opinions of experts on the question whether (B) Burden of proof
the two documents were written by different (C) Res-gestae
persons (D) Hostile witness
(D) Both (B) and (C) ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1417. The object of cross-examination is to
Q1410. Which Section of the Indian Evidence examine—
Act makes the Provision that there shall be no (A) The intelligence of the witness
new trial on the ground of improper admission (B) Impartiality of the witness
or rejection of evidence? (C) Reliability of the witness
(A) Section 166 (D) Good behaviour of the witness
(B) Section 165 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 167
(D) Section 161 Q1418. Which Provision of the Indian Evidence
ANS: (C) Act deals with dying declaration?
(A) Section 32(4)
Q1411. Evidence of an accomplice is relevant— (B) Section 32(1)
(A) Under Section 133 (C) Section 125
(B) Under Section 124 (D) Section 131
(C) Under Section 134 ANS: (B)
(D) Under Section 167
ANS: (A) Q1419. Who administers oath to the Governor
of a State?
Q1412. What is the definition of ‗not proved‘ in (A) President of India
the Indian Evidence Act? (B) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(A) A fact is said not to be proved when it is not (C) Advocate General of the State
proved (D) None of the Above
(B) A fact is said not to be proved when it is not ANS: (B)
disproved
(C) A fact is said not to be proved when it is neither Q1420. A person whose fundamental rights are
proved nor disproved violated can move the High Court under—
(D) None of the above (A) Article 20
ANS: (C) (B) Article 226
(C) Article 32
Q1413. Leading questions may be asked in— (D) Article 22
(A) Examination-in-chief ANS: (B)
(B) Cross-examination
(C) Re-examination Q1421. Which of the following protects personal
(D) All the above freedom?
ANS: (B) (A) Quo-warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habeas Corpus
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(D) Certiorari
ANS: (C) Q1429. An Agreement in restraint of marriage of
any person other than a minor is a—
Q1422. Preamble of the Constitution declares (A) Legal Contract
India as— (B) Voidable Contract
(A) A Socialist Democratic Republic (C) Fraudulent Contract
(B) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic (D) Void Contract
Republic ANS: (D)
(C) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(D) A None of the above Q1430. ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ contract to marry each other,
ANS: (B) before the time fixed for the marriage, ‗A‘ goes
mad, the contract becomes—
Q1423. Who among the following was the (A) Voidable Contract
Chairman of the Constitution Drafting (B) Conditional Contract
Committee? (C) Contingent Contract
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (D) Void Contract
(B) Motilal Nehru ANS: (D)
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 Q1431. ‗A‘ proposes by a letter to sell his house
ANS: (A) to ‗B‘ for certain price, communication of this
proposal is complete when—
Q1424. Power granted to a Court under Section (A) ‗A‘ dispatches the letter
151 of the Code of Civil Procedure is known as— (B) ‗A‘ has completed writing the letter
(A) Inherent power (C) ‗B‘ gets information about posting of the letter
(B) Appellate power (D) ‗B‘ receives the letter
(C) Revisional power ANS: (D)
(D) Reviewing power
ANS: (A) Q1432. Where the order in which reciprocal
promises are to be performed is expressly fixed
Q1425. An application for amendment of by the contract, they shall be performed in that
pleadings is filed under— order; and where the order is not expressly fixed
(A) Order 6 Rule 17 it shall be performed—
(B) Order 6 Rule 5 (A) In that order which the nature of transaction
(C) Order 38 Rule 5 requires
(D) Order 21 Rule 1 (B) In the order as one of the parties prefer
ANS: (A) (C) As desired by the proposal
(D) None of the above
Q1426. Provisions with regard to res judicata ANS: (A)
are provided in Section …… of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908. Q1433. ‗A‘ promises to obtain for ‗B‘ an
(A) Section 9 employment in public service and ‗B‘ promises
(B) Section 12 to pay Rs. 1,000 to ‗A‘, the agreement between
(C) Section 100 ‗A‘ and ‗B‘—
(D) Section 11 (A) Is legal and proper
ANS: (D) (B) Can be enforced at the instance of ‗B‘
(C) Is void agreement
Q1427. A person instituting a suit in ‗form of a (D) None of the above
pauper‘ is known as— ANS: (C)
(A) Intelligent person
(B) Juristic person Q1434. A person employed to do any act for
(C) First person another or to represent another in dealings with
(D) Indigent person the third person is—
ANS: (D) (A) A principal
(B) A pawnor
Q1428. A suit shall be instituted in a Court (C) An agent
within the local limits of whose jurisdiction— (D) A bailor
(A) The plaintiff resides ANS: (C)
(B) The Stamp Paper for entering into the contract
was purchased Q1435. Insurance is a—
(C) Where no cause of action in part or full arose (A) Contingent contract
(D) Where the cause of action wholly or in part (B) Wagering contract
arose Indian Contract Act (C) Contract of indemnity
ANS: (D)
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(D) Contract of guarantee Indian Evidence Act, (C) Tahsildar
1872 (D) Superintendent of Land Record
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q1436. Copies made from or compared with the Q1443. Which amongst the following is not the
original is— duty of a Patel appointed under the Madhya
(A) Primary evidence Pradesh Land Revenue Code?
(B) Secondary evidence (A) To collect and pay Land Revenue into the Gram
(C) Inadmissible evidence Kosh
(D) None of these (B) To furnish reports regarding state of his village
ANS: (B) (C) To prevent encroachment on waste land, public
path and roadways
Q1437. Whether confession made to a Police (D) To maintain land records
Officer (while not in custody) by an accused of ANS: (D)
an offence can be proved against him and is a
……… Evidence. Q1444. Who is competent to transfer a revenue
(A) Admissible case from one District to another under Section
(B) Not admissible 29 of the M. P. Land Revenue Code?
(C) Partially admissible (A) State Government
(D) None of these (B) Board of Revenue
ANS: (B) (C) Chief Secretary
(D) Revenue Minister
Q1438. The following is not the exception to the ANS: (B)
rule of hearsay—
(A) Dying declaration Q1445. If a Bhumiswami is dispossessed of the
(B) Res gestae land otherwise then in due course of law who
(C) Medical Expert‘s Opinion can be ordered for restoration of the
(D) Confession possession?
ANS: (C) (A) Tahsildar
(B) Commissioner
Q1439. ‗A‘ is charged with travelling on a (C) Collector
railway without a ticket, the proving that he (D) S.D.O.
had a ticket is on— ANS: (A)
(A) Prosecution
(B) Accused Q1446. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is maintained by
(C) Complainant the—
(D) Prosecution witness The Madhya Pradesh Land (A) Patwari
Revenue Code (B) Kotwar
ANS: (B) (C) Sub-Divisional Officer
(D) Tahsildar
Q1440. Amongst the following who is not a ANS: (C)
Revenue Officer as defined under the Madhya
Pradesh Land Revenue Code? Q1447. Which one of the following matter is not
(A) Commissioner provided for in a Nistar Patrak; terms and
(B) Collector conditions on which—
(C) Settlement Officer (A) Grazing of cattle in the village is permissible
(D) Chairman, Board of Revenue (B) The right to fishing may be obtained by a
ANS: (D) resident
(C) Wood, Timber or Fuel may be obtained by a
Q1441. Revision powers are exercised by the resident
Board of Revenue under ………… of the Madhya (D) Mooram, Kankar or Sand may be obtained by a
Pradesh Land Revenue Code. resident
(A) Section 40 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 44
(C) Section 46 Q1448. ………is not defined in the Code?
(D) Section 50 (A) Orchard
ANS: (D) (B) Arrears
(C) Cooperative Society
Q1442. A Bhumiswami can seek partition of his (D) Alluvion Specific Relief Act, 1963
agricultural land amongst his legal heirs during ANS: (D)
his life time by applying to the—
(A) Patwari Q1449. The relief provided under the Specific
(B) Village Kotwar Relief Act, is—
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(A) Discretionary (A) Execution of a formal deed of partnership
(B) Mandatory (B) Contract for the construction of any building or
(C) Statutory execution of any other work on land
(D) Obligatory (C) Contract which is determinable in its nature
ANS: (C) (D) Contract to execute a mortgage or furnish any
other security for repayment of any loan which the
Q1450. In a suit for specific performance of borrower is not willing to repay at once Transfer of
contract the plaintiff can seek a relief only if he Property Act
establishes that— ANS: (C)
(A) Prima facie case is in his favour
(B) He was willing and ready to perform his part of Q1456. An instrument as defined under Section
the contract 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means—
(C) Balance of Convenience is in his favour (A) A Negotiable Instrument
(D) He may suffer irreparable loss (B) A Transferable Instrument
ANS: (C) (C) A non-testamentary Instrument
(D) A will
Q1451. Find out the correct statement. Specific ANS: (C)
Relief can be granted—
(A) For enforcing individual civil rights and not for Q1457. Where on a Transfer of Property, an
enforcing a penal law interest therein is created in favour of a person
(B) For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing to take effect only on the happening of a
civil rights specified uncertain event, the Transfer is
(C) Only for enforcing penal law called—
(D) For enforcing civil rights and a penal law (A) Conditional Transfer
ANS: (A) (B) Transfer by Interest
(C) Absolute Transfer
Q1452. No suit for recovery of possession may (D) Contingent Transfer
be instituted under Section 6 of Specific Relief ANS: (D)
Act—
(A) Against Government Q1458. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(B) Against a Public Company covers—
(C) Against a Private Company (A) Movable Property
(D) Against all of these (B) Immovale Property
ANS: (A) (C) None
(D) A and B
Q1453. Find out the incorrect statement in ANS: (D)
respect of temporary injunctions—
(A) Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Q1459. Under the Transfer of Property Act,
Court 1882 a person is said to have notice of a fact
(B) Such as are to continue until a specified time or when—
until the further order of the Court (A) He actually knows the fact
(C) Regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure (B) May have knowledge about the fact
(D) Cannot be granted at any stage of a suit (C) Could with reasonable cause know the fact
ANS: (D) (D) Is not at all aware of the fact
ANS: (A)
Q1454. In which of the following cases would
the specific performance of any contract not be Q1460. A mortgage by deposit of title deed is
enforced by the Court? called—
(A) Where the property is not an ordinary article of (A) Anomalous mortgage
commerce (B) English mortgage
(B) Where the property consists of goods which are (C) Equitable mortgage
not easily obtainable in the market (D) Usufructuary mortgage
(C) Where compensation in money can be afforded ANS: (C)
for non-performance of the contract as an adequate
relief Q1461. Which of the following is not an
(D) Where there exists no standard for ascertaining actionable claim?
the actual damage caused by nonperformance of (A) Right to a Provident Fund Account
the contract (B) Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee succeed
ANS: (C) in L.L.B. examination
(C) Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee
Q1455. Which of the following contracts cannot marries a particular woman
be specifically enforced as per the provision of (D) Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with
Section 14 of the Act? a liability
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ANS: (D) Q1468. A Gram Nyayalaya should make
endeavour to—
Q1462. ……… is defined as a security for (A) Compromise a dispute
repayment of a loan. (B) Should not compromise
(A) Pledge (C) Should make endeavour to punish the wrong
(B) Mortgage doer
(C) Lease (D) None of the above Madhya Pradesh
(D) None of these Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya Accommodation Control Act
Adhiniyam ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q1469. If a landlord contravenes the provision
Q1463. The normal term of office of a member of Subsection (1) of Section 38 of the M. P.
nominated to a Gram Nyayalaya constituted Accommodation Control Act, he shall be
under the Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya punished with imprisonment for a term which
Adhiniyam, 1996 is— may extend to—
(A) Two years (A) Two years
(B) Three years (B) Six months
(C) Five years (C) One month
(D) Six years (D) Three months
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1464. The State Government establishes Gram Q1470. A suit for eviction of a tenant on the
Nyayalaya for every— ground of bonafide need for non-residential
(A) District purpose is covered under Section ……of the
(B) Tahsil Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act.
(C) Block (A) 12(1)(a)
(D) Circle (B) 12(1)(b)
ANS: (D) (C) 12(1)(e)
(D) 12(1)(f)
Q1465. Every person nominated as a member of ANS: (D)
the Gram Nyayalaya before assuming office shall
submit a declaration to the effect that— Q1471. The special provision for eviction of a
(A) He shall continue to be a member of political tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement of
party a landlord as provided under Chapter III-A of the
(B) He shall not pay subscription to any political Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act is
party applicable to—
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit (A) A widow or a divorced wife
(D) He shall cease to be a member of political party (B) A woman in employment in non-governmental
from the date he assumes office establishment
ANS: (C) (C) A married woman living with her husband
(D) A business woman
Q1466. A Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the ANS: (A)
M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 is not
empowered to inquire or to try an offence under Q1472. Madhya Pradesh Accommodation
Section— Control Act, 1961 is not applicable to—
(A) 326 I.P.C. (A) Accommodation which is used for nonresidential
(B) 323 I.P.C. purpose
(C) 336 I.P.C. (B) Accommodation which is the property of the
(D) 426 I.P.C. Government
ANS: (A) (C) Accommodation which is the property of a
widow
Q1467. A Gram Nyayalaya shall not have (D) Accommodation which is the property of a
exclusive jurisdiction under Section 16(ii) of minor children
M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 to ANS: (B)
inquire and try offences under—
(A) Cattle Trespass Act Q1473. No suit for the eviction of a tenant shall
(B) M. P. Juvenile Smoking Act be maintainable on the grounds specified under
(C) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Section 12(1)(e) or 12(1)(f), unless a period of …
Act has elapsed from the date of acquisition.
