Anatomy & Physiology
Nervous System
Unipolar neuron – in this type, the cell body lies to one side, with
a single process leading off from one side of the body.
Afferent neuron – this neuron conducts impulses to the spinal
cord and brain.
Efferent neuron – this neuron conducts impulses away from the
spinal cord and brain.
Interneuron – this neuron lies between two or more neurons.
Visceral afferent – this neuron takes impulses to the CNS from
the organs.
Somatic efferent – this neuron carries impulses to skeletal
muscles.
Ependymal cells – maintain the blood-brain barrier.
Astrocytes – produce, circulate, and monitor the cerebrospinal
fluid.
Microglia – engulf dead cells and cellular remnants in the CNS.
Oligodendrocytes – form thin sheaths around the axon of
neurons in the CNS that serve as insulation.
Schwann cells – form thin sheaths the axon of neurons in the
PNS that serve as insulation.
Satellite cells – surround the collections of cell bodies of neurons
(ganglions) lying outside the CNS.
Teleceptors – receptors concerned with events at a distance.
Exteroceptors – receptors concerned with events near at hand.
Proprioceptors – receptors that give information about the body
in space at any given instant.
Chemoreceptors – receptors stimulated by a change in the
chemical decomposition of the environment.
Nociceptors – receptors that respond to pain.
Interoceptors – receptors concerned with the internal
environment.
Specificity theory – pain is a separate sensory modality that is
perceived when specific pain receptors are stimulated and
transmitted to pain centers located in the brain.
Pattern theory – pain receptors share endings or pathways with
other sensory modalities, and the kind of impulses in the same
neuron determines if the sensation perceived is pain or another
sensation.
Gate-control theory – a special mechanism at the spinal segment
in which all sensory neurons enter the cord; modifies pain
sensations with possibilities of interaction between pain and
other sensation.
Limbic system – involved with creation of emotions, sexual
behavior, fear and rage, motivation, and processing of memory.
Thalamus – sensory relay station.
Hypothalamus – secretes various stimulatory and inhibitory
hormones into the blood.
Basal ganglia – planning and programming of movement; lesion
in this region causes Parkinson’s disease.
Cerebellum – smoothes and coordinates movement by
comparing the motor plan with what is actually happening.
Vestibular apparatus – orientation of the body in space; detects
sensations such as acceleration, deceleration, and rotation.
Reticular formation – responsible for the conscious, alert state of
the body.
Brainstem – passage where ascending and descending tracts
synapse and/or pass through.
The major nerve plexus in the body are the cervical, brachial,
lumbar, and sacral.
Three examples of neurotransmitters are adrenaline,
noradrenaline, and serotonin.
The two major subdivisions of the autonomic system are the
sympathetic and the parasympathetic.
The response produced by the sympathetic division can be
described as the fight-or-flight response.
The neurotransmitter secreted by the ends of postganglionic
sympathetic fibers is noradrenaline, and that secreted by the
post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers in acetylcholine.
The hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are adrenaline
and noradrenaline.
The sympathetic division is also known as the thoracolumbar.
The parasympathetic division is known as the hypoglossal nerve
outflow.
Endocrine System
1. All of the following hormones are secreted by the anterior
pituitary gland EXCEPT
- Thyroxine.
2. All of the following hormones have an effect on the breasts
EXCEPT
- Aldosterone.
3. Which of the following hormones may be the cause of
Seasonal Affective Disorder?
- Melatonin
4. Which of the hormones causes an increase in the basal
metabolic rate?
- Thyroxine
5. Which of the following organs is involved in the destruction of
hormones?
- Liver
6. What is the function of insulin?
- Increase glucose uptake by cells
7. A decrease in secretion of antidiuretic hormone will result in
- Diabetes mellitus
8. Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT
-Exophthalmos
9. In general, hormonal secretion may be stimulated by all of the
following EXCEPT
- Genetic makeup
10. In the stress response following injury, all of the following
occurs EXCEPT
- Discharge in parasympathetic nerves
The hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are epinephrine
and norepinephrine.
The hormones of the pituitary gland, which regulate the ovaries
and testes, are Follicle stimulating hormone and Luteinizing
hormone.
Two hormones that have an effect on the breast are oxytocin
and prolactin.
Antidiuretic hormone is also known as vasopressin.
Erythropoietin – a decrease in partial pressure of oxygen in the
atmosphere.
Aldosterone – decrease in blood volume
Oxytocin – dilation of the cervix during labor.
Thyroxine – exposure to cold
Thyroid-stimulating hormone – lack of iodine in the diet.
Insulin – increase in blood glucose levels.
Parathormone – decrease in blood calcium levels.
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
1. During pregnancy, all of the following occur EXCEPT
- The motility of the small intestine increases.
2. During menopause, all the following occur EXCEPT
- The ovaries become hypertensive to
gonadotropins.
3. The reproductive organs that produce gametes and hormones
are
- Gonads
4. Before leaving the body, the sperm travel from the testis to the
- Epididymis – ductus deferens – ejaculatory duct –
urethra
5. In the male, the accessory glands are the
- Seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral
glands
6. The specific cord is a structure that includes the
- Ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and
lymphatics
7. Powerful, rhythmic contractions of the pelvic floor result in
- Ejaculation
8. The three pairs of supporting ligaments that stabilize the
position of the uterus and limit its range of movement are
- Uterosacral, round, and, lateral
9. The most dangerous period in prenatal or postnatal life is the
- First trimester
10. Organs and organ systems complete most of their
development during the
- Second trimester
11. Blood flows to and from the placenta via
- Paired umbilical arteries and a single umbilical vein
12. A cell from a normal male will contain ___ sex chromosomes,
while a cell from a normal female will contain ___.
- XY and XX
Ectopic pregnancy - a pregnancy in which the embryo begins to
develop outside of the uterus
Myometrium – the middle layer of the uterus
Clitoris – the small body of erectile tissue homologous to the
male glans penis
Stretching of the cervix results in the release of oxytocin from the
posterior pituitary gland at the time of labor.
Nutrition and excretion from the fetus are functions attributed
to the placenta.
The three gland(s) that secrete their products into the male
reproductive tract are the seminal vesicles, prostate, and
bulbourethral glands.
Cremaster – layer of skeletal muscle that contracts and pulls the
testis closer to the body.
Fornix – the shallow recess that surrounds the cervix as it
protrudes into the vagina.
Prepuce – the fold of skin that surrounds the glans penis.
Fimbriae – the fingerlike projections on the infundibulum that
extend into the pelvic cavity.
Acrosome – the tip of the sperm that contains enzymes that play
a role in fertilization.
Seminiferous tubules – the part of the male reproductive tract
that manufactures sperm
the Corpus luteum – the endocrine structure formed after ovulation
by degenerated follicular cells.
Inguinal canals – the narrow canals linking the scrotal chambers
with the peritoneal cavity.
Clitoris – the female equivalent of the penis.
Hymen – then thin epithelial fold that partially or completely
blocks the vagina entrance prior to sexual activity.
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1. The blood volume in a young adult is
- 4-6 liters
2. The normal blood pH range is
- 7.35-7.45
3. All of the following hormone regulate blood pressure EXCEPT
- Thyroxine
4. Which of the following plasma substances most contributes to
blood osmotic pressure?
- Plasma proteins
5. Which blood cells actively participate in blood clotting?
- Platelets
6. The hormone that increases production of red blood cells is
- Erythropoietin
7. A person who is blood group O+ has the following antibodies In cardiac muscle, the intercalated disks help convey the force of
EXCEPT contraction and impulses from one cell to another.
- Rh antibodies
Cardiac output is equal to stroke volume x heart rate.
8. Which white blood cells constitute the largest percentage in a
healthy individual? The first heart sound is a result of the closure of the
- Neutrophils atrioventricular valves.