(D) Secton 13 of the Public Gambling Act (A) One year
ANS: (C) (B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Five years
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ANS: (A) Q1480. The Court of Magistrate of the First
Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for
Q1474. An appeal shall lie from every order of a term—
the Rent Controlling Authority made under (A) Not exceeding three years or a fine not
Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, exceeding Rs. 10,000
1961— (B) Not exceeding one year or a fine not exceeding
(A) District Judge Rs. 5,000
(B) Collector (C) Not exceeding three years or a fine not
(C) Commissioner exceeding Rs. 5,000
(D) High Court (D) Not exceeding seven years or a fine prescribed
ANS: (A) under the code
ANS: (A)
Q1475. Which of the following act cannot form
ground of eviction of the tenant? Q1481. An offence of voluntarily causing
(A) Nuisance grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means
(B) Disclaimer of the title of the landlord as provided under Section 326 of the Indian
(C) Material structural alteration Penal Code is—
(D) Holding over Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (A) Compoundable
ANS: (A) (B) Non-Compoundable
(C) Compoundable with the permission of Court
Q1476. Anticipatory bail under Section 438 of (D) None of the above
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 means— ANS: (B)
(A) A direction to release a person on bail issued
after a person is arrested Q1482. An inquest report must contain—
(B) A direction to release a person on bail issued (A) The names of accused
even before a person is arrested or is in (B) The apparent cause of death
apprehension of arrest (C) The details of weapons
(C) A direction to release a person on bail from (D) The details of incident
judicial custody ANS: (B)
(D) A direction to release a person on bail when he
is in police custody after being arrested Q1483. If it appears to the Magistrate that the
ANS: (A) offence complained of is triable exclusively by
the Court of Session, he, under Section 202 Cr.
Q1477. Inherent Powers under Section 482 of P.C., postponing the issue of process against the
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be accused—
exercised by— (A) Shall commit the case to the Court of Session
(A) Judicial Magistrate First Class (B) May direct an investigation to be made by a
(B) Sessions Judge police officer
(C) High Court (C) Shall call upon the complainant to produce all
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate his witnesses and examine them on oath
ANS: (C) (D) Shall return the complaint for presentation
before the Court of Session Indian Penal Code
Q1478. Information regarding occurrence of a ANS: (C)
cognizable offence is recorded by an officer
Incharge of a Police Station under which Q1484. A person himself does not commit an
provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, offence, he helps or aids another person, he is
1973? guilty of—
(A) Section 149 (A) Abetment
(B) Section 154 (B) Conspiracy
(C) Section 155 (C) Incitement
(D) Section 200 (D) None of these
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q1479. A …… is not entitled to maintenance Q1485. ……… of the Indian Penal Code defines
under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal ‗Murder‘.
Procedure, 1973. (A) Section 299
(A) Wife unable to maintain herself (B) Section 300
(B) Divorced wife (not re-married) (C) Section 301
(C) Minor daughter (D) Section 302
(D) Divorced wife re-married ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
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Q1486. Which of the following is not ‗Public (D) A Landlord shall claim or receive the payment of
Servant‘ within the meaning of Section 21 of any sum as premium of ‗pugree‘ for giving his
the Code? consent to the subletting
(A) Municipal Commissioner ANS: (D)
(B) Member of Parliament
(C) MLA Q1493. Which of the following is not a legal
(D) Examiner of University ground of eviction?
ANS: (D) (A) Tenant has built up, acquired vacant possession
of or has been allotted an accommodation suitable
Q1487. A married man commits adultery if he for his residence
has sexual intercourse with a/an— (B) Tenant has caused substantial damages to the
(A) Unmarried woman accommodation
(B) Married woman except his wife (C) Landlord desires to increase the rent and tenant
(C) Any woman except his wife refuses for increase
(D) Unmarried woman without her consent (D) Tenant has been convicted for an offence of
ANS: (B) using the building or allowing the building to be
used for immoral or illegal purposes
Q1488. Cruelty to a woman by husband or ANS: (C)
relative of husband is defined under—
(A) Section 498 A of the Indian Penal Code Q1494. Against any order passed by Rent
(B) Section 498 of the Indian Penal Code Controlling Authority under any Section of
(C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code Chapter 3-A of the Act,—
(D) Section 496 of the Indian Penal Code (A) Only appeal shall lie
ANS: (A) (B) Appeal shall not lie
(C) Only revision shall lie
Q1489. After a notice for demand of arrears of (D) Both appeal and revision shall lie
rent has been served on a tenant, he should pay ANS: (C)
or tender the arrears of rent, to save himself
from eviction within— Q1495. According to S. 2(e) of the Act who is
(A) 15 days not a member of the family, even though living
(B) One month jointly with the landlord—
(C) Two months (A) Paternal uncle‘s wife
(D) Three months (B) Brother‘s son
ANS: (C) (C) Sister‘s son
(D) Grandmother
Q1490. In a case of eviction on the ground of ANS: (C)
bona fide need for residential purpose, the
landlord cannot obtain possession of the Q1496. A, a landlord, brings a suit for eviction
accommodation before— of B, his tenant on the ground of bona fide need.
(A) One month During the pendency of the suit, he sells the
(B) Two months suit accommodation C. C requires the
(C) Three months accommodation bona fide for himself. Advice
(D) Six months C—
ANS: (B) (A) He can continue with the suit after making
necessary amendments therein
Q1491. Cognizance of offence, punishable under (B) He can file a fresh suit or maintain a suit for
the Act, can be taken by— eviction on any ground
(A) Judicial Magistrate Second Class (C) A fresh suit for eviction on the ground of Bona
(B) Judicial Magistrate First Class fide need is maintainable after one year
(C) Sessions Court only (D) Suit is not maintainable unless ‗B‘ elects to
(D) High Court only treat him as his landlord
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q1492. Which of the following is Q1497. In case of usufructuary mortgage the


incorrectstatement? mortgagee is placed in possession who has a
(A) Tenant can sublet the accommodation held by right to receive the rent and other profits till—
him as tenant with previous consent in writing of (A) Mortgage money is paid
Landlord (B) Contract is rescinded
(B) Tenant can transfer or assign his rights in the (C) Period of thirty years
tenancy or in any part thereof with the previous (D) Period of 99 years
consent in writing of Landlord ANS: (A)
(C) For subletting, the previous written consent of
landlord is a mandatory provision
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Q1498. In which case, a lease of immovable
property does not determine? Q1505. Tender is—
(A) By efflux of time (A) An offer
(B) By express surrender (B) An invitation to offer
(C) Service of a notice to quit (C) A counter-offer
(D) By forfeiture (D) A promise
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1499. Transfer of property has no relation Q1506. A ‗consideration‘ may be—


with— (A) Only in the future
(A) Air (B) Only in the present
(B) Water (C) Only in the past
(C) Light (D) In past, present or future
(D) All of these ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1507. Which is the terminology used to
Q1500. The doctrine of Lis Pendens applies, describe a situation when two parties make
where— identical offers to each other in ignorance of
(A) The suit is collusive each other‘s offer?
(B) The transfer is made after the decree of the trial (A) Offer
court but before filing of an appeal (B) Cross-offer
(C) Right to movable property is in question (C) Counter-offer
(D) Property is situated outside the territorial (D) Conditional-offer
jurisdiction of the Court ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1508. In the formation of a Contract which is
Q1501. Which of the following gifts is valid? not among the three essentials?
(A) A gives 5,000 to B on condition that he shall (A) Damages
murder C (B) Consideration
(B) A makes a gift of his field to B with a proviso (C) Offer
that if B becomes insolvent, B‘s interest in the field (D) Acceptance Specific Relief Act, 1963
shall cease ANS: (A)
(C) A makes a gift of his field to B with a condition
that if B does not within a year set fire to C‘s house, Q1509. No suit u/s 6 of the Act for recovery of
his interest shall cease possession of immovable property, may not be
(D) A makes a gift of a house to B on the condition instituted by a person dispossessed without his
that the gift will be forfeited if B does not reside in consent—
it (A) Against the government
ANS: (D) (B) After expiry of three months from the date of
dispossession
Q1502. In case of ‗part performance‘ what is not (C) If the suit is instituted by any person claiming
necessary with a transferee? through him
(A) Possession (D) If the suit is also to establish the title alongwith
(B) Contract for consideration recovery of possession
(C) Notice to transferer ANS: (A)
(D) Readiness on his part Indian Contract Act, 1872
ANS: (C) Q1510. Which of the following contracts cannot
be specifically enforced as per the provision of
Q1503. A contract with or by a minor is a Section 14 of the Act?
contract— (A) Execution of a formal deed of partnership
(A) Valid (B) Contract for construction of a building
(B) Void (C) Contract which is determinable in its nature
(C) Voidable (D) Contract to execute a mortgage against loan
(D) Voidable at option of either party ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q1511. A, B and C are coparceners. A is in
Q1504. A contingent contract is a— separate possession of joint family property. He
(A) Valid contract sells it to D and puts D in possession. B and C
(B) Voidable contract sue for declaration of title that the property is
(C) Contract void-ab-initio joint family property. The Court—
(D) Contract becomes void when the event becomes (A) Will issue a declaration that property is joint
impossible family property
ANS: (A)
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(B) Will direct the plaintiff to implead A as a party
before granting decree of declaration Q1518. Robbery is dacoity if committed
(C) May ask the plaintiffs to claim consequential conjointly by—
relief of possession (A) Less than five persons
(D) May order D to give up the possession (B) Five or more persons
ANS: (A) (C) At least seven persons
(D) At least ten persons
Q1512. A threatens to publish statements ANS: (B)
concerning B which would be punishable under
Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. B Q1519. Which of the following is not a ‗public
files a suit for injunction praying for restraining servant‘?
A from publishing the statement— (A) Municipal Commissioner
(A) Court may grant injunction even though it is (B) Member of Parliament
shown that is not injurious to B‘s property (C) M.L.A.
(B) Court may refuse injunction as publication is (D) Examiner of University Code of Criminal
not injurious to B‘s property Procedure, 1973
(C) Court may dismiss the suit as plaintiff has not ANS: (D)
claimed declaration
(D) Court may dismiss the suit as no cause of Q1520. Under section 428, the period of
action has arisen Indian Penal Code, 1860 detention undergone by a convict cannot be set
ANS: (A) off during—
(A) Investigation of the case
Q1513. The offence of attempt to commit (B) Trial of the case
‗culpable homicide‘ is punishable under (C) Enquiry of the case
section— (D) Another case
(A) 304 ANS: (D)
(B) 308
(C) 307 Q1521. Appeal against an order of acquittal by
(D) 301 JMFC in respect of an offence u/s 138
ANS: (B) Negotiable Instruments Act can be filed in—
(A) High Court
Q1514. A kills C thinking C is B. A is guilty of (B) Court of Sessions
offence punishable under section— (C) High Court with leave of Court
(A) 301 (D) C.J.M. Court
(B) 304 Part-1 ANS: (A)
(C) 302
(D) 304 Part-2 Q1522. Who may record any confession or a
ANS: (A) statement made to him in the course of an
investigation?
Q1515. Section 195-A IPC is related to— (A) Any senior police officer
(A) Protection of witness (B) Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction
(B) Protection for victim (C) Executive Magistrate
(C) Threat to give false evidence (D) Any Judicial Magistrate
(D) None of these ANS: (D)
ANS: (C)
Q1523. Compounding of offence under the
Q1516. Imprisonment for life means, provisions of the Code in a criminal case when
imprisonment for— charge was framed, results in—
(A) 20 years (A) Acquittal of accused
(B) 24 years (B) Discharge of accused
(C) 14 years (C) Release only
(D) Whole of the remaining life (D) Case filed only
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q1517. X knows Y is suffering from a disease in Q1524. An inquest report must contain the—
his head and a blow to Y on his head is likely to (A) Names of accused
cause his death. X gives a first blow to Y on his (B) Apparent cause of death
head. Y died, X is guilty of— (C) Details of the weapons
(A) Culpable homicide only (D) Details of the incident
(B) Murder ANS: (B)
(C) Causing hurt
(D) No offence Q1525. A charge-sheet is filed under section
ANS: (A) 302 of the IPC against five accused—A, B, C, D
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and E. A and B are absconding, C is exempted
from personal appearance by the order of the Q1532. Opinion of HandwritingExpert—
Court, D and E are present in the Court. The (A) Always needs corroboration
case can be committed to Sessions Court (B) Is inadmissible in evidence
against— (C) Is always binding on the courts
(A) A and B (D) Can be acted upon without corroboration
(B) D and E ANS: (A)
(C) C, D and E
(D) All the accused Q1533. Test Identification Parade is—
ANS: (C) (A) Substantive evidence
(B) Corroborative evidence
Q1526. Offences in which a compromise can be (C) No evidence
arrived at between the parties are— (D) Hearsay evidence Right to Information Act,
(A) Bailable offences 2005
(B) Non-cognizable offences ANS: (B)
(C) Compoundable offences
(D) Non-compoundable offences Q1534. General Limitation for filing second
ANS: (C) appeal under the Act is—
(A) 30 days
Q1527. The provisions of plea bargaining are (B) 60 days
applicable— (C) 90 days
(A) To juvenile offenders (D) 45 days
(B) At appellate stage ANS: (C)
(C) Where punishment is for more than 7 years
imprisonment Q1535. Chief Information Commissioner holds
(D) After issuance of process under section 204 office for a term of—
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (A) 3 years
ANS: (C) (B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
Q1528. The presumption u/s 114-A is a— (D) 6 years
(A) Rebuttable presumption ANS: (C)
(B) Presumption of fact
(C) Mixed presumption of law and fact Q1536. Provision of the Act do not apply to—
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law (A) Public Authority
ANS: (A) (B) Private Organization
(C) Public Undertaking
(D) Registry of High Court Part—II
ANS: (B)

Q1537. ―Directive Principles of State Policy are


Q1529. Under Evidence Act, a statement made
the conscience of the Constitution, which
by coaccused at the time of commission of the
embody the social philosophy of the
offence is—
Constitution.‖ Who of the following made this
(A) Admissible u/s 6
statement?