9. Which white blood cells are involved in allergic reactions and Physical conditioning causes a(n) decrease in heart rate. The
parasitic infestations? maximal cardiac output is increased. The capillary network in the
- Eosinophils skeletal muscle increased and the blood pressure may be
decreased.
10. Platelets are formed in the
- Bone marrow The hormone adrenaline increases the heart rate and force of
contraction.
11. All of the following are examples of anticoagulants EXCEPT
- Vitamin K The arteries and veins are blood vessels that transport blood.
Exchange can only take place in capillaries.
12. A person with a high hemoglobin level is said to have
- Polycythemia The type of blood vessels with the highest percentage of smooth
muscle in their wall and greatest resistance to blood flow are
13. In a healthy adult, the approximate volume of blood pumped arterioles
out by the heart in 1 minute is
-5L Three hormones that produce vasoconstriction are adrenaline,
angiotensin II, and vasopressin.
14. The blood vessel(s) that carries oxygenated blood from the
lungs to the left atrium is the The major veins that drain into the right atrium are the inferior
- Pulmonary vein vena cava and superior vena cava.

15. The valve that prevents backflow of blood into the right Bilirubin – a pigment derived from red blood cells.
atrium is the
- Tricuspid valve Agglutination – clumping of red blood cells.

16. In the ECG, ventricular depolarization is denoted by the Coagulation – a process where fibrinogen gets converted to fibrin
- QRS complex
Rh factor – a type of antigen on the surface of red blood cells
17. The cardiac centers are located in the
- Medulla oblongata Thrombocytes – another term for platelets.

18. The first branches of the aorta are the Thrombosis – formation of blood clot in the walls of blood
- Coronary arteries vessels.

19. In a healthy adult, the blood pressure measured in the left Aortic valve – valve between aorta and left ventricle
ventricle during ventricular contraction will be about
- 120 mm Hg Pulmonary valve – valve between pulmonary trunk and right
ventricle
20. The pressure wave that expands the walls of the arteries is
felt as the Tricuspid valve – valve between the right atrium and right
- Pulse ventricle