(B) Admissible u/s 8
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Admissible u/s 30
(B) K. C. Wheare
(D) Not at all admissible
(C) Granville Austin
ANS: (C)
(D) H. M. Seervai
ANS: (C)
Q1530. Leading questions can be asked during—
(A) Examination in chief
Q1538. The doctrine of prospective overruling
(B) Cross-examination
in relation t o the powers of the Parliament to
(C) Re-examination
amend the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
(D) Under no circumstances
the Constitution, was applied in—
ANS: (B)
(A) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(B) Sajjan Singh Vs. State of Rajasthan
Q1531. The following is not the exception to the
(C) I. C. Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
rule of hearsay—
(D) Keshvanand Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
(A) Dying declaration
ANS: (C)
(B) Res Gestae
(C) Expert‘s opinion
Q1539. Articles 19(1) (f) and 31 were deleted
(D) Confession
and Article 300-A was inserted by the following
ANS: (D)
Constitution Amendment Act—
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(A) 44th Constitution Amendment Act ANS: (B)
(B) 38th Constitution Amendment Act
(C) 42nd Constitution Amendment Act Q1546. How is the number of judges of the
(D) 25th Constitution Amendment Act Supreme Court of India increased?
ANS: (A) (A) By Presidential Notification
(B) By Amendment of the Constitution
Q1540. The gap between two sessions of the Lok (C) By the Supreme Court itself
Sabha is termed as— (D) By Parliamentary Act
(A) Adjournment period ANS: (D)
(B) Suspension period
(C) Dissolution period Q1547. Every proclamation of Emergency under
(D) Prorogation period Article 352 shall be laid before each House of
ANS: (D) the Parliament—
(A) Within two months
Q1541. Consider the following statements— The (B) Within six months
fundamental duties provided in the Constitution (C) Within six weeks
are: (D) Within one month
(A) To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of ANS: (D)
India
(B) To abide by the constitution Q1548. By which one of the following, the
(C) To defend the country and render national President of India is elected?
service when called upon to do so (A) All the members of the Parliament
(D) All of the above (B) All the elected members of the Parliament
ANS: (D) (C) All the elected members of the Parliament and
State Legislative Assemblies
Q1542. Which one of the following statements is (D) All the people of India
correct regarding Rajya Sabha? ANS: (C)
(A) One-third of its members retire every two years
(B) One-third of its members retire every year Q1549. In the case of resignation, to whom the
(C) One-third of its members retire every three President will address the letter?
years (A) To the Vice-President
(D) One-half of its members retire every three years (B) To the Prime Minister
ANS: (A) (C) To the Chief Justice of India
(D) To the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Q1543. The Indian Constitution provides for the ANS: (A)
appointment of adhoc judges in the—
(A) High Courts Q1550. Under which Article of the Constitution
(B) District and Session Courts of India the Speaker is being elected and by
(C) Supreme Court whom?
(D) All of these (A) Under Article 75 by the President of India
ANS: (C) (B) Under Article 93 by the members of the House
of People
Q1544. 93rd Amendment of the Constitution of (C) Under Article 178 by the members of Legislative
India deals with— Assemblies
(A) Right in respect of physically handicapped (D) Under Article 124 by the President of India
persons in the services under the State ANS: (B)
(B) Reservation in the matters of promotion in the
services in favour of Other Backward Classes Q1551. By which one of the following, the Chief
(C) Reservation for admission in central educational Justice of a State High Court is appointed?
institutions (A) Governor of the concerned State
(D) Right to education (B) Chief Justice of India
ANS: (C) (C) President of India
(D) Prime Minister of India
Q1545. Judges of the High Courts are appointed ANS: (C)
by the President in consultation with—
(A) A collegium consisting of Chief Justice of India Q1552. Who shall take step to separate the
and two senior most judges of the Supreme Court Judiciary from the Executive in the Public
(B) Chief Justice of India and Governor of the Service under Article 50 of the Constitution of
concerned state India?
(C) Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice of the (A) President
concerned High Court (B) Prime Minister
(D) A collegium consisting of Chief Justice of India (C) State
and four senior most judges of the Supreme Court (D) Governor
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ANS: (C) not benefitted by such an act of the promise.
Which one of the following is the correct
Q1553. Who amongst the following is sovereign answer?
in India? (A) The act of the promisee is no consideration
(A) Prime Minister of India (B) The act of the promisee is adequate
(B) President of India consideration
(C) Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister (C) The act of the promisee is inadequate
(D) ‗We the people of India‘ consideration
ANS: (D) (D) The act of the promisee is illegal consideration
ANS: (B)
Q1554. On which one of the following dates, the
Constitution of India was a dopted and finalised Q1560. If a person, who finds goods belonging
by the Constituent Assembly? to another, takes them into his custody, then
(A) 26th January, 1950 he has, which one of the following options?
(B) 26th November, 1949 (A) He is under the liability to possess it as a bailee
(C) 26th November, 1950 (B) He is under the liability to pledge it
(D) 26th January, 1949 (C) He is under the liability to gift it
ANS: (B) (D) He is under the liability to use it himself
ANS: (A)
Q1555. Which one of the following writs can be
issued only against judicial and quasijudicial Q1561. Point out the correct answer— A
authorities? voidable contract is such an agreement which
(A) Mandamus is:
(B) Quo-warranto (A) Enforceable only at the option of one of the
(C) Habeas Corpus parties thereto
(D) Certiorari (B) Not enforceable by any of the parties thereto
ANS: (D) (C) Enforceable by either of the parties thereto
(D) Enforceable only with the permission of the
Q1556. In which one of the following cases, the court
expression, ―procedure established by law‖ used ANS: (A)
in Article 21, has been interpreted by the
Supreme Court in terms of ―right, just and fair Q1562. Who is competent to contract amongst
procedure‖? the following?
(A) Kharak Singh Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (A) A minor
(B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India (B) A person of unsound mind
(C) A. K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras (C) A person debarred by any law from entering into
(D) Govind Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh contract
ANS: (B) (D) A blind woman
ANS: (D)
Q1557. Point out the correct answer— An
agreement without consideration— Q1563. In which of the following circumstances
(A) Is illegal a party to a contract will be discharged from
(B) Is void ab initio performing the contract?
(C) Is voidable contract at the option of the (A) When the performance of the contract becomes
promisor onerous
(D) Barring certain circumstances is void (B) When the performance of the contract becomes
ANS: (D) impossible
(C) When the performance of the contract becomes
Q1558. Which statement of the following is commercially inviable
correct? When consideration in an agreement is (D) When the performance of the contract becomes
inadequate— expensive
(A) Such inadequate consideration may be an ANS: (B)
evidence of immoral motive
(B) Such inadequate consideration makes the Q1564. Point out the correct answer— An
agreement void accepted proposal is—
(C) Such inadequate consideration makes the (A) A contract
agreement illegal (B) A quasicontract
(D) Such inadequate consideration may be an (C) A promise
evidence of proving the absence of free consent (D) An agreement
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q1559. As an act is done by the promisee at the


desire of the promisor although the promisor is
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Q1565. Point out the correct answer— The Q1572. Which one of the following elements is
performance of a contingent contract depends not necessary for a contract?
on: (A) Free consent
(A) The discretion of the court (B) Lawful consideration
(B) The happening or non-happening of an (C) Competent parties
uncertain event in the contract (D) Reasonable terms and conditions
(C) Demand by any party of the contract ANS: (D)
(D) The parties of the contract
ANS: (B) Q1573. Which impossibility tenders a contract
void?
Q1566. In which of the following circumstances, (A) Legal
the acceptance will be treated valid? (B) Practical
(A) When acceptance is sent by fax (C) Physical
(B) When acceptance is sent by parrot (D) All of these
(C) When acceptance is made by making the ANS: (D)
highest bid in case of auction
(D) When acceptance letter is sent at wrong address Q1574. Which one of the following elements is
ANS: (C) necessary for a contract?
(A) Free consent
Q1567. An advertisement in a newspaper (B) Lawful consideration
inviting tenders is— (C) Competent parties
(A) An invitation for proposal (D) All of these
(B) A promise ANS: (D)
(C) An invitation for negotiation
(D) A proposal Q1575. A contract stands discharged—
ANS: (A) (A) By agreement
(B) By breach of the contract
Q1568. A person has the capacity to contract— (C) By performance of contract
(A) If he can fully understand the nature of his (D) By all of these modes
contract ANS: (D)
(B) If he is not disqualified from contracting by any
law to which he is subject Q1576. If an infant obtains property or goods by
(C) If he is major and of sound mind misrepresenting his age, he may be compelled
(D) If he fulfils all the above conditions to return the same. This is known as—
ANS: (D) (A) Subrogation
(B) Restitution
Q1569. In order to convert a proposal into a (C) Contribution
promise, the acceptance must be— (D) Redemption
(A) Qualified ANS: (B)
(B) Absolute or qualified
(C) Absolute and unqualified Q1577. Which one of the following is an
(D) Absolute essential component of a valid contract?
ANS: (C) (A) Social and economic pressures, the parties are
exposed to
Q1570. Point out correct response— An (B) Dominance of one party over the other
agreement by way of wager is— (C) Competence and the contractual capacities of
(A) Illegal the parties
(B) Void (D) Equality in the bargaining power between the
(C) Void and illegal parties
(D) Voidable ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q1578. Where the law prescribes that a contract
Q1571. Which of the following statements is not must be in writing, it is necessary that it must
correct? be in writing. Non-fulfilment of this condition
(A) Void contracts do not affect collateral renders it—
transactions (A) Invalid
(B) Statutory compulsions do not amount to (B) Unenforceable
coercion (C) Voidable
(C) Illegal agreements affect collateral transactions (D) Void
(D) A contract must always be executed ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q1579. Consider the following statements— A
valid contract must have—
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(A) Consideration (A) Illegal agreements are always void
(B) Free consent of the parties (B) Void agreements are always illegal
(C) Lawful object (C) Illegal agreements are voidable
(D) All of these (D) Illegal agreements can be ratified by the parties
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q1580. When a person without expressing his Q1587. Which one of the following statements is
final willingness, proposes certain terms on correct with regard to the nature of a valid
which he is willing to negotiate, he makes— contract?
(A) Standing offer (A) All agreements are contracts
(B) Offer (B) Contract is an agreement between consenting
(C) Invitation to treat offer parties whether sane or insane
(D) Counter offer (C) Contract is an agreement without consideration
ANS: (C) (D) The agreement enforceable by law, is contract
ANS: (D)
Q1581. Which one of the following falls into the
category of offer? Q1588. Which one of the following is not a
(A) Announcement of reward to the public wagering agreement?
(B) An advertisement for a concert (A) Contract of insurance
(C) Display of goods by a shopkeeper in his window (B) A lottery
with prices marked on them (C) An agreement to buy a ticket for a lottery
(D) Advertisement in newspaper regarding a sale (D) Commercial transaction, the intention of which
ANS: (D) is not to deliver the goods but only to pay the
difference in price
Q1582. The communication of acceptance ANS: (A)
through telephone is regarded as complete
when— Q1589. Which one of the following is the correct
(A) Acceptance comes to the knowledge of party meaning of ―An agreement not enforceable by
proposing law‖?
(B) Acceptance is put in course of transmission (A) Unlawful contract
(C) Acceptor has done whatever is required to be (B) Void contract
done by him (C) Voidable agreement
(D) Acceptance is spoken on phone (D) Void agreement
ANS: (A) ANS: (B)

Q1583. A contract without consideration is Q1590. Which one of the following can be called
void– there are exceptions. Which one of the a ‗promisee‘ according to Indian Contract Act?
following exceptions is correct? (A) A person to whom proposal is made
(A) Natural love and affection (B) A person accepting the proposal
(B) Promise to pay time-barred debt (C) A person furnishing the consideration
(C) To create an agency (D) A person to whom a promise is made
(D) Both (A) and (B) ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q1591. For a binding contract both the parties
Q1584. Lending money to a borrower at high to the contract must—
rate of interest when the money market is tight, (A) Agree upon the same thing in the same sense
renders the agreement of loan— (B) Put the offer and counter offers
(A) Valid (C) Agree with each other
(B) Voidable (D) Stipulate their individual offer and
(C) Illegal consideration
(D) Void ANS: (A)
ANS: (A)
Q1592. When goods are displayed in a shop
Q1585. Which one of the following is not a window with price tag attached to them, the
characteristic of a contingent contract? offer comes from the—
(A) The event must be uncertain (A) Offerer
(B) The event must be collateral to the contract (B) General public
(C) There must be reciprocal promises (C) Customer
(D) The performance depends upon a future event (D) Shop owner
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1586. Which one of the following statements is Q1593. ‗A‘ out of love and affection promises to
correct? give his newly wedded daughter-in-law a golden
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necklace worth Rs. 20,000. ‗A‘ made the (B) Tort is a crime
promise in writing and signed it and delivered (C) Tort is not a civil wrong
the same to the daughter-in-law. The promise (D) Tort is an omission of a duty
is— ANS: (A)
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable Q1601. Which one of the following defences can
(C) Unenforceable be pleaded by the defendant, when heavy losses
(D) Without consideration are inflicted to the plaintiff due to extraordinary
ANS: (A) natural forces?
(A) Act of God
Q1594. An agreement without consideration is (B) Act of a stranger
void except in case of compensation for— (C) Contributory negligence
(A) Voluntary services rendered (D) Inevitable accident
(B) Reimbursement of expenses incurred ANS: (A)
(C) Voluntary services rendered at the request of
another Q1602. Which one of the following statements is
(D) Voluntary services rendered at the request of not correct?
the other party to the agreement (A) In tort, damages are unliquidated, but in breach
ANS: (A) of contract, they are liquidated
(B) Proof of malice is generally necessary for an
Q1595. A contract entered into by a minor is— action in tort while it is not relevant in case of
(A) Valid and binding breach of contract
(B) Void ab initio (C) In tort, the duty is towards persons generally
(C) Voidable at the option of the minor while in contract the same is towards the parties to
(D) Voidable at the option of either party the agreement
ANS: (B) (D) The duty in tort, is primarily fixed by the law,
but in a contract the same is created by the parties
Q1596. Mohori Bibee Vs. Dharmodas Ghose themselves
isrelated to— ANS: (B)
(A) Minor‘s contract
(B) Frustration of contract Q1603. The principle of Rylands Vs. Fletcher,
(C) Quasi-contract does not apply when the escape is due to—
(D) Recession of contract (A) Vis Major
ANS: (A) (B) Negligence of the defendant
(C) Mistake
Q1597. Which one of the following Judges is (D) Inevitable accident
considered pioneer in the growth of the ANS: (A)
―Principle of Absolute Liability‖, in tort?
(A) Chief Justice P. N. Bhagwati Q1604. Which one of the following statements is
(B) Chief Justice A. M. Ahmadi correct?
(C) Lord Halsbury (A) Tortious liability arises from breach of a duty
(D) Lord Denning, M. R. primarily fixed by the law
ANS: (A) (B) This duty is towards persons generally
(C) Breach of this duty is redressable by an action
Q1598. Which one of the following is no defence for unliquidated damages
in tort? (D) All of the above
(A) Necessity ANS: (D)
(B) Infancy
(C) Statutory authority Q1605. A and B entered C‘s premises to search
(D) Mistake for an escape of gas. Each one of them applied
ANS: (B) naked light to the gas pipe. A‘s application
resulted in an explosion causing damage to C‘s
Q1599. Which one of the following statements premises. In this case, which one of the
defines the maxim ‗ubi jus ibi remedium‘? following statements is legally sustainable?
(A) Where there is right, there is remedy (A) A alone is responsible
(B) Right and remedy are same things (B) A and B are not joint tort-feasors
(C) Without a remedy, there may be right (C) Neither A nor B is liable
(D) Right and remedy are different things (D) Both A and B are joint tort-feasors and jointly
ANS: (A) liable
ANS: (D)
Q1600. Which one of the following statements is
correct? Q1606. ―The law of torts consists of a body of
(A) Tort is a civil wrong rules establishing specific injuries. There is no
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general principle of liability for torts.‖ This view
was propounded by— Q1613. The principle that ―mere knowledge of
(A) Salmond the risk is not consent to it‖ was firmly
(B) Fleming established in which one of the following cases?
(C) Winfield (A) Dann Vs. Hamilton
(D) James (B) Smith Vs. Charles Baker and Sons
ANS: (A) (C) Thomas Vs. Quartermaine
(D) Nettleship Vs. Weston
Q1607. Which one of the following defences is a ANS: (B)
specific defence in tort?
(A) Statutory Authority Q1614. State Bank of India Vs. Shayma Devi is a
(B) Act of God case related to—
(C) Contributory negligence (A) General defence
(D) All of these (B) Vicarious liability
ANS: (D) (C) Absolute liability
(D) Negligence
Q1608. ‗Pigeon Hole‘ theory is of— ANS: (B)
(A) Salmond
(B) Paton Q1615. In which one of the following torts, the
(C) Winfield liability is not based on ―fault‖?
(D) None of these (A) Conversion
ANS: (A) (B) Negligence
(C) Trespass
Q1609. In vicarious liability— (D) Malicious prosecution
(A) Liability is based on fault ANS: (C)
(B) The employer and the employee are not joint
tort-feasors Q1616. Torts actionable per se are those torts
(C) The employer is liable in the place of the in which—
employee (A) Liability arises without fault
(D) The employer isliable for the employee‘s tort, (B) Some public right is infringed coupled with
but the employee remains liable as well particular damage
ANS: (C) (C) The plaintiff can sue even though he has
suffered no damage
Q1610. Which one of the following judges laid (D) The plaintiff will have to prove special damage
down ―the rule in Rylands Vs. Fletcher‖ in the ANS: (C)
court of Exchequer Chamber?
(A) Justice Blackburn Q1617. Which of the following is not correct
(B) Lord Cairns matched?
(C) Chief Justice Holt (A) Conditional transfer – Section 24
(D) Lord Porter (B) Vested interest – Section 19
ANS: (A) (C) Contingent interest – Section 21
(D) Rule against perpetuity – Section 14
Q1611. Distinction between sovereign and ANS: (A)
nonsovereign functions was drawn for the first
time in the context of state‘s liability in tort for Q1618. Section 41 of the Transfer of Property
the acts of state‘s servants in which one of the Act, 1882 is the statutory application of the law
following cases? of estoppel. The statement is—
(A) Kasturi Lal Vs. State of U.P. (A) False
(B) State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidyawati (B) Partly true
(C) P&O Steam Navigation Company Vs. Secretary (C) True
of State (D) None of these
(D) Overseas Tankship (U.K.) Ltd. Vs. Miller ANS: (C)
Steamship Co.
ANS: (A) Q1619. Which of the following cases is related
to the right of redemption?
Q1612. In which one of the following cases, the (A) Noakes Vs. Rice
principle that ―there can be no contribution (B) Kreglinger Vs. New Pentagonia Meat and Cold
between joint tort-feasors‖ was propounded? Storage Co. Ltd.
(A) Merry Weather Vs. Nixon (C) Stanley Vs. Wilde
(B) Adamson Vs. Jarvis (D) All of the above
(C) Hardy Vs. Motor Insurance Bureau ANS: (D)
(D) Gardiner Vs. Moore
ANS: (A)
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Q1620. Which one of the following statements is (B) Based on pious obligation
incorrect according to the Transfer of Property (C) Limited to a reasonable amount
Act? (D) To the extent of the value of the gifted property
(A) A transfer of property is usually made by one in his hand
living person to another living person ANS: (A)
(B) A transfer of property can be made where
transfer will operate only after the death of the Q1627. Which statement is not correct about
transferor mortgage?
(C) A transfer of property can be made even without (A) It is a transfer of interest in specific immovable
writing where writing is not expressly required by property
law (B) There is transfer of ownership in mortgage
(D) A transfer of property can be made by the act of (C) There have been described six types of
the parties mortgages in Transfer of Property Act, 1882
ANS: (B) (D) Consideration is an essential element in
mortgage
Q1621. Fraudulent transfer is defined in— ANS: (B)
(A) Section 21, Transfer of Property Act
(B) Section 53, Transfer of Property Act Q1628. For creating an interest in favour of an
(C) Section 35, Transfer of Property Act unborn person, which one of the following is
(D) Section 19, Transfer of Property Act essential?
ANS: (B) (A) Creation of absolute life interest in favour of
living persons
Q1622. By which of the following ways, an (B) Absolute interest is to be given to unborn
actionable claim can be made? person
(A) By oral agreement (C) Unborn person must be born before the
(B) By registered instrument termination of last prior interest
(C) By an instrument in writing signed by the (D) All of the above
transferor ANS: (D)
(D) By a registered instrument attested by two
witnesses Q1629. Which of the following sections of
ANS: (C) Transfer of Property Act contains exception to
the maxim ‗Nemo dat quod non habets‘?
Q1623. Which of the following interests is not (A) Sections 43 and 44
transferable? (B) Sections 41 and 44
(A) Vested interest (C) Sections 41 and 43
(B) Contingent interest (D) Sections 41 and 42
(C) Interest of lessee ANS: (B)
(D) Spes successionis
ANS: (D) Q1630. Which one of the following is not
essential element for a valid transfer of
Q1624. A makes a gift of Rs. 50,000 to B. A property?
reserves right with B‘s consent to take back at (A) Transferable property
pleasure Rs. 10,000— (B) Competent transferor
(A) Gift is valid (C) Object of transfer must be lawful
(B) Gift is void (D) Transferee may not be competent to take the
(C) Gift is voidable transfer
(D) Gift is valid upto Rs. 40,000 and void as to ANS: (D)
taking back Rs. 10,000
ANS: (D) Q1631. In which one of the following Sections
of Transfer of Property Act, the doctrine of
Q1625. A sells his house to B with a condition election has been described?
that B cannot transfer his house to anyone (A) Section 13
except C. The sale is— (B) Section 14
(A) Valid but condition is void (C) Section 35
(B) Unlawful (D) Section 36
(C) Void ANS: (C)
(D) Voidable
ANS: (A) Q1632. Section 37 of the Transfer of Property
Act on right to proceeds of revenue
Q1626. A universal donee is liable to the compensation on acquisition is based on—
creditors of the donor. The liability of the (A) Doctrine of contribution
universal donee is— (B) Doctrine of election
(A) Personal (C) Doctrine of marshalling
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(D) Doctrine of substituted security ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q1640. Order XXIII of the Civil Procedure Code
Q1633. Rule against property is not applicable prescribes which None of the following?
to a case where— (A) Appeals
(A) Interest in property is created ‗generation after (B) Execution proceedings
generation‘ (C) Withdrawal of suits
(B) Property is transferred for the benefit of the (D) All of these
public ANS: (C)
(C) Contingent interest has been created by transfer
(D) Transfer of property purports to be effective Q1641. Dasti summons for service on the
beyond minority of ultimate transferee who has not defendant under Civil Procedure Code, can be
been in existence at the date of the transfer given to the plaintiff under—
ANS: (B) (A) Order V Rule 9-A
(B) Order IV Rule 7
Q1634. The doctrine of election is applicable (C) Order VI Rule 6
to— (D) Order V Rule 9
(A) Muslims ANS: (A)
(B) Hindus
(C) Christians Q1642. Under which explanation of Section 11
(D) All of these of Civil Procedure Code, constructive Res
ANS: (D) judicata has been explained?
(A) Explanation—I
Q1635. Remedy of ‗foreclosure‘ is available in (B) Explanation—III
which one of the following mortgages? (C) Explanation—IV
(A) Mortgage by conditional sale (D) Explanation—II
(B) English mortgage ANS: (C)
(C) Usufructuary mortgage
(D) Simple mortgage Q1643. A person may sue a foreign state—
ANS: (A) (A) With consent of the State Government
(B) Only with the consent of Central Government
Q1636. In which one of the following Sections, (C) With the consent of President of India
the ‗doctrine of part performance‘ has been (D) With the consent of Central as well as State
described? Government
(A) Section 53 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 53-A
(C) Section 54 Q1644. A decree may be executed by—
(D) Section 55 (A) Collector
ANS: (B) (B) District Judge
(C) Tehsildar
Q1637. ‗Rejection of Plaint‘ is mentioned (D) Either by the court which passed it or to which
under— it is sent
(A) Order VII Rule 11 ANS: (D)
(B) Order VI Rule 13
(C) Order VIII Rule 4 Q1645. Objection as to place of suing shall be
(D) Order VII Rule 12 allowed in the court of first instance under
ANS: (A) which one of the following sections of Civil
Procedure Code?
Q1638. On which of the following ground the (A) Section 21-A
Second Appeal shall lie for hearing before the (B) Section 22
High Court? (C) Section 21
(A) From an appellate decree passed exparte (D) Section 20
(B) From substantial question of law and facts ANS: (C)
(C) On the satisfaction of High Court
(D) From every appellate decree of District Judge Q1646. The period of limitation within which
ANS: (A) defendant shall submit his written statement is
ordinarily within—
Q1639. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code (A) 60 days from service of summons
provides for— (B) 15 days from service of summons
(A) Review (C) 90 days from the date of service of summons
(B) Revision (D) 30 days from the date of service of summons
(C) Appeal to the Supreme Court ANS: (D)
(D) Reference
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Q1647. Which one of the following is not a rule (C) Any court having jurisdiction concurrent to the
of pleading? court that passed the decree
(A) Plead the fact, not the law (D) Either by court A and B
(B) Plead material facts only ANS: (D)
(C) Plead facts, not evidence
(D) State the law and plead the facts Q1654. Which one of the following Section of
ANS: (A) Civil Procedure Code prohibits arrest or
detention of women in the execution of a decree
Q1648. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of for money?
courts are uncertain, the place of institution of (A) Section 35
suit shall be decided according to— (B) Section 59
(A) Section 17 C.P.C. (C) Section 60
(B) Section 19 C.P.C. (D) Section 56
(C) Section 20 C.P.C. ANS: (D)
(D) Section 18 C.P.C.
ANS: (D) Q1655. Section 114 of Civil Procedure Code,
should be read with the provisions of which one
Q1649. Under which provision Civil Courts have of the following orders?
inherent powers and for what purpose? (A) Order 46, Rule 1
(A) Under Section 151 (CPC 1908) for necessary for (B) Order 41
the ends of justice (C) Order 47, Rule 1
(B) Under Section 152 (CPC 1908) for necessary for (D) Order 47, Rule 3
the ends of justice ANS: (C)
(C) Under Section 152 (CPC 1908) to prevent abuse
the process of the Court Q1656. Under which one of the following
(D) None of the above Sections of Civil Procedure Code, inherent
ANS: (A) power has been provided to the courts?
(A) Section 151
Q1650. In which one of the following Sections (B) Section 150
of Civil Procedure Code, it has been provided (C) Section 148
that ―No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by (D) Section 149
the Court with the consent of the parties ?‖ ANS: (A)
(A) Section 96(1)
(B) Section 96(3) Q1657. Which statement of the following is
(C) Section 96(4) correct in the context of objectives of Right to
(D) Section 96(2) Information Act, 2005?
ANS: (B) (A) To promote transparency in the working of
Government
Q1651. Under Order 8 Rule 6 of Civil Procedure (B) To ensure accountability in the working of
Code, set off may be permitted, if— government bodies
(A) The suit is for the recovery of money (C) To protect public interest
(B) Value of property recoverable is less than (D) All of the above
rupees two lacs ANS: (D)
(C) Defendant presents a written statement of
accounts at any stage of hearing of the suit Q1658. In the definition of Right to
(D) Set-off claimed by the defendant, is ascertained Information, which of the following has been
sum of money included?
ANS: (A) (A) Inspection of work, documents, records
(B) Taking notes, extracts or certified copies of
Q1652. Under Civil Procedure Code, which one documents
of the following combinations is not correctly (C) Taking sample of materials
matched? (D) All of the above
(A) Temporary Injunction — Order 39 ANS: (D)
(B) Right to file caveat — Section 148–A
(C) Suit by indigent person — Order 33 Q1659. Under which Section of Right to
(D) Power of Appellate Court — Section 102 Information Act, 2005, the right to information
ANS: (D) is available to the citizens?