21. Cardiac output in increase by all of the following conditions Mitral valve – valve between the left atrium and left ventricle
EXCEPT
- Low body temperature
LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
22. The vessels responsible for most of the resistance that
opposes blood flow in the circulation are the 1. The function of the lymphatic system includes all of the
- Arterioles following EXCEPT
- Producing red and white blood cells
23. The vessels where exchange of nutrients occur are the
- Capillaries 2. Humoral immunity primarily affects
- Pathogens located intracellulary
Old red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the organs
spleen, liver and bone marrow. 3. Peyer’s patches are found in the
- Distal ileum
The globin part of hemoglobin is converted into amino acid and
recycled. 4. The functions of the lymph nodes include all of the following
EXCEPT
The heme part is broken into the metal iron, and a pigment - Storing protein
bilirubin. Excess production of this pigment is responsible for the
condition jaundice. 5. The axillary lymph nodes drain lymph from all of the following
regions EXCEPT the
The heart is wedged between the two lungs in the mediastinum - Abdomen
of the thorax. 6. The functions of the spleen include all of the following EXCEPT
The pericardium is a serous membrane that surrounds the heart. - Producing bile
7. On comparing the primary and secondary immune responses,
the secondary immune response
- May be elicited years after the first antigen exposure
8. Examples of nonspecific immunity include all of the following
EXCEPT
- Antibody production
The two major body fluid compartments are the intracellular and
extracellular compartments. The extracellular compartment
consists of the interstitial and vascular compartments.
Edema is a condition in which there is excessive fluid in the
interstitial fluid compartment.
The forces that result in movement of fluid into the capillaries
include the intravascular osmotic pressure and interstitial
hydrostatic pressure. An increase in the hydrostatic pressure
inside the capillaries will result in fluid movement out of the
capillaries.
The components of the lymphatic system include lymph vessels,
lymph, and lymph organs or lymphocytes.
Inguinal – is the lymph node group located in the upper part of
the thigh.
Macrophages – are modified monocytes of the circulation that
have wandered into the tissue.
The principle factors that help return lymph from tissue to the
blood vessels in the neck are presence of one-way valves,
passive and active movement of skeletal muscles, pulsation of
adjacent arteries, and respiratory movements.
Histamine – a substance secreted by mast cells that produces
vasodilation.
Antibodies – glycoproteins that circulate in the blood as part of
the globulin fraction.
- also known as innumoglobulins.
T cells – lymphocytes that are process by the thymus.
Phagocytes – white blood cells that are capable of engulfing
microorganisms.
Cytokines – small protein hormones that can inhibit or facilitate
normal cell functions such as cell growth and differentiation.
Complement system – includes a number of inactive enzymes
Antigens – substances recognized by the body as foreign that
stimulate immune responses.
Plasma cells – cells capable of producing antibodies
Major histocompatibility complex (MCC) – antigens that help
lymphocytes recognize cells belonging to self.
Natural killer cells – cells that recognize other cells that are
foreign and destroys them.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following EXCEPT
- Trachea
2. The effects of age on the respiratory system include all of the
following EXCEPT
- The ciliary action of the lining of the respiratory tract
increases.
3. The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is affected by changes in
all of the following EXCEPT
- Calcium ion levels in plasma
4. Chronic smoking can produce
- A decrease in surface area for exchange
5. When a person exercises, all of the following happen EXCEPT
- The increase in pH increase respiratory depth and
rate
6. Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by
the
-Upper respiratory tract
7. The function of the nasal conchae is
- To create a turbulence in the air to trap small
particles
8. The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the
- Alveoli
9. The partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary arterial blood
is
-The same as that in the right atrium
10. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the aorta is
- The same as that in the pulmonary vein
11. Each of the following muscles can elevate the ribs EXCEPT the
- External oblique
Tidal volume – the volume of air taken in with each inspiration
during normal breathing
Residual volume – the volume of air remaining in the lungs at the
end of forced expiration.
Vital capacity – the volume of air breathed out completely after
maximal inspiration.
Forced expiratory volume - the amount of vital capacity that can