(A) Section 3
Q1653. Point out incorrect answer— A decree (B) Section 2
passed by a Civil Court can be executed by— (C) Section 4
(A) The court that passed that decreee (D) None of these
(B) The court to which the decree is transferred for ANS: (A)
execution by the court passing the decree
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Q1660. Under which one of the following
Sections of Right to Information Act, 2005, Q1666. Under the Prevention of Women from
exemption from disclosure of information has Domestic Violence Act, 2005, the appointment
been provided to government bodies? of Protection Officers is made by—
(A) Section 8 (A) State Government
(B) Section 6 (B) District Magistrate
(C) Section 5 (C) Governor of the State
(D) Section 7 (D) Chief Minister of the State
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q1661. Under which one of the following Q1667. Which of the following amendments of
Sections of Right to Information Act, 2005, the constitution gave priority to the Directive
except the provision of appeal, bar of Principles of State Policy over Fundamental
jurisdiction of courts has been provided? Rights?
(A) Section 20 (A) 40th Amendment
(B) Section 21 (B) 42nd Amendment
(C) Section 22 (C) 45th Amendment
(D) Section 23 (D) 38th Amendment
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q1662. Information Technology Act, 2000 has Q1668. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will
made amendments in— address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Only Section 463 I.P.C. (A) The Prime Minister
(B) Only Sections 466 and 477-A I.P.C. (B) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Section 463, 466 and 477-A I.P.C. (C) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Section 462 I.P.C. only (D) The President
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1663. Under the Prevention of Women from Q1669. Rajya Sabha does not have co-equal
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 in the context of powers with the Lok Sabha in—
the definition of domestic violence, which of (A) Passing of a Constitutional Amendment Bill
the following statements is the most relevant? (B) Passing of a Money Bill
(A) To inflict harm or injury or endangering the (C) Removal of a Supreme Court Judge
health, safety, life, limb or wellbeing of aggrieved (D) The impeachment of the President
woman ANS: (B)
(B) To demand dowry, any property or valuable
security from the aggrieved woman Q1670. By which of the following provisions of
(C) To threaten the aggrieved woman or any person the Constitution of India, power to promulgate
related to her ordinances is vested in the President?
(D) All of the above (A) Article 123
ANS: (D) (B) Article 124
(C) Article 125
Q1664. Under which one of the following (D) Article 122
Sections of the Prevention of Women from ANS: (A)
Domestic Violence Act, 2005, right to file
domestic incident report, has been provided? Q1671. By misusing the powers given in the
(A) Section 3 Constitution, the Indian President can become a
(B) Section 4 dictator? Who had expressed this
(C) Section 5 apprehension?
(D) Section 6 (A) Dr. K. M. Munshi
ANS: (B) (B) Dr. A. Gledhill
(C) Dr. Graham Williams
Q1665. Which of the following assistances are (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
provided to the aggrieved women by the ANS: (B)
Protection Offices under the Protection of
Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005? Q1672. In case of constitutional disputes
(A) To assist the aggrieved person in making a between the Government of India and the State
complaint Governments, the Supreme Court of India has—
(B) To provide her information as given in Form-4 (A) Appellate Jurisdiction
on the rightsof aggrieved persons (B) Original Jurisdiction
(C) To provide safety to aggrieved person (C) No Jurisdiction
(D) All of the above (D) Advisory Jurisdiction
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)
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Q1679. Which one of the following statements is
Q1673. Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme not correct? The Supreme Court of India may
Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to review its earlier decision—
civil matters is limited only to a— (A) If there is mistake or error apparent on the face
(A) Substantive question of law of record
(B) Mixed question of fact and law (B) If the circumstances of a substantial and
(C) Question of law compelling character make it necessary to do so
(D) Question of fact (C) If it is satisfied of its error and its harmful effect
ANS: (A) on the general interest of public
(D) If a new interpretation of a statutory provision is
Q1674. In which of the following cases, the brought to its knowledge
Supreme Court declared that a Constituent ANS: (C)
Assembly should be convened to amend the
fundamental rights? Q1680. By which of the following Constitutional
(A) Golaknath‘s case Amendment, Article 31-C was added to the
(B) Menaka Gandhi's case Constitution?
(C) Keshavanand Bharti‘s case (A) 22nd Constitution Amendment
(D) A. K. Gopalan‘s case (B) 24th Constitution Amendment
ANS: (A) (C) 25th Constitution Amendment
(D) 26th Constitution Amendment
Q1675. Once a proclamation of emergency is ANS: (C)
made, the right of a citizen to move the
Supreme Court for enforcement of his Q1681. In which of the following articles of the
fundamental rights is suspended by the— Constitution of India, the members of State
(A) Prime Minister of India Legislative Assembly are required to take oath
(B) President of India of their office?
(C) Chief Justice of India (A) Article 188
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Article 164(3)
ANS: (B) (C) Article 124(6)
(D) Article 99
Q1676. Under Article 368 of the Constitution, ANS: (A)
Parliament has no power to repeal fundamental
rights because these are— Q1682. When a Constitutional Amendment Bill
(A) Human Rights is presented to the President for his assent—
(B) Transcendental Rights (A) He may or may not give his assent
(C) Parts of basic structure or essential framework (B) He may return the Bill for reconsideration
of the Constitution (C) He may withhold his assent
(D) Enshrined in Part III of the Constitution (D) He shall give his assent to the Bill
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1677. Which one of the following statements is Q1683. The Supreme Court of India has held
not correct? that sexual harrassment of working women
(A) Supreme Court may issue writs for enforcement amounts to violation of their right of gender
of any legal right equality and right to life and personal liberty. In
(B) Supreme Court has the power to punish any which one of the following cases the Apex Court
person for its contempt has held as such?
(C) Salary of judges of the Supreme Court is not (A) Hussainara Vs. State of Bihar
subject to vote of the legislature (B) Vishaka and others Vs. State of Rajasthan and
(D) A retired judge of the Supreme Court is others
prohibited from appearing and pleading in any (C) Srimati Gyan Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
court within the territory of India (D) Nilabati Behera Vs. State of Orissa
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1678. The principle of absolute liability was Q1684. When Emergency under Article 352 of
propounded by— the Constitution is proclaimed, the President
(A) Justice Krishna Iyer has the power to suspend the Fundamental
(B) Justice A. N. Ray Rights but it is not possible to suspend the
(C) Justice Patanjali Shastri Rights contained in the following Articles—
(D) Justice P. N. Bhagwati (A) Articles 21 and 22
ANS: (D) (B) Articles 19, 20 and 21
(C) Articles 20 and 21
(D) Articles 19 and 20
ANS: (C)
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(D) Not punishable when the preparation is with
Q1685. Which one of the following features, we the intention of waging war
have not borrowed from the Constitution of ANS: (C)
United Kingdom?
(A) Parliamentary type of Government Q1692. ―P gives grave and sudden provocation
(B) Supreme Court to M. M fixes a pistol at P. Neither intending nor
(C) Privilege of Members of the Parliament knowing himself to be likely to kill Q, who is
(D) Two Houses of the Parliament near him but out of the sight. M kills Q.‖ M has
ANS: (B) committed—
(A) Murder
Q1686. An Amendment of the Constitution of (B) Culpable homicide
India for the purpose of creating a new state in (C) Neither a murder nor culpable homicide
India, must be passed by— (D) All of the above
(A) A simple majority in Parliament ANS: (B)
(B) Two-thirds of the members of both the Houses
of Parliament present and voting Q1693. In which of the following cases it was
(C) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification held that the death sentence should be given in
by not less than half of the states ‗rarest of rare‘ cases?
(D) A simple majority in the Parliament with the (A) R. Vs. Govinda
approval of the concerned state Paper–II (B) Hussainara Khatoon Vs. State of Bihar
ANS: (D) (C) Sunil Batra Vs. Delhi Administration
(D) Bachhan Singh Vs. State of Punjab
Q1687. Grave and sudden provocation is— ANS: (D)
(A) A question of fact
(B) A question of law Q1694. A, an 11 year aged boy, entered in the
(C) A mixed question of fact and law room of a girl B, aged about 8 years who was
(D) A presumption underthe law sleeping. A injured her private parts. In this
ANS: (A) case—
(A) A has committed no offence
Q1688. Grievous hurt is defined under— (B) A is guilty of an offence under Section 354 of
(A) Section 321, IPC IPC
(B) Section 320, IPC (C) A is guilty of rape
(C) Section 322, IPC (D) A is guilty of attempt to rape
(D) Section 325, IPC ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1695. Which Section was inserted into IPC by
Q1689. Assault in order to outrage the modesty Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005?
of a woman is punishable under which of the (A) Section 498-A
following Sections of the IPC? (B) Section 153-AA
(A) Under Section 363 (C) Section 229-A
(B) Under Section 354 (D) Section 195-A
(C) Under Section 509 ANS: (D)
(D) Under Section 511
ANS: (B) Q1696. To sit at an examination falsely
personating another and signing papers in that
Q1690. A takes a camera belonging to B, out of others name amounts to—
the possession of B, without the consent of B, (A) Cheating as well as forgery
with the intention of keeping it until he gets (B) Forgery only
reward from B for its restoration. A is guilty of— (C) Cheating only
(A) Criminal misappropriation (D) Both cheating and forgery by personation
(B) Extortion ANS: (D)
(C) Theft
(D) Cheating Q1697. A incites a dog to spring upon Z,
ANS: (C) without Z‘s consent and with intend to cause
injury, fear or annoyance to Z. A has
Q1691. Preparation for the commission of a committed—
crime is— (A) Use of criminal force
(A) Punishable under the IPC (B) Assault
(B) Not punishable under the IPC (C) Grave provocation
(C) Punishable when the preparation is with (D) Use of force
intention of waging war against the Government of ANS: (A)
India or committing dacoity
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Q1698. In which Section of Criminal Procedure (A) Section 260 to 265
Code, 1973 ‗cognizable offence‘ has been (B) Section 251 to 259
defined? (C) Section 238 to 250
(A) Section 2(a) (D) Section 225 to 237
(B) Section 2(c) ANS: (D)
(C) Section 2(i)
(D) Section 2(i) Q1706. Complaint as provided under Section 2
ANS: (B) (d) of Cr. P.C.; can be—
(A) In writing only
Q1699. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. (B) Oral only
Government can appoint Assistant Public (C) Either in writing or oral
Prosecuters? (D) By gestures
(A) Section 23 ANS: (C)
(B) Section 24
(C) Section 25 Q1707. The power of Supreme Court to transfer
(D) Section 26 criminal cases and appeals from one High Court
ANS: (C) to another High Court is conferred under—
(A) Section 407, Cr.P.C.
Q1700. The Local Jurisdiction of a Judicial (B) Section 406, Cr.P.C.
Magistrate is under the control of— (C) Section 421, Cr.P.C.
(A) State Government (D) Section 408, Cr.P.C.
(B) High Court ANS: (B)
(C) The High Court by Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) None of the above Q1708. In a bailable offence, the bail is to be
ANS: (C) granted as a matter of right—
(A) By the Police Officer
Q1701. Under Cr. P.C. an inquiry is— (B) By the Court
(A) A judicial proceeding (C) Both by the Police Officer and the Court
(B) A police proceeding (D) By the Executive Magistrate
(C) A private proceeding ANS: (B)
(D) A specific proceeding
ANS: (A) Q1709. Classification of compoundable and
noncompoundable offences has been provided
Q1702. In a cognizable case,the police has under—
authority— (A) First Schedule of Cr.P.C.
(A) To arrest without warrant (B) Second Schedule of Cr.P.C.
(B) To investigate the offence without the (C) Section 320 of Cr.P.C.
permission of the magistrate (D) Section 321 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Both (A) and (B) above ANS: (C)
(D) Either
ANS: (C) Q1710. Which one of the following provisions of
Cr.P.C. is not related to appeal?
Q1703. A Magistrate has a power to direct the (A) Section 86
police to investigate into an offence under— (B) Section 449
(A) Section 156(1), Cr. P.C. (C) Section 450
(B) Section 156(2), Cr. P.C. (D) Section 454
(C) Section 156(3), Cr. P.C. ANS: (C)
(D) All of these
ANS: (C) Q1711. Who can issue a search warrant for
document or thing?
Q1704. Which court can try in a summary way (A) Any Court
offences mentioned in Section 260 of the (B) Police Superintendent
Cr.P.C.? (C) Magistrate of First Class only
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate (D) Sessions Court only
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate ANS: (A)
(C) Any Magistrate of first class specially
empowered by the High Court in this behalf Q1712. When the police registers a case
(D) All of the above regarding commission of a cognizable offence,
ANS: (D) the registration of the case is—
(A) Under Section 154 Cr.P.C.
Q1705. In which of the following Sections of (B) Under Section 155 Cr.P.C.
Cr.P.C. the procedure for Sessions Trial is (C) Under Section 156(3) Cr.P.C.
provided? (D) Under Section 190 Cr.P.C.
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ANS: (A) (A) Section 473
(B) Section 468
Q1713. Which Section of Cr.P.C. permits the (C) Section 472
public prosecuter in charge of a case to (D) Section 471
withdraw prosecution? ANS: (A)
(A) Section 304
(B) Section 321 Q1721. Addition or alteration of charge has
(C) Section 313 been provided under—
(D) Section 323 (A) Section 214, Cr.P.C.
ANS: (B) (B) Section 215, Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 216, Cr.P.C.
Q1714. A confession under Section 164 Cr.P.C. (D) Section 218, Cr.P.C.
may be recorded by— ANS: (C)
(A) Any Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate
(B) Executive Magistrate Q1722. A was wounded in Uttar Pradesh and
(C) Police officer on whom power of a Magistrate dies of his wounds in Bhopal. The offence of
has been conferred causing A‘s death may be inquired into and tried
(D) Either A or B in—
ANS: (A) (A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bhopal
Q1715. Maintenance of a case diary by an (C) Uttar Pradesh or Bhopal
investigating officer is mandatory under— (D) Anywhere the F.I.R. is lodged
(A) Section 162 Cr.P.C. ANS: (C)
(B) Section 167 Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 172 Cr.P.C. Q1723. Which Section of Cr.P.C. requires
(D) Section 174 Cr.P.C. confirmation by the High Court of an order of
ANS: (C) death sentence passed by the Sessions Court?
(A) Section 366
Q1716. Which court has power to set aside the (B) Section 368
declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of (C) Section 369
Cr.P.C.? (D) Section 371
(A) Sessions Court ANS: (A)
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate Q1724. Examination of witnesses in the absence
(D) Supreme Court of accused can be done, under—
ANS: (B) (A) Section 299, Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 321, Cr.P.C.
Q1717. Section 125 of Cr.P.C. is applicable to— (C) Section 224, Cr.P.C.
(A) Hindus (D) Section 298, Cr.P.C.
(B) Muslims ANS: (A)
(C) Christians
(D) Persons belonging to any religion Q1725. In which of the following cases the
ANS: (D) prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury?
(A) Jessica Lal Case
Q1718. A criminal case can be committed to the (B) Nitish Katara Case
Court of Sessions by Judicial Magistrate under— (C) Priyadarshni Mattoo Case
(A) Section 209, Cr. P.C. (D) None of these
(B) Section 323, Cr. P.C. ANS: (A)
(C) Section 324, Cr. P.C.
(D) Both (A) and (B) above Q1726. The Code of Criminal Procedure
ANS: (D) (Amendment) Act, 2005 came into force on—
(A) 22nd June, 2006
Q1719. Jurisdiction to grant bail under Section (B) 21st June, 2005
438 of Cr. P.C. vests with— (C) 23rd June, 2006
(A) Judicial Magistrate (D) 23rd July, 2006
(B) Court of Sessions ANS: (C)
(C) High Court
(D) Both (B) and (C)
ANS: (D)

Q1720. Which Section of Cr. P.C. authorise any


Q1727. Security for good behaviour from
court to take cognizance of an offence after the
habitual offenders may be taken under—
expiry of the period of limitation?
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(A) Section 107 of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 109 of Cr.P.C. Q1735. In which Section of Indian Evidence
(C) Section 110 of Cr.P.C. Act, irrelevant facts may become relevant?
(D) Section 133 of Cr.P.C. (A) Section 9
ANS: (C) (B) Section 10
(C) Section 11
Q1728. In the following, who is authorised for (D) Section 12
removal of public nuisance? ANS: (C)
(A) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(B) Judicial Magistrate Second Class Q1736. Under which Section of the Evidence
(C) Executive Magistrate Act, admissibility of evidence shall be decided
(D) Sessions Judge by the Judge?
ANS: (C) (A) Section 135
(B) Section 136
Q1729. Under which of the following Sections of (C) Section 138
Cr.P.C. police can arrest an accused without (D) Section 144
warrant? ANS: (B)
(A) Section 38
(B) Section 41 Q1737. Admissions bind the maker—
(C) Section 39 (A) In so far as it relates to facts
(D) Section 40 (B) In so far as it relates to law
ANS: (B) (C) Both on questions of facts and law
(D) None of the above
Q1730. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to— ANS: (A)
(A) Proceedings before a Tribunal
(B) Proceedings before an Arbitrator Q1738. ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ were jointly tried for the
(C) Judicial proceedings in Courts murder of ‗C‘. During the trial ‗A‘ said—―‗B‘ and
(D) All of the above I murdered ‗C‘‖. What is the nature of this
ANS: (C) evidence against ‗B‘?
(A) Substantive evidence
Q1731. ‗Facts in issue‘ means— (B) Corroborative evidence
(A) Fact existence or non-existence of which is (C) Hearsay evidence
admitted by the parties (D) Direct evidence
(B) Fact existence or non-existence of which is ANS: (B)
disputed by the parties
(C) Fact existence or non-existence of which is not Q1739. Confession made to police officer is
disputed by the parties inadmissible under—
(D) All of the above (A) Section 24
ANS: (B) (B) Section 25
(C) Section 26
Q1732. Which is not an evidence in the (D) Section 27
following? ANS: (B)
(A) Personal knowledge or observation of a judge
about the case during hearing Q1740. Section 27 of the Evidence Act applies—
(B) Oral statement of a witness before the Court (A) When the person giving information is an
(C) Document produced for the inspection of Court accused but is not in police custody
(D) Electronic C.D. (B) When the person giving information is an
ANS: (A) accused and is in police custody
(C) When the person is in police custody but is not
Q1733. The facts forming part of the same an accused
transaction are relevant under— (D) When the person is neither in police custody
(A) Section 5 nor an accused
(B) Section 6 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 7
(D) Section 4 Q1741. A dying declaration to be relevant—
ANS: (B) (A) Must be made before a Magistrate
(B) Must be made before a Police officer
Q1734. Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act— (C) May be made before a Doctor or a private
(A) Motive is relevant person
(B) Preparation is relevant (D) May be made either before a Magistrate or a
(C) Conduct is relevant Police officer or a private person
(D) All of the above are relevant ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
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Q1742. Under the Indian Evidence Act, a public (D) Section 75 I.E.A.
document can be proved— ANS: (C)
(A) By certified copy
(B) By oral evidence Q1750. Admissibility of electronic record has
(C) By the evidence of the writing of the certified been provided under—
copy (A) Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
(D) Any of the above (B) Section 66 of Indian Evidence Act
ANS: (A) (C) Section 65-A of Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
Q1743. Opinion of an expert under Section 45 ANS: (D)
of the Evidence Act—
(A) Is a conclusive proof Q1751. In criminal proceedings the burden of
(B) Is not a conclusive proof proof lies—
(C) Is a supportive and corroborative proof (A) On the prosecution to prove the guilt of the
(D) Either A or C accused
ANS: (C) (B) On the accused to prove his innocence
(C) On both the parties
Q1744. Facts, of which judicial notice is to be (D) None of the above
taken, are stated in— ANS: (A)
(A) Section 56, I.E.A.
(B) Section 57, I.E.A. Q1752. Husband and wife both are competent
(C) Section 58, I.E.A. witnesses for or against each other—
(D) Section 55, I.E.A. (A) In civil proceedings
ANS: (B) (B) In criminal proceedings
(C) In both civil and criminal proceedings
Q1745. Contents of a document may be proved (D) Neither in civil nor in criminal proceedings
under Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act— ANS: (C)
(A) By primary evidence
(B) By secondary evidence Q1753. Section 108 of the Evidence Act relates
(C) Either by primary or by secondary evidence to—
(D) None of the above (A) Presumption of death
ANS: (C) (B) Presumption of life
(C) Presumption of legitimacy of child
Q1746. ―The court may presume the existence (D) Presumption of relationship
of certain facts‖ has been provided under which ANS: (A)
of the following sections of the Evidence Act—
(A) Section 114 Q1754. The principle that ―possession is the
(B) Section 113 prima facie proof of ownership‖ is contained
(C) Section 113-A in—
(D) Section 114-A (A) Section 109, I.E.A.
ANS: (C) (B) Section 110, I.E.A.
(C) Section 111, I.E.A.
Q1747. Which of the following are Public (D) Section 112, I.E.A.
Documents? ANS: (B)
(A) Documents of Sovereign Authorities
(B) Documents of Official Bodies Q1755. Estoppel is a rule of—
(C) Documents of Tribunals (A) Civil action
(D) All of the above (B) Criminal action
ANS: (D) (C) Both Civil and Criminal actions
(D) Only
Q1748. ―No new trial for improper admission of ANS: (A)
evidence‖ has been provided in which of the
following Sections of Evidence Act? Q1756. A dumb person is a competent witness
(A) Section 165 as provided under—
(B) Section 166 (A) Section 118, I.E.A.
(C) Section 167 (B) Section 119, I.E.A.
(D) None of these (C) Section 120, I.E.A.
ANS: (C) (D) Section 121, I.E.A.
ANS: (B)
Q1749. Public documents are mentioned in—
(A) Section 72 I.E.A. Q1757. Leading questions can be asked during
(B) Section 73 I.E.A. the—
(C) Section 74 I.E.A. (A) Examination in chief
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(B) Cross-examination (A) Section 17
(C) Re-examination (B) Section 18
(D) All of these (C) Section 19
ANS: (B) (D) Section 20
ANS: (B)
Q1758. Examination of witness in criminal
cases through video-conferencing is— Q1765. Whether provisions of Section 360 of
(A) Permissible Cr.P.C. are applicable to a person above the age
(B) Not permissible of 18 years who is found guilty under SC/ST
(C) Permissible at the option of the witness Act?
(D) Permissible at the option of the accused (A) Not applicable
ANS: (A) (B) Applicable
(C) Applicable with the sanction of the State
Q1759. The Scheduled Caste and Scheduled (D) Applicable with the sanction of the Supreme
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 Court
defines ―atrocity‖ under— ANS: (A)
(A) Section 2(a)
(B) Section 3(i) Q1766. Who has the power to make rules for
(C) Section 4 carrying out the purpose of SC/ST Act?
(D) Section 5 (A) State Government
ANS: (A) (B) Central Government
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
Q1760. ‗A‘ a person of scheduled caste, attacks (D) Supreme Court
on a women of scheduled tribe with intent to ANS: (B)
rape. In which section of SC/ST (Prevention of
Atrocity) Act, he is liable for prosecution? Q1767. If a person is likely to commit offence
(A) Section 5 under SC/ST Act, can be removed, under—
(B) Section 3 (A) Section 8
(C) Section 4 (B) Section 9
(D) None of these (C) Section 10
ANS: (B) (D) Section 7
ANS: (C)
Q1761. If a public servant not belonging to S.C.
or S.T. wilfully neglects his duties under the Q1768. The subject ‗Protection of wild animal
SC/ST Act, he shall be punished— and birds‘ in the Constitution of India is
(A) Imprisonment of one year enumerated—
(B) Rigorous imprisonment for a term of two years (A) In the Union List
(C) Imprisonment for a term of three years (B) In the State List
(D) Simple imprisonment for less than six months (C) In the Concurrent List
ANS: (A) (D) In all of the above
ANS: (C)
Q1762. Who constitutes the Special Court under
the SC/ST Act? Q1769. Under which Section of the Wild-life
(A) Central Government by notification (Protection) Act, 1972 the National Board for
(B) Central Government with consultation of Chief Wildlife is constituted?
Justice of India (A) Section 6
(C) State Government with the concurrence of the (B) Section 8
Chief Justice of the High Court (C) Section 9
(D) Governor of the concerned State (D) Section 10
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q1763. Who is responsible for preventing Q1770. Who can give permission to kill a
atrocities in prone areas declared under the dangerous animal to human life specified in
SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocity) Act? Schedule-1 of Wild-life (Protection) Act?
(A) District Magistrate (A) Forest Conservator
(B) Sub-Divisional Magistrate (B) Divisional Forest Officer
(C) Police officer not below the rank of a Deputy (C) Chief Wild-life Warden
Superintendent (D) State Government
(D) All of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q1771. ―No person shall hunt any wild animal‖
Q1764. Under which Section of the SC/ST Act has been specified in which of the following
anticipatory bail is prohibited? schedules of the Wild-life (Protection) Act?
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(A) Schedule I (B) Trial before Sessions Court
(B) Schedule IV (C) Trial of warrant case
(C) Schedule III (D) Trial of summons case
(D) All of these ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1779. A prosecution for an offence under the
Q1772. In the following, for what purpose Prevention of Food Adulteration Act may be
special permit to hunt wild animals may be instituted by a purchaser, under—
granted? (A) Section 9
(A) Educational (B) Section 12
(B) Scientific Research (C) Section 16
(C) Scientific Management (D) Section 20
(D) All of these ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1780. Who is empowered to make rules for
Q1773. Who can declare an area to be a carrying out the provisions of the Prevention of
Sanctuary under Section 18 of the Wild-life Food Adulteration Act, 1954?
(Protection) Act? (A) State Government
(A) Central Government (B) Central Government
(B) State Government (C) Both (A) and (B) above
(C) Forest Department (D) Food Controller
(D) District Magistrate ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q1781. In relation to certain articles of food,
Q1774. Causing fire to a sanctuary is prohibited what is prohibited under Section 7 of the
under— Prevention of Food Adulteration Act?
(A) Section 30 Wild-life (Protection) Act (A) Manufacture for sale
(B) Section 28 Wild-life (Protection) Act (B) Storage
(C) Section 31 Wildlife (Protection) Act (C) Distribution
(D) Section 29 Wild-life (Protection) Act (D) All of these
ANS: (A) ANS: (D)

Q1775. Provisions relating to prevention and Q1782. Which Section of the Prevention of Food
detection of offences under the Wild-life Adulteration Act provides for defences which
(Protection) Act are provided in— may or may not be allowed in prosecutions?
(A) Chapter V (A) Section 17
(B) Chapter VI (B) Section 18
(C) Chapter IV (C) Section 19
(D) Chapter III (D) Section 21
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q1776. Under which Section of Prevention of Q1783. Under the PFA Act, if any food items is
Food Adulteration Act, 1954 the powers of Food so coloured, coated or powdered that the fact
Inspectors are provided? that the article is damaged is concealed, it shall
(A) Section 8 be deemed to be—
(B) Section 9 (A) An imitated article
(C) Section 10 (B) A misbranded article
(D) Section 11 (C) A polluted article
ANS: (C) (D) An adulterated article
ANS: (B)
Q1777. Who is responsible to give warranty of
any food article under the Prevention of Food Q1784. Under which Section of the Prevention
Adulteration Act? of Corruption Act, 1988 demanding and
(A) Manufacturer receiving illegal gratification constitutes an
(B) Distributor offence?