be forced out in one second
Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as bicarbonate,
dissolved in plasma, and carbaminohemoglobin.
The main chemical changes in the blood that stimulate
respiration are an increase in hydrogen ion, an increase in
carbon dioxide, and a decrease in oxygen levels.
The respiratory centers are located in the pons and the medulla
oblongata.
Dead space air - the volume of air present in the conducting part
of the respiratory system
Nasopharynx: adenoids, orifice for the auditory tube
Nasal cavity: opening for the frontal sinus, olfactory epithelium
Larynx: thyroid cartilage
Lungs: cell secreting surfactant, bronchioles, alveoli
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
1. The layers of the wall of the GI tract outwards from the lumen
are the
- Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa
2. Which of the following is an important constituent of
hemoglobin?
- Iron
3. Absence of which of the following results in pernicious
anemia?
- Vitamin B12
4. All of the following are functions of the liver EXCEPT
- Insulin secretion
5. The conversion of glucose to glycogen is known as
- Glycogenesis
6. The inorganic nutrients needed in minute amounts to maintain
normal growth and metabolisms are
- Vitamins
7. The breakdown of glucose into two pyruvic acid molecules is
known as
- Glycolysis
8. The metabolic rate can be increased by all of the following
EXCEPT
- Parasympathetic stimulation
9. The largest internal organ is the
- Liver
10. The type of innervation associated with the large intestine
is/are
- Sympathetic nerves and parasympathetic nerves
11. The cecum is associated with the
- Large intestine
12. The three pairs of salivary glands that secret into the oral
cavity are the
- Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular
13. A substance absorbed into the lacteals of the lymphatic
system within the small intestine walls is
- Fat
The visceral peritoneum covers the organs and the parietal
peritoneum lines the inside of the abdominal cavity.
Peristalsis - the wave of muscular contractions that travels the
length of the digestive tract
The activities of the digestive system are controlled by nerves,
hormones, and local mechanisms.
The feeding center and the satiety centers are located in the
hypothalamus.
Of the various nutrients, proteins are constituents of muscles,
enzymes, and antibodies. Carbohydrates are the main source of
energy, and fats are needed for formation of steroid hormones.
Deglutition – the process of swallowing
Defacation – the elimination of waste products from the GI tract
Monosaccharides – end product of carbohydrate digestion
Amino acids – end product of protein digestion
Fatty acid and Glycerol – end product of fat digestion
Gluconeogenesis – the formation of glucose from
non-carbohydrate sources.
The three parts of the small intestine are duodenum, jejunum,
and ileum.
Approximately 30% of fat, 15% of protein, and 50% - 55% of
carbohydrates are normally required in the daily diet.
Rectum – stores feces
Stomach – has the lowest pH
Pancreas – secretes insulin
Gallbladder – stores and concentrates bile
Esophagus – muscular tube that conducts food to the stomach
Liver – manufactures bile
Colon – semisolid waste is formed here
Pharynx - a common passageway for air and food
Appendix – contains lymphoid tissue, has no particular function
in humans.
Duodenum – duct from the pancreas opens here
URINARY SYSTEM
1. A person on a new health regimen drinks 250 mL of water, 5 to
8 times a day. His body would respond to this change by
- Increased urinary output
2. Which of the following is a normal constituent of urine?
- Urea
3. The function of the urinary bladder is to
- Store urine
4. The primary nutrient reabsorption site in the nephron is
- Proximal convoluted tubule
5. We become consciously aware of increasing pressure in the
urinary bladder as a result of sensations relayed to the
- Cerebral cortex
The components of the urinary system include the kidneys,
ureters, urethra, and urinary bladder.
The right kidney is located at a lower because of the presence of
the liver.
Nephron - the functional unit of the kidney
The three processes involved in urine formation are filtration,
absorption, and secretion. Of these, secretion involves selective
return of valuable substances from the tubular fluid into blood.
20% - 25% of cardiac output passes through the kidney each
minute. This is approximately 1200 mL/min.
Two hormones secreted by the kidney are Erythropoietin and
renin. The hormone erythropoietin regulates red blood cell
production in the bone marrow, and the hormone renin effect
blood pressure.
Two other hormones that affect the kidney are antidiuretic
hormone (ADH), secreted by the posterior pituitary and helps
conserve water, and aldosterone, secreted by the adrenal
medulla and affect sodium reabsorption.
Renal Fascia – the outermost layer of connective tissue that
anchors the kidney to the abdominal wall
Renal Calyx – the part of the urinary tract into which urine drains