(C) Dealer (A) Section 7
(D) All of these (B) Section 13(1)(d)
ANS: (D) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Section 12
Q1778. The trial of offences under Section 16-A ANS: (C)
of the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act,
shall be—
(A) A summary trial case
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Q1785. Whether Probation of Offenders Act, (D) It extends to the State of M.P. only
1958 is applicable to offenders of Section 13 of ANS: (A)
the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
(A) Yes Q1792. Who has powerto restrict or prohibit
(B) No Provision transport of arms?
(C) May be applicable with the permission of the (A) Central Government
Government (B) State Government
(D) May be applicable on request of the offender (C) District Magistrate
ANS: (B) (D) Police Commissioner
ANS: (A)
Q1786. By which Section of the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988, Sections 161 to 165-A of Q1793. Which Section of the Arms Act, 1959
the Indian Penal Code has been omitted? defines ‗Prohibited Ammunition‘?
(A) Section 31 (A) Section 3
(B) Section 28 (B) Section 2(e)
(C) Section 30 (C) Section 2(h)
(D) Section 29 (D) Section 2(c)
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q1787. Offences referred to in Section 139(1)(e) Q1794. A person cannot acquire firearms—
of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 shall (A) Who has executed a bond for keeping good
be investigated by— behaviour
(A) The police officer in charge of a police station (B) Who is below the age of 21 years
(B) Any subordinate Police Officer with the order of (C) Who has been sentenced for violence
a Police Officer not below the rank of (D) All of the above
Superintendent of Police ANS: (D)
(C) Police Sub-Inspector
(D) Any Police Inspector Q1795. Licence for import and export of arms is
ANS: (B) compulsory under which of the following
Sections of the Arms Act?
Q1788. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, (A) Section 9
the onus to prove that ―the assets found were (B) Section 10
not disproportionate to the known sources of (C) Section 7
income of the accused‖, is on— (D) Section 8
(A) The accused ANS: (B)
(B) The prosecution
(C) The investigating officer Q1796. A licence under Section 3 of the Arms
(D) The Government Act shall, unless revoked earlier, continue in
ANS: (B) force for the period of—
(A) One year
Q1789. Presumption under Section 20 of the (B) Two years
Prevention of Corruption Act is— (C) Three years
(A) Rebuttable (D) Five years
(B) Irrebuttable ANS: (C)
(C) Rebuttable with the permission of the court
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) Q1797. Where the licensing authority prior to
ANS: (C) grant of licence to any person under the Arms
Act, calls for a report from the concerned police
Q1790. Under which Section of the Prevention station but the police station did not send the
of Corruption Act previous sanction is necessary report within the prescribed time, then—
for prosecution of certain offences? (A) The application for licence shall be cancelled
(A) Section 16 (B) Police report will be asked again
(B) Section 17 (C) Licence without report will not be valid
(C) Section 18 (D) Licence may be granted without police report
(D) Section 19 ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1798. Under which Section of the Arms Act,
Q1791. Under the Arms Act, 1959 which one of 1959 a Magistrate may make search and seizure
the following statements is correct? of any arm or ammunition?
(A) This Act extends to the whole of India (A) Section 20
(B) It extends to the whole of India except Jammu & (B) Section 22
Kashmir (C) Section 21
(C) This Act extends to all Union Territories (D) Section 23
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ANS: (B) Q1806. The appeal against an order made by the
Appropriate Commission under the Electricity
Q1799. The punishment for carrying any Act, 2003 may be preferred to—
firearm without licence is— (A) The High Court
(A) Not less than three years, but may be extended (B) Appellate Tribunal for Electricity
to seven years with fine (C) The Supreme Court
(B) 5 years imprisonment (D) The District Court
(C) 2 years imprisonment and fine ANS: (D)
(D) 5 years imprisonment and fine
ANS: (A) Q1807. Punishment for receiving stolen electric
line or material is provided under which section
Q1800. The offences under the Narcotic Drugs of Electricity Act?
and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 are— (A) Section 137
(A) Cognizable (B) Section 142
(B) Non-Cognizable (C) Section 139
(C) Cognizable and non-bailable (D) Section 140
(D) Bailable ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q1808. For which of the following purposes a
Q1801. Who can get benefit of release on licence is essential under the Electricity Act?
probation under the NDPS Act, 1985? (A) To transmit electricity
(A) An accused under Section 27 (B) To distribute electricity
(B) An accused under Section 27-A (C) Trading in electricity
(C) An accused under Section 28 (D) All of these
(D) An accused under Section 29 ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1809. Who has jurisdiction to punish for
Q1802. Which Section of the NDPS Act provides electricity offences?
death penalty for certain offences? (A) Chief Electrical Inspector
(A) Section 32 (B) Special Court
(B) Section 32-A (C) State Regulatory Commission
(C) Section 31 (D) Sessions Court
(D) Section 31-A ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q1810. Provision for compounding of offence of
Q1803. The offences under the NDPS Act, 1985 theft of electricity is provided in Electricity Act,
are triable by— 2003 in—
(A) Court of Sessions (A) Section 151
(B) Special Court (B) Section 150
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate (C) Section 152
(D) Magistrate of First Class (D) Section 149
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q1804. Who has power to issue a search warrant Q1811. Exemption to the members of scheduled
under Section 41 of the NDPS Act? tribes from certain provisions of M.P. Excise
(A) Metropolitan Magistrate Act, 1915 is granted in—
(B) Magistrate of First Class (A) Section 61
(C) Any Magistrate of SecondClass specially (B) Section 61-A
empowered by the State Government in this behalf (C) Section 61-C
(D) All of the above (D) Section 61-D
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q1805. Which Section of NDPS Act provides for Q1812. Which authority is empowered to
attachment of opium poppy, cannabis plant or restrict the import, export or transport of
coca illegally cultivated? intoxicant under Section 8 of the M.P. Excise
(A) Section 46 Act, 1915?
(B) Section 47 (A) Excise Commissioner
(C) Section 48 (B) State Government
(D) Section 49 (C) Excise Officer
ANS: (C) (D) Revenue Officer
ANS: (B)
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Q1813. Who amongst the following has power to (A) Motive, mens rea and actus reus
arrest without warrant under Section 52 of the (B) Motive, intention and knowledge
M.P. Excise Act? (C) Mens rea and actus reus
(A) Excise Officer (D) Knowledge, intention and action
(B) Police Officer who is empowered in this behalf ANS: (C)
(C) Revenue Officer who is empowered in this behalf
(D) All of the above Q1821. In which of the following offences
ANS: (D) criminal intention (mens rea) is irrelevant?
(A) Attempt to commit crime
Q1814. Under the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act, (B) Food adulteration
penalty for manufacturing liquor unfit for (C) Bigamy
human consumption is provided in— (D) Dacoity
(A) Section 49-A ANS: (C)
(B) Section 48-A
(C) Section 49 Q1822. X and Y go to murder Z. X stood on
(D) Section 48 guard with a spear in hand but did not hit Z at
ANS: (A) all. Y killed Z. In this case—
(A) Only Y is liable for murder of Z
Q1815. In which Section of the Madhya Pradesh (B) X and Y both are liable for murder of Z
Excise Act, a licence is required for sale of (C) X is not liable as he did not perform any overt
intoxicants? act
(A) Section 14 (D) Both (A) and (C) are correct
(B) Section 15 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 16
(D) Section 17 Q1823. In connection with the right of private
ANS: (D) defence of body, give the correct response—
(A) This right is not available against an unsound
Q1816. Excisable article means— person
(A) Alcoholic liquor for human consumption (B) This right is not available against a person
(B) Intoxicating drug below 7 years of age
(C) Opium and poppy straw (C) This right is available against any person
(D) All of the above (D) This right is not available against parents
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q1817. Wrongful gain means— Q1824. In case of an offence punishable with


(A) A gain by lawful means of property which the fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of
person gaining is not entitled fine, will be—
(B) A gain by unlawful means of property to which (A) Rigorous
the person gaining is not legally entitled (B) Simple
(C) A gain by unlawful means of property which the (C) Rigorous or simple both
person gaining is entitled (D) Partly rigorous and partly simple
(D) All of the above ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q1825. Under Section 498-A ofIPCcruelty
Q1818. Which Section of Indian Penal Code includes—
defines ‗personation at elections‘? (A) Harassment of woman
(A) Section 171-A (B) Physical cruelty only
(B) Section 171-B (C) Mental cruelty only
(C) Section 171-C (D) All of the above
(D) Section 171-D ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1826. Under Indian Penal Code act of a child
Q1819. In which of the following cases the Privy under seven years of age is provided as an
Council made a distinction between ‗common exception—
intention‘ and ‗similar intention‘? (A) Section 80
(A) Barendra Kumar Ghose Vs. Emperor (B) Section 81
(B) Mahboob Shah Vs. King Emperor (C) Section 82
(C) Srinivasmal Barolia Vs. Emperor (D) Section 84
(D) Bannumal Vs. Emperor ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q1827. For ‗rioting‘ which one of the following
Q1820. The essential and chief ingredients of a is correct?
‗crime‘ are— (A) Actual force or violence must be used
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(B) Mere show of ‗force‘ is sufficient city where police caught them. What offence
(C) Mere possession of deadly weapon is sufficient has been committed by ‗A‘?
(D) All of the above (A) Kidnapping
ANS: (A) (B) No offence because B has gone with her own
consent
Q1828. Punishment for criminal conspiracy is (C) Abduction
provided in— (D) A is himself minor, hence A has committed no
(A) Section 120-B IPC offence
(B) Section 124 IPC ANS: (A)
(C) Section 120-A IPC
(D) Section 121-A IPC Q1835. Abetment is complete as soon as—
ANS: (A) (A) The abetor has instigated another to commit an
offence
Q1829. The maxim ―actus non facit reum, nisi (B) The person instigated has done some overt act
mens sit rea‖ means— towards the commission of the offence
(A) Crime has to be coupled with guilty mind (C) The offence abetted has been committed
(B) There can be no crime without a guilty mind (D) Both (B) and (C) of the above
(C) Crime is the result of guilty mind ANS: (A)
(D) Guilty mind leads to crime
ANS: (B) Q1836. Culpable homicide has been defined—
(A) Under Section 299 IPC
Q1830. A intending or knowing himself to be (B) Under Section 300 IPC
likely to disfigure Z‘s face permanently, gives Z (C) Under Section 302 IPC
a blow which does not permanently disfigure Z‘s (D) Under Section 304 IPC
face, but which causes Z to suffer severe bodily ANS: (A)
pain for the space of twenty days. What offence
has A committed? Q1837. A muslim goes to any country of the
(A) Attempt to murder world—
(B) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt (A) With his personal law
(C) Voluntarily causing hurt (B) Without his personal law
(D) Simple hurt (C) Leaving his personal law in his country
ANS: (B) (D) With an object of obeying the laws of the
country concern which includes personal law
Q1831. Promoting enmity between different ANS: (D)
groups on grounds of religion is punishable
under which Section of IPC? Q1838. Where a muslim male and a muslim
(A) Section 151 female contract their marriage under the
(B) Section 153 Special Marriage Act. 1954, muslim personal
(C) Section 153-A law—
(D) Section 153-B (A) Applies to such marriage
ANS: (D) (B) Does not apply
(C) Applies with some modifications
Q1832. A makes an attempt to pick the pocket (D) Applies with the Indian Contract Act.
of B, by thrusting his hand into B‘s pocket. A ANS: (B)
fails in the attempt in consequence of B‘s
having nothing in the pocket. A is guilty of— Q1839. Under the Shia Law, if the husband has
(A) No offence capacity to speak but announces Talak in
(B) Theft writing the Talak is—
(C) Attempt to theft (A) Valid
(C) Using criminal force (B) Voidable
ANS: (C) (C) Void
(D) Valid barring certain circumstances
Q1833. Under which Section of IPC punishment ANS: (C)
for ‗wrongful confinement‘ is provided?
(A) Section 339 Q1840. Under the Muslim Law, marriage is
(B) Section 340 regarded as a—
(C) Section 341 (A) Sacrament
(D) Section 342 (B) Contract
ANS: (D) (C) Social need
(D) Tradition
Q1834. A and B, both are 16 years of age. A ANS: (B)
entices B for marriage and takes her to another
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Q1841. The essential condition of a gift under (C) Divorce by mutual consent has been provided
Muslim Law is— under Sec. 13-A of the Hindu Marriage Act
(A) Declaration of the gift by the donor (D) A petition for divorce by mutual consent must
(B) Acceptance of the gift by the donee be presented within one year of marriage
(C) Delivery of possession of subject matter of the ANS: (B)
gift
(D) All the above Q1849. Match List-I and List–II and select the
ANS: (D) correct answer using the code given below the
lists— List-I
Q1842. Wakf can be made by— (a) Marriage between parties within degrees of
(A) A Muslim only prohibited relationship
(B) A Hindu only (b) Impotency
(C) Both Hindu and Muslim (c) Marriage between two sapindas of each other
(D) Neither by Hindu nor by Muslim (d) Pregnancy of wife at the time of marriage by
ANS: (A) some person other than the petitioner List–II 1.
Voidable 2. Void 3. Voidable 4. Void Code: (a) (b)
Q1843. Hanooman Prasad V/s Musammat (c) (d)
Babooee is a case on— (A) 2 1 4 3
(A) Powers of a Karta of the Hindu joint family (B) 2 3 1 4
(B) Avyavaharik debt (C) 2 1 3 4
(C) Power of adoption of a widow (D) 2 4 1 3
(D) None of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (A)
Q1850. Assertion (A): A bigamous marriage is
Q1844. Which section of the Hindu Marriage void under Hindu Law. Reason (R): A child born
Act, 1955 provides for conditions of marriage? out of void marriage is legitimate child of his
(A) Section 5 parents. Choose the correct answer by using the
(B) Section 9 code given below— Code:
(C) Section 10 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(D) Section 11 explanation of (A)
ANS: (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Q1845. In which section of the Hindu (A) is true but (R) is false
Succession Act, 1956 general rules of (A) is false but (R) is true
succession in the case of female Hindus is ANS: (A)
provided?
(A) Section 15 Q1851. Assertion (A): Extra judicial confession,
(B) Section 14 if voluntary, can be relied upon with other
(C) Section 18 evidence. Reason (R): Extra judicial confession
(D) Section 16 is a weak piece of evidence. Code:
ANS: (A) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
Q1846. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
force on— correct explanation of (A)
(A) 1st January, 1955 (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Ist May, 1955 (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) 26th January, 1955 ANS: (A)
(D) 18th May, 1955
ANS: (D) Q1852. Which one of the following sections of
the Evidence Act defines admission?
Q1847. Dastane V/s Dastane is a case on— (A) Section 16
(A) Adoption (B) Section 17
(B) Divorce (C) Section 20
(C) Marriage (D) None of these
(D) Maintenance ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1853. Which of the following does not find a
Q1848. Which one of the following is a correct mention as showing state of mind under Sec. 14
statement? of the Evidence Act?
(A) Divorce by mutual consent has been provided (A) Intention
under the Hindu Marriage Act, from its inception (B) Knowledge
(B) Divorce by mutual consent was introduced by (C) Motive
Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Act, 1976 (D) Good faith
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ANS: (C) (C) Section 115
(D) Section 123
Q1854. Which one of the following is not ANS: (D)
essential condition for admissibility of dying
declaration? Q1861. A fact neither proved nor disproved is
(A) Death of the person making dying declaration known as—
(B) Statement must be as to the cause of his death (A) Proved
(C) Person making statement was under (B) Disproved
expectation of death at the time he made the (C) Not proved
statement (D) Conclusive proof
(D) Statement is as to any of the circumstances of ANS: (C)
the transaction which resulted into his death
ANS: (C) Q1862. The case, Pakala Narain Swamy V/s
Emperor relates to—
Q1855. Under which of the following provisions (A) Doctrine of estoppel
of the Evidence Act the word ―forming part of (B) Dying declaration
the same transaction‖ occurs? (C) Accomplice
(A) Under Sec. 5 (D) Cross-examination
(B) Under Sec. 6 ANS: (B)
(C) Under Sec. 7
(D) Under Sec. 8 Q1863. Match List-I and List–II and select the
ANS: (B) correct answer using the code given below the
lists— List-I (Relevancy of facts)
Q1856. ―A‘s‖ death is caused due to negligent (a) Facts as effect of facts in issue
driving of ‗B‘. In the suit for damages against ‗B‘ (b) Facts forming part of same transaction
which of the following fact is not relevant? (c) Facts which constitute preparation for any
(A) The fact that ‗A‘ was an young man of 30 years fact in issue
(B) The fact that ‗A‘ was an young man with good (d) Facts necessary to explain or introduce
physique relevant facts List–II (Section of Evidence Acts)
(C) The fact that ‗A‘ had qualified in P.C.S. (J) 1. Sec. 9 2. Sec. 8 3. Sec. 7 4. Sec. 6 Code: (a) (b)
(D) The fact that ‗B‘ was in the habit of driving (c) (d)
negligently (A) 1 2 3 4
ANS: (C) (B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
Q1857. The provision relating to estoppel is (D) 2 3 1 4
contained in the Evidence Act in— ANS: (C)
(A) Section 115
(B) Section 117 Q1864. Which one of the following provisions of
(C) Section 118 the Evidence Act provides that previous bad
(D) Section 114 character of an accused is not relevant?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 54
(B) Section 52
Q1858. Presumption as to abetment to commit (C) Section 53
suicide by a married woman has been given— (D) Section 118
(A) Under Sec. 114 of the Evidence Act ANS: (A)
(B) Under Sec. 113-A of the Evidence Act
(C) Under Sec. 113-B of the Evidence Act Q1865. Which of the following section of the
(D) Under Sec. 112 of the Evidence Act Evidence Act says that confession caused by
ANS: (B) inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant?
(A) Section 25
Q1859. Which one of the following is not a (B) Section 26
public document? (C) Section 27
(A) An unregistered family settlement (D) None of these
(B) A registered sale deed ANS: (D)
(C) Judgement of a High Court
(D) Judgement of a Civil Judge Q1866. In which of the following cases it was
ANS: (A) held that Sec. 27 of the Evidence Act is an
exception to Sections 24, 25 and 26?
Q1860. Which Sec. of IndianEvidence Act is (A) Pakala Narain Swamy V/s King Emperor
based on the maxim SALUS POPULIEST (B) Inayatullah V/s State of Maharashtra
SUMREMA LEX? (C) State of U.P. V/s Deoman Upadhyay
(A) Section 119 (D) Kotayya V/s King Emperor
(B) Section 120 ANS: (D)
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(D) Sections 398
Q1867. A witness who is unable to speak, gives ANS: (C)
his evidence in writing in the open court,
evidence so given shall be deemed to be— Q1874. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an order
(A) Oral evidence from attachment of property of person
(B) Documentary evidence absconding may be passed at any time after the
(C) Primary evidence issue of the proclamation?
(D) Secondary evidence (A) Section 83
ANS: (A) (B) Section 82
(C) Section 84
Q1868. Any question suggesting the anwer (D) Section 85
which the person putting it wishes or expects to ANS: (A)
receive is called—
(A) Indecent question Q1875. Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides for
(B) Scandalous question confirmation by the High Court of an order of
(C) Question intended to annoy death sentence passed by Sessions Court prior
(D) Leading question to its execution?
ANS: (D) (A) Section 368
(B) Section 366
Q1869. Leading question— (C) Section 371
(A) May be asked in examination-in-chief (D) Section 369
(B) May be asked in cross-examination ANS: (B)
(C) May be asked in re-examination
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances Q1876. When the Sessions Judge or the High
ANS: (B) Court calls for to examine the record of any
proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it
Q1870. Which one of the following statements is is known as—
correct? (A) Reference
(A) Admissions can be oral only (B) Review
(B) Admissions can be documentary only (C) Revision
(C) Admissions can be oral or documentary (D) None of these
(D) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters ANS: (C)
admitted
ANS: (C) Q1877. Which one of the following orders can be
passed after the trial of a case is over?
Q1871. The facts, though not in issue, are so (A) Only an order of acquittal
connected with fact in issue, as to form part of (B) Only an order of conviction
same transaction are— (C) Order of discharge
(A) Relevant under the rule of res gestae (D) Either an order of acquittal or conviction
(B) Not relevant ANS: (D)
(C) Hearsay evidence
(D) Primary evidence Q1878. First Information Report—
ANS: (A) (A) Relates to cognizable or non-cognizable offence
(B) Is given to a Magistrate or Police Officer
Q1872. Admissions and confessions are— (C) Relates prima facie to a cognizable offence
1. Exception to the hearsay evidence (D) May be given to the District Magistrate
2. Part of hearsay evidence ANS: (C)
3. Form relevant evidence
4. Admitted in evidence on proof Select the Q1879. Under which Section of the Cr.P.Code
correct answer by using the code given below— anticipatory bail may be granted to a person
Code: apprehending his arrest?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (A) Section 438
(B) 1, 3 and 4 (B) Section 439
(C) 1 and 2 (C) Section 436
(D) 2 (D) Section 437
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q1873. Under which section of Cr.P.C. Sessions Q1880. Which of the following combinations are
Court exercises power of appeal from correctly matched?
convictions? 1. Made by a Magistrate Investigation
(A) Sections 372 2. Object is to collect evidence Inquiry
(B) Sections 397 3. Ordinarily second stage of Inquiry a criminal
(C) Sections 374 case
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4. It is not a judicial Investigation proceeding (D) Neither an Executive Magistrate nor a Judicial
Select the correct answer with the help of the Magistrate
code given below— Code: ANS: (C)
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3 Q1887. Under Section 482 Cr.P.C. inherent
(C) 3 and 4 powers can be exercised by—
(D) 2 and 4 (A) Sessions Court
ANS: (C) (B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) High Court
Q1881. Assertion (A): The purpose of criminal (D) Both by the High Court and Sessions Court
law is to prevent crimes. Reason (R): In certain ANS: (C)
situations even a private person can arrest
another person. Code: Q1888. The object of investigation is—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (A) To arrest the accused
explanation of (A) (B) To punish the accused
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (C) To collect evidence against the accused
correct explanation of (A) (D) None of these
(A) is true but (R) is false ANS: (C)
(A) is false but (R) is true
ANS: (A) Q1889. Which of the following offence is not
compoundable?
Q1882. An offence punishable with (A) Offence under Sec. 334 of I.P.C.
imprisonment for a term exceeding two years (B) Offence under Sec. 342 of I.P.C.
relates to— (C) Offence under Sec. 307 of I.P.C.
(A) Summon case (D) Offence under Sec. 506 of I.P.C.
(B) Warrant case ANS: (C)
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of these Q1890. Any dispute relating to possession of
ANS: (B) immovable property is decided by—
(A) Judicial Magistrate
Q1883. Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Police (B) Executive Magistrate
Officer can arrest a person without an order (C) Either by Judicial or Executive Magistrate
from a Magistate and without warrant? (D) Neither by Judicial nor Executive Magistrate
(A) Section 42 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 40
(C) Section 51
(D) Section 41
ANS: (D)
Q1891. Section 304 Cr.P.C. deals with—
(A) Protection to accused against double
Q1884. Under which section of the Cr.P.C. a
prosecution for the same offence
person who is avoiding execution of a warrant
(B) Legal aid to the accused at Sate expenses
may be proclaimed absconder?
(C) Withdrawal from prosecution
(A) Section 81
(D) Order to release on probation of good conduct
(B) Section 83
ANS: (B)
(C) Section 82
(D) Section 84
Q1892. Procedure for summary trial is provided
ANS: (C)
in which sections of the Cr.P.C.?
(A) Section 251 to Section 260
Q1885. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an
(B) Section 238 to Section 250
accused person can himself be a competent
(C) Section 260 to Section 265
witness?
(D) Section 255 to Section 265
(A) Section 315
ANS: (C)
(B) Section 300
(C) Section 313
Q1893. A conditional order for removal of public
(D) Section 317
nuisance under Sec. 133 Cr.P.C. may be passed
ANS: (A)
by—
(A) District Magistrate only
Q1886. Who among the following is authorised
(B) Sub-Divisional Magistrate only
to record a confessional statement under
(C) Executive Magistrate only
Section 164 Cr.P.C.?
(D) Any of the above Magistrates
(A) A Police Officer
ANS: (D)
(B) An Executive Magistrate
(C) A Judicial Magistrate
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Q1894. In which of the following cases it was
held by the Supreme Court that Sec. 125 Cr.P.C. Q1901. The court can record demeanour of a
was applicable to all irrespective of their witness under which section of criminal
religion? procedure code?
(A) Mohd. Ahmed Khan V/s Shah Bano Begum (A) Section 280
(B) Mohd. Umar Khan V/s Gulshan Begum (B) Section 279
(C) Subana alias Saira Banu V/s A.M. Abdul Gafoor (C) Section 278
(D) Sirajmohamed Khan V/s Hafizunnissa Yaseen (D) Section 281
Khan ANS: (A)
ANS: (A)
Q1902. Provision relating to the prosecution of
Q1895. Which section the Cr.P. Code provides Public servants is given in—
that a person once convicted or acquitted (A) Section 196 Cr.P.C.
cannot be tried again for the same offence? (B) Section 197 Cr.P.C.
(A) Section 304 (C) Section 198 Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 300 (D) Section 198-A Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 321 ANS: (B)
(D) Section 302
ANS: (B) Q1903. A spits over B. A would be liable for the
offence of—
Q1896. Which of the following sentence may be (A) Annoyance
passed by a Magistrate of Second Class? (B) Assault
(A) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two (C) Using criminal force
years (D) Defamation
(B) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year ANS: (B)
(C) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding six
months Q1904. A, a creditor takes movable property out
(D) Only a fine not exceeding five thousand rupees of B‘s (debtor) prossession without his consent
ANS: (B) with the intention to coerce him to pay his
debt. A is—
Q1897. Who can withdraw a case from (A) Guilty of theft
prosecution under Sec. 321 Cr.P.C.? (B) Guilty of extortion
(A) The State Government (C) Not guilty
(B) The Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case with (D) Guilty of robbery
the permission of the Court ANS: (A)
(C) The Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case even
without permssion of the Court Q1905. Assertion (A): Rape is a stigma on a
(D) All the above woman, hence is a punishable offence. Reason
ANS: (B) (R): Sexual intercourse by a man with his wife is
not rape. Code:
Q1898. Point out the incorrect response under (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
the Cr.P.C.— explanation of (A)
(A) Inquiry is conducted by a Court (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(B) Inquiry is conducted after framing of the charge correct explanation of (A)
(C) Inquiry is conducted prior to framing of the (A) is true but (R) is false
charge (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) Inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1906. The Indian Penal Code, 1860 came into
Q1899. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a— force on—
(A) Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years (A) 6th October, 1860
(B) Sentence for life imprisonment (B) 6th December, 1860
(C) Death sentence (C) 1st January, 1861
(D) Sentence of imprisonment exceeding 7 years (D) 1st January, 1862
ANS: (A) ANS: (D)

Q1900. When the Criminal Procedure Code 1973 Q1907. Two brothers were abusing each other
came into force? on a public road without actual fight. A large
(A) On April 1, 1973 crowd gathered and there was a traffic jam. The
(B) On April 1, 1974 two brothers are guilty of—
(C) On January 1, 1974 1. Affray
(D) On March 1, 1974 2. Riot
ANS: (B) 3. Mischief
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4. None of the above Find out the correct Q1913. In which of the following cases, Sec. 303
answer by using the code given below— Code: I.P.C. was declared unconstitutional?
(A) 1 and 2 (A) Sita Ram V/s State of M.P.
(B) 2 and 3 (B) Darshan Singh V/s State of Punjab
(C) 1 (C) Mithoo Singh V/s State of Punjab
(D) 4 (D) Mahabir Ghose V/s State of Tamil Nadu
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q1908. X and Y were about to travel from Q1914. A by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt
Jammu Tawi to Delhi by the same train. Y had dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix his seal on
two tickets from P