from the collecting ducts.
Juxtaglomerular apparatus – the structure in the kidney that
contains cell that secretes erythropoietin and renin
Juxtamedullary nephrons – the nephrons that contain long loops
of Henle
Proximal convoluted tubule – the part of the nephron that
absorbs most of the water.
Collecting duct – the part of the nephron that is affected by
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Nephrology – the study of kidneys.
TRUE or FALSE
NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. A decrease in body temperature makes the neurons move
excitable. FALSE
2. Impulses are conducted faster in myelinated neurons. TRUE
3. Impulses travel faster in those neurons that have thicker
axons. TRUE
4. Neurons have the capacity to regenerate. FALSE
5. It is possible for neurons to recover if the pressure applied to a
neuron is released after a few hours. TRUE
6. If the cut ends of an axon are placed in close contact with each
other, chance of recovery is high. TRUE
7. Damaged neurons in the CNS recover more easily than those in
the PNS. FALSE
8. Neurons rely on aerobic metabolism for their survival. TRUE
9. All sensations enter the spinal cord ventrally. FALSE
10. Body parts with more sensory receptors per unit are can
discriminate two stimuli placed close to each other better than
those regions with less sensory receptors. TRUE
11. Each sense organ or sensory receptor can convert many
forms of energy into action potentials in the sensory nerves.
FALSE
12. Each sensation has a discrete pathway to the brain. TRUE
13. The sensation perceived and the ability to localize which part
of the body it originated from is determined by the particular
part of the sensory cortex activated by the impulse. TRUE
14. Differences in sensation intensity are determined by changes
in the frequency of action potentials. TRUE
15. A typical spinal nerve may carry motor, sensory, and
autonomic nerve fibers. TRUE
16. The muscle spindle is a receptor that detects changes in joint
movement. FALSE
17. Muscle spindles are innervated by both sensory and motor
nerve fibers. TRUE
18. Muscle spindles are the receptors involved in stretch reflexes.
TRUE
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
1. Hormones that are fat-soluble may enter the target cells
before acting in a specific manner. TRUE
2. Cells may have receptors for more than one hormone. TRUE
3. Hormones affect only the cells that have receptors for them.
TRUE
4. The secretion of antidiuretic hormone would be increased
after drinking 2 liters of water. FALSE
5. Calcitonin promotes bone reabsorption. FALSE
6. Deficiency of thyroid hormones from birth causes low mental
ability. TRUE
7. In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, the large volume of urine
excreted is principally a result of the lack of secretion of
antidiuretic hormone. FALSE
8. In a normal person, the secretion of insulin is depressed by
high blood glucose levels. FALSE
9. Hypothalamus functions include regulation of the pituitary
gland, hunger, and thirst. TRUE
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
1. Breast milk release is a direct result of prolactin secretion.
FALSE
2. Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates the contraction of
uterine smooth muscles. TRUE
3. The prostate gland is a paired gland. FALSE
4. Sperm accounts for 20% of the ejaculate volume. FALSE
5. Penile erectile tissue includes the corpus cavernosa and corpus
spongiosum. TRUE
6. Both ejaculation and erection are reflex actions. TRUE
7. The prostate and seminal vesicles produce estrogens. FALSE
8. The mammary gland is synonymous to the breasts. TRUE
9. Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days prior to the beginning
of the next menstrual cycle. TRUE
10. Vasectomy does not affect masculinity. TRUE
11. Breaking of the bag of waters refers to rupture of the amnion.
TRUE
12. Male infertility may result from a sperm count of less than 40
million sperm/mL. TRUE
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1. Coagulation is an antigen-antibody process. FALSE
2. For clotting to occur, many factors found in the platelets,
plasma, or other tissue fluids are required. TRUE
3. Type B blood group individuals have antibodies against B
antigens in the plasma. FALSE
4. A person who is of Rh+ group has the Rh antigen on the red
blood cells. TRUE
5. Under normal circumstances, the plasma of a person who is
Rh- has antibodies against Rh antigen. FALSE
6. The conducting system of the heart includes the sinoatrial
node, atrioventricular node, and the Purkinje fibers. TRUE
7. The ECG is a recording of the muscle contractions of the heart.
FALSE
8. The pressure in the right ventricle is more than that in the left
ventricle. FALSE
9. The apex beat is a result of the closer of the atrioventricular
valves. FALSE
10. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves causes an increase in
force of ventricular contraction. TRUE
11. If the heart is removed from the body and coronary
circulation is maintained together with the temperature, oxygen,
and nutrients required, it is possible for the heart to continue
beating. TRUE
12. The sympathetic nerves to the heart, if stimulated, alow the
heart rate and force of contraction. FALSE
13. The apex beat is the sound heard during ventricular
contraction. FALSE
14. The stroke volume is the volume of blood pumped out of the
heart per minute. FALSE
15. The pulse is produced by the closure of the aortic and
pulmonary artery. FALSE
16. Systolic pressure is the pressure measured during ventricular
contraction. TRUE
LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
1. Infection can be acquired through direct physical contact with
an infected person, injection into the skin by insects, and direct
penetration of the skin by the infectious agent. TRUE
2. Opportunistic pathogens are organisms that affect a healthy
individual if given the slightest opportunity. FALSE
3. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure is generated by protein
and other particles located in the interstitial compartment. TRUE
4. Lymphocytes are manufactured in the bone marrow. TRUE
5. The thoracic duct drains lymph from the right upper limb.
FALSE
6. The spleen is located in the right upper quadrant of the
abdomen. FALSE
7. Histamine causes local vasoconstriction. FALSE
8. Passive immunity is when a modified antigen is injected to
provoke an immune reaction. FALSE
9. AIDS can be transmitted by sharing household items, such as
clothes, with the infected individual. FALSE
10. Allergy is an inappropriate, excessive, or abnormal response
to antigens. TRUE
11. Lymphatic vessels have one-way valves. TRUE
12. Lymph vessels communicate directly with adjacent blood
vessels. FALSE
13. Each lymph capillary originates as a blind-ended tube. TRUE
14. The clinical characteristics of acute inflammation include
pain, redness, swelling, and heat. TRUE
15. Antibodies are highly specific proteins also known as
immunoglobulins. TRUE
RESPIRATPRY SYSTEM
1. During quiet breathing, there is more muscular work involved
when breathing in than when breathing out. TRUE
2. As blod passes through the lungs, the CO2 released into the
alveoli is mainly carried as bicarbonate ions. TRUE
3. After oxygenation in the lungs, the blood returns to the heart
via the pulmonary arteries. FALSE
4. The trachea is located anterior to the esophagus. TRUE
5. Increase in stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the smooth
muscles of the bronchiole will result in bronchoconstriction.
FALSE
6. As the volume of the thoracic cavity increases the pressure
inside it increases. FALSE
7. Nitrogen gas contributes most to the atmospheric pressure.
TRUE
8. If the atmospheric pressure is 735 mm Hg and the oxygen in
the atmosphere is 21%, the partial pressure of oxygen in the
atmosphere is 160 mm Hg. FALSE
9. Factors that affect the rate at which a gas diffuses across a
membrane include the difference in concentration of the gas on
the two sides of the membrane, the solubility coefficient of the
gas, and the surface area of the membrane. TRUE
10. When the hemoglobin caries all the oxygen it can hold, it is
considered to be fully saturated. TRUE
11. Carbon monoxide has a greater affinity for hemoglobin than
oxygen. TRUE
12. Of the total amount of air that enters the lungs with each
breath, about 50% actually enters the alveoli. FALSE
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
1. Saliva contains enzymes that begin the digestion of
carbohydrates and fats. TRUE
2. The function of the large intestine is to absorb water and
electrolytes from the chyme. TRUE
3. The digestion of starch occurs mainly in the stomach. FALSE
4. Vitamin A, D, E, and K are water-soluble vitamins. FALSE
5. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin C.
FALSE
6. The preferred energy source for the brain is polysaccharides.
FALSE
7. The epiglottis prevents food from entering the nasal cavity
during swallowing. FALSE
URINARY SYSTEM
1. Blood from the glomerular capillaries flow into arterioles, not
into venules. TRUE
2. A person taking diuretics is likely to excrete larger volume of
urine. TRUE
3. A ureter is a tube that conveys urine from the urinary bladder
to the exterior of the body. FALSE

4. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) decreases the permeability of

distal and collecting tubules to water and, thereby, increases
urinary volume. FALSE

5. The glomerular capsule and the blood vessels it encloses

constitute a renal corpuscle. TRUE

6. Most water reabsorption normally takes place in the proximal

convoluted tubule. TRUE

7. The short, female urethra makes women more prone to

urinary tract infection. TRUE

8. There is so significant change in the glomerular filtration rates

as one age. FALSE

9. Massage has the potential to increase urinary output. TRUE

10. The urinary bladder can be palpated above the pubic bone in
normal, healthy individuals. FALSE